MEEEGS AKOLA CAPSULE 2019 BOTS- 01 THE LIVING WORLD & BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION

01. Following fungus belongs to class ascomycetes (count 14. Smallest organisms, self reproducing in free living
total number). Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, state are
Mucor,Agaricus, Puccini a, Albugo, Claviceps, (1) Bacteria (2) PPLO
Neurospora, Alternaria, Trichoderma, Aspergillus, (3) Prions (4) Viruses.
Ustilago, Morels, Buffles, Colletotrichum, 15. How is latin origin of scientific name indicated
Toadstool (1) Use of latin vocabulary
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8 (2) Printing in italics
02. What is present in all living beings (3) Underlining separately the two hand written
(1) Awareness of surroundings words
(2) Genetic material (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Metabolic machinery 16. A taxon is
(4) All the above. (1) A group of related species
03. Select the correct statement from the following (2) A type of living organism
(1) National Botanical Research Institute is (3) A group of related families
situated at Hawrah. (4) A taxonomic group of any ranking.
17. In oogamy the female gamete is
(2) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included
(1) Small and motile (2) Small and nonmotile
in the order Poales mainly based on the floral (3) Large and motile (4) Large and nonmotile.
characters. 18. Auxospores are
(3) All living organisms - present, past and future, (1) spores of dinoflagellates (2) spores of diatoms
are are evolved from common ancestors (3) spores of Fungus (4) spres of algae
(4) Solanum, Datura and Petunia are placed in 19. Gonyaulax causes
familySolanaceae. (1) Red bloom in ponds
04. Which of the following is the correct hierarchical (2) Red tides in oceans
sequence? (3) Paralytic shell fish poisoning
(1) Phylum-class-order-family (2) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Phylum-division-family-class 20. Slime moulds are
(3) Genus-species-order-family (1) Aquatic (2) Terrestrial
(4) Division-order-class-genus (3) Subterranean (4) Benthic
05. One of the most important functions of botanical 21. In sporozoa, locomotory organs are
gardens is that (1) Pseudopodia (2) Flagella
(1) They provide a beautiful area for recreation (3) Cilia (4) Absent.
(2) One can observe tropical plants over there 22. Which of the following is not true for a species ?
(3) They allow ex situ conservation of germplasm (1) Members of species can interbreed
(4) They provide the natural habitat for wildlife. (2) Gene flow does not occur between the
06. The cell wall material present both in blue green populations of a species
algae and bacteria is (3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every
(1) Pectin (2) Chitin other species
(3) Muramic acid (4) Cellulose (4) Variations occur among members of a species.
07. Which one of the following is common to multicellular 23. Viruses were discovered by
fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses? (1) Ivanowsky (2) Beijerinck
(1) Diplontic life cycle (3) Bowden and price (4) Stanley
(2) Members of kingdom Planate 24. Viroids cause diseases in
(3) Mode of Nutrition (1) Plants (2)Animals
(3) Humans (4)All the above
(4) Multiplication by fragmentation
25. Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by
08. During DNA replication in prokayotes DNA is
(1) D.l. Ivanowsky (2) M.W. Beijerinck
anchored to
(3) Stanley (4)Robert Hook.
(1) Chromosome (2) Mesosome
26. Taxonomic hierarchy is arranging taxonomic
(3) Nucleolus (4) Ribosome.
categories in
09. Madcow disease is caused by
(1) Desending order (2)Ascending order
(1) Bacteria (2) PPLO
(3) Linear order (4)Diagonal order.
(3) Prions (4) Viruses.
27. The term species was coined by
10. In the light of recent classification of living
(1) Aristotle (2) Linnaeus
organisms into three domains of life (bacteria,
(3) John Ray (4) De Candolle.
archaea and eukary(1), which one of the following
28. The biological term kingdom was proposed by
statements is true about archaea ?
(1) Aristotle (2)Theophrastus
(1) Archaea completely differ from both
(3) Linnaeus (4)ICBN.
