Indiabix Microbiology

 Micro Organisms - Section 1
B. absence of a nuclear membrane temperature

1. The phospholipids present in cytoplasm membrane of the archaeo-bacteria is
presence of a cell wall containing a
A. phosphoglycerides C. characteristic
outer membrane
B. polyisoprenoid
D. cytoplasmic ribosomes that are 70S
C. polyisoprenoid branched chain lipids
Answer: Option B
D. none of the above 6. Mycoplasmas are different from the other prokaryotes by
Answer: Option C A. presence of chitin in cell walls
2. The oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to be B. presence of murrain in cell walls
A. diplomonads like Giardia C. presence of proteins in cell walls
B. archaea D. absence of cell wall itself
C. fungi Answer: Option D
Explanation:
D. animals No answer description available for this question. Let us disc
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 7. Evolutionary relationships between groups of organisms
are determined using which of the following type of
information?
A. Comparisons of nucleotide sequences
3. The phospholipids present in cytoplasm membrane of eubacteria is mainly
A. phosphoglycerides B. Comparisons of biochemical pathways
B. polyisoprenoid C. Comparisons of structural features
C. phospholipoprotein D. All of the above
D. none of these Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Answer: Option A
No answer description available for this question. Let us
Explanation:
discuss.
8. Which of the following is not true for eukaryotic cells?

4. Which were the investigators lived at the same time?
A. Nucleus is bounded by nuclear membrane
A. Koch and Pasteur
B. Chromosomes contain histones
B. Darwin and Woese
Chloroplasts and mitochondria contains 70S
C. Van Leeuenhoek and Ricketts C.
ribosomes
D. Berg and Hooke
D. Gas vacuoles are present
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
discuss.
5. The unifying feature of the archaea that distinguishes them from the bacteria is
A. habitats which are extreme environments with regard to acidity
9. Which of the following is not true for prokaryotic organism?
A. Nucleus is not bounded by nuclear membrane A. Homeostasis
B. Chromosomes does not contain histones B. Tissues
C. 80S ribosomes are distributed in cytoplasm C. Reproduction
Cell wall contains peptidoglycan as one of the major D. Molecules

D.
component
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C Explanation:
Explanation: No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
14. A newly discovered microscopic structure is hypothesized

10. Gram staining was introduced by to be a living organism. Which of the following lines of
evidence would support the contention that this organism
A. Christian gram
may be alive?
B. Alfred Gram A. It contains DNA
C. Robertcook B. It is made of a single cell
D. Louis Pasteur C. It utilizes energy

Answer: Option A
D. All of these
11. Which of the following is considered the most unifying concept in biology?
Answer: Option C
A. Taxonomy
Explanation:
B. Anatomy No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
C. Genetics View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
D. Evolution
Answer: Option D 15. Mycoplasmas, rickettsiae, and chlamydiae are
Explanation: A. types of fungi
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report B. small bacteria
C. species of protozoa
12. Various bacterial species can be subdivided into
D. forms of viruses
A. subspecies
Answer: Option B
B. biovarieties
16. Which of the following structure is absent in eukaryotic c
C. serovarieties A. Mitochondria
D. all of these B. Chloroplasts
Answer: Option D
Explanation: C. Golgi structure
discuss. D. Mesosome
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report Answer: Option D
Explanation:
13. Living organisms have many complex characteristics. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Which one of the following is shared by non-living matter
as well?
17. Who was the inventor of the Petri dish?
C. Robert Koch
A. R.J. Petri, an assistant of R. Koch
D. Masaki Ogata
B. A famous French cook Answer: Option B
Explanation:
C. Italian glass blower from Petri, Italy
D. None of the above View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.22. The membranes of which domains are chemically the mo
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. Archaea and Bacteria
B. Bacteria and Eukarya

18. Which one is not studied in microbiology?
C. Eukarya and Archaea
A. Bacteria
D. membranes of all three domains are chemically ide
B. Animal behaviour
Answer: Option B
C. Fungi Explanation:
D. Algae View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.23. Primary differences between cilia and flagella are
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. arrangement of microtubules
B. length and location of basal bodies

19. A characteristic of protein synthesis in both the archaea and eukarya C.
is how the microtubules are fused to each other
A. transcription and translation are coupled
D. number, length and direction of force
B. translation is inhibited by diphtheria toxin
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
C. proteins are synthesized from D-, rather than L-, isomers of amino acids
D. the initiator tRNA is charged with N-formyl-methionine View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.24. All membranes of free-living organisms have phospholip
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. bacteria
B. fungi
20. Cell theory includes all of the following except
C. archaea
A. all organisms are composed of one or more cells
D. protozoa
B. the cell is the most primitive form of life
Answer: Option C
C. the cell is the structural unit of life Explanation:
D. cells arise by division of preexisting cells View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option B
21. The five-kingdom system of classification was set up by
25. All of the following are features of prokaryotes except
A. Louis Pasteur
A. nitrogen fixation
B. Robert Whittaker
B. photosynthesis
Answer: Option B
C. sexual reproduction
Explanation:
D. locomotion No answer description available for this question. Let us
Answer: Option C
26. Which of the following structures is the smallest?
A. Viriod 30. Which of the following best represents the hierarchy of le
B. Hydrogen atom A. Phylum, kingdom, class, order, genus, species, fam
C. Bacterium B. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, spec
D. Mitochondrion C. Kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus, spec

Answer: Option B D. Class, order, kingdom, phylum, family, genus, spec
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option B
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 31. The three domain version of life on earth is based on the
A. nucleic acid sequence data
B. morphological traits
27. Which of the following is/are included in Kingdom Prokaryotae?
A. Bacteria C. metabolic traits
B. Protozoa D. characteristics of the cell wall

Answer: Option A
C. Fungi
Explanation:
D. All of these No answer description available for this question. Let us
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 32. The foundation for the germ theory of disease was set do
A. Robert Koch
B. Ronald Ross
28. Which of the following may account for the small size of the cells?
A. The rate of diffusion C. Louis Pasteur
B. The surface area/volume ratio D. Walter Reed

Answer: Option C
C. The number of mRNAs that can be produced by the nucleus
Explanation:
D. All of the above No answer description available for this question. Let us
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 33. Most microbial structures and enzymes are composed o
A. lipids
B. proteins
29. Genetic and biochemical similarities between contemporary cyanobacteria and eukaryotic chloroplasts are
accepted to mean that C. carbohydrates
A. eukaryotes evolved from bacteria
D. lipids and carbohydrates
B. eukaryotes evolved from archaea
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
C. oxygenic photosynthesis first evolved in eukaryotes
View
D. cyanobacteria arose from chloroplasts which escaped from plant Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
cells
A. from a specialized lineage of cells within the kingdo
34. The individual best remembered for bringing microbes to the world is B. when prokaryotes engulfed each other and became
A. Robert Hooke C. when bacteria made their first attempts at reproduc
B. Antony Van Leeuenhoek D. just before the origin of the animal and fungal kingd
C. Robert Koch Answer: Option B
Explanation:
D. Masaki Ogata No answer description available for this question. Let us
Answer: Option B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 39. Who discovered the bacteria that cause cholera?
A. Pierre Berthelot
B. Robert
35. Micro organisms are found in which of the following kingdom of five kingdom Koch(Whittaker's
concept
classification)?
C. Louis Pasteur
A. Monera
D. Rudolf Virchow
B. Protista
Answer: Option B
C. Fungi Explanation:
D. All of these View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option D
36. The first organism in most natural food chains is
A. a herbivore 40. Prokaryotic microorganism include
A. protozoa
B. a decomposer
B. fungi
C. photosynthetic
C. bacteria
D. carnivorous
Answer: Option A D. all of these
Explanation: Answer: Option C
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.41. All the following are basic properties of cells except
A. cells have nuclei and mitochondria
B. cells have a genetic programme and the means to

37. The third kingdom, protista, as suggested by E.H. Haeckel includes
C. cells are capable of producing more of themselves
A. bacteria
D. cells are able to respond to stimuli
B. algae
Answer: Option A
C. fungi Explanation:
D. all of these View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.42. Which of the following microorganisms is classified as a
A. Gyanobacteria
B. Methanobacteria
38. Eukaryotic cell organelles first emerged
C. Trichomonads D. none of these
Answer: Option C
D. Mycoplasma
Explanation:
Answer: Option B No answer description available for this question. Let us
Explanation: View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
47. One of the reasons for the evolutionary success of the ki
diverse. Which of the following(s) is/are the way(s) of ob
43. The idea of selective toxicity was first proposed by
A. Photoautotrophy
A. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
B. Photoheterotrophy
B. Paul Ehrlich
C. Chemoheterotrophy
C. Louis Pasteur
D. All of the above
D. Alexander Fleming
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
48. Carl Woese and his colleague are best known for establi
44. Which of the following sequences has helped in identifying eukaryotes, eubacteria and archeabacterial cell
types? A. the five kingdom system
A. Signature sequence B. the three domain system
B. Signal sequence C. the prokaryote-eukaryote system
C. Shine-Dalgarno sequence D. the plant-animal system
D. Amino acid sequence Answer: Option B

