Azonosító

jel:

2012. május 15.

BIOLÓGIA
ANGOL NYELVEN
EMELT SZINTŰ
ÍRÁSBELI VIZSGA
2012. május 15. 8:00
●

Az írásbeli vizsga időtartama: 240 perc

ÉRETTSÉGI VIZSGA

Pótlapok száma
Tisztázati
Piszkozati

NEMZETI ERŐFORRÁS
MINISZTÉRIUM

Biológia angol nyelven emelt szint — írásbeli vizsga 1211

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Important information
Read the following instructions carefully before you start your work.

You have 240 minutes to complete your advanced level examination.

Your written paper consists of two parts.

For answering correctly the first part (tasks I-IX), which is compulsory for everyone you
are awarded 80 points.
The second part (task X) contains two versions (A and B). YOU ONLY HAVE TO
COMPLETE ONE OF THEM.
You can be awarded the total of 20 points FOR ANSWERING ONLY ONE OF THE TWO
OPTIONAL TASKS. It means that by answering both you cannot get more points. If you do
start answering both optional tasks CROSS OUT THE ONE WITH A PEN WHICH YOU
DON NOT WANT TO BE INCLUDED. If you fail to do this the examiners will
automatically evaluate the ‘A’ version.

Your questions are either multiple choice or open-ended ones.

When answering multiple choice questions you need to write one or two CAPITAL
LETTERS into the empty boxes. These are the letters of the correct answer or answers. Make
sure that your answers are unambiguous, otherwise they will not be accepted. If you want to
correct your answer CROSS OUT THE WRONG ONE AND WRITE THE CORRECT
LETTER NEXT TO IT.

A D correct A DC acceptable BD wrong

When answering open-ended questions, you need to write technical terms, a few words, a
whole sentence or several sentences. Mind your GRAMMAR because if your answer is not
understandable because of bad grammar, or because it is ambiguous (e.g. it is not clear what
the subject of the sentence is), it will not be acceptable even if it contains the correct terms.
Each correct answer is awarded 1 point, unless otherwise indicated.

Use black or blue pen.

Don’t write anything into the grey boxes.

Good luck for your work.

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I. Ferns and Cycads 9 points

The picture on the left shows a maidenhair spleenwort (aranyos fodorka), which is a fern,
while the one on the right a cycad (sago palm) which belongs to the gymnosperms. Describe
the characteristics of the two plants by writing the appropriate letters into the boxes.

A) true for the maidenhair spleenwort

B) true for the sago palm
C) true for both
D) true for neither

1. Its shoots can be seen in the picture.

2. It reproduces by dispersed spores.

3. Its sex cells are formed by meiosis.

4. It has no seeds.

5. It has fruit.

6. It has compound leaves.

7. It has flowers.

8. Its plant body is made up of different tissues.

9. Water solution is conducted in xylem vessels in its stem towards the leaves.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. total

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II. Life in the Mediterranean Sea 9 points

The graph shows the seasonal variation of two environmental factors influencing marine life
forms in the Mediterranean Sea. The data refer to the surface waters. Along the horizontal
axis the initials of the months are shown, while along the vertical axis the values relative to
the maximum values are placed. The distribution of plant-like and animal-like planktonic
organisms (minute, floating living things) is also shown. After studying the graph answer the
following questions.
relative value

mass of mass of
állati Figure 1
növényi
phytoplankton zooplankton
plankton
plankton
tömege tömege

j f m á m j j a s o n d
hőmérséklet
temperature növényi tápanyagtartalom
concentration of plant nutrients

1. The circular arrows refer to the mixing process of surface and deep waters. Explain the
physical causes of this phenomenon (apart from the storms which are more frequent in
winter time).
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The mixing process brings up water rich in phosphorous, nitrogen and heavy metal ions
from the depths for the phytoplankton. In what form can plants primarily take up
phosphorous and nitrogen? Write down their chemical symbols. (2 points)
phosphorous: ……………………………. nitrogen: ……………………………………
3. Of the metal ions, iron is also required in small quantities by plants and animals alike
because iron is one of the components of the enzymes (cytochromes) found in the inner
mitochondrial membrane. In which stage of the oxidation process are these enzymes
indispensable?
………………………………………………………………………………………………