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
29. A biological museum has collection of
(2) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
(1) Live plants and animals
(3) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(2) Preserved plants and animals
(4) Archaea have some novel features that are
(3) Pressed and dried plants
absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
(4) Photographs of plants and animals
11. Mycoplasma is not inhibited by penicillin as it lacks
30. Zoological parks differ from zoos in keeping
(1) Sexual reproduction (2) Cell wall
(1) Both plants and animals
(3) Ribosomes (4) Nucleus.
(2) Animals in cages
12. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in
(3) Animals in enclosures similar to their natural
(1) Rhodospirillum (2) Anabaena
habitats
(3) Chlorobium (4) Chromatium.
(4) Plants in green houses.
13. The terms taxonomy and systematics were coined by
31. Two species which are morphologically almost
(1) Pliny and Cato
identical but they do not interbreed. Such species
(2) Lamarck and de Candolle
are called as
(3) De Candolle and Linnaeus
(1) Evolutionary species
(4) Linnaeus and Huxley.
(2) Sibling species
(3) Polytypic Species
(4) Evolutionary trend
32. The disease caused by Trypanosoma gambiense is
(1) Sleeping sickness (2) Kala-azar 46. Arrange the following in ascending order of similar
(3) Diptheria (4) Dysentery. characteristic.
33. Which of the following statements is correct for I. Family II. Genus III. Class IV. Species
species ? (1) Class < Family < Genus < Species
(1) The members of a species occupy the same (2) Family < Class < Genus < Species
habitat (3) Species < Genus < Family < Class
(2) They are morphologically similar. (4) Class < Genus < Species < Family
(3) They can interbreed among themselves. 47. Which one of the following is a taxonomic aid for
(4) They cannot interbreed with members of the identification of plants and animals based on
other species. similarities and dissimilarities
34. Which of the following statements is not true about (1) Flora (2) Keys
fungi imperfecti? (3) Monographs (4) Catalogues
(1) They do not have sexual phase 48. Match the column:
(2) They include species that prey on nematodes Column I Column II
(3) They include toadstools, puffballs A. Man 1. Order - Carnivora
(4) They include Aspergillus, the fungus used to B. Mango 2. Family - Solanaceae
make soya sauce. C. House fly 3. Genus - Musca
35. Following features belongs to D. Tiger 4. Phylum Chordata
A. Mycelium septate and branched. E. Potato 5. Family – Anacardiaceae
B. Some members are saprophytes or parasites. (1) A-1, B-5, C-3 & 4, D-4, E-2
C. Reproduce only by conidia. (2) A-4, B-5 C-3, D-1 and 4, E-2
(1) ascomycetes (2) deuteromycetes (3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-5
(3) basidiomycetes (4) phycomyceters (4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5 & 2
36. When there are two haploid nuclei per cell in some 49. Select total number of correct statements from
fungi before the formation of diploid one, this stage the following:
is called 1. Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
(1) Diplotene (2) Dikaryophase breeders, both plants and animal
(3) Diplophase (4) Dikaryote. 2. All organisms handle chemicals entering their
37. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) has bodies.
(1) A single stranded RNA molecule 3. Metabolism is a characterstic feature of all living
(2) A double stranded RNA molecule organisms.
(3) A single stranded DNA molecule 4. In animals, growth is seen only up to a certain
(4) A double stranded DNA molecule. age.
38. Viroids have 5. Non-living object exhibits metabolism.
(1) Double stranded RNA enclosed by protein coat 6. The person in coma is nonliving.
(2) Double stranded DNA enclosed by protein coat (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Single stranded DNA not enclosed by protein (3) 4 (4) 6
coat 50. A group of connected biological objects is known as
(4) Single stranded RNA not enclosed by protein (1) Taxon (2) Species
coat (3) Genus (4) Family
39. India's largest herbarium is at 51. Which is the odd one ?
(1) Dehradun (2) Lucknow (1) Species (2) Malvaceae
(3) Kolkata (4) Chennai (3) Genus (4) Family
40. The following provides information about a taxon. 52. ICBN stands for
(1) Flora (2) Monograph (1) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(3) Manual (4) Catalogue. (2) International Congress of Biological Names
41. The book containing information about all the plants (3) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
of an area, their distribution, habits, habitats and (4) Indian Congress of Biological Names.
