Azonosító

jel:

ÉRETTSÉGI VIZSGA ● 2010. május 12.

BIOLÓGIA
ANGOL NYELVEN
EMELT SZINTŰ
ÍRÁSBELI VIZSGA
2010. május 12. 8:00

Az írásbeli vizsga időtartama: 240 perc

Pótlapok száma
Tisztázati
Piszkozati

OKTATÁSI ÉS KULTURÁLIS
MINISZTÉRIUM

Biológia angol nyelven emelt szint — írásbeli vizsga 0911

Biológia angol nyelven — emelt szint Azonosító
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Important information
Read the following instructions carefully before you start your work.

You have 240 minutes to complete your advanced level examination.

Your written paper consists of two parts.

For answering correctly the first part (tasks I-VIII), which is compulsory for everyone you
are awarded 80 points.
The second part (task IX) contains two versions (A and B). YOU ONLY HAVE TO
COMPLETE ONE OF THEM.
You can be awarded the total of 20 points FOR ANSWERING ONLY ONE OF THE TWO
OPTIONAL TASKS. It means that by answering both you cannot get more points. If you do
start answering both optional tasks CROSS OUT THE ONE WITH A PEN WHICH YOU
DON NOT WANT TO BE INCLUDED. If you fail to do this the examiners will
automatically evaluate the ‘A’ version.

Your questions are either multiple choice or open-ended ones.

When answering multiple choice questions you need to write one or two CAPITAL
LETTERS into the empty boxes. These are the letters of the correct answer or answers. Make
sure that your answers are unambiguous, otherwise they will not be accepted. If you want to
correct your answer CROSS OUT THE WRONG ONE AND WRITE THE CORRECT
LETTER NEXT TO IT.

A D correct A DC acceptable BD wrong

When answering open-ended questions, you need to write technical terms, a few words, a
whole sentence or several sentences. Mind your GRAMMAR because if your answer is not
understandable because of bad grammar, or because it is ambiguous (e.g. it is not clear what
the subject of the sentence is), it will not be acceptable even if it contains the correct terms.
Each correct answer is awarded 1 mark, unless otherwise indicated.

Use black or blue pen.

Don’t write anything into the grey boxes.

Good luck for your exam.

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I. Common toad 9 points

The figure shows a common toad sitting on the
palm of a hand.

1. What feature of its skin tells you which

vertebrate group it belongs to?

……………………………………………………
2. How are the characteristics of its skin related to
the way the common toad is breathing?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The way it breathes and the characteristics of its skin also determine the type of habitat it
typically lives in. How are these three aspects related?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. How is the rate of heat loss through the skin reduced in humans if the surrounding
temperature drops? Describe two typical changes that take place in the human skin, and give
your reasons why they cannot occur in common toad. (4 points)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

5. In the figure a white arrow indicates the tympanic membrane of the toad. Give the name of
the cavity found behind the tympanic membrane.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. The common toad is a protected animal. There is more to protecting an animal than simply
preventing it from being killed. Mention one way in which the reproduction and distribution
of this species can be promoted.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. total

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II. Different Patterns of Inheritance 10 points

Write the number of the following statements into their correct place in the diagram below.
The statements refer to the inheritance of somatic characteristics. The (rather rare)
characteristics linked to Y chromosome can be ignored.

Dominant-recessive inheritance involving one gene

X chromosome (sex)- Inheritance linked to a

linked inheritance dominant allele

1. If a father possesses a gene which is inherited in this way, all his daughters will inherit
this trait.
2. This is the most likely pattern of inheritance if the disorder only appears among the
sons of healthy mothers.
3. This is the most likely pattern of inheritance if the disorder appears among both the
sons and daughters of healthy parents.
4. This is how colour blindness is inherited.
5. This is how albinism is inherited.
6. This is how the Rh blood group system is inherited.
7. A disorder inherited in this way can also be passed on from father to son if the mother
is healthy and does not even carry the faulty allele.
8. If a trait is inherited in this way it is expected to appear in males in higher proportions
than in females.
9. That is how a disorder is inherited if there is only one copy of the faulty allele present
in each parent but both of them are healthy.
10. That is how haemophilia is inherited.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. total

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III. Biochemical Processes 10 points

Compare the two processes below. Write the letter of the process into the box next to the
statement it refers to.

A. Glycolysis
B. Citric acid cycle/Krebs -cycle
C. Both
D. Neither

1. It is a catabolic pathway

2. It is a cyclic process requiring CO2 input.

3. It is only carried out in plant cells.

4. Its actual site is the mitochondrion.

5. The hydrogen is passed on to NAD+ carrier molecules in the prosses.

6. Its chemical equation is: 6 CO2 + 6 H2O = C6H12O6 + 6 O2

Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with the appropriate word or chemical symbol.