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4. By contrasting Fig. 1 and Fig. 2 give an explanation for the fact that the ions discussed in
the above questions accumulate in the non-mixing (stratified) deep water layers far away
from the coast rather than on the surface (the sediment carrying effect of rivers can be
ignored)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
The rate of photosynthesis of
Figure 2 phytoplankton is also influenced
by the temperature and light
intensity. Fig. 2 shows the rate of
photosynthesis of a marine
species as a function of light
intensity. (The horizontal axis
shows the measure of
photosynthetically active
incoming radiation while the
vertical one the activity of the
electron transport chain
operating in the chloroplasts.).

5. Explain the fact that the phytoplankton in the Mediterranean Sea is almost equally
distributed across all the layers illuminated by sunlight in the winter. However, in the
summer it is at a depth of 50-100 m that it reproduces the fastest. (2 points)
In winter: …………………………………………………………………………………
...……………………………………………………………………………………………..
In summer: …………………………………………….……………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
6. Give your reasons why the mass of phytoplankton is changing in the surface waters in
spring time. (2 points)
Reasons for growth:
……………………………………………………………….………………………………
.………………………………………………………………………………………………
Reasons for decline: ………………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. total

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III. Breaking the Genetic Code 11 points

Robert Holley, Har Ghobind Khorana and Marshal Nierenberg received the Nobel Prize for
breaking the genetic code and compiling the codon dictionary in 1968. With meticulously
designed experiments they established a link between the triplets of the mRNA and the order
of amino acids in proteins.
1. At the time the experiments were carried out the existence of triplets was not yet sure and
there were several hypotheses put forward about the way amino acids could be coded for.
On the basis of what theoretical consideration did the researchers look for base triplets
rather than units consisting of two bases? Give your reason to support your answer.
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. One condition of the successful experiment was that artificial protein synthesis could be
carried out in a test tube. Which cellular organelle, possible to isolate from bacteria as
well, was required for the synthesis?
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
In the first phase of Nierenberg’s series of experiments an artificial mRNA consisting only of
uracil bases (poli-U) was synthesised. With the help of this a polypeptide chain consisting
only of the amino acid phenylalanine was created. This was the first word of the codon
dictionary deciphered: UUU > Phe (phenylalanine). Subsequently, mixtures of nucleotides
containing the nucleotides in different proportions were applied by the researchers, and the
proportion of amino acids in the polypeptides obtained was determined.
If for example in a solution there are nucleotides containing only uracil (U) and cytosine (C)
in a 2 :1 ratio, their frequency is p(U) = 2/3 and q(C) = 1/3. The probability of a particular triplet
being formed, supposing that the bases combine randomly, equals the product of their
separate/individual probabilities. Accordingly, in the mixture the probability of the base triplet
UUC being formed is x (UUC) = p(U)2 q(C) = (2/3)2 (1/3) = 4/27. Since the relative frequency of
phenylalanine in the polypeptide chain being synthesised was exactly that much, it can be
concluded that this base triplet coded for phenylalanine, too.
U C A G
UUU phe UCU ser UAU tyr UGU cys U
U UUC phe UCC ser UAC tyr UGC cys C
UUA leu UCA ser UAA STOP UGA STOP A
UUG leu UCG ser UAG STOP UGG trp G
CUU leu CCU pro CAU his CGU arg U
C CUC leu CCC pro CAC his CGC arg C
CUA leu CCA pro CAA gln CGA arg A
CUG leu AAG pro CAG gln CGG arg G
AUU ile ACU thr AAU asn AGU ser U
A AUC ile ACC thr AAC asn AGC ser C
AUA ile ACA thr AAA lys AGA arg A
AUG met ACG thr AAG lys AGG arg G
GUU val GCU ala GAU asp GGU gly U
G GUC val GCC ala GAC asp GGC gly C
GUA val GCA ala GAA glu GGA gly A
GUG val GCG ala GAG glu GGG gly G

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Let us suppose that, applying Nierenberg’s method in our experiment, the nucleotides
containing adenine and uracil dissolved in the mixture occur in a 1/2:1/2 ratio.

