RELEASED EXAMINATION

PART l ANATOMIC SCIENCES (11)

MONDAY - A.M. BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY (12)
DECEMBER 1998

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COPYRIGHT 1998
JOINT COMMISSION ON NATIONAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
AMERICAN DENTAL ASSOCIATION
211 EAST CHICAGO AVENUE, CHICAGO, ILLINOIS 60611
1. Which of the following does a human normally 7. Submucosal glands are usually located in the
possess before birth but not after?
A. colon.
A. Fossa ovalis B. jejunum.
B. Hepatic vein C. appendix.
C. Ligamentum teres D. duodenum.
D. Ductus arteriosus E. fundus of the stomach.
E. Crista terminalis

8. The sensory innervation to the posterior third of

2. The core of a microvillus consists of which of the the tongue reflects the embryonic origin of its
following? covering epithelium from the

A. 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules A. occipital somites.

B. 9 triplets of microtubules B. first pharyngeal (branchial) arch.
C. Intermediate filaments C. second pharyngeal (branchial) arch.
D. Vimentin filaments D. third pharyngeal (branchial) arch.
E. Microfilaments E. fourth pharyngeal (branchial) arch.

3. Which of the following organelles is the site of 9. After a right side radical mastoid operation, a
protein synthesis? patient has facial distortion and the mouth is
drawn upward to the left. He is unable to close
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum his right eye. Saliva tends to accumulate in his
B. Membrane bound vesicles right cheek and dribble out of the corner of his
C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum mouth. Which of the following nerves MOST
D. Mitochondrion likely was damaged during the operation?
E. Golgi complex
A. Vagus
B. Facial
4. In adults, the thyroid gland's point of origin is C. Trigeminal
seen as the D. Hypoglossal
E. Glossopharyngeal
A. copula.
B. tuberculum impar.
C. sulcus terminalis.
D. palatine tonsil.
E. foramen cecum. 10. The blood-testis barrier is maintained by

A. spermatogonia.
5. Which of the following triangles is formed by the B. spermatocytes.
superior belly of the omohyoid muscle, the C. Sertoli cells.
anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid D. Leydig cells.
muscle, and the posterior belly of the digastric E. myoepithelial cells.
muscle?

A. Superclavicular
B. Submandibular
C. Digastric 11. A patient's pain from the temporomandibular
D. Muscular joint was referred to the skin over the parotid
E. Carotid region and to the side of the head. This referral
pattern is based on the distribution of which of
the following nerves?
6. Sensations from the left face and teeth are
interpreted in which of the following lobes?
A. Auriculotemporal
B. Greater auricular
A. Left frontal C. Temporal branch of the facial
B. Right frontal D. Superior alveolar
C. Left parietal E. Inferior alveolar
D. Right parietal
E. Right temporal
12. The temporomandibularjoint capsule is supplied 17. Infections or neoplasms that spread by
by several nerves. Two of these are the lymphatics from the skin of the angle of the
auriculotemporal and the mouth MOST likely pass to which of the
following lymph nodes?
A. facial.
B. buccal. A. Lingual
C. maxillary. B. Submental
D. masseteric. C. Submandibular
E. inferior alveolar. D. Anterior cervical
E. Superficial cervical

13. If the needle is advanced too far posteriorly

during an inferior alveolar block injection, 18. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head
anesthesia of the mandibular teeth will NOT have their cell bodies in the
occur, because the needle has entered the
A. paravertebral ganglia.
A. parotid gland. B. cervicothoracic ganglia.
B. pterygoid space. C. superior cervical ganglia.
C. inferior alveolar canal. D. gray rami communicantes of the thoracic
D, medial pterygoid muscle. region.
E. superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle. E. intermediolateral horns of the thoracic
spinal cord.

14. Meiosis occurs in

A. ductus epididymis.
8. uriniferous tubules. 19. In the posterior mediastinum, the thoracic duct
C. seminiferous tubules. usually lies
D. stratum germinativum.
E. germinal epithelium of ovary. A. anterior to the phrenic nerves.
B. posterior to the esophagus.
C. on the anterolateral surface of trachea.
15. The cell bodies of proprioceptive nerves carrying
information from the periodontal ligaments are
located in the

A. nucleus ambiguus. 20. Which of the following veins is formed by the

B. trigeminal ganglion. union of the internal jugular and subclavian
C. spinal nucleus of V. veins?
D. main sensory nucleus of V.
E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.
A. Superior vena cava
B. Brachiocephalic
C. Pulmonary
D. Cephalic
E. Azygos

16. Which of the following are two muscles that

prevent food from entering the nasopharynx
during swallowing?
21. Which of the following is the MOST numerous
A. Mylohyoid and the palatoglossus cell type in the normal dental pulp?
B. Styloglossus and the palatoglossus
C. Tensor tympani and the stylopharyngeus
Tensor veli palatini and the levator veli A. Adipocyte
D.
palatini B. Mast cell
E. Musculus uvulae and the inferior C. Fibroblast
pharyngeal constrictor D. Macrophage
E. Odontoblast
22. The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial 28. The hepatic triad consists of which of the
vault through the following?

A. foramen ovate. A. Central vein, hepatic vein, and bile duct

€3. foramen lacerum. B. Portal vein, bile duct, and hepatic artery
C. foramen rotundum. C. Portal vein, bile canaliculi, and hepatic vein
D. foramen spinosum. D. Central vein, bile canaliculi, and hepatic
E. superior orbital fissure. artery
E. Hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and bile duct

23. Which of the following structures is

retroperitoneal?

A. Spleen 29. Which of the following represents a popular

B. Kidney theory for the force that is considered to be the
C. Stomach MOST responsible for active tooth eruption?
D. Sigmoid colon
E. Transverse colon A. Cells and fibers in the developing PDL pull
the tooth toward the oral cavity.
B. Dentin formation in the root pushes the
24. The hamular process is an extension of the tooth into the oral cavity.
C. Vascular pressure within the pulp pushes
A. ethmoid bone. the tooth intraorally.
B. palatine bone. D. Apical fundal bone formation pushes the
C. maxillary tuberosity. tooth.
D. medial pterygoid plate. E. Crestal bone formation pulls the tooth.
E. lateral pterygoid plate.

25. The muscularis externa of the esophagus in the

lower one third consists of 30. Which of the following ligaments helps resist
posterior movement of the mandibular
A. mostly skeletal muscle, but some smooth condyles?
muscle.
B. equal amounts of smooth and skeletal A. Pterygomandibular raphe
muscles. €3. Temporomandibular
C. smooth muscle only. C. Anterior cruciate
D. skeletal muscle only. D. Sphenomandibular
E. Stylomandibular
26. The dermis may be classifed as which of the
following types of connective tissue?

A. Adipose 31. The MOST commonly accepted theory for pain

B. Modified elastic reception in the dental pulp suggests that
C. Reticular connective
D. Dense regular collagenous connective
A. nerves in the dentinal tubules have
E. Dense irregular collagenous connective
receptors for pain.
B. odontoblastic processes serve as the only
27. Which of the following structures travels just receptors for pain.
posterior to the arch of the azygos vein? C. there are numerous Meissner's corpuscles
in the pulp that respond to pain stimuli.
A. Hemiazygos vein
D. nerve endings in the periodontal ligament
enter the pulp through accessory canals to
B. Right vagus nerve
provide pain reception.
C. Right phrenic nerve
E. hydrodynamic phenomena involving fluid
D. Right lymphatic duct flux in the tubules result in stimuli that
E. Greater splanchnic nerve
activate pain receptors within the pulp.
32. In a healthy temporomandibularjoint the 38. Oxyphil cells are present in which of the
articular surfaces are covered with which of the following?
following?
A. Thymus
A. Fat B. Spleen
B. Bone C. Fundic stomach
C. Hyaline cartilage D. Neurohypophysis
D. Synovial membrane E. Parathyroid gland
E. Dense fibrous connective tissue

39. Which of the following represents the MOST

33. The hyoid bone is attached by muscles or vascular portion of the articular disc of the
ligaments to the temporomandibular joint?

A. palatine bone and the soft palate. A. Anterior thick zone (band)
B. epiglottis and the cricoid cartilage. B. Posterior thick zone (band)
C. mandible, the first rib, and the clavicle. C. Intermediate thin zone (band)
D. mandible, the styloid process, and the D. Bilaminar zone
tongue.

40. The spleen, the thymus, and lymph nodes are

34. The pterygoid plexus is usually formed by veins similar in that each
that are tributaries of which of the following?
A. filters blood.
A. Maxillary vein 6. contains lymphocytes.
B. Angular vein C. has a medulla and a cortex.
C. Facial vein D. serves as a filter for tissue fluid.
D. Occipital vein E. has afferent and efferent lymphatic
E. Anterior jugular vein vessels.

35. Which of the following represents the primary 41. Which of the following represents the MOST
supinator at the radioulnar joint? common cartilage found in the embryo and in
the adult?
A. Supinator
6. Brachialis A. Fibrocartilage
C. Biceps brachii 6. Hyaline cartilage
D. Brachioradialis C. Elastic cartilage
E. Coracobrachialis D. Calcified cartilage

36. Which of the following veins are ldcated within 42. The ossicles of the ear are located in the
the bones of the calvarium?
A. utricle.
A. Carotid B. labyrinth.
B. Diploic C. inner ear.
C. Meningeal D. middle ear.
D. lnfrahyoid E. external auditory meatus.
E. Subarachnoid

43. A terminal branch of the mandibular nerve

emerges through which of the following
foramina?
37. Loss of the gag reflex suggests damage to
which of the following cranial nerves? A. Supraorbital
6. lnfraorbital
C. Stylomastoid
A. V
D. Rotundum
B. VII
E. Mental
C. IX
D. XI1
44. Bilateral contraction of which of the following 50. The thinnest portion of the bony orbit is located
muscles acts to protrude the mandible? in the

A. Lateral pterygoid A. roof.

B. Digastric 6. floor.
C. Buccinator C. medial wall.
D. Temporalis D. lateral wall.
E. Mylohyoid E. posterior wall.

45. Which of the following organs is the NEAREST 51. The nerve of the pterygoid canal contains which
to the right kidney? of the following fibers?

A. Colon A. Taste and vision

B. Spleen B. Pressure and touch sensation
C. Stomach C. Pain and temperature sensation
D Pancreas D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic
E. Duodenum E. Proprioception and touch sensation

46. Which of the following connective tissue types is 52. If there is an organ that needs to stretch and
primarily found in the fetus, but not in the adult? return to its original shape, then which of the
following epithelia would MOST likely be
A. Loose associated with it?
6. Mesenchyme
C. Areolar A. Transitional
D. Dense regular B. Simple cuboidal
E. Dense irregular C. Simple columnar
D. Simple squamous
E. Pseudostratified columnar
47. Antidiuretic hormone is PRODUCED by cells
that reside in which of the following structures,
cells or areas? 53. Each of the following laminae help to form a
tooth EXCEPT one. Which one is this
A. Pars nervosa EXCEPTION?
6. Pars intermedia
C. Basophils of the pars distalis A. Vestibular
D. Acidophils of the pars distalis B. Successional
E. Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus C. Dental

48. Which of the following structures directly 54. Which of the following anterior primary rami form
develops from the cells remaining in the the medial cord of the brachial plexus?
remnants of the preovulatory follicle after
ovulation? A. C-4 and C-5
B. C-6 and C-7
A. Theca interna C. C-5, C-6, and C-7
B. Corpus luteum D. C-8 and T-1
C. Corpus albicans E. T-2 and T-3
D. Atretic follicle
E. Interstitial gland
55. The only purely serous minor salivary gland is
located in the lamina propria of the
49. The heart is contained in which mediastinum?
A. tongue.
A. Middle B. hard palate.
B. Superior C. soft palate.
C. Anterior D. buccal mucosa.
D. Posterior E. attached gingiva.
56. The maxillary artery is MOST often a branch of 61. Which of the following cells forms a Howship's
which of the following arteries? lacuna?

