E4-E5 EWS CORE QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWERS

1. PROJECT KUBER

1) Project Kuber is associated with

a. revenue assurance,

b.revenue collection and

c timely billing of leased circuits.

d. All the above

2) It is an accepted industry thumb rule that 80% revenue comes from

a. 20% customers.

b. 30 % of customers

c. 25% of customers

3) As on 31/3/08 BSNL had accumulated bad debts of ……….. from landline,

mobile and enterprise segments.

a. Rs 4400 crores

b. Rs 3450 crores

c. Rs 5678 crores

4) Typically, there should be one agency identified for every ………. outstanding

accounts.

a. 2000

b. 1000

c. 1500

5) Bids contain the commission percentage that the agency will charge on the

collections done by them.

6) Selection of collection agencies by inviting bids.

7) No agency is allocated more than 2000 accounts for the whole SSA.
8) Agencies working on the B1 bucket (3-6 months) will get more accounts
added on every month. [ True]

9) After ……. months, the accounts should be shifted to the next

bucket.

a. 3

b. 2

c. 4

10) Security deposit payable by collection agencies is Rs

a. 20000/

b. 25000/

c. 30000/

11) No agency gets consecutive time buckets. [ True ]

12) The entire exercise of identifying and appointing agencies

should be completed in …… days in project Kuber.

a. 20

b. 15

c. 25

13) The Project Sponsor (Collection) in BSNLCO is …..

a. ED Finance.

b. ED Corporate Affairs

c. ED Restructuring

14) The Project Champion (Collections) in BSNLCO is ……

 a. GM (Finance), CFA

b. GM (Restructuring)

c. GM (Corporate Affairs)

15) The project champion (collection) in circle office is ….

a. CGM Circle.

b. GM (Admn/HR)

c. DGM (Admn)

d. None of the above

2. Advance in transmission network (MSPR, RPR)

1. RPR networks are optimized to transport data traffic rather than

circuit- based traffic. [ True ]

2. This packet transport consumes bandwidth only between…….

nodes and is more efficient than a time division (TDM) transport .

a. source and destination

b. Intermediate

c. Edge

d. None of the above

3. In RPR ring, protective span protection automatically avoids failed

spans within ……. milli secs.

a. 50

b. 45
c. 30

d. 40

4. Voice and video are latency/jitter sensitive traffic.

5. RPR supports topologies of more than ………nodes per ring.

a. 100

b. 125

c. 150

d. None

6. RPR technology uses a ……….counter rotating fiber ring topology.

a. dual

b. Single

c. Neutral

7. Both rings (inner and outer) are used to transport working traffic

between nodes hence utilizes the total available ring bandwidth.

[True]

8. In RPR examples for control messages are

a. topology updates,

b. protection, and

c. bandwidth control)

d. All the above.

9. Control messages flow in the ……….direction of the traffic that

they represent.

a. opposite
b. same

c. Both

10. Every station has a ……..-bit MAC address.

a. 48

b. 32

c. 64

11. The MAC can receive…………………. packets.

a. uni-cast

b. Multi-cast

c. both uni-cast and multi-cast

12. RPR protects failed spans within ………m. s.

a. 50

b. 45

c. 30

13. Nodes send the topology discovery massage periodically (1 to 10

second)- True

14. This protection mechanism notifies all nodes on the ring of the

failed span.

a. Wrapping method

b. Wrapping and steering method

c .Both a and b
15. Nodes, neighboring the failed span, will direct packets away from

the failure by wrapping traffic around to the other fiber (ringlet).

This is known as

a. Wrapping method

b. Wrapping & Steering method

c. Both a and b

3. Synchronization of Telecom Network

1. The PRC is distributed throughout the network using the

transmission backbone ( DWDM and SDH network. )- True

2. Accuracy of PRC clock is better than 10exp-12 [ 10 raised to the

power -12] [ 1 x 10 ]
-12

3. The SSUs are clock of the accuracy better than 10exp-11.

[1 x 10 -11
]

4. The SECs are the clocks in the network elements. [ True]

5. From one PRC maximum ……. numbers of SSUs can be supported.

a. 10

b. 20

c. 30

6. Between two SSUs maximum ………NEs can be placed.

a. 20
b. 25

c. 30

7. In total maximum ……….. numbers of NEs can be supported in one

PRC chain .

a. 60

b. 65

c. 70

8. Most of these nodes [ 21 PRCs] are co-located with the ………TAX

stations.

a. Level –I

b. Level –II

c. Level –III

9. 21 PRCs are expected to supply clock for all the………….. in the

transmission geographic area

a. Transmission,

b. Switching

c. Access elements

d. All the above

10. It is proposed to place at least one SSU at each of the SSA

Headquarter ( 322 SSUs)- True.

11. In the cities, where more than 3 lakh DELs are available, there

will be at least ……. SSUs in the same city for distributing the clock

across the city network.

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

12. In all the cities with more than one Lakh DELs but less than 3

Lakh DELs, …… SSUs are proposed in the same city for distributing

the clock

a. two
b. three

c. four

4. MPLS-VPN
1. The P – device has no customer connectivity. [ True ]

2. In this network the service provider participates in the customer

routing……… [Peer-to-peer VPNs]

3. In this type of VPN Service provider does not see customer

routes and is responsible only for providing point-to-point transport

of customer data. [ Overlay VPNs]

4. In peer to peer VPNs, routing information is exchanged

between……

a. CE and PE Routers

b. P and PE routers
c. P and CE routers.

5. RD stands for Route Distinguisher.

6. The length of Route Distintuisher is 64 bits.

7. VPNv4 addresses are exchanged between PE routers via BGP.

8. BGP that supports address families other than IPv4 addresses is

called Multiprotocol BGP (MP-BGP).

9. RT stands for Route Target.

10. P routers do not participate in MPLS VPN routing and do not

carry VPN routes.

11. MTTR stands for Mean Time To Restore.

12. What is the full form of MPLS?

a) Multiple path link subscriber

b) Multi protocol local switch

c) Multi protocol level subscriber

d) Multi protocol label switching

13. What is full form of VPN?

a) Virtual Path Network

b) Virtual Private Network

c) Virtual Pass Network

d) Virtual Protocol Network

14. What is full form of WAN?

a) Wide area Network

b) Wirth area Network

c) Wire across Network

d) Wide application Network

15. What is full form of VRF?

a) Virtual Routing and Forwarding

b) Virtual Routing and Fast

c) Virtual Rout and Forwarding

d) Virtual Rout and Fast

16. What is full form of SLA?

a) Subscriber Line Application

b) Service Level Agreement

c) Service Level Acknowledgement

d) Subscriber Line Agreement.

17. What is full name of MTTR?

a) Main time to reseat.

b) Mean Time to Restore

c) Main time to restore.

d) Medium time to restore.

18. What is full name of DRA?

a) Disaster Recovery architecture

b) Di Multiplex Recovery architecture

c) Disaster route architecture

d) Dual Rout architecture.

19. What is Shifting charge of MPLS VPN & IP VPN per port?

a) Rs. 1000

b) Rs. 1500

c) Rs. 3000

d) Rs. 4000

e) None ( Correct answer is Rs 2000/ per port)

20. What is Minimum hiring period for MPLS VPN and IP VPN ports?

a) Three years
b) Two years.

c) One year.

d) Six months.

