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Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) topic quiz

Set 4 Particles and medical physics


Instructions and answers for teachers

These instructions cover the learner activity section which can be found on page 38 of this
document.

This Lesson Element supports OCR AS and A Level Physics A.

When distributing the activity section to the students either as a printed copy or as a
Word file you will need to remove the teacher instructions section.

The Activity
This Lesson Element is a teaching and learning resource containing 45 multiple choice questions
(MCQs) on the theme of Particles and medical physics. Some questions might require synoptic
thinking, using knowledge and ideas from various topics across the full A Level content.

This resource can be used to test and consolidate understanding at the end of a topic or to revisit
and refresh knowledge at a later point in the course.

Introduction
Multiple choice questions allow rapid coverage of a wide range of sub-topics.

Contrary to a widespread belief among students, multiple choice questions are not necessarily
easy – they can be easy, moderate or difficult.

The questions are written so that the incorrect answers are plausible distractors based on common
errors or misconceptions.

When the developers are writing such questions they have to provide the logic to support their
answers and the reasoning for each distractor.

Version 1 1 © OCR 2017


For example for question 24:

24 A bar magnet is allowed to fall vertically through a coil.

Which graph shows the variation in induced emf. V across the ends of the coil with time t while
the magnet passes through the coil?

Rationale for the key and distractors:

D Induced emf increases as magnet approaches with increasing speed. Emf reverses as magnet
passes through centre. Emf reaches a higher value as magnet comes out because speed is greater,
but the emf is for a shorter time.

A No reversal of emf as magnet passes through.

B Emf is symmetrical – acceleration has not been taken into account.

C Sine curve – does not account for initial motion from rest, the acceleration through the coil or the
rate of change of flux tending to zero as magnet falls away underneath.

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Possible techniques for completion
For calculation questions completing the calculation before looking at the alternative answers can
avoid being deflected by the distractors and ensure an impartial response.

For questions involving thinking skills and logical deduction it may be possible to eliminate at least
one answer as being a distractor, thus reducing the final choice.

It is not good practice to leave any answer blank, unless the marking for the multiple choice
questions includes a penalty for incorrect answers, so it is worthwhile using knowledge or intuition to
select what you believe is the most likely answer.

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Contents
Teacher section
Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz - answers – Capacitance ......................................................... 5

Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz - answers – Magnetic Fields .................................................. 20

Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz - answers – Nuclear and particle physics .............................. 29

Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz - answers – Medical imaging ................................................. 35

Learner resources
Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz – Capacitance ....................................................................... 38

Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz – Magnetic Fields .................................................................. 54

Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz – Nuclear and particle physics............................................... 63

Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz – Medical imaging ................................................................. 69

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Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz - answers –
Capacitance
1. A 2200 μF capacitor is discharged through a 2200 Ω resistor. To the nearest second, how long
will it take for the charge to fall to half the original value?

A 1.0 s

B 1.5 s

C 2.4 s

D 3.4 s

Your answer D

2. The diagrams show two ways of connecting two identical capacitors of capacitance C in
circuits, each with a power supply of p.d. V.

𝒕𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒔𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒆𝒅 𝒊𝒏 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒄𝒂𝒑𝒂𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒔 𝒊𝒏 𝒄𝒊𝒓𝒄𝒖𝒊𝒕 𝟏


What is the value of ?
𝒕𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒔𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒆𝒅 𝒊𝒏 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒄𝒂𝒑𝒂𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒔 𝒊𝒏 𝒄𝒊𝒓𝒄𝒖𝒊𝒕 𝟐

1
A
2
1
B
4
1
C
8
1
D
16
B
Your answer

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3. The circuit shown was used to discharge the 10 μF capacitor through the variable resistor R.

The current was kept at a constant 20 μA for 40 s by the continuous adjustment of R.

By how much did the potential difference across the capacitor fall during this time?