A. Facial A. Osteocyte
B. External carotid B. Osteoblast
C. Internal carotid C. Osteoclast
D. Common carotid D. Chondrocyte
E. Superficial temporal E. Chondroblast

57. Which of the following structures runs directly 62. Which portion of dentin is the MOST highly
adjacent to, and parallel with, the median nerve mineralized?
in the arm?
A. lntratubular (peritubular)
A. Ulnar artery B. Intertubular
B. Radial artery C. lnterglobular
C. Cephalic vein D. Mantle
D. Brachial artery
E. Medial brachial cutaneous nerve
63. Which of the following is the posterior limit of the
vestibular side of the cheek?

A. Retromolar pad
58. Postganglionic fibers from the superior cervical B. Sulcus terminalis
ganglion innervate which of the following C. Pterygomandibular raphe
muscles? D. Stylomandibular ligament
E. Sphenomandibular ligament
A. Ciliary
B. Inferior oblique 64. When a developing carious lesion reaches the
C. Dilator pupillae dentinoenamel junction, this will often initiate the
D. Sphincter pupillae formation of which of the following at the pulp
E. Levator palpebre superioris interface of the dentin?

A. Mantle dentin
B. Primary dentin
C. False pulp stones
59. Connective tissue proper is characterized as D. lnterglobular dentin
having E. Tertiary (reparative) dentin

A. poor vascularization.
B. poor reparative ability. 65. Which nerve enters the pharynx in the gap
C. sensitivity as its main function. between the superior and middle constrictors?
D. more intercellular material than cells.
E. mast cells as the predominant cell type. A. Lingual
B. Hypoglossal
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Inferior laryngeal
E. Superior laryngeal

Which of the following represents a segment of

the bronchial tree that is less than 1 mm in
diameter and lined by simple columnar ciliated 66. Certain nerve trunks are composed of several
epithelium with no cartilage plates in the wall? fascicles. Which of the following entirely
encloses these trunks?
A. Bronchiole
B. Alveolus A. Epineurium
C. Bronchus B. Endoneurium
D. Alveolar sac C. Perineurium
E. Bronchial septum
67. Pain in the temporomandibular joint would be 72. Which of the following represents the main
perceived by endings of the arterial supply to the brain?

A. auriculotemporal nerve in the capsule and A. Internaljugular

periphery of the disc. B. lnternal carotid
B. lateral pterygoid nerve in the capsule, disc C. External carotid
and retrodiscal pad. D. Middle meningeal
C. auriculotemporal nerve throughout the
meniscus.
D. maxillary branch of the trigeminal in the 73. Which of the following is the nerve that supplies
retrodiscal pad and capsule. the mimetic muscles?
E. inferior alveolar nerve.
A. Vagus
B. Facial
C. Trigeminal
D. Hypoglossal
68. Which of the following lymphoid aggregations is E. Spinal accessory
(are) the MOST likely to be associated with
pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium?
74. Which of the following is a pulpal change
A. Palatine tonsil associated with increasing age?
B. Lingual tonsil
C. Pharyngeal tonsil A. Increased cellularity
D. Peyer's patches B. Increased collagenous components
C. Development of more extensive
subodontoblastic nerve plexus
D. Development of more extensive
subodontoblastic capillary plexus
E. Development of more extensive lymphatic
69. Which of the following intercellular junctions plexus
provides the GREATEST resistance to
substances attempting to move between cells?

A. Gap junction
B. Zonula occludens
C. Zonula adherens
75. The pyramids contain
D. Macula adherens
E. Fascia adherens A. pain fibers.
B. sensor fibers.
C. upper motor neuron fibers only.
70. How is a large vein different from its companion D. lower motor neuron fibers only.
artery? The vein has E. upper and lower motor neuron fibers.

A. a smaller lumen.
B. a less extensive vasa vasorum.
C. a more prominent tunica media.
D. an indistinct endothelial lining. 76. The prochordal plate consists of
E. a more prominent tunica adventitia.
A. embryonic endoderm, mesoderm, and
ectoderm.
71. Fiber tracts passing from the thalamus to the B. a circular area anterior to the notochord in
cortex are found in which of the following? which the endoderm is fused to the
embryonic mesoderm.
A. Corpus callosum C. the cloaca1 membrane and the overlying
B. Internal capsule amnion.
C. Medial lemniscus D. endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and
D. Lateral lemniscus embryonic ectoderm.
E. Anterior commissure E. the cardiogenic mesoderm and the
neurectoderm.
77. Which of the following structures are found in 82. Accessory root canals can be formed by
the infratemporalfossa?
A. a break in the epithelial diaphragm prior to
A. Temporalis muscle and parotid gland dentin formation.
B. Masseter and lateral pterygoid muscles B. a break in the epithelial root sheath
C. Superficial temporal artery and parotid (Hertwig) prior to dentin formation.
lymphatic nodes C. adherence of the epithelial root sheath
D. Mandibular division of V and chorda (Hertwig) to the dentinal surface.
tympani branch of VII D. an epithelial rest that lies in contact with
the dentin of the root.

78. Which of the following glands is purely mucous?

83. In the mid-palatal raphe region of the hard
A. Parotid palate, which of the following represents the
B. Palatine layer of the epithelium of the oral mucosa which
C. Sublingual is deep to the stratum spinosum?
D. von Ebnet's
E. Submandibular A. Stratum lucidum
B. Stratum basale
C. Lamina propria
D. Stratum granulosum
E. Stratum corneum
79. A patient bites the tip of his tongue. The pain
that ensues is carried by way of which of the
following cranial nerves?

A. Vagus, X 84. Information from the hypothalamus is carried to

B. Facial, VII the anterior pituitary (pars distalis) by the
C. Trigeminal, V
D. Hypoglossal, XI1 A. gamma efferent system.
E. Glossopharyngeal, IX B. hypothalamic radiation.
C. hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract.
D. hypothalamic association fibers.
E. hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

80. To expose the submandibular duct by an

intraoral approach, one must cut through which
of the following? 85. On its way to the brain, the vertebral artery
passes through which of the following?
A. Mucous membrane only
B. Mucous membrane and the genioglossus
A. Foramen magnum
muscle
B. Foramen lacerum
C. Mucous membrane and the mylohyoid
C. Jugular foramen
muscle
Mucous membrane and the geniohyoid
D. Foramen spinosum
D.
muscle
E. Mucous membrane and the anterior
digastric muscle

86. In addition to the common carotid arteries, which

81. The submandibular ganglion is associated with of the following blood vessels provides
which of the following nerves? circulation to the brain?

A. Inferior alveolar A. Vertebral artery

B. Glossopharyngeal B. Thyrocervical trunk
C. Maxillary C. Costacervical trunk
D. Mylohyoid D. Superior thyroid artery
E. Lingual E. Internal thoracic artery
87. On a comparative basis, bone and cellular 92. Which of the following bones is formed primarily
cementum are similar in that both by intramembranous ossification?

A. are difficult to resorb, heal well, and A. Femur

contain cement lines. B. Tibia
B. contain concentric patterns, have C. Stapes
Volkmann's canals, and can be cancellous. D. Humerus
C. are deposited throughout life, acquire E. Mandible
blood vessels during aging, and contain
similar collagenous fibers.
D. contain cells in lacunae with canaliculi that
extend primarily toward the nutritional
source. 93. Gnarled enamel is MOSTfrequently found

88. Which of the following cranial nerves supplies A. in cusps.

B. near the cervical line.
the muscles derived from the first pair of
C. around pits and fissures.
branchial arches?
D. adjacent to contact areas.
E. equally on all surfaces of the crown.
A. Vagus
B. Facial
C. Trigeminal
D. Hypoglossal 94. An oblique facial cleft follows the li
E. Glossopharyngeal of

ry processes.
A.
B.
C.
&Y""-
lateral nasal an
medial nasal
medial an
axillary processes.
al nasal processes.
89. Cranial nerve V emerges from the D maxJfk?&nd mandibular processes.
E. 11% asal and mandibular processes.
A. pons.
B. midbrain.
C. diencephalon.
D. medulla oblongata.
E. cerebral peduncles.
95. A patient bleeds from the anterior septa1 region
of his nose. A break in the vessel walls has
caused this bleeding. These vessels originate
90. Which of the following structures may be found from which of the following arteries?
within the posterior mediastinum?
A. Angular
A. Heart B. Posterior superior alveolar
B. Phrenic nerve C. Sphenopalatine
C. Thoracic duct D. Greater palatine
D. Arch of the aorta
E. Recurrent laryngeal nerve

96. Maturation of enamel is characterized by a

percentage increase in inorganic content and a
91. Which group of fibers of the periodontal ligament percentage
offer the MOST resistance to movement of the
tooth in an apical direction? A. increase in water.
B. increase in organic content.
A. Alveolar crest C. decrease in water and decrease in organic
B. lnterradicular content.
C. Horizontal D. decrease in water and increase in organic
D. Oblique content.
E. Apical E. increase in water and decrease in organic
content.
97. Para-keratinized oral mucosa is often found on 100. In the photomicrograph below of a ground
which of the following? section of a tooth viewed by transmitted light,
some dentinal tubules appear black because
A. Oral surface of the soft palate they
Ventral surface of the tongue
Skin surface of the lips
Floor of the mouth
Attached gingiva

98. Which of the following represents the major

fibrillar component of mature dentin? A. are filled with blood.
B. are filled with minerals.
A. Elastin C. are filled with bacteria.
B. Reticulin D. have become filled with air during
C. Type I collagen sectioning.
D. Type II collagen E. contain deeply stained odontoblastic
E. Type Ill collagen processes.

99. Each of the following terms applies to a

discussion of enamel structure EXCEPT one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?

A. Prisms
B. Perikymata
C. Striae of Retzius
D. Contour lines of Owen
E. lnterprismatic substance
 NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
PART 1

TEST: ANATOMIC SCIENCES

FORM: 11 (All)
DATE: D98

Item Key, Item Key Item Key Item Key

1 D 26 E 51 D 76 D
2 E 27 B 52 A 77 D
3 A 28 B 53 A 78 B
4 E 29 A 54 D 79 C
5 E 30 B 55 A 80 A

6 D 31 E 56 B 81 E
7 D 32 E 57 D 82 B
8 D 33 D 58 C 83 B
9 B 34 A 59 D 84 E
10 C 35 C 60 A 85 A

11 A 36 B 61 C 86 A
12 D 37 C 62 A 87 D
13 A 38 E 63 C 88 C
14 C 39 D 64 E 89 A
15 E 40 B 65 C 90 C

16 D 41 B 66 A 91 D
17 C 42 D 67 A 92 E
18 E 43 E 68 C 93 A
19 B 44 A 69 B 94 *
20 B 45 A 70 E 95 C

21 C 46 B 71 B 96 C
22 D 47 E 72 B 97 E
23 B 48 B 73 B 98 C
24 D 49 A 74 B 99 D
25 C 50 C 75 C 100 D
 BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY (12)

BEFORE PROCEEDING

1. Turn your answer sheet over to the side numbered 101 - 200 (SIDE 2).

2. Enter your name on the second side of the answer sheet.

3. Enter the name of this test (BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY) and the number of this
test (12) on the answer sheet. Blacken the circles that correspond to the test number.