Explanation:
Answer: Option A No answer description available for this question. Let us
Explanation: View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
49. Which of the following is not found in the kingdom Moner
A. Organelles
45. Archeal cells usually do not contain peptidoglycan, rather contain pseudo-peptidoglycan which is mainly
composed of
B. Organized cell structure
A. N-acetylmuramic acid and L-amino acids
C. Ability to reproduce
B. N-acetylmuramic acid and D-amino acids
D. Ability to use energy
C. N-acetyltalosaminuronic acid and D-amino acids
Answer: Option A
D. N-acetyltalosaminuronic acid and L-amino acids Explanation:
Answer: Option D View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
46. In the three domain system of classification, the traditional bacteria are placed in the
A. eukarya
50. Which of the following is the most primitive?
B. archaea
A. Virus
C. eubacteria
B. Eukaryote
Explanation:
C. Archaeon
D. Mitochondria View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option C
51. All the following are considered eukaryotes except
55. All of the following individuals contributed to cell theory e
A. archaea
A. Robert Hooke
B. fungi
B. Matthias Schleiden
C. protozoa
C. Theodor Schwann
D. humans
D. Rudolf Virchow
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Answer: Option A
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. Eukaryotic micro organisms include
56.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. protozoa
B. fungi
52. Which cell type is considered to have the oldest ancestor? C. algae
A. Archaea
D. all of these
B. Bacteria
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
C. Eukarya
D. they all share the same ancestor View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.57. The binomial name of a microbe is composed of
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. its kingdom and genus names
B. its genus name and a species modifier

53. What is Mycology?
C. its family and class names
A. Study of viruses
D. its genus and species names
B. Study of nucleic acid
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
C. Study of bacteria
D. Study of fungi View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.58. Which of the following is a characteristic unique to the ci
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. Use of cilia as a sensory function
B. Presence of both a macronucleus and several micr

54. Which of the following organelles contain DNA, divides and possesses
C.some
Bothdegree
(a) andof(b)
autonomy?
A. Golgi apparatus
D. Possess a light-detecting eye spot
B. Ribosome
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
C. Chloroplast
D. Peroxisomes View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option C
59. Which of the following structure is present in prokaryotic cells?
C. thermoacidophiles
A. Mitochondria
D. cyanobacteria
B. Chloroplasts Answer: Option D
 Bacteria Morphology - Section 1
C. Golgi structure
1. Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and are th
D. Mesosome
A. Cyanobacteria
Answer: Option D
Explanation: B. Mycoplasmas
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report C. Bdellovibrios
D. Spirochetes
60. The word cell was first used by Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A. Robert Hooke
B. Theodor Schwann View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
C. Louis Pasteur
2. A cluster of polar flagella is called
D. Ronald Ross
A. lophotrichous
Answer: Option A
61. What are Blue-Green bacteria called? B. amphitrichous
A. Acquaobacteria
C. monotrichous
B. Cyanobacteria
D. petritrichous
C. Protozoa Answer: Option A
Explanation:
D. None of the above No answer description available for this question. Let us
Explanation:
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 3. Flagella move the cell by
A. many flagella beating in a synchronous, whip-like m
62. The endosymbiosis hypothesis provides an explanation for how B. an individual flagellum beating in a whip-like motion
A. eukaryotes developed from prokayotes
C. spinning like a propeller
B. prokaryotes developed from eukaryotes
D. attaching to nearby particles and contracting
C. algae developed from protozoa Answer: Option C
D. protozoa developed from algae
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 4. The protein from which hook and filaments of flagella are
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. keratin
B. flagellin
63. The Archaea include all of the following except C. gelatin

A. methanogens
D. casein
B. halophiles Answer: Option B
C. It contains teichoic acids
5. The cooci which mostly occur in single or pairs are D. All of these
A. Streptococci Answer: Option D
B. Diplococci
C. Tetracocci
10. The cell walls of many gram positive bacteria can be eas
D. None of these A. lipase
Answer: Option B
6. Which of the following may contain fimbriae? B. lysozyme
A. Gram-positive bacteria C. pectinase
B. Gram-negative bacteria D. peroxidase

Answer: Option B
C. Both (a) and (b)
11. The cell wall of
D. None of these A. gram-positive bacteria are thicker than gram-negat
Answer: Option B
Explanation: B. gram-negative bacteria are thicker than gram-posit
C. both have same thickness but composition is differ
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
7. Peptidoglycan accounts for __________ of the dry weight of cell wall in many gram positive bacteria
A. 50% or more
B. About 10% 12. Peptidoglycan is also known as

C. 11%+ 0.22% A. N-acetyl muramic acid
D. About 20% B. murein mucopeptide

Answer: Option A C. N acetylglucosamine
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. D. mesodiaminopimetic acid
Answer: Option B
8. Bacteria having no flagella are unable to

A. move 13. Genetic system is located in the prokaryotes in
B. reproduce A. nucleoid
C. stick to tissue surfaces B. chromatin
D. grow in nutrient agar C. nuclear material

Answer: Option D
9. Which of the following is true about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria?

A. It consists of multiple layers 14. Which is most likely to be exposed on the surface of a gr
B. It is thicker than that associated with gram-negative bacteria A. Pore protein (porin)
B. Protein involved in energy generation A. pilli
C. Lipoteichoic acid B. flagella
D. Phospholipids C. sheath
Answer: Option A
D. capsules
Answer: Option B
15. The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan is

A. attachment of a peptide to muramic acid 20. The next to last step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis is
B. attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link A. synthesis of the NAM-peptide subunit
C. attachment of a portion of peptidoglycan to a membrane lipid B. removal of the subunit from bactoprenol
D. binding of penicillin to a membrane protein C. linking the sugar of the disaccharide-peptide unit to
Answer: Option B D. cross-linking the peptide side chains of peptidoglyc
16. Cytoplasmic inclusions include
Answer: Option C
A. ribosomes 21. The cocci which forms a chain is
B. mesosomes A. Streptococci
C. fat globules B. diplococci
D. all of these C. Staphylococci

Answer: Option D
D. Tetracocci
Answer: Option A
17. The cocci which forms a bunch and irregular pattern are
A. Staphylococci
22. The arrangement, in which flagella are distributed all rou
B. diplococci A. lophotrichous
C. Tetracocci B. amphitrichous
D. Streptococci C. peritrichous
Answer: Option A
D. monotrichous
Answer: Option C
18. Chemotaxis is a phenomenon of

A. swimming away of bacteria 23. Periplasm is
B. swimming towards a bacteria A. the area between the inner and outer membranes o
C. swimming away or towards of bacteria in presence of chemical compound

B. the area between the inner and outer membranes o
D. none of the above C. the interior portion of mitochondria

Answer: Option C D. the area outside the cell membrane that is influenc
Answer: Option A
19. The structure responsible for motility of bacteria is

24. Which of the following has peptidoglycan as a major constituent of cell wall?
A. Gram-negative bacteria
29. Single or clusters of flagella at both poles is known as
B. Gram-positive bacteria
A. monotrichous
C. Fungi
B. petritrichous
D. None of these
C. amphitrichous
Answer: Option B
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
25. The common word for bacteria which are helically curved rods is
A. cooci
30. Which of the following bacterial genera (that produces en
B. pleomorphic
A. Clostridium
C. bacillus
B. Bacillus
D. spirilla
C. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
26. The bacteria deficient in cell wall is D. None of these
A. Treponema Answer: Option C
31. Microcapsules are composed of
B. Mycoplasma
A. proteins
C. Staphylococcus
B. polysaccharides
D. Klebsiella
C. lipids
Answer: Option B
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
27. Which of the following is not true about peptidoglycan?

It is a polymer consisting of N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids (alanine,
A.
lysine, etc.) 32. Gram positive cells have a
A. second outer membrane that helps to retain the cry
B. It is present in prokaryotic cell wall
B. multiple layer of peptidoglycan that helps to retain
C. It occurs in the form of a bag shaped macro molecule surrounding the cytoplasm membrane
C. thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain
D. None of the above
Answer: Option D D. periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet
Answer: Option B
28. The common word for bacteria which are spherical in shape is
A. cocci 33. The common word for bacteria which are straight rod in s
A. cooci
B. bacilli
B. bacilli
C. spirilla
C. spirilla
D. pleomorphic
Answer: Option A D. pleomorphic
Answer: Option B
D. Electron transport system components
Answer: Option A
34. A single polar flagella is known as

A. monotrichous 39. Which of the following does not contain protein?
B. lophotrichous A. Pili
C. amphitrichous B. Flagellum
D. none of these C. Lipoteichoic acid

Answer: Option A
D. Porin
Answer: Option C
35. Teichoic acids are typically found in

A. cell walls of gram positive bacteria
40. Swimming towards a chemical of bacteria is termed as
B. outer membranes of gram positive bacteria A. positive chemotaxis
C. cell walls of gram negative bacteria B. negative chemotaxis
D. outer membranes of gram negative bacteria C. phototaxis

Answer: Option A D. magnetotaxis
36. In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes are
Answer: Option A
A. 70S 41. Chemically the capsule may be
B. 60S A. polypeptide
C. 80S B. polysaccharide
D. Not specific C. either (a) or (b)

Answer: Option C D. none of these
Answer: Option C
37. Porins are located in

A. the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
42. Peptidoglycan is found only in the bacterial
B. the peptidoglycan layer of gram-positive bacteria A. cell membrane
C. the cytoplasmic membrane of both gram-negative and gram-positiveB.bacteria

glycocalyx
D. the periplasmic space of gram-negative bacteria C. cell wall

Answer: Option A
D. spore
Answer: Option C
38. Which of the following is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
A. O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
43. The cell walls of Gram positive bacteria contain two
B. Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA) N- acetylmuramic acid (NAM). They are covalently li
A. α- 1,4-glycosidic b nd
C. Braun lipoprotein
B. β-1,6-glycosidic bond A. Bacillus anthracis
C. α- 1,6-glycosidic bond B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. β- 1,4-glycosidic bond C. Clostridium tetani

Answer: Option D
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: Option D
44. Which f the following organism has sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane?
A. Clostridum 49. The other name for peptidoglycan is
B. Proteus A. mucopeptide
C. Mycoplasma B. murein
D. Bacillius C. both (a) & (b)

Answer: Option C D. none of these
Answer: Option C
45. Name the component of flagellum.