In the (7)…………………. phase of photosynthesis, the (8)………………….. is split and

molecular oxygen is given off. The (9)…………………..content of substance numbered 8 is
passed on to carrier molecules and in the form of (10)…………………….. they are
transported to the second phase of photosynthesis to reduce carbon dioxide in the matrix of
the chloroplast

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. total

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IV. Photosynthesis and the Greenhouse Effect 10 points

In a series of experiments, the correlation between carbon dioxide concentration and the rate
of photosynthesis were studied in a plant species. The measurements were carried out with
low (5000 lux) and high (20000 lux) intensity of light. The results are shown in the graph.

aRate
fotoszintézis intenzitása
of photosynthesis
(szárazanyag/óra)
(dry matter/hour)

20 000 lux

5000 lux

Normal
normál air
levegőben

0 0,05 0,1 0,15 v%

v %szén-dioxid
carbon dioxide

1. The rate (intensity) of photosynthesis was measured by the amount of dry matter produced
in an hour. What kind of other unit could have been chosen?

A. The amount of oxygen absorbed in a given time period.

B. The amount of carbon dioxide produced in a given time period.
C. The amount of water vapour released in a given time period.
D. The amount of oxygen produced in a given time period.
E. The amount of light striking the surface of the leaves.

2. What consequences can be drawn based on the graph? Write the letters of the correct
answers into the boxes. (2 points)

A. Above a carbon dioxide concentration of 0.1%, light intensity does not influence the rate
of photosynthesis.
B. Below a carbon dioxide concentration of 0.05% the rate of photosynthesis is directly
proportional to the carbon dioxide concentration.
C. Above a carbon dioxide concentration of 0.05% the rate of photosynthesis is directly
proportional to the concentration of carbon dioxide.
D. At a carbon dioxide concentration four times the normal, the rate of photosynthesis is
determined by light intensity.
E. Carbon dioxide concentrations above 0.1% inhibit the rate of photosynthesis even in
strong light.

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3. One of the most threatening problems of our time is the increasing greenhouse effect. What
does greenhouse effect mean?
A. Due to the thinning of the ozone layer higher rates of UV radiation are reaching the surface
of the Earth.
B. Because of the decreased ventilation the temperature is always higher inside the
greenhouse than outside.
C. The greenhouse gases let the visible light pass through the atmosphere, but absorb and
partly reflect the heat waves with longer wavelengths given off by the surface of the Earth.
D. The greenhouse gases absorb and partly radiate the heat waves from the sun towards the
Earth’s surface (radiation of long wavelength)
E. The concentration of anthropogenic pollutants increases in the atmosphereen.

4. Which two gases are mainly responsible (at least 80%) for bringing about the greenhouse
effect on Earth.
A. Carbon dioxide and water vapour
B. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
C. Ozone and carbon dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide and ozone
E. Water vapour and ozone

5. Which human activities are primarily to blame for the increasing greenhouse effect?
(2 points)
A. Widespread use of petrol engine cars.
B. The building of nuclear power stations.
C. Large scale production of genetically modified crop plants (GMO).
D. The widespread distribution of hydrocarbons containing halogens, which contribute greatly
to the depletion of the ozone layer.
E. The building of roads and industrial establishments in agricultural areas.

6. Living things on Earth can, to a certain extent, lessen the greenhouse effect. How?
A. The rate of metabolic processes in decomposers is accelerated at higher temperature.
B. The rate of biological oxidation is accelerated at higher temperature.
C. Rising levels of carbon dioxide inhibit anabolic processes and speed up catabolic ones.
D. Falling levels of carbon dioxide increase the efficiency of photosynthesis.
E. Rising levels of carbon dioxide increase the efficiency of photosynthesis

7. Let us suppose that 10 moles of glucose has been produced by photosynthesis in a plant.
How has the composition of the atmosphere changed as a result? Calculate the exact
numerical changes in the quantities of the two components. (2 points)

- ………………………………………………………………………
- ………………………………………………………………………
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. total

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V. Resourceful microbe 12 points

The secret of Deinococcus radiodurans, a soil bacterium, which is capable of withstanding
three thousand times higher radiation dosage than humans has recently been resolved.
The micro-organism possesses a unique DNA repair system. This system, with the help of its
repair enzymes, is able to put the DNA pieces shattered by high energy radiation together in
the right order.
The reason why the microbe is capable of this remarkable performance is that it has two DNA
molecules instead of one.