A 1.3 x 10-2 V

B 14 V

C 20 V

D 80 V

Your answer D

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4. Three identical capacitors are connected together as shown. The total capacitance of the
arrangement is 20μF.

What is the capacitance of each capacitor?

A 10 μF

B 20 μF

C 30 μF

D 40 μF

Your answer C

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5. A capacitor is charged to a voltage V before being discharged through a small d.c. motor.
As the capacitor discharges, the motor raises a mass through a height h.
The experiment is repeated for several values of V.

A constant fraction of the capacitor energy is converted to gain of gravitational potential energy
by the mass.

Which graph should give a straight line?

A h against V2

B h against V

C h against V

D h against ( V )-1

Your answer A

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6. The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance C, carrying charge Q, with potential difference
V between its plates may be calculated from the area under the appropriate graph.

Which of the following graphs shows the correct relationship between the pair of quantities
from C, Q and V, and in addition shows a shaded area which corresponds to the energy stored
in the capacitor?

Your answer A

7. Two capacitors are connected in series as shown in the diagram.

What is the charge carried by each of these capacitors?

Charge on C1/μC Charge on C2/μC

A 4.0 4.0

B 4.0 8.0

C 8.0 4.0

D 8.0 8.0

Your answer D

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8. When charging a capacitor through a resistor of resistance R, the current at time t is given by
t

the equation I  I o e RC where I o is the current as the timer is started.

Which of the following is the correct equation for the potential difference V across the capacitor
at time t, where V0 is the potential difference as the timer is started.

 RCt
A V  V oe

V  V o  1  e 
 RCt
B 
 

t
 RC
C V  R  I oe

t
D V  lnV o 
RC

Your answer B

9. The flashgun on a camera is activated when a capacitor discharges its energy over a very
short period of time.

The capacitor in a particular camera is rated at 185 μF and is charged to 200V.

The capacitor discharges during the flash duration of 10 ms.

What is the mean power of the flash?

A 37 W

B 185 W

C 370 W

D 740 W

Your answer C

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10. The potential difference V across a capacitor, of capacitance C, at a time t , while being
discharged through a resistor of resistance R, is given by the formula

 RCt
V  V oe

1
Which of the following graphs will give a straight line, through the origin, with gradient  ?
RC

A ln(V/Vo) against t

B ln V against ln Vo

C ln V against ln t

D ln V against t

Your answer A

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11. Which of the diagrams shows correctly the electric field lines (arrowed lines) and
equipotential lines (dashed lines) near a proton?

Your answer D

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12. Charges of +2 μC and -2μC are situated at points P and Q respectively, as shown.

X is midway between point P and Q.

Which of the following correctly describes the electric field and the electric potential
at point X?

electric field electric potential

A towards Q zero

B towards Q negative

C towards P zero

D towards P positive

Your answer A

13. The charge on a uranium nucleus is 1.5 x 10-17 C and the charge on the α-particle
is 3.2 x 10-19 C.

What is the electrostatic force between a uranium nucleus and an α-particle when separated
by a distance of 1.0 x 10-13 m.

A 4.3 x 10-20 N

B 4.3 x 10-13 N

C 4.3 N

D 4.3 x 1010 N

Your answer C

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14. An oil droplet has a charge – q and is situated between two parallel horizontal metal plates as
shown in the diagram.

The separation of the plates is d.

The droplet is observed to be stationary when the upper plate is at a


potential +V and the lower plate at potential –V.

For this to occur the weight of the droplet is equal in magnitude to

A Vq
d

B 2Vq
d

C Vd
q

D 2Vd
q
Your answer B

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15. A thundercloud and the Earth’s surface may be regarded as a pair of charged parallel plates
separated by a distance h as shown in the diagram.
The capacitance of the system is C.

When a lightning flash of mean current I and time t occurs, the electric field strength between
the cloud and Earth is reduced by

It
A Ch

It
B C

It
C h

D CIt

Your answer A

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16. Two horizontal metal plates are separated by 4mm.