A. Filament 50. Cyanobacteria have
B. Hook A. a gram-positive cell wall
C. Basal body B. a gram-negative cell wall
D. All of these C. Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: Option D D. No cell wall
46. The location where the bacterial chromosome concentrates is called
Answer: Option B
A. nucleus
B. nuclein 51. In which of the following, lipo-polysaccharide is a ma

A. Gram-positive bacteria
C. nucleoid
B. Gram-negative bacteria
D. nucleose
C. Fungi
Answer: Option C
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
47. Which of the following is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria?
A. Mitochondria of eukaryotes
52. Which of the following structure(s) is /are external to
B. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
A. Flagella
C. Lysosomes of eukaryotes
B. Stalks
D. None of these
C. Sheath
Answer: Option A
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
48. Which of the following has Chinese letter arrangement?
53. Which of the following may be most likely to be missing from a gram-positive bacterium?
4. In the process of freeze drying, a dense cell suspension is
A. Penicillin binding protein
placed in small vials and is frozen at
B. Peptidoglycan A. -60 to -78°C
C. Lipopolysaccharide B. -20 to -30°C
D. Phospholipid bilayer membrane C. -30 to -48°C

Answer: Option C
D. -48 to -58°C
 Cell Cultures and Characteristics - Section 1 Answer: Option A
Explanation:
1. Which of the following bacteria can grow in acidic pH? No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Lactobacilli
C. Shigella 5. The solidifying agent commonly used in preparation of media

D. Salmonella A. agar
Answer: Option B B. silica gel
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
2. Cell size and cell number can be measured using 6. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents may affect t
A. hemocytometer A. Vacomycin
B. coulter counter B. Polymyxin
C. petroff-hausser counting chamber C. Trimethoprim
D. none of these D. None of these

Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
Explanation: Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us No answer description available for this question. Let us disc
7. To select cholera-causing bacterium, Vibrio cholerae, the

3. Which of the following is used for the proper maintenance pH of the medium is maintained at a pH of
and preservation of pure cultures? A. 8.5
A. Periodic transfer to fresh media
B. 8.90
B. Preservation by overlaying cultures with mineral oil
C. 6.79
C. Preservation by lyophilization
D. 3.5
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D Explanation:
12. Pseudomonas aeruginosa forms a blue water soluble
pigment called
8. For the selection of endospore-forming bacteria, a mixed
culture can be heated at A. pyocyanin
A. 80°C for 10 minutes B. chlororaphin
B. 70°C for 10 minutes C. pyoverdin
C. 60°C for 10 minutes D. β-carotene
D. 90°C for 10 minutes Answer: Option A

Explanation:
Explanation: discuss.
No answer description available for this question. Let us View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
discuss.
13. Agar is used for solidifying culture media because
9. The concentration of agar to obtain semi solid media is A. it does not affect by the growth of bacteria
A. 1.5-20% it does not add to the nutritive properties of the

B.
medium
B. 0.5% or less
the melting and solidifying points of agar solution
C. >10% C.
are not the same
D. >10%but<20% D. all of the above
No answer description available for this question. Let us No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss. discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
10. Which of the following bacteria dies quickly after drying? 14. For the selection of lactobacilli present in cheddar cheese,
A. Treponema pallidium the pH of the medium is maintained at
A. 6.35
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. 5.35
C. Staphylococcus aureus
C. 4.35
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: Option A D. 5.75
11. Mac-Conkey medium is an example of Answer: Option B
A. transport medium Explanation:
B. enrichment medium discuss.
C. differential medium
D. all of these
15. A disease producing species occurring in a mixed culture ca
Answer: Option C
Explanation: A. pathogenic properties
B. special carbon source
C. special nitrogen source
D. none of these C. sugars
Answer: Option A
D. low levels of nitrogen
16. Important example(s) of enriched medium/media is/ are
Answer: Option A
A. Loeffler's serum slope Explanation:
B. Bordet-gengou medium
discuss.
C. Blood agar View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
D. All of these
Answer: Option D 20. Which of the following problem makes it impossible to satisfy
Explanation: A. Microorganism causes serious symptoms in humans
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report B. Microorganism cannot be isolated in pure culture
C. Species of microorganism is in question

17. Cell counting can be carried out by
D. Genes from the microorganism cannot be amplified by
direct microscopic count using petroffhansser
A. Answer: Option B
counting chamber
21. A medium containing crystal violet dye plus sodium deoxych
B. plate counting A. gram (-)ve intestinal bacteria to grow
C. membrane filter count B. gram (+)ve intestinal bacteria to grow
D. all of the above C. aquatic bacteria to grow

Answer: Option D
D. none of these
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us Answer: Option A
discuss. Explanation:
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report No answer description available for this question. Let us disc
18. Which of the following techniques may be performed

quantitatively to determine the number of bacteria of a 22. Which of the following bacteria can grow in alkaline pH?
particular type? A. Shigella
A. Pour plate
B. Lactobacilli
B. Spread plate
C. Salmonella
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Vibrio cholerae
D. Streak plate technique Answer: Option D
23. All bacteria that inhabit the human body are

19. Intestinal bacteria can grow in the presence of A. heterotrophs
__________ whereas nonintestinal bacteria are usually
inhibited. B. chemolithotrophs
A. bile salts
C. autotrophs
B. low concentration of various dyes
D. phototroph D. Hemocytometer
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
discuss. discuss.
24. When a substance is added to a liquid medium which 28. In the pour plate method, the mixed culture is diluted
inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria and favors the directly in tubes of
growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as A. liquid agar medium
A. differential medium
B. sterile liquid usually water
B. enriched medium
C. both (a) and (b)
C. enrichment medium
D. none of these
D. selective medium Answer: Option A
29. Treponema species from human oral cavity can be

25. Which of the following methods is most likely to be quantitative? selected by using
A. Dilution and plating A. pH of the medium
B. Gram staining B. incubation temperature
C. Wet mount C. cell size and motility
D. None of these D. all of these

26. Which of the following hint(s) suggest/s that a given specimen is likely
Explanation:
to contain anaerobic bacteria?
A. Gas in specimen
discuss.
B. Foul odour View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
C. Presence of sulphur granules

30. When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits
D. All of these growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as
Answer: Option D A. differential medium
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. B. enriched medium
C. enrichment medium
27. Viable plate count can be obtained using D. selective medium

Answer: Option D
A. Spread plate method
31. Peptone water and nutrient broth are
B. Pour plate method A. selective media
C. both (a) and (b) B. enriched media

C. basal media
35. Selective media facilitate growth of only one kind of
D. none of these
organism. Saboraud medium is used to selectively isolate
Answer: Option C
A. coliform bacteria
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. B. gram positive bacteria
C. yeasts
32. Stuart's transport medium is used for transport of D. acid fast organisms
specimen containing Answer: Option C
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae  Enzymes Regulation - Section 1
1. Allosteric enzymes are
B. Salmonella
A. larger than simple enzyme
C. Vibrio cholerae
B. smaller than simple enzyme
D. Shigella
C. larger and more complex than simple enzyme
Answer: Option A
Explanation: D. smaller than simple enzyme but not complex
discuss. Answer: Option C
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report Explanation:
discuss.
33. Plate counts are often reported as
A. cfu
2. Intracellular enzymes
B. cfu/ml
A. synthesize cellular material only
C. Both (a) and (b)
synthesize cellular material and perform catabolic
B.
D. thousands/ml reaction
Answer: Option B synthesize cellular material and perform anabolic
Explanation: C.
reaction
discuss. D. only provide energy to the cell
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
34. The medium which allows the growth of more than one discuss.
microorganisms of interest but with morphologically View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
distinguishable colonies is known as
A. selective medium
3. Enzyme catalase has non-protein metal as
B. enrichment medium
A. magnesium
C. differential medium
B. manganese
D. none of these
C. iron
Answer: Option C
Explanation: D. zinc
discuss.
8. The inactive protein from of enzyme is
A. apoenzyme
4. Isozymes or iso enzymes are those enzyme which
B. enzyme
A. have same structural forms
C. haloenzyme
have different structural forms but identical catalytic
B.
properties D. cofactor
C. catalyses oxidation reactions Answer: Option A

Explanation:
D. none of these No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
Explanation:
discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 9. The inactive organic molecular portion of enzyme is
A. apoenzyme
5. Enzymes are B. coenzyme
A. organic compounds produced by living organism C. holoenzyme
B. inorganic compounds D. none of these
C. organic as well as inorganic compounds Answer: Option B

