UG Question Papers & Answer Keys 17.01.2019

ROLL NO.
: UG1AEE28
A
AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
I
C
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
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E
PAPER-I
Instructions:
i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C,
A total 120 questions.
I ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q 1 to Q 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
C
iii. Part-B contains 30 questions, Q 71 to Q 100 of 2 (two) marks each.
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iv. Part-C contains 20 questions, Q 101 to Q110 of 1 (one) mark each
E
and Q111 to Q120 of 2 (two) marks each.
v. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be
awarded to the wrong answer.
vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can
use non-programmable scientific calculator.
A vii. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
specified.
I
viii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using
C
a black or blue ball point pen.
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ix. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
E
x. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on
completion of examination before leaving the examination hall.
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PART-A (70 X 1= 70 Marks)

A
I 1. The inventors of Lighter Than Air aircraft were
C (a) Montgolfier Brothers
(b) Eiffel Brothers
T (c) Lilienthal Brothers
(d) Wright Brothers
E
2. The first all metal airplane was designed and manufactured in
(a) 1910-11
(b) 1915-16
(c) 1920-21
(d) 1925-26
3. The split flap was invented by
(a) Orville Wright in USA
(b) Glenn Curtiss in USA
A (c) Louis Bleriot in France
(d) G.V Lachman in Germany
I
4. The relation between pressure p and density ρ in troposphere can be written as (with
C
usual notation)
T (a) 𝑝 = 𝑘𝜌 𝑔 /(𝑔−𝐿𝑅)
𝑔
(b) 𝑝 = 𝑘𝜌𝐿𝑅
E
(c) 𝑝 = 𝑘𝜌
𝑔
(d) 𝑝 = 𝑘𝜌(1−𝐿𝑅 )
5. This military airplane of IAF is also termed as DPSA

(a) HF 24 Marut
(b) Mystere
(c) Jaguar
(d) Hawker Hunter
A 6. The BAC-Sud Aviation Concorde SST had
(a) Cropped Delta Wing
I (b) Double Delta wing
C (c) Tail-less Ogive wing
(d) Tail-less Delta wing
T
7. In a Conventional wing-aft tail airplane, the tail plane is located
E (a) Below the horizontal level of the wing
(b) Almost at the same horizontal level of the wing
(c) Higher than the horizontal level of the wing
(d) Arbitrarily as per design aerodynamics
8. The relationship between the elastic constants E, G and K is given by

(with usual notation, ν = Poisson’s ratio)
(a) E = 2G (1+ ν)
(b) E = G (1+2 ν)
(c) E = G (2+ ν)
A (d) E = 2G(ν-1)
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ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
9. Stress acting on an arbitrary plan under arbitrary loading is

A
(a) Scalar
I (b) Vector
(c) Tensor
C (d) Any of the above depending upon the loading and material
T 10. The fuselage of Spitfire airplane of WWII fame is of this type
E (a) Geodetic
(b) Tubular
(c) Monocoque
(d) Semi-monocoque
11. This type of wing is best suited for highly manoeuvrable airplanes
(a) Two spar
(b) Multi spar
(c) Single spar
(d) Reinforced two spar
A
I 12. The fracture failure under testing of mild steel specimen is characterized by
(a) Nearly horizontal flat plane
C (b) An arbitrarily inclined plane
(c) A wavy form of the fractured plane
T (d) A cup and cone arrangement of the two pieces
E 13. The following relation holds for pure bending of an elastic beam
𝐼
(a) 𝑦𝜍 =𝑀
𝑀 𝑦
(b) =𝐼
𝜍
𝑦 𝜍
(c) =
𝑀 𝐼
𝜍 𝑀
(d) =𝐼
𝑦
14. One of these airplanes has engine – propeller combinationat its nose and tail cone as
well
A (a) Lockheed Constellation
(b) Voyager 1
I
(c) Thunderbolt
C (d) B-47
T 15. An airplane is airborne under the principle of

(a) The third law of motion
E (b) Pressure difference on the lifting surfaces
(c) Generation of the lift force
(d) The Kutta condition
16. The Cl – Cd curves of these airfoils show a drag bucket
(a) Symmetric Jukowaskiairfoil
(b) NACA 4-digitairfoil
(c) NACA 6-digitairfoil
(d) NACA 5-digitairfoil
A
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17. The specific proof stress of this metallic alloy is the highest
A
(a) Stainless steel
I (b) Titanium alloys
(c) Aluminium alloys
C (d) Magnesium alloys
T 18. This is the only practical method for thrust augmentation of turbojet engines in flight
(a) Bleed burn cycle method
E (b) Water-methanol spray
(c) Burning of additional fuel in the tail pipe
(d) Improving the quality of jet fuel
19. This variant of jet engine has the lowest specific fuel consumption at higher speeds
and altitudes
(a) Turbo-jet
(b) Turbo-prop
(c) Prop-jet
A (d) Turbo-fan
I 20. The minimum velocity needed to escape from the gravitational pull of earth is
(a) 10.863 km/s
C (b) 11.542 km/s
(c) 11.186 km/s
T (d) 11.215 km/s
E 21. The statement ‘the orbit of every planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of its two foci
is
(a) Copernicus theorem
(b) Kepler’s first law of planetary motion
(c) Kepler’s second law of planetary motion
(d) Kepler’s third law of planetary motion
22. This type of propeller is preferred for use in airplanes
(a) Fixed pitch
(b) Variable pitch
A
(c) Constant speed
I (d) Variable speed
C 23. If V is the free stream velocity, Vs is the slipstream velocity behind a propeller and‘a’
is the inflow factor, then
T (a) Vs = V(1+a)
(b) Vs = V (1+ 0.5a)
E (c) Vs = V (1+ 2a)
(d) Vs = V(2+a)
24. The Froude efficiency ηi of the ideal disc in terms of the inflow factor is
𝑎
(a) 1+𝑎
1
(b) 1+𝑎
1
(c) 1+𝑎/2
1
A (d) 2+𝑎
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25. The advance ratio J of an airscrew of diameter D, free stream velocity V rotating at n
I rps is given by
𝑉
(a) 𝑛𝐷
C 𝑉
(b) 2𝑛𝐷
T 2𝑉
(c) 𝑛𝐷
E 𝑉
(d) 𝑛𝐷 /2
26. The specific advantage of FRP is the combined increase in both the
(a) Strength and hardness
(b) Hardness and toughness
(c) Toughness and wear resistance
(d) Elastic modulus and strength
27. This space craft was the first manned vehicle to touch the edge of the atmosphere and
A then return to the earth
I (a) Space Ship one
(b) Voyager one
C (c) X-15
(d) Space Ship Two
T
28. Air is nearly -------------------- times more compressible than water
E
(a) 8000
(b) 12000
(c) 20000
(d) 40000
𝜕𝜌
29. The equation (usual notation) 𝜕𝑡 + ∇ ∙ 𝜌𝑞 represents
(a) The Euler equation
(b) The Bernoulli equation
A (c) The compressible form of the equation of continuity
(d) The incompressible form of the equation of continuity
I
30. Following is another form of the equation of stream lines (in vector notation)
C (a) 𝑑𝑟 × 𝑞 = 0
(b) 𝑞 × 𝑑𝑟 = 0
T
(c) 𝑟 × 𝑑𝑞 = 0
E (d) 𝑟 ∙ 𝑑𝑞 = 0
31. Stream function is not defined for

(a) Axially symmetric flows
(b) Flow around a circular cylinder
(c) Flow around a circular sphere
(d) Flow around an inclined flat plate
A
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32. Stream lines and constant potential lines
I (a) Do meet sometimes
(b) Remain parallel
C (c) Meet orthogonally
(d) Do not cross each other
T
E 33. The Cp Distribution over a non-lifting circular cylinder is given by (usual notation)
(a) 𝐶𝑝 = 2 𝑈 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
(b) 𝐶𝑝 = 1 − 4 𝑆𝑖𝑛2 𝜃
(c) 𝐶𝑝 = 1 − 3 𝑆𝑖𝑛2 𝜃
𝐾
(d) 𝐶𝑝 = 2 𝑈 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 +
2𝜋
34. If a complex potential function is defined as W = ɸ + iѱ

𝑑𝑤 𝜕ɸ 𝜕ѱ
(a) 𝑑𝑧 = 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑖 𝜕𝑥
A 𝑑𝑤 𝜕ɸ 𝜕ѱ
(b) = + 𝑖 𝜕𝑦
𝑑𝑧 𝜕𝑥
I
(c) = − 𝑖 𝜕𝑥
C 𝑑𝑧 𝜕𝑦
T (d) = − 𝑖 𝜕𝑥
𝑑𝑧 𝜕𝑦
E
35. The Karman –Trefftz transform yields airfoil that
(a) Has cusped trailing edge
(b) Does not have a closed trailing edge
(c) Can have desired trailing edge angle
(d) Is used in NACA airfoil design
36. One distinct advantage of thin airfoiltheory is that it

(a) Has a defined trailing edge?
A (b) Has a defined trailing edge angle?
(c) Has technique of predicting zero-lift line
I (d) Prescribes a leading edge radius of the airfoil
C 37. The equation of conservation of momentum for a viscous,unsteady incompressible

fluid (usual notation) is written below
T 𝜕𝑞 ∇𝑝
(a) 𝜕𝑡 + 𝑞 ∙ ∇𝑞 = 𝑋 − 𝜌 + 𝜈∇2 𝑞
E 𝜕𝑞 ∇𝑝
(b) + 𝑞 ∙ ∇𝑞 = 𝑋 − + ∇2 𝑞
𝜕𝑡 𝜌
𝜕𝑞 ∇𝑝
(c) + 𝑞 × ∇𝑞 = 𝑋 − + ∇2 𝑞
𝜕𝑡 𝜌
𝜕𝑞 ∇𝑝
(d) + 𝑞 × ∇𝑞 = 𝑋 − + 𝜈∇2 𝑞
𝜕𝑡 𝜌
A
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38. The laminar boundary layer equations along a flat plate are (usual notation)
A
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕2𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣
(a) 𝑢 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑣 𝜕𝑦 = 𝜈 , 𝜕𝑥 + 𝜕𝑦 = 0 , with the boundary conditions :- y =0,
I 𝜕𝑦 2
C u=v=0 and y = ∞ , u = 𝑈∞
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣 𝜕2𝑣 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣
T (b) 𝑢 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑣 𝜕𝑦 = 𝜈 , 𝜕𝑥 + 𝜕𝑦 = 0 , with the boundary conditions :- y =0 ,
𝜕𝑦 2
E u=v=0 and y = ∞ , u = 𝑈∞
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕2𝑣 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣
(c) 𝑢 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑣 𝜕𝑦 = 𝜈 , 𝜕𝑥 + 𝜕𝑦 = 0 , with the boundary conditions :- y =0 ,
𝜕𝑦 2
u=v=0 and y = ∞ , u = 𝑈∞
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕2𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣
(d) 𝑢 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑣 𝜕𝑦 = 𝜈 ,𝜕𝑥 + 𝜕𝑦 = 0 , with the boundary conditions :- y =0,
𝜕𝑦 2
u=v=0 and y = ∞ , u = 0.99𝑈∞

𝛿2
A 39. The significance of the shape factor H = 𝜃 is that
I (a) It defines the BL profile
(b) It predicts separation of the BL profile
C (c) It helps in preventing the separation of BL
(d) It is used in determining the nature of flow on the surface.
T
40. The velocity induced at a given point by an infinite vortex of strength Γ located at a
E distance h from that point is
Γ
(a) 2𝜋𝑕
Γ
(b) 4𝜋𝑕
3Γ
(c) 4𝜋𝑕
Γ
(d) 3𝜋𝑕
41. Supersonic flows withrapidly varying density gradients can be visualized by

A (a) Shadowgraph Technique
(b) Schlieren method
I (c) Interferrogram
(d) Very sensitive micro cameras
C
42. The relationship between Mach number M and dimensionless velocityM*(usual Gas
T Dynamic notation) is given by
E 𝛾 +1
𝑀2
(a) 𝑀∗2 = 2
𝛾 −1 2
1+ 𝑀
2
𝛾 −1
𝑀2
∗2 2
(b) 𝑀 = 𝛾 −1 2
1+ 𝑀
2
𝛾 −1
𝑀2
(c) 𝑀∗2 = 2
𝛾 +1 2
1+ 𝑀
2
𝛾 +1
𝑀2
∗2 2
A (d) 𝑀 = 𝛾 +1 2
1+ 𝑀
2
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𝑇𝑜
A 43. The stagnation temperature ratio in terms of Mach number in isentropic flow at
𝑇
that point is
I 𝑇 𝛾+1
(a) 𝑇𝑜 = 1 + 2 𝑀2
C 𝑇𝑜 𝛾−1
(b) =1+ 𝑀2
𝑇 2
𝑇𝑜 𝛾−1 2
T (c) =1+ 𝑀
𝑇 2
𝑇𝑜 𝛾+1 2
E (d) =1+ 𝑀
𝑇 2
44. The Knudsen number Knis defined in Gas Dynamics as (𝝀 is the mean free path and L
is some characteristic length)
2𝜆
(a) 𝐾𝑛 = 𝐿
𝜆
(b) 𝐾𝑛 =𝐿
2𝜆
(c) 𝐾𝑛 = 𝐿
A (d) 𝐾𝑛 = 𝜆/𝐿
I
45. The second throat area of a supersonic wind tunnel must be larger than the nozzle
C throat because
(a) po, the total pressure decreases across the shock wave
T (b) po, the total pressure increases across the shock wave
(c) po, remains constant across the shock wave
E (d) it is because of fall of temperature in the nozzle
46. The parameter 𝑀∗ in nozzle flow is defined as the ratio

𝐿𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
(a) 𝐿𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑
𝐿𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
(b) 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑 𝑎𝑡 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑡𝑕𝑟𝑜𝑎𝑡
𝐿𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑎𝑡 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑡𝑕𝑟𝑜𝑎𝑡
(c) 𝐿𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑
A 𝐿𝑜𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
(d) 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑
I
47. An oblique shock wave reflects from a solid boundary as
C (a) Oblique shock wave
T (b) Normal shock wave
(c) Expansion wave
E (d) Acoustic wave
48. The normal component of velocity in the downstream region across an oblique shock
(a) Remains constant
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) Becomes zero ultimately
A
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A 𝛾+1
𝑝 𝑜 𝐴∗ 𝛾 2 𝛾−1
49. This closed form expression 𝑚 = is for mass flow through
𝑇𝑂 𝑅 𝛾+1
I
(a) D’ Laval Nozzle
C (b) Any supersonic nozzle
(c) A choked nozzle
T
(d) Converging nozzle at stagnation pressure Po
E
50. A MiG 21 airplane flies at α = 0o at high subsonic speed as
(a) The delta wing- body is not at exact zero angle of attack
(b) This delta wing-body generates lift at zero angle of attack
(c) The up wash ahead of the wing creates necessary angle of attack
(d) This delta wing is not symmetric in its cross section
51. If the drag Polar of an airplane is given by 𝐶𝐷 = 4𝐶𝑑𝑜 , then it represents

(a) Minimum rate of climb condition
(b) Minimum drag condition
A
(c) Minimum power condition
I (d) Minimum rate of glide condition
C 52. The effect of increasing Reynolds number results in the increase of

(a) CL - α curve slope
T (b) α at 𝐶𝐿 = 0
E (c) 𝛼𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑙
(d) 𝐶𝐿 at 𝛼 = 0𝑜
53. The lift-off distance of an airplane is directly proportional to

(a) Its all up weight
(b) The engine thrust
(c) The gross wing area and engine thrust
(d) The weight and inversely proportional to the engine thrust
54. It is advisable to deploy the JATO unit during this phase of the airplane take-off
A (a) Right at the start of take-off run
I (b) During the last phase of take-off run
(c) At the mid of take-off run
C (d) Thrust alone matters
T 55. The radius of co-ordinated turn of an airplane during its level flight is restricted by
(a) Its 𝐶𝐿 𝑚𝑎𝑥
E (b) Thrust available
(c) Factors a and b taken together
(d) The load factor
56. The relationship between 𝑉𝑚𝑝 and 𝑉𝑚𝑑 (usual notation) is given by
(a) 𝑉𝑚𝑝 = 0.76 𝑉𝑚𝑑
(b) 𝑉𝑚𝑑 = 0.76𝑉𝑚𝑝
(c) 𝑉𝑚𝑑 = 0.82 𝑉𝑚𝑝
A (d) 𝑉𝑚𝑝 = 0.82 𝑉𝑚𝑑
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57. The relationship between 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑝 and𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑑 (usual rotation) is given by

A
(a) 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑝 = 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑑 3
I
(b) 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑑 = 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑝 3
C
(c) 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑝 = 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑑 3/2
T
(d) 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑑 =𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑝 3 /2
E
58. The terminal velocity of an airplane is

(a) Its maximum velocity in level flight
(b) Its maximum velocity in power off glide
(c) Its maximum velocity in zero lift dive
(d) Its maximum velocity in power on dive
59. The relationship of 𝛼𝑡 , 𝛼𝑤 , 𝜖 , 𝑖𝑡 , 𝑖𝑤 (usual notation in longitudinal dynamics of

airplane) is given by
A
(a) 𝛼𝑡 = 𝛼𝑤 − 𝜖 + 𝑖𝑡 − 𝑖𝑤
I (b) 𝛼𝑡 = 𝛼𝑤 + 𝜖 + 𝑖𝑡 − 𝑖𝑤
(c) 𝛼𝑡 = 𝛼𝑤 − 𝜖 − 𝑖𝑡 − 𝑖𝑤
C (d) 𝛼𝑡 = 𝛼𝑤 − 𝜖 − 𝑖𝑡 + 𝑖𝑤
T
60. The expression for static longitudinal stability stick fixed of an airplane is given by
E (usual notation)
𝑑 𝐶𝑀 𝑥𝑎 𝑑 𝐶𝑚 𝑎𝑡 𝑑𝜖
(a) = + − 1+
𝑑 𝐶𝐿 𝑓𝑖𝑥𝑒𝑑 𝐶 𝑑 𝐶𝐿 𝑓𝑢𝑠 ,𝑛𝑎𝑐 𝑎𝑤 𝑑𝛼
𝑑 𝐶𝑀 𝑥𝑎 𝑑 𝐶𝑚 𝑎𝑡 𝑑
(b) = + − 1 − 𝑑𝜖
𝑑 𝐶𝐿 𝑓𝑖𝑥𝑒𝑑 𝐶 𝑑 𝐶𝐿 𝑓𝑢𝑠 ,𝑛𝑎𝑐 𝑎𝑤 𝛼
(c) = + + 1−
(d) = − − 1−
A 61. As an airplane approaches the runway,

(a) More up elevator is required to achieve 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑎𝑥 in landing
I (b) Lesser up elevator is required to achieve 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑎𝑥 in landing
C (c) Same elevator is required to achieve 𝐶𝐿𝑚 𝑎𝑥 in landing
(d) Change in elevator angle is from case to case
T
62. Rolling moment due to side slip is
E (a) Dihedral effect
(b) Adverse yaw
(c) Adverse yaw
(d) Dutch Roll
63. The tendency to re-establish the equilibrium position 𝐶𝐿 𝑉 2 = 𝐾 is known as

(a) Short period mode
(b) Phugoid mode
(c) Adverse yaw
A (d) Dihedral effect
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64. The damping in the short period mode of the longitudinal dynamics is due to
I (a) The horizontal tail of the airplane
(b) Fuselage of the airplane
C (c) Altitude of operation of the airplane
(d) All of the above three taken together
T
E 65. This flight mode in lateral dynamics of an airplane consists of a very heavily damped
rolling motion is termed
(a) The roll subsidence mode
(b) The spiral mode
(c) Lateral directional oscillations
(d) Snaking motion
66. The addition of dorsal fin to the airplane fuselage improves its
(a) Longitudinal dynamics
(b) Lateral dynamics
A (c) Directional dynamics
I (d) Easy recovery from spin
C 67. A flying wing will require (usual notation)

(a) 𝑥𝑐𝑔 < 𝑥𝑎𝑐
T
(b) 𝑥𝑐𝑔 > 𝑥𝑎𝑐
E (c) 𝑥𝑐𝑔 = 𝑥𝑎𝑐
(d) 𝑥𝑐𝑔 ≈ 𝑥𝑎𝑐
68. This alloy is chiefly used for aero engine jet pipes
(a) Inconel
(b) Monel
(c) K-monel
(d) RR-58
A 69. This alloy is used for engine bolts, studs, wing hinge fittings etc.
(a) SAE 3140 Ni-Chrome steel
I
(b) SAE 4130 Chrom-Molybdinumsteel
C (c) SAE 4037 Chrom-Molybdenum steel
(d) SAE 4140 Chrom-Molybdenum steel
T
70. Some fuselage parts of X-15, NASA’s Research airplane were fabricated out of
E (a) SAE 6135 Chrome –Vanadium steel alloy
(b) Inconel X-750
(c) RR-58 alloy
(d) SAE 3140 Ni-Chrome steel
A
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PART-B (30 X 2= 60 Marks)

A
I 71. The first ever war plane in the world was designed and fabricated by
(a) The Wright brothers USA
C
(b) Boeing Airplane company USA
T (c) Glenn Curtiss in USA
(d) Louis Bleriot in France
E
72. The NACA series of 4digit airfoil sections were developed
(a) By NACA’s equation for thickness distribution for this purpose
(b) From the data extracted from wind tunnel tests
(c) By modifying Clark –Y airfoil sections
(d) By modifying 𝐺 ottingenairfoil sections
73. A rectangular element in a linearly elastic, isotropic material is under tensile stress of
83 N/m2and 65 N/m2.Find out the maximum shear stress
A (a) 10N/m2
(b) 09N/m2
I (c) 08N/m2
(d) 15N/m2
C
T 74. TheCmacon a NACA 654- 421 airfoilis
(a) Zero
E (b) Negative
(c) Positive
(d) Varies for case to case
75. From a Mohr’s stress circle for a loading condition of pure shear, if the diagonal
compressive stress is 𝜍𝐶 and diagonal tensile stress𝜍𝑡 and maximum shear stress
are 𝜏𝑚𝑎𝑥 then
(a) 𝜍𝐶 = 𝜏𝑚𝑎𝑥
(b) 𝜍𝑡 = 𝜏𝑚𝑎𝑥
A (c) 𝜍𝐶 = 𝜍𝑡 = 𝜏𝑚𝑎𝑥
(d) 𝜏𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝜍𝐶 + 𝜍𝑡
I
76. Of the two exactly similar airplanes A1 and A2, A2 was flying at higher all up weight
C (W2>W1) meaning thereby that
T (a) 𝐶𝐷𝑖2 > 𝐶𝐷𝑖1
(b) 𝐶𝐷1 > 𝐶𝐷2
E (c) 𝐶𝐷𝑂2 > 𝐶𝐷𝑂1
(d) 𝐶𝐷𝑖2 < 𝐶𝐷𝑖1
77. A simple suggestion to the airplane designers for improving 𝐶𝑚𝛿 is to

(a) Use a cambered airfoil for the horizontal tail
(b) Increase the tail arm
(c) Locate horizontal Tail for maximum qt
(d) Increase the elevator area
A
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78. This type of aerodynamicbalance on the horizontal tail is usually deployedin smaller
A
type of piston –prop airplanes
I (a) Set back hinge
(b) Shielded horn balance
C (c) Unshielded horn balance
(d) Frise balance
T
E 79. The Glauertairfoil theory for a thin cambered airfoil yields this expression for
𝐶𝑙 − 𝛼curve slope
(a) 𝐶𝑙 = 2𝜋 𝛼
(b) 𝐶𝑙 = 2𝜋 𝛼𝛽
(c) 𝐶𝑙 = 2𝜋 𝛼 + 𝛽
(d) 𝐶𝑙 = 2𝜋 ( 𝛼 + 2𝛽 )
80. The shear stress on a flat plate aligned with free stream is readily obtained from the
solution obtained from the Blasius equation
A 0.810
(a) 𝐶𝑓 = 𝑅𝑒
𝑥
I 0.664
(b) 𝐶𝑓 = 𝑅𝑒𝑥
C 1.328
(c) 𝐶𝑓 = 𝑅𝑒𝑥
T 5.64
(d) 𝐶𝑓 = 𝑅𝑒𝑥
E
81. The separation of boundary layer on an airfoil is caused due to
(a) Angle of attack and viscocity
(b) The variation of CP over the upper surface and viscosity
(c) Adverse pressure gradient and viscosity
(d) Favourable pressure gradient and viscosity
82. One method of controllingboundary layer separation on an airplane wing

(a) Is to maintain surface finish on the wing
A (b) Fly at low angle of attack
(c) Make use of dog tooth on the leading edge of the wing
I (d) Make use of options (a) and (b) together
C 83. The generation of starting vortex on a symmetrical airfoil is due to
T (a) Angle of attack
(b) Speed of flow over the upper surface
E (c) Viscosity of the fluid flow
(d) Favourable pressure gradient
84. Skin friction in aturbulent boundary layer is higher in comparison withthat in a

laminar boundary layer due to
(a) Higher energy level in TBL
(b) Random fluctuations in TBL
(c) Higher velocity gradients on the surface in TBL
(d) Favourable pressure gradients in TBL
A
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85. The Bernoulli equation for steady flow of an incompressible fluid is obtained
A
(a) From energy considerations
I (b) By integrating Euler equation
(c) By integrating NavierStokes equations
C (d) By integrating the momentum equation
T 86. The sonic velocity may be located on the steady flow adiabatic ellipse by drawing a
line at------------------------------- drawn from the origin to the elliptical profile
E
(a) 60o
(b) 45o
(c) 30o
(d) 15o
87. The velocity of sound a, at the stagnation temperature is given by

(a) 𝑎 = 𝛾𝑅𝑇
(b) 𝑎 = 𝛾𝑅𝑇𝑂
A (c) 𝑎 = 𝛾𝑅𝑇 ∗
I 2𝛾
(d) 𝑎 = 𝑅𝑇𝑂
𝛾+1
C
88. The speed of sound inISA at sea level is worked out to be
T (a) 341 m/sec
(b) 341·21 m/sec
E (c) 339·5 m/sec
(d) 340·17m/sec
89. The Rayleigh Pitot formula is given by

2𝛾 𝛾 −1 𝛾 𝛾 −1
𝑝1 𝑀2 −
𝛾 +1 1 𝛾 +1
(a) = 𝛾 +1 2 1 𝛾 −1
𝑝𝑜 2
𝑀1
2
2𝛾 𝛾 −1 1 𝛾 −1
𝑝1 𝑀2 −
𝛾 +1 1 𝛾 +1
(b) = 𝛾 +1 2 𝛾 𝛾 −1
𝑝𝑜 2
A 𝑀1
2
2𝛾 𝛾 −1 1 𝛾 −1
I 𝑝1 𝑀2 −
𝛾 +1 1 𝛾 +1
(c) = 𝛾 +1 2 1 𝛾 +1
𝑝𝑜 2
𝑀1
C 2
2𝛾 𝛾 −1 𝛾 𝛾 +1
T 𝑝1 𝑀2 −
𝛾 +1 1 𝛾 +1
(d) = 𝛾 +1 2 𝛾 𝛾 −1
𝑝𝑜 2
𝑀1
E 2
90. The pressure coefficient 𝐶𝑃 for compressible fluid flow is given by

1 𝑝
(a) 𝐶𝑃 = 2𝛾𝑀 2 𝑝 − 1
∞ ∞
2 𝑝
(b) 𝐶𝑃 = 𝛾𝑀 2 −1
∞ 𝑝∞
1 𝑝
(c) 𝐶𝑃 = 2 −1
𝛾𝑀∞ 𝑝∞
2 𝑝
A (d) 𝐶𝑃 = 3𝛾𝑀 2 −1
∞ 𝑝∞
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91. Shock strength of a normal shock wave (usual notation) is given by

A 𝑝 2𝛾
(a) 𝑝 2 = 1 + 𝛾−1 𝑀12 − 1
1
I
𝑝2 2𝛾
(b) = 1 + 𝛾+1 𝑀12 − 1
C 𝑝1
𝑝2 2𝛾
T (c) = 1 + 𝛾−1 𝑀12 + 1
𝑝1
𝑝2 𝛾
E (d) = 1 + 𝛾−1 𝑀12 − 1
𝑝1
92. The rate of loss of potential energy and hence the rate of loss of airplane height is a
minimum when thepower required to overcome ---------------------------------------
(a) The drag is a maximum
(b) The drag is that in the cruising flight
(c) The drag is a minimum
(d) The airplane efficiency is minimum
A 93. Higher and stable rates of climb at low speed and low altitudes are produced in _____
(a) Jet powered airplanes
I
(b) Piston –prop powered airplanes
C (c) Turbo-fan powered airplanes
(d) Depends upon the location of airport and power unit
T
94. In order to assure that the airplane possess spiral stability i.e. for the motion to
E converge (usual notation in lateral dynamic stability) is
(a) 𝑙𝑣 𝑛𝑟 − 𝑛𝑣 𝑙𝑟 > 0
(b) 𝑙𝑟 𝑛𝑣 − 𝑛𝑟 𝑙𝑣 > 0
(c) 𝑙𝑣 𝑛𝑟 − 𝑛𝑣 𝑙𝑟 < 0
(d) 𝑙𝑣 𝑛𝑟 + 𝑛𝑣 𝑙𝑟 > 0
95. The effect on the endurance of an airplane under the head / tail wind condition is as
given below
A (a) It increases with the tail wind condition
(b) It decreases with the head wind condition
I (c) It decreases with the tail wind condition
(d) No effect of head or tail wind onendurance
C
96. A leading edge high lift device acts to increase
T
(a) the 𝛼𝐶𝐿 =0
E (b) the 𝐶𝐿𝛼 =0
(c) both the 𝛼𝐶𝐿 =0 and 𝐶𝐿𝛼 =0
(d) only the 𝛼𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑙
97. The effect of jet exhaust on airplane’s state longitudinal stability is

(a) Stabilizing with high thrust line
(b) Destabilizing with high thrust line
(c) Stabilizing with low thrust line
(d) No effect
A
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98. The effect of altitude on the power v/s velocity curve is to create
A
(a) Upward shift and leftward translation of this curve
I (b) Upward shift and rightward translation of this curve
(c) Downward shift and rightward translation of the curve
C (d) Only upward shift of the curve
T 99. The process of carburizing (case hardening) is adopted commonly for
E (a) Aluminium alloys
(b) Magnesium alloys
(c) Low carbon alloy steels
(d) Medium carbon alloy steels
100. Inter- crystalline corrosion of aircraft materials results in

(a) Eating away or pitting of the surface
(b) Eating its way internally through the metal along the crystal boundaries
(c) Visible defects on the surface
(d) All of the above
A
I
PART –C
C Engineering Mathematics (30 Marks)
T
E 101. IfAbeasquarematrixoforder3and|A|=5,thenthevalueof2|A|and|2A|are
(a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
(c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
102. ThecharacteristicequationofamatrixAisλ3−4λ2+5λ=0,thenAwillbea
(a) Non-singularmatrix
(b) Identitymatrix
A (c) Singularmatrix
(d) None ofthe above.
I
103. IftherankofasquarematrixAoforder4is2,thenadjointofAwillbea
C (a) Nullmatrix
T (b) Diagonalmatrix
(c) Lower Triangularmatrix
E (d) None ofthe above.
104. If u  tan 1 y / x then xux  yu y is equal to

(a) u
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 0
A
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105. The absolute maximum and minimum values respectively for 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 4 − 8 on

A
[−3, 1] are
I (a) −7 and −8
(b) 81 and −8
C
(c) 0 and −2
T (d) 73 and −8
2
𝑑4𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4
E 106. The differential equation 𝑑𝑥 4 + 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦 = 0 is
(a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
(b) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 4
(c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4
(d) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
107. Family of curves y = m2x + m6 is represented by the differential equation ofdegree

(a) 3
(b) 6
A (c) 2
I
C 108. LetAbeanyeventsuchthatP(A)>0,thenforanyothereventB,whichoneistrue?
𝐵
(a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
T
𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
E 𝐵
(c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then the

probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3or7is
13
(a) 30
17
(b) 30
19
A (c) 30
I
C 1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
110. If 𝐴 = 2 then 𝐴 will be a
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
T (a) Hermitianmatrix
(b) Unitorymatrix
E (c) Skew-Hermitianmatrix
111. The system of equations x + y = 2 and 2x + λy= µ has unique solution,if

(a) λ = 2 and µ =4
(b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
(c) λ ≠ 2 and µ can takeany value.
A 112. Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of the
I
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determinant 𝐵 = 𝐴 + 2𝐴−1 + 𝐼 is
A
(a) 62
I (b) 44
(c) 8
C (d) None ofthe above.
T 
113. If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is true

E
(a) grad | A |  0

(b) curl A  0

(c) div A  0
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
If 𝑢 = log⁡ + 𝜕𝑦 + 𝜕𝑧 𝑢 is equal to
𝜕𝑥
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
A (b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
I (c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
C
1 1 𝑛−1
T 115. 0
𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
E (a) ⎾(n − 1)
(b) ⎾(n)
n−1
(c) ⎾ 2
n+1
(d) ⎾ 2
116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is

(a) Hyperbolic
(b) Elliptic
A (c) Parabolic
I
𝑥+𝑦
C 117. 𝑢 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 satisfies the differential equation
𝑥+ 𝑦
T 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
E 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
A
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118. Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the

A
2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
I 𝜋
function𝑓 𝑥 = 2𝑥 is
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
C
(a) 0
T (b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
119. Tofitthestraightliney=mx+ctonobservations,thenormalequationsare
(a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
A 120. IfmeanofaPoissondistributionismthenvarianceofthisdistributionis
(a) m2
I
(b) 𝑚
C (c) 𝑚
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
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UG1AE E28
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Aeronautical Engineering
Paper: 1
QUESTION No. Ans 61 a

1 a 62 a
2 b 63 b
3 a 64 d
4 a 65 a
5 c 66 c
6 c 67 a
7 c 68 a
8 a 69 a
9 c 70 b
10 d 71. a
11 b 72. a
12 d 73. b
13 d 74. b
14 b 75. c
15 b 76. a
16 c 77. d
17 b 78. c
18 c 79. c
19 d 80. c
20 c 81. c
21 b 82. c
22 c 83. c
23 c 84. c
24 b 85. b
25 a 86. b
26 d 87. b
27 a 88. d
28 c 89. b
29 c 90. b
30 b 91. b
31 c 92. c
32 c 93. b
33 b 94. a
34 b 95. d
35 c 96. d
36 c 97. a
37 a 98. b
38 a 99. c
39 d 100. b
40 a 101. a
41 a 102. c
42 a 103. a
43 b 104. d
44 b 105. d
45 b 106. d
46 b 107. a
47 a 108. a
48 a 109. a
49 c 110. b
50 c 111. c
51 c 112. d
52 c 113. b
53 d 114. a
54 b 115. b
55 c 116. b
56 c 117. d
57 a 118. a
58 c 119. d
59 a 120. c
60 b
ROLL NO.: UG2AEE28
A AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
I
C Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
T
E PAPER-II
Instructions:
A
I
i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120
questions.
C
ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
T
E
iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be
v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use

non-programmable scientific calculator.
A
vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
I specified.
C vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using
T a black or blue ball point pen.
E viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on
A
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2AEE28
A PART-A (80 X 1= 80 Marks)

I
1. The line ‘uttensio sic vis’is the original statement of
C
(a) Stress ∝ Strain
T (b) Hooke’s law
(c) Castigliano’s theorem
E (d) Stress always vanishes when loading is zero
2. Wherever the bending moment is maximum, shear force is

(a) Zero
(b) Maximum
(c) Minimum
A (d) Uncertain
I 3. A simply supported beam carries a couple at a point on its span, the shear force
C (a) Varies by a cubic law
(b) Varies by a parabolic law
T (c) Varies linearly
(d) Is uniform through out
E
4. Pronounced sliding of plans through the crystalline grains of the material are better
known as
(a) Fracture
(b) Yielding
(c) Breakage
A 5. Failure of a material is deemed to have occurred when
I (a) The fracture starts
(b) The yielding starts
C (c) The material is permanently elongated under tension
(d) Any of the above
T
6. If‘m’is the number of members,j is the number of jointsthen for a statically
E determinate truss,
(a) m+3 = 2j+1
(b) m+3 = 2j
(c) m+1 = 2j+1
(d) m-3 = 2j
A
7. The modulus of rigidity of an elastic material is defined as
I ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
(a) 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
C
ℎ𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
(b)
T 𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑟 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑟 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
E (c) 𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑟 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑟 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
(d) 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
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8. For an isotropic elastic material, the number of independent elastic constants is

A
(a) 1
I (b) 2
(c) 3
C (d) 4
T 9. Clarify if the yield point is obtained in high carbon steel
E (a) Always
(b) Never
(c) Some times
(d) Not definite
10. Application of lateral stress modifies the values of modulus of elasticity under
A uniaxial stress conditions. The ratio of the modified to the original values is always
(a) < 1
I
(b) > 1
C (c) = 1
(d) ≈ 1
T
11. The most widely used theory of failure for the design of shafts is
E (a) Rankine theory
(b) Tresca theory
(c) St. Venant’s theory
(d) Beltrami’s theory
12. The Rankine theory and the Tresca theory give the same results when
(a) The two principal stresses are equal
A (b) The two principal stresses are of the same nature
(c) The two principal stresses are of different nature
I (d) The stress system is just arbitrary
C 13. The yield surface for the maximum shear stress theory is a
T (a) Hexagonal prism
(b) Cube
E (c) Right circular cylinder
(d) None of the above
14. Slenderness of a column is the ratio of its

(a) Length to radius
(b) Length to diameter
A
(c) Length to least radius of gyration
I (d) Length to least moment of inertia
C 15. For a long column, the slenderness ratio is more than

(a) 30
T (b) 60
E (c) 120
(d) 90
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16. Failure of long columns occur due to

A
(a) Compressive stress
I (b) Stiffness
(c) Bending stress
C (d) Instability
T 17. Eiffel Tower inParis,France is a column
E (a) With one end fixed and the other hinged
(b) With both the ends hinged
(c) Of uniform strength
(d) With both the ends fixed
18. If the load on a column is increased to a value that on its removal the deflection
A remains, the load is termed
(a) Critical load
I
(b) Crippling load
C (c) Buckling load
T
19. Effective length for Euler’s formula in the case of a strut of length ‘L’ fixed at both
E the ends is
(a) ‘L’
(b) L/2
(c) 2L
(d) 3L/2
20. Euler’s theory of buckling is valid for

A (a) Long columns
(b) Short columns
I (c) Intermediate columns
(d) All types of columns
C
T 21. This is the criterion for the design of a beam based on deflection consideration
(a) Stiffness
E (b) Toughness
(c) Strength
(d) Applied load
22. Maximum slope of a cantilever having u.d.l. of w(usual notation)

𝑤 𝑙4
A (a) 2𝐸𝐼
𝑤 𝑙4
I (b) 4𝐸𝐼
𝑤 𝑙4
C (c) 8𝐸𝐼
𝑤 𝑙4
T (d) 24𝐸𝐼
E
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23. A plane frame structure is a system having

A
(a) Riveted joints
I (b) Wetted joints
(c) Rigid joints
C (d) Pin joints
T 24. A frame with one member less than that for a perfect frame is known as
(a) Redundant frame
E (b) Deficient frame
(c) Linkage
(d) Complex frame
25. The method of sections is preferred in the analysis of a plane frame if the forces are
required to be determined in
A
(a) One member alone
I (b) Two members
(c) A few members
C (d) In all members
T 26. A frame in which the number of members is more than that for a perfect frame is
known as
E (a) Redundant frame
(b) Deficient frame
(c) Plane frame
(d) Complex frame
27. Method of joints is preferred in the analysis of plane frame if the forces are required
in
(a) One member only
A
(b) Two members
I (c) A few members
(d) In all members
C
28. Temperature stress in a long bar is a function of
T (a) Modulus of elasticity
(b) Coefficient of linear expansion
E (c) Change in temperature
(d) All of these taken together
29. Strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied load ‘P’ compared to that
when applied slowly is
A (a) Twice
(b) Four times
I (c) Half
(d) same
C
30. In a linearly elastic member, the deflection δ under a load ‘P’ is connected with ‘U’
T 𝑑𝑈
the strain energy as 𝑑𝑃 = 𝛿. This relation is known as
E (a) Engessar hypothesis
(b) Castigliano’s first theorem
(c) Total potential energy of the system
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31. A particle is in equilibrium under the action of a force system, if the total virtual work
A
done under the force system is zero for a small virtual displacement. This statement is
I termed as
(a) Engessar hypothesis
C (b) Castigliano’s first theorem
(c) Principle of virtual displacement
T (d) Castigliano’s second theorem
E
32. The strain energy ‘U’ per unit volume ina shaft under twisting torque ‘T’ is given by
(usual notation in SOM)
𝑇2
(a) U = 4𝐺
𝑇2
A (b) U = 16𝐺
𝜏2
I (c) U = 4𝐺
C 𝜏2
(d) U = 2𝐺
T
33. Which of the following equalities is true for a solid circular shaft under torque ‘T’
E (dia d and length L) in usual notation
𝑇 2𝜏 𝐺𝜃
(a) = =
𝐽 𝑟 𝑙
𝑇 2𝜏 𝐺𝜃
(b) = =
𝐽 𝐷 𝑙
𝑇 2𝜏 𝐺𝜃
(c) = 2𝐷 =
𝐽 𝑙
A 𝑇 2𝜏 𝐺𝜃
(d) = =
𝐽 𝐷 2𝑙
I
34. An all metal airplane powered by 4 turbo-fans, all the four engine pylons are
C subjected to ______________ from take-off to landing
T (a) Load factors
(b) Pressure loadings
E (c) Fatigue loadings
(d) Flight loadings
35. ----------------------- deformation in a structural member of an airplane under constant

loading is termed creep
(a) Temperature dependent
A (b) Time dependent
I (c) Temperature and time dependent
(d) Temperature, time and thrust dependent
C
36. The well-known S-N curve for aluminium and its alloys
T (a) Is asymptotic to a certain minimum value
(b) Is not asymptotic to a certain minimum value
E
(c) Approaches zero value slowly
(d) Approaches zero value quite fast
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37. The phenomenon of fatigue may be eliminated completely if the structure is designed
A
for
I (a) Higher factor of safety
(b) Higher margin of safety
C (c) Fail safe life
(d) Periodical replacement of critical components
T
E 38. In a beam with symmetrical cross section about the vertical plane, the vertical loads
applied on a point in the plane of symmetry produce no torsion on the cross section,
then the point is termed as
(a) Centre of symmetrical beam cross section
(b) Centre of flexure
(c) Centre of bending
A (d) Point about which MOI is infinite
I
39. A close curved web will resist a higher stress before buckling than a flat web of
C similar dimensions. This may be designed by the use of the concept of
(a) Eulers buckling load
T (b) Rankine buckling load
(c) Shear flow in aweb
E (d) Pure shear web
40. Torsional rigidity of a solid shaft is given by (usual notation in SOM)

𝜏
(a) 𝜃
(b) GJ
𝑇𝜃
A (c) 𝐿
𝐺𝐽
I (d)
𝑇
C 41. The application of a pure torque to a closed section beam results in the development
of __________________ in the beam wall
T
(a) Pure bending
E (b) Non zero bending
(c) No shear flow
(d) Constant shear flow
42. The MOI of a rectangular lamina of side ‘d’ and side ‘b’ about the centroidal axis
parallel to side ‘d’ is
A 𝑏𝑑 3
(a) 12
I
𝑏𝑑 3
(b)
C 36
𝑑𝑏 3
T (c) 12
𝑑𝑏 3
E (d) 36
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43. Neutral axis in abeam carries __________ bending stresses

A
(a) Maximum
I (b) Minimum
(c) Average of (a) and (b)
C (d) zero
T 44. A beam is said to have been loaded in pure bending if
(a) SF and BM are constant through out
E (b) SF is zero and BM is uniform through out
(c) SF can vary and BM is uniform through out
(d) SF is constant and BM is uniform through out
45. The primary tension bearing structural member in a semi monocoquewing on the
under surface is
A
(a) Wing skin
I (b) Spar cap
(c) Stringers
C (d) All of the above
T 46. In plastic bending, the ultimate resisting moment of a beam depends upon _________
(a) The shape of the beam cross-section
E
(b) The shape of the stress-strain curve
(c) Bending modulus of rupture
(d) Both (a) and (b)
47. In an 𝐈beam in which the web is thin and the length is rather short, the torsion may be
assumed to be resisted by ___________________
(a) The web and flange combination
(b) The web alone
A
(c) The flange bending
I (d) None of above
48. In case of an 𝐈 beam in which the length is longer, the torsion may be assumed to be
C
resisted by
T (a) The web and flange combination
(b) The web alone
E (c) The flanges
(d) All ofthe above
49. The Euler formula forPcr the buckling load of flat plate length ‘L’in compression,
where the unloaded edges are free and the loaded edges are simply supported, but not
free to deflect normal to the plane of the plate (usual notation) is _______________
A 2𝜋 2 𝐸𝐼
(a) 𝑃𝑐𝑟 = 1−𝜈 2 𝐿2
I
𝜋 2 𝐸𝐼
(b) 𝑃𝑐𝑟 =
C 1−𝜈 2 𝐿2
3 2
𝜋 𝐸𝐼
T (c) 𝑃𝑐𝑟 = 2
1−𝜈 2 𝐿2
E 2𝜋 2 𝐸𝐼
(d) 𝑃𝑐𝑟 = 2 1−𝜈 2 𝐿2
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A 50. If in a structural member 𝜎 is the calculated or design stress and 𝜎𝑎 is the allowable
𝜎𝑎 −𝜎
stress , then is termedas
𝜎
I (a) Factor of safety
(b) Margin of safety
C
(c) Fitting factor
T (d) Bearing factor
E 51. The gust load factor must be calculated for __________________ all up weight of the
airplane
(a) Maximum loaded
(b) Minimum loaded
(c) Half loaded
(d) Cruise load, half the destination
A
52. A reciprocating engine is superior to a gas turbine engine in ________ for the same
I power output.
(a) Its overall efficiency
C (b) Mechanical efficiency
(c) Maintenance
T
(d) Serviceability
E
53. Isentropic efficiency of a turbine is
𝐴𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
(a) 𝐼𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑖𝑐 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
𝐼𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑖𝑐 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
(b) 𝐴𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
𝐴𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
(c) 𝐼𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑖𝑐 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
A 𝐼𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝𝑖𝑐 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
(d) 𝐴𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑝
I
54. Multistage compression with inter cooling and multistage expansion with reheating
C improves __________________________
T (a) Efficiency
(b) Power output
E (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of above
55. Piston-prop engines are not used in modern high speed high altitude airplanes due to
______________
(a) Altitude effect
A (b) Larger drag
I (c) Compressibility effects on propellers
C 56. The useful power output from the turbojet propulsion cycle is from
T (a) Inlet diffuser
(b) Outlet nozzle
E (c) Turbine
(d) Compressor
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A 57. Pressure rise in a Ram Jet engine is achieved by

(a) Diffuser
I (b) Centrifugal compressor
C (c) Axial flow compressor
T
58. The limitation on the pressure rise per stage in an axial flow compressor is due to
E (a) Smaller area for the passage of air
(b) The axial blade geometry
(c) The adverse pressure gradient faced by upcoming air per stage
(d) Higher r.p.m.
59. In a centrifugal compressor, the compressive action in a vane less diffuser
A (a) Follows the vaned diffuser
(b) Precedes the vaned diffuser
I (c) Cannot be established effectively
(d) Is simultaneous
C
60. This type of combustion chamber is preferred these days for a military jet airplane
T (a) Annular combustion chamber
E (b) Can-type combustion chamber
(c) Can-annulartype combustion chamber
(d) Reverse flow type combustion chamber
61. The phenomenon of surge creates damage to the

(a) The axial flow compressor
(b) The last stages of axial flow compressor
(c) The combustion chamber
A (d) The axial flow turbine
I
62. The rotating stall consists of
C (a) Alternate loading and unloading of the blades
(b) Back flow from the axial flow turbine in to the compressor
T (c) Back flow from the axial flow turbine in to the combustion chamber
(d) Back flow from the combustion chambers to the compressor
E
63. The typical inlet Mach number for a Ram Jet is about
(a) 0.2- 0.3
(b) 0.4-0.5
(c) 0.1-0.2
A (d) <1.0
I 64. For about 25% increase in the thrust force, the fuel burnt in the after burner is about
_________
C (a) 4 times
T (b) 3 times
(c) 2 times
E (d) 5 times
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65. _______ is the most difficult component of a Ram jet to designed

A
(a) Diffuser
I (b) Flame tube
(c) Shutters
C (d) nozzle
T 66. _______ type of nozzle is used in Rocket propulsion
E (a) Convergent
(b) Divergent
(c) Convergent-divergent
67. MiG - 21 airplane has ________________ of air intakes

A (a) Ear type on the fuselage
(b) Conical –Spike
I
(c) Belly type
C (d) C-D supersonic type
T 68. Plasma rocket propulsion and ion rocket propulsion fall under the category of
(a) Electrical propulsion
E (b) Mechanical propulsion
(c) Chemical propulsion
(d) Nuclear propulsion
69. A turbo-prop engine is used in airplanes for

(a) Relatively high take-off thrust
(b) For low speed cruise applications
A (c) For higher rates of climb
(d) All of the above taken together
I
70. The axial flow compressor has superiority over centrifugal compressor in
C (a) Compressive efficiency
T (b) Comparatively Lighter Weight
(c) Both (a) and (b)
E (d) Ease of obtaining desired pressure ratios
71. If the mass of a body is increased by three times with the same spring, then its natural
frequency
(a) Increases by 9 times
(b) Decreases by 1.73 times
A (c) Decreases by 9 times
I (d) Increases by 1.73 times
C 72. If a spring-mass system after testing for its natural frequency in Chennai, is taken to
Leh, its natural frequency
T (a) Will fall
(b) Will increase
E
(c) Will not alter
(d) Will behave erratically
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73. In a spring-mass-damper system, the ratio of the actual damping coefficient to the
A
critical damping coefficient is known as
I (a) Damping factor
(b) Magnification factor
C (c) Logarithmic decrement
(d) Geometrical damping factor
T
E 74. Experiments on wing flutter show that the
(a) Oscillation is forced by the fluid flow
(b) Oscillation isself-sustained
(c) Oscillation is not self-sustained
(d) Oscillation is heavily damped
A 75. The aeroelastic design of an airplane focuses on its

(a) Rigidity and damping characteristics
I
(b) Strength, rigidity and damping characteristics
C (c) Aerodynamic performance
(d) Rigidity, damping characteristicand aerodynamic shape
T
76. The wing-divergence speed can be enhanced by
E (a) Redesigning the wing for its rigidity
(b) Increasing its torsional stiffness
(c) Mass balancing
(d) Flying at lower angles of attack
77. A usual source for cabin pressurization system in a jet driven airplane is
(a) An independent turbocharger
A (b) Supercharger
(c) Engine air bleed
I (d) Turbo charger and supercharger
C 78. This gyro- based instrument is designed to provide a visual reference horizon for the
airplane
T (a) Turn and bank indicator
(b) Artificial horizon
E
(c) Directional gyro
(d) Heading indicator
79. This category of ILS allows the airplane landing with near zero visibility
(a) ILS advanced
A (b) ILS III C
(c) ILS V C
I (d) VOR-3 R
C 80. This system operates in the LF range (30-300kHz) and utilizes pulse transmitting
stations to provide signals necessary for navigational computations
T (a) LORAN
E (b) OMEGA
(c) MLS
(d) INS
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A
I
C 81. In case of bi-axial system of loading causing stresses, the maximum value of shear
stresses in a linearly elastic isotropic material is
T (a) Difference of normal stresses
(b) Half the difference of normal stresses
E
(c) Sum of normal stresses
(d) Half the sum of normal stresses
82. The statement ‘the deflection of an elastic structure at an arbitrary point ‘A’ due to a
unit load at another arbitrary point ‘B’ is equal to the deflection at ‘B’ due to a unit
A load at ‘A’, is known as
(a) Castigliano’s first theorem
I
(b) Castigliano’s second theorem
C (c) Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem
(d) Betti’s theorem
T
83. The axis of a wing about which the rotation will occur when loaded in pure rotation is
E known as
(a) Locus of the span wise aerodynamic centres
(b) Locus of the span wise quarter chords
(c) The elastic axis of the wing
(d) The line of constant shear flow
84. The strain energy ‘U’ produced in a thin bar by a tensile load ‘P’ causing extension
A ‘y’ is written as
𝑦
(a) 0 0.5𝑃𝑑𝑦
I
𝑦
(b) 0
𝑃𝑑𝑦
C
𝑦
(c) 2 0
𝑃𝑑𝑦
T
𝑦
(d) 𝑃2 dy
E 0
85. Shear strain energy per unit volume is given by (usual notation)
𝜏2
(a) 4𝐺
𝜏2
A (b) 2𝐺
I 2𝜏 2
(c) 3𝐺
C 𝜏
(d) 𝐺
T
E
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A 86. Maximum BM in a cantilever beam with u.d.l.of wis

𝑤𝑙 2
(a)
I 4
𝑤𝑙 2
C (b) 8
T 𝑤𝑙 3
(c) 4
E 𝑤𝑙 2
(d) 2
87. In a pure tension field beam, the web

(a) Does take up part of the shear load
(b) Does take half the shear load
A (c) The web buckles under shear stresses at a fraction of the ultimate load
I (d) None of the above
C 88. Castigliano’s theorem is a consequence of

(a) Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem
T (b) The strain energy in an elastic body
(c) Hooke’s law
E
89. Failures in engineering structures fabricated out of mild steel under tensile loading are
deemed to have occurred under this phenomenon
(a) Yielding
(b) Breakage
(c) Bending
A (d) Torsion
I 90. An airplane is in cruising flight at ‘V’ under an effective up gust velocity of ‘KU’ and
effective lift curve slope m. The total gust load factor ‘n’ on this airplane (usual
C
notation) is written as
T
𝑚𝐾𝑈𝑉
(a) 𝑛 = 1 + 0.1
E 2𝑤
𝑚𝐾𝑈𝑉
(b) 𝑛 = 1 + 0.1 𝑤
𝑚𝐾𝑈𝑉
(c) 𝑛 = 1 + 0.15 2𝑤
𝑚𝐾𝑈𝑉
A (d) 𝑛 = 1 + 0.15 𝑤
I 91. In airplane structures, this part of the 2 spar - wing is designed for maximum
compressive stresses in the +HAA flight loading condition
C (a) Lower flange of the front spar
(b) Upper flange of the front spar
T (c) Lower flange of the rear spar
E (d) Upper flange of the rear spar
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92. In a turbojetengine, compared to the momentum thrust, the pressure thrust is

A
(a) Quite low
I (b) Quite high
(c) Almost equal
C (d) Keeps varying, nothing fixed
T 93. The propulsive efficiency of this variant of jet engines is maximum at / near M=0.5
E (a) Turbo-prop
(b) High by-pass ratio turbofan
(c) Low bypass ratio turbofan
(d) Pure turbojet
94. The rate of mass flow through propeller of a typical turbo-prop is about _________
A timesthan that through the mass flow of the core engine
(a) 15-20
I
(b) 25-30
C (c) 35-40
(d) 45-50
T
95. This variant of jet engine was used in the supersonic passenger airplane Concorde
E (a) Turbo-prop
(b) High by-pass turbofan
(c) Pure turbo-jet
(d) Turbo –jet with afterburner
96. A good deal of the jet engine noise comes from

(a) The axial flow compressor
A (b) The combustion chambers
(c) The axial flow turbines
I (d) The exhaust of hot gases from the nozzle
97. In a light piston- propeller airplane most common type of tips of the propeller blades
C are
T (a) Round
(b) Elliptical
E (c) Square
(d) pointed
98. The phenomenon of static aeroelasticity comprises of interaction between

(a) Inertial and elastic forces
(b) Elastic and aerodynamic forces
A (c) Elastic aerodynamic and inertial forces
I (d) Inertial and aeroelastic forces
C 99. The classical type of flutter is associated with

(a) Potential flows
T (b) Rotational flows
(c) Potential flows and coupling of two or more d.o.f.
E
(d) Separated flows
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100. For a swept back wing, the aileron reversal speed

A
(a) Is higher than the flutter speed
I (b) Is lower than the flutter speed
(c) Is lower than the divergence speed
C (d) Is lower than both the divergence and aileron reversal speed
T 101. Divergence speed of a swept forward wing is
E (a) Higher than the flutter speed
(b) Lower than the flutter speed
(c) Higher than the aileron reversal speed
(d) Lower than the divergence speed and the aileron reversal speed
102. In a swept back wing, possibilities of

A (a) Wing divergence is reduced
(b) Aileron control reversal is increased
I
(c) Aileron control reversal is reduced
C (d) Both (a) and (b)
T 103. The vibrations parallel to the shaft axis are

(a) Transverse vibrations
E (b) Longitudinal vibrations
(c) Torsional vibrations
104. An airplane is flying at a height of 10,000 m, the natural frequency of vibrations of

this mass-spring-damper system will ___________ as compared with that at sea level
(a) Increases
A (b) Decreases
(c) Remains unaltered
I (d) Nothing definite
C 105. The equivalent stiffness of a combination of two springs connected in parallel
T (stiffness k1, k2) is
1 1
E (a) +𝑘
𝑘1 2
1 1
(b) −𝑘
𝑘1 2
(c) 𝑘1 + 𝑘2
1
A (d) 𝑘 1𝑘 2
I 106. The damping of a vibrating system is useful only when

𝜔
C (a) 𝜔 = 1
𝑛
𝜔
(b) <1
T 𝜔𝑛
𝜔
(c) < 2
E 𝜔𝑛
𝜔
(d) > 2
𝜔𝑛
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2AEE28
107. A spinning mass tends to stabilize with its axis fixed in space and will continue to
A
spin in the same plane unless disturbed by external forces’ is known as
I (a) The Coriolis’s effect
(b) The principle of precession
C (c) The principle of rigidity
(d) The water hammer effect
T
E 108. The operating frequency range of DME is
(a) 962-1213 MHz
(b) 190-53 kHz
(c) 118-137.975 MHz
(d) 108-117.95 MHz
A 109. These are the components of a Distance Measuring Equipment

(a) Marker beacon and NAV
I
(b) Interrogator and NAV
C (c) Interrogator and Transponder
(d) Marker Beacon and RMI
T
110. The GPS consists of
E (a) The space segment and the user segment
(b) The space segment, marker beacon and control segment
(c) The space segment interrogator and the marker beacon
(d) The space segment, the control segment and the user segment
111. An ILS consists broadlyof the following components

(a) Localizer beam, Glide slope coupler and the marker beacon
A (b) DME, Glide slope coupler and TACAN
(c) DME, Glide slope coupler and marker beacon
I (d) The space segment, the control segment and the user segment
C 112. The artificial horizon in a flying airplane informs the pilot of the orientation of the
T airplane
(a) In the altitude of operation
E (b) With reference to the earth
(c) With reference to the flight speed
(d) With reference to the rate of turning
113. This type of actuating system is one having fluid flow but no appreciable pressure in
the system whenever the actuating mechanisms are idle
A (a) Open centre hydraulic system
I (b) Closed centre hydraulic system
(c) Oxygen bottles
C (d) Pressurized bottles
T 114. The main difference between open and closed hydraulic systems lies in
(a) Power pump
E
(b) Pressure accumulator
(c) Relief valves
(d) Selector switch
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A
115. A single seat airplane usually has this type of fuel system
I (a) Pressure feed type
(b) Gravity feed type
C (c) Self-feed type
(d) suction feed type
T
E 116. Oxygen system used in a light 4 seat airplane operating up to a max. of 3000m is
(a) Oxygen bottles
(b) Oxygen masks
(c) Gaseous oxygen system for unpressurized airplane
A 117. This type of ice protection system prevents the formation of ice on the airplane
(a) De-icing system
I
(b) De-icer boots
C (c) Pneumatic de-icing
T
118. This system is used at the start of a commercial Jet powered airplane
E (a) Take-off warning indicator system
(b) Stall warning indicator system
(c) Auxilliary power unit
119. The air- cycle- machine is deployed to adjust the temperature of air directed to the
passengers and the crew compartments
A (a) Large turbine engine airplane
(b) Military transport airplane
I (c) Live cargo airplane
C
T 120. Airspeed indicator provides information on this flight velocity related information
(a) Ground speed
E (b) TAS
(c) EAS
(d) IAS
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG2AE E28
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Aeronautical Engineering
Paper: 2
Question No. Ans. 61 b
1 b 62 a
2 a 63 a
3 d 64 a
4 b 65 a
5 b 66 c
6 b 67 b
7 c 68 a
8 b 69 d
9 b 70 c
10 b 71 b
11 b 72 c
12 b 73 a
13 a 74 b
14 c 75 d
15 c 76 b
16 d 77 c
17 c 78 b
18 d 79 b
19 b 80 a
20 c 81 b
21 a 82. c
22 a 83. c
23 d 84. b
24 b 85. b
25 c 86. d
26 a 87. c
27 d 88. c
28 d 89. a
29 a 90. b
30 b 91. b
31 c 92. a
32 c 93. a
33 b 94. b
34 c 95. d
35 c 96. a
36 b 97. b
37 c 98. b
38 b 99. a
39 c 100. d
40 b 101. d
41 d 102. d
42 c 103. b
43 d 104. a
44 a 105. c
45 d 106. d
46 d 107. c
47 c 108. a
48 a 109. c
49 b 110. d
50 b 111. a
51 b 112. b
52 a 113. a
53 a 114. b
54 b 115. b
55 d 116. d
56 b 117. d
57 a 118. c
58 c 119. a
59 b 120. d
60 c
ROLL NO.: UG1AME24
A AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING/MECHANICAL
& AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
I
C
T
E
PAPER-I
A Instructions:
I
i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C, total
C 120 questions.
T ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q 1 to Q 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
E
iv. Part-C contains 20 questions, Q 101 to Q110 of 1 (one) mark each and
Q111 to Q120 of 2 (two) marks each.
A v. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be
I awarded to the wrong answer.
C vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use
T
E vii. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
specified.
viii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a
black or blue ball point pen.
A
I
C
T
E
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I 1. Fluid is a substance that

a) Cannot be subjected to shear forces,
C b) Always expands until its fills any container,
c) Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion;
T
d) Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force.
E
2. Property of fluid by virtue of it offers resistance to shear or angular deformation
a) Density
b) Viscosity
c) Specific gravity
d) Specific volume
A
3. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
I
a) Compressible and viscous
C b) Viscous and incompressible
c) In-viscous and compressible,
T d) In-viscous and incompressible
E 4. Gauge pressure is equal to
a) Absolute pressure + atmospheric pressure
b) Absolute pressure - atmospheric pressure
c) Atmospheric pressure – absolute pressure
d) Atmospheric pressure + vacuum pressure
A
5. Carbon steel is
I a) made by adding carbon in steel
b) refine form of cast iron
C c) an alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorous and sulphur
d) extremely brittle
T
E 6. Cyaniding is the process of
a) Dipping steel in cyanide bath
b) Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
c) Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
d) Obtaining cyanide salts
A 7. Hardness of steel depends on
I a) Amount of carbon it contains
b) The shape and distribution of the carbides in iron
C c) Methods of fabrication
d) Contents of alloying elements
T
E
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A 8. Which is false statement about normalizing. Normalizing is done to

a) Refine grain structure
I b) Reduce segregation in casting
c) Improve mechanical properties
C d) Induce stresses
T
9. Which is false statement about tempering. Tempering is done to
E a) Improve machinability
b) Improve ductility
c) Improve toughness
d) Reduce hardness and brittleness
10. Brass contains

A a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
b) 90% copper and 10% tin
I
c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
C d) 70% copper and 30% tin
T 11. Lathe spindle has got

a) internal threads
E b) external threads
c) taper threads
d) no threads
12. Feed rate in milling operation is equal to

a) (rpm)
A
b) (rpm) x (No. of teeth)
I c) (rpm) x (feed per tooth) x (No. of teeth)
d) (rpm) x (feed per tooth) x (No. of teeth)/2
C
13. A left hand tool on lathe is used for turning in the direction
T a) from right to left
E b) from left to right
c) across the bed
d) any direction
14.Size of planer is specified by

a) number of tools which operate at a time
A b) stroke length
c) size of table and height of cross rail
I
d) horse power of motor
C
15. A double acting reciprocating pump compared to single acting pump will have nearly
T a) Double head
b) Double flow
E c) Double weight
d) Double efficiency
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A 16. NavierStoke’s equation represents the conservation of

a) Energy
I b) Mass
c) Pressure
C d) Momentum
T 17. Availability of a system at any given state is
E a) A property of the system
b) The maximum work obtainable as the system goes to dead state
c) The total energy of the system
d) The maximum useful work obtainable as the system goes to dead state
18. In ECM, the electrolyte used is

A a) Kerosene
b) Water
I
c) Air
C d) NaCl
T 19. USM is best suited for

a) Soft and ductile materials
E b) Hard and brittle materials
c) Only for soft materials
d) Only for ductile materials
20. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is

A a) Melting and evaporation
b) Melting and corrosion
I c) Erosion and cavitation
d) Cavitation and evaporation
C
21. The ideal cutting fluid for low speed machining of metals should be one which
T
a) Removes the heat faster from the cutting zone.
E b) Forms a coating on the cutting tools by chemical reaction.
c) Forms a low shear strength film of work material at the tool chip interface.
d) Serves as a dielectric, minimizing thereby reactions due to electromotive force at interface.
22. Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for which of the following type of materials?
a) Brittle
A b) Elastic
c) Ductile
I
d) Plastic
C
23. In order to have a complete balance of the several revolving masses in different planes
T a) The resultant force must be zero
b) The resultant couple must be zero
E c) Both the resultant force and couple must be zero
d) Any one zero and other cannot be zero
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A 24. The spring constant (k) of a helical compression spring does not depend on
a) Coil diameter
I b) Material strength
c) Number of active turns
C d) Wire diameter
T
25. If a closed system is undergoing an irreversible process, the entropy of the system
E a) Must increase
b) Always remain constant
c) Must decrease
d) Can increase, decrease or remain constant
26. In a cam drive, it is essential to off-set the axis of follower to

A a) decrease the side thrust between the follower and guide
b) decrease the work between the follower and cam surface
I
c) take care of space limitation
C d) reduce the cost
T 27. The flow of fluid through a pipe is laminar when

a) the fluid is ideal
E b) the fluid is viscous
c) the Reynolds number is less than 2000
d) there is considerable lateral dispersion of smoke or dye injected into the flow stream.
28. For forced convection, Nusselt number is a function of

A a) Prandtl and Grashoff number
b) Reynolds and Prandtl number
I c) Reynolds and Grashoff number
d) Reynolds number only
C
29. Basic law of heat conduction is
T a) Fourier’s law
E b) Newton’s law
c) Stefan’s law
d) First law of thermodynamics
30. Crater wear occurs mainly due to

a) abrasion,
A b) diffusion,
c) oxidation;
I d) adhesion.
C
31. Which of the following is the boiler mounting?
T a) blow off cock
b) feed pump
E c) economizer
d) super heater
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A 32. According to Kelvin-Plank’s statement, a perpetual motion machine

a) of first kind is possible
I b) of second kind is possible
c) of second kind is impossible
C d) none of the above
T
33. Work done in free expansion process is
E a) + ve
b) -ve
c) zero
d) maximum
34. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

A a) deals with conversion of mass and energy
b) deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
I
c) states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with third system, they are in thermal
C equilibrium with each other
d)deals with heat engines
T
35.According to the first law of thermodynamics
E a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
b) Carnot engine is most efficient
c) heat and work are mutually convertible
d) mass and light are mutually convertible
A 36. According to Clausius statement

a) heat cannot flow from hot substance to cold substance
I b) heat can flow from cold substance to hot substance with the aid of external work
c) heat can flow from cold substance to hot substance without the aid of external work
T
37. A simple mechanism has
E a) 1 link
b) 2 links
c) 3 links
d) 4 links
38. The fluctuation of energy may be determined from turning moment diagram for one complete
A cycle of operation, the maximum fluctuation of energy is the
I a) sum of maximum and minimum energies
b) difference between the maximum and minimum energies
C c) ratio of maximum and minimum energies
d) ratio of mean resisting torque to the flywheel
T
E
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A 39. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said to
have
I a) free vibration
b) forced vibration
C c) damped vibration
d) none of the above
T
40. The partial balancing means
E
a) balancing partially the revolving masses
b) balancing partially the reciprocating masses
c) best balancing of engines
d) all of the above
A 41.In a simple gear train, if the number of idle gears is odd, then the motion of driven gear will
a) be same as that of driving gear
I b) be opposite as that of driving gear
c) depend upon the number of teeth on the driving gear
T
42. In a reciprocating steam engine, which of the following forms a kinematic link?
E a) cylinder and piston
b) piston rod and connecting rod
c) crank shaft and flywheel
d) flywheel and engine frame
43. In a kinematic chain, a quaternary joint is equivalent to

A a) one binary joint
I b) two binary joints
c) three binary joints
C d) four binary joints
T 44. The Coriolis component of acceleration is taken into account for

a) slider crank mechanism
E b) four bar chain mechanism
c) quick return motion mechanism
45. The amount of deflection of a beam subjected to some type of loading depends upon
A a) cross-section
b) bending moment
I c) both (a) and (b)
C
T 46. Rankine’s formula is an empirical formula which is used for
a) long columns
E b) short columns
c) both long and short columns
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ROLL NO.: UG1AME24
A d) none of the above

47. Wire-winding of thin cylinder is necessary for
I a) increasing the pressure-carrying capacity of the cylinder
b) reducing the chances of bursting of the cylinder in longitudinal direction
C c) both (a) and (b)
T
E 48. The torque transmitted by a hollow thin walled circular tube of external diameter (D) and
internal diameter (d) is equal to
𝜋
a) 32 𝜏[𝐷3 − 𝑑3 ]
𝜋
b) 𝜏[𝐷3 − 𝑑3 ]
16
A
𝜋 𝐷 3 −𝑑 3
I c) 16
𝜏[ 𝐷
]
C 𝜋 𝐷 3 −𝑑 3
d) 𝜏[ ]
32 𝐷
T
49. The structure which have the highest packing of atoms are
E a) hexagonal close packed lattice
b) simple cubic lattice
c) body central cubic lattice
A 50. Which of the following is not a polymer?

a) polyvinyl acetate
I b) dichlorodifluoromethane
c) polychroprene
C d) PVC
T
51. The component deforming progressively under load at high temperatures is called as
E a) Resilience
b) Creep
c) Fatigue
d) All of the above
52. The property which enables metals to be drawn into wire is known as
A a) Malleability
b) Ductility
I
c) Straining
C d) Plastic deformation
T 53. Which of the following method is used to make powder for brittle metals?
a) Mechanical pulverization
E b) Electrolytic process
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ROLL NO.: UG1AME24
A c) Chemical reduction
I 54.Which of the following tool is manufactured by powder metallurgy?
a) High speed steel
C b) Sintered carbides
c) High carbon steel
T
d) Low carbon steel
E
55. Composite materials are classified based on:
a) Type of matrix
b) Size-and-shape of reinforcement
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
A
56. Which of the following is not a characteristic of glass-fiber reinforced composites?
I a) Low density
C b) Low impact resistance
c) High tensile strength
T d) Excellent chemical and corrosion resistance
E 57. The rate of increase of velocity with respect to change in the position of fluid particle in a flow
field is called as
a) local acceleration
b) temporal acceleration
c) convective acceleration
d) all of the above
A
I 58. If stream function (Ψ) satisfies the Laplace equation, it is a possible case of
a) a circular flow
C b) a rotational flow
c) an irrotational flow
T d) none of the above
E
59. Pitot tube is used to measure the velocity head of
a) still fluid
b) laminar flow
c) turbulent flow
d) flowing fluid
A
60. Which of the following assumptions is/are correct to obtain an analytical solution for the
I problem on laminar boundary layer of fluid on flat plate?
C a) The fluid is incompressible
b) The fluid is in steady-state
T c) The is not affected by fluid flow
d) all of the above
E
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A
61. What is the correct formula for Euler's equation of motion?
I Where,
ρ = density of the fluid
C p = pressure force
g = acceleration due to gravity
T
v = velocity of the fluid
E
a) (∂p / ρ) + (∂g / ρ) + (∂v / ρ) = 0
b) (∂p / ρ) + (∂g / ρ) + (v dv) = 0
c) (∂p / ρ) + (g dz) + (v dv) = 0
d) (p dp) + (g dz) + (v dv) = 0
A 62. Transient heat conduction means

a) heat conduction for a short time
I
b) conduction when the temperature at a point varies with time
C c) very little heat transfer
d) heat conduction with a very small temperature difference
T
63.The temperature profile for heat conduction through a wall of constant thermal conductivity in
E the presence of a heat source is
a) a straight line
b) parabolic
c) logarithmic
d) hyperbolic
A
64. The ratio of heat transfer rate of a fin to the heat transfer rate without fin is referred to as
I a) fin effectiveness
b) fin efficiency
C c) fin resistance
d) fin conductance
T
E 65. If k is the thermal conductivity, ρ is the mass density and c is the specific heat of a substance,
then
its thermal diffusivity is given by
𝜌𝑐
a) 𝑘
𝑘
A b)
𝜌𝑐
I 𝑘𝑐
c) 𝜌
C
𝑘𝜌
T d) 𝑐
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1AME24
A
I 66. Compared to parallel flow heat exchanger, the LMTD of a counterflow heat exchanger is
a) more
C b) less
c) the same
T
E
67. Fick’s law of diffusion in terms of mass fraction can be written as
𝜕𝐶𝐴
a) Mass flux = D 𝜕𝑥
𝜕𝐶𝐴
b) Mass flux = - 𝜌D 𝜕𝑥
A 𝜕𝐶𝐴
c) Mass flux = 𝜌D 𝜕𝑥
I 𝐷 𝜕𝐶𝐴
d) Mass flux = 𝜌 𝜕𝑥
C Where, CA is the mass fraction of diffusing species A and 𝜌 is the mass density.
T 68.The diffusion coefficient is a property of the system. Its value depends upon the system’s
a) Pressure
E
b) Temperature
c) Composition
d) All of the above
69.A surface that reflects all the incident radiation appears
a) yellow
A b) white
I c) black
d) red
C
70. The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting forces
T a) Locating device
b) Clamping device
E
c) Guiding device
d) Indexing device

A
I 71. A hydraulic turbine develops 1000 kW power for a head of 40 m. If the head is reduced to 20 m,
the power developed in kW is
C
a) 177.5
T b) 353.6
c) 500.5
E d) 707.4
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A
I 72. Air enters a counter flow heat exchanger at 700C and leaves at 400C. Water enters at 300C and
leaves at 500C, the LMTD (in 0C) is
C a) 5.65
b) 14.43
T
c) 19.52
E d) 20.17
73. For laminar forced convection over a flat plate, if the free stream velocity increases by a factor
of
2, the average heat transfer coefficient
a) Remains same
A b) Decreases by factor of 2
I c) Rises by a factor of 2
d) Rises by a factor of 4
C
74. In certain heat exchanger, both the fluids have identical mass flow rate specific heat product.
T The
E hot fluid enters at 760C and leaves at 470C, and the cold fluid entering at 280C, leaves at 550C, the
effectiveness of the heat exchanger is
a) 0.16
b) 0.60
c) 0.72
d) 1.00
A
75. Consider two hydraulic turbines having identical specific speed and effective head at the inlet. If
I the speed ratio (N1/N2) of the two turbines is 2, then the respective power ratio (P1/P2) is
C 1
a)
2
T 1
b)
E 4
1
c)
8
1
d)
16
A
76. A Carnot cycle is having an efficiency of 0.75. If the temperature of the high temperature
I reservoir
is 7270C. What is the temperature of low temperature reservoir?
C a) 230C
b) - 230C
T c) 00C
E d) 2500C
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A
I
C
77. In a steady state steady flow process taking place in a device with a single inlet and a single
T
outlet,
outlet
E
the work done per unit mass flow rate is given by w =   vdp , where ‘v’ is the specific volume
inlet
and ‘p’ is the pressure. The expression for ‘w’ given above
a) is valid only if the process is both reversible and adiabatic

A b) is valid only if the process is both reversible and isothermal
c) is valid for any reversible process
I outlet
C
d) is correct, it must be w =  pdv
inlet
T
78. A heat reservoir at 900 K is brought into contact with the ambient at 300 K for a short time.
E During
this period 9000 kJ of heat is lost by the heat reservoir. The total loss in availability due to this
process is
a) 15000 kJ
b) 9000 kJ
c) 6000 kJ
A d) 18000 kJ
I 79. One kg of air (R = 287 J/kgK) undergoes an irreversible process between equilibrium state
C 1
(200C, 0.9 m3) and equilibrium state 2 (200C, 0.6 m3). The change in entropy s2 - s1 (in J/kgK)
T will be
a) -116.368 J/kgK
E b) +134.683 J/kgK
c) -106.324 J/kgK
d) + 107.386 J/kgK
80. In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to (1/8)th of the
A original
value. The exponent ‘n’ in Taylor’s tool life equation VTn = C, is
I a) 1/8
b) 1/4
C c) 1/3
T d) 1/2
E 81. A shaft of 20 mm diameter and 0.6 m long carrying a mass of 1 kg at its midpoint and density of
the shaft material is 40 Mg/m3. Young’s modulus is 200 GN/m2 and shaft is to be freely supported,
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A then Whirling speed of the shaft is

a) 38.3 r.p.s.
I b) 43.3 r.p.s.
c) 51.5 r.p.s.
C d) 56 r.p.s.
T
E
82. If the length of a column is doubled, the critical load becomes
1
a) of the original value
2
1
A b) of the original value
4
I 1
c) of the original value
8
C
1
d) of the original value
T 16
E 83. A fluid filled cylinder of internal diameter 40 mm and made of 5 mm thick plate. If the tensile
stress in the material is not to exceed 30 MPa, then the pressure that can be allowed to work it
safely is
a) 7.5 MPa
b) 15 MPa
A c) 22.5 Mpa
d) 9.5 MPa
I
84. The state of stress at a point under plane stress condition is σxx = 40 MPa, σyy = 100 MPa and τxy
C = 40 MPa, The radius of Mohr’s circle representing the given state of stress in MPa is
a) 40
T b) 50
E c) 60
d) 100
85. A rigid link PQ of length 2 m rotates about the pinned end Q with a constant angular
acceleration
of 12 rad/s2. When the angular velocity of the link is 4 rad/s, the magnitude of the resultant
A acceleration (in m/s2) of the end P is
a) 50 m/s2
I
b) 40 m/s2
C c) 32 m/s2
d) 24 m/s2
T
86. A pinion having 30 teeth drives a gear having 80 teeth. The profile of the gears is involute with
E 200 pressure angle, 12 mm module and 10 mm addendum, then the length of path of contact will
be
Page 14 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG1AME24
A a) 48.2 mm
b) 52.3 mm
I c) 40.4 mm
d) 24.5 mm
C
T
E
87. An aeroplane makes a complete half circle of 50 m radius, towards left, when flying at 200 km
per hr. The rotary engine and the propeller of the plane has a mass of 400 kg and a radius of
gyration of 0.3 m. The engine rotates at 2400 r.p.m. clockwise when viewed from the rear. The
A gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane is
a) 10046 N-m
I
b) 12045 N-m
C c) 15104 N-m
d) 10707 N-m
T
88. In orthogonal turning of low carbon steel pipe with principal cutting edge angle of 900, the main
E cutting force is 1000 N and the feed force is 800 N. The shear angle is 250 and orthogonal rake
angle is zero. Employing Merchant’s theory, the ratio of friction force to normal force acting on
the cutting tool is
a) 1.56
b) 1.25
A c) 0.80
d) 0.64
I
89. The radiative heat transfer rate per unit area (W/m2) between two plane parallel non-black
C surfaces
(emissivity = 0.9) maintained at 400 K and 300 K is (σp = Stefan Boltzmann constant = 5.67 x 10-8
T
W/m2K4)
E a) 992
b) 812
c) 464
d) 567
90. If two pumps identical in all respects and each capable of delivering a discharge Q against a
A head
I H are connected in series, the resulting discharge is
a) 2Q against a head 2H
C b) 2Q against a head H
c) Q against a head 2H
T
d) Q against a head 2 .H
E
91. In a drilling operation, the tool life was found to decrease from 20 min to 5 min due to increase
Page 15 of 21
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A in drill speed from 200 r.p.m. to 400 r.p.m. What will be the tool life of that drill under same
condition if the drill speed is 300 r.p.m.?
I a) 7.9 min
b) 8.9 min
C c) 6.4 min
d) 9.8 min
T
E 92. In a Rankine cycle heat is added
a) Reversibly at constant volume
b) Reversibly at constant temperature
c) Reversibly at constant pressure and temperature
d) Reversibly at constant pressure
93. In slider crank mechanism, the maximum acceleration of slider is obtained when the crank is
A a) at the inner dead centre position
b) at the outer dead centre position
I
c) exactly midway position between the two dead centres
C d) slightly in advance of the midway position between the two dead centres.
T 94. An engine flywheel has radius of gyration 1 m and mass 2500 kg. The starting torque of the
engine
E is 1500 N-m and it may be assumed constant. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 s from
the start is
a) 45 kN-m
b) 20 kN-m
c) 30 kN-m
A d) 55 kN-m
I 95. A leaf spring carries a central load of 3000 N. The leaf spring is to be made of 10 steel plates 5
cm wide and 6 mm thick. If the bending stress is limited to 150 N/mm2 then the length of the
C spring is
a) 600 mm
T
b) 200 mm
E c) 300 mm
d) 500 mm
96. A metal has an atomic radius 0.14 nm, crystallizes in a FCC structure. The lattice parameter of
the material is
a) the same as the atomic radius
A b) 0.396 nm
I c) 0.333 nm
d) 0.576 nm
C
97.Which of the following sentences are true for Bernoulli's equation?
T 1. Bernoulli's principle is applicable to ideal incompressible fluid
2. The gravity force and pressure forces are only considered in Bernoulli's principle
E
3. The flow of fluid is rotational for Bernoulli's principle
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A 4. The heat transfer into or out of fluid should be zero to apply Bernoulli's principle
a) 1, 2 and 3
I b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 4
C d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
T
98.Which of the following forces generally act on fluid while considering fluid dynamics?
E 1. Viscous force
2. Pressure force
3. Gravity force
4. Turbulent force
5. Compressibility force
a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
A b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
I
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C
99.For two black parallel planes of equal areas connected by reradiating walls at a constant
T temperature the view factor F12 is given by
a) 1 + F12
E b) (1 + F12) / 2
c) F12 / 2
d) (1 – F12) / 2
100.During abrasive jet machining, the mixing ratio used is 0.2. If the ratio of density of abrasive
A and density of carrier gas equal to 20, then the mass ratio will be
a) 0.6
I b) 0.8
c) 0.2
C d) 0.5
T PART –C
a) 10and40
b) 10 and15
c) 15 and40
d) 10 and10
A
I a) Non-singularmatrix
b) Identitymatrix
C
c) Singularmatrix
T d) None ofthe above
E 103. IftherankofasquarematrixAoforder4is2,thenadjointofAwillbea
a) Nullmatrix
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A b) Diagonalmatrix
c) Lower Triangularmatrix
I d) None ofthe above
C 104. If u  tan 1 y / x then xux  yu y is equal to

T a) u
b) 1
E c) -1
d) 0
105. The absolute maximum and minimum values respectively for 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 4 − 8 on [−3, 1]
A are
a) −7 and −8
I b) 81 and −8
c) 0 and −2
C
d) 73 and −8
2
T 𝑑4𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4
106. The differential equation 𝑑𝑥 4 + 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦 = 0 is
E a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
b) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 4
c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4
d) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2

A a) 3
b) 6
I
c) 2
C d) None ofthe above
T
108. LetAbeanyeventsuchthatP(A)>0,thenforanyothereventB,whichoneistrue?
E 𝐵
a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
A d) None ofthe above
I 109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then

the probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3or7is
C 13
a) 30
T 17
b) 30
E 19
c) 30
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I
1 1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
C 1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
T b) Unitorymatrix
c) Skew-Hermitianmatrix
E d) None the above

A
a) λ = 2 and µ =4
I b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
c) λ ≠ 2 and µ can takeany value.
C d) None ofthe above
T
112.Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of the
E determinant 𝐵 = 𝐴 + 2𝐴−1 + 𝐼 is
a) 62
b) 44
c) 8
d) None ofthe above
A 
113.If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is true
I 
a) grad | A |  0

C b) curl A  0

T c) div A  0
d) None ofthe above
E
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
(𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
114.If 𝑢 = log⁡ + 𝜕𝑦 + 𝜕𝑧 𝑢 is equal to
𝜕𝑥
a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
A c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
d) None ofthe above
I
1 1 𝑛 −1
C 115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
a) ⎾(n − 1)
T b) ⎾(n)
n−1
E c) ⎾ 2
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ROLL NO.: UG1AME24
n+1
A d) ⎾ 2
I
C a) Hyperbolic
b) Elliptic
T c) Parabolic
d) None ofthe above
E
𝑥 +𝑦
A 117.𝑢 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 satisfies the differential equation
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
I a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
C b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
T c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
E d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
118.Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the function𝑓 𝑥 = 2𝑥
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
A is
a) 0
I b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
C d) None of these
T
E a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
d) None ofthe above
a) m2
I b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
C
d) None ofthe above
T
E
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A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 21 of 21
UG1A ME24
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Automobile Engg/Mech & Automobile Engg
Paper: 1
1. (d) 51. (b) 101. a

2. (b) 52. (b) 102. c
3. (d) 53. (a) 103. a
4. (b) 54. (b) 104. d
5. (c) 55. (c) 105. d
6. (c) 56. (b) 106. d
7. (b) 57. (c) 107. a
8. (d) 58. (c) 108. a
9. (a) 59. (d) 109. a
10. (a) 60. (d) 110. b
11. (b) 61. (c) 111. c
12. (c) 62. (b) 112. d
13. (b) 63. (b) 113. b
14. (c) 64. (a) 114. a
15. (b) 65. (b) 115. b
66. (a)
16. (d) 116. b
67. (b)
17. (d) 117. d
68. (d)
18. (d) 69. (b) 118. a
19. (b) 70. (b) 119. d
20. (a) 71. (b) 120. c
21. (a) 72. (b)
22. (a) 73. (c)
23. (c) 74. (b)
24. (b) 75. (b)
25. (d) 76. (b)
26. (c) 77. (c)
27. (c) 78. (c)
28. (b) 79. (a)
29. (a) 80. (c)
30. (b) 81. (b)
31. (a) 82. (b)
32. (c) 83. (a)
33. (c) 84. (b)
34. (c) 85. (b)
35. (c) 86. (b)
36. (b) 87. (a)
37. (d) 88. (c)
38. (b) 89. (b)
39. (c) 90. (c)
40. (b) 91. (b)
41. (a) 92. (d)
42. (c) 93. (a)
43. (c) 94. (a)
44. (c) 95. (a)
45. (d) 96. (b)
46. (c) 97. (c)
47. (c) 98. (d)
48. (c) 99. (b)
49. (a) 100. (b)
50. (b)
ROLL NO.: UG2AME24
A
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING/MECHANICAL
I & AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
C
T Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
E
PAPER-II
A
I Instructions:
C i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120
T
questions.
E ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.

A
I v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
programmable scientific calculator.
C
T
specified.
E
vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a
viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.

A
I completion of examination before leaving the examination hall.
C
T
E
Page 1 of 19
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I 1. A rotating shaft carrying a unidirectional transverse load is subjected to

a) Variable bending stress
C b) Variable shear stress
c) Constant bending stress
T
d) Constant shear stress
E
2. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the bolt will be subjected to
a) Tensile stress
b) Compression stress
c) Shear stress
A
3. The rivet head used for boiler plate riveting is usually
I
a) Snap head
C b) Pan head
c) Counter sink head
T d) Conical head
E 4. In the assembly design of shaft, pulley and key, the weakest member is
a) Pulley
b) Key
c) Shaft
A
5. Which of the following statements is correct? While designing a parallel sunk key; it is assumed
I that the distribution of force along the length of the key
a) varies linearly
C b) is uniform throughout
c) varies exponentially, being more at the torque input end
T
d) varies exponentially, being less at the torque output end
E
6. When a shaft transmit power through gears, the shaft experiences
a) Torsional stresses alone
b) Bending stresses alone
c) Constant bending and varying torsional stresses
d) Varying bending and constant torsional stresses
A
I 7. Which one of the following is not a friction clutch?
a) Disc or plate clutch
C b) Cone clutch
c) Centrifugal Clutch
T d) Jaw clutch
E
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A 8. The piston rod and the crosshead in a steam engine are usually connected by means of
a) Cotter joint
I b) Knuckle joint
c) Ball joint
C d) Universal Joint
T
9. The maximum efficiency of self locking screw is
E a) 50%
b) 70%
c) 75%
d) 80%
10. Which of the following screw threads is adopted for power transmission in either direction?
A a) Acme threads
b) Square threads
I
c) Buttress threads
C d) Multiple threads
T 11. In a compression coil spring is cut into two equal parts and the parts are then used in parallel,
the ratio of the spring rate to its initial value will be
E a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) Interminable for want of sufficient data
A 12. Wahl stress factor takes into account

a) Direct shear stress
I b) Torsional shear stress
c) Wire curvature effect
C d) Direct shear and wire curvature effect
T
13. Two coil springs each having stiffness K, are placed in parallel. The stiffness of the combination
E will be
a) 4 K
b) 2 K
c) K/2
d) K/4
A 14. Which cycle consists of two reversible isotherms and to reversible isobars?
a) Carnot cycle
I b) Stirling cycle
C c) Ericsson cycle
d) Brayton cycle
T
E
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A 15.The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is
knows as
I a) Dual combustion cycle
b) Diesel cycle
C c) Otto cycle
T
E 16. In SI engines for higher thermal efficiency
a) Compression ratio should be high
b) Heat liberation during combustion should be maximum
c) Surface to volume ratio should be high
d) Long flame travel distance
A 17. In some carburettors, meter rod and economizer device is used for
a) Cold starting
I
b) Idling
C c) Power enrichment
d) Acceleration
T
18. Where does mixing of fuel and air take place in case of diesel engine?
E a) Injection pump
b) Injector
c) Engine cylinder
d) Inlet manifold
A 19. Piston compression rings are made of which one of following?

a) Cast iron
I b) Bronze
c) Aluminum
C d) White metal
T
20. Pistons of diesel engines are usually cooled by
E a) Air
b) Water
c) Lubricating oil
d) Fuel oil
21. In spark ignition engines knocking can be reduced by

A a) Increasing the compression ratio
I b) Increasing the cooling water temperature
c) Retarding the spark advance
C d) Increasing the inlet air temperature
T
E
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A 22. The knocking tendency in compression ignition engines increases with

a) Increases of coolant water temperature
I b) Increases of temperature of inlet air
c) Decreases of compression ratio
C d) Increases of compression ratio
T
23. What is the purpose of supercharging an engine?
E a) To increase the power output of engine
b) To reduce specific fuel consumption
c) To reduce the noise of the engine
d) To improve cooling of cylinders
24. By supercharging the diesel engine, the possibility of knocking

A a) Decreases
b) Increases
I
c) Remains constant
C d) None of the above
T 25.The three way catalytic converter cannot control which one of the following?
a) HC emission
E b) CO emission
c) NOx emission
d) PM emission
26. Which one of the following fuels can be obtained by fermentation of vegetable matter?
A a) Benzene
b) Diesel
I c) Gasoline
d) Alcohol
C
27. Based on the design point of view, IC engine cylinders are usually made of
T
a) Cast iron or cast steel
E b) Brass
c) Stainless steel
d) Copper
28. The length of cylinder is usually taken as

a) Equal to the length of piston
A b) Equal to length of stroke
c) Equal to cylinder bore
I
d) 1.5 times the length of stroke
C
29.The number of starts on the worm for a velocity ratio of 40 should be
T a) Single
b) Double
E c) Triple
d) Quadruple
Page 5 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2AME24
A 30.The face angle of a bevel gear is equal to

a) Pitch angle – addendum angle
I b) Pitch angle + addendum angle
c) Pitch angle – dedendum angle
C d) Pitch angle + dedendum angle
T
31.The helix angle for single helical gears ranges from
E a) 100 to 140
b) 150 to 180
c) 200 to 350
d) 360 to 500
32. Lewis equation may be used in the design of

A a) Only to the pinion
b) Only to the gear
I
c) Whichever is stronger of the pinion or gear
C d) Whichever is weaker of the pinion or gear
T 33. The rolling contact bearings are known as

a) Thick lubricated bearings
E b) Plastic bearings
c) Thin lubricated bearings
d) Antifriction bearings
34. The tapered roller bearings can take

A a) Radial load only
b) Axial load only
I c) Both radial and axial loads
C
35. In thrust bearings, the load acts
T
a) Along the axis of rotation
E b) Parallel to the axis of rotation
c) Perpendicular to the axis of rotation
d) In any direction
36. A brake commonly used in motor cars is

a) Shoe brake
A b) Band brake
I c) Band and block brake
d) Internal expanding brake
C
37. Which one of the following is a positive drive?
T a) Cross flat belt drive
b) Rope drive
E c) V-belt drive
d) Chain drive
Page 6 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2AME24
A 38.The power transmitted by means of a belt depends upon

a) Velocity of the belt
I b) Tension under which the belt is placed on the pulleys
c) Arc of contact between the belt and the smaller pulley
C d) All of the above
T
39.Usually stresses produced in the belt is/are
E a) Compressive stresses
b) Tensile stresses
c) Both tensile and shear stresses
d) Shear stresses
40.In sliding contact bearing which can support steady loads without any relative motion between
A the journal and the bearing is called
a) Zero film bearing
I
b) Boundary lubricated bearing
C c) Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
d) Hydrostatic lubricated bearing
T
41. Four-wheel drive vehicles have differential at
E a) front wheels
b) rear wheels
c) both the front and rear wheels
d) any of the front or rear wheels
A 42. A production line is said to be balanced when

a) There are equal number of machines at each work station
I b) There are equal number of operators at each work station
c) The waiting time for service at each station is the same
C d) The operation time at each station is the same
T
43. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to production, planning and control?
E a) Expediting initiates the execution of production plans, whereas dispatching maintains them
and sees them through to their successful completion
b) Dispatching initiates the execution of production plans, whereas expediting maintains them
and sees them through to their successful completion
c) Both dispatching and expediting initiate the execution of production plans
d) Both dispatching and Expediting maintains the production plans and sees them through to
A their successful completion
I
44.Which one of the following is true in respect of production control for continuous or assembly
C line
production?
T a) Control is achieved by PERT network
b) Johnson algorithm is used for sequencing
E
c) Control is on one work centre only
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ROLL NO.: UG2AME24
A d) Control is on flow of identical components through several operations

45. Which one of the following is a qualitative technique of demand forecasting?
I a) Correlation and regression analysis
b) Moving average method
C c) Delphi technique
d) Exponential smoothing
T
E 46. Which one of the following is not a technique of long range forecasting?
a) Market research and market survey
b) Delphi
c) Collective opinion
d) Correlation and regression
A 47. Which of the following is the measure of forecast error?

a) Mean absolute deviation
I
b) Trend value
C c) Moving average
d) Price fluctuation
T
48. In inventory control theory, the economic order quantity (EOQ) is
E a) Average level of inventory
b) Optimum lot size
c) Lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
d) Capacity of a warehouse
A 49. In ABC analysis, A item require

a) No safety stock
I b) Low safety stock
c) Moderate safety stock
C d) High safety stock
T
50. The word KANBAN is the most appropriately associated with
E a) Economic order quantity
b) Just-in-time production
c) Capacity planning
d) Product design
51.Which one of the following is not a decision taken during the aggregate production planning
A stage?
I a) Scheduling of machines
b) Amount of labour to be committed
C c) Rate at which production should happen
d) Inventory to be carried forward
T
E
Page 8 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2AME24
A
I 52.In simple exponential smoothing forecasting, to give higher weightage to recent demand
information, the smoothing constant must be close to
C a) -1
b) Zero
T
c) 0.5
E d) 1
53. For a given level of safety stock and EOQ ordering

a) The reorder point depends only on the rate of consumption
b) The reorder point is independent of the rate of consumption
c) The reorder point depends only on the lead time
A d) The reorder point depends upon the rate of consumption and lead time
I
54.The method of classification of items to be adopted for spare parts inventory is
C a) ABC analysis
b) XYZ analysis
T c) VED analysis
d) FSN analysis
E
55. The ultimate aim in Just-in-time (JIT) production system leads to
a) Batch size one
b) Zero inventory
c) 100%
A d) All of the above
I 56. Principle or philosophy of JIT is

a) Set-up cost should be reduced
C b) The goal should be zero inventory
c) Productivity and quality inseparable
T
d) All of the above
E
57. Kanban
a) Is an information carrying the expression of needs
b) Is a simple way of controlling production
c) Is a request for production or withdrawal of parts
d) All of the above
A
I 58. Forecasting provides guide lines on
a) How many of the product produced are likely to be demanded by the customers
C b) Amount of business, the firm can expect during the planning period
c) Materials requirements schedules
T d) All of the above
E
Page 9 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2AME24
A
I 59.The overdrive consists of
a) Simple gear train
C b) Compound gear train
c) Epicyclic gear train
T
d) Reverted gear train
E
60. Advantage of Delphi method is that it
a) Provides intuitive base for forecasting
b) Is useful for long range planning
c) Is helpful for development of new products
d) All of the above
A
61.The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
I
a) Mica
C b) Copper
c) Cast iron
T d) Carbon
E 62. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
a) Nickel- Cadmium
b) Zinc- Carbon
c) Lead-acid
A
63. In magneto ignition system
I a) No battery is required
b) Engine start is difficult
C c) Used in high speed engines
d) All of the above
T
E 64.The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the
a) Shaft load
b) Step pulse frequency
c) Polarity of stator current
d) Magnitude of stator current
A 65.The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
I a) Cetane number
b) Octane number
C c) Calorific value
d) All of the above
T
66.Fishbone diagram is an example of
E a) Relevant costing diagram
b) Cause and effect diagram
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ROLL NO.: UG2AME24
A c) Control chart
d) Pareto chart
I 67.In designing an efficient workspace, the left hand will cover
a) Maximum working area
C b) Normal working area
c) Minimal working area
T
d) Any of the above
E
68. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of
a) Ethical value
b) Moral value
c) Social value
d) Commercial value
A
69. Patent is a form of
I
a) Tangible property
C b) Intellectual property
c) Industrial property
T d) Both (b) and (c)
E 70. A circuit breaker is
a) power factor correcting device
b) a device to neutralize the effect of transients
c) a waveform correcting device
d) a current interrupting device.
A
71. In a full journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing with journal is
I a) 1200
b) 1800
C c) 2700
d) 3600
T
E 72. Bridge rectifier consist of
a) 2 diodes
b) 3 diodes
c) 4 diodes
d) 5 diodes
A 73.The stoichiometric air-fuel ratio for petrol is 15:1.What is the air fuel ratio regarded for
I maximum
power?
C a) 16:1 - 18:1
b) 15:1 – 17:1
T c) 12:1 – 14:1
d) 9:1 – 11:1
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2AME24
A
I
74.Air injection in IC engine refers to injection of
C a) Air only
b) Liquid fuel and air
T
c) Supercharging air
E d) None of the above
75.The important parameters in a gasoline engine that can be controlled are

a) air-fuel ratio
b) mixture distribution between cylinders
c) ignition timing
A d) all of the above
I
76. During positive half cycle of total secondary voltage of bridge rectifier, number of diodes
C forward biased are
a) one
T b)two
c) three
E d) Four
77.Innovation is defined as
a) the commercialization of a new product or process
b) the invention of a new product or process
A c) a new product or process idea
d) the implementation of a new production method
I
78. Copyright protects
C a) Idea
b) Expression
T
c) Both (a) and (b)
79. A machine member used to connect engine shaft to gear box is called
a) differential
b) clutch
c) flywheel
A d) propeller shaft
I
80. Which of the following is true?
C a) high torque is required at the start of the vehicle
b) low torque is required at high speeds
T c) gearbox helps in smooth running of vehicle
d) all of the above
E
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A
I
C
81.A solid circular shaft is subjected to pure torsion. A ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum
T
normal stress at any point would be
E a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 2:1
d) 2:3
82. A shaft transmits 100 kW of power at 100 rad/s. Then the torque transmitted in kN-m is
A a) 0.1
b) 1.0
I
c) 10.0
C d) 100.0
T 83.In a multiple disc clutch, if there are 6 discs on the driving shaft and 5 discs on the driven shaft,
the number of pairs of contact surfaces will be equal to
E a) 11
b) 12
c) 10
d) 22
A 84. If P is the pitch of a square thread, then the depth of thread d is given by
a) 0.5P
I b) P
c) 1.5 P
C d) 2.0 P
T
85. On overcharging of battery
E a) It will bring about chemical change in active material
b) It will increase the capacity of the battery
c) It will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
86.The bore and stoke of the cylinder of a 6-cylinder engine working on an Otto-cycle are 17 cm
A and
I 30 cm respectively, total clearance volume is 9225 cm3, then what is the compression ratio?
a) 7.8
C b) 6.2
c) 15.8
T d) 5.4
E
87. The volumetric efficiency of a well-designed SI engine is in the range of
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A a) 40-50%
b) 50-60%
I c) 60-70%
d) 70-90%
C 88. An engine produces 10 kW brake power while working with a brake thermal efficiency of 30%.
If the calorific value of the fuel used is 40,000 kJ/kg, then what is the fuel consumption?
T
a) 1.5 Kg/hour
E b) 3.0 Kg/hour
c) 0.3 Kg/hour
d) 1.0 Kg/hour
89.The mechanical efficiency of a single cylinder four stroke engine is 80%. If the frictional power
is estimated to be 25 kW, the indicated power will be
A a) 100 kW
b) 125 kW
I
c) 150 kW
C d) 175 kW
T 90.A single cylinder four stroke engine operating at 80% of mechanical efficiency develops a brake
power of 60 kW. The indicated power and the power lost due to friction respectively are
E a) 40 kW and 20 kW
b) 75 kW and 20 kW
c) 50 kW and 20 kW
d) 75 kW and 15 kW
A 91. The torque developed by a disc clutch is given by

a) T = 0.25 µ𝑊𝑅
I b) T = 0.50 µ𝑊𝑅
c) T = 0.75 µ𝑊𝑅
C d) T = µ𝑊𝑅
T Where, W = axial force with which the friction surfaces are held together, µ = coefficient of
friction and R = mean radius of friction surfaces.
E
92. If b denotes the face width and L denotes the cone distance, then the bevel factor is written as
a) b / L
b) b / 2L
c) 1 - 2.b / L
d) 1- b / L
A
I 93. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel. The output voltage is
a) 1 V
C b) 1.5 V
c) 1.75 V
T d) 2 V
E
94. The gears are termed as medium velocity gears, if their peripheral velocity is
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A a) 1-3 m/s
b) 3-15 m/s
I c) 15-30 m/s
d) 30-50 m/s
C 95. If Z = absolute velocity of the lubricant in kg/m-s, N = speed of the journal in rpm, and p =
bearing pressure on the projected bearing area in N/mm2
T 𝑍.𝑁
a) 𝑝
E
𝑍.𝑝
b) 𝑁
𝑍
c)𝑝.𝑁
A 𝑝.𝑁
d) 𝑍
I
96. Which of the following charts are used for plant layout design?
C 1. Operation process chart
T 2. Man machine chart
3. Correlation chart
E 4. Travel chart
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 3
A
I 97. Which of the following are the benefits of assembly line balancing?
1. It minimizes the in-process inventory
C 2. It reduces the work content
3. It smoothens the production flow
T 4. It maintains the required rate of output
E a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
A 98. Which of the following is not the characteristic of exponential smoothing method of
forecasting?
I a) This represents a weighted average of the past observations
b) All observation are assignment equal weightage
C
c) If smoothing coefficient is 1 then the latest forecast would be equal to previous actual
T demand
d) The technique is not simple as compared to moving average method
E
99. In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost is doubled, the EOQ
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A a) Is halved
b) Is doubled
I c) Increases 1.414 times
d) Decreases 1.414 times
C
T
100.Which of the following are the benefits of inventory control?
E 1. Improvement in customers relationship
2. Economy in purchasing
3. Elimination of the possibility of duplicate ordering :
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
A c) 2 and 3 only
I d) 1 and 3 only
C 101.In the ABC method of inventory control, Group A constitutes costly items. What is the usual
percentage of such items of the total items?
T a) 10 to 20%
b) 20 to 30%
E c) 30 to 40%
d) 40 to 50%
102. Match the following

JIT 1. CRAFT
A A. Computer assisted layout 2. Johnson’s rule
B. scheduling 3. Kanbans
I C. simulation 4. EOQ rule
5. Monte carlo
C a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5
T b) A-1, B-2, C-5, D-3
c) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1
E d) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-2
103.For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2017 were 25 and 20 respectively.
If the exponential smoothing constant is taken as 0.2, then the forecast sales for January 2018
would be
a) 21
A b) 23
I c) 24
d) 27
C
104.The lead time consumption is 500 units. The annual consumption is 8000 units. The company
T has a policy of EOQ ordering and maintenance of 200 units as safety stock. The reorder point
(ROP) is
E
a) 500 units
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A b) 700 units
c) 200 units
I d) None of the above
C
T
105.For high voltage, ac circuit breakers, the rated short circuit current is passed for
E a) 0.01 sec
b) 0.1 sec
c) 3 seconds
d) 30 seconds.
106.In Battery coil ignition system, the correct sequence of flow of current is
A a) Battery – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Distributor – Spark plug
b) Battery – Ignition coil – Ammeter – Distributor – Spark plug
I c) Battery – Ammeter – Distributor – Ignition coil – Spark plug
d) Battery – Distributor – Ammeter – Ignition coil – Spark plug
C
T 107.If peak voltage on a bridge full wave rectifier circuit is 5V and diode cut-in voltage is 0.7, then
peak inverse voltage on diode will be
E a) 4.3V
b) 9.3V
c) 8.6V
d) 3.6V
108. Which of the following is not a category of copyright work in the Copyright, Designs and
A Patents
Act (CDPA)?
I
a) Literary works
C b) Furniture
c) Sculpture
T d) Musical works
E 109.A piston has allowable tensile stress of 50 N/mm2 and has bore diameter 150 mm. Considering
strength of piston, what will be the thickness of piston head if maximum pressure of 10
N/mm2 acts on it?
a) 29 mm
b) 35 mm
A c) 53 mm
d) Insufficient data
I
Data for questions 110 and 111: Design a connecting rod for an IC engine running at 1800 rpm,
C stroke of piston = 190 mm, in combustion force on the connecting rod (Fc) is equal to force on
T piston (FL), which is equal to 24740 N. Considering buckling about X-axis i.e. in the plane of
motion of the connecting rod, assuming both end hinged, buckling load (WB) = 148440 N. Radius
E of gyration of the section about X-axis is 1.78 t, where, t = thickness of flange and web (in mm) of
connecting rod section. Equivalent length of the connecting rod is 380 mm, cross-sectional area
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A =11t2,Ixx = 419 t4, permissible compressive stress (σc) = 320 N/mm2.and Rankine constant α =
1/7500.
I
110. What is the length of crank?
C a) 190 mm
b) 95 mm
T
c) 1800 mm
E d) 100 mm.
111. What is the thickness of the flange and web (t) in mm?
a) 5
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10
A
112. In diesel engines, the control of black smoke in exhaust can be achieved by
I
1. Running the engine at lower load
C 2. Maintaining the injection system perfect
3. Using diesel fuel of higher Cetane number
T Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
E b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
113.An IC engine has a bore and stroke of 2 units each. The area to calculate heat loss can be taken
A as
a) 4 𝜋
I b) 5 𝜋
c) 6 𝜋
C d) 4
T
114. A turbocharged four-stroke direct injection diesel engine has a displacement volume of 0.0259
E m3 (25.9 liters). The engine has an output of 950 kW at 2200 rpm. The mean effective pressure
(in MPa) is closest to
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.2
d) 0.1
A
I 115. A fuel a knock intensity in a standard engine at standard conditions equivalent to that of a
mixture
C of 65 parts iso-octane and 35 parts of n-heptane by volume. The octane number of the fuel is
a) 30
T b) 35
c) 50
E
d) 65
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A
Data for questions 116 and 117: A turbocharged six cylinder diesel engine has the following
I performance: work done during compression and expansion = 820 kW, work done during intake
and exhaust = 50 kW, rubbing friction in engine = 150 kW, net work done by turbine = 40 kW. The
C brake mean effective pressure is 0.6 MPa, the ratio of bore to stroke as 1 and engine speed as 1000
rpm.
T
E
116.The bore of the engine will be

a) 15 cm
b) 20 cm
A c) 30 cm
d) 40 cm
I
C 117. The stroke of the engine will be
a) 20 cm
T b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
E d) 50 cm
118.Speed of the driving gear (A) is 1500 rpm, speed of the driven gear (B), meshing with ‘A’
is 3000 rpm. What is gear ratio?
a) 2
A b) 0.5
c) 1.5
I d) 4500
C 119.In safety aspect of vehicle, a relief valve is fitted to the main oil gallery of an engine. The
purpose of this valve is to
T
a) Limit the maximum oil pressure
E b) Open when the oil is hot
c) Maintain the supply if the gallery becomes blocked
d) Stop the oil flow to the bearings
120.Nickel-Cadmium batteries are preferred more than Lead-Acid batteries in military vehicles
because of it
A a) Can be easily charged and discharged.
I b) Discharge rate is higher
c) Delivers large amount of power
T
E
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UG2A ME24
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Automobile Engg/Mech & Automobile Engg
Paper: 2
1. (a) 41. (c) 81. (a)

2. (a) 42. (d) 82. (c)
3. (a) 43. (b) 83. (c)
4. (b) 44. (b) 84. (a)
5. (b) 45. (c) 85. (d)
6. (d) 46. (d) 86. (d)
7. (d) 47. (a) 87. (d)
8. (a) 48. (b) 88. (b)
9. (a) 49. (b) 89. (b)
10. (b) 50. (b) 90. (d)
11. (c) 51. (b) 91. (d)
12. (d) 52. (d) 92. (d)
13. (b) 53. (d) 93. (d)
14. (c) 54. (c) 94. (b)
15. (d) 55. (d) 95. (a)
16. (a) 56. (d) 96. (b)
17. (c) 57. (d) 97. (c)
18. (c) 58. (d) 98. (b)
19. (a) 59. (c) 99. (c)
20. (c) 60. (d) 100. (b)
21. (c) 61. (b) 101. (a)
22. (c) 62. (c) 102. (a)
23. (a) 63. (d) 103. (c)
24. (a) 64. (b) 104. (b)
25. (d) 65. (b) 105. (c)
26. (d) 66. (b) 106. (a)
27. (a) 67. (a) 107. (d)
28. (d) 68. (d) 108. (b)
29. (a) 69. (d) 109. (a)
30. (b) 70. (d) 110. (b)
31. (c) 71. (d) 111. (b)
32. (d) 72. (c) 112. (d)
33. (d) 73. (c) 113. (b)
34. (c) 74. (b) 114. (a)
35. (a) 75. (d) 115. (d)
36. (d) 76. (b) 116. (c)
37. (d) 77. (a) 117. (b)
38. (d) 78. (b) 118. (a)
39. (b) 79. (b) 119. (a)
40. (d) 80. (d) 120. (d)
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
I BIO TECHNOLOGY
C
T Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks:160
E PAPER-I
Instructions:
A 120 questions.
I
ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q 1 to Q 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
C
T
E
vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-

A
I vii. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
specified.
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E Page 1 of 19
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A
I
1. Bulk uptake of liquid is an example of
C a) Phagocytosis
b) Pinocytosis
T c) Exocytosis
E d) Endocytosis
2. Reabsorption of useful molecules or ions in kidneys occur through

a) Diffusion
b) Active Transport
c) Partial osmosis
d) Differential osmosis
A 3. For each Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) molecule used
I a) 2 potassium ions are pumped out of the cell
b) 3 potassium ions are pumped out of the cell
C c) 2 potassium ions are pumped into the cell
d) 3 potassium ions are pumped into the cell
T
4. Exchange of nutrients and waste is performed through
E a) Cell wall
b) Cell surface membranes
c) Cytoplasm
d) Both a) and b)
5. An enzyme was crystallized for the first time by

a)John Northrop
A b) Edward Buchner
c)J.B.Summer
I d)None of above
C
6. Which of the following best characterizes a "fluid"?
T a) A fluid flows under the influence of pressure gradient
b) A fluid deforms in response to stress
E c) A fluid has viscosity
d) A fluid ceases to flow if there is no pressure gradient
7. Stationary phase is described as

a)No further increase in the cell population after a maximum value.
b)Deceleration of growth and division rate after the growth rate reaches a maximum.
A
c)Acceleration of growth and division rate after the growth rate reaches a maximum.
I d)Acceleration of growth and division rate after the growth rate reaches a minimum.
C
T
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A 8. The Monod model predicts that the specific growth rate

a)Will increase with the concentration of the growth limiting substrate until it
I reaches a maximum value.
b)Will decrease with the concentration of the growth limiting substrate.
C c)Will increase with the concentration of the growth limiting substrate.
d)Does not depend on growth limiting substrate.
T
E 9. The dilution rate, D is defined as
(where F = volumetric flow rate, VR = total volume of culture in the reactor and μ
specific growth rate).
a)F/VR
b)VR/F
c)μ/F
d)F/μ
A 10. Bubble column reactor has which of the following
I a) Large height to diameter ratio
b) Small height to diameter ratio
C c) Large diameter to height ratio
d) Small diameter to height ratio
T
11. The Standard Gibb's free energy, ΔG°, is
E a) The residual energy present in the reactants at equilibrium.
b) The residual energy present in the products at equilibrium.
c) The difference in the residual energy of reactants and products at equilibrium.
d) The energy required to convert one mole of reactants to one mole of products.
12. During the unfolding of a helix, breakage of each hydrogen bond requires about
2kJ/mol. This implies hydrogen bonds are
A a) Much stronger in proteins than in water
b) Not reformed with water.
I c) Slightly weaker in proteins than in water.
d) Slightly stronger in proteins than in water.
C
13. Elements which are good catalysts and have ability to change their oxidation number
T
are
E a) Transition elements
b) Nobel gases
c) Alkalis
d) All of the above
14. Half- life of first order reaction is

A a) Greater
I b) Lesser
c) High
C d) Constant
T
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A 15. Method in which small samples of reaction mixture is carried out at various times for
chemical analysis is called
I a)Sampling
b)Analyzing
C c) Continuous
d) All of above
T
E 16. Rate of a reaction increases with increase in
a)Concentration of reactant
b)Temperature
c)Pressure
d)Both a) and b)
17. The graph for first and second order of reaction is

a) Straight line
A b) Falling
c) Rising
I d) Curve
C
18. Reaction of gaseous molecules on the surface of solid catalyst is done in
T a) Homogeneous catalysis
b) Heterogeneous catalysis
E c) Hypogenous catalyst
d) Hypergeneous catalyst
19. An enzyme which is devoid of its prosthetic group or co-enzyme is designated as

a) Holoenzyme
b) Apoenzyme
c) Substrate
A d) Coenzyme
I 20. Enzymes which are helpful in cellular respiration are found in

a) Golgi complex
C b) Chloroplast
c) Mitochondria
T
d) RNA
E
21. The most prevalent composting technique is carried out basically through
a) Aerobic decomposition
b) Anaerobic decomposition
c) Both aerobic and anaerobic decomposition
A
22. Heavy metal are categorized as metals having
I a) Specific gravity of more than 4 or 5
C b) Specific gravity of more than 6 or 7
c) Comparatively abundant in the earth„s crust
T d) Easy extraction and usage
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A
23. The technology involved in enhancement of biodegradation through pressurized air
I injection is termed as
a) In situ bio-augmentation
C b) Biopiling
c) Biosparging
T d) Bio-augmentation
E
24. CO2is used as sole carbon source by
a) Heterotrophs
b) Autotrophs
c) Lithotrophs
d) Phototrophs
25. The end product of aerobic respiration is

A a) H2O
I b) O2
c) CO2
C d) NO2 and N2
T 26. In gas chromatography the basis for separation of the components of a volatile
material is due to the difference in their
E a) Partition coefficients
b) Conductivity
c) Molecular weight
d) Molarity
27. In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is meant to be

a) Non-polar
A b) Polar
c) Either non-polar or polar
I d) None of these
C
28. Components with small K values have affinity for
T a) Mobile phase
b) Stationary phase
E c) No phase
d) Solution phase
29. For the extraction operation, the selectivity value should be

a) > 1
b) < 1
A
c) 1
I d) Zero
C
T
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A 30. The phenomenon of concentrations of molecules of a gas or liquid at a solid surface is

called as
I a) Absorption
b) Adsorption
C c) Catalysis
d) None of these
T
E 31. Phenomena of utilization and transfer of energy in a biological system is termed as
a) Energy gain
b) Bioenergetics
c) Thermodynamics
d) Energy loss
32. A molecule consisting of a pentose nitrogenous base and a phosphate group is named
A as
a) DNA
I b) RNA
c) Nucleotide
C d) Nucleoside
T
33. The process in which protein modification occurs by addition of phosphate is called as
E a) Addition Phosphorylation
b) Electron transport chain
c) Kerb's cycle
d) None of these
34. If glycogen level is high and insulin level is low then the activated process is called as
a) Glycolysis
A b) Phosphorylation
c) Gluconeogenesis
I d) Anabolism
C
35. In a reactor small bubbles are more shear sensitive than large bubbles.
T a)True
b)False
E c) Partially True
d) Partially False
36. Protected fermentation uses which of the following

a) Sterilized media
b) Pasteurized media
A
c) Pasteurized media with low pH
I d) Unsterilized media
C
T
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A 37. An air-lift fermenter uses which of the following for mixing the contents
a) An impeller
I b) Air bubbles for mixing
c) Differential density
C d) A sparger
T 38. Loss of globular structure of enzymes is also known as
E a) Instauration of enzyme
b) Denaturation of enzyme
c) Maturation of enzyme
d) Saturation of enzyme
39. Functional groups of the nonessential amino acid residues that are suitable for the
immobilization process are
a) Free α-, β- or γ carboxyl groups
A b) α or β amino groups
I c) Phenyl, hydroxyl, sulfhydryl or imidazole groups
d) All of the above
C
40. The immobilized enzyme produced by micro encapsulation technique provides which
T of the following
a) An extremely large surface area
E b) Smaller surface area
c) High amount of solvent
d) Relatively smaller surface area
41. During the enzymatic reaction of an immobilized enzyme, the rate of substrate
transfer is
a) Equal to that of substrate consumption
A b) More than that of substrate consumption
c) Lesser than that of substrate consumption
I d) Nothing to do with the substrate consumption
C
42. For a steady state condition, the change of substrate concentration (dCs/dt) is
T a) Zero
b) 1
E c) >1
d) <1
43. The intra-particle mass transfer resistance can affect the rate of enzyme reaction, if
enzymes are immobilized by
a) Copolymerization or microencapsulation
A
b) Crosslinking using multifunctional reagents
I c) Adsorption
d) All of the above
C
T
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A 44. ELISA technique is based on which of the following interaction

a) Antigen-antibody interaction
I b) Antigen-Protein interaction
c) Lectin-antibody interaction
T 45. The covalent attachment of enzyme molecules is via which of the following
E a) Nonessential amino acids residues to water insoluble, functional supports.
b) Essential amino acids residues to water insoluble, functional supports.
c) Nonessential amino acids residues to water soluble, functional supports.
d) Essential amino acids residues to water soluble, functional supports.
46. The effectiveness factor increases with the,

a) Increase of diffusivity and decrease with the increase of particle size.
b) Increase of diffusivity and increase with the increase of particle size.
A c) Decrease of diffusivity and decrease with the increase of particle size.
I d) Increase of diffusivity and decrease with the decrease of particle size.
C 47. According to equation of continuity, when water falls its speed increases, while its
cross sectional area
T a) Increases
b) Decreases
E
c) Remains same
d) Differs
48. If every particle of fluid has irregular flow, then flow is said to be
a) Laminar flow
b) Turbulent flow
c) Fluid flow
A d) Both a and b
I 49. Volume of droplet having radius 0.1 m will be
a) 4.2 × 10-3
C b) 2 × 10-3
T c) 5.2 × 10-3
d) 4 × 10-3
E
50. According to Bernoulli's equation, where speed is high, pressure will be
a) High
b) Low
c) Minimum
d) Maximum
A
51. Plasma's viscosity at 30 °C is
I a) 1.801
b) 3.94
C
c) 1.7
T d) 7.29
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A 52. Fermenters are designed for which of the following processes

a) Aerobic processes
I b) Anaerobic processes
c) Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration
C d) None of these
T 53. The purpose of cooling jacket in a fermenter is to
E a) Prevent heavy financial losses
b) Help in easy cleaning of medium.
c) Help in maintaining the temperature
d) Utilizing unproductive time.
54. Single cell productionsare enabled through

a) Batch operation systems
b) Continuous operation systems
A c) Discontinuous operation system
I d) Unique operation system
C 55. Cell density in _________ is controlled by increasing and decreasing flow of culture
medium.
T a) Chemostat
b) Turbidostat
E c) Continuous culture
d) Synchronous culture
56. Which of the following describes an enrichment culture

a) Something that provides growth for all microorganisms.
b) Something that inhibits growth for all microorganisms.
c) An infectious culture.
A d) Something that provides growth for a certain microorganism but not for others.
I 57. Chilled……… and ………. can be used in the precipitation of proteins mainly due to
changes in the dielectric property of solution.
C
a) Ethanol, Ethane
T b) Acetone, Ketone
c) Glycol, Glycerol
E d) Ethanol, Acetone
58. The process used at all scales of operation to separate suspended particles from a
liquid or gas, using a porous medium is called as
a) Filtration
b) Precipitation
A
c) Diffusion
I d) Adhesion
C
T
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A 59. The type of filter which is suitable for “polishing” large volumes of liquid with low
solid content or small batch filtrations of valuable solids is known as
I a) Frame filter
b) Pressure leaf filter
C c) Diffusion filter
d) Cross flow filter
T
E 60. In SDS electrophoresis, proteins are separated on basis of
a) Charge
b) Mass
c) Both a) and b)
d) Structure
61. Process of protein folding depends upon which of the following factors
a) Type of solvent
A b) The concentration of salts
I c) pH of the solvent
d) All of above
C
62. A process by which a protein structure assumes its functional shape or conformation
T is known as
a) Denaturing
E b) Folding
c) Synthesis
d) Hydrolysis
63. Amino acids interact with each other to produce a well-defined 3D structure known as
a) Native state
b) Denaturing
A c) 1° structure of proteins
d) Synthesis of proteins
I
64. A particular pH, at which amino acids do not migrate in an electric field, is known as
C
a) Isoelectric point
T b) Electric point
c) Field point
E d) All of above
65. Benefit of hydrophobic interaction includes

a) Protein aggregation
b) Decrease the surface area
c) Both a) and b)
A
d) None of above
I
C
T
E Page 10 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 66. The contractile protein of skeletal muscles involving ATPase activity is;
a) Actin
I b) Myosin
c) Troponin
C d) Tropomyosin
T 67. Which one of the following ions are necessary in chemical events of muscle
E contraction
a) Na+ and K+
b) Ca++ and Mg++
c) Na++ and Mg++
d) Na++ and Ca++
68. Casein is converted to yoghurt because of

a) Lactic acid
A b) Salicylic acid
I c) Benzoic acid
d) Picric acid
C
69. Microbial population maintained in ________ phase for long time using continuous
T culture system.
a) Lag
E b) Log
c) Exponential
d) Death
70. Which one of the following statements best describes the enthalpy change of a
reaction?
a) The energy released when chemical bonds are formed during a chemical reaction
A b) The energy consumed when chemical bonds are broken during a chemical reaction
c) The difference between the energy released by bond formation and the
I energconsumed by bond cleavage during a chemical reaction
d) The increase in disorder of the system as a reaction proceeds
C
T
E
71. Which of the following terms describes a reaction in which there is a net transfer of
energy from a system to its surroundings?
a) Exothermic
b) Endothermic
A c) Both a) and b)
I d) Neither a) nor b)
C
T
E Page 11 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 72. Which of the following statements regarding the Gibbs free energychange, for a
reaction, is false?
I a) The Gibbs free energy change is the proportion of the enthalpy change of a
reaction that is used to increase the entropy.
C b) If the Gibbs free energy change for a reaction is negative, the reaction happens
spontaneously.
T c) The Gibbs free energy is represented by the symbol G
E d) A reaction with a negative Gibbs free energy change of reaction is called an
exergonic reaction.
73. The……. explains that substrates alter the shapes of the active sites in enzymes for
activation.
a) Lock and key hypothesis
b) Induced fit theory
c) Michaeli-Menten‟s equation
A d) None of these
I
74. Immobilized cell reactors for wastewater treatment have the advantage of
C having/being which of the following
a) Higher cell concentration
T b) More stable and prevent washout
c) Higher dilution rate before the cells washout
E d) All of the above
75. A continuous reactor has a dilution rate of 0.5 h-1. Its residence time would be
a) ln(2)/0.5
b) ln(2) x 0.5
c) 0.5 hrs
d) 2 hrs
A
76. A fed-batch reactor containing 1 g.l-1 of substrate in 2 liter of medium is fed with 1
I g.l-l of substrate at the rate of 1 liter per hour. After 10 hours, the concentration of
substrate in the reactor was 0.5g.l-1. The mass of substrate that was used by the culture
C
in the reactor was
T a) 2g
b) 6g
E c) 8g
d) 12g
77. Fluidized bed bioreactors provide higher mass transfer rates than packed bed
bioreactors because
A a) Mixing is higher in fluidized bed bioreactors
b) Particles move with the fluid in a fluidized bed bioreactor
I
c) Immobilized particles are smaller in the fluidized bed bioreactors
T
E Page 12 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 78. Mixing profiles closest to plug flow are observed in

a) Continuous packed bed reactor
I b) Stirred tank reactor with biomass recycles
c) Continuous fluidized bed bioreactor
C d) All of above
T 79. In a fluidized bed reactor, the function of the disengagement zone is reduction of
a) Particles from the reactor
E b) Particle velocity
c) Foaming problems
d) All of the above
80. Which part of fermenter is used for mixing process?

a) Impeller
b) Shaft
A c) Sparger
d) Headspace
I
81. mer gene is used as bio-reporter for
C
a) Chloropyrifos resistance
T b) Resistance to methicillin
c) Heavy metal resistance
82. Rhizofiltration may be applicable for the treatment of

a) Surface water and groundwater
b) industrial and residential effluents
c) Agricultural runoffs and radionuclide contaminated solutions
d) All of the above
A
83. Slurry‐phase bioremediation is an engineered process for treating contaminated soils
I or sludge‟s basically used for
a) Manufactured gas plant wastes
C b) Wood‐treating wastes, refinery and petroleum hydrocarbons wastes
c) PCBs and other chlorinated compounds
T
d) All of the above
E
84. Bio-reportersconsist of which of the following in them
a) A promoter gene
b) A reporter gene
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of above
A
85. Limitations of phytoremediation includes
I a) Surface area and depth occupied by the roots
C b) Easy moniteration by plants
c) Reduces erosion
T d) Maintaining the fertility of the soil
E Page 13 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 86. Bio-hydrogen is mainly produced through which of the following reaction

a) C6H12O6 + 2 H2O → CH3CO2H + C2O4 + 4 H2
I b) C6H12O6 + 2 H2O → 2 CH3CO2H + 2 CO2 + 4 H2
c) C6H12O6 + 2 H2O → 2 CH3CO2H + 2 HCO2H + 2 H2
T 87. Btbrinjalwas developed by insertion of a crystal protein gene of
E a) nptII
b) lacZY
c) Cry1Ac
d) luxAB
88. Firefly luciferase catalyzes a reaction that produces visible light in the range
a) 600-650 nm
b) 500-525 nm
A c) 400-450 nm
I d) 550 – 575 nm
C 89. Mechanism of herbicide includes

a) Acetyl coenzyme A carboxylase inhibition
T b) Acetoacetate synthase inhibition
c) Enolpyruvylshikimate 3-phosphate synthase inhibition
90. Polychlorinated biphenyls are degraded slowly by bacteria and the speed of the
reaction depends on the disposition of chlorine atoms. Amongst the following which
one undergo quick biodegradation as compared to others
a) Meta- substituted PCBs
b) Para-substituted PCBs
A c) Ortho- substituted PCBs
d) Both a) and b)
I
91. Micro filtration is the separation of suspended material such (mostly bacteria)) by
C
using a membrane with pore sizes ranging from
T a) 0.02 to 10μm
b) 1-10A°
E c) 20-30μm
d) 10-200A°
92. Primary steps in protein purification includes

a) Homogenization
b) Differential centrifugation
A
c) Solubilisation
I d) All of above
C
T
E Page 14 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 93. Which of the following statements about paper & gas chromatography is correct?
a) Both are routinely used for qualitative analysis only.
I b) Paper chromatography is usually considered to be quantitative only, while gas
chromatography can be qualitative or quantitative.
C c) Paper chromatography is usually considered to be qualitative only, while gas
chromatography can be qualitative or quantitative.
T d) Both are routinely used for quantitative analysis only.
E
94. The effectiveness of a solvent can be measured by which of the following
a) Distribution coefficients
b) Selectivity
c) Diffusivity
d) Both a) and (b)
95. The speed of migration of ions in electric field depends upon:

A a) Shape and size of molecule
I b) Magnitude of charge and shape of molecule
c) Magnitude of charge shape and mass of molecule
C d) Magnitude of charge and mass of molecule
T 96. If proteins are separated according to their electrophoretic mobility then the type of
electrophoresis is:
E a) SDS PAGE
b) Affinity Electrophoresis
c) Electro focusing
d) Free flow electrophoresis
97. Which of the following plays a deciding role in the choice of solvents in liquid-liquid
extraction process?
A a) The dielectric constant D
b) Partition coefficient K
I c) Both of above
d) None of above
C
T 98. Two phase aqueous extraction requires which among the following
a) Low water content and low surface tension
E b) Low water content and high surface tension
c) High water content and low surface tension
d) High water content and high surface tension
99. By what mechanism do detergents damage the cell?