The lower plate is at a potential of -6V.

What potential should be applied to the upper plate to create an electric field of strength
4000 Vm-1 upwards in the space between the plates?

A +22V

B +10V

C -10V

D -22V

Your answer B

17. An electron is projected at right angles to a uniform electric field E.

In the absence of other fields, in which direction is the electron deflected?


A Into the paper

B Out of the paper

C To the left

D To the right

Your answer C

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18. An electron enters a region of space where there is a uniform electric field E as
shown below.

Initially, the electron is moving parallel to, and in the direction of the electric field.

What is the subsequent path and change of speed of the electron?

path change of speed

A linear decreases

B linear increases

C curved decreases

D curved increases

Your answer A

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19. A student makes four parallel plate capacitors as shown below.

Each plate has sides with lengths as multiples of l.

The plates are separated by a distance which is a multiple of x.

Which two arrangements have the same capacitance.

A 1 and 2

B 1 and 3

C 2 and 3

D 2 and 4

Your answer B

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20. A table tennis ball coated with conductive material has a diameter of 40 mm,

It is charged by touching the upper dome of a van der Graaff generator which has a
potential of 2 kV.

What is the resulting charge on the table tennis ball?

A 9 x 10-11 C

B 4 x 10-9 C

C 8 x 103 C

D 9 x 1014 C

Your answer B

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Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz - answers –
Magnetic Fields
21 A dynamo is rotated at a constant rate and produces a varying e.m.f. shown below.

The rate of rotation is doubled.


Which of the following traces shows the new variation of the e.m.f.?

Your answer D

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22. A coil with side length 5.0 cm is free to rotate with its axis parallel to the face of two magnets.
The current in the coil is 0.4 A . There is a uniform magnetic field of flux density 40 mT
between the magnets.

What is the magnitude of the force F acting on one side of the coil?

A 0.9 x 10-4 N

B 1.0 x 10-4 N

C 4.0 x 10-4 N

D 8.0 x 10-4 N

Your answer D

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23. Three equally spaced identical long straight wires carry different currents.

In which direction will the middle wire try to move when the currents are switched on?

A to the left

B to the right

C out of the page, towards the viewer

D Into the page, away from the viewer

Your answer A

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24. A bar magnet is allowed to fall vertically through a coil.

Which graph shows the variation in induced e.m.f. V across the ends of the coil with
time t while the magnet passes through the coil?

Your answer D

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25. The diagram shows a wire, carrying a current I, placed between the poles of a magnet.

In which direction does the force on the wire act?

A down

B up

C towards the N pole of the magnet

D towards the S pole of the magnet

Your answer A

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26. The diagram shows an iron-cored transformer assumed to be 100% efficient.

The ratio of the secondary turns to the primary turns is 1:20.

A 240V a.c. supply is connected to the primary coil and a 6.0Ω resistor is connected to the
secondary coil.

What is the current in the primary coil?

A 0.10 A

B 0.14 A

C 2.0 A

D 40 A

Your answer A

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27. A wire of length 3.0 cm is placed at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 0.040 T.

The wire carries a current of 5.0 A.

What is the magnitude of the force which the field exerts on the wire?

A less than 0.006 N

B 0.0060 N

C Greater than 0.0060 N but less than 0.60 N

D 0.60 N

Your answer B

28. Four particles independently move at the same speed in a direction perpendicular to the same
magnetic field.

Which particle is deflected most?

A a neutron

B a helium nucleus

C an electron

D a proton

Your answer C

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29. Hot air from a hair-dryer contains many positively charged ions.

In which direction are the ions deflected?

A towards the north pole N

B Towards the south pole S

C downwards

D upwards

Your answer D

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30. The diagram shows the principle of a simple form of mass spectrometer.
Ions are passed through narrow slits, S1 and S2 into the velocity selector.
The selected ions, after passage through the slit S3, are deviated by the uniform magnetic
field.