4. Check to be sure you have completed each step above.

5. Proceed with the examination.

101. Which of the following substances, under 106. GABA increases the permeability of
physiologic conditions, is essential to the postsynaptic membranes to which of the
transformation of G-actin to F-actin? following ions?

A. ATP A. Sodium
B. Chloride B. Calcium
C. Manganese C. Chloride
D. Pyrophosphate D. Magnesium
E. Creatine phosphate E. Potassium

102. Chondroitin sulfate and hyaluronic acid are 107. The polymerase chain reaction is MOST
characterized by which of the following? useful for which of the following?

A. Cell walls of caries-related streptococci A. Preparing enzymes that synthesize

decomposition end products of oral nucleic acids
lactobacilli B. Isolating the genome of an organism
B. Byproducts of carbohydrate metabolism C. Amplifying a specific DNA sequence
by oral streptococci D. Separating polyclonal antibodies
C. Enzymes which break down gram- E. Synthesizing RNA from DNA
positive cell walls
D. Components of extracellular matrix
108. Each of the following segments of the
gastrointestinaltract consists of smooth
muscle under autonomic nervous control
EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
103. Which of the following represents the normal
clearance of glucose? A. Rectum
B. Internal anal sphincter
A. 0 mglmin C. Antrum of the stomach
D. Upper esophagus
B. 50 mglmin
C. 100 mglmin E. Gastro-esophageal sphincter
D. 180 mglmin
E. 350 mglmin

109. The movement of ~ a + across

+ a membrane is
characterized by which of the following?
104. Which of the following BEST explains the
primary action of antidiuretic hormone? A. A facilitated diffusion
B. An example of a cotransport system
A. It decreases the activity of the Na-K C. In many cell membranes involves a
pump in the distal tubule. ~ a + -+~ a countertransport
+ system
B. It increases the Hz0 permeability of the D. Maintains ~ a + concentration
+ very much
collecting ducts and the distal tubules. higher in the cell than in the extracellular
C. It decreases the pore size of the distal fluid
tubules and the collecting ducts.
D. It decreases the glomerular filtration rate.
E. It inhibits the action of glutaminase. 110. The enzyme catalyzing the rate-controlling
step in the de novo synthesis of fatty acids is
regulated allosterically by the positive
105. Which of the following takes place as modulator
proinsulin is converted to insulin?
A. ATP.
A. Disulfide bonds are formed. B. NADPH.
B. Disulfide bonds are broken. C. citrate.
C. The polypeptide chain is lengthened. D. cyclic AMP.
D. A segment of the polypeptide chain is E. oxaloacetate.
removed.
111. Which of the following is required for 117. As DNA is denatured, each of the following
vitamin Dg synthesis? events takes place EXCEPT one. Which event
is this EXCEPTION?
A. Decarboxylation in the liver
B. UV activation of precursors in skin A. Total G-C content of total DNA
C. Metabolism by gut bacteria increasing
D. Deamination in the kidney B. UV light absorption increasing
C. Complementary strands becoming
random coils
2 . The maximal frequency of impulses that can D. Base stacking becoming disrupted
be carried by a nerve fiber is limited by which E. Hydrogen bonds breaking
of the following?

A. Intensity of the stimulus

8 Each of the following is a mechanism in
B. humans helping to raise body temperature
Diameter of the nerve fiber
C. Duration of the absolute refractory period EXCEPT one. Which one is this
D. Duration of the relative refractory period EXCEPTION?

A. Shivering
113. Which of the following represents the normal B. ATP hydrolysis
substrate of thrombin? C. Exothermic reactions
D. Peripheral vasodilation
A. Fibrin E. Increased thyroxine release
B. Thrombospondin
C. Prothrombin
D. Thromboplastin
119. Which of the following types of bonds link
E. Fibrinogen amino acid residues to form proteins?

A. Amide
114. A sustained, severe carbohydrate deficiency B. Anomeric
in the diet will result in which of the following? C. Epimeric
D. Hydrogen
A. Ketoacidosis E. Glycosidic
B. Severe metabolic alkalosis
C. A deficiency in prostaglandinformation
D. An inability to synthesize ascorbic acid

120. In skeletal muscle, excitation-contraction

coupling is mediated by which of the
following?
115. The anticaries effect of fluoride is LEAST
related to which of the following? A. Binding of calcium and calmodulin
B. Efflux of potassium from transverse
A. Ion exchange tubules
B. Decreased solubility C. A sudden rise in permeability to chloride
C. Facilitation of remineralization ions
D. Its presence during enamel formation D. Release of acetylcholinesterase from
E. Activation of plaque polysaccharide nerve terminals
hydrolysis E. Release of calcium from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum

116. Which of the following represents a

polyunsaturated fatty acid that is commonly 121. A mucin is which of the following types of
found in animal cell membranes? proteins?

A. Oleic A. Simple protein

B. Lactic B. Phosphoprotein
C. Sialic C. Chromoprotein
D. Stearic D. Nucleoprotein
E. Linoleic E. Glycoprotein
122. The tricarboxylic acid cycle is initiated by the 128. Under strict anaerobic conditions, the
condensation of which of the following two catabolism of one glucose molecule would
molecules? yield a net of

A. Pyruvate and malate A. 2 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules.

B. NAD' and oxaloacetate B. 4 ATP and 2 lactic acid molecules.
C. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.
C. NAD' and oxalosuccinate D. 4 ATP and 2 pyruvic acid molecules.
D. Acetyl coenzyme A and oxaloacetate
E. Acetyl coenzyme A and oxalosuccinate
129. Which of the following is LEAST descriptive of
lipids?
123. Compared to skeletal muscle contraction, A. Nonpolar
smooth muscle contraction B. Carbon-containing
C. Amphipathic
A. requires more energy for a given tension. D. Hydrophilic
B. occurs several times more rapidly.
C. can be maintained for a longer time.
D. is unaffected by the autonomic nervous
system.
130. The ability to concentrate urine varies among
124. Androgens are produced in the testis and animal species. The maximum urine
concentration that can be produced by an
animal is MOST closely related to which of the
A. adrenal cortex. following?
B. thyroid.
C. adrenal medulla.
D. pituitary. A. Renal blood flow
E. hypothalamus. B. Total number of nephrons
C. Glomerular filtration rate
D. Length of the loop of Henle
125. What thermodynamic parameter is a measure E. Diameter of the distal tubule
of randomness or disorder in a system?

A. Entropy
B. Enthalpy
C. Free energy 131. Each of the following appears in the
D. Potential energy glomerular filtrate in concentrations
E. Activation energy approximately equal to those in plasma
EXCEPT one. Which one is this
EXCEPTION?
126. A number of catabolic pathways are
allosterically inhibited by an increase in the A. Urea
concentration of which of the following? B. Glucose
C. Amino acids
A. ADP D. Steroid hormones
B. AMP E. Plasma electrolytes
C. ATP
D. NAD+
132. If an axonal membrane transiently becomes
E. Pyruvate
very permeable to Na+ ions, then the
membrane potential of the cell will approach
127. Both systemic and pulmonary circulations
have the same A. -70 mV.
B. -60 mV.
A. pulse pressure. C. -50 mV.
B. total capacitance. D. OmV.
C. diastolic pressure. E. +60 mV.
D. resistance.
E. flow rate.
133. The clinical symptoms of dermatitis, diarrhea, 138. The stimulating effect of low arterial 0 2
and dementia suggest a deficiency in which of tension on respiration is usually produced
the following vitamins? through an effect on the

A. Retinol A. carotid bodies.

B. Riboflavin B. carotid sinuses.
C. Tocopherol C. expiratory center.
D. Ascorbic acid D. inspiratory center.
E. Niacin E. alveolar nerve endings.

139. Most endogenous cholesterol in the liver is

usually converted into which of the following?
134. Streptomycin is an antibiotic which inhibits the
process of A. Glucose
B. Steroids
A. translation in eukaryotes. C. Cholic acid
B. translation in prokaryotes. D. Oxaloacetate
C. transcription in eukaryotes. E. Ketone bodies
D. transcription in prokaryotes.
E. DNA replication in prokaryotes.

140. Which of the following could be beneficial in

reducing edema in the arms of women who
135. Insulin INCREASES the activity of which of have had radical mastectomy with removal of
the following? axial lymph nodes?

A. Enolase A. Hypertensiveagents
B. Phosphorylase a B. Avoidance of all diuretic agents
C. Phosphofructokinase C. Increase interstitial oncotic pressure
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase D. Decrease interstitial hydrostatic pressure
E. Fructose 1-6 diphosphatase E. Administration of a plasma volume
expander

136. lncreased parasympathetic activity results in

141. Which of the following substances is LEAST
polar?
A. decreased salivary secretion.
B. increased cardiac contractility.
C. decreased gastric motility and tone. A. Ethanol
D. increased bronchiolar smooth muscle B. Cholesterol
contraction. C. Palmitic acid
D. Glycocholic acid

137. A patient who has emphysema is MOST likely

to exhibit which of the following changes in
functional residual capacity (FRC) and
compliance? 142. Which of the following molecules would likely
form a micelle when mixed with water and
FRC Compliance agitated?

A. Increased Increased A. Serine

B. Decreased No change B. Glycerol
C. lncreased No change C. Phospholipid
D. Decreased lncreased D. Triglyceride
E. Decreased Decreased
143. Which of the following is MOST likely to result 148, In respiratory acidosis, arterial C02 content
from increased vagal activity? and pH become abnormal. Which of the
following BEST describes their respective
A. lncreased heart rate changes?
B. lncreased stroke volume
C. lncreased cardiac output
D. Decreased cardiac oxygen consumption
E. Decreased transit time through the AV A. Increases Increases
node B. Increases Decreases
C. Decreases Increases
D. Decreases Decreases
144. Which of the following noncollagenous protein
components BEST characterizes dentin
matrix?

A. Laminin
B. Vimentin
149. Which of the following is the major protein
C. Phosphophoryn component of cementum?
D. Osteonectin
E. Fibronectin A. Elastin
B. Keratin
C. Collagen
D. Amelogenin
E. Osteonectin
2+.
145. Some carbohydrates convert Cu Ions to CU+
ions. This property is related to their ability to
act as
150. Which of the following do elastin and collagen
A. a reducing agent. have in common?
B. an oxidizing agent.
C. both a reducing agent and an oxidizing
agent. A. Easily stretched
D. neither a reducing agent nor an oxidizing B. Absence of proline
agent. C. Disulfide crosslinking
D. Triple helix structure
E. About one-third glycine
146. Coenzyme A participates in

A. formylation.
B. protein synthesis.
C. methionine activation. 151. The plasma osmolality decreases after
D. activation of carboxyl groups. infusion of

A. aldosterone.
B. vasopressin (ADH).
C. angiotensin II.
147. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the D. parathyroid hormone.
catabolism of many amino acids? E. isotonic saline solution.

A. Formation of a dipeptide with glutamate 152. Which of the following features distinguishes
B. Conjugation of the alpha amino to
active transport from facilitated diffusion?
glucuronate
C.. Transamination of the alpha amino to a
keto acid A. Specificity
D. Conjugation of the alpha carboxyl group B. Carrier-mediated
to glucuronate C. Requires metabolic energy
E. Decarboxylation of the alpha carboxyl D. Presence of a transport maximum (Tm)
group to form a primary amine
153. Each of the following secretes H C a - into the 158. Which of the following changes in lung
gastrointestinaltract EXCEPT one. Which compliance and vital capacity would be
one is this EXCEPTION? observed in the absence of pulmonary
surfactant?
A. Chief cells
B. Colon mucosa Lung Compliance Vital Capacity
C. Salivary glands
D. Stomach mucosa A. Increase Increase
B. Increase Decrease
C. Increase No change
154. The chemical energy generated by D. Decrease Increase
mitochondria1electron transport results from E. Decrease Decrease
which of the following?