A
a) By interacting with the lipoproteins of the microbial cell membrane
I b) By interfering with protein synthesis
c) By interfering with nucleic acid synthesis
C d) By all above means
T
E Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 100. The efficiency of cell disruption in a bead mill depends on which of the following
a) Concentration of the cells
I b) Amount and size of beads
c) Type and rotational speed of agitation
C d) All of above
T
E PART –C
101. IfAbeasquarematrixoforder3and|A|=5,thenthevalueof2|A|and|2A|are
a) 10and40
b) 10 and15
c) 15 and40
d) 10 and10
A
b) Identitymatrix
C c) Singularmatrix
T
a) Nullmatrix
b) Diagonalmatrix

A a) u
b) 1
I c) -1
d) 0
C
T 105. The absolute maximum and minimum values respectively for 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 4 − 8 on [−3, 1]
are
E a) −7 and −8
b) 81 and −8
c) 0 and −2
d) 73 and −8
2
A a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
I b) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 4
C d) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
T
E Page 16 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 107. Family of curves y = m2x + m6 is represented by the differential equation ofdegree

a) 3
I b) 6
c) 2
T
E 𝐵
a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
A 109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then

I a)
13
30
17
C b) 30
19
T c) 30
E
11 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
b) Unitorymatrix
d) None ofthe above
A
111. The system of equations x + y = 2 and 2x + λy = µ has unique solution,if
I a) λ = 2 and µ =4
C b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
T d) None of the above
E
a) 62
b) 44
c) 8
A d) None of the above
I
C
T
E Page 17 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26

A 113.If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is true

I a) grad | A |  0

C b) curl A  0

c) div A  0
T
E
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
(𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
A 𝑛 −1
1 1
115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
I
a) ⎾(n − 1)
C b) ⎾(n)
n−1
c) ⎾ 2
T
n+1
d) ⎾
E 2

a) Hyperbolic
b) Elliptic
c) Parabolic
A 𝑥 +𝑦
117.𝑢 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 satisfies the differential equation
𝑥+ 𝑦
I 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
C 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
T 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
E 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
A is
a) 0
I b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
C d) None of these
T
E Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 119. Tofitthestraightliney=mx+ctonobservations,thenormalequationsare
a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
I b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
T
120. IfmeanofaPoissondistributionismthenvarianceofthisdistributionis
E a) m2
b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E Page 19 of 19
UG1B IT26
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Biotechnology
Paper: 1
Questions Answers Q.61 d
Q.1 b Q.62 b
Q.2 b Q.63 a
Q.3 c Q.64 a
Q.4 d Q.65 c
Q.5 c Q.66 b
Q.6 d Q.67 b
Q.7 a Q.68 a
Q.8 a Q.69 b
Q.9 a Q.70 c
Q.10 a Q.71 a
Q.11 d Q.72 a
Q.12 d Q.73 b
Q.13 a Q.74 d
Q.14 d Q.75 d
Q.15 a Q.76 b
Q.16 d Q.77 b
Q.17 d Q.78 a
Q.18 b Q.79 d
Q.19 b Q.80 a
Q.20 c Q.81 c
Q.21 a Q.82 d
Q.22 a Q.83 d
Q.23 c Q.84 c
Q.24 b Q.85 a
Q.25 a Q.86 b
Q.26 a Q.87 c
Q.27 a Q.88 d
Q.28 b Q.89 d
Q.29 a Q.90 d
Q.30 b Q.91 a
Q.31 b Q.92 d
Q.32 a Q.93 c
Q.33 b Q.94 c
Q.34 c Q.95 b
Q.35 b Q.96 a
Q.36 c Q.97 b
Q.37 c Q.98 c
Q.38 b Q.99 a
Q.39 d Q.100 d
Q.40 a Q.101 a
Q.41 a Q.102 c
Q.42 a Q.103 a
Q.43 a Q.104 d
Q.44 a Q.105 d
Q.45 a Q.106 d
Q.46 a Q.107 a
Q.47 b Q.108 a
Q.48 b Q.109 a
Q.49 a Q.110 b
Q.50 b Q.111 c
Q.51 c Q.112 d
Q.52 c Q.113 b
Q.53 b Q.114 a
Q.54 b Q.115 b
Q.55 a Q.116 b
Q.56 d Q.117 d
Q.57 d Q.118 a
Q.58 a Q.119 d
Q.59 a Q.120 c
Q.60 b
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
AA BIO TECHNOLOGY
I I
CC
T T
E E
PAPER-II
A Instructions:
I i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120
CA questions.
T I ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
E C
T iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be
E awarded to the wrong answer.
A v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
I
C vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
specified.
T
E vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a
A black or blue ball point pen.
I viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
C
A T
I E
C
T
E
Page 1 of 19
A
I
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
AA
I I
1. Which of the following is the name of a steroid Vitamin
CC a) A
b) D
T T c) E
E E d) K
2. Which of the following is a coenzyme?

a) Mg
b) NAD
c) Ribozyme
A d) none
I
3. Which of the following pairs of amino acids contribute to protein conformation
CA byforming electrostatic interactions?
a) Glycine and leucine.
T I b) Glutamate and lysine.
c) Phenylalanine and tyrosine.
E C d) Lysine and arginine.
T 4. Which of the following standard amino acids contain Sulphur atoms

a) cysteine and serine
E
b) cysteine and threonine
A c) methionine and cysteine
d) methionine and serine
I
5. When glucose molecules are joined by α 1-4 linkage, type of carbohydrate
C obtained is
a) Lactose
T
b) Starch
E c) Glycogen
A d) Lipids
I 6. Who proposed the theory of spontaneous generation?
C a) Francesco Redi
b) John Needham
A T c) LazarroSpallanzani
I E d) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C 7. Which among the following microorganisms are not considered prokaryotes?

a) bacteria
T b) viruses
c) chlamydia
E d) mycoplasmas
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A
I
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
AA
8. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between prokaryotes
I I and eukaryotes?
a) Eukaryotes do not have cell organelles
CC b) Eukaryotes have a single chromosome
c) Eukaryotes have a nucleus and organelles
T T
d) Eukaryotes do not divide by mitosis
E E
9. Which isa common feature shared by prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a) the same shapes and sizes
b) the same types of movement
c) common organic substances such as proteins and carbohydrates
d) ribosomes of the same weight
A
10. Substances move across the membranes of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells by all the
I
following methods except
CA
a) active transport
T I b) facilitated diffusion
c) osmosis
E C d) translation
T 11. The instructions for building a protein from amino acids pass from the DNA to
a molecule of RNA
E
a) an enzyme molecule containing FAD
A b) a series of protein enzymes
c) the cell membrane where the protein is synthesized
I
12. Chromosome is thickest during
C a) Prophase
b) Anaphase
T
c) Metaphase
E d) Interphase
A
13. Dolly, The first cloned mammal, was produced by
I a) Parthenogenesis
C b) Artificial fertilization
c) Replacement of zygote nucleus by somatic nucleus
A T d) In vitro fertilization
I E
14. RT-PCR is a method that is used for:
C a) Forensic analysis of DNA.
b) Amplification of genomic DNA sequences.
T c) Amplification of mRNA sequences.
d) Analysis of protein expression.
E
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A
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ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
AA 15. The cell size is dependent upon

a) Oxygen supply
I I b) Nutrition
c) Regulation by nucleus
CC d) All of the above
T T
16. Naturally acquired active immunity would be most likely acquired through which of
E E the following processes?
a) Vaccination
b) drinking colostrum
c) natural birth
d) infection with disease causing organism followed by recovery
A 17.Which of the following convey the longest lasting immunity to an infectious agent?
a) Naturally acquired passive immunity
I
b) Artificially acquired passive immunity
CA c) Naturally acquired active immunity
d) All of these
T I
18. Which of the following substances will not stimulate an immune response unless they
E C are bound to a larger molecule?
a) Antigen
T b) Virus
c)Hapten
E
d) Miligen
A
19. B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in
I a) Bone marrow
b) The liver
C c) The circulatory system
d) The spleen
T
E 20.B cells mature in the……….. while T cells mature in the
A a) Thymus/bone marrow and gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
b) Spleen/bone marrow and GALT
I c) Bone marrow and Thymus
C d) Liver/Kidneys
A T 21. Who coined the term bioinformatics?
I E a) J D Watson
b) Margaret Dayhoff
C c) Pauline Hogeweg
d) Fredric Sanger
T
E
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A
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ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
AA 22. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching between two
molecules, a receptor and ligand is called
I I a) molecular matching
b) molecular docking
CC c) molecular fitting
d) molecule affinity checking
T T
E E 23. Which of the following alignment procedure tries to align the entire sequence?
a) multiple sequence alignment
b) pair wise alignment
c) global alignment
d) local alignment
A 24. The step wise method for solving problems in computers is known as
a) flowchart
I
b) sequential design
CA c) procedure
d) algorithm
T I
25. Which of the following is a multiple sequence alignment tool?
E C a)Clustal W
b) Chime
T c) Dismol
d) PDB
E
A 26. The nucleus of a prokaryotic cell is represented by

a) A well-defined nuclear membrane
I b) Nucleolus only
c) Double stranded circular DNA
C d) Single stranded DNA
T
27. Granal thylakoids occur in a
E a) Chloroplast
A b) Mitochondrion
c)Microtubules
I d) Cytoskelton
C
28. The cell theory is one of the unifying themes of biology. Which of the following
A T statements would be part of the cell theory?
I E a) All life is made of cells.
b) Cells are the smallest units of life.
C c) Cells come from preexisting cells.
d) All of the above
T
E
Page 5 of 19
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ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
AA 29. Nitrogenous bases of RNA are

a) uracil and adenine
I I b) thymine and uracil
c) uracil, adenine, guanine and cytosine
CC d) thymine, adenine, guanine and cytosine
T T
30. Sequence of nucleotides in a DNA strand is CAT TAG CAT CAT GAC, what will
E E be thebase sequence in complementary strand of RNA?
a) GUA AUC GUA GUA CUG
b) GTA ATC GAT GTA CTA
c) TAG ATG ATG GUA CUG
d) GTA ATG GTA GAT CTA
A 31. Virulence trait of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is borne on which of the following?

a) chromosomal DNA
I
b) tumor inducing plasmid DNA
CA c) both chromosomal and plasmid DNA
d) cryptic plasmid DNA
T I
32. The size of the virulent plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
E C a) 40-80 kb
b) 80-120 kb
T b) 140-235 kb
c) >235 kb
E
A 33. Which of the following is not true about the helper plasmids?
a) These can replicate in Agrobacterium
I b) These help in the mediating conjugation of intermediate vectors
c) These can't replicate in Agrobacterium
T
34. Which of the following techniques is used to introduce genes into dicots?
E a) electroporation
A b) particle acceleration
c) microinjection
I d) Ti plasmid infection
C
35. Direct DNA uptake by protoplasts can be stimulated by
A T a) polyethylene glycol (PEG)
I E b) decanal
c) luciferin
C d) all of these
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
AA 36. Which one of the following is a group ofproteolyticenzyme?
I I a) Bromelin& Papain
b) Cellulase&Myrosinase
CC c) Maltase&Diastase
d) Phosphatase&Chlorophyllase
T T
E E 37. Most industrial enzyme are obtained from which of the following sources?
a) Plants
b) microbes
c) Insects
d) animal tissues
A 38. Enzyme having slightly different molecular structures but performing identical
activity are known as
I
a) Holoenzymes
CA b) apoenzymes
c) Isoenzymes
T I d) coenzymes
E C 39. Which of the following enzymes is elevated in alcoholism?
a) Hepatitis
T b) Acid phosphatase
c) Serum Glutamate pyruvate Transmitase
E
d) Glutamyltranspeptidase
A
40. Which of the following is the reason for gout disease?
I a) Deficiency of Xanthine Oxidase
b) Deficiency of galactosidase
C c) Over production of Xanthine Oxidase
d) Deficiency of lipase enzyme
T
E 41. Which of the following is a characteristic of both triacylglycerols and glycerol-
A phospholipids?
a) Both contain carboxyl groups and are amphipathic
I b) Both contain fatty acids and are saponifiable.
C c) Both contain glycerol and ether bonds.
d) Both can be negatively charged at cellular pH.
A T
I E 42. Peptide bond can be described as
a) rigid with partial double bond character
C b) planar, covalent
c) covalent
E
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A
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ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
AA 43. Which reagent would break only one peptide bond in the intact peptide?
a) cyanogen bromide
I I b) V8 protease
c) chymotrypsin
CC d) trypsin
T T
44. Which of the following is untrue about DNA sequencing?
E E a) It is now routinely carried out using the Sanger method
b) This doesn’t make use of DNA polymerases
c) This involves synthesis of DNA chains of varying length
d) The DNA synthesis is stopped by adding dideoxynucleotides
45. The shotgun approach _______ sequences clones from _____ of cloned DNA.
A a) randomly, one end
b) randomly, both ends
I
c) specifically, both ends
CA d) specifically, one end
T I 46. Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by

a) concentrating enzymes within specific cellular compartments
E C b) grouping enzymes into free-floating, multienzyme complexes
c) fixing enzymes into membranes so that they are adjacent to each other
E
47. Which of the following statements about the regulation of a metabolic pathway is
A correct?
a) Most metabolic pathways are not regulated
I b) Regulation of metabolic pathways always involves changing the amount of
enzymes
C c) Metabolic regulation always depends on control by hormones
d) Most metabolic pathways are regulated
T
E 48. Which of the following statements about the integration of fat and carbohydrate
A metabolism control is correct?
a) High insulin/glucagon ratio inhibits lipogenesis in liver
I b) Low insulin/glucagon ratio activates lipolysis in adipocytes.
C c) High insulin/glucagon ratio activates lipolysis in muscle
d) Insulin-dependent glucose transporters are recruited to their functional
A T membrane site when insulin levels are low.
I E
49. The optimum pH for enzyme is:
C a) 3
b) 2
T c) 8
d) 4
E
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AA 50. Which of the following is coenzyme?

a) Mg
I I b) NAD
c) Ribozymes
CC d) none
T T
51. The chemical units of both DNA and RNA are
E E a) amino acids
b) nucleotides
c) enzyme molecules
d) NAD and FAD
52. The instructions for building a protein from amino acids pass from the DNA to
A a) a molecule of RNA
b) an enzyme molecule containing FAD
I
c) a series of protein enzymes
CA d) the cell membrane where the protein is synthesized
T I 53. In eukaryotic microorganisms, the messenger RNA molecule consists of a collection

of
E C a) introns
b) enzymes
T c) protein fragments
d) exons
E
A 54. Translation and transcription are subdivisions of the general process of

a) DNA replication
I b) glycolysis
c) protein synthesis
C d) the electron transport chain
T
55. A mutation occurring in the cell is most often due to
E a) disrupting the genetic code
A b) eliminating the supply of ATP
c) breaking down enzyme molecules
I d) depleting the supply of glucose molecules
C
56. Restriction enzymes were first discovered with the observation that
A T a) DNA is restricted to the nucleus.
I E b) foreign DNA is kept out of a cell
c) foreign DNA is restricted to the cytoplasm
C d) all of the above
T
E
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AA 57. Two offspring cells are most likely to inherit which one of the following from the
parent cell?
I I a) a change in a nucleotide in mRNA
b) a change in a nucleotide in tRNA
CC c) a change in a nucleotide in rRNA
d) a change in a nucleotide in DNA
T T
E E 58. Which of the following is the function of transport protein?
a) to regulate cell division
b) to regulate the positioning of organelles within the cell
c) to regulate movement of molecules through the cytoplasmic membrane
d) to give a cell its color
A 59. The point at which the double-stranded DNA molecule unwinds is known as
a) polymerase
I
b) replication fork
CA c) hydrogen bonding
d) ribosomes
T I
60. What do repressors do?
E C a) They activate transcriptions
b) They increase synthesis
T c) They increase gene expression
d) They stop the initiation of transcription
E
A 61. Single-celled archaea that produce methane and carbon dioxide (CO2) by fermenting
simple organic carbon compounds or oxidizing H2 without oxygen to produce CO2
I are called
a) methanogenic archaea
C b) cell wall–less archaea
c) sulfate reducers
T
d) extreme halophiles
E
A 62. In the mitochondria, cytochromes are localized in
a) matrix
I b) outer membrane
C c) inner membrane
d) none of these
A T
I E 63. The cell size is dependent upon
a) Oxygen supply
C b) Nutrition
c) Regulation by nucleus
E
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AA 64. Most organelles in a eukaryotic cell are found in the

a) cell wall
I I b) cytoplasm
c) nucleus
CC d) capsule
T T
65. The end product of translation is
E E a) Amino acids
b) Lipids
c) Polypeptides
d) All of these
66. All viruses consists of

A a) DNA and protein coat
b) RNA and protein coat
I
c) Polysaccharides and proteins
CA d) A nucleic acid and a protein coat
T I 67. In bacteria, a small circle of DNA found outside the main chromosome is called a
a) Plasmid
E C b) Protein
c) Geneticfingerprint
T d) Episome
E
68. The genetic instructions for forming a polypeptide chain are carried to the ribosome
A by the
a) tRNA
I b) rRNA
c) mRNA
C d) DNA
T
69. The DNA of an elephant and the DNA of a mango tree will probably differ in all of
E the following
A a) Sequence of DNA nucleotides
b) Length of DNA molecules
I c) Number of DNA molecules
C d) Kinds of nucleotides utilized in forming DNA
A T 70. The lac operon in E.coli is involved in which of the following functions?
I E a) Regulating the expression of a gene
b) Controlling DNA replication
C c) Regulating the translation of mRNA
d) Controlling the formation of ribosomes
T
E
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AA 71. Genetic variation can be introduced into bacteria by all of the following methods
except
I I a) transduction
b) mutation
CC c) transformation
d) DNA amplification
T T
E E 72. Which of the following would most likely cause a mutation with the greatest
deleterious effect?
a) An insertion of a nucleotide triplet into a DNA strand that codes for an

mRNA
b) A single addition of a nucleotide in a DNA strand that codes for an mRNA
A c) A deletion of a nucleotide triplet from a DNA strand that codes for an
mRNA
I
d) all of these
CA
73. All of the following enzymes are involved in DNA replication except
T I a) Helicase
b) Primase
E C c) DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase
T
74. Which of the following is true?
E
a) A messenger RNA molecule has the form of a double helix
A b) Ribosomes contain RNA nucleotides and amino acids
c) The uracil nucleotide consists of the uracil nitrogen base, a deoxyribose
I sugar and a phosphate group.
d) In eukaryotes, DNA is manufactured in the nucleus and RNA is
C manufactured in the cytoplasm.
T
75. During meiosis exchange of paternal and maternal chromosome is called
E a) Recombination
A b) Linkage
c) Segregation
I d) Crossing over
C
76. The formation of Synaptonemal complex completed during which of the following
A T phases
I E a) Leptotene
b) Zygotene
C c) Pachytene
d) Diplotene
T
E
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AA 77. Which of the following molecule act as signalling molecule

a) Nitric oxide
I I b) Vitamin D3
c) Neuropeptide
CC d) All of these
T T
78. The largest family of cell surface receptors that transmit signals to intracellular
E E targets is
a) SH2 domains
b) G-Proteins
c) Protein tyrosine kinase
d) Cytokines
A 79. Biebs that are broke off from cell are known as
a) apoptotic bodies
I
b) necrosis bodies
CA c) tuberculosis bodies
d) cytokinetic bodies
T I
80. Apoptosis is classified as
E C a) programmed cell death
b) non-programmed cell death
T c) accidental cell death
d) mitotic cell death
E
A PART - B (40X2=80)
I 81. In which of the phases of the cell cycle the chromosomes inactive, condensed, and
not transcribed to messenger RNA?
C
a) G1 phase
T b) S phase
c) M phase
E d) G2 phase
A
I 82. In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a) G1 phase
C b) S phase
c) G2 phase
A T
d) M phase
I E
83. Which of the cellular organelles are involved in the initiation of the intrinsic pathway
C of apoptosis?
a) endoplasmic reticulum
T b) lysosomes
E c) mitochondria
d) peroxisomes
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AA 84. Protein present in microfilament is known as:

a) Myosin
I I b) Actin
c) F-actin
CC d) Both b and c
T T
85. Which of the following cytoskeleton proteins have an almost all helical secondary
E E structure?
a) Tubulins
b) Keratins
c) Lamins
d) Actins
A 86. Histones have abundance of which of the following amino acids?

a) Valine and lysine
I
b) Arginine and lysine
CA c) Valine and arginine
d) Histidine and threonine
T I
87. Which of the following immune cells/molecules are most effective at destroying
E C
intracellular pathogens?
T a) T helper cells
b) B cells
E c) Antibodies
d) T cytolytic cells
A
88. A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered
I a) A toxoid
C b) Dormant
c) Virulent
T d) Attenuated
E 89. B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called
A
a) Memory cells
I b) Basophils
c) Plasma cells
C d) Killer cells
A T
90. The specificity of an antibody is due to
I E a) its valence
b) The heavy chains
C c) The Fc portion of the molecule
d) The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
T
E
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AA 91. In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a………,where as, in precipitation

reactions, the antigen is a……………
I I a) whole cell/soluble molecule
b) Soluble molecule/whole cell
CC c) Bacterium/virus
d) Protein/carbohydrates
T T
E E 92. B Cells are activated by
a) Complement
b) Antibody
c) Memory cells
d) Antigen
A 93. Fusion between a plasma cell and a tumor cell creates a

a) Myeloma
I
b) Natural killer cell
CA c) Lymphoblast
d) Hybridoma
T I
94. Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single
E C a) Antigen
b) Bacterium
T c) Epitope
d) B cell
E
A 95. Cell mediated immunity is carried out by………….. while humoral immunity is
mainly carried out by………………..
I a) B cells/T cells
b) Epitopes/Antigens
C c) T cells/B cells
d) Antibodies/Antigens
T
E 96. The ability of the immune system to recognize self-antigens versus nonself antigen is
A an example of
a) Specific immunity
I b) Tolerance
C c) Cell mediated immunity
d) Antigenic immunity
A T
I E 97. The physical barriers that form part of the immune system are
a) The bones and the mucosal membranes.
C b) The skin and the mucosal membranes.
c) The skin .
T d) The skin, body temperature and the mucosal membranes.
E
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AA 98. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are known as

a) Granulocytes.
I I b) Astocytomas
c) Buffers.
CC d) Platelets.
T T
99. Monocytes move from the systemic circulatory system into general connective
E E tissues. Here they differentiate into which phagocytic cell type?
a) Macrophage
b) T cell
c) B cell
d) Neutrophil
A 100. All of the following is secondary lymphoid organs except…

a) Spleen.
I
b) Lymph nodes.
CA c) Bone marrow.
d) Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
T I
101. If you want to align two sequences that are about 90% identical, which of the
E C following scoring matrices would be most appropriate?
a) Blosum 35
T b) Blosum 80
c) Blosum 90
E
d) Blosum 10
A
102. What is two of the most commonly used scoring matrices for data bank searches and
I for aligning protein sequences?
a) Gonnet and JTT
C b) GTR and Blosum
c) PAM and Blosum
T
E
A 103. In a plant tumor cell
a) complete Ti plasmid is incorporated in plant nuclear DNA
I b) different parts of the Ti-plasmid are incorporated
C c) only a small specific segment of callus T DNA is incorporated
d) It may vary from plant to plant
A T
I E 104. Co-integrating transformation vectors must include a region of homology in
a) the vector plasmid
C b) the Ti-plasmid
c) between vector plasmid and Ti-plasmid
T d) none of these
E
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AA 105. Crown gall tissue

a) can be cultivated in vitro in absence of bacteria
I I b) retains tumorous properties when cultivated
c) both (a) and (b)
CC d) shows tumorous properties only in presence of bacteria
T T
106. Integrated nopaline T-DNA occurs as
E E a) single segment
b) two segments
c) three segments
d) four segments
107. Opines are

A a) amino acid derivatives found in tumor tissues
b) amino acid derivatives found in normal tissues
I
c) amino acid derivatives found in both normal as well as tumor tissues
CA d) none of the above
T I 108. Which of the following does not describe global alignment algorithm?
a) Score can be negative in this method
E C b) It is based on dynamic programming technique
c) For two sequences of length m and n, the matrix to be defined should be of
T dimensions m+1 and n+1
d) For two sequences of length m and n, the matrix to be defined should be of
E
dimensions m and n
A
109. Which of the following mutations is most likely to be disruptive to protein synthesis
I or function?
a) UAU to UAC
C b) UAU to UAA
c) UAU to UUU
T
d) UAU to CAU
E
A 110. The anticancer peptide out of the following is
a) Bleomycin
I b) Cytosine Arabinoside
C c) Methotrexate
d) DideoxyInosine
A T
I E 111. Which of the following amino acid is a limiting amino acid in pulses?
a) Leucine
C b) Methionine
c) Lysine
T d) Glutamine
E
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AA 112. Some proteins contain additional amino acids that arise by modification of an amino
acid already present in a peptide, examples include
I I a) 4 -hydroxyproline
b) 5- hydroxy Lysine
CC c) Gamma Amino Butyric Acid
d) All of the above
T T
E E 113. Which of the following pairs of amino acids might contribute to protein conformation by
forming electrostatic interactions?
a) Glycine&leucine
b) Phenylalanine& tyrosine
c) Glutamate &lysine
d) Lysine &arginine
A
114. Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?
I
a) Optically inactive
CA b) Hydrophilic, basic and charged
c) Hydrophobic
T I d) Hydrophilic, acidic and charged
E C 115. Which of the following amino acids is mostly likely to disrupt an alpha helix?
a) proline
T b) glycine
c) leucine
E
d) valine
A
116. Which of the following statements correctly describes the behaviour of the haemoglobin
I protein in sickle-cell disease?
a) itdissociates into four subunits.
C b) it lacks a haem group.
c) Neighbouringhaemoglobins aggregate together.
T
d) itpossesses an iron atom in the Fe (III) form rather than the normal Fe (II)
E form
A
117. Which of the following amino acids is most compatible with an α- helical structure?
I a)Tryptophan
C b)Alanine
c) Leucine
A T c) Proline
I E
118. In scurvy, which amino acid that is normally part of collagen is not synthesized?
C a) Hydroxy Tryptophan
b) Hydroxy Tyrosine
T c) Hydroxy Alanine
d) HydroxyProline
E
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AA 119. The enzyme which forms the peptide bond is known as

a) carbonic anhydrase
I I b) Peptidase
c) Carbohydrase
CC d) Peptidyl transferase
T T
120. Disulphide bonds are formed between
E E a)cysteineresidues that are together
b) cystine residues that is close together
c) proline residues that are close together
d)histidine residues that are close together
A
I
CA
T I
E C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
A T
I E
C
T
E
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UG2B IT26
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Biotechnology
Paper: 2
Questions answers Q.64 b
Q.1 d Q.65 c
Q.2 d Q.66 d
Q.3 b Q.67 a
Q.4 c Q.68 c
Q.5 b Q.69 d
Q.6 a Q.70 a
Q.7 b Q.71 d
Q.8 c Q.72 b
Q.9 c Q.73 d
Q.10 d Q.74 b
Q.11 a Q.75 d
Q.12 c Q.76 c
Q.13 b Q.77 a
Q.14 c Q.78 b
Q.15 d Q.79 a
Q.16 d Q.80 a
Q.17 c Q.81 c
Q.18 c Q.82 b
Q.19 a Q.83 c
Q.20 c Q.84 d
Q.21 c Q.85 b
Q.22 b Q.86 b
Q.23 c Q.87 d
Q.24 d Q.88 d
Q.25 a Q.89 c
Q.26 b Q.90 d
Q.27 a Q.91 a
Q.28 d Q.92 d
Q.29 c Q.93 d
Q.30 a Q.94 c
Q.31 b Q.95 c
Q.32 c Q.96 b
Q.33 a Q.97 b
Q.34 d Q.98 a
Q.35 a Q.99 a
Q.36 a Q.100 c
Q.37 b Q.101 c
Q.38 c Q.102 c
Q.39 d Q.103 c
Q.40 c Q.104 c
Q.41 b Q.105 c
Q.42 d Q.106 a
Q.43 d Q.107 a
Q.44 d Q.108 d
Q.45 b Q.109 b
Q.46 d Q.110 a
Q.47 d Q.111 b
Q.48 b Q.112 d
Q.49 d Q.113 c
Q.50 d Q.114 a
Q.51 b Q.115 a
Q.52 a Q.116 c
Q.53 d Q.117 b
Q.54 c Q.118 d
Q.55 a Q.119 d
Q.56 d Q.120 a
Q.57 d
Q.58 c
Q.59 b
Q.60 c
Q.61 a
Q.62 c
Q.63 d
ROLL NO.: UG1CAE13
A
CIVIL AND ARCHITECTURAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T
E
PAPER-I
Instructions:
A total 120 questions.
I ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q 1 to Q 70 of 1 (one) mark each.

C iii. Part-B contains 30 questions, Q 71 to Q 100 of 2 (two) marks each.
T
E and Q111 to Q120 of 2 (two) marks each.

vii. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
A specified.
I
C a black or blue ball point pen.
T ix. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
E
A
I
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A
I
C 1. If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force, then the
angle between the two forces is
T (a) 30°
(b) 450
E (c) 60°
(d) 120°
2. The centre of gravity of a semicircle of radius r from the diameter is

3𝑟
(a) 2𝜋
4𝑟
(b)
3𝜋
2𝑟
(c) 3𝜋
A
3𝑟
(d)
I 4𝜋
C 3. A cube on a smooth horizontal surface

(a) cannot be in stable equilibrium
T (b) cannot be in neutral equilibrium
(c) cannot be in unstable equilibrium
E
(d) can be in any of the above states
4. A system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium when

(a) force polygon closes
(b) funicular polygon closes
(c) both force polygon and funicular polygon close
(d) all the forces are concurrent
5. Parallelogram law of forces states that if two forces acting simultaneously at a pointbe
A represented in magnitude and direction by two adjacent sides of a Parallelogram, their
resultant may be represented in magnitude and direction by
I (a) longer side of the other two sides
C (b) shorter side of the other two sides
(c) diagonal of the paralleogram which does not pass through their point of
T intersection
(d) diagonal of the parallelogram which passes through their point of intersection
E
6. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of
(a) longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
(b) shear stress to shear strain
(c) stress to strain
(d) stress to volumetric strain
A
I
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7. The variation of bending moment in the portion of a beam carrying linearly varying
A
load is
I (a) Linear
(b) Parabolic
C (c) Cubic
(d) constant
T
E 8. The point of contraflexure is the point where
(a) BMD changes sign
(b) value of BM is zero
(c) BM is maximum
(d) BM is minimum
9. The stress corresponding to point D in figure 1 is termed as

(a) Breaking stress
(b) ultimate stress
(c) upper yield stress
A (d) None of the above
I
C
T
E
Figure 1: Typical stress strain curve of Mild Steel
A
10. Rate of change of bending moment is equal to
I (a) shear force
(b) deflection
C (c) slope
(d) rate of loading
T
11. The relationship between the radius of curvature R, bending moment M and flexural
E
rigidity E1 is given by
𝑀
(a) R = 𝐸ӏ
𝐸ӏ
(b) M = 𝑅
𝑅
(c) Eӏ =
𝑀
𝑀ӏ
(d) E = 𝑅
A
I
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12. Plane section remains plane before and after bending mean
A
(a) deformation of any fibre is α distance from N.A.
I (b) the beam is straight
(c) the beam is curved
C (d) stress is α distance from N.A.
T 13. In a rectangular beam the average shear stress is …. times the maximum shear stress
(a) 2/3
E (b) 1/2
(c) 3/4
(d) 1/3
14. For triangular cross section maximum shear stress occurs
(a) at neutral axis
(b) mid depth
(c) 1/3 depth
(d) none of the above
A
15. When a shaft is subjected to a given torque, then shear strain is
I (a) α (1/r)
(b) α(r)
C (c) α(1/r2)
(d) α (r2)
T
E 16. The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium of a plane
structure is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
17. The moment-distribution method in structural analysis falls in the category of

(a) Displacement method
(b) Force method
A (c) Flexibility method
I (d) First order approximate method
C 18. The moment required to rotate the near end of a prismatic beam through unit angle
without translation, when the far end is fixed, is
T (a) EI/L
(b) 2EI/L
E
(c) 3EI/L
(d) 4EI/L
19. The three moments equation is applicable only when

(a) The beam is prismatic
(b) There is no settlement of support
(c) There is no discontinuity such as hinges within the span
(d) The spans are equal
A
I
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20. The maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam subjected to a point load
A
occurs
I (a) At one of the supports
(b) At mid span
C (c) At quarter span
(d) Under the point load section
T
E 21. The moment of resistance in a balanced reinforced concrete beam is based on the
stresses in
(a) concrete only
(b) steel only
(c) Steel and concrete both
22. In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured from its compression
edge to
(a) tensile edge
A (b) neutral axis of the beam
I (c) tensile reinforcement
C
23. According to IS 456, slabs which span in two directions with corners held down, are
T assumed to be divided in each direction into middle strips and edge strips such that
the width of the middle strip, is
E
(a) Half of the width of the slab
(b) Two-third of the width of the slab
(c) Three-fourth of the width of the slab
(d) Four-fifth of the width of the slab
24. The total bond strength for a beam section can be increased by
(a) decreasing the effective length
(b) decreasing the grade of concrete
(c) replacing larger bars by greater number of small bars
A (d) replacing smaller bars by less number of greater bars
I 25. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a beam simply supported with a span of 12.5
C m, is
(a) 35
T (b) 20
(c) 16
E (d) 25
26. According to IS: 456, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is
(a) less than 12
(b) less than 18
(c) between 18 and 24
(d) more than 24
A
I
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27. The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is
A
(a) less than 1
I (b) between 1 and 1.5
(c) between 1.5 and 2
C (d) greater than 2
T 28. In the limit state design of concrete structures, the strain distribution is assumed to be
E (a) linear
(b) non-linear
(c) parabolic
(d) parabolic and rectangular
29. In limit state of serviceability, the items which are checked are
(a) deflection
(b) cracking
(c) both deflection and cracking
(d) durability
A
I 30. The permissible stress subjected to axial tension in steel member on the net effective
area of the section shall not exceed (fy is the yield stress)
C (a) 0.80 fy
(b) 0.60 fy
T (c) 0.75 fy
(d) 0.50 fy
E
31. Bolts are most suitable to carry
(a) shear
(b) bending
(c) axial tension
(d) shear and bending
32. The max. value of effective slenderness ratio for a member carrying compressive
loads resulting from dead loads and imposed loads is
A (a) 150
(b) 180
I (c) 250
C (d) 300
T 33. The unit mass of steel is taken as

(a) 7850kg/m3
E (b) 7580kg/m3
(c) 7850kN/m3
(d) 7580kN/m3
34. The center to centre spacing of bolt in a row measured along the direction of load is
(a) gauge distance
(b) edge distance
(c) pitch
(d) end distance
A
I
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35. The cross section of standard fillet weld is a triangle with face at
A
(a) 600
I (b) 300
(c) 450
C (d) 900
T 36. The effective length if a compression member restrained against translation and
rotation at one end and free at the other is (where L is the unsupported length)
E
(a) 2.0L
(b) 1.0L
(c) 1.2L
(d) 0.65L
37. Which of the following IS code is for earthquake load?

(a) IS 875
(b) IS 1893
(c) IS 456
A (d) IS 12269
I 38. The unit of first class brickwork in foundation is
C (a) m
(b) m2
T (c) m3
(d) m4
E
39. Number of Mazdoor required for 10 cum of earth work having 1.5 m width, 1.5 m lift
and 30 m lead for ordinary soil is
(a) 3.25
(b) 4.25
(c) 5.25
(d) 6.25
40. The process of calculating the quantities and costs of the various items required in
A connection with the work is known as
(a) Specification
I (b) Estimate
(c) Measurement book
C (d) Analysis of rates
T 41. A detailed description of all workmanship and materials which are required to
E complete an engineering project in accordance with its drawings and details.
(a) Specification
(b) Estimate
(c) Measurement book
(d) Analysis of rates
42. Which of the following is a weakness of bar chart?

(a) interdependencies of activities
(b) project progress
(c) uncertainties
A (d) all of the above
I
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43. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence
A
follows
I (a) normal distribution curve
(b) Poisson's distribution curve
C (c) 𝛽- distribution curve
(d) binomial distribution curve
T
E 44. Which of the following does not represent an activity?
(a) site located
(b) foundation is being dug
(c) the office area is being cleaned
(d) the invitations are being sent
45. A heavy stone is suitable for

(a) arches
(b) nibble masonry
(c) roads
A
(d) retaining walls
I
46. A good building stone should not absorb water more than
C (a) 5%
(b) 10%
T (c) 15%
(d) 20%
E
47. The moisture content in a well-seasoned timber is
(a) 4% to 6%
(b) 10% to 12%
(c) 15% to 20%
(d) 100%
48. The age of a tree can be known examining

(a) cambium layer
A (b) annular rings
(c) medullary rays
I
(d) heart wood
C
49. A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water
T more than
(a) 15%
E (b) 20%
(c) 22%
(d) 25%
50. The nominal size of the modular brick is

(a) 190 mm x 90 mm x 80 mm
(b) 190 mm x 190 min x 90 mm
(c) 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
(d) 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
A
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51. The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is
A
(a) gypsum
I (b) calcium chloride
(c) calcium carbonate
C (d) none of the above
T 52. The vehicle used in case of enamel Paints is usually
E (a) linseed oil
(b) water
(c) varnish
53. In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each
course is known as
(a) English bond
(b) double flemish bond
(c) zigzag bond
A (d) single flemish bond
I
54. As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is
C (a) stronger
(b) more compact
T (c) costly
E
55. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
(a) raft foundation
(b) grillage foundation
(c) well foundation
(d) isolated footing
56. The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as
(a) friction pile
A (b) sheet pile
(c) batter pile
I (d) anchor pile
C
57. The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side
T is known as
(a) gable roof
E (b) hip roof
(c) gambrel roof
(d) mansard roof
58. The lower most horizontal piece of a shutter is known as

(a) style
(b) transom
(c) sill
(d) bottom rail
A
I
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59. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a

A
(a) thermosetting material
I (b) thermoplastic material
(c) elastoplastic material
C (d) rigid-plastic material
T 60. Who said “Beauty grows from necessity, not from repetition of formulas”?
E (a) Eero Saarinen
(b) Eric Mendelsohn
(c) Eliel Saarinen
(d) Marcel Breuer
61. Rose window is an iconic feature of________________.

(a) St. Peters, Rome
(b) Notre Dame, Paris
(c) Hagia Sophia, Istanbul
(d) Victoria Memorial, Kolkata
A
I 62. A school of design established in Germany called “Bauhaus” founded by
(a) Walter Gropius
C (b) Peter Behrens
(c) Auguste Perret
T (d) Louis Khan
E
63. Art Nouveau is known as International Style, in Germany it is also known as
(a) Ecole des Beaux
(b) Liberty
(c) Chateaux
(d) Jugendstil
64. The architect who is known as “father of fantastic architecture” is

(a) Alvar Aalto
(b) Adolf Loos
A (c) Louis Khan
(d) Antonio Gaudi
I
C 65. What do you call this concept in Architecture which is the result of intellectual, social,
religious and political conditions developed at a given place at a given people as
T (a) History of Architecture
(b) Architectural Character
E (c) Architectural Legacy
(d) Historical style
66. Architecture that combines new ideas with traditional forms

(a) New Modernism
(b) Modernism
(c) Post Modernism
A
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67. Who wrote “Treatise de Architectura”?

A
(a) Vitruvius
I (b) Palladio
(c) Calatrava
C (d) Moneo
T 68. Which architect termed International Style as “flat Chested” because of lack of depth
in their facades?
E
(a) Louis Khan
(b) Le Corbusier
(c) Mies Van der Rohe
(d) Frank Llyod Wright
69. Designer of Roofless Church

(a) KenzoTange
(b) Philip Johnson
(c) Bruce Goff
A (d) Eero Saarinen
I 70. The cross-sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a RCC column shall not be
(a) less than 0.8%
C (b) more than 5 %
(c) more than 8%
T
(d) less than 10%
E
71. A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 900 to each
other. They are balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is
(a) 60 N
(b) 80 N
(c) 100 N
(d) 120 N
A
72. A simply supported beam of span l carries over its full span a load varying linearly
I from zero at either end to w/unit length at midspan. The maximum bending moment
occurs at
C 𝑤Ɩ²
(a) quarter points and is equal to 8
T 𝑤Ɩ²
(b) quarter points and is equal to 12
E 𝑤Ɩ²
(c) midspan and is equal to 8
𝑤Ɩ²
(d) midspan and is equal to 12
73. Moment of inertia of a plane rectangular lamina having base width 30 cm and depth
10 cm at its base is
(a) 1000 cm4
(b) 10000 cm4
(c) 100000 cm4
A (d) 1000000 cm4
I
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A
74. For an elastic body subjected to any type of stress system, the change of volume will
I be zero if Poisson’s ratio is
(a) 1
C (b) 1/2
(c) 1/3
T (d) 1/4
E
75. If there are m unknown member forces, r unknown reaction components and j number
ofjoints, then the degree of static indeterminacy of a pin-jointed plane frame is given
by
(a) m + r +2j
(b) m - r +2j
(c) m + r - 2j
(d) m + r - 3 j
76. A fixed beam AB of span L is subjected to a clockwise moment M at a distance 'a'

A from end A. Fixed end moment at end A will be
I (a) (M/L2)(L-a)(L-3a)
(b) (M/L2)(a)(2L-3a)
C (c) (M/L2)(L-a)
T (d) (M/L2)(L-a)(2L-a)
E 77. If a shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque,T, the maximum shear stress is

32𝑇
(a) 𝜋𝑑 ³
16𝑇
(b) 𝜋𝑑 ²
16𝑇
(c) 𝜋𝑑 ³
64𝑇
(d) 𝜋𝑑 4
A
78. What is the force in the vertical member CD of the pin-jointed frame shown below?
I
C
T
E
(a) 12T (tension)

(b) 2T (compression)
(c) 7T (compression)
(d) 5T (tension)
A
I
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79. A symmetrical three-hinged parabolic arch of span L and rise h is hinged at the
A
springing and crown. It is subjected to a UDL of w throughout the span. What is the
I bending moment at a section L/4 from the left support?
(a) wL2/8
C (b) wL2/16
(c) wL2/8h
T (d) zero
E
80. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(a) Lateral reinforcement in RCC columns is provided to prevent the longitudinal
reinforcement from buckling
(b) Lateral reinforcement prevents the shearing of concrete on diagonal plane and
breaking away of concrete cover
(c) Only (a) is correct
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
81. A R.C.C beam of 30 cm width and 60 cm effective depth has a clear span of 5 m and
A carries a load of 3000 kg/m inclusive of its self-weight. If the lever arm constant for
I the section is 0.865, the maximum shear stress in the section is
(a) 8.32 kg/cm2
C (b) 4.82 kg/cm2
(c) 4.16 kg/cm2
T (d) 6.54 kg/cm2
E
82. As per IS 456: 2000 for the limit State design of a flexural member, the strain in
reinforcing bars under tension at ultimate state should not be less than
fy
(a)
Es
fy
(b) + 0.002
Es
fy
c)
A 1.15E s
fy
I d) + 0.002
1.15E s
C
T 83. A steel plate is 30 cm wide and 10 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter 18 mm is
driven. The net sectional area of the plate is-
E (a) 18.00 cm2
(b) 28.20 cm2
(c) 28.05 cm2
(d) 32.42 cm2
84. Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist

(a) bending moment due to 2.5% of the column axial load
(b) shear force due to 2.5% of the column axial load
(c) 2.5% of the column axial load
A (d) Both (a) and (b)
I
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85. For 1:2:4 proportion RCC, quantity of cement required is
I (a) 4.4 cum
(b) 44 cum
C (c) 2.2 cum
(d) 22 cum
T
E 86. If an activity has its optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times as 2. 3 and 7
respectively then its expected time and variance are respectively
(a) 3.5 and 5/6
(b) 5 and 25/36
(c) 3.5 and 25/ 36
(d) 4 and 5/6
87. Sapwood consists of

(a) innermost annular rings around the pith
(b) portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
A (c) thin layers below the bark
I (d) thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings
together
C
88. The main function of alumina in brick earth is
T (a) to impart plasticity
(b) to make the brick durable
E
(c) to prevent shrinkage
(d) to make the brick impermeable
89. Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is
(a) 400
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 550
A 90. Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in

i) better workability
I ii) better resistance to freezing and thawing
C iii) lesser workability
iv) less resistance to freezing and thawing
T The correct answer is
(a) (i) and (ii)
E (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
91. Single flernish bond consists of

(a) double flernish bond facing and English bond backing in each course
(b) English bond faceing and double flemish bond backing in each course
(c) stretcher bona facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
(d) double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
A
I
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92. Higher pitch of the roof

A
i) results in stronger roof
I ii) results in weaker roof
iii) requires more covering material
C iv) requires less covering material
The correct answer is
T (a) (i) and (iii)
E (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
93. The approximate ratio of strength of 15 cm x 30 cm concrete cylinder to that of 15 cm

cube of the same concrete is
(a) 1.25
(b) 1.00
(c) 0.85
(d) 0.50
A
I 94. The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction
are
C (a) 1:2
(b) 1:4
T (c) 1:6
(d) 1:8
E
95. The minimum number of holdfasts recommended on each side of a door frame and a
window frame respectively are
(a) 2 and 1
(b) 3 and 2
(c) 2 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
96. The horizontal projections at head and sill of a door frame which are embedded into
A the side walls for fixing the frame known as
(a) horns
I (b) holdfasts
C (c) jambs
(d) rebates
T
97. Match the distinguished housing projects in Group I with their architects in Group II
E Group I Group II
P. Nagakin Capsule Tower, Tokyo, Japan 1. Walter Gropius
Q. Tara apartments, New Delhi, India 2. Moshe Safdie
R. Habitat 67, Montreal, Canada 3. Ralph Erskine
S. Byker wall, New Castle, England 4. Charles Correa
5. KishoKurokawa
(a) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(b) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(c) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5
A (d) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1
I
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A
98. Match the structural systems in Group I with the buildings in Group II
I Group I Group II
P. Folded plates 1. Kurilpa Bridge, Brisbane
C Q. Shell 2. Eden Project, Cornwall
R. Tensegrity 3. Riverside Museum, Glasgow
T S. Pneumatic 4. MIT Auditorium, Boston
E
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(b) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(d) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
99. Match the distinguished dictum or axiom in Group I with their architects in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Design as if you were a child 1. Buckminster Fuller
Q. Modern Architecture need not be Western 2. Micheal Graves
A R. House is a machine for living 3. KenzoTange
I S. Ornament equals Crime 4. Adolf Loos
5. Alvar Aalto
C (a) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(b) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
T (c) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3
(d) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4
E
100. Match the Buildings in Group I with their Architects in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Guggenheim Museum, Bilbao 1. Richard Rogers
Q. The Shard, London 2. Norman Foster
R. Commerz Bank, Frankfurt 3. Frank Gehry
S. Heydar Aliyev Centre, Baku 4. Renzo Piano
5. ZahaHadid
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
A (b) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5
I (d) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3
C
T PART –C
Engineering Mathematics (30 Marks)
E
(a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
(c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
A
I
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A
I (b) Identitymatrix
(c) Singularmatrix
C (d) None ofthese.
T 103. IftherankofasquarematrixAoforder4is2,thenadjointofAwillbea
(a) Nullmatrix
E (b) Diagonalmatrix
(d) None ofthese.

(a) u
(b) 1
(c) -1
A (d) 0
I 105. The absolute maximum and minimum values respectively for 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 4 − 8 on

[−3, 1] are
C (a) −7 and −8
(b) 81 and −8
T
(c) 0 and −2
E (d) 73 and −8
2

A (a) 3
I (b) 6
(c) 2
T
E (a) 𝑃
𝐵
≥0
𝐴
𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
(c) 𝑃 =1
𝐴
A
I
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A
13
(a)
I 30
17
C (b) 30
19
T (c) 30
E
1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
(a) Hermitianmatrix
(b) Unitorymatrix
(c) Skew-Hermitianmatrix
(d) None ofthese.

A (a) λ = 2 and µ =4
(b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
I (c) λ ≠ 2 and µ can takeany value.
T 112. Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of the
E (a) 62
(b) 44
(c) 8


(a) grad | A |  0

A (b) curl A  0

I (c) div A  0
C
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
T 114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
E
(b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
(c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
1 1 𝑛−1
A 115. 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
0
I
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A (a) ⎾(n − 1)
I (b) ⎾(n)
n−1
C (c) ⎾ 2
n+1
T (d) ⎾ 2
E 116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is

(a) Hyperbolic
(b) Elliptic
(c) Parabolic
𝑥+𝑦
117. 𝑢 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 satisfies the differential equation
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
A 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
I
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
C
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
T (d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
E 118. Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the

2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
(a) 0
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
(a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
I
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
C (c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
T
E
(a) m2
(b) 𝑚
(c) 𝑚
A
I
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UG1CA E13
ANSWER KEY
Subject: CIVIL AND ARCHITECTURE
Paper: 1
1.d 21.c 41.a 61.b 81.b 101. a

2.b 22.c 42.d 62.a 82.d 102. c
3.d 23.c 43.c 63.d 83.b 103. a
4.c 24.c 44.a 64.d 84.b 104. d
5.d 25.c 45.d 65.b 85.c 105. d
6.b 26.a 46.a 66.c 86.c 106. d
7.c 27.d 47.b 67.a 87.b 107. a
8.b 28.a 48.b 68.d 88.a 108. a
9.b 29.c 49.b 69.b 89.c 109. a
10.a 30.b 50.c 70.a 90.a 110. b
11.b 31.c 51.b 71.d 91.a 111. c
12.a 32.b 52.c 72.d 92.a 112. d
13.a 33.a 53.b 73.b 93.c 113. b
14.b 34.c 54.d 74.b 94.a 114. a
15.b 35.c 55.b 75.c 95.b 115. b
16.c 36.a 56.c 76.a 96.a 116. b
17.a 37.b 57.c 77.c 97.b 117. d
18.a 38.c 58.d 78.d 98.c 118. a
19.c 39.a 59.b 79.c 99.a 119. d
20.d 40.b 60.c 80.d 100.c 120. c
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A
I CIVIL AND ARCHITECTURAL ENGINEERING
C
E
PAPER-II
Instructions:
A
questions.
C
T
E iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.

A
I specified.
A
I
C
T
E
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I 1. Which of the following factor is not taken into consideration while designing a
shading device for a building?
C (a) Climatic zones
T (b) Building orientation
(c) Conductivity of the building material
E (d) Angle of incidence
2. Identify which is NOT a green building rating system?
(a) IGBC
(b) ENERGY BUILD
(c) LEED
(d) BREEAM
A 3. The capacity of Septic Tank depends on ............. and..............

(a) Number of users and Interval of sludge removal
I (b) Interval of sludge removal and built up area
C (c) Number of users and built up area
T
4. A niche in the wall of a mosque that indicates the Qibla is known as
E (a) Kaaba
(b) Sahn
(c) Mihrab
(d) Minbar
5. Which is known as the mosque with "Shaking Minarets”?

(a) Taj-ul-Masajid
(b) Haji Ali Dargah
A (c) Mecca Masjid
I (d) Sidi Bashir Mosque
C 6. Borabuduss is site of
(a) a Jain Monastery in Gujarat
T (b) an enormous stupa in Java, built in the AD 8th century
(c) a huge temple of Vishnu and Shiva in Java, built in the AD 12th century
E (d) a magnificent palace of Chola king in Tamil Nadu
7. Identify the type of arch used in building design?
A
I
(a) Lancet arch
C (b) Segmental arch
(c) Shouldered flat arch
T (d) Tudor arch
E
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A 8. "Kerria" is which of the following type of plant?

(a) Creepers
I (b) Water Plant
(c) Shurbs
C (d) None of the above
T 9. Contour lines closely spaced at the top and widely spaced at the bottom indicate a
E _____________slope.
(a) Concave slope
(b) Convex slope
(c) Uniform gentle slope
(d) Uniform steep slope
10. Which of the following cannot be serve as an " Enclosure element " in the designing
of outdoor living spaces?
A (a) Fences and Screens
I (b) Edging
(c) Plants and hedges
C (d) Trellis
T 11. Around how many years did the civilization of Ancient Egypt last?
(a) 300 years
E (b) 3000 years
(c) 800 years
(d) 1200 years
12. „Skeleton and Skin‟ concept in building design and construction evolved during the
(a) Gothic period
(b) Renaissance period
A (c) Egyptian period
(d) Roman period
I
13. What was 'arabesque' design?
C
(a) Design that used fancy writing from the Quran
T (b) Design of desert landscapes
(c) Patterns using animals and geometric shapes
E (d) Intricate patterns of leaves and vines
14. A tapering stone pillar, typically having a square or rectangular cross section, set up
as a monument or landmark is known as
(a) Mastaba
(b) Pyramid
(c) Obelisk
(d) Sphinx
A
15. Which civilization of Ancient Mesopotamia first built a ziggurat?
I
(a) Persians
C (b) Sumerians
(c) Assyrians
T (d) Babylonians
E
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A 16. A long colonnaded building or covered walkway used for public use in ancient greek
architecture
I (a) Palaestra
(b) Stoa
C (c) Prytaneion
(d) Bouleuterion
T
17. Which of the following are storm water regulators?
E (a) Side Weir
(b) Leaping Weir
(c) Syphonic spillway
18. What was the name of the place that was the centre of commerce and government in
Athens?
A (a) Acropolis
(b) Strategeion
I (c) Agora
(d) Parthenon
C
19. Which artist painted the ceiling of the Church of St. Ignatius and was known for
T
creating optical illusions?
E (a) Diego Velazquez
(b) Andrea Pozzo
(c) Peter Paul Rubens
(d) Caravaggio
20. What were the characteristics of paintings and art during the Early Renaissance
Period?
(a) Symmetry and perfect form
A (b) Symbolism and lack of perspective
(c) Abstract and flat
C
21. “Flying Buttress” is an architecture element of
T (a) Indian Architecture
(b) Byzantine Architecture
E (c) Greek Architecture
22. Fire exit doors of how much resistance shall be provided at the entrances of lobby
areas and stair wells as per NBC
(a) 1h
(b) 2.5h
A (c) 2h
(d) 3h
I
23. The concept of „Dry Garden‟ is associated with
C (a) Japanese Garden
(b) Chinese Garden
T (c) Mughal Garden
E
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A (d) Egyptian Garden

24. Air valves are generally provided in pressure pipes of water supply
I
(a) at Summits
C (b) near service pipes
(c) at low points
T (d) at Pipe junctions
E 25. The visual principle of optical correction was invented and used in
(a) Islamic Architecture
(b) Byzantine Architecture
(c) Greek Architecture
(d) Roman Architecture
26. DEWATS is associated with
(a) Water treatment process
A (b) Solid waste management
(c) Water Supply system
I
(d) Waste water recycling system
C
27. Which is the following is not associated with “Double stack system” of plumbing?
T (a) Separate pipes for soil and waste pipe
(b) Necessity of anti siphonage pipe
E (c) Gully Trap is required at foot of waste water pipe
(d) No entry of foul air of soil pipe into waste water fittings
28. The stages of water treatment process includes

(a) Aeration
(b) Flocculation
(c) Alum dosing
A
I 29. An element constructed at intervals along the length of a wall to stabilize it against
overturning is
C (a) Squinch Arch
(b) Barrel Vault
T (c) Buttress
E (d) Pilaster
30. The rate of accumulation of sludge in septic tanks is recommended as

(a) 20 litres/person/year
(b) 30 litres/person/year
(c) 25 litres/person/month
(d) 35 litres/person/month
A 31. Which of the following is not an element of Spanish Gardens?
(a) Urns
I
(b) Bridges
C (c) Tiered fountains
(d) Cantera Stones
T
E
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A 32. The use of Fish as a decorative element in gardens was borrowed from which
historical garden?
I (a) French garden
(b) Italian garden
C (c) Chinese garden
(d) Indian garden
T
33. The floor areas covered for the means of fire exit in buildings shall be illuminated to a
E minimum value of
(a) less than 10 lux
(b) not less than 10 lux
(c) more than 20 lux
34. In Vedic civilization,” Dandaka” form of settlement layout is in form of
A (a) Radial Pattern
(b) Ring Radial Pattern
I (c) Grid Iron Pattern
(d) Informal Pattern
C
35. As per NBC, for buildings more than 24 m in height, how much refuge area should be
T provided to accommodate occupants of consecutive floors?
(a) 0.2 sq.m / person
E
(b) 0.3 sq.m / person
(c) 0.4 sq.m / person
36. A primary sedimentation tank is not required for

(a) Activated Sludge System
(b) Extended aeration system
A (c) Tapered activated sludge process using pure oxygen for aeration
(d) Trickling filtration system
I
37. The triangular area within the pediment often decorated with relief sculpture is known
C as
(a) Tympanum
T (b) Frieze
E (c) Skene
(d) Peristyle
38. Soak pit can be designed by assuming percolating capacity of filtering media as
(a) 1150 lit/cu.m/day
(b) 1520 lit/cu.m/day
(c) 1250 lit/cu.m/day
(d) 1750 lit/cu.m/day
A
39. "A central pool/fountain or Pavilions, surrounded by row of trees and walkways with
I symmetrical layout" is a significant feature of which type of garden?
C (a) Italian Garden
(b) Spanish Garden
T (c) Mughal Garden
(d) Japanese Garden
E
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A 40. Standard EDTA (Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic Acid) Solution is used to determine
(a) Turbidity in water
I (b) Hardness in water
(c) Dissolved oxygen in water
C (d) Residual chlorine in water
T 41. The formula –
E Q = P-K [1.8T+32] where,
Q = runoff
P= annual rainfall in cm
T = annual temperature in 0C
And K = Constant, is known as
(a) Vermule‟s formula
(b) Khosla‟s formula
(c) Justin‟s formula
I
42. Site appraisals evaluate a building‟s accessibility to infrastructure, ................... and
C micro climate.
(a) Compatibility of use with surrounding area
T (b) Indoor air quality
(c) noise pollution
E (d) resources
43. The maximum permissible colour of domestic water supplies based on Cobalt Scale is
(a) 10 PPM
(b) 20 PPM
(c) 25 PPM
(d) 15 PPM
A
44. Who is the architect of Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad?
I (a) Louis Khan
(b) Walter Gropius
C
(c) Frank Llyod Wright
T (d) Tony Garner
E 45. What is the waste water from kitchen sinks called?

(a) Grey water
(b) Black water
(c) Brown water
(d) Yellow water
46. A structural device called Pendentives is used in

A (a) Making a vault on a long passage
(b) Making a dome on square plan
I (c) Closing the end of a vault
(d) Decorating the corners of the room
C
T
E
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A 47. Acidity in water is caused due to

(a) Mineral acids
I (b) Free CO2
(c) Aluminium Sulphate
T 48. The most important consideration in acoustical design of an auditorium is
E (a) Volume of Auditorium
(b) Wattage of sound system
(c) Time of reverberation
(d) Time of relapse
49. What is the PH value of normal rain?

(a) 7
(b) 5.6
A (c) 2
I (d) 4.5
C 50. Which of the following statement is correct about the aerobic bacteria?
(a) Flourish in the presence of oxygen
T (b) consume organic matter as food
(c) oxidise organic matter in sewage
E (d) All the above
51. The unit of Thermal Conductivity of a material is

(a) m K/W
(b) W/ (m2K)
(c) W/ (m K)
(d) m2 K/W
A
52. Which of the following Parameter is not included in the analysis of thermal comfort?
I (a) Air Temp.
(b) Day light factor
C
(c) Radiation
T (d) Relative Humidity
E 53. For design of sewers, percentage of sewage discharge is assumed to be

(a) 65 to 70%
(b) 70 to 75%
(c) 75 to 80%
(d) 85%
54. In sewers the velocity of flow should not be

A (a) less than 10 m/sec
(b) more than 20 m/sec
I (c) more than the self-cleansing velocity
(d) less than the self-cleansing velocity
C
T
E
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A 55. For drainage pipes in buildings the test applied before putting them to use, is
(a) Water test
I (b) Smoke test
(c) Straightness test
C (d) All the above
T 56. Imaginary lines joining places with same temperature are called?
E (a) Isobars
(b) Isohalines
(c) Isohyets
(d) Isotherms
57. The Koppen Climate Classification System is based on
(a) average rainfall
(b) annual and monthly averages of temperature and precipitation.
A (c) average temperature
(d) Annual precipitation
I
58. One degree of hardness of water means a salt content of
C (a) 10.25 mg/lt
(b) 14.75 mg/lt
T
(c) 14.25 mg/lt
E (d) 16.25 mg/lt
59. Buildings with window facing ................ or ................. provide good access to
illumination and effortless shading.
(a) east; west
(b) north; south
(c) south; west
(d) east; north
A
60. The shading coefficient is a measure of the radiative thermal performance of a glass
I unit (panel or window) in a buildinglies between which of the following range?
(a) 0 to 1
C (b) 0.2 to 0.7
T (c) 0.5 to 1.5
(d) 0.25 to 1.25
E
61. Which of the following Structure is the finest example of double dome construction?
(a) Alai Darwaza
(b) Lodhi Garden
(c) Tomb of Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya
A 62. The PH value of sewage is determined by the help of .......................

(a) Imhoff Cone
I (b) Turbidimeter
(c) Potentiometer
C (d) none of these.
T
E
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A 63. The maximum acceptable noise level inside library is

(a) 25-30 dBA
I (b) 40-45 dBA
(c) 50-55 dBA
T 64. “Mushroom Column” is a typical feature of
E (a) Pantheon, Rome
(b) Parthenon, Athens
(c) Chrysler Building, New York
(d) Johnson Wax Building, Racine
65. Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most
suitable for long and narrow pipe system?
(a) Hardy cross method
A (b) Circle method
I (c) Equivalent pipe method
(d) Electrical analysis method
C
66. Ornamental work of branchlike lines in the upper end of the Gothic window is called
T (a) Tracery
(b) Foliation
E (c) Cuspidation
(d) Oriel
67. Which of the gas is often used as an energy source at city‟s waste water treatment
plant?
(a) Ethane
(b) Methane
A (c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrogen
I
68. Large door, window openings and jaalis are a common feature of traditional buildings
C in
(a) Hot and Dry Climatic zone
T (b) Composite Climatic zone
E (c) Hot and Humid Climatic zone
(d) Cold and Dry Climatic zone
69. Designing responsive architectural spaces requires consideration given to
(a) Passive cooling systems
(b) Innovation in structural system
(c) Smart building systems
(d) User Satisfaction
A
70. The proportions and sizes of Greek architecture – its scale, were based on
I (a) A module
(b) Optical corrections
C (c) Human measurements
T (d) Various parts of a building
E
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A 71. Sound absorption depends on

1. Porosity of materials
I 2. Thickness of materials
C 3. Diameter of perforations
T Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
E (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
72. For Indian metropolitan cities, the quantity of solid waste accumulation per head per
day is approximately
(a) 0.5 kg
A (b) 1.5 kg
(c) 2 kg
I (d) 2.5 kg
C
73. In a room in hot and dry climate, the minimum aggregate area of openings excluding
T doors will be
(a) One fifth of the floor area
E (b) One eighth of the floor area
(c) One sixth of the floor area
(d) One tenth of the floor area
74. The best and maximum level of sound insulation is given by

(a) Cavity wall construction
(b) Rigid homogeneous type of wall construction
(c) Double wall partition type of wall construction
A
(d) Partition walls of porous materials
I
75. “Kailash Temple” of Ellora is an example of rock cut architecture of
C (a) Dravidian Style
(b) Brahmanical style
T (c) Pallava Style
E (d) Chola Style
76. What is the recommended slope ratio for soil water pipes?
(a) 1:12
(b) 1:20
(c) 1:25
(d) 1:40
A 77. For comfort air conditioning in summer the optimum wet bulb temperature is
(a) Equal to dry bulb temperature
I (b) Less than dry bulb temperature
(c) More than dry bulb temperature
C
(d) Irrespective of dry bulb temperature
T
E
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A 78. Indus valley civilization is specially known for

(a) Vaulted roofing in masonry
I (b) Underground drainage system
(c) Stone carving of idols
C (d) building materials for construction
T 79. Gate valves are used in water supply to
E (a) Isolate the parts of the network
(b) Release air trapped in pipeline
(c) Limit the flow of water
(d) Drain out excess water
80. Reservoir Capacity can be determined from

(a) Population and time
(b) runoff and time
A (c) Cumulative runoff and time
I (d) Water demand and time
C
T
E 81. Sound produced by equally spaced steps in a stair at regular intervals produce
_________effect and Sound waves below the frequency of 20Hz are ___________.
(a) Reverberation effect; infrasonic
(b) Echelon effect; infrasonic
(c) Absorption effect; ultrasonic
(d) Noise effect; ultrasonic
A 82. __________is not a type of fire sprinkler system and buildings more than _______
feet height must have an automatic sprinkler system throughout the building.
I (a) Pre-Action, 30 ft
(b) Even-Distribution, 55 ft
C
(c) Dry Pipe, 55 ft
T (d) Even-Distribution, 45 ft
E 83. 2 ml of sewage having BOD5= 500 mg/l and diluted to 200 ml and incubated for 5
days at 200C. If DO content after 5 days is found to be 5 mg/l, what was the initial
D.O. content of the diluted sample?
(a) 10 mg/l
(b) 5 mg/l
(c) 1 mg/l
A
84. __________valve used for flow regulation in large diameter pipes and _________
I valve is better for on/off control?
(a) Butterfly valve; Ball valve
C (b) Ball valve; Choke valve
(c) Gate valve;Ball valve
T
(d) Ball valve; Butterfly valve
E
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A 85. Match the temples in Group I with their corresponding historical periods in Group II
I Group I Group II
P. VirupakshaTemple, Hampi 1. Vijaynagara
C Q. Meenakshi Temple, Madurai 2. Chalukya
R. Brihadishwara Temple of Thanjavur3. Chola
T S. Bhutanatha temple complex, at Badami4. Pandyan
E (a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(b) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
86. ___________ type of layout in water distribution system is suitable for irregular
developed Cities and ___________ type can be adopted only in well planned locality
A of cities?
(a) Dead end system; Circular/Ring system
I (b) Radial system; Grid Iron system
C (c) Dead end system; Radial system
(d) Circular/Ring system; Grid Iron system
T
87. Match the historic periods in Group I with their corresponding examples of towns in
E Group II
Group I Group II
P. Medieval 1. Miletus
Q. Greek 2. Harappa
R. Egyptian 3. Memphis
S. Indus Valley 4. Carcassonne
A (a) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
I (c) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
C
88. Which of the following are the causes of loss/break of water seal in Traps?
T
(P). Evaporation of water in the trap caused on account of not using the appliance for
E long time.
(Q). Build up back pressure of sewer gas in the drain forcing up the water of the trap
seal.
(R). Pressure on the seal of trap due to sudden discharge of water in large quantity
into the fitting, forcing the seal to break due to self siphonage.
(a) P and Q are true, R is false

(b) P is true and Q and R arefalse
A (c) Q and R aretrue and P is false
I (d) All of the above statements are true
C
T
E
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A 89. A room measures 4m (width)x 5m(length) x 3m(height). The outdoor temperature is

340C. The volumetric specific heat of air is 1200 J/Cu.m0C. The ventilation heat flow
I rate in watts required to attain an internal room temperature of 240C with 3 air
changes per hour is......................
C (a) 400 W
(b) 600 W
T (c) 900 W
E (d) 300 W
90. The average composition of Municipal Solid waste is:
(a) 19% organic, 41% inert & 40% recyclable
(b) 20% organic, 60% inert & 20% recyclable
(c) 30% organic, 20% inert & 50% recyclable
(d) 41% organic, 40% inert & 19% recyclable
A 91. Match the stages of waste water treatment process listed under Group I with their
functions from Group II.
I Group I Group II
P. Screen Chamber 1. It removes organic and inorganic suspended solids
C
settled at bottom.
T Q. Secondary Clarifier 2. It degrades all organic matter in sludge.
R. Sludge Digester 3. It removes floating matter of comparatively large size
E like rags, paper, plastics etc.
S. Primary settling tank 4. It removes all settleable biofloc from waste water and
make it free from B.O.D.
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(b) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(d) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
A
92. Which of the following statements are applicable in the Loop-in system of electrical
I wiring system?
(P) It doesn‟t require joint boxes and so money is saved
C (Q) In loop – in systems, all jointsare concealed beneath floors or in roof spaces.
(R) Fault location is made easy as the points are made only at outlets so that they are
T accessible.
E (a) P and Q are True
(b) R is True; P and Q are False
(c) P and R are True; Q is False
(d) All of the above are True
93. What will be velocities of the ground water flow using the Slichter constant of 400
and following data?
A Viscosity co-efficient of water at ground water temperature of 100C = 1
Effective size of the particles in the aquifer = 0.1mm
I Hydraulic gradient = 1 in 80
(a) 0.08 m/day
C (b) 0.05 m/day
(c) 1.25 m/day
T (d) 1.50 m/day
E
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A 94. Match the Landscape designers listed under Group I with their appropriate
contribution from Group II
I GroupIGroup II
P. Geoffrey Jellicoe 1. Floating Garden at Yongning River
C Q. Fredrick law Olmsted 2.University Campus of Virginia
R. Thomas Jefferson 3.Garden of Sutton Place, Surrey
T S. Kongjian Yu 4.Emerald Necklace Park
E
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(d) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
95. The ___________ effect causes a deflection in global wind patterns and
_________effect is created by a fluids natural tendency to equalize pressure across
A two or more zones.
I (a) Coriolis; Venturi
(b) Coriolis; Stack
C (c) Wind Shear; Stack
(d) Wind Eddies; Venturi
T
96. __________landscaping technique reduces or eliminates the need for supplemental
E water from irrigation and can reduce water use minimum_________ as compared to
regular lawn landscapes
(a) Zeroscaping; 60%
(b) Microclimatizing; 40%
(c) Xeriscaping; 60%
(d) Arboriculture; 50%
A 97. A fluorescent light source consumes 30 W electric power and has luminous efficacy
of 40 lm/W. Illumination in lux at a distance of 3m from this light source is _______.
I (a) 110.33 lux
(b) 125.33 lux
C
(c) 160.33 lux
T (d) 133.33 lux
E 98. Match the units in Group – I with their definitions in Group –II
Group I Group II
P. Hertz 1. Newton-meter
Q. Lux 2. Cycles/Second
R. Joule 3. Lumen/m2
S. Newton 4. Watt/ampere
5. Kg-meter/sec2
A (a) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(b) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-4
I (c) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(d) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5
C
T
E
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A 99. A house located in Delhi has 120m2of flat terrace area (runoff coefficient = 0.85) and
62 m2 of ground area covered with grass (runoff coefficient = 0.15). If annual average
I rainfall is 600.8 mm, then rain water harvesting potential (L/year) from runoff will
be..............
C (a) 66460 L/yr
(b) 66860 L/yr
T (c) 62140 L/yr
E (d) 63800 L/yr
100. Which formula is used as “Lambert‟s Cosine Law of Incidence”?

(a) E = 2(I x cos α) / d2
(b) E = (I x cos α) / 2d2
(c) E = (I x cos α) / d2
A 101. A refuse collection system consisting of two chutes is to be provided in a 20 storied
I residential building with 2 flats/floor (average family size = 5) and with each chute
serving one flat on each floor. Average quantity of refuse and its density are
C 640g/person/day and 180 kg/m3 respectively. If the cleaning interval is 2 days, then
the minimum size of the refuse container (litre) at the bottom of each chute is........
T (a) 711 litres
(b) 521 litres
E (c) 661 litres
(d) 667 litres
102. The capacity of a hall is 700 persons and its volume is 3600 cu.m. If an optimum
reverberation time of 1.0 second is to be achieved, then the required total absorption
(m2sabine) is...................
(a) 325 m2sabine
A (b) 485 m2sabine
(c) 435 m2sabine
I (d) 576 m2sabine
C 103. Match the terms in Group I with their meanings in Group II

Group I Group II
T P. Mimbar 1. Pillared assembly hall
Q. Qibla 2. Covered passage around central court
E
R. Liwan 3. Pulpit
S. Baradari 4. Parapet between wall openings
5. Direction of Mecca
(a) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(b) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5
(c) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2
(d) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1
A
104. The overflow rate of a flocculator clarifier is 50 L/m2-min. Express the rate in m3/m2
I per day. If side water depth (SWD) is 4m. Calculate the detention period.
(a) 1.8 hour
C (b) 2.2 hour
T (c) 2.6 hour
(d) 1.3 hour
E
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A 105. Match the historical buildings in Group I with their styles in Group II
Group I Group II
I P. Pantheon, Rome 1. Baroque
Q. St. Paul‟s Cathedral, London 2. Roman
C R. St. Peter‟s Basilica, Rome 3. Romanesque
S. Notre Dame, Paris 4. Renaissance
T 5. Gothic
E (a) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(b) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(d) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
106. Match the typology of gardens in Group I with their typical features in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Mughal garden 1. Moss, manicured trees, rocks, water
A Q. Italian garden 2. Cycle track, meandering walkways, benches
R. Japanese garden 3. Sculptures of pretty nymphs, angels, fountains
I S. City forest 4. Geometrical floral patterns, flowing water, stone
C shelters
(a) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
T (b) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
E (c) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
107. For a working temperature of 21degree Celsius, range of 30% to 70 % of _________
is desirable and for comfortable working, the _________ content should be limited to
0.6% by volume.
(a) Saturated air, Carbon dioxide
(b) Wet bulb temperature, Oxygen
A (c) Relative humidity, Carbon dioxide
(d) Relative humidity, Oxygen
I
108. Match the trees in Group I with their botanical names in Group II
C Group I Group II
P. Neem 1. Cassia Fistula
T Q. Amaltas 2. Azadirachta indica
R. Pipal 3. Ficus Benghalensis
E
S. Asoka 4. Ficus Religiosa
5. Saraca asoca
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(b) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(d) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4
A 109. A room size of 100 sq.m is illuminated by 10 lamps of 40 W hazing a luminous

efficacy of 50 lm/W. Total flux emitted by the lamps in lumens would be
I
(a) 2,000
C (b) 5,000
(c) 10,000
T (d) 20,000
E
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A 110. The correct sequence of generic elements in a classical order arranged from top to
bottom is
I (a) Architrave – Frieze – Capital – Cornice – Shaft – Pedestal - Base
(b) Architrave - Capital – Cornice – Frieze – Base - Shaft – Pedestal
C (c) Cornice – Frieze – Architrave – Capital – Shaft - Base – Pedestal
(d) Cornice – Capital – Frieze – Architrave – Shaft – Pedestal – Base
T
111. Match the valves in Group I with their functions in Group II
E Group I Group II
P. Gate Valve 1. Prevents water to flow back in the opposite direction
Q. Air valve 2. Regulates flow of water
R. Scour valve 3. Completely empties the pipe for inspection/repair
S. Reflux valve 4. Ensures safety of pipe against collapse
(a) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(b) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
A (c) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
I (d) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
C 112. Determine the correctness of the following assertion (P) and reason (Q).
(P): In cold climates while glazing can act as a heat trap, it can also cause
T significant losses at other times.
(Q): Since Glass has a very low U value, conductive heat loss takes place during
E
night.
(a) Both P and Q are True and Q is the correct reason for P.
(b) Both P and Q are True and Q is not the correct reason for P.
(c) Both P and Q are False
(d) P is True and Q is False
113. From _________ ancient civilizations, the architects of the Renaissance get their
A inspiration and ________ geometric shape was used as the outline for many
Renaissance buildings.
I (a) Egyptians and Persians; Oval
(b) Egyptians and Romans; Circle
C
(c) Greeks and Romans; Square
T (d) Romans and Assyrians; Circle
E 114. The average quantity of water (in lpcd) required for domestic purposes according to
IS code is ________ and the minimum average consumption of water takes place in
_________ demand.
(a) 150 lpcd; Industrial water demand
(b) 150 lpcd; Fire demand
(c) 135 lpcd; Institutional and commercial water demand
(d) 135 lpcd; Fire demand
A 115. Which of the following options is used as building energy software tool for climatic
design analysis?
I
(a) DL- Light and ESP-ida
C (b) DL- Light and ESP-r
(c) DL- Light and ESP-v
T (d) None of the above
E
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2CAE13
A 116. In a 50-meter section of a waste water pipe, if the gradient is 1 in 80, then the
fallis.................
I (a) 0.625 m
(b) 0.425 m
C (c) 0.315 m
(d) 0.335 m
T
E 117. When sound interacts with materials and boundaries, it displays all properties of
________. A core material used for industrial application, lightweight laminates with
aluminium sheet, and also as a thermal insulant lining is _________.
(a) Heat; Acoustic Foams
(b) Waves; Lead Sheet
(c) Waves; Balsa Wood
(d) Heat; Glass fibre wool
A 118. Match the individuals in Group I with the works in Group II
I Group I Group II
P. Hippodamus 1. Aqueducts
C Q. Vitruvius 2. Campidoglio
R. Michelangelo 3. Hagia Sophia
T S. Constantine 4. Agora
5. Hanging Gardens
E (a) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(b) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3
(c) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5
(d) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
119. The working period of lift is defined as the ratio of the height of lift to the
__________ of the lift. ___________ type of lift is specially used for high rise
A buildings.
(a) Acceleration; Passenger Lift
I (b) Pressure; Double Purpose Lift
(c) Velocity; Double deck lift
C
(d) Pressure; Cargo Lift
T
120. Match the type of Traps in Group I with their configuration in Group II
E Group I Group II
P. P Trap 1. Outlet is at 30 degree to the inlet
Q. Q Trap 2. Outlet is parallel to the inlet
R. S Trap 3. Outlet is at 45 degree to the inlet
4. Outlet is at 90 degree to the inlet
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-2
(b) P-4, Q-3, R-2
A (c) P-1, Q-3, R-4
(d) P-2, Q-1, R-4
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG2CA E13
ANSWER KEY
Subject: CIVIL AND ARCHITECTURE
Paper: 2
1.c 21.b 41.b 61.b 81.b 101.a

2.b 22.c 42.a 62.c 82.b 102.d
3.a 23.a 43.b 63.b 83.a 103.c
4.c 24.a 44.a 64.d 84.a 104.d
5.d 25.c 45.a 65.c 85.b 105.c
6.b 26.d 46.b 66.a 86.a 106.c
7.a 27.b 47.d 67.b 87.c 107.c
8.c 28.d 48.c 68.c 88.d 108.c
9.a 29.c 49.b 69.d 89.b 109.d
10.b 30.a 50.d 70.c 90.d 110.c
11.b 31.b 51.c 71.b 91.c 111.d
12.a 32.c 52.b 72.a 92.c 112.a
13.d 33,b 53.c 73.d 93.b 113.c
14.c 34.c 54.d 74.a 94.d 114.d
15.b 35.b 55.b 75.c 95.a 115.b
16.b 36.b 56.d 76.d 96.c 116.a
17.d 37.a 57.b 77.b 97.d 117.c
18.c 38.c 58.c 78.b 98.d 118.a
19.b 39.c 59.b 79.c 99.b 119.c
20.a 40.b 60.a 80.d 100.c 120.b
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
I
T
PAPER-I
E
Instructions:
120 questions.
A
I
C
T iv. Part-C contains 20 questions, Q 101 to Q110 of 1 (one) mark each and
E
vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use

A vii. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
specified.
I
C viii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a
T
E ix. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29

I 1. 77 g ferrous sulphide contains 49 g iron and 28 g sulphur. In an experiment 3.92 g iron was
C dissolved in hydrochloric acid and excess of hydrogen sulphide was passed through the
solution. What is the amount of ferrous sulphide produced?
T a) 6.16 g
E b) 3.13 g
c) 12.32 g
2. 1 kg/(m.s) is equal to
a) 0.1 Poise
b) 1 Poise
c) 10 Poise
d) 100 Poise
A
3. The following reactions are involved in the industrial production of sulphuric acid
I S8(s) + 8O2 → 8SO2
C 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
SO3 + H2O(l) → H2SO4(l)
T A factory produces 98 tons of sulphuric acid per day. What is the daily requirement of
sulphur in the industry if the 1st reaction gives 95% conversion of sulphur, and the second
E
reaction gives 85% conversion of SO2? Assume the third reaction to be 100% complete.?
a) 32 tons
b) 35.6 tons
c) 39.6 tons
d) 43.6 tons
4. For the series reaction A → B → C the relationship

NA + NB + NC = (NA)0 + (NB)0 + (NC)0
A is valid
I a) Only if all the reactions are 1st order
b) Only if all the reactions are irreversible
C c) Only if all the reactions are homogeneous
d) In all cases above
T
E 5. If the material balance for a process flow sheet has degree of freedom 1
a) The problem is solvable
b) The problem is underspecified
c) The problem is overspecified
d) None of these
6. Excess air in combustion

a) Reduces the mole fraction of carbon monoxide in the flue gases
A b) Increases the mole fraction of nitrogen in the flue gases
c) (a) is true but (b) is false
I d) Both (a) and (b) are true
C
T
E
Page 2 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 7. In van der Waal’s equation of state the constant a is proportional to

a) Square of critical volume
I b) Critical volume
C c) Square root of critical volume
d) None of these
T
E 8. Liquid phase ceases to exist
a) Above critical temperature
b) At critical temperature
c) Below critical temperature
d) None of these
9. Combustion of ethane is represented by

2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
The enthalpies of formations are:
A
𝐻CO 2 (g) = −393.51 kJ/mol , 𝐻H 2 O(l) = −285.83 kJ/mol ,
I 𝐻C 2 H 6 (g) = −84.68
C Heat of reaction for this reaction is
a) 1560 kJ/mol ethane
T b) -1560 kJ/mol ethane
c) -1260 kJ/mol ethane
E
d) 1260 kJ/mol ethane
10. Cox chart uses

a) log log plot
b) semi log plot
c) normal plot
d) none of these
A 11. Compressibility factor for a real gas is

a) 1, and independent of temperature
I
b) > 1, and increases with temperature
C c) < 1, and increases with temperature
d) < 1, and decreases with temperature
T
E 12. If the entropy of a system is constant, the system tends to
a) increase its total energy
b) decrease its total energy
c) keep its total energy constant
d) First increase and then decrease its total energy
13. The quantity TS represents

a) total energy of the system
A b) energy available for external work
c) energy unavailable for external work
I d) none of the above
C
T
E
Page 3 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
14. According to the law of corresponding states, the following quantity is same for all
I substances at the critical point
C a) Cp
b) Compressibility factor
T c) Latent heat of vaporization
E d) none of the above
15. Overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the product of its

a) mechanical efficiency and volumetric efficiency
b) mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency
c) volumetric efficiency and hydraulic efficiency
16. The partial molar property of a system is applicable to its

A
a) extensive properties
I b) intensive properties
c) both extensive and intensive properties
T
17. Which of the following is true for a real gas
E a) dμ = RT d(lnp)
b) dμ = RT d(lnγ)
c) dμ = RT d(lnp) - RT d(lnγ)
18. Which of the following relationship is true

𝜕𝑈 𝜕𝑈
a) 𝜕𝑛 = 𝜕𝑛
𝑖 𝑆,𝑉 𝑖 𝑆,𝑃
𝜕𝑈 𝜕𝐻
A b) =
𝜕𝑛 𝑖 𝑆,𝑉 𝜕𝑛 𝑖 𝑆,𝑉
I 𝜕𝑈 𝜕𝐺
c) =
𝜕𝑛 𝑖 𝑆,𝑉 𝜕𝑛 𝑖 𝑆,𝑃
T
19. At same temperature and pressure, the Gibbs free energy of one mole of a real gas is
E a) equal to the Gibbs free energy of one mole of an ideal gas
b) more than the Gibbs free energy of one mole of an ideal gas
c) less than the Gibbs free energy of one mole of an ideal gas
𝐼
20. At constant temperature and pressure, 𝑖=1 𝑛𝑖 𝑑𝜇𝑖 is equal to
a) 1
b) 0
A c) ∞
I
C
T
E
Page 4 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
21. An object floats in water with 90% of its volume underneath the free water surface. The
I density of the object is
C a) 900 kg/m3
b) 0.09 g/cm3
T c) 1/9 g/cm3
E d) none of the above.
22. For incompressible flow in fluids

a) ∇ × 𝐮 = 0
b) ∇. 𝐮 = 0
c) both (a) and (b) are true
d) neither (a) nor (b) is true
23. For vortex flow in a fluid, the stream function can be written as
A 1
a) 𝜓 𝑥, 𝑦 = 2 ln⁡ (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )
I b) 𝜓 𝑥, 𝑦 = ln⁡ (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )
C c) 𝜓 𝑥, 𝑦 = exp⁡ (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )
d) none of the above.
T
E 24. The coefficient of discharge of an orifice meter is
a) comparable to that of a venturi meter
b) much larger than that of a venturi meter
c) much smaller than that of a venturi meter
25. The air of velocity 20 m/s and of density 1.3 kg/m3 is entering the Venturi tube placed in
the horizontal position. The radius of the main vircular tube is 1.0 cm; the radius of the
throat is 0.5 cm. The mercury filled U tube manometer between the main tube and the throat
A shows a height differential of h cm. The value of h is
I a) 2.8 cm
b) 2 cm
C c) 1.4 cm
E 26. A rotameter calibrated for metering water flow rate has a scale starting from 9.8 L/min to
98 L/min. It is intended to use this meter for metering flow rate in a range of 19.6 L/min to
196 L/min. What should be the density of the new float if the original one has a density of
1900kg/m3? Both the floats can be assumed to have the same volume and shape.
a) 3800 kg/m3
b) 4000 kg/m3
c) 4300 kg/m3
d) 4600 kg/m3
A
27. The fundamental concept behind the Navier Stokes equations is
I a) Conservation of mass
C b) Conservation of energy
c) Conservation of momentum
T d) None of these
E
Page 5 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 28. Fully developed flow in a pipe implies that

𝝏𝒖
I a) 𝝏𝒓𝒓 = 0
𝝏𝒖𝜽
C b) =0
𝝏𝜽
𝝏𝒖𝒛
T c) 𝝏𝒛 = 0
E
29. Friction factor for laminar flow is
a) Proportional to the Reynolds number
b) Proportional to the square root of Reynolds number
c) Proportional to the inverse of Reynolds number
30. Roughness factor for calculating the friction factor has the dimensions of
A a) L
b) L2
I c) L0.5
C d) L-1
T 31. In a threaded 900 elbow, as the elbow radius to the pipe diameter increases, the pressure
E drop will
a) Remain constant
b) Decrease
c) increase
d) increase as square of elbow radius
32. Among the three types of valves; a full open gate valve, a full bore ball valve, and a full
open globe valve, the highest pressure drop will be encountered for
a) globe valve
A b) ball valve
I c) gate valve
d) All will have the same pressure drop
C
T 33. Reynold’s number for an agitator can be written as
D 2 Nρ
a)
E μ
DN ρ
b) μ
D2ρ
c) μ
d) None of these
34. For steady state heat conduction which of the following is true
a) T is constant through the heat flow path
A dT
b) dx is constant through the heat flow path
I d2T
c) dx 2 is constant through the heat flow path
C d) none of these
T
E
Page 6 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 35. For heat conduction through the composite wall shown in the figure with each wall of
same thickness, k1:k2:k3 =1:2:3. ∆T1:∆T2:∆T3 is
I
∆T1 ∆T2 ∆T3
C
T
E
K1 K2 K3
A a) 1:1:1
b) 1:2:3
I c) 3:2:1
C d) None of these
T 36. Nusselt number is the ratio of

a) conductive heat transfer to convective heat transfer
E
b) conductive heat transfer to radiative heat transfer
c) convective heat transfer to radiative heat transfer
d) convective heat transfer to conductive heat transfer
37. For liquid metals, Prandtl number is

a) 1
b) 0
c) >> 1
A d) none of these
I
38. Sieder Tate equation for convective heat transfer is applicable for
C a) fully developed turbulent flow in tubes
b) fully developed turbulent flow over flat surfaces
T
c) thermal entrance region in tubes
E d) none of these
39. Kirchhoff’s law states that emissivity and absorptivity is same

a) when the surface is at thermodynamic equilibrium
b) at all wavelengths
d) none of these
A 40. A grey body has emissivity

a) equal to that of a black body
I b) less than that of a black body but independent of wavelength
c) less than that of a black body and dependent of wavelength
C
d) none of these
T
E
Page 7 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 41. If the temperature of a surface, initially at 400 K, varies with time as T = T0 – 0.5 t, where
t is in minute, the rate of radiative heat loss after 200 minutes will be
I a) 256/81 times the present rate
C b) 4/3 times the present rate
c) 3/4 times the present rate
T d) 81/256 times the present rate
E
42. For a four effect evaporator train with forward feed, CN represents the solute
concentration as mass percent leaving the nth effect, WN represents the mass flow rate of
solution leaving the nth effect, and VN represents the mass flow rate of vapours leaving the
nth effect. Which of the following is true?
a) CNWN = constant
b) WN + VN = WN-1
c) Both (a) and (b) are true
d) none of these
A
I 43. Reciprocity relation for view factor in radiation heat transfer requires that
a) Fi,j = Fj,i
C b) AiFi,j = AjFj,i
T c) αiAiFi,j = αjAjFj,i
d) none of these
E
44. In multiple effect evaporators, for the same steam pressure and vacuum, increasing BPR
a) Increases evaporation capacity
b) Decreases evaporation capacity
c) Does not affect evaporation capacity
d) Increases evaporation capacity for dilatant liquids
45. Which of the following is best suited for multiple effect evaporators?
a) High pressure superheated steam
A
b) Low pressure superheated steam
I c) Low pressure wet saturated steam
d) Low pressure dry saturated steam
C
T 46. Floating tube sheet heat exchangers provide
a) Better thermal stress management of the tube bundle
E b) Ease of cleaning
c) Both a) and b) are true
47. Closer baffle spacing in shell and tube heat exchanger

a) increases heat transfer coefficient as well as pressure drop
b) decreases heat transfer coefficient as well as pressure drop
c) increases heat transfer coefficient but decreases pressure drop
A d) decreases heat transfer coefficient but increases pressure drop
I 48. A Wilson plot is plot between

C a) 1/(UA) vs v0.8
b) 1/(UA) vs 1/v0.8
T c) UA vs v0.8
d) None of these
E
Page 8 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 49. In multi-pass shell and tube heat exchangers return loss refers to
a) Pressure drop due to each change in fluid direction
I b) Pressure drop in 2nd, 3rd, and subsequent passes
C c) Both (a) and (b) are true
T
E 50. In multistage tray tower for gas absorption more trays will be needed if
a) Liquid flow rate is more for same gas flow rate
b) Gas flow rate is more for same liquid flow rate
c) CAL = zero
d) None of these
51. With increasing slope of operating line in multistage counter current absorption the number
of equilibrium stages
a) Remain unchanged
A
b) Increase
I c) Decrease
d) Decrease for sieve tray towers but increase for bubble cap towers
C
T 52. For minimum liquid flow rate in multistage counter current absorption
a) X0 = Xn
E b) Y0 = Yn
d) None of these
53. VLE for binary distillation can be represented on H – C diagram as well as on x – y diagram.
A point on the H – C diagram can be represented on the x – y diagram as
a) A point above the 450 line
b) A point on the 450 line
A c) A point below the 450 line
d) None of these
I
54. In the method of Ponchon and Savarit for the design of continuous distillation column for
C binary mixtures the coordinates of the delta point for the enriching section are
T a) (zD, HD)
b) (zD, QC/D)
E c) (zD, QC)
d) None of these
55. With increase in reflux ratio in continuous distillation column for binary mixtures
a) Number of trays as well as the liquid and vapour flow rates through the tower decrease
b) Number of trays as well as the liquid and vapour flow rates through the tower increase
c) Number of trays increase but liquid and vapour flow rates through the tower decrease
d) Number of trays decrease but liquid and vapour flow rates through the tower increase
A
56. With McCabe Thiele simplifications the operating line for the enriching section intersects
I the y axis at
C a) xD
b) xD(R + 1)
T c) xD/(R + 1)
d) none of these
E
Page 9 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 57. When designing a distillation column, we will prefer packed tower over tray tower for
a) Small gas pressure drop and small liquid holdup
I b) Large gas pressure drop and large liquid holdup
C c) Small gas pressure drop but large liquid holdup
d) Large gas pressure drop but small liquid holdup
T
E 58. The surface diameter of a particle of non-uniform shape is given by
S
a) π
S
b) π
S
c) π
d) None of these
A 59. For a particle of non-uniform shape settling in a Newtonian fluid, the drag coefficient in
the Stokes regime is
I a) Proportional to Reynolds number
C b) Inversely proportional to Reynolds number
c) Inversely proportional to the square root of Reynolds number
T d) None of these
E
60. Dynamic diameter of a particle of non-uniform shape settling in a Newtonian fluid in the
Stokes regime is
18μu
a) ρ p −ρ g
18μu
b) ρ p −ρ g
2
18μu
c) ρ p −ρ g
A d) None of these
I
61. Screens of Tyler series have
C a) Circular aperture
b) Rectangular aperture
T c) Square aperture
E d) none of the above
62. In a negative coronal ESP

a) Discharge electrodes are negatively charged and in the form of flat plates
b) Discharge electrodes are positively charged and in the form of flat plates
c) Discharge electrodes are negatively charged and in the form of wires
d) Discharge electrodes are positively charged and in the form of wires
63. A rotary vacuum drum filter operates on the principle of

A
a) Constant pressure filtration
I b) Constant pressure filtration but with different pressure differentials in different zones
c) Constant rate filtration
C d) Constant rate filtration but with different rates in different zones
T
E
Page 10 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 64. Ratio of momentum diffusivity to mass diffusivity is

a) Schmidt number
I b) Prandtl number
C c) Nusselt number
d) Sherwood number
T
E 65. Dilatant behaviour can be expected in
a) Solutions at high concentrations
b) Solutions at low concentrations
c) Pure liquids
d) Stabilized suspensions of fine particulates
66. From the kinetic theory of gases the viscosity of a gas is

a) Proportional to T
b) Proportional to T0.5
A
c) Proportional to T-0.5
I d) None of these
C 67. In a fully developed laminar flow in circular pipe the shear stress at the centre of the pipe
T is
a) Maximum
E b) Indeterminate
c) Zero
68. In a fully developed laminar flow in circular pipe the average velocity is
a) One fourth of the maximum velocity
b) One third of the maximum velocity
c) Half the maximum velocity
A d) None of these
I 69. Diffusivity of a gas is
C a) Proportional to total pressure
b) Proportional to the square of total pressure
T c) Proportional to the square root of total pressure
d) None of these
E
70. Value of Schmidt number more than 1 implies that
a) Momentum boundary layer is thinner than the mass transfer boundary layer
b)Momentum boundary layer is thicker than the mass transfer boundary layer
c) Momentum boundary layer coincides with the mass transfer boundary layer
d) None of these
A
I
C
T
E
Page 11 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A PART – B (30x2 = 60 Marks)

I 71. Spherical catalyst particles of 0.25 cm diameter are used for a 1st order heterogeneous
C catalytic reaction for which the reaction rate constant is 1 s-1. Diffusivity of the reactant
within the catalyst pores is 6.54 x 10-3 cm2/s. Effectiveness factor for the catalyst is
T a) 0.6
E b) 0.7
c) 0.8
d) 0.9
72. CO2 is absorbing into a 0.24 mm thick falling film of water with a Reynolds number of
200, and mass rate of flow of 0.05 kg/m. The length of the wall over which the water is
flowing is 1 m. Diffusivity of CO2 in water is 1.96 x 10-9 m2/s. Average mas transfer
coefficient in SI units would be
a) 5.6 x 10-5
A
b) 2.8 x 10-4
I c) 2.8 x 10-5
d) 5.6 x 10-4
C
T 73. Heat conduction is taking place through the wall of a cylindrical pipe of outer and inner
radii 1.25 cm, and 1.23 cm, respectively. The temperatures on the inside and outside of
E the wall are 130 0C, and 700C, respectively. Thermal conductivity of the metal is 20
W/(m.K). Rate of heat transfer per meter of pipe is
a) 400 kW
b) 471 kW
c) 510 kW
d) 550 Kw
74. A cylinder 80 mm diameter and 200 mm long is placed in a stream of fluid flowing at 0.5
A m/s. The axis of the cylinder is normal to the direction of flow. The density of the fluid is
800 kg/m3. The drag force is found to be 30 N. The drag coefficient is
I a) 15.5
C b) 17
c) 18.75
T d) 20
E
75. In an agitated vessel if the existing agitator is replaced with one with half the diameter
and the speed of rotation is doubled, the Froude number will be
a) Double the previous value
b) Half the previous value
c) Four times the previous value
d) None of these
76. An agitator consumes 2 kW of power at 300 rpm. The torque on the motor is
A a) 64 Nm
I b) 32 Nm
c) 16 Nm
C d) None of these
T
E
Page 12 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
77. A cyclone has an inlet width of 15 cm and the shortest length of 25 cm and operates at five
I effective turns. The gas temperature is 345 K and inlet velocity is 20 m/s. Particle density
C is 1.2 g/cm3. The viscosity of air at 345 K is 0.0745 kg/(m.h). Density of the gas is 1.2 kg/m3
What is the cut diameter for the cyclone?
T a) 2 μm
E b) 4 μm
c) 6 μm
d) 8 μm
78. A spherical particle settles in the Stokes regime with a terminal settling velocity of 1 cm/s. If
a particle of same substance with half the particle diameter settles in this fluid the terminal
settling velocity will be
a) 0.5 cm/s
b) 0.25 cm/s
A
c) 0.125 cm/s
I d) None of these
C 79. In a cylindrical internal pressure vessel of 2240 mm diameter and 6.5 mm shell thickness,
T the circumferential seam experiences a stress of 9900 kPa. The pressure inside the vessel
is
E a) 100 kPa
b) 105 kPa
c) 110 kPa
d) 115 kPa
80. An internal pressure vessel is working with a pressure of 40 kg/cm2 gauge. The internal
diameter of the vessel is 2 m, and the shell thickness is 1 cm. Hoop stress developed will
be
A a) 400 kg/cm2
b) 4000 kg/cm2
I c) 800 kg/cm2
C d) None of these
T 81. In distillation column operations where change in vapour flows are expected, we should
prefer a
E
a) Bubble cap tray
b) Sieve tray
c) Valve tray
d) None of these
82. The feed of a binary mixture to a distillation column is 60% vapour and 40% liquid. The
value of q is
a) 0.4
A b) 0.6
I c) 0.5
d) None of these
C
T
E
Page 13 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
83. In a six effect evaporator with mixed feed arrangement of 4, 5, 6, 3, 2, 1 the number of
I pumps required for liquid flow between evaporator effects is
C a) 1
b) 2
T c) 3
E d) 4
84. A five effect evaporator is having the temperature drops across different effects as: 1st effect
32 0C, 2nd effect 35 0C, 3rd effect, 65 0C, 4th effect 65 0C, 5th effect 65 0C. The heat transfer
coefficient is
a) Highest in 5th effect and lowest in 1st effect
b) Lowest in 5th effect and highest in 1st effect
c) Same in each effect
d) None of these
A
Plate 1
I
C 100
T
E
6m
450
Plate 2
A
I
85.In the figure shown, the plate 1 has an area of 0.05 m2 and plate 2 has an area of 0.1 m2.
C The view factors F12 and F21 are
T a) 0.0003, 0.0006
b) 0.0006, 0.0003
E c) 0.0003 for both
d) 0.0006 for both
86. A soldering iron has a tip of area 0.0013 m2 and emissivity of 0.88, and the tip cannot see
itself. The soldering is done in an evacuated enclosure with surfaces at 27 0C. How much
electrical power is required to maintain the tip of the soldering iron at 750 K?
a) 10 W
b) 13 W
A c) 16 W
d) 20 W
I
C
T
E
Page 14 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
87. Air is to be heated from 21 0C to 95 0C in a 2.5 cm diameter tube which is 28 m long and
I is wrapped with electrical resistance heating tape. The mass flow rate of air is 0.0008 kg/s
C and its properties at suitable average temperature are: k = 0.03 W/(m.0C); ρ = 0.998
kg/m3; μ = 2.075 x 10-5 kg/(m.s); and cp = 1000 J/(kg.0C). What is the heat flux required
T from the electrical heating tape?
E a) 20 W/m2
b) 30 W/m2
c) 40 W/m2
d) None of these
88. In boiling heat transfer, as the temperature difference is increased, the heat flux
a) increase
b) decrease
c) increase during nucleate boiling but decrease during transition boiling
A
d) decrease during nucleate boiling but increase during transition boiling
I
89. In a three dimensional incompressible flow of a fluid the x and y components of the
C velocity are given by
T u = 100 (1 + 0.5x2y2 – 0.17x4y4z4)
v = 13 (1 – x2y2cosz)
E ∂w
is
𝜕z
a) 100 (xy2 – 0.68x3y4z3)
b) 26x2ycosz
c) 26x2ycosz – 100 (xy2 – 0.68x3y4z3)
d) 100 (xy2 – 0.68x3y4z3) – 26x2ycosz
90. Moody friction factor is

a) Proportional to wall shear stress and inversely proportional to square of fluid velocity
A b) Proportional to wall shear stress and inversely proportional to fluid velocity
I c) Proportional to square of wall shear stress and inversely proportional to fluid velocity
d) None of these
C
T 91. The optimal head and flow of a centrifugal pump at 1430 rpm are 65 m and 0.036 m3/s,
respectively. The specific speed of the pump is
E a) 12
b) 11.85
c) 11.7
d) 11.55
92. A straight stretch of horizontal pipe having a diameter of 5 cm is used in the laboratory to
measure the viscosity of crude oil (ρ = 930 kg/m3). During a test run a pressure difference
of 17.5 kN/m2 is obtained from two pressure gages, which are located 6 m apart on the
A pipe. Oil is allowed to discharge into a weighing tank, and a total of 550 kg of oil is
collected for a duration of 3 min. Viscosity of the oil is
I a) 2.7 kg/(m.s)
C b) 0.27 kg/(m.s)
c) 0.135 kg/(m.s)
T d) 1.35 kg/(m.s)
E
Page 15 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
93. Consider a solution of two species (molecular weights 32, and 18) at 25 oC such that x1 =
I 0.4. If the partial molar volume of species 1 is 40 x 10-6 m3/mol, find the partial molar
C volume of the second species. The solution specific gravity is 0.90.
a) 11 x 10-6 m3/mol
T b) 13 x 10-6 m3/mol
E c) 15 x 10-6 m3/mol
d) 17 x 10-6 m3/mol
94. For the gaseous reaction

2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
the entropy change at 298 K and 1 atm pressure is 310 J/(K x mol ethane). The reaction
enthalpy at 298 K and 1 atm pressure is –1560 kJ/mol ethane. Gibbs free energy change at
298 K and 1 atm pressure for the reaction is
a) 734 kJ/mol ethane
A
b) 1367 kJ/mol ethane
I c) 1467 kJ/mol ethane
d) None of these
C
T 95. For the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2⇌ 2NH3(g)
E K 𝑝 = 41at 400 K. The standard reaction enthalpy is −91.8 kJ/mol. Equilibrium constant
at 298 K is
a) 51.5
b) 515.85
c) 5158.5
d) 515850
96.5 moles of an ideal gas expands from a volume of 5 L to 50 L at 27 0C. The change in
A entropy is
a) 22.8 cal/K
I b) 22.8 J/K
C c) 100 cal/K
d) 100 J/K
T
E 97. A1 A2 A3
R1
R3
R2
Given: F = 100 kg/h; A3 = 63 kg/h. Degree of freedom for the flowsheet is

A
a) 0
I b) 1
c) 2
C d) None of these
T
E
Page 16 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
98. Which of the following is correct for air water vapour mixture
I a) Molal Hum. = Abs. Hum.
C b) Molal Hum. = Abs. Hum. × (MH2O/MDA)
c) Molal Hum. = Abs. Hum. × (MDA/MH2O)
T d) None of these
E
99. 1 kg of a saturated liquid at pressure p1 is flashed by reducing the pressure to p2. The
corresponding temperatures are tB1 and tB2, and the latent heats are λ1 and λ2, respectively.
The amount of flash vapours generated will be
a) cp(tB1 – tB2)
b) cp(tB1 – tB2) + λ1
c) [cp(tB1 – tB2) + λ1] / λ2
d) None of these
A
100. 100 kg of an aqueous potassium nitrate solution containing 60.0 wt% KNO3 at 80 oC is
I fed to a cooling crystallizer in which the temperature is reduced to 40 oC. For the feed
solution the saturation temperature is 74 oC. Solubility at 40 oC is 63 kg KNO3/100 kg
C H2O. The amount of KNO3 crystals formed will be
T a) 33.9 kg
b) 34.9 kg
E c) 35.9 kg
d) None of these
PART –C
a) 10and40
A b) 10 and15
c) 15 and40
I d) 10 and10
C
T a) Non-singularmatrix
E b) Identitymatrix
c) Singularmatrix
d) None ofabove
a) Nullmatrix
b) Diagonalmatrix
A d) None ofabove
I 104. If u  tan 1 y / x then xux  yu y is equal to

C a) u
b) 1
T c) -1
E
Page 17 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A d) 0
I
C [−3, 1] are
a) −7 and −8
T
b) 81 and −8
E c) 0 and −2
d) 73 and −8
2
a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
A
I a) 3
b) 6
C c) 2
T d) None ofabove
E
𝐵
a) 𝑃 ≥0
𝐴
𝐵
b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
d) None ofabove

I 13
a) 30
C 17
b)
30
T 19
c) 30
E d) None ofabove
11 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
b) Unitorymatrix
d) None ofabove
A
I
a) λ = 2 and µ =4
C b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
T d) None ofabove
E
Page 18 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A .
I
C determinant 𝐵 = 𝐴 + 2𝐴−1 + 𝐼 is
T a) 62
b) 44
E c) 8
d) None ofabove


a) grad | A |  0

b) curl A  0

A c) div A  0
d) None ofabove
I
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
C (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
T a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
E c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
d) None ofabove
1 1 𝑛 −1
115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
a) ⎾(n − 1)
b) ⎾(n)
n−1
c) ⎾ 2
A n+1
d) ⎾ 2
I
C 116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is
a) Hyperbolic
T b) Elliptic
E c) Parabolic
d) None ofabove
𝑥 +𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
A c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
I d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
C
T
E
Page 19 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
I 118.Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the
2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
C 𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
T 𝜋
a) 0
E b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
d) None ofabove
a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
A d) None ofthese.
I
C a) m2
T b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
E d) None ofabove
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 20 of 20
UG1CH E29
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Chemical Engineering
Paper: 1
Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO ANSWER

1. a 41 d 81. c
2. c 42 c 82. a
3. c 43 b 83. c
4. d 44 b 84. a
5. b 45 d 85. b
6. d 46 c 86. d
7. a 47 a 87. d
8. a 48 b 88. c
9. b 49 a 89. c
10. d 50 b 90. a
11. c 51 c 91. b
12. b 52 c 92. c
13. c 53 d 93. d
14. b 54 d 94. c
15. a 55 d 95. d
16. a 56 c 96. a
17. d 57 a 97. b
18. d 58 b 98. c
19. c 59 b 99. c
20. b 60 a 100. b
21. a 61 c 101. a
22. b 62 c 102. c
23. a 63 b 103. a
24. c 64 a 104. d
25. a 65 d 105. d
26. d 66 b 106. d
27. c 67 c 107. a
28. c 68 c 108. a
29. c 69 d 109. a
30. a 70 a 110. b
31. b 71 d 111. c
32. a 72 c 112. d
33. a 73 b 113. b
34. b 74 c 114. a
35. c 75 a 115. b
36. d 76 a 116. b
37. d 77 c 117. d
38. c 78 b 118. a
39. a 79 d 119. d
40. b 80 b 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T
PAPER-II
E
Instructions:
questions.
A
I
C iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
T iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be
E
A specified.
I vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a
C black or blue ball point pen.
T viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
I 1. For molecular diffusion of A in a binary mixture of A & B

a) NA = NB
C b) NA = (NA + NB)xA + JA
c) NA = (NA + NB) + JA
T
d) none of these
E
2. In interphase mass transfer under turbulent flow the limiting resistance to mass transfer
lies in the phase with
a) Very high mass transfer coefficient
b) Lower viscosity
c) Lower concentration
A d) None of these
I
3. For interphase mass transfer of component A from phase I to phase II which of the
C following is true
a) kI[CAI – (CAI)i] = kII[(CAII)i – CAII)]
T b) kI[(CAI)i – CAI] = kII[(CAII)i – CAII)]
E d) None of these
4. If Henry’s law is represented as pA = HCA absorption will be more if

a) H is large
b) H is small
c) Absorption does not depend on H
A
d) None of these
I
5. In gas absorption tower how many stages will be required if the outgoing gas and the
C feed liquid are in equilibrium?
a) Between hundred and two hundred
T b) Less than hundred
E c) Hundred
d) None of these
6. Which of the following does not depend on mass transfer coefficient?

a) Height of the packed tower
b) HTU
A c) NTU
d) none of these.
I
C 7. In gas absorption, for same inlet and outlet conditions and same liquid and gas flow rates
the slope of the operating line for multistage tray tower is
T a) More than that for packed tower
b) Less than that for packed tower
E c) Same as that for packed tower
d) Zero
Page 2 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 8. If we know the DB temperature we can find out

a) RH
I b) Dew point
c) WB temperature
C d) none of these
T
9. A vertical line on psychometric chart represents
E a) Constant dry bulb and decreasing RH
b) Constant RH and decreasing DB
c) Constant DB and constant RH
d) None of these
A
I
C
A
T
E B
C
A
I
C
0 1
Mole fraction A
T
E 10. In the constant pressure VLE shown in the figure above, the curve ABC represents
a) Locus of all dew points
b) Locus of all bubble points
c) Superheated vapour
d) Subcooled liquid
A 11. Which of the following is impossible in a trinary system phase diagram on equilateral
I triangle coordinates?
a) Upward sloping tie line
C b) Horizontal tie line
c) Downward sloping tie line
T d) None of these
E
Page 3 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 12. At plait point

a) Extract is richer in C than raffinate
I b) Raffinate is richer in C than extract
c) Extract and raffinate have same composition
C d) None of these
T
13. In leaching operation Nu represents
Amount of insoluble solids
E a) in underflow
Amount of solute

b) in underflow
Amount of solute +solvent

A c) in underflow
Amount of so lvent
I d) None of these
C 14. A vertical tie line for leaching in N-x,y diagram means that
T a) Solute is completely insoluble
b) Solute is partially insoluble
E c) Solute is completely soluble
d) None of these
15. Bound moisture in a solid exerts a vapour pressure

a) Less than pure water at that temperature
b) Equal to pure water at that temperature
A c) Equal to zero
d) None of these
I
C 16. In equilibrium moisture curves of solids showing hysteresis
a) The desorption curve lies to the right of adsorption curve
T b) The desorption curve lies to the left of adsorption curve
c) The desorption curve starts at the left of adsorption curve, intersects it at some
E moisturecontent and then shifts to the right of adsorption curve
d) none of these
17. In the McCabe Thiele method for fractional distillation, if the reflux ratio increases
a) Operating line for enriching section increases in slope and that for stripping
A section decreases in slope
b) Operating line for enriching section decreases in slope and that for stripping
I section increases in slope
c) Both the operating lines increase in slope
C
d) Both the operating lines decrease in slope
T
E
Page 4 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 18. Which of the following has the highest possibility of weeping?

a) Valve tray
I b) Bubble cap tray
c) Sieve tray
C d) none of these
T
19. Activation energy can be associated with
E a) Physical adsorption
b) Chemical adsorption
c) Both physical and chemical adsorption
d) none of these
20. Rate of adsorption increases with increase in specific surface area of the adsorbent for
A a) Physical adsorption
b) Chemical adsorption
I
c) Both physical and chemical adsorption
C d) None of these
T 21. From a geological perspective, the oldest form of coal is

a) Sub bituminous
E b) Bituminous
c) Lignite
d) Anthracite
22. The highest amount of volatile matter is expected in

a) Sub bituminous
A
b) Bituminous
I c) Lignite
d) Anthracite
C
23. Percent fixed carbon in anthracite coal is normally
T a) Up to 60%
E c) 60 – 75%
b) 75 – 90%
c) > 90%
24. Agglomerating characteristics is shown by

a) Sub bituminous
A b) Bituminous
c) Lignite
I d) Anthracite
C
25. Petrographic analysis of coal relies on
T a) Maceral reflectance
b) Elemental composition
E c) Resistance to abrasion
d) None of these
Page 5 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 26. Gasoline mainly consists of

a) Aliphatic hydrocarbons between C5 to C12
I b) Aliphatic hydrocarbons between C1 to C6
c) Aromatic hydrocarbons between C9 to C14
C d) None of these
T
27. Naphthene in gasoline refers to
E a) Polynuclear aromatics
b) Cycloparaffins
c) Olefins
d) None of these
28. Cloud point is a parameter applicable for

A a) Gasoline
b) Diesel
I
c) LPG
C d) None of these
T 29. For better anti-knocking properties

a) Gasoline and diesel should contain more straight chain paraffins
E b) Gasoline and diesel should contain more branched chain paraffins
c) Gasoline and diesel should not contain paraffins
d) None of these
30. Kerosene is obtained as

A a) Heavy ends of the top distillates
b) Heavy ends of the middle distillates
I c) Light ends of the middle distillates
d) Light ends of the top distillates
C
31. Which of the following has the highest stoichiometric air fuel ratio by mass?
T
a) Gasoline
E b) Diesel
c) Biodiesel
d)CNG
32. Main objective of naphtha reforming is
a) Increasing diesel yield of the refinery
A b) Increasing ATF yield of the refinery
c) Increasing gasoline yield of the refinery
I d) None of these
C
33. Naphtha hydrotreatment is done
T a) After catalytic reforming to separate the aromatics
b) Before catalytic reforming to remove the poisons
E c) As a substitute to catalytic reforming
d) None of these
Page 6 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 34. Feedstock for catalytic cracking is

a) Heavy gas oil
I b) Naphtha
c) Mixture of heavy gas oil and naphtha
C d) None of these
T
35. Main mechanism of catalyst deactivation during catalytic cracking is
E a) poisoning
b) sintering
c) coking
d) none of these
36. Hydrocracking renders a product that is

A a) Low boiling as well as low sulphur
b) Low boiling but high sulphur
I
c) Low boiling and lean in hydrogen content
C d) None of these
T 37. A reaction A + 2B → C + D follows the rate law, −rA = kCA CB2 . What can be said about
the reaction?
E a) It may be an elementary reaction
b) It is certainly an elementary reaction
c) Reaction order is 2
d) None of these
A 38. The reaction A + 2B → C + D is carried out in a batch reactor. At time ‘t’ the
concentration of C is found to be 1 mol/L. From the given information we can say that
I a) Initial concentration of C is zero
b) Initial concentration of D is zero
C c) concentration of D at time t is 1 mol/L
T d) none of these
E 39. An activated complex is

a) Energetically identical to the reactant
b) Less energetic than the reactant
c) More energetic than the reactant
d) None of these
A 40. From the activated complex theory of reaction rates, the pre exponential factor for
I specific reaction rate constant is
a) Independent of temperature
C b) Proportional to temperature
c) Inversely proportional to temperature
T d) None of these
E
Page 7 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 41. In an ideal batch reactor, the composition inside the reactor is

a) Variable with respect to location but constant with respect to time
I b) Constant with respect to location but variable with respect to time
c) Variable with respect to location and time
C d) None of these
T 42. The reaction H2 + Br2 → 2HBr is believed to proceed by the following mechanism
Br2 → 2Br•
E
Br• + H2 → HBr + H•
H• + Br2 → HBr + Br•
During the reaction
a) Concentration Br• remains zero
b) Concentration H• remains zero
A c) Net rate of formation of H• remains zero
d) None of these
I
43. If a 1st order chemical reaction is carried out in an ideal isothermal batch reactor
C a) ln(1 – XA) is proportional to t
T b) lnXA is proportional to t
c) XA is proportional to t
E d) None of these
44. Which of the following is true for an ideal isothermal variable volume batch reactor?
X dX
a) CA 0 0 A −r A = t
A
XA dX A
b) 0 −r A (1+ ε A X A )
=t
A
X dX
c) CA 0 0 A −r (1+Aε X ) =t
I A A A
d) None of these
C
45. For the series reaction A → I → T, carried out in an ideal isothermal batch reactor, the
T rate constants for both the reactions is k. If I, and T, are not initially present, the
maximum achievable concentration of I is
E (C )
a) Ae 0
1
b) e
c) (CA )0
A
I
C
T
E
Page 8 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 46. For ideal isothermal PFR

dτ 1
a) dX = −r
A A
I
dτ CA 0
C b) =
dX A −r A
T
τ CA 0
c) =
E XA −r A
d) None of these
47. For the parallel reaction

A→P
A A→Q
carried out in an ideal isothermal PFR, the ratio of rate of formation of P to the rate of
I decomposition of A at any location within the reactor is
a) Overall fractional yield of P
C
b) Instantaneous fractional of P at that location
T c) Constant for all locations within the reactor
d) None of these
E
48. For a 1st order reaction carried out in an ideal isothermal CSTR, the Damkohler number is
proportional to
a) XA
b) 1 – XA
c) 1/XA
A
d) None of these
I 49. From Michaelis and Menten mechanism for enzyme substrate reaction, the maximum rate
C of formation of product is obtained when
a) All the enzyme is in free state
T b) Rate of decomposition of substrate is minimum
E d) None of these
50. From Michaelis and Menten mechanism for enzyme substrate reaction, we get a straight
relation between
a) Reciprocal of substrate decomposition rate and reciprocal of substrate concentration
b) Reciprocal of substrate decomposition rate and substrate concentration
A c) Substrate decomposition rate and substrate concentration
I d) None of these
C 51. If the reaction A + 2B → C is carried out in a non isothermal ideal batch reactor, the
reactor temperature varies linearly with conversion if
T a) (Cp)A = (Cp)B = (CP)C
b) (Cp)A + 2(Cp)B = (CP)C
E c) (Cp)A + (Cp)B = (CP)C
d) None of these
Page 9 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 52. For non isothermal CSTRs, stable reactor operation is possible

a) For the entire range of conversion
I b) For the entire range of temperature consistent with material of construction
c) For select combinations of conversion and temperature
C d) None of these
T
53. At a given instant, the activity of a catalyst under poisoning
E a) Is inversely proportional to concentration of poison
b) Is proportional to concentration of poison
c) Decreases linearly with increasing concentration of poison
d) None of these
54. As the pore length increases, the effectiveness factor of a catalyst

A a) Is unaffected
b) Increases
I
c) Decreases
C d) Approaches 1
T 55. The value of RTD function at any time is proportional to the outlet tracer concentration
a) For step tracer input
E b) For pulse tracer input
c) For any type of tracer input
d) In no case
56. In the E-t curve for an ideal CSTR the maximum value of E occurs at
A a) t = 0
b) t = τ
I c) t = ∞
d) none of these
C
57. Membrane cell technology for production of caustic soda uses
T
a) Cation permselective membrane
E b) Anion permselective membrane
c) High temperature resistant membrane
d) None of these
58. Cathode product during electrolysis of brine is

a) Chlorine
A b) Sodium hydroxide and hydrogen
I c) Sodium hydroxide
d) Hydrogen
C
59. By-product from Solvay process of soda ash manufacturing is
T a) Ammonia
b) Ammonium chloride
E c) Calcium carbonate
d) None of these
Page 10 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 60. V2O5 is preferred over platinum as catalyst for oxidation of SO2 to SO3 because
a) V2O5 is less prone to poisoning
I b) It is cheaper than platinum
c) Both (a) and (b)
C d) None of these
T 61. Oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is
a) Exothermic
E
b) Endothermic
c) Athermic
d) None of these
62. Incomplete oxidation of ammonia during production of nitric acid leads to the formation of
A a) NO2
b) N2O5
I c) NO
d) None of these
C
T 63. During manufacturing, nitric acid is concentrated by
a) Passing its vapours over CaCl2
E b) Passing its vapours over anhydrous silica gel
c) Passing its vapours over zeolite
d) None of these
64. Absorbers for absorption of HCl gas in water are made of

a) Glass lined steel
A
b) Graphite
I c) Ceramic tiles
C
65. For the manufacturing of silicon carbide temperature required is
T a) > 1000 0C
E b) > 2000 0C
c) < 1000 0C
d) None of these
66. Solvent required for extraction of oil from oilseeds should be

a) Volatile
A b) Very little volatile
c) Highly viscous
I d) None of these
C
67. Moderate increase in temperature during solvent extraction of oil from oilseeds
T a) Degrades the oil by unwanted oxidation
b) Inhibits the process by decreasing the solvent viscosity
E c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Page 11 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 68. Molasses is
a) Concentrated sugarcane juice prior to crystallization
I b) Mother liquor left post crystallization of sugar
c) Fermented sugarcane juice
C d) none of these
T
69. In sugar manufacturing juice clarification by sulfitation can be replaced by
E a) Membrane separation
b) Hydrocyclones
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
70. Rice straw is not preferred for making paper because

A a) It has short fibres
b) It has high amount of silica
I
c) Both (a) and (b)
C d) None of these
T 71. Kraft process generally gives a pulp that is

a) Stronger than soda pulp
E b) Darker than soda pulp
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
72. Which of the following grades of paper is sized?