Which of the following quantities must be the same for all ions arriving at point P?

A charge

B charge ÷ mass

C mass

D momentum

Your answer B

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Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz - answers –
Nuclear and particle physics

31. Which statement correctly describes a nucleon?

A a neutron or a proton

B a neutron, proton or an electron

C any atomic nucleus

D A radioactive atomic nucleus

Your answer A

32. A student conducts an experiment using an α-particle source.

When considering safety precautions, what can be considered the maximum range
of α-particles in air?

A Between 0 and 5 mm

B Between 5 mm and 200 mm

C Between 200 mm and 500 mm

D Between 500 mm and 1000 mm

Your answer A

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33. In Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment most of the alpha particles passed directly
through a metal foil without deviation, some alpha particles continued through the foil but
were deviated, a very small number rebounded back from the foil.

Which of the following statements are conclusions which can be drawn from this
experiment?

1. most of the atom is empty space


2. the space between nuclei is many orders greater than the diameter of the nuclei
3. alpha particles are deviated when they collide with the nucleus

A only 1 is true

B 1 and 2 are true

C 1 and 3 are true

D 1, 2 and 3 are all true

Your answer B

34. If the radius of the nucleus of an unknown atom is 9 fm and the radius of the nucleus of a
hydrogen atom is 1fm, based on this data, which of the following is the best estimate for the
atomic number of the unknown atom.

A 20

B 80

C 300

D 700

Your answer D

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35. As a result of successive decays in a radioactive series, the nucleon number of an isotope
decreases by 4 while its proton number is unchanged.

Which of the following combination of α and β particles being emitted would give this
outcome?

Number of Number of
α particles β particles

A 1 1

B 1 2

C 1 4

D 2 2

Your answer B

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36. The graph below shows the variation of the strong nuclear force with nucleon separation.

Which of the points A, B, C or D shows the repulsive nature of the strong nuclear force?

Your answer A

37. A source initially contains No nuclei of a radioactive nuclide.

How many of these nuclei have decayed after a time interval of three half lives?

A No
8

B No
3

C 2N o
3

D 7N o
8

Your answer
D

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38. In a cancer therapy unit, patients are given treatment from a certain radioactive source.
This source has a half-life of 4 years. A particular treatment requires 10 minutes of
irradiation when the source is first used.

How much time is required for an equivalent treatment, using the same source,
2 years later?

A 7 minutes

B 10 minutes

C 14 minutes

D 20 minutes

Your answer C

39. Source A is a radioisotope with a half-life of 2 hours. Source B is a radioisotope with a half-
life of 4 hours.

The initial activity of source A is twice that of source B.

How long will pass before the activity of source B is twice that of source A.

A 4 hours

B 6 hours

C 8 hours

D 12 hours

Your answer C

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40. The sketch graph shows how the binding energy per nucleon varies with the nucleon
number for naturally occurring nuclides.

156
What is the total binding energy of the nuclide 64 Gd

A 83 pJ

B 90 pJ

C 203 pJ

D 218 pJ

Your answer C

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Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz - answers –
Medical imaging

41 Which of the following statements correctly describe the production of X-rays


by an X-ray tube?

A Thermionic emission accelerates electrons from the cathode to the anode

B The majority of the energy is successfully converted to X - rays

C The target metal anode has a high melting point because of the thermal
energy produced

D The high voltage supply focuses the X – ray beam onto the patient

Your answer C

42. In an X – ray tube, an electron accelerated through a potential difference V, produces X-


rays with a minimum wavelength λ.

Which formula below is correct for the minimum wavelength λ?

A hc

eV

B eVc

h
C V

h

D eV

hc
Your answer A

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43. If the current through an X-ray tube is increased, which of the following statements about
the resulting X-rays is/are correct?