3. What else do these nucleotides contain apart from adenine and uracil? (2 points)

……………………………………………. and ………………………………………….

4. In what type of chemical reaction are nucleotides bound to one another?
…………………….…………………………………………………………………………
5. How many different triplets can be formed if the bases randomly combine in the
experiment? Determine the number of different types of amino acids in the proteins
synthesised on the basis of these mRNA chains. Explain the difference between the two
numerical values.! (4 points)

How many different triplets are there? …………… How many different types of amino
acids are there? …………………………………………………………………………....
Reasons for the differences: ……………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
6. Determine the expected ratio of the amino acids isoleucine (ile) and leucine (leu) in the
polypeptide chain synthesised in the mixture if it is assumed that there is an equal chance
of the two types of the nucleotides being linked to each other in the synthetic mRNA.

Ratio of leucine to isoleucine: ……………………………………………………………..

7. Let us suppose that a polypeptide chain of 4 amino acids were produced in the above
experiment. Give the number of different combinations in which the amino acids can be
linked to one another in the chain

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. total

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IV. Microscopic Investigation 9 points

We made a cross section of one of the organs of a dicotyledonous plant and the specimen was
viewed under a light microscope.
1. Let us start the investigation under low power of magnification. Several tissues can be
seen. Which of the following tissues can be seen? Write the letter of the correct answer
into the boxes. (2 points)

A) paranchyma B) epithelium C) epidermis

D) conducting tissue E) connective tissue

2. Now let us move on to higher magnification. Explain how exactly the magnification of the
microscope can be calculated.

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
Under this magnification it can be seen that at the top and the bottom parts of the specimen
the cells are arranged into a single layer where they fit closely together. At the top part they
look more or less identical, while at the bottom different, bean-shaped cells can be observed
as well.

3. Which tissue is being investigated? ……………………………………………………

4. In the mid-section of our specimen one of the tissues observed has two, differently shaped
cell types with chloroplasts visible inside them. What are the characteristics of this tissue?
(2 points)
A) Some of its cells are loosely packed in a sponge-like arrangement.
B) Some of its cells preserved their ability to divide.
C) Some of its cells have a columnar arrangement.
D) Its cells can be covered with a layer of cuticle.
E) Its cells can be covered with hair like structures.

5. In the course of our further investigations in one particular part of a specimen a lot of
small, undifferentiated cells with thin cell walls can be seen. Which type of tissue is
investigated?
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
6. Could the specimen be prepared from the leaf of a monocotyledonous plant? Give your
reason to support your answer.
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
7. Could the specimen be the leaflet of a moss plant? Give your reason to support your
answer.
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. total

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V. Levels of Organisation and Nutritional Types 7 points

Write the number of the species or group of living organisms from 1 to 9 into the appropriate
spaces of the figure according to their levels of organisation and nutritional types. Each
correct answer is 1 point

Eukaryotes Heterotrophs

Animals with
pseudotissue

Chemotrophs

1. giant amoeba
2. Chlamydomonas (single-celled green algae)
3. baker’s yeast
4. nitrifying bacteria, which rely on the energy deriving from oxidising nitrogen containing
inorganic compounds for fixing/reducing atmospheric carbon dioxide.
5. fresh water sponge
6. bacterium causing pneumonia
7. ferns and their relatives (Pteridophytes)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. total