A a) Newsprint
b) Writing paper
I c) Facial tissue
d) None of these
C
73. A high time constant of a first order process means
T
a) Process lag is high
E b) Process lag is low
c) Process lag is fluctuating
d) None of these
A
I
C
T
E
Page 12 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A
I A
C
B
T
E PV C
A
I
C t
74. In the above figure, time constant is
T
a) Highest for process A
E b) Highest for process B
c) Highest for process C
d) Same for all the processes
75. Behaviour of a cascade of three first order processes

a) Resembles a first order process
A b) Resembles higher order process
c) Resonates between first order and higher order
I d) Cannot be predicted
C
76. Damping coefficient is associated with a
T a) First order process
b) Second order process
E c) Third order process
d) None of these
77. At a damping coefficient of 1, we get

a) Fastest response without overshoot
A b) Slowest response without overshoot
c) Overdamping
I d) None of these
C 78. Laplace transform of an impulse input would be
T a) 0
b) s
E c) 1/s
d) None of these
Page 13 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A
79. If system output is added to the reference input, we have
I a) Positive feedback
b) Negative feedback
C c) Open loop
d) None of these
T
E 80. In feedback control the overall gain
a) Is more than the gain of the open loop control
b) Is less than the gain of the open loop control
c) Is same as the gain of the open loop control
d) Depends on the type of feedback
A
PART- B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
I
C 81. Number of root-locus segment which do not terminate on the zeros is equal to
a) Number of poles
T b) Number of zeros
c) Sum of poles and zeros
E d) Difference of poles and zeros
82. Basically, poles of transfer function are the Laplace transform variable values which causes
the transfer function to become
a) 0
A b) 1
c) ∞
I d) None of these
C 83. A linear system at rest is subject to an input signal r(t)=1-e-t. The response of the system for
t>0 is given by c(t)=1-e-2t. The transfer function of the system is
T
a) (s+2)/(s+1)
E b) (s+1)/(s+2)
c) 2(s+1)/(s+2)
d) (s+1)/2(s+2)
84. A control system whose step response is -0.5(1+e-2t) is cascaded to another control block
whose impulse response is e-t. What is the transfer function of the cascaded combination?
A a) 1/(s+2)(s+1)
I b) 1/(s+1)s
c) 1/(s+3)
C d) 0.5/(s+1)(s+2)
T
E
Page 14 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 85. Parameter disturbances are taken care of in

a) Positive feedback control
I b) Negative feedback control
c) Adaptive control
C d) None of these
T
86. What is the time period of the function x[n] = exp(jwn)?
𝛑
E a) 𝟐𝐰
𝟐𝛑
b) 𝐰
𝟒𝛑
c)
A 𝐰
I d) None of these
C 87. Fermentation process to produce alcohol is best carried out

a) Under acidic condition for 2 – 3 weeks
T
b) Under acidic condition for 2 – 3 days
E c) Under alkaline condition for 2 – 3 days
d) Under alkaline condition for 2 – 3 weeks
88. 140 proof alcohol has

a) 14% ethanol in it
b) 70% ethanol in it
A c) 7% ethanol in it
d) None of these
I
89. Which of the following bleaching sequence is most environment friendly for the production
C of printing paper?
T a) OEPDEP
b) CEDED
E c) CEHEH
d) DEDD
90. A paper machine is 5 m wide and runs at a speed of 1000 m/min. If the daily production of
paper is 360 tons, the grammage of paper is
a) 50 g/m2
A b) 60 g/m2
c) 70 g/m2
I
d) 80 g/m2
C
91. Which of the following unit operations is NOT used in detergent manufacturing?
T a) Size reduction
b) Mixing
E c) Drying
d) None of these
Page 15 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 92. Hydrogenation of vegetable oil

a) Increases the resistance to rancidity but reduces the shelf life
I b) Decreases the resistance to rancidity but increases the shelf life
c) Increases the resistance to rancidity as well as shelf life
C d) Decreases the resistance to rancidity as well as shelf life
T
93. During the production of nitric acid, first ammonia is converted to nitrogen oxide, NO, then
E NO is converted to nitrogen dioxide, NO2, then to nitric acid, HNO3. During this process
the oxidation state of the nitrogen is changing from
a) −3 to +2 to +4 to +5.
b) +3 to +2 to +4 to +5.
c) 0 to +2 to +4 to +6
d) −3 to 0 to +4 to +6
A
94. As the dispersion number increase, the E-t curve
I
a) Decrease in variance and skewness
C b) Decrease in variance but increase in skewness
c) Increase in variance but decrease in skewness
T d) Increase in variance and skewness
E 95. According to tanks in series model a real reactor, with space time τ, is found to be equivalent
to N CSTRs in series. A 1st order reaction with rate constant k is carried out in the reactor.
The conversion would be
1
a) XA = 1 − 2 N
τ
1+k 2
N
A 1
b) XA = 1 − 1+kτ 2 N
1
I c) XA = 1 − k N
1+ 2
N
C d) None of these
T
96. For a reactor the quantity 1 – F(t) represents
E a) fraction of material leaving the reactor till time t
b) fraction of material leaving the reactor per unit time at time t
c) fraction of material left in the reactor at time t
d) none of these
97. A solid catalysed reaction is found to be 2nd order when mass transfer resistance in the
A catalyst pore is insignificant. When the reaction is carried out under changed conditions so
I that the mass transfer in the catalyst pore is rate limiting, the reaction order would appear to
be
C a) 1
b) 1.5
T c) 2
d) none of these
E
Page 16 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A
98. Catalyst deactivation by sintering is normally
I a) a 1st order process
b) a 2nd order process
C c) a 1st or a 2nd order process
d) none of these
T
E 99. For a variable volume reacting system the initial and final concentrations of the limiting
reactant, A, is 1, and 0.3 mol/L, respectively. The volume expansion factor, εA is 1.5. The
conversion is
a) 0.7
b) 0.24
c) 0.48
A d) None of these
I
100. For a reaction the ratio of activation energy to universal gas constant is 1954 SI units. If the
k
C temperature is increased from 400 K to 500 K, ln k 500 is
400
T a) 0.87
b) 0.97
E c) 0.7
d) none of these
101.A second order liquid phase reaction is carried out in a CSTR of volume 20 m3 and 60%
conversion is achieved. It is proposed to increase the conversion to 85% by joining a PFR
in series. Which of the following is true?
A a) PFR required is larger in size than the CSTR
I b) PFR required is larger in size than the CSTR if it is placed before the CSTR
c) PFR required is larger in size than the CSTR if it is placed after the CSTR
C d) None of these
T 102. Advantage of using a PFR over a CSTR is most pronounced

a) when there is large contraction of volume with conversion
E
b) when there is large expansion of volume with conversion
c)when there is no expansion of volume with conversion
d) none of these
103. The liquid phase parallel reaction

A A→P (−rA )1 = rP = 0.05CA mol/(L.min)
A→Q (−rA )2 = rQ = 0.02CA mol/(L.min)
I is carried out in an isothermal CSTR of 100 L volume with 2 mol/L feed concentration of A
C and no P and Q present in the feed. The volumetric flow rate into the reactor is 10 L/min.
The outlet concentration of A from the reactor is
T a) 1.17 mol/L
b) 1.34 mol/L
E c) 1 mol/L
d)none of these
Page 17 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A
104. A solid fuel has elemental composition: C – 61%, H – 6%, S – 1.5%, and O – 31.5%. For 1
I kg of fuel, the theoretical moles of combustion air required for complete combustion is.
a) 0.97
C b) 2.27
c) 1.27
T
d) 0.27
E
105. A moist fuel has 10% moisture in it. Calorific value on dry basis is 3000 kcal/kg. If 1000
kg of this fuel is burnt with combustion being 95% complete, the heat released is
a) 2700 Mcal
b) 2842 Mcal
c) 2565 Mcal
A d) none of these
I
106. Octane number of natural gas is
C a) > 100
b) 100
T c) < 100
d) none of these
E
107. Less excess air during combustion of gaseous fuels
a) does not affect the flame length
b) shortens the flame
c) lengthens the flame
A d)affects flame length depending on calorific value of fuel
I 108. Temperature inside a furnace is always less than the adiabatic flame temperature because
a) excess air is used
C b) there is no heat loss from the furnace walls
T
d) none of these
E
109. With increase in the rank of coal we must
a) increase the ratio of primary to secondary air
b) Decrease the ratio of primary to secondary air
c) Decrease the ratio of primary to secondary air, but increase percent excess air
d) none of these
A
I 110. Smoke point of a test sample of kerosene is found to be 15 mm. On removal of
__________ from it, the smoke point rises to 25 mm.
C a) paraffins
b) olefins
T c) aromatics
d) none of these
E
Page 18 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 111. An air-water vapour mixture has a relative humidity of 80% at 35 0C DB temperature. At

this temperature the vapour pressure of water is 42 mm Hg. The absolute molal humidity is
I a) 0.058
b) 0.046
C c) 0.064
d) None of these
T
E 112. An air-water vapour mixture has a relative humidity of 80% at 35 0C DB temperature. At
this temperature the vapour pressure of water is 42 mm Hg. The variation of vapour pressure
with temperature is given as
Temp. (0C) 29 30 31 32 33 34
Vap. Pr. 30 31.8 33.6 35.7 37.7 39.9

A (mm Hg)
I The dew point is
a) 30 0C
C b) 31 0C
c) 32 0C
T d) 33 0C
E
113. For the binary mixture of methanol (A) and ethanol (B) the VLE data at 1 atm pressure are
given below:
𝑥𝐴 0 0.134 0.242 0.32 0.401 0.542 0.652
𝑦𝐴 0 0.183 0.326 0.428 0.529 0.676 0.759
T (k) 351 349 348 346 345 343 341
A The proportion of liquid and vapour phases in a mixture of A and B with a total mole
fraction of A as 0.38 at a temperature of 346 K is
I a) 41.5% liquid, 58.5% vapour
b) 55.6% liquid, 44.4% vapour
C
c) 44.4% liquid, 55.6% vapour
T d) None of these
E 114. In a multistage countercurrent absorption tower the terminal conditions are

Top Bottom
x 0 0.08
y 0.001 0.009
Only one chemical species is absorbed from the gas to the liquid. The ratio of flow of
A solvent liquid to non absorbing gas in the tower is
a) 0.01
I b) 0.05
c) 0.11
C d) None of these
T
E
Page 19 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 115. A benzene air mixture is to be scrubbed in a simple countercurrent absorption tower using a
non volatile hydrocarbon oil as solvent. The inlet gas contains 5% benzene and the entering
I gas flow is 270 kmol/h. Solubility of benzene in oil follows Raoult’s law. The tower
operates isothermally at 60 0C and atmospheric pressure. Vapour pressure of benzene at 60
C 0
C is 103 mm Hg. What is the minimum solvent flow rate needed to recover 90% of the
entering benzene?
T
a) 20.8 kmol/h
E b) 21.9 kmol/h
c) 13.5 kmol/h
d) None of these
116. If binary VLE is plotted on H-x,y axes with the mole fractions of more volayile component,
the tie line slope is
A a) 0
b) Infinite
I
c) negative
C d) positive
T
117. A moist non hygroscopic granular solid at 26 0C is to be dried from 20% initial moisture to
E 0.3% final moisture in a rotary dryer at a rate of 1500 kg/h. The hot air enters the dryer at
135 0C with a humidity of 0.015. Cps = 0.85 kJ/kg.K. If the flow rate of dry air is 10000
kg/h, the humidity of air leaving the dryer is
a) 0.025
b) 0.035
A c) 0.045
d) None of these
I
118. 100 kg of food material are dried from an initial water content of 80% on a wet basis and
C with a surface area of 12 m2. Estimate the time needed to dry to 50% moisture content on a
wet basis, assuming constant-rate drying in air with a humidity of 0.054 and saturation
T
humidity of 0.087. Under the conditions in the dryer the mass transfer coefficient is found
E to be 0.018 kg/(m2.s.humidity).
a) 1.6 h
b) 2.3 h
c) 2.8 h
d) None of these
A 119. In multi-stage countercurrent extraction represented on rectangular coordinates the line
I joining Rn-1 and ∆ passes through
a) En-1
C b) En
c) Rn
T d) None of these
E
Page 20 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 120. For multistage countercurrent liquid liquid extraction increasing the number of stages
a) Increases C in E1
I b) Increases C in RN
c) Increases the amounts of E1 and RN
C d) None of these
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 21 of 21
UG2CH E29
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Chemical Engineering
Paper: 2

1. b 41 b 81. d
2. d 42 c 82. c
3. a 43 a 83. c
4. b 44 c 84. a
5. d 45 a 85. c
6. c 46 b 86. b
7. c 47 b 87. b
8. d 48 d 88. b
9. a 49 d 89. a
10. a 50 a 90. a
11. d 51 b 91. d
12. c 52 c 92. c
13. b 53 c 93. a
14. c 54 c 94. d
15. a 55 b 95. a
16. a 56 a 96. c
17. b 57 a 97. b
18. c 58 b 98. c
19. b 59 d 99. c
20. c 60 c 100. b
21. d 61 a 101. d
22. c 62 c 102. b
23. d 63 d 103. a
24. b 64 b 104. d
25. a 65 b 105. c
26. a 66 a 106. a
27. b 67 d 107. c
28. b 68 b 108. a
29. d 69 a 109. a
30. c 70 c 110. c
31. d 71 c 111. b
32. c 72 b 112. b
33. b 73 a 113. c
34. a 74 c 114. d
35. c 75 b 115. a
36. a 76 b 116. d
37. a 77 a 117. c
38. d 78 d 118. b
39. c 79 a 119. b
40. b 80 d 120. a
ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
A
I
C CIVIL AND ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
T
E Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
PAPER-I
A
Instructions:
I
C
total 120 questions.
T
E
A
C
T use non-programmable scientific calculator.
specified.
A
I
C x. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
A
I PART-A (70 X 1= 70 Marks)
C 1. In a mortar, the binding material is

(a) Cement
T
(b) Sand
E (c) Surkhi
(d) Cinder
2. Ultimate strength to cement is provided by

(a) Tricalcium silicate
(b) Di-calcium silicate
(c) Tri-calcium aluminate
(d) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite.
A
I 3. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a considerable depth from
earth's surface are called
C (a) Plutonic rocks
(b) Hypobyssal rocks
T (c) Volcanic rocks
(d) Igneous rocks
E
4. Which of the following stresses is used to identifying the quality of structural steel?
(a) Yield stress
(b) Proof stress
(c) Ultimate stress
A (d) none of above
I 5. Sapwood consist of
(a) innermost annual ring around the plith
C
(b) portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
T (c) thin layer below bark
(d) none of above
E
6. The main function of alumina in brick earth is
(a) To impart the brick durable
(b) To impart plasticity
(c) To prevent shrinkage
(d) To make the brick impermeable
A
I 7. The main constituent of fly-ash, is
(a) aluminium oxide
C (b) Silica
(c) ferrous oxide
T (d) All of these
E
8. The commonly used color pigment in paints, is
(a) Ambers
(b) carbon black
(c) iron oxide
(d) all the above
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
A
I 9. For filling cracks in masonry structures, the type of bitumen used, is
(a) cut-back bitumen
C
(b) bitumen-emulsion
T (c) blown bitumen
(d) plastic bitumen.
E
10. Cast steel is manufactured by
(a) Cementation process
(b) Crucible process
(c) Bessemer process
(d) Open hearth process.
11. The standard size of masonry bricks, is

A (a) 18 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm
(b) 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm
I
(c) 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm
C (d) 21 cm x 11 cm x 11 cm
T 12. Queen closer may be placed

(a) in header course
E (b) in stretcher course
(c) in header course next to first brick
(d) in stretcher course next to first brick
13. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because its

A (a) bearing capacity is low
(b) permeability is uncertain
I (c) particles are cohesive
(d) property to undergo a volumetric change due to variation of moisture content.
C
14. Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual
T
footing is more than
E (a) 25% to total area
(b) 30% of total area
(c) 40% of total area
(d) 50% of total area
15. In clay soil

A (a) swelling and shrinkage characteristics prevail
I (b) consolidation continues even after several years of construction.
(c) differential settlement is generally prevalent
C (d) all of the above
T 16. A metallic tape is made of an alloy of

(a) steel
E (b) invar
(c) linen
(d) cloth and wires
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
A
17. Number of links in a 20 m long metric chain is
I
(a) 100
C (b) 150
(c) 180
T (d) 200
E 18. The main object of running a check line is
(a) to check accuracy of work
(b) to take details of nearby objects
(c) to take offsets for detailed surveying
19. Which of the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross staff?
(a) 300 only
A (b) 450 only
I (c) 900 only
(d) either 450 or 900
C
20. In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole circle bearing of 336030’ can be expressed
T as
(a) W 23030’ N
E
(b) N 66030’ W
(c) S 113030’ N
(d) N 23030’ W
21. Size of a theodolite is specified by

A (a) the length of telescope
(b) the diameter of vertical circle
I (c) the diameter of lower plate
(d) the diameter of upper plate
C
T 22. The height of instrument method of levelling does not provide a check on
(a) foresight
E (b) backsight
(c) intermediate sight
(d) all of the above
23. In an internal focusing type of telescope, the lens provided is

(a) concave
A
(b) convex
I (c) plano convex
(d) plano concave
C
24. The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by
T (a) decreasing the diameter of the tube
E (b) increasing the length of bubble
(c) increasing the viscosity of liquid
(d) decreasing the radius of curvature of tube
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
A
25. The type of surveying in which field observation and plotting proceed simultaneously
I
is
C (a) theodolite surveying
(b) compass surveying
T (c) tacheometry
(d) plane table surveying
E
26. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into
threads 3 mm in diameter, is known as
(a) liquid limit
(b) plastic limit
(c) shrinkage limit
(d) permeability limit
A
27. A fully saturated soil is said to be
I (a) one phase system
C (b) two phase system with soil and water
(c) two phase system with soil and air
T (d) three phase system
E 28. Void ratio of soil mass can

(a) never be greater than unity
(b) be zero
(c) take any value greater than zero
(d) take value between 0 to 1
A
29. Which of the following method is best suited for determination of permeability of
I coarse grained soil?
(a) constant head test
C (b) falling head test
(c) both (a) and (b)
T (d) none of the above
E
30. Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by –
(a) compressibility
(b) permeability
A
31. Rise of water table above the ground surface causes-
I (a) Equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
C (b) Equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
(c) increase in pore water pressure and decrease in total stress
T (d) decrease in pore water pressure and increase in total pressure
E 32. A triaxial shear stress is preferred to direct shear test because-

(a) it can be performed under all three drainage condition with complete control
(b) precise measurement of pore water pressure and volume change can be measured
(c) stress distribution in failure plane is non uniform
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
A
33. Rankine theory of active earth pressure assumes-
I
(a) soil mass is dry, homogeneous and cohesion less
C (b) back of wall is vertical and smooth
(c) ground surface is plane which may be horizontal or vertical
T (d) all of the above
E 34. From the following options, pick up the clay soil group which does not swell when
wet.
(a) Kaolinite group
(b) Mite group
(c) Vermiculite group
(d) Montrorillonite group.
A 35. Flow net may be utilized for determination of

(a) exit gradient
I (b) seepage
C (c) hydrostatic pressure
T
36. A Newtonian fluid is a substance that deforms continuously for any applied
E (a) stress above a critical value
(b) stress no matter how small
(c) normal stress
(d) shear stress
37. Viscosity is a property that manifests

A
(a) at fluid –solid boundaries only
I (b) between two adjacent fluid layer in relative motion
(c) in uniform in compressible flows
C (d) only in turbulent flows
T 38. Which of the following pressure units represents the least pressure?
E (a) Millibar
(b) Mm of mercury
(c) N/mm2
(d) Kgf/cm2
39. When a ship enters a sea from a river

A (a) Rise a little
(b) sink a little
I (c) Remains at a same level
C (d) Rise or fall depending on the material of the ship.
T 40. In a fluid flow point, A is at a higher elevation than point B. The head loss between
these points is HL. The total heads at A and B are HA and HB respectively. The flow
E will take place
(a) From A to B, if HA+ HL =HB
(b) From B to A, if HA + HL =HB
(c) Always from A to B
(d) From B to A if HB+ HL =HA
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
A
I
41. When a steady jet of water impinges on a stationary inclined plane surface and if fluid
C friction is neglected, the resultant force on the plane is
(a) Tangential to the surface
T (b) Normal to the surface
(c) In the direction of the jet flow
E (d) None of the above
42. The linear momentum equation is based on

(a) Newton`s law of viscosity
(b) Newton`s first law of motion
(c) Newton`s second law of motion
(d) Newton`s third law of motion
A
43. Flow in a pipeline of constant diameter is said to be fully developed when
I (a) The flow rate in the pipeline increases along the length of the pipe
(b) The flow rate in the pipeline decreases along the length of the pipe
C (c) The flow rate in the pipeline does not vary along the length of the pipe
T (d) The velocity profile in the pipeline does not vary along the length of the pipe.
E 44. In similitude with gravity force, where equality of Froude no. exists, velocity ratio
becomes
(a) 1
(b) Lr1/2
(c) 1/Lr
(d) Lr3/2
A
45. The maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is
I
(a) (1+cosФ)/2
C (b) (1-cosФ)/2
(c) (1-sinФ)/2
T (d) (1+sinФ)/2
E 46. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to
(a) Pressure difference
(b) Temperature difference
(c) Natural topographical barriers
A 47. If allowable percentage error in the estimate of basic rainfall is E and coefficient of
I variation of rainfall is Cv, then the optimum number of rain gauges is given by
(a) Cv/E
C (b) √Cv/E
(c) (Cv/E)2
T (d) (Cv/E)3/2
E 48. Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on high
water marks left over in the past?
(a) Slope-area method
(b) Area-velocity method
(c) Moving boat method
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A
(d) Ultrasonic method
I
49. Discharge per unit drawdown at a well is called
C (a) Specific storage
(b) Specific yield
T (c) Specific capacity
E
50. Muskingum method of flood routing is
(a) Reservoir routing method
(b) Channel routing method
(c) Hydraulic method of flood routing
A 51. The flow duration curve is a plot of

(a) Accumulated flow against time
I (b) Discharge against time in chronological order
C (c) The base flow against the percentage of time the flow is equaled or exceeded
(d) The stream discharge against the percentage of time the flow is equaled or
T exceeded
E 52. The Standard Project Flood is

(a) Derived from the Probable Maximum Precipitation in the region
(b) Derived from the severement meteorological conditions anywhere in the country
(c) The flood with return period of 1000 years
(d) The same as the Probable Maximum Flood
A
53. Which one of the following constitutes the basic assumption of unit hydrograph
I theory?
(a) Non-linear response and time invariance
C (b) Non-linear time variance and linear time variance
(c) Linear response and linear time variance
T (d) Time invariance and linear response
E
54. The chemical that is found to be the most suitable as water evaporation inhibitor is
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Methyl alcohol
(c) Cetyl alcohol
(d) Butyl alcohol
A
55. A geological formation which is essentially impermeable for flow of water even
I though it may contain water in its pores is called
C (a) Aquifer
(b) Aquifuge
T (c) Aquitard
(d) Aquiclude
E
56. A hinged support in a real beam
(a) Becomes an internal hinge in a conjugate beam
(b) Changes to a free support in a conjugate beam
(c) Changes to a fixed support in a conjugate beam
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A
(d) Remains as a hinged support in a conjugate beam
I
57. In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be
C (a) zero
(b) minimum
T (c) maximum
(d) infinity
E
58. Which of the following theories of failure is most appropriate for a brittle material?
(a) Maximum principal strain theory
(b) Maximum principal stress theory
(c) Maximum shear stress theory
(d) Maximum strain energy theory
59. Strain energy stored in a prismatic bar subjected to normal axial force F and having
A
deformation δ is equal to
I (a) 2Fδ
(b) 3Fδ
C (c) Fδ
(d) 0.5 Fδ
T
60. Between two concentrated loads if there are no other loads, both BMD and SFD will
E
be
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) exponential
A
61. The cross-sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a RCC column shall not be
I (a) less than 0.8%
(b) more than 5 %
C (c) more than 8%
T (d) less than 10%
E 62. In a singly reinforced beam, if the stress in concrete reaches its allowable limit later
than the steel reaches its permissible value, the beam section is said to be
(a) under reinforced
(b) over reinforced
(c) balanced
(d) critically balanced
A
I 63. The purpose of provision of lateral ties in columns is to
(a) increase the load carrying capacity of the column
C (b) facilitate construction
(c) facilitate compaction of concrete
T (d) avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
E
64. In limit state design of RCC structures, the strain distribution is assumed to be
(a) parabolic and rectangular
(b) non linear
(c) parabolic
(d) linear
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A
I
65. In limit state of serviceability, the items which are checked are
C (a) deflection
(b) cracking
T (c) both deflection and cracking
(d) durability
E
66. The Muller Breslau principle for influence line is applicable for
(a) simple beam
(b) continuous beam
(c) redundant truss
A 67. The maximum bending moment due to train of wheel loads in a simply supported
girder
I (a) always occur at the center of the span
(b) always under a wheel load
C (c) none of the above
T
68. Compatibility conditions are essentially required to solve
E
(a) substitute frame
(b) complex frame
(c) redundant frame
(d) compound truss
A 69. The degree of statical indeterminacy of a propped cantilever is

(a) 0
I (b) 1
(c) 2
C (d) 3
T 70. The maximum bending moment under a particular load among the several beams
E occurs when that point load is placed
(a) at mid span
(b) at one third point
(c) at quarter point
(d) at a point when c.g of all loads and particular loads are equidistant from mid span
A
I
71. In the cement the compound quickest to react with water, is
C (a) Tricalcium aluminate
(b) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
T
(c) Tricalcium silicate
E (d) Dicalcium silicate.
72. If p is the standard consistency of cement, the amount of water used in conducting the
initial setting time test on cement is
(a) 0.65 p
(b) 0.85 p
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A
(c) 0.6 p
I
(d) 0.8 p
C
73. The pitch of stair should not exceed
T (a) 20 degree
(b) 25 degree
E (c) 30 degree
(d) 40 degree
74. The shrinkage of concrete takes place due to change in

(a) length
(b) cross-sectional area
(c) volume
(d) surface area
A
75. Light weight concrete is used for
I (a) reducing thickness of the structure
C (b) heat resistance
(c) air conditioned building
T (d) non load bearing walls
E 76. The members which support the covering material of a sloping roof are known as
(a) purlins
(b) purlin cleats
(c) patterns
(d) rafters
A 77. If the coefficient of active earth pressure is 1/3, then coefficient of passive earth
pressure will be
I
(a) 1/3
C (b) 2/3
(c) 3
T (d) 0
E 78. A cantilever sheet pile derives its stability from
(a) lateral resistance of soil
(b) self-weight
(c) the deadman
(d) the anchor rod
A 79. The liquid limit of saturated normally consolidated soil is 50%. The compression
I index of the soil for virgin compression curve will be
(a) 0.36
C (b) 0.505
(c) 0.605
T (d) 0.705
E 80. A soil mass has coefficients of horizontal and vertical permeability as 9 x 10-7 cm/sec
and 4 x 10-7 cm/sec, respectively. The transformed coefficient of permeability of an
equivalent isotropic soil mass is
(a) 9 x 10-7 cm/sec
(b) 4 x 10-7 cm/sec
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A
(c) 6 x 10-7 cm/sec
I
(d) 13 x 10-7 cm/sec
C
81. The ratio of undrained compressive strength of an undisturbed sample of soil to that
T of a remoulded sample, at the same water content, is known as
(a) activity
E (b) damping
(c) sensitivity
(d) plasticity
82. Two parallel plates, one moving at 4m/s and the other one fixed, are separated by a
5mm thick layer of oil having specific gravity 0.8 and kinematic viscosity 1.25*10-4
m2 /s. What is the shear stress in the oil?
(a) 80 Pa
A
(b) 100Pa
I (c) 125 Pa
(d) 135 Pa
C
83. If u and v are the components of velocity in the x and y direction of a flow given by
T u=ax+by and v=cx+dy, then the flow condition to be satisfied is
E (a) a+c=0
(b) b+d=0
(c) a+b+c=0
(d) a+d=0
84. The hydraulic function of converging cone of venturimeter is

A (a) To obtain accelerated flow
(b) To obtain high velocity
I (c) To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
C
T 85. In a rectangular channel the depth of the flow is 1.6m and the specific energy at that
section is 2.8m. The flow is
E (a) Sub-critical
(b) Super critical
(c) Critical
(d) Not possible
A 86. In a wide rectangular channel if the normal depth is increased by 20%, then what is
the approx. increasing discharge
I (a) 25%
(b) 30%
C (c) 35%
(d) 40%
T
E 87. The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700mm, 1000mm,
900mm and 800mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at 3 stations A, B and C
are 100mm, 90mm and 80mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X
will be
(a) 70mm
(b) 80mm
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A
(c) 90mm
I
(d) 105mm
C
88. The maximum rainfall depth of 300mm in 24 hours has a return period of 100 years.
T The probability of 24 hours rainfall equal to or greater than 300mm occurring at least
once in 10 years is given by
E (a) (0.99)10
(b) 1-(0.99)10
(c) (0.9)100
(d) 1-(0.99)100
89. A 6 hours storm had 4cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 2cm. If the Φ-index
remains at the same value, the runoff due to 10cm of rainfall in 12 hours in the
catchment is
A
(a) 4.5cm
I (b) 6.0cm
(c) 7.5cm
C (d) 9.0cm
T 90. For a catchment with an area of 360km2, the equilibrium discharge of the S-curve
obtained by summation of 4-h unit hydrograph is
E (a) 250m3/s
(b) 90m3/s
(c) 278m3/s
(d) 360m3/s
91. If a 4-h unit hydrograph of a certain basin has a peak ordinate of 80m3/s, the peak
A ordinate of a 2-h unit hydrograph for the same basin will be
I (a) Equal to 80m3/s
(b) Greater than 80m3/s
C (c) Less than 80m3/s
(d) Between 40m3/s to 80m3/s
T
92. As per IS 456: 2000 for the limit State design of a flexural member, the strain in
E reinforcing bars under tension at ultimate state should not be less than
fy
(a)
Es
fy
(b) + 0.002
A Es
fy
I (c)
1.15E s
C (d) fy
T 1.15E s + 0.002
E
93. The main reinforcement of a RC slab consists of 10 mm bars at 10 cm spacing. If it is
desired to replace 10 mm bars by 12 mm, then the spacing of 12 mm bars are
(a) 12 cm
(b) 14 cm
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A
(c) 14.40 cm
I
(d) 16 cm
C
94. The purpose of provision of lateral ties in columns is
T (a) increase the load carrying capacity of the column
E (b) facilitate construction
(c) facilitate compaction of concrete
(d) avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
95. A simply supported beam of 8m span is loaded by a udl. and has maximum deflection
of 16mm.If the span is halved and the loading is doubled, the maximum deflection
will be
(a) 2mm
A (b) 4mm
I (c) 8mm
(d) 16mm
C
96. A simply supported beam of span L and flexural rigidity EI carries a unit point load at
T its centre. The strain energy in the beam due to bending is
(a) L3/48EI
E
(b) L3/192EI
(c) L3/96EI
(d) L3/16EI
97. A propped cantilever beam of span L is subjected to a concentrated load P at its mid-
A span. The reaction at the prop is
(a) 5P/16
I (b) 7P/16
(c) 9P/16
C (d) 3P/16
T
98. If the fore bearing of a line AB is 35 ̊ and that of line BC 15 ̊, then the included angle
E between the lines is
(a) 20 ̊
(b) 50 ̊
(c) 160 ̊
(d) 230 ̊
A
99. The permissible error in chaining for measurement with chain on rough or hilly
I ground is
(a) 1 in 100
C (b) 1 in 250
(c) 1 in 500
T (d) 1 in 1000
E
100. If the R. L. of a B. M. is 100 m, the back-sight is 1.215 m and the fore sight is 1.870
m, the R.L. of the forward station is
(a) 99.345 m
(b) 100.345 m
(c) 100.655 m
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A
(d) 101.870 m
I
C
PART –C
T Engineering Mathematics (30 Marks)
E
(a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
(c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
A 102. ThecharacteristicequationofamatrixAisλ3−4λ2+5λ=0,thenAwillbea
I (b) Identitymatrix
C (c) Singularmatrix
T
E (a) Nullmatrix
(b) Diagonalmatrix
A 104. If u  tan 1 y / x then xux  yu y is equal to

(a) u
I (b) 1
(c) -1
C
(d) 0
T
E [−3, 1] are
(a) −7 and −8
(b) 81 and −8
(c) 0 and −2
(d) 73 and −8
A 2
I
C (b) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 4
T (d) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
E
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) None ofthese.
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A
I
𝐵
T (a) 𝑃 ≥0
𝐴
E 𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
(c) 𝑃 =1
𝐴

A probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3or7is
13
(a)
I 30
17
C (b) 30
19
T (c) 30
E
1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
(a) Hermitianmatrix
(b) Unitorymatrix
A (c) Skew-Hermitianmatrix
(d) None ofthese.
I
C (a) λ = 2 and µ =4
(b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
T
E (d) None ofthese.
112. Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of the
(a) 62
(b) 44
A (c) 8
I (d) None ofthe above.
C 

T
(a) grad | A |  0

E
(b) curl A  0

(c) div A  0
Page 16 of 18
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A
I 𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
C (a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
T (b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
(c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
1 1 𝑛−1
115. 0
(a) ⎾(n − 1)
(b) ⎾(n)
n−1
A (c) ⎾ 2
n+1
I (d) ⎾ 2
C 116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is

(a) Hyperbolic
T (b) Elliptic
E (c) Parabolic
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
A
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
I (b) 𝑥 +𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
C (c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
T 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
E
2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
A (a) 0
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
I
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
T 119. Tofitthestraightliney=mx+ctonobservations,thenormalequationsare
E (a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
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A
I
C (a) m2
(b) 𝑚
T (c) 𝑚
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG1CE V12
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Civil and ENVIRONMENTL ENGG
Paper: 1
1.a 21.c 41.b 61.a 81. c 101. a

2.b 22.c 42.c 62.a 82.a 102. c
3.a 23.a 43.d 63.d 83.d 103. a
4.a 24.b 44.b 64.d 84.a 104. d
5.b 25.d 45.a 65.c 85.b 105. d
6.b 26.b 46.a 66.d 86.c 106. d
7.d 27.b 47.c 67.b 87.a 107. a
8.d 28.c 48.a 68.c 88.b 108. a
9.d 29.a 49.c 69.b 89.b 109. a
10.b 30.c 50.b 70.d 90.a 110. b
11.b 31.a 51.d 71.a 91.b 111. c
12.c 32.a 52.a 72.b 92.d 112. d
13.d 33.d 53.d 73.d 93.c 113. b
14.d 34.d 54.c 74.c 94.d 114. a
15.d 35.d 55.d 75.d 95.a 115. b
16.d 36.d 56.d 76.d 96.c 116. b
17.a 37.b 57.c 77.c 97.a 117. d
18.a 38.a 58.b 78.a 98.c 118. a
19.d 39.b 59.d 79.a 99.b 119. d
20.d 40.b 60.a 80.c 100.a 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
A
CIVIL AND ENVIORNMENTAL ENGINEERING
I
C
E
PAPER-II
Instructions:
A
I
questions.
C
T
E
A
I specified.
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 17
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I 1. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

C (a) Taj Mahal is affected by hydrocarbon.
(b) Building are adversely affected by acid rain.
T (c) Due to acid rain, microorganisms are affected.
(d) Large amount of acid rain decreases soil fertility.
E
2. Which one of the following sequence represents increasing order of toxicity of
metals?
(a) Ca. Zn, Cd, Mn
(b) Ca, Mn, Zn, Cd
(c) Zn, Mn, Cd, Ca
(d) Mn, Cd, Zn, Ca
A
3. Which of the following pollutant cannot be degraded by natural process?
I (a) DDT
(b) Nuclear waste
C
(c) Heavy metals
E 4. The prescribed upper limit concentration of lead in drinking water is about

(a) 30 ppb
(b) 70 ppb
(c) 50 ppb
(d) 60 ppb
5. What is the range of pH of acid rain?

(a) More than 5.6
A
(b) In between 5.6 to 6.6
I (c) Less than 5.6
(d) In between 6.00 to 6.66
C
6. Classical Smog Occurs in
T (a) Warm humid climate
E (b) Natural humid climate
(c) Cool humid climate
7. Which of the following metal will pollute water?

(a) Cd
(b) Na
(c) K
I 8. Which of the following techniques is/are used to control water pollution?
(a) Adsorption process
C (b) Ion exchange process
(c) Reverse Osmosis
T
E
Page 2 of 17
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A
9. The lowest region that extends up to the height of 10 to 15 km from sea level is
I called?
(a) Troposphere
C (b) Stratosphere
(c) Smoke
T (d) None of the above.
E
10. Which of the following is responsible for photochemical Smog?
(a) SOx
(b) NOx
(c) COx
11. When the reduced level of the water source is higher than the reduced level of the
A consumer's place, water is generally supplied
I (a) By pumping system
(b) By gravitational system
C (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All the above
T
12. Normal values of overflow rate for plain sedimentation tank, is
E (a) 250 to 500 litres/hr/m2
(b) 500 to 750 litres/hr/m2
(c) 750 to 1000 litres/hr/m2
(d) 1000 to 1250 litres/hr/m2
13. The bacterias which require free oxygen for their survival, are called
(a) Aerobic bacterias
A (b) Anaerobic bacterias
(c) Facultative bacteria
C
14. Turbidity of raw water is a measure of
T (a) Suspended solids
(b) Acidity of water
E (c) B.O.D.
15. The process of passing water through beds of granular materials, is called
(a) Screening
(b) Sedimentation
(c) Filtration
I 16. Water is distributed to consumers by gravitational system, in

(a) Dehradun
C (b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
T
E
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A
17. Estimates of a water supply project depends upon the rate of water supply per
I capita consumption and probable population estimated at the end of the design
period of
C (a) 5 to 10 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
T (c) 15 to 20 years
E (d) 20 to 30 years
18. Corrosion of a pipe

(a) Reduces its life span
(b) Reduces its carrying capacity
(c) Adds colour to water
A 19. Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove
I (a) Odour
(b) Bacterias
C (c) Turbidity
(d) Colour
T
20. Detention time for plain sedimentation tank usually ranges from
E (a) 2 to 4 hours
(b) 4 to 8 hours
(c) 6 to 10 hours
(d) 8 to 12 hours
21. For treating the sewage of a large city, you will recommend
(a) A sedimentation tank and an activated sludge treatment plant
A (b) A plant consisting of Imhoff tanks with low rate trickling filters
(c) Sedimentation tanks with high rate trickling filters
C
22. ¾th or ¼th extra space is left in sewer pipes at maximum discharge for
T (a) Low estimates of the average and maximum flows
(b) Large scale infiltration of storm water
E (c) Unexpected increase in population
23. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) The mixture of water and waste products, is called sewage
(b) The treated sewage effluents, are generally used for irrigating the crops
(c) The process of collecting, treating and disposing off the sewage, is called
A sewerage
(d) The old convergence system was definitely better than water carried sewerage
I system
C
T
E
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24. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A
(a) The maximum rate of storm runoff is called peak drainage discharge
I (b) Rational method of estimating peak run off, may be used precisely for areas
less than 50 hectares
C (c) The period after which the entire area starts contributing to the runoff, is
called the time of concentration
T (d) All the above
E
25. The sewage treatment units in which anaerobic decomposition of organic matter
is used, are called
(a) Imhoff tanks
(b) Trickling filters
(c) Sludge sedimentation tanks
A 26. If the diameter of a sewer is 150 mm, the gradient required for generating self-
I cleansing velocity, is
(a) 1 in 60
C (b) 1 in 100
(c) 1 in 120
E 27. The sewage discharge in a detritus tank of a treatment plant is 576 litres/sec with
flow velocity of 0.2 m/sec. If the ratio of width to depth is 2, the depth is
(a) 100 cm
(b) 110 cm
(c) 120 cm
(d) 150 cm
A 28. The ratio of design discharge to the surface area of a sedimentation tank is called
(a) Surface loading
I (b) Overflow rate
(c) Overflow velocity
C
T
29. If the grit in grit chambers is 4.5 million litres per day, its cleaning is done
E (a) Manually
(b) Mechanically
(c) Hydraulically
(d) Electrically
30. The width of a settling tank with 2 hour detention period for treating sewage 378
cu m per hour, is
A (a) 5 m
(b) 5.5 m
I (c) 6.5 m
(d) 7 m
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
31. Beer Lambert’s law gives the relation between which of the following?
A
(a) Reflected radiation and concentration
I (b) Scattered radiation and concentration
(c) Energy absorption and concentration
C (d) Energy absorption and reflected radiation
T 32. The mean and variance of a binomial distribution is 4 & 3 respectively, Then the
E value of mode is
(a) 3
(b) 4.25
(c) 4
(d) 5
33. The standard Normal Distribution is
(a) Binomial and Asymmetric
A (b) Uniform in (-1,1)
(c) Discontinuous in (-1,1)
I (d) Symmetric about the mean
C 34. The standard form of the Normal Distribution is given by
1
T (a) Y = 2𝜋 𝑒 −𝑧2/2𝜎2
1
E (b) Y = 𝑒 −(𝑥−𝜇 )2/2𝜎2
𝜎 2𝜋
(c) σ = 𝑁𝑝𝑞
(d) σ = 2 𝑁𝑝𝑞
35. Which of the following is commonly used as the mobile phase in GC-MS?
(a) CH3CN
(b) H2O
A (c) Air
(d) He
I
36. Lead levels in drinking water could be determined by using
C (a) GC-MS
(b) AAS
T
(c) CZE
E (d) HPLC
37. Photographic plates are coated with which of the following?

(a) Lead
(b) Quartz
(c) Silver bromide
(d) Mercuric sulphate
A 38. Electrostatic Precipitator Removes
I (a) Carbon Dioxide
(b) Particulate matter
C (c) Hydro Carbon
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
39. In which of the following methods are liquid samples injected into the column in
A
gas chromatography?
I (a) Gas tight syringe
(b) Micro-syringe
C (c) Rotary sample valve
(d) Solid injection syringes
T
E 40. Which of the following analyzers are used to measure trace amounts of nitrogen
oxides in the stratosphere?
(a) Chemiluminescence
(b) CO laser method
(c) Laser opto-acoustic spectroscopy
(d) Colorimetry
41. Which one of the following method of solid waste management conserves energy
A most efficiently in form of gas or oil?
I (a) Incineration with heat recover
(b) combusting
C (c) Pyrolysis
(d) Fluidized bed incineration
T
42. Dioxin is released during which one of the following processes?
E (a) Composting
(b) Incineration
(c) Sanitary land filling
(d) bio fertilization
43. Which one the following statement explain the term pyrolysis?
(a) solid waste is heated in closed container in oxygen free atmosphere
(b) solid waste is incinerated in presence of oxygen.
A (c) Waste water is treated with oxygen.
(d) Dissolved solid from water are removed by glass distillation.
I
C 44. The daily cover of MSW landfill consist of which one of the following?
(a) Compacted Soil
T (b) geomembrane
(c) geotextile
E (d) geocomposite
45. The number of functional elements of solid waste management are

(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 4
A
46. Elutriation is the process of
I (a) sludge digestion
(b) sludge disposal
C
(c) filtration
T (d) washing digested sludge
E
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47. Composting and lagooning are the method of

A
(a) sludge digestion
I (b) sludge disposal
(c) sedimentation
C (d) Filtration
T 48. The typical density in kg/cum (in situ) of well compacted municipal solid waste
in landfill is in the range of
E (a) 100 to 300
(b) 310 to 500
(c) 550 to 850
(d) 900 to 1100
49. Bangalore method and Indore method of disposing solid waste are
(a) Identical
A (b) Different as Bangalore method is an anaerobic method
(c) Different as Bangalore method does not contain human excreta
I (d) Different as indore method is an incineration method
C 50. Allowable disposable rate of application of sludge on land is determined by
(a) Carbon content of sludge
T
(b) Nitrogen content of sludge
E (c) Phosphorus content of sludge
(d) Potassium content of sludge
51. What is the major pollutant present in photochemical smog?

(a) PAN
(b) SO2
(c) NO2
(d) HC
A
52. Which type of plume may occur during winter nights?
I (a) Looping
(b) Inversion
C
(c) Coning
T (d) lofting
E 53. Match list 1 (equipment) with list 2 (pollutant removed) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the list
List 1 List 2
1.electrostatic precipitator A. coarse particles
2. cyclones B. fine dust
3. wet scrubbers C. gas
4. adsorbers D. sulphur dioxide
A Codes
A B C D
I (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
C (c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 4 3
T
E
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
54. Aerosol is
A
(a) Carbon particles of microscopic size
I (b) Finely divided particles of ash
(c) Diffused liquid particles
C (d) Dispersion of small solid or liquid particles in gaseous media
T 55. Which one the following pollutant orcparis of pollutant is formed due to
E photochemical reaction?
(a) CO alone
(b) O3 and PAN
(c) PAN and NH3
(d) NH3 and CO
56. Which one of the following plume behaviour occurs when atmospheric inversion
begins from the ground?
A (a) Looping
I (b) Fumigating
(c) Coning
C (d) fanning
T 57. In the context of basic concept of an ecological system the most appropriate
definition of ecology is that it is a study of the
E (a) inter relationship between organism and the environment
(b) relationship of human species with the industry
(c) relationship of human species with natural resource
(d) relationship of human species with air
58. Organism that mineralise organic matter in an ecosystem are called

(a) producers
A (b) consumers
(c) decomposers
I (d) carnivores
C
59. Which one of the procedure is used for sampling of the flue gas in a chimney for
T SPM?
(a) isothermal sampling
E (b) isokinetic sampling
(c) adiabatic sampling
(d) variable rate of sampling
60. Which type of light energy is effectively absorbed by Co2in the lower boundary
of the troposphere
(a) X- rays
A (b) UV – rays
(c) Visible rays
I (d) Infra – red rays
C
T
61. Which one of the following is the correct sound intensity expression with usual
E
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
notations?
A
(a) dB = 10 log10 (I/I0 )2
I (b) dB = 10 log10 (I-I0 )2
(c) dB = 10 log10 (I/I0)
C (d) dB = 10 log10 (I-I0)
T 62. What will be the resultant decibel level when two sources make noise of equal
E decibels?
(a) Decibel level will be same
(b) Decibel level will increase by 3 decibels
(c) Decibel level will decrease by 3 decibels
(d) Decibel level will be equal to the sum of decibels of the two sources
63. The reference pressure used in the determination of sound pressure level is
(a) 20µPa
A (b) 20 dB
I (c) 10 dB
(d) 2.0 µPa
C
64. What type of noise can be abated by providing lining on walls and ceiling with
T sound absorbing materials?
(a) Source noise
E (b) Reflection noise
(c) Structural noise
(d) Direct air borne noise
65. Acoustic of an auditorium is considered to be excellent when its reverberation

time is between
(a) 0.50 and 1.50 s
A (b) 1.50 and 2.00 s
(c) 2.00 to 3.00s
I (d) 3.00 to 5.00 s
C
66. A machine in a steel plate fabricating industry is found to be producing a sound
T level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one more such machine needs to be added.
What will be the combined noise level?
E (a) 80 -100 dB
(b) 101 – 150 dB
(c) 51 – 70 dB
(d) 40 – 50 dB
67. Consider the following statements

1.Noise pollution can be reduced using double glass window panes.
A 2. Glass absorbs the noise.
3. The air trapped in the double glass system acts as an insulator and reduces the
I noise.
4. The noise totally reflects back due to the two layers of glass.
C
T
Which of these statement iscorrect?
E
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
(a) 1,2,3,4
A
(b) 1,2,3
I (c) 1,3
(d) 2,4
C
68. What is called for a temporary hearing loss?
T (a) Temporary ear pain
E (b) Temporary hearing problem
(c) Temporary threshold shift
(d) Temporary hearing shift
69. Which of the following sound is pleasant to our ears?

(a) Heavy machinery
(b) Transportation equipment
(c) Loud noise
A (d) Music
I
70. Which is the best way to control noise pollution among the four fundamental
C ways?
(a) Reduce noise at the source
T (b) Block the path of noise
(c) Increase the path length
E (d) Protect the recipient
71. What is the colour of the wastewater after 6 hours of a generation?

(a) Grey
(b) Light brown
(c) Dark brown
(d) Dark grey
A
72. What is the maximum pH that the bacteria can sustain in terms of alkalinity?
I (a) 7
(b) 7.5
C
(c) 8
T (d) 8.5
E 73. Which of the following is not a volatile organic compound?

(a) Hydrochloric Acid
(b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Dichloromethane
74. Organic matter, which can be decomposed by bacteria is known as

A (a) Biodegradable organic matter
(b) Degradation
I (c) Eutrophication
(d) Decomposers
C
T
E
Page 11 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
75. What is the minimum required temperature to categorize as volatile solids?

A
(a) 500˚C
I (b) 600˚C
(c) 700˚C
C (d) 800˚C
T 76. How do you remove the leachate from the landfill?
E (a) By gravity
(b) By pumping from low point
77. What is the most expensive component of solid waste handling?

(a) Collection
(b) Storage
A (c) Treatment
(d) Separation
I
78. What is the process flow in an integrated solid waste management system?
C (a) Generation-Source separation- facility separation-collection- Transfer and
T Transport-Landfill
(b) Generation-Source separation-collection- Transfer and transport –facility
E Separation-Landfill
(c) Generation-Source separation-collection-facility Separation-Transfer and
Transport-Landfill
(d) Generation-Source separation-collection- Landfill -facility Separation-
Transfer and transport
79. Which of the following statement regarding recycling is wrong?
(a) Saves precious resources
A (b) Require stable market
(c) Improves efficiency of treatment processes
I (d) Increases the needs for mining virgin materials
C
80. The three primary soil macronutrients are
T (a) carbon, oxygen, and water.
(b) copper, cadmium, and carbon.
E (c) potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen.
(d) boron, zinc, and manganese.
A
681. Carbon dioxide absorbs radiation in the range of
I (a) 5.5 and 7 microns
(b) Greater than 27 microns
C (c) 8 to 13 microns
(d) 0.1 to 30 microns
T
E
Page 12 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
682. Maximum Density of water is at

A
(a) 4°C
I (b) 0°C
(c) 100°C
C (d) 272°C
T 683. Acid rain is caused by
E (a) CO and CO2
(b) SO2 and O2
(c) SO2 and NO2
(d) NO2 and O2
684. The term ‘exothermic’ refers to a chemical reaction

(a) In which heat is absorbed
(b) In which heat is given out
A (c) That proceeds very rapidly
I (d) That requires high temperatures to begin the reaction
C 685. What will be the outcome of Eutrophication of surface waters?

(a) Overproduction of biomass
T (b) Decrease in nitrogen concentration
(c) Decrease in phosphorus concentration
E (d) Decrease in both nitrogen and phosphorus concentrations
686. Which of the following chemist associate with Greenhouse Gas effect?
(a) Jean fowier
(b) Chamberlin
(c) Swante Arrhenius
(d) Both (c) and (b)
A
687. Which of the following disease increase due to Greenhouse Gases effect?
I (a) Malaria
(b) Dengue
C
(c) Yellow fever
T (d) All of the above.
E 688. Which order for greenhouse gases is truly based on GWP?

(a) CFC > N2O > CO2> CH4
(b) CFC > CO2> N2O > CH4
(c) CFC > N2O > CH4> CO2
(d) CFC > CH4> N2O > CO2
689. Which of the following ion is encouraging for the formation of algae in water?
A (a) SO42-
(b) PO43-
I (c) ASO43-
(d) CO32-
C
T
690. The use of microorganism metabolism to remove pollutants such as oil spills in
E
Page 13 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
the water bodies is known as:

A
(a) Biomagnifications
I (b) Bioremediation
(c) Biomethanation
C (d) Bioreduction
T 691. Shallow pond in which dissolved oxygen is present at all depth are called
E (a) Aerobic lagoon
(b) Anaerobic lagon
(c) Facultative pond
(d) Polishing pond
692. Deep pond in which oxygen is absent except perhaps across a relatively thin
surface layer are called
(a) Aerobic pond
A (b) Anaerobic pond
I (c) Facultative pond
(d) Polishing pond
C
693. What is the colour of septic wastewater?
T (a) Grey
(b) Black
E (c) Light brown
(d) Dark brown
694. What is true about Aerobic bacteria?

(a) Flourish in the presence of free oxygen
(b) Consume organic matter as their food
(c) Oxidise organic matter in sewage
A (d) All of the above
I 695. The term Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) is generally used to describe:
(a) Wastes from industrial processes, construction and demolition debris.
C
(b) Wastes from Private homes, commercial establishments and institutions.
T (c) Mining wastes
(d) Agricultural wastes
E
696. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Coriolis method – the effect of earth’s rotation on wind direction and velocity
(b) PAN - found during photochemical smog
(c) Cyclone – employed for particulate matter removal
(d) Wind rose – employed in forecast o pollutant dispersion in ambient air
A 697. Pneumoconiosis is caused due to inhalation of which one of the following?

(a) Silica
I (b) NOx
(c) Lead
C (d) cadmium
T
698. Electrostatic precipitator is most useful for which one of the following industries?
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
(a) Tannery
A
(b) Textile factory
I (c) Thermal power generation
(d) Hydroelectric power generation
C
699. During temperature inversion in atmosphere air pollutant tend to
T (a) Accumulate above inversion layer
(b) Accumulate below inversion layer
E
(c) Disperse laterally
(d) Disperse vertically
6100. The dispersion of pollutant in atmosphere is maximum when

(a) Environmental lapse rate is greater than adiabatic lapse rate
(b) Environmental lapse rate is less than adiabatic lapse rate
(c) Environmental lapse rate is equal than adiabatic lapse rate
A (d) Maximum mixing depth is equal to zero
I 6101. Which one of the following toxic gases has physiological action as asphyxiant?
(a) SO2
C (b) NO2
(c) Cl2
T
(d) CO
E
6102. What are the air pollutant responsible for acid rain within downwind areas of
major industrial emissions?
(a) Hydrogen sulphide and oxides of nitrogen
(b) Sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide
(d) Methane and hydrogen sulphide
A 6103. Consider the air pollutant

1. NOX2.CO 3. PAN 4. CO2
I Which of the above air pollutant is /are present in an auto exhaust gas?
(a) 1 only
C (b) 1 and 2
T (c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,3 ,4
E
6104. Which one of the following condition of automobile gives maximum unburned
hydrocarbon?
(a) Idling
(b) Cruise
(c) Acceleration
(d) deceleration
A 6105. The value of ionic product of Water is
(a) 1X 10-23
I (b) 1X 10-14
C (c) 1X 10-22
(d) 6.023X 10-23
T
6106. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because
E
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
animals dependent on_______________

A
(a) Noise
I (b) Sound
(c) Actions
C (d) Behavior
T 6107. What is the main source of vehicular noise?
E (a) High speed
(b) Movement of the vehicle’s tyres on the pavement
(c) Low pressure
(d) Fuel engine
6108. What is the best way to reduce aircraft noise?

(a) By using shield around aircraft
(b) By using quieter jet engines
A (c) By using heavy propellants
I (d) By using white paint
C 6109. When did the Noise Pollution Regulations and Control Rule established in India?
(a) 2000
T (b) 2004
(c) 2005
E (d) 2007
6110. What timings loud speakers shouldn’t use in public areas?

(a) 10:00 pm to 5:00 am
(b) 1:00 am to 7:00 am
(c) 11:00 pm to 6:00 am
(d) 10:00 pm to 6:00 am
A
6111. Which of the following is not correct with respect to the effect of oil on treatment
I systems?
(a) Foam formation
C
(b) Toxic to anaerobic bacteria
T (c) Interferes with settling
(d) Explosive with pure oxygen
E
6112. Which of the following is not correct with respect to the effects of acids on
treatment systems?
(a) Destroy microbes
(b) Upset anaerobic digester
(c) Corrode structures
(d) Interferes with settling
A
6113. Which of the following is used in the production of Plastic?
I (a) Mercury
(b) Lead
C (c) Vinyl Chloride
(d) None of these
T
6114. What is the minimum excess amount of chlorine required to corrode equipment?
E
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
(a) 30mg/L
A
(b) 40mg/L
I (c) 50mg/L
(d) 60mg/L
C
6115. In some regions, the combination of acid rain and smog causes damage to forests
T that is worse than the impact of either acid rain or smog on its own.
This is an example of:
E (a) Specificity
(b) Acute toxicity
(c) Chronic toxicity
(d) Synergistic action
6116. Metals are produced as waste in industries like…..
(a) Skiing
A (b) Mining
(c) Electroplating
I (d) Digging
C 6117. Critical point for water in a P - T diagram Suggests:

(a) Water is unstable
T (b) Steam is the only stable phase
(c) Both ice and steam are stable phases
E (d) Steam, liquid water and ice are stable phases
6118. Ozone toxicity to plants is generally due to the involvement of which unsaturated
hydrocarbons
(a) Unsaturated fatty acid
(b) Methylene
(c) Ethylene
A (d)None of the above
6119. Problem of solid waste disposal can be reduced through…….
I
(a) Recycling
C (b) Lesser pollution
(c) More timber
T (d) Population control
E 6120. Examine the two statement and select correct answer
Assertion (A) – air pollutant concentration and time of retention increase due to
inversion
Reason(B) – during winter the heavy cold layer in the atmosphere retains the hot
toxic pollutant for a longer period in atmosphere
Codes
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
A (b) both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
I (d) A is false but R is true
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
UG2CE V12
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Civil and ENVIRONMENTL ENGG
Paper: 2
1.a 21.a 41.d 61.b 81.a 101.d

2.b 22.d 42.b 62.b 82.a 102.b
3.d 23.d 43.a 63.a 83.c 103.d
4.c 24.d 44.a 64.b 84.b 104.a
5.c 25.b 45.b 65.a 85.d 105.b
6.c 26.b 46.c 66.c 86.d 106.b
7.a 27.c 47.c 67.c 87.d 107.b
8.d 28.d 48.d 68.c 88.c 108.b
9.a 29.a 49.b 69.d 89.b 109.a
10.b 30.d 50.b 70.a 90.b 110.d
11.b 31.c 51.c 71.b 91,b 111.a
12.b 32.b 52.d 72.d 92.a 112.d
13.a 33.d 53.b 73.a 93.b 113.c
14.a 34.a 54.d 74.a 94.d 114.b
15.c 35.d 55.b 75.b 95.b 115.d
16.d 36.b 56.d 76.c 96.a 116.c
17.d 37.c 57.a 77.a 97.a 117.d
18.d 38.b 58.c 78.c 98.c 118.b
19.b 39.b 59.b 79.d 99.b 119.a
20.b 40.c 60.d 80.c 100.a 120.b
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A
INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING/INSTRUMENTATION
I
& CONTROL ENGINEERING/
C
T
E
PAPER-I
A
I Instructions:
C i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C,
T total 120 questions.
E ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q 1 to Q 70 of 1 (one) mark each.

I
C
T
E
specified.

A x. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on
C
T
E
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A
I
C 1. Which of the following is NOT TRUE for a reciprocal two-port network?
(a) y12 = y21
T (b) z12 = z21
(c) h12 = h21
E (d) AD-BC =1
2. Which of the following is TRUE for a Symmetric Non-Reciprocal two-port network?

(a) y12 =y21
(b) z12 = z21
(c) h11 h22 -h12 h21 = 0
(d) A=D
A
3. Two two-port networks with resistances given in Ohms is shown below. These two
I networks are connected in parallel. The value ofy21 of the resulting two-port network
is:
C
T
E
2’
(a) -1.5 S
(b) 1.5 S
A (c) 0.5 S
(d) 1S
I
4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to the Incidence
C
Matrix of a Network containing n nodes and b branches?
T (a) The Incidence Matrix has b columns.
(b) The rank of Incidence Matrix is n.
E (c) Incidence Matrix contains only 0, 1 and -1 as entries.
(d) The Incidence Matrix can be a square matrix, but need not be a square matrix
always.
5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to tree of graph

containing n nodes and b branches?
(a) There-are no loops in a tree
A (b) Number of branches in the tree is (n-l)
(c) A graph can have more than one tree
I (d) A sub-graph that contains (n-l) nodes of an n-node graph can be a tree for that
graph.
C
T
E
Page 2 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A
I 6. The Wheatstone bridge is used for the measurement of
(a) 1Ω to a few mega Ohms
C (b) 1kΩ to a few mega Ohms
(c) 1MΩ to a few Giga Ohms
T (d) 1mΩ to a few ohms
E 7. The source of error in a Wheatstone bridge is due to ------------
(a) range of galvanometer used
(b) type of the source of emf used
(c) limiting errors of the three known resistances
(d) balance condition
8. In A.C. circuits, power consumed is--------------------.

A (a) product of voltage and current
(b) it depends on the power factor of the circuit in addition to voltage and current
I (c) it depends on the supply voltage
(d) it depends on the magnitude of the circuit current
C
9. In A.C. circuits, power is measured using
T (a) voltmeter
E (b) ammeter
(c) ohmmeter
(d) wattmeter
10. In a capacitance bridge, the arms are ---------------------

(a) resistive
(b) capacitive
(c) inductive
A (d) mixture of resistance and capacitance
I 11. What is a current transformer?
C (a) transformer used with an AC ammeter
(b) transformer used with an DC ammeter
T (c) transformer used with an AC voltmeter
(d) transformer used with an DC voltmeter
E
12. The secondary winding of a current transformer has
(a) a large number of turns
(b) a few turns
(c) no turns at all
(d) intermediate number of turns
A 13. Why is the scale of a megger calibrated in mega Ohms?

(a) to indicate resistance
I (b) to minimize the current flow
(c) to increase the voltage drop
C (d) to reduce the temperature
T
E
Page 3 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A
14. A dynamometer type wattmeter consists of
I (a) only potential coil
(b) potential and current coils
C (c) only current coil
(d) no coils
T
E 15. Induction type instruments are used for
(a) A.C. measurements
(b) D.C. measurements
(c) Resistance measurements
(d) Voltage measurements
16. Moving system of the induction type single phase energy meter has ----------
(a) heavy Aluminum disc
A (b) light Aluminum disc
I (c) medium Aluminum disc
(d) no Aluminum disc
C
17. In an ordinary dynamometer, the deflecting torque is ----------
T (a) small
E (b) medium
(c) large
(d) very large
18. Input impedance of a voltmeter is ---------------

(a) high
(b) low
(c) medium
A (d) zero
I
19. Magnitude of flux in an energy meter varies ---------------
C (a) due to abnormal currents and voltages
(b) due to high resistance and inductance values
T (c) due to change in the transformer turns
(d) due to the induced emf in the windings
E
20. Energy meter creeps ---------------
(a) due to change in supply
(b) due to reversal in polarity of voltage
(c) due to asymmetry in magnetic circuit
(d) due to turns ratio of transformer
A 21. Time domain oscilloscope require

(a) sweep generator
I
(b) amplifier
C (c) rectifier
(d) transducer
T
E
Page 4 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A
22. Which is used for insulation and continuity check
I (a) megger
(b) voltmeter
C (c) ammeter
(d) wattmeter
T
E 23. Which of the following bridge is used for frequency measurement?
(a) Wheatstone's bridge
(b) Schering bridge
(c) Maxwell's bridge
(d) Wien's bridge
24. Q factor is called ---------------

(a) Quality factor
A (b) Quantity factor
I (c) Queen factor
(d) Quarter factor
C
25. Oscilloscope is ---------------
T (a) an ohmmeter
(b) an ammeter
E (c) a voltmeter
(d) a multimeter
26. The electric field intensity inside a conducting sphere is
(a) Zero
(b) Maximum
(c) uniform
(d) minimum
A
27. If in a previously charged parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric slab is introduced
I between the plates, the potential difference between the plates will
(a) Decrease
C (b) remain the same
T (c) increase
(d) become zero
E
28. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance Co, the electric field is E. If a dielectric
slab with relative permittivity =7 is introduced between the capacitor plates to fill the
region completely, the electric field between the plates will become
(a) 7E
(b) E/7
(c) E/3.5
(d) E
A
29. Two conductors are lying parallel and close to each other. They are carrying current
I in opposite direction. The force between them is
(a) repulsive
C (b) attractive
T (c) zero as currents are opposite
E
Page 5 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A 30. Magnetic susceptibility of a medium is defined as the ratio of

(a) intensity of magnetisationto magnetic flux
I (b) magnetic field strength tommf
C (c) intensity of magnetization to field strength
T
31. The relative permeability 𝜇𝑟 is given by
E (a) B/ μ0 H
(b) B/H
(c) μ0 / 𝜇
(d) μ0 H
32. The current passing through a ring shaped air cored coil when number of turns is 900
and ampere turns are 2700 is
(a) 3
A (b) 0.33
I (c) 9
(d) 6
C
33. The force acting on a charge 'q' moving with a velocity 'v' in a region of electric
T field'E' and magnetic field 'B' is
(a) qE
E (b) qB
(c) q(B+vxE)
(d) q(E+vxB)
34. The coefficient of self-inductance is defined as (φ- flux, N-number of turns, I-current
(a) φ/ NI
(b) NI/ φ
A (c) N φ/I
(d) φI/N
I
35. For a lossy transmission line, the characteristic impedance does not depend on
C
(a) the operating frequency of the line
T (b) the load terminating on the line
(c) the conductivity of the conductors
E (d) the conductivity of the dielectric separating the conductors
36. The intrinsic impedance (ratio of electric field to magnetic field) of free space is
(a) 500 Ω
(a) 750 Ω
(b) 50 Ω
(c) 377 Ω
A
37. The dimension of pressure is
I (a) LMT -2
(b) L2MT-2
C (c) L2MT-3
T (d) L-1MT-2
E
Page 6 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A
38. Which one of the following is an active transducer?
I (a) Resistive transducer
(b) Capacitive transducer
C (c) Piezoelectric transducer
(d) Inductive transducer
T
E 39. Select the true statement regarding a LVDT
(a) Has single primary winding and two secondary windings.
(b) The core of LVDT is fixed
(c) The output voltage is sum of secondary voltages
(d) All the above statements are true
40. Dynamic characteristics of a capacitive transducer is similar to that of

(a) Low Pass Filter
A
(b) Notch Filter
I (c) All Pass Filter
(d) High Pass Filter
C
41. Elastic type of transducers is commonly used to measure
T (a) Temperature
E (b) Pressure
(c) Resistance
(d) Capacitance
42. The transducer which is best suited for the measurement of strength of magnetic
field.
(a) Photovoltaic transducers
(b) LVDT
A (c) Hall effect transducers
(d) Electro mechanical transducers
I
C 43. Kelvin's bridge is used to measure
(a) Very high resistance
T (b) Very high capacitance
(c) Very low resistance
E (d) Very low capacitance
44. Relative permittivity of a dielectric material can be measure using

(a) Hall effect transducer
(b) Capacitive thickness transducer
(c) Resistive magnetic flux transducer
(d) Schering Bridge
A
45. A piezo electric crystal behaves as a
I (a) Capacitor
(b) Resistor
C
(c) Inductor
T (d) Photo emissive transducer
E
Page 7 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A
46. For an Ideal OP-AMP select the true statement
I
C
T
Vo
E
(a) Current in the input leads are zero

(b) Output voltage is a function of output current
A (c) Voltage gain is a function of frequency
(d) Voltage gain is very Low
I
47. A discrete time sinusoid signal is periodic only if its frequency f (Cycles per sample)
C is a
(a) Complex Number
T
(b) Multiple of π
E (c) Rational number
(d) Multiple of 2
48. If the coefficients of the differential equation describing the system are constants then
the system is
(a) linear
(b) non-linear
(c) linear time invariant
A (d) cannot predict
I
49. The elastic deformation of a mechanical body can be modeled using a
C (a) dash pot
(b) spring
T (c) mass
E
𝑑 2𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑢
50. The transfer function of the system described by 𝑑 2 +𝑑𝑡 = + 2𝑢
𝑑𝑡
(𝑠+2)
(a) (𝑠 2 +𝑠)
(𝑠+1)
(b) (𝑠 2 +𝑠)
2
A (c) (𝑠 2 +𝑠)
I 2𝑠
(d) (𝑠 2 +𝑠)
C
T
E
Page 8 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
51. In Force-Voltage analogy, stiffness of spring (K) is equivalent to

A
(a) inverse of inductance
I (b) capacitance
(c) inductance
C (d) inverse of capacitance
T 52. The unit impulse response of a unit feedback control system is given by
E c(t)= -te-t + 2e-t, (t≥0) the open loop transfer function is
𝑠+1
(a) (𝑠 +2) 2
2𝑠+1
(b) 𝑠2
𝑠+1
(c) (𝑠 +1) 2
A (d)
𝑠+1
𝑠2
I
53. Consider the unit step response of a unity feedback control system whose open
1
C looptransfer function is G(s)= 𝑠(𝑠+1) . The maximum overshoot is equal to
T (a) 0.143
(b) 0.153
E (c) 0.163
(d) 0.173
100
54. The transfer function of a system is given as 𝑠 2 + the system is
20𝑠+ 100
(a) overdamped
(b) underdamped
(c) critically damped
(d) unstable
A
55. The polar plot of an open loop stable system passes through (-1,0). The phase margin
I
of the system is
C (a) 0
(b) 45
T (c) 90
(d) 180
E
56. Lag compensator is similar to
(a) P controller
(b) PI controller
(c) PD controller
(d) PID controller
57. Which one of the following is not the property of root loci?
A (a) The root locus is symmetrical about imaginary axis
(b) They start from the open loop poles and terminate at the open loop zeroes
I
(c) The breakaway points are determined from dK/ds = 0
C (d) Segments of the real axis are the part of the root locus if and only if the total
number of real poles and zeroes to their right is odd.
T
E
Page 9 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A 58. If a Nyquist plot of G (jω) H (jω) for a closed loop system passes through (-2, j0)
point in GH plane, what would be the value of gain margin of the system in dB?
I (a) 0 dB
(b) 2.0201 dB
C (c) 4 Db
(d) 6.0205 dB
T
59. A system has a single pole at the origin. Its impulse response will be:
E (a) Constant
(b) Ramp
(c) Decaying exponential
(d) Oscillatory
𝑠+𝑎
60. The transfer function of a compensator is G(s)=𝑠+𝑏 . It is a lead compensator if
(a) a=l ;b=2
A (b) a=3;b=2
(c) a=-3;b=-1
I (d) a=3;b=1
C
61. The capacitance, in force current analogy, is analogous to
T (a) stiffness of spring
(b) frictional coefficient
E (c) mass
(d) momentum
62. Transfer function is applicable to which of the following?

(a) Linear and time invariant system
(b) Linear and time variant system
(c) Non linear systems
A
I 63. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a tacho-generator?
(a) Acceleration
C (b) Speed
(c) Speed & acceleration
T (d) displacement
E
64. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output
(a) lag at all frequencies
(b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
(c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
(d) none of these
65. A.C servomotor is basically a

A (a) universal motor
(b) single phase induction motor
I
(c) two phase induction motor
C (d) three phase induction motor
T
E
Page 10 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
66. Which of the following represents telemetry?

A
(a) Fetching data from inaccessible point
I (b) Fetching data from accessable point
(c) Communication over telephone
C (d) None of the mentioned
T 67. Which of the following mode of signals cannot be transmitted using telemetry?
E (a) Audio
(b) Visual
(c) Pictures
68. Which of the following error is caused by poor calibration of instrument?

(a) Random error
(b) Gross error
A (c) Systematic error
I (d) Precision error
C 69. In line code transmission, signal is represented by -----------------

(a) Impulses
T (b) Train of pulses
(c) DC signal
E (d) Continuously varying signal
70. PCM stands for ------------------------

(a) Pulse create message
(b) Pulse carry modulation
(c) Pulse code modulation
A
I PART-B (30 X 2= 60 Marks)
C
71. A PMMC instrument can be used as a flux meter by
T (a) using a low resistance shunt
(b) by removing the control spring
E (c) by making control spring of large moment of inertia
(d) by using high resistance shunt
72. The power in an N-phase circuit can be measured by using minimum of

(a) (N-l) Watt meter
(b) N Wattmeter
(c) (N+l) Wattmeter
A (d) 2N wattmeter
I 73. Hysteresis of an instrument means
(a) change in the same reading when input is first increased and then decreased.
C (b) the reliability of the instrument
(c) the repeatability of the reading
T
(d) error due to change in temperature.
E
Page 11 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
74. Moving iron and PMMC instruments can be distinguished from each other by
A
observing the
I (a) the pointer
(b) the terminal size
C (c) scale
(d) scale range
T
E 75. Potential transformers are used to measure large voltages using
(a) high range volt meter
(b) low range volt meter
(c) high range ammeter
(d) low range ammeter
76. From safety point of view, the resistance of the earth electrode should be
A (a) Low
(b) High
I (c) Medium
(d) not depend on the size of electrode
C
77. If one ampere current is allowed to accumulate the charge for 5 seconds, the resultant
T charge equals
E (a) 2 Coulombs
(b) 10 Coulombs
(c) 5A
(d) 5 Coulombs
78. Starting position of an object is represented as x=5.1±0.2m and finishing position as

y=6.9±0.3m. What will be the displacement and error in displacement?
(a) Displacement= 1m; Error= 0.5m
A (b) Displacement= 2m; Error= 0.36m
(c) Displacement=l .8m; Error= 0.36m
I
(d) Displacement= 1.5m; Error= 0.4m
C
79. The minimum distance Dmincan also be given as
T (a) Dmin> = α + β +1
(b) Dmin< = α + β +1
E (c) Dmin> = α + β -1
(d) Dmin< = α + β +1
80. A parallel plate capacitor has 'A' as the area of cross section of the plates and 'd' as the
separation between the plates. The upper plate is held at a potential of Vo and the
lower plate is grounded. The charge distribution on upper plate is
(a) εV0/d
A (b) -εV0/d
(c) εd/V0
I (d) -εd/V0
C
T
E
Page 12 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
81. If the length, number of turns and area of a coil are doubled, the inductance of the coil
A
will be
I (a) Same
(b) double
C (c) quadrupled
(d) one- quarter
T
E 82. An iron cored inductor having inductance 0.46 H is carrying a current of 0.5 A. If the
current is reduced to zero in 0.01 s, the induced emfwill be
(a) 0 V
(b) 28 V
(c) 23 V
(d) 10V
83. A multilayer coil of 2000 turns of fine wire is 20m long and has a thickness of 5 cm
A for the winding. If the coil carries a current of 5mA, the mmf generated is
I (a) 10 A-t
(b) 500 A-t
C (c) 2000 A-t
T
84. The voltage across a resistance is measured ten times. The voltmeter readings are
E 151.2V, 151.7V, 151.3V, 151V, 151.5V, 151.3V, 151.2V, 151.4V, 151.3V and
151.1V.Calculate the probable error of readings assuming the error is
normallydistributed.
(a) 0.235V
(b) 0.135V
(c) 0.2V
(d) 0.3V
A
85. The transfer function of a low pass R-C filter is
I 𝑠𝑅𝐶
(a) 1+𝑠𝑅𝐶
C
1
(b)
T 1+𝑠𝑅𝐶
E 𝑠
(c)
1+𝑠𝑅𝐶
𝑅𝐶
(d) 1+𝑠𝑅𝐶
86. The number of roots on the equation 2s 4 + s 3 + 3s 2 + 7 = 0 that lie in the right half of
s plane is:
A (a) zero
(b) one
I (c) two
(d) three
C
T
E
Page 13 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
87. The addition of open loop zero pulls the root loci towards
A
(a) The left and therefore system becomes more stable
I (b) The right and therefore system becomes unstable
(c) Imaginary axis and therefore system becomes marginally stable
C (d) The left and therefore system becomes unstable
T 88. A lead compensator used for a closed loop controller has the following transfer
𝑠
𝐾 1+
E function 𝑎
. For such a lead compensator
𝑠
1+
𝑏
(a) a<b
(b) b<a
(c) a>Kb
(d) a<Kb
0.5𝑠+1
A 89. D(s) = (0.05𝑠+1) Maximum phase lead of the compensator is
(a) 52 degree at 4rad/sec
I
(b) 55 degree at 10rad/sec
C (c) 55 degree at 12rad/sec
T
90. A signal contains components with frequencies up to 10 kHz, although no useful
E information is contained at frequencies above 6 kHz. What is the minimum frequency
at which the signal should be sampled?
(a) 6 kHz
(b) 12 kHz
(c) 14.4 kHz
(d) 20 kHz
A 91. Tele-transmission is the process of transfer of ------------

(a) Analog signals
I (b) Digital signals
(c) Analog and digital signals
T
92. Calculate the Nyquist rate for sampling when a continuous time signal is given by
E x(t) = 5 Cos 100πt +10 Cos 200πt - 15 Cos 300πt
(a) 300Hz
(b) 600Hz
(c) 150Hz
(d) 200Hz
93. Determine the Bandwidth of a FM wave when the maximum deviation allowed is
A 75KHz and the modulating signal has a frequency of 10KHz.
(a) 170 KHz
I (b) 200 KHz
(c) 100 KHz
C (d) 1000 KHz
T
E
Page 14 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A 94. Telemetry includes data transfer over

(a) Optical fibre link
I (b) Computer link
(c) Wireless link
T 95. Typical conversion speed of ADC is ---------------
E (a) Less than 1 μs
(b) Less than 100 μs
(c) Less than 500μs
(d) Greater than 1000μs
96. Which of the following is analogous to multiplexer?

(a) Data selector
(b) Data multiplexer
(c) Data filter
A
97. Which of the following represents over sampling DAC?
I
(a) PWM DAC
C (b) Delta-sigma DAC
(c) Binary weighted DAC
T (d) Switched resistor DAC
E 98. Calculate the bandwidth occupied by a DSB signal when the modulating frequency
lies in the range from 100Hz to 10KHz.
(a) 28 KHz
(b) 24.5 KHz
(c) 38.6 KHz
(d) 19.8 KHz
99. Using the data shown in the first circuit in the figure below determine the value of VI
in the second circuit. Value of VI is:
A
I
C
T
E
(a) 2.5V
(b) 7.5V
(c) -2.5V
(d) 10V
A
I
Page 15 of 19
C
T
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A 100. Two identical two-port networks of the form shown below with RI = R4 = 10Ω and R2
= R3= 5Ω are connected in cascade. 40V DC is applied to the input port of the
I resulting cascade with the output port shorted. The magnitude of current flowing in
the output port shorting wire is:
C
T
E
(a) 0A
(b) 1A
(c) 4A
(d) ∞
PART –C
A
I 101. IfAbeasquarematrixoforder3and|A|=5,thenthevalueof2|A|and|2A|are
(a) 10and40
C
(b) 10 and15
T (c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
E
(b) Identitymatrix
(c) Singularmatrix
(d) None ofthe above
(a) Nullmatrix
A (b) Diagonalmatrix
I (d) None ofthe above

T (a) u
(b) 1
E (c) -1
(d) 0

[−3, 1] are
(a) −7 and −8
(b) 81 and −8
(c) 0 and −2
(d) 73 and −8
A
I
Page 16 of 19
C
T
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
2
A 106. The differential equation + + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥 4 𝑑𝑥
I (a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
C (c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4
T
E
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 2
𝐵
(a) 𝑃 ≥0
𝐴
𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
A 𝐵
(c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
C
T probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3or7is
13
(a) 30
E 17
(b) 30
19
(c) 30
1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
(a) Hermitianmatrix
(b) Unitorymatrix
I
C (a) λ = 2 and µ =4
T (b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
E (d) None ofthe above
(a) 62
(b) 44
(c) 8

A 113. If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is true
I
Page 17 of 19
C
T
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21

A (a) grad | A |  0

I (b) curl A  0

C (c) div A  0
T
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
E 114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
(b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
(c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
(d) None of these
1 1 𝑛−1
115. 0
A (a) ⎾(n − 1)
(b) ⎾(n)
I n−1
(c) ⎾ 2
C n+1
(d) ⎾ 2
T
E
(a) Hyperbolic
(b) Elliptic
(c) Parabolic
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
A (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
I (c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
C
T 118. Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the
2𝑥
E 1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
(a) 0
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
(a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
I
Page 18 of 19
C
T
ROLL NO.: UG1ICE21
A (b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
C 120. IfmeanofaPoissondistributionismthenvarianceofthisdistributionis
(a) m2
T
(b) 𝑚
E (c) 𝑚
(a) None ofthe above
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
Page 19 of 19
C
T
UG1ICE21
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Instrumentation & CONTROL Engineering
Paper: 1

1. c 41 b 81. c
2. d 42 c 82. c
3. a 43 c 83. a
4. b 44 d 84. b
5. d 45 a 85. b
6. a 46 a 86. c
7. c 47 c 87. a
8. b 48 c 88. a
9. d 49 b 89. d
10. d 50 a 90. d
11. a 51 d 91. c
12. a 52 b 92. a
13. a 53 c 93. a
14. b 54 c 94. d
15. a 55 a 95. b
16. b 56 b 96. a
17. a 57 a 97. b
18. a 58 d 98. d
19. a 59 a 99. a
20. c 60 a 100. b
21. a 61 c 101. a
22. a 62 a 102. c
23. d 63 b 103. a
24. a 64 c 104. d
25. c 65 c 105. d
26. a 66 a 106. d
27. a 67 d 107. a
28. b 68 c 108. a
29. a 69 b 109. a
30. c 70 c 110. b
31. a 71 d 111. c
32. a 72 a 112. d
33. d 73 a 113. b
34. c 74 c 114. a
35. b 75 b 115. b
36. c 76 a 116. b
37. d 77 d 117. d
38. c 78 c 118. a
39. a 79 a 119. d
40. d 80 a 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2ICE21
A
INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING/INSTRUMENTATION
I & CONTROL ENGINEERING
C
T
PAPER-II
A
Instructions:
I
C
questions.
T
E
A
v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
I programmable scientific calculator.
C
T specified.

A ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2ICE21
A PART-A (80 x 1= 80 Marks)

I
1. Number of p-n junction in a semiconductor diode is
C a) 2
b) 1
T c) 3
d) 0
E
2. What is the state of an ideal diode under conduction mode?
a) An open circuit
b) A short circuit
c) Unpredictable
A d) Not defined
I 3. The knee voltage of a diode is approximately equal to
a) Breakdown voltage
C
b) Forward voltage
T c) Applied voltage
d) Barrier potential
E
4. The forward voltage drop across a Ge diode is approximately
a) 0.7 V
b) 0.1 V
c) 0.3 V
d) 3.0 V
A
I 5. Diodes are used in
a) Logic gates
C b) Clipping circuits
c) Rectifier circuits
E
6. What is the range of operating voltage for LEDs?
a) 5 mV - 100 mV
b) 20 V - 25 V
c) 1.7V - 3.3 V
d) 5 V - 10 V
A
7. A zener diode is always connected in
I a) Forward
C b) Reverse
c) Either forward or reverse
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A 8. Transition capacitance of a semiconductor diode is significant

a) In forward-bias
I b) In reverse-bias
c) Both forward-bias and reverse-bias
T
9. Diffusion capacitance of a semiconductor diode is significant
E a) In forward-bias
b) In reverse-bias
c) Both forward-bias and reverse-bias
10. Number of p-n junction in a transistor is

A a) 2
b) 1
I c) 3
C d) 0
T 11. In active region of operation, a transistor behaves as

a) A rectifier
E b) An oscillator
c) An amplifier
d) A regulator
12. The source of leakage current in a transistor are

a) Majority carriers
A b) Minority carriers
I c) Both majority and minority carriers
C
13. The early effect in a B JT is caused by
T a) Fast turn-ON
b) Fast turn-OFF
E
c) Large collector-base reverse bias
d) Large emitter-base forward bias
14. The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered equivalent to

a) Resistor
A b) Inductor
c) Capacitor
I d) Battery
C
15. The gain of the amplifier stage in a phase shift oscillator must be
T a) Greater than 29
b) Less than 1/29
E c) Greater than 3
d) Less than 1/3
Page 3 of 19
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A 16. The highest efficiency can be obtained from a

a) Class A power amplifier
I b) Class B power amplifier
c) Class AB power amplifier
C d) Class D power amplifier
T
17. A number is expressed in binary 2‟s complement as 11011. It‟s decimal equivalent
E value is
a) 4
b) 5
c) -4
d) -5
A
18. Given (125)R=(203)5. The value of radix R will be
I a) 16
b) 10
C c) 8
T d) 6
E 19. Which number system has a base of 16?

a) Decimal
b) Hexadecimal
c) Octal
d) Binary
A 20. How many bits are required to store one BCD digit?
a) 4
I b) 3
c) 2
C
d) 1
T
21. Which of these sets of gates are designated as Universal Gates?
E a) NOT and AND
b) OR and NOR
c) NAND and NOR
d) AND and NAND
A 22. In the toggle mode a JK flip-flop has

a) J=0, K=0
I b) J=1, K=1
c) J=1, K=0
C d) J=0, K=1
T
E
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A 23. Which of the following is a digital device?

a) Light switch
I b) Regulator of a fan
c) Microphone
C d) Resistance of a wire
T
24. Which logic family provides minimum power dissipation?
E a) TTL
b) CMOS
c) ECL
d) DTL
25. X + X.Y =
A a) 1
b) 0
I
c) X
C d) Y
T 26. 1‟s complement of 11001010

a) 11001011
E b) 11001001
c) 00110101
d) 00110111
27. When will be the output of an AND gate is HIGH if there are three inputs, A, B, and C?
a) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0
A
b) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
I c) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
d) A = 1, B = 1, C = 1
C
28. An n-bit parallel adder consists of
T a) n/2 full adder
b) 2n full adder
E c) n full adder
d) (n+1) full adder
29. In 1 -to-4 demultiplexer, how many select lines are required?

a) 2
b) 3
A c) 4
I d) 5
C 30. A Karnaugh map (K-map) is an abstract form of __________ diagram organized as a matrix
of squares.
T a) Venn Diagram
b) Cycle Diagram
E c) Block diagram
d) Triangular Diagram
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A 31. There are______cells in a 4-variable K-map.

a) 9
I b) 12
c) 16
C d) 25
T
32. The output of a logic gate is 1 when all the inputs are at logic 0 as shown below.
E This is _______ gate.
INPUT OUTPUT
A B C
0 1 1
0 1 0
A
1 0 0
I 1 1 0
C a) NOR
b) NAND
T c) AND
E d) OR
33. A basic S-R flip-flop can be constructed by cross-coupling of which basic logic gates?
a) AND or OR gates
b) XOR or XNOR gates
c) NOR or NAND gates
A d) AND or NOR gates
I 34. Programmable Logic Array (PLA) contains

a) AND and OR arrays
C
b) NAND and OR arrays
T c) NOT and AND arrays
d) NOR and Or arrays
E
35. An EPROM is
a) Non erasable
b) Volatile
c) Programmable and erasable
A d) Erasable but not programmable
I 36. Flash ADC is

a) A serial ADC
C b) A parallel ADC
c) Partially serial and partially parallel
T
d) Successive approximation
E
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A 37. XNOR followed by a NOT gate is equivalent to _________ gate.

a) NOR
I b) OR
c) XOR
C d) XNOR
T
38. Intel 8085 microprocessor has_______ bit Address bus and _________ bit data bus
E a) 8, 16
b) 16, 8
c) 8, 8
d) 8, 05
39. 8085 microprocessor is having _________ architecture

A a) CISC
b) RISC
I
c) PIC
C d) 16 Harvard
T 40. Word size of 8085 microprocessor is____________

a) 32 bits
E b) 16 bits
c) 8 bits
d) 4 bits
41. Memory architecture in Intel 8085 microprocessor is______________

A a) Harvard
b) Super Harvard
I c) Von Neumann
C
42. PC register of 8085 contains ___________
T
a) Address of the next Data to be processed
E b) Address of the next instruction to be fetched
c) Address of the TOS
d) Address of the last executed instruction
43. For Intel 8085 microprocessor, range of the content of accumulator in „signed „arithmetic
calculations will be _________
A a) -256 to + 256
I b) -256 to + 255
c) - 128 to + 127
C d) - 128 to + 128
T
E
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A 44. For 8085 processor, „addressing mode‟ means__________

a) How address is provided for processing
I b) How instruction is accessed by the processor
c) How operand is accessed by the processor
C d) Where the address is available after processing
T
45. Example for the register indirect addressing mode in 8085 assembly code is _____________
E a) LDA 23A5H
b) ADD A, M
c) MOV C, A
d) MVI C, 2345H
46. „ALE‟ signal of 8085 is used for ___________

A a) Demultiplexing A0 - A7
b) Demultiplexing A8 - A15
I
c) Latching the data D0 - D7
C d) Latching the data D8 - D15
T 47. In 8085 based system how can we increase the time delay generated using loop?
a) Use the register pair to load cont
E b) Use Nested loop
c) Load maximum count to counter register
d) All of the above
48. The instruction “LXI SP, xxxx”at the beginning of the 8085 code is used to _______.
A a) Activate the Stack memory
b) Define the address range of Stack
I c) Define the size of Stack
d) Defines initial Top of Stack
C
49. On execution of „PUSH‟ and „POP‟ instructions of 8085 processor, the content of the stack
T
pointer will be _________and __________ respectively
E a) Decrement and Increment
b) Increment and Decrement
c) No change for stack pointer
d) Decrement and Will not Increment
50. The instruction „SIM‟ (Set Interrupt Mask) is used for __________.
A a) Reset RST 7.5 flipflop to override it
I b) Implement serial I/O.
c) Set Mask for RST 5.5, RST 6.5, RST 7.5
T
E
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A 51. Which of the ports of I-8255 can be configured as input or output port with „Interrupt
Request‟, „Input Buffer Full‟and „Strobe Input‟ signals.
I a) A and B
b) B and C
C c) A and C
d) Either A or B, one at a time
T
E 52. Intel 8254 timer has _____ numbers of _____ bit ________ counters
a) 2, 16 Up
b) 2, 8, Up
c) 3, 16 Down
d) 3, 8, Down
A 53. Feedback control system provide:

a) Reduced effect of disturbances
I
b) Increase accuracy
C c) Increase in speed of responses
d) All of the above
T
54. When the power necessary to alter the controlled output is supplied from sources other than
E the compound input, the feedback system control system is called as:
a) Active
b) Passive
c) Hybrid
d) Bipolar
A
55. The control objective is to maintain the controlled output at its constant equilibrium position
I in spite of disturbance, the system is called as
a) Regulatory feedback control
C b) Passive feedback control
c) Hybrid feedback control
T
d) Servomechanism feedback control
E
56. The MTTR stands for
a) Mean time to repair
b) Mean time to response
c) Mean time to replace
d) Mean time to return
A
I 57. The function of derivative action is also called as:
a) Anticipatory control
C b) Reconciliation action
c) Passive control
T d) Active control
E
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A 58. Elimination of offsets is usually done by:

a) Integral action
I b) Derivative action
c) Proportional controller
C d) Derivative filter
T
59. Devices which manipulate the flows of material and energy into and out of a process called
E as:
a) Controller
b) Valves
c) Filter
d) Comparator
A 60. ISE (Integral Square Error) is referred when design objective is to:
a) Penalize large error
I
b) Penalize small error
C c) Minimize the maximum error in a period of time
d) Minimize average error for a period of time
T
61. The integration term in analog PID controller is equivalent to finding
E a) Sum of all the errors, accumulated over a period of time, in the digital PID controller.
b) Average of all the errors, accumulated over a period of time, in the digital PID controller
c) Sum of slope of the error curve, accumulated over a period of time, in the digital PID
controller
d) Average of slope of the error curve, accumulated over a period of time, in the digital PID
A controller.
I 62. Process variables that can be adjusted in order to keep certain variabfles in process at or near
set points are called as:
C a) Manipulated variables
b) Controllable variables
T
c) Disturbances variables
E d) Output variables
63. Basic principle of working of a solenoid is based on:

a) Electromagnetism
b) Conversion of Electrical energy to Kinetic energy
c) Law of conversion of mass
A d) Gravitational force
I
64. A Manometer is a device to use to measure
C a) Flow rate
b) Pressure
T c) Temperature
d) Humidity
E
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A 65. Commonly, the liquid used in manometer is

a) Mercury
I b) Oil
c) Water
C d) Liquid Nitrogen
T
66. If a signal f(t) has energy E, the energy of the signal f(2t) is equal to
E a) E
b) E/2
c) 2E
d) 4E
67. The structure shown below is known as:

A
I
C
T
E
a) Parallel form structure

A b) Cascade structure
c) Direct form
C 68. A discrete time signal may be

1. Samples of a continuous signal
T 2. A time series which is a domain of integers
E 3. Time series of sequence of quantities
4. Amplitude modulated wave
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) All the four are correct
A
I 69. What is the z-transform of the signal x (n)=[3(2n)-4(3n)] u(n)?
a) 3/(1-2z-1)-4/(1-3z-1)
C
b) 3/(1+2z-1)-4/(1+3z-1)
T
c) 3/(1-2z)-4/(1-3z)
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A 70. What is the z-transform of the signal defined as x(n) = u(n)-u(n-N)?

1+𝑧 𝑁
a)
I 1+𝑧 −1
C 1−𝑧 𝑁
b) 1+𝑧 −1
T
1+𝑧−𝑁
c)
E 1+𝑧 −1
1−𝑧−𝑁
d) 1−𝑧 −1
71. If the ROC of X(z) is r1< |z|<r2, then what is the ROC of X(a-1z)?
A a) |a|r1<|z|< |a|r2
b) |a|r1> |z| >|a|r2
I c) |a|r1<|z|> |a|r2
d) |a|r1>|z|< |a|r2
C
T 72. What is the z-transform of the signal x(n)=an (sin𝑤𝑜 𝑛)u(n)?
𝑎 𝑧 −1 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔 𝑜
a) 1+2𝑎𝑧 −1 cos 𝑤 𝑜 + 𝑎 2 𝑧 −2
E
b) 1−2𝑎𝑧 −1 cos 𝑤 𝑜 − 𝑎 2 𝑧 −2
(𝑎𝑧 )−1 cos 𝑤 𝑜

c) 1−2𝑎𝑧 −1 cos 𝑤 𝑜 + 𝑎 2 𝑧 −2
A
I d) 1−2𝑎𝑧 −1 cos 𝑤 𝑜 + 𝑎 2 𝑧 −2
C
73. The s plane and z plane are related as
T a) z = eST
b) z = e2ST
E c) z = 2eST
d)
z = eST/2
74. The bandwidth of ECG amplifier is

a) DC-0.01Hz
A b) 0.05-500Hz
c) 550-2000Hz
I d) 2000-10000Hz
C 75. Ultrasonic blood flow meter is based on the principle of
a) Transmission
T b) Conductivity
E c) Induction
d) Transit time
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A 76. An electrical shock is an unwanted physiological response of _________

a) Current
I b) Voltage
c) Frequency
C d) Noise
T
77. Diagnostic ECG recording requires a band width of________
E a) 0.05 to 100Hz
b) 50 to 60 Hz
c) 5 to 40 Hz
d) 5 to 100 Hz
78. What type of electrodes is more often employed in EMG work?

A a) Needle electrodes
b) Surface electrodes
I
c) Floating electrodes
C d) Limb electrodes
T 79. Korotkoff sounds are used

a) As a reference for sound level measurement
E b) For studying heart muscle functioning
c) For blood pressure measurement
d) For study of heart valve functioning
80. EEG waves include frequency content ranging from

A a) Less than 1 Hz to 100Hz
b) dc to 2kHz
I c) 10Hz to 1kHz
d) 0.05Hz to 2kHz
C
T PART-B (40 x 2= 80 Marks)
E 81. If α=0.98, ICO = 6μA and 𝐼𝐵 = 100μAfor a transistor, then the value of IC will be
a) 2.3 mA
b) 3.1 mA
c) 4.6 mA
d) 5.2 mA
A 82. An amplifier has an open loop gain of 100, an input impedance of 1k𝛺, and an output
I impedance of 100𝛺. A feedback network with feedback factor of 0.99 is connected in a
voltage series feedback mode. The new input and output impedances respectively are
C a) 10𝛺 and 1𝛺
b) 10𝛺 and 10 k𝛺
T c) 100 k𝛺 and 1𝛺
E d) 100 k𝛺 and 10 k 𝛺
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A 83. If a differential amplifier has differential gain of 20,000, CMRR = 80 dB, then the common
mode gain is
I a) 2
b) 1
C c) ½
d) 0
T
E 84. The output time period of a transistorized monostablemultivibrator using base resistor RB
and coupling capacitor CB for the output transistor is
a) RBCB
b) 0.69 RBCB
c) 2 RBCB
d) 1.38 RBCB
A
85. The rms value of a half-wave rectified symmetrical square wave current of 2 A is
I
a) 2 A
C b) 1A
c) 3 A
T 1
d) 2 A
E
86. Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor differential amplifier because of its
a) Input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristic
b) High voltage gain
c) High input resistance
d) High CMRR
A
I 87. Change in the value of emitter resistance in a differential amplifier
a) Affects difference mode gain (Ad)
C b) Affects common mode gain (Ac)
c) Affects both Ad and Ac
T d) Does not affect either Ad or Ac
E
88. The use of a capacitor filter in a rectifier circuit gives satisfactory performance only when
the load
a) Current is high
b) Current is low
c) Voltage is low
A d) Voltage is high
I
89. For a 5 bit ladder D/A converter which has digital input of 10101, the analog value is (0=0 V
C and 1 = 10 V, Rf= 3R)
a) -3.32 V
T b) -4.32 V
c) -6.56 V
E d) -7.48 V
Page 14 of 19
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A 90. A 12 bit (3 digit) DAC that uses the BCD input code has a full scale output of 9.99 V.
The value of Vout for an input code of 011010010101 is
I a) 4.11 V
b) 6.95 V
C c) 7.38 V
d) 7.88 V
T
91. The binary number 110011.11 is equivalent to decimal number
E a) 50.75
b) 51.65
c) 51.75
d) 50.65
A 92. A 10 bit A/D converter is used to digitize an anlog signal in the 0 to 6 volt. The maximum
peak to ripple voltage that can be allowed in the D.C. supply voltage is
I a) 6 mV
b) 5 mV
C c) 5.85 mV
d) 6.15 mV
T
93. What are the values of R1 and R2 respectively in the expression (235) R1 = (565) 10 =
E (1065)R2?
a) 8, 16
b) 16, 8
c) 8, 12
d) 16, 12
A
94. A computer has a word length of 8 bits (including sing). It is required to determine the range
I of integers that can be stored in the computer. If 1‟s complement is used to represent the
numbers, then the range will be
C a) -256 to 256
b) -256 to 255
T c) -127 to 127
E d) -128 to 127
95. What is the maximum possible range of bit-count specifically in n-bit binary counter
consisting of „number of flip-flops?
a) 0 to 2n
b) 0 to 2n-1
A c) 0 to 2n+1
d) 0 to 2n+1/2
I
96. A gate draws 2.8 𝜇 A when its output is high and 3.6 𝜇 A when its output is low. Find out
C the power dissipation when the voltage supply Vcc is 5 V and the gate is operated on 50%
duty cycle?
T
a) 12 𝜇𝑊
E b) 16 𝜇𝑊
c) 24 𝜇𝑊
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ROLL NO.: UG2ICE21
A d) 32 𝜇𝑊
97. A bulb in the staircase has two switches, one switch at the ground floor and the other one at
I the first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the
switches irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb
C resembles:
a) AND gate
T
b) OR gate
E c) XOR gate
d) XNOR gate
98. Role of arbiter‟ module in the I8257 DMA controller is_______

a) To indicate the end of DMA transfer from all lthe four channels
b) To interrupt the processor to get the access to bus
A c) To resolve conflicts among the channels for access to memory
d) To arbitrate with processor for the hold acknowledgement signal
I
C 99. In the following 8085 code, effect of instruction „INR B‟in the content of accumulator at the
end of execution of the code is _____
T MVI B, 0A2H
MOV A, B
E RAL
INR B
ANA B
a) Increment by 1
b) Result is „0C‟
A c) Decrement by 1
d) No effect
I
100. How many address lines are required to address a 4kByte memory?
C a) 12
b) 13
T c) 14
E d) 16
101. Which are the interfacing ICs needed to connect a memory and LCD to 8085?
a) Latches
b) Bidirectional Buffers
c) Unidirectional buffers
I
102. In the 8kByte memory (byte-addressable), the last address is 7FFFH. What will be the
C address of the first memory location?
a) DFFFH
T b) E000H
c) 7FFFH
E d) 6000H
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A 103. For 8085, there are_______ numbers of interrupts, out of which ______ isNMI and
_______ is non-vectored
I a) 4, 1,1
b) 5, 1, 4
C c) 5, 1, 1
d) 4, 1, 2
T
E 104. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems
for specified ________input signal
a) Acceleration
b) Velocity
c) Position
d) All of the above
A
105. In pneumatic control systems, the control valve used as final control element converts
I
a) Pressure signal to electric signal
C b) Pressure signal to position change
c) Electric signal to pressure signal
T d) Position change to pressure signal
E 106. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains below a certain
level for all the time, the system is:
a) Not necessarily stable
b) Stable
c) Unstable
A d) Always unstable
I 107. Which of the following statements are TRUE for a PI controller?

I. When Kcis constant, and as Ti decreases, the response becomes faster, but more
C oscillatory.
II. The order of the system with PI feedback remains the same
T
III. As Kc increases, the response becomes faster and more oscillatory to set point changes.
E IV. Offset is eliminated with PI control
a) IV, III and II

b) I, III, and IV
c) I and IV
d) III and IV
A
I 108. A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the output is known
as
C a) Closed loop system
b) Semi closed loop system
T c) Open system
d) Hybrid system
E
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A 109. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of the
system will
I a) Decrease
b) Increase
C c) Be unaffected
d) Get double
T
E 110. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed loop systems
for
specified__________ input signal.
a) Acceleration
b) Velocity
c) Position
I
111. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at
C a) Low frequencies
b) Reduced values of open loop gain
T c) Increased values of open loop gain
d) High frequencies
E
112. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin
a) No pole
b) Net pole
c) Simple pole
A d) Two poles
I 113. The first five points of the 8-point DFT of a real valued sequence are 5, 1- 𝑗3,0,3 − 4𝑗,
and 3+4𝑗. The last two points of the DFT are respectively
C a) 0, 1- 𝑗3
T b) 0, 1+ 𝑗3
c) 1+ 𝑗3, 5
E d) 1- 𝑗3, 5
114. What is the z- transform of the finite duration signal?

x(n) = {2,4,5,7,0,1}
a) 2 + 4z +5z2 +7z3 +z4

A
b) 2 + 4z +5z2 +7z3 +z5
I c) 2 + 4z-1 +5z-2 +7z-3 +z-5
d) 2z2 + 4z +5+7z-1 +z-3
C
T
E
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2ICE21
A
115. The 4-point discrete Fourier Transform (DFT) of a discrete time sequence {1, 0, 2, 3} is
I a) [0, -2+2𝑗,2,-2-2𝑗 )
C b) [2,2+2𝑗,6,2-2𝑗]
T
c) [6,1-3𝑗, 2,1+3𝑗]
E
d) [6,-1+3𝑗, 0, −1 − 3𝑗]
116. Cardiac output is

a) Stroke volume + heart rate
b) Stroke volume - heart rate
A c) Stroke volume / heart rate
I d) Stroke volume * heart rate
C 117. The overall sensitivity of the EEG machine is

a) Gain of the amplifier* sensitivity of the writer
T b) Gain of the amplifier- sensitivity of the writer
c) Gain of the amplifier/ sensitivity of the writer
E d) Gain of the amplifier+ sensitivity of the writer
118. A typical EMG signal ranges from

a) 0.1 to 0.5 mV
b) 0.1 to 5 mV
A c) 1 to 5 mV
d) 1 to 0.5 mV
I
119. For a good EEG electrode impedance should be below
C a) 50 K
T b) 5K
c) 1 K
E d) 10 K
120. EEG machines have notch filters to eliminate

a) Noise
b) Un damped oscillations
c) Frequency interference
A
d) Muscle artifacts
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG2ICE21
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Instrumentation & CONTROL Engineering
Paper: 2

1. a 41 c 81. d
2. b 42 b 82. c
3. d 43 c 83. a
4. c 44 c 84. b
5. d 45 b 85. a
6. c 46 a 86. d
7. b 47 d 87. b
8. b 48 d 88. b
9. a 49 a 89. c
10. a 50 d 90. b
11. c 51 a 91. c
12. b 52 c 92. c
13. c 53 d 93. b
14. c 54 a 94. c
15. a 55 a 95. c
16. d 56 a 96. b
17. d 57 a 97. c
18. d 58 a 98. c
19. b 59 b 99. d
20. a 60 a 100. a
21. c 61 a 101. d
22. b 62 a 102. d
23. a 63 a 103. c
24. b 64 b 104. d
25. c 65 a 105. b
26. c 66 b 106. a
27. d 67 a 107. b
28. c 68 a 108. a
29. a 69 a 109. a
30. a 70 d 110. d
31. c 71 a 111. b
32. a 72 d 112. a
33. c 73 a 113. b
34. a 74 b 114. d
35. c 75 d 115. d
36. b 76 a 116. d
37. c 77 a 117. a
38. b 78 a 118. a
39. a 79 c 119. b
40. c 80 a 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
A COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING/COMPUTER

I ENGINEERING/ COMPUTER SCIENCE
C
T
E
PAPER-I
Instructions:
A
I
C
E iii. Part-B contains 30 questions, Q 71 to Q 100 of 2 (two) marks each.
A
I vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can
C
T vii. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
E
specified.
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14

I
1. Adding 1001 and 0010 gives output of
C (a) 1011
T (b) 1111
(c) 0
E (d) 1010
2. Subtracting of two binary numbers can be done by taking 2's complement of

subtrahend and adding it to the
(a) binary numbers
(b) Minuend
(c) 0
A 3. When output is equal to zero we can say that

I (a) A>B
(b) A<b< li="" style="box-sizing: border-box;"></b<>
C (c) A=B
E 4. Circuits that employs memory elements in addition to gates is called

(a) combinational circuit
(b) sequential circuit
(c) combinational sequence
(d) series
5. Subtraction of two signed numbers is performed with
(a) 1's complement
A (b) 2's complement
(c) 9's complement
I
(d) 10's complement
C
6. Addition of -6 and -13
T (a) 11101101
E (b) 11101010
(c) 11101110
(d) 11111010
7. Electronic digital circuits are also called as

(a) Switching algebra
(b) Logic circuits
(c) Binary circuits
A (d) Binary algebra
I
8. NOT gate is also known as
C (a) Converter
T (b) Inverter
(c) Interrupter
E (d) Both (b) and (c)
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
9. Logic gates have values in

A
(a) Binary numbers
I (b) Decimal numbers
(c) Octal numbers
C
(d) Hexadecimal numbers
T
10. IC type 7483 consists of
E (a) 1bit IC
(b) 2bits IC
(c) 3bits IC
(d) 4bits IC
11. The number of circuits that can be created by adding an edge between any two
vertices in a tree is
(a) Two
(b) Exactly one
A (c) At least two
C 12. In a tree between every pair of vertices there is

T (a) Exactly one path
(b) A self-loop
E (c) Two circuits
(d) ‘n’ number of paths
13. The minimum number of cards to be dealt from an arbitrarily shuffled deck of 52
cards to guarantee that three cards are from some same suit is
(a) 8
(b) 3
A (c) 9
(d) 12
I
C 14. Context free languages are closed under
(a) union, intersection
T (b) Intersection, complement
E (c) union, kleene star
(d) Complement, kleene star
15. Let R be a symmetric and transitive relation on a set A. Then

(a) R is reflexive and hence a partial order
(b) R is reflexive and hence an equivalence relation
(c) R is not reflexive and hence not an equivalence relation
(d) None of above
A
I 16. The degree of any vertex of graph is ………
(a) The number of edges incident with vertex
C (b) Number of vertex in a graph
T (c) Number of vertices adjacent to that vertex
(d) Number of edges in a graph
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
17. If for some positive integer k, degree of vertex d(v)=k for every vertex v of the graph
A G, then G is called.........
(a) K graph
I (b) K-regular graph
C (c) Empty graph
T
E 18. A graph with no edges is known as empty graph. Empty graph is also known as ....?
(a) Trivial graph
(b) Regular graph
(c) Bipartite graph
19. Length of the walk of a graph is…....