1. What is the typical feature of the bacterial genome (hereditary material)? Write the letters
of the correct answers into the boxes. (2 points)
A. It is separated by a nuclear envelope from the cytoplasm.
B. It consists either only of DNA, or only of RNA.
C. It is organised in a circular DNA.
D. Its DNA has no uracil.
E. It is unable to replicate.

2. Explain how the repair system of Deinococcus is helped by the fact that the bacterium has
two DNA molecules.

……………………………………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………………………

In the following task you need to carry out the job of the repair enzyme in Deinococcus.
We have a damaged stretch (a stretch with missing parts) of DNA of the bacterial genome.

G C T C
T A T C G C A G G

Apart from this, we have three other bits of DNA of the same stretch originating from the
second copy of the bacterial genome.

G C T T C A
C G G G

C T G
A A G

3. Your task is to reconstruct the base order of the damaged strand of DNA by writing the
letters of the bases into the appropriate places in the table below.

G C T C
T A T C G C A G G

1 point 1 point 1 point

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4. With the help of the codon dictionary specify the first three amino acids encoded by the
reconstructed stretch of DNA. Read the letters from left to right starting with the first letter.
The upper row of the table represents the active strand of the DNA. (3 points)

Name of the 1st amino acid: ………………….. Name of the 2nd amino acid: ………………

Name of the 3rd amino acid: …………………..

Codon dictionary
2nd base
1st base 3rd base
U C A G
phenylalanine serine tyrozine cysteine U
phenylalanine serine tyrozine cysteine C
U
leucine serine STOP STOP A
leucine serine STOP tryptophan G
leucine proline histidine arginine U
leucine proline histidine arginine C
C
leucine proline glutamine arginine A
leucine proline glutamine arginine G
isoleucine threonine asparagine serine U
isoleucine threonine asparagine serine C
A isoleucine threonine lyzine arginine A
methionine
threonine lyzine arginine G
chain initiator
valine alanine aspartic acid glycine U
valine alanine aspartic acid glycine C
G
valine alanine glutamic acid glycine A
valine alanine glutamic acid glycine G

5. How many different kinds of amino acids, distinct from the original one, can be produced
instead of the 3rd amino acid if the base triplet coding for this amino acid is changed in one
locus (only one base is changed)?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
E. seven

6. If there are two point mutations occurring in the codon of the 3rd amino acid then ...
(2 points)
A. it is certain that the meaning of the code will not change.
B. it is possible that the meaning of the code will not change.
C. the codon of any other amino acids can be formed.
D. the codon of the phenylalanine can be formed.
E. a STOP codon can be formed.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. total

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VI. Potato Crisps 11 points

The National Potato Association and Product Advisory issued a statement about crisps made
of potato in November 2008. Read the statement and answer the questions which follow.

"With the holiday season coming up we tend to eat more crisps than usual. There are a lot of
unfounded misbelieves about crisps. We are going to prove that they are only myths.

It is not true that it makes us fat. — Crisps, indeed, belong to high energy foods. An
average Hungarian person consumes about 500 g crisps yearly, whereas an English one
12-13 times more. A Hungarian consumer covers only 0.25% of his/her energy need from
crisps, which means that crisps can hardly be made responsible for obesity in Hungary.

It is not true that it is not made of real potato. — What is more, special crisps potato
especially suitable for this purpose is used to produce more tasty crisps. The manufacturing
process includes peeling, slicing, frying and spicing. The only difference between this
precedure and the way you fry it at home is that the potato is sliced into thinner slices and, as
a result, it loses most of its water content while frying. 70% of the potato crisps is made up of
potato. The rest consists of plant oil and spices.

It is not true that it is useless artificial food. — 50 g (half a bag) fried crisps contains
20% of the daily vitamin E requirement, 40% of vitamin B6, 18% of niacin equivalent,
18% of potassium, 36% of copper, 11% and 12% of magnesium and phosphorous,
respectively.

It is not true that it has high salt content. — The salt content of crisps is about
1.5-2.3%, which is more or less the same as that of bread. However, crisps make up only a
tiny proportion of our daily diet and therefore as little as 0.01-0.02% of our salt intake derives
from crisps. The reason why it tastes salty is because all its salt content is spread over its
surface mainly dissolved in oil and as a result it acts directly and intensively on the taste buds
of the tongue.

It is not true that it is full of 'E's. Potato crisps do not contain any kind of preservatives
since its salt, oil and low water contents naturally preserve the food. Salted potato crisps is
one of the most natural foods there is. It only contains potato, plant oil and salt.
Source: http://homar.blog.hu

The statement was also put on the internet where a heated debate got underway about what it
said. Your task is to decide whether the information contents of the comments printed in
bald are true (T) or false (F). Write T or F, as appropriate, into the boxes next to the
statements. If you are asked to make a comment on the Forum you can do so under the
nickname of ‘the examinee’ following the instructions you are given. Each correct answer is
1 point, the 3rd question is 2 points. You need not write anything into the grey boxes.