21. What is an upgradation charge of port to higher Band Width?

a) Rs. 1000

b) Rs. 2000

c) Rs. 3000

d) Nil

5. Landline and Mobile VAS

1. An ISDN subscriber can establish ……..simultaneous

independent calls.

a. two

b. three

c. four

d. None

2. In ISDN B.R.A, 2 Channels of …..Kbps each for Speech and Data

are used.

a. 64

b. 128

c. 256

3. In ISDN P.R.A., 1 Channel of …..Kbps is used for data signalling.

a. 64

b. 128

c. 256

4. The access code for accessing the internet through Sancharnet

is

a. 172233.

b. 172225

c. 174433

5. The uniform all India access no. for ISDN access is………

a.'172225'.

b. 172233

c. 174433

6. The access no. of Account free Internet dial up access based on

CLI service is '……..' in all cities.

a. 172222

b. 172233

c. 174433

7. Broadband service is based on DSL technology (on the same

copper cable that is used for connecting telephone). [ True ]

8. Broadband service provides high speed internet connectivity upto

……

a.8 Mbps.

b. 2 Mbps
c. 10 Mbps

9. Broadband is always - on internet access service with speed

ranging from 256Kbps to 8 Mbps.

10. The access code for Free Phone Service is…..

a. 1800.

b. 1801

c. 1867

11. The access code for VCC is…..

a. 1802.

b. 1801

c. 1867

12. The access code for Virtual Private Code is ……

a. 1801.

b. 1802

c. 1867

13. The access code for premium rate services is…..

a. 1867.

a. 1801.

b. 1802

14. This service allows conduct of public polls and surveys through

normal telephones.

a. Televoting
b. Telephone

c. Telemeeting

15. This service enables a subscriber to make calls from a prepaid

account linked to his telephone number.[ . FLPP (Fixed Line Pre-Paid)

Service ]

16. Free Level 1 service like 100, 101, 102 etc. available for FLPP

customers. - True

17. PRBT stands for …… Personalized Ring Back Tone service:

18………… is a communication service which integrates a subscriber’s

all multi located Telephone lines (Existing and New) into a single

highly functional communication group with more distinctive

features without any additional equipment (like EXABX) at the

subscriber’s premises.

a. Centrex

b. EPABX

c. Gatex

19. ABC of Mobilve VAS

a. Astrology

b. Bollywood

c. Cricket

d. All the above

20. On landline numbers by dialing 12555 the subscribers can have

many types of services like:

• Latest Bollywood song

• Old classic songs

• Jokes

• Horoscope

• International/National news

• Cricket news

21. Caller Ringback tones ------(CRBT)

22. USSD (Unstructured Supplementary Services Data)

23. Average Revenue Per User----- (ARPU)

24. VAS value chain primarily consists of …….entities involved in the

flow.

a. six

b. five

c. four

d. three

25. VAS Value chain –

a.consumer

b. Telco

c. Software developer

d. Technology enabler

e. Content owner

f. Aggregator
26. STK stands for Sim Tool Kit.

27. WIB means Wireless Internet Browser.

28. Pull based services are ………. Initiated .

a. user

b. Service provider

c. Both

29. Push based services are not user initiated. [ True ]

30. In 3 G higher bandwidth, maximum up-to………, would be available

to end users.

a. 2 Mbps

b. 8 Mbps

c. 10 Mbps

31. BSNL Live offers multi media programs. [ True ]

32. ……………is used to send sms for Humshakal service.

a. HMM to 54000

b. HMM to 53000

c. HMM to 52000
33. DESIRE OF ENTERPRISE CUSTOMER
a) One stop shop

b) Unified communication solution

c) Scalability

d) Simplicity of deal
34. ISDN PRI uses ……..channels over a pair of ordinary telephone

copper wires.

a. 30 (B)

b. 25 (B)

c. 20 (B)

35. MLLN mainly deals with data circuits ranging from ……Kbps.

a. 64 Kbps to 2048

b. 128 to 2048

c. 256 to 2048

36. Leased Internet bandwidths up to ………….. are provided using modems on

copper pair.

a. 2Mbps

b. 8 Mbps

c. 16 Mbps

6. ENTERPRISE SERVICES

1. BIS stands for --------- Blackberry Internet Solution.

2. Saas stands for ………..Software As a Service.

3.Bizcom offers a bit rate of -----------[64 Kbps to 1 Mbps.]

4.Entcom offers a speed of -------[2 Mbps and above.]

5. Requirements of enterprise customer
a. One stop shop

b. Unified communication solution

c. Scalability

d. All the above

5.Which is not true about VSAT?

a. VSAT service of BSNL covers only some parts of India.

b. Available at any remote location.

c. Provides voice as well as data service.

7. Request for proposal

1. RFP may involve

a. basic corporate information

b. financial information

c. technical capability

d. product information

2. RFPs often include specifications of the……… for which a proposal is

requested.

a. item,

b. project or service

c. both a and b

3. RFP proposals are used to evaluate the suitability as a

a. supplier

b. vendor

c. institutional partner
d. All the above

4. BAFO stands for Best and Final Offer.

5. RFQ stands for Request for Quotation.

6. Request for tender is widely known as NIT. (Notice Inviting Tender).

7. Information sought in RFP

a. Price •

b. basic corporate information and history,

c. financial information (can the company deliver without risk of bankruptcy) •

d.Technical capability

e. All the above

8. Related formats of RFP

A Request for Quotation

• Request for information

• Request for qualification

• Request for tender

 All the above

9. RFI

a. is not an invitation to bid

b. not binding on either the seller or buyer

c. may or may not lead to an RFP or RFQ.

d. All the above

 8. Enterprise Business Guidelines
1.Enterprise business
1. Generate high volume business by developing clients

2. Long term approach

3. Win-win approach
4. All the above
2. NAM stands for National Account Manager.
3. KAM stands for Key Account Manager.
4. Enterprise Sales Structure has
* Career Wholesale

• Enterprise Business executives

• BSNL Channel partners

 All the above

5. Platinum customers and Gold customers are taken care of by

a. BSNL Team

b. Channel partner

c. Franchisees

6. Tier 1 CPs’ will be primarily engaged in the Sales and Marketing of BSNL Voice and

Data services to targeted ……..

a. Silver customers.

b. Gold Customers

c. Platinum customers

7. Tier 1 CP is required to have Minimum 5 number of sales personnel and 10

number of field engineers.

8. Tier 2 CPs’ will be primarily engaged in the Sales and Marketing of BSNL Voice products. True.

9. E & WS technology & Service partners

1. BSNL Partners include
. Trimax Computers Ltd
• Cable and Wireless

• British Telecom

• Microsoft

• CISCO

2. Managed Network Services: –

a. EASYCOM

b. ENTCOM

c. BIZCOM

d. All the above.

10. ENTERPRISE SOLUTION DESIGN

1. There are 16 DWDM rings working in BSNL.

2. Each DWDM ring is capable of transporting a data speed of 80 Gbps.

3. BSNL is willing to offer an SLA of 99.5% uptime.

4. In AMC Penalty should also be restricted to maximum of 10% of Bandwidth rental for

the period.