(a) The number of vertices in walk W
(b) The number of edges in walk W
A (c) Total number of edges in a graph
(d) Total number of vertices in a graph
I
C 20. Eccentricity of a vertex denoted by e(v) is defined by……..
(a) max {d(u,v): u belongs to v, u does not equal to v: where d (u,v) is the distance
T between u&v}
E (b) min {d(u,v): u belongs to v, u does not equal to v}
21. 6, 8, 4, 3, and 1 are inserted into a data structure in that order. An item is deleted using
only a basic data structure operation. If the deleted item is a 1, the data structure
cannot be a
(a) Queue
A (b) Tree
I (c) Stack
(d) Hash Table
C
T 22. We need to implement a queue using a circular array. If DATA is a circular array of
CAPACITY elements, and rear is an index into that array, what will be the index for
E the element after rear?
(a) (rear + 1) % CAPACITY
(b) rear + (1 % CAPACITY)
(c) rear % (1 + CAPACITY)
(d) (rear % 1) + CAPACITY
23. An undirected graph G with n vertices and e edges is represented by adjacency list.
A What is the time required to generate all the connected components?
(a) O(n)
I (b) O(e)
C (c) O(e+n)
(d) O(e^2)
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
24. A graph with n vertices will definitely have a parallel edge or self-loop of the total
A number of edges are
(a) more than n
I (b) more than n+1
C (c) more than (n+1)/2
(d) more than n(n-1)/2
T
E 25. The maximum degree of any vertex in a simple graph with n vertices is
(a) n-1
(b) n+1
(c) 2n-1
(d) n
26. Let A be an adjacency matrix of a graph G. The ij entry in the matrix A^k, gives
(a) The number of paths of length K from vertex Vi to vertex Vj.
(b) Shortest path of K edges from vertex Vi to vertex Vj.
A (c) Length of a Eulerian path from vertex Vi to vertex Vj.
(d) Length of a Hamiltonian cycle from vertex Vi to vertex Vj.
I
C 27. For an undirected graph G with n vertices and e edges, the sum of the degrees of each
vertex is
T (a) ne
E (b) 2n
(c) 2e
(d) e^n
28. The hash function is H1(k) = k % 50. In the case of collision, the hash function used is
H(k) = (H1(k) + M x H2(k)) % 50 where H1(k) = k % 50 and H2(k) = k % 20. M is
initialized to 0 and is incremented by 1 each time a collision occurs. This could be
categorized under which of the following collision detection technic
A (a) Linear Probing
I (b) Quadratic Probing
(c) Re-Hashing
C (d) Double Hashing
T
29. If h is any hashing function and is used to hash n keys in to a table of size m, where
E n<=m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular key x is:
(a) less than 1
(b) less than n.
(c) less than m.
(d) less than n/2.
30. A binary tree in which if all its levels except possibly the last, have the maximum
A number of nodes and all the nodes at the last level appear as far left as possible, is
known as
I (a) full binary tree.
C (b) AVL tree.
(c) threaded tree.
T (d) complete binary tree.
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
31. All the regular languages can have one or more of the following descriptions:
A i) DFA ii) NFA iii) e-NFA iv) Regular Expressions.
Which of the following are correct?
I (a) i, ii, iv
C (b) i, ii, iii
(c) i, iv
T (d) i, ii, iii, iv
E
32. Which of the technique can be used to prove that a language is non regular?
(a) Ardens theorem
(b) Pumping Lemma
(c) Ogden’s Lemma
33. Which of the following language is regular?

(a) {aibi|i>=0}
A (b) {aibi|0<i<5}
(c) {aibi|i>=1}
C
34. Which of the following are non-regular?
T (a) The set of strings in {a,b}* with an even number of b’s
E (b) The set of strings in {a, b, c}* where there is no c anywhere to the left of a
(c) The set of strings in {0, 1}* that encode, in binary, an integer w that is a multiple
of 3. Interpret the empty strings e as the number 0.
35. If L is DFA-regular, then L is

(a) Non regular
(b) DFA-regular
A (c) Non-finite
I
C 36. Which of the following options is incorrect?
(a) A language L is regular if and only if ~L has finite number of equivalent classes.
T (b) Let L be a regular language. If ~L has k equivalent classes, then any DFA that
E recognizes L must have atmost k states.
(c) A language L is NFA-regular if and only if it is DFA-regular.
37. Myphill Nerode does the following:

(a) Minimization of DFA
(b) Tells us exactly when a language is regular
I 38. Which of the following are related to tree automaton?
C (a) Myphill Nerode Theorem
(b) State machine
T (c) Courcelle’s Theorem
E (d) All of the above
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
A 39. Given languages:

i) {anbn|n>=0}
I ii)<div>n</div>n
C iii){w∈{a,b}∗| #a(w)=#b(w)}, # represents occurrences
T Which of the following is/are non-regular?
E (a) i), iii)
(b) i)
(c) iii)
(d) i), ii), iii)
40. Finite state machine are not able to recognize Palindromes because:
(a) Finite automata cannot deterministically find the midpoint
(b) Finite automata cannot remember arbitarily large amount of data
(c) Even if the midpoint is known, it cannot find whether the second half matches the
A first
I
C 41. The ______ format is usually used to store data.
(a) BCD
T (b) Decimal
E (c) Hexadecimal
(d) Octal
42. The 8-bit encoding format used to store data in a computer is ______
(a) ASCII
(b) EBCDIC
(c) ANCI
(d) USCII
A
I 43. A source program is usually in _______
(a) Assembly language
C (b) Machine level language
T (c) High-level language
(d) Natural language
E
44. Which memory device is generally made of semiconductors?
(a) RAM
(b) Hard-disk
(c) Floppy disk
(d) Cd disk
A 45. The small extremely fast, RAM’s are called as _______

(a) Cache
I (b) Heaps
C (c) Accumulators
(d) Stacks
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
46. The ALU makes use of _______ to store the intermediate results.
A (a) Accumulators
(b) Registers
I (c) Heap
C (d) Stack
T 47. The control unit controls other units by generating ____
E (a) Control signals
(b) Timing signals
(c) Transfer signals
(d) Command Signals
48. ______ are numbers and encoded characters, generally used as operands.
(a) Input
(b) Data
(c) Information
A (d) Stored Values
I 49. The Input devices can send information to the processor.
C (a) When the SIN status flag is set
(b) When the data arrives regardless of the SIN flag
T (c) Neither of (a) nor (b)
E (d) Either of (a) or (b)
50. ______ bus structure is usually used to connect I/O devices.

(a) Single bus
(b) Multiple bus
(c) Star bus
(d) Rambus
A 51. There are ______steps to solve the problem
I (a) Seven
(b) Four
C (c) Six
T (d) Two
E 52. ______is the first step in solving the problem
(a) Understanding the Problem
(b) Identify the Problem
(c) Evaluate the Solution
53. ______is the last step in solving the problem

A (a) Understanding the Problem
(b) Identify the Problem
I (c) Evaluate the Solution
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
54. Following is true for understanding of a problem

A (a) Knowing the knowledgebase
(b) Understanding the subject on which the problem is based
I (c) Communication with the client
T 55. The six-step solution for the problem can be applied to
E I. Problems with Algorithmic Solution
II. Problems with Heuristic Solution
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
56. ______ solution requires reasoning built on knowledge and experience

(a) Algorithmic Solution
A (b) Heuristic Solution
(c) Random Solution
I (d) None of these
C
57. While solving the problem with computer the most difficult step is __________.
T (a) describing the problem
E (b) finding out the cost of the software
(c) writing the computer instructions
(d) testing the solution
58. The correctness and appropriateness of ___________solution can be checked very

easily.
(a) algorithmic solution
(b) heuristic solution
A (c) random solution
I (d) none of the above
C 59. In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:
T (a) Number of tuples.
(b) Number of attributes.
E (c) Number of tables.
(d) Number of constraints.
60. Relational calculus is a

(a) Procedural language.
(b) Non- Procedural language.
(c) Data definition language.
A (d) High level language.
I 61. The view of total database content is
C (a) Conceptual view.
(b) Internal view.
T (c) External view.
E (d) Physical View.
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A 62. Cartesian product in relational algebra is

(a) a Unary operator.
I (b) a Binary operator.
C (c) a Ternary operator.
(d) not defined.
T
E 63. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a
(a) strong entity set.
(b) weak entity set.
(c) simple entity set.
(d) primary entity set.
64. According to the rice’s theorem, if P is non trivial property, Lp is:

(a) Infinite
(b) Decidable
A (c) Undecidable
I
C
65. RAID configuration of disks are used to provide
T (a) Fault-tolerance
(b) High speed
E
(c) High data density
66. Page fault frequency and Thrashing is:

(a) Inversely proportional
(b) Exponential proportional
(c) Directly proportional
I
67. Von Neumann architecture is of what type?
C (a) SISD
(b) SIMD
T
(c) MIMD
E (d) MISD
68. For correct behavior during recovery, undo and redo operation must be
(a) Commutative
(b) Associative
(c) Idempotent
(d) Distributive
A
69. In Object-Oriented Programme like C++, _________________ is responsible for
I creating object
(a) Destructor
C
(b) Constructor
T (c) Copy constructor
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
70. The range of numbers that can be added to eight bit signed number 5Bh; without
A generating overflow is
(a) F8h to FFh and 00h to 5Ch
I (b) EFh to FFh and 01h to 6Ch
C (c) 80h to FFh and 00h to 24h
(d) 81h to FFh and 00h to 25h
T
E
71. In CMOS SR flip flops, set-reset circuitry is made up of

(a) NMOS
(b) PMOS
(c) CMOS
(d) BiCMOS
A 72. In master slave circuit, to maintain most of circuit charge we rely on

(a) bypass capacitor
I (b) node capacitor
C (c) input capacitor
(d) load capacitor
T
73. Latches consist of
E (a) inductors
(b) inverters
(c) timing generators
(d) frequency generators
74. D flip flop consist of

(a) one inverter
(b) two inverters
A (c) one buffer
I (d) two buffers
C 75. One operation that is not given by magnitude comparator is
T (a) equal
(b) less
E (c) greater
(d) addition
76. Let A and B be any two arbitrary events then which one of the following is true?
(a) P(A intersection B) = P(A). P(B)
(b) P(A union B) = P(A) + P(B)
(c) P(AB) = P(A intersection B). P(B)
(d) P(A union B) >= P(A) + P(B)
A
I 77. If X and Y be the sets. Then the set (X - Y) union (Y- X) union (X intersection Y) is
equal to?
C (a) X union Y
T (b) Xc union Yc
(c) X intersection Y
E (d) Xc intersection Yc
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
78. If G is an undirected planer graph on n vertices with e edges,then?

A (a) e<=n
(b) e<=2n
I (c) e<=3n
T 79. Which of the following statement is false?
E (a) G is connected and is circuitless
(b) G is connected and has n edges
(c) G is minimally connected graph
(d) G is circuitless and has n-1 edges
80. Probability that two randomly selected cards from a set of two red and two black
cards are of same color is?
(a) 1 / 2
(b) 1 / 3
(c) 2 / 3
I
81. How is Data in a queue accessed?
C (a) First in First out
T (b) First in last out
(c) Last in First out
82. Item in priority queue can jump to the front on the line if they have priority
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Sometime true sometime false
A 83. Time taken for addition of element in queue is
I (a) O(1)
(b) O(n)
C (c) O(log n)
E 84. A linear list of elements in which deletion can be done from one end (front) and
insertion can take place only at the other end (rear) is known as a
(a) queue
(b) stack
(c) tree
(d) linked list
85. Let the following circular queue can accommodate maximum six elements with the
A following data front = 2 rear = 4, queue = _______; L, M, N, ___, ___, What will
I happen after ADD O operation takes place?
(a) front = 2 rear = 5 queue = ______; L, M, N, O, ___
C (b) front = 3 rear = 5 queue = L, M, N, O, ___
T (c) front = 3 rear = 4 queue = ______; L, M, N, O, ___
(d) front = 2 rear = 4 queue = L, M, N, O, ___
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
86. There are ________ tuples in finite state machine.

A (a) 4
(b) 5
I (c) 6
C (d) unlimited
T
87. Number of states require to accept string ends with 10.
E (a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) can’t be represented.
88. Extended transition function is

(a) Q * Σ* -> Q
(b) Q * Σ -> Q
(c) Q* * Σ* -> Σ
A (d) Q * Σ -> Σ
I
89. δ*(q, ya) is equivalent to
C (a) δ((q,y),a)
(b) δ(δ*(q,y),a)
T
(c) δ(q,ya)
E (d) independent from δ notation
90. A collection of lines that connects several devices is called
(a) peripheral connection wires
(b) bus
(c)both (a) and (b)
(d) internal wires
A 91. A complete microcomputer system consist of

(a) microprocessor
I (b) memory
C (c) peripheral equipment
T
E 92. PC Program Counter is also called
(a) instruction pointer
(b) memory pointer
(c) file pointer
(d) data counter
93. ______ is used to choose between incrementing the PC or performing ALU
operations
A (a) Conditional codes
(b) Multiplexer
I (c) Control unit
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
A 94. The ultimate goal of a compiler is to

I (a) Reduce the clock cycles for a programming task.
(b) Reduce the size of the object code.
C (c) Be versatile.
T (d) Be able to detect even the smallest of errors
E 95. DML is provided for

(a) Description of logical structure of database.
(b) Addition of new structures in the database system.
(c) Manipulation & processing of database.
(d) Definition of physical structure of database system.
96. ‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for

(a) Selection operation.
(b) Rename operation.
A (c) Join operation.
I (d) Projection operation
C 97. ODBC stands for

T (a) Object Database Connectivity.
(b) Oral Database Connectivity.
E (c) Oracle Database Connectivity.
(d) Open Database Connectivity.
98. Architecture of the database can be viewed as

(a) two levels.
(b) four levels.
(c) three levels.
A (d) one level.
I 99. In the architecture of a database system external level is the

C (a) physical level.
(b) logical level.
T (c) conceptual level
E (d) view level.
100. For 8086 CPU; if DS=1000h, ES=2000h, CS=3000h, SS=4000h, SP=2400h,

BP=2400h. Then address of memory referred by instruction MOV AX, [BP+02h] is
(a) 12402h
(b) 22402h
(c) 32402h
(d) 42402h
A
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
A PART –C
I
C
T (a) 10and40
E (b) 10 and15
(c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
(b) Identitymatrix
(c) Singularmatrix
A
I (a) Nullmatrix
C (b) Diagonalmatrix
E
(a) u
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 0
A 105. The absolute maximum and minimum values respectively for 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 4 − 8 on

[−3, 1] are
I
(a) −7 and −8
C (b) 81 and −8
(c) 0 and −2
T
(d) 73 and −8
E
2
I (a) 3
C (b) 6
T (c) 2
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
A 108. LetAbeanyeventsuchthatP(A)>0,thenforanyothereventB,whichoneistrue?
𝐵
I (a) 𝑃 ≥0
𝐴
C (b) 𝑃
𝐵
=0
𝐴
T 𝐵
(c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
E

13
(a) 30
17
(b) 30
19
A (c) 30
C 1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
T 1+𝑖 1−𝑖
(a) Hermitianmatrix
E (b) Unitorymatrix

(a) λ = 2 and µ =4
(b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
A (c) λ ≠ 2 and µ can takeany value.
(d) None ofthese.
I
C 112. Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of the
T (a) 62
E (b) 44
(c) 8


(a) grad | A |  0

A (b) curl A  0

I (c) div A  0
T
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
E 114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
A (b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
I (c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
C
T 1 1 𝑛−1
115. 0
E
(a) ⎾(n − 1)
(b) ⎾(n)
n−1
(c) ⎾ 2
n+1
(d) ⎾ 2

A (a) Hyperbolic
I (b) Elliptic
(c) Parabolic
T 𝑥+𝑦
E 𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
A (d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
I
C 118. Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the
2𝑥
T 1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
E 1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
(a) 0
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
A
(a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
I (b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
C (c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
T
E (a) m2
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ROLL NO.: UG1CSE14
(b) 𝑚
A (c) 𝑚
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG1CS E14
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Computer Science and Engineering
Paper: 1

1. a 41 a 81. a
2. a 42 b 82. a
3. b 43 c 83. c
4. b 44 a 84. a
5. b 45 a 85. a
6. a 46 a 86. b
7. b 47 b 87. a
8. d 48 b 88. a
9. a 49 a 89. b
10. d 50 a 90. b
11. b 51 c 91. d
12. a 52 b 92. a
13. c 53 c 93. d
14. c 54 d 94. a
15. d 55 c 95. c
16. a 56 b 96. b
17. b 57 c 97. d
18. a 58 a 98. c
19. b 59 a 99. d
20. a 60 b 100. d
21. a 61 a 101. a
22. d 62 b 102. c
23. c 63 b 103. a
24. d 64 c 104. d
25. a 65 d 105. d
26. b 66 d 106. d
27. c 67 a 107. a
28. d 68 c 108. a
29. a 69 d 109. a
30. a 70 c 110. b
31. d 71 a 111. c
32. b 72 b 112. d
33. b 73 b 113. b
34. d 74 b 114. a
35. b 75 d 115. b
36. b 76 d 116. b
37. c 77 a 117. d
38. d 78 b 118. a
39. d 79 b 119. d
40. d 80 b 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
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I COMPUTER SCIENCE & ENGINEERING/COMPUTER
C ENGINEERING/COMPUTER SCIENCE
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PAPER-II
Instructions:
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questions.
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T

A specified.
I vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using
C a black or blue ball point pen.
T viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
E ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on
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C 1. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC.
(a) one bit less than
T (b) one bit more than
(c) The same size as
E (d) none of the above
2. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC?

(a) The quotient
(b) The dividend
(c) The divisor
(d) The remainder
3. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the
A maximum size of the receive window must be _______.
(a) 1
I (b) 15
(c) 16
C
(d) 31
T
4. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for
E ______ channels.
(a) noiseless
(b) noisy
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
5. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the
maximum size of the receive window must be _____.
(a) 1
A (b) 15
(c) 16
I (d) 31
C 6. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in ______

arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected.
T
(a) modulo-m
E (b) modulo-2
(c) modulo-4
7. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence
numbers?
(a) 1 to 63
(b) 1 to 64
(c) 0 to 63
(d) 0 to 64
A
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8. A query operation on an object

A
(a) has side effect
I (b) has no side effects
(c) changes the state of an object
C (d) is not allowed.
T 9. An instance of an object is created by a
E (a) query operation
(b) update operation
(c) constructor operation
(d) open operation
10. An update operation in an object instance

(a) updates the class
(b) has no side effects
(c) deletes an instance
(d) alters values of attribute(s) of an object instance.
A
I 11. In object-oriented design
(a) operations and methods are identical
C (b) methods specify algorithms whereas operations only state what is to be done
(c) methods do not change values of attributes
T (d) methods and constructor are same.
E
12. By abstraction in object-oriented modeling we mean picking
(a) only attributes appropriate to model an object
(b) only operations
(c) both operation and attributes with operations appropriate to model an object
(d) the appropriate abstract data type.
13. By encapsulation in object-oriented modeling we mean

(a) encapsulating data and programs
(b) hiding attributes of an object from users
A (c) hiding operations on object from users
(d) hiding implementation details of methods from users of objects.
I
C 14. Inheritance in object-oriented system is used to
(a) create new classes from existing classes
T (b) add new operations to existing operations
(c) add new attributes to existing attributes
E (d) add new states to existing states.
15. Which flags represent the least significant bit (LSB) and most significant bit (MSB)
of Program Status Word (PSW) respectively?
(a) Parity Flag & Carry Flag
(b) Parity Flag & Auxiliary Carry Flag
(c) Carry Flag & Overflow Flag
(d) Carry Flag & Auxiliary Carry Flag
A
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16. Which locations of 128 bytes on-chip additional RAM are generally reserved for
A
special functions?
I (a) 80H to 0FFH
(b) 70H to 0FFH
C (c) 90H to 0FFH
(d) 60H to 0FFH
T
E 17. Which output control signal is activated after every six oscillator periods while
fetching the external program memory and almost remains high during internal
program execution?
(a) ALE
(b) PSEN
(c) EA
18. Which memory allow the execution of instructions till the address limit of 0FFFH
especially when the External Access (EA) pin is held high?
A (a) Internal Program Memory
I (b) External Program Memory
(c) Both (a)&(b)
T
19. Why are the resonators not preferred for an oscillator circuit of 8051?
E (a) Because they do not avail for 12 MHz higher order frequencies
(b) Because they are unstable as compared to quartz crystals
(c) Because cost reduction due to its utility is almost negligible in comparison to total
cost of microcontroller board
20. What happens when the pins of port 0 & port 2 are switched to internal ADDR and
ADDR / DATA bus respectively while accessing an external memory?
(a) Ports cannot be used as general-purpose Inputs/Outputs
A (b) Ports start sinking more current than sourcing
(c) Ports cannot be further used as high impedance input
I (d) All of the above
C 21. How does the processor respond to an occurrence of the interrupt?
T (a) By Interrupt Service Subroutine
(b) By Interrupt Status Subroutine
E (c) By Interrupt Structure Subroutine
(d) By Interrupt System Subroutine
22. Which of the following is essential for converting an infix expression to the postfix
from efficiently?
(a) An operator stack
(b) An operand stack
(c) An operand stack and an operator stack
(d) A parse tree
A
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23. Which one of the following grammars is free from left recursion?
A
I (a)
C
T (b)
E
(c)
(d)
A 24. In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during

I (a) parsing of the program
(b) the code generation
C (c) the lexical analysis of the program
(d) dataflow analysis
T
25. The lexical analysis for a modern computer language such as Java needs the power
E
of which one of the following machine models in a necessary and sufficient sense?
(a) Finite state automata
(b) Deterministic pushdown automata
(c) Non-Deterministic pushdown automata
(d) Turing Machine
26. The output of a lexical analyzer is
(a) A parse tree
(b) Intermediate code
A (c) Machine code
(d) A stream of tokens
I
27. Consider the following statements related to compiler construction:
C
I. Lexical Analysis is specified by context-free grammars and implemented by
T pushdown automata.
II. Syntax Analysis is specified by regular expressions and implemented by finite-
E state machine Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
A
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28. Which of the following statement(s) regarding a linker software is/are true?
A
I.A function of a linker is to combine several object modules into a single load
I module.
II. A function of a linker is to replace absolute references in an object module by
C symbolic references to locations in other.
(a) Only I
T (b) Only II
E (c) Both I and II
29. One problem with the global replacement algorithm is that

(a) it is very expensive
(b) many frames can be allocated to a process
(c) only a few frames can be allocated to a process
(d) a process cannot control its own page – fault rate
30. ________ replacement generally results in greater system throughput.

A (a) Local
(b) Global
I (c) Universal
(d) Public
C
T 31. An entire path name, consisting of several sub-directory names can contain upto
(a) 13 character
E (b)36 character
(c) 63 character
(d) 53 character
32. In which year the first operating system was developed?

(a) 1910
(b) 1940
(c) 1950
(d) 1980
A 33. MS-DOS developed in
(a) 1991
I
(b) 1984
C (c) 1971
(d) 1961
T
34. Maximum length of DOS command using any optional parameter is
E (a) 26 characters
(b) 87 characters
(c) 127 characters
(d) None of above
35. The initial value of the semaphore that allows only one of the many processes to enter
their critical sections, is
(a) 8
(b) 1
A (c) 16
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(d) 0
A
36. Combination of two or more networks are called
I (a) Internetwork
(b) WAN
C (c) MAN
(d) LAN
T
E 37. Which topology covers security, robust and eliminating traffic factor?
(a) Mesh
(b) Ring
(c) Star
(d) Bus
38. If a datagram router goes down, then ………….

(a) all packets will suffer
(b) only those packets which are queued in the router at that time will suffer
(c) only those packets which are not queued in the router at that time will suffer
A (d) no packets will suffer
I 39. In datagram subnet new route is chosen …………………
(a) for every packet sent
C (b) for all the packet sent
T (c) only for the first packet
(d) for the packet which is not transmitted
E
40. The PSTN is an example of a ………………… network.
(a) packet switched
(b) circuit switched
(c) message switched
(d) None of these
41. Each packet is routed independently in ……………….

(a) virtual circuit subnet
(b) short circuit subnet
A (c) datagram subnet
(d) ATM subnet
I
42. For a connection oriented service, we need a ……………
C (a) virtual circuit subnet
T (b) short circuit subnet
(c) datagram subnet
E (d) wireless subnet
43. If a computer in a network accesses resources that are shared by other computers, it is
called a
(a) server
(b) client
(c) receiver
(d) sender
A
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44. In computer network, short message that travels around communication medium is
A
called
I (a) ring
(b) star
C (c) mesh
(d) token
T
45. Arrangement of computer network nodes and connections between them is called
E (a) network's topology
(b) network's layout
(d) network's link
46. Network topology in which you connect each node to network along a single piece of
network cable is called
(a) bus topology
(b) ring topology
A (c) star topology
(d) mesh topology
I
47. Computer network topology which uses routers is
C (a) bus
T (b) ring
(c) mesh
E (d) tree
48. In computer network, bus, star, ring, mesh and tree are types of
(a) network
(b) topology
(c) software
(d) hardware
49. ISO developed a standard model of computer data communication system which is
known as
A (a) OSI
(b) NSI
I (c) DEC
(d) SNA
C
T 50. Each end of a bus in computer bus network topology is termed as
(a) node
E (b) switch
(c) sensor
(d) terminator
51. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is
called
(a) an error
(b) a fault
(c) a failure
(d) a defect
A
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52. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide

A
(a) Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
I (b) The precise differences in versions of software component source code.
(c) Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
C (d) Restricted access to the source code library
T 53. National Internet Service Provider (ISP) networks are connected to one another by
private switching stations called
E (a) Network Access Points
(b) Peering Points
(c) National ISP
(d) Regional ISP
54. Test cases are designed during

(a) Test recording.
(b) Test configuration.
(c) Test planning.
A (d) Test specification.
I 55. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
(a) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans
C (b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
(c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
T
(d) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
E
56. In case of Large Systems
(a) Only few tests should be run
(b) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed
(c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed
(d) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
57. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing?
(a)Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
(b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
A (c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed
to do.
I (d) The goal/purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
C
58. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
T (a) Big-bang
(b) Top down
E (c) Bottom up
(d) Functional incrimination
59. Test Conditions are derived from

(a) Test Design
(b) Test Cases
(c) Test Data
(d) Specifications
A
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60. Pick the best definition of quality

A
(a) Quality is job one
I (b) Zero defects
(c) Work as designed
C (d) Conformance to requirements
T 61. Fault Masking is
(a) Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
E (b) Error condition hiding another error condition
(c) Masking a fault by developer
(d) Masking a fault by a tester
62. Boundary value testing
(a) Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
(b) Tests combinations of input circumstances
(c) Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output
equivalence classes
A (d) Is used in white box testing strategy
I 63. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is
(a) Lack of technical documentation
C (b) Lack of test tools on the market for developer’s
(c) Lack of Objectivity
T (d) Lack of training
E 64. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
(a) Takes minutes of the meeting
(b) Takes telephone calls
(c) Mediates between people
(d) writes the documents to be reviewed
65. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
(a) Decision table
(b)Design
(c) Code
A (d) Requirements
I
66. What is the IP Address range of APIPA?
C (a) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.254
(b) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.0.255
T (c) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
(d) 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.255
E
67. What does the port number in a TCP connection specify?
(a) It specifies the communication process on the two end systems
(b) It specifies the quality of the data & connection
(c) It specify the size of data
(c) All of the above
A
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68. The class-based addressing is also known as

A
(a) Modern Model
I (b)Classful Model
(c) Classless Model
C (d) Heterogeneous Model
T 69. Which of the following is correct in CIDR?
E (a) Class A includes Class B network
(b) There are only two networks
(c) There are high & low class network
(d) There is no concept of class A, B, C networks
70. What is the size of Source and Destination IP address in IP header?

(a) 4 bits
(c) 8 bits
(c) 16 bits
(d) 32 bits
A
71. Which of the following is reliable communication?
I (a) TCP
C (b) IP
(c) UPD
T (d) All of the above
E 72. What is the typical range of Ephemeral ports?

(a) 1 to 80
(b) 1 to 1024
(c) 80 to 8080
(d) 1024 to 65535
73. What is the purpose of the PSH flag in the TCP header?
(a) Typically used to indicate end of message
(b) Typically used to indicate beginning of message
(c) Typically used to push the message
A (d) Typically used to indicate stop the message
I 74. What is the natural mask for a class C Network?
C (a) 255.255.255.1
(b) 255.255.255.0
T (c) 255.255.255.254
(d) 255.255.255.255
E
75. From the following which quality deals with maintaining the quality of the software
product?
(a) Quality assurance
(b) Quality control
(c) Quality efficiency
A
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76. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software
A
project?
I (a) Only performance.
(b) Only context.
C (c) Information objectives, function, performance
(d) None of the above.
T
E 77. Which level of sub-system is used of an application?
(a) Application level
(b) Component level
(c) Modules level
78. In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W.

Boehm?
(a) Putnam model
(b) COCOMO
A (c) Both (a) and (b)
C 79. CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of ______.

(a) Develop the software.
T (b) Improve the software process.
(c) Improve the testing process.
E
(d) All of the above.
80. Which design defines the logical structure of each module and their interfaces that is
used to communicate with other modules?
(a) High-level designs
(b) Architectural designs
(c) Detailed design
A
I
C
81. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network.
T (a) Topology
(b) Mode of operation
E (c) Data flow
82. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

(a) primary
(b) multipoint
(c) point-to-point
(d) secondary
A
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83. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

A
(a) Bus
I (b) Star
(c) Mesh
C (d) Ring
T 84. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link.
E (a) multipoint
(b) point-to-point
85. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the ____.

(a) Medium
(b) Protocol
(c) Message
(d) Transmission
A
I 86. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic
signalingspecifications?
C (a) ISO
(b) ITU-T
T (c) ANSI
(d) EIA
E
87. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________.
(a) 0000
(b) 1111
(c) 1110
(d) 0111
88. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______, inclusive.
(a) 1 to 10
A (b) 0 to 10
(c) 1 to 11
I
C
89. Computer systems are designed by
T (a) simplifying requirements of system
(b) breaking of the system into smaller self-contained co-operating subsystems
E (c) breaking up the systems into independent parts
(d) modular design
90. Functions and procedures are

(a) not useful in designing computer systems
(b) old fashioned and they are not useful
(c) useful in designing computer systems
(d) have side effects which require special care if they are used as subsystems
A
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91. A subsystem of a complex system must specify

A
(a) what task it performs
I (b) how it performs a task
(c) with which subsystems it co-operates
C (d) how it co-operates with other systems
T 92. By polymorphism of a subsystem we mean
E (a) it should be reusable
(b) it should have polymorphic data types
(c) it should accept generic commands and interpret appropriately
(d) it should morph polygons
93. Objects are

(i) tangible entities
(ii) intangible entities
(iii) transient entities
(iv) Uniquely identifiable
A
I Which of the following are correct?
(a) i, ii
C (b) i, ii, iii
(c) i, ii, iii, iv
T (d) i, ii, iv
E
94. A class is
(a) a group of objects
(b) template for objects of a particular type
(c) a class of objects
(d) a classification of objects.
95. In UML diagram of a class

(a) state of object cannot be represented
(b) state is irrelevant
A (c) state is represented as an attribute
(d) state is represented as a result of an operation
I
C 96. Attributes are assigned value
(a) when operations are performed on an object
T (b) when instances of objects are defined
(c) when methods are invoked
E (d) when classes are identified.
97. Which data memory control and handle the operation of several peripherals by
assigning hem in the category of special function registers?
(a) Internal on-chip RAM
(b) External off-chip RAM
(c) Both (a)&(b)
A
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98. Why is the speed accessibility of external data memory slower than internal on-chip
A
RAM?
I (a) Due to multiplexing of lower order byte of address-data bus
(b) Due to multiplexing of higher order byte of address-data bus
C (c) Due to demultiplexing of lower order byte of address-data bus
(d) Due to demultiplexing of higher order byte of address-data bus
T
E 99. Which control signal/s is/are generated by timing and control unit of 8051
microcontrollersin order to access the off-chip devices apart from the internal
timings?
(a) ALE
(b) PSEN
(c) RD & WR
100. Which register usually store the output generated by ALU in several arithmetic and
logical operations?
A (a) Accumulator
(b) Special Function Register
I (c) Timer Register
C (d) Stack Pointer
T 101. Which condition approve to prefer the EPROM/ROM versions for mass production in
order to prevent the external memory connections?
E (a) size of code < size of on-chip program memory
(b) size of code > size of on-chip program memory
(c) size of code = size of on-chip program memory
102. Which general purpose register holds eight-bit divisor and store the remainder
especially after the execution of division operation?
(a) A-Register
(b) B-Register
(c) Registers R0 through R7
A
I
103. Which is the only register without internal on-chip RAM address in MCS-51?
C (a) Stack Pointer
(b) Program Counter
T (c) Data Pointer
E (d) Timer Register
104. What is the default value of stack once after the system undergoes the reset condition?
(a) 07H
(b) 08H
(c) 09H
(d) 00H
A
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105. The grammar S → aSa | bS | c is

A
(a) LL(1) but not LR(1)
I (b) LR (1)but not LR (1)
(c) Both LL (1)and LR (1)
C (d) Neither LL(1)nor LR(1)
T 106. Consider the grammar with non-terminals N = {S,C,S1},terminals T={a,b,i,t,e}, with
S as the start symbol, and the following set of rules:
E S --> iCtSS1|a
S1 -->eS|ϵ
C --> b
The grammar is NOT LL(1) because:

(a) It is left recursive
(b) It is right recursive
(c) It is ambiguous
(d) It is not context-free.
A
107. Consider the grammar defined by the following production rules, with two operators *
I and +
S --> T * P
C T --> U | T * U
T P --> Q + P | Q
Q --> Id
E U --> Id
Which one of the following is TRUE?
(a) + is left associative, while * is right associative
(b) + is right associative, while * is left associative
(c) Both + and * are right associative
(d) Both + and * are left associative
108. Which of the following grammar rules violate the requirements of an operator
grammar? P, Q, R arenon-terminals, and r, s, t are terminals.
A 1. P → Q R
2. P → Q s R
I 3. P → ε
4. P → Q t R
C (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
T (c) 2 and 3 only
E (d) 3 and 4 only
109. An LALR(1) parser for a grammar G can have shift-reduce (S-R) conflicts if and only
if
(a) The SLR(1) parser for G has S-R conflicts
(b) The LR(1) parser for G has S-R conflicts
(c) The LR(0) parser for G has S-R conflicts
(d) The LALR(1) parser for G has reduce-reduce conflicts
A
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110. Assume that the SLR parser for a grammar G has n1 states and the LALR parser for G
A
has n2 states. The relationship between n1 and n2 is:
I (a) n1 is necessarily less than n2
(b) n1 is necessarily equal to n2
C (c) n1 is necessarily greater than n2
T
111. Consider the following grammar G.
E S→F⎪H
F→p⎪c
H→d⎪c
Where S, F and H are non-terminal symbols, p, d and c are terminal symbols. Which
of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
S1: LL(1) can parse all strings that are generated using grammar G.
S2: LR(1) can parse all strings that are generated using grammar G.
(a) Only S1
(b) Only S2
A (c) Both S1 and S2
(d) Neither S1 and S2
I
112. Consider a machine in which all memory reference instructions have only one
C memory address, for them we need at least _____ frame(s).
T (a) one
(b) two
E (c) three
113. The minimum number of frames to be allocated to a process is decided by the

(a) the amount of available physical memory
(b) operating System
(c) instruction set architecture
114. When a page fault occurs before an executing instruction is complete
A (a) the instruction must be restarted
(b) the instruction must be ignored
I (c) the instruction must be completed ignoring the page fault
C
115. The maximum number of frames per process is defined by
T
(a) the amount of available physical memory
E (b) operating System
(c) instruction set architecture
116. The algorithm in which we split m frames among n processes, to give everyone an
equal share, m/n frames is known as
(a) proportional allocation algorithm
(b) equal allocation algorithm
(c) split allocation algorithm
A
I
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
117. The algorithm in which we allocate memory to each process according to its size is
A
known as
I (a) proportional allocation algorithm
(b) equal allocation algorithm
C (c) split allocation algorithm
T
E 118. With either equal or proportional algorithm, a high priority process is treated
___________ a low priority process.
(a) greater than
(b) same as
(c) lesser than
119. Which of the following is NOT a valid deadlock prevention scheme?

(a) Release all resources before requesting a new resource
(b) Number the resources uniquely and never request a lower numbered resource than
A the last one requested.
I (c) Never request a resource after releasing any resource
(d) Request and all required resources be allocated before execution.
C
120. What is the number of page-faults while using LRU page reference string 0 1 7 2 3 2
T 7 1 0 3 with four page frames in main memory? Assume that all the frames are
initially empty.
E
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 9
A
I
C
T
E
A
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Page 18 of 18
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UG2CS E14
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Computer Science and Engineering
Paper: 2

1. b 41 c 81. a
2. d 42 c 82. c
3. a 43 b 83. a
4. b 44 d 84. b
5. c 45 c 85. c
6. c 46 a 86. d
7. c 47 c 87. a
8. b 48 b 88. b
9. c 49 a 89. b
10. d 50 d 90. d
11. b 51 c 91. c
12. c 52 c 92. c
13. d 53 c 93. d
14. a 54 d 94. b
15. a 55 a 95. c
16. a 56 d 96. b
17. b 57 a 97. a
18. a 58 a 98. a
19. d 59 d 99. d
20. a 60 d 100. a
21. a 61 b 101. a
22. a 62 c 102. b
23. b 63 c 103. b
24. c 64 c 104. a
25. a 65 d 105. c
26. a 66 c 106. c
27. d 67 a 107. b
28. a 68 b 108. b
29. d 69 d 109. b
30. b 70 d 110. b
31. c 71 a 111. d
32. c 72 d 112. b
33. b 73 a 113. c
34. c 74 b 114. a
35. b 75 b 115. a
36. a 76 c 116. b
37. a 77 b 117. a
38. b 78 b 118. b
39. a 79 b 119. c
40. b 80 c 120. a
ROLL NO.: UG1CVE11
A
I
C
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CIVIL ENGINEERING
E
PAPER-I
A Instructions:
I
C total 120 questions.
E
C vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can

T
specified.
A
I
C completion of examination before leaving the examination hall.
T
E
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C
T 1. In case of biaxial stresses, the maximum value of shear stress is
a) difference of normal stresses
E b) half the difference of normal stresses
c) sum of normal stresses
d) half the sum of normal stresses
2. Moment of inertia of a triangular sheet of base width ‘b’and height ‘h’ about the
A centroidal axis parallel to the base is
𝑏𝑕 3
I a) 36
C 𝑏𝑕 3
b) 18
T
𝑏𝑕 3
E c) 12
𝑏𝑕 3
d) 3
3. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of

A a) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
b) lateral strain and longitudinal strain
I c) longitudinal stress and lateral stress
d) lateral stress and longitudinal stress
C
T 4. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a) shear force is first derivative of bending moment
E b) shear force is the first derivative of intensity of load
c) load intensity on a beam is the first derivative of bending moment
d) bending moment is the first derivative of shear force
5. The maximum deflection of simply supported beam occurs at

a) zero bending moment location
A
b) zero shear force location
I c) zero slope location
d) zero shear force location and also zero bending moment location
C
6. The radius of Mohr's circle is zero when the state of stress is such that
T a) shear stress is zero
E b) there is pure shear
c) there is no shear stress but identical direct stresses
d) there is no shear stress but equal direct stresses, opposite in nature, in two mutually
perpendicular directions
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7. According to IS 456 – 2000, maximum strain in concrete at the outermost
C compression fibre in bending is
a)0.35
T b) 0.0035
c) 0.035
E d) 3.5
8. According to IS 456- 2000, flexural strength of M25 grade concrete will be (in
N/mm2)
a) 25
A b) 5
c) 2.5
I d) 3.5
C
9. In plate girder, the vertical stiffeners are provided when the ratio of clear depth to the
T thickness of web exceeds
a) 50
E b) 85
c) 75
d) 65
10. Principal planes are the planes on which resultant stress sis
a) shear stress
A b) normal stress
I c) torsion
d) all of the above
C
11. Which type of soil undergoes significant secondary consolidation settlement?
T a) sandy
b) silty
E
c) inorganic clay
d) organic clay
12. The failure load of a column depends upon

a) weight of column
A b) length of column
c) slenderness ratio
I d) cross sectional area of column
C
13. Maximum strain occurs in a circular shaft, when subjected to torsion
T a) centre line
b) at half diameter from centre
E c) at ¼ dia from centre
d) at outermost surface of shaft
14. In earthquake prone area RCC beam preferably designed as

a) over reinforced section
b) balanced section
c) cantilever beam section
d) under reinforced section
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15. Out of the following mild steel sections, the most economical section is
C a) I-section
b) Circular section
T c) rectangular section
d) channel section
E
16. Which of the following theories of failure is most appropriate for a brittle material
a) maximum principal strain theory
b) maximum principal stress theory
c) shear stress theory
A d) maximum strain energy theory
I 17. The shear centre of a section is defined as that point

a) through which the load must be applied to produce zero twisting moment
C
onthe section
T b) at which the shear force is zero
c) at which the shear force is a maximum
E d) at which the shear force is a minimum
18. If two shafts of the same length and cross-section area, one of which is solid and other
is hollow, transmit equal torque and have equal maximum stress then they should
have equal
a) polar moment of inertia
A b) angle of twist
I c) ratio of polar moment of inertia to distance of extreme fibre from the neutral axis
d) None of these
C
19. A spring with 25 active coils cannot be accommodated within a given space. Hence 5
T coils of the spring are cut. What is the stiffness of the new spring?
a) same as the original spring
E
b) 1.25 times the original spring
c) 0.80 times the original spring
d) 0.50 times the original spring
20. Which one of the following is correct?

A A determinate structure
a) cannot be analyzed without the correct knowledge of modulus of elasticity
I b) must necessarily have roller support at one of its ends
C c) required only static equilibrium equations for its analysis
d) will have zero deflection at its ends
T
21. Which one of the following is correct?
E A statically indeterminate structure is the one which
a) cannot be analyzed at all
b) can be analyzed using only static equilibrium equations
c) can be analyzed using equations of Static equilibrium and compatibility equations
d) can be analyzed using onlyequations of compatibility
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22. Clapeyron’s theorem is applied to
C a) simply supported beam
b) propped cantilever beam
T c) fixed and continuous beam
d) continuous beam only
E
23. Principle of minimum Strain energy is
(i) a particular case of castigliano's first theorem
(ii) a particular case of castigliano's second theorem
(iii) applicable only when the redundant supports do not yield
A (iv) applicable even when the redundant supports yield
I a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i) and (iv)
C
c) (ii) and(iii)
T d) (ii) and (iv)
E 24. Which one of the following methods is not classifiable as a force method
a) theorem of three moments
b) the moment distribution method
c) the method of consistent deformation
d) Castigliano's theorem
A 25. Which one of the following statement is correct?
I a) In slope deflection method the forces are taken as unknowns
b) In slope deflection method the joint rotations are taken as unknowns
C c) Slope deflection method is not applicable for beams and frames having settlement
at the support
T d) Slope deflection method is also known as force method
E
26. A certain RC structure has to be constructed along a sea coast. The minimum grade of
the concrete to be used as per IS 456:2000 is
a) M20
b) M30
c) more than M30
A d) more than M20 and less than M30
I 27. Shear span is defined as the zone where
C a) bending moment is zero
b) shear force is zero
T c) shear force is constant
d) bending moment is constant
E
28. Torsion reinforcement provided at the corners of a two-way slab
a) distributes bending moment uniformly
b) prevents corner from lifting
c) controls cracking at corner
d) does not allow any twist at corners
Page 5 of 18
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29. Why is the design of RC section as over reinforced undesirable?
C a) It consumes more concrete
b) It undergoes high strains
T c) It fails suddenly
d) Its appearance is not good
E
30. Bond stress in limit state method for plain bars in tension is Tbd. Then bond stress
used in compression for deformed bars is x Tbd. where the value of ‘x’ is
a) 1
b) 2
A c) 3
d) 4
I
31. In limit state method, spacing of main reinforcement controls primarily
C
a) collapse
T b) durability
c) deflection
E d) cracking
32. The beam whose end supports are such that the end slope remains zero is a
a) continuous beam
b) propped beam
c) simply supported beam
A d) fixed beam
I
33. The effective length of a fillet weld is taken as the actual length
C a) plus twice the size of the weld
b) minus twice the size of the weld
T c) plus the size of the weld
d) minus the size of the weld
E
34. What is the maximum effective slenderness ratio for a tension member in which stress
reversal occurs?
a) 180
b) 200
A c) 280
d) 300
I
C 35. Battens provided for a compression member shall be designed to carry a transverse
shear equal to
T a) 2.5 % of axial force in the member
b) 5 % of axial force in the member
E c) 10 % of axial force in the member
d) 20 % of axial force in the member
36. The mode of failure in fillet welded member is

a) tension
b) shear
c) bearing
d) crushing
Page 6 of 18
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C 37. In a riveted joint, failure will occur due to which one of the following?
a) Shear failure of rivet
T b) Bearing failure of rivet
c) Tearing failure of plate
E d) Minimum load value of shearing bearing or tearing failure
38. Horizontal stiffeners in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against

a) shear buckling of web plate
b) compression buckling of web plate
A c) yielding
d) all of the above
I
39. The uniformly coefficient of soil is defined as the ratio of
C
(a) D10/D20
T (b) D20/D30
(c) D60/D10
E (d) D40/D50
40. The ratio of energy imparted to soil sample in modified proctor’s compaction test and
the standard proctor’s compaction test is about
a) 10.0
b) 4.5
A c) 2.2
I d) 1.8
C 41. The bearing capacity of soil influences the foundation with its
a) shape
T b) type
c) depth below ground
E
d) all of the above
42. A soil having particles of nearly the same size is known as

a) well graded
b) uniformly graded
A c) poorly graded
d) gap graded
I
C 43. Which of the following soils have the finest grains?
a) sands
T b) silts
c) fine sands
E d) clays
44. The ratio of weight of water to the weight of solids in a given mass of soil, is known
as
a) void ratio
b) porosity
c) specific gravity
d) water content
Page 7 of 18
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C 45. The relationship between void ratio e and porosity n is
𝑒
a) 𝑛 = (1 – 𝑒 )
T
b) 𝑒 = 𝑛(1 + 𝑒)
1+𝑛
E c) 𝑒 = 1 – 𝑒
1+𝑒
d) 𝑛 = (1 – 𝑒)
46. The maximum water content at which a reduction in water content will not cause a
decrease in volume of a soil mass is known as
A a) plastic limit
b) shrinkage limit
I c) liquid limit
d) consistency limit
C
47. A shallow foundation is a foundation that
T
a) has a low bearing capacity
E b) has a depth of embedment less than its width
c) is resting on the ground surface
d) causes less settlement
48. The upper limit of area ratio for which the amount of disturbance of soil sample in
sensitive clay can be considered to be small is
A a) 10%
b) 15%
I c) 20%
C d) 25%
T 49. The liquid and plastic limits of a fine-grained soil are found to be 44% and 21%,
respectively. How is the soil classified?
E a) ML
b) CL
c) CI
d) MI
A 50. A soil deposit has a void ratio of 1.4. If the void ratio is reduced to 0.80 by
compaction, then the percentage volume loss is
I a) 13.33
b) 20
C c) 25
T d) 40
E 51. For a saturated cohesive soil, a triaxial test yields the angle of internal friction as zero.
The conducted test is
a) Consolidated Drained (CD) test
b) Consolidated Undrained (CU) test
c) Unconfined Compression (UC) test
d) Unconsolidated Undrained (UU) test
Page 8 of 18
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52. In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-sixth of its volume and water occupies one-third
C of its volume. The void ratio of the soil is
a) 0.25
T b) 0.5
c) 1.00
E d) 1.50
53. The net ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil not considering shape
factor
a) depends on the width of the footing and is independent of the depth of the footing.
A b) depends on the depth of the footing and is independent of the width of the footing.
c) depends on the width of the footing as well as on the depth of the footing.
I d) is independent of the width as well on the depth of the footing.
C
54. When the primary consolidation process in a soil is complete, then
T a) the hydrostatic pressure will become zero
b) the excess pore water pressure will become zero
E c) both (a) and (b)
d) the effective stress will become zero
55. For a sample of dry, cohesion-less soil with friction angle, the failure plane will be
inclined to the major principal plane by an angle equal to
a) φ
A b) 45°
I c) 45° + φ/2
d) 45° – φ/2
C
56. The plinth area of building does not include
T a) lift and walls
b) internal shaft for sanitary installations
E
c) area of cantilevered porch
d) area of walls at floor level
57. The brick work is not measured in cubic meter in case of

a) reinforced brick work
A b) brick work in arches
c) one or more than one brick thick wall
I d) half brick thick wall
C
58. Rate analysis of the item is providing assistance for
T a) determination of probability of project completion within given time
b) estimation of time duration for activities
E c) logic setup for the network
d) critical path determination
59. The cost-slope is an indicator of
a) normal cost
b)crash cost
c) critical activity
d) the extra cost to expedite activity per unit time
Page 9 of 18
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60. Size of power shovel is represented by the size of
C a) hoist line
b) dipper
T c) boom
d) cab
E
61. Probability of finishing of project earlier than expected time is
a) 100%
b) more than 50%
c) less than 50%
A d) 80%
I 62. The activity which prefer to crash first has

a) least cost slope
C
b) highest cost slope
T c) cost slope is zero
d) there is no relation with crashing and cost slope
E
63. Free float is the part of
a) interfering float
b) independent float
c) positive total float
d) all of the above
A
I 64. In PERT analysis, activity-time duration follows
a) binomial distribution
C b) normal distribution
c) gamma (γ) distribution
T d) beta (β) distribution
E
65. Resource smoothing of the project assumes
a) project resources and duration both are unlimited
b) project resources are unlimited and duration is fixed
c) project resources are fixed and duration is unlimited
A
66. To handle quarry rocks, the rear dump truck body should be
I a) deep
C b) shallow
c) deep with vertical or sloping sides
T d) shallow with sloping side boards
E 67. Total floats in CPM is

a) minimum available time over activity time
b) difference of maximum time available and actual time required for activity
c) maximum available time other than activity
d) both b) and c)
Page 10 of 18
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68. Resource levelling considers
C a) resources are limited
b) resources are unlimited
T c) change in project duration is not allowed
d) change in project duration is allowed
E
69. Time by which particular activity can be delayed without affecting preceding and
succeeding activities is defined as
a) interfering float
b) total float
A c) independent float
d) free float
I
70. Which earth moving equipment has short time cycle?
C
a) calm shell
T b) hoe
c) dipper shovel
E d) drag line
A 71. If the deflection at the free end of a uniformly loaded cantilever beam is 15 mm and
I the slope of the deflection curve at the free end is 0.02 radian, then the length of the
beam is
C a) 1.5 m
b) 1.2 m
T c) 1.0 m
d) 0.8 m
E
72. What is the ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress for a circular
section?
a) 2
b) 3/2
A c) 3/4
d) 4/3
I
C 73. A circular shaft of diameter D is subjected to a torque T. The maximum shear stress
of the shaft will be
T a) Proportional to D3
b) Proportional to D4
E c) Inversely proportional to D3
d) Inversely proportional to D4
Page 11 of 18
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74. A circular column of external diameter D, and internal diameter d, carries an eccentric
C load such that tension is developed nowhere. What shall be the diameter of core?
𝐷2 + 𝑑 2
a)
T 8𝑑
E 𝐷2 − 𝑑 2
b) 8𝑑
𝐷2 + 𝑑 2
c) 4𝑑
𝐷2 − 𝑑 2
A d) 4𝑑
I
75. If two spring of stiffness K1 and K2 are connected in series the stiffness of the
C combined spring is
𝐾 𝐾
a) 𝐾 1+ 𝐾2
T 1 2
𝐾1 + 𝐾2
E b) 𝐾1 𝐾2
c) 𝐾1 + 𝐾2
d) 𝐾1 𝐾2
A 76. The moment required to rotate the near end of a prismatic beam through unit angle
without translation when the far end is fixed, is
I a) EI/L
C b) 2EI/L
c) 3EI/L
T d) 4EI/L
E 77. What does the Williot Mohr diagram yield

a) forces in member of a truss
b) moments in a fixed beam
c) reactions at the support
d) joint displacement of a pin jointed plane frame
A
78. What is the variation of influence line for shear stress function in a statically
I determinate structure?
a) parabolic
C b) bilinear
T c) linear
d) uniformly rectangular
E
79. The Muller-Breslau principle for influence line is applicable for
a) simple beams
b) continuous beams
c) redundant trusses
d) all of the above
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80. Stiffness method of structural analysis starts with
C a) force deformation relations
b) equilibrium condition
T c) compatibility deformation
d) equilibrium state of internal stress components
E
81. Linear arch is the one which represents
a) centre line of an arch
b) variation of the bending moment
c) thrust line
A d) variation of shear force
I 82. Hardy cross method of moment distribution can be applied to analyse

a) continuous beam including non-prismatic structures
C b) continuous beams with prismatic elements
c) structure with intermediate hinges
T d) all of the above
E
83. The area of influence diagram for the reaction at the hinged end of a uniform propped
cantilever beam of span L is
a) L/8
b) L/4
c) 3L/8
A d) L/2
I 84. In a cantilever beam, the bending moment at any section of the beam is equal to the
a) area of the shear force diagram between the free end of the beam and at that
C section.
b) area of the bending moment diagram between the free end of the beam and at that
T
section.
E c) area of shear force diagram between the fixed end of the beam and at that section.
d) vertical ordinate at that section in the shear force diagram.
85. What is the minimum area of tension reinforcement in beams when Fe 415 is used?
a) 0.8%
b) 0.12%
A c) 0.15%
d) 0.2%
I
C 86. According to IS 456:2000, maximum slenderness ratio for a short concrete column is
a) less than 12
T b) between 12 and 18
c) between 18 and 24
E d) more than 24
87. In reinforced concrete section the shape of the nominal shear stress diagram is
(according to IS code)
a) parabolic over the full depth
b) parabolic above the neutral axis and rectangular below the neutral axis
c) rectangular over the full depth
d) rectangular above the neutral axis and parabolic below the neutral axis
Page 13 of 18
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88. Web buckling occurs in a beam due to excessive
C a) direct tensile stress in the web
b) bending tensile stress in the web
T c) torsional shear stress in the web
d) compressive stress in the web
E
89. Gantry girders are designed to resist
a) lateral loads
b) longitudinal loads
c) vertical loads
I 90. The grain size of silt particles in soil sample is

a) greater than 4.75mm
C
b) 4.75 mm to 0.075 mm
T c) 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
d) less than 0.002 mm
E
91. A stratum of 3.5 m thick fine sand has a void ratio of 0.7 and G of 2.7. For a quick
sand condition to develop in this strata, the water flowing in upward direction would
require a head of
a) 7.00 m
b) 5.56 m
A c) 5.00 m
I d) 3.50 m
C 92. The value of coefficient of permeability for a uniformly graded sand of size D10 =
0.20 mm obtained from sieve analysis is ____________ cm/s
T a) 4
b) 20
E
c) 2
d) 10
93. Soil is sandy silt below the water table. SPT ‘N’ value corrected to overburden
pressure is 21. The final corrected value of ‘N’ is
A a) 24
b) 15
I c) 21
C d) 18
T 94. The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are5, 10 and
21 days respectively. What are the expected time and standard deviation?
E a) 12, 3.11
b) 11, 4.32
c) 11, 2.67
d) 10, 16
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95. The time taken by a saturated clay layer to achieve 80% consolidation is 12 years. The
C time required to achieve 80% consolidation, if the clay layer was thrice as thick, two
times more permeable and three times more compressible would be
T a) 54
b) 108
E c) 162
d) 216
96. If To is optimum project schedule and Tnis normal project schedule

a) To ≤ Tn
A b) To ≥ Tn
c) To = Tn
C
97. The out-turn (per day per mason) of half brick wall in partition
T a) 5 m2
b) 8 m2
E c) 10 m2
d) 12 m2
98. Annual rent is generally fixed at

a) 5% to 10% of value of building
b) 1% to 2% of value of building
A c) 2% to 5% of value of building
I d) 10% to 15% of value of building
C 99. Mile stone chart is the improvement of

a) CPM method
T b) bar chart method of scheduling
c) PERT method
E
d) all of the above
100. Number of cement bags required for 1:2:4 cement concrete of 1 m3

a) 6 bags
b) 8 bags
A c) 4 bags
d) 10 bags
I
C
PART –C
T Engineering Mathematics (30 Marks)
E
(a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
(c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
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C (a) Non-singularmatrix
(b) Identitymatrix
T (c) Singularmatrix
E
(a) Nullmatrix
(b) Diagonalmatrix
A (d) None ofthe above.

C (a) u
(b) 1
T (c) -1
(d) 0
E
[−3, 1] are
(a) −7 and −8
(b) 81 and −8
A (c) 0 and −2
(d) 73 and −8
I
2
C 106. The differential equation 𝑑𝑥 4 + 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦 = 0 is
T (a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
E (c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4

(a) 3
(b) 6
A
(c) 2
𝐵
T (a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
E 𝐴
𝐵
(c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
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I
13
C (a) 30
17
T (b) 30
19
E (c) 30
1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
(a) Hermitianmatrix
A (b) Unitorymatrix
C 111. The system of equations x + y = 2 and 2x + λy= µ has unique solution,if

(a) λ = 2 and µ =4
T (b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
E (c) λ ≠ 2 and µ can takeany value.
(a) 62
A (b) 44
(c) 8

C 113. If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is true

T (a) grad | A |  0

E (b) curl A  0

(c) div A  0
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
A 114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
I (b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
C (c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
T 𝑛−1
1 1
115. 0
E
(a) ⎾(n − 1)
(b) ⎾(n)
n−1
(c) ⎾ 2
n+1
(d) ⎾ 2
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CVE11
A
I
(a) Hyperbolic
C (b) Elliptic
(c) Parabolic
T (d) None ofthe above.
E 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
A (c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
I (d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
C
T 2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
E 1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
(a) 0
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
A
I (a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
C (b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
E 120. IfmeanofaPoissondistributionismthenvarianceofthisdistributionis
(a) m2
(b) 𝑚
(c) 𝑚
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG1CV E11
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Civil Engineering
Paper: 1

1. b 41 d 81. c
2. a 42 b 82. d
3. b 43 d 83. c
4. a 44 d 84. a
5. c 45 b 85. d
6. c 46 b 86. a
7. b 47 b 87. c
8. d 48 a 88. d
9. b 49 c 89. d
10. b 50 c 90. c
11. d 51 d 91. d
12. c 52 c 92. a
13. d 53 d 93. d
14. d 54 b 94. c
15. a 55 c 95. c
16. b 56 c 96. a
17. a 57 d 97. a
18. c 58 b 98. a
19. b 59 d 99. b
20. c 60 b 100. a
21. c 61 c 101. a
22. c 62 a 102. c
23. c 63 c 103. a
24. b 64 d 104. d
25. b 65 b 105. d
26. c 66 d 106. d
27. c 67 b 107. a
28. c 68 a 108. a
29. c 69 c 109. a
30. b 70 c 110. b
31. d 71 c 111. c
32. d 72 d 112. d
33. b 73 c 113. b
34. a 74 c 114. a
35. a 75 a 115. b
36. b 76 d 116. b
37. d 77 d 117. d
38. b 78 c 118. a
39. c 79 d 119. d
40. b 80 a 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I
CIVIL ENGINEERING
C
T
PAPER-II
A
I
C
Instructions:
T i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120
questions.
E
A iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be
I
C
T
E specified.
vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using
A viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
I
T
E
Page 1 of 17
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A
C
1. The main principle of surveying is to work from
T a) the centre to the boundary
b) the whole to the part
E c) the part to the whole
d) higher to lower level
2. If the scale of a map is 1 cm = 50 m, its representative fraction is

a) 1/50
b) 1/500
A c) 1/5000
I d) 50/1
C 3. The correction for sag is always

a) additive
T b) subtractive
c) zero
E d) cannot say
4. If forebearing of a line is zero degree, its backbearing is
a) 00
b) 900
c) 1800
A d) 3600
I
5. Keeping the instrument height as 1.5 m, length of staff 4 m, and the slope of the
C ground as 1 in 20, the sight on the down-slope, must be less than
a) 25 m
T b) 50 m
c) 2.5 m
E d) 5.0 m
6. In levelling operation
a) when the instrument is being shifted, the staff must not be moved
b) when the staff is being carried forward, the instrument must remain stationary
A c) both (a) and (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b).
I
7. The first reading from a level station is
C
a) foresight
T b) intermediate sight
c) back sight
E d) any sight.
8. Contours of different elevations may cross each other only in the case of
a) an overhanging cliff
b) a vertical cliff
c) a saddle
d) an inclined plane.
Page 2 of 17
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A
I 9. The area of any irregular figure of the plotted map is measured with
a) pentagraph
C b) sextant
c) clinometers
T d) planimeter
E 10. Ranging is an operation of
a) reconnaissance
b) judging the distance
c) determination of slope
d) establishing intermediate points between terminals
A
11. The main ingredients of Portland cement are
I a) lime and silica
b) lime and alumina
C c) silica and alumina
d) lime and iron
T
E 12. Which of the following is the purest form of iron?
a) cast iron
b) wrought iron
c) mild steel
d) high carbon steel
A 13. Soundness of cement is tested by

a) Vicat’s apparatus
I
b) Le-Chatelier apparatus
C c) Compressive strength testing apparatus
d) None of these
T
14. Specific gravity of most building stones lies between
E a) 1.5 and 2.0
b) 2.0 and 2.5
c) 2.5 and 3.0
d) 3.0-3.25
A 15. Bulking of sand is caused due to

a) surface moisture
I b) air voids
c) viscosity
C d) clay contents
T
16. Seasoning of timber is done for
E a) removing the moisture
b) increasing the moisture
c) increasing the strength
d) improving the appearance
Page 3 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I 17. Aggregate impact value indicates _________________ of aggregates
a) durability
C b) strength
c) hardness
T d) toughness
E 18. The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate course of stretchers and
headers, is called
a) English bond
b) Flemish bond
c) stretcher bond
A d) header bond
I 19. The sum of rise and tread should lie between

a) 300-350 mm
C
b) 400-450 mm
T c) 500-550 mm
d) 600-650 mm
E
20. Cavity wall is generally provided for
a) heat insulation
b) sound insulation
c) prevention of dampness
d) all the above
A
21. The existence of boundary layer is on account of
I
a) fluid density
C b) gravitation effect
c) fluid viscosity
T d) fluid turbulence
E 22. The unit for dynamic viscosity of fluid is
a) m2/s
b) N.s/m2
c) Pa.s/m2
d) kg.s2/m2
A
23. Newton’s law of viscosity is relation between
I a) shear stress and pressure
b) Viscosity and temperature of fluid
C c) shear stress and velocity gradient
T d) pressure and viscosity
E 24. The metacentric height is the distance between the

a) centre of gravity of floating body and centre of buoyancy
b) centre of gravity of floating body and metacentre
c) metacentre and centre of buoyancy
d) original centre of buoyancy and new centre of buoyancy
Page 4 of 17
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A
I 25. The imaginary line drawn such that the tangents at its all points indicate the direction
of the velocity of the fluid particles at each point, is called
C a) path line
b) stream line
T c) potential line
d) streak line
E
26. Orifice meter is application of
a) Poisson’s Equation
b) Chezy’s law
c) Newton’s law
A d) Bernoulli’s equation
I 27. If fluid is assumed ideal and the body is symmetrical such as cylinder or sphere, the
drag and lift will be
C
a) 0
T b) 1
c) lift is higher than drag
E d) drag is higher than lift
28. The flow through the contracting pipe at constant rate is called as
a) steady, uniform flow
b) steady, non-uniform flow
c) unsteady, non-uniform flow
A d) unsteady, uniform flow
I
29. The discharge over a rectangular notch is
C a) directly proportional to H3/2
b) directly proportional to H5/2
T c) inversely proportional to H3/2
d) inversely proportional to H5/2
E
30. Venturimeter is used to measure the
a) velocity of a flowing fluid
b) discharge of a liquid flowing in a pipe
c) pressure of a flowing liquid
A d) pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
I 31. The discharge in an open channel corresponding to critical depth is
C a) zero
b) minimum
T c) maximum
d) none of these
E
32. Which aquifer is called water table aquifer?
a) unconfined aquifer
b) confined aquifer
c) ground aquifer
d) connate aquifer
Page 5 of 17
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A
I 33. The standard height of a raingauge is
a) 10 cm
C b) 20 cm
c) 30 cm
T d) 40 cm
E 34. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
a) contour lines
b) watershed
c) straight line
d) valley line
A
35. A hydrograph is a curve showing the relation between
I a) actual infiltration and time
b) actual precipitation and time
C c) actual discharge and time
d) actual discharge and infiltration
T
E 36. For estimating high flood in Fan shaped catchment, the formula used is
a) Dicken’s formula
b) Ryve’s formula
c) Inglis formula
d) None of these
A 37. Wharves along or parallel to the shore are known as

a) Dolphins
I
b) Quays
C c) Fenders
d) Jetties
T
38. Discharge per unit drawdown at the well is known as
E a) specific yield
b) specific storage
c) specific retention
d) specific capacity
A 39. Unit of hydraulic conductivity is

a) m/day
I b) m3/day
c) day/m3
C d) day/m
T
40. The hydrology cycle is expressed by equation (P= precipitation, E=Evaporation, R=
E Run-off)
a) P = E – R
b) P = E + R
c) P = E x R
d) P = E /R
Page 6 of 17
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A
I 41. The standard project flood is
a) same as probable maximum flood
C b) same as design flood
c) smaller than the probable maximum flood
T d) larger than that probable maximum flood by factor implying safety factor
E 42. The zone of aeration in ground profile does not include
a) capillary zone
b) soil water zone
c) intermediate zone
d) saturation zone
A
43. Camber in a road is provided for
I a) Effective drainage
b) Counteracting the centrifugal force
C
c) Having proper straight distance
E 44. A terrain may be classified as rolling terrain, if the cross slope of land is
a) upto 10%
b) between 10% and 25%
c) between 25% and 60%
d) more than 60%
A 45. The maximum width of a vehicle as per IRC recommendation is
I a) 1.85 m
b) 2.50 m
C c) 3.81 m
d) 4.72 m
T
46. Desire lines are plotted in
E a) traffic volume studies
b) speed Studies
c) accident studies
d) origin and destination studies
A 47. Traffic volume is equal to

a) traffic density x traffic speed
I b) traffic density / traffic speed
c) traffic speed / traffic density
T
48. Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct
E a) abrasion test
b) impact test
c) attrition test
d) crushing strength
Page 7 of 17
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A
I 49. The minimum ductility value specified by BIS for bitumen is
a) 25 cm
C b) 50 cm
c) 75 cm
T d) 100 cm
E 50. Flexible pavement distributes the wheel load
a) directly to subgrade
b) through structural action
c) through a set of layers to subgrade
A
51. Main drawback of CBR method is that it
I a) does not consider the strength characteristic of subgrade soil
b) is a complex method
C
c) gives the total thickness which remains same irrespective of the quality of materials
T used in the component layers
d) does not give the thickness of individual layers
E
52. The total number of conflict points of vehicles at four-legged intersection with two
way traffic movement is
a) 20
b) 12
c) 16
A d) 24
I 53. The recommended land width in case of four-lane national highway is
C a) 20 m
b) 30 m
T c) 40 m
d) 60 m
E
54. In highway geometric design, once the cumulative speed distribution is drawn, the
design adequacy is checked at which percentile?
a) 85th percentile
b) 95th percentile
c) 98th percentile
A
d) 99th percentile
I 55. Bottom most layer of pavement is known as
C a) subgrade
b) base course
T c) wearing course
d) sub-base course
E
56. The maximum allowable water content in bitumen should not be more than
a) 2% by weight
b) 0. 2% by weight
c) 2.5 % by weight
d) 5% by weight
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I 57. Traffic signal is an example of
a) active control
C b) passive control
c) no control
T d) none of these
E 58. The design speed recommended by IRC for national highway passing through rolling
terrain is in the range of ---------- km/hr
a) 100-80
b) 80-65
c) 120-100
A d) 50-40
I 59. Microbiological quality of drinking water is generally assessed by testing for

a) coliforms
C
b) viruses
T c) algae
E
60. Hardness in water is caused due to
a) carbonates and bicarbonates
b) sodium and potassium
c) calcium and magnesium only
d) multivalent cations present
A
I 61. Consider the four common air pollutants found in urban environment: NO, SO2,
particulate matter and ozone. Among these which one is the secondary air pollutant?
C a) NO
b) SO2
T c) particulate matter
d) ozone
E
62. BOD is a measure of
a) pollution potential
b) strength of wastewater
c) oxygen demand
A d) all the above
I 63. Purpose of coagulation in water treatment is
C a) removal of suspended solids
b) removal of dissolved solids
T c) removal of volatile solids
d) all the above
E
64. Rapid test to indicate the intensity of pollution in river water is
a) BOD
b) dissolved oxygen
c) coliform MPN
d) total solids
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I 65. Which of the following equipment is used for controlling particulate air pollutants?
a) Venturi scrubber
C b) Electrostatic precipitator
c) Fabric filter
T d) All the above
E 66. Which is the aerobic treatment unit?
a) Septic tank
b) Activated sludge plant
c) Sludge digester
d) UASBR
A
67. In which treatment unit there is interaction between algae and bacteria?
I a) Oxidation pond
b) Activated sludge process
C
c) Oxidation ditch
E 68. Which of the following is (are) storm water regulators?

a) overflow weir
b) leaping weir
c) siphon spillway
d) all of these
A 69. Aerobic method of composting practiced in India is called
I a) Indore method
b) Bangalore method
C c) Nagpur method
d) Delhi method
T
70. Coagulation is not required in
E
a) slow sand filter
b) rapid sand filter
c) pressure filer
d) all of these
A 71. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

a) Sleepers hold the rails at proper gauge on straights
I b) Sleepers provide stability to the permanent way
C c) Sleepers act as an elastic cushion between rails and ballast
d) None of these.
T
72. Arrangement made to divert the trains from one track to another, is known as
E a) railway point
b) railway crossing
c) turnout
d) railway junction
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I 73. In Indian railways, the standard length of rails for broad gauge track is
a) 12.8 m
C b) 11.9 m
c) 11.0 m
T d) 10.1 m
E 74. As per practice of Indian Railways, the grade compensation provided for broad gauge
on curves is --------------
a) 0.05% per degree
b) 0.02% per degree
c) 0.04% per degree
A d) 0.15% per degree
I 75. Rail gauge is the distance between

a) outer faces of rails
C
b) inner faces of the rails
T c) centre to centre of rails
d) none of these
E
76. 90 R rails are mostly used in
a) BG
b) MG
c) NG
d) all of these
A
I 77. Where the aircraft is standing, the facility for loading and unloading operations in
front of terminal building is called
C a) holding apron
b) apron
T c) taxiway
d) hanger
E
78. The wind rose diagram for orientation of airport runway gives
a) direction of wind
b) direction and duration of wind
c) direction, duration and intensity of wind
A d) none of these
I 79. The best direction of a runway is
C a) along the longest line on the wind rose diagram
b) along the direction perpendicular to the longest line on the windrose diagram
T c) at 300 to the direction of the longest line on the wind rose diagram
d) none of these
E
80. Coning of wheels
a) prevent lateral movement of wheels
b) provide smooth running of trains
c) avoid excessive wear of inner faces of rail
d) all the above.
Page 11 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
C 81. The bearing of line AB is 152° 30' and angle ABC measured clockwise is 124° 28'.
The bearing of BC is
T a) 27° 52'
b) 96° 58'
E c) 148° 08'
d) 186° 58'
82. The reduced bearing of a line is N 87° W. Its whole circle bearing is
a) 87°
A b) 273°
c) 93°
I d) 3°
C 83. A lighthouse is visible just above the horizon at a certain station at the sea level. the
distance between the statin and the light house is 40 km. the height of the light house
T is approximately
a) 187.7 m
E
b) 137.7 m
c) 107.7 m
d) 87.3 m
84. The instrument which is used in plane tabling for obtaining horizontal and vertical
A distances directly without resorting to chaining, is known as
a) telescopic alidade
I b) clinometers
c) tacheometer
C d) all the above
T 85. What is the angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge line?
a) 300
E b) 450
c) 900
d) 1800
86. Approximate ratio of concrete strength at 7 days to its strength at 28 days is

4
A a) 5
I 2
b) 3
C 1
c)
3
T 1
d) 2
E
87. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundation because its
a) bearaing capacity is low
b) permeability is uncertain
c) particles are cohesive
d) property to undergo volumetric change due to variation of moisture content
Page 12 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I 88. The tensile strength of concrete is approximately ____ of compressive strength of
concrete
C a) 50%
b) 20%
T c) 10%
d) 5%
E
89. The type of foundation recommended for heavily loaded steel sanchions in soils with
poor bearing capacity is
a) pile foundation
b) well foundation
A c) grillage foundation
d) raft foundation
I
90. A coffer dam is
C
a) a temporary structure to protect construction activities in water
T b) a small dam for irrigation
c) a small dam for navigation
E d) a permanent structure to protect building
91. If water used for one bag of cement is 30 litres, the water-cement ratio is
a) 0.6
b) 0.3
c) 0.15
A d) 0.5
I
92. The standard atmospheric pressure at mean sea level is
C (i) 10.3 m of water
(ii) 0.76 m of mercury
T (iii) 1.03 kg/cm2
E
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
b) (i) and (ii) only true
c) (ii) and (iii) only true
d) only (ii) is true
A 93. Match the following

List-I List-II
I A. Mach Number 1. Ratio of inertial force and gravitational force
C B. Reynolds Number 2. Ration of fluid velocity and velocity of sound
C. Weber Number 3. Ratio of inertial force and viscous force
T D. Froude Number 4. Ratio of inertial force and surface tension force
E a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Page 13 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I 94. The diameter of pipe at two sections 1 and 2 are 200 and 300 mm, respectively. If the
velocity at section 1 was 4 m/s, the velocity at section 2 will be
C a) 1.77 m/s
b) 4 m/s
T c) 9 m/s
d) 2.66 m/s
E
List-I List-II
A. Specific Gravity 1. M0L2T-1
B. Coefficient of viscosity 2. M0L0T0
A C. Kinematic viscosity 3. ML-1T-1
D. Stress 4. ML-1T-2
I
a) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
C b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
T d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
E 96. A cylindrical tank of cross sectional area 600 mm2 and 2.6 m height is filled with
water up to a height of 1.5 m and remaining with the oil of specific gravity 0.78. The
vessel is open to atmosphere. What will be the absolute pressure at the base of tank?
a) 16.264 m of water
A b) 23.58 m of water
c) 2.358 m of water
I d) 12.658 m of water
C 97. A continuity equation based on
a) law of energy conservation
T b) principle of conservation of mass
E c) Archimedes’ principle
d) none of above
98. The rate of flow through a 3 m wide concrete lined rectangular channel having a slope
1 in 10000 and the Manning’s coefficient 0.013 when the depth of flow is 1 m is
a) 1.642 m3/s
A b) 0.547 m3/s
c) 1.78 m3/s
I d) 0.385 m3/s
C 99. Which of the following is incorrect in respect of Euler’s Number?
a) Euler’s Number is a dimensionless value
T
b) Euler’s Number is a ratio between inertial forces and viscous forces
E c) Euler’s Number is used for analysing fluid flow dynamics problems
d) Euler’s Number is ratio of pressure forces to inertial forces
100. A 1-hour unit hydrograph of a catchment is triangular in shape with a base width of
48 hour and peak discharge of 25 m3/s. The catchment area is about
a) 21.6 km2
b) 216 km2
c) 2.16 km2
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I d) 41.6 km2
101. In a phreatic aquifer extending over 1 km2 the water table was initially at 25 m below
C ground level. Sometime after irrigation with a depth of 20 cm of water, the water table
rose to a depth of 24 m below ground level. Later 3 × 105 m3 of water was pumped
T out and the water table dropped to 26.2 m below ground level. Determine specific
yield of the aquifer
E a) 0.136
b) 0.120
c) 1.360
d) 0.45
A 102. The number of modular bricks required per cubic meter of brick masonry is
a) 400
I b) 500
c) 600
C d) 700
T 103. The ordinate of a 2-h unit hydrograph at 1-hour interval starting from time t = 0 are 0,
E 3, 8, 6, 3, 2 and 0 m3/s. Use trapezoidal rule for numerical integration. What is the
catchment area represented by unit hydrograph?
a) 1 km2
b) 2 km2
c) 7.92 km2
d) 8.64 km2
A
104. The recurrence interval (R.I.) of 20 cm rain storm at a place is 5 years.
I a) The place will definitely have 20 cm rain storm after every five years
b) The place may have 20 cm rain storm after every five years
C c) The place may have 20 cm rain storm within a set of 5 years twice
T d) None of these.
E 105. During CBR test, the load sustained by a remould soil specimen at 5.0 mm
penetration is 50 kg. The CBR value of the soil will be
a) 10%
b) 5%
c) 3.6%
d) 2.4%
A
106. The traffic stream in a particular direction of two-lane road is moving with constant
I speed of 50 km/h, with average headway of 2.52 sec. The longitudinal distance
C between consecutive vehicles is
a) 30 m
T b) 35 m
c) 38 m
E d) 42 m
107. If the minimum time headway is 2 sec on a highway lane, then the maximum
theoretical capacity of traffic lane is
a) 2000 veh/hour
b) 1800 veh/hour
c) 900 veh/hour
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I d) 1000 veh/hour
108. Bituminous materials are used in highway construction primarily because of their
C a) high specific gravity
b) black colour which facilitates road markings
T c) load bearing capacity
d) cementing and water-proofing properties
E
109. Rigid pavements are designed by
a) rigid plate theory
b) elastic plate theory
c) infinite layer theory
A d) interlocking of aggregates
I 110. The standard axle load is

a) 40 kN
C
b) 10kN
T c) 60kN
d) 80 kN
E
111. Give way control
a) requires the driver in the minor road to slow down to a minimum speed and allow
the vehicle on the major road to proceed
b) requires the drivers on both minor and major roads to stop
c) requires the driver in the major road to slow down to a minimum speed and allow
A the
I vehicle on the minor road to proceed
d) is similar to one-way control
C
112. The present population of a community is 28000 with an average water demand of
T 150 Lpcd. The existing water treatment plant has a design capacity of 6000 m3/d. It
is expected that the population will increase to 48000 during the next 20 years. What
E
is the number of years from now when the plant will reach its design capacity
assuming an arithmetic rate of population growth?
a) 8.6 years
b) 12.0 years
c) 15.0 years
A d) 16.5 years
I 113. Match the following
C List-I List-II
T A. Soil Pipe 1. Ventilating pipe
B. Intercepting trap 2. Wash basin
E C. P-trap 3. Water closet waste
D. Cowl 4. House drainage
a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
A
I
C 114. The overflow rate of plain sedimentation tank in L/h/m2 is
a) 500-750
T b) 1000-1500
c) 1500-2000
E d) 2500-3000
115. Which of the following air pollutants is/are responsible for photochemical smog?
1. Oxides of nitrogen
2. Ozone
A 3. Unburnt hydrocarbons
4. Carbon monoxide
I
a) 1, 2 and 3
C b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
T d) 1, 2 and 4
E 116. Most important factor affecting coagulation efficiency is
a) temperature
b) dissolved oxygen
c) alkalinitiy
d) dissolved solids
A
117. The formula most appropriate for the design of drinking water pressure pipes is
I a) Darcy-Weisbach equation
b) Manning’s formula
C c) Chezy’s formula
d) Dupuit’s formula
T
E 118. BOD5 of a municipal wastewater is 200 mg/L. Which among the following can be the
COD value of the wastewater?
a) 200 mg/L
b) 150 mg/L
c) 350 mg/L
d) 700 mg/L
A
119. The two main gases generated from anaerobic digestion of sludge are
I a) methane and ammonia
C b) carbon dioxide and ammonia
c) methane and carbon dioxide
T d) ammonia and sulphur dioxide
E 120. Chlorine usage in a treatment plant of 25 million litre per day capacity is 25 kg/day.
The chlorine dosage (in mg/L) is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.1
d) 0.2
Page 17 of 17
UG2CV E11
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Civil Engineering
Paper: 2

1. b 41 c 81. b
2. c 42 d 82. b
3. b 43 a 83. c
4. c 44 b 84. a
5. b 45 b 85. c
6. c 46 d 86. b
7. c 47 a 87. d
8. a 48 a 88. c
9. d 49 c 89. c
10. d 50 c 90. a
11. a 51 c 91. a
12. b 52 d 92. a
13. b 53 d 93. d
14. c 54 c 94. a
15. a 55 a 95. a
16. a 56 b 96. d
17. d 57 a 97. b
18. a 58 b 98. a
19. b 59 a 99. b
20. d 60 d 100. b
21. c 61 d 101. a
22. b 62 d 102. b
23. c 63 a 103. c
24. b 64 b 104. b
25. b 65 d 105. d
26. d 66 b 106. b
27. a 67 a 107. b
28. b 68 d 108. d
29. a 69 a 109. b
30. b 70 a 110. d
31. c 71 d 111. a
32. a 72 c 112. b
33. c 73 a 113. b
34. b 74 c 114. a
35. c 75 b 115. a
36. c 76 a 116. c
37. b 77 b 117. a
38. d 78 c 118. c
39. a 79 a 119. c
40. b 80 d 120. a
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

I
C
T
E
PAPER-I
Instructions:
A
I total 120 questions.
C ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q 1 to Q 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
T
E
A vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can

I
C
specified.
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
I
1. The rms value of current in a wire which carries a dc current of 10A and a
C sinusoidal alternating current of peak value 20A is
(a) 10A
T
(b) 14.14A
E (c) 15A
(d) 17.32A
2. The time constant of an RC connected to a dc source is equal to

(a) C/R
(b) R/C
(c) CR
(d) J/CR
A
I 3. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there while
checking a capacitor, the capacitor is
C (a) Leaky
(b) Short-circuited
T (c) Open circuited
(d) Satisfactory
E
4. For a two-port reciprocal network the output open circuit voltage divided by the
input current is equal to
(a) B
(b) Z12
(c) 1/Y12
(d) h12
A
5. In a Phasor diagram which of the following value of the alternating quantity is
I represented by the length of phasor.
(a) RMS
C
(b) Average
T (c) Peak
(d) Instantaneous
E
6. The ratio of RMS value to average value is called
(a) Form factor
(b) Peak factor
(c) Power factor
(d) Q-factor
A 7. Which of the following alternating quantity waveforms can be represented by

Phasor diagrams
I (a) Rectangular
(b) Sinusoidal
C (c) Triangular
T (d) Any of the above
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A 8. If the supply frequency of a purely inductive circuit is doubled, the circuit current
will be
I (a) Halved
(b) Doubled
C (c) Same
(d) One fourth
T
E 9. In a delta connected load, if one phase is opened the power will become
(a) 0
(b) 1/3rd
(c) 2/3rd
(d) Same
10. On placing a dielectric in an electric field, the field strength

(a) Decreases
A (b) Increases
I (c) Remains same
(d) Reduces to zero
C
11. The unit of polarization is same as that of
T (a) Electric flux density D
(b) Electric intensity E
E
(c) Charge
(d) Dielectric flux
12. The electric field lines and equipotential lines

(a) Are parallel to each other
(b) Are one and the same
(c) Cut each other orthogonally
A (d) Can be inclined to each other at any angle
I 13. Three capacitors each of breakdown voltage 500V are connected in parallel. The
breakdown rating of the combination will be
C
(a) 500V
T (b) 707V
(c) 1000V
E (d) 2500V
14. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is not affected by

(a) Area of plate
(b) Thickness of plate
(c) Separation between plates
(d) Nature of dielectric
A
15. The magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetization due to
I (a) Spin of nucleus
(b) Spin of electrons
C (c) Orbital motion of electrons
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A 16. Magnetic flux density emerging out of a closed surface is

(a) Infinite
I (b) Zero
(c) Dependent upon the magnetic movement inside the closed surface
T
17. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
E (a) Magnetic potential
(b) Susceptibility
(c) Magnetic field intensity
(d) Magnetic flux density
18. The amplitude of electric field intensity on the surface of a good conductor is E 0.
The amplitude of the field at a depth equal to the skin depth is
(a) 0
A (b) 0.368E0
I (c) 0.5E0
(d) 0.736E0
C
19. The unit of Poynting vector is
T (a) W/m2
(b) J/ m2
E
(c) J/ m3
(d) W/m3
20. Transformer cores are laminated to reduce

(a) Eddy current loss
(b) Hysteresis loss
(c) Both eddy current and hysteresis loss
A (d) Ohmic loss
I 21. If a transformer primary is energized from a square wave voltage source, then its
output voltage will be
C
(a) 0
T (b) Sine wave
(c) Triangular wave
E (d) Pulsed wave
22. Which loss in a transformer varies significantly with load?

(a) Hysteresis loss
(b) Eddy current loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) Core loss
A
23. If the iron core of a transformer is replaced by air core then the hysteresis losses in
I the transformer will
(a) Increase
C (b) Decrease
T (c) Remains unchanged
(d) Become zero
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A 24. Which 3-phase connection can be used in a transformer to introduce a phase

difference of 30o between its output and corresponding input line voltages?
I (a) Star-star
(b) Star-delta
C (c) Delta-delta
(d) Delta-zig zag
T
E 25. Primary or secondary winding of a 3-phase transformer in delta helps to suppress
(a) Third harmonic current
(b) Third harmonic voltage
(c) Third harmonic flux
26. The utilization factor of a transformer in open delta is

(a) 0.75
A (b) 0.667
I (c) 0.866
(d) 0.5
C
27. In a dc machine the angle between the stator and rotor fields is
T (a) Dependent upon the load
(b) 45 degree
E
(c) 90 degree
(d) 180 degree
28. A four pole generator with 16 coils has a 2 layer lap winding the pole pitch is
(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 8
A (d) 4
I 29. The material used for generator brush is
(a) Graphite
C
(b) Aluminium
T (c) Mica
(d) Wood
E
30. The type of dc generator used for arc welding purpose is a
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Cumulatively compound generator
(d) Differentially compound generator
A 31. If the applied voltage to a dc machine is 230V then the back emf for maximum
power developed is
I (a) 115V
(b) 200V
C (c) 230V
T (d) 460V
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A 32. A dc shunt motor drives a load torque at rated voltage and rated excitation. If the
load torque is doubled the motor speed would
I (a) Increase slightly
(b) Decrease slightly
C (c) Become half
(d) Become double
T
E 33. In a dc machine operating in the saturated region, the armature reaction effect is
(a) Magnetizing only
(b) Demagnetizing only
(c) Cross magnetizing only
(d) Cross magnetizing as well as demagnetizing
34. Which of the following supplies dc to the rotor of a synchronous motor?

(a) Rectifier
A (b) Exciter
(c) Convertor
I
(d) Inverter
C
35. Smooth cylindrical rotors are usually designed for
T (a) 2 or 4 poles
(b) 8 poles
E (c) 12 poles
(d) 24 poles
36. Two mechanically coupled alternators deliver power at 50Hz and 60Hz
respectively. The highest speed of the alternator is
(a) 3600rpm
(b) 3000rpm
(c) 600rpm
A (d) 500rpm
I 37. The voltage regulation of an alternator with a leading pf load shall be
C (a) Positive
(b) Negative
T (c) Zero
(d) Any one of the above
E
38. Which of the following part plays important role in over speed protection of the
alternators?
(a) Over current relay
(b) Differential protection
(c) Governor
(d) Alarm
A 39. In which of the following motors, the stator and the rotor magnetic fields rotate at
I the same speed
(a) Induction motors
C (b) Synchronous motors
(c) Universal motors
T (d) Reluctance motors
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A 40. The value of load angle for a synchronous motor depends mainly upon its
(a) Excitation
I (b) Load
(c) Speed
C (d) Supply voltage
T
41. An increase in supply voltage to a 3-phase synchronous motor will reduce
E (a) Pull-in-torque
(b) Stator flux
(d) None of these
42. Variation in dc excitation of a synchronous motor causes variation in

(a) Speed of motor
(b) Power factor
A (c) Armature current
I (d) Both (b) and (c)
C 43. Armature reaction in a synchronous motor at rated voltage and zero power factor
lagging is
T (a) Cross-magnetizing
(b) Demagnetizing
E
(c) Magnetizing
(d) None of these
44. Starting torque of a synchronous motor is

(a) Very low
(b) Zero
(c) Very high
A (d) Hall-full load torque
I 45. An auto transformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 10kW.
The power transferred inductively from the primary to secondary is
C
(a) 10kW
T (b) 8kW
(c) 2kW
E (d) Zero
46. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives?

(a) Synchronous motors
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors
A
47. Which type of drive can be used for hoisting machinery
I (a) AC slip ring motor
(b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
C (c) DC compound motor
T (d) Any of the above
E
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A 48. The motor normally used for crane travel is

(a) AC slip ring motor
I (b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
(c) Synchronous motor
C (d) DC differentially compound motor
T
49. When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor
E preferred is
(a) Synchronous motor
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Wound rotor induction motor
(d) DC motor
50. Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
(a) Fan and pump drives
A (b) Drive of a crane
I (c) Running it as generator
(d) Constant load drive
C
51. The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is
T (a) High power factor
(b) Better efficiency
E
(c) Lower cost
52. In motor circuit static frequency changers are used for

(a) Power factor improvement
(b) Improved cooling
(c) Reversal of direction
A (d) Speed regulation
I 53. In case of travelling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
(a) AC slip ring motor
C
(b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
T (c) Synchronous motor
(d) Single phase motor
E
54. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering is
(a) Smooth movement
(b) Precise control
(c) Fast speed control
A 55. Ward Leonard controlled DC drives are generally used for

(a) Light duty excavators
I (b) Medium duty excavators
(c) Heavy duty excavators
T
56. The use of a rectifier filter in a capacitor circuit gives satisfactory performance
E
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A only when the loads

(a) Current is high
I (b) Current is low
(c) Voltage is high
C (d) Voltage is low
T
57. Clamper circuits are known as
E (a) AC restorers
(b) DC restorers
(c) Voltage to frequency converters
(d) Sweep circuits
58. A single diode operates as a

(a) Full wave rectifier
(b) Half wave rectifier
A (c) Bridge rectifier
I (d) Non rectifier
C 59. In comparison with a common emitter amplifier, a common base amplifier

typically has
T (a) Lower output impedance
(b) Lower input impedance
E
(c) Higher current gain
(d) Higher bandwidth
60. The small signal gain of the amplifier Vc/Vs is

(a) -10
(b) -5.3
(c) 5.3
A (d) 10
I 61. The first dominant pole encountered in the frequency response of a compensated
op-amp is approximately at
C (a) 5Hz
(b) 10kHz
T (c) 1MHz
E (d) 100MHz
62. In a differential amplifier, CMRR can be improved by using an increased

(a) Source resistance
(b) Collector resistance
(c) Power supply voltages
(d) Emitter resistance
A 63. To design an RC phase shift oscillator using a JFET, the absolute minimum
amplification factor of the JFET that will be required is
I (a) 3
(b) 17
C (c) 23
T (d) 29
64. The Barkhausen criterion gives
E
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A (a) The condition of stability

(b) The maximum gain for which there are no oscillations
I (c) The phase shift required for oscillations
(d) The maximum feedback for a stable amplifier
C
65. For a wide range of oscillations in the audio range the preferred oscillator is
T
(a) Hartley
E (b) Phase-shift
(c) Wien bridge
(d) Hartley and colpitt
66. Crossover distortion behavior is characteristic of

(a) Class A output stage
(b) Class B output stage
(c) Class AB output stage
A (d) Common base output stage
I
67. Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET
C increases
(a) The mobility decreases
T (b) The transconductance increases
(c) The drain current increases
E
(d) The mobility increases
68. The emitter follower configuration inherently has a

(a) Current-series feedback
(b) Voltage-shunt feedback
(c) Voltage-series feedback
A
69. The cascode amplifier is a multistage configuration of
I (a) CC-CB
(b) CE-CB
C
(c) CB-CC
T (d) CE-CC
E 70. In CE arrangements, the value of input impedance is approximately equal to

(a) hie
(b) hoe
(c) hre
A
I
C
T
E
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A PART-B (30 X 2= 60 Marks)
I
71. An ac current is given as i=10+10sin314t. The average and rms values of current
C are
(a) 16.36A, 17.07A
T (b) 10A, 17.07A
E (c) 10A,12.25A
(d) 16.36A, 12.2A
72. The ratio of the readings of two wattmeter’s connected to measure power in a
balanced 3-phase load is 5:3 and the load is inductive. The power factor of the
load is
(a) 0.917 lead
(b) 0.917 lag
A (c) 0.6 lead
(d) 0.6 lag
I
C 73. A 100W, 100V bulb is to be supplied from 220V, 50Hz supply. The pure
inductance to be connected in series with the bulb, so that it may carry the same
T current, will be
(a) 0.625H
E (b) 120H
(c) 0.382H
(d) 0.764H
74. The magnetic field energy of an inductor changes from maximum value to
minimum value in 5m sec when connected to an ac source, the frequency of the
source is
A (a) 20Hz
(b) 50Hz
I (c) 200Hz
(d) 500Hz
C
T 75. The power factor of the RLC series circuit at upper half power frequencyis
(a) 0.5 lead
E (b) 0.707 lead
(c) 0.5 lag
(d) 0.707 lag
76. In a parallel RLC circuit, if L=4H, C=0.25F and R=4Ω, then the value of Q at
resonance will be
(a) 1
A (b) 10
(c) 20
I (d) 40
C
77. A 5MHz uniform plane wave travels in a perfect dielectric medium. The relative
T
permeability and relative permittivity of the medium are 1.0 and 4.0 respectively.
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A The wavelength of the wave in the medium is

(a) 60 m
I (b) 60π m
(c) 30π m
C (d) 30 m
T
78. The magnetic flux density in air gap between two iron surfaces is Bg. The force
E between the iron surfaces at this flux density is F. If the flux density is reduced to
(¾)Bg, the decrease in force would be
(a) (3/4)F
(b) (7/6)F
(c) F/4
(d) (9/16)F
79. The total energy associated in a system of four identical charges of Q = 3nC at the
A corners of 1m on a side, is approximately equal to
I (a) 292nJ
(b) 486nJ
C (c) 438nJ
(d) 1876nJ
T
80. A 400/200 V transformer has total resistance of 0.02 p.u. on its L.V. side. The
E
resistance when referred to H.V. side would be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.08
81. The hysteresis and eddy current loss of a single phase transformer working on
A 200V, 50Hz supply are Phand Pe respectively. The percentage decrease in these,
when operated on 160V, 40Hz supply are
I (a) 20,36
(b) 32,36
C (c) 25,50
(d) 40,50
T
82. A single phase transformer has p.u. leakage impedance of 0.02 + j0.04 Ω. Its
E regulation at a power factor of 0.8 lagging and 0.8 leading are respectively
(a) 4%, -0.8%
(b) 4%, 0.8%
(c) 2.4%, -0.8%
(d) 2.4%, 0.8%
83. A 3-phase delta-star transformer has secondary to primary turns ratio per phase of
A 5. For a primary line current of 10A, the secondary line current would be
(a) 1 A
I (b) 1.155 A
(c) 1.633 A
C (d) 3.464 A
T 84. To eliminate the fifth harmonic a coil should have a short pitching angle of
(a) 36º
E
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A (b) 18º
(c) 15º
I (d) 12º
C 85. A 240V dc series motor takes 40A when giving its rated output at 1500rpm. Its
resistance is 0.3Ω. The value of resistance which must be added to obtain rated
T
torque at 1000rpm is
E (a) 6Ω
(b) 5.7Ω
(c) 2.2Ω
(d) 1.9Ω
86. An 8 pole single phase induction motor is running at 690rpm. What is its slip with
respect to forward and backward fields respectively?
(a) 0.08,2.0
A (b) 0.08,1.92
I (c) 1.92,0.08
(d) 2.0,0.08
C
87. To eliminate the fifth harmonic from the emf generated in an alternator, the pitch
T fraction will be:
(a) 4/5
E
(b) 5/4
(c) 5/6
(d) 6/5
88. For a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor the frequency, the pole number
and the load torque are all halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 1075rpm
A (b) 1375rpm
(c) 1500rpm
I (d) 3000rpm
C
89. An induction motor will run at synchronous speed
T (a) At no load
(b) At light load
E (c) At rated load
(d) With injected EMF
90. In a 3-phase IM the resultant flux is

(a) Constant
(b) Variable during positive cycle of AC only
(c) Variable during negative cycle of AC only
A (d) Variable during complete cycle of AC
I
C
T 91. What is the ratio of rotor copper loss to rotor output if the slip is 8%?
(a) 1:10
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A (b) 1:8
(c) 2:25
I (d) 2:19
C 92. A 3-phase alternator generates an open circuit voltage of 4000V per phase when
exciting current is 50A; the short-circuit current for the same excitation being
T
800A. the synchronous reactance per phase is
E (a) 80Ω
(b) 5Ω
(c) 15Ω
(d) 2Ω
93. In a half-wave rectifier with shunt capacitance filter, what is the ac ripple at
output, if the frequency of ac supply is 60Hz.
(a) 30Hz
A (b) 60Hz
I (c) 120Hz
(d) 15Hz
C
94. In a full-wave rectifier (center tap transformer connection), if ac supply is 230 V,
T 50Hz, the PIV required for switches shall be
(a) 230 V
E
(b) 325 V
(c) 460 V
(d) 650 V
95. A CE amplifier has RL=1000Ω and RE=100Ω and hfe= 99 and hie=1000Ω, the
input resistance Ri is given approximately by
(a) 100 ohm
A (b) 1000 ohm
(c) 10 k ohm
I (d) 11 k ohm
C
96. The voltage gains of an amplifier without feedback and with negative feedback
T respectively are 100 and 20. The percentage of negative feedback (β) would be
(a) 4%
E (b) 5%
(c) 20%
(d) 80%
97. The range of electric motor used for rolling mills is of the order of
(a) 10 to 25k W
(b) 25 to 85k W
A (c) 85 to 400k W
(d) 400 to 1000k W
I
C
T 98. The range of horse power of electric motor drives for rolling mills is of the order
of
E
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A (a) 1 to 10 HP
(b) 15 to 25 HP
I (c) 50 to 100 HP
(d) 100 to 500 HP
C
99. Motors preferred for rolling mill drive is
T
(a) DC motors
E (b) AC slip ring motors with speed control
(c) Any of the above
100. A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is more than
(a) 1kw
(b) 10kW
(c) 20kW
A (d) 100kW
I
C PART –C
T
(a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
(c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
A (a) Non-singularmatrix
(b) Identitymatrix
I (c) Singularmatrix
C
T 103. IftherankofasquarematrixAoforder4is2,thenadjointofAwillbea
(a) Nullmatrix
E (b) Diagonalmatrix

(a) u
(b) 1
A (c) -1
(d) 0
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A 105. The absolute maximum and minimum values respectively for 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 4 − 8 on

[−3, 1] are
I (a) −7 and −8
(b) 81 and −8
C (c) 0 and −2
T (d) 73 and −8
2
E 𝑑4𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4

A
(a) 3
I (b) 6
C (c) 2
T
E 108. LetAbeanyeventsuchthatP(A)>0,thenforanyothereventB,whichoneistrue?
𝐵
(a) 𝑃 ≥0
𝐴
𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
(c) 𝑃 =1
𝐴
A
C 13
(a) 30
T 17
(b) 30
E 19
(c) 30
1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
(a) Hermitianmatrix
(b) Unitorymatrix
I
C
T 111. The system of equations x + y = 2 and 2x + λy= µ has unique solution,if
(a) λ = 2 and µ =4
E
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A (b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
T
(a) 62
E (b) 44
(c) 8


(a) grad | A |  0

A
(b) curl A  0

I (c) div A  0
T 𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
E (a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
(b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
(c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
1 1 𝑛−1
115. 0
A (a) ⎾(n − 1)
I (b) ⎾(n)
n−1
C (c) ⎾ 2
n+1
T (d) ⎾ 2
E
(a) Hyperbolic
(b) Elliptic
(c) Parabolic
A
I
C
𝑥+𝑦
T 117. 𝑢 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 satisfies the differential equation
𝑥+ 𝑦
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
A (a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
I (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
C 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
T 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
E
2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
(a) 0
A (b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
C 119. Tofitthestraightliney=mx+ctonobservations,thenormalequationsare
(a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
T
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
E (c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
(a) m2
(b) 𝑚
(c) 𝑚
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG1EEE 18
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Electrical & ELECTRONICs ENGINEERING
Paper: 1
1. d 61. a
2. c 62. d
3. b 63. d
4. b 64. c
5. a 65. c
6. a 66. b
7. b 67. a
8. a 68. a
9. c 69. b
10. a 70. a
11. a 71. c
12. c 72. b
13. a 73. a
14. b 74. b
15. d 75. d
16. b 76. a
17. c 77. d
18. b 78. b
19. a 79. c
20. a 80. b
21. d 81. a
22. c 82. a
23. d 83. b
24. b 84. a
25. b 85. d
26. c 86. b
27. c 87. a
28. c 88. c
29. a 89. d
30. d 90. a
31. a 91. c
32. b 92. b
33. d 93. b
34. b 94. d
35. a 95. d
36. c 96. a
37. d 97. c
38. c 98. d
39. b 99. c
40. b 100. d
41. a 101. a
42. d 102. c
43. c 103. a
44. b 104. d
45. c 105. d
46. c 106. d
47. d 107. a
48. a 108. a
49. d 109. a
50. a 110. b
51. a 111. c
52. d 112. d
53. a 113. b
54. d 114. a
55. c 115. b
56. b 116. b
57. b 117. d
58. b 118. a
59. d 119. d
60. a 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A
I ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
C
T
E
PAPER-II
A Instructions:
I
C questions.
T
E

A non-programmable scientific calculator.
I vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
specified.
C
T vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
I
C 1. How many time base circuits does a dual trace CRO has?
(a) 1
T (b) 2
(c) 3
E
(d) 4
2. The principle of operation of an LVDT is based on variation of

(a) Self-inductance
(b) Mutual inductance
(c) Reluctance
(d) Permeance
A
3. The input impedance of CRO is nearly
I
(a) Zero
C (b) Around 10 ohms
(c) Around 100 ohms
T (d) Around 1 Mega ohms
E 4. Which one of the following has the highest accuracy?
(a) Standard resistance
(b) Standard inductance
(c) Standard capacitance
(d) Standard mutual inductance
5. Maxwell bridge is used to measure

A (a) Frequency
(b) Resistance
I (c) Inductance
(d) Capacitance
C
6. In microwave telemetry, repeater stations are required at every
T (a) 2 km
(b) 5 km
E
(c) 40 km
(d) 100 km
7. Schering bridge can be used to measure

(a) Capacitance and its power factor
(b) ‘Q’ of a coil
(c) Inductance and its ‘Q’ value
A (d) Very small resistance
I 8. Pair of active transducers is

(a) Thermistor, solar cell
C (b) Thermocouple, thermistor
(c) Thermocouple, solar cell
T (d) Solar cell, LVDT
E
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A 9. While testing a coil of 10 Ω resistance, resonance occurred at 10 MHz and the

rotating capacitor was set at 500/2π pF. The effective value of the Q of the coil shall
I be
(a) 20
C (b) 254
(c) 314
T
(d) 542
E
10. A first order instrument is characterized by
(a) Time constant only
(b) Static sensitivity and time constant
(c) Static sensitivity and damping coefficient
(d) Static sensitivity, damping coefficient and natural frequency of oscillations
11. The minimum number of wattmeter (s) required to measure 3-phase, 3-wire balanced
A and unbalanced power is
I (a) 1
(b) 2
C (c) 3
(d) 4
T
12. The sensitivity of voltmeter using 0 to 5 mA meter movement is
E
(a) 50 ohm/V
(b) 100 ohm/V
(c) 200 ohm/V
(d) 500 ohm/V
13. As the transmission line voltage increases, the volume of conductor

(a) Increases
A (b) Decreases
(c) Will not change
I (d) Will increase proportionately
C
14. Which of the following power plant has the maximum efficiency?
T (a) Thermal power plant
(b) Hydroelectric power plant
E (c) Atomic reactor
(d) MHD
15. The power intended to be available even under emergency condition is called
(a) Firm power
(b) Hot reserve
(c) Cold reserve
A (d) Spinning reserve
I 16. If the height of the transmission tower is decreased, the inductance of the line will
(a) Increase
C (b) Decrease
T (c) Remain same
(d) Increase exponentially
E
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A
17. The voltage regulation is an important factor for the design of
I (a) Generator
(b) Motor
C (c) Feeder
(d) Transmission line
T
E 18. Which of the parameters can be neglected while calculating the transmission line
faults?
(a) Reactance
(b) Resistance
(c) Capacitance
(d) Inductance
19. The frequency of the power system controls the

A (a) Active power
I (b) Reactive power
T 20. The difference between sending end voltage and receiving end voltage of
transmission line controls
E
(a) Active power
(b) Frequency
(c) Reactive power
21. Which of the following insulators will be selected for high voltage application?
(a) Strain type
A (b) Pin type
(c) Suspension type
C
22. No moving parts are required in
T (a) MHD generator
(b) Tidal power plant
E (c) Thermionic conversion
(d) Nuclear power plant
23. Turbo-alternators usually have

(a) 2 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 10 poles
A (d) 16 poles
I 24. Bundled conductors are used for EHV transmission lines primarily for reducing the
(a) Coronal loss
C (b) Surge impedance of the line
T (c) voltage drop across the line
(d) I2 R losses
E
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A 25. A synchronous generator is connected to an infinite bus bar and is initially operating
at a lag p.f. If the steam input to the alternator is increased
I (a) The p.f. of the alternator improves
(b) Reactive power decreases
C (c) The frequency increases
T
E 26. The coefficient of reflection for current of an open-ended line is
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) Zero
27. In the case of a HVDC system, there is

(a) Charging current but no skin effect
A (b) No charging current but skin effect
I (c) Neither charging current nor skin effect
(d) Both charging current and skin effect
C
28. The critical value of surge impedance of long transmission line is
T (a) 50 ohm
(b) 500 ohm
E
(c) 75 ohm
(d) 1000 ohm
29. Admittance relay is

(a) The directional relay
(b) The none directional relay
(c) The impedance relay
I 30. The effect of series capacitor on a transmission line is to improve
C (a) The steady stability
(b) The transient stability
T (c) Both (a) and (b)
E
31. The capacitor voltage transformer is used
(a) Up to 11 kV
(b) Up to 33 kV
(c) Above 220 kV
(d) Above 132 kV
A 32. The protection from negative sequence currents is provided for

(a) Transformers
I (b) Generators
(c) Transmission lines
C (d) Motors
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A 33. Which of the following relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line?
(a) Impedance relay
I (b) Reactance relay
(c) MHO relay
C (d) Induction type relay
T
34. The lightening arrester acts as
E (a) Surge diverter
(b) Surge coil
(c) Surge absorber
(d) Surge reflector
35. The power loss is very important factor for designing the
(a) Feeder
(b) Transmission line
A (c) Motor
I (d) Generator
36. The convergence characteristics of the Newton-Rophson method for solving a load
C
flow problem is
T (a) Quadratic
(b) Linear
E (c) Geometric
(d) Cubic
37. In Merz Price percentage differential protection of a Δ/Y transformer, the CT
secondary’s connection in the primary and secondary windings of the transformer
would be in the form of
(a) Δ/Y
(b) Y/Δ
A (c) Δ/Δ
(d) Y/Y
I
38. Which one of the following matrices reveals the topology of the power system
C networks?
T (a) Bus incidence matrix
(b) Primitive impedance matrix
E (c) Primitive admittance matrix
(d) Bus impedance matrix
39. The flip- flop circuit is
(a) Unstable
(b) Multistable
(c) Monostable
(d) Bistable
A
40. Which of the following memories uses one transistor and one capacitor as basic
I
memory unit?
C (a) SRAM
(b) DRAM
T (c) Both SRAM and DRAM
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A 41. Dynamic memory cells are constructed using

(a) FETs
I (b) MOSFETs
(c) Flip-flops
C (d) Transistors
T
42. Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt?
E (a) TRAP
(b) RST 7.5
(c) RST 6.5
(d) INTR.
43. Queue is also known as

(a) FIFO memory
(b) LIFO memory
A (c) Flash memory
I (d) LILO memory
C 44. Semiconductor memories are

(a) Non volatile, small size
T (b) Volatile, small size
E
45. How many outputs would two 8-line to 3-line encoders , expanded to a 16-line to 4-
line encoder, have?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
A (d) 6
I 46. What is another name for a one shot?
C (a) Mono stable
(b) Multivibrator
T (c) Bistable
(d) Astable
E
47. One example of the use of an S-R flip-flop is as a(n)
(a) Racer
(b) Astable oscillator
(c) Binary storage register
(d) Transistor pulse generator
A 48. According to Boolean algebra 1+A+B+C=

(a) A+B+C
I (b) ABC
(c) 1+ABC
C (d) 1
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A 49. Gray code for 1101 is given by

(a) 1111
I (b) 1011
(c) 1001
C (d) 0101
T
50. How many different values (signed decimal) can be represented in a byte?
E (a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 255
(d) 256
51. Result of subtracting (3A5)16 from (592)16gives

(a) AED
(b) EAD
A (c) 1DE
I (d) 1ED
C 52. Which one of the following will give the sum of full- adder as output
(a) 3 input majority circuit
T (b) 3 bit parity checker
(c) 3 bit comparator
E
(d) 3 bit counter
53. The transfer function of a linear system is the

(a) Ratio of the output Vo(t) and Vi(t)
(b) Ratio of the derivatives of the output and the input
(c) Ratio of the Laplace transform of the output and that of the input with all initial
conditions zeros
I 54. A system has 14 poles and 2 zeros. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot
C having a slope of
(a) -40dB/decade
T (b) -240dB/decade
(c) -280dB/decade
E (d) -320dB/decade
55. The DC gain of the system represented by the transfer function

G(s)=(s+8)/{(s+2)(s+4)}
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 2
A (d) 1
I 56. Non minimum phase transfer function is defined as the transfer function
(a) Which has zero only in the left-half s-plane
C (b) Which has zero in the right- half s-plane
(c) Which has poles in the left-half s-plane
T (d) Which has poles in the right-half s- plane
E
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A
57. The Nyqist plot of a loop transfer function G(jω)H(jω) of a system encloses the (-
I 1,j0) point. The gain margin of the system is
(a) Less than zero
C (b) zero
(c) Greater than zero
T
(d) Infinity
E
58. A system has poles at 0.01 Hz ,1 Hz and 80 Hz; zeroes at 5 Hz , 100 Hz and 200 Hz.
The approximate phase of the system response at 20 Hz is
(a) -90º
(b) 0º
(c) 90º
(d) -180º
A 59. The phase margin (in degrees) of a system having the loop transfer function
I G(s)H(s)=(2 √3)/(s(s+1)) is
(a) 45º
C (b) -30º
(c) 60º
T (d) 30º
E
60. For a system with transfer function 10(1+0.2s)/(1+0.5s), the phase shift at ω=0 and ∞
shall be
(a) 90º and -0º
(b) -180º and 180º
(c) -90º and 90º
A 61. A system with open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=2(1+s)/s2has gain margin of

(a) ∞
I (b) 0
C (c) 1
(d) -∞
T
62. A system with characteristic equation s4 + 3s3 +5s2 + 6s + K + 10=0 shall be stable
E for
(a) K>5
(b) -10<K
(c) K>-4
(d) -10<K<-4
63. The time taken by the output to reach 99% of its steady value for a casual system
A with transfer function G(s)=1/(s+2) excited by 10u(t), shall be
(a) 2.7 sec
I (b) 2.5 sec
(c) 2.3 sec
C (d) 2.1 sec
T
E
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A
64. The transfer function of a plant is G(s)=5/(s+5)(s2+s+1). The second order
I approximation of T(s) using dominant pole concept is
(a) 1/(s+5)(s+1)
C (b) 5/(s+5)(s+1)
(c) 5/(s2+s+1)
T
(d) 1/(s2+s+1)
E
65. If the characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is s2+2s+2=0, then the system
is
(a) Overdamped
(b) Critically damped
(c) Under damped
(d) Undamped
A 66. Signal flow graph is used to obtain
I (a) Stability of a system
(b) Transfer function of a system
C (c) Controllability of a system
(d) Observability of a system
T
67. The phase lead compensation is used to
E
(a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot
(b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot
(c) Increase both rise time and overshoot
(d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot
68. Compression in PCM refers to relative compression of

(a) Higher signal amplitudes
A (b) Lower signal amplitudes
(c) Lower signal frequencies
I (d) Higher signal frequencies
C
69. The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always
T (a) Imaginary
(b) Conjugate anti-symmetric
E (c) Real
(d) Conjugate symmetric
70. The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian pulse is

(a) Uniform
(b) A sine function
(c) Gaussian
A (d) An impulse function
I 71. The Fourier transform of a voltage signal x(t) is X(f). the unit of │X(f)│is
(a) Volt
C (b) Volt-sec
T (c) Volt/sec
(d) Volt2
E
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A
I 72. If a signal f(t) has energy E, the energy of the signal f(2t) is equal to
(a) E
C (b) E/2
(c) 2E
T (d) 4E
E
73. Two systems with impulse responses h1(t) and h2(t) are connected in cascade. Then
the overall impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
(a) Product of h1(t) and h2(t)
(b) Sum of h1(t) and h2(t)
(c) Convolution of h1(t) and h2(t)
(d) Subtraction of h2(t) from h1(t)
A 74. A band limited signal is sampled at the Nyquist rate. The signal can be recovered by
passing the samples through
I
(a) An RC filter
C (b) An envelope detector
(c) A PLL
T (d) An ideal low pass filter with the appropriate bandwidth
E 75. Flat top sampling of low pass signals
(a) Gives rise to aperture effect
(b) Implies over sampling
(c) Leads to aliasing
(d) Introducing delay distortion
76. Increased pulse width in the flat top sampling leads to

A (a) Attenuation of high frequencies in reproduction
(b) Attenuation of low frequencies in reproduction
I (c) Greater aliasing errors in reproduction
(d) No harmful effects in reproduction
C
T 77. The region of convergence of the z transform of a unit step function is
(a) |z|>1
E (b) |z|<1
(c) (real part of z)>0
(d) (real part of z)<0
78. A linear discrete time system has the characteristic equation, z3-0.81z=0. The system
(a) Is stable
(b) Is marginally stable
A (c) Is unstable
(d) Stability cannot be assessed from the given information
I
79. Choose the function f(t), -∞<t<∞, for which a Fourier series cannot be defined
C (a) 3sin(25t)
(b) 4cos(20t+3) + 2 sin(710t)
T (c) Exp(-|t|) sin(25t)
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A (d) 1
I
80. If Eb, the energy per bit of a binary digital signal is 10-5Watt-sec and the one-sided
C power spectral density of the white noise, N0=10-6 W/Hz, then the output SNR of the
matched filter is
T
(a) 26 dB
E (b) 10 dB
(c) 20 dB
(d) 13 dB
A 81. Two 100µA full scale PMMC meters are employed to construct a 10V and a 100V
I full scale voltmeters. The figure of merit (sensitivity) for these meters shall be
(a) 10kΩ/V and 10kΩ/V
C (b) 100kΩ/V and 10kΩ/V
(c) 10kΩ/V and 100kΩ/V
T (d) 10kΩ/V and 1kΩ/V
E 82. A DC ammeter has a resistance of 0.1Ω and its current range is 0-100 A. If the
range is to be extended to 0-500A then the meter requires following shunt
resistance.
(a) 0.010Ω
(b) 0.011Ω
(c) 0.025Ω
(d) 1.0Ω
A
83. The energy capacity of a storage battery is rated in
I (a) Joules
(b) Ampere hours
C
(c) kW
T (d) kWh
E 84. What is the range for a 3 ½ digital meter?

(a) 0 to 1999
(b) 0 to 1500
(c) 0 to 999
(d) 0 to 19999
85. A rectifier instrument is used to measure an alternating square wave of amplitude

A 200V. What is the meter reading?
(a) 141.4V
I (b) 200V
(c) 222V
C (d) None of these
T
86. The meter constant of a single phase 240V induction watt hour meter is 400
E
Page 12 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A revolutions per kWh. The speed of the meter disc for the current of 10A at 0.8 p.f.
lagging will be
I (a) 12.8 rpm
(b) 16.02 rpm
C (c) 18.2 rpm
(d) 21.1 rpm
T
E 87. A high frequency AC signal having rms value of 2V, is measured through a PMMC
instrument. The reading of the instrument shall be
(a) Zero
(b) 2V
(c) 2 √2 V
(d) 4 √2 V
88. While power measurement using two-wattmeter method in a balanced 3-phase-3-

A wire circuit, if the reading of both the watt meters are equal and positive, the load
power factor shall be
I (a) Zero
C (b) 0.5
(c) 0.866
T (d) Unity
E 89. An AC voltmeter using full wave rectification and having a sinusoidal input has an
AC sensitivity equal to
(a) DC sensitivity
(b) 0.90 times DC sensitivity
(c) 0.707 times DC sensitivity
(d) 1.414 times DC sensitivity
90. The resistance of a thermistor is 5000Ω at 20 ºC and its resistance temperature

A coefficient is 0.04/ºC. A measurement with a lead resistance of 10 Ω will cause an
I error of
(a) 0.05 ºC
C (b) 0.1 ºC
(c) 0.4 ºC
T (d) 0.8 ºC
E 91. A wattmeter has a range of 100W with an error of ± 1% of dull scale deflection. If
the true power passed through it is 100W then the relative error would be
(a) ± 10 %
(b) ± 5%
(c) ± 1%
(d) ± 0.5%
A 92. A generating station has a maximum demand of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% and
plant capacity factor of 50%. The reserve capacity of the plant is
I (a) 10 MW
(b) 6 MW
C (c) 5 MW
T (d) 4 MW
E
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A 93. A 150mA meter has accuracy of ±2 %. Its accuracy while reading 75 mA will be
(a) ± 1%
I (b) ± 2%
(c) ± 4%
C (d) ± 20%
T
94. The impedance value of a generator is 0.2 pu on a base value of 11 kV, 50 MVA.
E The impedance value for a base value of 22 kV, 150 MVA is
(a) 0.15 pu
(b) 0.2 pu
(c) 0.3 pu
(d) 2.4 pu
95. A 100 km transmission line is designed for a nominal voltage of 132 kV and
consists of 1 conductor per phase. The line reactance is 0.726 Ω/km. The static
A transmission capacity of the line, in MW would be
I (a) 132
(b) 240
C (c) 416
(d) 720
T
96. A string insulator has 5 units. The voltage across the bottom most unit is 25% of the
E
total voltage. The string efficiency is
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
97. The surge impedance of a 3-phase, 400 kV transmission line is 400 Ω. The surge
A impedance loading (SIL) is
(a) 400 MW
I (b) 100 MW
C (c) 1600 MW
(d) 200 MW
T
98. The insulation resistance of a single core cable is 200 MΩ/km. The insulation
E resistance for 5 km length is
(a) 1000 M Ω
(b) 200 M Ω
(c) 40 M Ω
(d) 8 M Ω
99. The velocity of travelling wave through a cable of relative permittivity 9 is

A (a) 9 x 108 m/s
(b) 3 x 108 m/s
I (c) 2 x 108 m/s
(d) 108 m/s
C 100. A 3-phase transmission line of negligible resistance and capacitance has an
T inductive reactance of 100 Ω per phase. When the sending end and receiving end
voltages are maintained at 110 kV, the maximum power that can be transmitted will
E
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A be
(a) 121 MW
I (b) 121√3 MW
(c) 263 MW
C (d) 363 kW
T
101. For a given base voltage and base volt amperes, the per unit impedance value of an
E element is x. The per unit impedance value of this element when the voltage and
volt amperes bases are both doubled will be
(a) 0.5x
(b) x
(c) 2x
(d) 4x
102. In a 400 kV network, 360 kV is recorded at 400 kV bus. The reactive power
A absorbed by a shunt reactor rated for 50 MVAR, 40kV connected at the bus is
I (a) 61.73 MVAR
(b) 55.56 MVAR
C (c) 45 MVAR
(d) 40.5 MVAR
T
103. An alternator of 300 kW is driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 4% and
E
another alternator of 220 kW driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 3%. The
total load they can take is
(a) 500 kW
(b) 567 kW
(c) 425 kw
(d) 257 kW
A 104. Four identical alternators each rated for 20MVA, 11 kV having a sub-transient
reactance of 16% are working in parallel. The short circuit level at the bus-bars is
I (a) 500MVA
(b) 400 MVA
C (c) 125 MVA
(d) 80 MVA
T
105. If the fault current is 300 A, for an I.D.M.T. relay with a plug setting of 50% and
E
C.T. ratio of 400/5, the plug setting multiplier would be
(a) 7.5
(b) 15.0
(c) 18.75
(d) 37.5
106. The zero sequence current of a generator for line to ground is j2.4 p.u. then the
A current through the neutral during the fault is
(a) j2.4 p.u.
I (b) j0.8 p.u.
(c) j7.2 p.u.
C (d) j0.24 p.u.
T 107. In a 220 kV system, the inductance and capacitance up to the circuit breaker
E
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A location are 25 mH and 0.025 µF respectively. The value of resistor required to be

connected across the breaker contacts which will give no transient oscillations, is
I (a) 25 Ω
(b) 250 Ω
C (c) 500 Ω
(d) 1000 Ω
T
E 108. An overhead line with a surge impedance of 400 Ω is connected to a transformer by
short length of cable of surge impedance 100 Ω. If a rectangular surge wave of 40
kV travels along the line towards the cable, then the voltage of the wave travelling
from the junction of the overhead line through the cable towards the transformer
would be
(a) 16 kV
(b) 32 kV
(c) 30 kV
A (d) 36 kV
I
109. 2’s compliment of 10101011 is
C (a) 01010101
(b) 00111100
T (c) 10101011
(d) 10101100
E
110. Which of the following represents the decimal form of binary 0.0111?
(a) 0.1600
(b) 0.2728
(c) 0.4375
(d) 0.7964
A 111. (1001-10) is equal to

(a) (8)10
I (b) (7)4
C (c) (7)10
(d) (8)4
T
112. In octal system the value of 25 is
E (a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 200
(d) 400
113. The open loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed loop
transfer function (s+4)/(s2+7s +13) is
A (a) 4/13
(b) 4/9
I (c) 4
(d) 13
C
T 114. The unit step response of a system starting from rest is given by x(t)=1-e-2t for t ≥ 0.
The transfer function of the system is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
A (a) 1/(1+2s)
(b) 2/(2+s)
I (c) 1/(2+s)
(d) 2s/(1+2s)
C
115. The unit impulse response of a system is h(t)=e-t, t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady
T
state value of the output for unit step input is equal to
E (a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) Infinite
116. A critically damped, continuous- time, second order system, when sampled, will
have (in Z domain)
(a) A simple pole
A (b) Double pole on real axis
I (c) Double pole on imaginary axis
(d) A pair of complex conjugate poles
C
117. For a second order system, damping ratio (ξ) is 0<ξ<1 , then the roots of the
T characteristic polynomial are
(a) Real but not equal
E
(b) Real and equal
(c) Complex conjugates
(d) Imaginary
118. The final value theorem is used to find the

(a) Steady state value of the system output
(b) Initial value of the system output
A (c) Transient behavior of the system output
I
C 119. Two of the angular frequencies at which its Fourier transform becomes zero are
(a) π, 2π
T (b) 0.5 π, 1.5π
(c) 0, π
E (d) 2π, 2.5π
120. Which of the following signal is non periodic?