Explanation:
D. all of these No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
Answer: Option A View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
6. Main function of an enzyme is to
A. increase the activation energy
10. Many enzymes consists of a protein combined with low mole
B. decrease the activation energy
A. apoenzyme
C. maintain constant activation energy
B. co-enzyme
D. none of these
C. holoenzyme
Answer: Option B
Explanation: D. co-factors
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report Answer: Option B
11. Organic molecules that increase the rate of metabolic reactio
A. coenzymes
7. Who coined the word enzyme first?
B. enzymes
A. Kuhne
C. substrates
B. Pasteur
D. reactants
C. Liebig
Answer: Option B
D. Buchner Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us disc
Answer: Option A View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Explanation:
discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report 12. Protein portion of an enzyme when it is combined with
organic molecule is termed as 2. Which of the following groups contain(s) many unique
coenzymes, such as coenzyme M and coenzyme F 420?
A. apoenzyme
A. Sulfate-reducing bacteria
B. co-enzyme
B. Methanotrophs (methane-oxidizing microbes)
C. holoenzyme
C. Methanogens (methane-producing microbes)
D. co-factors
D. Acetogens (acetigens; acetate-producing microbes)
Answer: Option A
No answer description available for this question. Let us Explanation:
discuss. No answer description available for this question. Let us
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report discuss.
13. The active form of enzyme is

3. In the passive diffusion, solute molecules cross the
A. apoenzyme
membrane as a result of
B. coenzyme A. concentration difference
C. holoenzyme B. pressure difference
D. none of these C. ionic difference

Answer: Option C
Explanation: D. all of these
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
14. Enzymes can
A. not pass through semipermeable membrane
4. In an oxygenic photosynthesis, the green and the purple
B. pass through semipermeable membrane bacteria do not use which of the following one as an
electron source?
C. dissolve semipermeable membrane A. H2O
D. none of these B. H2
Answer: Option A
 Microbial Metabolism - Section 1 C. H2S
1. During the carboxylation phase of the Calvin cycle, D. S (elemental sulphur)

CO2 combines with Answer: Option A
A. ribulose 1,5 - bisphosphate Explanation:
B. phosphoglyceraldehyde discuss.
C. pyruvic acid
D. oxaloacetic acid
5. Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of cells. Assu
Answer: Option A containing radioactive phosphorous. At the end of 48 hours,
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us A. enzymes
discuss.
B. RNA
C. phospholipids
D. all of these optimization of nutrient medium, deregulated
medium must be used as production strains
Answer: Option D
6. Assimilatory sulfate reduction involves the nucleotide __________ during the incorporation of H 2S in the
Phosphate repression can be eliminated by
production of __________ .
C. optimization of nutrient medium, regulated medium
A. ATP; methionine must be used as production strains
B. ATP; cytosine Phosphate repression can not be eliminated by

D. optimization of nutrient medium, regulated medium
C. UTP; cytosine must be used as production strains
D. GTP; cytosine Answer: Option A

Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
10. The acquisition energy by glucose fermentation requires

7. The chlorophyll molecules used by eucaryotes and
cyanobacteria absorb radiant energy in A. substrate-level phosphorylation
the____________portion(s) of the visible spectrum.
B. electron transport of electrons from NADH
A. red
C. long-chain fatty acid oxidation
B. green
D. the enzyme formic-hydrogen lyase
C. red and blue
Answer: Option A
D. green and ultraviolet 11. High energy transfer compounds are capable of
Answer: Option C A. accepting large amounts of free energy

Explanation:
B. transferring large amounts of free energy
discuss.
C. measuring free energy
D. none of the above
Answer: Option B
8. In aerobic respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is Explanation:
A. oxygen No answer description available for this question. Let us disc
B. nitrogen
C. hydrogen
12. Dolichol phosphate is
D. nitrate a complex lipid involved in docking vesicles with the
A.
Answer: Option A plasma membrane
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us the anchor on which sugars assemble before
B.
discuss. transfer to proteins
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report C. a chaperone used in protein folding
D. a product of phospholipase C activation

9. Which of the following statement is correct? Answer: Option B
Phosphate repression can not be eliminated by Explanation:
A. optimization of nutrient medium, deregulated No answer description available for this question. Let us
medium must be used as production strains discuss.
B. Phosphate repression can be eliminated by
13. The reactions of the cell that are carried out for capturing 17. Which of the following nucleoside diphosphates is used
energy are called most often in carbohydrate anabolism?
A. catabolism A. Uridine diphosphate
B. metabolism B. Adenosine diphosphate
C. anabolism C. Guanine diphosphate
D. activation energy D. Thymine diphosphate

Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
discuss. discuss.
14. In establishing proton gradient for chemiosmotic ATP 18. DAHP synthetase catalyzes the condensation of
generation by aerobic respiration the terminal electron
A. erythrose-4-phosphate
acceptor is
A. nitrate B. phosphoenol pyruvate
B. oxygen C. both (a) and (b)
C. sulfate D. phenylalanine
Answer: Option C
D. CO2 Explanation:
discuss.
19. Phosphate is considered to restrict the induction of
A. primary metabolites
15. If ΔG of a chemical reaction is positive in value and k eq is less than 1 then the chemical reaction will
A. proceed in reverse direction B. secondary metabolites
B. proceeed in forward directi n C. both (a) and (b)
C. not take place in any of the direction D. none of these

Answer: Option B
D. none of these Explanation:
16. The reaction, where small precursor molecules are assembled into larger
discuss.
organic molecules is referred as
A. anabolism
B. catabolism
20. Free energy change (ΔG) of a reaction is referred as the am
C. metabolism
A. liberated during reaction
D. any of these
B. taken up during reaction
Answer: Option A
Explanation: C. liberated or taken up during reaction
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report D. none of these
Answer: Option C
21. Which of the following does not produce oxygen as a produc
A. Oak trees
discuss.
B. Purple sulfur bacteria View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
C. Cyanobacteria
25. Standard free energy change (ΔG) can be expressed as
D. Phytoplankton
A. ΔG° = -RTlnkeq
Answer: Option B
Explanation: B. ΔG° = RTlnkeq
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report C. ΔG° = R/Tlnk eq
D. ΔG° = -RT/lnkeq
22. When acetate is the sole source of carbon for some Answer: Option A
microorganisms, the cycle which is used, is called 26. The glyoxylate cycle is used by some microorganisms when_
A. pentose phosphate pathway A. acetate
B. glycolyic pathway B. nitrate
C. glyoxylate pathway C. carbon dioxide
D. oxaloacetate pathway D. all of these

Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
27. Incorporation of atmospheric N 2to NH 4+ occurs via the

23. Hexose monophosphate pathway is also known as process of
A. phosphogluconate pathway A. assimilatory nitrate reduction
B. oxaloacetate pathway B. transamination
C. malate pathway C. deamination
D. fumerate pathway D. nitrogen fixation

Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
discuss. discuss.
24. If radioactive bicarbonate was supplied to bacterial cells, 28. The role of bacteriophyll in an oxygenic photosynthesis is
which were actively synthesizing fatty acids, it is expected to
to find the bulk of the radioactivity in
A. reduce ferridoxin directly
A. cellular bicarbonate
B. reduce NADP directly
B. the fatty acids
C. use light energy to energize an electron
C. the cytoplasmic membrane
transfer electrons to an intermediate in the sulfide
D.
D. nucleic acids oxidation pathway
discuss.
33. Which of the following catalyze liberation of
orthophosphate from organic P compounds and inorganic
29. TCA cycle functions in pyrophosphate ?
A. catabolic reactions A. Alkaline phosphates
B. anabolic reactions B. Oxidoreductase
C. amphibolic reactions C. Protease
D. none of these D. Hydrogenase

Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
discuss. discuss.
30. Entner-Doudoroff pathway is found in 34. For each glucose molecule broken down, there
A. aerobic prokaryotes are______________number of reduced coenzymes to be
oxidized.
B. anaerobic prokaryotes A. 12
C. both (a) and (b) B. 8
D. aerobic eukaryotes C. 6
Answer: Option C
D. 4
31. Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria oxidize
Answer: Option A
A. water
Explanation:
B. oxgyen No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
C. sulfide View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
D. ammonia
Answer: Option C 35. As the electron flow through the chains, much of their free en
Explanation: is called
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. A. oxidative phosphorylation
B. electromotive potential
32. Which of the following(s) is/are the products of the light C. dehydrogenations
reactions of photosynthesis?
D. none of these
A. ATP only
Answer: Option A
B. NADPH only 36. Digestive reactions where large molecules are broken down
A. anabolism
C. ATP and O2 only
B. catabolism
D. ATP, NADPH, and O2
Answer: Option D C. metabolism
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us D. biosynthesis
discuss. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A. substrate level phosphorylation
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. both (a) and (b)