5. Penalty is exempted in case of

a. riots

b. Natural disaster

c. Strikes

d. All the above

6. BSNL now has three verticals namely CFA, CM and Enterprise.

7. Effective teams begin with a solid foundation in the following areas:

• Business process reengineering

• Benchmarking

• Customer and employee data gathering

• Process modeling
• Business case development

8. Learning sources should include:

• Customers

• Employees

• Competitors

• Non-competitors

• Technology

9. Key steps in solution design are

*Learning review

• Idea generation

• Concept selection

 Design modelling

 All the above

11. SLA – SERVICE LEVEL AGREEMENT

1. SLA IS AN UNDERSTANDING ABOUT

A. SERVICES

B. PRIORITIES

C. RESPONSIBILITIES

D. GUARANTEE

E. ALL THE ABOVE

2. Metric Measurement and formula – INCLUDE

Availability, –

Reliability, –

Response Time, –

Outage, –

Transaction – Successful or Failed)

ALL THE ABOVE

3. IN SLA, PACKET LOSS IS TO BE MAINTAINED BELOW

A. 1%.

B. 2%

C. 3%

4. THE UPTIME PARAMETER IN SLA IS

A. 99%.

B. 98%

C.95%

5. LATENCY PARAMETER IS ……

A. 100 MS

B. 150 MS

C. 125 MS

6. JITTER PARAMETER IS …..

A. 25 MS

B. 50 MS

C. 60 MS

12. IT Tools for Corporate Business

1. MS EXCEL FEATURES INCLUDES

A. WORK SHEET

B. FORMULA TOOL BAR

C. STANDARD TOOL BAR

D. ALL THE ABOVE

2. IMPORTANT FEATURES OF OUTLOOK
a. E-Mailing

b. Calendar

c. Contact Information

d. Tasks Scheduling

3. OUTLOOK WINDOW CONTAINS STANDARD TOOL BARS

A. MENU BAR

B. STANDARD TOOL BAR

C. WEB TOOL BAR

4. 3 MAJOR PANES OF AN OUTLOOK WINDOW ARE

A. NAVIGATION PANE

B. FOLDER PANE

C. READING PANE

D. ALL THE ABOVE

5. Navigation pane is located in the left side of the screen allow you to navigate

between different folders.

6. Folder pane located in the middle of the screen, you can select the folder that you

wish to view.

7. Reading Pane, which by default is on the right side of the screen. It is the place for

you to view/read the content.

8. THE URL ADDRESS OF BSNL MAIL IS ……….. http:// mail.bsnl.co.in

9. THE URL ADDRESS OF BSNL INTRANET IS ………. ……….. http://

intranet.bsnl.co.in

10. USER ACCOUNT FOR BSNL INTRANET CAN BE CREATED BY THE

INTRANET ADMINISTRATOR OF THE CIRCLE.

11. SERVICES AVAILABLE THROUGH BSNL INSTANT MESSENEGR

1. Online chat (one-to-one) with all the users of BSNL Mail

2. Online conference (Multiple users)

3. Exchange / Transfer of files

4. To know the availability of user

12. PDF STANDS FOR ………………………… [ PORTABLE DOCUMENT FORMAT]

13. PDF Files meet legal document requirements. [ TRUE ]

14. PDF FILES MEET LEGAL DOCUMENT REQUIREMENTS, THE SOFTWARE USES

IS PDF995.

15. THE LATEST VERSION OF PDF IS VERSION 9.4.

16. FILE COMPRESSION

A. SAVES TIME

B. SAVES DISK SPACE

C. MAKES DOWNLOADING FASTER

D. ALL THE ABOVE

17. TWO POPULAR FILE COMPRESSION UTILITIES ARE WINZIP AND WINRAR.

18. GOOD PRACTICES FOR PC MAINTENANCE –

A. ANTI VIRUS

B. WINDOWS UPDATE

C. DISK FRAGMENTATION

D. USER MANAGEMENT

E. DISK CLEAN UP
19. FILES TARGETED BY DISK CLEAN UP

a. Compression of old files

b. Temporary Internet files

c. Temporary Windows file

d. Downloaded Program files

e. Recycle Bin

MISCELLANEOUS
1. In BSNL Managed Global Conferencing Solution ,Investment at customers end is not
required
Yes. True, no investment at customer end is needed.

2. SLA stands for________________

a) Standard Level Agreement
b) Scalable Level Assignment
c) Service Level Agreement
d) Security Level Agreement

3. In BizCom type of product offer the working range is_______________

a) 128 Kbps to 256 Kbps
b) 256Kbps to 1Mbps
c) 256Kbps to 2Mbps
d) 2Mbps & Above

4. The pricing of MPLS VPN Port include

a) Domestic Part
b) National Bandwidth
c) International Bandwidth
d) Domestic Part& International Bandwidth

5. Leased line is a
a) Shared line
b) Dedicated line
c) None of the above
Correct answer is b) Dedicated line.

6. Leased Internet bandwidths upto ………. Mbps are provided using modems on
copper pair.
a) 2 Mbps
b) 8 Mbps
c) 34 Mbps
Correct answer is a) 2 Mbps

7. The SLA parameters shall include measurements of

a) Service Delivery
b) Availability
c) Latency
d) Throughput and Latency
e) All the above

8. Which option is not related to value added services?

a. Encryption Services
b. Firewall Services
c. Multicast Services
d. Unicast services

9. ‘Sancharnet Card’ is
a. Pre-paid Internet Access Card
b. Post-paid Internet Access Card
c. Broadband Datacard
d. 3G data card.

10. MPLS stands for _________________________________________

a. Multi Protocol Label Switching
b. Multi Packet Label Switching
c. Multi Passage Label Switching
d. None of the above

11. MPLS supports following three characteristics ___________________________

a. Low Latency, QoS & Any to any connectivity
b. Low round trip time, Qos & Any to any connectivity
c. High Latency, QoS & Any to any connectivity
d. All of the above

12. The access code for internet using BSNL sancharnet card is
a) 172233
b)172222
c)1500
The correct answer is a) 172233

13. The uniform all India access no. for ISDN access is
a) '172225'.
b) 172222
c) 172233
The correct answer is a) 172225

14. The access code for internet using Account free Internet dial up access based on
CLI, is
a) 172225
b) 172233
c) 172222
The correct answer is c) 172222

15. Broadband services offer speed ranging from …….. to ………

256 Kbps to 24 Mbps

16. The access code for Free Phone Service (FPH) is ……

1800

17. The access code for Virtual Card Calling Service (VCC) is …..
1802

18. The access code for Virtual Private Network (VPN) is …..
1801

19. On landline numbers by dialing 12555 the subscribers can have many types of
services like:
_ Latest Bollywood songs
_ Old classic songs
_ Jokes
_ Horoscope
_ International/National news
All the above.

20. ARPU stands for ----------

AVERAGE REVENUE PER USER.
21. The revenue sharing ratio in VAS is …..
70:30

22. Pull based services are …….. initiated.

a) User
b) Service Provider
Correct answer is a) User (customer sends sms)

23. Mandi Bhav – Mandi Bahv service provides rate list of more than 500 commodities
from
over 3000 Mandis across India.

24. An ISDN subscriber can establish ……. Simultaneous independent calls.

a) 2
b) 3
Correct answer is a) 2.