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VI. Enforced Diet 8 points

Life in Cuba took a sudden turn for the worse twenty years ago when the Soviet Union, whose
main priority (...) up until then was to keep the regime in Cuba alive, collapsed.(...) The
graveness of the collapse is well reflected in the fact that famine became widespread in the
country. (...)
Due to the shortage of food the average calorie intake of Cubans dropped from 2899
kilocalories, which was regarded as too much anyway, to 1863 kilocalories. In the meantime,
due to severe restrictions on fuel, masses of people were compelled to walk and cycle, which
doubled the number of physically active inhabitants compared to earlier data. As a result of all
this the body mass index of the Cubans fell by 1.5 points between 1990 and 1995. (The body
mass index is a number indicating the extent of obesity and is obtained by dividing the body
mass expressed in kilograms by the square of height in meters.) (...) The weight loss of the
population had a profound effect on the incidence rate of several diseases and their mortality
rate. In 2002, compared to 1997, the death rate for diabetes fell by 51%, for heart attack by
one third and for stroke by one fifth. All this is due to the falling rates of obesity.
According to an international survey published in The Lancet medical journal the
average blood sugar level of mankind in 2008 was 5.46 millimole per liter (the normal range
in a litre is between 4 and 6.1) and this figure had risen by 0.24 millimole since 1980. The
number of diabetics has increased from 153 million in 1980 to 347 million in 2008 (during
this time the population of the world has increased from 4.5 billion to 6.6 billion).

Based on newspaper article by Csilla Molnár: Üzemanyag-korlátozás (Magyar Nemzet, 2011. jul. 09.)

1. Calculate by how much the average body mass of Cubans decreased between 1990 and
1995. Let us suppose that the average height remained constant all along: 170 cm.

2. While the number of diabetics decreased in Cuba, the world average was on the increase.
Calculate the percentage by which the rate of diabetics increased in the world between
1980 and 2008.

3. Sugar is carried in the blood mainly in the form of glucose. How many grams of glucose
on average did the blood of a healthy adult man contain in 2008?
A C = 12, A O = 16, AH = 1.

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4. In the course of sustained starvation, the body mainly converts its protein reserves into
glucose. Name a hormone which promotes this process. (Let us ignore the unexpected
stress effect during this time.)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

5. Obesity mainly increases the incidence rate of type II diabetes. In this type of disease the
permanently much higher level of blood sugar results in a level of insulin slightly higher
than the normal. What might be the reason for this? Write the letters of the correct
answers into the boxes. (2 point)

A) Because of the higher level of blood sugar the insulin secretion of the pancreas is slightly
increased.
B) Slightly increased level of insulin results in a manifold increase in the blood sugar level.
C) High blood sugar level causes the insulin sensitivity of the target cell receptors to increase.
D) In spite of high insulin level, the rate of blood sugar uptake is low due to the low number
of insulin receptors in the membrane of the target cells.
E) In spite of high blood sugar level, the rate of blood sugar uptake is low due to the low
number of blood sugar level detecting receptors in the membrane of the target cells.

6. In the case of type II diabetes there is often also an increased level of glucagon in the
blood of diabetics. Glucagon has an antagonistic effect to insulin. High levels of insulin,
however, decrease the rate of glucagon synthesis. What might cause the level of glucagon
to increase in diabetic patients?

A) Increased inhibitory effect of high glucose levels.

B) Increased inhibitory effect of high insulin levels.
C) The receptors inhibiting glucagon synthesis do not work.
D) The receptors promoting glucagon synthesis do not work.
E) Glucagon has the effect of lowering blood sugar level in diabetics.

7. The 'enforced diet' might not only have beneficial effects. Deficiency diseases can also
arise due to low amounts of essential amino acids. Describe what is meant by the term
essential amino acid.

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. total

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VII. Pedigree Analysis 9 points

The family tree shows the
inheritance of a dominant
disease (let us indicate the allele
which causes it with letter‘A’)
and the inheritance of the ABO
blood group system (IA, IB and i).
The two genes coding for these
characteristics are located on the
same chromosome. The
manifestation of the disease is
marked by shading the symbols
solid black, while the blood
groups are shown by the
appropriate letters next to the
symbols

1. Find the genotype of the woman marked by I/2 in the family tree. Write the letter of the
correct answer into the empty box.