(a) S(t)= cos2t + cos3t + cos5t
(b) S(t)=exp(j8πt)
(c) S(t)=exp(-7t) sin10πt
(d) S(t)= cos2t cos4t
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
UG2EEE 18
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Electrical & ELECTRONICs ENGINEERING
Paper: 2
1. a 61. b
2. b 62. d
3. d 63. c
4. a 64. d
5. c 65. c
6. d 66. b
7. a 67. b
8. c 68. a
9. a 69. c
10. b 70. c
11. b 71. b
12. c 72. b
13. b 73. c
14. c 74. d
15. c 75. a
16. c 76. a
17. c 77. a
18. c 78. a
19. a 79. c
20. b 80. d
21. c 81. a
22. c 82. c
23. a 83. b
24. b 84. a
25. d 85. b
26. a 86. a
27. c 87. a
28. b 88. d
29. a 89. b
30. a 90. a
31. d 91. a
32. b 92. b
33. b 93. c
34. a 94. a
35. b 95. b
36. b 96. c
37. b 97. a
38. a 98. c
39. d 99. d
40. b 100. a
41. b 101. a
42. d 102. d
43. a 103. c
44. b 104. a
45. b 105. b
46. a 106. c
47. c 107. c
48. d 108. a
49. b 109. a
50. d 110. c
51. d 111. c
52. b 112. b
53. c 113. b
54. b 114. b
55. d 115. c
56. b 116. b
57. a 117. c
58. a 118. a
59. d 119. a
60. d 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
I
T
E
PAPER-I
A
Instructions:
I i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C, total
120 questions.
C

A
I
C
T
E specified.
A ix. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.

I x. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on
T
E
Page 1 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
I
1. If an ac voltage wave is corrupted with an arbitrary number of harmonics, then the
C overall voltage waveform differs from its fundamental frequency component in terms
T of
a) Only the peak values
E b) Only the rms values
c) Only the average values
d) All the three measures (peak, rms and average values)
2. The Fourier series for the function f(x)=sin2x is

a) sin x +sin 2x
A
b) 1-cos 2x
I c) sin 2x + cos 2x
d) 0.5(1-cos 2x)
C
3. For a periodic signal v(t)=30 sin 100t +10 cos 300t +6 sin (500t+π/4), the fundamental
T frequency in rad/s is
a) 100
E
b) 300
c) 500
d) 1500
4. In an R-C series circuit excited by a voltage E, the change across capacitor at t=0+ is
A a) Zero
b) CE
I c) CE(1-e-t/RC)
d) CE(1-et/RC)
C
T 5. Which of the following is correct for a driving point functions?
a) The real parts of all poles must be negative
E b) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be negative
c) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be negative or zero
d) The real parts of all zeroes must be negative
6. In an RC series circuit R=100Ω and Xc=10Ω. In this circuit

A a) The current and voltage are in phase
b) The current leads the voltage by about 6°
I c) The current leads the voltage by about 84°
d) The current lags the voltage by about 6°
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
7. In a reactance function
I a) All poles are simple
b) All poles and zeros are simple
C c) All poles and zeros are simple and lie on jω axis
T d) All poles and zeros lie on negative real axis
E 8. A linear time invariant system with an impulse response h(t) produces output y(t) when
input x(t) is applied. When the input x(t-τ) is applied to a system with impulse response
h(t-τ), the output will be
a) y(τ)
b) y(2(t-τ))
c) y(t-τ)
A
d) y(t-2τ)
I
9. A current impulse of 5δ(t), is forced through a capacitor C. The voltage Vc(t), across
C the capacitor is given by
a) 5t
T b) 5 u(t) - C
c) 5t/C
E
d) 5 u(t)/C
10. Consider a continuous time system with input x(t) and output y(t) given by y(t)=x(t)
cos t, this system is
a) Linear and time invariant
A b) Non-linear and time invariant
c) Linear and time varying
I d) Non-linear and time varying
C
11. In a DC shunt generator working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the
T direction of rotation. As a result of this, commutation will
a) Improve but terminal voltage will fall
E b) Worsen and terminal voltage will fall
c) Improve and terminal voltage will rise
d) Worsen and terminal voltage will rise
12. A 40 kVA transformer has core loss of 400 W and full load copper loss of 800 W. The
A proportion of full load at maximum efficiency is
a) 50%
I b) 62.3%
c) 70.7%
C d) 100%
T
E
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A 13. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding
produces
I a) Damping torque
b) Eddy current torque
C c) Torques aiding the developed to torque
T d) No torque
E 14. If a 230 V dc series motor is connected to a 230 V ac supply,

a) The motor will vibrate violently
b) The motor will run with less efficiency and more sparking
c) The motor will not run
d) The fuse will be blown
A
15. The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in order to
I a) Reduce the overall weight
b) Reduce the saturation in the interpole
C c) Economise on the material required for interpoles and their windings.
d) Increase the acceleration of commutation
T
16. A synchronous motor is operating on no load at unity power factor. If the field current
E
is increased, the power factor will become
a) Leading and the current will decrease
b) Lagging and the current will increase
c) Lagging and the current will decrease
d) Leading and the current will increase
A
17. Full-load voltage regulation of a power transformer is zero, when power factor of the
I load is near to
a) Unity and leading
C
b) Zero and leading
T c) Zero and lagging
d) Unity and lagging
E
18. Transformer cores are laminated to reduce
a) Eddy current loss
b) Hysteresis loss
c) Both eddy current and hysteresis loss
A d) Ohmic loss
I 19. If a transformer primary is energized from a square wave voltage source, then its
output voltage will be
C a) Zero
b) Sine wave
T c) Triangular wave
E d) Pulsed wave
Page 4 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
20. The leakage flux in a transformer depends on
I a) Applied voltage
b) Frequency
C c) Load current
T d) Mutual flux
E 21. Which type of motor is most suitable for computer printer drive?
a) Reluctance motor
b) Hysteresis motor
c) Shaded pole motor
d) Stepper motor
A
22. In case of split phase motor, the phase shift between the currents in the two windings is
I around
a) 30°
C b) 70°
c) 90°
T d) 120°
E
23. A 1.8° step, 4-phase stepper motor has a total of 40 teeth on 8 poles of stator. The
number of rotor teeth for this motor will be
a) 40
b) 50
c) 100
A d) 80
I 24. The following motor definitely has a permanent magnet rotor

a) DC commutator motor
C
b) Brushless DC motor
T c) Stepper motor
d) Reluctance motor
E
25. The direction of rotation of a single phase capacitor run induction motor is reversed by
a) Interchanging the terminals of AC supply
b) Interchanging the terminals of capacitor
c) Interchanging the terminals of auxiliary winding
A d) Interchanging the terminals of both the windings
I 26. If the iron core of a transformer is replaced by air core then the hysteresis losses in the
transformer will
C a) Increase
b) Decrease
T c) Remains unchanged
E d) Become zero
Page 5 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
27. Which 3-phase connection can be used in a transformer to introduce a phase difference
I of 30o between its output and corresponding input line voltages?
a) Star-star
C b) Star-delta
T c) Delta-delta
d) Delta-zig zag
E
28. The type of dc generator used for arc welding purpose is a
a) Series generator
b) Shunt generator
c) Cumulatively compound generator
d) Differentially compound generator
A
I 29. If the applied voltage to a dc machine is 230V then the back emf for maximum power
developed is
C a) 115V
b) 200V
T c) 230V
d) 460V
E
30. In a dc machine which is operating in the saturated region, the armature reaction effect
is
a) Magnetizing only
b) Demagnetizing only
A c) Cross magnetizing only
d) Cross magnetizing as well as demagnetizing
I
31. Snubber circuit is used to limit the
C
a) Rise of current
T b) Conduction period
c) Rise of voltage across device
E d) Commutation period
32. The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20 A Thyristor is

a) 5
b) 2
A c) 1
d) 0.5
I
33. Circuit turn off time of an SCR is defined as the time
C a) Taken by the SCR turn off
b) For which the SCR is reverse biased by the commutation circuit
T c) For which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its current below the holding
E current
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A d) Required for the SCR current to become zero.
I 34. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best
approximated by
C a) Parabola
T b) Straight line
c) Rectangular Hyperbola
E d) Exponentially decaying function
35. A single- phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in the case
load consists of
a) RL
b) RLC under damped
A
c) RLC over damped
I d) RLC critically damped
C 36. In single pulse- width modulation of PWM inverters, fifth harmonic can be eliminated
if pulse width is equal to
T a) 30°
b) 72°
E
c) 36°
d) 108°
37. The cycloconverters (CC’s) require natural or forced commutation as under

a) Natural commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s
A b) Forced commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s
c) Forced commutation in step- up CC’s
I d) Forced commutation in step- down CC’s
C
38. The six- stepped load phase voltage of a 3- phase square wave inverter, with a dc link
T voltage of 100 volts, will have the following rms magnitudes of 1st , 3rd and 5th
harmonic voltages
E a) 10 V, 30 V and 50 V respectively
b) 100 V, 33.3 V and 20 V respectively
c) 90 V, 30 V and 0 V respectively
d) 45 V, 0 V and 9 V respectively
A 39. A fly-back converter has primary to secondary turns ratio of 15:1. The input voltage is
constant at 200 volts and the output voltage is maintained at 18 volts. What should be
I the snubber capacitor voltage under steady state?
a) More than 270 volts
C b) More than 200 volts but less than 270 volts
c) Less than 18 volts
T d) Not related to input or output voltage
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
I 40. The output voltage waveform of a three-phase square wave inverter contains
a) Only even harmonics
C b) Both even and odd harmonics
T c) Only odd harmonics
d) Only triple harmonics
E
41. The consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a particular
application depends on
a) Speed control range and its nature
b) Starting torque
c) Environmental conditions
A
d) All of the above
I
42. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives?
C a) Synchronous motors
b) Squirrel cage induction motor
T c) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors
d) Any of the above
E
43. Which type of drive can be used for hoisting machinery?
a) AC slip ring motor
b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
c) DC compound motor
A d) Any of the above
I 44. The motor normally used for crane travel is

C
T c) Synchronous motor
d) DC differentially compound motor
E
45. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor when
the major consideration involved is
a) High starting torque
b) Low starting torque
A c) Speed control over limited range
d) All of the above
I
46. When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor
C preferred is
a) Synchronous motor
T b) Squirrel cage induction motor
E c) Wound rotor induction motor
Page 8 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A d) DC motor
I 47. When quick reversal is the consideration, the motor preferred is

a) Synchronous motor
C b) Squirrel cage induction motor
T c) Wound rotor induction motor
d) DC motor
E
48. Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
a) Fan and pump drives
b) Drive of a crane
c) Running it as generator
d) Constant load drive
A
I 49. The selection of control gear for a particular application is based on the consideration
of
C a) Duty
b) Starting torque
T c) Limitation on starting current
d) All of the above
E
50. The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is
a) High power factor
b) Better efficiency
c) Lower cost
I 51. In motor circuit static frequency changers are used for

a) Power factor improvement
C
b) Improved cooling
T c) Reversal of direction
d) Speed regulation
E
52. In case of travelling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
c) Synchronous motor
A d) Single phase motor
I 53. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering is

a) Smooth movement
C b) Precise control
c) Fast speed control
E
Page 9 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
I 54. The basic elements of an electric drive are
a) Electric motor and the transmission system
C b) Electric motor, the transmission and control system
T c) The transmission and control system
d) Electric motor and the conversion equipment
E
55. Which of the following drive can be used for Derricks and winches?
a) DC motor with Ward Leonard control
b) AC slip-ring motor with variable resistance
c) Pole changing squirrel cage motors
d) Any of the above
A
I 56. Which of the following motor is best suited for rolling mills due to their inherent
characteristics?
C a) DC motors
b) Slip-ring induction motors
T c) Squirrel cage induction motors
d) Single phase motors
E
57. Ward Leonard controlled DC drives are generally used for
a) Light duty excavators
b) Medium duty excavators
c) Heavy duty excavators
I 58. The use of a rectifier filter in a capacitor circuit gives satisfactory performance only
when the loads
C
a) Current is high
T b) Current is low
c) Voltage is high
E d) Voltage is low
59. Clamper circuits are known as

a) AC restorers
b) DC restorers
A c) Voltage to frequency converters
d) Sweep circuits
I
60. A single diode operates as a
C a) Full wave rectifier
b) Half wave rectifier
T c) Bridge rectifier
E d) Non rectifier
Page 10 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
I 61. In comparison with a common emitter amplifier, a common base amplifier typically
has
C a) Lower output impedance
T b) Lower input impedance
c) Higher current gain
E d) Higher bandwidth
62. The small signal gain of the amplifier Vc/Vs is

a) -10
b) -5.3
c) 5.3
A
d) 10
I
63. The first dominant pole encountered in the frequency response of a compensated op-
C amp is approximately at
a) 5Hz
T b) 10kHz
c) 1MHz
E
d) 100MHz
64. In a differential amplifier, CMRR can be improved by using an increased

a) Source resistance
b) Collector resistance
A c) Power supply voltages
d) Emitter resistance
I
65. To design an RC phase shift oscillator using a JFET, the absolute minimum
C
amplification factor of the JFET that will be required is
T a) 3
b) 17
E c) 23
d) 29
66. The Barkhausen criterion gives

a) The condition of stability
A b) The maximum gain for which there are no oscillations
c) The phase shift required for oscillations
I d) The maximum feedback for a stable amplifier
C 67. For a wide range of oscillations in the audio range the preferred oscillator is
a) Hartley
T b) Phase-shift
E c) Wien bridge
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A d) Hartley and colpitt
I
68. The emitter follower configuration inherently has a
C a) Current-series feedback
T b) Voltage-shunt feedback
c) Voltage-series feedback
69. The cascode amplifier is a multistage configuration of

a) CC-CB
b) CE-CB
c) CB-CC
A
d) CE-CC
I
70. In CE arrangements, the value of input impedance is approximately equal to
C a) hie
b) hoe
T c) hre
E
A 71. A coil (which can be modeled as a series RL circuit) has been designed for high Q
performance at a rated voltage and a specified frequency. If the frequency of operation
I is doubled and the coil is operated at the same rated voltage then the Q factor and the
active power P consumed by the coil shall be affected as follows
C
a) P is doubled and Q is halved
T b) P is halved and Q is doubled
c) P remains constant and Q is doubled
E d) P is reduced to 1/4 times and Q is doubled
72. The Fourier series of a periodic function with period T is given as

xT(t)= ∞
𝑘=−∞ 𝑋𝑠 (𝑘)𝑒
𝑗𝑘 𝜔 0 𝑡
where, ω0=2π/T and the Fourier coefficient Xs(k)
1 −𝑗𝑘 𝜔 0
=𝑇 𝑥𝑇 𝑡 𝑒 𝑑𝑡. If xT(t) is real and odd, the Fourier coefficients Xs(k) are
A a) Real and odd
b) Complex
I c) Real
C d) Imaginary
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
I 73. As shown in figure, 1 Ω resistance is connected across a source that has load line
v+i=100. The current through the resistance is
C i
+
T Source V 1 ohm
-
E
a) 25 A
b) 50 A
c) 100 A
d) 200 A
A
74. The RMS value of resultant current in a wire which carries a dc current of 10 A and a
I sinusoidal alternating current of peak value 20 A, is
C a) 14.1 A
b) 17.3 A
T c) 22.4 A
d) 30.0 A
E
75. Find inverse Laplace transform of F1(s)/F2(s) = {1/(s-a)}/{1/(s+a)} by using
convolution
a) f(t)=te-at
b) f(t)=teat
c) f(t)=-teat
A
d) f(t)=-te-at
I
76. How many segments will be there for the commutator of a 6-pole dc machine having a
C simple wave wound armature with 72 slots?
a) 2
T b) 12
E c) 72
d) 124
77. When the supply terminals of a dc shunt motor are interchanged

a) The direction of rotation will reverse
A b) The motor will run at its normal speed in the same direction
c) The motor will run much faster in the same direction
I
d) The motor will stop
C
78. A dc series motor develops a torque of 20 Nm at 3 A load current. If the current is
T increased to 6 A, the torque will be
a) 10 Nm
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A b) 20 Nm
c) 80 Nm
I d) 40 Nm
C 79. A 500 kVA transformer has 500 W constant losses and 2000 W copper losses at full
T load. At what load its efficiency is maximum?
a) 250 kVA
E b) 500 kVA
c) 1000 kVA
d) 125 kVA
80. A single-phase transformer has a maximum efficiency of 90% at full load and unity
power factor. Efficiency at half load at the same power factor is
A
a) 86.7%
I b) 88.26%
c) 88.9%
C d) 87.8%
T 81. If the input to an alternator remains unchanged but the excitation is changed then
which of the following will not change?
E
a) kVA output
b) kW output
c) Power factor
d) All of the above
A 82. Four identical alternators each rated for 20 MVA, 11 kV having a sub-transient
reactance of 16% are working in parallel. The short circuit level at the bus bars is
I a) 500 MVA
b) 400 MVA
C
c) 125 MVA
T d) 80 MVA
E 83. What is the shunt resistance component in the equivalent circuit obtained by no-load
test of an induction motor, representative of
a) Windage and friction losses only
b) Core losses only
c) Core, windage and friction losses
A d) Copper losses
I 84. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by

a) Improper design of stator laminations
C b) Low voltage supply
c) High loads
T d) Harmonics developed in motor
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
I 85. In the equivalent circuit of a double cage induction motor, the two rotor cages can be
considered
C a) To be in parallel
T b) To be in series-parallel
c) To be in series
E d) To be in parallel with stator
86. The phase shift between currents in the two windings of split phase motor is around
a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 90°
A
d) 120°
I
87. The anode current through a conducting SCR is 10 A. If its gate current is doubled,
C then the anode current shall be
a) Zero
T b) Halved
c) Same
E
d) Doubled
88. A single-phase ac voltage controller is controlling current in a purely inductive load. If

the firing angle of the SCR is α, what will be the conduction of the SCR?
a) π
A b) π-α
c) 2π-α
I d) 2π
C
89. A 3-phase to 3-phase cyclo-converter uses
T a) 3 switches
b) 6 switches
E c) 12 switches
d) 18 switches
90. Compared to a single-phase half bridge inverter, the output power of a single-phase full
bridge inverter is higher by a factor of
A a) 12
b) 8
I c) 4
d) 2
C
91. Which of the following converter can be operated in all the four quadrants?
T a) Semi-converter
E b) Full converter
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A c) Dual converter
d) Combination of semi and full converters
I
92. A three-phase full converter is supplying a purely resistive load at 300 V dc for 0°
C firing angle. The output voltage for 90° firing angle would be
T a) 0 V
b) 40 V
E c) 50 V
d) 100 V
93. For a step-up chopper with an input voltage of 220 V, what shall be the ON time of
thyristor, if the output voltage required is 330 V with 100µs non-conducting time of the
thyristor.
A
a) 66.6 µs
I b) 100 µs
c) 150 µs
C d) 200 µs
T 94. A separately excited dc motor having back emf constant of 0.25 V/rpm is operated
through a half-controlled rectifier from a 230 V single phase ac source with a firing
E
angle of 30°. If the armature resistance is 2Ω and the armature current is 5 A without
any ripple, the speed of the motor will be
a) 339 rpm
b) 359 rpm
c) 366 rpm
A d) 386 rpm
I 95. A single-phase inverter has square wave output voltage. What is the percentage of the
fifth harmonic component in relation to the fundamental component?
C
a) 40%
T b) 30%
c) 20%
E d) 10%
96. A 3-phase wound rotor induction motor is controlled by a chopper-controlled

resistance in its rotor circuit. A resistance of 2 Ω is connected in the rotor circuit and a
resistance of 4 Ω is additionally connected during OFF periods of the chopper. The
A OFF period of the chopper is 4 ms. The average resistance in the rotor circuit for the
chopper frequency of 200 Hz is
I a) 26/5 Ω
b) 24/5 Ω
C c) 18/5 Ω
d) 6/5 Ω
T
E
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A
97. A three-phase semi-converter feeds the armature of a separately excited dc motor,
I supplying a non-zero torque. For steady-state operation, the motor armature current is
found to drop to zero at certain instances of time. At such instances the voltage
C assumes a value that
T a) Equal to the instantaneous value of the ac phase voltage
b) Equal to the instantaneous value of the motor back emf
E c) Arbitrary
d) Zero
98. Assuming the operational amplifier to be ideal, the gain of the below circuit is
10k 10k
A 1k
1k
Vout
Vin
I
C a) -1
b) -20
T c) -100
d) -120
E
99. An n-channel JFET has IDSS = -1 mA and Vp = -4V. Its trans-conductance gm (mA/V)
for an applied gate to source voltage VGS of -3V shall be
a) 0.5 mA/V
b) 0.125 mA/V
A c) 0.0625 mA/V
d) 0.03125 mA/V
I
100. In the voltage divider bias configuration as shown below, it is given that R1 = 45 kΩ,
C R2 = 4 kΩ, RC = 10 kΩ, RE = 1.5 kΩ, VCC = 15 V and β = 58, the equivalent base
resistance is given by
T +VCC
R1 RC
E
R2 RE
a) 3.67 kΩ
b) 4 kΩ
A
c) 45 kΩ
I d) 49 kΩ
C
T
E
Page 17 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
PART –C
I
C
T a) 10and40
b) 10 and15
E c) 15 and40
d) 10 and10
a) Non-singularmatrix
A b) Identitymatrix
c) Singularmatrix
C
T a) Nullmatrix
b) Diagonalmatrix
E c) Lower Triangularmatrix

a) u
A b) 1
c) -1
I d) 0
C
105. The absolute maximum and minimum values respectively for 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 4 − 8 on [−3, 1]
T are
a) −7 and −8
E b) 81 and −8
c) 0 and −2
d) 73 and −8
2
A
I c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4
C
T
E
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a) 3
I b) 6
c) 2
T
E 𝐵
a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1

C 13
a) 30
T 17
b) 30
E 19
c) 30
11 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
A
b) Unitorymatrix
I c) Skew-Hermitianmatrix
d) None ofthe above
C
T
a) λ = 2 and µ =4
E b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
A determinant 𝐵 = 𝐴 + 2𝐴−1 + 𝐼 is
I a) 62
b) 44
C c) 8
T
E
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
A

I a) grad | A |  0

C b) curl A  0

T c) div A  0
E
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
(𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
A
I
1 1 𝑛 −1
C 115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
a) ⎾(n − 1)
T b) ⎾(n)
n−1
E c) ⎾ 2
n+1
d) ⎾ 2

a) Hyperbolic
A b) Elliptic
c) Parabolic
C
𝑥 +𝑦
T 𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
E 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
A
I
C
T
E
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2𝑥
A 1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
I 1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
C is
a) 0
T b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
A c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
I
C 120. IfmeanofaPoissondistributionismthenvarianceofthisdistributionis
a) m2
T b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 21 of 21
UG1ELE17
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Electrical Engineering
Paper: 1

1. a 41 d 81. b
2. d 42 c 82. a
3. a 43 d 83. b
4. a 44 a 84. d
5. c 45 a 85. a
6. b 46 d 86. a
7. c 47 d 87. c
8. d 48 a 88. b
9. d 49 d 89. d
10. c 50 a 90. d
11. a 51 d 91. c
12. c 52 a 92. a
13. d 53 d 93. d
14. b 54 b 94. b
15. b 55 d 95. c
16. a 56 a 96. d
17. a 57 c 97. b
18. a 58 b 98. d
19. d 59 b 99. b
20. c 60 b 100. a
21. d 61 d 101. a
22. a 62 a 102. c
23. b 63 a 103. a
24. b 64 d 104. d
25. c 65 d 105. d
26. d 66 c 106. d
27. b 67 c 107. a
28. d 68 a 108. a
29. a 69 b 109. a
30. d 70 a 110. b
31. c 71 d 111. c
32. b 72 d 112. d
33. b 73 b 113. b
34. a 74 b 114. a
35. b 75 b 115. b
36. b 76 c 116. b
37. c 77 b 117. d
38. d 78 c 118. a
39. a 79 a 119. d
40. c 80 d 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T
E
PAPER-II
A Instructions:
I
C questions.
T ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
E
C vi. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
specified.
T
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A
I 1. For a measuring instrument, a set of repeated measurements had a low spread of values,
the instrument is of
C a) High accuracy
b) Low accuracy
T
c) High precision
E d) Low precision
2. A 0-160 V voltmeter has an accuracy of 1% of full scale reading. The voltage is 80 V. the
limiting error is
a) 1%
b) 2%
A c) 2.5%
d) 3%
I
C 3. A 0-50 A moving coil ammeter has a voltage drop of 0.1 V across its terminals at full
scale deflection. The shunt resistance needed to extend its range to 0-500 A is
T a) 0.20 mΩ
b) 0.22 mΩ
E c) 0.1 Ω
d) 0.11 mΩ
4. Energy meter is
a) An indicating instrument
A b) A recording instrument
c) An integrating instrument
C 5. The Q-meter works on the principle of
a) Series resonance
T
b) Parallel resonance
E c) Mutual inductance
d) Self-inductance
6. Megger is an instrument used for measurement of

a) Leakage current
b) Medium resistance
A
c) Low resistance
I d) High resistance and insulation resistance
C
T
E
7. A sinusoidal voltage of 230 V rms, 50 Hz is connected to a half wave rectifier type
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A ammeter and offers a resistance of 30 Ω to the flow of current. The current recorded by the
ammeter is
I a) 2.95 A
b) 3.45 A
C c) 7.67 A
d) 10.35 A
T
E 8. A thermistor with increase in temperature exhibits
a) Only negative change of resistance
b) Only positive change of resistance
c) Based on material used, can exhibit either positive or negative change of resistance
A 9. A piezo-electric crystal used to measure force has its dimensions as 10 mm x 10 mm x 3
I mm and a voltage sensitivity of 0.11 Vm/N. If the voltage developed is 200 V, the force
across the crystal would be
C a) 60 µN
b) 60 N
T c) 60 kN
d) 60MN
E
10. In a semiconductor strain gauge, the change in resistance on application of strain is mainly
due to change in
a) Length
b) Diameter
A c) Length and diameter
d) Resistivity
I
11. In an oscilloscope screen, the linear sweep is applied at the
C a) Both horizontal and vertical axis
T b) Vertical axis
c) Horizontal axis
E d) Origin
12. The power consumed by a balanced 3-phase 3-wire load is measured by the two-wattmeter
method. The first wattmeter reads twice that of the second. Then the load impedance angle
in radians is
a) π/12
A
b) π/8
I c) π/6
d) π/3
C
T
E
13. Total instantaneous power supplied by a three-phase ac supply to a balanced R-L load is
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A a) Zero
b) Constant
I c) Pulsating with zero average
d) Pulsating with non-zero average
C
14. When two voltages having the same frequency and equal magnitude but with a phase
T
difference of 90° is applied to a CRO, the trace on the screen is a
E a) Circle
b) Ellipse
c) Oval
d) Straight line
15. The range of measuring temperature for which radiation pyrometers are used would be
A a) 0 to 500°C
b) 1200 to 2500°C
I
c) 500 to 1000°C
C d) -250°C to 500°C
T 16. In eddy current damping system, the disc employed should be of

a) Conducting and magnetic material
E b) Conducting but non-magnetic material
c) Magnetic but non-conducting material
d) Non-conducting and non-magnetic material
17. The octal equivalent of AB.CD hex is

A a) 253.314
b) 526.632
I c) 526.314
d) 253.632
C
18. The universal gates are
T
a) NAND and NOR
E b) AND, OR, NOT
c) X-OR and X-NOR
d) All of the above
19. The totem pole in standard TTL refers to

a) Output buffer
A b) Input emitter voltage
I c) Open collector output stage
d) Phase splitter
C
T
20. The minimum number of two-input NAND gates required to implement A X-NOR B, if
E
only A and B are available, are
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A a) 6
b) 3
I c) 5
d) 4
C
21. The highest noise margin is offered by
T
a) TTL
E b) ECL
c) I2L
d) CMOS
22. A JK flip flop can be converted to T flip flop by connecting

a) Both J and K inputs to T
A b) 𝑄 to 0
I c) Q to O
C
23. A divide by 50 counter can be realized by using
T a) 5 number of MOD-10 counter
b) 10 number of MOD-5 counter
E c) One MOD-5 counter followed by one MOD-10 counter
d) 10 number of MOD-10 counter
24. A digital to analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5 V has a resolution
close to 20 mV. The bit size is
A a) 4
b) 8
I c) 16
d) 32
C
T 25. Mason’s rule is applied to
a) Signal flow graph
E b) Block diagram reduction technique
c) Hydraulic system
d) Rotational system
26. A DeMUX may be changed to a decoder by

a) Input be left unconnected and select lines used as input to decoder
A
b) Input should always be 0 and select lines behave as input to decoder
I c) Both are same
d) Input should become enable and select lines behave as inputs to the decoder
C
T 27. The binary number 110011 is to be converted to gray code. The number of gates and type
required are
E
a) 6, AND
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A b) 6, XNOR
c) 6, XOR
I d) 5, XOR
C 28. The Laplace transform of damped sine wave e-atsinωt is

a) ω / (s2 + ω2)
T
b) s / (s2 + ω2)
E c) ω / {(s+a)2 + ω2}
d) s / {(s+a)2 + ω2}
29. The control system having unity damping factor is

a) overdamped
b) Under damped
A c) Critically damped
d) Unstable
I
C 30. The output of first order hold between two consecutive sampling instances is a
a) Constant
T b) Quadratic equation
c) Ramp function
E d) Exponential function
31. The transfer function of a system is given as 100/(s2+20s+100). The system is

a) An overdamped system
b) An underdamped system
A c) A critically damped system
d) An unstable system
I
32. What is the value of k for a unity feedback system with G(s)=k/{s(s+1)} to have a peak
C overshoot of 50%?
a) 0.53
T
b) 5.3
E c) 0.6
d) 0.047
33. What is the nature of the system in terms of stability for which the unit step response is
given by [1-e-t(1+t)] u(t)?
a) Unstable
A b) Stable
I c) Critically stable
d) Oscillatory
C
T 34. The Bode plot of the transfer function G(s)= s has
a) Constant magnitude and constant phase shift angle
E
b) -20 db/decade and constant phase shift angle
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A c) 20 db/decade and phase shift of π/2

d) zero magnitude and phase shift
I
35. For the stability of system having characteristic equation Ks4+Ks3+s2+s+1=0
C a) ½ < K <1
b) 0<K<1
T
c) 0<K<∞
E d) More than 1
36. Root locus of s(s+2)+k(s+4)=0 is a circle. What are the coordinates of the centre of this
circle?
a) -2, 0
b) -3, 0
A c) -4, 0
d) -5, 0
I
C 37. How can the steady state error in a system be reduced?
a) By decreasing the type of system
T b) By increasing system gain
c) By decreasing the static error constant
E d) By increasing the input
38. For type-2 system, the steady state error due to ramp input is equal to
a) Zero
b) Finite constant
A c) Infinite
d) Indeterminate
I
39. What is the gain margin of a system when the magnitude of the polar plot at phase
C crossover is ‘a’?
a) 1/a
T
b) -a
E c) Zero
d) A
40. If the Nyquist plot cuts the negative real axis at a distance of 0.4, then the gain margin of
the system is
a) 0.4
A b) -0.4
I c) 4%
d) 2.5
C
T 41. Addition of zeros in a transfer function causes
a) Lead compensation
E
b) Lag compensation
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A c) Lead-lag compensation
d) None of these
I
42. Backlash in a stable control system may cause
C a) Underdamping
b) Overdamping
T
c) High level oscillations
E d) Low level oscillations
43. The number of address pins of 8085 required to interface it with 16kB of memory
following absolute decoding is
a) 16
b) 14
A c) 8
d) 4
I
C 44. The number of clock cycles required to execute PUSH H instruction is
a) 4
T b) 7
c) 9
E d) 10
45. The addressing mode used by LXI H, 1234H is

a) Register direct, immediate
b) Register indirect, register direct
A c) Only immediate
d) Only register direct
I
46. Serial input data of 8085 can be loaded in to accumulator by
C a) Executing a RIM instruction
b) Executing a SIM instruction
T
c) Executing RST1
E d) None of these
47. State which of the following statements are false for instruction queue
a) It stores instructions
b) It is maintained in FIFO structure
c) It only stores instructions when more than one registers of queue is empty
A d) It is a part of execution unit
I
C
T 48. The value of AX after following codes are executed becomes
MOV CL, 04H
E
MOV AL, 32H
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A MOV AH, AL
SHR AH, CL
I ANI AL, 0FH
AAD
C a) 0020H
b) 0023H
T
c) 0302H
E d) 3020H
49. In 8086 microprocessor which one of the following instructions is not executed after an
arithmetic operation?
a) AAS
b) AAM
A c) DAS
d) AAD
I
C 50. The maximum baud rate achievable in mode 2 of 8051 operated with a 6MHz clock is
a) 6 Mbps
T b) 93.75 kbps
c) 187.5 kbps
E d) 1 Mbps
51. TF1 flag has to be manually reset when

a) Timer 1 interrupt is disabled
b) Timer 1 interrupt is enabled
A c) Timer overflow occurs
d) In polling mode and timer 0 overflow occurs
I
52. Transmission efficiency increases as
C a) Voltage increases but power factor decreases
b) Voltage decreases but power factor increases
T
c) Voltage and power factor both decrease
E d) Voltage and power factor both increase
53. The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is
known as
a) Skin effect
b) Corona
A c) Permeability
I d) Unsymmetrical fault
C
54. A power system has 100 buses including 10 generator buses. For the load flow analysis
T using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian is
a) 189 x 189
E
b) 100 x 100
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A c) 90 x 90
d) 180 x 180
I
55. In overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length
C of line is less than
a) 200 km
T
b) 160 km
E c) 100 km
d) 80 km
56. A single-phase 100 kVA, 1000 V/100 V, 50 Hz transformer has a voltage drop of 5%
across its series impedance at full load. Of this, 3% is due to resistance. The percentage
regulation of the transformer at full load with 0.8 lagging power factor is
A a) 4.8
b) 6.8
I
c) 8.8
C d) 10.8
T 57. Two wattmeter method is used for measurement of power in a balanced three-phase load
supplied from a balanced three-phase system. If one of the wattmeter reads half of the
E other (both positive), then the power factor of the load is
a) 0.532
b) 0.632
c) 0.707
d) 0.866
A
58. A 1000 x 1000 bus admittance matrix for an electric power system has 8000 non-zero
I elements. The minimum number of branches (transmission lines and transformers) in this
system are
C a) 3500
b) 7000
T
c) 1000
E d) 4000
59. A single-phase load is supplied by a single-phase voltage source. If the current flowing
from the load to the source is 10∟-150° A and if the voltage at the load terminals is
100∟60° V, then the
a) Load absorbs real power and delivers reactive power
A b) Load absorbs real and reactive powers
I c) Load delivers real and reactive powers
d) Load delivers real power and absorbs reactive power
C
60. The angle δ in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is the
T a) Angle between stator voltage and current
b) Angular displacement of the rotor with respect to stator
E
c) Angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously rotating
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A axis
d) Angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a synchronously
I rotating axis
C 61. With the help of a reactive compensator, it is possible to have

a) Constant voltage operation only
T
b) Unity p.f. operation only
E c) Both constant voltage and unity p.f.
d) Either constant voltage or unity p.f.
62. Bus admittance matrix is a

a) Full matrix
b) Sparse matrix
A c) Diagonal matrix
d) Rectangular matrix
I
C 63. Equal area criterion is useful for the determination of
a) Steady state stability
T b) Transient stability of two-machine power system
c) Transient stability of multi-machine power system
E d) Both steady state and transient stability of multi-machine power system
64. A lossless transmission line having surge impedance loading (SIL) of 2280 MW. A series
capacitive compensation of 30% is placed. Then SIL, of the compensated transmission
line will be
A a) 1835 MW
b) 2280 MW
I c) 2725 MW
d) 3257 MW
C
65. The Gauss Seidel load flow method has following disadvantages. Identify the incorrect
T
statement.
E a) Unreliable convergence
b) Slow convergence
c) Choice of slack bus affects convergence
d) A good initial guess for voltage is essential for convergence
A
I
C 66. A balanced delta connected load of (8+j6) Ω per phase is connected to a 400 V, 50 Hz, 3-
phase supply lines. If the input power factor is to be improved to 0.9 by connecting a bank
T of star connected capacitors, the required kVAR of the bank is
a) 42.7
E
b) 10.2
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A c) 28.8
d) 39.4
I
67. A 800 kV transmission line is having per phase line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per
C phase line capacitance of 11.78 nF/km. Ignoring the length of the line, its ideal power
transfer capability in MW is
T
a) 1204 MW
E b) 1504 MW
c) 2085 MW
d) 2606 MW
68. A 50 Hz, 4-pole, 500 MVA, 22 kV turbo-generator is delivering rated MVA at 0.8 p.f.
Suddenly a fault occurs, reducing its power output by 40%. Neglect losses and assume
A constant power input to the shaft. The accelerating torque in the generator in MNm at the
fault will be
I
a) 1.528
C b) 1.018
c) 0.840
T d) 0.509
E 69. Consider a long 2-wire line composed of solid round conductors. The radius of both
conductors is 0.25 cm and the distance between their centres is 1 m. If this distance is
doubled, then the inductance per unit length
a) Doubles
b) Halves
A c) Increases but does not double
d) Decreases but does not become half
I
70. The bundling of conductors is done primarily to
C a) Increase radio interference
b) Increase reactance
T
c) Reduce reactance
E d) Reduce radio interference
71. The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by

a) Load power factor
b) Switching over-voltage
c) Harmonics
A d) Corona
I
C 72. For a fully transposed transmission line
a) Positive, negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
T b) Positive and negative sequence impedances are equal
c) Positive and zero sequence impedances are equal
E
d) Negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
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A
73. Let X(z) = 1/ (1-z-3) be the z transform of a causal signal x[n], then the values of x[2] and
I x[3] are
a) 0 and 0
C b) 0 and 1
c) 1 and 0
T
d) 1 and 1
E
74. The initial and final values of z-domain signal given by 2z-1/(1-1.8z-1+0.8z-2) are
a) 10, 1
b) 1, 10
c) 0, 10
d) 0, infinity
A
75. The minimum number of samples required to correctly describe x(t)=10 cos 4πt + 4 sin
I
8πt
C a) 4 samples per second
b) 2 samples per second
T c) 8 samples per second
d) 16 samples per second
E
76. Interpolation is the process of
a) Inserting N-1 unity sequence values to x[n]
b) Inserting N-1 zero sequence values to x[n]
c) Deleting N-1 unity sequence values from x[n]
A d) Deleting N-1 zero sequence values from x[n]
I 77. A signal is processed by a causal filter with transfer function G(s).For distortion free
output signal waveform, G(s) must
C a) Provide zero phase shift for all frequencies
b) Provide constant phase shift for all frequencies
T
c) Provide linear phase shift that is proportional to frequency
E d) Provide a phase shift that is inversely proportional to frequency
78. z-transform of u[n+1] is

a) z/(z-1)
b) z2/(z-1)
c) z-1/(1-z-1)
A d) 1/(z-1+z-2)
I
C 79. Two discrete time system with impulse response h1(n)=δ[n-1], h2(n)= δ[n-2] are
connected in cascade, the overall impulse response of the cascaded system is
T a) δ[n-1]
b) δ[n-2]
E
c) δ[n-3]
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A d) δ[n-4]
I 80. The transfer function of a system is H(z)=1-3z-1, the system response for input x[n] is
a) x[n]-0.3x[n-1]
C b) x[n]+0.3x[n-1]
c) x[n]-3x[n+1]
T
d) x[n]-3x[n-1]
E
PART - B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
81. A 15 volt moving iron voltmeter has a resistance of 300 Ω and an inductance of 0.12
henry. The instrument reads correctly on dc and on ac at 35 Hz when it reads 14.75 V.
What will be reading at same voltage at 100 Hz?
A a) 14.5 V
b) 14.85 V
I
c) 15 V
C d) 15.4 V
T 82. Two resistors R1=36 Ω and R2=75 Ω, each having tolerances of ±5% are connected in
series. The value of the resultant resistance will be
E a) 111 ± 0 Ω
b) 111 ± 2.778 Ω
c) 111 ± 5.55 Ω
d) 111 ± 7.23 Ω
A 83. What is the effect of inductance in the pressure coil on performance of a dynamometer
type wattmeter?
I a) It reads low on lagging power factor and high on leading power factor
b) It reads high on lagging power factor and low on leading power factor
C c) Its reading is not affected at all
d) It always reads low
T
E 84. Consider the signal Vm sin 100t + 2Vm sin 200t to be sampled and stored in a data
acquisition system. The same is to be extracted off-line later on. In order to extract the
signal effectively, the original sampling frequency has to be
a) 100 rad/s
b) 200 rad/s
c) 210 rad/s
A d) 300 rad/s
I
85. Which one of the following methods decreases the error due to connections in a
C dynamometer type Wattmeter?
a) Using bifilar compensating winding in place of current coil
T b) Using non-inductive pressure coil circuit
c) Using a capacitor across a part of high resistance of pressure coil circuit
E
d) Using a swamping resistance
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A
86. A Wien-bridge is used to measure the frequency of the input signal. However, the input
I signal has 10% third harmonic distortion. Specifically, the signal is 2 sin 400 wt + 0.2 sin
1200 wt. With this input the balance will
C a) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to a frequency of 200Hz
b) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 260Hz
T
c) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 400Hz
E d) Not lead to a null indication
87. A resistance wire strain gauge with gauge factor of 2 is bounded to a steel structural
member subjected to a tensile stress of 100 mega N/m2. The modulus of elasticity of steel
is 200 Giga N/m2. The percentage change in gauge resistance due to the applied stress is
a) 0.1
A b) 0.2
c) 0.4
I
d) 0.5
C
88. Switching surge is
T a) High voltage dc
b) High voltage ac
E c) Short duration transient voltage
d) Hyperbolically dying voltage
89. An alternator of 300 kW is driven by a prime mover of speed 4% and another alternator of
220 kW driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 3%. The total load they can take is
A a) 500 kW
b) 567 kW
I c) 425 kw
d) 257 kW
C
90. The severity of line to ground and three phase faults at the terminals of an unloaded
T
synchronous generator is to be same. If the terminal voltage is 1.0 pu, Z1=Z2=j0.1 pu and
E Z0=j0.05 pu for the alternator, then the required inductive reactance for neutral grounding
is
a) 0.0166 pu
b) 0.05 pu
c) 0.1 pu
d) 0.15 pu
A
I 91. The zero sequence current of a generator for line to ground is j2.4 p.u, then the current
through the neutral during the fault is
C a) j2.4 p.u.
b) j0.8 p.u.
T c) j7.2 p.u.
d) j0.24 p.u.
E
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A 92. In a 100 bus power system, there are 10 generators. In a particular iteration of Newton-
Raphson load flow technique (in polar coordinates), two of the PV buses are converted to
I PQ type. In this iteration
a) The number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of
C unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.
b) The number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of
T
unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.
E c) The number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two.
d) The number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two.
93. The complex power consumed by a constant voltage load given by (P1+jQ1), where
A 1kW≤P1≤1.5kW and 0.5kVAR≤Q1≤1kVAR. A compensating shunt capacitor is
connected such that |Q|≤0.25kVAR, where Q is the net reactive power consumed by the
I
capacitor load combination. The reactive power (in kVAR) supplied by the capacitor is
C a) 0.75 kVAR (lagging)
b) 0.75 kVAR (leading)
T c) 1.25 kVAR (lagging)
d) 1.25 kVAR (leading)
E
94. 2’s compliment of 10101011 is
a) 01010101
b) 00111100
c) 10101011
A d) 10101100
I 95. Decimal 18.293 when converted in to 10’s complement will become

a) 81.707
C b) 81.700
c) 81.777
T
d) 81.077
E
96. 10 in BCD is represented as
a) 10100
b) 1100
c) 010111
A
I 97. A memory system has a total of 8 memory chips, each with 12 address lines and 4 data
lines. The total size of the memory system is
C a) 16 kbytes
b) 32 kbytes
T c) 48 kbytes
d) 64 kbytes
E
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A 98. Following Boolean expression

𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 + 𝑑 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 simplifies as
I a) 1
b) 𝑎. 𝑏
C
c) a.b
T d) 0
E 99. In an 8085 microprocessor, after execution of following instructions, XRA A; MVIB F0H;
SUB B; the contents of the accumulator will become
a) 01 H
b) 0F H
c) F0 H
A d) 10 H
I 100. When the program is being executed in an 8085 microprocessor, its program counter
contains
C a) The memory address of the instruction that is being currently executed
b) The memory address of the instruction that is to be executed next
T
c) The number of instructions in the current program that have already been executed
E d) The total number of instructions in the program being executed
101. The open loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed loop transfer
function (s+4)/(s2+7s +13) is
a) 4/13
b) 4/9
A c) 4
d) 13
I
C 102. The unit step response of a system starting from rest is given by x(t)=1-e-2t for t ≥ 0. The
transfer function of the system is
T a) 1/(1+2s)
b) 2/(2+s)
E c) 1/(2+s)
d) 2s/(1+2s)
A
103. The unit impulse response of a system is h(t)=e-t , t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady state
I value of the output for unit step input is equal to
a) -1
C b) 0
T c) 1
d) Infinite
E
104. A critically damped, continuous- time, second order system, when sampled, will have (in
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A Z domain)
a) A simple pole
I b) Double pole on real axis
c) Double pole on imaginary axis
C d) A pair of complex conjugate poles
T
E 105. The gain margin of the system G(s)H(s)=100/s(s+10)2 under closed loop unity negative
feedback is
a) 0 dB
b) 20 dB
c) 26 dB
d) 46 dB
A
106. For a second order system, damping ratio (ξ) is 0<ξ<1 , then the roots of the characteristic
I
polynomial are
C a) Real but not equal
b) Real and equal
T c) Complex conjugates
d) Imaginary
E
107. The final value theorem is used to find the
a) Steady state value of the system output
b) Initial value of the system output
c) Transient behavior of the system output
I 108. Consider a feedback control system with loop transfer function

G(s)H(s) = K(1+0.5s) /{s(1+s)(1+2s). The type of the closed loop system is
C a) Zero
b) One
T
c) Two
E d) Three
109. Consider a system with transfer function F(s)=(s+6)/Ks2+s+6). Its damping ratio will be
A 0.5 when the value of K is
I a) 2/6
b) 3
C c) 1/6
d) 6
T
110. A negative-feedback closed-loop system is supplied to an input of 5 V. The system has a
E
forward gain of 1 and a feedback gain of 1. What is the output voltage?
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A a) 1.0 V
b) 1.5 V
I c) 2.0 V
d) 2.5 V
C
111. The Laplace transform of a function f(t) is F(s)=(5s2+23s+6)/{s(s2+2s+2)}. At
T
t=∞, f(t)approaches
E a) 17/2
b) 5
c) 3
d) ∞
112. Assertion (A): Feedback control system offer more accurate control over open-loop
A systems.
Reason (R): The feedback path establishes a link for input and output comparison and
I
subsequent error correction
C a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
T c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
E
113. A lead compensator network includes a parallel combination of R and C in the feed
forward path. If the transfer function of the compensator is Gc(s)=(s+2)/(s+4), the value of
RC is
a) Zero
A b) 0.1
c) 0.5
I d) 1
C 114. In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high
frequencies by a 4th order all pole system?
T
a) -80 dB/decade
E b) -40 dB/decade
c) +40 dB/decade
d) +80 dB/decade
A
I
115. A PD controller is used to compensate a system. Compared to the uncompensated system,
C the compensated system has
a) A higher type number
T b) Reduced damping
c) Higher noise amplification
E
d) Largertransientovershoot
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A
116. Let x(t)↔X(jω) be Fourier Transform pair. The Fourier Transform of the signal x(5t-3) in
I terms of X(jω) is given as
a) 15e-j3ω/5X(jω/5)
C b) 15ej3ω/5 X(jω/5)
c) 15e-j3ωX(jω/5)
T
d) 15ej3ω X(jω/5)
E
117. Let g(t)=exp(-πt2) and h(t) is filter matched to g(t). If g(t) is applied as input to h(t), then
the Fourier transform of the output is
a) exp(-πt2)
b) exp(-πf2/2)
c) exp(-π|f|)
A d) exp(-2πf2)
I
118. Let x(n)=(1/2)n u(n), y(n)=x2(n) and Y(ejω) be the Fourier Transform of y(n). then y(ej0) is
C a) ¼
b) 2
T c) 4/3
d) 4
E
119. Two of the angular frequencies at which its Fourier transform becomes zero are
a) π, 2π
b) 0.5 π, 1.5π
c) 0, π
A d) 2π, 2.5π
I 120. Which of the following signal is non periodic

a) S(t)= cos2t + cos3t + cos5t
C b) S(t)=exp(j8πt)
c) S(t)=exp(-7t) sin10πt
T
d) S(t)= cos2t cos4t
E
A
I
C
T
E
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UG2ELE17
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Electrical Engineering
Paper: 2

1. c 41 a 81. a
2. b 42 d 82. c
3. b 43 a 83. b
4. c 44 d 84. b
5. a 45 a 85. a
6. d 46 a 86. d
7. b 47 d 87. b
8. c 48 c 88. c
9. b 49 d 89. c
10. d 50 c 90. a
11. c 51 a 91. c
12. c 52 d 92. b
13. b 53 a 93. a
14. a 54 a 94. a
15. b 55 d 95. a
16. b 56 a 96. d
17. d 57 d 97. a
18. a 58 a 98. d
19. a 59 b 99. d
20. c 60 d 100. b
21. d 61 c 101. b
22. a 62 a 102. b
23. c 63 d 103. c
24. b 64 c 104. b
25. a 65 a 105. c
26. d 66 b 106. c
27. d 67 c 107. a
28. c 68 b 108. b
29. b 69 c 109. c
30. c 70 c 110. d
31. c 71 b 111. c
32. b 72 b 112. a
33. b 73 b 113. c
34. c 74 c 114. a
35. a 75 c 115. c
36. c 76 b 116. a
37. b 77 c 117. d
38. a 78 b 118. c
39. a 79 c 119. a
40. d 80 d 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A
I ELECTRICAL AND POWER ENGINEERING
C
E
PAPER-I
A
Instructions:
I i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C,
C

A
I use non-programmable scientific calculator.
C
T specified.
E viii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
I 1. In an R-C series circuit excited by a voltage E, the change across capacitor at t=0+ is
C (a) Zero
(b) CE
T (c) CE(1-e-t/RC)
(d) CE(1-et/RC)
E
2. Which of the following is correct for a driving point functions?
(a) The real parts of all poles must be negative
(b) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be negative
(c) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be negative or zero
(d) The real parts of all zeroes must be negative
3. A sinusoidal voltage has peakvalue of 100 V, the rms value is

A (a) 50 V
(b) 70.7 V
I
(c) 35.35 V
C (d) 141.41 V
T 4. RMS value of i(t) = 10[1 + sin (-t)] is

(a) 10
E (b) 10/2
(c) 150
(d) 102
5. A circuit is replaced by its Thevenin’s equivalent to find current through a certain

branch. If VTH = 100 V and RTH= 20Ω, the current through the branch
(a) Will always be 5 A
(b) Will always be less than 5 A
A (c) Will always be equal to or less than 5 A
I (d) Can’t be calculated
C 6. A constant k band pass filter has a pass band from 100 to 400 Hz. The resonant
frequency of series and shunt arms is
T (a) 300 Hz
(b) 250 Hz
E (c) 200 Hz
7. An RL admittance function can also be realized as
(a) RC admittance function
(b) RC impedance function
A (c) LC admittance function
(d) LC impedance function
I
8. In active filters inductances are divided because they
C (a) Are always associated with some resistance
T (b) Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturization
(c) Are non-linear
E (d) Saturate quickly
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A 9. Three resistances of 45 Ω each are connected in star. The resistance of equivalent

delta will have a value of
I (a) 45 Ω
(b) 15 Ω
C (c) 45/2 Ω
(d) 135 Ω
T
E 10. In a reactance function
(a) All poles are simple
(b) All poles and zeros are simple
(c) All poles and zeros are simple and lie on jω axis
(d) All poles and zeros lie on negative real axis
11. Energy stored in a capacitor over a cycle, when excited by an AC source is

(a) The same that of DC source of equivalent magnitude
A (b) Half of that due to a DC source of equivalent magnitude
I (c) Zero
(d) Infinite
C
12. In hydro power plant, the graph between discharge and time is known as
T (a) Monograph
(b) Load graph
E (c) Discharge graph
(d) Hydro graph
13. A gas turbine basically works on

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankin cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
A (d) Dual cycle
I 14. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant is less than of a conventional fuel fired
thermal plant because of
C
(a) Less injection of heat in the condenser
T (b) Higher temperature conditions
(c) Higher pressure conditions
E (d) Low temperature and pressure conditions
15. The approximate energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is

(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 750 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
A (d) 2 kW/m2
I
16. The draught produced by chimney is
C (a) Forced draught
(b) Induced draught
T (c) Balanced draught
(d) Natural draught
E
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A 17. Air standard efficiency of a diesel depends upon

(a) Expansion ratio
I (b) Compression ratio
(c) Fuel used
C (d) Number of running hours
T 18. Gas turbine is widely used in
E (a) Locomotives
(b) Automobiles
(c) Aircrafts
(d) Pumping station
19. In a DC shunt generator working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the
direction of rotation. As a result of this, commutation will
(a) Improve but terminal voltage will fall
A (b) Worsen and terminal voltage will fall
I (c) Improve and terminal voltage will rise
(d) Worsen and terminal voltage will rise
C
20. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding
T produces
(a) Damping torque
E (b) Eddy current torque
(c) Torques aiding the developed to torque
(d) No torque
21. If a 230 V dc series motor is connected to a 230 V ac supply,

(a) The motor will vibrate violently
(b) The motor will run with less efficiency and more sparking
A (c) The motor will not run
(d) The fuse will be blown
I
22. The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in order to
C (a) Reduce the overall weight
(b) Reduce the saturation in the interpole
T (c) Economise on the material required for interpoles and their windings.
E (d) Increase the acceleration of commutation
23. A synchronous motor is operating on no load at unity power factor. If the field
current is increased, the power factor will become
(a) Leading and the current will decrease
(b) Lagging and the current will increase
(c) Lagging and the current will decrease
A
(d) Leading and the current will increase
I
24. Full-load voltage regulation of a power transformer is zero, when power factor of
C the load is near to
(a) Unity and leading
T (b) Zero and leading
(c) Zero and lagging
E (d) Unity and lagging
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A 25. Which one of the following defects is responsible for creeping in an induction type
energy meter?
I (a) Imperfect lag compensation
(b) Over friction compensation
C (c) Imperfect overload compensation
(d) Misalignment of brake magnet
T
E 26. The dummy coils in d.c. machines are useful to
(a) Increase the efficiency
(b) Improve the commutation
(c) Reduce the cost of the machine
(d) Maintain mechanical balance of armature
27. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by

(a) Improper design of stator laminations
A (b) Low voltage supply
I (c) High loads
(d) Harmonics developed in motor
C
28. Which one of the following types of motors is most suitable for a computer printer
T drive?
(a) Reluctance motor
E (b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Shaded pole motor
(d) Stepper motor
29. A 6-pole lap wound DC machine armature has 720 conductors and it draws 50 A
form supply main. What is the flux distribution produced by the armature reaction
per pole?
A (a) Rectangular in wave shape with a peak of 500 AT
(b) Rectangular in wave shape with a peak of 100 AT
I (c) Triangular in wave shape with a peak of 500 AT
(d) Triangular in wave shape with a peak of 1000 AT
C
T 30. The stator and the rotor of a 3-phase, 4-pole wound-rotor induction motor are
excited, respectively, from a 50 Hz and a 30 Hz source of appropriate voltage.
E Neglecting all losses, what is/are the possible no-load speed/speeds at which the
motor would run?
(a) 1500 rpm and 900 rpm
(b) 2400 rpm and 600 rpm
(c) 2400 rpm only
(d) 600 rpm only
A
31. A starting torque of 80 Nm is developed in an induction motor by an auto-
I
transformer starter with a tapping of 30%. If the tapping of auto-transformer starter
C is 60%, then what is the starting torque?
(a) 40 Nm
T (b) 160 Nm
(c) 240 Nm
E (d) 320 Nm
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ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A
32. A system has poles at 0.01 Hz, 1 Hz and 80 Hz; zeroes at 5 Hz, 100 Hz and 200 Hz.
I The approximate phase of the system response at 20 Hz is
(a) -90o
C (b) 0o
(c) 90o
T (d) -180o
E 33. The polar plot of the transfer function G(s)=10(s+1)/(s+10) for 0 < ω <∞ will be in
the
(a) First quadrant
(b) Second quadrant
(c) Third quadrant
(d) Fourth quadrant
A 34. The gain margin for the system with open loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=2(1+s)/s2,
is
I (a) ∞
(b) 0
C (c) 1
T (d) -∞
E 35. The frequency domain and time domain analysis are related through
(a) Z transformation
(b) Laplace transformation
(c) Fourier transformation
(d) Both (b) and (c)
36. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control
system?
A (a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
I (b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
C (d) Less stable than closed loop system
T 37. A good control system has all the following features except
(a) Good stability
E
(b) Slow response
(c) Good accuracy
(d) Sufficient power handling capacity
38. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to

A (a) Larger damping ratio
(b) Constant damping ratio
I (c) Zero damping ratio
(d) Smaller damping ratio
C
39. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not
T decrease?
E (a) Overall gain
(b) Distortion
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ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A (c) Instability
(d) Bandwidth
I 40. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with
(a) Oscillations
C (b) Step input
(c) Negative sign
T (d) Positive sign
E
41. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of
(a) Reference and output
(b) Reference and input
(c) Input and feedback signal
(d) Output and feedback signal
42. The transient response, with feedback system

A (a) Rises slowly
I (b) Rises quickly
(c) Decays slowly
C (d) Decays quickly
T 43. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following
(a) Underdamping
E (b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
44. The servo systems with step acceleration input is a

(a) Type 0 system
(b) Type 1 system
A (c) Type 2 system
(d) Type 3 system
I
45. In a system zero initial condition means that
C
(a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
T (b) The system is working with zero stored energy
(c) The system is working with zero reference signal
E (d) Laplace transform is not possible
46. In the case of power measurement by two wattmeter method in a balanced 3-phase
system with a pure inductive load,
(a) Both wattmeters will indicate the same value but of opposite sign
(b) Both the wattmeters will indicate zero
A (c) Both the wattmeters will indicate the same value of the same sign
(d) One wattmeter will indicate zero and the other will indicate some non-zero
I
value.
C
47. The resistance of a shunt for a precision grade ammeter can be best measured by
T (a) De Sauty bridge
(b) Schering bridge
E (c) Maxwell bridge
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ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A (d) Kelvin double bridge
I 48. When reading is taken at half scale in the instrument, the error is
(a) Exactly equal to half of full-scale error
C (b) Equal to full-scale error
(c) Less than full-scale error
T (d) More than full-scale error
E
49. An indicating instrument is more sensitive if its torque to weight ratio is
(a) Much larger than unity
(b) Of the order of unity
(c) Much less than unity
(d) Made deflection-dependent
50. Which one of the following has the highest accuracy?

A (a) Standard resistance
I (b) Standard inductance
(c) Standard capacitance
C (d) Standard mutual inductance
T 51. The X-and Y-inputs of a CRO are respectively Vsinωt and –Vsinωt. The resulting
Lissajous pattern will be
E (a) A straight line
(b) A circle
(c) An ellipse
(d) A figure of eight
52. High frequency transformer cores are generally made of

(a) Cast iron
A (b) Mu-metal
(c) Ferrite
I (d) Graphite
C
53. 132 kV ac voltage can be measured by following voltmeter
T (a) Hot wire
(b) Electro-static
E (c) Moving iron
(d) Moving coil
54. The capacitance and loss angle of a given capacitor specimen are best measured by
(a) Wheatstone bridge
(b) Maxwell bridge
A (c) Anderson bridge
(d) Schering bridge
I
C 55. The pressure coil of an induction type energy meter is
(a) Highly resistive
T (b) Highly inductive
(c) Purely resistive
E (d) Purely inductive
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A
56. Which one of the following materials is used in the fabrication of swamping
I resistance of a PMMC instrument?
(a) Copper
C (b) Aluminium
(c) Manganin
T (d) Tungsten
E
57. What is clamp-on ammeter used for?
(a) Low a.c. current
(b) High a.c. current
(c) Low d.c. current
(d) High d.c. current
58. Which amplifier is used in an electronic multimeter?

A (a) Power amplifier
I (b) Buffer amplifier
(c) Differential amplifier
C (d) Wideband amplifier
T 59. For an op-amp having differential gain Av and common-mode gain Ac the CMRR is
given by
E (a) Av+ Ac
(b) Av/Ac
(c) Av/Ac + 1
(d) Ac/Av
60. The integrator circuit is designed with the help of operational amplifier having a
step-input, the output will be
A (a) A triangular wave with dc bias
(b) A sinusoidal wave
I (c) A rectangular wave
(d) A ramp
C
61. Hysteresis is most preferred in Schmitt- trigger circuit, because
T (a) Energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances
E (b) Devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturation and desaturation
(c) Effects of temperature would be compensated
(d) It would prevent noise from causing false triggering
62. The minimum number of flip- flops required to design a mod- 75 counter is
(a) 5
(b) 6
A
(c) 7
I (d) 8
C 63. The control terminal (pin5) of 555 timer IC is normally connected to ground through
a capacitor (~ 0.01μF). This is to
T (a) Protect the IC from inadvertent application of high voltage
(b) Prevent false triggering by noise coupled onto the pin
E (c) Convert the trigger input to sharp pulse by differentiation
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A (d) Suppress any negative triggering pulse

64. The forward characteristics of a diode has a slope of approximately 50mA/V at a
I
desired point. The approximate incremental resistance of the diode is
C (a) 50 Ω
(b) 35 Ω
T (c) 20 Ω
(d) 10 Ω
E
65. A bistable multivibrator is a
(a) Free running oscillator
(b) Crystal oscillator
(c) Saw tooth wave generator
(d) Triggered oscillator
A 66. A 8-bit DAC wired for unipolar operation has a full scale voltage range from 0 to
5.12 V. What is the output voltage change per bit?
I (a) 0.64 V
C (b) 0.04 V
(c) 0.06 V
T (d) 0.02 V
E 67. If a multivibrator is running at 952 Hz and R= R1= R2= 500 Ω, the value of C where
C= C1= C2 is
(a) 1500 nF
(b) 1700 nF
(c) 1850 nF
(d) 1910 nF
A 68. In a clamping circuit, the peak- to peak voltage of the waveform being clamped is
(a) Affected by the clamping
I (b) Not affected by the clamping
(c) Determined by the clamping voltage value
C (d) Determined by the ratio of rms voltage of the waveform and the clamping
T voltage
E 69. The most suitable circuit for generating 1 kHz signal is

(a) Colpitts oscillator
(b) Hartley oscillator
(c) Tuned collector oscillator
(d) Wien bridge oscillator
A 70. The overall bandwidth of two identical voltage amplifiers connected in cascade will
(a) Remain the same as that of a single stage
I (b) Be worse than that of a single stage
(c) Be better than that of a single stage
C
(d) Be better if stage gain is low and worse if stage gain is high
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
I
71. The response of an initially relaxed linear constant parameter network to a unit
C impulse applied at t=0 is 4e-2t. The response of this network to a unit step function
will be:
T (a) 2 [1-e-2t ] u(t)
(b) 4 [ e-1-e-2t ] u(t)
E
(c) Sin 2t
(d) (1-4e-4t) u(t)
72. A network contains linear resistors and ideal voltage sources. If values of all the
resistors are halved, then the voltage across each resistor is
(a) halved
(b) doubled
A (c) increases by four times
(d) not changed
I
C 73. The number of independent loops for a network with n nodes and b branches is
(a) n-1
T (b) b-n
(c) b-n+1
E (d) Independent of the number of nodes
74. The necessary and sufficient condition for a rational function of s. T(s) to be driving
point impedance of an RC network is that all poles and zeros should be:
(a) Simple and lie on negative axis in the s-plane
(b) Complex and lie in the left half of the s-plane
(c) Complex and lie in the right half of the s-plane
A (d) Simple and lie on the positive real axis of the s-plane
I 75. Combination of two cascade connected two-port networks is represented as a single

two-port network. The parameters of the network are obtained by multiplying their
C individual
(a) Z-parameter matrix
T
(b) h-parameter matrix
E (c) Y-parameter matrix
(d) ABCD parameter matrix
76. H(s)=V(s)/I(s)=(s+4)/(s+3)2 and i(t) is a unit step, then V(t) in the steady state is
given by
(a) 4/9
A (b) 4/3
(c) 0
I (d) ∞
C
T
77. How much power would be developed by a hydro electric generator unit, with 1 m
E head and 1m3/s discharge? Assume 100% efficiency and 1000 kg/m3 as density of
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A water.
(a) 9.81 kW
I (b) 2.90 kW
(c) 4.45 kW
C (d) 19.60 kW
T 78. A 100 MW thermal plant has 30% thermal efficiency and 92% electrical efficiency
E while delivering its rated output. The coal consumption per hour, if it uses coal of
calorific value 6400 kcal/kg, shall be
(a) 47.687 tonnes
(b) 48.687 tonnes
(c) 50.687 tonnes
(d) 45.687 tonnes
79. Find the power output of a Francis turbine prototype operating under 6m head, if its
A model which is 1/5th of the prototype, generates 4.1 HP at 360 rpm speed under a
I head of 1.8 m.
(a) 700 HP
C (b) 720 HP
(c) 620 HP
T (d) 550 HP
E
80. A gas based generation plant of 100 kw capacity uses gas of 1000kcal/m 3 calorific
value. The overall efficiency of the plant is 20%, determine the volume of gas
required per hour when the plant is running at full load conditions.
(a) 430 m3/hr
(b) 437 m3/hr
(c) 440 m3/hr
(d) 400 m3/hr
A
81. The load factor of a power plant having maximum demand of 40 MW, capacity
I factor of 0.4 and utilization factor of 0.8, shall be
C (a) 2
(b) 0.32
T (c) 0.5
(d) 1.6
E
82. The annual load duration curve of a small hydro plant shows 438x104kWh of energy
during the year. It is a peak load plant with 20% annual load factor and 15% plant
capacity factor. The reserve capacity of the plant shall be
(a) 0.5 MW
(b) 0.765 MW
A (c) 0.833 MW
I (d) 0.25 MW
C
T
83. A linear ac servomotor must have
E
(a) High rotor resistance
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A (b) High reactance

(c) A large air gap
I (d) Both high rotor resistance and reactance
C 84. The armature resistance of a permanent magnet dc motor is 0.8 Ω. At no load, the
motor draws 1.5 A from a supply voltage of 25 V and runs at 1500 rpm. The
T efficiency of the motor while it is operating on load at 1500 rpm drawing a current
E of 3.5 A from the same source will be
(a) 48.0 %
(b) 57.1 %
(c) 59.2 %
(d) 88.8 %
85. The speed of a 400 V, 50 Hz, 4-pole induction motor is operated under constant (v/f)
control at rated speed of 1440 rpm. Find the speed at 30 Hz, if the load torque is
A constant.
(a) 882 rpm
I (b) 864 rpm
C (c) 840 rpm
(d) 828 rpm
T
86. A single-phase 50 kVA, 250 V/500 V two winding transformer has an efficiency of
E 95 % at full load, unity power factor. If it is reconfigured as a 500 V/750 V
autotransformer, its efficiency at its new rated load at unity power factor will be
(a) 95.752 %
(b) 97.851 %
(c) 98.276 %
(d) 99.851 %
87. A negative-feedback closed-loop system is supplied to an input of 5 V. The system

A has a forward gain of 1 and a feedback gain of 1. What is the output voltage?
(a) 1.0 V
I
(b) 1.5 V
C (c) 2.0 V
(d) 2.5 V
T
88. The unit impulse response of a system is f(t)=e-t, t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady
E state value of the output for unit step input is equal to
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) ∞
A 89. Out of the roots of the characteristic equations of several systems given below,
which one represents a stable system
I (a) (-2+3j), (-2-3j), -2
(b) -1, 1
C
(c) 2, -1, -3
T (d) -j, j-1, 1
90. A lead compensator network includes a parallel combination of R and C in the feed
E forward path. If the transfer function of the compensator is Gc(s)=(s+2)/(s+4), the
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A value of RC is
(a) Zero
I (b) 0.1
(c) 0.5
C (d) 1
T 91. In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at
E high frequencies by a 4th order all pole system?
(a) -80 dB/decade
(b) -40 dB/decade
(c) +40 dB/decade
(d) +80 dB/decade
92. A 3½ digit voltmeter having a resolution of 100 mV can be used to measure

maximum voltage of
A (a) 100V
I (b) 200V
(c) 1000V
C (d) 5000V
T 93. On a voltage scale, zero dBM in a 600-ohm system would refer to

(a) 1.732 V
E (b) 1.0 V
(c) 0.7746 V
(d) 0.5 V
94. Two resistors R1=50 Ω and R2=75 Ω, each having tolerances of ±5% are connected
in series. The value of the resultant resistance will be
(a) 125 ± 0 Ω
A (b) 125 ± 1.25 Ω
(c) 125 ± 6.25 Ω
I (d) 125 ± 7.5 Ω
C
95. In terms of LMTQ system of dimensional parameters, the dimension of
T ‘permittivity’ can be expressed as
(a) L-3M-1T2Q2
E (b) L-1M-1T2Q2
(c) L2MT-1Q-1
(d) L-2M-1T2Q2
96. What is the effect of inductance in the pressure coil on performance of a

dynamometer type wattmeter?
A (a) It reads low on lagging power factor and high on leading power factor
I (b) It reads high on lagging power factor and low on leading power factor
(c) Its reading is not affected at all
C (d) It always reads low
T 97. Which one of the following methods decreases the error due to connections in a
dynamometer type Wattmeter?
E
(a) Using bifilar compensating winding in place of current coil
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ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A (b) Using non-inductive pressure coil circuit

(c) Using a capacitor across a part of high resistance of pressure coil circuit
I (d) Using a swamping resistance
C 98. Which one of the following decides the time of response of an indicating
instrument?
T (a) Deflecting system
E (b) Controlling system
(c) Damping system
(d) Pivot and Jewel bearing
99. A Wien-bridge is used to measure the frequency of the input signal. However, the
input signal has 10% third harmonic distortion. Specifically, the signal is 2 sin 400
ωt + 0.2 sin 1200 ωt. With this input the balance will
(a) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to a frequency of 200Hz
A (b) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 260Hz
I (c) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 400Hz
(d) Not lead to a null indication
C
100. Transformer and emitter follower can both be used for impedance matching at the
T output of an audio amplifier. The basic relationship between the input power P inand
output power Pout in both the cases is
E (a) Pin< Pout for transformer and Pin = Poutfor emitter follower
(b) Pin> Poutfor both transformer and emitter follower
(c) Pin = Pout for both transformer and emitter follower
(d) Pin = Pout for transformer and Pin< Pout for emitter follower
PART –C
A Engineering Mathematics (30 Marks)
I
C (a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
T (c) 15 and40
E (d) 10 and10
(b) Identitymatrix
(c) Singularmatrix
A
I 103. IftherankofasquarematrixAoforder4is2,thenadjointofAwillbea
(a) Nullmatrix
T (d) None ofthe above
E 104. If u  tan 1 y / x then xux  yu y is equal to
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A (a) u
(b) 1
I (c) -1
(d) 0
C
T
[−3, 1] are
E (a) −7 and −8
(b) 81 and −8
(c) 0 and −2
(d) 73 and −8
2
A (b) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 4
I (d) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
C 107. Family of curves y = m2x + m6 is represented by the differential equation ofdegree
T (a) 3
(b) 6
E (c) 2
𝐵
(a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
(c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
A
I
C probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3or7is
13
T (a) 30
17
E (b) 30
19
(c) 30
1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
A (a) Hermitianmatrix
(b) Unitorymatrix
I
C (d) None ofthe above
T
E (a) λ = 2 and µ =4
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A (b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
T (a) 62
(b) 44
E
(c) 8


(a) grad | A |  0

A (b) curl A  0

I (c) div A  0
(d) None of these
C 𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
T
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
E (b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
(c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
1 1 𝑛−1
115. 0
(a) ⎾(n − 1)
A (b) ⎾(n)
n−1
(c) ⎾ 2
I n+1
(d) ⎾ 2
C
T (a) Hyperbolic
(b) Elliptic
E (c) Parabolic
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
A 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
I 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
C 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
T
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
2𝑥
A 1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
I 1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
(a) 0
C
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
T (c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
E
(a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
(d) None ofthese.
(a) m2
I (b) 𝑚
(c) 𝑚
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG1EPE 19
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Electrical and Power Engineering
Paper: 1
1. a 61. b
2. c 62. c
3. c 63. b
4. c 64. c
5. c 65. d
6. c 66. d
7. b 67. a
8. b 68. b
9. d 69. d
10. c 70. b
11. c 71. a
12. d 72. d
13. c 73. c
14. d 74. a
15. c 75. d
16. d 76. a
17. b 77. a
18. c 78. b
19. a 79. c
20. d 80. a
21. b 81. c
22. b 82. c
23. a 83. a
24. a 84. a
25. b 85. c
26. d 86. c
27. d 87. d
28. d 88. c
29. c 89. a
30. b 90. c
31. d 91. a
32. a 92. a
33. a 93. b
34. b 94. c
35. d 95. a
36. d 96. b
37. b 97. a
38. d 98. c
39. d 99. d
40. a 100. d
41. a 101. a
42. d 102. c
43. d 103. a
44. c 104. d
45. a 105. d
46. a 106. d
47. d 107. a
48. d 108. a
49. a 109. a
50. a 110. b
51. a 111. c
52. c 112. d
53. b 113. b
54. d 114. a
55. b 115. b
56. c 116. b
57. b 117. d
58. c 118. a
59. b 119. d
60. d 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A
I
ELECTRICAL AND POWER ENGINEERING
C
T
PAPER-II
A Instructions:
I
C questions.
T
E
A
I
specified.
C
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19

I
C 1. If a self-excited dc generator is failed to run, this refers to
(a) Zero residual voltage
T (b) Field MMF, that is not cumulative
E (c) Resistance is greater than critical resistance
(d) Speed is equal to rated speed
2. Consider a dc generator running at the rated speed of 2000 rpm, suddenly there is an
insulator falls on the field circuit and breaks it. Then
(a) The motor stops in a few rounds
(b) It continues to run, but as dc motor
(c) It continues to run as a motor
(d) None of the mentioned
A
3. Which excitation system employs amplidyne (metadyne)?
I (a) Brushless excitation system
C (b) Static excitation system
(c) DC excitation system
T (d) Rotating thyristor excitation system
E 4. Which sequence is followed first while closing a circuit breaker?
(a) Close the isolator
(b) Open earthing switch
(c) Close circuit breaker
5. Which material is used for indoor bus bar?
(a) Copper
A (b) Aluminium
(c) Silver
I (d) Galvanized steel
C 6. What is the range of MHV substations?
T (a) All voltages above 1000 V AC
(b) Voltages between 1 kV and 33 kV
E (c) Between 33 kV and 110 kV
(d) Between 220 kV and 400 kV
7. Phase advancers are used for which among the following machines?
(a) Transformers
(b) Synchronous machines
(c) Induction motors
(d) DC machines
A 8. The load sharing between two steam driven alternators operating in parallel may be
I adjusted by varying the
(a) Power factor
C (b) Speed of the alternator
T (c) Steam supply to the prime mover
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A 9. Which part of dc motor can sustain maximum temperature rise?

(a) Armature winding
I
(b) Field winding
C (c) Slip ring
(d) Commutator
T
E 10. In dc machine the fractional pitch winding is used
(a) To reduce the harmonics in generated EMF
(b) To improve cooling
(c) To increase EMF
(d) To reduce copper loss
11. What will happen when the field of a dc shunt motor get opened while the motor is
running
(a) Continue to run at same speed
A
(b) Speed of motor will be reduced
I (c) Armature current will be reduced
(d) Motor will attain dangerous high speed
C
T 12. Which dc motor is used for conveyor?
(a) Series motor
E (b) Cumulative compound motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Shunt motor
13. Overspeed protection of generator is done by

(a) Differential relay
(b) Over current relay
(c) Alarm
A (d) Governor
I 14. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at
C (a) Leading power factor
(b) Lagging power factor
T (c) Unity power factor
15. The shaft of an induction motor must be of

(a) Solid
(b) Hollow
(c) Flexible
(d) Laminated
16. In a transformer, hysteresis and eddy current losses depend upon

A (a) Load current
I (b) Supply frequency
(c) Maximum flux density
C (d) Supply frequency and maximum flux density
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A 17. Role of power system stabilizer in excitation system is to

(a) Provide dc power to the synchronous machine field winding
I
(b) Processes and amplifies input current signal
C (c) Provide an additional input signal to regulator to damp power system oscillation
(d) Provide an additional input signal to regulator to boost system frequency
T
E 18. Which of the following distance relay is having inherent directional property?
(a) Impedance relay
(b) Mho relay
(c) Reactance relay
19. Resistance switching is normally employed in

(a) Bulk oil breakers
(b) Minimum oil breakers
A
(c) SF6 circuit breakers
I (d) Air blast circuit breakers
C 20. The arc voltage in a circuit breaker is
T (a) In the phase with arc current
(b) Lagging the arc current by 90°
E (c) Leading the arc current by 90°
(d) Lagging the arc current by 45°
21. Which of the following distance relay is preferred for grounding fault?
(a) Differential relay
(b) Impedance relay
(c) IDMT relay
(d) Reactance relay
A
22. The relay used for feeder protection is
I (a) Translay relay
C (b) Under voltage relay
(c) Thermal relay
T (d) Buchholz relay
E
23. The most efficient torque producing actuating structure for the induction type relay is
(a) Shaded pole structure
(b) Watt hour meter structure
(c) Induction cup structure
(d) Single induction loop structure
24. For which among the following the current ratings are not required?
(a) Circuit breakers
A (b) Relays
I (c) Isolators
(d) Load break switch
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A 25. A negative sequence relay is commonly used to protect

(a) Transformers
I
(b) Transmission lines
C (c) Alternators
(d) Bus bar
T
E 26. Thermal relays are employed for the protection of motors against over currents due to
(a) Earth faults
(b) Short circuits
(c) Heavy loading
(d) All of above
27. The ratio of reset to pick up current for an induction cup relay is approximately
(a) 0.99
(b) 1.01
A
(c) 0.75
C 28. The magnetising-inrush-current in a transformer is rich in:
T (a) 7th harmonics
(b) 5th harmonics
E (c) 3rd harmonics
(d) 2nd harmonics
29. In a system of 132kV, the line to ground capacitance is 0.01µF and the inductance is
5H. If a magnetising current of 5 amps (instantaneous value) is interrupted, the
voltage that appears across the pole of a Circuit Breaker is nearly?
(a) 132kV
(b) 112kV
A (c) 140 kV
(d) 200kV
I
30. The rotation of disc of an induction disc relay under the poles is:
C
(a) It depends upon the magnitude of current
T (b) It depends upon the C.T. secondary connection
(c) From shaded pole to unshaded pole
E (d) From unshaded pole to shaded pole
31. If the fault current is 3000 amps, the relay setting 50% and the C.T. ratio is 400/5,
then the plug setting multiplier will be:
(a) 25 amps
(b) 15 amps
(c) 50 amps
(d) 30 amps
A
32. The frequency of the carrier in the case of carrier current-pilot scheme is in the range
I of
C (a) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
(b) 15 kHz to 25 kHz
T (c) 25 kHz to 50 kHz
(d) 50 kHz to 500 kHz
E
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A
33. In a HRC fuse the time between the cut off and the final current zero is called
I (a) Pre- arcing time
C (b) Arcing time
(c) Total operating time
T (d) Dead time
E 34. Bimetallic thermometer measures temperature in the following range
(a) 0 to 400 °C
(b) -40 to 1000 °C
(c) 700 to 1500 °C
(d) 45 to 500 °C
35. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

(a) Negative
A (b) Positive
(c) Zero
I (d) Infinite
C
36. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?
T (a) High drift
E (b) High measuring lag
(c) High fidelity
(d) Poor reproducibility
37. Which of the following in the flue gases going out of the furnace is measured by
Zirconia probe?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
A (d) Temperature
I
38. Working principle of mercury in glass thermometer is based on following.
C (a) Volumetric expansion
T (b) Pressure rise with temperature
(c) Linear expansion
E (d) Temperature rise with pressure
39. Gamma rays is used for the measurement ofwhich one of the following.
(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Liquid level
(d) Flow
A 40. Which of the following is not a differential pressure flow meter?

(a) Rota meter
I (b) Flow nuzzle
C (c) Venturi meter
(d) Orifice meter
T
E
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A 41. Which of the following is not a variable area flow meter?

(a) Rota meter
I
(b) Piston type meter
C (c) Magnetic flow meter
(d) Venturi meter
T
E 42. Configuration of bourdon spring tube is never made of …… shape
(a) Circular
(b) Semi- circular
(c) Helical
(d) Spiral
43. Pitot tube is used

(a) For highly accurate flow measurement
(b) When the fluid contains lot of suspended materials
A
(c) When the line is large and the velocity is high
I (d) When the line is small and velocity is low
C 44. Pneumatic control valves are generally designed for pressure up to
T (a) 10 kgf/cm2
(b) 100 kgf/cm2
E (c) 160 kgf/cm2
(d) 400 kgf/cm2
45. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is done by

(a) Hydrometer
(b) Contact-type electric indicators
(c) Displacement reactions
(d) Hydrometer and displacement reaction
A
46. Which of the following is not a mechanical pressure sensing element?
I (a) Bellows
C (b) Diaphragm
(c) Bourdon tube
T (d) U-tube
E
47. Which one of the following uses the principle of hall effect in its construction?
(a) Ammeter
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Gauss meter
(d) Galvanometer
48. In automatic generation control the voltage and frequency is controlled by

(a) Controllingthe excitation
A (b) Controllingthe turbine action
I (c) Excitation control for voltage and turbine speed control for frequency
(d) Turbine speed control for voltage and excitation control for frequency
C
T
E
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A 49. Unit up- time in unit commitment problem is

(a) A unit minimum operating time
I
(b) A unit minimum repair time
C (c) A unit total life time
(d) A unit minimum designing time
T
E 50. In India, under which Tariff regime the Electricity Sector is operating
(a) Cost Plus
(b) Market Determined
(c) Fixed Regime
(d) Variable Regime
51. ACSR conductor having seven steel standard surrounded by 25 aluminium conductor
will be specified as
(a) 7/25
A
(b) 7/32
I (c) 25/7
(d) 25/32
C
T 52. Power frequency control is slow due to
(a) Turbine and generator moment of inertia
E (b) Turbine and generator torque
(c) Turbine and generator force
(d) Turbine and generator speed
53. In case line to line fault occurs, the short circuit current of an alternator will depend
on its
(a) Transient reactance
(b) Synchronous reactance
A (c) Short circuit resistance
I
C 54. Elements (atom) of SCADA systems
(a) Graphical displays
T (b) Tags
E (c) Alarm
(d) Trends
55. Optimal system operation involved

(a) Economy of operation
(b) System security
(c) Emissions at certain fossil- fuels
A 56. In India, which organisation performs the role of Independent System Operator
I (ISO)
(a) CEA
C (b) PGCIL
T (c) POSOCO
(d) CERC
E
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A
57. In restricted power system which entity is still operating in regulated mode
I
(a) GENCO
C (b) TRANSCO
(c) RETAILCO
T (d) Consumer
E
58. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best
approximated by
(a) Parabola
(b) Straight line
(c) Rectangular Hyperbola
(d) Exponentially decaying function
59. A single- phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in the case
A load consists of
(a) RL
I
(b) RLC under damped
C (c) RLC over damped
(d) RLC critically damped
T
60. In single pulse- width modulation of PWM inverters, fifth harmonic can be
E
eliminated if pulse width is equal to
(a) 30°
(b) 72°
(c) 36°
(d) 108°
61. The cycloconverters (CC’s) require natural or forced commutation as under

(a) Natural commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s
A (b) Forced commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s
(c) Forced commutation in step- up CC’s
I (d) Forced commutation in step- down CC’s
C
62. McMurray commutation is superior to parallel capacitor commutation in respect of
T (a) Number of components
(b) Overvoltage’s spike at the output
E (c) Instantaneous reduction in SCR current
(d) Trigger current
63. Regarding Ward- Leonard system of speed control, which statement is false?
(a) It is usually used where wide and very sensitive speed control is required
(b) It is used for motors having ratings from 750kW to 4000kW
(c) Capital outlay involved in the system is right since it uses two extra machines
(d) It gives a speed range of 10:1 but in one direction only
A
64. The six- stepped load phase voltage of a 3- phase square wave inverter, with a dc link
I voltage of 100 volts, will have the following rms magnitudes of 1st , 3rd and 5th
harmonic voltages
C
(a) 10 V, 30 V and 50 V respectively
T (b) 100 V, 33.3 V and 20 V respectively
(c) 90 V, 30 V and 0 V respectively
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A (d) 45 V, 0 V and 9 V respectively

65. A fly-back converter has primary to secondary turns ratio of 15:1. The input voltage
I
is constant at 200 volts and the output voltage is maintained at 18 volts. What should
C be the snubber capacitor voltage under steady state?
(a) More than 270 volts
T (b) More than 200 volts but less than 270 volts
E (c) Less than 18 volts
(d) Not related to input or output voltage
66. Circuit turn off time of an SCR is defined as the time

(a) Taken by the SCR turn off
(b) For which the SCR is reverse biased by the commutation circuit
(c) For which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its current below the holding
current
(d) Required for the SCR current to become zero.
A
I 67. The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20 A Thyristor is
(a) 5
C (b) 2
T (c) 1
(d) 0.5
E
68. The output voltage waveform of a three-phase square wave inverter contains
(a) Only even harmonics
(b) Both even and odd harmonics
(c) Only odd harmonics
(d) Only triple harmonics
69. A fully controlled converter bridge feeds a highly inductive load with ripple free load
A current. The input supply to the bridge is a sinusoidal source. Triggering angle of the
bridge converter is α=30°. The input power factor of the bridge is
I (a) 0.86
C (b) 0.78
(c) 0.92
T (d) 0.90
E
70. A three-phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as line commutated
inverter to feed 50 kW power 420 V dc to a three-phase 415 V (line), 50 Hz ac
mains. Consider dc link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is
(a) 119.05 A
(b) 79.37 A
(c) 68.73 A
(d) 39.68 A
A 71. SCR is considered to be a semi-controlled device because
I (a) It can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate pulse
(b) It conducts only during one half cycle of an alternating current wave
C (c) It can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate pulse
T (d) It can be turned ON only during one half cycle of an alternating voltage wave
E
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A 72. A half controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an RL load. It is operated

at a firing angle α and the load current is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the
I
free-wheeling diode conduct is
C (a) ½
(b) 1-(α/π)
T (c) α/2π
E (d) α/π
73. Snubber circuit is used to limit the

(a) Rise of current
(b) Conduction period
(c) Rise of voltage across device
(d) Commutation period
74. The dimension of outer conductor are b and c and that of inner conductor is a, the
A
ratio of inner and outer current densities is
I (a) (c2-b2)/a2
(b) a2/(c2-b2)
C (c) (c-b)/a
T (d) (cb)/a2
E 75. The following statement is correct for uniform plane waves:

(a) The wavelength λ is longer and velocity v is higher in all real media than they
are in free space
(b) The wavelength λ is longer and velocity v is lower in all real media than they
are in free space
(c) The wavelength λ is shorter and velocity v is higher in all real media than they
are in free space
(d) The wavelength λ is shorter and velocity v is lower in all real media than they
A are in free space
I 76. A lossless dielectric slab has εR=9. Its intrinsic impedance is

(a) 360πΩ
C (b) 120πΩ
T (c) 40πΩ
(d) 30πΩ
E
77. The electric flux density, D=5r3arC/m2, with in sphere of radius r ≤ 4 m. The volume
charge density at r = 2 m is
(a) 200 C/m3
(b) 100 C/m3
(c) 50 C/m3
(d) 25 C/m3
78. If D=10 y2 ax + 10 x2 y ay+ 15 az, the total charge enclosed within the region 0< x,y,z
A <1 m is
(a) 40/3 C
I (b) 20/3 C
C (c) 10/3 C
(d) 5/3 C
T
79. A perfect dielectric medium has a uniform plane wave. Which of the following
E
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A statements for the wave are correct?

(a) The electric and magnetic fields are in the same direction
I
(b) The electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other
C (c) The electric and magnetic fields are opposite to each other
(d) The electric and magnetic fields do not occur in the medium
T
80. The magnetic flux density in the air gap between two iron surfaces is Bg. The force
E between the iron surfaces at this flux density is F. If the flux density is reduced to
(3/4) Bg, the decrease in the force would be
(a) (3/4) F
(b) (7/16) F
(c) (1/4) F
(d) (9/16) F

A
I
81. If supply to one terminal of three phase core type transformer connected in star-delta
C fails, assuming magnetic circuit symmetry, voltage on secondary side at no load will be
T (a) 345, 115, 115
(b) 230, 115, 115
E (c) 230, 230, 115
(d) 345, 0, 345
82. The windings of a Q kVA, V1/V2 volts, three phase delta connected core type
transformer are connected to operate as single-phase transformer. The maximum
voltage and power rating of new configuration shall be
(a) V1/V2, 3Q
(b) √3 V1/V2 , 2Q
A (c) V1/V2, Q/3
(d) 2 V1/V2, 2Q/3
I
83. An effectively grounded system has
C
(a) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 3, R0/X1> 1
T (b) 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 1, X0/X1> 3
(c) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 3, 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 1
E (d) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 1, 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 3
84. For a 50 MVA turbo-alternator having a total loss of 1500 kW, calculate the volume of
air required per second if the temperature rise in the machine is to be limited at 30°C.
Assume inlet temperature of air as 25°C and pressure as 760 mm of mercury.
(a) 4.26 m3/s
(b) 5.26 m3/s
(c) 42.6 m3/s
A (d) 52.6 m3/s
I
85. A 120 MW turbo-alternator is supplying power to 80 MW load at lagging p.f. Suddenly
C the steam supply to the turbine is cut off and the alternator remains connected to the
supply network if field supply also remains on, what will happen to the alternator?
T
(a) The rotor winding of the alternator will get burnt
E
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A (b) The stator winding of the alternator will get burnt

(c) The alternator will continue to run as a synchronous motor in the same direction
I
(d) The alternator will continue to run as a synchronous motor but in the opposite
C direction
T 86. A 50 Hz 220/400, 50 kVA, single-phase transformer operates on 220 V, 40 Hz supply
with secondary winding. Then
E
(a) The eddy current loss and hysteresis loss of the transformer increases
(b) The eddy current loss and hysteresis loss of the transformer decreases
(c) Hysteresis loss of the transformer increases while eddy current loss remains
same.
(d) The eddy current loss decreases while hysteresis loss remains same.
87. In a short circuit test on a 132 kV, 3-phase system, the breaker gave the following
results: p.f. of the fault 0.4, recovery voltage 0.95 of full line value; the breaking
A current is symmetrical and the restriking transient had a natural frequency of 16 kHz.
Its active recovery voltage is?
I (a) 115.64 kV
C (b) 93.85 kV
(c) 89.55 kV
T (d) 68.73 kV
E 88. A 3-phase 11/66 kV, delta/star transformer, protected by Merz-price scheme has CT
ratio of 400/5 on L.T. side. Ratio of CT on H.T. side will be equal to
(a) 23:√3
(b) 23:1
(c) 1:23
(d) 3:√23
89. Which of the following should be the operating value for a relay in radial system
A according to Indian Standard specifications?
(a) ≤ 1.2 Isetting
I (b) ≥ 1.3 Isetting
C (c) ≥ 1.5 Isetting
(d) ≥ 1.73 Isetting
T
90. A fuse wire of circular cross-section with 0.8 mm radius blows off at a current of 8 A.
E What should be the radius of the wire to blow at a current of 1 A.
(a) 1.6 mm
(b) 0.4 mm
(c) 0.2 mm
(d) 0.1 mm
91. In a biased differential relay the bias is defined as the ratio of

(a) Fault current and operating current
A (b) Operating coil current and restraining coil current
(c) Number of turns of restraining and operating coil
I (d) Fault current and restraining coil current
C 92. A 10 MVA, 13.8kV generator connected through a 3-cycle circuit breaker to a
transformer is has reactance of Xd”=10%, Xd’=15% and Xd=100%. It is operating at
T no load and rated voltage when a 3-phase short circuit occurs between the breaker and
the transformer. The maximum possible dc component of the short circuit current in the
E
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A breaker shall be?

(a) 3500 A
I
(b) 4180 A
C (c) 5190 A
(d) 5910 A
T
E 93. Line to earth capacitance of an overhead line operated at 50 Hz is 10µF. It is decided to
use an earth fault neutralizer. What is the reactance to neutralise the capacitance of
80% of the length of the line.
(a) 132.6 Ω
(b) 152.6 Ω
(c) 172.8 Ω
(d) 220 Ω
94. Why is it difficult to interrupt a capacitive circuit?

A
(a) Current magnitude is very small
I (b) The restriking voltage is very high
(c) The current has a leading power factor
T
95. An over current relay, having a current setting of 125% connected to a supply circuit
E through a current transformer of ratio 500/5. The plug setting multiplier for a fault
current of 5 kA is
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
96. A differential relay measures the vector difference between

A (a) Two currents
(b) Two voltages
I (c) Two or more similar electrical quantities
T 97. In an impedance relay, fault current is maximum if fault occurs near the
E (a) Relay
(b) Center of the line
(c) Transformer
98. Actual tripping of a static relay is obtained by

(a) IGBTs
(b) Thyristors
(c) UJTs
I
99. The automatic relay protection is usually not provided for the following alternator fault
C (a) Failure of field
T (b) Over current
(c) Over speed
E
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I 100. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over current and earth fault
C protection of transformer against
(a) Heavy loads
T (b) Internal short-circuits
(c) External short-circuits
E
101. A shunt reactor at 100 MVAr is operated at 98% of its rated voltage and at 96% of its
rated frequency. The reactive power absorbed by the reactor is
(a) 96.04 MVAr
(b) 98 MVAr
(c) 100.04 MVAr
(d) 104.02 MVAr
A
I 102. Two steam turbines each of 20 MW capacity drive a total load of 30 MW. The steam
rates in kg/hr are:
C TP1 = 2000 + 10 P1 - 0.0001 P12
TP2 = 5000 + 7 P2 - 0.00005 P22
T
The best division of load will be
E (a) TP1 = 20 MW, TP2 = 10 MW
(b) TP1 = 10 MW, TP2 = 20 MW
(c) TP1 = 15 MW, TP2 = 15 MW
(d) TP1 = 30 MW, TP2 = 0 MW
103. Three generators rated at 300 MW, 500 MW and 600 MW have speed droop
characteristics of 5%, 4% and 3% respectively. They are operating in parallel at 60 Hz
frequency. What shall be the change in the system load in MW, if the system frequency
A increases by 0.3Hz due to change in load?
(a) -192.5 MW
I (b) -202.5 MW
(c) +192.5 MW
C
(d) +202.5 MW
T
104. By increasing the transmission voltage to double of its original value, the same power
E can be dispatched keeping the line loss
(a) Equal to original value
(b) Half the original value
(c) Double the original value
(d) One-fourth of original value
A
I
C 105. For the synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus through a transmission line,
how are the change of voltage (∆V) and change of frequency (∆f) related to the active
T power (P) and the reactive power (Q)?
E
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A (a) ∆V is proportional to P and ∆f to Q

(b) ∆V is proportional to Q and ∆f to P
I
(c) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to P
C (d) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to Q
T 106. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turbo-alternator rated at 100 MVA, 11 kV has an inertia constant of
E 8.0 MJ/MVA. Neglect mechanical and electrical losses. If the mechanical input is
suddenly raised to 80 MW for an electrical load of 50 MW. What is the value of rotor
acceleration in elect-deg/sec2?
(a) 1350
(b) 912.5
(c) 337.5
(d) 2.66
107. A 500 kW plant costs Rs.1000 per kW installed. Fixed charges are estimated at 14%
A
and operating cost is 13 paise per kWh. The plant averages 200 kW for 5000 hrs of the
I year, 450 kW for 1200 hrs and 80 kW for the remaining period. The average cost of
production of electricity per kWh will be close to
C (a) 47 paise
T (b) 22 paise
(c) 17 paise
E (d) 7 paise
108. A separately excited dc motor with La = 0.1 mH, Ra = 1 Ω, has rated armature current
and voltage of 20 A and 150 V respectively. An ideal chopper with
Ra La
5 kHz switching frequency is used to control the motor as shown in +
the figure. If armature reaction is neglected, the duty ratio of the - 200 V
chopper to obtain 50% of the rated torque at the rated speed with
rated field current shall be
A (a) 0.7
(b) 0.6
I (c) 0.5
C (d) 0.4
T 109. A three-phase, 440 V, 50 Hz ac mains fed thyristor bridge is feeding a 40 V DC, 15

E kW, 1500 rpm separately excited dc motor with a ripple free continuous current in the
DC link under all operating conditions. Neglecting the losses the power factor of the ac
mains at half the rated speed is
(a) 0.354
(b) 0.372
(c) 0.955
(d) 0.905
A
I
110. A 3-phase fully controlled bridge converter with freewheeling diode is fed from 400 V,
C 50 Hz ac source and is operating at a firing angle of 60°. The load current is assumed
T constant at 10 A due to high load inductance. The input displacement factor (IDF) and
the input power factor (IPF) of the converter will be
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A (a) 0.5 & 0.318

(b) 0.5 & 0.478
I
(c) 0.867 & 0.552
C (d) 0.867 & 0.828
T 111. A six-pulse thyristor rectifier bridge is connected to a balanced 50 Hz 3-phase ac
source. Assuming that the dc output current of the rectifier is constant, the lowest
E
frequency harmonic component in the ac source line current is
(a) 100 Hz
(b) 150 Hz
(c) 250 Hz
(d) 300 Hz
112. A 3-phase fully controlled bridge converter is feeding a load drawing a constant and
ripple free load current of 10 A at a firing angle of 30°. The approximate total
A harmonic distortion (%THD) and the rms value of fundamental component of input
current will respectively be
I
(a) 66% and 7.8 A
C (b) 66% and 6.8 A
(c) 31% and 7.8 A
T (d) 31% and 6.8 A
E
113. PV panel of 350 V is feeding power to an ac supply of 440 V, 50 Hz through a 3-phase
fully controlled bridge converter. A large inductance is connected in the dc circuit to
maintain the dc current at 20 A. If the PV panel resistance is 0.5Ω, then each thyristor
will be reverse biased for a period of
(a) 55°
(b) 60°
(c) 120°
(d) 125°
A
114. When the diode connects the ac source to a pure inductance L, the diode conducts for
I (a) 90°
C (b) 180°
(c) 270°
T (d) 360°
E 115. A constant v/f speed control of inverter fed induction motor name plate details are 415
V, 50 Hz, 2850 rpm, 2 poles and 20 A. The motor runs with the inverter output
frequency set at 40 Hz and with half the rated slip. The running speed of the motor is
(a) 2230 rpm
(b) 2280 rpm
(c) 2340 rpm
(d) 2790 rpm
A
I 116. A lossless coaxial transmission line has a length of 10 cm. Find the lowest resonant
frequency if the line is air filled
C (a) 374.5 MHz
(b) 474 MHz
T (c) 581 MHz
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A (d) 749 MHz

I
117. Which one of the following is valid for short transmission lines in terms of ABCD
C parameters
(a) B = D = 0
T (b) C = 0
E (c) A = B = 1
(d) A = C = 1
118. Two capacitors with capacitances C and 2C are connected in series. The terminal
voltage and energy stored of the series combination are V and Wse respectively. Next
the capacitors are connected in parallel. The terminal voltage and energy stored of the
parallel combination are V/2 and Wpa respectively. The ratio of Wse / Wpa is
(a) 16/9
(b) 8/9
A (c) 4/9
I (d) 2/9
C 119. Two regions 1 and 2 in a magnetic field have a common boundary surface. The
permeability of region 2 is twice that of region 1. The magnetic field intensity at the
T
boundary in region 2 is 30° with the normal to the boundary. The angle of the field
E intensity at the boundary in region 2 is
(a) 15°
(b) 60°
(c) Nearly 49°
(d) Nearly 16°
120. The complex electric and magnetic field intensities in an electromagnetic field in terms
of real and imaginary parts are E=(Ea+jEi)ax and H=(Ha+jHi)ay where the quantities
A are amplitudes. Which of the following expressions gives the real part of the complex
pointing vector
I (a) (Ex(t)Hy(t) – Ey(t)Hx(t))az
(b) (Ex(t)Hy(t) + Ey(t)Hx(t))az
C
(c) (Ex(t)Hx(t) – Ey(t)Hy(t))az
T (d) (Ex(t)Hx(t) + Ey(t)Hy(t))az
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG2EPE 19
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Electrical and Power Engineering
Paper: 2
1. a 61. c
2. a 62. b
3. c 63. d
4. b 64. d
5. a 65. a
6. b 66. b
7. c 67. b
8. c 68. c
9. d 69. b
10. a 70. c
11. d 71. c
12. a 72. d
13. d 73. c
14. b 74. a
15. b 75. d
16. d 76. c
17. c 77. b
18. b 78. c
19. d 79. b
20. a 80. b
21. d 81. b
22. a 82. a
23. c 83. c
24. c 84. c
25. c 85. c
26. c 86. c
27. a 87. b
28. d 88. b
29. b 89. b
30. d 90. c
31. b 91. c
32. d 92. d
33. b 93. a
34. a 94. b
35. a 95. d
36. c 96. c
37. a 97. a
38. a 98. d
39. c 99. d
40. a 100. b
41. c 101. c
42. a 102. a
43. c 103. a
44. a 104. d
45. d 105. b
46. d 106. c
47. c 107. c
48. c 108. a
49. a 109. a
50. a 110. b
51. c 111. c
52. a 112. c
53. b 113. d
54. b 114. c
55. a 115. c
56. c 116. d
57. b 117. b
58. a 118. b
59. b 119. c
60. b 120. b
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
I
C
E
PAPER-I
A
Instructions:
I
C i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C, total
120 questions.
T
E
A
I
C
T non-programmable scientific calculator.
E
specified.
A
I ix. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.

C x. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on
T completion of examination before leaving the examination hall.
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A
I
1. Queue is also called as _______________
C a) Last in first out
b) First in last out
T
c) First in first out
2. Inserting an item into the stack when the stack is not full is called _________ operation
and deletion of item from the stack when the stack is not empty is called ___________
operation.
a) Push, pop
A b) Pop, push
c) Insert, delete
I
d) Delete, insert
C
3. A directed graph is ____________________ if there is a path from each vertex to every
T other vertex in the diagraph.
a) Weakly connected
E b) Strongly connected
c) Linearly connected
4. In a ______________________ traversal we process all the vertex‟s descendants before

A we move to an adjacent vertex.
a) Depth first
I b) Breadth first
c) Both of the above
T
5. The average number of comparisons done in a sequential search is _____________.
E a) (n/2)+1
b) (n+1)/2
c) (n-1)/2
d) (n/2)-1
6. The most number of comparisons that can be done in a binary search is _____________.
A a) Log2N
I b) Log2N/2
c) (N-1)/2
C d) N/2
T 7. The average case scenario of time complexity of a quick sort is ____________.

a) Log2N
E
b) Nlog(N)
c) N2
d) N/2
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A 8. The data structure that is normally used for recursion is called as ______________.
a) Queue
I b) Stack
c) List
T
9. From where the insertion starts with a B tree?
E a) Root node
b) Any node
c) Could be a) or b)
d) Leaf node
10. What is the most appropriate data structure to implement a priority queue?
A a) Heap
b) Circular array
I
c) Linked list
C d) Binary tree
T 11. If you traverse a tree in the Inorder and find sorted listing of elements then it is
a ________________.
E a) Binary search tree
b) Binary tree
c) Heap
A 12. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 4 units, then minimum amplitude is
_______________.
I a) 4
b) 2
C c) -2
d) -4
T
E 13. An analog signal has a bit rate of 6000 bps and a baud rate of 2000 baud. How many data
elements are carried by each signal element?
a) 0.336 bits/baud
b) 3 bits/baud
c) 120,00,000 bits/baud
A
I 14. The access method used for magnetic tape is_________.
a) Direct
C b) Random
c) Sequential
E
15. Actual execution of instructions in a computer takes place in ___________.
a) ALU
b) Control Unit
c) Storage unit
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A
16. In half adder EX-OR gate O/P is _________.
I a) Carry
b) Remainder
C c) Sum
T
E 17. In half adder AND gate O/P is ____________.
a) Carry
b) Reminder
c) Sum
A 18. Multiplexer means ____________.

a) One in to many
I
b) Many in to one
C c) Many in to many
T
19. The octal equivalent of (13)10 is _______________.
E a) 18
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
A 20. Status register is also called as ___________.

a) Accumulator
I b) Stack
c) Counter
C d) Flags
T
21. In Modulation, “carrier” is ____________.
E a) Resultant wave
b) Speech voltage to be transmitted
c) Voltage with constant frequency, phase or amplitude
d) Voltage for which frequency, phase or amplitude is varied
22. For a low level AM system, the amplifiers modulated stage must be _______________.
A a) Linear devices
I b) Harmonic devices
c) Class C amplifiers
C d) None of these above
T 23. Which of the following is a digital modulation technique?

a) PCM
E
b) PSK
c) DM
d) All
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A 24. Under ordinary circumstances, impulse noise can be reduced in _________________.

a) FM only
I b) AM only
c) Both AM and FM
T
25. The channel capacity is _______________________.
E a) The maximum information transmitted by one symbol over the channel
b) Information contained in a signal
c) The amplitude of the modulated signal
d) All of the above
e)
26. According to Shannon Hartley theorem,
A a) The channel capacity becomes infinite with infinite bandwidth
b) The channel capacity does not become infinite with infinite bandwidth
I
c) Has a tradeoff between bandwidth and Signal to noise ratio
C d) Both b) and c) are correct
T 27. The expected information contained in a message is called ______________.

a) Entropy
E b) Efficiency
c) Coded signal
28. The capacity of Gaussian channel is ___________________.

A a) C = 2B(1+S/N) bits/s
b) C = B(1+S/N) bits/s
I c) C = B/2(1+S/N) bits/s
C
29. The probability of error of DPSK is ______________ than that of BPSK.
T
a) Higher
E b) Lower
c) Same
d) Not predictable
30. The bandwidth of BFSK is ______________ than BPSK.

a) Lower
A b) Same
I c) Higher
d) Not predictable
C
31. The spectrum of BFSK may be viewed as the sum of _________________.
T a) Two ASK spectra
b) Two PSK spectra
E
c) Two FSK spectra
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A 32. Turing machine (TM) is more powerful than FSM (Finite State Machine) because
________________________.
I a) Tape movement is confined to one direction
b) It has no finite state
C c) It has the capability to remember arbitrarily long sequences of input symbols
T
E 33. In a context-sensitive grammar, number of grammar symbols on the left hand side of a
production can't be greater than the number of _________________.
a) Grammar symbols on the right hand side
b) Terminals on the right hand side
c) Non-terminals on the right hand side
d) All of the above
A
34. A CFG is said to be in Chomsky Form (CNF), if all the productions are of the form A -->
I
BC or A --> a. Let G be a CFG in CNF. To derive a string of terminals of length x, the
C number of productions to be used is __________________.
a) 2x – 1
T b) 2x
c) 2x + 1
E d) None of these
35. If L1 and L2 are context free language and R a regular set, then which one of the
languages below is not necessarily a context free language?
a) L1L2
b) L1∩ L2
A c) L1∩ R
I d) L1∪ L2
C 36. Any string of terminals that can be generated by the following CFG is
S-> XY
T X-->aX | bX | a
Y->Ya | Yb | a
E
a) Hasatleast one 'b'
b) should end in a) 'a'
c) has no consecutive a's or b's
d) hasatleast two a's
A 37. Which of the following statement is wrong?

a) Any regular language has an equivalent context-free grammar.
I b) Some non-regular languages can‟t be generated by any context-free grammar
c) Intersection of context free language and a regular language is always context-
C free
T d) All languages can be generated by context- free grammar
E 38. If S and T be language over Σ = {a, b } represented by regular expression

(a + b * ) * and (a + b) * , respectively, then _______________.
a) S ⊂ T
b) T⊂ S
c) S = T
d) S ∩ T= φ
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A
39. The CFG s---> as | bs| a | bis equivalent to regular expression
I a) (a + b)
b) (a + b) (a + b)*
C c) (a + b) (a + b)
T
E 40. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) Thread
b) Socket
c) Semaphore
A 41. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the ___________________.

a) Mutex locks
I
b) Thread
C c) Pipe
T
42. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed
E as ______________________.
a) Waiting time
b) Turnaround time
c) Response time
d) Throughput
A
43. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is
I compared with the priority of _________________.
a) All process
C b) Currently running process
c) Parent process
T
d) Init process
E
44. In the following cases non–preemptive scheduling occurs, ____________.
a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
d) All of the mentioned
A
I 45. Turnaround time is ______________.
a) The total waiting time for a process to finish execution
C b) The total time spent in the ready queue
c) The total time spent in the running queue
T d) The total time from the completion till the submission of a process
E
46. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A
47. Mutual exclusion implies that ________________.
I a) If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be
executing in their critical sections
C b) If a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be
executing in their critical sections
T
c) If a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system
E must be blocked until it finishes execution
48. Semaphore is a _____________ to solve the critical section problem.

a) Hardware for a system
b) Special program for a system
A c) Variable
I
C 49. Router operates in which layer of OSI Reference Model?
a) Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
T b) Layer 3 (Network Layer)
c) Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
E d) Layer 7 (Application Layer)
50. Which of the following is correct regarding Class B Address of IP address?

a) Network bit – 14, Host bit – 16
b) Network bit – 16, Host bit – 14
c) Network bit – 18, Host bit – 16
A
d) Network bit – 12, Host bit – 14
I
51. How many bits are there in the Ethernet address?
C a) 64 bits
b) 48 bits
T c) 32 bits
E d) 16 bits
52. Routing tables of a router keeps track of ________________.

a) MAC Address Assignments
b) Port Assignments to network devices
c) Distribute IP address to network devices
A d) Routes to use for forwarding data to its destination
I 53. Which of the following is correct in CIDR?

a) Class A includes Class B network
C b) There are only two networks
T c) There are high & low class network
d) There is no concept of class A, B, C networks
E
54. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the Internet?
a) DHCP
b) UDP
c) RPC
d) None of the above mentioned
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A
55. Which one of the following is not used in media access control?
I a) Ethernet
b) Digital subscriber line
C c) Fiber distributed data interface
d) None of the above mentioned
T
E 56. ICMP is primarily used for ____________________.
a) Error and diagnostic functions
b) Addressing
c) Forwarding
A 57. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

______________________.
I
a) Socket
C b) Pipe
c) Port
E 58. IPSec is designed to provide the security in the __________________.
a) Transport layer
b) Network layer
c) Application layer
d) Session layer
A
59. In a Max heap the largest key is at ______________________.
I a) The root
b) First leaf
C c) Last node
T
E 60. Which of the following technique is not using for solve a 0-1knapsack problem?
a) Greedy
b) Dynamic programming
c) Branch and bound
d) All of the above
A 61. Given f(n) = log2n, g(n) = √n which function is asymptotically faster?
I a) f(n) is faster than g(n)
b) g(n) is faster than f(n)
C c) Either f(n) or g(n)
d) Neither f(n) nor g(n)
T
62. T (n) = 8T (n/2) + n2, T (1) = 1 then T (n) = _______________.
E
a) ϴ (n2)
b) ϴ (n3)
c) ϴ (n4)
d) ϴ (n)
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A 63. T (n) = T (n/2) + T (n/4) + T (n/8) + n then T (n) = ________________.

a) ϴ (n4)
I b) ϴ (n3)
c) ϴ (n2)
C d) ϴ (n)
T
64. The running time of Floyd-Warshall algorithm is ___________________.
E a) ϴ (n)
b) ϴ (n3)
c) ϴ (n2)
d) ϴ (n log n)
65. The running time of kruskal‟s algorithm for MST ___________________.

A a) O(E)
b) O(V)
I
c) O(E log V)
C d) all of the above
T 66. What is the type of the algorithm used in solving the 8 Queens problem?
a) Greedy
E b) Dynamic
c) Branch and Bound
d) Backtracking
67. Which of the following is not a backtracking algorithm?

A a) Knight tour problem
b) N queen problem
I c) Tower of Hanoi
d) M coloring problem
C
68. What does the algorithmic analysis count?
T
a) The number of arithmetic and the operations that are required to run the program
E b) The number of lines required by the program
c) The number of seconds required by the program to execute
69. The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by
_____________________.
A a) Counting microseconds
I b) Counting the number of key operations
c) Counting the number of statements
C d) Counting of kilobytes of algorithm
T 70. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are _________________.
a) Processor and memory
E
b) Complexity and capacity
c) Time and space
d) Date and space
e)
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
I
C 71.The initial configuration of the queue is a,b,c,d (a is the front end). To get the
configurationd,c,b,a one needs a minimum of ?
T
a) 3 additions and 2 deletions
E b) 2 deletions and 3 additions
c) 3 deletions and 4 additions
d) 3 deletions and 3 additions
72. The number of possible ordered trees with three nodes A,B,C is?
a) 16
A b) 12
c) 6
I
d) 10
C
73. The number of swapping needed to sort numbers 8,22,7,9,31,19,5,13 in ascending order
T using bubble sort is ?
a) 11
E b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
74. Given two sorted lists of size m and n respectively.The number of comparisons needed in
A the worst case by the merge sort algorithm will be?
a) m x n
I b) max (m,n)
c) min (m,n)
C d) m+n-1
T
75. When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would
E return _____________________.
a) FAEKCDBHG
b) FAEKCDHGB
c) EAFKHDCBG
d) FEAKDCHBG
A 76. The instruction, Add #45,R1 does ____________.
I a) Adds the value of 45 to the address of R1 and stores 45 in that address
b) Adds 45 to the value of R1 and stores it in R1
C c) Finds the memory location 45 and adds that content to that of R1
T
77. The instruction, Add Loc,R1 in RTN is ________________.
E
a) AddSetCC Loc+R1
b) R1=Loc+R1
c) Not possible to write in RTN
d) R1<-[Loc]+[R1].
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A 78. In a system, which has 32 registers the register id is _______________ long.

a) 16 bit
I b) 8 bits
c) 5 bits
C d) 6 bits
T
79. By simplifying Z= ∑A,B,C(1,3,6,7), we will get ___________________.
E a) A‟C + AB
b) AB + AC
c) BC + A‟C
d) AB + BC
80. The number 102 written in binary is __________________.