25. ISDN offers a data transmission speed of ……. Kbps with ISDN controller card.
a) 56 kbps
b) 64 Kbps
c) 28 Kbps
Correct answer is b) 64 Kbps

26. The internet access code through Sancharnet is

a) 172222
b) 172233
Correct answer is b) 172233

27. The ISDN access code for internet is

a) 172222
b) 172233
c) 172225
Correct answer is 172225

28. Audio conferencing facility is available to

a) All customers
b) Existing subscribers only
Correct answer is b) Existing subscribers only

29. There should be one agency for every ……. Outstanding accounts.
a) 1000
b) 2000
c) 3000
Correct answer is b) 2000

30. The entire exercise of identifying and appointing agencies should be completed in
20
days.
31. After a period of 3 months the accounts should be shifted to the next bucket

32. What is the Revenue Assurance Project of Project Shikhar ?

(a) Project Udaan
(b) Project Vijay
(c) Project Dosti
(d) Project Kuber

32. Bucket 1 denotes

(a) outstandings of 3-6 months
(b) 6-12 months
(c) 12-36 months
(d) none

33. Only outstanding dues of ____________ shall be allocated to private recovery

agencies.
(a) Private customers
(b) Central Govt
(c) Defence
(d)None of these

34. If an SSA is divided in to 3 areas, how many portfolios are prepared?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

35. No agency is allocated more than ____________ accounts for whole SSA
(a) 1000
(b) 1500
(c) 2000
(d) 2500

36. The outstanding accounts are to be reviewed and shifted to the next bucket
(a) After 2 months
(b) After 3 months
(c) After 6 months
(d) After one year

37. Internal Team of SSA report to

(a) SSA head
(b) IFA of SSA
(c) CAO(TR) of SSA
(d) DGM(ADMN)

38. ____________ is the Agency Manager in SSA.

(a) SSA head
(b) IFA of SSA
(c) CAO(TR) of SSA
(d) DGM(ADMN)

39. What is the security deposit payable by the approved private recovery agency?
( a) Rs. 10000/-
(b) Rs. 15000/-
(c) Rs. 20000/-
(d) Rs. 25000/-

40. ______________ is the project Sponsor(Collections) of project Kuber at

Corporate
Office.
(a) Director (CFA)
(b) Director (CM)
(c) Director(EB)
(d) ED (Finance )

41. Access code for PRM (Premium Rate Service) is

(a) 1864
(b) 1867
(c) 1802
(d) 1800

42. The minimum speed of broadband connection in BSNL is:

(a) 128 kbps
(b) 256 kbps
(c) 512 kbps
(d) 1Mbps

43. Access code for PRM service is:

(a) 1802
(b) 1860
(c) 1867
(d) 1868

44. Access code for BSNL landline IVR based VAS is:
(a) 12558
(b) 12775
(c) 12555
(d) 12888

45. Automatic fire detection system is required if height of building is more than:
(a) 10 meter
(b) 15 meter
(c) 25 meter
(d) 30 meter

46. Disk cleanup targets files:

(a) setup log
(b) Recycle
(c) Temp Internet
(d) All

47. PDF stands for

a) Portable document Format
b) Portable Document File
c) Printable Document File

48. Leased lines are

a) Dedicated lines
b) Shared lines
c) Non exchange lines
d) Non switch lines
e) a, c, and d
Correct answer is e) i.e. a c and d

49. PDF stands for Portable Document Format.

56. PDF file has almost no chance of getting infected with viruses. [TRUE]

57. PDF files meet legal document requirements.

58. The latest version of Acrobat Reader is version 9.4.

59. The two most popular file compression utilities are Winzip and Winrar.

60. Windows updates utility helps to protect the PC from different forms of
intrusion.

61. Disk Clean Up utility enables to free up disk space on computer’s hard
drive.

62. ISDN Basic Rate Access employs two channels of 64 Kbps each for speech
and data and one channel of 16 Kbps for Signalling.

63. ISDN Primary Rate Access employs 30 channels of 64 Kbps each for
speech and data and one channel of 64 Kbps for Signalling.

64. FLPP stands for Fixed Line Pre-Paid Telephone.

65.In 3 G, bandwidth, maximum upto 2 Mbps would be available to end users.

66. Project Kuber is related with:

(a) Improvement of Telecom Services (b) Improving Collection
Efficiency (c) Generating New Revenue Streams (d) PCOs
67. Number of telephone channels supported by PRI is:
a. 24
b. 30
c. 31
d. 32

68. ‘Sancharnet Card’ is

a. Pre-paid Internet Access Card
b. Post-paid Internet Access Card
c. Broadband Datacard
d. 3G data card.

69. An ISDN subscriber can establish ……. Simultaneous independent calls.

a) 2
b) 3
Correct answer is a) 2.

70. ISDN offers a data transmission speed of ……. Kbps with ISDN controller card.
a) 56 kbps
b) 64 Kbps
c) 28 Kbps
Correct answer is b) 64 Kbps

71. The internet access code through Sancharnet is

a) 172222
b) 172233
Correct answer is b) 172233

72. The ISDN access code for internet is

a) 172222
b) 172233
c) 172225
Correct answer is 172225

73. The freeware to convert a document into PDF format is

a) pdf95
b) pdf905
c) pdf995
Correct answer is c) pdf995

74. The latest version of Acrobat Reader is

a) Version 9.4
b) Version 8
c) Version 9
Correct answer is a) Version 9.4

75. File compression is done for

a) compression of data
b) saving time
c) Saving disk space
d) faster downloading of s/w and attachments
e) all the above
Correct answer is e) all the above

76. Vital requirements for a successful energy management

Total support of top management

• Strategy plan,

• An effective monitoring system

• Technical ability

All the above

77. ……… of energy comes from non-renewable and fossil sources.

a. 80

b. 85

c. 90

78. Energy efficiency benefits for industry –

Reduced energy bills

• Increased Competitiveness

• Increased productivity

79. Passive Fire Protection measures

i. Provision of adequate fire resistance of the structure.

ii. Provision of proper FAR, open spaces.

iii. Provision of adequate access to sufficient and readily available water supply etc. for

fire brigade.

iv. All the above

80. Telephone exchange buildings have been classified as …… business buildings in the

“National Building-Code of India”

a. B4

b. C4

c. E4
81. All buildings above 15 m hight and all Digital Electronic exchanges and all the
exchanges of 1K or above shall be provided with an automatic fire detection system, in

addition to manual fire alarm system. [ True ]

82. For buildings above 15 mt. In height one wet riser for every 1000 sq. mtr or part

therefore of floor area shall be provided. [ True ]

83. NFPA stands for ------ National Fire Protection Association.

84. Features of SLA

• SLA is a communication tool

• SLA is bilateral agreement

• Effectiveness due to measurable parameters

• Provides scope for continuous improvement

• Provides framework for understanding

85. Many software platforms provide a service called………..that can be used to measure

round-trip latency.

a. Ping

b. Ring

c. Bing

d. Ting

86. Ping

a. performs no packet processing

b. sends a response when it receives a packet

c. Accurate way of measuring latency

d. All the above

87. Round trip time is measured in

a. milli seconds

b. micro seconds
c. nano seconds

88. Packet loss is caused by

a. Signal degradation over the network medium

b. Over saturated network links

c. corrupted packets rejected in transit

d. All the above

89. Packet loss is to be maintained -----------------for this factor.

a. below 1%,

b. below 2%

c. above 3%

90. 1957 is the toll free helpdesk Number at NOC for MPLS VPN

91.

Sl No Parameter Bench mark

1 Latency To be maintained below

150 milli seconds

2 Packet loss To be maintained below

1%

3 Jitter To be maintained below

25 ms.