37. Phosphate regulation has been observed in the production
of D. DNA
A. alkaloids Answer: Option C

41. The phosphate inhibition in the clavine formation with Clavic
B. antibiotics A. alanine
C. gibberelins B. methionine
D. all of these C. tryptophan
Answer: Option D
Explanation: D. lysine
No answer description available for this question. Let us Answer: Option C
38. Most of the energy in aerobic respiration of glucose is

captured by 42. The major route for incorporation of ammonia (NH 4+) into
A. substrate-level phosphorylation organic compounds is via
reduction of pyruvate or alpha-ketoglutarate by
B. electron transport of electrons from NADH A.
enzymes
C. long-chain fatty acid oxidation B. atmospheric nitrogen fixation
D. the enzyme formic-hydrogen lyase C. oxidation of pyruvate
Answer: Option B
Explanation: D. all of these
discuss.
39. During the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle,
phosphoglyceric acid is reduced
to______utilizing________as the reduction source. 43. The specific enzyme/(s) of the glyoxylate cycle is/are
+ +
A. phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADPH H A. isocitrate lyase
B. phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADH +H+ B. malate synthase
C. ribulose 1,5 - bisphosphate; NADH+H+ C. both (a) and (b)
D. pyruvic acid; NADPH+H+ D. anaplerotic

discuss. discuss.
40. In order to get inorganic phosphorous into organic compounds, the If ΔG of a chemical
44. phosphate reaction has
ion is incorporated via a negative value, the
reaction
A. releases energy A. green
B. requires energy B. blue
C. both (a) and (b) C. ultraviolet
D. none of these D. infrared

discuss. discuss.
45. The catabolic reaction, pentose-phosphate exists in 49. The relationship between an oxidation-reduction potential
difference and the standard free energy change is (where
A. prokaryotic cells
n is the number of moles of electron transferred, F=
B. eukaryotic cells Faraday's constant and E°= standard oxidation-reduction
potential difference)
C. prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells both A. ΔG° = -nFE°
D. none of these B. ΔG° = nFE°
Answer: Option C
46. Entner - Doudoroff pathway is not found in C. ΔG° = -nFlnE°
A. aerobic prokaryotes D. ΔG° = nFlnE°
B. anaerobic prokaryotes Answer: Option A

Explanation:
C. Both (a) and (b) No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
D. eukaryotes View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.50. ATPase
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. synthesizes ATP, coupled to transfer of extracellular pr
B. extrudes protons from the cell coupled to the hydrolysis

47. Aerobic catabolism of glucose yields how much energy
(ATP synthesized) relative to glucose fermentation? C. is the enzyme that incorporates ATP into messenger R
A. Slightly less D. carries out each of the reactions indicated in (a) and (b
B. About the same Answer: Option D
51. Which of the following is responsible for phosphate solubiliza
C. Twice as much A. Streptococcus
D. More than 10 times as much B. Streptomyces
Answer: Option D
Explanation: C. Bacillus
discuss. D. Clostridium
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report Answer: Option C
Explanation:
48. The bacteriochlorophylls used by the anoxygenic bacteria View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
have absorbance maxima located in the_____portion(s) of
the spectrum.
52. Phosphate deregulated mutants are
D. Both (b) and (c)
A. less sensitive to phosphate regulation
Answer: Option D
Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of cells.
B. moderately sensitive to phosphate regulation
Assume a culture of E. coli is grown in a culture medium
C. highly sensitive to phosphate regulation containing radioactive sulphur. At the end of 48 hours, it is
expected to find the radioactive label located in
D. none of these A. DNA
Answer: Option A
Explanation: B. enzymes
C. RNA
discuss.
D. all of these
Answer: Option B
 Microbial Genetics - Section 1
53. The mechanism of passive or facilitated diffusion require
A. metabolic energy 1. In the time since E. coli and Salmonella diverged
evolutionarily
concentration of solute against an electrochemical A. there has been little change in either genome
B.
gradient
E. coli has acquired many genes via horizontal
accumulation of solute against an electrochemical B.
C. transfer
gradient
C. E, coli has lost approximately 50% of its genome
accumulation or concentration of solute against an
D.
electrochemical gradient D. none of these
discuss. discuss.
54. Nitrogen fixation is a process that requires 2. Which of the following theory is supported by the genomic
A. energy sequence of the obligate intracellular parasite Rickettsia
prowazekii ?
B. an anaerobic environment A. Parasitic bacteria have very large genomes
C. both (a) and (b) Parasites have a definite genomic sequence similar
B.
to viruses
D. an aerobic environment
Answer: Option C Mitochondria have evolved from endosymbiotic
C.
Explanation: bacteria
discuss. D. All bacteria evolved from viruses
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report Answer: Option C
Explanation:
55. Bacteriochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll in what way? discuss.
A. The chelated metal in bacteriochlorophyll is not Mg
There are chemical differences between the two

B. 3. The physical nature of genomes is studied under
chlorophyll in their side (R) groups
A. structural genomics
C. They have different absorption spectra
B. comparative genomics
C. proteo genomics C. DNA through RNA to proteins
D. functional genomics D. none of these

discuss. discuss.
4. The species of bacteria, which possesses 250 genes for 8. Which of the following is used for determining the location
lipid biosynthesis is of specific genes within the genome?
A. M. genitalium A. Genomics
B. M. tuberculosis B. Annotation
C. E. coli C. Cloning
D. H. influenzae D. Proteomics
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
discuss. discuss.
5. Why the bacterium Treponema pallidum is difficult to culture? 9. Proteomics is

A. Because it requires a great deal of water to reproduce A. the study of algal genomes
B. Because it is unable to use carbohydrates as an energy source B. a branch of quantum physics dealing with proteins
C. Because it lacks the genes needed for TCA cycle and oxidative C.
phosphorylation
the study of formation of lipo-protein in animals
D. Because it requires extremely low temperature at which water freezes

the study of the entire collection of proteins
D.
expressed by an organism
Answer: Option C
6. What is the range of minimum set of genes required for life? Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A. 50-100 genes
B. 250-350 genes discuss.
C. 1000-1500 genes
D. 1500-2000 genes 10. Which of the following is concerned with the management an
Answer: Option B A. Bio-physics
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. B. Bioinformatics
C. Genomics
D. Biomechanics
7. The flow of genetic material in microbial cells usually takes
place from Answer: Option B
A. RNA through DNA to proteins 11. Which type of genomics studies the transcripts and proteins
A. Comparative genomics
B. proteins through RNA to DNA
B. Structural genomics
C. Proteo genomics
D. Functional genomics
Answer: Option D 15. Studies of similarities and differences among the genomes
Explanation: of multiple organisms is carried out in
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. A. comparative genomics
B. proteomics
C. functional genomics
12. Which of the following is the study of the molecular
organization of genomes, their information content and the D. structural genomics
gene products they encode?
Answer: Option A
A. Genetics 16. Why Deinococcus radiodurans is able to survive
massive exposure to radiation?
B. Ergonomics
Because it produces a thick shell which acts as a
A.
C. Genomics shield from the radiation
D. Bioinformatics B. Because it has unique DNA repair mechanisms

Answer: Option C C. Because its cellwall contains radioactive elements
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us Because it has many copies of genes encoding
discuss. D.
DNA repair
Answer: Option D
 DNA Replication - Section 1
13. The word, used for the small solid supports onto which are 1. Both strands of DNA serve as templates concurrently in
spotted hundreds of thousands of tiny drops of DNA that A. replication
can be used to screen gene expression, is
A. southern blot B. excision repair
B. cloning library C. mismatch repair
C. DNA microarrays D. none of these

Answer: Option A
D. northern blot Explanation:
Answer: Option C No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
2. Proofreading activity to maintain the fidelity of DNA
synthesis
14. Which of the following organisms has the smallest
A. occurs after the synthesis has been completed
genome?
A. H. influenzae is a function of the 3'-5' exonuclease activity of the
B.
DNA polymerases
B. M. genitalium
requires the presence of an enzyme separate from
C.
C. M. tuberculosis the DNA polymerases
D. None of these D. occurs in prokaryotes but not eukaryotes

discuss. discuss.
7. The replication of chromosomes by eukaryotes occurs in a

relatively short period of time because
3. Which of the following repairs nicked DNA by forming a
phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides? the eukaryotes have more amount of DNA for
A.
replication
A. Helicase
the eukaryotic replication machinery is 1000 times
B. DNA gyrase B.
faster than the prokaryotes
C. Topoisomerases C. each chromosome contains multiple replicons
D. DNA ligase D. eukaryotic DNA is always single stranded
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
discuss. discuss.
4. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA is called 8. In E.coli, which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer for
A. DNA polymerase Okazaki fragments?
A. DnaA
B. DNA gyrase
B. DnaC
C. DNA ligase
C. DnaG
D. helicase
5. Which of the following possesses both 5'-3' and 3'-5' exonuclease activity?
A. Kornberg enzyme 9. During which of the following process a new copy of a
DNA molecule is precisely synthesized?
B. DNA polymerase III
A. Trasformation
C. Taq DNA polymerase
B. Transcription
D. None of these
C. Translation
Answer: Option A
6. Which of the following statements on replication in E.coli is correct? D. Replication
A. It occurs in a unidirectional manner Answer: Option D
Explanation:
B. It occurs in bidirectional manner No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
C. Always uses T7 DNA polymerase when infected by T7 phage View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
D. Occurs only when λ phase has infected E. coli

Answer: Option B 10. DNA gyrase is inhibited by
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. A. tetracycline
B. nalidixic acid
C. both (a) and (b) C. T4 DNA ligase
D. cephalosporin D. All of the above

11. Which of the following enzymes unwind short stretches of DNA helixExplanation:
immediately ahead of a replication fork?
A. DNA polymerases
discuss.
B. Helicases View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
C. Single-stranded binding proteins

15. The synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerase occurs in the
D. Topoisomerases
A. 3' to 5' direction
Answer: Option B
Explanation: B. 5' to 5' direction
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report C. 5' to 3' direction
D. 3' to 3' direction