A a) 0110011
b) 110011
I
c) 110110
C d) 1100110
T 81. A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated with m = 0.75. The total power in AM is
______________.
E a) 400 W
b) 512 W
c) 588 W
d) 650 W
A 82. A telephone exchange has 9000 subscribers. If the number of calls originating at peak
time is 10, 000 in one hour, the calling rate is ________.
I a) 0.9
b) 10/9
C c) 0.81
d) 0.1
T
E 83. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves having modulation indices of
0.4 and 0.3. The total modulation index will be _________________.
a) 0.1
b) 0.7
c) 0.5
d) 0.35
A
I 84. A 1000 kHz carrier is simultaneously modulated with 300 Hz, 800 Hz and 2 kHz audio
sine waves. Which of the following frequency is least likely to be present in the output?
C a) 1002 kHz
b) 1000 kHz
T c) 999.2 kHz
d) 998 kHz
E
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A 85. In a fascimile reproduction time to scan one line is 2 ms.If it has 4% blanking, the visible
trace time is _____________________.
I a) 1.92 ms
b) 2.08 ms
C c) 50 ms
d) 0.08 ms
T
E 86. How many strings of length less than 4 contains the language described by the regular
expression (x+y)*y(a+ab)*?
a) 7
b) 10
c) 12
d) 11
A
87. Mr Jay John is asked to make an automaton, which accepts a given string for all the
I
occurrence of „1001‟ in it. How many number of transitions would John use such that,
C the string processing application works?
a) 9
T b) 11
c) 12
E d) 15
88. The total number of states required to automate the given regular expression(00)*(11)* is
__________________.
a) 3
A b) 4
c) 5
I d) 6
C 89. Which of the following grammars are in Chomsky Normal Form?
a) S->AB|BC|CD, A->0, B->1, C->2, D->3
T
b) S->AB, S->BCA|0|1|2|3
E c) S->ABa, A->aab, B->Ac
d) All of the above
90. If the waiting time for a process is p and there are n processes in the memory then the
CPU utilization is given by, __________________.
a) p/n
A b) p^n (p raised to n)
I c) 1-p^n
d) n-(p^n)
C
91. Suppose a new process in a system arrives at an average of six processes per minute and
T each such process requires an average of 8 seconds of service time. Estimate the fraction
of time the CPU is busy in a system with a single processor.
E
a) 0.2
b) 0.5
c) 1.2
d) 0.8
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A 92. Assume you have the following jobs to execute with one processor, with the jobs
arriving in the order listed here:
I i T(pi)
0 80
C 1 20
2 10
T
3 20
E 4 50
Suppose a system uses FCFS scheduling. What is the turnaroundtime

for process p3?
a) 110
b) 80
A c) 130
d) 150
I
C 93. Assume you have the following jobs to execute with one processor, with the jobs
arriving in the order listed here:
T i T(pi) Arrival Time
0 80 0
E 1 20 10
2 10 10
3 20 80
450 85
Suppose a system uses RR scheduling with a quantum of 15. What is the turnaround
A time for process p3?
a) 110
I b) 80
c) 130
C d) 150
T
94. What is the average waiting time for the previous round robin scheduling problem which
E is given in question no 93?
a) 15
b) 22
c) 25
d) 28
A 95. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ___________________.
I a) 0
b) 1
C c) 2
d) None of the above.
T
96. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is _____________________.
E
a) 0000
b) 1111
c) 0111
d) 1110
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A 97. If the bandwidth is 1.6 x 1012Hz, how many communication channels can be obtained
with 16 KHz bandwidth radio signal?
I a) 1015
b) 1011
C c) 1010
d) 108
T
E 98. What is the postfix representation of this expression?
(12 – a) * (b + 9) / (d * 4)
a) 4 b * d 9 + a 12 - * /
b) / 12 a – b 9 + d 4 *
c) 12 – a * b + 9 / d * 4
d) 12 a – b 9 + * d 4 * /
A
99. What is the following algorithm?
I
pi[0] = -1; int k = -1; for(inti = 1; i<= m; i++) {
C while(k >= 0 && P[k+1] != P[i]) k = pi[k];
pi[i] = ++k; }
T int k = 0; for(inti = 1; i<= n; i++) {
while(k >= 0 && P[k+1] != T[i]) k = pi[k];
E k++; if(k == m) {
// P matches T[i-m+1..i]
k = pi[k]; }
}
a) Dijkstra‟s algorithm
A b) KMP algorithm
c) Boyer-Morris algorithm
C 100. C ({1}, 1) = 0
for s = 2 to n do
T
for all subsets S Є {1, 2, 3, … , n} of size s and containing 1
E C (S, 1) = ∞
for all j Є S and j ≠ 1
C (S, j) = min {C (S – {j}, i) + d(i, j) for i Є S and i ≠ j}
Return minj C ({1, 2, 3, …, n}, j) + d(j, i)
The above algorithm represents

A a) Knapsack problem
I b) Minesweeper problem
c) Travelling salesman problem
T PART –C
E
a) 10and40
b) 10 and15
c) 15 and40
d) 10 and10
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
A
b) Identitymatrix
C c) Singularmatrix
T d) None ofthe above
a) Nullmatrix
b) Diagonalmatrix
d) None ofthe above
A
a) u
C b) 1
c) -1
T
d) 0
E
[−3, 1] are
a) −7 and −8
b) 81 and −8
c) 0 and −2
A d) 73 and −8
2
I 𝑑4𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4
C a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
T c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4
E d) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2

a) 3
b) 6
c) 2
A d) None ofabove
I
C 𝐵
a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
T b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
E c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
d) None ofthe above
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15

I 13
a) 30
17
C b) 30
19
T c) 30
d) None ofthe above
E
11 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
b) Unitorymatrix
A c) Skew-Hermitianmatrix
d) None ofthe above
I
C
a) λ = 2 and µ =4
T b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
E
d) None ofthe above
a) 62
A b) 44
c) 8
C 
T 
a) grad | A |  0
E 
b) curl A  0

c) div A  0
d) None ofthe above
A 𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
(𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
I a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
C c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
d) None ofthe above
T
1 1 𝑛 −1
E 115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
a) ⎾(n − 1)
b) ⎾(n)
n−1
c) ⎾ 2
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1INF15
n+1
A d) ⎾ 2
I 116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is

C a) Hyperbolic
b) Elliptic
T c) Parabolic
d) None ofthe above
E
𝑥 +𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
A 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
I 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
C
T 118.Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the
2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
E function𝑓 𝑥 = 𝜋
is
2𝑥
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
a) 0
b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
I
C a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
T c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
d) None ofthese.
E
a) m2
b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG1INF15
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Information Technology
Paper: 1
1. c 45. d 89. a
2. a 46. b 90. b
3. b 47. a 91. d
4. a 48. c 92. c
5. b 49. b 93. b
6. a 50. a 94. b
7. b 51. b 95. c
8. b 52. d 96. b
9. d 53. d 97. d
10. a 54. a 98. d
11. a 55. d 99. b
12. d 56. a 100. c
13. b 57. a 101. a
14. c 58. b 102. c
15. a 59. a 103. a
16. c 60. a 104. d
17. a 61. a 105. d
18. b 62. b 106. d
19. c 63. d 107. a
20. d 64. b 108. a
21. d 65. c 109. a
22. a 66. d 110. b
23. b 67. c 111. c
24. a 68. a 112. d
25. a 69. b 113. b
26. d 70. c 114. a
27. a 71. d 115. b
28. b 72. b 116. b
29. a 73. d 117. d
30. c 74. d 118. a
31. a 75. b 119. d
32. c 76. b 120. c
33. c 77. d
34. a 78. c
35. b 79. a
36. d 80. d
37. d 81. b
38. c 82. b
39. b 83. c
40. c 84. b
41. a 85. a
42. b 86. d
43. b 87. a
44. b 88. c
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
I
C
E
PAPER-II
Instructions:
A
I
questions.
C
C
T specified.
E

A
C
T
E
Page 1 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
I 1. The attribute name could be structured as a attribute consisting of first name, middle initial,
and last name. This type of attribute is called ______.
C a) Simple attribute
b) Composite attribute
T
c) Multivalued attribute
E d) Derived attribute
2. Which of the following can be a multivalued attribute?

a) Phone_number
b) Name
c) Date_of_birth
I 3. Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state,pincode).
For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also, for given street, city and state, there
C
is just one pincode. In normalization terms, empdt1 is a relation in
T a) 1 NF only
b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
E c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF
4. Which-one ofthe following statements about normal forms is FALSE?

a) BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
b) Lossless, dependency -preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
A
c) Loss less, dependency – preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
I d) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF
C 5. Key to represent relationship between tables is called ____________.

a) Primary key
T b) Secondary Key
E c) Foreign Key
6. The deadlock in a set of transaction can be determined by ____________.

a) Read-only graph
b) Wait graph
A c) Wait-for graph
d) All of the above
I
7. If a transaction does not modify the database until it has committed, it is said to use the
C ___________ technique.
T a) Deferred-modification
b) Late-modification
E c) Immediate-modification
d) Undo
Page 2 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A
8. The database system must take special actions to ensure that transactions operate properly
I without interference from concurrently executing database statements. This property is
referred to as ________________.
C a) Atomicity
b) Durability
T
c) Isolation
9. To include integrity constraint in a existing relation use ______________.

a) Create table
b) Modify table
c) Alter table
A d) Drop table
I
10. Which of the following is not a integrity constraint?
C a) Not null
b) Positive
T c) Unique
d) Check ‗predicate‘
E
11. The assumption that hardware errors and bugs in the software bring the system to a halt, but
do not corrupt the nonvolatile storage contents, is known as the _________________.
a) Stop assumption
b) Fail assumption
A c) Halt assumption
d) Fail-stop assumption
I
12. Which kind of failure loses its data in head crash or failure during transfer operation?
C a) Transaction failure
b) System crash
T
c) Disk failure
13. Remote backup system must be _________ with the primary site.
a) Synchronized
b) Separated
c) Connected
A d) Detached but related
I
14. The time to process the remote backup can be reduced by ______________.
C a) Flags
b) Breakpoints
T c) Redo points
d) Checkpoints
E
Page 3 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 15. In Bresenham's algorithm, while generating a circle, it is easy to generate

a) One octant first and other by successive rotation
I b) One octant first and other by successive translation
c) One octant first and other by successive reflection
C d) All octants
T
16. A line with endpoints codes as 0000 and 0100 is _______________.
E a) Completely visible
b) Completely invisible
c) Partially invisible
d) Trivially invisible
17. Reflection of a point about x-axis, followed by a counter-clockwise rotation of 900, is

A equivalent to reflection about the line?
a) x = - y
I
b) y = - x
C c) x = y
T
18. In orthographic projection, we use _______________ following
E a) Top view of an object
b) Front view of an object
c) Side view of an object
d) All of above
19. Scan lines are used to scan from __________________.

A a) Top to bottom
I b) Bottom to top
c) Botha) & b)
C d) None of above
T 20. The main property of________ is that their shape is irregular

a) Fractals
E
b) Quad-tree
c) Rendering
21. A process with the help of which images or picture can be produced in a more realistic way
A is called
a) Fractals
I b) Quad-tree
c) Rendering
T
E
Page 4 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 22. All the hidden surface algorithms employ image space approach except?
a) Back face removal
I b) Depth buffer method
c) Scan line method
C d) Depth sort method
T
23. The Bezier curve obtained from the four control points is called a _____________.
E a) Square Bezier curve
b) Cubic Bezier curve
c) Hectare Bezier curve
d) Rectangle Bezier curve
24. Which surface algorithm is based on perspective depth?

A a) Depth comparison
b) Z-buffer or depth-buffer algorithm
I
c) subdivision method
C d) back-face removal
25. Parsing is also known as ________________.
T
a) Lexical Analysis
E b) Syntax Analysis
c) Semantic Analysis
d) Code Generation
26. A finite automata recognizes __________________.

a) Any Language
A b) Context Sensitive Language
c) Context Free Language
I d) Regular Language
C
27. YACC builds up _____________.
T a) SLR parsing table
b) Canonical LR parsing table
E c) LALR parsing table
28. What is the similarity between LR, LALR and SLR?

a) Use same algorithm, but different parsing table.
b) Same parsing table, but different algorithm.
A
c) Their Parsing tables and algorithm are similar but uses top down approach.
I d) Both Parsing tables and algorithm are different.
C 29. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Unambiguous grammar has both kind of derivations
T b) An LL(1) parser is a top-down parser
c) LALR is more powerful than SLR
E d) Ambiguous grammar can‘t be LR(k)
Page 5 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 30. The output of lexical analyzer is _________________.

a) A set of regular expression
I b) Syntax tress
c) Set of Token
C d) String of Characters
T 31. Shift reduce parser are ___________________.
a) Top down parser
E b) Bottom up parser
c) Maybe both
32. A garbage is _________________.
A a) Unallocated storage
b) Allocated storage whose access paths are destroyed
I c) Allocated storage
d) Uninitialized storage
C
33. An optimizing compiler _________________.
T a) Is optimized to occupy less space
E b) Is optimized to take less time for execution
c) Optimized the code
34. DAG representation of a basic block allows ______________.

a) Automatic detection of local common sub expressions
A b) Detection of induction variables
c) Automatic detection of loop variant
C
35. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?
T a) Parser
b) Code optimization
E c) Code generator
d) Lexical analyser
36. The communication protocol used by Internet is ___________.

a) HTTP
A b) FTP
c) TCP/IP
I d) All of the above
C 37. DNS is an Internet service that translates domain names to or from ____________________.
T a) MAC address
b) IP address
E c) Both a) and b)
Page 6 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 38. The attribute of <form> tag is __________________.

a) Method
I b) Action
c) Both a) and b)
T
39. Web pages starts with which ofthe following tag?
E a) <body>
b) <title>
c) <html>
d) <form>
40. If you want to align text to the right side of an block element in a cascading style sheet
A (CSS) then which of the following property would you use?
a) Right align
I
b) Justify
C c) Left align
d) Text align
T
41. To set up the window to capture all Click events, we use which of the following statement?
E a) window.captureEvents(Event.CLICK);
b) window.handleEvents (Event.CLICK);
c) window.routeEvents(Event.CLICK );
d) window.raiseEvents(Event.CLICK );
A 42. In a Javascript application what function can be used to send messages to users requesting
for an text input?
I a) Display()
b) Alert()
C c) GetOutput()
d) Prompt()
T
E 43. Which of the following objects can be used in expression and scriplets in JSP without
explicitly declaring them?
a) Request and response only
b) Response and session only
c) Session and request only
d) Session,request and response
A
I 44. Node in XML is _______________.
a) Any part of the document, whether element, attribute or otherwise
C b) Referred only to the attributes
c) Referred to the top element in the document
E
Page 7 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 45. What is the correct HTML for referring to an external style sheet?
a) <link rel="stylesheet" type="textlcss" href="mystyle.css">
I b) <stylesheet>mystyle.css</stylesheet I>
c) <style src="mystyle.css" I>
T 46. ________________ is used to request a value from the user.
a) Alert box
E b) Confirm box
c) Prompt box
d) All of the above
47. In telnet, the client echoes the character on the screen but does not send it until a whole line
A is completed in _____________________.
a) Default mode
I b) Character mode
c) Server mode
C
T 48. Which one of the following is not correct?
E a) Telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) Telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) Telnet can also be used for file transfer
49. RAD Model has _________________.

A a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
I c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
C
T 50. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
E b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
51. Which of the following is not an example of a business process?
a) designing a new product
A b) hiring an employee
c) purchasing services
I d) testing software
C 52. When does one decides to re-engineer a product?
T a) when tools to support restructuring are disabled
b) when system crashes frequently
E c) when hardware or software support becomes obsolete
d) subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance
Page 8 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 53. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?
a) Unit Testing
I b) Integration Testing
c) Acceptance Testing
C d) Regression Testing
T
54. What is Cyclomatic complexity
E a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
55. Boundary value analysis belongs to
A a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
I c) White Box & Black Box Testing
C
56. Acceptance testing is also known as ______________.
T
a) Grey box testing
E b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
57. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as __________.

a) SQA
A b) SQM
c) SQI
I d) SQA and SQM
C
58. How many man months are required for semi-detached for a size of 200 KLOC?
T a) 626
b) 838
E c) 1133
d) 1455
59. A system is called ______________ when the inputs, process and the outputs are known
with certainty.
a) Probabilistic
A b) Deterministic
c) Open
I d) Close
C
60. Top-level managers use _____________.
T a) Strategic information
b) Tactical information
E c) Operational information
Page 9 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 61. A person machine-system and a highly integrated grouping of information-processing

functions designed to provide management with a comprehensive picture of specific
I operation is called
a) DSS
C b) MIS
c) IIS
T
d) All of the above
E
62. The most important reason for failure of MIS is __________.
a) Use of improper tool for design
b) Non involvement of end user
c) Improper specification
A
63. Decision makers who are concerned with tactical (short-term) operational problems and
I
decision-making are _____________.
C a) Middle managers
b) Executive managers
T c) Supervisors
E
64. The most important attribute of information quality that a manager requires is
________________.
a) Relevance
b) Presentation
A c) Timeliness
I
65. To improve the performance of a business process, which of the following is most relevant?
C a) Input.
b) Processing
T
c) Control and feedback
E d) Output.
66. Contemporary Information Systems are interfacing with customers and suppliers using
________________.
a) CRM
b) SCM
A c) Both a) and b)
I
C 67. Inventory is also referred to as _________________.
a) Stock
T b) Warehouse capacity
c) Materials
E d) Material in hand
Page 10 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 68. _______________ are knowledge based system to which present rules are applied to solve a
particular problem.
I a) Expert System
b) Business system
C c) Artificial intelligence
T
E 69. _______________ decisions concern the execution of specific tasks to assure that they are
carried out efficiently and effectively
a) Tactical
b) Strategic
c) Operational
A
70. Order-filling activity in the physical system is triggered by the ____________.
I
a) Manufacturing Information System
C b) Order entry subsystem
c) Billing subsystem
T d) Accounts receivable subsystem
E 71. The functional area showing the greatest interest in the concept of functional information
systems is the ____________.
a) Financial function
b) Manufacturing function
c) Both a)& b)
A d) Neither a) nor b)
I 72. Which algorithm will work backward from the goal to solve a problem?
a) Forward chaining
C b) Backward chaining
c) Hill-climb algorithm
T
E
73. Which algorithm is in more similar to backward chaining algorithm?
a) Depth-first search algorithm
b) Breadth-first search algorithm
c) Hill-climbing search algorithm
d) All of the above
A
I 74. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as ______________.
a) IF-THEN-ELSE rules
C b) IF-THEN rules
c) Both IF-THEN-ELSE rules & IF-THEN rules
E
Page 11 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 75. A Hybrid Bayesian network contains __________________.

a) Both discrete and continuous variables
I b) Only Discrete variables
c) Only Discontinuous variable
C d) Both Discrete and Discontinuous variable
T 76. What is state space?
a) The whole problem
E b) Your Definition to a problem
c) Problem you design
d) Representing your problem with variable and parameter
77. A production rule consists of ____________________.

A a) A set of Rule
b) A sequence of steps
I c) Both a) and b)
d) Arbitrary representation to problem
C
78. A* algorithm is based on _________________.
T a) Breadth-First-Search
E b) Depth-First –Search
c) Best-First-Search
d) Hill climbing
79. The process of removing detail from a given state representation is called
_____________________.
A a) Extraction
b) Abstraction
I c) Information Retrieval
C d) Mining of data
T 80. The Set of actions for a problem in a state space is formulated by a ___________________.
a) Intermediate states
E b) Initial state
c) Successor function, which takes current action and returns next immediate state

A
81. Relation R has eight attributes ABCDEFGH. Fields of R contain only atomic values. F =
I {CH -> G, A -> BC, B -> CFH, E -> A, F -> EG} is a set of functional dependencies (FDs)
so that F+ is exactly the set of FDs that hold for R. How many candidate keys does the
C relation R have?
a) 3
T
b) 4
E c) 5
d) 6
Page 12 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 82. Consider the following relational schema:

Suppliers(sid:integer, sname:string, city:string, street:string) Parts(pid:integer, pname:string,
I color:string)
Catalog(sid:integer, pid:integer, cost:real)
C Assume that, in the suppliers‘ relation above, each supplier and each street within a city has
a unique name, and (sname, city) forms a candidate key. No other functional dependencies
T
are implied other than those implied by primary and candidate keys. Which one of the
E following is TRUE about the above schema?
a) The scheme is in BCNF
b) The scheme is in 3NF but not in BCNF
c) The scheme is in 2NF but not in 3NF
d) The scheme is not in 2NF
A 83. Consider a B+-tree in which the maximum number of keys in a node is 5. What is the
minimum number of keys in any non-root node?
I
a) 1
C b) 2
c) 3
T d) 4
E 84. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability and
freedom from deadlock?
I. 2-phase locking
II. Time-stamp ordering
a) I only
A b) II only
c) Both I and II
I d) Neither I or II
C 85. Which of the following scenarios may lead to an irrecoverable error in a database system?
a) A transaction writes a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
T
b) A transaction reads a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
E c) A transaction reads a data item after it is written by a committed transaction
d) A transaction reads a data item after it is written by an uncommitted transaction
86. Given the basic ER and relational models, which of the following is INCORRECT?
a) An attribute of an entity can have more than one value
b) An attribute of an entity can be composite
A c) In a row of a relational table, an attribute of can have more than one value
I d) In a row of a relational table, an attribute of can have exactly one value or a NULL
value
C
T
E
Page 13 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 87. What is the transformed position vector by translating in the x, y, z directions -1, -1, -1
respectively, followed by a 300 rotation about x axis and 450rotation about y axis on the
I homogeneous coordinate position vector [3 2 1 1]?
a) [1 1 -1 1]
C b) [1.768 0.866 -1.061 1]
c) [1.5 0.9 -1.2 1]
T
E
88. Given B0[1, 1], B1[2,3], B2[4,3], B3[3,1] the vertices of a Bezier curve polygon, the 4th basis
/ blending function is ______________.
a) 3t(1-t)2
b) (1-t)3
c) 3t2
A d) t3
I
89. The similarity dimension of Koch curve is ________________.
C a) 1.26
b) 1.41
T c) 0.96
d) 1.94
E
90. The attenuation on the illumination model I() = Ka()Ia() + Kd()Il() cos() +
Ks()Il()cos() makes impact on the ______________ component of the illumination
model.
a) Both ambient and diffuse
A b) Both diffuse and specular
c) Both specular and ambient
C 91. With the display intensity corresponding to a given color index ci calculated as
T _____________.
a) Intensity=0.5[max(r, g, b)+ max(r, g, b)]
E b) Intensity=0.5[min(r, g, b)+ min(r, g, b)]
c) Intensity=0.5[max(r, g, b)- max(r, g, b)]
d) Intensity=0.5[min(r, g, b)+ max(r, g, b)]
92. Given the language L = {ab, aa, baa}, whih of the following strings are in L*?
1) abaabaaabaa
A
2) aaaabaaaa
I 3) baaaaabaaaab
4) baaaaabaa
C a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
T c) 1, 2 and 4
E d) 1, 3 and 4
Page 14 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 93. Definition of a language L with alphabet {a} is given as following. L= { ank | k > 0, and n is
a positive integer constant} What is the minimum number of states needed in a DFA to
I recognize L?
a) k+1
C b) n+1
c) 2n+1
T
d) 2k+1
E
94. S → C C
C→cC|d
The grammar is _______________.
a) LL(1)
b) SLR(1) but not LL(1)
A c) LALR(1) but not SLR(1)
d) LR(1) but not LALR(1)
I
C 95. Consider the grammar
E→E+n|E×n|n
T For a sentence n + n × n, the handles in the right-sentential form of the reduction are
a) n, E + n and E + n × n
E b) n, E + n and E + n × n
c) n, n + n and n + n × n
d) n, E + n and E × n
96. A shift reduce parser carries out the actions specified within braces immediately after
A reducing with the corresponding rule of grammar S—>xxW ( PRINT ―1‖) S—-> y { print ‖
2 ‖ } S—->Sz { print ‖ 3 ‖ ) What is the translation of xxxxyzz using the syntax directed
I translation scheme described by the above rules ?
a) 23131
C b) 11233
c) 11231
T
d) 33211
E
97. Consider the production of the grammar S->AA A->aa A->bb.Describe the language
specified by the production grammar.
a) L = {aaaa,aabb,bbaa,bbbb}
b) L = {abab,abaa,aaab,baaa}
c) L = {aaab,baba,bbaa,bbbb}
A d) L = {aaaa,abab,bbaa,aaab}
I
98. Given array fruits = ["Banana", "Orange", "Apple", "Mango"], the function to insert
C ―Grape‖ as the first element write _________________.
a)fruits.unshift("Grape);
T b)fruits.add("Grape");
c) fruits.push("Grape");
E
Page 15 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A
99. In order to show the background colour of h1 in HTML, the code
I <h2 class="city">London</h2> is given. How and where does the class will be defined?
a) #city , under <style>
C b) .city, under <body> and <style>
c) #city , under <head>
T
d) .city, under <head> and <style>
E
100. Suppose computers A and B have IP addresses 10.105.1.113 and 10.105.1.91 respectively
and they both use the same netmask N. Which of the values of N given below should not be
used if A and B should belong to the same network?
a) 255.255.255.0
b) 255.255.255.128
A c) 255.255.255.192
d) 255.255.255.254
I
C 101. Consider the three commands: PROMPT, HEAD and RCPT. Which of the following
options indicate a correct association of these commands with protocols where these are
T used?
a) HTTP, SMTP, FTP
E b) FTP, HTTP, SMTP
c) HTTP, FTP, SMTP
d) SMTP, HTTP, FTP
102. Which of the following statements are true with reference to the way of describing XML
A data?
A.XML uses DTD to describe the data
I B.XML uses XSL to describe the data
C.XML uses a description node to describe the data Codes
C a) A only
b) B only
T
c) A and B
E d) Aand C
103. The definitions in an XML document are said to be __________ when the tagging system
and definitions in the DTD are all in compliance.
a) Well-informed
b) Reasonable
A c) Valid
I d) Logical
C
T
E
Page 16 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 104. A company needs to develop a strategy for software product development for which it has a
choice of two programming languages L1 and L2. The number of lines of code (LOC)
I developed using L2 is estimated to be twice the LOC developed with Ll. The product will
have to be maintained for five years. Various parameters for the company are given in the
C table below.
T
Parameter Language L1 Language L2
E Man years needed for development LOC/10000 LOC/10000
Development cost per man year Rs. 10,00,000 Rs. 7,50,000
Maintenance time 5 years 5 years
Cost of maintenance per year Rs. 1,00,000 Rs. 50,000
Total cost of the project includes cost of development and maintenance. What is the LOC
A for L1 for which the cost of the project using L1 is equal to the cost of the project using L2?
a) 4000
I
b) 5000
C c) 6000
d) 7000
T
105. A company needs to develop digital signal processing software for one of its newest
E inventions. The software is expected to have 40000 lines of code. The company needs to
determine the effort in person-months needed to develop this software using the basic
COCOMO model. The multiplicative factor for this model is given as 2.8 for the software
development on embedded systems, while the exponentiation factor is given as 1.20. What
is the estimated effort in person-months?
A a) 234.25
b) 932.50
I c) 287.80
d) 122.40
C
106. Consider the following C program segment.
T
while (first <= last)
E {
if (array [middle] < search)
first = middle +1;
else if (array [middle] == search)
found = True;
else last = middle – 1;
A middle = (first + last)/2;
I }
if (first < last) not Present = True;
C a) 3
b) 4
T c) 5
d) 6
E
Page 17 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2INF15
A 107. Consider a software program that is artificially seeded with 100 faults. While testing this
program, 159 faults are detected, out of which 75 faults are from those artificially seeded
I faults. Assuming that both real and seeded faults are of same nature and have same
distribution, the estimated number of undetected real faults is
C a) 84
b) 28
T
c) 56
E d) 175
108. A software project involves execution of 5 tasks T1, T2, T3, T4 and T5 of duration 10, 15,
18, 30 and 40 days, respectively. T2 and T4 can start only after T1 completes. T3 can start
after T2 completes. T5 can start only after both T3 and T4 complete. What is the slack time
of the task T3 in days?
A a) 0
b) 3
I
c) 18
C d) 30
T 109. Match and find best pairing for a Human Resource Management System (i)Policies on
giving bonus
E (ii)Absentee reduction
(iii)Skills inventory
(iv)Strategic information
(v)Tactical information
(vi)Operational Information
A a) (i) and (v)
b) (i) and (iv)
I c) (ii) and (iv)
d) (iii) and (v)
C
110. Match and find best pairing for a Production Management System (i)Performance appraisal
T
of machines
E (ii)Introducing new production
(iii)Preventive maintenance schedules
(iv) Strategic information to decide on replacement
(v)Tactical information technology
(vi) Operational information for machines
a) (i) and (vi)
A b) (ii) and (v)
I c) (i) and (v)
d) (iii) and (iv)
C
T
E
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A 111. Batch processing is preferred over on-line transaction processing when

i) Processing efficiency is important
I ii) the volume of data to be processed is large
iii) only periodic processing is needed
C iv) a large number of queries are to be processed
Which of the following are correct?
T
a) i),ii)
E b) i),iii)
c) ii),iii)
d) i),ii),iii)
112. ABC Corporation is a small technology company with a new and innovative product that
they wish to launch on to the market. It could go for a direct approach, launching onto the
A whole of the domestic market through traditional distribution channels, or it could launch
only on the Internet. A third option exists where the product is licensed to a larger company
I
through the payment of a license fee irrespective of the success of the product. How should
C the company launch the product? The company has done some initial market research and
the Managing Director believes the demand for the product can be classed into three
T categories: high, medium or low. Jack thinks that these categories will occur with
probabilities 0.2, 0.35 and 0.45 respectively and his thoughts on the likely profits (in 1000
E Rs) to be earned in each plan are
High Medium Low
Direct 100 55 -25
Internet 46 25 15
License 20 20 20
A Which option the company should adopt?
a) Direct
I b) Internet
c) Licensee
C d) Couldn‘t be told
T
113. If an action cannot be taken repeatedly, it is not right to take at all – This is called as
E ____________________.
a) Descartes' rule of change
b) Immanuel Kant‘s Categorical Imperative
c) Golden Rule
d) Utilitarian Principle
A 114. What is the consequence between a node and its predecessors while creating bayesian
I network?
a) Functionally dependent
C b) Dependant
c) Conditionally independent
T d) Both Conditionally dependant&Dependant
E
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A 115. In LISP, the function (minusp (-20 4 8 8 1) returns _____________.

a) T
I b) F
c) NIL
C d) -20
T
116. The area of AI that investigates methods of facilitating communication between people and
E computers is ________________.
a) natural language processing
b) symbolic processing
c) decision support
d) robotics
A 117. In LISP, the square root of X is referenced as?

a) sqrt(x)
I
b) (sqrt x)
C c) x/2
d) x/3
T
118. In LISP, the function assigns. the value of a to b is ____________.
E a) (setq a b)
b) (setq b a )
c) (b = a)
d) (set b = a)
A 119. Natural language processing is divided into two subfield _________ and __________.
a) Symbolic and numeric
I b) Algorithmic and heuristic
c) Understanding and generation
T
120. The field that investigates the mechanics of human intelligence is _______
E a) History
b) Cognitive science
c) Psychology
d) sociology
A
I
C
T
E
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UG2INF15
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Information Technology
Paper: 2
1. b 46. c 91. d
2. a 47. a 92. c
3. b 48. c 93. b
4. c 49. c 94. a
5. c 50. b 95. d
6. a 51. d 96. a
7. a 52. c 97. a
8. c 53. b 98. a
9. c 54. b 99. d
10. b 55. b 100. d
11. d 56. d 101. b
12. c 57. a 102. d
13. a 58. c 103. c
14. d 59. b 104. b
15. c 60. a 105. a
16. c 61. b 106. c
17. c 62. b 107. b
18. d 63. a 108. a
19. a 64. a 109. b
20. a 65. c 110. c
21. c 66. c 111. d
22. a 67. a 112. a
23. b 68. a 113. a
24. b 69. c 114. c
25. b 70. c 115. a
26. d 71. d 116. a
27. c 72. b 117. b
28. a 73. a 118. b
29. a 74. b 119. c
30. c 75. a 120. b
31. b 76. d
32. b 77. c
33. c 78. c
34. a 79. b
35. d 80. c
36. c 81. b
37. b 82. a
38. c 83. b
39. c 84. b
40. d 85. d
41. a 86. c
42. d 87. b
43. c 88. d
44. a 89. a
45. a 90. b
ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
A
I MARINE ENGINEERING
C
E
PAPER-I
A
I Instructions:
T
A
I v. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be
C
T
E
specified.

T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
I 1. Superheating of steam for steam engine results in

C a) more work
b) balanced engine
T c) increase in efficiency of Rankine cycle
d) less work
E
2. Condensation or excessive carry over of steam is dangerous to reciprocating engines
because
a) it reduces efficiency
b) it cools down parts thereby introducing thermal stresses.
c) it makes difficult to discharge the steam completely
A
d) Water being incompressible, excess of it may wreck the engine.
I
3. In a velocity compounded steam turbine, as steam moves along moving and guide
C blades
a) pressure is low and velocity gradually decreases
T b) pressure gradually increases and velocity is low
c) both pressure and velocity gradually decreases
E d) both pressure and velocity gradually increases.
4. Critical pressure for steam is

a) 185.85 kg/cm2
b) 212.55 kg/cm2
A c) 225.65 kg/cm2
d) 245.55 kg/cm2
I
5. Effect of blade friction in a steam turbine is to
C a) reheat the steam
b) increase the specific work output
T c) reduce exhaust pressure
E d) reduce work done
6. Metals are good heat conductors because

a) of free electrons present
b) their atoms are relatively far appart
c) their atoms collide frequently
d) all of the above
A 7. Heat is transferred by conduction, convection and radiation in
a) boiler furnace
I b) melting of ice
c) Condensation of steam in condenser
C
T
8. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding
E a) silicon
b) nickel and chromium
c) vanadium and cobalt
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9. Chrome steel is widely used for

A
a) Connecting rod
I b) Engine crankshaft
c) Cutting tools
C d) All of these
T 10. Alloy steel as compared to carbon steel is more
a) tough
E
b) strong
c) fatigue resistant
d) all of these
11. Percentage of carbon in carbon steel is
A a) 0.1 to 0.8 %
b) 0.35 to 0.45 %
I c) 1.8 to 4.2 %
d) 0.1 to 1.5 %
C
12. If a material sustains steady loads for long periods of time, the material will continue to
T
deform until they may tend to fracture under the same load. This phenomenon is called
E a) fatigue
b) creep
c) malleability
d) resilience
13. Gun metal is an alloy of

A a) 80 % Cu + 15 % Zn + 5 % Sn
b) 86 % Cu + 9 % Zn + 5 % Sn
I
c) 88 % Cu + 2 % Zn + 10 % Sn
C d) 70 % Cu + 10 % Zn + 20 % Sn
T 14. In differential mode of operational Amplifier,

a) opposite polarity signals are applied to the inputs
E b) gain is one
c) outputs are of different amplitudes and only one supply voltage is used
d) both a)& b)
15. Why differential amplifiers are preferred for instrumentation and industrial
applications?
a) input resistance is low
A b) produces amplified output
c) amplify individual input voltage
I d) reject common mode voltage
C
16. If a 3-input NOR Gate has eight input possibilities, how many of those possibilities
T will result in a HIGH output.
a) 1
E b) 2
c) 7
d) 5
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17. How many stable state/states are present in flipflop.

A
a) 2
I b) 3
c) 1
C d) 4
T 18. ADC conversion involves
E a) simulation
b) quantization
c) summation
d) Subtraction
19. An SCR is also sometimes called as

A a) TRIAC
b) DIAC
I
c) UJT
C d) Thyristor
T 20. We can control a.c power in a load by connecting

a) two SCRs in series
E b) two SCRs in parallel
c) two SCRs in parallel opposition
d) none of these
21. The transmitter –receiver combination in the satellite is known as

A a) relay
b) repeater
I c) transponder
d) Duplexer
C
22. Which of the following can be the output of PLC
T
a) solenoids
E b) motors
c) lamps
d) all of the above
23. The error signal of an ON-OFF controller is found to be greater than zero, then its
output would be
a) 100 %
b) 50 %
A c) 10 %
I d) None of these
C 24. In P-I controller what does an integral of a function compute?

a) Density of curve
T b) Area under the curve
c) Volume of curve
E
d) Circumference of curve
25. In P-D controller, the derivative action plays a significant role in increasing ________
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
of response.
A
a) time
I b) distance
c) volume
C d) speed
T 26. The initial response when the output is not equal to the input is called
E a) Error response
b) Dynamic response
c) Transient response
d) Either a) or b)
27. In a closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall gain of
A the system will
a) increase
I
b) decrease
C c) unaffected
d) None of these
T
28. The monitoring system that tests the plant for reading of temperatures, pressures etc. ,
E is called
a) Scanner unit
b) Comparing unit
c) Loop back
d) Demand display unit
A 29. In a control system another name for command signal is called
I a) Control point
b) Mixing point
C c) Set point
d) Variable point
T
30. RTD stands for
E a) Resistance temperature drop
b) Return time delay
c) Resistance temperature detector
d) a) or b)
31. The metals used as a linear resistance in a Wheatstone bridge, for temperature
indication are
A a) Nickel and Platinum
b) Vanadium and stainless steel
I c) Bronze and brass
d) Silver and brass
C
32. A tender ship is one which is
T a) having less stability
b) having comparatively longer time period of roll
E
c) having less strength
d) being constructed
33. A weight is added to a ship which resulted in increase in draft without any change in
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
trim or list of the vessel. The loading is done at

A
a) centre of buoyancy
I b) centre of floatation
c) centre of gravity
C d) transverse metacentre.
T 34. The range of stability means
E a) the maximum cargo that can be loaded on the vessel
b) the KB of the vessel is greater than KG
c) the range over which the ship has positive righting lever
d) the extra volume of water displaced by the vessel when moving from sea water to
fresh water.
A 35. If the permeability of the bilged compartment is less,

a) there will be more change in end drafts after bilging.
I
b) there will be no change in end drafts after bilging.
C c) there will be less change in end drafts after bilging.
d) ship will become unstable.
T
36. If Vs is the speed of the ship, Va is the speed of advance and Vt is the theoretical speed,
E identify the correct relationships
a) real slip = Vt - Va
b) wake speed = Vs - Va
c) apparent slip = Vt - Vs
d) all of the above are correct
A
37. Admiralty constant is
I a) a coefficient used in calculation of stability of a vessel
b) a coefficient used in preliminary estimation of power required for a vessel.
C c) a coefficient used in calculation of strength of a vessel
d) a coefficient used in cargo calculation of a vessel
T
E 38. Propeller efficiency is the ratio of
a) thrust power to delivered power
b) effective power to thrust power
c) effective power to shaft power
d) thrust power to effective power
39. Yawing is
a) the rotational movement of a vessel with reference to a vertical axis
A b) the rotational movement of a vessel with reference to a longitudinal axis
I c) the rotational movement of a vessel with reference to a transverse axis
C
40. A balanced rudder has
T a) 0 to 20 % area forward of its axis of rotation
b) 20 to 40 % area forward of its axis of rotation
E
c) 40 to 60 % area forward of its axis of rotation
d) full balance condition at every rudder angle
41. By altering the RPM of the engine, the ship vibration could be reduced because
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
a) It improves balancing of engine

A
b) It helps to avoid resonance
I c) It increases the efficiency of engine
d) It prevents damage to engine
C
42. A one ton refrigeration unit will remove
T a) one ton heat from the refrigerated space
b) make one ton of ice in 24 hrs.
E c) the heat required to melt one ton of ice in 24 hours
d) the heat to reduce temperature by 1 oC in 1 minute.
43. A low pressure control switch in a refrigeration plant is

a) a safety device
A b) to actuates cooling water supply
c) to improve the performance of the compressor
I d) to reduce the lubricating oil flow to the compressor
C 44. The thickness of head gasket is important because it may cause
T a) re-expansion
b) decreased efficiency due to increased clearance
E c) the piston to strike the head
d) all of the above
45. The purpose of evaporator is to

a) transmit latent heat of fusion
b) transmit latent heat of evaporation
A c) absorb latent heat of fusion
d) absorb latent heat of evaporation
I
46. Sub cooling of the liquid refrigerant will
C a) increase the refrigeration effect
T b) decrease the refrigeration effect
c) result in super heating of the refrigerant gas.
E d) make no change to the refrigeration effect
47. When air is adiabatically saturated, the temperature attained is known as

a) critical temperature
b) dew point temperature
c) wet bulb temperature
d) dry bulb temperature
A 48. Air conditioning is concerned with maintaining
I a) temperature
b) humidity
C c) cleanliness
d) All of the above
T
E
49. One of the reason for an evaporator not cooling may be
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
a) frozen coil
A
b) faulty thermostat
I c) insufficient lubricant in refrigerant
d) leaking refrigerator
C
50. A leak in refrigeration system with Freon is detected by
T a) sulphur stick which on detection will give thick white smoke
E b) using reagents
c) Halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame
d) Smelling
51. The tube diameter of natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation
boilers are
A a) larger
b) same size
I
c) smaller
T 52. The thermal efficiency of a good steam generator may be

a) 90 %
E b) 75%
c) 50 %
d) 25 %
53. The single stage turbine is not popular because

a) it cannot develop much power
A b) it is difficult expand high pressure steam in one stage
I c) of poor heat utilisation
d) of very high rotational speed
C
54. Super heater in a boiler plant is provided
T a) before the generating section or after the economiser
b) after the generating section but before the economiser
E c) after the generating section and economiser
d) wherever required.
55. Steam cylinders of reciprocating steam engines have live steam passing through jackets
to
a) heat the cylinder steam to raise its temperature
b) reduce condensation of steam in the cylinder
A c) keep the cylinder steam at constant temperature
d) serve as by pass of steam not required in cylinder
I
56. Mass of steam passes through the turbine nozzle in unit time depends upon
C a) velocity of steam at throat, area of throat, and specific gravity of steam at throat.
b) size of turbine and number of stages
T
c) velocity of steam at throat, area of throat, and specific volume of steam at throat.
E d) temperature of steam
57. When a steam turbine plant is used for propulsion purpose, approximate heat energy
that is converted to propulsion power is
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
a) 15 %
A
b) 30 %
I c) 60 %
d) 80 %
C
58. The function of gravity tank provided in the turbine lubricating oil system is to
T a) ensure no bearing run out of lubrication when the turbine is running normally
E b) increase the bearing lubricating oil pressure.
c) ensure no bearing run out of lubrication oil in the event of a power failure
d) ensure the temperature of lubricating oil is always controlled.
59. The effect of dirty tube in a condenser is

a) increased steam flow
A b) increase in turbine speed and reduced power output
c) loss of vaccum and drop in condensate temperature
I
d) loss of vaccum and rise in condensate temperature
C
60. The stage efficiency in a steam turbine is
T a) ᶯ = ᶯ x ᶯ
stage blade nozzle
E b) ᶯstage = ᶯblade +ᶯnozzle
c) ᶯstage = ᶯblade -ᶯnozzle
d) ᶯstage = ᶯblade / ᶯnozzle
61. A non – combustible material is a material,
A a) which will never catch fire irrespective of the temperature.
b) which neither burns nor gives off flammable vapours in sufficient quantity for
I
self-ignition when heated to approximately 750oC .
C c) which never burns but gives off flammable vapours in sufficient quantity for self-
ignition when heated to approximately 750oC .
T d) which will catch fire at about 750 oC, but can be easily extinguished.
E
62. All electrical ventilation system shall be provided with
a) remote controls in engine room
b) remote control means for stopping the motors in case of fire or emergency
c) a connection to the emergency lighting system
d) all of the above
63. Method employed in extinguishing fire depends on

A a) personal choice
I b) convenience and economy of operation
c) nature of materials involved and size and intensity of fire
T
E
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64. Identify the incorrect statement

A
a) CO2 extinguishers can damage to electronic equipments because of low
I temperature
b) Air is 1.5 times denser than CO2
C c) CO2 may cause suffocation at about 10 % concentration
d) CO2 can be easily liquefied and bottled where it is contained under a pressure of
T approximately 50 bar.
E
65. Water as an extinguishing medium is very effective because
a) The amount of heat absorbed for any given increase in temperature is high
b) The amount of heat required to vaporize unit weight of extinguishing medium is
high
c) Steam produced at the seat of fire has smothering effect
I
66. The emergency fire pump of a ship must be located
C a) above the load water line.
b) inside the main engine room.
T c) outside engine room and should not have any direct access to the engine room.
d) outside engine room but shall be provided with direct access to the engine room.
E
67. The fire main line should be fitted with adequate number of drain arrangement
a) for keeping the line dry so as to prevent corrosion
b) for connecting the shore supply lines and hoses for deck washing
c) to avoid freezing in cold climate conditions
I 68. A dry powder extinguishers when operated by releasing the CO2 by piercing
mechanism
C a) the powder is pushed out as a spray followed by CO2 gas.
T b) the powder comes out in the form of fog.
c) The CO2 reacts with powder and produces an extinguishing agent.
E d) The CO2 gas is released for firefighting and the powder prevents the re-ignition.
69. Re-entry in to the engine room after putting off a major fire shall be
a) done immediately and entry shall be made only through skylight.
b) done after cooling down and entry shall be made through bottom level.
c) done after restarting the auxiliary engine followed with washing of the engine
room.
A d) done by junior officers with appropriate PPE.
I 70. Advantages of using water mist fire extinguishing system is

a) it uses fresh water
C b) consumes less amount of water and hence stability not affected
c) the time required to extinguishing the fire is substantially less
T d) all of the above
E
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A
I
C 71. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to
a) prevent excess of 10 – 12% moisture content in last stages of turbine
T b) utilize heat of flue gas
c) improve condenser performance
E
d) increase plant efficiency
72. Identify the correct statement related to compound steam turbine.

a) temperature range is low and thus more condensation will occur.
b) high pressure steam can be used
A c) ratio of expansion is less, hence stroke length will be less
d) power output is more
I
C 73. A rectangular slab has a surface area of 1 m2 and is 4 cm thick. It transmits 10 cal /
sec. cm2 due to a temperature difference between its end faces. If the coefficient of
T thermal conductivity is 0.8 cal / sec oC cm and the cooler end is at room
temperature of 20 oC, what is the temperature of the other face ?
E a) 30 oC
b) 50 oC
c) 60 oC
d) 70 oC
74. Back rake angle of a single point tool is the angle

A
a) by which the face of the tool is not inclined sideways
I b) by which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
c) between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn
C from the point perpendicular to the base
d) between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at
T right angles to the centre line of the point of the tool.
E
75. In inert gas welding, which of the following is used for welding Stainless steel,
Copper or Cast iron.
a) noncombustible electrode in combination with Helium and d.c. current
b) combustible electrode and Argon in combination with a.c. current
c) straight polarity d.c. current
d) carbon dioxide, because of its excellent penetration and high speed.
A 76. In common mode differential amplifier, the outputs Vout1& Vout2 are related as
I a) Vout2 is in out of phase with Vout1 with same amplitude
b) Vout2& Vout1 have same amplitude but phase difference of90o
C c) Vout 1& Vout2 have same amplitude and are in phase with each other and their
respective inputs
T d) Vout1& Vout2 have same amplitude & are in phase with each other but out of
phase with their respective inputs
E
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77. In the given circuit, assume that op amp is ideal & transistor has a β of 20.
A
I
C
T
E
The current following through the load ZL is

a) 397 µA
A b) 567 µA
I c) 300 µA
d) 213 µA
C
78. The time delay (in µs) introduced by the program given below by a 8-bit 8085
T microprocessor whose processor is driven by a 5 MHz clock is
MVI B, 64H [Takes 7 clock periods]
E Loop: DCR B [Takes 4 clock periods]
JNZ LOOP
[Takes 7 clock periods when jump not performed & takes 10 clock periods when
jump is performed]
A a) 280.8 µs
b) 256.7 µs
I c) 381.2 µs
d) 275.7 µs
C
T 79. The Boolean Function F (X, Y) realised by the given circuit is [All are NAND
Gates]
E
A
a) 𝑋 Y + X 𝑌
I b) 𝑋 + 𝑌
c) X + Y
C d) 𝑋 .𝑌
T
80. A proportional band setting of 175% is equivalent to a gain setting of ________.
E a) 175
b) 0.571
c) 0.756
d) 1.75
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
A
81. The open loop response of a process is shown in the following graph. What sort of
I behaviour is indicated by this behaviour?
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
a) Proportional
b) Integrating
A c) Linear
d) Differential
I
82. Reset control action is often expressed in units of ___________.
C
a) Seconds per minute
T
b) Minutes
E c) Time constant ratio
d) Repeats per minute
83. What is the value of steady state error in closed loop control systems?
a) unity
b) zero
c) infinity
d) Unpredictable
A
I 84. Which of the following system has a tendency to oscillate?
a) Systems will not oscillate
C b) Open loop system
c) Closed loop system
T d) Both a & b
E
85. If Cb is block coefficient, Cm is midships coefficient and Cp is prismatic coefficient,
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
identify the correct relationship

A
a) Cp = Cm x Cb
I b) Cb = Cm x Cp
c) Cp = Cm / Cb
C d) Cb = Cm / Cp
T 86. A box shaped vessel 100 m long, 25m beam, and 10 m deep is floating upright in
E fresh water with a draft of 5.25 m. Find the amount of cargo which should be
discharged from the vessel for bringing the draft to 5.0 m
a) 3.75 tonnes
b) 6.25 tonnes
c) 9.50 tonnes
d) 16.50 tonnes
A
87. A ship of 4500 tonnes displacement has KM = 9 m and KG = 8.0 m. A load of 500
I
tonnes of cargo is added to the vessel’s centerline at a Kg’ = 6.0 m. Find GM of the
C vessel after loading.
a) 1.0 m
T b) 1.2 m
c) 2.4 m
E d) 2.8 m
88. A ship has a wetted surface area of 5000 m2 and travels at a speed of 10 knots.
Calculate the frictional resistance. Take f = 0.5 and n = 2.0
a) 250 KN
A b) 375 KN
c) 500 KN
I d) 750 KN
C 89. A ship of 6150 tonnes displacement is floating in salt water with density 1025
kg/m3. The ship has to proceed to a berth where the density of water is 1000 kg/m3.
T
How much cargo should be discharged from the vessel if she has to remain at the
E salt water draft?
a) 150 tonnes
b) 153.75 tonnes
c) 115 tonnes
d) 97.5 tonnes
90. Use of economizer with screw compressors provides

a) increase of refrigeration capacity by superheating the refrigerant from the
A condenser.
I b) increase of refrigeration capacity by superheating the refrigerant from the
evaporator.
C c) increase of refrigeration capacity by subcooling the refrigerant from the
evaporator.
T d) increase of refrigeration capacity by subcooling the refrigerant from the
condenser.
E
91. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature,
keeping the evaporator temperature constant will
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ROLL NO.: UG1MAE30
a) increase
A
b) decrease
I c) may increase or decrease depending on type of refrigerant used
d) remain unaffected
C
T 92. Relative humidity is the
a) mass in kg of water vapour contained in the air vapour mixture per kg of dry
E air.
b) mass in kg of water vapour contained in m3 of air vapour mixture at its total
pressure.
c) ratio of kg moisture actually contained per kg of dry air at dry bulb temperature
d) ratio of the mass of water vapour in air in a given volume at a given
A temperature to the mass of water vapour contained in the same volume at same
temperature when air is saturated.
I
93. In pressure compounded steam turbine
C a) the pressure drop is split into series of smaller pressure drops across successive
stages
T
b) there is pressure drop in moving blades and also in fixed blades in all
E successive stages
c) There is pressure drop only across moving blades in all successive stages
d) There is distinct high pressure series of stages and low pressure series of stages
94. Reheat factor for multi stage steam turbine is

a) cumulative enthalpy drop
A isentropic enthalpy drop
I
b) enthalpy rise due to to reheating
C isentropic enthalpy drop
T c) actual enthalpy drop
E isentropic enthalpy drop
d) Same as internal energy
95. Soot blowers in a boiler is used for

a) to clean the water surfaces of boiler tubes from scales between periodic boiler
cleaning
b) to clean the gas surfaces of boiler tubes between periodic boiler cleaning
A c) to provide sufficient air for efficient combustion of fuel in the boiler
C
T
E
96. The purpose of a blow down cock while a steam generator is steaming is
a) to drain out water to keep level in drum constant
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b) to remove the sludge or sediments at the bottom most point in water space in
A
steam generator
I c) to automatically blow off steam to waste to keep the boiler pressure under
working range
C d) To blow down for shutting down the boiler
T 97. Class “A – 60” division of bulkheads and decks means
E a) that they shall be insulated with approved non – combustible materials such
that the average temperature of the unexposed side will not rise more than
139oC above the original temperature, but the temperature, at any one point,
including joints may rise more than 180oC above the original temperature
within 60 minutes.
b) that they shall be insulated with approved non – combustible materials such
A that the average temperature of the unexposed side will not rise more than
139oC above the original temperature, nor will the temperature, at any one
I
point, including any joint, rise more than 180oC above the original temperature
C within 60 minutes.
c) that the material used is 60 times more efficient in preventing fire spreading in
T the compartment
d) that the bulkhead or deck refers to a Type – A vessel, which are built with
E adequate fire control capability and the temperature of the exposed surface will
be approximately 60oC.
98. The number of fire pumps provided on ships is governed by

a) the discretion of ship owner or ship builder.
A b) type of ship, its bilge pumping capacity and whether a fire in any one
compartment will put all the pumps out of commission.
I c) the type of cargo and trade pattern of the vessel.
d) all of the above
C
99. Most common type of fire that may happen in the engine room of a vessel if proper
T
housekeeping practices are followed is
E a) boiler uptake fire
b) main switch board fire
c) spontaneous fire on garbage drums
d) boiler back fire
100. In case of a major engine room fire, the compartment is sealed after
a) the fire is put off
b) only after getting the instruction from the flag state
A c) releasing the CO2 total flooding system
I d) mustering and head count check.
C
T
E
PART –C
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A
I 101. IfAbeasquarematrixoforder3and|A|=5,thenthevalueof2|A|and|2A|are
(a) 10and40
C (b) 10 and15
(c) 15 and40
T (d) 10 and10
E
(b) Identitymatrix
(c) Singularmatrix
A
I
(a) Nullmatrix
T (d) None ofthese.
E
(a) u
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 0
A
I
[−3, 1] are
C (a) −7 and −8
(b) 81 and −8
T (c) 0 and −2
E (d) 73 and −8
2
A
I 107. Family of curves y = m2x + m6 is represented by the differential equation ofdegree
(a) 3
C
(b) 6
T (c) 2
E
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𝐵
A (a) 𝑃 ≥0
𝐴
𝐵
I (b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
C (c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
E 109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then the

13
(a) 30
17
(b) 30
A 19
(c)
30
I
C
1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
T 1+𝑖 1−𝑖
(a) Hermitianmatrix
E (b) Unitorymatrix

(a) λ = 2 and µ =4
A
(b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
I (c) λ ≠ 2 and µ can takeany value.
C
T
E (a) 62
(b) 44
(c) 8


A (a) grad | A |  0

(b) curl A  0
I 
(c) div A  0
C
T
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
E 𝜕𝑥
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
(b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
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A (c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
I
1 1 𝑛−1
C 115. 0
T (a) ⎾(n − 1)
E (b) ⎾(n)
n−1
(c) ⎾ 2
n+1
(d) ⎾ 2
A 116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is

(a) Hyperbolic
I (b) Elliptic
C (c) Parabolic
T
𝑥+𝑦
E 𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
A (c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
I 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
C
T 118. Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the
2𝑥
E 1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
(a) 0
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
A
I (a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
C
(c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
(a) m2
(b) 𝑚
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A (c) 𝑚
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 20 of 20
UG1MAE30
ANSWER KEY
Subject:MarineEngineering
Paper:1

1. c 41 b 81. b
2. d 42 c 82. d
3. a 43 a 83. b
4. c 44 d 84. c
5. d 45 d 85. b
6. c 46 a 86. b
7. a 47 c 87. b
8. b 48 d 88. a
9. b 49 a 89. a
10. d 50 c 90. d
11. d 51 a 91. a
12. b 52 a 92. d
13. c 53 d 93. a
14. a 54 b 94. a
15. d 55 b 95. a
16. a 56 c 96. b
17. a 57 b 97. b
18. b 58 c 98. b
19. d 59 d 99. c
20. c 60 a 100. d
21. c 61 b 101. a
22. d 62 b 102. c
23. a 63 c 103. a
24. b 64 b 104. d
25. d 65 d 105. d
26. c 66 c 106. d
27. b 67 c 107. a
28. a 68 b 108. a
29. c 69 b 109. a
30. c 70 d 110. b
31. a 71 a 111. c
32. b 72 c 112. d
33. b 73 d 113. b
34. c 74 b 114. a
35. c 75 b 115. b
36. d 76 d 116. b
37. b 77 c 117. d
38. a 78 a 118. a
39. a 79 a 119. d
40. b 80 b 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2MAE30
A
MARINE ENGINEERING
I
C
E
PAPER-II
A Instructions:
I
C questions.
E

C specified.
E
A
I
C
T
E
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I
1. Centre of pressure of a inclined plane is
C a) At the centroid
b) Above the centroid
T c) Below the centroid
d) At metacenter
E
2. Pressure drag results from
a) Skin friction
b) Deformation drag
c) Development of stagnation point
d) Occurrence of a wake
A
3. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on
I a) Impeller diameter
b) Speed of rotation
C
c) Both (a) and (b)
E 4. A double acting reciprocating pump compared to single acting pump will have nearly
a) Double head
b) Double weight
c) Double flow
d) Four-time power consumption
5. The rate of change of shear force at any section is equal to

A a) Loading at that section
b) Change of deflection at that section
I c) Change of bending moment at that section
T 6. In case of a cantilever beam, irrespective of the type of loading, the maximum shear force
and maximum bending moment occurs at
E a) Fixed end
b) Free end
c) At the middle of the beam
d) At the centroid of the beam
7. In a continuous curve of bending moment, the point of zero bending moment , where it
changes sign is called
A a) The point of inflexion
I b) Point of contra fexure
c) Point of virtual hinge
T
E
8. “If unit loads rest upon a beam at the two points R & S, the deflection at R due to the unit
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A load at S equals the deflection at S due to unit load at R”.

Who enunciated this theorem ?
I a) Castigliano
b) Maxwell
C c) Mohr
d) Rankine
T
E 9. Hoop stress in a thin cylinder of diameter d, and thickness t, subjected to pressure p will be
a) 𝑝𝑑
4𝑡
b) 𝑝𝑑
𝑡
A c) 𝑝𝑑
2𝑡
I d)
C 2𝑝𝑑
𝑡
T
10. 100 KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is running at 250 rpm and B
E
at 300 rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter
a) A
b) B
c) Both will have same diameter
d) Data insufficient
11. The shaft of a motor starts from rest and attains full speed of 1800 rpm in 10 seconds. The
A
shaft has an angular acceleration of
I a) 3 π rad / sec2
b) 6 π rad / sec2
C c) 2 π rad / sec2
d) 1 π rad / sec2
T
E 12. A flywheel 200 cm in diameter is rotating at 100 rev /min. A point on the rim of the
flywheel will not have
a) Angular velocity
b) Centripetal acceleration
c) Tangential acceleration
d) All of above
A 13. The following is the inversion of slider crank chain mechanism

a) Whitworth return mechanism
I b) Oscillating cylinder engine
c) Hand pump
T
14. In hydro dynamic bearings
E a) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
b) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
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A c) Do not require external supply of lubricant

d) Grease is used for lubrication
I
15. The function of a washer is to
C a) Provide cushioning effect
b) Provide bearing area
T c) Absorb shock and vibration
E d) Act as locking device
16. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type of pair

a) Lower pair
b) Higher pair
c) Bearing pair
d) Cylindrical pair
A
17. If a spring is cut down in to two springs, the stiffness of the cut springs will be
I
a) half
C b) same
c) one fourth
T d) doubled
E 18. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a
a) Hollow shaft
b) Solid shaft
c) Continuous shaft
d) Protection device
19. In a damped vibration system, the damping force is proportional to

A a) displacement
b) velocity
I
c) acceleration
C d) applied force
T 20. Which of the following effects is more dangerous for a ship

a) rolling
E b) waving
c) pitching
d) steering
21. Moulded draft of a vessel is the

a) Height measured from the base line to the stop of the aft mast of the vessel.
A b) Height measured from the summer load line at the mid ship section to main deck
level.
I c) Height measured from the base line to the summer load line at the mid ship section.
d) Height measured from the summer load line to uppermost continuous deck.
C
22. Tumblehome means
T a) Home town where the ship is registered
E b) The inward curvature of the side shell above the load line.
c) The outward curvature of the side shell above the load line.
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A d) The inside distance between the side shells.
I 23. Corrugated bulkheads when provided helps in

a) Giving better appearance for the ship.
C b) Prevents shock loading due to waves but considerably increases the resistance.
c) Provides sufficient rigidity than the plain bulkhead and hence conventional stiffeners
T may be dispensed with.
E d) Avoiding the mixing of cargo.
24. The bulbous bow when fitted to the vessel improves

a) The performance of the vessel by reducing the resistance under certain condition.
b) The cargo storage capacity of the vessel
c) Appearance of the vessel
d) Safe operation of the vessel eventhough initially expensive
A
25. Stern tube is
I
a) A tube fitted in engine room for taking suction of sea water from the sea chest.
C b) Is a tube fitted in aft region of the vessel for measurement of sounding of the vessel.
c) A tube fitted between the aft bulkhead of Engine room and stern post of the vessel
T which houses the bearing for the propeller shaft.
d) A passage from forward bulkhead of engine room to collision bulkhead through
E which the cables and pipelines are passing through.
26. Pintle bearings are those bearings

a) Which supports the intermediate shaft
b) Which are used for taking care of the thrust force created by the propeller shaft
c) Which are used for carrying the rudder
d) Which are used for smooth turning of rudder
A
27. Plimsoll marking is a
I
a) Marking provided in every cargo compartment of a ship for showing the permissible
C limit of cargo that can be loaded under various sea conditions.
b) Marking provided in forward perpendicular and aft perpendicular of a ship for
T showing limit of submersion permissible when loaded under various sea conditions.
c) Marking provided in port and starboard sides of a ship at the mid ship position for
E showing limit of submersion permissible when loaded under various sea conditions.
28. With reference to dry-docking of a vessel “ critical period” refers to

a) Initial period of time when all the planned activities of the dry-dock jobs are to
commence.
A b) The time interval between stern post landing on the blocks and the ship sits on the
blocks completely.
I c) Last few hours before flooding of the dock floor after completion of all works as
planned.
C d) Is the delay in signing the contract between the ship owner and the shipyard?
T 29. Integrity of tanks and structures of a ship are tested by
E a) Hose test
b) Air or vacuum test
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A c) Static water pressure test

d) All of the above
I 30. Recognised Organizations (R.O), are
a) Shipping companies authorised to operate different type of vessels in accordance to
C the ISM.
b) Ship repair facilities recommended for carrying out the Guarantee repairs on behalf
T of the ship builder.
E c) Shipping companies authorised by the Flag administration to recruit and employ the
seafarers from a country to operate their vessels.
d) Organisations identified and approved by the Flag State Administration in
accordance with SOLAS and other international conventions to delegate the
inspection and Survey of ships.
31. Trammel gauge is a measuring device used for

A a) Measurement of Rudder drop
b) Wear down of Rudder stock
I
c) Wear down of tail shaft bearing
C d) Calibration of anchor chains
T 32. IACS stand for

a) Indian Authorised Shipping Companies
E b) International Association of Classification Society
c) International Assessment for Chartered Ships
d) Industrial Arrangement for Construction of Ships
33. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of

a) virtual relay contacts & coils
b) logic gate symbols with connecting lines
A c) text based code
d) function blocks with connecting lines
I
C 34. The armature torque of a DC shunt motor is proportional to
a) field flux only
T b) armature current only
c) field flux & armature current
E d) field current
35. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission & distribution of electrical
power
a) copper
b) aluminium
A c) steel
d) Tungsten
I
36. The starting torque of a squirrel cage induction motor is
C a) full load torque
b) slightly more than full load torque
T c) low
E d) Negligible
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A
I 37. The direction of rotation of a synchronous motor can be reversed by reversing
a) current ton the field winding
C b) supply phase sequence
c) polarity of rotor poles
E
38. The power factor of an alternator depends on
a) load
b) speed of rotor
c) core losses
d) armature losses
A 39. Ward-Leonard control is basically a type of control method

a) field control
I
b) armature resistance control
C c) armature voltage control
d) field diverter control
T
40. Among the following which cannot be started on no load
E a) dc shunt motor
b) dc compound motor
c) dc series motor
41. When is the mechanical power developed by DC series motor is maximum

a) back emf is equal to half the applied voltage
A b) back emf is equal to applied voltage
c) back emf is equal to zero
I
C
42. Electrical current flowing through a single insulated conductor, without interrupting the
T circuit can be measured by using
a) megger
E b) Portable ammeter
c) Clampmeter
d) Multimeter
43. Starting large motors with long run up periods demands very high current surge from the
supply generator, which will result in severe voltage dip and affects every load on the
A system. This surge may be limited by providing
a) Star delta starters
I b) Auto transformer starting
c) Direct online starters
T 44. What is the synchronous speed of a 6 pole motor supplied with 60 Hz?
E a) 1440 rpm
b) 1200 rpm
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A c) 60 rpm
d) 960 rpm
I
45. Long stroke in combination with slow speed of revolutions is advantageous for ships fitted
C with massive propeller because
a) A low grade fuel with high viscosity and high contradson carbon value can be
T efficiently burned
E b) Of the light weight of the engine and hence cheaper
c) Vibration and thermal stresses will be lesser
d) It requires smaller floor space
46. MCR of an engine means

a) The maximum continuous output at which the engine can run safely and
continuously.
A b) The maximum continuous revolution at which the engine can run safely and
continuously.
I
c) The maximum continuous revolution at which the engine can run safely for short
C period.
d) The maximum continuous overload output at which the engine can run safely for
T short period.
E 47. When the diesel engine is just started and runs at slow speed the journal bearings of the
engine are working under
a) Dry condition
b) Hydro dynamic lubricated
c) Boundary layer lubrication
A 48. Plani meter is an instrument used for
a) Measuring the stroke length of an engine from the indicator diagram
I b) Measuring the area of the indicator diagram
C c) Measuring the compression pressure and peak pressure from the indicator diagram
d) Measuring the speed of rotation from the indicator diagram
T
49. In a reversible diesel engine direction of rotation of the engine when started, is controlled
E by
a) The fuel pump
b) The turning gear
c) The starting air valve
d) The pilot air distributor
50. The pulsating pressure experienced in the nozzles and blades of the turbo charger can be
A avoided by using
a) Pulse charging system
I b) High pressure turbo charging system
c) Constant pressure charging system
C d) Natural aspirated engines
T 51. For engines using Heavy fuel oil, the fuel oil must be heated to pre decided temperature to
E a) Reduce the specific gravity
b) To increase volume
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A c) To reduce viscosity
d) To increase thermal efficiency
I
52. A diesel engine piston crown may be damaged by
C a) Direct oxidation at high temperature at the skin owing to flame impingement
b) Catalytic oxidation promoted by fuel ash in corrosive environment
T c) Wet corrosion by sulphuric and sulphurous acids during low temperature operation
53. The alignment deviation of the crankshaft is assessed and recorded by

a) Crank case inspection
b) Main bearing clearance
c) Crankshaft deflection reading
d) Both (b) & (c)
A
54. Popularly used secondary NOx reduction technique is
I
a) Low power operation
C b) De rating of engine
c) Direct water injection
T d) Selective Catalytic Reduction
E 55. Immediate measures to be taken when high oil mist density identified in a large diesel
engine while operation is
a) Reduce speed and then slowly stop, continue cooling and lubrication, open skylight,
inspect.
b) Immediately stop engine, open crankcase and inspect for fault
c) Reduce lubricating oil flow, increase speed, and stop at a safer location.
d) As per verbal order from Master
A
56. Primary components of an electronic governor are
I
a) Power piston, position sensor, electric actuator
C b) Electronic speed control, magnetic pickup, electric actuator
c) Power piston, magnetic pickup, hydraulic actuator
T d) Electronic speed control, position sensor, electro- hydraulic actuator
E 57. When comparing a Plate type heat exchanger to a shell & tube heat exchanger, identify the
TRUE statement.
a) Plate type exchangers have higher efficiency, but require less space.
Shell & tube exchangers can be plugged if leakage of tubes is detected.
b) Plate type exchangers have lower efficiency, but require less space.
Shell & tube exchangers are compact, but it is expensive.
A c) Plate type exchangers are cheaper as it is smaller in size, but require larger floor
space.
I Shell & tube exchangers are bulky, but can be easily maintained.
d) Both types of exchangers are alike. There is no need for comparison between them.
C
58. In a ship‟s steering system using Hele-shaw pumps, direction control of Rudder is
T achieved by
E a) Gearbox and flexible coupling
b) Reversible motor and a special starter controller
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A c) Solenoid operated direction control valves

d) Stroke control lever and hunting gear unit
I 59. Biological sewage treatment plant onboard must be put in operation
a) Always.
C b) Before the intended survey and other inspections and while passing through special
areas.
T c) Whenever the ship is transiting outside the special areas mentioned in MARPOL
E d) While arriving port and as long as it stays within the port limit.
60. While running the high pressure air compressors, the drain valves must be operated
regularly, because
a) If the moisture is allowed to pass through, it will create lubrication problems in
subsequent stages.
b) May lead to a staring airline explosion as it attracts emulsified oil and dust.
A c) May lead to corrosion in piping and reservoir and also may cause water hammer.
d) All of the above
I
61. Thrust bearing of a ship is fitted
C a) Inside the stern tube
b) Between stern tube and engine
T
c) Free end of the engine crankshaft
E d) Anyone of the above
62. The wear down of stern tube bearing is assessed by

a) Feeler gauge
b) Pocker gauge
c) Pressure gauge
d) Bridge gauge
A 63. If vacuum inside the evaporator type fresh water generator drop
a) The shell temperate will decrease
I
b) The shell temperature will increase
C c) The carryover of saline particles will increase
d) The production rate of fresh water will increase
T
64. An expansion tank is required in a jacket cooling water system of an engine, for
E a) Cooling the water and supply water as required
b) Allowing provision for expansion and chemical dosing of coolant
c) For ensuring a positive head of water to the cooling water pump
d) Both b)&c)
65. Emergency bilge suction valve provided in the engine room is connected to
a) Engine room bilge system
A b) Cargo bilge piping system
I c) S.W. hydophore system
d) The highest capacity pump in the engine room
C
66. What is meant by S.W.L ?
T a) Safe working limit
b) Safe working length
E
c) Safe working load
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A d) Sea water level
I 67. Oil mist detector detects

a) Absence of water mist in engine
C b) Any oil presence in engine crankcase
c) Density of oil mist when it reaches about 2 to 5 % of inflatable limit
T d) Mass of oil mist inside engine crankcase just before the explosion
E
68. The jerk type fuel pump of a diesel engine is operated by
a) Crank shaft
b) Cam shaft
c) Rocker arm
d) Chain or gear drive
A 69. Injection temperature of the Heavy fuel is decided as per

a) As recommended by the bunker supplier
I
b) The temperature required to get recommended specific gravity of fuel
C c) The temperature required to get recommended viscosity of fuel
T
70. In order to avoid engine getting immobilized following a starting airline explosion where
E bursting discs get ruptured, provisions are given to
a) Fit minimum number of safety bursting caps
b) Turn and lock the mantle and hood in closed position
c) Fit a stand by unit of safety bursting cap
71. The function of piston rod stuffing box fitted on the diaphragm of a crosshead type marine
A diesel engine is to
a) Prevent crank case oil going to the under piston area
I
b) Prevent moisture, dust and excess cylinder oil going to crank case.
C c) For supporting the piston rod
d) Both a)&b)
T
72. The sound signal produced in ship‟s bell and in ship‟s whistle with Seven short blast
E followed withone long blast, is signal for
a) Fire alarm
b) Manoeuvring bell
c) General emergency alarm
d) Abandon ship alarm
A 73. The response from the SART is identified by the rescuing vessel with the help of
a) X- band radar
I b) VHF radio
c) GPS
C d) Visually by the lookout
T 74. Sextant is a device used by the navigating officers to measure
E a) Vertical angle, Horizontal angle and depth of water
b) Vertical angle, Horizontal angle and altitude
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A c) Vertical distance, Horizontal distance and depth of the sea

d) Vertical distance, Horizontal distance and draft of the vessel
I
C 75. Hydro static release unit operated interlock cable will ensure
a) Cox‟swain‟s release handle can only be released when the lifeboat is waterborne.
T b) Cox‟swain‟s release handle can be released when the lifeboat is in it‟s stowed
E position.
c) Cox‟swain‟s release handle has nothing to do with the release arrangement when the
boat is waterborne.
76. Life rafts are inflated by

a) Compressed air
A b) Nitrogen with small quantity of oxygen
c) Helium
I
d) CO2 with small quantity of Nitrogen
C
77. Bill of Lading means
T a) The purchase bill produced by the shipper to the customs authorities for
transportation of goods.
E b) Is an official document which establishes an agreement between the Shipper and the
Carrier for transportation of goods.
c) Is the insurance document for the safe transportation of goods
78. Net Tonnage of a vessel is

a) A dimensionless index calculated from the total moulded volume of a cargo ship.
A b) A measure of total cargo carried by the ship
c) A measure of total weight of ship minus the weight of ballast, oil and crew effects
I
C
79. The term “Competency” as defined by the STCW convention refers to
T a) The confidence level displayed by the seafarers while onboard
b) The experience gained by the seafarers while working in similar kind of vessels and
E machineries
c) Minimum knowledge, understanding and proficiency that seafarers must demonstrate
to get certified.
80. The term “CITADEL” refers to

A a) A designated storage location for the spare safety items required as per SOLAS
b) A designated hideout place for the ship‟s crew, recommended as per the ISPS code
I c) A designated mustering location in case the ship is abandoned
d) A designated storage location for the spill cleanup materials and equipments as per
C the requirements of MARPOL
T
E
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A
I
C
T 81. Continuity equation of an incompressible fluid is
a) A1V1 = A2V2
E b) ῤ1A1V1 = ῤ2A2V2
c) (A1V1 / ῤ1) = (A2V2 / ῤ2)
d) (ῤ1A1 /V1) = (ῤ2A2 /V2)
82. If α is the angle of blade tip at the outlet, the maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse
turbine is
a) 1 + cos 𝛼
A
2
I b) 1 − cos 𝛼
C 2
c) 1 − sin 𝛼
T 2
E d) 1 + sin 𝛼
2
83. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its centre of gravity is
a) 𝜋𝑑 2 / 16
b) 𝜋𝑑 3 / 32
c) 𝜋𝑑 3 / 64
d) 𝜋𝑑 2 / 32
A
I 84. Figure shows a simply supported beam of length L, which carries a concentrated load W at
point C, distant „a‟ from support A and „b‟ from support B. The maximum deflection
C occurs at point
T
E
a) A
b) C
A c) Between A and C
d) Between C and B
I
85. A cylindrical steel bar having length on 0.25 m is subjected to a tensile force of 2000 kg.
C If stress and total elongation are not to exceed 100 kg/cm2 and 0.01 cm respectively,
and E = 2 x 106 kg/cm2, then its cross sectional area should be
T
a) 2.0 cm2
E b) 2.5 cm2
c) 2.25 cm2
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A d) 5.0 cm2
I 86. Castle nut is a locking device in which

a) One smaller nut is tightened over the main nut and main nut tightened against
C smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming.
b) A slot is cut partially in middle of nut and slot reduced by tightening a screw
T c) A hard fiber nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
E screwed on the bolt causing tight grip.
d) Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in
the bolt, and cotter pin spitted and bent in reverse direction at the other end.
87. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line
nor parallel, but intersect is
a) Flexible coupling
A b) Universal coupling
c) Oldhams coupling
I
d) Chain coupling
C
88. Thrust bearings of sliding type are often provided with multiple sector shaped bearing
T pads of the filling type instead of a continuous angular bearing surface in order to
a) Distribute the thrust load more non-uniformly
E b) Provide limited adjustments to shaft misalignments
c) Enable wedge shaped oil film
d) Enable lubricating oil to come into contact with the total bearing area
89. A machine mounted on a single coil spring has a period of free vibration of T. If the spring
is cot into four equal parts and placed in parallel and the machine mounted on them, then
the period of free vibration of the new system will become
A a) 16 T
b) 4T
I
c) T/ 4
C d) T / 16
T 90. For a vibrating body under steady state forced vibrations, if ratio (ω / ωn ) is very high,
then phase angle would tend to approach
E a) 0o
b) 90o
c) 180o
d) Un predictable
91. Freeing ports are

A a) Type of cargo handling equipments fitted in reefer vessels
b) The opening cut in bulwarks for quick draining of water
I c) Ports which allows free berthing for ocean going vessels
C
92. Regulations covering the means of closing openings on weather decks are contained
T within conditions of which convention ?
E a) Loadline
b) Solas
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A c) Marpol
d) STCW
I
93. Lines plan of a ship means
C a) A drawing to a suitable scale of the pipe lines for the vessel in plan profile and
section.
T b) A drawing to a suitable scale of the moulded lines of the vessel in plan profile and
E section.
c) A drawing to a suitable scale of the electrical lines of the vessel in plan profile and
section.
d) All of the above
94. Purpose of providing the bilge keel of a ship is to

a) Help damp the rolling motion of the vessel
A b) To protect the bilge, in the event of grounding
c) To provide increased longitudinal strength at the bilge
I
d) All of the above
C
95. An oil sample has a density of 0.900 t / m3, at 15oC, and its expansion coefficient is 0.0006
T /oC. Calculate the density of this oil at 95oC.
a) 0.852 kg/litre
E b) 0.942 kg/litre
c) 0.906 kg/litre
d) 0.894 kg/litre
96. Larger freeboard is assigned for

a) Dry cargo vessel due to its larger deck openings
b) Tanker vessels due to the need for increased stability of the vessel up to the angle of
A heel at which the original deck edge becomes immersed
c) All ships have equal freeboard and is assigned as per SOLAS requirement and is
I
proportional to the LBP of the vessel.
C d) Passenger and cruise vessels so that the crew and passengers can walk in and out
comfortably without much restrictions.
T
97. The term ”Condition of Class” refers to
E a) When a surveyor identifies structural defects or damage to hull or equipments of a
vessel, which in the opinion of the surveyor affects ship‟s class, remedial measures /
appropriate recommendations are given by the class which shall be dealt with in a
time bound manner in order to retain the class.
b) The terms and conditions of agreement between the Owner of the vessel and the
classification society in carrying out the inspections and surveys for issue of
A certificates.
c) The terms and conditions of agreement between the Flag state authorities and the
I classification society for getting approval as Recognized Organization.
C
98. The speed of a DC motor falls from 1200 rpm at no load to 1050 rpm at rated load. The
T speed regulation of the motor is
E a) 12.36 %
b) 14.28 %
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A c) 16.77 %
d) 18.84 %
I
99. What is the emf generated in a 4 pole lap wounded dc machine having 500 conductors and
C with flux per pole equal to 0.1 Wb rotating at 750 rpm ?
a) 620 V
T b) 625 V
E c) 1250 V
100. A 3-phase 400 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4 % slip. The frequency of the rotor current
will be
a) 50 Hz
b) 25 Hz
A c) 5 Hz
d) 2 Hz
I
C 101. A 50 Hz, 3 phase induction motor has full load speed of 1400 rpm. The number of poles in
motor is
T a) 2
b) 4
E c) 6
102. Which of the following curve represents the mechanical characteristics of a dc series
motor?
A
I
C
T
E
a) (A)
b) (B)
c) (C)
d) (D)
A
103. A ship engine consumes 1200 liters of fuel at 140oC. The specific gravity of the said fuel
I
at this temperature is 0.75. Engine power output is measured as 8100 KW. Calculate the
C SFOC of the engine.
a) 83.33 g / KW.hr
T b) 111.11 g / KW.hr
c) 148.14 g / KW.hr
E d) 197.52 g / KW.hr
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A
I 104. Hunting of governor is caused by
a) Lack of sensitivity
C b) Over sensitivity
c) Both a) & b)
E 105. In order to reduce the formation of soot particles modern fuel valves are manufactured
with
a) High - sac volume
b) Mini - sac volume
c) Zero - sac volume
A
106. Burning low ignition quality fuel in an engine results in
I a) Rough and noisy operation of engine
b) High fuel oil consumption
C c) Late and more explosive start to combustion period
d) All of the above
T
107. High concentrations of Catfines present in fuel oil can be reduced to a level that will not
E
seriously increase engine wear by
a) Pre heating of fuel
b) Adjusting the viscosity either by heating or diluting with lighter fraction
c) Using efficiently operated centrifuges
d) Using a duplex filter
108. When the crank shaft rotates at a speed such that one of the harmonics coincide with the
A natural frequency of the system, the shaft is said to be in
a) Critical speed
I
b) Minimum speed for continuous running
C c) Maximum service speed
d) Starting speed
T
109. While at sea in fully loaded condition and with maximum service seed, if total electrical
E power failure occurs,
a) The electrical power should be restored without any delay by staring the stand by
generators and all equipments including the steering system must be restarted as
early as possible.
b) The electrical power should be restored by manually staring the emergency
generator and all critical equipments including the steering system must be manually
connected within a reasonable period.
A c) Manual steering system is possible by emergency mode of operation.
d) The electrical power will be restored by automatic staring and loading of the
I
emergency by generator and all critical equipments including the steering system
C will be automatically connected within 45 seconds.
T 110. In a multi stage compressor, if P1, P2, P3…. refers to first ,second, third stage pressures,
then
E a) P2 = (P1 + P3)/2
b) P2 = (P1 X P3)/2
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A c) P2 = (P3 - P1)/2
d) P2 = (P1 P3)0.5
I
111. Bitter end of anchor chain is connected to
C a) A strong point on the ship‟s structure before lowering the anchor chain
b) Always connected to anchor shank
T c) Inside chain locker with arrangement to release if need arises
112. The purpose of fitting chrome liner in the oil seal assembly of an oil lubricated stern tube
is to
a) Avoid leakage of lub oil
b) For cooling of the seal surface
c) To prevent damage happening with tail shaft
A d) For ease of assembly
I
113. Which instrument can be used for measuring thickness of hull plating?
C a) Vernier caliper
b) Feeler gauge
T c) Steel rule
d) Ultra sonic device
E
114. In large 2 stroke cross head type engines, the big end of connecting rod is lubricated by
a) Separate oil supply pipes branching from main bearing lubrication system
b) Oil supplied through telescopic pipe and cross head bearing assembly.
c) Splash lubrication
A 115. The total capacity of the air receivers is to be sufficient
a) to provide, not less than 12 consecutive starts alternating between ahead and astern
I
of each main engine of the reversible type and not less than 6 consecutive starts of
C each main non-reversible pitch propeller or other device enabling the start, with
continuous running of air compressors.
T b) to provide without replenishment, not less than 12 consecutive starts alternating
between ahead and astern of each main engine of the reversible type and not less
E than 6 consecutive starts of each main non-reversible pitch propeller or other device
enabling the start without opposite torque
c) to provide without replenishment, not less than 12 consecutive starts alternating
between ahead and astern of each main engine of the reversible type and not less
than 6 consecutive starts of each main non-reversible pitch propeller or other device
enabling the start .
I 116. The functions performed by a Jerk type fuel pump in a diesel engine are
a) Pressurising and injecting the fuel
C b) Pressurising and atomizing the fuel
c) Pressurising and pumping the fuel to injectors
T d) Pressurising, timing & metering the fuel
E
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A
I 117. Turbo charger Surging and Stalling occurs due to
a) Restrictions and fouling in air / gas system
C b) Malfunctioning in the fuel system
c) Rapid variation in engine load
E
118. As per ISM code, Non-conformity means
a) An observed situation where objective evidence indicates that the ship is delayed to
arrive at the port of call in scheduled time.
b) An observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-fulfillment of a
specified requirement
c) A situation where the appearance of ship is shabby and not clean as expected
A d) None of the above.
I
119. Who are the responsible parties for substandard ships as defined by port state control?
C a) Owners , Financiers , & charters of the vessel
b) Flag state administration
T c) Classification societies
d) All of the above
E
120. If Charterer hires a vessel for a long period, and if, for all outward appearances the vessel
belongs to charterer as provides for manning and pays everything except depreciation,
then this charter agreement is called
a) Time charter
b) Bareboat charter
c) Demise charter
A d) Voyage charter
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG2MAE30
ANSWER KEY
Subject:MarineEngineering
Paper:2

1. c 41 a 81. a
2. d 42 c 82. a
3. c 43 b 83. b
4. c 44 b 84. d
5. a 45 a 85. b
6. a 46 a 86. d
7. d 47 c 87. b
8. b 48 b 88. c
9. b 49 d 89. c
10. a 50 c 90. c
11. b 51 c 91. b
12. c 52 d 92. a
13. d 53 d 93. b
14. a 54 d 94. d
15. b 55 a 95. a
16. a 56 b 96. a
17. d 57 a 97. a
18. b 58 d 98. b
19. b 59 a 99. b
20. c 60 d 100. d
21. c 61 b 101. b
22. b 62 b 102. c
23. c 63 b 103. b
24. a 64 d 104. c
25. c 65 d 105. b
26. d 66 c 106. d
27. c 67 c 107. c
28. b 68 b 108. a
29. d 69 c 109. b
30. d 70 b 110. d
31. a 71 d 111. a
32. b 72 c 112. c
33. a 73 a 113. d
34. b 74 b 114. b
35. d 75 a 115. d
36. c 76 d 116. d
37. b 77 b 117. d
38. a 78 a 118. b
39. c 79 c 119. d
40. c 80 b 120. b
ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A
I MECHATRONICS ENGINEERING
C
T
E
PAPER-I
A
Instructions:
I
T
E

A awarded to the wrong answer.
I vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can
C use non-programmable scientific calculator.
specified.
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
I
1. Atomic packing factor of fcc crystal structure is
C (a) 0.54
(b) Same as that of bcc
T
(c) 0.68
E (d) Same as that of hcp
2. Which of the following material has body-centred cubic crystal structure?

(a) Chromium
(b) Aluminium
(c) Platinum
(d) Zirconium
A 3. Coordination Number (CN) in crystal structures is
I (a) Number of atoms at corners of the lattice
(b) Number of electrons in the innermost shell of the atom
C (c) Number of equidistant atoms surrounding an atom in the lattice
(d) Number of atoms sharing electrons in covalent bond
T
4. Miller indices are always represented as
E
(a) decimals
(b) integers
(c) fractions
(d) Greek alphabets
5. Which of the following materials has the highest value of Poisson‟s ratio?
(a) Steel
A (b) Copper
(c) Wood
I (d) Rubber
C
6. Which of the following is not a point defect?
T (a) Frenkel
(b) Dislocation
E (c) Schottky
(d) impurity
7. Which of the following material has highest ductility?

(a) Lead
(b) Gold
(c) Copper
A (d) Tin
I 8. Stainless steels are “stainless” because they contain high content of

(a) Sulphur
C (b) Zirconium
T (c) Titanium
(d) Chromium
E
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A
9. Poise is the unit of
I (a) Density
(b) Velocity gradient
C (c) Kinematic viscosity
(d) Dynamic viscosity
T
E 10. The resultant hydrostatic force acts at a point known as
(a) Centre of pressure
(b) Centre of buoyancy
(c) Centre of gravity
(d) Centre of mass
11. Droplets of water are spherical in shape due to

(a) Low density
A (b) Surface tension
I (c) High viscosity
(d) Bulk modulus
C
12. In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
T (a) Linearly with fluid density
(b) Inversely with pressure drop
E
(c) Directly as square of pipe radius
(d) Inversely with fluid viscosity
13. The frictional head loss in turbulent flow through a pipe varies
(a) Directly as the average velocity
(b) Directly as the square of the average velocity
(c) inversely as the square of the average velocity
A (d) inversely as the average velocity
I 14. The shear stress developed in a lubricating oil of viscosity 0.981 N-s/m2, filled
between two parallel plates 1 cm apart and moving with relative velocity of 2 m/s is
C
(a) 196.2 N/m2
T (b) 49 N/m2
(c) 19.62 N/m2
E (d) 4.9 N/m2
15. Water hammer in pipelines takes place when

(a) Water is flowing with high pressure
(b) Water is flowing with high turbulence
(c) Water flowing is brought to rest by suddenly closing a valve
(d) Water flowing is brought to rest by gradually closing a valve
A
16. Which of the following is measured by a rotameter?
I (a) Velocity of fluids
(b) Discharge of fluids
C (c) Viscosity of fluids
(d) Density of fluids
T
E
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A 17. Dimensional formula for Young‟s modulus of elasticity is

(a) ML-1T-2
I (b) MLT-2
(c) M-1L-1T-1
C (d) ML-2T-2
T 18. The strain energy stored in a body due to external loading, within the elastic limit,
E is known as
(a) Malleability
(b) Ductility
(c) Toughness
(d) Resilience
19. Stiffness of material may be expressed in terms of

(a) Mass density
A (b) Hardness number
I (c) Modulus of elasticity
(d) Impact strength
C
20. A simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load „W‟ at mid-span deflects
T „1‟ under the load. If the same beam deflects „2‟ at mid-span under the load „W‟
E when distributed uniformly over entire length of the beam, the ratio 1: 2 is
(a) 2.2:1
(b) 1.6:1
(c) 1:1.6
(d) 1:2.2
21. Plane stress at a point in a body is defined by principal stresses 3 and . The ratio
of the normal stress to maximum shear stress is
A (a) 1
(b) 2
I (c) 3
C (d) 4
T 22. The strain energy stored in a body of volume „V‟ with stress „‟ due to gradually
applied load is
E (a) (E)/2V
(b) (E2)/2V
(c) (V2)/2E
(d) (2V)/2E
23. Who postulated the maximum shear strain energy theory?

(a) Tresca
A (b) Rankine
(c) Mises – Henky
I
(d) St. Venant
C
T
24. Two links, for which the relative motion is combination of sliding and turning
E
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A nature, form a
(a) Sliding pair
I (b) Lower pair
(c) Turning pair
C (d) Higher pair
T 25. Degree of freedom of a system is
E (a) Equal to number of masses in the system
(b) Equal to number of independent motions
(c) Always less than 6
(d) Always greater than 3
26. For simple harmonic motion, the graph between velocity and displacement is
(a) Elliptical
(b) Linear
A (c) Circular
I (d) Hyperbolic
C 27. In which of the following is Coriolis component encountered?

(a) Slider crank mechanism
T (b) Double slider chain mechanism
(c) Quick return mechanism
E
(d) Both (a) and (c)
28. The centre of gravity of the coupler link in a four-bar mechanism would experience
(a) No acceleration
(b) Only linear acceleration
(c) Only angular acceleration
(d) Both linear and angular acceleration
A
29. If the ratio of the length of connecting rod to the crank radius increases, then
I (a) Primary unbalanced force will decrease
(b) Secondary unbalanced force will decrease
C
(c) Primary unbalanced force will increase
T (d) Secondary unbalanced force will increase
E 30. Critical damping depends upon

(a) Stiffness and amplitude
(b) Mass and frequency of system
(c) Mass and stiffness
(d) Stiffness and viscosity of medium
31. If the statistical parameters of a time-series signal do not change with time it is
A called
(a) Constant signal
I (b) Stationary signal
(c) Statistical signal
C (d) Pure signal
T
32. Fourier analysis as a method of describing an arbitrary function by its
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A (a) Mean amplitude

(b) Frequency components
I (c) Phase lag
(d) rectification
C
33. The Laplace transform of unit impulse function is
T (a) 1/s2
E (b) 1/s
(c) 1
(d) s
34. An energy signal has G(f) = 10. Its energy density spectrum is
(a) 100
(b) 20
(c) 50
A (d) 10
I
35. Autocorrelation is the correlation of a signal with
C (a) Second signal having different frequency
(b) Second signal having different amplitude
T (c) Delayed copy of the signal itself
(d) Amplified copy of the signal itself
E
36. A notch filter is a band-stop filter with a
(a) Narrow stopband
(b) Narrow passband
(c) Infinite stopband
(d) High width passband
A 37. The difference rule of z-transforms is also known as

(a) Inverse property
I (b) Shift property
(c) Logarithmic property
C
(d) Exponential property
T
38. Aliasing causes sampled signals to become
E (a) Amplified
(b) Inverted
(c) Time-shifted
(d) Distorted
39. The characteristic equation of a linear system is defined as the equation obtained by
setting the denominator polynomial of the transfer function equal to
A (a) 0
(b) 1
I (c) 10
(d) Numerator
C
T
40. Inverse Laplace transform of A/s, where A>0, is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A (a) 1/A2
(b) 1/A
I (c) A
(d) At, where „t‟ is time
C
41. Which of the following is not a final control element in a control system?
T (a) Control valve
E (b) Drive unit
(c) Comparator
(d) Heating element
42. Mason‟s gain formula gives the overall gain of

(a) A block diagram
(b) A signal flow graph
(c) An operational amplifier
A (d) A Wheatstone bridge circuit
I
43. Which of the following control action can be implemented using a pneumatic
C controller?
(a) Proportional
T (b) Integral
(c) Proportional + Derivative
E
44. Steady state error can be minimized by

(a) Proportional control
(b) Integral control
(c) Derivative control
(d) Proportional + Derivative
A
45. Routh-Hurwitz criterion is used to determine
I (a) Stability
(b) Overshoot
C
(c) Controller output
T (d) Output-input amplitude ratio
E 46. The time taken by output to reach and remain within 2% of its final value is called
(a) Rise time
(b) Response time
(c) Settling time
(d) Time constant
47. The molecular kinetic energy of a gas is proportional to its absolute temperature as
A (a) T
(b) T
I (c) T3/2
(d) T2
C
T
48. Which of the following thermodynamic cycle is used in steam engines?
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A (a) Carnot
(b) Bell-Coleman
I (c) Rankine
(d) Brayton
C
49. For an adiabatic process, if volume is decreased then which of the following takes
T place?
E (a) Heat conduction
(b) Increase in temperature and decrease in pressure
(c) Decrease in temperature and pressure
(d) Increase in temperature and pressure
50. The internal energy of a perfect gas does not change during
(a) Adiabatic process
(b) Isobaric process
A (c) Isothermal process
I (d) Isochoric process
C 51. If we heat wet steam at constant temperature, then which of the following is
constant?
T (a) Pressure
(b) Specific enthalpy
E
(c) Specific volume
(d) Entropy
52. Which of the following is an extensive property of a thermodynamic system?

(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Volume
A (d) Density
I 53. Which one of the following is the characteristic equation of a real gas?
C (a) (p + a/V2)(V  b) = RT
(b) (p  a/V2)(V + b) = RT
T (c) pV = RT
(d) p = RT
E
54. Chills are used in casting moulds to
(a) Achieve directional solidification
(b) Reduce possibility of blow holes
(c) Reduce the freezing line
(d) Increase the smoothness of cast surface
A 55. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to

(a) Very high pouring temperature of metal
I (b) Insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(c) Absorption of gases by the liquid metal
C
(d) Improper alignment of the moulds
T
56. The welding process using flux in the form of granules is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A (a) Gas welding

(b) DC arc welding
I (c) Submerged arc welding
(d) Plasma arc welding
C
57. Cold working of the metals is carried out
T (a) Below the recrystallisation temperature
E (b) At the recrystallisation temperature
(c) Above the recrystallisation temperature
(d) Working temperature depends upon the physical conditions of the workpiece
58. Spot welding, projection welding and seam welding belong to the category to
(a) Arc welding
(b) Thermit welding
(c) Forge welding
A (d) Electric resistance welding
I
59. Which of the following processes is most commonly used for forging of bolt heads
C of hexagonal shape?
(a) Closed die drop forging
T (b) Open die upset forging
(c) Closed die press forging
E
(d) Open die progressive forging
60. In metal casting, compensation for shrinkage is provided by

(a) Oversize pattern
(b) Properly placed risers
(c) Promoting directional solidification
(d) Chills
A
61. In press operation, the size of the blank depends upon
I (a) Size of punch
(b) Size of die
C
(c) Mean size of punch and die
T (d) Die size and clearance
E 62. The degree of damping most desirable for an analog instrument is

(a) Zero
(b) Critical
(c) Slightly less than critical
(d) Slightly more than critical
63. The smallest change in the value of the input variable being measured , that will
A cause a change in the output signal of the instrument is called
(a) Hysteresis
I (b) Drift
(c) Resolution
C (d) Threshold
T
64. The time taken by output to reach 63.2% of its final value in a first order instrument
E
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A is called
(a) Rise time
I (b) Time constant
(c) Settling time
C (d) Overshoot
T 65. A pneumatic load cell used to measure force does not make use of
E (a) Diaphragm
(b) Strain gauge
(c) Nozzle
66. Thermistors, used for temperature measurement, are made of

(a) Polymers
(b) Semiconductors
A (c) Superconductors
C 67. Pyrometry is used for temperature measurement when a body whose temperature is
to be measured is
T (a) Very hot and conventional instruments will melt on coming in contact with it
(b) Is moving and instrument cannot be attached with it
E
(c) Having different temperatures at different points on its surface
68. An orifice meter, used for flow measurement, is a type of

(a) Variable area meter
(b) Variable head meter
(c) Linear resistance flow meter
A (d) Variable viscosity meter
I 69. Dynamometers are used for measurement of

(a) Motion
C
(b) Proximity
T (c) Power
(d) Dynamic measurements
E
70. A J-type thermocouple is made of
(a) Platinum-Constantan
(b) Iron-Constantan
(c) Iron-Alumel
(d) Copper-Constantan
A
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A
71. Which of the following structures does not appear in Iron-Carbon diagram?
I (a) Cementite
(b) Bainite
C (c) Pearlite
(d) Ledeburite
T
E 72. Which of the following surface hardening processes does not require quenching?
(a) Induction hardening
(b) Flame hardening
(c) Nitriding
(d) Case carburising
73. In pyrolysis, the maximum temperature for graphitizing is

(a) 750°C
A (b) 1500°C
I (c) 3000°C
(d) 6000°C
C
74. The Darcy-Weisbach friction factor „f‟ ( measure of resistance to flow in pipes)
T depends upon
(a) Relative roughness, surface tension and viscosity
E
(b) Relative roughness, velocity and viscosity
(c) Roughness height, diameter, velocity and kinematic viscosity
(d) Surface tension, diameter and velocity
75. Pressure drop of water flowing through a pipe across two points is measured by a
vertical U-tube manometer filled with a liquid having density double than that of
water. If the difference in height of manometer liquid in the two limbs of the
A manometer is 10 cm, the pressure drop across the two points is
(a) 98.1 N/m2
I (b) 981 N/m2
(c) 1962 N/m2
C
(d) 19620 N/m2
T
76. For a volumetric flow rate of 10 m3/s in a 4 m wide open channel, the critical depth
E is
(a) 0.1013 m
(b) 0.5065 m
(c) 1.013 m
(d) 1.519 m
77. A thick cylinder of internal and external radii „a‟ and „b‟ respectively is subjected to
A equal internal and external pressure „p‟. The magnitude of circumferential stress
developed is
I (a) Constant
(b) Maximum at radius = a
C (c) Maximum at radius = b
(d) Maximum at radius = (a+b)/2
T
E
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A 78. A closely coiled helical spring of 20 cm mean diameter is having 25 coils of 2 cm

diameter rod. If the modulus of rigidity of the rod material is 107 N/cm2, what is the
I stiffness of the spring in N/cm?
(a) 50
C (b) 100
(c) 250
T (d) 500
E
79. While transmitting same power, if the speed of a shaft is to be doubled, what should
be the new shaft diameter if the maximum shear stress in the shaft is to be kept
same?
(a) 2 times the original diameter
(b) ½ times the original diameter
(c) 1/(21/2) times the original diameter
(d) 1/(21/3) times the original diameter
A
I 80. The shape of shearing stress distribution across a rectangular cross-section beam is
(a) Triangular
C (b) Parabolic
(c) Rectangular
E
81. Amplitude of motion of a mass, attached to a spring of stiffness 3000 Nm-1 and
subjected to a harmonic force 100*cos(100*t) N, is 50 mm. The value of mass in kg
is
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) 1.0
A
82. A rotating shaft carries a flywheel which overhangs on the bearing as a cantilever.
I If the weight of the flywheel is reduced to half of its original weight, the whirling
speed of the shaft will
C
(a) Increase 2 times
T (b) Increase 2 times
(c) Decrease 2 times
E (d) Decrease to half
83. Ratio of radii of gyration of disc type flywheel and rim type flywheel is
(a) 2
(b) 1/2
(c) 2
(d) 1/2
A
84. A governor is stable if the radius of rotation of balls
I (a) Increases as the equilibrium speed decreases
(b) Decreases as the equilibrium speed increases
C
(c) Increases as the equilibrium speed increases
E
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A 85. Double integration of a unit step function would lead to

(a) An impulse function
I (b) A parabolic function
(c) A ramp function
C (d) A doublet function
T 86. Which of the following functions is a linear system?
E (a) z[n] = y[n]  y[n - 1]
(b) z[n] = y[n] + y[n - 10]
(c) z[n] = y2[n]
(d) Both (a) and (c)
87. The power spectral density of white noise is

(a) Exponential in nature
(b) Linearly increasing
A (c) Constant
I (d) Infinite
C 88. The notion that describes whether a system will be able to follow the input
command is called
T (a) Feedback
(b) Stability
E
(c) Overshoot
(d) Time constant
89. For which of the following input signals is the output of a system same as its
transfer function?
(a) Unit step
(b) Unit ramp
A (c) Sinusoidal
(d) Unit impulse
I
90. The role of derivative control action is to
C
(a) Damp oscillations
T (b) Minimize steady state error
(c) Reduce rise time
91. Given the following thermodynamic parameters:

(i) Temperature (ii) Pressure (iii) Enthalpy (iv) Entropy (v) Specific volume
The Clapeyron equation provides the relationship between
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
A (c) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
I
C
T 92. When a perfect gas enclosed in a cylinder piston device executes a reversible
adiabatic expansion process
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A (a) Its entropy will increase and that of surroundings will not change
(b) Its entropy will decrease and that of surroundings will also increase
I (c) Its entropy and that of surroundings will not change
(d) Its entropy and that of surroundings will increase
C
93. A reversible heat engine receives 6 kJ of heat from a thermal reservoir at 800 K and
T rejects heat to another thermal reservoir at 100 K, the thermal efficiency of the
E engine is approximately
(a) 55%
(b) 66%
(c) 75%
(d) 87%
94. Which one of the following correctly defines 1 Kelvin, as per the Internationally
accepted definition of temperature scale?
A (a) 1/(273.15) of triple point of water
I (b) 100 times the difference between triple point and freezing point of water
(c) 1/(273.15) of freezing point of water
C (d) 1/100 of the difference between triple point and freezing point of water
T 95. Which process involves increasing the cross-sectional area by pressing or

hammering in a direction parallel to the original ingot axis?
E
(a) Peening
(b) Swaging
(c) Upsetting
(d) Setting down
96. The presence of residual flux after the welding operation leads to
(a) Porosity
A (b) Corrosion
(c) Crack formation
I (d) Embrittlement
C
97. In a cold rolling operation, the roller diameter is 700 mm and the coefficient of
T friction at roller-work interface is 0.1. The minimum number of passes required to
reduce the thickness of a plate from 50 mm to 25 mm is
E (a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7
98. Which of the following types of the instrument cannot be used for static motion
measurement?
A (a) Inductive type
(b) Pneumatic type
I (c) Resistance type
(d) Piezo-electric type
C
99. Which of the following instrument is used for low pressure measurement?
T
(a) Pirani gauge
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A (b) Strain gauge

(c) Bourdon pressure gauge
I (d) Hydraulic Load cell
C 100. Which of the following is not a primary-type of flowmeter?

(a) Nutating disc meter
T (b) Venturi meter
E (c) Sliding vane type meter
(d) Lobed impeller meter
PART –C
A
I (a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
C (c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
T
E 102. ThecharacteristicequationofamatrixAisλ3−4λ2+5λ=0,thenAwillbea
(b) Identitymatrix
(c) Singularmatrix
(a) Nullmatrix
A (b) Diagonalmatrix
I (c) Lower Triangularmatrix
C
T
(a) u
E (b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 0

[−3, 1] are
(a) −7 and −8
A (b) 81 and −8
I (c) 0 and −2
(d) 73 and −8
C 𝑑4𝑦
2
𝑑𝑦 4
106. The differential equation 𝑑𝑥 4 + + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
T (a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23
A (b) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 4

I (d) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
C
T 107. Family of curves y = m2x + m6 is represented by the differential equation ofdegree
(a) 3
E (b) 6
(c) 2
𝐵
(a) 𝑃 ≥0
𝐴
𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
A 𝐴
𝐵
(c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
I
C
T probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3or7is
13
E (a) 30
17
(b) 30
19
(c) 30
1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
A (a) Hermitianmatrix
(b) Unitorymatrix
I (c) Skew-Hermitianmatrix
T 111. The system of equations x + y = 2 and 2x + λy= µ has unique solution,if

(a) λ = 2 and µ =4
E (b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
(a) 62
A (b) 44
(c) 8
C 
T 
(a) grad | A |  0
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MCE23

A (b) curl A  0

I (c) div A  0
C 𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
114. If 𝑢 = log⁡ (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then + 𝜕𝑦 + 𝜕𝑧 𝑢 is equal to
𝜕𝑥
T
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
E (b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
(c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
1 1 𝑛−1
115. 0
𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑑𝑥 =
𝑥
(a) ⎾(n − 1)
A (b) ⎾(n)
n−1
I (c) ⎾ 2
n+1
C (d) ⎾
2
T 116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is

E (a) Hyperbolic
(b) Elliptic
(c) Parabolic
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
A 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
I 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
C 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
T
E 2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
(a) 0
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
A
I
C (a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
T (c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
E
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I 120. IfmeanofaPoissondistributionismthenvarianceofthisdistributionis
(a) m2
C (b) 𝑚
T (c) 𝑚
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG1MCE23
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Mechatronics Engineering
Paper: 1
QUESTION ANSWER 61. b
1. d 62. c
2. a 63. c
3. c 64. b
4. b 65. b
5. d 66. b
6. b 67. d
7. b 68. b
8. d 69. c
9. d 70. b
10. a 71. b
11. b 72. c
12. d 73. c
13. b 74. c
14. a 75. b
15. c 76. c
16. b 77. a
17. a 78. b
18. d 79. d
19. c 80. b
20. b 81. a
21. b 82. b
22. d 83. d
23. c 84. c
24. d 85. b
25. b 86. b
26. a 87. c
27. c 88. b
28. d 89. d
29. b 90. a
30. c 91. d
31. b 92. c
32. b 93. d
33. c 94. a
34. a 95. c
35. c 96. b
36. a 97. d
37. b 98. d
38. d 99. a
39. a 100. b
40. c 101. a
41. c 102. c
42. b 103. a
43. d 104. d
44. b 105. d
45. a 106. d
46. c 107. a
47. a 108. a
48. c 109. a
49. d 110. b
50. c 111. c
51. a 112. d
52. c 113. b
53. a 114. a
54. a 115. b
55. b 116. b
56. c 117. d
57. a 118. a
58. d 119. d
59. c 120. c
60. a
ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A
I
MECHATRONICS ENGINEERING
C
T
PAPER-II
A
Instructions:
I
C
questions.
T
E

I
C specified.
E a black or blue ball point pen.
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A
I
C 1. LVDT used for displacement transducer is
(a) An active transducer
T (b) A passive transducer
E (c) A capacitive transducer
(d) A digital transducer
2. Which material out of the following has got the property of generating emf when
subjected to mechanical strain?
(a) Steel conductor
(b) Strain gauge material
(c) Piezo-electric material
A (d) Thermosetting plastic
I
3. The most usual value of resistance value suitable for a wire resistance strain gauge,
C out of the following, is
(a) 10 
T (b) 120 
E (c) 50 
(d) 2400 
4. For motion measurement, one may use

(a) Potentiometer
(b) LVDT
(c) Moire Fringe transducer
A
5. As temperature is increased, the resistance of RTD
I
(a) Increases
C (b) Decreases
(c) Changes randomly
T (d) Remains constant
E 6. Rotameter is a
(a) Drag-force flowmeter
(b) Variable area flowmeter
(c) Variable head flowmeter
(d) Rotating speed meter
7. Triangulation principle is used in

A (a) Force sensors
(b) Range sensors
I (c) Proximity sensors
(d) Tactile sensors
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A 8. Hall-effect based sensors make use of

(a) Conducting material
I (b) Insulating materials
(c) Thermoplastics
C (d) Thermosets
T 9. Which materials, out of the following, has highest dielectric constant?
E (a) Air
(b) Wood
(c) Paper
(d) Water
10. Maximum power-to-weight ratio is for

(a) Pneumatic actuation system
(b) Hydraulic actuation system
A (c) Electric actuation system
I (d) Mechanical actuation system
C 11. Which of the following components is not part of pneumatic system power supplies?
(a) Motor
T (b) Pressure relief valve
(c) Filter
E
(d) Accumulator
12. Which out of the following is incorrect for fluid-power dc valves?

(a) Three position double solenoid operated
(b) Two position double solenoid operated
(c) One position double solenoid operated
(d) Two position push-button operated
A
13. A pilot operated directional control valve in pneumatic actuation systems is operated
I by
(a) Pressurized air
C
(b) Manually
T (c) Spring
E
14. The graphical symbol for a 4/2 directional control valve consists of
(a) 4 squares
(b) 2 squares
(c) 3 squares
(d) 8 squares
A 15. Which of the following is not a type of cylinder in fluid power systems?
(a) Double acting
I (b) Tandem
(c) Telescopic
C (d) Thick
T
16. Terms such as ‘spool type’ and ‘poppet type’ refer to which of the following
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A components in fluid power systems?

(a) DC valves
I (b) Linear cylinders
(c) Power supplies
C (d) Rotary cylinders
T 17. Which of the following refers to speed control method in fluid power systems?
E (a) Meter-in control
(b) Meter-out control
(c) Bleed-off control
18. Piston rods in fluid power systems are usually made of

(a) Heat treated steel
(b) Cast iron
A (c) Aluminium
I (d) Bronze
C 19. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is expressed as ratio of

(a) Yield strength to working stress
T (b) Ultimate strength to design stress
(c) Endurance limit to allowable stress
E
(d) Yield strength to ultimate strength
20. To ensure self-locking in a screw jack, it is essential that helix angle is

(a) Larger than friction angle
(b) Smaller than friction angle
(c) Equal to friction angle
A
21. In the Lewis equation, the working stress depends upon
I (a) Material of the tooth and pitch line velocity
(b) Pitch line velocity and load conditions
C
(c) Load conditions and material of the tooth
T (d) Pitch line velocity, Load conditions and material of the tooth
E 22. Riveted joints are designed on the basis of

(a) Thickness of plates
(b) Rivet length
(c) Rivet diameter
(d) Hardness of plate material
23. Splined shafts are used for

A (a) Impact loads
(b) Axial movement of hub on shaft
I (c) Absorbing vibrations
(d) High bending stress
C
T
24. Which of the following is a trapezoidal thread?
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A (a) Acme
(b) Square
I (c) Buttress
(d) U-threads
C
25. The rated life of a bearing varies
T (a) Directly as load
E (b) Inversely as square of load
(c) Inversely as cube of load
(d) Directly as square of load
26. In the assembly of shaft, pulley and key

(a) Pulley is designed as weakest
(b) Key is designed as weakest
(c) Key is designed as strongest
A (d) All are designed for equal strength
I
27. A transmission shaft subjected to bending loads must be designed on the basis of
C (a) Maximum normal stress theory
(b) Maximum shear stress theory
T (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Fatigue strength
E
28. One input to an XOR gate is low, while the other is high. The output of the gate is
(a) Low
(b) High
(c) Alternately low and high
(d) Depends upon the difference of the two inputs
A 29. 2's complement of binary number 0101 is

(a) 1011
I (b) 1101
(c) 1100
C
(d) 1010
T
30. PLCs, which were invented in late 1960s, replaced the
E (a) Hardwired relay logic
(b) Analog computers
(c) Vacuum tubes in electronic circuits
(d) Digital electronics technology
31. The two vertical lines in ladder diagrams represent

(a) 0 and 1 of digital logic
A (b) NO and NC contacts
(c) Relays connected in parallel
I (d) Power rails
C
T
32. Timers in PLCs are used for
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A (a) Maintaining a state of an output for a certain time period

(b) Keeping track of time taken by programmer to make ladder diagram
I (c) Documenting total time taken by the program to run
C
33. In PLCs, the practice of holding an output ‘on’ even when the input which switched it
T on ceases, is called
E (a) Sample and hold
(b) Locking
(c) Latching
(d) Status quo
34. PLCs can have

(a) Analog outputs
(b) Digital outputs
A (c) Relay outputs
C 35. SCADA stands for

(a) Supplementary Communication And Data Acquisition
T (b) Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition
(c) Supervisory Control And Digital Assembly
E
(d) Supplementary Control And Data Acquisition
36. Which of the following features is/are possible in PLCs?

(a) Arithmetic operations
(b) Data comparison
(c) Conditional logic
A
37. In automobiles, the distributor is
I (a) A system for distributing load on the four wheels
(b) A rotary switch that connects the ignition coil to various spark plugs
C
(c) A system that connects the master brake cylinder to wheel brake cylinders
T (d) A section of the drivetrain
E 38. What is the primary purpose of spark timing controls?

(a) to maximize fuel economy
(b) to minimize exhaust emissions
(c) to optimize catalytic converter efficiency
(d) to optimize engine performance in terms of power or torque
39. A low air/fuel ratio is what type of mixture?

A (a) Lean
(b) Rich
I (c) Poor
(d) Fat
C
T
40. In automobiles, the EGO sensor is used to measure
E
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A (a) Exhaust gas flow rate

(b) Oxygen concentration in exhaust gas
I (c) Engine and gear oil levels
(d) Emission gases over and above prescribed limit
C
41. Under closed loop ignition timing control, spark advance is limited by
T (a) Distributor rotation
E (b) Coolant temperature
(c) MBT
(d) Knock
42. The secondary air management system is used

(a) To control EGR
(b) To avoid knock
(c) With low-octane fuels
A (d) To improve catalytic converter performance
I
43. An ideal antilock braking system measures skid by
C (a) measuring the difference between wheel speed and vehicle speed
(b) differentiating vehicle speed with respect to time
T (c) measuring crankshaft angular speed
E
44. An engine analyser has been used to
(a) Set the choke
(b) Set ignition points in cars equipped with them
(c) Measure intake fuel flow rate
A 45. Engine Coolant temperature is measured usually by a

(a) Mercury-in-glass thermometer
I (b) Thermocouple
(c) Thermistor
C
(d) Hot wire anemometer
T
46. Which of the following is not a type of line or pin of a microprocessor bus?
E (a) Data
(b) Address
(c) Memory
(d) Control
47. The full form of PROM is

(a) Processor Read Only Memory
A (b) Programmable Read Only Memory
(c) Programmable Register Only Memory
I (d) Processor Register Only Memory
C
T
48. A microprocessor uses 3 MHz oscillator. The duration of one T state is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A (a) 1 s
(b) 0.666 s
I (c) 0.333 s
(d) 3 s
C
T 49. The microprocessor register in which data for input to the Arithmetic and Logic Unit
is temporarily stored is called
E (a) Accumulator register
(b) Memory address register
(c) General purpose register
(d) Stack pointer register
50. A microcontroller is the integration of a microprocessor with which of the following

on a single chip?
A (a) Memory
(b) Input/output interfaces
I (c) Timers
C
51. A very popular family of microcontrollers called PIC is manufactured by
T (a) Intel
E (b) Microchip
(c) Motorola
(d) Omron
52. If a microprocessor uses 16 bit address bus and 8 bit word, the memory size it can
address in bytes is
(a) 128
(b) 256
A (c) 32768
(d) 65536
I
C 53. Which of the following input will reset an Intel 8051 microcontroller?
(a) Low
T (b) High
(c) Zero
54. In CAD, wire-frame modeling is used in

(a) 1-D modeling
(b) 2-D modeling
(c) 3-D modeling
(d) 4-D modeling
A
55. Geometrical models in CAD are usually in 2-D, 3-D and
I (a) 2.5-D
(b) 4-D
C
(c) 1.5-D
T (d) 3.5-D
E
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A 56. In solid modeling, models are constructed using simple 3-D shapes called
(a) Basic Solids
I (b) 3-D Solids
(c) Primitives
C (d) Cuboids
T 57. The UCS icon represents the intersection of
E (a) X-axis and Y-axis
(b) X-axis, Y-axis and Z-axis
(c) Y-axis and Z-axis
(d) X-axis and Z-axis
58. The two most widely used schemes to create solid models in CAD are CSG and
(a) s-rep
(b) p-rep
A (c) 3-rep
I (d) b-rep
C 59. CAD and CAM are linked through

(a) A common database
T (b) NC tape programming
(c) Automation
E
(d) Testing and analysis
60. A geometric model that shows all the edges of an object is called
(a) Surface model
(b) Solid model
(c) Wire-frame model
(d) 3-D model
A
61. NC contouring is an example of
I (a) Continuous path positioning
(b) Point-to-point positioning
C
(c) Absolute positioning
T (d) Incremental positioning
E 62. In NC programming, G02 refers to

(a) Incremental dimensioning
(b) Circular interpolation in counter-clockwise direction
(c) Absolute dimensioning
(d) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction
63. Decimal number 10 is equal to binary number

A (a) 1110
(b) 1010
I (c) 1000
(d) 1100
C
T
64. Which of the following is not used for deriving Boolean expression from truth table
E
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A (a) Sum of product method

(b) Product of Sum method
I (c) Karnaugh map
(d) Bode plot
C
65. Laplace transform of the function f(t) = tn is
T (a) F(s) = n/(sn+1)
E (b) F(s) = (n!)/(sn+1)
(c) F(s) = (n!)/(sn)
(d) F(s) = (n!)/(s+n)
66. For switching current in the armature coils, Brushless PMDC motors rely on
(a) Shaft encoders
(b) Hall-effect sensors
(c) Current meters
A (d) RTD sensors
I
67. A thyristor is a solid-state switch which
C (a) Has two p-n junctions
(b) Allows current flow in both directions
T (c) Has a gate for controlling current
(d) Allows only dc to flow
E
68. Which of the following solid-state switch is used for protection in the circuits?
(a) Zener diode
(b) Triac
(c) Thyristor
A 69. A common form of instrumentation amplifier has

(a) Three op-amps
I (b) Very high input impedance
(c) High CMRR
C
T
70. Nyquist criterion states that the sampling rate for analog-to-digital conversion should
E be
(a) Exactly equal to the frequency of the analog signal
(b) At least twice the frequency of the analog signal
(c) Exactly half the frequency of the analog signal
(d) At least equal to the frequency of the analog signal
71. The maximum torque that can be applied to a powered motor without causing shaft
A rotation is called
(a) Maximum torque
I (b) Stationary torque
(c) Threshold torque
C (d) Holding torque
T
72. An articulated robot has only which of the following types of joints?
E
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A (a) Revolving only

(b) Linear only
I (c) Both revolving and linear
(d) Rotational only
C
73. RPY in robotics refers to
T (a) Manipulator configuration
E (b) Wrist configuration
(c) Control algorithm
(d) Special tool
74. Which type or types of actuators are used for actuating robot joints?
(a) Electric actuators only
(b) Hydraulic actuators only
(c) Pneumatic actuators only
I
75. Which type of gripper is suitable for handling flat glass sheets?
C (a) Permanent Magnetic type
(b) Mechanical fingers
T (c) Vacuum cup
(d) Electromagnet type
E
76. Servomotors are dc motors having
(a) Encoders
(b) Thermistors
(c) Anemometer
(d) dynamometers
A 77. Collection of a sequence of configurations a robot makes to go from one place to

another without regard to the timing of these configurations, is called
I (a) Path
(b) Trajectory
C
(c) Approach
T (d) Point-to-point
E 78. Which of the following affects robot dynamics?