4 Uptime 99% of the time

92. Learning sources should include:

• Customers

• Employees

• Competitors

• Non-competitors

• Technology

93. Examples for real time communication are

a. Instant messaging (chat)

b. Telephony

c. Video conferencing

d. Call control/speech recognition

e. All the above

94. There are 16 DWDM rings working in BSNL now.

95. For capturing silver customers, BSNL has started appointing Channel partners in the

circles.
96. BlackBerry by BSNL is a wireless solution to keep mobile professional connected with people and
information while on go.

97. PDF files ………. modified

a) can not be
b) can be
Correct answer is a) can not be modified

98. PDF files ………… legal document requirements.

a) meet
b) do not meet
Correct answer is a) meet

99. The freeware to convert a document into PDF format is

a) pdf95
b) pdf905
c) pdf995
Correct answer is c) pdf995

100. The latest version of Acrobat Reader is

a) Version 9.4
b) Version 8
c) Version 9
Correct answer is a) Version 9.4

101. File compression is done for

a) compression of data
b) saving time
c) Saving disk space
d) faster downloading of s/w and attachments
e) all the above
Correct answer is e) all the above

MANAGEMENT -QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1. For identifying and introducing the desired “Change”, an international consultant M/s BCG was
appointed in …….
A.2008
B. 2009
C. 2010
2. SWOT stands for Strength, Weakness, Opportunities and Threat.
3. Strengths are the
A. products,
B.services,
C resources and
D. capabilities of the company,
E. ALL THE ABOVE
4. WEAKNESS EXAMPLES
a) internal production problems,
b) an unclear business strategy,
c) high employee turnover demotivated employees,

d) old and obsolete machinery,

e) poor workmanship

5. OPPORTUNITIES EXAMPLES—

a) new markets emerging for new products being developed,

b) economic recovery,

c) expanding overseas markets,

d) brand loyalty from long-standing customers,

e) industry associations,
 f) conventions and trade shows,

g) the encouraging external business environment

6. EXAMPLES FOR THREATS

a) economic recessions,

b) changing customer needs and wants,

c) new competitor entering the market,

d) changing customer demographics

7. Based on SWOT analysis and after identifying various issues it was decided to launch

Aspiration Driven Transformation process in 2008 titled as….

A. ‘Project Shikhar’

B. PROJECT KUBER

C. PROJECT SANJAY

8. PROJECTS AND THEIR PURPOSE

Earlier Designation New Designation

Director (Operations) Director (Consumer Fixed Access)

Director (P&NS) Director (Consumer Mobility)

Director (C&M) Director (Enterprise)

Director (HRD) Director (HR)

Director (Finance) Director (Finance)

9. All the circles have thirteen distinct sections.

10. Project Sponsor: -------------Director/Executive Director in the Corporate Office

11. Project Champion:---------------- CGM/PGM/GM level officer in the Corporate Office

12. Project Dosti------

.Improved processes

• New Plans

• More interaction with PCO franchisees

13. Project Sanchay----

• Security Cost
• Fuel cost,

• Inventory management

14. PROJECT KUBER ---

Ensure timely billing of circuits

• Processes for bad debt recovery

15. PROJECT UDAAN - --

A. LAND LINE

B. BROADBAND

16. PROJECT VIJAY ----

MOBILE BUSINESS

17. As per the findings of BCG, the reason for lack of focus of the people was mainly

because of

a) Too broad structure,

b) Large infrastructure

c) Lack of shared vision.

d) Inefficient processes.

E) ALL THE ABOVE

18. The ADT was focussing for the year:

a)2012,

b) 2015,

c)2013,
d)2011.

19. The initiative as the result of ADT is known as:

a) Project Udaan,

b) Project Dosti,

c) Project Shakti

, d) Project Shikhar.

20. The improving the marketing of Mobile Services was focussed through
a) Project Dosti,,

b) Project Vijay,

c) Project Sanchay,

d) Project Uday

21. ) In the new restructure, the Long Distance Networks are brought under :

a) Dir CFA

b) Dir Enterprise ,

c) ED NB,

d) ED (CA)

22. Savings on operational expenses on infrastructure monitored through:-

a) Project Kuber, b) Project Vijay, c) Project Dosti, d) Project Sanchay,

23. The Transformation Management Office at BSNL HO is headed by:-

a)GM( CA),

b)GM( TR),

c) GM( Restructuring),

d) GM(SR)

24. In this context, KPI means :-

a) Key Performance Identification,

b) Key Productivity Indicator,

c) Key Performance Indicator,

d) Knowledge & Performance indicator

25. Which one of the following is a shared functionality throughout the organization:-

a) CFA,

b) HR,

c) CM,

d) NB

26. What is the management tool used for monitoring the performance of a unit:

a) BBSC
, b) IPMS,

c) KRA,

d) GPMS

27. ISO stands for……………… international organization for standardization.

28. At present iso 2008 version is in effect commonly known as ISO 9001:2008.

29. Quality is not absolute, unique, static and by chance. It must be defined, be

measurable, achieve able and link to customer satisfaction. [ TRUE ]

30. There are eight quality management principles on which the quality management

system standards of the ISO 9000 series are based.

31. PDCA ---------------------(Plan, Do, Check and Act)

32. Prepare Documentation (quality manual, processes etc. as per ISO standard)

• Implement it (Impart proper training for its implementation)

Conduct Internal audits (Need to train internal auditors)

• Remove Non conform

• Get external audit done and obtain certif.

• Face surveillance audits in next three years (five in certificate validity period)

• Go for re-certification audit

33. IN ISO, Exclusions are possible only in section 7.

34. ALTTC was the first unit of BSNL to obtain ISO 9001 certification in 2001.
35. ISO 9001 third revision was done in

a. 1994

b. 2000

c. 2008

d. None of the above

36. In fact, ISO in Greek means equal.

37. Which is the 5th clause of ISO 9001:2008?

a. Management Responsibility

b. Management of Resources

c. Product Realisation
d. None of the above

38. Total mandatory ISO procedures are

a. 1

b. 3

c. 6

d. 8

39. Internal Audit is clause _________________ of ISO 9001:2008

a. 4.1

b. 5.2

c. 7

d. 8.2.2
40. AN ISO CERTIFICATE IS VALID FOR 3 YEARS.
41. Companies generally use the following three levels of outsourcing:
1. Project level: Discrete aspects of a project are outsourced

2. Program level: Different projects in a program are outsourced

3. Division level: The entire operation of a division is outsourced

42. Outsourcing to a vendor that is located at a destination domestic to the customer

a. On-shoring

b. Offshoring

c. Near-shoring

43. Outsourcing to a vendor that is located in a far off country.

a. On-shoring

b. Offshoring

c. Near-shoring

44. Outsourcing to vendor in a nearby country..

a. On-shoring
b. Offshoring

c. Near-shoring

45. Outsourcing to workers who work from home

a. On-shoring

b. Offshoring

c. Near-shoring

d.Home-sourcing

46. PERT stands for Programme Evaluation Review Techniques.

47. Optimistic time (OT) - generally the shortest time in which the activity can be

completed.