A. Excess H+ in the matrix

B. An H+ gradient across the inner 159. Which of the following represents a decrease
membrane in the frequency of action potentials in an
C. The formation of thioesters in the matrix afferent neuron despite a constant stimulus
D. A conformational change in the inner intensity?
membrane
A. Refraction
B. Potentiation
155. Which of the following is necessaryfor C. Perception
de novo synthesis of cholesterol? D. Adaptation
E. Accommodation
A. NA+
B. NADH 160. Which of the following is a typical finding for a
C. NADP+ normal 23-year-old man?
D. NADPH
E. FADH2 A. Hematocrit of 45%
B. Venous blood with pH of 7.2
3
C. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm
D. Red blood cell count of 7,000,000/mm3
E. Pulse pressure equivalent to 80 mm Hg
156. The function of which of the following types of
nucleic acid is to activate and select specific
amino acids for protein synthesis? 161. Earaches may develop as a result of blockage
of the eustachian tube because

A. of anvil misalignment.
B. the ossicle can no longer vibrate.
C. fluid in the middle ear cannot escape.
D. pressure on the round window distorts
the basement membrane.
E. pressure in the middle ear is not
equalized with atmospheric pressure.

157. Which of the following is a pyrimidine base

that is present in RNA but is NOT present in 162. The activities of each of
DNA? one contribute to calculus form
one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Uracil
B. Guanine
C. Thymine
D. Adenine
E. Cytosine
163. Which of the following stimulates vagal nerve 168. A diminished oxygen tension in the
endings in the lung parenchyma and inhibits myocardium causes immediate
inspiration?
A, vasoconstriction of coronary vessels.
A. Decreased arterial pH B. vasodilation of coronary vessels.
B. Expansion of the lungs C. stimulation of chemoreceptors.
C. Decreased alveolar 0 2 tension D. inhibition of chemoreceptors.
D. lncreased alveolar C02 tension

164. Plasmid vectors suitable for cloning have

which of the following characteristics? 169. In relative insulin insufficiency, acetyl CoA is
usually channeled into
A. Must be able to replicate synchronously
with the host chromosome A. ketone-body formation.
B. Several unique recognition sequences B. cholesterol synthesis.
for one restriction enzyme C. fatty-acid synthesis.
C. Two genes conferring resistance to D. gluconeogenesis.
different antibiotics E. the Krebs cycle.
D. Large size to facilitate plasmid's entry
into cells
170. After prolonged acidosis, which of the
following represents the nitrogenous product
165. Right-sided lesions of the spinal cord result in that is excreted in high amounts in the urine?
loss of which of the following (below the level
of the lesion)? A. Urea
B. Ammonia
A. Motor activity and pain and temperature C. Uric acid
sensations on the same side D. Creatinine
B. Motor activity on the same side and pain E. Aspartic acid
and temperature sensations on the
opposite side
C. Motor activity and pain and temperature
sensations on the opposite side
D. Motor activity on the opposite side and 171. Which of the following are the immediate
pain and temperature sensations on the effects of calcitonin on serum levels of calcium
same side and phosphate?

Serum calcium Serum phosphate

166. If the molar percentage of A (adenine) in a
native DNA specimen is 22%, then what is the A. Increased Increased
molar content of G (guanine)? B. Increased Decreased
C. Decreased Decreased
D. No change Increased
E. Decreased No change

167. 172. Atoms are isotopes of each other only if

During an isotonic contraction, which of the
following bands or structures do NOT change
in width or length? A. their nuclei contain the same number of
neutrons.
B. their atomic numbers are the same, but
A. A band
their mass numbers differ.
B. I band their mass numbers are the same, but
C.
C. Muscle sarcomeres their atomic numbers differ.
D. Two consecutive Z lines
D. one is a beta emitter, but the other is an
E. Series elastic elements
alpha emitter.
173. Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by affecting 178. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation shows
which of the following? that

A. Amylase A. dilution of a buffer increases its pH.

B. Enolase B. pH = pka when an acid is 0.1 N.
C. Phosphatase
D. Phosphorylase C. pH = pka when an acid is half
neutralized.
D. pH is independent of the dissociation
constant of the acid.

174. Hyperventilation alters the acid-base balance 179. Triglyceride absorbed into the lymphatic
of arterial blood by system is transported to the liver as which of
the following?
A. increasing C02 and increasing pH.
B. increasing C02 and decreasing pH. A. Very low density lipoprotein
B. Low density lipoprotein
C. decreasing C02 and decreasing pH. C. Chylomicrons
D. decreasing C02 and increasing pH. D. Liposomes
E. Micelles

180. Blocking the hypothalamic-hypophyseal

175. Which of the following collagen synthesis venous portal system increases the secretion
post-translational events occurs of which of the following?
extracellularly?
A. Prolactin
A. Glycosylation B. Oxytocin
B. Hydroxylation C. ACTH
C. Intermolecular cross-linkage D. TSH
D. Disulfide bond formation
181. Which of the following represents the plasma
protein that transports ferrous iron?

A. Ferritin
176. If the pH becomes lower than the isoelectric
6. Myoglobin
point of a protein, then how will the protein C. Hemoglobin
respond in an electrophoreticsystem? It will D. Transferrin
E. Cytochrome-c
A. become denatured.
B. migrate to the negative pole.
C. migrate to the positive pole. 182. Which of the following sweeteners is
D. remain stationary and unchanged. non-nutritive as well as non-cariogenic?
E. separate into its different monomeric
forms. A. D-fructose
B. Saccharin
C. Galactose
D. Sorbitol
E. Maltose
177. The level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is
due principally to the level of which of the
following? 183. Epinephrine causes an elevation in CAMP
levels in muscle cells which in turn activate
A. Urea
6. Ammonia A. ATPase.
C. Creatine B. adenyl cyclase.
D. Arginine C. glycogen synthetase.
E. Uric acid D. glycogen phosphorylase.
E. glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase.
184. Acromegaly is due to an excessive production 189. Pieces of dog parotid gland and pancreas are
of which of the following? transplanted under the skin of the donor
animal. After re-establishment of circulation,
A. Thyrotropin ingestion of food will result in secretion from
B. . Gonadotropin which of the following?
C. Somatotropin
D. Adrenocorticotropin A. Parotid and pancreatic transplants
B. The fragment of the pancreas only
C. The fragment of the parotid only
185. Intravenous injections of KC1 solution would D. Neither fragment
increase the secretion of which of the
following?
190. Which of the following conditions is indicated
A. lnsulin during isovolumetric ventricular contraction of
B. Cortisol the heart?
C. Calcitonin
D. Aldosterone A. All valves are open.
E. Parathyroid hormone B. All valves are closed.
C. The aortic and pulmonary valves are
open and the mitral and tricuspid valves
186. Frank-Starling's law of the heart states that the are closed.
D. The aortic and pulmonary valves are
A. initial length of cardiac muscle fibers closed and the mitral and tricuspid
affects the strength of contraction. valves are open.
B. strength of contraction depends on the
strength of the ventricular muscle.
C. heart rate depends directly on thickness
of the ventricle.
D. strength of contraction depends on the 191. Which of the following controls the excitability
strength of stimulus. of the muscle spindle?

A. Load on the muscle

B. Gamma efferent system
C. Alpha efferent discharge
187. When arterial pressure increases, D. Length of the extrafusal fibers
pressoreceptors discharge and

A. increase cardiac rate and strength of

contraction.
B. cause vasoconstriction throughout the
peripheral circulatory system.
C. excite sympathetic nerves and inhibit
parasympathetic nerves.
D. inhibit tonic activity of sympathetic
nerves and excite parasympathetic
nerves.
192. In the denervated heart, adjustments to
increased workload are mediated by
mechanisms associated with
A. increased end systolic volume.
B. decreased end systolicvolume.
C. decreased end diastolic volume.
D. increased end diastolic volume.

188. The rate of diffusion across the alveolar wall is

inversely proportional to which of the 193. Which of the following is secreted more during
following? the absorptive state than during the
postabsorptive state?
A. The surface area for gaseous exchange
B. The thickness of the alveolar wall A. lnsulin
C. The difference in the partial pressures of B. Glucagon
the gas C. Cortisol
D. The solubility of the gas D. Thyroxine
E. Epinephrine
194. Bulging veins in the neck result from which of 199. The largest amount of glomerular filtrate is
the following? reabsorbed in the

A. Pulmonary edema A. proximal convoluted tubule.

B. Hemolytic anemia B. descending loop of Henle.
C. Systemic hypotension C. ascending loop of Henle.
D. Congestive heart failure D. distal convoluted tubule.
E. Intermittent claudication E. collecting duct.

195. A parathyroidectomized animal will exhibit 200. How many anomeric carbons are present in a
which levels of calcium and phosphate ion fructose molecule?
concentration in the plasma?

Calcium Phosphate ion

concentration

A. Low High
B. Normal Low
C. High Low
D. Normal Normal
E. Low Low

196. Which term of the Michaelis-Menten equation,

can be determined from the y intercept of a

Lineweaver-Burk plot?

197. Absence of which of the following blood

enzymes drastically reduces blood CO2
carrying capacity?

A. Carbonic anhydrase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Pyruvate carboxykinase
D. Histidine decarboxylase
E. Serum glutamic-oxaloacetate
transaminase

198. Glucosuria with hyperglycemia usually occurs

in which of the following?

A. Pellagra
B. Addison's disease
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Diabetes insipidus
E. Parkinson's disease
 NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
PART 1

TEST: BIOCHEMISTRY-PHYSIOLOGY
FORM: 12 (A12)
DATE: D98

Item Key Item Key Item Key Item Key

101 A 126 C 151 B 176 B

102 D 127 E 152 C 177 A
103 A 128 A 153 A 178 C
104 B 129 D 154 B 179 C
105 D 130 D 155 D 180 A

106 C 131 D 156 D 181 D

107 C 132 E 157 A 182 B
108 D 133 E 158 E 183 D
109 C 134 B 159 D 184 C
110 C 135 C 160 A 185 D

111 B 136 D 161 E 186 A

112 C 137 A 162 * 187 D
113 E 138 A 163 B 188 B
114 A 139 C 164 C 189 B
115 E 140 E 165 B 190 B

116 E 141 B 166 B 191 B

117 A 142 C 167 A 192 D
118 D 143 D 168 B 193 A
119 A 144 C 169 A 194 D
120 E 145 A 170 B 195 A

121 E 146 D 171 C 196 B

122 D 147 C 172 B 197 A
123 C 148 B 173 B 198 C
124 A 149 C 174 D 199 A
125 A 150 E 175 C 200 B
 DENTAL ANATOMY AND OCCLUSION (14)

BEFORE PROCEEDING

1. Turn your answer sheet over to the side numbered 101 - 200 (SIDE2).
2. Enter your name on the second side of the answer sheet.

3. Enter the name of this test (DENTAL ANATOMY and OCCLUSION)and the number
of this test (14) on the answer sheet. Blacken the circles that correspond to the test
number.