identification is 53. The living organisms can be unexceptionally
(1) Flora (2) Manual distinguished from the non-living things on the basis
(3) Catalogue (4) All the above. of their ability for
42. National botanical garden and national botanical (1) Reproduction
institute are located at (2) Growth and movement
(1) Lucknow (2)Kolkata (3) Responsiveness to touch
(3) Kolkata and Lucknow (4)Lucknow and Kolkata (4) Interaction with the environment and progressive
43. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic evolution.
hierarchy, the number of common characteristics 54. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the
(1) Will decrease same species if they
(2)Will increase (1) Have more than 90% similar genes
(3) Remain same (2) Have same number of chromosomes
(4)May increase or decrease. (3) Can reproduce freely with each other and form
44. Which of the following "suffixes" used for units of seeds
classification in plants indicates a taxonomic (4) Look similar and possess identical secondary
category of 'family'? metabolites.
(1) – Ales (2) – Onae 55. Systema Naturae was written by
(3) – Aceae (4) – Ae. (1) Aristotle (2) Linnaeus
45. The term 'systematics' refers to (3) Hippocrates (4) Darwin.
(1) Identification and classification of plants and 56. Choose the correct sequence in the hierarchy of
animals taxonomic categories in descending order
(2) Nomenclature and identification of plants and (1) Species- Genus-Family-Order-Class- Division
animals (2) Division-Order-Class-Family-Genus- Species
(3) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their (3) Division-Class-Family-Order-Genus- Species
relationship (4) Division-Class-Order-Family-Genus- Species
(4) Different kinds of organisms and their 57. Which nomenclature system is followed for naming
classification. of plants ?
(1) Binomial (2) Polynomial
(3) Vernacular (4) None of these.
 78. Biological concept of species is mainly based on
58. Which of the following rank contains organisms most (1) Reproductive isolation
similar to one another? (2) Morphological features only
(1) Genus (2) Species (3) Morphology and methods of reproduction
(3) Family (4) Class. (4) Methods of reproduction only
59. Select the correct combination of the statements (a- 79. How many main criteria were used by Whittaker for
(d) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms classification?
(a) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce (1) 1 (2) 3
methane in marshy area (3) 4 (4) 5
(b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue green alga which 80. A group of interconnected genera is called a
fixes atmospheric nitrogen (1) family (2) class
(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize (3) phylum (4) order
cellulose from glucose 81. Binomial nomenclature refers to
(d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive (1) One Latin name and one vernacular name
without oxygen. (2) One generic name and one specific name
The correct statements are: (3) One scientific name and one Latin name
(1) b, c (2) a, b, c (4) One scientificname and one vernacular name.
(3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d. 82. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
60. Which is correct? (1) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the
(1) Slime moulds are haploid nomenclature of plants and animals
(2) Dinoflagellatesare immotile (2) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for
(3) Protozoans lack cell wall classification of plants and animals
(4) Pellicle is absent in Euglena. (3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked
67. Which of the following sentence is correct? on taxonomy of a species or group
(1) Key includes only single trait (4) Classification of species based on fossil record.
(2) keys are generally analytical in nature. 83. Which of the following are the characters of
(3) Key does not helps in classification dinoflagellates ?
(4) All of these 1) Planktonic golden yellow algae with soap-box
68. Which of the following group includes diatoms and like structure
desmids? 2) Marine red biflagellated protista
(1) Protista (2) Dinoflagellates 3) Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red in
(3) Protozoan (4) Chrysophytes colour
69. The rhizoidal hyphae of Rhizopus are 4) Biflagellated orgnisms with pellicle
(1)Unbranched, aseptate and uninucleate 5) Saprophytic (or) parasite unicelluar forms
(2)Branched, aseptate and multinucleate (1) 1,2 and 3 only (2) 2,4, and 5 only
(3)Branched, septate and uninucleate (3) 2 and 3 only (4) 2 and 5 only
(4)Unbranched, septate and coenocytic 84. Taxonomic group of any rank is
70. Storage food of fungi is (1) Class (2) Order
(1) Glucose (2)Glycogen (3) Phylum (4)Taxon.