(a) Friction
(b) Gravity
(c) Coriolis effect
79. Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) is used in robots to control

A (a) Gripper force
(b) Motor speed
I (c) Vision sensors
(d) Teach pendent
C
T
80. Slip sensors are used in robots to prevent
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A (a) Mobile robots from slipping

(b) Robot operators from slipping
I (c) Slipping of objects from gripper
(d) Slipping of gripper from wrist
C
T
E 81. When an electrical resistance strain gauge, with gauge factor of 2 and resistance
50, is subjected to a strain of 0.001 its resistance will change by
(a) 0.01 
(b) 1 
(c) 0.1 
(d) 25 
A 82. A solar cell is

(a) Photo-voltaic transducer
I (b) Photo-emissive transducer
(c) Photo-conductive transducer
C (d) Photo-resistive transducer
T
83. LM35, a common sensor with integrated signal conditioning, is used for
E (a) Power measurement
(b) Resistance measurement
(c) Temperature measurement
(d) Strain measurement
84. Debouncing is a problem commonly associated with

(a) Proximity switches
(b) Mechanical switches
A (c) Thermistors
(d) Photo-diodes
I
C 85. Quartz crystal is best known
(a) Thermistor material
T (b) Hall-effect material
(c) Insulator material
E (d) Piezo-electric material
86. A hydraulic cylinder having a diameter of 100 mm is to be used to move a work

piece which requires a force of 10 kN. The value of required working pressure is
approximately
(a) 0.1 MPa
(b) 1 MPa
A (c) 3 MPa
(d) 10 MPa
I
C
T
87. The major factor for difficult position control in pneumatic actuation systems is
E
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A (a) Vapours in compressed air

(b) Pulsating air supply from reciprocating air compressors
I (c) Compressibility of the air
(d) Absence of return lines in pneumatic systems
C
88. Which of the following is not a correct configuration of directional control valves?
T (a) 2/2 valve
E (b) 3/2 valve
(c) 3/3 valve
(d) Infinite position valve
89. A quick-exhaust valve is used in pneumatic systems

(a) For relieving excess air pressure in the system
(b) To redirect compressed air to a secondary circuit
(c) To purge the tubes of air impurities
A (d) To retract the piston quickly
I
90. The functioning of non-return valve in fluid power systems is similar to
C (a) Diode in electronic systems
(b) Inductance in electrical systems
T (c) Spring in mechanical systems
E
91. The bearing pressure is exerted at right angles to the shaft axis in a
(a) Foot step bearing
(b) Collar bearing
(c) Taper roller bearing
(d) Radial bearing
A 92. A double fillet welded joint with parallel fillet weld of length L and keg B is
subjected to a tensile force P. Assuming uniform stress distribution, the shear stress
I in the weld is given by
C (a) (P2)/(BL)
(b) P/(2BL)
T (c) P/(BL2)
(d) (2P)/(BL)
E
93. A radial ball bearing has a basic load rating of 50 kN. If the desired rated life of the
bearing is 6000 hours, what equivalent radial load can the bearing carry at 500 rpm?
(a) 8.85 kN
(b) 18.85 kN
(c) 12.5 kN
(d) 16.25 kN
A
94. The lead angle of a worm is 22.5°. Its helix angle will be
I (a) 22.5°
(b) 45°
C (c) 67.5°
T (d) 90°
E
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A 95. A 1.2 m long steel circular solid shaft having 35 mm diameter is fixed rigidly at one
end and has a hand wheel of 500 mm diameter keyed to the other end. Calculate load
I applied at tangent to the rim of the hand wheel which will produce a torsional shear
of 60 MPa.
C (a) 2000 N
(b) 2020 N
T (c) 2040 N
E (d) 2060 N
96. An NO switch ‘X’ and an NC switch ‘Y’ are connected in parallel in a circuit. The
normal and operated states of both the switches are represented by 0 and 1
respectively. Which of the following Boolean expressions represent the ‘on’ state of
the output?
(a) X = 0 and Y=1
(b) X = 1 and Y=1
A (c) X = 0 and Y=0
I (d) Both (b) and (c)
C 97. An internal relay in a PLC is

(a) Used for connecting an analog input to the PLC
T (b) A digital bit in an internal register
(c) Used for connecting an analog output to the PLC
E
(d) A protection device
98. Which out of the following is not a valid command for PLC shift register?
(a) IN
(b) OUT
(c) SFT
(d) RST
A
99. A counter in PLCs may be used for
I (a) Counting number of contact operations
(b) Counting the number of rungs in the ladder diagram
C
(c) Counting the number of inputs
T (d) Counting the number of outputs
E 100. In modern PLCs, the protection on the input side is implemented using
(a) Fuses
(b) MCBs
(c) Opto-isolators
(d) TTL device
101. In automobiles, the camshaft

A (a) Operates the intake and exhaust valves
(b) Rotates at the same speed as the crankshaft
I (c) Has connecting rod attached to it
(d) Opens and closes the breaker points
C
T
102. Engine mapping is used in
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A (a) Making 3D CAD models of engines

(b) Developing engine control systems
I (c) Selecting material for cylinder liners
(d) Designing distributorless spark control system
C
103. The electronic ignition control system does not include
T (a) Distributor
E (b) ROM Look-up table
(c) Ignition coils
(d) Spark plugs
104. The EGR valve in electronically controlled engines is used for

(a) Ensuring correct electronic gear ratio
(b) Quick release of exhaust gases
(c) Mixing exhaust gases with fresh engine charge
A (d) Maintaining engine and gear oil ratios
I
105. EGO sensor is also called
C (a) Alpha sensor
(b) Gamma sensor
T (c) Lambda sensor
(d) Zeta sensor
E
106. CSG in CAD refers to
(a) Computer Simulated Dimensioning
(b) Constructive Solid Geometry
(c) Constructive Surface Geometry
(d) Computer Simulated Drafting
A 107. A line with tapering width can be easily drawn in CAD using
(a) Line tool
I (b) Triangle tool
(c) Polyline tool
C
(d) Crop tool
T
108. Hermite cubic spline is defined by
E (a) 4 parameters
(b) 3 parameters
(c) 2 parameters
(d) Only 1 parameter
109. One of the popular techniques to derive integral equations which form the basis of
finite element solutions, is
A (a) Blending approach
(b) Variational approach
I (c) Tolerance synthesis
(d) Arithmetic method
C
T
110. Which of the following is not an element-type in FEM?
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MCE23
A (a) 3-node quadratic

(b) 3-node linear
I (c) 2-node quadratic
(d) 2-node linear
C
111. The Gray code equivalent of binary number 1000 is
T (a) 1001
E (b) 1010
(c) 1100
(d) 1101
112. The overall transfer function of closed-loop system having forward-path TF of

3/(s+3) and a negative feedback-path TF of 10 is
(a) 3/(s+33)
(b) 33/(s+33)
A (c) 33/(s+3)
I (d) 3/(s+3)
C 113. A stepper motor has a step angle of 7.5°. The digital input rate required to produce a
rotation of 600 RPM is
T (a) 750 per sec
(b) 75 per sec
E
(c) 480 per sec
(d) 48 per sec
114. The Boolean expression 𝐴. 𝐵 + 𝐴. 𝐵 + 𝐴. 𝐵 is equivalent to

(a) 𝐴 + 𝐵
(b) 𝐴 + 𝐵
(c) 𝐴 + 𝐵
A (d) 𝐴 + 𝐵
I
115. The mathematical model of a system is described by 𝑥 + 10𝑥 + 25𝑥 = 50𝑦, the
C undamped natural frequency of the system is
(a) 50
T (b) 10
(c) 25
E (d) 5
116. SACRA robot configuration includes

(a) Only rotary joint
(b) Only linear joint
(c) Only planar joint
(d) Both linear and planar joints
A
117. Homogeneous transformation consists of
I (a) Rotation parameters only
(b) Translation parameters
C
(c) Both rotation and translation parameters
T (d) Mass parameters
E
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A 118. The transformation between the coordinate frames attached to the end-effector and
the base of the robot is established using
I (a) Inverse dynamic parameters
(b) Denavit-Hartenberg parameters
C (c) Teach pendent
(d) Parallel axis theorem
T
E 119. Lagrangian approach for modeling of robot dynamics is based upon
(a) Newtonian mechanics
(b) Denavit-Hartenberg approach
(c) Bond graph theory
(d) Kinetic and potential energy
120. In some operations such as spray painting and deburring, the motions required to
accomplish a task are implemented using preferably
A (a) Joint space trajectory planning
I (b) Cartesian-Space trajectory planning
(c) Continuous Trajectory Recording
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
UG2MCE23
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Mechatronics Engineering
Paper: 2
QUESTION No. ANSWER 61. a
1. a 62. d
2. c 63. b
3. b 64. d
4. d 65. b
5. a 66. b
6. c 67. c
7. b 68. a
8. a 69. d
9. d 70. b
10. b 71. d
11. d 72. d
12. c 73. b
13. a 74. d
14. b 75. c
15. d 76. a
16. a 77. a
17. d 78. d
18. a 79. b
19. c 80. c
20. a 81. c
21. d 82. a
22. a 83. c
23. b 84. b
24. a 85. d
25. c 86. b
26. b 87. c
27. a 88. c
28. b 89. d
29. a 90. a
30. a 91. d
31. d 92. c
32. a 93. a
33. c 94. c
34. d 95. b
35. b 96. d
36. d 97. b
37. b 98. a
38. d 99. a
39. b 100. c
40. b 101. a
41. d 102. b
42. d 103. a
43. a 104. c
44. b 105. c
45. c 106. b
46. c 107. c
47. b 108. a
48. c 109. b
49. a 110. c
50. d 111. c
51. b 112. a
52. d 113. c
53. b 114. a
54. c 115. d
55. a 116. a
56. c 117. c
57. b 118. b
58. d 119. d
59. a 120. c
60. c
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A MINING ENGINEERING
I
T
E PAPER-I
Instructions:
A
120 questions.
C
T
A
I
C non-programmable scientific calculator.
T
E specified.

C
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A
I
1. Which of the following has poor water resistant property?
C a) ANFO
b) Slurry explosive
T c) Emulsion explosive
E d) NG based explosive
2. Which of the following is not dependent on efficient breaking of rock?

a) Type of explosive
b) Amount of charge per hole
c) Type of exploder
A d) Proper stemming
I
3. The drilling pattern followed in small drifts
C a) Wedge cut
b)Fan cut
T c) Drag cut
d)Burn cut
E
4. Detonating relays are generally used for the purpose of blasting in
a) Drift
b) Cross-cut
c) Solid blasting face
A d) opencast working
I 5. Amount of explosive to be charged in a single shot hole is not dependent on

a) nature of rock
C b) Hole depth
c) Hole diameter
T
d) Quantity of detonating fuse
E
6. The delay interval in short delay detonator is
a) 25 ms
b) 30 ms
c) 15 ms
d)35 ms
A
I 7. To prevent slope failure the blasting system selected should be
a) pre-split
C b) Muffled
c) Deck charging
T d) All of these
E 8. At zero oxygen balance, the ratio of oxidizers to fuel ratio for ANFO is
a) 92:8
b) 93:7
c) 94:6
d) 95:5
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 9. Which of the following is added as sensitizer in explosive?

a) NaCl
I b) NH4NO3
c) NG
C d) Charcoal
T
10. Which of the following is used as fuel in explosive?
E a) sodium nitrate
b) Sulphur
c) Sodium chloride
d) Nitroglycerine
A 11.The plane of contact between two series of strata is called

a) Homogeneity
I
b) Heterogeneity
C c) Unconformity
d) Dip & strike
T
12.If granite is the original rock then what is its metamorphic rock?
E a) Gneiss
b) Slate
c) Schist
d) mica
A 13.The process of removal of loose soil or rock particles during storm, along the course of
blowingwind is defined as
I a) Attrition
b) Deflation
C c) Denudation
d) mantle
T
E 14.Which of the following reserve is least in quantity?
a) Proved
b) Indicated
c) Inferred
d) Mineable
A
15.The topographic depressions that accommodates lakes are known as
I a) Crater lakes
b) Aeolians lakes
C c) Lake basins
d) Horn-shoe lakes
T
E 16.The nature of eruption of volcano is principally guided by
a) Size of conduit
b) Physical & chemical character of magma
c) Crater
d) volcanic cones
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A
17 The object of providing an additional convex lens is called-
I a) tachometric lens
b) focal lens
C c) anallatic lens
T d) fixed hair lens
E 18 Which of the following is not a method under tachometry?

a) stadia method
b) tangential method
c) fixed hair method
d) horizontal measurement
A 19 Duties and responsibilities of surveyors are laid down in which provision of CMR 1957?
a) 48
I
b) 49
C c) 50
d) 51
T
20 The combined effect of curvature and refraction in levelling is an error which is
E a) Additive
b) Subtractive
c) Multiplicative
d) Divisive
A 21 In order to get work of highest precision, which of the following tape is used for measuring
base lines in triangulation?
I a) synthetic tape
b) inner tape
C c) linen tape
d) steel tape
T
22 What should be the maximum length of the shorter offset affect when its direction is set out
E
by eye or by swinging the tape on the chain line?
a) 1m
b) 5m
c) 10m
d) 15m
A
23.The maximum wet bulb temperature in U/G mine is
I a) 300C
b) 30.50C
C c) 330C
T d) 33.50C
E 24.An air sample produces 8% CH4 and 3% H2. If the lower inflammability of CH4 is 5% and
H2
is4%, what is the lower flammability of the mixture?
a) 9.5%
b) 7.16%
c) 4.68%
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A d) 3.9%
25. If CO/O2 deficiency ratio in a mine is 2%, it indicates
I a) Existence of spontaneous heating
b) Active fire
C c) Heating in advanced stage
d) None of these
T
E 26. Why forcing ventilation is undesirable in a continuous miner face?
a) It is costly
b) It occupies whole cross-section of heading
c) It exposes workers to high concentrations of dust
d) It is unable to cope up with the rate of advance of continuous miner
A 27. The primary aim of ventilation control in the event of fires is

a) to help fire fighters and rescuers as far as practicable
I
b) To keep continuing the production work in the district
C c) arranging fire doors to control fire
d) To withdraw workers from mine as early as possible
T
28. What is the nature of flow of air in mines?
E a) laminar
b) turbulent
c) circular
d) Smooth conduits
A 29. Major source of heat in underground coal mine is

a) light
I b) Men
c) oxidation
C d) Machinery
T
30. Hygrometric survey is carried out to check and control environmental conditions in mines.
E Thisis done by
a) whirling hygrometer
b) Assman hygrometer
c) fixed hygrometer
d) Manometer
A 31. It gives the assessment of cooling power of the environment irrespective of working rate of
I men. This is known as
a) kata estimation
C b) Effective temperature
c) dry bulb temperature
T d) Sweat rate
E
32. Which diagram explains the limits of explosibility of CH4?
a) Coward
b) Le chatelier
c) Graham
d) Palvalov
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A
33. Creep is the error associated with
I a) fortin barometer
b) Manometer
C c) aneroid barometer
d) Mercury barometer
T
E 34. Sum of static pressure and velocity pressure is known as
a) atmospheric pressure
b) Absolute pressure
c) gauge pressure
d) Total pressure
A 35. The maximum rate of heat transfer from 1 m2 of the human body surface to the surrounding
airunder any environmental condition is called
I
a) specific heat of air
C b) Specific cooling power
c) predicted sweat rate
T d) Metabolic rate
E 36. A miner when doing hard work at 307K may sweat at the rate of
a) 120 cm3/hr
b) 350 cm3/hr
c) 550 cm3/hr
d) 850 cm3/hr
A
37. Calculate pressure required to circulate 2400 m3/min of air through a 3 km long tunnel of
I 3x2.5
m cross section with k = 0.001 N S2M⁻4
C a) 125 Pa
T b) 225 Pa
c) 300 Pa
E d) 375 Pa
38 A company is considering the following project:

Cash flows(Rs) for five years
Year 0 1 2 3 4 5
Cash Flow -5000 +11300 +12769 14428 +16305 +18421
A
(Rs)
I What will be the NVP for the project if the cost of capital is 10%?
a) Rs. 4240.12
C b) Rs. 4554.90
c) Rs. 4207.12
T d) Rs. 4449.90
E
39.Fire damp is generally found in
a) Metal mine
b) Coal mine
c) pond
d) General atmosphere
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A
I 40.A normal flame safety lamp can measure CH4 concentration upto a minimum percentage of
a) 0.5%
C b) 1%
c) 1.5%
T
d) 3%
E
41.The sound pressure level is measured as 5x10⁻4N/m2. What is the noise level in dB?
a) 27.9
b) 30.7
c) 28.7
d) 25
A
42.The minimum illumination standard at the coal mine pit bottom is
I
a) 1.5 LUX
C b) 1.5 lm/ft2
c) 0.4 lm/ft2
T d) 2.4 LUX
E 43.Gas chromatography separates and analyze components of gas mixture by
a) Absorbent
b) Molecular species
c) boiling water
d) Catalyst
A
44.Burning of methane with blue flame produces
I a) CO2 +CO
b) CO2+H2O
C c) CO2+N2
T d) CO2+CH4
E
45. As per MMR 1961, mine plan of a mine having large open caste working shall be on a scale
having a representative factor of
a)200:1
b)2000:1
c)1000:1
A d)4000:1
I
46 Mine life time should be calculated based on
C a)Geological reserve
b)Commercial reserve
T c)Workable reserve
d)Inharent reserve
E
47 Which of the following is most suitable for opening upon u/g mine?
a)Where demand profile is maximum
b) Where rehabitation is suitable
c)Where is operating cost is low
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A d)Where equipment procurement is easy
I 48 What is the first stage of mine life?

a)Prospecting
C b)Development
c)Exploitation
T
d)None of the above
E
49 Adit is adopted for
a)A deposit having less depth of cover
b)A hilly terrain
c)A deposit having more depth of cover
d)Quick return on investment
A
50 Activity that can be delayed without making the project longer is
I
a)critical
C b)flexibility
c)total float
T d)network activity
E 51.How many instructors should be there in a rescue station
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
A
52.What is the minimum interval of recapping a haulage rope, which is once capped?
I a) 3 months
b) 6 months
C c) 12 months
d) 24 months
T
E 53.The maximum voltage of electrical signals in underground mines having supported on
insulators is
a) 30 V
b) 60 V
c) 125 V
d) 220 V
A
I 54.What is the name of the device used in a shaft exceeding 100 m depth to prevent over
speeding and over winding?
C a) Automatic speed indicator
b) Automatic contrivance
T c) automatic depth indicator
d) automatic brake
E
55. It is expected that all timber supports of mines are to be withdrawn by
a) bunton
b) Prop-withdrawer
c) drop war wick
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A d) Jim crow
I 56. As per provision of CMR 1957, who shall be held responsible for determining the VEQ?
a) Safety officer
C b) Ventilation officer
c) labour welfare officer
T
d) General manager
E
57. What should be the minimum average output of an underground mine, where the
manager must have 1st class manager ship certificate of competency
a) 600 t/month
b) 1500 t/month
c) 2500 t/month
A d) 5000 t/month
I
58. In which form owner, agent or manager of a mine shall submit monthly return to the
C Chief Inspector
a) Form D
T b) Form E
c) Form II
E d) Form IA
59. Which section of Mines Act 1952, prohibits the employment of women in underground
mine?
a) 45
A b) 46
c) 47
I d) 48
C 60. Which of the following earning is not included in the “ordinary rate of wages” of mine
employees?
T
a) basic wages
E b) Dearness allowance
c) bonus excluding incentive for production
d) Compensation in cash
61. What should be the minimum floor area of a shelter in a mine?

a) 10 m2
A b) 12 m2
I c) 14 m2
d) 20 m2
C
62. Which of the following category of work persons are not bound statutory to have first aid
T certificate and to carry first aid outfit while on duty?
a) Overman
E
b) Mine Sirdar
c) Line helper
d) Mechanic
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A
I 63.Who acts as secetary to Safety Committee constituted as per the rule 29 T?
a) Manager
C b) Safety Officer
c) Ventilation Officer
T
d) Sampling In-charge
E
64.What should be the minimum limit of experience for nominating a person as workmen’s
Inspector?
a) 3 Years
b) 5 Years
c) 7 Years
A d) 12 Years
I
65.What should be the minimum number of persons in a rescue team using breathing
C apparatus?
a) 5
T b) 6
c) 7
E d) 8
66.The base that is established by rescue team near irrespirable zone for conducting rescue
work is known as
a) rescue room
A b) Rescue station
c)fresh airbase
I d)Recovery zone
C 67.What should be the duration of posting a rescue trained person in a rescue station?
a) 1-5 Years
T
b) 6-10 Years
E c) 11-15 Years
d) 16-20 Years
68.Which of the following apparatus, equipment is not recommended to keep at rescue

Room?
a) breathing apparatus
A b) Reviving apparatus
I c) smoke helmet
d) Scissors
C
T 69. A person may appeal to the manager for his re-examination even though the person has
been declared medically unfit for employment in mine. Which Board will re-examine
E
him?
a) Safety promotion Board
b) Medical Council
c) Appellate Medical Board
d) Board of Scruitineers
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A
I 70. How many days in a week the workmen’s Inspector is supposed to perform the duties as
mentioned in rule 29 R?
C a) 1 Day
b) 2 Days
T
c) 3Days
E d) 4 Days
71.In a drift of 2.4 m x 3.0 m size, the pull obtained per blast is 1.8 m. Total explosive
consumed per blast is 36 kg. If the tonnage factor is 0.36 m3/te, the powder factor is
A a) 0.5 kg/te
b) 1.0 kg/te
I
c) 1.5 kg/te
C d) 2.0 kg/te
T 72.Emulsion explosive is a mixture of

a) Ammonium nitrate, TNT, NG
E b) Ammonium nitrate, TNT
c) Ammonium nitrate, water, NG
d) Ammonium nitrate, water, micro balloons
73.Which of the following explosive are recommended for deep hole blasting?
A a) 80% SG, OCG, ANFO
b) Polar Ajax
I c) LOX
d) Gelignite
C
74.Calculate the total resistance for 20 numbers of electric delay detonators connected in
T
parallel, each detonator has resistance of 2 ohms and resistance of connecting wire and
E blasting cable is 8 ohms and 3 ohms respectively.
a) 8.1 ohms
b) 9.1 ohms
c) 10.1 ohms
d) 11.1 ohms
A 75.During drilling, the hole gets filled with cuttings and has to be cleaned out frequently.
I This is done with the help of
a) derrick
C b) Calyx shot drilling
c) Sludger
T d) V-chisel
E
76.The delicate instrument that records earthquake is known as
a) Magnitude scale
b) Rikhter
c) Seismographs
d) Vibscanner
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A
I 77.During which transportation, the organism is decomposed and it loses nitrogen, oxygen
and other volatile constituent?
C a) Evolution
b) Sedimentation
T
c) Crystallization
E d) Carbonization
78.A natural mineral substance of iron oxide, clay and sometimes manganese is called
a) Shale
b) Silt
c) Ochre
A d) Tuff
I
79. These are wavy undulations developed in country rocks whenever the region is
C subjected tosevere pressure or stress
a) Fault
T b) Fold
c) Dyke
E d) Sill
80.What should be the number of surveyors in underground mine where average monthly
output is 10,000 tons?
A a) 1
b) 2
I c) 3
d) 4
C
81.The backsight reading on a benchmark of RL 100.00m is 1.45m. If the inverse staff
T
reading on a foresight is 2.23m, the RL of the staff station in m is
E a) 105.13
b) 103.68
c) 100.78
d) 95.55
82.Determine the airplane flying height to obtain the average scale of the photograph equal
A 1/5000. Ground surface elevations vary from 150 to 300m. Focal length of the camera
I lens is 150mm
a) 997
C b) 975
c) 1275
T d) 1359
E
83.Given that the RL of the floor is 100.5; staff reading on the floor 1.5; reading the staff
held upside down against the underside of the tee-beam is 3.5; find the height of the
beam above the floor level
a) 2m
b) 3m
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A c) 4m
d) 5m
I
84.A mine fan delivers 50 m3/s of air at a fan drift of 10 mm of w.g. It is proposed to
C increase
the quantity to 60 m3/s of air, the required w.g. shall be
T
a) 12mm
E b) 14.4 mm
c) 13.6 mm
d) 20.2 mm
85.A fan running at 20 rpm develops a pressure of 50 mm water gauge; the fan speed is
increasedto 300 rpm. The water gauge developed will be
A a) 75 mm
b) 112.5 mm
I
c) 164 mm
C d) 97 mm
T 86. A sealed off area known to have black damp has 18% O2, 2%CO2 and 78% N2. If fresh
airhas 21% O2, 0.03% CO2 and 78.97% N2, the percentage of black damp in the area is
E a) 10.31
b) 12.28
c) 12.31
d) 14.28
A 87.Quantity of air to be circulated to U/G workings where 150 workers employed in a

largest
I shift and daily production 500 te will be
a) 900 m3/min
C b) 1250 m3/min
c) 900 m3/sec
T
d) 1250 m3/sec
E
88. A smooth steel duct 450x600 mm in size circulates 0.5 m3 of air per second. Calculate
the coefficient of resistance of duct?
a) 0.01
b) 0.015
c) 0.02
A d) 0.04
I
89 A company producing bearing plates for rock bolts has the selling price Rs. 20/unit and the
C variable cost has Rs. 12/unit. If the total fixed unit is Rs. 5,60,000 then the profit earned for
an output of 1,00,000 units of bearing plates is
T a) Rs. 2,40,000
b) Rs. 6,40,000
E
c) Rs. 8,00,000
d) Rs. 14,40,000
90 Equipment cost Rs. 8, 00,000 today and has a service life of 15 years. The salvage value at
the end of 15 years is Rs. 2, 00,000. What will be the value at the end of 10 years?
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ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A a) 4,00,000
b) 6,60,000
I c) 4,50,000
d) 5,00,000
C
91 The ABC copper company recently bought an ore-bearing parcel of land for Rs. 2,000,000.
T
The recoverable reserves in the mine were estimated to be 5, 00,000 tons. If 75,000 tons of
E ore were mined during the first year and 50,000 tons sold, what was the depletion allowance
for one year?
a) Rs. 2,00,000
b) Rs. 2,50,000
c) Rs. 3,00,000
d) Rs. 4,00,000
A
92 The probability distribution of the outcome of an investment is
I
Outcome (Rs) 1000 700 300
C Probability 0.2 0.5 0.3
The expected rate of return is
T a) 540
b) 640
E c) 740
d) 840
93 In usual testing by flame safety lamp, the percentage of gas present in underground mine
airis indicated by
A a) Colour of wick
b) Light emitted by lamp
I c) Height of cap
d) Nature of fuel used in lamp
C
94 Noncollageneous pneumoconiosis is caused by
T
a) Fibrogenic dust
E b) Non fibrogenic dust
c) Silica dust
d) Barium sulphate
95Which of the following means is adopted to break the methane layering?

a) Increase air velocityspraying
A b) Methane probe
I c) venture blower
d) Water
C
96The rate of methane gas emission can be expressed as a function of
T a) Coal permeability
b) Depth
E
c) Width of working
d) Method of working
97 Ore grade for which revenue from the recoverable reserve exactly equals the cost of mining,
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A treatment and marketing is known as

a) Cut off grade
I b) Auger Grade
c) Break even Grade
C d) Liquidation Grade
T
98 In which type of mine gestation period is more
E a) Open caste coal mine
b) Underground metal mine
c) Both a) and b)
99 An ore block of length 30m and height 20m having an average width of 1.5mtr with
A sharp boundary wall is mined with a minimum mining width of 2m. If tonnage factor
are 3t/m3 for ore, 2 t/m3 forwall rock and average grade of ore body is 10%, the
I
dilutedgrade of ore mined in percentage is
C a) 7.50
b) 7.84
T c) 8.18
d) 8.52
E
For planning of a deep u/g coal mines, which ventilation system can preferred
100 a) Ascenssional ventilation
b) Homotropal ventilation
c) Descensional ventilation
I PART –C
C 101. IfAbeasquarematrixoforder3and|A|=5,thenthevalueof2|A|and|2A|are
a) 10and40
T
b) 10 and15
E c) 15 and40
d) 10 and10
b) Identitymatrix
A
c) Singularmatrix
I d) None ofabove
C 103. IftherankofasquarematrixAoforder4is2,thenadjointofAwillbea
a) Nullmatrix
T
b) Diagonalmatrix
E c) Lower Triangularmatrix
d) None ofabove

a) u
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A b) 1
c) -1
I d) 0
C [−3, 1] are
a) −7 and −8
T
b) 81 and −8
E c) 0 and −2
d) 73 and −8
2
A b) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 4
I c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4
C
T a) 3
E b) 6
c) 2
d) None ofabove
𝐵
a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
A 𝐵
b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
I 𝐵
c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
C d) None ofabove
T 109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random.
E Then the probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3
or7is
13
a) 30
17
b) 30
19
c) 30
A
d) None ofabove
I
11 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
C 1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
T b) Unitorymatrix
E d) None ofthe above.

a) λ = 2 and µ =4
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
I d) None ofabove
C 112.Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of the
T
a) 62
E b) 44
c) 8
d) None ofabove


A a) grad | A |  0

I b) curl A  0

C c) div A  0
d) None ofabove
T
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
E (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
d) None ofabove
A
1 1 𝑛 −1
I 115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
a) ⎾(n − 1)
C b) ⎾(n)
n−1
T c) ⎾ 2
n+1
E d) ⎾ 2

a) Hyperbolic
b) Elliptic
A
c) Parabolic
I d) None ofabove
C 𝑥 +𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
T 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
E 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A
I
C 118.Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the
2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
T 𝜋
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
E
a) 0
b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
d) None ofabove
I a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
C c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
d) None ofabove
T
a) m2
b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
d) None ofabove
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG1MIE32
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Mining Engineering
Paper: 1

1. a 41 a 81. b
2. c 42 a 82. b
3. c 43 b 83. d
4. d 44 b 84. b
5. d 45 d 85. b
6. a 46 b 86. b
7. a 47 c 87. b
8. c 48 a 88. c
9. c 49 b 89. a
10. b 50 c 90. a
11. c 51 a 91. c
12. a 52 b 92. b
13. b 53 a 93. c
14. d 54 b 94. b
15. c 55 b 95. c
16. b 56 b 96. b
17. c 57 c 97. c
18. d 58 c 98. c
19. b 59 b 99. c
20. b 60 c 100. c
21. b 61 c 101. a
22. d 62 c 102. c
23. d 63 b 103. a
24. c 64 b 104. d
25. c 65 a 105. d
26. c 66 c 106. d
27. d 67 a 107. a
28. b 68 d 108. a
29. c 69 c 109. a
30. a 70 b 110. b
31. b 71 b 111. c
32. a 72 d 112. d
33. c 73 a 113. b
34. d 74 d 114. a
35. b 75 c 115. b
36. d 76 c 116. b
37. a 77 d 117. d
38. a 78 c 118. a
39. b 79 b 119. d
40. c 80 b 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A MINING ENGINEERING
I
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks:
C 160
T
E PAPER-II
Instructions:
A questions.
I
C
T
E iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be

A
specified.
C
T vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A
I PART-A (80 X 1 = 80 Marks)
C 1. The co-efficient of static friction between wheels and rail for locomotive is usually
. a) 0.2
T
b) 0.4
E c) 0.6
d) 0.8
2. Sandwich conveyor is a type of

a) High angle conveyor
b) Cable belt conveyor
A c) Chain conveyor
d) Shaker conveyor
I
C 3 Charging of battery loco gives off
a) H2
T b) CH4
c) H2S
E d) NO2
4 Which of the haulage is used as main rope haulage?

a) Endless haulage
b) Direct rope haulage
A c) Tugger haulage
d) Tail rope haulage
I
5. A fluid coupling is also known as
C a) Mechanical linker
b) Roller coupling
T
c) Flexible coupling
E d) Hydraulic coupling
6. The tool used for bore hole deviation is

a) String shot
b) Kelly
c) Whipstock
A d) Ratchet
I
7. When the cage is at pit bottom, maximum turns of the rope on the drum is
C a) 2
b) 3
T c) 4
d) 5
E
Page 2 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A 8. Given „S‟ is the setting load and „Y‟ is the yield load of a hydraulic prop, the correct
relationship is
I a) S<Y
b) S>Y
C
c) S=Y
T d) S=Y2
E 9. What is the track gauge for tubs of 1.1m3?

a) 0.4m
b) 0.6m
c) 0.8m
d) 1m
A
10. What is the maximum permissible gradient for LHD?
I a) 1 in 1
b) 1 in 2
C c) 1 in 6
d) 1 in 12
T
E 11. The range of application of Hydraulicking is mostly limited to
a) Hard rock
b) Placer
c) coal
d) Soft rock
A 12. The area of working face broken per drill hole is termed as
a) Drillability
I b) blasting factor
C c) drilling factor
d) Powder factor
T
13. The ratio of weight per unit volume of solid rock mass in the bench and weight per unit
E volume
of loose rock mass after blasting or loosening is called
a) Bucket factor
b) Swing factor
c) powder factor
A d) Swell factor
I 14. The process of under watermining of sand, clay, tin and placer deposits of gold is known as
a) Hydraulicking
C b) Dredging
T c) placer mining
d) Leaching
E
Page 3 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A
15. Which of the following excavator is preferred to be used for a bench height of 30m or more?
I a) Bucket wheel excavator
b) Shovel
C c) front end loader
d) Dragline
T
E 16. How much time a dragline may take to complete a cycle for a single pass?
a) 40 sec
b) 60 sec
c) 1 min 45 sec
d) 3min
A 17. Stacker is commonly used to work in association with

a) Dragline
I
b) Bucket wheel excavator
C c) shovel
d) Payloader
T
18. Which of the following equipment is very common for over casting or side casting?
E a) Shovel
b) Dozer
c) dragline
d) Payloader
A 19. As per MMR 1961, mine plan of a mine having large opencast working shall be on a scale
having a representative factor of
I a) 200:1
b) 2000:1
C c) 1000:1
d) 4000:1
T
20. In ultimate pit analysis, the most widely used method is
E a) Dynamic programming
b) Linear programming
c) simulation
d) Heuristic technique
21 Liberation of the valuable minerals from the gangue is accomplished by
A a) Concentration
b) Sorting
I c) Comminution
d) Oxidation
C
T 22 The mill which except the lowest size of feed is
a) Rod mill
E b) Ball mill
c) Autogeneous mill
Page 4 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
I 23 What will be the value of d50 for the specified overflow of 60% passing 75m when the value
of the multiplier is 2.08
C a) 62.08µm
b) 35.52 µm
T
c) 124.8 µm
E d) 154 µm
24 Hydrocyclones are used in ore treatment to separate

a) Coarse and fine particles
b) mineral and gaunge
c) Concrete and Tailings
A d) none of the above
I
25 If 120m3/hr slurry is fed to floatation, conditioning tank of volume 20m3, then find out the
C relation time or average of the particle in the tank?
a) 1min
T b) 6min
c) 10min
E d) 24min
26 A pulp steam is diverted to fill up a can and pulp density is measured to be as 1450 kg/m3.
Calculate the percentage of solids by weight is
(Assume the density of solid is 2100kg/m3)
A a) 49%
b) B)59%
I c) 69%
d) 75%
C
27 Magnetic separation is
T
a) A dry method
E b) An wet method
c) Combination of two a) & b)
28 Reduction ratio measures with

a) Small size of crusher
A b) Size of ore as input
I c) Large size of crusher
d) Size is immaterial
C
29 The general producer for the test sieving is comprehensively covered in
T a) BS 19967
b) BS 1796
E
c) BS 1896
Page 5 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A d) BS 2001
I 30 The connection matrix has how many columns?

a) 4
C b) 6
c) 9
T
d) 11
E 31.The unconfined compressive strength and Young‟s modulus of rock is 90 MPa and 30 GPa
respectively. The stored strain energy per unit volume in KN/m3at failure is
a) 1.5
b) 140
c) 270
A d) 135
I 32.The Poisson‟s ratio of rock specimen is 0.27. If the compressive and shear wave velocities are
denoted by Vp and Vs, then Vp2/Vs2 is
C
a) 0.315
T b) 3.174
c) 1.781
E d) 10.07
33.A rock specimen is tested in compression. The lateral and longitudinal strains are 0.6% and3%
respectively. The Poisson‟s ratio of specimen is
a) 0.2
b) 0.3
A c) 0.4
I d) 0.18
C 34.An immediate roof of RMR 45 will be supported by roof bolts. If the width of gallery is 4.6
m, the minimum length of bolt is
T a) 1.035
b) 1.265
E
c) 2.070
d) 2.530
35.From a core drilling of shale, the average number of fractures per meter of core length is 20.
The RQD (%) is
A a) 60
b) 37
I c) 49
C d) 53
T 36.Uncorrected point load strength index must be corrected to standard equivalent diameter of
a) 20 mm
E b) 30 mm
c) 40 mm
Page 6 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A d) 50 mm
37. For a perfectly homogeneous and isotropic rock specimen, failure due to compressional
I loading would occur along
a) vertical lines parallel to loading axis
C b) maximum shearing plane
c) perpendicular to the loading axis
T
E
38. Find the correct dimension of BX, AX, NX core diameters (mm) respectively recovered by
the double tube coring mechanism
a) 42.0, 30.1, 54.74
b) 41.2, 35.2, 54.04
c) 35.2, 41.0, 54.90
A d) 47.6, 33.5, 54.90
I
39.If a rock specimen is being tested for unconfined compressive strength and there is smooth
C contact between loading platens & ends of specimen during testing. Platens of cracks which
will appear will be
T a) horizontal
b) Vertical
E c) diagonal
d) No specific crack pattern
40. The fracture interference is a unique function of

a) Shear stress
A b) Normal stress
c) Both
C 41. Rocks fail by
a) splitting
T
b) Shear
E c) Both a) & b)
42. A Hookean and aNewtonian model in series make a

a) Kelvin Model
b) Bingham Model
A c) Burger Model
I d) Maxwell Model
C 43. The relationship between percent air voids (na%), porosity (n %) and air content (ac %) is
given by
T a) na = nac
b) n= naac
E
c) ac = nna
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ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A d) ac= n-na
I 44. The relation between UCS and Point Load Index (Is) of a sample is about
a)UCS = (20 ~ 25)*Is
C b) UCS = (2.0 ~5.0)*Is
c)UCS = (2.0 ~ 2.5)*Is
T
d)None of the above
E
45. In 1966 Impact strength index test device was designed by
a) Evans & Pomeroy
b) Muller & Breslau
c) Atterberg&Terzaghi
A
46. Schmidt hammer is used to measure which properties of rock
I
a) Mechanical
C b) Electrical
c) Elastic
E 47. The number of experimental set ups of flat jack to determine 3 dimensional state of stress in
a rock mass is
a) 6
b) 3
c) 2
A d) 1
I 48. A tension crack of 5 m depth behind a rock slope crest is completely filled with water. What
is the horizontal force exerted on a unit slope length by the water in tension crack?
C a) 122.6 kN
b) 245 kN
T
c) 12.26 MPa
E d) None
49. A resin grouted rock bolt is able to provide yield strength of 200MPa. If the bolt diameter is
2.5 cm and the grout length is 154 cm, what is adherence between bolt and grout?
a) 800 kg/cm2
b) 800 kPa
A c) 80MN
I d) 8000 N/m
C 50. For a bulking factor of 1.5, height of immediate roof for an extension thickness of H is
a) H
T b) 1.5H
c) 2H
E
d) 2.5H
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A
I 51 Coalification has taken place in the order of
a) Peat, Lignite, Bituminous, Anthracite
C b) Lignite, Peat, Bituminous, Anthracite
c) Peat, Lignite, Anthracite, Bituminous
T
d) Bituminous, Peat, Lignite, Anthracite
E
52 Square pillars in B&P panel are of size 30cm centre to centre and the galleries are of width 4m.
The tributary area for each pillar in m2 is
a) 224
b) 256
c) 676
A d) 884
I
53 In an underground coal mine freshly exposed roof can be supported by a temporary support in
C the form of
a) Triangular chocks
T b) Screw props
c) Safari supports
E d) Hydraulic props
54 Maximum number of coal faces available in u/g bord and pillar development district is 13, the
number of coal heading in the district is
a) 3
A b) 5
c) 6
I d) 7
C 55 The number of Workmen‟s inspector in a large u/g coal mine is
a) 1
T
b) 2
E c) 3
d) 4
56 What percentage of “CO formed / O2 absorbed” ratio indicates existence of heating?

a) 0.5%
b) 1%
A c) 2%
I d) 3%
C 57 Maximum accidents in India are caused due to

a) Roof fall
T b) Gas explosion
c) Inundation
E
d) Fire
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A
58 Quick production can be achieved from
I a) Retratinglongwall mining method
b) Advance longwall mining method
C c) Jankowice method
d) Both a) & b)
T
E 59 In a u/g coal mine 1800 worker employed. The average production of mine is 600 tons per
day. The OMS of the mine is
a) 0.24te
b) 0.66te
c) 0.65te
d) None of the Above
A
60 In B&P mining, the width of the pillar and galleries are 19.5m and 3m respectively. The
I
percentage of extraction during development
C a) 24.8
b) 25.2
T c) 29.3
d) 30.5
E
61 Resuingstoping method is adopted when ore body is

a) Flat and thick
b) Very steep and thick
A c) Flat and thin
d) Very steep and thin
I
62 In situ ore of 1.5% copper got diluted with waste rock of value 0.2% copper, if the resultant
C extracted ore has 1.2% copper, what is the % of dilution?
a) 30%
T
b) 25%
E c) 23%
d) 20%
63 Long hole drilling with creator blasting is used for the construction of
a) Winze
b) Shaft
A c) Raise
I d) Decline
C 64 Every ladder way used in mine shall project above the mouth of at least
a) 1m
T b) 1.5m
c) 2m
E
d) 0.5m
Page 10 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A
65 Cut and fill stopping can be operated
I a) Underhand only
b) Overhand only
C c) Both the above
T
E 66 High production rate couple with large scale and extensive subsidence result from the
method of
a) Top slicing
b) Block caving
c) Sub level caving
d) UCR mining
A
67 Dilution in sub level caving is
I
a) 10-35%
C b) >40%
c) <10%
T d) <5%
E 68 Broken rock of 3684m3 volume is happened into a square pyramid of height 12m. The
surface area in m2 required is
a) 921
b) 307
c) 614
A d) 1228
I 69 The instrument not used in hard rock metal mining drivage is

a) Road header
C b) Drill jumbo
c) Jack hammer
T
d) Dint header
E
70 Blasting of stope in VCR method consist of
a) Blasting one row after another
b) Creating initial slot going for mass blast
c) Blasting all the holes in slices
d) Blasting one column after another
A
I
71 The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under torsion is
C a) Zero
b) Minimum
T c) Maximum
d) Infinity
E
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A 72 Two beams, one of circular cross-section and the other of square cross-section, have equal
areas of cross-sections. When these beams are subjected to bending,
I a) both beams are equally economical
b) square beam is more economical
C c) circular beam is more economical
T
E 73 A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane. The shear stress is maximum at
a section inclined at __________ to the normal of the section.
a) 45° and 90°
b) 45° and 135°
c) 60° and 150°
d) 30° and 135°
A
74 The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length l with a point load W at the free end
I
is
C Wl 3
a)
3 EI
T
Wl 3
b)
E 8 EI
Wl 3
c)
16EI
Wl 3
d)
48EI
A
75 When a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses, of equal intensity, the
I
ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain is known as
C a) Young's modulus
b) modulus of rigidity
T c) bulk modulus
d) Poisson's ratio
E
76 When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure, there will be
a) a decrease in diameter and length of the shell
b) an increase in diameter and decrease in length of the shell
c) a decrease in diameter and increase in length of the shell
A d) an increase in diameter and length of the shell
I 77 According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) with one
end fixed and the other end free is __________ the crippling load for a similar column
C hinged at both the ends.
T a) Equal to
b) More than
E c) Less than
d) None of these
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A
78 Which of the following statement is wrong?
I a) In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is that the plane sections before
bending remains plane after bending.
C b) In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain is directly proportional to the
distance from the neutral axis.
T
c) At the neutral axis of a beam, the bending stress is maximum.
E d) The bending stress in a beam is inversely proportional to the section modulus.
79 In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the radial stress across the
thickness of the cylinder is
a) maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface
b) maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface
A c) maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
d) maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface
I
C 80 A beam encastered at both the ends is called
a) Simply supported beam
T b) Cantilever
c) Continuous beam
E d) Fixed beam
A 81 For tower mounted friction hoist having a co-efficient of friction (µ) between the rope and the
shave of 0.30, the wrap factor CµѲ is
I a) 1.60
b) 2.57
C c) 4.11
T
E 82 A cage weighing 12000kg is raised by four chains each making an angle of 30 with the vertical.
The tension in each chain 10KN is
a) 41
b) 34
c) 25
d) 20
A
I 83 Which of the following haulages require two parallel tracks side by side?
a) Tugger haulage
C b) Direct rope haulage
c) Tail rope haulage
T d) Endless rope haulage
E
84 A conveyor of rated power 100KW hauls coal up slip at 30kg/second along an inclination 130
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A and distance 280m. Heat added by the conveyor to the air in KW is

a) 56.4
I b) 81.6
c) 77.2
C d) 82.3
T
85 Which of the following action is observed in shaker conveyor?
E a) frictional motion
b) cradle movement
c) jigging movement
d) quick forward and slow backward movement
A 86.In order to get better safety, the optimum gradient of haul road is
a) 10-30
I
b) 50-90
C c) 150-190
d) >200
T
87.What is the relationship between break-even stripping ratio (BESR) and ordinary stripping
E ratio (OSR)
a) BESR<OSR
b) BESR>OSR
c) BESR=OSR
A
88.In a mine for one shovel six trucks are assigned. Shovel loading time per truck is 5 minutes
I and truck cycle time is 20 minutes. Calculate match factor?
a) 0.66
C b) 1
c) 1.2
T d) 1.5
E
89.An opencast mine has four benches. The height, width and face angle for each bench are 13
m, 30 m and 700 respectively. The overall slope is
a) 25.50
b) 20.70
c) 33.40
A d) 19.70
I
90.Dumper arrives at shovel at a constant rate of 10km/hr. The service rate is constant at 15km/hr.
C At a time, the expected number of dumpers in the queue is
a) 2
T b) 3
c) 5
E d) 4
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A 91 Grinding within a troumbling mill is not influenced by?

a) size
I b) Quantity
c) Shape
C d) Type of motion
T
92 What will be the theoretical capacity of a Roll Crusher, if the speed of roll is 5rev/min, roll
E diameter is 1000m, roll width is 1.2m, sp gravity of feed material is 2.5kg/m3 and distance
between rolls be 0.6mtr?
a) 1296 kg
b) 1496 kg
c) 1596 kg
d) 1696 kg
A
93 Duopactor is a kind of
I
a) Jaw crusher
C b) Ball mill
c) Gravity crusher
T d) Impact crusher
E 94 Which of the following screen is suitable if efficiency is the only criterion?
a) Dry screening
b) Wet screening
c) Damp screening
A
95 What is the minimum feed size in secondary crusher?
I a) 5cm
b) 15cm
C c) 30cm
d) 60cm
T
E
96.A rock specimen has moisture content of 1.34%. Volume of solids is found to be 89%. Degree
of saturation of rock sample is
a) 2.83%
b) 28.33%
c) 12.18%
A d) 10.18%
I
97.A rock sample has bulk density of 2.89 gm/cc. Its moisture content is found to be 1.38%.Its dry
C density will be
a) 2.52 g/cc
T b) 2.69 g/cc
c) 2.85 g/cc
E d) 2.96 g/cc
98.Any break in a rock mass irrespective of its size is termed as
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A a) Fracture
b) Fissure
I c) joint
d) Crack
C
99.A rock specimen is tested in compression. The lateral and longitudinal strains are found to 0.8%
T
& 2% respectively. Poisson‟s ratio is
E a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.4
d) 0.3
100.In a point load strength test a 50mm diameter core sample ruptured at 500 kg load. Unconfined
A compressive strength of the rock sample is
a) 500 kg/cm2
I
b) 400 kg/cm2
C c) 280 kg/cm2
d) 480 kg/cm2
T
101. For determination of tensile strength of rock specimen cylindrical core specimen was loaded
E on the curved surface keeping its axis horizontal. If failure load was 6000kg for a core of
diameter 3.8 cm the tensile strength is
a) 28.04 kg/cm2
b) 2.804 kg/cm2
c) 280.4 kg/cm2
A d) 0.2804 kg/cm2
I 102. Modulus of elasticity of a rock mass was found to be 5 x 106 kg/cm2 and 4 x 106 kg/cm2 in
compression and its modulus of elasticity in bending will be
C a) 45 x 106
b) 4.5 x 106
T
c) 0.45 x 106
E d) 45 x 107
103. E is for Modulus of Elasticity, G for shear Modulus and γ for poisson‟s ratio. Then
a) G= 2E/ γ+1
b) 2E/ γ-1
c) G= E/2(γ+1)
A d) G= E/2γ+1
I
104. What is the correct formula for Q-system of Rock Mass Classification?
C a) Q= (RQD/Jn)*(Jr/Ja)*(Jw/SRF)
b) Q= (RQD/Jn)*(Ja/Jr)*(Jw/SRF)
T c) Q= (RQD/Jn)*(Jw/Ja)*(Jr/SRF)
d) Q= (RQD/Jn)*(Jr/Jw)*(Ja/SRF)
E
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A 105. Immediate roof of a mine roadway is supported by 1.5 m long roof bolts placed at 1.2 m
centres
I along and across the roadway. The bolts are of 4 cm2 cross sectional area are made from steel
having tensile strength 300 kN/m2. Assuming specific gravity of rock =2.5, factor of safety of
C bolt is
a) 1.86
T
b) 2.26
E c) 2.98
d) 4.34
106. Which one of the following HEMM is tyremounted?

a) LHD
b) SDL
A c) Dozer
d) Shovel
I
C 107. A flat coal seam of thickness (t) 3m is excavated and broken roof rock has completely filled
the space created due to extraction. If building factor of roof is 1.2, the caving height (H) in
T m is
a) 15
E b) 16
c) 14
d) 12
108 How much stone dust is required per square meter cross-sectional area of gallery for light
A type of barriers?
a) 30 KG
I b) 70KG
c) 110 KG
C d) 150 KG
T
109 Man hole should be provided along the haulage length at every A meter distance. A is given
E by
a) 20
b) 50
c) 120
d) 200
A 110 The weight % of solids in a sand water stowing pipe is 60. If the solid density is 3000kg/m3,
I the pulp density of the slurry in kg/m3 is
a) 1380
C b) 1420
c) 1560
T d) 1667
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A 111 The suitable method for mining a 2m thick strong sulphide ore deposited within strong wall
rocks deeping at 180 and occurring at 60m below the surface is
I a) Overhand stoping
b) Top slicing
C c) Under hand long wall stoping
d) Breast Stoping
T
E 112 A block of ore between two levels, 30m apart is 40m long. The ore body thickness, sp
gravity and grade ore 2m, 2.8m, 2% respectively. The tonnage of copper available in the
block of ore is
a) 134.4
b) 236.2
c) 156.8
A d) 290.3
I
113 Rill stoping method is a form of
C a) Block caving
b) Artificially supported stoping
T c) Underhand stoping
d) Overhand stoping
E
114 In the shrinkage stoping method, the values given are in situ tonnage 9000ton, in situ grade
5.2g/ton, avg grade of waste 1.4g/ton, loss of ore in stope 10%, dilution 20% the grade at
the mill head in g/ton is
a) 6.47
A b) 4.57
c) 3.27
I d) 5.47
C 115 In sublevel stoping operation the draw system is generally
a) Draw point
T
b) Cross drift
E c) Finger raise and chute
116 The simply supported beam 'A' of length l carries a central point load W. Another beam 'B' is
loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is W. The ratio of
A maximum deflections between beams A and B is
a) 5/8
I b) 8/5
c) 5/4
C d) 4/5
T
E 117 Two shafts 'A' and 'B' are made of same material. The shaft 'A' is solid and has diameter D. The
shaft 'B' is hollow with outer diameter D and inner diameter D/2. The strength of hollow shaft
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MIE32
A in torsion is __________ as that of solid shaft.

a) 1/16
I b) 1/8
c) 1/4
C d) 15/16
T
118 A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m2 (tensile) and 10 kN/m2 (compressive)
E acting perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress is
a) 5 kN/m2
b) 10 kN/m2
c) 15 kN/m2
d) 20 kN/m2
A 119 The ratio of bulk modulus to Young's modulus for a Poisson's ratio of 0.25 will be
a) 1/3
I
b) 2/3
C c) 1
d) 3/2
T
120 Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' of the same material, same number of turns and
E made from same wire are subjected to an axial load W. The mean diameter of spring 'A' is
double the mean diameter of spring 'B'. The ratio of deflections in spring 'B' to spring 'A' will
be
a) 1/8
b) 1/4
A c) 2
d) 4
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG2MIE32
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Mining Engineering
Paper: 2

1. a 41 c 81. b
2. a 42 d 82. b
3. a 43 a 83. d
4. b 44 a 84. b
5. d 45 a 85. c
6. c 46 a 86. b
7. a 47 b 87. c
8. a 48 a 88. d
9. b 49 a 89. a
10. d 50 b 90. a
11. b 51 a 91. c
12. b 52 a 92. d
13. d 53 c 93. d
14. b 54 b 94. b
15. d 55 c 95. b
16. c 56 b 96. c
17. b 57 b 97. c
18. c 58 b 98. a
19. d 59 d 99. c
20. d 60 a 100. d
21. c 61 d 101. d
22. d 62 a 102. b
23. d 63 c 103. c
24. a 64 a 104. a
25. c 65 c 105. b
26. b 66 b 106. a
27. c 67 a 107. a
28. a 68 a 108. c
29. b 69 d 109. a
30. d 70 c 110. d
31. d 71 c 111. d
32. b 72 c 112. a
33. a 73 b 113. d
34. b 74 a 114. b
35. b 75 c 115. a
36. d 76 d 116. b
37. b 77 c 117. d
38. a 78 c 118. c
39. b 79 d 119. b
40. b 80 d 120. a
ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A
I MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
C
E
PAPER-I
Instructions:
A i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-
I C, total 120 questions.
C ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q 1 to Q 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
T
E
v. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will
be awarded to the wrong answer.

A
I
C
vii. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless
otherwise specified.
T
E
viii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle
using a black or blue ball point pen.
x. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator
on completion of examination before leaving the examination hall.
A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1MME22

I
1. Match the following Group 1 items with Group 2 items and select the correct option
C Group 1Group 2
1. Helical gears ------------------------------------------- A. Intersecting shafts
T 2. Bevel gears --------------------------------------------- B. Rotary motion into reciprocating
E motion
3. Spiral gears --------------------------------------------- C. Non-parallel nor intersecting
4. Rack and pinion --------------------------------------- D. Parallel shafts
a) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
b) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – B
c) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – C, 4 – A
d) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – D
A
2. Cam and follower is an example of
I a) Force closed pair
b) Unclosed pair
C c) Open pairs
E 3. According to synthesis of mechanism, which synthesis step includes degree of freedom

for a specified motion?
a) Type synthesis
b) Number synthesis
c) Dimensional synthesis
d) All of the above
4. For a simple gear train, velocity ratio is the ratio of

A a) Speed of driving shaft and speed of driven shaft
b) Speed of driven shaft and speed of driving shaft
I c) Speed of driven shaft and (speed of driving shaft + speed of idler gears)
C d) Speed of driving shaft and (speed of driven shaft + speed of idler gears)
T 5. Which of the following statements is/are true for a simple gear train?
E a) If number of idle gears is even, driving and driven wheels rotate in opposite
direction
b) If number of idle gears is odd, driving and driven wheels rotate in opposite
direction
c) If number of idle gears is even, driving and driven wheels rotate in same
direction
6. Which motion of follower is best for high speed cams?

A a) SHM follower motion
I b) Uniform acceleration and retardation of follower motion
c) Cycloidal motion follower
T
E
Page 2 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A 7. Relative motion between links is more than one direction which is unpredictable is
known as
I
a) Completely constrained motion
C b) Incompletely constrained motion
c) Successfully constrained motion
E
8. Which among the following involves designing of machine components concerning its
shape and size?
a) Kinetics
b) Kinematics
c) Synthesis
d) All of the above
9. Match the following Group 1 items (Kinematic pairs) with Group 2 items (Examples)
A
and select the correct option
I Group 1 Group 2
1. Revolute pair ------------------------------------------A. Ball bearing
C 2. Helical pair -------------------------------------------- B. Ball and socket
T 3. Rolling pair --------------------------------------------C. Lathe spindle in the head stock
4. Globular pair -------------------------------------------D. Motion between bolt and fixed nut
E
a) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – B
b) 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – C
c) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
d) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
10. Which of the following kinematic pairs is classified depending upon the mechanical
arrangement between the links?
A a) Primatic pair
b) Revolute pair
I c) Force closed pair
C d) Sliding pair
T 11. In journal bearing, frictional power varies_______ journal diameter.

E a) Directly as
b) Directly as square of
c) Directly as cube of
d) Inversely as cube of
12. Keys are generally made of

a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron
c) Mild steel
A d) High carbon steel
I
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A 13. Which bearing is antifriction bearing?

a) Needle
I
b) Hydrostatic
C c) Collar
d) Full journal
T
E 14. The power transmitted by means of a belt depends upon
a) Velocity of the belt
b) Arc of contact between the belt and the smaller pulley
c) Tension under which the belt is placed on the pulleys
d) All of above
15. Failure of a material is called fatigue when it fails

a) Below the yield limit
b) At the elastic limit
A
c) At the yield point
I d) Below the elastic limit
C 16. Why is a leaf spring used in automobiles?
T a) To measure forces
b) To absorb shocks
E c) To store strain energy
d) All of the above
17. What is spring stiffness?

a) Ratio of free length to that under design load
b) load per unit deflection
c) Load carrying capacity of the spring
d) Ratio of mean coil diameter to wire diameter
A
18. _______ type gear profile is free from intereference
I a) Cycloidal
C b) Hypocycloidal
c)Epicycloidal
T d) Involute
E
19. For boiler plate riveting_____ head is usually used.
a) Conical
b) Pan
c) Snap
d) Counter sink
20. In a sleeve and cotter joint, the length of cotter is taken as

a) 2d
A b) 3d
I c) 4d
d) 4.5d
C
T
E
Page 4 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A 21. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T – s curve) of any thermodynamic
process represents
I
a) Heat absorbed
C b) Heat rejected
c) Either heat absorbed or rejected
T d) Heat and work added.
E
22. An ideal gas of maas, m and temperature, T1 undergoes a reversible isothermal
process from an initial pressure p1 to final pressure p2. The heat loss during the process is
Q. The entropy change is
p
a) mR ln 2
p1
p
b) mR ln 1
p2
A
p Q
c) mR ln 2 
I p1 T 1
C d) zero
T 23. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon

E a) Temperature ratio
b) pressure ratio
c)heat loss
d) work ratio
24. Choose the correct answer

a) Specific volume of water decreases on freezing
b) Boiling point of water decreases with increasing pressure
c) Specific volume of CO2 increases on freezing
A d) Freezing temperature of water decreases with increasing pressure.
I
25. Choose the correct answer
C a) The slope of vaporisation curve is always negative
b) The slope of vaporization curve is always positive
T
c) The slope of sublimation curve in negative for all pure substances
E d) The slope of fusion curve is positive for all pure substances.
26. Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the boundary to the point where
velocity of the fluid is
a) Equal to 10% of free stream velocity
b) Equal to 50% of free stream velocity
c) Equal to 90% of free stream velocity
d) Equal to 99% of free stream velocity
A
27. The body whose surface does not coincide with the streamline when places in a flow
I is called as
C a) Streamline body
b) Wave body
T c) Bluff body
d) Induced body
E
Page 5 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A 28. Bulk modulus is the ratio of

a) Shear stress to volumetric strain
I
b) Volumetric strain to shear stress
C c) Compressive stress to volumetric strain
d) Volumetric strain to compressive stress
T
E 29. Which of the following sentences are true for Bernoulli's equation?
1. Bernoulli's principle is applicable to ideal incompressible fluid
2. The gravity force and pressure forces are only considered in Bernoulli's principle
3. The flow of fluid is rotational for Bernoulli's principle
4. The heat transfer into or out of fluid should be zero to apply Bernoulli's principle
a) (1), (2) and (3)

b) (1), (3) and (4)
c) (1), (2) and (4)
A
d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
I
30. What is the ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity, when the fluid is passing
C through two parallel plates and flow is laminar?
T a) 3/2
b) 2/3
E c) 4/3
d) 3/4
31. Coefficient of friction for laminar flow is given asWhere,Re = Reynold's number
a) (Re / 32)
b) (32 / Re)
c) (Re / 16)
d) (16 / Re)
A
32. The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point gives
I the direction of motion at the point, is called as
a) Path line
C b) Streak line
T c) Filament line
d) Stream line
E
33. The actual path followed by a fluid particle as it moves during a period of time, is
called as
a) Path line
b) Streak line
c) Filament line
d) Stream line
A 34. The rate of increase of velocity with respect to change in the position of fluid particle
in a flow field is called as
I a) Local acceleration
b) Temporal acceleration
C
c) Convective acceleration
E
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A 35. In which method of describing fluid motion, the observer remains stationary and
observes changes in the fluid parameters at a particular point only?
I
a) Lagrangian method
C b) Eulerian method
c) Stationary method
E
36. The branch of fluid mechanics deals with translation, rotation and deformation of the
fluid element without considering the force and energy causing such motion is called
as
a) Fluid dynamics
b) Fluid kinematics
c) Fluid kinetics
d) Hydraulics
A
37. Power loss in orificemeter is ______ that in a venturimeter.
I a) Less than
b) Same as
C c) Data insufficient
T d) More than
E 38. For the same heat transfer Q and same overall heat transfer coefficient Uo, surface
area required for cross flow operation is always
a) Less than LMTD for parallel flow
b) More than LMTD for parallel flow
c) Same as LMTD for parallel flow
d) Unpredictable
39. What is the correct formula for The Biot number?

a) hl/k
A b) k/hl
I c) l/hk
d) hk/l
C
40. What is lumped heat capacity analysis?
T a) The analysis of a system in which it is assumed to be at no uniform temperature
E b) The analysis of a system in which it is assumed to be at uniform temperature
c) The analysis of a system in which it is assumed to be at either uniform or no
uniform temperature
41. For effective working of fins, the thickness of the fines should be
a) Large
b) Small
c) Thickness of fin does not affect the fin effectiveness
A d) Unpredictable
I 42. What is the purpose of using fins in a particular heat transfer system?
a) To decrease rate of heat transfer
C
b) To increase rate of heat transfer
T c) To maintain rate of heat transfer at a constant rate
d) All of above
E
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A 43. Radiation shields are used

a) To increase radiant heat transfer
I
b) To decrease radiant heat transfer
C c) To maintain radiant heat transfer constant
T
E 44. In natural convection, the Nusselt number (Nu) depends on
a) Pr and Re
b) Gr and Re
c) Gr and Pr
45. At the critical radius of insulation of a hollow sphere, the heat transfer will be
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
A
c) Does not change
I d) Unpredictable
C 46. Which of the following is/are example/s of direct contact type heat exchanger?
T a) Jet condenser
b) Desuperheater
E c) Cooling tower
d) All of the above
47. What is effectiveness of fin?

a) The ratio of actual heat transferred from fin area to the heat which would be
transferred if entire fin area was at base temperature
b) The heat which would be transferred if entire fin area was at base temperature
to the ratio of actual heat transferred from fin area
A c) The heat which would be transferred if entire fin area was at minimum
temperature to the ratio of actual heat transferred from fin area
I d) The ratio of actual heat transferred from fin area to the heat which would be
C transferred if entire fin area was at minimum temperature
T 48. In a gas turbine plant,a regenerator increases........

a) Work output
E b) Pressure ratio
c) Thermal efficiency
d) All of the above
49. The blades of the gas turbine rotor are made of........
a) Carbon steel
b) Stainless steel
c) High alloy steel
A d) High nickel alloy
I 50. For a gas turbine the pressure ratio in the range of........
a) 2 to 3
C
b) 3 to 5
T c) 16 to 18
d) 18 to 22
E
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A 51. In a two stage gas turbine plant,reheating after first stage........

a) Decrease the thermal efficiency
I
b) Increase the thermal efficiency
C c) Does not effect the thermal efficiency
T
E 52. In a two stage gas turbine plant,reheating after first stage........
a) Increases work ratio
b) Decreases work ratio
c)Does not effect work ratio
53. One tonne of refrigeration is equal to

a) 21 kJ/min
b) 210 kJ/min
A
c) 420 kJ/min
I d) 620 kJ/min
C 54. In air-conditioning of aeroplanes,using air as refrigerant,the cycle is used is.......
T a) Reversed Carnot cycle
b)Reversed Diesel cycle
E c) Reversed Brayton cycle
d) Reversed Otto cycle
55. The sub-cooling in a refrigeration cycle ....

a) Does not alter C.O.P.
b) Increases C.O.P.
c) Decreases C.O.P.
A
56. In simple tensile test, when maximum principle stress reaches the value of yield point,
I the material subjected to complex stresses fail. This theory is called as
C a) Coulumb's theory
b) Rankine's theory
T c) Venant's theory
E d) Von Mises theory
57. Principal stress is the magnitude of ________ stress acting on the principal plane.
a) Normal stress
b) Shear stress
c) Both a) and b)
58. Which of the following statements is/are true for a simply supported beam?
A a) Deflection at supports in a simply supported beam is maximum
I b) Deflection is maximum at a point where slope is zero
c) Slope is minimum at supports in a simply supported beam
T
E
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A 59. In cantilever beam, slope and deflection at free end is _____

a) Zero
I
b) Maximum
C c) Minimum
T
E 60. In axial thrust diagram, at which point bending moment is zero?
a) Point of contra-flexure
b) Point of inflection
c) Both a) and b)
61. Whiriling speed of a shaft coincide with the natural frequency of the
a) Longitudinal vibration
b) Transverse vibration
A
c) Torsional vibration
I d) Coupled between torsional vibration
C 62. Separation of flow occurs when pressure gradient
T a) Becomes negative
b) Changes abruptly
E c) Tends to approach zero
d) Reduces to a value when vapour formation starts
63. The cutting tool material required to sustain high temperature is

a) High carbon steel alloys
b) Composite of lead and steel
c) Cermet
d) Alloy of steel; Zinc and tungsten
A
64. As the slenderness ratio of a column increase its compressive strength
I a) Decrease
C b) Increase
c) Remain unchanged
T d) May increase or decrease depending on length
E
65. Oldham’s coupling is the
a) Second inversion of double slider crank chain
b) Third inversion of double slider crank chain
c) Fourth inversion of double slider crank chain.
66. The Ackermann steering mechanism is preferred to the Davis type in automobiles
a) The former is mathematically accurate
A b) The former is having turning pair
I c) The former is most economical
d) The former is most rigid
C
T
E
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A 67. For isochronous, spring controlled governor, the controlling force with increase in radius of
rotation
I
a) Remain constant
C b) Increase
c) Decrease
T d) May increase or decrease depending on size
E
68. Mittre gear used for
a) Great speed reduction
b) Equal speed
c) Minimum backlash
d) Minimum axial thrust
69. In thermit welding thermit used is mixture of

a) Aluminium and iron oxide
A
b) Aluminium and charcoal
I c) Iron oxide and charcoal
d) None of these
C
70. Bourden tube measures
T
a)Absolute pressure
E b)Gauge pressure
c) Unaffected
d)Total pressure
PART - B (30X2 = 60 Marks)
71. What is the strain energy stored in a cube of 50 mm, when it is subjected to shear
stress of
A 200 Mpa. (G = 100 GPa)
a) 25 Nm
I b) 75 Nm
C c) 125 Nm
d) 150 Nm
T
72. What is the value of thermal stress, if a rod of 3 m is heated at 50 oC and is fixed at
E both
the ends?
(Take α = 10 x 10-6 /oC & E= 200 x 103 MPa)
a) 25 MPa
b) 50 MPa
c)100 MPa
A 73. A mixture of gas expands from 0.03m3 to 0.06m3 at a constant pressure of 10 bar and
absorbs 84 k J of heat during the process. The change in internal energy of the mixture is
I a) 30 k J
b) 54 k J
C
c) 84 k J
T d) 70k J
74. The COP of a refrigerator on a reversed Carnot cycle is 5. The ratio of higher
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A absolute temperature to the lower temperature (i.e. T1/T2) is

a) 1.25
I
b) 1.3
C c) 1.4
d) 1.2
T
E 75. In an adiabatic process, 5000J of work is performed on a system. The system returns
to its original state while 1000J of heat is added. The work done during the non-
adiabatic process is
a) +4000J
b) -4000J
c) +6000J
d) -6000J
76. A small steam whistle (perfectly insulated and doing no shaft work) causes a drop of
A 0.8 kJ/kg in enthalpy of steam from entry to exit. The kinetic energy of the steam at
entry is negligible; the velocity of steam at exit is
I
a) 4 m/s
C b) 40 m/s
c) 80 m/s
T d) 120 m/s
E
77. Steam enters an adiabatic turbine operating at steady state with an enthalpy of
3251.0kJ/kg and leaves at 15 kPa and 0.9 quality.hf , hg at 15 kPa are 225.94 kJ/kg
and 2598.3 kJ/kg. respectively. The mass flow rate of steam is 10 kg/s. kinetic and
potential energy changes are negligible. The power output of the turbine in MW is
a) 6.5
b) 8.9
c) 9.1
d) 27
A
I 78. A 1-kg block of ice at 0ºC is placed into a perfectly insulated, sealed container that
has 2 kg of water also at 0ºC. The water and ice completely fill the container, but the
C containeris flexible. After some time, one can expect that
a) the water will freeze so that the mass of the ice will increase.
T
b) the ice will melt so that the mass of the ice will decrease.
E c) both the amount of water and the amount of ice will remain constant.
d) both the amount of water and the amount of ice will decrease
79. Two springs have spring stiffness of 1500 N/m and 2000 N/m respectively. If they are
connected in series, what is the spring stiffness if they are replaced by an equivalent
system.
a) 3500 N/m
b) 1166 N/m
c) 857.63 N/m
I
C
80. Calculate coefficient of viscous damper, if the system is critically damped. Consider
T the following data:
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A 1. Mass of spring mass damper system = 350 kg

2. Static deflection = 2 x 10–3 m
I
3. Natural frequency of the system = 60 rad/sec
C
a) 100.5 x 103 N-s/m
T b) 80 x 103 N-s/m
E c) 42 x 103 N-s/m
81. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of
30000 N/m and mass of 20 kg?
a) 12.32 Hz
b) 4.10 Hz
c) 6.16 Hz
A
I 82. Determine logarithmic decrement, if the amplitude of a vibrating body reduces to
1/6th in two cycles.
C a) 0.223
T b) 0.8958
c) 0.3890
83. Calculate logarithmic decrement if damping factor is 0.33.

a) 1.36
b) 3.23
c) 5.16
d) 2.19
A 84. Hoops stress and longitudinal stress in a boiler shell under internal pressure are 100
MN/m2 and 50 MN/m2 respectively. Young’s modulus of elasticity and Poisson’s ratio
I of the shell material are 200 GN/m2 and 0.3 respectively. The hoop strain in the boiler
C shell is
a) 0.425 х 10-3
T b) 0.5 х 10-3
E c) 0.585 х 10-3
d) 75 х 10-3
85. A counterflow shell and tube heat exchanger used to heat water with hot exhaust
gases. The water (Cp=4180 J/kgC) flows ate a rate of 2 kg/s while the exhaust gas
(1030 J/kgC) flows at a rate of 5.25 kg/s. If the heat transfer surface area is 32.2 m2
and the overall heattransfer coefiiciant is 200 W/m2C, what is the NTU for the heat
exchanger?
a) 1.2
A b) 2.4
I c) 4.5
d) 8.6
C
T 86. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having 50 teeth. The two
gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns made by the smaller gear for one
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A revolution of arm about the centre of the bigger is

a) 0.5
I
b) 3
C c) 4
d) 5
T
E 87. In forced circulation boilers, about 90% of water in recirculated without evaporation.
The circulation ratio is
a) 0.1
b) 0.9
c) 9
d) 10
88. Given that, h is draught in mm of water, H is chimney height in metres, Ti is

atmospheric temperature in K, the maximum discharge of gases through a chimney is
A
given by
I a) h=176. 5 Ti /H
b) h= 1.765 Ti/H
C c) h=1.765 H/ Ti
T d) h=176.5 H/ Ti
E 89. When the solid fuels are burned, the nitrogen content of the flue gas by volume is
about
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 90%
90. The excess air required for combustion of pulverized coal is of the order of
A a) 100-150%
b) 30-60%
I c) 15-40%
C d) 5-10%
T 91. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 150C enters a heating coil maintained
at 400C. The air leaves the heating coil at 250C. The bypass factor of the heating coil
E is
a) 0.376
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.67
92. If the specific heats of dry air and water vapor are 1 kJ/kgK and 1.88 kJ/kgK
respectively and the humidity ratio is 0.011, then specific heat of moist air at 250C
A and 50% relative humidity will be
a) 1.0207 kJ/kgK
I b) 1.869 kJ/kgK
C c) 1.891 kJ/kgK
d) 0.9793 kJ/kgK
T
93. The temperature distribution at a certain instant of time in a concrete slab during
E
Page 14 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A curing isgiven by T=3x2+3x+16, where x is in cm and T is in K. The rate of change

of temperature with time is given by(assume diffusivity to be 0.0003cm2/s)
I
a) 0.0009 K/s
C b) 0.0048 K/s
c) -0.0012 K/s
T d) -0.0018 K/s
E
94. The transition Reynolds number for the flow over a flat plate is 5х105. What is the
distance from the leading edge at which transition will occur for flow of water with a
uniform velocity of 1m/s? (For water kinematic viscosity is 0.858х10-6 m2/s)
a) 1 m
b) 0.43 m
c) 43 m
d) 103 m
A
95. What is the next radiant interchange per square meter for two very large plate at a
I temperatures 800K and 500K respectively? The emissivity of the hot and cold plates
are 0.8 and 0.6 respectively. Stefan-boltzmann constant is 5.67х10-8 W/m2K4
C a) 1.026 kW/m2
T b)10.26 kW/m2
c) 102.6 kW/m2
E d) 1026 kW/m2
96. Principal stress at a point in stressed elements are σx= σy=500 kg/cm2Normal stress
on the plane inclined at 45° to x-axis will be
a) 0
b) 500 kg/cm2
c) 707 kg/cm2
d) 1000 kg/cm2
A
97. A streel rod of 1cm2 cross sectional area is 100 cm long and has a Young’s modulus
I ofelasticity 2х106 kgf/cm2. It is subjected to an axial pull of 2000 kgf. The elongation
C of therod will be
a) 0.05 cm
T b) 0.1 cm
E c) 0.15 cm
d) 0.2 cm
98. If the area of cross section of a wire is circular and if the radius of this circle decreases
to half its original value due to the stretch of the wire by a load, then the modulus of
elasticity of the wire be
a) One-fourth of its original value
b) Halved
c) Doubled
A d) Unaffected
I
C
T 99. In a belt drive, if the pulley diameter is doubled keeping the tension and belt width
constant, then it will be necessary to
E
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A a) Increase the key length

b) Increase the key depth
I
c) Increase the key width
C d) Decrease the key length
T 100. A single stage impulse with a diameter of 120 cm runs at 3000 rpm. If the blade
E speed ratio is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be
a) 79 m/s
b) 188 m/s
c) 450 m/s
d) 900 m/s
PART –C
A
a) 10and40
I b) 10 and15
c) 15 and40
C d) 10 and10
T
E a) Non-singularmatrix
b) Identitymatrix
c) Singularmatrix
d) None ofthe above
a) Nullmatrix
b) Diagonalmatrix
A c) Lower Triangularmatrix
d) None ofthe above
I
T a) u
b) 1
E c) -1
d) 0

[−3, 1] are
a) −7 and −8
b) 81 and −8
c) 0 and −2
A d) 73 and −8
I
C
2
T 106. The differential equation 𝑑𝑥 4 + + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
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ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A b) Non-Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 4

I
C
107. Family of curves y = m2x + m6 is represented by the differential equation
T ofdegree
E a) 3
b) 6
c) 2
d) None ofthe above
𝐵
a) 𝑃 ≥0
𝐴
𝐵
A b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
I c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
T 109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then

E the probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3or7is
13
a) 30
17
b)
30
19
c) 30
11 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
A 1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
I b) Unitorymatrix
C
d) None ofthe above
T
E
a) λ = 2 and µ =4
b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
d) None ofthe above
A
I
112.Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of
C the determinant 𝐵 = 𝐴 + 2𝐴−1 + 𝐼 is
a) 62
T
b) 44
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A c) 8
d) None ofthe above.
I
C 
113.If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is
T true

E a) grad | A |  0

b) curl A  0

c) div A  0
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
(𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
A b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
I c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
C
1 1 𝑛 −1
T 115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
E a) ⎾(n − 1)
b) ⎾(n)
n−1
c) ⎾
2
n+1
d) ⎾ 2

a) Hyperbolic
A b) Elliptic
c) Parabolic
C
𝑥 +𝑦
T 117.𝑢 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 satisfies the differential equation
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
E a) 𝑥 +𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
A
I
C 118.Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the
T
E
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1MME22
A 2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
I function𝑓 𝑥 = 2𝑥 is
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
C a) 0
T b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
A
d) None ofthe above
I
C
a) m2
T b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG1MEE22
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Mechanical Engineering
Paper: 1

1. b 41 b 81. c
2. d 42 b 82. b
3. b 43 b 83. d
4. b 44 c 84. a
5. a 45 b 85. a
6. c 46 d 86. d
7. b 47 a 87. d
8. c 48 c 88. d
9. c 49 d 89. c
10. c 50 b 90. b
11. c 51 a 91. c
12. c 52 a 92. a
13. a 53 b 93. d
14. d 54 c 94. b
15. a 55 b 95. b
16. b 56 b 96. c
17. b 57 a 97. b
18. a 58 b 98. d
19. c 59 b 99. a
20. d c 100. c
60
21. c 61 b 101. a
22. b 62 b 102. c
23. a 63 c 103. a
24. d 64 a 104. d
25. a 65 b 105. d
26. d 66 b 106. d
27. c 67 a 107. a
28. c 68 b 108. a
29. c 69 a 109. a
30. d 70 c 110. b
31. d 71 a 111. c
32. d 72 c 112. d
33. a 73 b 113. b
34. c 74 d 114. a
35. b 75 b 115. b
36. b 76 b 116. b
37. d 77 b 117. d
38. a 78 b 118. a
39. a 79 c 119. d
40. b 80 c 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2MEE22
A MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T
E PAPER-II
Instructions:
A
I questions.
C
T
E

A programmable scientific calculator.
C specified.
T vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a
E black or blue ball point pen.

A
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 22
ROLL NO.: UG2MEE22
A
I
C 1. Riser is a reservoir of molten metal provided in the casting so that hot metal can flow back
into the mould cavity when there is a reduction in volume of metal due to
T a) Compression
b) Solidification
E
c) Expansion
2. Which of the following is used to support the cavity from inside?

a) Chill
A b) Chaplet
c) Sprue
I d) Core
C
3. The replica of the final object to be made is known as
T a) Parting line
b) Flask
E c) Pattern
d)Mould
4. Which of the following defect is not a gas defect?

a) Blow holes
b) Air inclusions
A
c) Run out
I d) Pin hole porosity
C 5. Cuts, washes, swell, drop etc. are the examples of which of the following casting defects?
a) Gas defect
T b) Pouring material defect
c) Moulding material defect
E
d) Metallurgical defect
6. Defects caused by the chilling of the casting are known as

a) Hot spots
b) Hot tears
A c) Shrinkage cavity
d) Swell
I
C 7. Defect which occurs due to the solidification of casting is known as
a) Swell
T b) Misrun
c) Metal penetration
E d) Shrinkage cavity
Page 2 of 22
ROLL NO.: UG2MEE22
A 8. Removing the pieces from the edge in shearing operation is known as

a) Perforating
I b) Parting
c) Notching
C d) Lancing
T
9. Which of the following die can perform multiple operations such as blanking, punching,
E notching etc.?
a) Simple dies
b) Progressive dies
c) Compound die
A 10. As the clearance increases, the punch force required

a) Decreases
I
b) Increases
C c) Remains same
d) First increases then decreased
T
11. A transportation problem has a feasible solution when
E a) all of the improvement indexes are positive
b) the number of filled cells is one less than the number of rows plus the number of
columns
c) all the squares are used
d) all demand and supply constraints are satisfied
A
12. When the number of shipments in a feasible solution is less than the number of rows plus
I the number of columns minus one
a) the solution is optimal
C b) there is degeneracy, and an artificial allocation must be created
c) a dummy source must be created
T
d) a dummy destination must be created
E
13. The total cost of the optimal solution to a transportation problem
a) is calculated by multiplying the total supply (including any dummy values) by the
average cost of the cells
b) cannot be calculated from the information given
c) can be calculated from the original non-optimal cost, by adding the savings made at
A each improvement
I d) can be calculated based only on the entries in the filled cells of the solution
C 14. The purpose of the transportation approach for locational analysis is to minimize
a) total costs
T b) total shipping costs
c) total variable costs
E d) total fixed costs
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A 15. The initial solution to a transportation problem can be generated in any manner, so long as
a) it minimizes cost
I b) all supply and demand are satisfied
c) degeneracy does not exist
C d) all cells are filled
T
16. Which of the following statements about the northwest corner rule is false?
E a) One must exhaust the supply for each row before moving down to the next row.
b) One must exhaust the demand requirements of each column before moving to the
next column.
c) When moving to a new row or column, one must select the cell with the lowest cost.
d) One must check that all supply and demand constraints are met.
A 17. In transportation model analysis the stepping-stone method is used to

a) Obtain an initial optimum solution
I
b) Obtain an initial feasible solution
C c) Evaluate empty cells for potential solution improvements
d) Evaluate empty cells for possible degeneracy
T
18. The stepping-stone method
E a) is an alternative to using the northwest corner rule
b) often involves tracing closed paths with a triangular shape
c) is used to evaluate the cost effectiveness of shipping goods via transportation routes
not currently in the solution
d) is used to identify the relevant costs in a transportation problem
A
19. In a minimization problem, a negative improvement index in a cell indicates that the
I a) solution is optimal
b) total cost will increase if units are reallocated to that cell
C c) total cost will decrease if units are reallocated to that cell
d) current iteration is worse than the previous one
T
E 20. In a minimization problem, a positive improvement index in a cell indicates that
a) the solution is optimal
b) the total cost will increase if units are reallocated to that cell
c) the total cost will decrease if units are reallocated to that cell
d) there is degeneracy
A 21. ABC analysis divides on-hand inventory into three classes, generally based upon
I a) unit price
b) the number of units on hand
C c) annual demand
d) annual dollar volume
T
E
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A 22. Among the advantages of cycle counting is that it

a) makes the annual physical inventory more acceptable to management
I b) allows more rapid identification of errors and consequent remedial action than is
possible with annual physical inventory
C c) does not require the detailed inventory records necessary when annual physical
inventory is used
T
d) does not require highly trained people
E
23. The two most basic inventory questions answered by the typical inventory model are
a) timing and cost of orders
b) quantity and cost of orders
c) timing and quantity of orders
d) order quantity and service level
A
24. Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is true?
I
a) If the ordering cost were to double, the EOQ would rise.
C b) If annual demand were to double, the EOQ would increase.
c) If the carrying cost were to increase, the EOQ would fall.
T d) All of the above statements are true.
E 25. An inventory decision rule states that "when the inventory level goes down to 14 clutches,
100 clutches will be ordered." Which of the following statements is true?
a) 100 is the reorder point, and 14 is the order quantity.
b) The number 100 is a function of demand during lead time.
c) 14 is the safety stock, and 100 is the reorder point.
A d) 14 is the reorder point, and 100 is the order quantity.
I 26. The Production Order Quantity model

a) relaxes the assumption of known and constant demand
C b) uses Ordering Cost, not Setup Cost, in its formula
c) results in larger average inventory than an equivalent EOQ model
T
d) is appropriate when units are sold/used as they are produced
E
27. Which of the following statements regarding the Production Order Quantity model is true?
a) It applies only to items produced in the firm's own production departments.
b) It relaxes the assumption that the demand rate is constant.
c) It minimizes the total production costs.
d) It relaxes the assumption that all the order quantity is received at one time.
A
I 28. Which of the following statements about quantity discounts is false?
a) The cost-minimizing solution may, or may not, be where annual holding costs equal
C annual ordering costs.
b) In inventory management, item cost becomes relevant to inventory decisions only
T when a quantity discount is available.
c) The larger annual demand, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
E
d) The smaller the ordering cost, the less attractive a discount schedule will be.
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A 29. The layout strategy that deals with low-volume, high-variety production is
a) fixed-position layout
I b) retail/service layout
c) warehouse layout
T
30. A good layout requires determining
E a) capacity and space requirements
b) material handling requirements
c) environment and aesthetics
d) all of the above
A 31. For which of the following operations would a fixed-position layout be most appropriate?
a) assembly of an automobile
I b) production of cameras and TV sets
c) construction of a ship
C d) refining of crude oil
T
32. The type of layout which features departments or other functional groupings in which
E similar activities are performed is
a) process
b) product
c) fixed-position
d) mass
A 33. which type of layout is used to achieve a smooth and rapid flow of large volumes of output?
a) process
I
b) batch
C c) product
d) unit
T
34. An improvement index indicates
E a) whether a method other than the stepping stone should be used
b) whether a method other that the northwest corner rule should be used
c) whether the transportation cost in the upper left-hand corner of a cell is optimal
d) how much total cost would increase or decrease if a single unit was reallocated to
that cell
A
35. Which of the following would not generally be a motive for a firm to hold inventories?
I a) take advantage of quantity discounts
b) minimize holding costs
C c) reduce stockout risks
T d) decouple production from distribution
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A
36. Which of the following statements about ABC analysis is false?
I a) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that controlling the few most important
items produces the vast majority of inventory savings.
C b) In ABC analysis, "A" Items are tightly controlled, have accurate records, and receive
regular review by major decision makers.
T
c) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that all items must be tightly controlled to
E produce important cost savings.
d) In ABC analysis, "C" Items have minimal records, periodic review, and simple
controls
37. In machining system of AJM, which is the medium of carrying the abrasive grains for
machining?
A a) Liquids
b) Gases
I
c) Any fluids
T 38. Which of the following gas, should never be used as the carrier of abrasives?
a) Nitrogen
E b) CO2
c) Oxygen
d) Air
39. Which type of electrode is used for drilling in Electro discharge machining?
A a) Flat electrode
b) Cuboidal electrode
I c) Tubular electrode
d) Spherical electrode
C
40. Which of the following materials can be machined using ECM?
T
a) Hard nonconductive materials
E b) Hard conductive materials
c) All nonconductive materials
41. Which of the following are the limitations of electro chemical machining?
a) Removal of hydrogen
A b) Handling the electrolyte
I c) Energy consumption
d) All of the above
C
T
E
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A 42. Which of the following materials can be machined using Electro discharge machining?
a) Heat resistant alloys
I b) Super alloys
c) Carbides
T
43.Laser beam machining uses which type of power sources for machining?
E a) Very low power
b) Low power
c) Medium power
d) High power
44. Which of the following are different types of lasers used in Laser beam machining?
A a) Solid-state ion
b) Neutral gas
I
c) Semiconductor
T 45. Drilling in Ultrasonic Machining is done, by which motion of the tool?

a) Only rotation
E b) Only oscillation
c) Oscillation and rotation
46. In Micro-Ultrasonic Machining, which of the following component vibrates?
a) Tool
A b) Work piece
c) Feed pipe
I
d) All of the above
C 47. LBM offers a good solution for which material properties below?
T a)Thermal conductivity
b) Specific heat
E c) Boiling temperature
d) All of the above
48. What is the main mechanism of material removal in Electro chemical grinding?
a) Mechanical erosion of material
b) Electro chemical dissolution
A c) Melting and vaporization
d) Electron removal from material
I
49. The grinding wheel is _____ and the work piece is ____ in ECG process.
C
a) Cathode, anode
T b)Anode, cathode
c)Cathode, cathode
E d) Anode, anode
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A 50. If there is an increase in viscosity of slurry, what happens to MRR?

a) Increases
I b) Decreases
c) Remains same
T
51. Calculate the taper angle, if 8 mm and 12 mm are the diameters of A and B balls
E respectively. Ball A is at a height of 25 mm from the horizontal ground surface and B at
15 mm.
a) 14.47o
b) 28.95o
c) 7.23o
A
52. Which of the following statements is/are true for sampling inspection?
I
a) Acceptance sampling does not involve any risk
C b) Characteristics of the entire lot can be truly specified
c) Less fatigue results in less mistakes
T d) All the above statements are true
E 53. What is capability ratio?
a) The ratio of process capability and number of units inspected
b) The ratio of specification range and process capability
c) The ratio of number of defectives and process capability
d) The ratio of number of defectives and number of units inspected
A
54. What is meant by P, D, S and A in PDSA cycle?
I a) Progress Development Study Act
b) Plan Do Study Act
C c) Project Development Study Act
d) Prevention Do Study Act
T
E 55. Which method gives accurate results when effective diameter is measured without
considering the thread angle?
a) Two wire method
b) Three wire method
c) Best wire size
d) All the above
A
I 56. Which formula is used to calculate quality of performance?
a) Quality of performance = quality of design + quality of conformance
C b) Quality of performance = quality of design - quality of conformance
c) Quality of performance = quality of design + availability
E
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A 57. Which error is observed due to lack of squareness when depth is measured using depth
micrometer?
I a) parallax error
b) cosine error
C c) sine error
d) all of the above
T
E 58. In hole basis system, basic size is equal to
a) maximum hole size
b) minimum hole size
c) upper deviation which is zero
A 59. What is error of circularity?

a) Distance between maximum inscribing circle and minimum circumscribing
I
circle
C measured radially
b) Distance between maximum inscribing circle and minimum zone circle
T measured radially
c) Distance between least square circle and minimum zone circle measured
E radially
60. Which of the following statements is true for LVDT?

a) It is a mutual capacitive transducer
A b) Presence of hysteresis gives high repeatability
c) It can measure displacement and pressure
I d) All of the above
C 61. Main property of cutting fluid is
a) Specific heat
T
b) Specific gravity
E c) Viscosity
d) Ductility
62. A tool which is used to enlarge a previously drilled hole is known as

a) Turning tool
b) Boring tool
A c) Form tool
I d) Facing tool
C 63. Which type of chuck is used for self alignment?

a) Magnetic chuck
T b) Two jaw chuck
c) Three jaw chuck
E
d) Four jaw chuck
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A 64.Which one of the following processes is used for removing scratches from previous
operations?
I a) Oxidation
b) Painting
C c) Polishing
d) Enameling
T
E 65. Which one of the following properties is the most essential for the metals in the process
of casting, welding, brazing and soldering?
a) Malleability
b) Fusibility
c) Tenacity
d) Plasticity
A
66. Lathe bed is made of
I
a) High speed steel
C b) High carbon steel
c) Mild steel
T d) Cast iron
E 67. Jig and Fixture are made in such type that
a) To guide the cutting tool
b) To hold the job strongly
c) To prevent the job from slipping
d) To get the maximum production in short time
A
68. Counter boring is done for
I a) Finishing bored holes
b) Enlarging holes to accurate size
C c) Deburring hole ends
d) Accommodating socket head screws
T
E 69. Quick return mechanism is provided on shaper to reduce the time required for
a) Forward stroke
b) Return stroke
c) Forward and return stroke
d) None of above
A 70. The size of a planer is determined by the maximum length of the
I a) stroke
b) housing
C c) work piece
d) bed
T
E
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A 71. Gang milling operation is usually performed when

a) for mass production
I b) repair work is to be done
c) single piece to be milled
T
72. Truing of grinding wheel is done by which tool?
E a) v-tool
b) white tool
c) round nose tool
d) diamond tool
73. Cutting tool used in planning machine is
A a) Single point cutting tool
b) Multipoint cutting tool
I c) End mill cutter
d) Diamond tool
C
T 74. Which one of the following materials is used for making a grinding wheel?
a) Silicon carbide
E b) Granite
c) Sand
d) Calcium carbonate
75. The distance a drill moves into the work for each revolution of the spindle is called
a) Speed of drill
A b) Cutting speed of drill
I c) Feed of drill
d) Depth of drill
C
76. CNC machines are operated by controller of
T a) Program
b) Cam
E
c) An operator
d) Board system
77. Indexing head mechanism works with

a) Rack and gear
A b) Worm and worm gear
c) Two helical gear
I d) Two bevel gear
C
78. Which of the following standard tapers is self holding type?
T a) Morse taper
b) Matric taper
E c) Brown and sharp taper
d)Jerno taper
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A 79. The distance which the cutting edge of a tool passes over the material in a minute while
machining is called
I a) RPM
b) Machine speed
C c) Cutting speed
d) Feed
T
E 80. Centre drilling is an operation of
a)Drilling and counter sinking
b)Marking and centre location before drilling
c)Drilling and counter boring
d)Enlarging the diameter of a hole
A
PART – B (40X2=80 Marks)
I
C 81. A spherical drop of molten metal of radius 2 mm was found to solidify in 10 seconds. A
similar drop of radius 4 mm would solidify in
T a) 14.14 seconds
b) 20 seconds
E c) 18.30 seconds
d) 40 seconds
82. In oxy-acetylene gas welding, for complete combustion, the volume of oxygen required per
unit of acetylene is
A a) 1
b) 1.5
I c) 2
d) 2.5
C
83. The voltage –current characteristics of a dc generator for arc welding is a straight line
T
between an open circuit voltage of 80 V and short circuit current of 300A. The generator
E setting for maximum arc power will be
a) 80 V and 150 A
b) 40 V and 300 A
c) 40 V and 150 A
d) 80 V and 300 A
A 84. Which of the following joining processes are the best suited for manufacturing pipes to carry
I gas products?
i. Rivetting
C ii. Welding
iii. Bolts and nuts
T
E
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A Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
I a) i and ii
b) i and iii
C c) ii alone
d) i, ii and iii
T
85. 400 mm long shaft has a 100 mm tapered step at the middle with 4° included angle. The
E tailstock offset required to produce this taper on a lathe would be
a) 400 sin 4
b) 400 sin 2
c) 100 sin 4
d) 100 sin 2
A
86. A single short thread of pitch 2 mm is to be produced on a lathe having a lead screw with a
I double start thread of pitch 4 mm. The ratio of speeds between its spindle and lead screw for
this operation is
C a) 1:2
b) 2:1
T c) 1:4
E d) 4:1
87. A component requires a hole which must be within the two limits of 25.03 and 25.04 mm
diameter. Which of the following statement about the reamer size are correct?
i. Reamer size cannot be below 25.03 mm
ii. Reamer size cannot be above 25.04 mm
A iii. Reamer size can be 25.04 mm
iv. Reamer size can be 25.03 mm
I
Select the correct answer using the code below
C
a) i and iii
T b) i and ii
c) iii and iv
E d) ii and iv
88. Consider the following criteria in evaluating machinability

i. Surface finish
ii. Types of chips
iii. Tool life
A
iv. Power consumption
I In modern high speed CNC machining with coated carbide tools, the correct sequence of
C these create in decreasing order of their importance is
T a) i, ii, iv, iii

b) ii, i, iv, iii
E c) i, ii, iii, iv
d) ii, i, iii, iv
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A 89. Consider the following steps which are involved in constructing a function analysis system
technique of value engineering
I 1. Find the critical path
2. Prepare a function worksheet
C 3. Listing of functions
4. Diagram layout
T
Which of the following gives the correct sequence of steps?
E
a) 1-3-2-4
b) 2-1-3-4
c) 4-2-3-1
d) 3-2-4-1
A
90. Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tolls in APT language?
I i. Only capital letters are used
ii. A period is placed at the end of each statement
C iii. Insertion of space does not affect the APT word.
T Select the correct answer using codes given below
E a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) i and iii
d) i alone
91. In metal cutting operation, the approximate ratio of heat distributed among chip, tool and
A work, in order is
I a) 80: 10: 10
b) 33: 33: 33
C c) 20: 60: 10
d) 10: 10: 80
T
92. Consider the following steps in forging a connecting rod from the bar stock:
E
1. Blocking
2. Trimming
3. Finishing
4. Edging
Select the correct sequence of these operations using the codes given below:
A
Codes:
I
a) 1-2-3-4
C b) 2-3-4-1
c) 3-4-1-2
T d) 4-1-3-2
E
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A 93. Consider the following statements

i. Is the action of operations, planning and control.
I ii. Releases work to the operating divisions.
iii. Convey instructions to the shop floor.
C
Of these statements
T
a) i, ii and iii are correct
E b) i and ii are correct
c) ii and iii are correct
d) i and iii are correct
94. Which of the following are the benefits of assembly line balancing?
i. It minimizes the in-process inventory
A
ii. It reduces the work content
I iii. It smoothens the production flow
iv. It maintains the required rate of output
C
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
T
a) i,ii, iii
E b) ii, iii, iv
c) i,iii,iv
d) i,ii,iv
95. The extrusion processes used for the production of toothpaste tube is/are
i. Tube extrusion
A ii. Forward extrusion
I iii. Impact extrusion
C
Codes:
T
a) i only
E b) i and ii
c) ii and iii
d) iii only
96. The earliest occurrence time for event ‘1’ is 8 weeks and the latest occurrence time for event
‘1’ is 26 weeks. The earliest occurrence time for event ‘2’ is 32 weeks and the latest
A occurrence time for event 2 is 37 weeks. If the activity time is 11 weeks, then the total float
will be
I
a) 11
C b) 13
c) 18
T d) 24
E
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A 97. Which of the following cost elements are considered while determining the Economic Lot
size for purchase?
I i. Inventory carrying cost
ii. Procurement cost
C iii. Set up cost
T Select the correct answer using the codes given below
E a) i, ii, iii
b) i, ii
c) ii, iii
d) i, iii
A
98. Which of the following input data are needed for MRP?
I i. Master production schedule
ii. Inventory position
C iii. Machine capacity
iv. Bill of materials
T
E
a) i, ii, iii
b) ii, iii, iv
c) i, ii, iv
d) i, iii, iv
A 99. In transporation problem, the materials are transported from 3 plants to 5 warehouses. The
I basis feasible solution must contain exactly, which one of the following allocated cells?
a) 3
C b) 5
c) 7
T d) 8
E
100. The assignment alogorithm is applicable to which of the following combined situations for
the purpose of improving productivity?
i. Identification of sales force-market
ii. Scheduling of operator-machine
iii. Fixing machine-location
A
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
I
a) i, ii, iii
C b) i, iii
c) ii, iii
T d) i, ii
E
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A 101. For AM/M/1:∞/FCFS queue, the mean arrival rate is 15 per hour: The expected queue
length is
I a) 1.33
b) 1.53
C c) 2.75
d) 3.20
T
E 102. In a tool life test, dobling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8th of the original. The
Taylor’s tool life index is
a) 1/2
b) 1/3
c) 1/4
d) 1/8
A
103. Consider the following statements:
I
In electrochemical grinding,
C i. A rubber bonded alumina grinding wheel acts as cathode and workpiece as the
anode.
T ii. A copper bonded alumina grinding wheel acts as cathode and workpiece as the
anode.
E iii. Metal removal takes place due to pressure applied by the grinding wheel.
iv. Metal removal takes place due to electrolysis.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) i and iii
A b) ii and iv
c) ii and iii
I d) i and iv
C
104. Consider the following statements
T In forward extrusion process
i. The ram and the extruded product travel in the same direction
E ii. The ram and the extruded product travel in the opposite direction
iii. The speed of travel of the extruded product is same as that of the ram
iv. The speed of travel of the extruded product is greater than that of the ram
Which one of the statements are correct?
A a) i and iii
b) ii and iii
I c) i and iv
d) ii and iv
C
T
E
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A 105. One of the index plates of a milling machine dividing head has the following hole circles
15;16;17;18;19;20.A gear wheel of 34 teeth has to be milled by simple indexing method. To
I machine each tooth, the index crank has to be rotated through
a) 17 holes in the 20 hole circle
C b) 18 holes in the 20 hole circle
c) 1 revolution and 3 holes in 17 hole circle
T
d) 1 revolution and 2 holes in 18 hole circle
E
106. Which one of the following tolerances set an inner diameter and outer diameter respectively
of headed jig bush for press fit is correct?
a) G7 h6
b) F7 n6
A c) F7 h6
d) F7 j6
I
C 107. Consider the following tool materials
1. HSS
T 2. Ceramic carbide
3. Ceramics
E 4. Diamond
The correct sequence of these materials in decreasing order of their cutting speed is
a) 4,3,1,2
b) 4,3,2,1
A c) 3,4,2,1
d) 3,4,1,2
I
C 108. Consider the following processes
1. Gas welding
T 2. Thermit welding
3. Arc welding
E 4. Resistance welding
The correct sequence of these processes in increasing order of their welding temepratures is
a) 1,3,4,2
b) 1,2,3,4
A c) 4,3,1,2
d) 4,1,3,2
I
C
T
E
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A 109. Match list I (scintist) with list II (research work). Select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists.
I List I List II
A. Schewart 1. Less function in quality
C B. Taguchi 2. Queuing
C. Erlang 3. Zero defect
T
4. Control charts
E
Codes:
A B C
a) 3 1 2
b) 4 3 1
A c) 4 1 2
d) 3 4 1
I
110. The management is interested to know the percentage of idle time of an equipement. The
C trial study showed that percentage of idle time would be 20%. The number of random
observations necessary for 95% level of confidence and +5% accuracy is
T
a) 6400
E b) 1600
c) 640
d) 160
111. Which one of the following is NOT a technique of PMTS?

a) Synthetic data
A b) Stop watch time study
c) Work factor
I
d) MTM
C
112. Rowan incentive plan is given by (R= hourly rate, Ta= actual time taken for job,
T Ts=standard time for job and E=earnings)
E= R х Ta+ (Ts-Ta)/Ts х Tх R
E
The shape of the curves between bonus earned and percentage time saved is a
a) Straight line
b) Parabola
c) Horizontal line
A d) Vertical line
I 113. Last year a manufacturer produced 15000 products which were sold for Rs. 300 each. At
that volume, the fixed costs were Rs 15.2 Lacs and total variable costs were Rs 21 Lacs. The
C breakeven quantity of the product would be
T a) 4000
b) 7800
E c) 8400
d) 9500
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A 114. Consider the following statements regarding plant location and plant layout
i. Qualitative factor analysis is a method of evaluating a potential location without
I applying quantitative values to the decision criteria.
ii. The three determinants of the type of layout are type of product, type process and the
C volume of production.
iii. An appliance manufacturing plant where products are made an assembly lines would be
T
classified as job shop type of layout.
E Which of these statements are correct?
a) i,ii,iii
b) i,ii
c) ii only
d) iii only
A
I 115. Consider of the following statements:
i. A linear programming problem with three variables and two constarints can be
C solved by graphical method.
ii. For soloutions of a linear programming problem with mixed constraints, big-M
T method can be employed.
E iii. In the solution process of a linear programming problem using Big-M method,when
an artificial variable can be remoed from all subsequent tables
Which of these statements are correct?
a) i,ii,iii
b) i,ii
A c) i,iii
I d) ii,iii
C 116. Arrivals at a telephone booth are considered to be Poisson with an average time of 10
miniutes between one arrival and the next. The length of a phone call is assumed to be
T distributed exponentially with a mean of 3 minutes. The probability that a person arriving at
the booth will have to wait is
E
a) 0.043
b) 0.3
c) 0.429
d) 0.7
A 117. SIMO chart are used in which of the following? weeks,

a) Layout Analysis
I b) Method Study
c) Micro Motion Study
C
d) Time Study
T
E
Page 21 of 22
ROLL NO.: UG2MEE22
A 118. A production system has a product type layout in which there are four machines laid in
series. Each machine does a seprate operation. Every product needs all four operations to be
I carried out. The designed capacity of each of four machines is 200,175,160,210 products per
day. The system capacity would be
C a) 210 products per day
b) 200 products per day
T
c) 175 products per day
E d) 160 products per day
119. A round billet made of 70-30 brass is extruded at a temperature of 675°C. The billet
diameter is 125 mm, and the diameter of the extrusion is 50 mm. Calculate the extrusion
force required.
a) 4 MN
A b) 5 MN
c) 5.6 MN
C 120. If the open circuit voltage is 60 volt and the short circuit current is 20 ampere. Then
T determine the voltage required for welding if the current required during welding is 10
ampere?
E a) 30V
b) 60V
c) 20V
d) 40V
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 22 of 22
UG2ME E22
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Mechanical Engineering
Paper: 2

1. b 41 d 81. d
2. b 42 d 82. d
3. c 43 d 83. c
4. c 44 d 84. c
5. c 45 c 85. b
6. a 46 b 86. c
7. d 47 d 87. b
8. c 48 b 88. c
9. b 49 a 89. d
10. a 50 b 90. a
11. d 51 b 91. a
12. b 52 c 92. d
13. d 53 b 93. a
14. b 54 b 94. b
15. b 55 c 95. d
16. c 56 a 96. b
17. c 57 b 97. b
18. c 58 b 98. c
19. c 59 a 99. c
20. b 60 c 100. c
21. d 61 a 101. a
22. b 62 b 102. b
23. c 63 c 103. b
24. d 64 c 104. c
25. d 65 b 105. b
26. d 66 d 106. b
27. d 67 d 107. b
28. c 68 d 108. b
29. d 69 b 109. c
30. d 70 a 110. a
31. c 71 c 111. b
32. a 72 d 112. b
33. b 73 a 113. d
34. d 74 a 114. c
35. b 75 c 115. d
36. c 76 a 116. b
37. b 77 b 117. a
38. c 78 a 118. d
39. c 79 c 119. c
40. b 80 a 120. a
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A
I
METALLURGY ENGINEERING/METALLURGY &
C MATERIAL SCIENCE
T
E
PAPER-I
A
I Instructions:
T total 120 questions.

A
I
C
T
E
specified.
I
C
T
E Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A
C 1. What are the constituents of eutectoid steel?

(a) Pearlite and ferrite
T
(b) Only pearlite
E (c) Pearlite and cementite
(d) Ledeburite
2. Which of the following is one Iron-Carbon alloys having more than 2.1% carbon?
(a) Cast iron
(b) Plain Carbon Steel
(c) Duralumin
(d) Dual Phase Steel
A
3. For normalizing, the steel specimen is heated to up till what temperature?
I (a) Above the upper critical temperature
(b) Below the upper critical temperature
C
(c) In between lower and upper critical temperature
T (d) Below the lower critical temperature
E 4. Which one of the following is a pure shear transformation?
(a) Martensitic transformation
(b) Pearlitic transformation
(c) Bainitic transformation
(d) Eutectic transformation
5. What heat treatment process is carried out immediate after casting of metal to relieve
stress?
A (a) Normalizing
(b) Annealing
I
(c) Tempering
C (d) Carburizing
T 6. What is miller index of the closest packed plane in FCC crystal?
E (a) (100)
(b) (111)
(c) (0001)
(d) (1231)
7. What is the value of slope of the Gibbs free energy G versus temperature T curve at
0K and constant pressure?
(a) 0
A (b) Change in enthalpy
(c) Change in entropy
I (d) Kinetic energy
C
T
E Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 8. Which of the following are the values of miller indices formed by the line of
I intersection of a (1 1 1) and a (1 1 0) planes?
(a) [1 1 0]
C (b) [110]
T (c) [ 1 1 0]
(d) [1 1 1]
E
9. What is the estimated number of members in the family <123> in a cubic crystal?
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 48
10. If the radius of an atom in a simple cubic crystal is r, the body diagonal of the unit cell
A is
I (a) r/√3
(b) 2r√3
C (c) 4r/√3
T (d) 3r/4
E 11. What is the value of minimum number of ions in the unit cell of an ionic crystal with
FCC space lattice?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
12. When expressed as a function of atom radius r, what is the value of radius of the void
A at the midpoint of the edge of a BCC crystal?
(a) 0.36r
I (b) 0.414r
C (c) 0.15r
(d) 0.19r
T
E 13. Which among the following is the number of atoms along the body diagonal of the
diamond cubic unit cell?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
14. What is the value of number of missing neighbors of an atom on a {100} type
external surface?
A (a) 4
I (b) 3
(c) 2
C (d) 0
T
E Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 15. Which of the following gives the maximum number of co-existing in a C-component
I system?
(a) C-P+2
C (b) P(C-1)
(c) F-C+2
T
(d) C+2
E
16. What is the value of degree of freedom when ice, water and water vapor co-existing in
equilibrium?
(a) 1
(b) Triple point
(c) 0
(d) -1
A 17. Which reaction among the following yields two solid phases on cooling a single solid
phase?
I (a) Eutectoid
(b) Peritectoid
C
(c) Eutectic
T (d) Congruent
E 18. The reaction that on heating one solid phase yields another solid phase plus one liquid
phase is called
(a) Eutectic
(b) Eutectoid
(c) Peritectic
(d) Peritectoid
19. Decomposition of carbonates during calcination of limestone, dolomite and magnesite

A takes place at
(a) <500oC
I
(b) >800oC
C (c) >1100oC
(d) > 2000oC
T
E 20. What is the unit of flux J?
(a) atoms.m-2. s-1
(b) atoms.m2. s-1
(c) moles.m-4. s1
(d) moles.m-3. s1
21. For a spherical particle of radius r, what is the volume-to-surface area ratio?
(a) 3/r
(b) r/3
A
(c) 3r
I (d) r2
C
T
E Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 22. If the product phase completely wets a nucleating agent, what is the value of the
I nucleation barrier as a fraction of homogeneous barrier?
(a) 1
C (b) ½
(c) ¼
T
(d) 0
E
23. When the contact angle is 600, what is the value of heterogeneous nucleation barrier
expressed as a fraction of the homogeneous barrier?
(a) ½
(b) ¼
(c) 1/32
(d) 5/32
24. Which of the following leads to decrease in the free energy during recrystallization?
A (a) Excess point defects
I (b) Excess dislocations
(c) Grain boundaries
C (d) Lower energy of the new crystal structure
T 25. Which among the following refers to Overageing?
E (a) Ageing above room temperature
(b) Ultrafine precipitate size
(c) Long ageing times
(d) Coarsening of precipitate particles
26. Bainite has which type of morphology?
(a) The same morphology as austenite
(b) A non-lamellar morphology of ferrite and cementite
(c) The coarsest morphology among all the products from austenite
A (d) Random
I 27. Among the following,the hardness of martensite in a steel is a function of
(a) C content
C
(b) Cooling rate
T (c) Ni content
(d) Si content
E
28. By whose name the transition from the ferromagnetic to the paramagnetic state?
(a) Curie
(b) Curie-Weiss
(c) Neel
(d) Debye
29. By what temperature do we refer the temperature of the antiferromagnetic to

paramagnetic transition?
A (a) Antiferromagnetic Curie temperature
I (b) Curie-Weiss temperature
(c) Neel temperature
C (d) Debye temperature
T
E Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 30. what is the unit of magnetic flux density?

I (a) Wb/m2
(b) Wb/A.m
C (c) A/m
(d) Tesla/m
T
E 31. Which kind of materials have very small susceptibility at all temperatures?
(a) Antiferromagnetic
(b) Diamagnetic
(c) Ferromagnetic
(d) Paramagnetic
32. What type of materials are used for making permanent magnets?
(a) Soft magnetic materials
A (b) Hard magnetic materials
(c) Semiconductors
I (d) Superconductors
C
33. Among the following NaCl represents an example of
T (a) Ionic crystalline solid
(b) Metallic crystalline solid
E (c) Covalent or network crystalline solid
(d) Molecular crystalline solid
34. Which one of the following is not a strong bond?

(a) Metallic
(b) Vander Waals
(c) Covalent
(d) Ionic
A
35. What is the coordination number for closest packed crystal structure(fcc)?
I
(a) 8
C (b) 6
(c) 12
T (d) 4
E
36. What is the value of total effective number lattice points per unit cell for fcc?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 2
37. What is the crystal structure of martensite?

(a) BCT
A
(b) BCC
I (c) FCC
(d) Orthorhombic
C
T
E Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 38. Which among the following represents the example of a Volume defect?
I (a) Vacancy
(b) Edge dislocation
C (c) Free surface
(d) Voids
T
E 39. When do we observe Quench cracks defects?
(a) Tempering
(b) Annealing
(c) Hardening
(d) Normalizing
40. In which form carbon in gray cast iron found?

(a) Cementite network
A (b) Spheroids of graphite
(c) Graphite flakes
I (d) Carbide precipitates
C
41. What is the angle between the dislocation line and the burgers vector in case of screw
T dislocation?
(a) 0
E (b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 180
42. Stacking fault is which type of defect?

(a) 0-Dimensional
(b) 1-Dimensional
(c) 2-Dimensional
A (d) 3-Dimensional
I
43. How many total number of slip systems are in HCP crystal structure?
C (a) 3
(b) 12
T (c) 48
E (d) 4
44. Which one of the following element doesn’t go into the interstitial site of steel?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) Cu
(d) H
45. In which system two components are completely soluble in liquid as well as in the
A
solid state?
I (a) Eutectic
(b) Monotectic
C (c) Peritectic
T (d) Isomorphous
E Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 46. Which one the following is not a surface hardening treatment for steel?
I (a) Annealing
(b) Carburising
C (c) Nitriding
(d) Cyaniding
T
E 47. Which one of the following is not obtained when austenite is decomposed?
(a) Delta phase
(b) Martensite
(c) Bainite
(d) Pearlite
48. In which crystal system, do we have a=b=c and α=β=γ=900?

(a) Hexagonal
A (b) Monoclinic
(c) Cubic
I (d) Orthorhombic
C
49. What is the main constituent of Hematiteore?
T (a) Copper
(b) Zinc
E (c) Iron
(d) Carbon
50. Which kind of iron is output of blast furnace?

(a) Pig iron
(b) Wrought iron
(c) Cast iron
(d) Steel
A
51. Which element is responsible for blue-brittleness in steel?
I
(a) Si
C (b) S
(c) Mn
T (d) Fe
E
52. Which one of the following steel making process is being adopted at Rourkela Steel
Plant?
(a) Bessemer Process
(b) Open Hearth Process
(c) Electric Process
(d) LD Process
53. Which is an amorphous material?

A
(a) Mica
I (b) Silver
(c) Lead
C (d) Glass
T
E Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 54. What is the purpose of Flux?

I (a) Removing gangue materials
(b) Adding impurity
C (c) Alloying steel
(d) Oxidising
T
E 55. For extraction of which element Hall-Heroult process is used?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Aluminum
(d) Magnesium
56. What are number of components in case of ternary alloy system?

(a) 1
A (b) 2
(c) 3
I (d) 4
C
57. What is the crystal structure of copper?
T (a) SC
(b) FCC
E (c) BCC
(d) BCT
58. What is the volumetric expansion in case of martensitic transformation?

(a) 3%
(b) 3.5%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
A
59. What is the definition of system?
I
(a) Body + surrounding
C (b) Body under investigation
(c) Only include surrounding
T (d) Does not involve body or surrounding
E
60. What situation do we find in adiabatic system?
(a) dQ<0
(b) dQ>0
(c) dQ=0
(d) dH=0
61. Which among the following has similar unit of Work?

(a) Has same units of heat capacity
A
(b) Has similar units of power
I (c) Has similar units of force
(d) Has similar units of energy
C
T
E Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 62. Which among the following represents the Boyles law?

𝑃
I (a) 𝑉 = constant
(b) PV= constant
C
(c) PV2=constant
3
T (d) P √𝑣 = constant
E
63. What do we observe in isochoric process?
(a) ΔP=constant
(b) ΔV=constant
(c) ΔT=constant
(d) ΔP*ΔV=constant
64. What is the correct option in regard to extensive property?

(a) Independent on mass of system
A (b) Dependent on temperature
I (c) Dependent on mass
(d) Depends on density
C
65. Which expression represents the gas equation?
T 𝑃∗𝑉
(a) 𝑇 = constant
E (b) P*V*T= constant
(c) P*V= constant
(d) V*T= constant
66. What is the correct expression for the 1st law of thermodynamics?
(a) 𝜕𝑄=dU+ 𝜕𝑊
(b) 𝑑𝑊=𝜕U-𝜕𝑄
(c) 𝜕𝑈= dW+ dQ
A (d) dU=𝜕𝑄
I
67. Which quantity defines heat capacity at constant pressure?
C (a) Work W
(b) Pressure P
T (c) Internal energy U
E (d) Enthalpy H(ΔH)
68. Which of the following is an example of Reversible process?

(a) friction
(b) expansion and compression of spring
(c) plastic deformation
(d) flow of electric current through resistance
A 69. How to we express the differential of State function?

(a) Expressed as sum of exact and partial differentials
I (b) Expressed as partial differential
(c) Cannot differentiate the state function, it is constant
C
(d) Expressed as exact differential
T
E Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 70. What do we mean by Diatomic gas?

I (a) Molecule consisting of single atom
(b) Molecule consisting of two atoms
C (c) Molecule consisting of three atoms
(d) Molecule consisting of large number of atoms
T
E
71. What is the value of Cp for mono atomic gas?

7𝑅
(a) 2
3𝑅
(b)
2
5𝑅
(c) 2
A (d) 3R
I
72. What kind of function is Work and heat?
C (a) State function
(b) Path function
T (c) State and path function
E (d) Has constant value for a given system
73. What concept was introduced by First law of thermodynamics?

(a) enthalpy
(b) Gibbs free energy
(c) entropy
(d) Internal energy
74. How do we represent Work done at constant pressure?

A
(a) PV2
𝑉2
I (b) RTln(𝑉1)
C (c) PV
𝑃
(d) 𝑉
T
E 75. What is the value of Cvin terms of gamma?
(a) nR(ˠ-1)
(b) nR/(ˠ-1)
(c) nRˠ
(d) nR
76. Which law introduced concept of entropy?

(a) second law of thermodynamics
A (b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) zeroth law of thermodynamics
I (d) third law of thermodynamics
C
T
E Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 77. What type of function is Entropy?

I (a) not a function
(b) state as well as path function
C (c) only path function
(d) only state function
T
E 78. Which type of entropy does not exist?
(a) thermal
(b) Magentic
(c) configurational
(d) spin
79. What is the value of Sconf?

(a) Kln(Ω)
A (b) kln(Ω)
(c) k/ln(Ω)
I (d) K/ln(Ω)
C
80. Thermodynamics does not involve which concept?
T (a) volumes
(b) time
E (c) pressures
(d) temperatures
81. Which of the following is the correct expression for adiabatic system is correct?
(a) T/Vˠ-1= constant
(b) T*Vˠ+1= constant
(c) T*Vˠ-1= constant
(d) T*Vˠ= constant
A
82. In a system at temperatures greater than boiling point which situation do we observe?
I
(a) Ss>Sl>Sg
C (b) Ss=Sl=Sg
(c) Ss<Sl<Sg
T (d) Ss>Sl=Sg
E
83. What do find at triple point of water?
(a) Solid, liquid and gas do not co-exist at equilibrium
(b) Solid and liquid coexist at equilibrium but gas does not
(c) Solid, liquid and gas coexist at equilibrium
(d) Liquid and gas do coexist in equilibrium but solid does
84. What is the value of work done by gas during free expansion?
(a) Work done by gas has to be a function of pressure
A
(b) >0
I (c) 0
(d) depends on the system we choose
C
T
E Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 85. When an ideal gas undergoes reversible compression isothermally, what do we find?
I (a) ΔH>0
(b) ΔH=0, ΔE>0
C (c) ΔH=0, ΔE=0
(d) ΔE=0
T
86. Which of the following best describes the “Streamline flow”?
E
(a) The flow in which the fluid particles move in an irregular manner.
(b) The flow in which the fluid particle flows in parallel layers or in regular paths.
(d) The flow is independent of mass
87. Which of the following suitably represents Reynolds number?
d
(a) N Re =

A d
(b) N Re =
I 
C 
(c) N Re =
d
T 
(d) N Re =
E 
88. Which one of these is the appropriate Navier Stokes equation for an incompressible
fluid?
𝐷𝑣
(a) 𝐷𝑡 = −∇𝑃 + 𝜇 2 ∇2 𝑣 + 𝜌𝑔
𝐷𝑣
(b) 𝜌 𝐷𝑡 = 𝜇∇2 𝑣 + 𝜌𝑔
A 𝐷𝑣
(c) ρ 𝐷𝑡 = −∇𝑃
I
𝐷𝑣
C (d) ρ 𝐷𝑡 = −∇𝑃 + 𝜇∇2 𝑣 + 𝜌𝑔
T
89. What is the value of viscosity (µ) for ideal fluids?
E (a) µ = 0 for ideal fluids
(b) µ = 1 for ideal fluids
(c) µ ≠ 0 for ideal fluids
(d) µ is fractional for ideal fluids
90. Which of the following is known as the “Cauchy’s equation of motion”?

(a) The linear momentum conservation equation is known as the “Cauchy’s equation
of motion”
A (b) The mass conservation equation is known as the “Cauchy’s equation of motion”
I (d) The energy conservation equation is known as the “Cauchy’s equation of motion”
C
T
E Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 91. For two-dimensional steady state conduction, how do we represent the equation for
I heat conduction?
t t
C (a) + 2 =0
x 2
y
T T T
(b) + 2 =0
E x 2
y
r r
(c) + 2 =0
x 2
y
t r
(d) + 2 =0
x 2
y
92. Which one of these correctly represents the “Mass conservation equation”?

A (a) t = 0
I v
C (b) t + 𝛁(ρv) = 0

T (c) t + 𝛁(ρv) = 1
E 
(d) t + 𝛁(ρv) = 0
93. What is the dimension of “Thermal conductivity”?
(a) [QL-1t-1T-2]
(b) [Q2L-1t-1T-1]
(c) [QL-1t-1T-1]
(d) [Q2L-3t-1T-1]
A 94. What is the unit and dimension of “Kinematic viscosity”?
I (a) Unit: m2/sec and Dimension: [L2T-1]
(b) Unit: m3/sec and Dimension: [L3T-1]
C (c) Unit: m2/sec2 and Dimension: [L2T-2]
(d) Unit: m3/sec and Dimension: [L3T-2]
T
95. Among the following what is the correct statement for “Black body”?
E
(a) Black body is an object that reflects all the radiant energy reaching its surface
from all the direction.
(b) Black body is an object that partially absorbs the radiant energy reaching its
surface from all the direction.
(c) Black body is an object that absorbs all the radiant energy reaching its surface
from all the direction.
(d) Black body is an object that reflects all the radiant energy reaching its surface to
one direction
A
96. What is the significance of Reynold’s number?
I (a) The Reynold’s number determines whether a substance is solid or fluid.
C (b) The Reynold’s number determines whether a fluid flow is laminar or turbulent.
T (d) The Reynold’s number determines whether a substance will diffuse or not
E Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 97. Which of these determine the “Stokes Hypothesis”?