4. Check to be sure you have completed each step above.

5. Proceed with the examination.

All test items refer to permanent teeth unless 105. Through which of the following grooves of the
"primary" is specified. mandibular first molar does the maxillary
mesiolingual cusp pass in a lateral excursive
All test items relating t o occlusion refer t o Class I movement on the working side?
canine and molar relationship unless otherwise
specified. Tenns such as "normal" or "ideaIJ'are A. Facial
synonymous with the above definition. B. Lingual
C. Central
D. Distofacial

106. In an ideal occlusion, the facial cusps of the

101. Which of the following are the LASTprimaly posterior mandibular teeth oppose which
teeth to erupt? landmark of the maxillary dentition?

A. Maxillary canines A. Facio-occlusalline

B. Mandibular canines B. Central fossa line
C. Mandibular first molars C. Linguo-occlusalline
D. Maxillary second molars D. Curve of Spee
E. Mandibular second molars E. Curve of Wilson

107. The upper compartment of the

temporomandibular joint is that space
102. Which of the following is the correct sequence between the
of dental tissues from SOFTEST to
HARDEST? A. condylar head and the disc.
B. inferior and superior retrodiscal lamina.
A. Dentin, cementum, enamel C. retrodiscal tissue and capsular ligament.
B. Cementum, dentin, enamel D. disc and the articular fossa and
C. Dentin, enamel, cementum eminence.
D. Cementum, enamel, dentin

108. If a maxillary first molar has a fourth pulp

103. The crown of which premolar is wider canal, it is located in which of the following
faciolingually than mesiodistally, and has two roots?
cusps that are approximately equal in height?
A. Mesiofacial
A. Maxillary first B. Distofacial
B. Mandibular first C. Palatal
C. Maxillary second D. Fourth
D. Mandibular second

104. In the intercuspal position, the lingual cusp of

a mandibular first premolar usually occludes 109. Which of the following representsthe general
crown form of canines, as viewed from the
labial aspect?
A. with the mesial marginal ridge of the
maxillary second premolar and the distal
marginal ridge of the first premolar. A. Hexagonal
B. in the lingual embrasure between B. Triangular
maxillary canine and first premolar. C. Rhomboidal
C. with the lingual surface of the maxillary D. Pentagonal
first premolar. E. Diamond-shaped
D. in the lingual embrasure between
maxillary premolars.
E. with no maxillary tooth.
110. On the crown of the maxillary canine, the 115. When compared to the maxillary central
height of contour is normally located in the incisor, the maxillary canine normally exhibits
cervical third of which of the following which of the following?
surfaces?
A. Shorter root
A. Labial B. Wider crown mesiodistally
6. Lingual C. Thicker crown labiolingually
C. Both labial and lingual D. Longer crown incisogingivally
D. Neither labial nor lingual E. Shorter crown and shorter root length

111. Which of the following surfaces of a tooth is 116. Which of the following teeth have proximal
always next to an adjacent tooth? contact areas at approximately the same
levels cervicoincisally,or cervico-occlusally,
A. Distal on the mesial and the distal?
B. Facial
C. Palatal A. Maxillary central incisors
D. Occlusal B. Mandibular central incisors
E. Proximal C. Maxillary canines
D. Mandibular canines

112. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular

cusps on the maxillary posterior teeth is 117. In the intercuspal position, the facial aspect of
toward the the mesial cusp ridge of a mandibular canine
opposes which of the following maxillary
A. mesial. structures?
6. facial.
C. distal. A. DL of a canine
D. lingual. 6. DF of a canine
C. ML of a lateral incisor
D. DL of a lateral incisor
E. DL of a central incisor

113. The non-working pathway of the maxillary

cusps on the mandibular posterior teeth is 118. For an amalgam restoration, it will be MOST
toward the difficult to obtain close matrix-band adaptation
on which of the following surfaces?
A. distofacial.
6. distolingual. A. Mesial of a maxillary first premolar
C. mesiofacial. B. Distal of a maxillary first premolar
D. mesiolingual. C. Mesial of a maxillary second premolar
D. Distal of a mandibular second premolar
E. Mesial of a mandibular first molar
114. Which of the following illustrations represents
the distal view of a maxillary first molar?

119. From an occlusal view, the arrangement of

permanent teeth of the maxillary and
mandibular arches are parabolic in shape. In
one segment of the dentition, however, four
teeth are aligned in a straight line. In what
region is this segment located?

A. Maxillary anterior
6. Maxillary posterior
C. Mandibular anterior
D. Mandibular posterior
120. A posterior tooth has a faciolingual crown 126. Which premolar poses the GREATEST
dimension greater than its mesiodistal crown problem when root canal therapy or extraction
dimension. In addition, it has two roots. This are being considered?
tooth is MOST likely a
A. Mandibular first
A. maxillary first premolar. B. Mandibular second
B. mandibular first premolar. C. Maxillary first
C. mandibular second premolar. D. Maxillary second
D. mandibular first molar.
E. maxillary second molar.
127. Which of the following ranks the roots of the
maxillary first molar in order from LARGEST to
121. Which primary molar typically has a SMALLEST?
transverse ridge, an oblique ridge, and a
distolingual groove? A. Palatal, mesiobuccal,distobuccal
B. Palatal, distobuccal, mesiobuccal
A. Maxillary first C. Mesiobuccal, palatal, distobuccal
B. Maxillary second D. Distobuccal, mesiobuccal, palatal
C. Mandibular first
D. Mandibular second

122. In the sagittal plane, which of the following 128. In an ideal intercuspal relation, which of the
represents the thickest section of the articular following maxillary cusps will oppose the
disc? mesiofacial groove of the mandibular first
molar?
A. Anterior border
B. Posterior border A. Facial cusp of the second premolar
C. Bilaminar zone B. Mesiofacial cusp of the first molar
D. Intermediate zone C. Distofacial cusp of the first molar
E. Retrodiscal area D. Mesiolingual cusp of the first molar
E. Distolingual cusp of the first molar
123. Which of the following premolars usually has
two lingual cusps?

A. Maxillary first
B. Maxillary second
129. When proximal surfaces of adjacent teeth
diverge from an area of contact, an
C. Mandibular first
embrasure is formed
D. Mandibular second
A. lingually only.
124. Which of the following anterior teeth exhibits B. lingually and facially only.
the MOST deviation in crown morphology? C. lingually and occlusally only.
D. lingually, facially, occlusally, and
A. Maxillary central incisor cervically.
B. Maxillary lateral incisor
C. Mandibular lateral incisor
D. Maxillary canine
E. Mandibular canine
130. The pulp chamber of a mature tooth contains

125. Which of the following periodontal ligament A. cells that continue to form primary
fibers provide the major support to the tooth dentin.
during function? B. an enamel lining for thermal protection.
C. blood vessels and nerves.
A. Apical D. cernentoblasts.
B. Oblique E. ameloblasts.
C. Horizontal
D. Alveolar crest
E. lnterradicular
131. Between which of the following teeth in the 137. How many pulp horns would be expected on a
primary dentition is the mandibular "primate" newly erupted Tooth #18?
space usually found?

A. Central incisors
6. Central and lateral incisors
C. Lateral incisor and canine
D. Canine and first molar
E. First and second molars
138. In which of the following areas of a healthy
mouth is the alveolar process the thinnest?
132. During a lateral movement of the mandible.
the articular disc is tightly attached to the head A. Lingual to the maxillary central incisors
of the condyle by which of the following 6. Facial to the mandibular central incisors
ligaments? C. Lingual to the maxillary canines
D. Lingual to the mandibular first molars
A. Superior retrodiscal E. Facial to the maxillary second molars
B. Inferior retrodiscal
C. Sphenomandibular
D. Stylomandibular 139. On which of the following surfaces of
E. Collateral permanent teeth is pit and fissure caries
MOST likely to occur?

133. Which of the following teeth has its distal A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars
proximal contact area located entirely in the 6. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars
incisal or the occlusal one-third? C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first
premolars
A. Maxillary canine D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first
B. Mandibular canine molars
C. Maxillary lateral incisor E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
D. Mandibular lateral incisor
E. Mandibular second premolar
140. When in its proper position relative to the
plane of occlusion, the crown of a mandibular
134. The occlusal outline of a mandibular first second molar inclines
molar is usually similar to a
A. distally and facially.
A. circle. 8. mesially and facially.
6. square. C. mesially and lingually.
C. rhomboid. D. distally and lingually.
D. pentagon.

141. Assuming occlusion and alignment are

135. Which of the following teeth is the MOST likely normal, the arrow on the illustration below
to have a bifurcated root? represents the path taken by which cusp of a
second molar?
A. Maxillary central incisor
6. Maxillary lateral incisor
C. Mandibular lateral incisor
D. Maxillary canine
E. Mandibular canine

136. The occlusal table of any posterior tooth

makes up what percent of the total Cusp
buccolingual dimension of the tooth?
A. Mesiofacial
A. 25-35 percent 6. Mesiolingual
B. 40-50 percent C. Distofacial
C. 55-65 percent D. Distolingual
D. 70-80 percent E. Cusp of Carabelli
142. In an ideal intercuspal relation, which of the 147. In a protrusive movement, the maxillary left
following maxillary teeth have single central incisor can potentially come in contact
antagonists? with which of the following mandibular teeth?

A. Central incisors A. #22 and #23

B. Lateral incisors B. #23 and #24
C. First premolars C. #24 and #25
D. First molars D. #25 and #26
E. Third molars

148. Which primary molar has a crown somewhat

143. Which of the following represents the structure resembling a permanent premolar, but the
on the crown of a maxillary canine which is root form is typical of a permanent molar?
located immediately to the mesial of the
mesiolingualfossa? A. Maxillary first
B. Maxillary second
A. Lingual ridge C. Mandibular first
B. Mesial marginal ridge D. Mandibular second
C. Distal marginal ridge
D. Distolingual fossa
E. Mesial developmental groove

149. Which of the following plays the greatest role

in disoccluding the posterior teeth in latero-
protrusive movements?
144. The epithelial attachment is always an actual
part of the tooth's A. Anterior guidance
B. Posterior guidance
A. anatomical crown. C. Bennett side shift
B. clinical crown. D. Intercondylar distance
C. gingival line.
D. cervical line.
E. periodontium.

150. Which of the following represents the

145. The dentition of a normally developed EARLIEST age by which the roots of the
6 ID-year-old child usually consists of which maxillary first premolar are completely
of the following teeth? formed?

A. 8 primary and 8 permanent A. 8-9 years

B. 10 primary and 10 permanent B. 10-11 years
C. 18 primary and 6 permanent C. 12-13 years
D. 20 primary D. 14-15 years

46. Which of the following represents the

movement of a tooth through the surrounding
tissue so that the clinical crown gradually
appears longer? 151. Viewed from the occlusal, the basic coronal
outline of a mandibular second premolar is
A. Eruption
B. Attrition A. square.
C. Mastication B. circular.
D. Exfoliation C. rhomboidal.
E. Longitudinal development D. pentagonal.
E. rectangular.
 Which of the following BEST describes the 156. Enamel rods in a primary tooth extend
location of the cervical line on a mandibular
lateral incisor? A. from the dentinoenamel junction apically
in the cervical third of the crown.
A. On the distal, it is more apical than on B. from the dentinoenameljunction
the mesial. occlusally in the cervical third of the
B. On the lingual, it is more incisal than on crown.
the facial. C. in the same direction as in a permanent
C. On the mesial, it is more apical than on tooth in the cervical third, but not in the
the distal. incisal or occlusal thirds of the crown.
D. On the facial, it is more apical than on D. in a diffused and gnarled manner in the
the lingual. cervical third of the crown.
E. On the facial and the lingual, it is at the
same level.
157. Which of the following molars has the
LARGEST mesiodistal measurement of its
crown?