12. During DNA replication in prokaryotes, synthesis begins on Answer: Option C
the circular chromosome  Translation and Regulation - Section 1
A. always at the same place 1. Which binding is inhibited by pactamycin?
B. at any stretch of DNA that is high in AT pairs A. Aminoacyl-tRNA to the A-site of 30S subunit
C. randomly on the chromosome B. Initiator-tRNA to 30S/40S initiation complexes
D. at the promoter C. Peptidyl t-RNA to the 50S subunit

Answer: Option A D. Formation of peptide bond in P site
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us Answer: Option B
discuss.
13. DNA replication rates in prokaryotes are approximately of

the order of
2. Which of the following act as the blueprint or template for
A. 10 bases per second the process of protein synthesis that takes place on
ribosomes?
B. 1,00 bases per second
A. rRNA
C. 1,000 bases per second
B. DNA
D. 10,000 bases per second
C. tRNA
Answer: Option C
Explanation: D. mRNA
discuss. Answer: Option D
discuss.
14. Which of the following lacks 3'-5' exonuclease activity?
A. Short fragment of DNA polymerase I
3. Negative regulation of protein synthesis is accomplished
B. Taq DNA polymerase by
A. allosteric inhibition A. Ending frame
B. the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter B. Leader sequence
C. the binding of a repressor to the DNA C. Trailer sequence
D. the binding of a repressor to the RNA polymerase D. Reading frame

Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
discuss. discuss.
4. Site in the ribosome from which the tRNA donates amino 8. Which phage always carries a small piece
acids to the growing polypeptide chain is of E.coli genome?
A. P site A. Lambda
B. O site B. Mu
C. T site C. T4
D. A site D. T3
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
discuss. discuss.
5. When was the genetic code completed? 9. The final step of gene expression is protein synthesis,
which is also known as
A. 1958
A. replication
B. 1952
B. translation
C. 1966
C. transcription
D. 1968
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
6. Which stop codon has been found to encode selenocysteine? Answer: Option B
A. UAA Explanation:
B. UAG discuss.
C. UGA
D. AGA 10. What is the maximum number of different amino acids in a p

Answer: Option C polyribonucleotides (UCAG)5?
Explanation: A. One
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report B. Two
C. Three
7. Which of the following is a nontranslated sequence located
between the transcription and the translation start site? D. Four
Answer: Option C
11. What is the direct cause of cell death by diphtheria toxin?
D. 40S and 20S
A. Formation of an ion channel in the cell membrane
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
B. Inactivation of a translational elongation factor
C. Induction of apoptosis discuss.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 15. Which of the following three codons translate as serine (Ser)
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. A. AGU
B. CGA
12. The development of global regulatory systems in C. CAU

prokaryotes
D. AUG
determines the exact location of the cell on the Answer: Option A
A.
globe 16. The role of molecular chaperones is to
B. aids in DNA replication A. facilitate binding of ribosomes to mRNA
C. determines the exact location of the replication site B. degrade newly synthesized polypeptides that contain in
regulates many genes under varying environmental C. facilitate binding of RNA polymerase to DNA
D.
conditions
D. aid a newly synthesized polypeptide in folding to its pro
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Answer: Option D
discuss. No answer description available for this question. Let us disc
13. The interaction between the mRNA and tRNA determined 17. What is the action of tetracycline in prokaryotes?
the position of amino acid in a polypeptide sequence. This A. It blocks translocation reaction on ribosomes
is called the
A. stagerivity B. It blocks peptidyl transferase reaction on ribosomes
B. Wobble hypothesis It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A

C.
site of ribosomes
C. promiscuity
D. Not known with certainity
D. adaptor hypothesis Answer: Option C
18. A quorum sensing system

14. What are the Svedberg values for the subunits of the 70S A. detects a signal from the external environment
ribosomes of E. colli?
A. 40S and 30S senses a compound produced by the bacterium
B.
itself
B. 50S and 20S
consists of a sensor component that phosphorylates
C.
C. 50S and 30S a regulatory protein
D. controls the activity of ribosomes directly D. N-formylalanine
discuss. discuss.
19. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is 23. During amino acid activation a(n)
A. trailer sequence A. amino acid is bound to tRNA
B. a stop codon B. amino acid is bound to mRNA
C. the reading frame of a gene C. methyl group is attached to rRNA
a short sequence that acts as a ribosomal binding D. methyl group is attached to an amino acid
D.
site Answer: Option A
24. The nonsense codon(s) is/are

20. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. UAG
A. The size and sequence of introns can be deduced from the cDNA sequence
B. UAA
B. Restriction endonuclease can cleave ss and dsDNA both
C. UGA
C. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) is usually formed in coding sequence of a gene
D. all of these
D. Amino acid sequence of a protein can be deduced from corresponding
Answer:cDNA
Optionnucleotide
D
21. What was the first bacterial genome to be sequenced and made public?
discuss.
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Haemophilus influenzae 25. Which of the following defines an open reading frame (ORF)
D. No bacterial genome has been sequenced yet A. A sequence of genome in bacteriophage
Answer: Option C B. The sequence of a complete genome
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. C. A plasmid vector used in genome sequencing
D. A possible gene predicted by DNA sequencing
Answer: Option D
22. Which of the following modified amino acid is used at the 26. Three stop codons, which aids in termination of translation a
starting of most prokaryotic proteins? A. pause codons
A. N-formylserine
B. nonsense codons
B. N-formylmethionine
C. missense codons
C. N-formylleucine
D. antisense codons
Answer: Option B
D. all of these
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option D
discuss.
27. The ribosome binding site
A. forms a stem-loop structure in the RNA
B. is located upstream of the promoter sequence 2. In the extracellular medium, DNA-degrading enzymes
would likely be to prevent transfer of DNA by
C. is located immediately upstream of the start codon A. conjugal transfer by a self-transmissible plasmid
is more likely to be associated with an operon than B. generalized phage transduction

D.
with a gene encoding a single protein
C. natural transformation
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
discuss.
28. Which of the following molecule catalyzes the
transpeptidation reaction?
A. RNA polymerase
3. What is the term used for a segment of DNA with one or
more genes in the centre and the two ends carrying
B. Peptidyl transferase
inverted repeat sequences of nucleotides?
C. DNA ligase A. Plasmid
D. DNA polymerase B. Transposon

Answer: Option B
C. Insertion sequence
Explanation:
D. None of these
discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report Answer: Option B
Explanation:
discuss.
29. Which of the termination codon is called amber?
A. UAA
B. UAG
4. The plasmids can be eliminated from a cell by the process
C. UGA known as
A. curing
D. AUG
Answer: Option B B. breaking
 Microbial Recombination and Gene Transfer - Section
1 C. fixing
1. The plasmid-mediated properties is/are D. expulsion

A. fermentation of lactose Answer: Option A
Explanation:
B. production of enterotoxin No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
C. resistance to antibiotics View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
discuss.
5. Recombination of virus genomes occurs
A. by transduction
9. A microarray differs from a gene fusion in that, it
B. by transription
A. carries DNA segments from many different genes
C. simultaneous infection of a host cell by two viruses with homologous chromosomes
B. is not constructed by cloning
D. by transformation
C. gives direct measurement of mRNA level
Answer: Option C
6. The type of recombination that commonly occurs between a pair of homologous DNA
D. all of the sequences is,
above
A. mutagenic recombination Answer: Option D
Explanation:
B. site-specific recombination No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
C. replicative recombination
D. general recombination
Answer: Option D
10. Who discovered transposons (jumping genes)?
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. A. Abelson
B. Harvey
C. McClintock
7. Which of the following statement describes plasmids?
A. Another name for a protoplast D. Griffith
Answer: Option C
A complex membrane structure that covers the 11. Which type of plasmid can exist with or without being integra
B.
chromosome of bacteria
A. Medisome
Small, circular DNA molecules that can exist
C. independently of chromosomes commonly found in B. Lisosome
bacteria
C. Lysogen
D. Episome
Answer: Option C
discuss. No answer description available for this question. Let us disc
8. In lysogeny, 12. The main difference between a self-transmissible and a

mobilizable plasmid is that the self-transmissible plasmid
A. a bacteriophage transfers bacterial DNA
A. transfers both strands of the plasmid DNA
bacteria take up double stranded DNA from the
B. B. carries genes encoding the mating apparatus
environment
DNA-degrading enzymes in the extracellular C. transfers antibiotic resistance genes

C.
medium would stop the process
D. usually has a transposon inserted into it
a bacteriophage genome is integrated into the Answer: Option B
D.
bacterial genome Explanation:
Answer: Option D No answer description available for this question. Let us
17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in regards
to F+ x F- mating events?
13. Which of the following is the cause for drug resistance in
tuberculosis? A. DNA is transferred from F- to F+ cells
A. Mutation B. DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells
B. Transduction No DNA is transferred because F - cells are unable