1. The X-ray photons will have higher energy


2. The X-ray photons will have higher velocities
3. The intensity of the X-ray beam will increase

A 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B 1 and 3 are correct

C 2 and 3 are correct

D Only 3 is correct

Your answer D

44 An X-ray beam is used to take an image of the bone in the body. The attenuation
coefficient of the muscle surrounding the bone is 22 cm-1.

The beam passes through 4.0 cm of muscle.

What percentage of attenuation does the muscle cause?

A 1%

B 8%

C 92%

D 99%

Your answer A

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45 Blood in an artery is moving directly towards a piezoelectric transducer,
which emits ultrasound at a frequency of 7.50 MHz.

The blood is flowing at 7.50 ms-1.

If the velocity of ultrasound in blood is 1600 ms-1, what is the frequency of the
signal which returns to the transducer?

A 7.43 MHz

B 7.47 MHz

C 7.53 MHz

D 7.57 MHz

Your answer D

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Learner resources

Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz -


Capacitance

1. A 2200 μF capacitor is discharged through a 2200 Ω resistor. To the nearest second, how long
will it take for the charge to fall to half the original value?

A 1.0 s

B 1.5 s

C 2.4 s

D 3.4 s

Your answer

Version 1 38 © OCR 2017


2. The diagrams show two ways of connecting two identical capacitors of capacitance C in
circuits, each with a power supply of p.d. V.

𝒕𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒔𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒆𝒅 𝒊𝒏 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒄𝒂𝒑𝒂𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒔 𝒊𝒏 𝒄𝒊𝒓𝒄𝒖𝒊𝒕 𝟏


What is the value of ?
𝒕𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒓𝒊𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒔𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒆𝒅 𝒊𝒏 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒄𝒂𝒑𝒂𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒔 𝒊𝒏 𝒄𝒊𝒓𝒄𝒖𝒊𝒕 𝟐

1
A
2
1
B
4
1
C
8
1
D
16
Your answer

Version 1 39 © OCR 2017


3. The circuit shown was used to discharge the 10 μF capacitor through the variable resistor R.

The current was kept at a constant 20 μA for 40 s by the continuous adjustment of R.

By how much did the potential difference across the capacitor fall during this time?

A 1.3 x 10-2 V

B 14 V

C 20 V

D 80 V

Your answer

Version 1 40 © OCR 2017


4. Three identical capacitors are connected together as shown. The total capacitance of the
arrangement is 20μF.

What is the capacitance of each capacitor?

A 10 μF

B 20 μF

C 30 μF

D 40 μF

Your answer

Version 1 41 © OCR 2017


5. A capacitor is charged to a voltage V before being discharged through a small d.c. motor.
As the capacitor discharges, the motor raises a mass through a height h.
The experiment is repeated for several values of V.

A constant fraction of the capacitor energy is converted to gain of gravitational potential energy
by the mass.

Which graph should give a straight line?

A h against V2

B h against V

C h against V

D h against ( V )-1

Your answer

Version 1 42 © OCR 2017


6. The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance C, carrying charge Q, with potential difference
V between its plates may be calculated from the area under the appropriate graph.

Which of the following graphs shows the correct relationship between the pair of quantities
from C, Q and V, and in addition shows a shaded area which corresponds to the energy stored
in the capacitor?

Your answer

7. Two capacitors are connected in series as shown in the diagram.

What is the charge carried by each of these capacitors?

Charge on C1/μC Charge on C2/μC

A 4.0 4.0

B 4.0 8.0

C 8.0 4.0

D 8.0 8.0

Your answer

Version 1 43 © OCR 2017


8. When charging a capacitor through a resistor of resistance R, the current at time t is given by
t

the equation I  I o e RC where I o is the current as the timer is started.

Which of the following is the correct equation for the potential difference V across the capacitor
at time t, where V0 is the potential difference as the timer is started.

 RCt
A V  V oe

V  V o  1  e 
 RCt
B 
 

t
 RC
C V  R  I oe

t
D V  lnV o 
RC

Your answer

9. The flashgun on a camera is activated when a capacitor discharges its energy over a very
short period of time.

The capacitor in a particular camera is rated at 185 μF and is charged to 200V.