A. Maxillary first
153. In a normal occlusion, the lingual cusp of the B. Mandibular first
maxillary second premolar occludes with C. Maxillary second
which fossa of which mandibular tooth? D. Mandibular second

Fossa Tooth

A. Distal Second premolar

B. Mesial Second premolar 158. Which of the following teeth would MOST
C. Central First molar likely be congenitally absent?
D. Mesial First molar
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Mandibular central incisor
C. Maxillary lateral incisor
D. Mandibular lateral incisor
E. Maxillary canine
154. Ligaments associated with the TMJ serve to

inhibit the normal masticatory cycle.

protect surrounding and supporting
tissues from damages. 159. Which of the following posterior teeth normally
assist musculature in producing exhibit two root canal orifices?
movement.
D. allow for retrusive movement to occur. A. Mandibular first premolars
E. provide elastic potential to allow for B. Maxillary first premolars
border movements. C. Maxillary second premolars
D. Maxillary first molars
E. Mandibular first molars

155. From a facial view, where would the 160. Which of the following describes the proximal
cementoenamel junction be MOST apically contact relationship between a maxillary
positioned on the crown of a primary central incisor and a maxillary lateral incisor?
mandibular first molar?
A. Contact is offset to the lingual.
A. Mesial one-third B. Contact is centered incisocervically.
B. Middle one-third C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the
C. Distal one-third facial embrasure.
D. Equally positioned in all thirds D. lncisal embrasure is the largest of all the
embrasures.
161. A crown concavity, which is confluent with a 166. From the facial view, which premolar has a
longitudinal groove of the root, is a rather mesial cusp ridge longer than its distal cusp
common feature of which surface of which ridge?
premolar?
A. Maxillary first
Surface Premolar B. Maxillary second
C. Mandibular first
A. Mesial Maxillary first D. Mandibular second
B. Distal Maxillary first
C. Mesial Mandibular first
D. Distal Mandibular first 167. Which of the following characteristics is
E. Mesial Mandibular second common to maxillary first and second
premolars?

A. The lingual cusp tip is offset to the

162. A peg-shaped crown form is an occasional mesial.
anomalous occurrence of which of the B. The lingual cusp tip is offset to the distal.
following incisors? C. The facial and lingual cusps are equal in
size and prominence.
A. Maxillary central D. The mesial root concavity extends
B. Maxillary lateral across the cervical line onto the cervical
C. Mandibular central third of the crown.
D. Mandibular lateral E. The lingual height of contour is in the
cervical third of the crown.

163. The crown of a mandibular lateral incisor,

compared to the crown of a mandibular central 168. In a molar, where do root canals usually join
incisor in the same mouth, is BEST described the pulp chamber?
as
A. At the level of the furcation
A. widermesiodistally. B. At varying levels, dependent upon age
B. narrower mesiodistally. C. Within the middle third of the crown
C. more symmetrical. D. Within the cervical third of the crown
D. having a smoother lingual surface. E. Apical to the cementoenamel junction

4 64. Which of the following characteristics of a 169. The lingual aspect of a mandibular first molar
mandibular first molar distinguishes this tooth presents with
from a mandibular second molar?
A. a lingual groove extending onto the
A. Number of roots lingual surface and ending in the cervical
B. Number of lingual cusps third of the crown.
C. Presence of a lingual groove B. a large mesiolingual cusp and much
D. Position of the lingual cusps smaller distolingual cusp.
E. Number of developmental grooves C. the lingual surface of each cusp
possessing a slightly convex shape in
the occlusal third.
D. three lingual cusps.
E. two lingual grooves.
165. When compared with the incisal embrasure
between the maxillary central and lateral
incisors, the incisal embrasure between the 170. On the crown of a maxillary canine, which of
maxillary central incisors is the following structures is located immediately
to the mesial of the mesiolingual fossa?
A. larger.
B. smaller. A. Lingual ridge
C. the same size. B. Distal marginal ridge
D. determined by the position of the C. Mesial marginal ridge
epithelial attachment. D. Distolingual fossa
E. determined by the height of curvature of E. Mesial developmental groove
the cervical line.
171. The transseptal group of periodontal fibers 176. When the posterior teeth are in a crossbite
travel from one root to an adjacent root relationship, which of the following cusps are
surface. considered supporting cusps?

This pathway occurs via the facial aspect of A. Maxillary facial and mandibular facial
the alveolus. B. Maxillary facial and mandibular lingual
C. Maxillary lingual and mandibular facial
A. Both statements are TRUE. D. Maxillary lingual and mandibular lingual
B. Both statements are FALSE.
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second
is FALSE. 177. The central pit of the maxillary first molar is
D. The first statement is FALSE, the second formed at the bases of the triangular ridges of
is TRUE. which cusps?

A. Mesiobuccal, mesiolingual,and
When the mandible moves to the right side, distobuccal
which of the following represents the B. Mesiobuccal, mesiolingual, and
excursive tooth contacts which could occur on distolingual
the right molars? C. Mesiobuccal, distobuccal, and
distolingual
A. Non-working side contacts D. Mesiolingual, distobuccal, and
B. Working side contacts distolingual
C. Lateral contacts
D. Occlusion
178. Which of the following grooves on a
mandibular first premolar originates in an
occlusal pit and extends onto a proximal
173. Which of the following representsthe eighth surface?
tooth from the midline in each mandibular
quadrant at age 26? A. Mesiolingual developmental
B. Distolingual developmental
A. Second molar with incomplete root C. Mesial marginal
B. Second molar with complete root D. Linguogingival
C. Third molar with incomplete root
D. Third molar with complete root
E. Not erupted
179. The physiologic rest position of the mandible
174. The usual order of eruption of primary teeth is established when the
following the central incisors is
A. muscles of mastication are in tonic
A. first molars, lateral incisors, second equilibrium.
molars, canines. B. maxillary and mandibular teeth make the
B. lateral incisors, first molars, second greatest occlusal contact.
molars, canines. C. condyles are in their most retruded
C. lateral incisors, first molars, canines, position.
second molars. D. condyles are in their most protruded
D. lateral incisors, canines, first molars, position.
second molars.

175. During an endodontic procedure on 180. In an ideal intercuspal relation, the

Tooth #21, clinical symptoms lead the dentist mesiolingualcusps of maxillary molars
to suspect the presence of a second pulp occlude with which of the following anatomic
canal. Which direction is the MOST likely structures of mandibular molars?
location for the suspected canal?
A. Mesial fossae
A. Facial B. Distal fossae
B. Distal C. Central fossae
C. Lingual D. Mesial marginal ridges
D. Mesial
181. Which of the following occurs in a right lateral 186. In the intercuspal position, the facio-incisal
movement? aspect of a mandibular central incisor opposes
which of the following structure(s) of which
A. The right condyle primarily rotates. maxillary incisor?
B. The right condyle moves down the
eminentia. Marginal ridge(s) Maxillary incisor
C. The facial cusps of the mandibular left
side pass under the maxillary left facial A. Facio-incisal Lateral
cusps. B. Mesial and distal Lateral
D. The facial cusps of the mandibular right C. Distal Lateral
side pass under the maxillary right D. Mesial Central
lingual cusps. E. Distal Central

187. Excessive calcified tissue formation at the root

apices is known as which of the following?
182. Some degree of protection for lips, cheeks,
and tongue is afforded by the A. Concrescence
B. Enamel pearls
A. contact of adjacent teeth. C. Hypercementosis
B. deflecting function of triangular ridges. D. Cementa1 pearls
C. facial and lingual heights of contour of
the teeth.
D. horizontal and vertical overlapping of the
188. In the midroot cross-section, which root of a
teeth. first molar has the largest area?

A. The distofacial of a maxillary

B. The mesiofacial of a maxillary
C. The lingual of a maxillary
D. The mesial of a mandibular
183. Which of the following structures calcifies first E. The distal of a mandibular
in an anterior tooth?

A. Cingulum 189. Which of the following teeth usually has the

B. Cervical ridge steepest cusp inclines?
C. Marginal ridge
D. lncisal ridge A. Maxillary first premolar
E. Root apex B. Maxillary first molar
C. Mandibular second premolar
D. Mandibular first molar
E. Mandibular second molar
184. When compared to a maxillary first molar, the
crown of a second molar normally exhibits a
190. Which of the following teeth normally exhibits
A. larger distofacial cusp. five major cusps?
B. shorter distolingual groove.
C. greater mesiodistal crown width. A. Primary mandibular first molar
D. greater occlusocervical crown width. B. Primary maxillary second molar
C. Maxillary first molar
D. Mandibular first molar
E. Mandibular second molar

185. Which of the following are the principal muscle

fibers that retrude the mandible? 191. In the diagram of the envelope of motion, the
maximum opening position is the MOST
A. Superficial rnasseter
B. Posterior belly of the digastric A. centrally-located.
C. Posterior fibers of the temporal B. anterior.
D. Posterior fibers of the internal pterygoid C. superior.
D. posterior.
E. inferior.
192. The primary mandibular first molar normally 196. The third tooth from the midline normally
exhibits which of the following? erupts prior to the fourth tooth from the midline
in
A. An oblique ridge
6. A facial pit A. the mandibular arch of the primary
C. Three roots dentition.
D. A distal groove B. the maxillary arch of the primary
E. A distal triangular fossa dentition.
C. the mandibular arch of the permanent
dentition.
D. the maxillary arch of the permanent
dentition.
193. Which of the following BEST characterizes a
of mandibular second molar?
197. At what age is a primary maxillary canine
usually exfoliated?
A. Exhibits four cusps
B. Exhibits a DF groove
A. 6 to 7 years
C. Exhibits a distal cusp
B. 8 to 9 years
D. Exhibits one fused root
C. 10 to IIyears
E. Similar to the five-cusp variety
D. 12tol3years
mandibular third molar
E. 14 to I 5 years

198. Which of the following grooves on a maxillary

first molar runs from the mesial pit to the
194. Assuming occlusion and alignment are central pit on the occlusal surface?
normal, the arrow in the illustration below
represents the path taken by a A. Transverse of the oblique ridge
B. Distal oblique
C. Distolingual
D. Faciolingual
E. Central

199. The maxillary lateral incisor is usually equal to

or larger than the maxillary central incisor in
which dimensions?
A. cusp of canine.
B. facial cusp of first premolar. A. Root width (faciolingually)
C. lingual cusp of first premolar. B. Crown width (mesiodistally)
D. facial cusp of second premolar. C. Crown width (faciolingually)
E. lingual cusp of second premolar D. Root length (cervicoapically)
E. Crown length (cervicoincisally)

195. When a patient moves from maximum 200. Which of the following canines is the last
intercuspal position to place the anterior teeth anterior tooth to erupt and at what age does it
into an edge-to-edge relationship, the erupt?
condyles of the mandible have moved
A. Mandibular; 9-10 years
A. backward. B. Maxillary; 9-10 years
B. forward. C. Mandibular; 11-12 years
C. downward. D. Maxillary; 11-12 years
D. forward and downward.
E. backward and downward.
 NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
PART 1

TEST: DENTAL ANATOMY-OCCLUSION

FORM: 14 (A14)
DATE: D98

Item Key Item Key Item Key Item Key

101 D 126 C 151 D 176 B

102 B 127 A 152 A 177 A
103 C 128 B 153 A 178 A
104 E 129 D 154 B 179 A
105 B 130 C 155 A 180 C

106 B 131 D 156 B 181 A

107 D 132 E 157 B 182 D
108 A 133 D 158 C 183 D
109 D 134 D 159 B 184 B
110 C 135 E 160 C 185 C

111 E 136 C 161 A 186 D

112 A 137 C 162 B 187 C
113 A 138 B 163 A 188 D
114 D 139 B 164 E 189 A
115 C 140 C 165 B 190 D

116 B 141 D 166 A 191 E

117 D 142 E 167 A 192 E
118 A 143 B 168 E 193 A
119 D 144 E 169 C 194 D
120 A 145 C 170 C 195 D

121 B 146 A 171 C 196 C

122 B 147 B 172 B 197 C
123 D 148 A 173 D 198 E
124 B 149 A 174 C 199 D
125 B 150 C 175 C 200 D
PART l MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY (13)
MONDAY - P.M. DENTAL ANATOMY AND OCCLUSION (14)
DECEMBER 1998

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Blacken the circle that corresponds to each digit of your reference number.