48. Most likely time (MT) - the completion time having the highest probability.

49. Pessimistic time (PT) - the longest time that an activity might require.

50. Expected time = (OT + 4 x MT+ PT) / 6

51. Variance for each activity is given by: [(PT - OT) / 6]2

52. In project management, this stage involves comparing actual performance with
planned performance and taking corrective actions accordingly. This stage is
known as…….
(a) Initiation
(b) Executing
(c) Controlling

(d) Planning

53. Full form of SWOT analysis is

a) Strengths, weakness, opportunities and threats
b) Strengths, weakness, opportunities and thrusts
c) Strengths, weakness, operation and threats
d) Strengths, weakness, opportunities and theories

54. Which Category in Enterprise Customer segmentation is Platinum Customer?

a) With Indicative Turn over more than 500 Cr. per annum.
b) With Indicative Turn over more than 50 to 500 Cr. per annum.
c) With Indicative Turn over more than 10 Cr. per annum.
d) With Indicative Turn over more than 100 Cr. per annum.
55. As part of Aspiration Driven Transformation, it was decided to restructure BSNL

setup for realizing its shared dream by 2013.

56. Earlier Designation New Designation

Director (Operations) Director (Consumer Fixed Access)

Director (P&NS) Director (Consumer Mobility)

Director (C&M) Director (Enterprise)

Director (HRD) Director (HR)

Director (Finance) Director (Finance)

57. Jharkhand is coming under …………………. Circle. [ Small]

58. All the circles have 13 distinct sections.

59. Restructuring exercise is a Top-Down approach.

60. The following are examples of non-verbal communication;

• yawn

• tears

• frown

• crossing arms

• averting eyes `

61. Silence can be a type of non-verbal communication. [ True ]

62. Communication barriers

a. Muddled Messages

b. Stereotyping

c. Wrong channel

63. Three different styles of leadership are autocratic, participative and free-rein

(delegative).

64. Yelling, using demeaning language, leading by threats and abuse of power are not
categorized
as authoritarian style but it is an abusive, unprofessional style of leadership.

65. When employees are involved in decision making, it is known as Participative

leadership.
66. When the leader allows the employee to make the decision, then the leadership is
known as
delegative (free-rein).

67. Quality has following characteristics

a) Must be defined b) Be measurable c) Be achievable d) All of these

68. There are ……. Quality management principles on which the quality management
system
standards of the ISO 9000 series are based
a) Five b) Six c) Seven d) Eight

69. First unit of BSNL who obtained ISO 9001 certification

a) Maintenance region b) ALTTC c) Civil wing d) Telecom factory

70. Current version of ISO 9001

a) 2000 b) 2001 c) 2008 d) 2010

71. When a leader involves one or more employees in decision making process then he
is
following leadership style known as
a) Delegative b) Authoritarian c) Participative d) None of these

72. Which ratio is not used for sales performance?

a) Contact Ratio b) Proposal Ratio c) Closing Ratio d) Quick List Ratio

73. Decision strategies are

a) Authority decides b) majority Vote c) consensus d) all

74. As part of Project Shikhar, the Project Sanchay is concerned with

a) Fuel cost b) Ensure timely billing of circuits
c) PCO service relationship agency concept d) None of these

75. The leader allows the employees to make the decisions. This leadership Style is
known as
a) Authoritarian b) Delegative c) Participative d) None of these

76. Quality must be defined

b) Absolute b) unique c) static d) measurable

77. Which Category in Enterprise Customer segmentation is Platinum Customer?

a) With Indicative Turn over more than 500 Cr. per annum.
b) With Indicative Turn over more than 50 to 500 Cr. per annum.
c) With Indicative Turn over more than 10 Cr. per annum.
d) With Indicative Turn over more than 100 Cr. per annum.

78. For ensuring timely billing project name is :

b) Kuber b) Sanchay c) Udaan d) Dosti

79. In Phase I of the Project Shikhar, the initiative focusing on fuel cost saving has
been In Phase I of the Project Shikhar, the initiative focusing on fuel cost saving has been
nicknamed as:
b) Project Sanchay b) Project Dosti c) Project Kuber d) Project Udaan

80. Three categories of circles

Small

Medium

Big

81. Who are the project sponsers?

Director or ED in the BSNLCO

82. Who are the project champions?

CGM/PG/GMs in CO

83. What is TMO?

Transformation Management Office

84. What are the 4 business units of BSNL?

CFA---- Landline, PCO, Broadband, PSTN and Data switches

CM---- GSM, CDMA, Wimax, control of BTS, BSC and MSC

Enterprise ------Voice, Data, ILD, OFC and Microwave

New Business-------

85. Leadership is a process by which a person influences others to accomplish an

objective and directs the organization.

86. What is the essence of leadership?

The essence of leadership is to have a vision.

87. Four factors of leadership

Follower

Leader

Communication
Situation

88. A manager should

Provide direction

Implement

Motivate

89. Three types of leadership….

a. Autocratic

b. Participative

c. Free rein

90. GPMS is an initiative under project Shikhar.

91. BBSC was adopted in the year 2006.

92. GPMS was adopted in 2009.

93. How many groups are formed for GPMS in BSNL?

19

94. What are score rating under GPMS?

Fair – 60

Good – 80

Excellent – 100

95. What are the two types of sales?

Retail

Enterprise

96. B2 C – transaction means Business to Customer transaction.

97. Examples for counter sales service in BSNL

a. FWT

b. NPS

c. Recharge voucher

98. Give example for door to door sales in BSNL?

DSA

99. Who deals with corporate customers?

Enterprise

100. When was BSNL mobile service launched?

October 2002

101. When was project shikhar launched?

October 2009

102. When was franchisee sale started ?

2009 – through EOI

103. Enterprise customer segmentation

a. More than 500 crores per annum – Platinum

b. 50 to 500 crores – Gold

c. More than 10 crores – Silver

104. BFSI – Banking Financial Services & Insurance Sector Company

105. System integrators

a. Hardware

b. Software

c. Bandwidth

106. Tier 1 Channel Partners are appointed for sales and marketing of voice and data from

Silver customers.

107. Tier 2 CP are appointed for marketing of BSNL voice roduct, Sale of 2g 3g data

cards, broadband, MPLSVPN etc.

108. Sales Management Software in BSNL

a. CRM module of CDR

b. Sancharsoft

c. Sales and Distribution module in ERP

d. Wings software of Project Udaan

109. To maintain Cost Accounting Records according to Cost Accounting Records

(Telecommunication) Rules, 2002.

110. Proforma - C: Part I: Statistical (Quantitative) Information

111. Balance sheet : shows the financial position of the firm at a given point of time in

terms of assets and liabilities.

112. Profit and loss statement : reflects the performance of the firm over a

period of time

113. Marketing section started functioning in November 2000 at BSNL Corporate

office

114. 4 Ps of marketing.

a. Product

b. Price

c. Place

d. Promotion

115. PEST – Political, Economical, Social and Technological

116. FMA – First Mover Advantage

117. Advertising: It is a paid form of communication with target segments

118. BSNL won Golden Peacock Award for Corporate Social Responsibility: 2005

119. ERP stands for Enterprise Resource Planning. It is a system used to integrate

the data and processes of an organization into one single system.