C.
to perform conjugation
C. Transformation
No DNA is transferred because F + cells are unable
D. Conjugation D.
to perform conjugation
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
discuss. discuss.
14. The transposase gene encodes an enzyme that facilitate 18. Which of the following type of recombination does not
A. viral replication within a genome require homologous sequences and is important for the
integration of viral genomes into bacterial chromosomes?
B. general recombination A. Mutagenic recombimation
C. site-specific integration of transposable elements B. Site-specific recombination
D. none of the above C. Replicative recombination
Answer: Option C
Explanation: D. General recombination
No answer description available for this question. Let us Answer: Option B
discuss.
15. The term used for plasmids possessing both RTF and r determinants is
A. non self-transmissible plasmids
19. What information can be generated by interrupted mating
B. non conjugative plasmids experiments?
A. Levels of DNA homology
C. conjugative plasmids
B. Bacterial genome maps
Answer: Option C C. DNA nucleotide sequences
16. Diagnostic DNA probes have been developed for
D. Proteomics of the bacteria
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer: Option B
B. Hepatitis B virus Explanation:
C. Human immunodeficiency virus discuss.
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation: 20. Which of the following transport bacterial DNA to other bacte
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation B. Liable
D. Translation C. Competent
Answer: Option B
D. Infected
21. When composite transposons are formed
Answer: Option C
A. a small deletion occurs in the transposase gene of an IS element
Explanation:
B. No and
a small deletion occurs in the transposase gene of an IS element answer description
plasmid available for this question. Let us
is integrated
discuss.
C. an IS element integrates with another IS element with the helpView Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
of a plasmid
D. two IS elements integrate into a chromosome with only a small distance separating them
Answer: Option D 25. Penicillin resistance in staphylococci is acquired due to
Explanation: A. conjugation
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report B. mutation
C. transformation
22. Which of the following plamids do not possess information D. transduction
for self transfer to another cell?
Answer: Option D
A. Cryptic plasmids 26. The plasmid which makes the host more pathogenic is
B. Conjugative plasmids A. F factors
C. Non-conjugative plasmids B. Metabolic plasmid
D. None of these C. Virulence plasmid

Answer: Option C D. None of these
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us Answer: Option C
23. The term used for acquisition of naked DNA from its
environment and its incorporation in their genome by a 27. The expression of gene X (which has promoter Px) is to be
bacterium is monitored. A gene fusion construction for carrying this
work will
A. transformation
A. have Px but not the rest of the X coding region
B. lysogenic conversion
have the promoter of lacZ or some other reporter
B.
C. conjugation gene
D. transduction allow to monitor the expression of all genes with a

C.
promoter similar in sequence to Px
Answer: Option A
Explanation: D. give the same information as from a microarray
discuss. Answer: Option A
discuss.
24. What is term used for a bacterial cell that is able to take up
naked DNA?
A. Complementary
28. The transducing particles carry only specific portions of the
bacterial genome in which of the following transduction?
A. Specialized transduction A. Bacteriophage
B. General transduction B. Plasmids
C. Abortive transduction C. Transposable elements
D. None of these D. All of these

discuss. discuss.
29. The correct term for the transfer of genetic material 33. Which of the following type of recombination does not
between bacteria in direct physical contact is require homologous sequences and is utilized by mobile
genetic elements that move about chromosomes?
A. conjugation
A. Mutagenic recombimation
B. transformation
B. Site-specific recombination
C. replication
C. Replicative recombination
D. transduction
Answer: Option A D. General recombination
30. Plasmid that carries genes encoding enzymes, which degrade substances such as aromatic compounds,
pesticides or sugar are 34. Which of the following term describes the relationship
A. F factors between a virus and host where no new viral particles are
produced and the viral genome is replicated along with
B. metabolic plasmid host chromosome?
A. Lysogeny
C. virulence plasmid
B. Lysis
D. none of these
Answer: Option B C. Transformation
31. R factors involved in plant-microbe interactions are
D. Conjugation
A. plant proteins
Answer: Option A
B. bacterial proteins Explanation:
C. essential for transfer of DNA to plant cells discuss.
D. also called opines
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 35. Inverted repeat sequences at each end and a gene encoding
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. transposable element?
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report A. Composite transposon
B. Insertion element
32. Which of the following is used by microbial genetisists as a
tool? C. Virus
D. Plasmid The transmission of genetic information from parent
C.
to offspring
Answer: Option B
36. F factor plasmids play a major role in
D. The synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
A. conjugation Answer: Option B
 Immune System - Section 1
B. replication
1. Large parasites such as helminthes may be killed
C. transduction extracellularly by the action of
D. trasnscription A. basophils
Answer: Option A B. monocytes
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. C. eosinophils
D. neutrophils
Answer: Option C
37. Which of the following genetic elements carry the genes Explanation:
required for integration into host chromosomes? No answer description available for this question. Let us
A. Replicon discuss.
B. Plasmids
C. Transposons 2. Which of the following is correct for CD8 T cells?

D. Tandons A. CD8 T cells only recognize virus-infected cells
Answer: Option C CD8 T cell receptor recognizes epitopes that are
Explanation: B.
also commonly recognized by B cells
discuss. In the thymus, CD8 T cells undergo positive
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report C. selection only, whereas CD4 T cells undergo
negative selection only
38. The chromosomal genes, possessing fertility factor is CD8 T cells can kill individual virus-infected cells in
D.
known as a contact dependent fashion
A. R factor Answer: Option D

Explanation:
B. F prime factor No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
C. HFr View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
D. F factor
Answer: Option B 3. Passive immunization is done for
Explanation:
A. tuberculosis
discuss. B. diphtheria
C. enteric fever
39. Which of the following statement can describe horizontal D. all of these
transfer? Answer: Option B
A. The synthesis of protein in RNA Explanation:
The transmission of genetic information from one discuss.
B. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
independent, mature organism to another
4. Which of the following is correct for isoantigens? discuss.
They are antigens found in all members of different
A.
species
They are antigens found in some members of a 8. Major Histo Compatibility Complex (MHC) is a collection of
B.
species genes arrayed on
They are antigens found in all members of a A. chromosome 21 in man, chromosome 6 in mice
C.
species
B. chromosome 6 in man, chromosone 21 in mice
They are antigens found in some members of
D. C. chromosome 17in man, chromosome 6 in mice
different species
Answer: Option B D. chromosome 6 in man, chromosome 17 in mice
5. Numerous antibodies can be prepared, against one antigen, each binds to unique epitopes. How is this antibody
diversity generated? 9. CD8 surface antigen is present in
A. By rearrangements of the DNA encoding the variable regions ofA.
the cytotoxic
heavy and T light
cellschains
B. By the combination of different heavy and light chains that form B.
the antigen binding
suppresssor site
T cells
C. Antibody proteins can physically change their shape to bind different epitopes
C. both (a) and (b)
D. Both (a) and (b) D. none of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
6. Which of the following expresses CD3 surface antigen? Explanation:
A. Granulocytes No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
B. T cells View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
C. Monocytes
D. B cells 10. Treatment with bacterial endotoxins results blast formation in
Answer: Option B A. B cells

Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss. B. T cells
C. monocytes
D. none of these
7. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) Answer: Option A
can be attracted to the site of an infection following 11. Cytotoxic T-cells can be recognized by which of the following
A.
activation of complement A. CD4
B. are derived from bone marrow stem cells B. CD7
are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill C. CD8
C.
bacteria
D. CD9
D. all of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation: No answer description available for this question. Let us disc
C. A protein bound to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) me
12. Which is not an antigen-presenting cell (or APC)?
D. A cell surface protein
A. B cell
Answer: Option B
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte (or PMN) 16. Following are the defenses of the colon except
A. sIgA
C. Dendritic cell
B. fast flow rate
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B C. dense resident microbiota
Explanation:
D. mucus
discuss. Answer: Option B
13. Chemically an antigen may be
A. Lipid
17. Natural killer cells are involved in
B. Protein A. tumour rejection
C. polysaccharide B. allograft rejection
D. any of these C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells

Answer: Option D
D. all of these
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us Answer: Option D
discuss.
14. T cell receptors (or TCR) on CD4+ T cells
recognize peptides not associated with MHC
A. 18. Which of the following(s) is/are the determinants of
molecules
antigenicity?
recognize peptides associated with MHC class I A. Chemical nature
B.
molecules
B. Size of the antigen
recognize peptides associated with MHC class II
C.
molecules C. Foreignness
are secreted out into the environment to bind D. All of these

D.
antigens
Answer: Option D
19. Which of the following is correct?

15. Which of the following proteins would not need localization signal? A. All T Cells are CD4+
A. A nuclear protein
B. An epitope can have multiple antigens
B. A cytosolic protein
C. T Cell receptors are generated by random
assortment of gene cassettes epithelia cells
MHC Class II molecules are generated by random pass bacteria or virus to underlying macrophages
D. C.
assortment of gene cassettes for processing and presentation of antigen
Answer: Option C
they use their cilia to propel mucus out of the small
Explanation: D.
intestine
discuss.
20. Immunity is not long lasting to
A. Influenza
24. Which of the following statements is false regarding B
B. whooping cough
cells?
C. Diphtheria B cells can undergo class switching and produce a
A.
different antibody type
D. Mumps
Answer: Option A B one marrow stem cells migrate to the thymus and
B.
21. Lysozyme is present in develop into B cells
A. Sweat B cells synthesize antibodies and put them on their