A) AA and IB i
B) aa and IB i
C) Aa and IB i
D) Aa and IB IB
E) AA and I B IB

2. Give the genotype of the man marked by I/1 by using the same type of symbols as in
question 1. ……
3. If the woman II/1 marries a healthy man with blood group AB, what phenotypes can their
children have? (2 points) .....……………………………………………………………..
4. Which alleles did the man II/2 inherit from his mother and father? (2 points)
from his father: ……………………….. from his mother: ………………………
5. The II/2-II/3 married couple had a child who suffered from the disease and
had blood group ‘O’.
a) Which alleles did she inherit from her mother? .......................................................
b) Which alleles did she have to get from her father? ..................................................
c) Name the process which can explain that the father passed on these two alleles at the
same time (let us rule out the possibility of a point mutation).
..........................................................................................................................…………

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. total

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VIII. Molecule Identification 8 points

The molecules listed below play a range of important roles in living organisms.
By applying a method used in plant identification, work out step by step which compounds
are indicated by letter A, B….etc. Write the name of the compounds (groups of compounds)
into the table. There are two odd ones out among the ones listed below, which do not fit
anywhere.

The compounds:
bile salts haemoglobin phosphatides myosin water
carotene urea fibrinogen chlorophyll* insuline

1. a) Peptide. ………………………………………………… 2.
b) Non-peptide…………………………………………….. 5.
2. a) It occurs in the blood plasma.. ………………………… 3.
b) It is active within the cell. ………………………………. 4.
3. a) The change in its structure is an important step in blood A:
clotting.…………………………………………………

b) It plays no role in blood clotting ………………………. B:

4. a) It is an enzyme which breaks down ATP………………. C:

b) It is a transport protein ………………………………… D:

5. a) Its biological role is attributed to its peculiar polarity
features.......................................................................... 6.
b) Its biological role can be explained by its system of
conjugated double bonds ……………………………. 7.
6. a) In biological systems its molecules are oriented so that
its hydrophobic parts point towards each other, while its
hydrophilic parts point towards the water. …………….. E:
b) When functioning, the hydrophobic parts surround a
apolar liquid droplet, while its hydrophilic parts point
towards the water. ……………………………………… F:
2+
7. a) Its molecule also contains Mg ion …………………… G:

b) It contains no Mg2+. ………………………………. H:

*chlorophyll = the molecule which is responsible for absorbing light in photosynthesis.

A B C D E F G H total

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IX. Vessels and Organs 10 points

The figure shows the schematic picture of the

blood supply of the kidney and the liver. After
C studying the picture answer the following
questions!
liver
1. What is the name of the part indicated by
letter ‘E’?
gall bladder
A …………………………………………………

kidney
B

Y = true for all

E
X = true for none

For which duct shown in the figure are the following statements true? Answer with the letters
of the figure above. If the statement is true for none, write X into the box. If it is true for all,
write Y.

2. The blood flowing through this part left the right ventricle last on its way out of the
heart.

3. The blood flowing through this part is carried to the left atrium first as it gets to the
heart.

4. Urine is flowing through this part.

5. This part contains a digestive enzyme.

6. It contains steroids (compound with steroid frame).

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7. Decide which of the following statements are true. Write the letters of the correct
statements into the boxes. (4 points)

A) Letter A and B indicate one artery each.

B) Letter C points to a vein.
C) The pH value of the liquid flowing in part ‘A’ is higher than in part ‘B’ because the higher
concentration of carbon dioxide in part ‘B’ shifts the pH towards the acidic extreme.
D) The sugar concentration of the liquid flowing in part ‘A’ in a running man can be higher
than in part ‘B’ because some of the sugar is taken up by the tissue cells from the blood
flowing through the tissue.
E) The liquid flowing in the duct indicated by letter ‘D’ has an acidic pH because it contains
bile acids/salts.
F) Following a tough jogging, the lactic acid content of the liquid flowing through part ‘B’ is
lower than in part ‘C’ because in the skeletal muscles the lactic acid is converted into
glucose.
G) Blood is carried into the liver through both an artery and a vein.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. total

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Optional tasks
Write the letter of the chosen task into the box. (A or B)