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Forum entries: T or F?
1. Sly Fox
It is claimed that 40% of the crisps is vitamin B6, which I wouldn’t have thought.
2. MZ/X
Hi, there. Unless the figures are wrong, we consume an average of 5 bags of crisps
every year.
Elvira
I would be more interested in what, according to the article, the daily energy requirement
of a person actually is. The label on the bag says that the energy content of the crisps is
2218kJ/100g. Could anyone be of some help?
3. Examinee — Work out the daily energy requirement of a person based on the data.

4. pink
Luckily, fat soluble vitamins are not mentioned among the ingredients of the crisps, so
I cannot take an overdose of these.
5. Sly Fox
Do I remember correctly that vitamin B6 is required for healthy vision?
6. Bálint
It's all right that there are a lot of useful things in half a bag of crisps, but according to
the data in the text this amount of crisps also contains 15g oil along with spices, which
is a little bit too much.
7. pink
If that is true, somebody with bile problems should not eat such stuff because bile is
needed for the digestion of oils.
MZ/X
As I am a Hungarian consumer, it is reassuring to know that, according to the article,
only 0.25% of my daily energy requirement is met by crisps. You cannot really get fat by
this amount, can you?
8. ‘Examinee’— Respond to the statement above either agreeing or disagreeing with it.

9. pink
I don’t think that the fact that the English eat 12 times as much crisps as we do is a
strong enough argument to prove that it is not fattening. In order to prove this we
would need further arguments.
10. ‘Examinee’-If you think that the previous statement is T (true), specify which further data you
might need. If you think it is F (false), give your reasons why.

Bálint
Besides, what we call 'chips' is what the English call 'crisps', and the English 'chips' is True (T)
nothing but the common fried potato.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. total

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VII. The Structure and Function of the Eye 12 points

The cross section of the eye can be seen in the figure below. Letter ‘C’ indicates the middle,
while letter ‘D’ the inner layer of the eye.

A
B
M
C
D
L
E
K
J

F
G
I
H

Write the appropriate letter and the name of the structure it indicates next to the corresponding
statement. Write the letter into the box and the name on the dotted line. ‘None’ solution is
also possible, which is to be indicated by an ‘X’.

1. This part contains smooth muscle, which relaxes when we look at an object in the distance.

…………………………………………………………………………

2. The increasing pressure of the liquid that fills this part of the eye causes glaucoma.

…………………………………………………………………………

3. This part only consists of cones.

…………………………………………………………………………

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4. Its increased ability to refract (bend) light causes farsightedness.

…………………………………………………………………………

5. This part of the eye is the continuation of the iris towards the back of the eye.

…………………………………………………………………………

6. The tension of the iris muscle determines the size of this part of the eye.

…………………………………………………………………………

7. Which route is taken by the nerve impulse formed in the eye? Write the letter of the correct
answer in the box.

A. Through the part indicated by F directly to the cerebral cortex.

B. Through the part indicated by F to the thalamus and then to the cerebral cortex.
C. Through the part indicated by F directly to the reticular formation of the brain stem.
D. Through the part indicated by F directly to the cerebellum.
E. Through the part indicated by H directly to the cerebellum.

8. Explain how to demonstrate the existence of the blind spot with the help of the test figure
below.
Your answer should include what to do if
we want to detect the blind spot found in
the right eye, a short description of what
we experience during the test, and the
explanation of it.
(2 points)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………...
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...
…………………………………………………………………………………………………...
The image formation of simple lenses according to the thin lens formula is:

1 1 1
= + , where f = focal length, t = object distance (the distance between the
f t k
object and the lens), k = image distance (the distance between the image formed and the lens).
This formula is more or less true for the eye of vertebrates as well. What are the two possible
ways of accommodation to distance when after looking at an object far off, you look at one
close by (in your answer use the expressions of the formula).

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9. Either by decreasing ……………………………………, or

10. increasing ………………………………………….

11. There are examples for both solutions in vertebrates. In what way does the human eye
accommodate to the changing distance?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. total

VIII. Forestation 6 points

I : Short-lived (annual) species

{ : Grass species reproducing by long
stolons
 : Grass species forming dense cushions
X : Perennial, tall dicots
‡ : Shrubs and lianas
„ : Trees

The results of an ecological study are shown

in the figure. The study started in 1958 and
was carried out on an abandoned plot of
arable land to monitor the changes taking
place. The observations were made by
placing 48 quadrates of 1 m2 in fixed
positions to investigate the characteristic
groups of plant species in each quadrate.
The dominant plant groups in each quadrate
were marked every year.