C.
cell surface
B. Cerebro spinal fluid (CSF)
B cells that recognize high concentrations of
C. Urine D. antigens (self) in the absence of other signals
undergo apoptosis in the bone marrow
D. Saliva
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D  Antigen Antibody Reaction - Section 1
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.1. VDRL test is an example of
A. Tube test
B. Ring test
22. Macrophages are professional antigen- presenting cells.
The protein molecule through which they present antigen C. Slide test
in human is
D. none of these
A. Actin
Answer: Option C
B. Interleukin Explanation:
C. HLA discuss.
D. CD8
Answer: Option D
Explanation: 2. Weil-Felix reaction is based on sharing of antigens
No answer description available for this question. Let us between
discuss.
A. sheep RBCs and EB virus
B. mycoplasma and human O group RBCs
23. The role of the M cell is to rickettsial antigens and antigens of certain strains
C.
of Proteus
A. trap virus in mucus and prevent entry
D. none of these
B. induce apoptosis in virus-infected small intestinal
Answer: Option C
7. Precipitation reaction can be converted into agglutination

3. Agglutination reaction is more sensitive than precipitation reaction by coating soluble antigen onto
for the detection of
A. bentonite particles
A. Antigens
B. RBCs
B. Antibodies
C. latex particles
C. Complement
D. all of these
D. antigen-antibody complexes Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A Explanation:
8. Commercially available ELISA kits are used for the

4. Precipitation reaction is relatively less sensitive for the detection of
detection of A. rotavirus
A. Antigens
B. hepatitis B surface antigen
B. antigen-antibody complexes
C. anti-HIV antibodies
C. Antibodies
D. all of these
D. Complement Answer: Option D
9. Monoclonal antibody production requires

5. In which of the following case a large lattice is formed?
A. mouse splenic lymphocytes
A. Antibody is in excess
B. mouse myeloma cells
B. Antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion
C. both (a) and (b)
C. Antigen is in excess
D. none of these
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B Explanation:
6. Ring test is used for No answer description available for this question. Let us
discuss.
A. C-reactive protein test
B. Ascoli's thermoprecipitation test
C. typing of streptococci and pneumococci 10. Quellung reaction is used for typing of
D. all of the above A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer: Option D
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae A. double diffusion in one dimension
C. Both (a) and (b) B. single diffusion in two dimensions
D. None of these C. single diffusion in one dimension

11. Fluorescent treponemal antibody test is an example of
D. double diffusion in two dimensions
A. indirect immunofluorescence
 Bacteria - Section 1
B. direct immunofluorescence 1. Which of the following is/are not a gram-positive bacteria?
C. both (a) and (b) A. Streptococci
D. none of these B. Pseudomonas
C. Mycobacteria
12. Counter-immunoelectrophoresis is used for the detection D. None of these

of
A. Meningococcal antigen
2. Gram-positive bacteria, responsible for food poisoning,
B. Hepatitis B surface antigen is/are
C. Alpha-fetoprotein A. Mycoplasmas
D. All of these B. Pseudomonas
C. Clostridia
13. The test (s) based on the principle of toxin neutralization D. all of these
is/are
A. Nagler's reaction
3. The gram-positive bacteria lack __________
B. Schick test structure/component?
C. both (a) and (b) A. outer membrane
D. none of these B. Murein

Answer: Option C C. teichoic acid
Explanation:
No answer description available for this question. Let us D. plasma membrane
discuss.
4. Which of the following gram-positive bacteria causes

pharyngitis (sore throat)?
14. Slide agglutination reaction is/are useful for the
identification of the culture(s) of A. Neisseria
A. Shigella B. Streptococcus
B. Vibrio cholerae C. Staphylococcus
C. Salmonella D. Mycobacterium
D. All of these
5. Which of the following gram-negative bacteria is/are not aero

15. Amount of various immunoglobulin classes can be A. Pseudomonas
measured by
11. Gram-negative bacterium is/are
B. Neisseria
A. Escherichia
C. Escherichia
B. Clostridia
D. None of these
6. The enzyme, which hydrolyses the murein is C. Staphylococci
A. perxoidase D. All of these
B. tannase
C. lysozyme 12. Thermus thermopiles is a
D. none of these A. gram negative eubacteria
B. gram positive eubacteria
C. gram negative archebacteria

7. Bacterial spoilage is identified by which of the following
morphological characteristics?
D. gram positive archebacteria
A. Encapsulation
B. Endospores
13. Which of the following is a gram-positive bacteria?
C. Cell aggregation
A. Lactobacillus
D. All of these
B. Staphylococci
C. Streptococci
8. Bacteria are D. All of these
A. saprophytic
 Streptococcus - Section 1
B. symbiotic 1. The bacteria involved in the production of dental caries
is/are
C. hyper parasitic
A. Streptococcus mutans
D. all of these
B. S sanguis
C. Both (a) and (b)

9. Gram-negative bacteria, responsible for food poisoning,
is/are D. Streptococcus pyogenes
A. Salmonella
B. Pseudomonas 2. Which of the following test indicates the susceptibility to

streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin?
C. Clostridia
A. Schick test
D. None of these
B. Disk test
C. ASO test
10. Coliform bacteria on fermentation of carbohydrates yields
D. Precipitation test
A. lactic acid
B. acetic acid
3. Which of the following condition is non-suppurative
C. formic acid sequelae of Streptococcus pyogenes infections?
D. all of these A. Acute rheumatic fever
B. Acute glomerulonephritis A. Streptococcus MG
C. Erythema nodosum B. S avium
D. All of these C. S mutans
D. Enterococcus faecalis
4. Which of the following cross-reacts with cell wall

carbohydrate of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. Cardiac valves
B. Synovial fluid
C. Myocardium
D. Vascular intima
9. Which of the following test(s) may establish retrospective
diagnosis of streptococcal infection?
A. Anti-DNase
5. Streptococcus pyogenes can be differentiated from other haemolytic Streptococci B test
on the basis of
A. Bacitracin sensitivity B. ASO test
B. Erythromycin sensitivity C. Streptozyme test
C. Aminoglycosides sensitivity D. All of these
D. Penicillin sensitivity
6. Streptolysin O is
10. The bacterial sore throat is caused by
A. antigenic
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. oxygen-labile
B. Haemophilus spp
C. heat-labile
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. all of these
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
11.Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for
A. β-haemolytic streptococci
7. Cell wall protein of Streptococcus pyogenes
crossreacts with human
B. Staphylococcus aureus
A. synovial fluid
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. cardiac valves
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. myocardium
D. vascular intima
8. Individuals suffering from primary atypical pneumonia have

agglutinins to

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 Micro Organisms - Section 1

B. absence of a nuclear membrane temperature

8. Which of the following is not true for eukaryotic cells?

B. Chromosomes does not contain histones B. Tissues

C. 80S ribosomes are distributed in cytoplasm C. Reproduction

Cell wall contains peptidoglycan as one of the major D. Molecules

14. A newly discovered microscopic structure is hypothesized

C. Robertcook B. It is made of a single cell

D. Louis Pasteur C. It utilizes energy

B. Bacteria and Eukarya

B. length and location of basal bodies

C. Bacterium B. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, spec

D. Mitochondrion C. Kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus, spec

B. Protozoa D. characteristics of the cell wall

B. The surface area/volume ratio D. Walter Reed

B. cells have a genetic programme and the means to

A. Signature sequence B. the three domain system

B. Signal sequence C. the prokaryote-eukaryote system

C. Shine-Dalgarno sequence D. the plant-animal system

D. Amino acid sequence Answer: Option B

B. its genus name and a species modifier

B. Presence of both a macronucleus and several micr

63. The Archaea include all of the following except C. gelatin

A. Gram-positive bacteria C. pectinase

B. Gram-negative bacteria D. peroxidase

B. About 10% 12. Peptidoglycan is also known as

D. About 20% B. murein mucopeptide

8. Bacteria having no flagella are unable to

C. stick to tissue surfaces B. chromatin

D. grow in nutrient agar C. nuclear material

9. Which of the following is true about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria?

C. Lipoteichoic acid B. flagella

15. The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan is

C. fat globules B. diplococci

D. all of these C. Staphylococci

18. Chemotaxis is a phenomenon of

C. swimming away or towards of bacteria in presence of chemical compound

D. none of the above C. the interior portion of mitochondria

19. The structure responsible for motility of bacteria is

27. Which of the following is not true about peptidoglycan?

34. A single polar flagella is known as

D. none of these C. Lipoteichoic acid

35. Teichoic acids are typically found in

C. cell walls of gram negative bacteria B. negative chemotaxis

D. outer membranes of gram negative bacteria C. phototaxis

D. Not specific C. either (a) or (b)

37. Porins are located in

C. the cytoplasmic membrane of both gram-negative and gram-positiveB.bacteria

D. the periplasmic space of gram-negative bacteria C. cell wall

C. α- 1,6-glycosidic bond B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D. β- 1,4-glycosidic bond C. Clostridium tetani

D. Bacillius C. both (a) & (b)

45. Name the component of flagellum.

C. Basal body B. a gram-negative cell wall

D. All of these C. Neither (a) nor (b)

B. nuclein 51. In which of the following, lipo-polysaccharide is a ma

C. Lipopolysaccharide B. -20 to -30°C

D. Phospholipid bilayer membrane C. -30 to -48°C

C. Shigella 5. The solidifying agent commonly used in preparation of media

B. coulter counter B. Polymyxin

C. petroff-hausser counting chamber C. Trimethoprim

D. none of these D. None of these

7. To select cholera-causing bacterium, Vibrio cholerae, the

A. 80°C for 10 minutes B. chlororaphin