X. A Body Fluids 20 points

The human blood 7 points

A) ‘A’, Rh-positive blood group

B) ‘B’, Rh-negative blood group
C) True for both
D) True for neither

Write the letter of the correct answer into the box next to each statement. There is only one
correct answer to each question.
1. Blood group antigens are found in the blood plasma.
2. It coagulates when exposed to a blood serum deriving from an ‘O’, Rh-
negative blood.
3. A mother with such blood group can have Rh incompatibility developing
in the course of her first pregnancy.
4. A mother with such blood group can have Rh incompatibility developing
in the course of her second pregnancy.
5. On the surface of their red blood cells there are only two types of
antigens with regard to the ABO and Rh blood group system.
6. In case of emergency its red blood cells can be transferred into a person
with blood group‘AB’, Rh-negative.

7. Its blood group can be determined by a double homozygous genotype,

too.

Tissue circulation 13 points

Discuss the human tissue fluid in the form of a brief essay. In your answer include the
following points:
• From what, where and how (as a result of which physical and chemical
circumstances/conditions) is it formed?
• What is the characteristic feature of its composition straight after it is formed and how is it
changing later on?
• What is the function of the tissue fluid?
• Where does it flow from the tissues and which physical and chemical factors are the main
driving forces of its streaming?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. Esszé total

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X. B Nature Conservation and Genetics 20 points

Extinction threshold 9 points

The following text is about the dangers threatening small populations. Fill in the gaps with
suitable expressions.

In populations decreasing in size mating between closely related individuals, in other word
(1)............................ and the random elimination of different gene variants, the process
referred to as (2)........................ will sooner or later inevitably occur. The mating of relatives
decreases the biological fitness of each particular individual, whereas a decrease in genetic
diversity causes the adaptability of the population to decline. In such populations the mortality
rate is (3)............................... and the number of births per capita (birth rate) is
(4)............................ As a result, the population is getting smaller and smaller and the
accelerating process can lead to extinction.

5. Give your reason why the mating between close relatives can lead to a decrease in
biological fitness of the offspring. (2 points)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

6. Explain why the decrease in genetic diversity causes the adaptability of the population to
decline. (2 points)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………….

7. Name one factor which increases the genetic diversity of the population while the average
biological fitness of the individual is not decreasing.

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

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Means of nature conservation – essay 11points

Discuss the basic principles, the means and aims of protecting our natural assets. In your
essay include the following points:
• The basic idea of biological diversity (on a genetic and ecosystem level), its economic and
medical significance.
• At least three anthropological effects, which result in populations decreasing in size or the
extinction of species.
• Concrete objectives of two international agreements in nature conservation.
• Connection between consumer habits in Hungary and species richness in ecosystems in
distant lands.
• An example for active and sustainable nature conservation (positive effects of regular
human intervention).

You can write your essay on page 18-19.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. Essay total

Essay:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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írásbeli vizsga 1211 18 / 20 2012. május 15.

 Azonosító
Biológia angol nyelven — emelt szint jel:

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írásbeli vizsga 1211 19 / 20 2012. május 15.

 Azonosító
Biológia angol nyelven — emelt szint jel:

Maximum Achieved
score score
I. Ferns and Cycads 9
II. Life in the Mediterranean Sea 9
III. Breaking the Genetic Code 11
IV. Microscopic Investigation 9
V. Levels of Organisation and Nutritional Types 7
VI. Enforced Diet 8
VII. Pedigree Analysis 9
VIII. Molecule Identification 8
IX. Vessels and Organs 10
Total score of the test: 80
X. Optional essay or problem solving task 20
Total score of the written examination: 100

marking teacher

Date: …………………………………..

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elért pontszám
programba beírt
egész számra
egész pontszám /
kerekítve /
integer score
achieved score
written into the
rounded to an
programe
integer
Feladatsor / Test
Választható esszé vagy problémafeladat /
Optional essay or problem solving task

javító tanár / marking teacher jegyző / administrator

Dátum/Date: ………………………………….. Dátum/Date …………………………………..

írásbeli vizsga 1211 20 / 20 2012. május 15.