5. Enter the name of this test (MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY) and the number of this test (13) on the
answer sheet. Blacken the circles that correspond to the test number.

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YOU ARE READY TO BEGIN. For each test item, decide which choice is correct and blacken the corresponding
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COPYRIGHT 1998
JOINT COMMISSION ON NATIONAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
AMERICAN DENTAL ASSOCIATION
211 EAST CHICAGO AVENUE, CHICAGO, ILLINOIS 60611
1. A patient who has anemia, poorly localized 6. Which of the following commonly produces a
abdominal pain, and wrist and foot drop probably positive heterophile antibody test?
is manifesting a toxic state induced by which of
the following? A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
A. Carbon tetrachloride C. Epstein-Barrvirus
B. Carbon monoxide D. Parainfluenza virus
C. Bismuth E. Herpes simplex virus type 1
D. Mercury
E. Lead

2. A patient with shingies (herpes zoster) is MOST 7. Which of the following inflammatory responses is
likely to have had a previous episode of which of associated with an infection caused by pyogenic
the following? pathogens?

A. Measles A. Catarrhal
B. Roseola B. Granulomatous
C. Chickenpox C. Pseudomembranous
D. Viral meningitis D. Acute suppurative
E. Infectious mononucleosis

8. Which of the following bacterial genera is LEAST

3. Normal human cells contain gene sequences likely to be found among normal anaerobic flora of
homologous to virus genome sequences known to the gingival sulcus?
induce cancer in animals. What term applies to
these gene sequences when found in human A. Mycobactenurn
cells? B. Fusobactenum
C. Prevotella
A. Protooncogenes D. Actinobacillus
B. Viral oncogenes E. Potphyrornonas
C. Retroviral genes
D. Analogous chromosomes
E. Homologous chromosomes 9. If Type A blood is accidentally transfused into a
Type B recipient, the immediate hemolytic
reaction would be the result of which of the
following?

4. Which of the following bacterial vaccines is given A. IgM against the A antigen
routinely to children in the U.S.A.? B. IgA against the A antigen
C. IgG against the B antigen
A. BCG D. T cytotoxic cell activation
B. Cholera E. Sensitization to antigens other than A or B
C. Polyvalent pneumococcus
D. Measles, mumps, rubella
E. Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus

10. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate

alternative for treating a patient allergic to
penicillin who has an infection caused by bacteria
5. Which of the following organisms is commonly sensitive to penicillin?
located on the dorsum of the tongue?
A. Rifampin
A. Actinomyces israelii B. Amoxicillin
B. Streptococcus salivanus C. Erythromycin
C. Lactobacillus acidophilus D. Tetracycline
D. Prevotella rnelaninogenica E. Cephalosporin
E. Streptococcusmutans
11. In the past 30 years, the mortality rate of which of 16. A patient with rheumatic heart disease is MOST
the following forms of cancer in women has likely to develop congestive heart failure due to
shown a marked increase? which of the following?

A. Uterine cervix A. Heart murmur

B. Colorectal B. Valvular insufficiency
C. Stomach C. Digitalis toxicity
D. Breast D. Cor pulmonale
E. Lung E. Aschoff bodies in coronary arteries

12. Normal clotting time and normal platelet count

accompanied by prolonged bleeding time 17. Which of the following represents the phenotypic
suggest which of the following? expression of both alleles in a gene pair?

A. Hemophilia A. Penetrance
B. Steatorrhea B. Lyonization
C. Polycythemia Vera C. Codominance
D. Thrombocytopenic purpura D. Hybridization
E. Excessive aspirin ingestion E. Heterozygosity

13. Dry heat sterilization of dental instruments 18. Hereditary angioedema is the result of which of
requires the following?

A. 3 minutes at 2 7 0 ' ~ (132'~). A. Lack of a thymus

B. Deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor
B. 20 minutes at 2 5 0 ' ~ (121'~). C. Developmental arrest of lymphocytes
C. 30 minutes at 3 2 0 ' ~ (160'~). D. Defective VH gene recombination to DJH
D. 60 minutes at 3 4 0 ' ~ (171'~). E. Bare lymphocytes (no Class llll antigens)
E. 6 hours at 1 0 0 ' ~(38'~).

14. Successful immunization with a hepatitis B 19. Legionella pneumophilia is commonly transmitted
vaccine results in the development of serum by
antibodies to which of the following?
A. sexual contact.
A. HBsAg B. water contaminated with human waste.
B. HBcAg C. aerosolization of organisms in contaminated
C. HBeAg soil.
D. HBV-DNA polymerase D. direct contact with respiratory droplets from
a contaminated person.
E. aerosolization of organisms in air
conditioning cooling towers.

15. Which of the following represents a simple 20. Which of the following BEST represents the
autosomal dominant disorder? pathogenesis of jaundice in patientswith
hepatitis A?
A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus A. Massive hemolysis
C. Gardner syndrome B. Portal hypertension
D. Cleft palate C. Damage to liver cells
E. Gout D. Massive fibrosis of the liver
E. Obstruction of main bile ducts
21. Which of the following pathologic changes is 27. Uncomplicated healing of a wound by secondary
irreversible? intention, observed microscopically at three days,
is MOST likely to show evidence of which ofthe
A. Fatty change in liver cells following?
B. Karyolysis in myocardial cells
C. Glycogen deposition in hepatocyte nuclei A. Mature cicatrix
D. Hydropic vacuolization of renal tubular B. Keloid formation
epithelial cells C. Granulomatous inflammation
D. Lack of acute inflammation
E. Ulceration of the epithelial surface
22. Which of the following is the major VIRAL cause
of birth defects in infants in developed countries?
28. Which of the following represents the MOST
A. Measles common autopsy finding in instances of sudden
B. Cytomegalovirus death as a result of myocardial infarction?
C. Herpes simplex
D. Rubella A. Valvular prolapse
E. Varicella-zoster B. Coronary thrombosis
C. Fibrinous pericarditis
D. Aneurysm of the heart wall
23. Warts are caused by which of the following? E. Rupture of the coronary vessel

A. Papillomaviruses
B. Herpesviruses
C. Rhinoviruses
D. Adenoviruses 29. Which of the following represents the
E. Rotaviruses characteristic cellular infiltrate in delayed type
hypersensitivity?
24. To which of the following molecules does HIV A. T cells and macrophages
bind? B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
A. CD4 D. B cells and plasma cells
B. CD8 E. Mast cells and basophils
C. MHC Class I
D. MHC Class II
E. immunoglobulin 30. Which type of oral candidiasis is likely to produce
a firmly adherent white plaque on the oral
mucosa?
25. Which of the following viral diseases has the A. Acute pseudomembranous
LONGEST incubation period? B. Chronic hyperplastic
C. Chronic atrophic
A. Herpetic gingivostomatitis D. Acute atrophic
B. Common cold
C. Influenza
D. Measles
E. Rabies
31. If a foreign antigen enters the body through the
26. Which of the following typically results in sudden skin, which of the following portions of the
death? lymphoid system is the antigen MOST likely to
reach FIRST?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Pneumoconiosis A. Liver
C. Pulmonary emphysema B. Spleen
D. Pulmonary saddle embolus C. Thymus
E. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis D. Lymph nodes
E. Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue
32. Each of the following is commonly associated with 38. Which of the following genera of bacteria is MOST
congestive heart failure EXCEPT one. Which commonly found on the skin?
one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Candida
A. Dyspnea B. Brucella
B. Cyanosis C. Bacillus
C. Anasarca D. Streptococcus
D. Ankle edema E. Staphylococcus
E. Passive congestion of the liver

39. Which of the following is unique to gram-negative

33. The appearance of new strains of human bacteria?
immunodeficiency virus are primarily the result of
A. Flagella
A. natural selection. B. Capsules
B. genomic recombination. C. Ribosomes
C, errors in translation. D. Endotoxins
D. errors in transcription. E. Endospores

34. Bleeding esophageal varices are a common 40. Inadequate immobilization after a bone fracture is
complication of which of the following conditions? MOST likely to result in which of the following?

A. Cirrhosis A. Osteornyelitis
B. Hiatal hernia B. Osteoarthritis
C. Pancreatic carcinoma C. Pseudoarthrosis
D. Chronic active hepatitis D. Heberden's nodes
E. Hepatocellular carcinoma E. Rheumatoid arthritis

41. Phage conversion is responsible for which of the

following?
35. Which of the following is the primary site of origin
of neuroblastoma? A. Transformation of bacteria
B. Production of beta-galactose
C. Production of pyrogenic toxin
A. Brain
D. Ability of Rhizobium species to fix nitrogen
B. Kidney
C. Stomach
D. Mandible 42. Which of the following represents the BESTway
E. Adrenal gland
to verify heat sterilization?

36. In the process of cell death, lysosomal enzymes A. Using a chemical monitor
function mainly to B. Recording sterilizer pressure
C. Recording duration of exposure
D. Recording sterilizer temperature
A. autolyze necrotic cells.
E. Testing with biological indicator
B. mediate cell degeneration.
C. act as a major target for cell injury.
D. activate the complement sequence. 43. Which of the following diseases is MOST often
characterized by hyphae growing in and around
vessels?

A. Candidiasis
37. The antigen-binding site of antibody molecules is B. Mucormycosis
localized in the C. Blastomycosis
D. Histoplasmosis
A. Fab fragment. E. Coccidioidomycosis
B. Fc receptor.
C. J-chain.
D. constant region.
44. In either an allergic reaction or a parasitic 49. The process of gene transfer between bacterial
infection, which of the following cells increase in cells that involves the uptake of naked DNA
number in the bloodstream? molecules is classified as which of the following?

A. Basophils A. Conjugation
B. Eosinophils B. Transduction
C. Plasma cells C. Translocation
D. Atypical lymphocytes D. Transformation
E. Nucleated erythrocytes E. Gene conversion

45. Which of the following viruses is characterized by 50. Obesity, striae, moon face, buffalo hump, and
latency and by the clinical symptoms that can osteoporosis are manifestations of which of the
follow trauma, fever, or nerve damage? following?