1. Which process did the researchers set

out to investigate?

…………………………………………..

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2. How did the proportion of the r and K strategists change from the beginning to the end of
the study period?

…………………………………………………………………………………….

3. How can you explain the loss of dominance of annual and short lived species after the first
three years of the study period?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………..

4. How can you explain the fact that trees gained dominance towards the end of the study
period?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

It was observed that the process was rather uneven in space and time in spite of the fact that
the soil conditions were not significantly different. How can the appearance of characteristic
patches of vegetation be explained based on...

5. - the different ways of asexual reproduction of plants?

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. - the different ways of sexual reproduction of plants? (size of seeds and way of dispersal)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. total

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Optional questions

IX. A At the Beginning of Our Life 20 points

The sex cells 8 points

Fill in the table below according to the information provided.

the human egg cells the human sperm cells

exact site of production (the
organ and part of the organ)

manner of locomotion

the route taken through the

female reproductive organ
(from where to where they
move)

the number and types of

chromosomes in them
(autosomal and sex
chromosomes)

Life before birth 12 points

Write an essay about our life before birth. Make sure that you comment on the following
points in your essay.
Where and when (in which stage of the cycle) does fertilisation usually take place?
Which structure ensures the nutrition of the developing embryo, and how? Why and under
what conditions does Rh incompatibility occur?
What is the function of the embryonic membrane and that of the amniotic fluid?
What kind of dangerous substances can pass from the mother into the embryo?
How do the circulatory system and the working of the heart of the foetus differ from those of
the newborn baby?
What proves that the foetus can learn through hearing within the uterus?

You can write your essay on page 18-19.

The sex cells Life before birth total

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IX. B Reproduction and Postembryonic Development of Plants

20 points

Alternation of generations 7 points

The pie charts from A to D show the alternation of generations of different groups of plants.
The striped section represents the sexual part while the evenly shaded section the asexual part
(relative time) of their life cycles.

A B Match the letter of the pie

charts to their corresponding
group of plants. (Out of the
four pie charts one is not
needed.) (3 points)

1. Mosses: ……….…
2. Ferns: …............…

D 3. Angiosperms: …....
C

4. Which of the followings belong to the asexual part of the alternation of generations in
mosses? Write the letters of the correct answers into the boxes.
A. spore
B. zygote
C. protonema/prothallus
D. sporangium
E. green moss plant

5. Put the different postembryonic stages of the life cycle (listed in question 4) in
chronological order as they take place in the alternation of generations of mosses. Write the
letters into the boxes below. The first one, the spore, has been given for you.
(Do not write anything into the drawing.)

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6. Which of the followings appeared in the group of ferns as an evolutionary advancement?

Write the letter of the correct answer into the box:

A. Reproduction independent of water

B. Double fertilisation
C. Seed
D. Spore
E. Tissue level of organisation.

7. In which contemporary group of plants did flower appear as an evolutionary advancement?

……………………………………………………………………….

Double fertilisation (essay) 13 points

Discuss the process of double fertilisation and the following seed and fruit formation. In your
answer specify the ploid level (the number of chromosome sets) of the cells involved in the
fertilisation process, and discuss the different ways of seed dispersal.

Alternation of generations Double fertilisation total

Essay

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írásbeli vizsga 0911 19 / 20 2010. május 12.

Biológia angol nyelven — emelt szint Azonosító
jel:

Maximum Achieved
score score
I. Common Toad 9
II. Different Patterns of Inheritance 10
III. Biochemical Processes 10
IV. Photosynthesis and the Greenhouse Effect 10
V. Resourceful Microbes 12
VI. Potatoe Crisps 11
VII. The Structure and Function of the Eye 12
VIII. Forestation 6
total score of the test: 80
IX. Optional essay or problem solving task
A At the Beginning of Our Life 20
B Reproduction and postembryonic development of plants
Total score of the written examination 100

Marking teacher

Date: …………………………………..

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elért
programba
pontszám
beírt egész
egész számra
pontszám/
kerekítve/
integer score
achieved score
written into the
rounded to an
programe
integer
Feladatsor/Test
Választható esszé vagy problémafeladat/
Optional essay or problem solving task

javító tanár/marking teacher jegyző/administrator

Dátum/Date: ………………………………….. Dátum/Date …………………………………..

írásbeli vizsga 0911 20 / 20 2010. május 12.