(3) Carbohydrate (4)Starch. 85. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the
71. Types of heterotrophic nutrition are correct sequence of events
(1) Holozoic and saprophytic (1) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
(2) Holozoic, absorptive and parasitic (2) Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
(3) Phagotrophic and parasitic (3) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
(4) Parasitic and saprotrophic. (4) Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy.
72. Domains of life proposed by Woese are 86. Mycobiont and Phycobiont are found in
(1) Prokaryota and Eukaryota (1) Mycorrhiza (2) Root
(2) Monera and Eukarya . (3) Lichens (4) BGA.
(3) Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya 87. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive
(4) Archaea, Eubacteria and Eukarya. characteristic of living things ?
73. In archaebacteria, the cell wall does not contain (1) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
(1) Cellulose (2) Chitin (2) Increase in mass from inside only
(3) Peptidoghycan (4) All the above. (3) Perception of events happening in the
74. Read the statements given below and identify the environment and their memory
incorrect statement (4) Increase in mass by accumulation of material
(1) Scientific names are often descriptive and tell us both on surface as well as internally.
some important character of an organism 88. During unfavourable condition, the plasmodium
(2) Scientificnames indicate relationship between differentiates and forms
species (1) Fruiting bodies bearing spores which are without
(3) Scientific names favour multiple naming for the cell wall
same kind of an organism. (2) Cell wall around body .
(4) Scientific names are used all over the world (3) Fruiting bodies bearing spores which are with cell
75. Oryza sativa is the botanical name of rice plant. The wall
word sativa stands for (4) Pamela stage
(1) Species name (2) Specific name 89. Which of the following category involved less
(3) Specific epithet (4) Specific nomenclature. animals?
76. When organism is in the same class but is not in a (1) Order (2) Family
same family, the taxonomic term is called as (3) Genus (4) Division
(1) Order (2)Genus 90. Alternation of generations is absent in Escherichia
(3) Family (4)Species. coli due to absence of
77. New systematics introduced by Sir Julian Huxley is (1) Chromosomes (2) Ribosomes
also called (3) Reduction division (4) Syngamy.
(1) Biosystematics (2 )Phenetics
(3) Cladistics (4) Numerical taxonomy

Biology by Jodhsir @ 7350441606

12th NEET 20.12.2018
MEEEGS, AKOLA.
COT + BOT - 1
1. The ionization energy of the ground state hydrogen 12. Which set of quantum numbers (n, l, m, s)
atom is 2.18  10 J. The energy of an electron in its
-18 represents the outermost electron in a gaseous
second orbit would be aluminium atom?
(1) -1.09  10 J-18 (2) -2.18  10 J
-18 1 1
(1) 2, 1, 0, (2) 2, 1,  1,
(3) -4.36  10-18 J (4) -5.45  10-19 J 2 2
2. The speed of the electron in the first orbit of the 1 1
hydrogen atom in the ground state is (c is the velocity (3) 3, 0, 0, (4) 3, 1,  1,
2 2
of light) 13. Which of the following is having the maximum
c c c c number of unpaired electrons?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1.37 1370 13.7 137 (1) Mg2+ (2) Ti3+ (3) V3+ (4) Fe2+
3. The wave number of first line of Balmer series of 14. If uncertainty in position and momentum are
hydrogen atom is 15200 cm-1. What is the wave equal, the uncertainty in velocity would be
number of first line of Balmer series of Li2+ion? 1 h h h h
(1) 15200 cm-1 (2) 6080 cm-1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
2m  2  m
(3) 76000 cm-1 (4) 1,36,800 cm-1
4. The wave number of the shortest wave length
15. Select the correct statements from the following:
transition in Balmer series of atomic hydrogen will
be (I) Splitting of spectra line occurs when placed in a
(1) 4215 Å (2) 1437 Å magnetic field or in an electric field.
(3) 3942 Å (4) 3647 Å (II) In case of 1 s-orbital, the density of the electron
cloud is the greatest near the nucleus and falls off
5. What is the de Broglie wavelength? Assume that
one mole of protons has a mass equal to 1 g? with the distance.