120. System integrator for ERP – Ms HCL Infosystem Ltd

121. M/s SAP – ERP solution provider

122. For ERP Hyderabad is be primary ERP site and Kolkata is DR site

123. There are 14 Modules in ERP.

124. ERP development centre is at ALTTC, Ghaziabad

SWOT ANALYSIS
Feature Strength/Weakness/Opportunity/Threat
Valuable assets-copper, fiber, buildings etc.----- Strength
Declining handset costs ---- Opportunity
More Competitors ---- Threat
Large Talented manpower ---- Strength
Low employee motivation &Involvement Weakness
Declining Tariff due to competition ---- Threat
Growing market of mobile connections --- Opportunity
Age profile of manpower ------ Weakness
125. Projects at a glance:-

1. Project vijay………………… Consumer Mobility

2. Project Udaan …………… Broadband & Landline
3. Project Kuber …………. Outstanding collection, Revenue Assurance, Billing
4. Project Dosti ………… PCO Business
5. Project Sanchay ………….. Operation, efficiency (Savings)

126. Project Vijay is for improving Mobile services.

127. Consumer Mobility is associated with Project Vijay.
128. For improving broadband business and landline, BSNL has created a project called
Project
Udaan
129. PCO retention is the main aim of project DOSTI.
130. Project Kuber-I ensures timely billing of Leased Circuits.
131. Project Kuber-II focuses on bad debts recovery.
132. Saving on fuel cost is achieved by Project Sanchay.

133. ISO stands for International Organization for Standardization.

133. Latest version of ISO standard is ISO 9001:2008.
134. Quality is not absolute, unique, static and by chance.
135. Quality must be defined and be measurable.
136. There are eight management principles on which the quality management system
standards
of the ISO 9000 series are based.
137. A methodology widely used for process improvement is PDCA.
138. PDCA stands for PLAN, DO, CHECK AND ACT.
139. In ISO, NC stands for Non-Conformity.
140. The non-conformities are graded into two categories by the auditors as Major or
Minor.
141. QMS stands for Quality Management System.

142. ADT stands for Aspiration Driven Transformation.

143. The new designation of Director (Operations) BSNL CO, is Director (CFA).
144. The new designation of Director (C & M) BSNL CO, is Director (Enterprise).
145. The new designation of Director (HRD) BSNL CO, is Director (HR).
146. CFA unit will control all PSTN, data switches as well as fixed access media.
147. Consumer Mobility Unit will control the BTS, BSC, MSC etc.
148. Enterprise (Business) unit is responsible for the wholesale business undertaken on
BSNL’s NLD & ILD network.
149. Enterprise Business (EB) controls the BSNL’s core network i.e. transmission media
assets like OFC, microwave etc.
150. There will be an Executive Director, responsible for the core network within the
business unit of Enterprise Business.
151. Passive infrastructure sharing and leveraging BSNL’s real estate assets to earn additional
revenue are coming under the business unit New Business.
152. SOR stands for Schedule of Requirements.
153. In GPMS, if achievement is less than the fair target, the score will be
a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) Zero
154. While preparing GPMS for SSA, the parameter “Call drop rate” will be in dimension
a) Financial (b) Customer/marketing (c) Operations (d) None of these
155. In BSNL owned sales setup which is not correct about CSEs.
a) CSEs are supposed to be single window
b) CSEs are open from 8 am to 8 pm.
c) Cash Transaction are done till closing hour.
d) CSEs need not to be smart, courteous and knowledgeable about BSNL.

156. While preparing GPMS for SSA, the parameter “Call drop rate” will be in
dimension
a) Financial (b) Customer/marketing (c) Operations (d) None of these
157. Good teams always go through
a) form, storm, norm, perform
b) storm, norm, perform, form
c) norm, perform, form, storm
d) perform, form, storm, norm
158. What are the types of non-verbal communication?
1. Body language
2. Physical characteristics and appearance
3. Voice
4. Space
5. Environment
6. Time
7. Silence

159. What are the examples of non-verbal communication?

1. Yawns
2. Tears
3. Frown
4. Crossing arms
5. Averting eyes
160. What are the modes of listening?
1. Competitive or Combative
2. Passive or attentive
3. Active or reflective

161. What are the communication barriers?

1. Jargon
2. Disabilities
3. Age
4. Status
5. Lack of empathy
6. Stereotyping
7. Unclear or incomplete message
8. Distance
9. Lack of time
10. Poor spelling

162. BPR stands for Business Process Reengineering

163. What are the perspectives of BBSC?

1. Financial perspective
2. Customer perspective
3. Internal business process perspective
4. Learning and growth perspective

164. OCC stands for Operational Cost Centre

165. SCC stands for Service Cost Centre

166. What are the two major factors of marketing?

1. Acquisition of new customers
2. Retention and expansion of relationship with existing customers

167. What is a marketing mix (or) what are 7 P’s?

1. Product
2. Price
3. Promotion
4. Place
5. People
6. Process
7. Physical evidence
168. In the context of BSNL Marketing, people means Internal customers, Fellow

Customers, any person coming into contact with customers.

169. In FABV technique ‘A’ stands for – Advantages

170. Consumer Fixed Access and Consumer Mobility are parts

of retail sales.

171. BSNL has individualized marketing in which verticals?

A) CFA

b)CM

c) Enterprise

d) All the above

172. In the context of BSNL marketing, promotion means—

a) advertisement

b) promoting a product

c) all the above.

173. Vision & Mission can be changed under dynamic business environment. Do you

agree?—yes, it can be done.

174. Enterprise sales is a win-win approach.

175. ISO benefits include

  improved customer focus and process orientation within the company;
 improved management commitment and decision-making;
 better working conditions for employees;
 increased motivation of employees;

Answer is All the above

176. In PERT, the longest time an activity might require is called Pessimistic

Time (PT)

177. PERT is useful because it provides the following information:

Expected project completion time.

Probability of completion before a specified date.

The critical path activities that directly impact the completion time.

All the above

Correct answer is All the above.

178. After restructuring there are………… directors in BSNL.

a) 4

b)5

c)6

Correct answer is b) 5

179. Normally any item is scrapped based on following criteria:

• The life of the item is complete.

• The technology of the equipment/item is outdated and that item is no more in use.
• If the life is not complete, but it is faulty and its repair is not viable.

180.For STS to JAG OC SC/ST the criteria will be

No Adverse, not more than one Average

181. FRAC stands for – Fair Rent Assessment Committee.

182. Sec-11 who are competent to contract

Every person is competent to contract who is

 Major

 of sound mind (Sec-12)

 not disqualified from contracting by any law

183. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act is effective from 25.01.1996.

184. Earlier to 25.01.1996, Arbitration Act 1940 shall be applicable.

185. If claimant fail to communicate his statement of claim, Arbitrator shall

Terminate the Proceedings.

186. The bidder shall furnish, as part of his bid, a bid security for an amount

of(Calculated @2% of estimated tender value.

187. The bid security shall be in the form of a bank Guarantee/DD issued by a

scheduled bank in favour of the purchaser, valid for a period of 180 days from the

date of tender opening.

188. Bid shall remain valid for 150 days from the date of opening of bids as

prescribed by the purchaser.

189. Payment of 95% of the price shall be made on receipt of goods by consignee.
190. 100% payment (in place of 95%) may be made on delivery, provided that an

additional Bank Guarantee for an amount equivalent to ………….. of the value of

supplies valid for a minimum period of seven months is furnished by the supplier.

A. 5%

b. 10%

c. 15%

191. Procurement methods

--Limited Tender Up to Rs.2 lakh

--Open Tender Beyond Rs. 2 Lakh

-- Single Tender For proprietary items

192. BID DOCUMENT INCLUDES

Notice Inviting Tender Instructions to Bidders

General (Commercial) Conditions of Contract

Special conditions of Contract, if any

Schedule of Requirements

Technical Specifications

Bid Form and Price Schedules

Bid Security Form

Performance Security Bond Form

Letter of authorization to attend bid opening.