The capacitor discharges during the flash duration of 10 ms.

What is the mean power of the flash?

A 37 W

B 185 W

C 370 W

D 740 W

Your answer

Version 1 44 © OCR 2017


10. The potential difference V across a capacitor, of capacitance C, at a time t , while being
discharged through a resistor of resistance R, is given by the formula

 RCt
V  V oe

1
Which of the following graphs will give a straight line, through the origin, with gradient  ?
RC

A ln(V/Vo) against t

B ln V against ln Vo

C ln V against ln t

D ln V against t

Your answer

Version 1 45 © OCR 2017


11. Which of the diagrams shows correctly the electric field lines (arrowed lines) and
equipotential lines (dashed lines) near a proton?

Your answer

Version 1 46 © OCR 2017


12. Charges of +2 μC and -2μC are situated at points P and Q respectively, as shown.

X is midway between point P and Q.

Which of the following correctly describes the electric field and the electric potential
at point X?

electric field electric potential

A towards Q zero

B towards Q negative

C towards P zero

D towards P positive

Your answer

13. The charge on a uranium nucleus is 1.5 x 10-17 C and the charge on the α-particle
is 3.2 x 10-19 C.

What is the electrostatic force between a uranium nucleus and an α-particle when separated
by a distance of 1.0 x 10-13 m.

A 4.3 x 10-20 N

B 4.3 x 10-13 N

C 4.3 N

D 4.3 x 1010 N

Your answer

Version 1 47 © OCR 2017


14. An oil droplet has a charge – q and is situated between two parallel horizontal metal plates as
shown in the diagram.

The separation of the plates is d.

The droplet is observed to be stationary when the upper plate is at a potential +V and the
lower plate at potential –V.

For this to occur the weight of the droplet is equal in magnitude to

A Vq
d

B 2Vq
d

C Vd
q

D 2Vd
q
Your answer

Version 1 48 © OCR 2017


15. A thundercloud and the Earth’s surface may be regarded as a pair of charged parallel plates
separated by a distance h as shown in the diagram.
The capacitance of the system is C.

When a lightning flash of mean current I and time t occurs, the electric field strength between
the cloud and Earth is reduced by

It
A Ch

It
B C

It
C h

D CIt

Your answer

Version 1 49 © OCR 2017


16. Two horizontal metal plates are separated by 4mm.

The lower plate is at a potential of -6V.

What potential should be applied to the upper plate to create an electric field of strength
4000 Vm-1 upwards in the space between the plates?

A +22V

B +10V

C -10V

D -22V

Your answer

17. An electron is projected at right angles to a uniform electric field E.

In the absence of other fields, in which direction is the electron deflected?


A Into the paper

B Out of the paper

C To the left

D To the right

Your answer

Version 1 50 © OCR 2017


18. An electron enters a region of space where there is a uniform electric field E as
shown below.

Initially, the electron is moving parallel to, and in the direction of the electric field.

What is the subsequent path and change of speed of the electron?

path change of speed

A linear decreases

B linear increases

C curved decreases

D curved increases

Your answer

Version 1 51 © OCR 2017


19. A student makes four parallel plate capacitors as shown below.

Each plate has sides with lengths as multiples of l.

The plates are separated by a distance which is a multiple of x.

Which two arrangements have the same capacitance.

A 1 and 2

B 1 and 3

C 2 and 3

D 2 and 4

Your answer

Version 1 52 © OCR 2017


20. A table tennis ball coated with conductive material has a diameter of 40 mm,

It is charged by touching the upper dome of a van der Graaff generator which has a
potential of 2 kV.

What is the resulting charge on the table tennis ball?

A 9 x 10-11 C

B 4 x 10-9 C

C 8 x 103 C

D 9 x 1014 C

Your answer

Version 1 53 © OCR 2017


Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz –
Magnetic Fields
21 A dynamo is rotated at a constant rate and produces a varying e.m.f. shown below.