(III) Electron density is concentrated along a
(h = 6.626  10-27 erg s)
particular direction in case of 2 p-orbital.
(1) 3.31  10-3 Å (2) 1.33  10-3 Å
(IV) A p-orbital can take maximum of six electrons.
(3) 3.13  10-2 Å (4) 1.31  10-2 Å (1) (I), (II), (IV) (2) (I), (II), (III)
6. An electron is moving with a kinetic energy of
(3) (II), (III), (IV) (4) (I), (III), (IV)
4.55  10-25 J. What will be de Broglie wavelength for 15. Which of the following statements is correct?
this electron? (1) (n – 1) d subshell has lower energy than ns
(1) 5.28  10-7 m (2) 7.28  10-7 m subshell.
(3) 2  10-10 m (4) 3  10-5 m (2) (n – 1) d subshell has higher energy than ns
7. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is subshell.
not allowed? (3) (n + 1) d subshell has lower energy than nf
(1) n  3, l  1, m  2 (2) n  3, l  1, m  1 subshell
(3) n  3, l  0, m  0 (4) n  3, l  2, m  2 (4) nf subshell has lower energy than (n + 2) s
8. The wave number of radiation of wavelength 500 subshell.
nm is 16. The value of the magnetic moment of a particular
(1) 5  10 m
-7 -1 (2) 2  10 m
-7 -1 ion is 2.83 B.M. The ion is
(3) 2  10-6 m-1 (4) 500  10-9 m-1 (1) Fe2+ (2) Ni2+ (3) Mn2+ (4) Co3+
9. Radio city broadcasts on a frequency of 5,090 kHz. 17. The measurement of the electron position is
What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which
emitted by the transmitter? is equal to 1  10-18 g cm s-1. The uncertainty in
(1) 10.3 m (2) 58.9 m electron velocity is (mass of an electron is 9  10-28 g)
(3) 60.5 m (4) 75.5 m (1) 1  1011 cm s-1 (2) 1  109 cm s-1
10. The spacing between the orbits in terms of (3) 1  106 cm s-1 (4) 1  105 cm s-1
energy is maximum in the case of 18. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons
(1) first and second (2) second and third will be
(3) third and fourth (4) fourth and fifth (1) ns  np  (n – 1) d  (n – 2) f
11. A 3p orbital has (2) ns  (n – 2) f  (n – 1) d  np
(1) two non-spherical nodes. (3) ns  n(n – 1) d  (n – 2) f  np
(2) two spherical nodes. (4) ns  (n – 2) f  np  (n – 1) d
(3) one spherical and one non-spherical node.
(4) one spherical and two non-spherical nodes.
12th NEET 20.12.2018
19. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the 29. Which of the following statement about
valence electron of rubidium atom (Z=37) is Avogadro’s hypothesis is correct?
(1) 5, 1, + 1/2 (2) 6, 0, 0, + 1/2 1.Under similar condition of temperature and
(3) 5, 0, 0, + 1/2 (4) 5, 1, 0, + ½ pressure, gases react with each other in simple ratio
20. The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63  10-34 Js. The 2. Under similar condition of temperature and
speed of light is 3  1017 nm s-1. Which value is closet pressure, equal volume of all gases contain same
to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light number of molecules
with frequency of 6  1015 s-1? 3.At NTP all gases contain same number of molecules
(1) 10 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75 4.Gases always react with gases only at the given
21. What is the maximum numbers of electrons that temperature and pressure
can be associated with the following set of quantum 30. An organic compound on analysis gave C=54.2%,
numbers? H= 9.2% by mass. Its empirical formula is
n = 3, l = 1 and m = -1 1.CHO2 2.CH2O 3.C2H8O 4.C2H4O
(1) 10 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2 31. Two elements ‘P’ and ‘Q’ combine to form a
22. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can compound. Atomic mass of ‘P’ is 12 and ‘Q’ is 16.
be identified with the following quantum numbers? Percentage of ‘P’ in the compound is 27.3.What will
n = 3, l = 1, m = 0 be the empirical formula of the compound ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 1.P2Q2 2.PQ 3.P2Q 4.PQ2
23. The angular momentum of electron in d orbital is 32. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in
equal to blood is 0.9 g L-1, what will be the morality of
(1) 2 h (2) 2 3h (3) 0 h (4) 6 h glucose in blood?