193. INFORMATIONTO BE PROVIDED IN NIT

Date of issue of NIT

 Tender No

Date & Time of Receipt & Opening of Tender

Details & Quantities of Materials to be procured.

Specifications of materials

Amount of Bid Security/Earnest Money (Whether in shape of B/G or by DD is to be

specified) Date and time of sale of Bid Documents.

Price of Bid Documents

194. The value of the bid security will be equal to 2% of the estimated cost of the

equipment/goods proposed to be procured subject to maximum of 2 crore rupees

195. The validity of the bid security bond is kept 30 days beyond the bid validity.

196. CVC GUIDELINES

NIT should be published in newspapers

BSNL website.

Govt. tender link (www.tenders.gov.in)

197. Procurement at 3 levels :

Centralized,

De-centralized &

Local

198. . Stress is a mormal physical response to events that make a person

_______
Feel upset in some way
Happy
Excited
199. Stress response can save our life by giving us ............. to defend
ourselves.
Fear
Extra strength
Challenges

200. Stress stops helping beyond a certain point and starts...........

Causing one to mature
Causing major changes
Causing major damage to one's health

201. Chronic stress leads to .............

Serious health related problems
A healthy life
A happy life

202. It is very important for every individual to know thier own............

Emotional intelligence
Limits for handling
Outlook in life

203. The ability to undertake stress depends on ...........

General outlook on life's quality of relationship, emotional intelligence and
genetics.
Health
Intelligence

204. The situation that causes stress are known as ..........

Obesity
Stressors
Stress response
205. Positive stressors include events such as ..................
Major life change
Everywhere on getting problem
Financial problem

206. One should always keep in mind the if a person is undergoing stress
affecting one's health the reason...............
Should consult a doctor
Stay at home
Eat fruits

207. The stress of the bodies reaction to danger in human is known

as.............
Energy
Stress response
Imaginary

208. Cortisol is known as 'the stress hormone' because stress activates

cortisol ... and is responsible for several stress-related changes in the body. [True ]

209. Adrenaline, is largely responsible for he immediate reactions we feel when

stressed.
[TRUE]
210. Accumulation and prolongation of tension leads to stress. [TRUE ]
211. Three types of stress are:-
a. Emotional Stress
b. Digestive Stress
c. Environmental Stress

212. Emotional stress is also called Social stress. [ True ]

213. For the well-off families, refined sugar, which contains absolutely no nutrients,
makes up 25% of their diet.
214. Environmental stress includes
a. Smog (smoke + fog)
b. Noise
c. Air pollution
d. All the above

214. They point out that Type A are more prone to cardio-vascular diseases (CVD) than
Type B. [ True ]
215. Tips for managing stress-
a. Diet Control
b. Positive thinking
c. Exercise & Yoga-asanas
d. Breath control and
e. Meditation

216. TEAM is the acronym for TOGETHER EVERYONE ACHIEVES MORE

217. Autocratic leadership exercises complete control over the

subordinates.

218. Participative/Consultative leadership decentralizes authority and allows

the subordinates to share the power.

219. Free-rein leadership enables delegation of authority to take decision.

220. The following are the examples of non-verbal communication:-

A) Yawn

B) Tears

C) Frown

D) Crossing arms

E) Averting eyes
 221. Which of the following is an example of eustress? ["good stress"]

 Divorce

 Death in the family

 Promoted to a new job

 Money problems

222. A recent national survey revealed that college students find _____ to be
the biggest impediment to their academic success.

 Relationship issues

 Stress

 Sleep difficulty

 Illnesses

223. . Which of the following is the most accurate description of stress?

 The social reaction to a positive or negative event.

 A physical response to a negative event.

 Emotions experienced as a result of a negative life event.

 The physical and emotional state experienced as a result of a positive

or negative life event.

224. Distress can lead to:

 Enhanced cardiovascular function

 Improved emotional wellness

 Enhanced immunity

 Mental dysfunction

225. The body's main stress hormone is:

 Cortisol

 Norepinephrine

 ACTH
 Epinephrine

226. Fleeing from or confronting a threat is known as:

 Stressor

 General adaptation syndrome

 Stress response

Fight-or-flight response

 227. Identify which of the following is not an effective coping

mechanism for handling stress:

 Meditating

 Exercise

 Extra sleep

 Increased Alcohol consumption

228. Identify which of the following is an example of a psychosocial stressor:

 Traffic

 Change

 Crime

 Noise

229. The personality type that is at greatest risk for a heart attack is:

 Type D

 Hardy

 Type A

 Type B

230. 10.Identify which of the following statements is true:

 Fit individuals have a heightened stress response compared to unfit

individuals.

 Exercise can increase psychosocial stress.

 Exercise stimulates the stress response.

 Exercise increases metabolic disturbances leading to high blood

pressure.

231. Identify which of the following is an effective way to manage stress:

 React to the stressor immediately without thinking

 Assess all aspects of a stressor

 Indulge in junk food to relieve stress

 Limit sleep

232. . The first step in creating a stress management plan is to:

 Chart your progress

 Plan for change

 Assess yourself

 Journal

233. All of the following are effective ways to control and redirect anger
except:

 React immediately

 Anticipate anger-provoking situations and brainstorm solutions in

advance

 Express feelings constructively

 Forgive and forget

 234. Stress is a Normal physical response to events that make a person

_______

 Feel upset in some way

 Happy

 Excited

 235. Stress response can save our life by giving us ............. to

defend ourselves.
 Fear

 Extra strength

 Challenges

236. Stress stops helping beyond a certain point and starts...........

 Causing one to mature

 Causing major changes

 Causing major damage to one's health

237. Chronic stress leads to .............

 Serious health related problems

 A healthy life

 A happy life

 238. It is very important for every individual to know thier

own............

 Emotional intelligence

 Limits for handling

 Outlook in life

 239. The ability to undertake stress depends on ...........

 General outlook on life's quality of relationship, emotional intelligence

and genetics.

 Health

Intelligence

 240. The situation that causes stress are known as ..........

 Obesity

 Stressors

 Stress response

 241. Positive stressors include events such as ..................

 Major life change

 Everywhere on getting problem

 Financial problem

 242. One should always keep in mind the if a person is undergoing stress
affecting one's health the reason...............

 Should consult a doctor

 Stay at home

 Eat fruits

 243. The stress of the bodies reaction to danger in human is known

as.............

 Energy

 Stress response

 Imaginary

244. Cortisol is known as 'the stress hormone' because stress activates

cortisol ... and is responsible for several stress-related changes in the
body. [ True ]

245. Adrenaline, is largely responsible for the immediate reactions we

feel when stressed.[TRUE]

246. Stress occurs when pressure exceeds our perceived ability to cope.
[ TRUE ]

247. Most current definitions state that stress is the mental and
physical response and adaptation by our bodies to the real or perceived
changes and challenges in our lives.

248. Generally, positive stress is called eustress.

249. Eustress presents the opportunity for personal growth and

satisfaction and can actually improve health.

250. By distress we mean negative stress.

 251. Examples for distress.

 Debilitative tension and strain, such as:

 Financial problems,

 The death of a loved one,

 Academic difficulties, and

 The breakup of a relationship.