The rate of rotation is doubled.


Which of the following traces shows the new variation of the e.m.f.?

Your answer

Version 1 54 © OCR 2017


22. A coil with side length 5.0 cm is free to rotate with its axis parallel to the face of two magnets.
The current in the coil is 0.4 A . There is a uniform magnetic field of flux density 40 mT
between the magnets.

What is the magnitude of the force F acting on one side of the coil?

A 0.9 x 10-4 N

B 1.0 x 10-4 N

C 4.0 x 10-4 N

D 8.0 x 10-4 N

Your answer

Version 1 55 © OCR 2017


23. Three equally spaced identical long straight wires carry different currents.

In which direction will the middle wire try to move when the currents are switched on?

A to the left

B to the right

C out of the page, towards the viewer

D Into the page, away from the viewer

Your answer

Version 1 56 © OCR 2017


24. A bar magnet is allowed to fall vertically through a coil.

Which graph shows the variation in induced e.m.f. V across the ends of the coil with
time t while the magnet passes through the coil?

Your answer

Version 1 57 © OCR 2017


25. The diagram shows a wire, carrying a current I, placed between the poles of a magnet.

In which direction does the force on the wire act?

A down

B up

C towards the N pole of the magnet

D towards the S pole of the magnet

Your answer

Version 1 58 © OCR 2017


26. The diagram shows an iron-cored transformer assumed to be 100% efficient.

The ratio of the secondary turns to the primary turns is 1:20.

A 240V a.c. supply is connected to the primary coil and a 6.0Ω resistor is connected to the
secondary coil.

What is the current in the primary coil?

A 0.10 A

B 0.14 A

C 2.0 A

D 40 A

Your answer

Version 1 59 © OCR 2017


27. A wire of length 3.0 cm is placed at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 0.040 T.

The wire carries a current of 5.0 A.

What is the magnitude of the force which the field exerts on the wire?

A less than 0.006 N

B 0.0060 N

C Greater than 0.0060 N but less than 0.60 N

D 0.60 N

Your answer

28. Four particles independently move at the same speed in a direction perpendicular to the same
magnetic field.

Which particle is deflected most?

A a neutron

B a helium nucleus

C an electron

D a proton

Your answer

Version 1 60 © OCR 2017


29. Hot air from a hair-dryer contains many positively charged ions.

In which direction are the ions deflected?

A towards the north pole N

B Towards the south pole S

C downwards

D upwards

Your answer

Version 1 61 © OCR 2017


30. The diagram shows the principle of a simple form of mass spectrometer.
Ions are passed through narrow slits, S1 and S2 into the velocity selector.
The selected ions, after passage through the slit S3, are deviated by the uniform magnetic
field.

Which of the following quantities must be the same for all ions arriving at point P?

A charge

B charge ÷ mass

C mass

D momentum

Your answer

Version 1 62 © OCR 2017


Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz –
Nuclear and particle physics

31. Which statement correctly describes a nucleon?

A a neutron or a proton

B a neutron, proton or an electron

C any atomic nucleus

D A radioactive atomic nucleus

Your answer

32. A student conducts an experiment using an α-particle source.

When considering safety precautions, what can be considered the maximum range
of α-particles in air?

A Between 0 and 5 mm

B Between 5 mm and 200 mm

C Between 200 mm and 500 mm

D Between 500 mm and 1000 mm

Your answer

Version 1 63 © OCR 2017


33. In Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment most of the alpha particles passed directly
through a metal foil without deviation, some alpha particles continued through the foil but
were deviated, a very small number rebounded back from the foil.

Which of the following statements are conclusions which can be drawn from this
experiment?