1.5M 2.50M 3.0.005M 4.0.5M
24. The number of d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26) is not
2+
33. What will be the morality of the solution
equal to the number of electrons in which one of the
containing 18.25 g of HCL gas in 500g of water?
following?
1.0.1 m 2.1 M 3.0.5 m 4.1 m
(1) p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)
34. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a
(2) d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
compound are CH2O and 180g respectively. What will
(3) p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
be the molecular formula of the compound?
(4) s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
1.C9H18O9 2.CH2O 3 .C6H12O6 4.C2H4O2
25.How much mass of silver nitrate will react with
35. Which of the following statement about a
5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 g of silver
compound is correct?
chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate if law of
1.A molecule of a compound has atoms of different
conservation of mass is followed
elements.
(1) 22.85 g (2) 108 g
2.A compound can not seprated into its constituent
(3) 17.0 g (4) 28.70 g
element by physical method of separation.
26.What mass of sodium chloride would be
3.A compound retains the physical properties of its
decomposed by 9.8 g of sulphiric acid if 12 g of
constitute element.
sodium bisulphate and 2.75 g of hydrogen chloride
4.The ratio of atom of different element in a
were produced in a reaction
compound is fixed.
1.14.75g 2.3.8 g 3.4.95 g 4.2.2 g
36. A compound was found contain nitrogen and
27.In an experiment 2.4 g of iron oxide on reduction
oxygen in the ratio nitrogen 28 g and oxygen 80 g.
with hydrogen gave 1.68of iron.In another
The formula of compound is:
experiment,2.9 g of iron oxide gave 2.09g of iron on
1.NO 2.N2O3 3.N2O5 4.N2O4
reduction. Which law is illustrate from the above
37. The percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH2),
data ?
is:
1.Law of constant proportion
(1) 38.4 (2) 46.6 (3) 59.1 (4) 61.3
2.Law of multiple proportion
38. The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO3
3.Law of reciprocal proportion
gave 11.2 dm3 of CO2 gas at STP. The mass of KOH
4.Law of conservation of mass
required to completely neutralize the gas is:
28. Cholorine gas is prepared by reaction of H2SO4
(1) 56 g (2) 28 g (3) 42 g (4) 20 g
with MnO2 and NaCl. What volume of Cl2 will be
39. The incorrect statement for 14 g CO is:
produced at STP if 50 g of NaCl is taken in the
(1) It occupies 2.24 L at NTP
reaction
1
1.1.915 L 2.22.4 L (2) It corresponds to mole of CO
3.11.2 L 4.9.57 L 2
(3) It corresponds to same mole of CO and N2
(4) It corresponds to 3.01  1023 molecules of CO
12th NEET 20.12.2018
40. In the DNA of E.coli, the mole ratio of adenine to 43. The density of a liquid is 1.2 g/mL. There are 35
cytosine is 0.7. If the number of moles of adenine in drops in 2 mL. The number of molecules in 1 drop is
the DNA is 350000, the number of moles of guanine (molecular weight of liquid = 70):
is equal to: 2
1.2  1 
(1) 350000 (2) 500000 (1) NA (2)   N A
(3) 225000 (4) 700000 35  35 
41. A metal oxide has the formula X2 O3. It can be 1.2
(3) NA (4) 1.2 NA
reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water. (35) 2
0.1596 g of metal oxide requires 6 mg of hydrogen for
44. Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194. If it
complete reduction. The atomic mass of metal in amu
contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, of atoms of
is: nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is:
(1) 15.58 (2) 155.8 (3) 5.58 (4) 55.8 (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 3
42. The mass and charge of 1 mole electrons will be:
45. The mass of carbon present in 0.5 mole of K4
(1) 1 kg; 96500 C (2) 0.55 mg; 96500 C
[Fe(CN)6] is:
(3) 1.55 mg; 96500 C (4) 5.5 mg; 96500 C
(1) 1.8 g (2) 18 g (3) 3.6 g (4) 36 g