A. Variola A. Myxedema
B. Influenza B. Acromegaly
C. Rubella C. Addison's disease
D. Herpes simplex D. Cushing's syndrome
E. Coxsackievirus A E. Diabetes insipidus

51. The capsule of Streptococcus rnutans is an

important virulence factor that
46. Which of the following is the MOST important
function of bacterial pili in causing human A. has proteolytic activity.
infectious disease? B. enhances oral accumulation.
C. causes circulatory collapse.
D. prevents phagocytic digestion.
A. Making the bacteria motile
E. is necessary to cause bacteremia.
B. Allowing bacteria to adhere to human cells
C. Transfering DNA from one bacterium to
another 52. Which of the following genera form endospores?
D. Destroying phagocytic macrophages and
neutrophils
A. Proteus and Escherichia
B. Clostridiurn and Bacillus
C. Porphyromonas and Streptococcus
D. Mycobacteriurn and Actinornyces
E. Staphylococcus and Corynebactenurn
47. Host responses against encapsulated
Streptococcuspneurnoniae are chiefly mediated
by which of the following? 53. Which of the following chemical agents has the
broadest antimicrobial spectrum of activity?
A. IgE
B. IgD A. Phenol
C. Opsonins B. Ethanol
D. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. lsopropanol
E. Delayed hypersensitivity D. Glutaraldehyde
E. Quaternary amine

54. Which of the following viruses does NOT establish

48. MOST rickettsia1 diseases can produce severe a latent infection?
illness in humans because rickettsiae
A. Poliovirus
A. produce potent exotoxins. B. Epstein-Barr
B. cause extensive CNS damage. C. Herpes simplex
C. are destructive for epithelial cells. D. Varicellazoster
D. are destructive for endothelial cells. E. Cytomegalovirus
55. Cor pulmonale is usually the direct result of 60. A patient states that he immediately begins
wheezing and has difficulty breathing when
A. viral pneumonia. exposed to penicillin. Which ofthe following
B. myocardial ischemia. classes of antibodies is responsible for the
C. systemic hypertension. difficulty in breathing?
D. resistance to blood flow through the lungs.
E. streptococcal hypersensitization. A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. IgD
56. Which of the following represents one function of
macrophages in immunity?
61. Multiple drug resistance is related MOST closely
to bacterial
A. Produce IL-2
B. Produce antibody
Present antigen to antigen-specific T cells A. plasmids.
C.
Mediators of antibody dependent cellular B. chromosomes.
D.
cytotoxicity C. transduction.
D. transformation.
E. viruses in the bacterial wall.
57. What is the role of lactobacilli in coronal caries?
62. An enterotoxin formed by Staphylococcus aureus
A. Primary pathogen in most cases causes
B. Highly pathogenic in animal models
C. Causes progression of existing lesions
Highly adherent colonizer of smooth A. food poisoning.
D.
B. a rash on the skin.
surfaces
Consumes lactic acid produced by C. neuromuscular paralysis.
E.
D. spasms of voluntary muscles.
streptococci

63. The basic chemical structure of endotoxins

includes which of the following?
58. Which of the following represents the formation of A. Capsular polysaccharide
an intravascular blood clot? B. Acid stable peptidoglycan
C. H and L chain glycoproteins
A. Thrombosis D. Lipoteichoic acid, polysaccharide, protein
B. Hemorrhage E. Somatic 0 polysaccharide, core
C. Infarction polysaccharide, lipid A
D. Embolization
E. Transudation
64. Which of the following causes whooping cough?

A. Haemophilus intluenzae
B. Streptococcuspneumoniae
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Brucella melitensis
59. Which of the following statements is CORRECT E. Klebsiella pneumoniae
regarding glioblastoma multiforme?
65. Which of the following disorders is LEAST likely to
A. The tumor is most common before puberty. be included in the differential diagnosis of a
B. It is classified as a type of meningioma. patient with acute appendicitis?
C. It is the most common tvpe of astrocvtoma.
D. Its prognosis is generaliy more favorable
A. Crohn's disease
than Grade I astrocytoma.
It is derived from the epithelial lining of the B. Duodenal peptic ulcer
E.
C. Meckel's diverticulitis
ventricles.
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Gastroenteritis with mesenteric adenitis
66. Dimorphism in microorganisms is characterized 71. Penicillin is usually non-toxic to human cells
by the capability to produce because human cells LACK which of the
following?
A. both sexual and asexual spores.
B. both a yeast phase and a mycelial phase. A. Mitochondria
C. two distinct types of clinical infections. B. Peptidoglycans
D. both by budding and by production of C. Topoisomerases
spores. D. Nuclear membranes

72. Anaerobic bacteria obtain their energy

67. During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, requirements from which of the following
leukotrienes and prostaglandin are generated reactions?
from which of the following?
A. Respiration
A. Thymus B. Fermentation
B. Histamine C. Atmospheric oxygen
C. Arachidonic acid D. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. Bradykinin and other kinins E. Catalase and superoxide dismutase
E. Granules of mast cells and basophils

73. In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it must first

68. Under which of the following circumstances does adsorb onto the cell surface. This process
a graft versus host reaction occur? necessitates

A. When nonvital tissues are grafted A. phagocytic activity by the cell.

B. When viable lymphoid cells are present in B. an inhibition of the cellular secretion of
the graft interferon.
C. When the recipient and the donor are C. an insertion of virally specified glycoproteins
syngeneic into the host-cell membrane.
D. When the graft is contaminated with gram- D. a specific binding of the virus to a
negative microorganisms cell-membrane receptor.
E. When the donor and the recipient are of
different races

69. Which of the following is associated with an 74. Neisseria gonorrheae has affinity for which of the
increased risk of breast cancer? following structures?

A. History of bearing multiple children A. Skin

B. Estrogen deficiency B. Nerve cells
C. Silicone implants C. Plasma cells
D. Fibroadenoma D. Muscle fibers
E. Obesity E. Mucous membrane

75. Which of the following is MOST likely caused by

70. Which of the following are directly associated with chronic blood loss due to a long-standing peptic
destruction of glomerular basement membranes ulcer?
in a patient with glomerulonephritis?
A. Aplastic anemia
A. Eosinophils B. Hemolytic anemia
B. Lymphokines C. Pernicious anemia
C. IgE antibodies D. Myelophthisic anemia
D. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes E. Iron deficiency anemia
76. An afebrile patient with conjugated 81. Individuals with severe, uncomplicated pulmonary
hyperbilirubinemia and an absence of emphysema might be expected to show which of
urobilinogen MOST likely has which of the the following?
following conditions?
A. Cough
A. Cholelithiasis B. Chest pain
B. Aplastic anemia C. Normal or increased total lung capacity
C. Hemolytic anemia D. Difficulty when breathing in (inspiration)
D. Acute hepatitis
E. Alcoholic cirrhosis

82. Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA

virus?
77. Which of the following genera of fungi is MOST
frequently recovered from healthy mucous A. Rotavirus
membranes? B. Retrovirus
C. Herpesvirus
A. Candida D. Paramyxovirus
B. Aspergillus E. Papillomavirus
C. Histoplasma
D. Blastomyces
E. Coccidioides 83. Candidiasis in the adult oral cavity may signify a
change in the balance of oral microbiota. This
particular change is often seen in persons who
are taking which of the following drugs?

Which of the following disinfectants is effective A. Antiviral

against herpes simplex viruses but NOT B. Antifungal
rhinoviruses? C. Antibacterial

A. Phenolics
B. lodophores
84. In addition to Kaposi's sarcoma, which other
malignant neoplasm is often observed in AIDS?
C. Glutaraldehydes
D. Sodium hypochlorite
E. 70% isopropyl alcohol A. Mycosis fungoides
B. Testicular carcinoma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
E. Rhabdomyosarcoma
79. The chemotactic accumulation of inflammatory
cells that occurs at the sites where immune 85. Which of the following represents a malignant
complexes are deposited is MOST probably due tumor arising from mesenchymal tissue?
to the presence of
A. Sarcoma
A. C5a. B. Adenoma
B. Factor B. C. Carcinoma
C. IL-2. D. Hamartoma
D. IgA. E. Choristoma
E. IgE.

86. Certain enzymes are responsible for suppuration.

80. In which of the following organs or tissues are These enzymes derive chiefly from
ascending infections common?
A. serum.
A. Bone B. tissue.
B. Heart C. neutrophils.
C. Kidney D. lymphocytes.
D. Peritoneum E. plasma cells.
E. Subcutaneous connective tissue
87. Which of the following represents the classic 92. Which of the following represents the epithelial
microscopic lesion of rheumatoid arthritis? change MOST predictive of cancer?

A. Tophus A. Dysplasia
B. Pannus B. Metaplasia
C. Aschoff body C. Acanthosis
D. Heberden node D. Parakeratosis
E. Wire-loop lesion E. Hyperkeratosis

88. A 43-year-old woman exhibits radiographic 93. Acute leukemias are MOSToften seen in which of
evidence of an osteolytic lesion of the humerus. the following age groups?
Her serum calcium level is elevated.
Microscopically, the bone lesion shows numerous A. Under 20 years
giant cells. Which of the following represents the B. 20-40 years
MOST probable diagnosis? C. 40-60 years
D. 60-80 years
A. Renal rickets E. Over 80 years
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Osteitis deformans
D. Hyperparathyroidism 94. Which of the following is a major component of
nephrotic syndrome?

89. Adult respiratory distress syndrome might be A. Anemia

caused by each of the following EXCEPT one. B. Hematuria
Which one is this EXCEPTION? C. Hypertension
D. Proteinuria
A. Shock E. Red cell casts in the urine
B. Heroin overdose
C. Viral pneumonia
D. Cigarette smoking 95. Which of the following is the MOST common skin
E. Breathing 100 percent 0 2 cancer in humans?

A. Malignant melanoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Sebaceous adenocarcinoma
90. Which of the following is thought to be of MOST E. Transitional cell carcinoma
significance in the
an uncontrolled diabetic?
96. Which of the following represents the MOST
A. Genetics probable cause for prolonged bleeding time in a
patient with leukemia?

A. Decreased factor Vlll

B. lncreased factor IX
endothelium C. lncreased megakaryocytes
D. Decreased level of serum calcium
E. Decreased number of blood platelets

91. Rheumatic fever can be a sequelae to which of

the following streptococcal infections? 97. An abscess in the oral cavity with central necrosis
extruding pus containing sulfur granules would be
A. Pyoderma which of the following?
B. Diphtheria
C. Scarlet fever A. Furuncle
D. Dental caries B. Tuberculosis
E. Streptococcal gangrene C. Actinomycosis
D. Vincent's infection
 98. Patients with which of the following malignancies
have the poorest prognosis?

A. Lung cancer
6. Malignant melanoma
C. Pancreatic carcinoma
D. Carcinoma of the colon
E. Squamous carcinoma of the tongue

99. Asymptomatic carriers are a major hazard of

which of the following?

A. Plague
6. Shigellosis
C. Salmonellosis
D. Typhoid fever
E. Legionnaire's disease

100. Acid phosphatase is elevated in which ofthe

following malignancies?

A. Multiple myeloma
6. Carcinoma of the breast
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Carcinoma of the thyroid
E. Metastatic carcinoma of the prostate
 NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATIONS
PART 1

TEST: MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY
FORM: 13 (A13)
DATE: D98

Item Key Item Key Item Key Item Key

1 E 26 D 51 B 76 A
2 C 27 E 52 B 77 A
3 A 28 B 53 D 78 E
4 E 29 A 54 A 79 A
5 B 30 B 55 D 80 C

6 C 31 D 56 C 81 C
7 D 32 C 57 C 82 B
8 A 33 D 58 A 83 C
9 A 34 A 59 C 84 D
10 C 35 E 60 B 85 A

11 E 36 A 61 A 86 C
12 E 37 A 62 A 87 B
13 D 38 E 63 E 88 D
14 A 39 D 64 C 89 D
15 C 40 C 65 B 90 *
16 B 41 C 66 B 91 C
17 C 42 E 67 C 92 A
18 B 43 B 68 B 93 A
19 E 44 B 69 E 94 D
20 C 45 D 70 D 95 B

21 B 46 B 71 B 96 E
22 B 47 C 72 B 97 C
23 A 48 D 73 D 98 C
24 A 49 D 74 E 99 D
25 E 50 D 75 E 100 E
I