1. most of the atom is empty space


2. the space between nuclei is many orders greater than the diameter of the nuclei
3. alpha particles are deviated when they collide with the nucleus

A only 1 is true

B 1 and 2 are true

C 1 and 3 are true

D 1, 2 and 3 are all true

Your answer

34. If the radius of the nucleus of an unknown atom is 9 fm and the radius of the nucleus of a
hydrogen atom is 1fm, based on this data, which of the following is the best estimate for the
atomic number of the unknown atom.

A 20

B 80

C 300

D 700

Your answer

Version 1 64 © OCR 2017


35. As a result of successive decays in a radioactive series, the nucleon number of an isotope
decreases by 4 while its proton number is unchanged.

Which of the following combination of α and β particles being emitted would give this
outcome?

Number of Number of
α particles β particles

A 1 1

B 1 2

C 1 4

D 2 2

Your answer

Version 1 65 © OCR 2017


36. The graph below shows the variation of the strong nuclear force with nucleon separation.

Which of the points A, B, C or D shows the repulsive nature of the strong nuclear force?

Your answer

37. A source initially contains No nuclei of a radioactive nuclide.

How many of these nuclei have decayed after a time interval of three half lives?

A No
8

B No
3

C 2N o
3

D 7N o
8

Your answer

Version 1 66 © OCR 2017


38. In a cancer therapy unit, patients are given treatment from a certain radioactive source.
This source has a half-life of 4 years. A particular treatment requires 10 minutes of
irradiation when the source is first used.

How much time is required for an equivalent treatment, using the same source,
2 years later?

A 7 minutes

B 10 minutes

C 14 minutes

D 20 minutes

Your answer

39. Source A is a radioisotope with a half-life of 2 hours. Source B is a radioisotope with a half-
life of 4 hours.

The initial activity of source A is twice that of source B.

How long will pass before the activity of source B is twice that of source A.

A 4 hours

B 6 hours

C 8 hours

D 12 hours

Your answer

Version 1 67 © OCR 2017


40. The sketch graph shows how the binding energy per nucleon varies with the nucleon
number for naturally occurring nuclides.

156
What is the total binding energy of the nuclide 64 Gd

A 83 pJ

B 90 pJ

C 203 pJ

D 218 pJ

Your answer

Version 1 68 © OCR 2017


Multiple Choice Questions topic quiz –
Medical imaging

41 Which of the following statements correctly describe the production of X-rays


by an X-ray tube?

A Thermionic emission accelerates electrons from the cathode to the anode

B The majority of the energy is successfully converted to X - rays

C The target metal anode has a high melting point because of the thermal
energy produced

D The high voltage supply focuses the X – ray beam onto the patient

Your answer

42. In an X – ray tube, an electron accelerated through a potential difference V, produces


X-rays with a minimum wavelength λ.

Which formula below is correct for the minimum wavelength λ?

A hc

eV
B eVc

h
C V

h

D eV

hc
Your answer

Version 1 69 © OCR 2017


43. If the current through an X-ray tube is increased, which of the following statements about
the resulting X-rays is/are correct?

4. The X-ray photons will have higher energy


5. The X-ray photons will have higher velocities
6. The intensity of the X-ray beam will increase

A 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B 1 and 3 are correct

C 2 and 3 are correct

D Only 3 is correct

Your answer

44 An X-ray beam is used to take an image of the bone in the body. The
attenuation coefficient of the muscle surrounding the bone is 22 cm-1.

The beam passes through 4.0 cm of muscle.

What percentage of attenuation does the muscle cause?

A 1%

B 8%

C 92%

D 99%

Your answer

Version 1 70 © OCR 2017


45 Blood in an artery is moving directly towards a piezoelectric transducer,
which emits ultrasound at a frequency of 7.50 MHz.

The blood is flowing at 7.50 ms-1.

If the velocity of ultrasound in blood is 1600 ms-1, what is the frequency of the
signal which returns to the transducer?

A 7.43 MHz

B 7.47 MHz

C 7.53 MHz

D 7.57 MHz

Your answer

Version 1 71 © OCR 2017

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