 3
I (a)  =
2
C  2
(b)  =
T 3
 2
E (c)  =
3
 10
(d)  =
3
98. What is the emissivity of a black body?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) ½
(d) 2
A
I 99. The rate of diffusion is affected by which of the following?
(a) Temperature and time
C (b) Size of few molecules
T (c) Steepness of the concentration gradient is polymeric function of time
(d) Size of few molecules but depends on concentration gradient
E
100. Among the following what is the correct choice for expressing mathematical
statement of First law of thermodynamics?
(a) ΔG = ΔH - TΔS
q
(b) dS =
T
(c) dU =  q -  w
(d) dF = -PdV–SdT
A
I PART –C
C Engineering Mathematics (30 Marks)
T
(a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
(c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
(b) Identitymatrix
A
(c) Singularmatrix
C
T
E Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 103. IftherankofasquarematrixAoforder4is2,thenadjointofAwillbea
I (a) Nullmatrix
(b) Diagonalmatrix
C (c) Lower Triangularmatrix
T
E 104. If u  tan 1 y / x then xux  yu y is equal to
(a) u
(b) 1
(c) -1
(d) 0

[−3, 1] are
A (a) −7 and −8
I (b) 81 and −8
(c) 0 and −2
C (d) 73 and −8
2
T 𝑑4𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4
E (a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2

(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 2
I
C 𝐵
(a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
T 𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
E 𝐵
(c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1

13
(a) 30
17
(b) 30
A
19
I (c) 30
T
E Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
I (a) Hermitianmatrix
C (b) Unitorymatrix
E
(a) λ = 2 and µ =4
(b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
A
(a) 62
I (b) 44
(c) 8
T

E 113. If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is true

(a) grad | A |  0

(b) curl A  0

(c) div A  0
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
A 114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
I (a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
(b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
C (c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
T
𝑛−1
E 1 1
115. 0
(a) ⎾(n − 1)
(b) ⎾(n)
n−1
(c) ⎾ 2
n+1
(d) ⎾ 2
A 116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is

I (a) Hyperbolic
(b) Elliptic
C (c) Parabolic
E Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
A 𝑥+𝑦
√𝑥+√𝑦
I
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
C
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
T (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
E 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0

2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
A function𝑓 𝑥 = 2𝑥 is
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
I (a) 0
C (b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
(c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
E
(a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
(a) m2
A
(b) √𝑚
I (c) 𝑚
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E Page 18 of 18
UG1MMS31
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Metallurgy Engineering
Paper: 1

1. b 41 a 81. a
2. a 42 c 82. c
3. c 43 a 83. c
4. a 44 c 84. c
5. b 45 d 85. c
6. b 46 a 86. b
7. c 47 a 87. a
8. b 48 c 88. d
9. d 49 c 89. a
10. b 50 c 90. a
11. b 51 b 91. b
12. c 52 d 92. d
13. b 53 d 93. c
14. a 54 a 94. a
15. d 55 c 95. c
16. c 56 c 96. b
17. a 57 b 97. c
18. c 58 c 98. b
19. b 59 b 99. a
20. a 60 c 100. c
21. b 61 d 101. a
22. d 62 b 102. c
23. d 63 b 103. a
24. b 64 c 104. d
25. d 65 a 105. d
26. b 66 a 106. d
27. a 67 d 107. a
28. a 68 b 108. a
29. c 69 d 109. a
30. a 70 b 110. b
31. a 71 c 111. c
32. b 72 b 112. d
33. a 73 d 113. b
34. b 74 c 114. a
35. c 75 b 115. b
36. c 76 a 116. b
37. a 77 d 117. d
38. d 78 b 118. a
39. c 79 b 119. d
40. c 80 b 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
I
C METALLURGY ENGINEERING/METALLURGY &
T MATERIAL SCIENCE
E
A
PAPER-II
I
C
T Instructions:
E i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120
questions.
A iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.

I iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be
C
T v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use

E
specified.
A a black or blue ball point pen.
I
C
T completion of examination before leaving the examination hall.
E
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
I
C 1. Copper matte is a mixture of mainly
(a) copper sulphide and iron sulphide
T
(b) copper sulphate and iron sulphate
E (c) copper oxide and iron oxide
(d) copper sulphide and iron oxide
2. Sintering of copper ore is done in

(a) Bessemer converter
(b) Dwight Lloyd Machine
A (c) Reverberatory furnace
(d) Heroseffroater unit
I
3. In fire refining of copper, blister copper is melted in
C (a) blast furnace
(b) reverberatory furnace
T (c) bessemer converter
E (d) crucible furnace
4. Common impurities present in bauxite are
(a) ZnO, CuO
(b) Fe2O3, SiO2
(c) MnO, Cr2O3
A
I 5. The metal which can be extracted from its ore by the method of electrolysis is /are
(a) Zinc
C (b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
T (d) All of these
E
6. Cryolite bath is suitable for electrolytic reduction of alumina because
(a) alumina can’t be dissociated into its ions electrically
(b) it is not economical to start with alumina bath
(c) cryolite is a good conductor of electricity and is of low melting point
(d) cryolite has lower decomposition voltage as compared to alumina
A
7. Lead ore can be smelted in a suitable
I (a) reverberatory furnace
C (b) rotary kiln
(c) blast furnace
T (d) Dwight Lloyd Machine
E 8. In bacterial leaching of copper pyrite ore, ____________________is/are used

(a) thiobacillusthio-oxidans
(b) thiobacillus/ferro-oxidans
(c) Ferro-bacillus ferro-oxidans
(d) all the above mentioned bacteria
Page 2 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
9. As compared to the engineering stress-engineering strain curve, the true stress-true
I strain curve for a given material
(a) lies above and to the left
C (b) lies below and to the right
T (c) crosses the engineering stress-engineering strain curve
(d) is identical
E
10. Which one of the following refers to the ability of a material to absorb energy when
deformed elastically?
(a) Toughness
(b) Fracture toughness
(c) Resilience
A
(d) Hardness
I
11. ____is a structure sensitive property.
C (a) Yield strength
(b) Density
T (c) Elastic constant
E (d) Specific heat
12. Mohs hardness test has scale range of

(a) 0 to 10
(b) 10 to 20
(c) 10 to 100
A (d) 0 to 100
I 13. Which method is used to make powder of metals having low melting point?
(a) Mechanical pulverization
C
(b) Electrolytic process
T (c) Chemical reduction
(d) Atomization
E
14. Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrode?
(a) Gas tungsten arc welding (TIG)
(b) Shielded metal arc welding
(c) CO2 shielded welding
A (d) Gas metal arc welding (MIG)
I 15. Which of the following gas mixtures is not used in Gas tungsten arc welding (TIG)?
(a) Argon-Helium
C (b) Argon-Nitrogen
(c) Argon-Hydrogen
T
(d) Argon-Carbon dioxide
E
16. Hot working is carried out
(a) Above melting temperature
(b) Above Curie temperature
(c) Above recrystallization temperature
(d) Below recrystallization temperature
Page 3 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
17. In rolling, the pressure is maximum at
I (a) entrance
(b) exit
C (c) both the extremities
T (d) at a point somewhat between the two extremities
E 18. Which one of the following minerals is a source of titanium?

(a) Haematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Ilmenite
(d) Pyrolusite
A 19. Manganin is an alloy of

(a) Manganese and Nickel
I (b) Copper and Magnesium
(c) Copper, Manganese and Nickel
C (d) Manganese, Aluminum and Iron
T
20. An XRD pattern is a plot of
E (a) Wave length versus θ
(b) Intensity versus 2θ
(c) Lattice parameter versus d
(d) d versus θ
21. A crystal will be mechanically weak if

A (a) All the dislocations are removed and the crystal is made perfect
I (b) There are a few dislocations in the crystal
(c) The dislocation density in the crystal is very high
C (d) Small tiny particles of a second phase are present in the crystal
T 22. Toughness of a material is equal to area under ____________ part of the stress-strain
curve.
E (a) Elastic
(b) Plastic
A 23. Time dependent permanent deformation is called

(a) Plastic deformation
I (b) Elastic deformation
(c) Creep
C
(d) Anelastic deformation
T
24. Engineering stress-strain curve and True stress-strain curve are equal up to
E (a) Proportional limit
(b) Elastic limit
(c) Yield point
(d) Tensile strength point
Page 4 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
25. High elastic modulus in materials arises from
I (a) High strength of bonds
(b) Weak bonds
C (c) Combination of bonds
26. Bauschinger effect
E
(a) Hysteresis loss during loading and unloading
(b) Anelastic deformation
(c) Dependence of yield stress on path and direction
A 27. Shape of true stress-strain curve for a material depends on

(a) Strain
I (b) Strain rate
(c) Temperature
T
28. True stress-strain curve need to be corrected after
E (a) Elastic limit
(b) Yield limit
(c) Tensile strength
(d) No need to correct
29. Plastic deformation results from the following

A (a) Slip
(b) Twinning
I (c) Both (a) and (b)
T 30. The tendency of a deformed solid to regain its actual proportions instantly upon
unloading known as
E (a) Perfectly elastic
(b) Delayed elasticity
(c) Inelastic effect
(d) Plasticity
A 31. Depending upon the temperature the forming process can be classified as
(a) Hot working
I (b) Cold working
(c) Warm working
C (d) All of the mentioned above
T
32. Which of the defect is eliminated by hot working process?
E (a) Cold shut
(b) Misrun
(c) Blow holes
(d) Fusion
Page 5 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
33. The extra metal which settles down in the gutter is known as
I (a) Flash
(b) Slag
C (c) Flux
T (d) Barreling
E 34. In which process the cross section of the metal is reduced by forcing it to flow
through a die under high pressure?
(a) Forging
(b) Forming
(c) Extrusion
(d) Welding
A
I 35. Degree of drawing is measured in terms of
(a) Reduction in stress
C (b) Reduction in force
(c) Reduction in area
T (d) Reduction in strain
E
36. Which of the following angle influence the drawing force and the quality of drawn
products?
(a) Entrance angle
(b) Die angle
(c) Relief angle
I 37. According to distortion-energy criterion, yielding occurs when

(a) Distortion energy reaches a critical value
C (b) Second invariant of the stress deviator exceeded some critical value
(c) Octahedral shear stress reaches a critical value
T
E 38. Cracks can’t nucleate at
(a) Grain boundaries
(b) Crystal
(c) Interfaces
(d) Inclusion brittle particles
A
39. Which mode is the sliding mode?
I (a) Mode I
(b) Mode II
C (c) Mode III
(d) Mode IV
T
40. What are specimen dimensions for a Charpy test?
E (a) 75×10×10mm
(b) 55×10×10mm
(c) 65×10×10mm
(d) 85×10×10mm
Page 6 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
41. Alloy of copper and zinc is known as
I (a) Brass
(b) Bronze
C (c) Duralium
T (d) Nichrome
E 42. Which metal is extracted by leaching?

(a) Iron
(b) Aluminium
(c) Lead
(d) Gold
A 43. Zinc is commercially extracted from which of the following minerals?

(a) Sphalerite
I
(b) Magnetite
C (c) Chalcopyrite
(d) Galena
T
44. Sapphire is mineral of
E (a) Cu
(b) Zn
(c) Al
(d) Mg
45. Bauxite is an oxide ore of
A (a) Barium
(b) Boron
I (c) Bismuth
(d) Aluminium
C
46. Metals combine with oxygen to form _____Oxides
T
(a) Acidic
E (b) Basic
(c) Amphoteric
47. The criteria for predicting the onset of failure in engineering materials is
(a) Tresca
A (b) Von Mises
(c) Tresca and Von Mises
C 48. The test carried out to determine the resistance of materials to crack propagation is
T known as
(a) Hardness test
E (b) Fatigue test
(c) Fracture toughness test
(d) Compressive test
Page 7 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
49. The variation of limiting range of stress on the mean stress is shown in
I (a) S-N curve
(b) Goodman diagram
C (c) Master diagram
E 50. Brinell hardness test consists of indenting the metal surface with a steel ball of
diameter.
(a) 20 mm
(b) 8 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 12 mm
A
51. Stress intensity factor KIc can be described as fracture toughness of
I
(a) Brittle materials
C (b) Ductile materials
(c) Composite materials
E 52. S-N curve indicates the fatigue failures at
(a) N>105
(b) N<105
(c) N=104
(d) N<104
A
53. The materials with high strain rate sensitivity at high temperature (T>0.5Tm) are
I (a) Superalloys
(b) Superplastic
C (c) Superelastic
T
E 54. The susceptibility of material to brittle behaviour is determined by
(a) Tensile test
(b) Compression test
(c) Impact test
(d) Torsion test
A 55. The upper yield point in low carbon steel is associated with presence of small amount
of
I (a) Nitrogen
(b) Sulphur
C (c) Phosphorous
T (d) Manganese
56. The indenter used in Vickers hardness test is
E
(a) Brale indenter
(b) Square based diamond pyramid
(c) 10 mm diameter steel ball
(d) 1.6 mm diameter steel ball
Page 8 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
57. The engineering stress-strain curve for a ceramic material is
I (a) Parabolic
(b) Exponential
C (c) Logarithmic
T (d) Linear
58. Unit of stress intensity factorKIcis
E
(a) MPm1/2
(b) MNm-3/2
(c) MNm3/2
A 59. Copper matte is a molten mixture of

(a) Cu-Ni sulphides
I (b) Cu-Fe sulphides
C (c) Cu-As sulphides
T
60. According to Griffith, the fracture strength of brittle materials is proportional to
E (a) c
(b) 1/c
(c) 1/c
A 61. The strengthening mechanisms to increase the yield strength of crystalline materials is
(a) Alloying
I (b) Grain refinement
(c) Precipitation hardening
T
62. The hot working temperature of lead is
E (a) 327ᴼC
(b) -200ᴼC
(c) Room temperature
(d) -273ᴼC
63. In screw dislocation, the dislocation line is

A (a) Parallel to burger’s vector
(b) Perpendicular to burger’s vector
I (c) At an angle of thirty degree to the burger’s vector
T 64. Monel metal is an alloy of copper and

(a) Tin
E (b) Zinc
(c) Aluminium
(d) Nickel
Page 9 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
65. Yield strength of the material is the stress at which the material
I (a) fractures
(b) develops cracks
C (c) becomes plastic
T (d) ruptures
E 66. Creep curve is a plot of

(a) strain versus time
(b) strain versus temperature
(c) stress versus strain
(d) elastic modulus versus temperature
A 67. Brittle fracture occurs in materials due to

(a) the presence of impurities
I
(b) presence of cracks
C (c) rise in temperature
(d) low bond strength
T
68. Time dependent deformation in which the material does not recover its original
E dimension is called
(a) elasticity
(b) plasticity
(c) viscoelasticity
(d) anelasticity
A
69. Which of the following is a typical rolling defect?
I (a) Buckling
(b) Edge cracking
C (c) Cold shut
(d) Porosity
T
70. Which of the following is not a solid state metal joining technique?
E
(a) Ultrasonic welding
(b) Friction welding
(c) Diffusion bonding
(d) Electroslag welding
A 71. Which one of the following can avoid weld decay of austenitic stainless steels?
(a) Reducing carbon content
I (b) Increasing carbon content
(c) Eliminating strong carbide formers
C (d) Decreasing chromium content
T 72. Which of the following oxide addition results in network formation in a silicate slag?
(a) CaO
E
(b) MgO
(c) P2O5
(d) Na2O
Page 10 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
73. Which of the following is not a cold working operation?
I (a) Punching
(b) Perforating
C (c) Roasting
T (d) Blanking
E 74. Which of the following metal is extracted by flash smelting process?

(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Copper
(d) Tin
A 75. Suggest a suitable method from the following to remove hydrogen from molten
aluminium
I
(a) Expose flowing melt to vacuum
C (b) Bubbled humidified argon gas through the melt
(c) Increase melt temperature
T (d) Cover melt surface with a flux
E 76. Which type of ore of zinc is known as Calamine?
(a) sulphate
(b) oxide
(c) carbonate
(d) sulphide
A
77. Aluminium is not commercially produced by carbothermic reduction primarily
I because
(a) Melting point of aluminium is too low
C (b) Aluminium metal will have excessive dissolved oxygen
(c) Al-Al2O3 line is too low in the Ellingham diagram and needs excessively high
T
temperature
E (d) It does not vaporize at reasonable temperature
78. Thermit welding is a form of

(a) Fusion welding
(b) Resistance welding
(c) Forge welding
A (d) Gas welding
I
79. The metal flow under combined stress state in the metal working process is
C (a) Extrusion
(b) Wiredrawing
T (c) Tube drawing
E
80. The imaging of Scanning Electron Microscope is produced by
(a) Secondary electrons
(b) Primary electrons
(c) Backscattered electrons
(d) Transmitted electrons
Page 11 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
I
C 81. Match the items of Column I with Column II
T Column-I Column-II
E (P) Blistered Cu (1) Aluminium
(Q) Blast furnace (2) 2Cu2O+Cu2S→6Cu+SO2
(R) Reverberatory furnace (3) Iron
(S) Hall-Heroult process (4) FeO+SiO2 →FeSiO3
(5) 2Cu2 S + 3O2→ 2Cu2O + 2SO2
(a) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S (1)
A (b) P (1) Q (2) R (3) S (5)
(c) P (5) Q (4) R (3) S (2)
I
(d) P (4) Q (5) R (3) S (2)
C
T 82. Match the extraction processing Column I with the corresponding product in Column
II
E
Column-I Column-II
(P) Cyanide process (1) Ultrapure Ge
(Q) Froth Floatation Process (2) Dressing of ZnS
(R) Electrolytic reduction (3) Extraction of Al
A (S) Zone refining (4) Extraction of Au
(5) Purification of Ni
I (a) P (4) Q (2) R (3) S (1)
(b) P (2) Q (3) R (1) S (5)
C (c) P (1) Q (2) R (3) S (4)
(d) P (3) Q (4) R (5) S (1)
T
E 83. In the Froth Floatation process, zinc sulphide and lead sulphide can be separated by
(a) using collectors.
(b) using depressant
(c) using froth stabilizers
A 84. In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process, purified Al2O3 is mixed with
CaF2 to
I (a) lower the melting point of Al2O3.
(b) decrease the conductivity of molten mixture.
C (c) reduce Al3+ into Al(s).
T (d) acts as catalyst.
85. Match the metals listed in Group I with the most appropriate extraction routes listed in
E
Group II.
Group I Group II
(P) Al (1) Blast Furnace
(Q) Ti (2) Matte Smelting
(R) Cu (3) Electrolysis of Fused Salts
(S) Fe (4) Halide Metallurgy
Page 12 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
I (a) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(b) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
C (c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
T (d) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
E 86. Match the electromagnetic waves from Group I with respective wavelengths of group
II
Group I Group II
(P) Gamma rays (1) 1km
(Q) Infrared (2) 10μm
(R) X-Ray (3) 1nm
A
(S) Radio waves (4) 1pm
I
(a) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
C (b) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
T (d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
E
87. The Deby Scherer method is used for determining crystal structure of
(a) Single crystal
(b) Cold worked crystals
(c) Fine-grained polycrystalline
(d) Polycrystalline
A
88. Match the reactions in Column I with the process in Column II
I Column-I Column-II
(P) Al2O3+2NaOH→2NaAlO2+H2O (1)Aluminothermic process
C
(Q) Fe2O3+2Al→Al2O3+2Fe (2)Hall Heroult process
T (R) 2ZnS+3O2→2ZnO+2SO2 (3)Iron Extraction
(S) Fe2O3+3CO→2Fe+3CO2 (4)Baeyer’s process
E (T) 3Na2O+Al2O3+12HF→2Na3AlF6+6H2O (5)Dwight Lloyd Machine
(a) P (4) Q (1) R (5) S (3) T (2)

(b) P (2) Q (3) R (1) S (5) T (4)
(c) P (1) Q (2) R (3) S (4) T (5)
A (d) P (3) Q (4) R (5) S (1) T (2)
I 89. Match the metal in Group I with its corresponding ore in Group II
Group I Group II
C (P) Ni (1) Monazite
(Q) Th (2) Cassiterite
T
(R) Pb (3) Pentlandite
E (S) Sn (4) Galena
(a) P (3) Q (1) R (4) S (2)

(b) P (2) Q (1) R (3) S (4)
(c) P (3) Q (2) R (4) S (1)
(d) P (3) Q (2) R (1) S (4)
Page 13 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
I 90. Match the phenomena listed in Group I with the possible mechanism in Group II
Group I Group II
C (P) Fatigue (1) Grain boundary sliding
T (Q) Creep (2) Slip band extrusion and intrusion
(R) Strain hardening (3) Cottrell atmosphere
E (S) Yield point phenomenon (4) Dislocation interaction
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(b) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
A
I 91. Match the defects listed in Group I with the corresponding manufacturing process
listed in Group II
C Group I Group II
(P) Orange-peel effect (1) Extrusion
T (Q) Chevron cracking (2) Deep drawing
E (R) Flash (3) Arc welding
(S) Undercut (4) Forging
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(b) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
A (d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
I 92. Match the processes given in Group I with the corresponding metals in Group II
Group I Group II
C
(P) Matte smelting (1) Lead
T (Q) Cyanide leaching (2) Copper
(R) Carbothermic reduction (3) Gold
E (S) Fused salt electrolysis (4) Aluminium
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-1, S-4

(b) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
A (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
I 93. Match the desired mechanical properties listed in Group I with the microstructural
features listed in Group II
C Group I Group II
P. Creep resistance 1. Fine grained two-phase microstructure
T
Q. Elastic modulus enhancement 2. Single crystal
E R. Superplasticity 3. Coherent precipitates
S. Increased strength 4. Glass fibres in epoxy
(a) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(b) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(d) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Page 14 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
94. Match the deformation processes in Column I with the corresponding stress states
I in Column II
Column I Column II
C [P] Wire Drawing [1] Direct Compression
T [Q] Forging [2] Indirect Compression
[R] Stretch Forming [3] Tension
E [S] Cutting [4] Shear
(a) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4

(b) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
(c) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
(d) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
A
I 95. Match the fracture processes in Group-I to the fracture surface morphologies in
Group-II.
C Group-I Group-II
(P) Ductile fracture (1) Cleavage
T (Q) Brittle fracture (2) Dimples
E (R) Fatigue fracture (3) Striations
(4) Veins
(a) P-4, Q-2, R-3
(b) P-2, Q-1, R-3
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-1
(d) P-4, Q-3, R-2
A
96. Match the characterisation technique in Group-I to its application in Group-II.
I Group-I Group-II
(P) XRD (1) Dislocation substructure
C
(Q) SEM (2) Glass transition temperature
T (R) DSC (3) Fracture morphology
(S) TEM (4) Phase identification
E
(a) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
(b) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(c) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
A 97. A unit cell has a = 5Å, b= 8Å, c= 3 Å, α= 90°, β= 65°and γ = 54°. The space lattice
for this unit cell is
I (a) orthorhombic
C (b) monoclinic
(c) rhombohedral
T (d) triclinic
E 98. The Schottky defect in a crystal is known as a

(a) line defect
(b) planar defect
(c) Point defect
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
99. If a cylindrical billet of height 1.0 m and diameter 0.5 m is upset forged to form a
I cylindrical pancake of height 0.25 m, the diameter of the pancake (in m) is
(a) 0.25
C (b) 0.5
T (c) 1.0
(d) 1.5
E
100. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason
[r]
Assertion [a]: In a pure metal weld, elastic modulus in the heat affected zone (HAZ) is
the same as that in the base metal.
Reason [r]: Coarse grained microstructure in the HAZ results in lower hardness.
A (a) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(b) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
I (c) Both [a] and [r] are false
(d) [a] is true but [r] is false
C
T 101. Match the scientist pairs listed in Group I with phenomena listed in Group II
Group I Group II
E (P) Hall-Petch (1) Dislocation reaction product
(Q) Nabarro-Herring (2) Diffusional creep
(R) Lomer-Cottrell (3) Dislocation source
(S) Frank-Read (4) Grain boundary strengthening
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(b) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
A (c) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(d) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
I
C 102. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).
Assertion (a): During welding of aluminium alloys by the gas tungsten arc welding
T process, direct current reverse polarity (DCRP) mode is used.
Reason (r): DCRP facilitates breaking up of the oxide film on the work piece surface.
E (a) a is true but r is false
(b) a is false but r is true
(c) both a and r are true, and r is the reason for a
(d) both a and r are true, but r is not the reason for a
A 103. Of the following welding processes

[P] Laser Beam Welding
I [Q] Submerged Arc Welding
[R] Metal Inert Gas Welding
C
T The width of the heat-affected zone in decreasing order is
(a) P > Q > R
E (b) Q > R > P
(c) R > P > Q
(d) P > R > Q
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ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
A
104. The flow curve of metals is dependent on
I (a) Strain rate
(b) Temperature
C (c) Flow stress
E 105. The intensity of X ray diffraction depends on

(a) Atomic scattering factor
(b) Polarisation factor
(c) Structure factor
A
106. Ceramics is brittle in nature, because
I (a) No dislocation
(b) Amorphous
C (c) wide dislocation
(d) Higher Peierls Nabarro stress
T
E 107. A plastically deformed metal crystal at low temperature exhibits wavy slip line pattern
due to
(a) Dislocation pile-up
(b) Large number of slip systems
(c) Low stacking fault energy
(d) Dislocation climb
A
108. Creep resistance decreases due to
I (a) Small grain size
(b) Fine dispersoid size
C (c) Low stacking fault energy
(d) High melting point
T
109. Kroll process is used for commercial production of
E (a) Ti
(b) Zr
A 110. Which of the following stress causes fatigue failure of a material?

(a) tensile stress
I (b) fluctuating stress
(c) compressive stress
C (d) none of the above
T 111. The pair of cation and an anion vacancy in a crystal is known as
(a) Frenkel defect
E (b) Schottky defect
(c) Point defect
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A
112. The strengthening mechanisms to increase the yield strength of crystalline materials is
I (a) alloying
(b) grain refinement
C (c) precipitation hardening
E 113. Liberty ships in World War II failed by brittle fracture due to

(a) going above the ductile-brittle transition temperature
(b) going below the ductile-brittle transition temperature
(c) glass superstructure
(d) defective riveting
A 114. A defect that is bound by two mirror planes is

(a) Twin
I (b) Stacking fault
(c) Grain boundary
C
(d) Edge dislocation
T
115. Regarding the role of Stacking fault energy (SFE) on the work hardening ability of a
E metal the correct logical sequence is
(a) High SFE → easy cross slip → low work hardening
(b) High SFE → difficult cross slip → high work hardening
(c) Low SFE → easy cross slip → low work hardening
(d) Low SFE → difficult cross slip → low work hardening
A
116. Brittle fracture occurs in materials due to
I (a) the presence of impurities
(b) presence of cracks
C (c) rise in temperature
(d) low bond strength
T
E 117. Which of the following microstructures of a Ni-base super alloy imparts the highest
creep resistance?
(a) Fine grained equiaxed
(b) Coarse grained equiaxed
(c) Columnar
(d) Single crystal
A
118. Movement of jogs can produce
I (a) Vacancies
C (b) Interstitial
(c) Grain boundary sliding
T (d) Grain boundary migration
E 119. Which of these metals cannot be electroplated from aqueous electrolyte?

(a) Al
(b) Cu
(c) Ni
(d) Zn
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A
120. The phenomenon of dislocations developing a low energy configuration on annealing
I is known as
(a) Polygonization
C (b) Polymerization
T (c) Crystallization
(d) Homogenization
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG2MMS31
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Metallurgy Engineering
Paper: 2
Q1. A Q50. C Q99. C

Q2. B Q51. A Q100. B
Q3. B Q52. A Q101. C
Q4. B Q53. B Q102. C
Q5. D Q54. C Q103. B
Q6. C Q55. A Q104. D
Q7. C Q56. B Q105. C
Q8. D Q57. D Q106. D
Q9. A Q58. B Q107. B
Q10. C Q59. B Q108. A
Q11. A. Q60. C Q109. C
Q12. A Q61. D Q110. B
Q13. D Q62. C Q111. B
Q14. A Q63. A Q112. D
Q15. B Q64. D Q113. B
Q16. C Q65. C Q114. A
Q17. D Q66. A Q115. A
Q18. C Q67. B Q116. B
Q19. C Q68. C Q117. D
Q20. B Q69. B Q118. A
Q21. B Q70. D Q119. A
Q22. C Q71. A Q120. A
Q23. C Q72. C
Q24. C Q73. C
Q25. A Q74. C
Q26. C Q75. B
Q27. D Q76. C
Q28. C Q77. C
Q29. C Q78. A
Q30. A Q79. D
Q31. D Q80. A
Q32. C Q81. A
Q33. A Q82. A
Q34. C Q83. B
Q35. C Q84. A
Q36. B Q85. B
Q37. D Q86. D
Q38. B Q87. D
Q39. B Q88. A
Q40. B Q89. A
Q41. A Q90. C
Q42. D Q91. D
Q43. A Q92. B
Q44. C Q93. C
Q45. D Q94. C
Q46. B Q95. B
Q47. C Q96. D
Q48. C Q97. D
Q49. B Q98. C
ROLL NO.: UG1SWE16
I
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
C
T
E
PAPER-I
A
Instructions:
I
E

A
I use non-programmable scientific calculator.
C vii. All symbols and notations carry the usual meaning, unless otherwise
specified.
T
E
A completion of examination before leaving the examination hall.
E Page 1 of 18
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A
I
1. What a binary search tree whose left subtree and right subtree differ in height by at
C most 1 unit is called?
(a) AVL Tree
T (b) Red-black tree
(c) Lemma tree
2. Stack is also called as

(a) last in first out
(b) first in last out
(c) last in last out
A (d) first in first out
I 3. Which of the following is true about the characteristics of abstract data types?
i) It exports a type
C ii) It exports a set of operations
(a) i) is true, ii) is false
T (b) i) is false, ii) is true
(c) i) is true, ii) is true
E (d) i) is false, ii) is false
4. Which of the following is not the part of ADT description?

(a) Data
(b) Operations
(c) Both of the above
A 5. ………… is a pile in which items are added at one end and removed from the other.
(a) Stack
I (b) Queue
(c) List
T 6. Which of the following data structure can't store the non-homogeneous data elements?
(a) Arrays
E (b) Records
(c) Pointers
(d) Stacks
7. Which is a data structure that organises data similar to a line in the supermarket,
where the first one in line is the first one out.
A (a) Queue linked list
(b) Stacks linked list
I (c) Both of above
C
E Page 2 of 18
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A
8. Which of the following is non-linear data structure?
I (a) Stacks
(b) List
C (c) Strings
(d) Trees
T
9. Herder node is used as sentinel in ………………
E (a) Graphs
(b) Stacks
(c) Binary tree
(d) Queues
10. Which of these is the functionality of „Encapsulation‟?

A (a) Binds together code and data
(b) Using single interface for general class of action
I (c) Reduce complexity
C
11. How will a class protect the code inside it?
T (a) Using Access specifiers
(b) Abstraction
E (c) Use of inheritance
12. Runtime polymorphism is achieved by

(a) Friend function
(b) Virtual function
(c) Operator overloading
(d) Function overloading
A
13. Access to Private data
I (a) Restricted to methods of the same class
(b) Restricted to methods of other classes
C (c) Available to methods of the same class and other classes
(d) Not an issue because the program will not compile
T
14. Which of the following type of class allows only one object of it to be created?
E (a) Virtual class
(b) Abstract class
(c) Singleton class
(d) Friend class
15. Which of the following is not a type of constructor?

A (a) Copy constructor
(b) Friend constructor
I (c) Default constructor
(d) Parameterized constructor
C
E Page 3 of 18
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A
16. Which of the following is not the member of class?
I (a) Static function
(b) Friend function
C (c) Const function
(d) Virtual function
T
17. Which of the following concepts is used to implement late binding?
E (a) Virtual function
(b) Operator function
(c) Const function
(d) Static function
18. Which of the following statement is correct?

A (a) C++ allows static type checking
(b) C++ allows dynamic type checking
I (c) C++ allows static Member function be of type const
C
19. Correct HTML tag for the largest heading is
T (a) <head>
(b) <h6>
E (c) <heading>
(d) <h1>
20. The attribute of <form> tag

(a) Method
(b) Action
A
21. Markup tags tell the web browser
I (a) How to organise the page?
(b) How to display the page?
C (c) How to display message box on page?
T
22. What are Empty elements and is it valid?
E (a) No, there is no such terms as Empty element
(b) Empty elements are element with no data
(c) No, it is not valid to use Empty element
23. Which of the following attributes of text box control allow to limit the maximum
A character?
(a) size
I (b) len
(c) maxlength
C (d) all of the above
E Page 4 of 18
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A
24. Web pages starts with which of the following tag?
I (a) <Body>
(b) <Title>
C (c) <HTML>
(d) <Form>
T
25. HTML is a subset of
E (a) SGMT
(b) SGML
(c) SGMD
26. <DT> tag is designed to fit a single line of our webpage but <DD> tag will accept a
A (a) line of text
(b) full paragraph
I (c) word
(d) request
C
27. Character encoding is
T (a) method used to represent numbers in a character
(b) method used to represent character in a number
E (c) a system that consists of a code which pairs each character with a pattern,
sequence of natural numbers or electrical pulse in order to transmit the data
28. Correct HTML to left align the content inside a table cell is
(a) <tdleft>
(b) <td raligh=”left”>
(c) <td align=”left”>
A (d) <td leftalign>
I 29. <Base> tag is designed to appear only between

(a) <HEAD>
C (b) <TITLE>
(c) <BODY>
T (d) <FORM>
E 30. What are the characteristics of software?

(a) Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense
(b) Software doesn't “wear out”
(c) Software can be custom built or custom build
A 31. Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?

(a) System software
I (b) Application software
(c) Scientific software
E Page 5 of 18
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A
32. The process of developing a software product using software engineering principles
I and methods is referred to as_____________
(a) Software myths
C (b) Scientific Product
(c) Software Evolution
E 33. Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which

contains________
(a) Project planning
(b) Scope management
(c) Project estimation
(d) All mentioned above
A
34. Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification
I (SRS) document?
(a) Functional Requirement
C (b) Nonfunctional Requirement
(c) Goals of implementation
T (d) Algorithm for software implementation
E 35. What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?

(a) Spiral model
(b) Big Bang model
(c) V-model
(d) Waterfall model
36. Which of the following is the understanding of software product limitations, learning
system related problems or changes to be done in existing systems beforehand,
A identifying and addressing the impact of project on organisation and personnel etc.?
(a) Software Design
I (b) System Analysis
(c) Feasibility Study
C (d) Requirement Gathering
T 37. Which defect amplification model is used to illustrate the generation and detection of
errors during the preliminary steps of a software engineering process?
E (a) Design
(b) Detailed design
(c) Coding
(d) All mentioned above
38. Which method is used for evaluating the expression that passes the function as an
A argument?
(a) Recursion
I (b) Strict evaluation
(c) Calculus
C (d) Pure functions
E Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1SWE16
A
39. Which factors affect the probable consequences if a risk occur?
I (a) Risk avoidance
(b) Risk monitoring
C (c) Risk timing
(d) Contingency planning
T
40. Staff turnover, poor communication with the customer are risks that are extrapolated
E from past experience are called_________.
(a) Business risks
(b) Predictable risks
(c) Project risks
(d) Technical risks
A 41. Organisation can have in-house inspection, direct involvement of users and release of
beta version are few of them and it also includes usability, compatibility, user
I acceptance etc. is called_____________.
(a) Task analysis
C (b) GUI requirement gathering
(c) GUI design & implementation
T (d) Testing
E 42. Which project is undertaken as a consequence of a specific customer request?

(a) Concept development projects
(b) Application enhancement projects
(c) New application development projects
(d) Application maintenance projects
43. Which software designers tool helps to design the block structure of the software, that
may further be broken down into smaller modules using refinement techniques?
A (a) Analysis tools
(b) Design tools
I (c) Configuration management tools
(d) Documentation tools
C
44. Effective software project management focuses on four P‟s. What are those four P‟s?
T (a) People, performance, payment, product
(b) People, product, process, project
E (c) People, product, performance, project
45. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is called………
(a) Alternate Key
(b) Primary Key
(c) Foreign Key
I 46. DCL stands for
(a) Data Control Language
C (b) Data Console language
(c) Data Console level
T (d) Data Control Level
E Page 7 of 18
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A
47. …………….. is the process of organising data into related tables.
I (a) Normalization
(b) Generalization
C (c) Specialization
T
48. …………………. is the complex search criteria in the where clause.
E (a) Sub string
(b) Drop table
(c) Predict
(d) Predicate
49. ……………… is preferred method for enforcing Data integrity.

A (a) Constraints
(b) Stored procedure
I (c) Triggers
(d) Cursors
C
50. The database schema is written in --------------- .
T (a) HLL
(b) DML
E (c) DDL
(d) DCL
51. Which of the following are the properties of entities?

(a) Groups
(b) Table
(c) Attributes
(d) Switchboards
A
52. …………….. data type can store unstructured data
I (a) RAW
(b) CHAR
C (c) NUMERIC
(d) FLOAT
T
53. Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory
E location where the next instruction is located?
(a) Memory Address Register
(b) Memory Data Register
(c) Instruction Register
(d) Program Register
A 54. Which of the following operations are performed by CPU?

(a) Data transfer
I (b) Logic operation
(c) Arithmetic operation
E Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1SWE16
I 55. Pipelining strategy is called implement

(a) Instruction execution
C (b) Instruction prefetch
(c) Instruction decoding
T (d) Instruction manipulation
E 56. A stack is
(a) An 8-bit register in the microprocessor
(b) A 16-bit register in the microprocessor
(c) A set of memory locations in R / WM reserved for storing information
temporarily during the execution of computer
(d) A 16-bit memory address stored in the program counter
A
57. A Stack pointer is
I (a) A 16-bit register in the microprocessor that indicate the beginning of the stack
memory
C (b) A register that decodes and executes 16-bit arithmetic expression
(c) The first memory location where a subroutine address is stored
T (d) A register in which flag bits are stored
E 58. The branch logic that provides decision making capabilities in the control unit is
known as
(a) Controlled transfer
(b) Conditional transfer
(c) Unconditional transfer
59. The ascending order or a data hierarchy is

A (a) bit-bytes-fields-record-file-database
(b) bit-bytes-record-field-file-database
I (c) bytes-bit-field-record-file-database
(d) Bytes-bit-record-field-file-database
C
60. How many address lines are needed to address each memory locations in a 2048 X 4
T memory chip?
(a) 10
E (b) 11
(c) 8
(d) 12
61. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one
time is called a/an
A (a) Interpreter
(b) Simulator
I (c) Compiler
(d) Commander
C
E Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1SWE16
I 62. In immediate addressing the operand is placed

(a) In the CPU register
C (b) After OP code in the instruction
(c) In memory
T (d) In stack
E 63. When the RET instruction at the end of the subroutine is executed,
(a) The information where the stack is initialised is transferred to the stack pointer
(b) The memory address of the RET instruction is transferred to the program counter
(c) two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the
program counter
(d) two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the
A stack pointer
I 64. Let A and B be any two arbitrary events then which one of the following is true?
(a) P(A intersection B) = P(A).P(B)
C (b) P(A union B) = P(A) + P(B)
(c) P(AB)=P(A intersection B). P(B)
T (d) P(A union B)>= P(A) + P(B)
65. If G is an undirected planar graph on n vertices with e edges, then
E
(a) e<=n
(b) e<=2n
(c) e<=3n
66. Probability that two randomly selected cards from a set of two red and two black
cards are of same colour is
(a) 1/2
A (b) 1/3
(c) 2/3
C 67. In a tree between every pair of vertices there is

(a) Exactly one path
T (b) A self loop
(c) two circuits
E (d) n number of parts
68. Context free languages are closed under

(a) Union, intersection
(b) Intersection, complement
(c) Union, kleene star
A (d) Compliment, kleene star
69. A graph is a collection of……

I (a) Row and columns
(b) Vertices and edges
C (c) Equations
T
E Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1SWE16
I 70. A graph with no edges is known as empty graph. Empty graph is also known as……
(a) Trivial graph
C (b) Regular graph
(c) Bipartite graph
E
71. Match the following:

A. Completeness i) how long does it take to find a solution
B. Time complexity ii) how much memory need to perform the search
A C. Space complexity iii) is the strategy guaranteed to find the solution when
there is one
I (a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
C (c) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(d) A-i, B-iii,C-ii
T
72. The number of comparisons done by sequential search is…………………….
(a) (N/ 2)+1
E
(b) (N+1)/2
(c) (N-1)/2
(d) (N+2)/2
73. A graph is said to be……………. If the vertices can be split into two sets V1 and V2
such there are no edges between two vertices of V1 or two vertices of V2.
(a) Partite
(b) Bipartite
A (c) Rooted
(d) Bisects
I
74. In a circular queue the value of r will be……………..
C (a) r =r+1
(b) r =(r+1)%[QUEUE_SIZE-1]
T (c) r =(r+1)%QUEUE_SIZE
(d) r =(r-1)%QUEUE_SIZE
E
75. A graph the collection of nodes, called……………. And line segments called arcs
or………... that connect pair of nodes.
(a) vertices, edges
(b) edges, vertices
(c) vertices, paths
A (d) graph node, edges
E Page 11 of 18
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A
76. What is the output of this program?
I 1. class Test{
2. inta;
C 3. public intb;
4. private intc;
T 5. }
6. class AcessTest {
E
7. public static void main(String args[])
8. {
9. Test ob= new Test();
10. ob.a=10;
11. ob.b=20;
A 12. ob.c=30;
13. System.out.println(“ Output : a, b, and c”+ob.a+” ”+ob.b+” ”+ob.c);
I 14. }
15. }
C
(a) Compilation error
(b) Run time error
T
(c) Output : a, b and c 10 20 30
E
77. Which of the following factors supports the statement that reusability is a desirable
feature of a language?
(a) It decreases the testing time
(b) It lowers the maintenance cost
(c) It reduces the compilation time
A
78. What will happen if a class is not having any name?
(a) It cannot have a destructor
I
(b) It cannot have a constructor
(c) It is not allowed
C
T
79. Consider the following statement:
GET/cgi-bin /dispenser.pl&want=whatsnew.html HTTP/1.0.
E
Which of the following option is a correct one?
(a) The above statement is the part of a request from a web client
(b) The above statement is a part of the input to a CGI program
(c) want is a variable and whatsnew.html is a value
(d) dispenser.pl may be a CGI program
A
80. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding multimedia on the web?
(a) The MPEG, AIFF and WAV are cross-platform formats
I
(b) The MPEG, AU and MIDI are cross-platform formats
(c) The SND format has a relatively low fidelity
C
(d) VRML can be used to model display 3D interactive graphics
T
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A
81. What would be the colours of the RGB where the hexadecimal values are #FF0000,
I #00FF00 and #0000FF respectively?
(a) Blue, Green, Red
C (b) Green, Blue, Red
(c) Green, Red, Blue
T (d) Red, Green, Blue
E 82. The elements <DIV> and <SPAN> have the following characteristics
(a) Element <DIV> inherits properties defined for <SPAN> in a stylesheet
(b) <DIV> and <SPAN> have no real meanings as html tags unless stylesheet is
applied
(c) Elements <SPAN>and <DIV>define content to be inline or block level
(d) <DIV> and <SPAN> are used as alternatives for the element <P>
A
83. The following is a web-page:
I <html>
<head><title>JavaScript</title></head>
C <body bgcolor=”#0000ff”>
<script language=”JavaScript”>
T 
</script>
E </body>
</html>
When the above web page is loaded into a browser, what will happen?
(a) The body of the web page will not contain any text
(b) The body of the web page will contain the text “h1> hello world </h1>”
(c) The body of the web page will contain the text “hello world” as an H1 heading
(d) The background colour of the web page will be green
A
84. Which testing is the re-execution of some subset of tests that have already been
I conducted to ensure the changes that are not propagated?
(a) Unit testing
C (b) Regression testing
(c) Integration testing
T (d) Thread-based testing
E 85. In software metrics which metrics evaluate the track budget, schedule and human
resource?
(a) Requirement metrics
(b) Product metrics
(c) Process metrics
A
86. Checking quality of software in both simulated and live environment is known as
I (a) Checking
(b) Usability
C (c) Vaidity
(d) Validation
T
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A
87. The system should provide which thing, to avoid error in transcription and
I transposition, during data entry?
(a) A check digit
C (b) A hand totals
(c) Batch totals
E 88. HIPO is
(a) A forms driven technique in which standard forms are used to documents the
information
(b) Consists of a hierarchy chart and an associate set of input /process /output charts
(c) Captures essence of top-down decomposition
A
89. Which of the following database object does not physically exist?
I (a) base table
(b) index
C (c) view
T
90. A data dictionary is a special file that contains:
E (a) The name of all fields in all files
(b) The width of all fields in all files
(c) The data type of all fields in all files
91. Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples,
then the maximum size of join is:
(a) mn
A (b) m+n
(c) (m+n)/2
I (d) 2(m+n)
C 92. A primary key is combined with a foreign key creates

(a) Parent-child relationship between the tables that connect them
T (b) Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them
(c) Network model between the tables that connect them
93. To put the microprocessor in the wait state

(a) Lower the HOLD input
(b) Lower the READY input
(c) Raise the HOLD input
I 94. In a microprocessor system with memory mapped I/O

(a) Devices have 8-bit addresses
C (b) Devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
(c) There can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices
T (d) Arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I/O data
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I 95. In a generic microprocessor instruction cycle time is

(a) Shorter than machine cycle time
C (b) Larger than machine cycle time
(c) Ten times the machine cycle time
T (d) Exactly the same as the machine cycle time
E 96. The stack pointer in the microprocessor is a

(a) 16 bit register that point to stack memory locations
(b) 32 bit accumulator
(c) Memory location in the stack
(d) Flag register used for the stack
A 97. If we use 3 bits in the instruction word to indicate if an index register is to be used and
if necessary, which one is to be used, then the number of index registers to be used in
I the machine will be
(a) 3
C (b) 6
(c) 5
T (d) 8
E 98. A graph G is called a…………. if it is a connected acyclic graph

(a) Cyclic graph
(b) Regular graph
(c) Tree
(d) Not a graph
99. Radius of a graph, denoted by rad(G) is defined by…….

(a) max { e(v): v belongs to V }
A (b) min { e(v): v belongs to V }
(c) max { d(u,v): u belongs to v, u does not equal to v }
I (d) min { d(u,v): u belongs to v, u does not equal to v }
C 100. The complete graph K, has…….. different spanning trees?

(a) nn-2
T (b) n*n
(c) nn
E (d) n2
PART –C
A
I (a) 10and40
(b) 10 and15
C (c) 15 and40
(d) 10 and10
T
E Page 15 of 18
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A
I (a) Non-singularmatrix
(b) Identitymatrix
C (c) Singularmatrix
T
E (a) Nullmatrix
(b) Diagonalmatrix

A (a) u
(b) 1
I (c) -1
(d) 0
C
T [−3, 1] are
(a) −7 and −8
E (b) 81 and −8
(c) 0 and −2
(d) 73 and −8
2
A (c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4
I
C (a) 3
(b) 6
T (c) 2
E
𝐵
(a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
(b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
A (c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
I
T 109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then the
E Page 16 of 18
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A
13
I (a) 30
17
(b)
C 30
19
(c) 30
E 1 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
(a) Hermitianmatrix
(b) Unitorymatrix
A
(a) λ = 2 and µ =4
I
(b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
C
T 112. Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of the
E (a) 62
(b) 44
(c) 8


(a) grad | A |  0
A 
(b) curl A  0

I
(c) div A  0
C
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
T 114. (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
(a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
E (b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
(c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
1 1 𝑛−1
115. 0
A
(a) ⎾(n − 1)
(b) ⎾(n)
I n−1
(c) ⎾ 2
C n+1
(d) ⎾ 2
T
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A
I (a) Hyperbolic
(b) Elliptic
C (c) Parabolic
T
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
E 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
A
I 118. Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the

2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
C function𝑓 𝑥 = 2𝑥 is
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
T (a) 0
(b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
E (c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
(a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
(b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
A
I (a) m2
(b) 𝑚
C
(c) 𝑚
T
E Page 18 of 18
UG1SWE16
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Software Engineering
Paper: 1
1. a 41. d 81. d
2. a 42. c 82. c
3. c 43. b 83. a
4. d 44. b 84. b
5. b 45. b 85. c
6. a 46. a 86. d
7. a 47. a 87. d
8. d 48. d 88. b
9. c 49. a 89. c
10. a 50. c 90. d
11. a 51. c 91. a
12. b 52. a 92. a
13. b 53. d 93. b
14. c 54. d 94. d
15. b 55. b 95. d
16. b 56. c 96. a
17. a 57. a 97. a
18. d 58. c 98. c
19. d 59. a 99. a
20. c 60. b 100. a
21. b 61. c 101. a
22. b 62. b 102. c
23. c 63. c 103. a
24. c 64. d 104. d
25. b 65. b 105. d
26. b 66. b 106. d
27. c 67. a 107. a
28. c 68. c 108. a
29. a 69. b 109. a
30. d 70. a 110. b
31. a 71. c 111. c
32. c 72. b 112. d
33. d 73. b 113. b
34. d 74. c 114. a
35. d 75. a 115. b
36. b 76. a 116. b
37. d 77. d 117. d
38. b 78. d 118. a
39. c 79. d 119. d
40. b 80. a 120. c
ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
A
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
I
C
E
PAPER-II
A Instructions:
C questions.
E
C specified.
T
E a black or blue ball point pen.
A
I
C
T
E
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I
C 1. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
(a) Can be written more compactly
T (b) Focuses on just one thing
E (c) Is able to complete its function in a timely manner
(d) Is connected to other modules and the outside world
2. One of the fault based testing techniques is

(a) Unit testing
(b) Beta testing
(c) Stress testing
(d) Mutation testing
A
I 3. Each time a defect gets detected and fixed, the reliability of a software product
(a) Increases
C (b) Decreases
T (c) Remains constant
(d) Cannot say anything
E
4. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
(a) Can be written more compactly
(b) Focuses on just one thing
(c) Is able to complete its function in a timely manner
(d) Is connected to other modules and the outside world
A 5. Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?

(a) System software
I (b) Application software
C (c) Scientific software
T
E 6. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a
modeled system at a specific time?
(a) Sequence Diagram
(b) Collaboration Diagram
(c) Class Diagram
(d) Object Diagram
7. What kind of support is provided by the repository Query CASE tool?

A (a) Editing text and diagrams
I (b) Display of parts of the design texts
(c) Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing
C (d) Display of parts of the design texts AND cross referencing queries and
T requirements tracing
E
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8. If you are working on real-time process control applications or systems that involve
A concurrent processing, you would use a
(a) Activity diagram
I (b) Sequence diagram
C (c) Statechart diagram
(d) Object diagram
T
E 9. The Unified Modelling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for
software modelling. How many different notations does it have?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Six
(d) Nine
10. The sequence diagram models

A (a) The order in which the class diagram is constructed
I (b) The way in which the object communicate
(c) The relationship between states
C (d) The components of the system
T
11. UML depicts information system as a collection of
E (a) Data
(b) Entities
(c) Objects
(d) Processes
12. The six-step solution for the problem can be applied to
I. Problems with Algorithmic Solution
II. Problems with Heuristic Solution
A (a) Only I
I (b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
C (d) Neither I nor II
T
13. Examples of O(1) algorithms are ____________
E (a) Multiplying two numbers
(b) Assigning some value to a variable
(c) Displaying some integer on console
14. Examples of O(n2) algorithms are ____________
(a) Adding of two matrices
(b) Initializing all elements of matrix by zero
A (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
I
C 15. There are four algorithms A1, A2, A3, A4 to solve the given problem with the order
log(n), nlog(n), log(log(n)), n/log(n), which is the best algorithm?
T (a) A1
E (b) A2
(c) A3
(d) A4
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A 16. How many passes are required to sort a file of size n by Bubble sort method?
(a) N2
I (b) N
C (c) N -1
(d) N/2
T
E 17. The worst-case time complexity of Selection Exchange Sort is ___________
(a) O(n2)
(b) O(log n)
(c) O(n)
(d) O(n logn)
18. A list of n strings, each of length n, is sorted into lexicographic order using the merge-
sort algorithm. The worst case running time of this computation is
A (a) O(n log n)
I (b) O(n2 log n)
(c) O(n2 + log n)
C (d) O(n2)
T
19. As part of the maintenance work, you are entrusted with the work of rearranging the
E library books in a shelf in proper order, at the end of each day. The ideal choice will
be
(a) Bubble sort
(b) Insertion sort
(c) Selection Sort
(d) Merge sort
A 20. The number of swappings needed to sort the numbers 8, 22, 7, 9, 31, 19, 5, 13 in
ascending order, using bubble sort is
I (a) 10
C (b) 9
(c) 13
T (d) 14
E
21. In an arbitrary tree (not a search tree) of order M. Its size is N, and its height is K. The
computation time needed to find a data item on T is
(a) O(K*K)
(b) O(M*M)
(c) O(N)
(d) O(K)
A 22. Let an be the number of n-bit strings that do NOT contain two consecutive 1s. Which
I one of the following is the recurrence relation for an?
(a) an = an-1+2an-2
C (b) an = an-1+an-2
T (c) an = 2an-1+an-2
(d) an = 2an-1+2an-2
E
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23. The Floyd-Warshall algorithm for all-pair shortest paths computation is based on
A (a) Greedy paradigm
(b) Divide-and-Conquer paradigm
I (c) Dynamic Programming paradigm
C (d) Neither Greedy nor Divide-and-Conquer nor Dynamic Programming paradigm
T 24. Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct regarding Bellman-Ford shortest
E path algorithm?
P. Always finds a negative weighted cycle, if one exists
Q. Finds whether any negative weighted cycle is reachable from the source
(a) P only
(b) Q only
(c) Both P and Q
(d) Neither P nor Q
A
I 25. The most efficient algorithm for finding the number of connected components in an
undirected graph on n vertices and edges has time complexity
C (a) ΘΘ(n)
T (b) ΘΘ(m)
(c) ΘΘ(m+n)
E (d) ΘΘ(mn)
26. In which of the storage placement strategies a program is placed in the largest
available hole in the main memory?
(a) Best fit
(b) First fit
(c) Worst fit
A (d) Buddy
I 27. The problem of thrashing is affected significantly by:
C (a) Program structure
(b) Program size
T (c) Primary-storage size
E (d) All of the above
28. A form of code that uses more than one process and processor, possibly of different
type, and that may on occasions have more than one process or processor active at the
same time, is known as
(a) Multiprogramming
(b) Multi threading
(c) Broadcasting
A (d) Time sharing
I
29. Which of the following is not an advantage of multiprogramming?
C (a) Increased throughput
T (b) Shorter response time
(c) Decreased operating-system overhead
E (d) Ability to assign priorities to jobs
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30. Virtual memory is

A (a) Simple to implement
(b) Used in all major commercial operating systems
I (c) Less efficient in utilization of memory
C (d) Useful when fast I/O devices are not available
T 31. ……………. Techniques can be used to resolve conflicts, such as competition for
E resources, and to synchronize processes so that they can cooperate
(a) Mutual Exclusion
(b) Busy Waiting
(c) Deadlock
(d) Starvation
32. A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent the occurrence of ………

(a) Mutual Exclusion
A (b) Hold and wait
I (c) Circular waits
(d) No preemption
C
T 33. ………………. when a process leaves a critical section and more than one process is
waiting, the selection of a waiting process is arbitrary
E (a) Busy waiting is employed
(b) Starvation is possible
(c) Deadlock is possible
34. The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

(a) Segmentation
A (b) Swapping
(c) Pure demand paging
I (d) Multiple contiguous fixed partitions
C
35. Virtual memory is
T (a) Large secondary memory
E (b) Large main memory
(c) Illusion of large main memory
36. Which of the following is NOT true of deadlock prevention and deadlock avoidance
schemes?
(a) In deadlock prevention, the request for resources is always granted if the resulting
state is safe
A (b) In deadlock avoidance, the request for resources is always granted if the result
I state is safe
(c) Deadlock avoidance is less restrictive than deadlock prevention
C (d) Deadlock avoidance requires knowledge of resource requirements a priori
T
E
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37. The maximum number of processes that can be in Ready state for a computer system
A with n CPUs is
(a) n
I (b) n2
C (c) 2n
(d) Independent of n
T
E 38. The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by
(a) The instruction set architecture
(b) Page size
(c) Physical memory size
(d) Number of processes in memory
39. In which one of the following page replacement policies, Belady’s anomaly may
A occur?
I (a) FIFO
(b) Optimal
C (c) LRU
T (d) MRU
E 40. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers,
headers are:
(a) Added
(b) Removed
(c) Rearranged
(d) Modified
A 41. A set of rules that governs data communication.

(a) Protocols
I (b) Standards
C (c) RFCs
T
E 42. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the _______ into
hardware specific operations.
(a) Data link layer
(b) Network layer
(c) Transport layer
(d) Application layer
43. Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by

A (a) Logical link control sublayer
I (b) Media access control sublayer
(c) Network interface control sublayer
T
E
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44. Which one of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
A (a) CSMA/CD
(b) CSMA/CA
I (c) Both (a) and (b)
T 45. In Internet Protocol stack, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer
E to receive data at B is
(a) Application layer
(b) Transport layer
(c) Link layer
(d) Session layer
46. Multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency
(a) FDM
A (b) TDM
I (c) Either (a) or (b)
C
T 47. Radio channels are attractive medium because
(a) Can penetrate walls
E (b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
(c) Can carry signals for long distance
(d) All of the mentioned
48. Consider the following statements about the routing protocols, Routing Information
Protocol (RIP) and Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) in an IPv4 network
I. RIP uses distance vector routing
A II. RIP packets are sent using UDP
III. OSPF packets are sent using TCP.
I IV. OSPF operation is based on link-state routing
C
Which of the statement above are CORRECT?
T (a) I and IV only
E (b) I,II and III only
(c) I,II and IV only
(d) II,III and IV only
49. Which one of the following fields of an IP header is NOT modified by a typical IP
router?
(a) Checksum
(b) Source address
A (c) Time to Live (TTL)
I (d) Length
C 50. Cryptography can provide
T (a) Entity authentication
(b) Nonrepudiation of messages
E (c) Confidentiality
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A 51. If a class B network on the Internet has a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, what is the
maximum number of hosts per subnet?
I (a) 1022
C (b) 1023
(c) 2046
T (d) 2047
E
52. The graph that shows basic blocks and their successor relationship is called
(a) DAG
(b) Flow graph
(c) Control graph
(d) Hamiltonian graph
53. Which one of the following statement is false for the SLR (1) and LALR (1) parsing
A tables for a context free grammar?
(a) The reduce entries in both the tables may be different
I
(b) The error entries in both the tables may be different
C (c) The go to part of both tables may be different
(d) The shift entries in both the tables may be identical
T
E 54. Which one of the following statement is true?
(a) Canonical LR parser is more powerful than LALR parser
(b) SLR parser is more powerful than LALR
(c) LALR parser is more powerful than Canonical LR parser
(d) SLR parser, Canonical LR parser and LALR parser all have the same power
55. In a compiler ____________ checks every character of the source text

(a) The lexical analyzer
A (b) The syntax analyzer
(c) The code generator
I
(d) The code optimizer
C
56. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by
T programmer?
E (a) Allocation
(b) Linking
(c) Reallocation
57. What is the output of lexical analyzer?

(a) A parse tree
(b) A list of tokens
A (c) Intermediate code
(d) Machine code
I
C 58. In a compiler, the data structure responsible for the management of information about
variables and their attributes is
T (a) Semantics stack
E (b) Parser table
(c) Symbol table
(d) Abstract syntax-tree
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
59. Which of the following statements about parser is/are CORRECT?

A I. Canonical LR is more powerful than SLR
II. SLR is more powerful than LALR
I III. SLR is more powerful than Canonical LR
C (a) I only
T (b) II only
(c) III only
E (d) II and III only
60. Which one of the following is TRUE at any valid state in shift - reduce parsing?
(a) Viable prefixes appear only at the bottom of the stack and not inside
(b) Viable prefixes appear only at the top of the stack and not inside
(c) The stack contains only a set of viable prefixes
(d) The stack never contains viable prefixes
A
61. One of the purposes of using intermediate code in compilers is to
I (a) Make parsing and semantic analysis simpler
C (b) Improve error recovery and error reporting
(c) Increase the chances of reusing the machine-independent code optimizer in other
T compilers
E (d) Improve the register allocation
62. Uniform symbol table

(a) Contains all constants in the program
(b) Is a permanent table of decision rules in the form of patterns for matching with the
uniform symbol table to discover syntactic structure
(c) Consists of full or partial list of token’s as they appear in the program created by
Lexical analysis and used for Syntax analysis and interpretation
A (d) Is a permanent table which lists all key words and special symbols of the language
in symbolic form
I
C 63. Which of these is not a component of the Feasibility report?
(a) Profit margin
T (b) Works cost
E (c) Overheads
(d) Pre-commissioning Expenses
64. Arrange the following elements of the project cycle in the right order:
A: Project Appraisal B: Feasibility Analysis C: Negotiation D: Project Selection
(a) A-B-C-D
(b) B-A-C-D
(c) B-A-D-C
A (d) A-B-D-C
I 65. You are working in CareerRide as a project manager. What will you do to minimize
the risk of software failure?
C
(a) Request a large budget
T (b) You will increase the team size
(c) Track progress
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
66. Efficiency in a software product does not include ___________

A (a) Responsiveness
(b) Licensing
I (c) Memory utilization
C (d) Processing time
T 67. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
E (a) Waterfall model
(b) Prototyping model
(c) RAD model
(d) Both Prototyping model and RAD model
68. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern?

(a) Architecture
(b) Data
A (c) Interface
C 69. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
T expected?
(a) Product risk
E (b) Project risk
(c) Business risk
(d) Programming risk
70. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
(a) Avoidance strategies
(b) Minimization strategies
A (c) Contingency plans
(d) All of the mentioned
I
C 71. Which of the following is not an advantage of software reuse?
(a) Lower costs
T (b) Faster software development
E (c) High effectiveness
(d) Lower risks
72. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model

(a) Doesn't work well for smaller projects
(b) High amount of risk analysis
(c) Strong approval and documentation control
(d) Additional functionality can be added at a later date
A
I 73. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
(a) Quick Design
C (b) Coding
T (c) Prototype Refinement
(d) Engineer Product
E
Page 11 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
74. What is the order in which test levels are performed?

A (a) Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
(b) Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance
I (c) Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
C (d) It depends on nature of a project
T 75. System testing is a
E (a) Black box testing
(b) White box testing
(c) Grey box testing
76. Which of the following is black box testing?

(a) Basic path testing
(b) Boundary value analysis
A (c) Code path analysis
I (d) None of the mentioned
C 77. What is the main difference between a Walkthrough and an inspection?
T (a) A Walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained
moderator
E (b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader
(c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs
(d) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained
moderator
78. Test cases are designed during:

(a) Test recording
A (b) Test configuration
(c) Test planning
I (d) Test specification
C
79. The difference between testing and debugging is:
T (a) In testing, the objective is to establish whether the system is running as per
E specifications, whereas in debugging the objective is to locate and correct the
errors in a system
(b) Both are the same except that debugging is unstructured, whereas testing is
structured
(c) Debugging phase produces testing phase
(d) There are no tools for debugging, whereas testing is totally automated
80. Which of the following Use Cases are useful?

A (a) Performance Testing
I (b) Business Scenarios
(c) Static Testing
C (d) Unit Testing
T
E
Page 12 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16

I
C 81. State whether the following statements about the characteristics of an object-oriented
design are True or False
T (i) System functionality is expressed in terms of operations or services associated with
E each object
(ii) Objects may be distributed and may execute either sequentially or in parallel
(a) (i) is true, (ii) false
(b) (i) is false, (ii) istrue
(c) (i) is true, (ii) istrue
(d) (i) is false, (ii) is false
82. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “a structural
A relationship that specifies that objects of one thing are connected to objects of
I another”?
(a) Association
C (b) Aggregation
T (c) Realization
(d) Generalization
E
83. Interaction diagram is a combined term for
(a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
(b) Activity Diagram + State chart Diagram
(c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
A 84. What is an optimal Huffman code for alphabets of the following set of frequencies
A: 05, b:48, c:07, d:17, e:10, f:13
I (a) 1010
C (b) 0101
(c) 1001
T (d) 1100
E
85. In an unweighted, undirected connected graph, the shortest path from a node S to
every other node is computed most efficiently, in terms of time complexity, by
(a) Dijkstra’s algorithm starting from S
(b) Warshall's algorithm
(c) Performing a DFS starting from S
(d) Performing a BFS starting from S
A 86. Consider a Hash table of size seven, with starting index zero, and a hash Function (3x
I + 4)mod 7. Assuming the hash table is initially empty, which of the following is the
contents of the table when the sequence 1, 3, 8, 10 is inserted into the table using
C closed hashing? Note that - denotes an empty location in the table.
T (a) 8, -, -, -, -, -, 10
(b) 1, 8, 10, -, -, -, 3
E (c) 1, -, -, -, -, -, 3
(d) 1, 10, 8, -, -, -, 3
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
87. Consider an arbitrary set of CPU-bound processes with unequal CPU burst lengths
A submitted at the same time to a computer system. Which one of the following process
scheduling algorithms would minimize the average waiting time in the ready queue?
I (a) Shortest remaining time first
C (b) Round-Robin with time quantum less than the shortest CPU burst
(c) Uniform random
T (d) Highest priority first with priority proportional to CPU burst length
E
88. Which one of the following is FALSE?
(a) User level threads are not scheduled by the kernel
(b) When a user level thread is blocked all other threads of its process are blocked
(c) Context switching between user level threads is faster than context switching
between kernel level threads
(d) Kernel level threads cannot share the code segment
A 89. Which of the following is correct definition for wait operation?
I (a) wait(S) { while(S<=0); // no o S--; }
(b) wait(S) { S++; }
C (c) wait(S) { while(S>=0); // no op S--; }
T (d) wait(S) { S--; }
E 90. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
(a) Vx works
(b) Windows CE
(c) RTLinux
(d) Palm OS
91. If there are N routers from source to destination, total end to end delay in sending
A packet P(L-> number of bits in the packet R-> transmission rate)
(a) N
I (b) (N*L)/R
C (c) (2N*L)/R
(d) L/R
T
E 92. In the following pairs of OSI protocol layers / sub-layer and its functionality, the
INCORRECT pair is
(a) Network layer and Routing
(b) Data link layer and Bit synchronization
(c) Transport layer and End-to-end process communication
(d) Medium Access Control sub-layer and Channel sharing
93. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
A (a) CDMA
I (b) CSMA/CA
(c) ALOHA
C (d) None of the mentioned
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
94. FDDI used which type of physical topology?

A (a) Bus
(b) Ring
I (c) Star
C (d) Mesh
T 95. In _________ service, each message carries the full destination address, and each one
E is routed through the system independent of all others.
(a) connection-oriented
(b) connection-less
(c) service oriented
(d) service less
96. State which is the following is True or False

i) In bus topology, heavy Network traffic slows down the bus speed.
A ii) It is multi-point configuration.
I (a) i) is true, ii) is true
(b) i) is true, ii) is false
C (c) i) is false, ii) is true
T (d) i) is false, ii) is false
E 97. In some programming languages, an identifier is permitted to be a letter followed by
any number of letters or digits. If L and D denotes the set of letters and digits
respectively, which of the following expressions define an identifier?
(a) ( L∪ D )*
(b) L ( L∪ D )*
(c) ( L . D )*
(d) L .( L . D )*
A
98. Consider the grammar where P, Q, R arenon terminals and r, s, t are terminals
I A. P->Q R
C B. P->Q s R
C. P-> ε
T D. P->Q t R r
E The grammar rules that violate the requirements of an operator grammar is
(a) A and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and D only
(d) A only
99. We have two sets of LR (1) items of LR (1) grammar described below:
X->c,c/d X->c.X, $
A X->.cX,c/d X->.cX, $
I X->.d,c/d X->.d, $
Related to the merging of two sets in the corresponding parser, the statement that does
C not hold true is
T (a) Cannot be merged since look aheads are different
(b) Cannot be merged but will result in R-R conflict
E (c) Cannot be merged but will result in S-R conflict
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
100. Match the following according to input (from the left column) to the compiler phase
A (in the right column) that processes it
I
(P) Syntax tree (i) Code generator
C
T (Q) Character stream (ii) Syntax analyzer
E (R) Intermediate representation (iii) Semantic analyzer
(S) Token stream (iv) Lexical analyzer
(a) P→(ii),Q→(iii),R→(iv),S→(i)
(b) P→(ii),Q→(i),R→(iii),S→(iv)
(c) P→(iii),Q→(iv),R→(i),S→(ii)
A (d) P→(i),Q→(iv),R→(ii),S→(iii)
I 101. Consider the basic block given below

C a=b+c
c=a+d
T d=b+c
E e=d-b
a=e+b
The minimum number of nodes and edges present in the DAG representation of the
above basic block respectively are
(a) 6 and 6
(b) 8 and 10
(c) 9 and 12
A (d) 4 and 4
I
102. Which languages necessarily need heap allocation in the runtime environment?
C (a) Those that support recursion
T (b) Those that use dynamic scoping
(c) Those that allow dynamic data structures
E (d) Those that use global variables
103. Some code optimizations are carried out on the intermediate code because
(a) They enhance the probability of the compiler to other target processes
(b) Program analysis is more accurate on intermediate code than on machine code
(c) The information from dataflow analysis cannot otherwise be used for optimization
(d) The information from the front end cannot otherwise be used for optimization
A
104. An LALR(1) parser for a grammar G can have shift-reduce (S-R) conflicts if and only
I if
C (a) The SLR (1) parser for G has S-R conflicts
(b) The LR(1) parser for G has S-R conflicts
T (c) The LR (0) parser for G has S-R conflicts
E (d) The LALR(1) parser for G has reduce-reduce conflict
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
105. The spiral model has two dimensions namely ______ and________
A (a) diagonal, angular
(b) radial, perpendicular
I (c) radial, angular
C (d) diagonal, perpendicular
T 106. The software lifecycle can be said to consist of a series of phases. The classical model
E is referred to as the Waterfall Model. Which phase may be defined as “The concept is
explode and refined, and the client’s requirements are elicited?”
(a) Requirements
(b) Specification
(c) Design
(d) Implementation
107. In the maintenance phase the product must be tested against previous test cases. This
A is known as_____________ testing.
I (a) Unit
(b) Integration
C (c) Regression
T (d) Module
E 108. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when
writing test cases
(a) Test Matrix
(b) Checklist
(c) Test bed
(d) Traceability Matrix
A 109. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer
requirements or not. It is a dynamic process
I (a) Validation
C (b) Verification
(c) Quality Assurance
T (d) Quality Control
E
110. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in
data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors and
initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
(a) White Box Testing
(b) Grey Box Testing
(c) Black Box Testing
(d) Open Box Testing
A
I 111. What is correct Software Process Cycle?
(a) Plan(P)---->Check(C)---->Act(A)---->Do(D)
C (b) Plan(P)---->Do(D)---->Check(C)---->Act(A)
T (c) Plan(P)---->Do(D)---->Act(A)---->Check(C)
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
112. Which of the following is not a method of dynamic testing?

A 1) System testing
2) UAT
I 3) Inspection
C 4) Unit Testing
5) Walk through
T 6) Technical review
E
(a) 1,2,4
(b) 3,5,6
(c) 2,3,5,6
113. Boundary value testing

(a) Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
A (b) Tests combinations of input circumstances
I (c) Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output
equivalence classes
C (d) Is used in white box testing strategy
T
114. Which of the following is not true about incremental testing?
E (a) Top-Down approach can be used
(b) Use of stubs or drivers are required
(c) All modules need to be completed prior to testing
(d) Bottom-up approach is also possible
115. You are performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a
certain field be populated by using a drop down box containing a list of values. What
A kind of testing are you doing?
(a) White box testing
I (b) Black box testing
C (c) Load testing
(d) Regression testing
T
E 116. Which of the following are Incremental Developmental Models?
1. Prototyping
2. V model
3. Rapid Action development (RAD)
4. Agile Development
5. Rational Unified Process (RUP)
6. Waterfall Model
A (a) 1, 2, 4
I (b) 1, 3, 4, 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
117. Following are the Fundamental Test Processes arranged randomly. What will be the
A logical sequential flow of these activities?
1. Test Closure Activity
I 2. Implementation and Execution
C 3. Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting
4. Analysis and Design
T 5. Planning and Control
E
(a) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
118. Output comparators are used in

(a) Static testing of single module
A (b) Dynamic testing of single module
I (c) Static testing of single and multiple module
(d) Dynamic testing of single and multiple module
C
T 119. For a function of two variables, boundary value analysis yields
(a) 4n+ 3 test cases
E (b) 4n+ 1 test cases
(c) n+4
120. Which of the following is NOT desired in a good Software Requirement

Specifications (SRS) document?
(a) Functional Requirements
A (b) Non Functional Requirements
(c) Goals of Implementation
I (d) Algorithms for Software Implementation
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG2SWE16
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Software Engineering
Paper: 2
1. b 41. a 81. a
2. d 42. a 82. a
3. a 43. a 83. a
4. d 44. c 84. a
5. a 45. a 85. d
6. d 46. a 86. b
7. d 47. d 87. a
8. c 48. c 88. d
9. d 49. b 89. a
10. b 50. d 90. d
11. c 51. c 91. b
12. c 52. b 92. b
13. d 53. c 93. b
14. c 54. a 94. b
15. c 55. a 95. b
16. c 56. d 96. a
17. a 57. b 97. b
18. a 58. c 98. a
19. b 59. a 99. d
20. b 60. c 100. c
21. c 61. c 101. c
22. b 62. c 102. c
23. c 63. a 103. a
24. b 64. c 104. b
25. c 65. c 105. c
26. c 66. b 106. a
27. a 67. c 107. c
28. b 68. d 108. d
29. c 69. a 109. a
30. b 70. b 110. c
31. a 71. c 111. b
32. c 72. a 112. b
33. b 73. b 113. c
34. a 74. d 114. c
35. c 75. a 115. b
36. a 76. b 116. b
37. d 77. a 117. c
38. a 78. d 118. d
39. a 79. a 119. b
40. a 80. b 120. d
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY/ENGINEERING
I
C
T
E PAPER-I
Instructions:
A
I 120 questions.
C
T
E
A awarded to the wrong answer.
I vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use
C non-programmable scientific calculator.
E specified.
A
C
T
E
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
I 1. Which of the following nylon fibre is prepared from ring-opening polymerization?

a) Nylon 6, 6
C
b) Nylon 4, 10
T c) Nylon 11
d) Nylon 6,12
E
2. Wet tenacity of acrylic fibre as compared to dry tenacity is
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same
A d) Not specified
I
3. Fibre that will float on water
C a) Nylon
b) Polyester
T
c) Acrylic
E d) Polypropylene
4. Thermal stabilizer used in formation of polyester fibre

a) TPP
b) TMP
c) P
A d) GeO2
I
5. Process which increases surface area of pulp during viscose manufacturing is
C a) Steeping
b) Shredding
T
c) Ripening
E d) Xanthation
6. Which fibre has highest degree of polymerization?

a) Nylon
b) Polyester
A c) Viscose
d) Acetate
I
7. Which fibre has highest breaking elongation?
C
a) Viscose
T b) Acetate
c) Triacetate
E d) Nylon
Page 2 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 8. Catalyst used during the formation of nylon 6 polymer from caprolactum

a) Formic acid
I b) Cobalt acetate
c) Acetic acid
C d) water
T
9. Which fibre is known as man-made wool?
E a) Carbon
b) Acrylic
c) Polypropylene
d) Acetate
10. Most sensitive fibre to photo-degradation is

A a) Cotton
b) Nylon
I
c) Polyester
C d) Polypropylene
T 11. Fibre that does not shrink when taken near flame is
a) Polypropylene
E
b) Triacetate
c) Nylon
d) Polyester
12. Which of the following is polyolefin fibre?

A a) PA
I b) PVA
c) PE
C d) PET
T 13. In which direction does detaching roller in comber rotate

a) Forward
E
b) Reverse
c) Both a) & b)
d) does not rotate
14. Number of comber lap preparatory processes between card and comber should be
A
a) 1
I b) 2
c) 3
C d) 4
T 15. Typical roving count is (in Ne)
E a) 0.5 – 3
b) 0.05 – 0.1
c) 5 - 10
d) 20 – 50
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ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 16. Component that is traversed through maximum distance in a ring frame

a) Lappet rail
I b) Spindle rail
c) Ring rail
C d) BCR rail
T
17. In MJS air-jet spinning, number of air jets is
E a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
A 18. Which spun yarn has best mass evenness?

I a) Rotor
b) Friction
C c) Ring
d) Vortex
T
E 19. Which spun yarn has best fibre orientation and parallelization?
a) Rotor
b) Friction
c) Ring
d) Vortex
A
I 20. Type of groove suitable to produce strong coarse yarn in rotor spinning is
a) S
C b) S and G
c) U
T
d) U and G
E
21. As the fibre land on rotor, fibre are in the groups of
a) 1-5
b) 10-50
c) 100-500
A d) 1000
I
22. Spinning system that is not based on open-end spinning principle
C
a) Rotor
T b) Air-vortex
c) Disc
E d) Air-jet
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ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 23. Fancy yarn that is produced through weaving is

a) Covered yarn
I b) Chenille yarn
c) Fasciated yarn
C d) Loop yarn
T
24. The number of component yarns in spiral yarn is
E a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
A 25. If fineness of the fibreincreases, then the strength of the yarn made from that fibre with
same count will ….
I a) Increase
b) Remain same as count same
C c) Decrease
T d) Varies fibre to fibre
E 26. Unit of Micronaire is

a) Lb/inch
b) Ml/cm
c) ft/sec
d) gm/inch
A 27. What should be the l/d ratio for the textile fibre?
a) 350:1
I
b) 1:1
C c) 10:1
d) 1:350
T
28. What % of impurities can be eliminated in blowroom process?
E a) 25%
b) 5%
c) 50%
d) 85%
A 29. Which machine will give intensive Cleaning and Opening?

a) ERM Cleaner
I b) Mono-cylinder
c) Unimix
C
d) RN cleaner
T
30. Which is known as the heart of the spinning mill?
E a) Blowroom
b) Drawing
c) Carding
d) Combing
Page 5 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 31. Most cylinders have the diameter of ….

a) 128-130 mm
I b) 12.8 -13.0 mm
c) 1280 -1300 mm
C d) 250 -500 mm
T
32. Fibre individualization in card will increase by increasing
E a) Liker-in to cylinder setting
b) Licker-in speed
c) Doffer Speed
d) Cylinder speed
33. If height of the metallic clothing on the cylinder changes then what will happen to its
A carding action
a) Shorter height will give better action
I
b) Both cases shows equal action
C c) Longer height will give better action
T
E 34. Whose clothing shows higher angle of teeth?
a) Taker-in
b) Doffer
c) Cylinder
d) flat
A 35. What is the function of grinding in carding machine?
I a) Removal of neps
b) Sharpening the clothing points
C c) Removal of dust from the clothing
T
E 36. Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) is used for sizing
a) Cotton yarn
b) Polyester/Cotton blended yarn
c) Spun viscose rayon yarn
d) Polyester yarn
A
37. The rate of production of a modern warping machine is
I a)400 m/min
b)1000 m/min
C c)2000 m/min
d)5000 m/min
T
E 38. As compared to the yarn fault A1, the fault D4 is
a) Thinner and longer
b) Thicker and longer
c) Thinner and shorter
d) Thicker and shorter
Page 6 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 39. For increased taper angle on a sectional warping machine, one could require to
a) Increase the traverse speed
I b) Decrease the traverse speed
c) Increase the warping speed
C d) Decrease the warping speed
T
40. Limitations to the weft inserting rate of a plain loom is imposed by
E a) The loom eccentricity
b) The picking and checking systems
c) The width of the loom
d) The mass of the sley
41. 100 kg of bone dry warp sized to a dry pick up of 8% and dried to an overall moisture
A content of 10% would finally weigh
a) 118kg
I
b) 118.8kg
C c) 119kg
d) 120kg
T
42. Hardness of a cone can be changed by changing the
E a) Traverse
b) Wind per double traverse
c) Wind angle
d) Conicity of the package
43. For a two-fold increase in reed width, the picking power of a shuttle loom needs to be
A
increase by
I a) 2 times
b) 4 times
C c) 8 times
d) 16 times
T
44. In a winding operation if E is clearing efficiency, K is knot factor and n is number of
E Objectionable faults presents in yarn, then total number of clearer breaks occurring on
the machine would be
a) EKn
b) EK/n
c) En/K
A d) En2
I 45. Force acting on the sley depends on

a) Equivalent mass of sley, loom speed and pick spacing
C b) Equivalent mass of sley, loom speed and cloth fell displacement
c) Equivalent mass of sley, pick spacing and cloth fell displacement
T
d) Equivalent mass of sley, loom speed and sley eccentricity
E
46. Restarting a loom after the overnight stoppage will have
a) Higher than set pick spacing at start
b) Lower that set pick spacing at start
c) Same as set pick spacing at start
d) Sometimes higher but mostly lower pick spacing than set pick spacing at start
Page 7 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 47. The speed of a tappet shaft on a loom weaving design on 4 ends and 3 picks will be
a) Same as that of crank shaft
I b) One fourth of crank shaft
c) One third that of crank shaft
C d) Three times that of crank shaft
T 48. In a double lift double cylinder jacquard, beating takes place in
a) semi-open shed
E
b) open shed
c) crossed shed
d) closed shed
49. A seven wheel take up motion can be classified as

A a) Positive, indirect and intermittent
b) Positive, direct and intermittent
I c) Negative, indirect and intermittent
d) Negative, direct and intermittent
C
50. The brake used for warp let-off in a conventional loom is partial self energizing, because
T a) The radius of ruffle is kept very large
b) An upper limit is always placed on the maximum warp beam diameter
E
c) Dead weight placed on the lever is sufficiently large
d) Angle of wrap of chain around the ruffle is kept above a critical value
51. In air-jet weaving, the acceleration of the weft yarn will be maximum when the yarn is
a) Coarser and more hairy
A b) Coarser and less hairy
c) Finer and less hairy
I d) Finer and more hairy
C 52. The nonwoven process which has the highest production rate is
a) Needle punching
T b) Hydroentangling
E c) Melt blowing
d) Spun bonding
53. In case of weft break, center weft fork motion would stop the loom
a) Two picks after the weft break
b) One pick after the weft break
A c) After the weft break but before the beat up
d) At the instance of weft break
I
C 54. Warp tension during weaving is maintained by
a) Take up motion
T b) Let-off motion
c) Warp stop motion
E d) Drop wires
Page 8 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 55. What is the strongest appeal of water jet looms?

a) High production
I b) Less energy required
c) Less labor required
C d) Quality fabric produced
T
56. What is the noise level in dB of a conventional loom?
E a) 150
b) 80
c) 110
d) 130
57. On a conventional loom, increase in dimension and mass of shuttle would cause
A a) No change in energy consumption, loom rpm and reed width
b) Elevated energy consumption but no change in reed width and loom rpm
I
c) Elevated energy consumption and reduction in weft insertion rate
C d) No change in energy consumption, but reduction in weft insertion rate
T 58. In double acting Keighley dobby, the drive for knives originates from
a) Crank shaft
E b) Bottom shaft
c) Tappet shaft
d) Either from crank shaft or from bottom shaft
59. Which type of rapier loom, is suitable for large reed width and high WIR?
A a) Flexible
b) Rigid
I c) Plastic
d) Bands
C
60. Moisture absorption of a fibre is an _________ properties.
T a) Essential
b) desirable
E
c) both
61. _______ is the longest natural fibre.

A a) Wool
b) Silk
I c) Cotton
d) Flax
C
T 62. Polyetheylene is made by _________ polymerisation
E a) Addition
b) Condensation
c) bulk
d) Solution
Page 9 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 63. Which one is correct?

a) Oligomers are the polymers of lower degree of polymerization, reduces the
I mechanical and thermal properties
b) Oligomers are the polymersof higher degree of polymerization, reduces the
C mechanical and thermal properties
c) Oligomers are the polymers of higher degree of polymerization, increases the
T
mechanical and thermal properties
64. Which one is correct?

a) The strength and moisture of cotton is higher than silk.
b)The strength and moisture absorption of silk is higher than cotton.
c) The strength of silk is higher than cotton and moisture absorption of silk is lower
A than cotton.
d)The strength of silk is lower than cotton and moisture of silk is higher than
I
cotton.
C
65. Which of these fibres contain lignin cellulose?
T a) Cotton
b) Viscose
E c) Jute
d) Polyester
66. Which one is correct?

a) Molecular weight is directly proportional to viscosity
A b) Log (Mol. Wt.) is directly proportional to log(viscosity)
c) Molecular weight is inversely proportional to viscosity
I d) Molecular weight and viscosity are not related
C 67. In _________ polymerization reaction process, smaller molecules are eliminated.
a) Addition
T
b) Condensation
E c) bulk
d) Solution
68. ________ fibres looks like kidney shape and ribbon like structure when observed under
microscope.
a)Cotton
A b) Viscose
I c) Jute
d) Wool
C
69. __________is a method of determining orientation.
T
a)end group analysis
E b)Viscosity
c)Bi-refrigerence Jute
d)GPC
Page 10 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A
70. __________fibres contain polypeptide links.
I a) Cotton
b) Viscose
C c) Silk
d) Flax
T
PART-B (30X2=60 MARKS)
E
71.Viscose rayon is produced through fibre spinning is known as
a) Solution
b) Melt
c) Gel
d) Dry-jet
A
72.Fibre with highest polydispersity is
I
a) PET
C b) Nylon 6, 6
c) Acrylic
T d) Polypropylene
E 73. Catalyst used in formation of diglycol terephthalate by ester exchange reaction is
a) Metal acetate
b) Water
c) Phosphorus
d) H3PO4
A
74.Reagent which reduce luster of nylon fibre is
I a) H3PO4
b) TiO2
C c) GeO2
d) TiF
T
E 75. Polypropylene is unstable to both heat and light because of
a) Very low Tg
b) tertiary carbon
c) Low Tm
d) Polymer structure
A 76. Twist factor of a yarn in tex system is 50, equivalent twist factor in metric system will be
I a) 138
b) 148
C c) 158
d) 168
T
E 77. A 36s cotton yarn with a twist multiplier of 3.5 will have TPI equals to
a) 18
b) 21
c) 30
d) 36
Page 11 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 78. The linear density of the feed lap is 60 g/m. The net forward movement of the detaching
roller per cycle is 30 mm. The feed length per cycle is 6 mm. Slivers from 4 combing
I heads are combined and a draft of 10 is given. The resultant combed sliver count (Ne) is
0.16. What is the noil extraction percentage?
C a) 14
b) 18
T
c) 22
E d) 26
79. In a ring frame, the traveler travels at the speed of 120 ft/sec on a 1.75-inch diameter ring
when the wind-on diameter on the bobbin is 1.25 inch. The 20 tex 100% cotton yarn is
being spun from 1.0 Ne roving. What is the spindle speed (rpm)? The full roving bobbin
A of 1.5 kg (net mass of roving) exhausts in 70 hours of continuous running of ring frame.
Assume that 1.2% of the feed roving is lost in ring frame and the ring frame is running at
I 100% efficiency.
a) 13449
C b) 15886
T c) 18225
d) 21996
E
80. A 48 head friction spinning machine, running at 98% efficiency, is producing 60 tex
cotton yarn of 600 twist/m. The friction drum speed and diameter are 4000 rpm and 50
mm respectively. Calculate the productivity of the machine in kg/hr. [Consider: Specific
volume of the yarn is 1.1 cc/g; Twist efficiency factor is 0.15]
A a) 20
b) 25
I c) 30
d) 35
C
T 81. Fineness of the cotton fibre is 4 micronaire, what is the number of fibres per cross-
section of a 30 Tex yarn?
E a)190
b)19
c) 75
d) 750
82. If we have blended cotton fibre with polyester fibre with the ratio of 60:40. The moisture
A contain of cotton is 8% and polyester is 0.4% what is the resultant moisture contain of
thisblended product
I a) 6%
C b) 4%
c) 12%
T d) 5%
Page 12 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 83. What is the percentage of impurities removed in carding process?

a) 50%
I b) 60%
c) 90%
C d) 99%
T
E
I. Yarn speed in A. 0.1 m/min
cone winding
II. Yarn speed in B. 50 m/min
warping
III. Yarn speed in C. 800 m/min
A sizing
IV. Warp yarn speed D.1500 m/min
I on a shuttle loom
C a) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
b) I-C, II-D, III- B, IV-A
T c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
d) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
E
85. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following assertion (A) & reason (R)
Assertion (A): The positive let off motion maintains the free length of warp and the
tension on warp sheet at constant levels
Reason (R): The fluctuation of free warp length due to take up causes change in
A warp tension, which is sensed by the system, and the correction in both warp tension
and in free warp length is carried out through the let off system automatically
I a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
C c) Both (A) and (R) are false
d) (A) is true but (R) is false
T
E 86. A 180 cm wide fabric with 30 picks/cm is produced on a loom running at 500 rpm
with 95% efficiency. The number of meters of fabric produced per hour will be
a) 9.0
b) 9.5
c) 10.0
d) 10.5
A
87. In a sizing machine,100m length of warp sheet was processed. The warp was
I
stressed by 3%, 2% and 1% at unwinding zone, wet zone and dying zone
C respectively. The length of warp sheet on weaver’s beam will be
a) 106.00 m
T b) 106.11 m
c) 103.11 m
E d) 100.06 m
Page 13 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 88. For a shuttle loom, the radius of crank and length of the connecting rod to the sley
are 10 cm and 40 cm, respectively. The value of sley eccentricity is
I a) 0.25
b) 0.50
C c) 1.0
d) 4.0
T
E 89. Match the pairs
Group IGroup II
P Air jet weaving 1 Torsion bar
Q Rapier weaving 2 Tension compensator
R Gripper shuttle weaving 3 Tip transfer
S Water jet weaving 4 Swing nozzle
A 5 Suction nozzle
6 Booster nozzle
I a) P4-Q3-R2-S6
C b) P6-Q3-R1-S4
c) P4-Q2-R3-S5
T d) P6-Q2-R1-S6
E 90. Match the pairs

A. Rapier heads on both sides of selvedges 1. Discontinuous weft between picks
B. Rapier head shared by two adjacent looms2. Very low value of acceleration
C. Rapier at centre of shed 3. Highest value of deceleration
D. Rapiers at the start of motion 4. Bi-Phase loom
a) (A3, B1, C4, D2)
A b) (A4, B2, C3, D1)
c) (A2, B1, C4, D3)
I d) (A1, B4, C3, D2)
C
91. Match the pairs
T A.Water jet looms 1. Very high WIR and high reed width
BRapier looms 2. Specially suited for weaving delicate yarns
E C.Air jet looms 3. Only hydrophobic yarns
D.Griper looms 4. Moderately high WIR and highest possible red width
a) (A3, B2, C1, D4)
b) (A2, B1, C4, D3)
c) (A3, B4, C2, D1)
A d) (A1, B4, C3, D2)
I 92. Match the pairs

A. Tucked selvedges 1. Rapier and air jet
C B. Fused selvedges 2. Gripper and air jet looms
T C. Leno selvedges 3. Gabler rapier with double pick insertion
D. Normal selvedge on both sides 4. Water jet looms
E a) (A3, B1, C4, D2)
b) (A2, B4, C3, D1)
c) (A2, B4, C1, D3)
d) (A1, B4, C3, D2)
Page 14 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A 93. Match the pairs

A. Shuttleless weft carrier 1. Varying pick length
I B. Stationary weft supply package 2. Uneven crimp distribution in fabric
C. Weft on pirn 3. Smaller shed depth
C D. Variation in weft tension 4. Controlled weft tension
a) (A3, B4, C1, D2)
T
b) (A3, B4, C2, D1)
E c) (A2, B1, C4, D3)
d) (A2, B3, C4, D1)
94. Wool and Nylon are respectively ______________ and _____________fiber.

a)Natural & synthetic fibre
A b)Protein & amide
c)Both a) & b)
I d)None of the above
C 95. Highly ordered polymers shows _________ mechanical properties and ______
chemical resistance.
T a) higher & lower
E b) lower &higher
c) none of the above
d) higher &higher
96. High molecular weight polymers show ________visicosity and _______melting

point.
A a) higher & lower
b) lower &higher
I c) none of the above
C d) higher &higher
97. Thermosetting polymers _________ be moulded ____ glass transition temperature.
T
a) Can,& has
E b) Can, & has no
c) can’t, & has
d) can’t, & has no
98. Two yarn samples have standard deviation of strength σ1 and σ 2. If σ1 < σ2, the 'F'
ratio would be
A a) σ1 / σ2
I b) σ2 / σ1
c) σ12 / σ22
C d) σ22 / σ12
T 99. The winding speed of a cheese is _________m/min, if the cheese length is 15cm,
traverse guide shaft rpm is 45, cheese dia is 12cm and rpm of winding machine shaft
E is 200.
a) 777
b)77
c)770
d)177
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A
I 100. Which is an aramid fibre?
a) Carbon
C b) Spandax
c) Kevlar
T d) Dyneema
E PART –C
a) 10and40
A b) 10 and15
c) 15 and40
I
d) 10 and10
C
T a) Non-singularmatrix
b) Identitymatrix
E c) Singularmatrix
a) Nullmatrix
A b) Diagonalmatrix
C
T a) u
E b) 1
c) -1
d) 0

[−3, 1]
A are
I a) −7 and −8
b) 81 and −8
C c) 0 and −2
d) 73 and −8
T 𝑑4𝑦
2
𝑑𝑦 4
Page 16 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
A
I a) 3
b) 6
C c) 2
T
E
𝐵
a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
A c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
I
C 109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then
T 13
a) 30
17
E b) 30
19
c) 30
11 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
A 110. If 𝐴 = 2 then 𝐴 will be a
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
I b) Unitorymatrix
C c) Skew-Hermitianmatrix
d) None ofthe above
T
E
a) λ = 2 and µ =4
b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
A
I 112. Let 𝐴 be a 4 × 4 matrix whose eigen-values are 1, −1, 2, −2. Then the value of the
C a) 62
b) 44
T c) 8
E
Page 17 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33

A 113. If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is true

I a) grad | A |  0

C b) curl A  0

T c) div A  0
E
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
(𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
114. If 𝑢 = log⁡ + 𝜕𝑦 + 𝜕𝑧 𝑢 is equal to
𝜕𝑥
a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
I 𝑛 −1
1 1
115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
C
a) ⎾(n − 1)
T b) ⎾(n)
n−1
c) ⎾ 2
E
n+1
d) ⎾ 2

A a) Hyperbolic
b) Elliptic
I c) Parabolic
C
𝑥+𝑦
T 117. 𝑢 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2 satisfies the differential equation
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
E a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
A
I
C 2𝑥
1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
T function𝑓 𝑥 = 2𝑥 is
1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
E a) 0
b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1TTE33
a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
I b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
T
E a) m2
b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG1TTE33
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Textile Engineering
Paper: 1
1 c 41 b 81 a
2 b 42 c 82 d
3 d 43 b 83 c
4 c 44 a 84 c
5 b 45 d 85 a
6 c 46 b 86 b
7 d 47 c 87 b
8 d 48 a 88 a
9 b 49 a 89 a
10 d 50 d 90 d
11 b 51 c 91 a
12 c 52 d 92 c
13 c 53 c 93 a
14 b 54 a 94 c
15 a 55 b 95 d
16 c 56 c 96 d
17 b 57 c 97 d
18 d 58 b 98 d
19 c 59 b 99 a
20 c 60 b 100 d
21 a 61 b 101. a
22 d 62 a 102. c
23 b 63 a 103. a
24 b 64 a 104. d
105. d
25 a 65 c
106. d
26 d 66 a
107. a
27 a 67 b 108. a
28 c 68 a 109. a
29 a 69 c 110. b
30 c 70 c 111. c
31 c 71 a 112. d
32 d 72 d 113. b
33 a 73 a 114. a
34 b 74 b 115. b
35 b 75 b 116. b
117. d
36 d 76 c
118. a
37 b 77 b
119. d
38 b 78 c 120. c
39 b 79 b
40 c 80 c
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY/ENGINEERING
I
T
E PAPER-II
Instructions:
A
I
questions.
C
T

A programmable scientific calculator.
I
C specified.
T
E black or blue ball point pen.
A completion of examination before leaving the examination hall.
I
C
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A PART-A (80 x 1= 80 Marks)
I 1.Angle of twill does not depend on

a) Ends per inch
C b) Picks per inch
c) Yarn count
T
d) Move number
E
2.Number of heald frame required for weaving a 10-end satin fabric is
a) 2
b) 5
c) 10
d) 20
A
3.Regular sateen weave cannot be made with repeat size of
I
a) 4 x 4
C b) 8 x 8
c) 10 x 10
T d) 15 x 15
E 4.Oat meal is the other name of
a) Mock leno
b) Crepe
c) Bedford cord
d) Huck-a-back
A
5.Grecians weave is one of the variety of
I a) Net leno
b) Honey comb
C c) Diamond
d) Huck-a-back
T
E 6.Draft plan used in case of extra warp figuring
a) Straight
b) Skip
c) Divided
d) Grouped
A 7. Purpose of using wadded threads is NOT to increase
I a) Prominence
b) Strength
C c) Warmth
d) Weight
T
E
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 8.Density of pile float depends on

a) Yarn count
I b) Pile length
c) Picks per inch
C d) Ends per inch
T
9.According to pigment theory of color, which one is NOT a tertiary color
E a) Grey
b) Citron
c) Olive
d) Russet
10.Duck cloth is made from

A a) Honey comb
b) Matt-rib
I
c) Double cloth
C d) Twill
T 11.The form of binding in fast-wire pile structure is

a) U-shaped
E b) V-shaped
c) W-shaped
d) X-shaped
12.On removal of extra thread, strength of ground structure

A a) Increases
b) Decreases
I c) Remains same
d) Cannot say
C
13.Fabric cover factor does not depend directly on
T
a) Yarn count
E b) Yarn diameter
c) Ends per inch
d) weave
14.Enzyme treatment of cotton is carried out to remove

a) Size
A b) Fats
I c) Wax
d) Pigments
C
15.Stabilizer used during bleaching of cotton with H2O2 is
T a) NaOH
b) Na2SiO3
E c) CH3COOH
d) Na2CO3
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 16.Fastest process of desizing is

a) Rot steeping
I b) Acid steeping
c) Oxidative
C d) Enzymatic
T
17.Reaction in hydrolysis of starch during desizing is
E a) Exothermic
b) Endothermic
c) Both a) & b)
18.Which of the following is not true for scoured fabric as compared to unscoured fabric?
A a) Loss in weight
b) high shrinkage
I
c) high wicking
C d) Less TPI
T 19.Which of the bleached fabric does not require scouring process?

a) H2O2
E b) NaOCl
c) NaClO2
d) SO2
20.Process which is used for lustring is

A a) Scouring
b) Souring
I c) Shredding
d) Shreinering
C
21.Polyester fabric is bleached with
T
a) NaOCl
E b) NaClO2
c) H2O2
22.Process in which fats are treated with caustic soda to form hydrophilic soaps
a) Scouring
A b) Bleaching
c) Saponification
I
d) Emulsification
C
23.Enzyme that can be used to remove residual peroxide after bleaching is
T a) Cellulase
b) Amylase
E c) Pectinase
d) Catalase
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 24.Batch wise scouring can be carried out in

a) J-box
I b) Kier
c) Jigger
C d) Winch
T
25.Most preferred agent for scouring of wool is
E a) NaOH
b) Na2CO3
c) HCOOH
d) CH3COOH
26.Condition of dyeing with direct dye is

A a) Cationic
b) Anionic
I
c) Non-ionic
C d) Amphoteric
T 27.What do you mean by Population in testing?

a) The whole bulk of material that available for testing
E b) Relative small number taken from total sample
c) A group of sample of total sample
d) None of above
28.What is the weight of fibre we take for testing in sampling method?

A a) 20 gm
b) 20 mg
I c) 5 gm
d) 5 mg
C
29.Which testing is not related to yarn testing?
T
a) Tensile strength
E b) Evenness
c) Tear Test
d) Hairiness
30.AFIS stands for?

a) Automated Finger print Identification System
A b) Advance Fabric Information system
c) Advance Fibre Information System
I
d) Automated Fibre Information system
C
31. One pound is equal to…..
T a) 7000 grains
b) 453.6 gm
E c) 16 Oz
d) All of the above
Page 5 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 32. If we multiply English count (Ne) to Tex of a two plied twisted yarn the value will be___
a) 453.6
I b) 590.5
c) 5315
C d) Its varies with amount of twist present
T
33. If twist multiplier (TM) of 36 Ne yarn is 3.5 then what will be the TPI?
E a) 21 TPI
b) 10.3 TPI
c) 126 TPI
d) Data insufficient to find TPI
34. If thermal insulation value of a fabric is T and we have folded it to two layers then the resultant
A thermal insulation value will be?
a) Greater than 2T
I
b) Less than 2T
C c) Equal to 2T
d) Equal to 4T
T
35. The speed of the foot pressure of the fabric thickness tester should be
E a) 2/1000 inch/Sec
b) 2/100 inch/ Sec
c) 2 mm / Sec
d) 2 cm/ Sec
A 36. In air permeability testing process the amount of pressure required to test the sample is
a) 1 mm water head
I b) 10 mm water head
c) 10 cm water head
T
37. If we will increase the specimen size what will happen to its tensile result?
E a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) First increase then decrease
d) First decrease then increase
38. Which machine is not used for tear test?

A a) Shirley Double pendulum ballistic tester
I b) Elmendorf tester
c) Tensile Tester
C d) Uster Evenness tester
T
E
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 39. In colourfastness to rubbing test which grey scale is used for rating the value?
a) Colour changing
I b) Colour staining
c) Both colouring and Staining
C d) Any one you can use
T
40. Which of the following fabric can we made from single end of yarn?
E a) Woven Fabric
b) Knitted fabric
c) Non-woven fabric
d) It is not possible to make fabric from single end of yarn
41. If a knitted fabric is having same GSM with woven fabric, which statement is true?
A a) Woven fabric is thicker
b) Both fabrics having equal thickness
I
c) Knitted fabric is thicker
C d) We cannot predict
T 42. Which needle is known as self-acting needle?

a) Bearded Needle
E b) Compound Needle
c) Latch needle
d) Barbed Needle
43. Which cam is responsible for loop length of knitted fabric?

A a) Guard Cam
b) Upthrow Cam
I c) Clearing Cam
d) Stitch Cam
C
44. If old loop does not clear the latch and the needle is fed with new yarn then what kind of loop is
T
formed?
E a) Tuck
b) Knit
c) Float
d) Fabric will fall down
45. What do you mean by gauge of the knitting machine?

A a) Number of needle per inch
I b) Thickness of the needle in inch
c) Distance between two needle
C d) Machine dia in inch
T
E
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 46. Which knitted fabric is suitable for making Children’s garments?

a) Plain Knit
I b) Rib Knit
c) Interlock
C d) Purl
T
47. Multiplication of Gauge and Pitch of the knitting machine generates a constant, which is equal
E to
a) 2.54
b) 25.4
c) 254
d) 2540
A 48. Which of the following characteristics of a fibre is not related to its diameter?
a) Density
I
b) Cross-sectional shape
C c) Fineness
d) Cross-sectional area
T
49. Which of the following statements is correct?
E a) The use of shorter fibres in wet-lay process demands more volume of water.
b) The use of longer fibres in wet-lay process demands more volume of water.
c) The length of fibres does not play any role on volume of water.
d) All of the above
A 50. If fineness of the fibre increases then what will happen to strength of needle punched non-
woven fabric?
I a) Its increase
b) Its remain same
C c) its decrease
d) does not affect
T
E 51. Which of the following bonding methods is generally followed in spun bonding process?
a) Needle punching
b) Chemical bonding
c) Thermal calendar bonding
d) Hydro-entanglement
A 52. Relative humidity in a cotton weaving shed would be
I a) 60%
b) 40%
C c) 80%
d) 90%
T
E
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 53. For coarser yarn the tensioner weight should be

a) 10-12g
I b) 8-9g
c) 14-16g
C d) 6-8 g
T 54. The unwinding tension is ........................times of single yarn strength in super speed winding
machine.
E
a) 1/7th
b) 1/10th
c) 1/8th
d) 1/9th
A 55. For which type of knot, special type knotter is used

a)Dog’s knot
I b) Fisher-man’s knot
c)Weaver’s knot
C
T
56. The tension level in pirn winding is
E a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 25%
57. What should be the maximum loom allocation for a weaver ?

A a) 13
I b)17
c) 20
C d) 23
T 58. The speed of the Kirschner beater is

a) 600-700rpm
E b) 700-800rpm
c) 800-900rpm
d) 900-1000rpm
59. The Diameter of the doffer is
a) 27inch
A b) 25inch
I c) 30inch
d) 20inch
C
60. Which drafting system is known as polar drafting system by Lakshmi Rieter?
T a) 3/5
b) 3/4
E c) 4/5
d) 4/4
Page 9 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 61. Usally the wire points in the combing are………………..needles/cm.

a) 15-20
I b) 20-25
c) 23-32
C d) 30-35
T
62. Lap blending done at
E a) Blowroom
b) Carding
c) Drawframe
d) Scutcher
63. The trash percentage content of cotton is

A a) 23%
b) 25%
I
c) 13%
C d) 18%
T 64. The range of super combed noil percentage is

a) 15
E b) 20
c) 17
d) 12
65. The orinentation in fibre polymer can be inferred from

a)DSC study
A b)SEM
I c)Birefrigerence
d) FTIR
C
66.XRD can tell about
T a) functional groups
b) Surface morphology
E
c) Crystalinity
d) Tg
67.The monomer of cotton is

a) Glucose
A b) 4-6 B-glucose
c)1,4 B glucanose
I d) sacarride
C
68. gm/denier is the unit of
T a) Stress
b) breaking length
E c) tenacity
d) work of rupture
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 69. Creep associated with ____________and fatigue associated with ________

a) Constant loading, Cyclic loading
I b) Cyclic loading, Constant loading
c) Constant loading, Constant extension
C d) Cyclic loading, Constant extension
T
70.Visco-elastic properties are shown by
E a) thermoplastic polymers
b) Thermosetting polymers
c) both a) & b)
d) unknown
71. Initial modulus more closer to

A a) Tensile strength
b) Toughness
I c) Plasticity
d) Stress
C
T 72. “CLO” is a measure of
a) Thermal resistivity
E b) Thermal Conductivity
c) Thermal Expansion
73.Glass transition temperature (Tg) is ____________ order transition temperature.

a) 1st
A b)2nd
I c) 3rd
d) 4th
C
74.______________________ polymers have definitive Tg
T a) Thermosetting
b) Thermoplastic
E c) Branched
d) Copolymer
75.The unit of young’s modulus is

a)Nt/m2
A b)Kg/inch2
c)unit less
I d)Kg.m2
C 76.__________ can be used for the elemental analysis.

a) SEM
T b)TEM
c)FEM
E
d) spectrophotometry
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 77.Antistatic agents _________________ fibre conductivity.

a) Increases
I b)Decreases
c)doesn’t affect
T
78. A yarn with 100 identical filaments will be having flexural rigidity equal to _____ times of the
E individual filaments
a) 10
b) 100
c) 1000
d) 10000
A 79. Schwarz constant doesn’t depend on

a) diameter of yarn
I
b) twist of yarn
C c) both a) and b)
d) none of above
T
80. Which of the following is not an assumption in Pierce’s geometrical model?
E a) Yarns are inextensible and flexible
b) Yarns consist of concentric cylinders made of fibers.
c) Yarns have circular cross section
d) Yarns consists of straight and curved segments
A
I PART-B (40X2=80Marks)
C 81. Strength in warp-way of weft backed fabric as compared to warp backed fabric is
a) Higher
T
b) Lower
E c) Same
d) Cannot say
82 Minimum repeat size of welt structure is

a) 6x6
b) 8x8
A c) 10 x 10
I d) 12 x 12
C 83 Maximum possible frequency of interlacing are found in

a) Satin
T b) Corkscrew
c) 2/2 matt
E
d) Plain
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A
84. Draft used for fabric having high warp thread density is
I a) Straight
b) Skip
C c) Pointed
d) Divided
T
E 85 Surface loops are produced in
a) Wire pile
b) Terry pile
c) Weft plushes
d) Fustians
A 86.Sateen which does not have possible move number

a) 5 x 5
I
b) 6 x 6
C c) 7 x 7
d) 8 x 8
T
87. Use of salt during enzyme desizing is for
E a) Wetting
b) Desizing
c) Heat stability
A 88. Bleaching agent that does not require souring process

a) H2O2
I b) NaOCl
c) NaClO2
C d) SO2
T
89.Process that produce maximum shrinkage is
E a) Desizing
b) Scouring
c) Souring
d) Mercerization
90.Mercerization does not increase

A a) Absorbency
I b) Lustre
c) hydroxyl
C d) Axial ratio
T
E
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 91.Value of contrast ratio in well mercerized fabric is

a) 1.2 – 1.4
I b) 1.5 – 2.0
c) 2.0 – 2.6
C d) 2.7 – 3.5
T
92.Efficiency of mercerization can be assessed by
E a) Dye sorption
b) Deconvolution count
c) Shrinkage
d) Sinking time
93. What is the percentage of fibre present in between lower quartile and Upper quartile of a Baer
A Sorter Diagramme?
a) 25%
I
b) 75%
C c) 50%
d) About 30%
T
94. What is the range of maturity ratio of cotton fibre?
E a) 0.57 to 1.57
b) 0.5 to 1
c) 0.2 to 1.2
d) 0.7 to 1.2
A 95. Six sliver each having CV% of 6 doubled in a draw frame then find the resultant CV%.
a) 36
I b) √6
c) 18
C d) 6
T
96.After washing the fabric shrink 5% in length wise direction whereas elongated by 2% in width
E direction. If GSM of the fabric before wash is 150gm then find the GSM after wash.
a) 150.5 gm
b) 160.5 gm
c) 154.5 gm
d) 145.5 gm
A 97. The factor which doesn’t affect the tensile result is
I a) Moisture contain
b) Speed of the machine
C c) Specimen size
d) All of the above
T
E
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 98. In one meter of fabric when unravelled a yarn and measured, it become 106 cm then find the
crimp% of the fabric.
I a) 5.0 %
b) 5.7 %
C c) 6.0 %
d) 10.6%
T
E 99. If actual loop length is 10 mm and theoretical loop length is 12mm then find the Robbing back
percentage?
a) 16.66 %
b) 54.54 %
c) 20%
d) 45.45 %
A
100.If loop shape factor is greater than 1.3 then it indicates that
I
a) Higher Shrinkage in width wise direction
C b) Lower Shrinkage in width wise direction
c) Higher Stretch ability in length wise direction
T d) Loop shape factor does not affect these two value
E 101. If loop length increases then fabric GSM __________
a) Increases
b) Remains constant
c) Decreases
d) has no relation
A
102. If d is the dia of the yarn in a jammed knitted fabric, then Loop length is equal to?
I a) 16d
b) 4d
C c) 16.4d
d) 3.4d
T
E 103. Which of the following process sequences is correct for melt blown process?
a) Preparation, extrusion, quenching, attenuation, lay-down, winding.
b) Preparation, extrusion, drawing, attenuation, lay-down, winding.
c) Preparation, extrusion, quenching, lay-down, attenuation, winding.
d) Preparation, quenching, extrusion, attenuation, lay-down, winding
A 104. Which of the following statements is true?
I a) Shearing is a process of removing surface fibres from the fabric by the help of a flame
b) Shearing is a process of removing surface fibres from the fabric by the help of cropping
C c) Shearing is a process of removing surface fibres from the fabric by the help of hammering
d) Shearing is a process of removing surface fibres from the fabric by the help of calendaring
T
E
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 105. In warping if the value of R= 200 and S=240, then what is the expected efficiency?
a) 45.5
I b) 54.5
c) 48.5
C d) 52.5
T 106. The RH and Temp. for super fine counts in loom shed are
a) 60 & 290c
E
b) 81 & 240c
c) 78 & 240c
d) 81 & 290c
107. Calculate the workload for weaver having total working time 240 minutes with in 8 hour.
A a) 50%
b) 45%
I c) 55%
d) 40%
C
108. If the avg. speed of loom is 178.6 rpm and nominal speed is 186 rpm, then calculate slippage
T percentage.
E a) 5.32%
b) 3.98%
c) 4.45%
d) 4.21%
109. Match the pairs.

A A B
p. Very short variation i. 2.5-25m
I q. Short term variation ii. Up to 25cm
r. Medium term variation iii. 25-250m
C s. Long term variation iv. 25cm-2.5m
v. more than 250m
T
a) p-ii, q-iv, r-i, s-iii
E b) p-iii, q-iv, r-i, s-ii
c) p-iv, q-ii, r-i, s-iii
d) p-i, q-iv, r-ii, s-iii
110. If there are 3/3 roller drafting system, then the total draft will be
a) (d1*d2)/d3
A b) d1*d2*d3
I c) (d2*d3)/d1
d) (d1*d2*d3)/d1+d2+d3
C
T
E
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A Answer the correct statement from 111 to 115

111. a) The wavelength range of visible is from 380nm to760nm.
I b) The wavelength range of X-ray is from 1-100Ao.
c) Both of a) & b)
T
112. a)A fibre polymers having polar groups indicates good moisture absorbency.
E b)Polymers of higher degree of orientations and crystalinity shows higher elasticity.
c) both a) & b)
d) none
113. a) Wool and silk are protein fibres

b) Nylon is also a protein fibre
A c) both a) & b)
I
C 114. a) Tenacity and stress are same
b) Work of rupture and breaking length has same unit.
T c) both a) & b)
E
115. a) Mositure regain > Mositure content
b) Mositure regain < Mositure content
c) Mositure regain = Mositure content
d) May or may not be same
A
116. 20s, 30s, 40s and 50s Ne cotton yarns have the same twist per cm. The yarn having maximum
I fibre obliquity is
a) 20s Ne
C b) 30s Ne
c) 40s Ne
T
d) 50s Ne
E
117. The nep setting on an evenness tester which will give the highest nep count is
a) +400 %
b) +280 %
c) +200 %
d) +140 %
A
I 118. The property of fabric which influences drape the most is
a) Tensile
C b) Compressional
c) Shear
T d) Surface
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2TTE33
A 119. Ratio of grab strength to strip strength is the highest when fabric extension (%) is
a) 0
I b) 1.0
c) 0.9
C d) 0.8
T
E 120. Bursting strength of a woven fabric with the same warp and weft yarns is the highest when the
ratio of ends/cm and picks/cm is
a) 1.1
b) 1.0
c) 0.9
d) 0.8
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG2TTE33
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Textile Engineering
Paper: 2
1 c 42 c 83. d
2 c 43 d 84. b
3 a 44 a 85. b
4 b 45 a 86. b
5 d 46 d 87. c
6 c 47 c 88. a
7 c 48 a 89. d
8 a 49 b 90. d
9 a 50 a 91. c
10 b 51 c 92. b
11 c 52 a 93. c
12 c 53 c 94. c
13 d 54 c 95. b
14 a 55 b 96. c
15 b 56 c 97. d
16 b 57 d 98. c
17 a 58 c 99. a
18 d 59 a 100. a
19 a 60 a 101. c
20 d 61 c 102. c
21 b 62 d 103. b
22 c 63 d 104. b
23 d 64 b 105. a
24 b 65 c 106. c
25 b 66 c 107. a
26 a 67 c 108. b
27 a 68 c 109. a
28 b 69 a 110. b
29 c 70 a 111. c
30 c 71 b 112. a
31 d 72 a 113. c
32 b 73 b 114. d
33 a 74 b 115. a
34 a 75 a 116. a
35 a 76 d 117. d
36 b 77 a 118. c
37 b 78 b 119. d
38 d 79 d 120. b
39 b 80 b
40 b 81. b
41 c 82. a
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING/ ELECTRONICS

AND TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
I
C
T
E
PAPER-I
A Instructions:
C 120 questions.
E
I
C vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use

T
specified.
A
I
T
E
Page 1 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
I 1. The function f (t )  E[u (t  a )  u (t  b)] is

a) A pulse function originating at t=a
C b) A step function originating at t=0
c) An exponential function originating at t=a
T d) A pulse function originating at t=a and duration (b-a).
E 2. The inverse Laplace transform of 1/(s+1)3 is
a) 𝑡 2 𝑒 −𝑡
𝑡2
b) 𝑒 −𝑡
2
A
c) 𝑡𝑒 −𝑡
I
𝑡
d) 𝑒 −𝑡
C 2
T 3. A function Ae st where s  s  jw represents

a) A phasor whose magnitude changes with time
E b) A phasor whose frequency is 
c) A phasor rotating in counter clock wise direction at angular frequency  and whose
magnitude increase with t
d) A phasor rotating in clock wise direction at angular frequency  and whose
magnitude increase with t .
A
4. A voltage wave v  10  20sin t  7.5sin3t is applied to a series combination of two
I elements. The current is i  5sin(t  20o )  1.5sin(3t  10o ) . The elements are
C a) R and C
b) R and L
T c) L and C
d) Both are inductances.
E
5. For an AC sinusoidal wave, the rms value is 10A. For the same wave delayed by 60o in
each half cycle, the rms value is likely to be
a) 10A
b) 7.07A
c) 6.35A
A
d) 3.5A
I
6. If An AC network has a power factor of 0.8 lagging for fundamental frequency. If the
C applied voltage contains third and fifth harmonics, the overall power factor will be
a) > 0.8
T b) = 0.8
E c) < 0.8
d) <0.08
Page 2 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 7. If f(t) in volts, then F(j  )is in

a) Volts
I b) Volt seconds
c) Volts/sec
C d) Volt-sec2
0
 v(t )dt is
T 8. If v(t) is a time varying voltage,

E
a) Initial current
b) Initial voltage
c) Initial charge
d) Initial flux leakages
A 9. Below figure shows a discrete time system consisting of a unit delay system, a multiplier
and a summer, such that y (k )  x(k  1)  0.5 x(k ) . This system is
I
C
T
E
a) Linear
A b) Non linear
c) May be linear or non-linear depending on value of x
I d) Impossible to judge
C 10. For the discrete time system of figure below,

T
E
A
I
a) yk  0.5 yk 1  0.25 yk 2  uk
C
b) yk  0.5 yk 1  0.25 yk 2  uk
T c) yk  0.5 yk 1  0.25 yk 2  uk
E d) yk  0.5 yk 1  0.25 yk 2  uk
Page 3 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 11. The function (sin Y)/Y

a) Has a period 2  , decays with increasing x and has zeros at n , n  1, 2
I b) Has a period 
c) Has a period  / 2
C
d) Has a period 2 , decays with increasing x, is an even function has zeros at
T n , n  1, 2......
E 12. Is y [n] = n*cos (n*pi/4) u[n] a stable system?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Marginally stable
A 13. If f (t )   f (t ) and f (t ) satisfies Drichlet conditions, then f (t ) can be expanded in

I Fourier series containing
a) Only sine terms
C b) Only cosine terms
c) Cosine terms and constant
T d) Sine terms and constant
E 2s  1
14. The final value of is
s  8s 3  16s 2  s
4
a) 
b) 2
c) 1
d) Zero
A
I 15. If f (t ) and F ( jw) form a transform pair, then as per symmetry in Fourier transforms
a) F ( jt )  2 f ( )
C b) F ( jt )   f ( )
T 
c) F ( jt )  f ( )
2
E 
d) F ( jt )  f ( )
2
16. Auto correlation function
a) Is an even function of 
b) Is an odd function of 
A
c) May be an even or odd function of 
I d) Is both an odd and even function of 
C 17. According to time-shifting property of Laplace transform, shifting the signal in time
domain corresponds to the ______________.
T a) Multiplication by e-sto in time domain
b) Multiplication by e-sto in frequency domain
E c) Multiplication by esto in time domain
d) Multiplication by esto in frequency domain
Page 4 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 18. If a filter has only zero and every zero is accompanied by the inverse of its conjugate,
then the filter will be
I a) Always stable
b) Always unstable
C c) Cannot be predicted
T
E 19. The term energy spectral density is associated with
a) Periodic wave form
b) Non-periodic wave form
c) Both periodic and non-periodic waveform
A 20. For Ergodic Process

a) Ensemble Average equal to time Average
I
b) Ensemble Average is not equal to time Average
C c) Ensemble Average>Time Average
d) Ensemble Average<Time Average
T
21. A bridge rectifier circuit has a dc load current of 10 mA and a filter capacitance of 1000
E  F . The peak to peak ripple voltage is
a) 0.01 V
b) 0.05 V
c) 0.1 V
d) 0.5 V
A
22. When the AC bias voltage in a CE amplifier circuit is too high, the AC emitter current is
I a) Zero
b) Constant
C c) Alternating
d) Distorted
T
23. In a CE amplifier, the collector resistance is 6 k and load resistance is 3 k . The AC
E
load resistance is
a) 9 k
b) 6 k
c) 3 k
d) 2 k
A
24. An amplifier has a larger AC input signal. The clipping occurs on both the peaks. The
I output voltage will be nearly a
C a) Sine wave
b) Square wave
T c) Triangular wave
d) Either (a) or (c)
E
Page 5 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 25. The main advantage of CMOS circuit is

a) High gain
I b) High output impedance
c) Low power consumption
C d) High gain and high output impedance
T
26. In an oscillator the total phase shift around the loop must be
E a) 180o
b) 90o
c) 270o
d) 0o
27. Asper the Miller theorem the circuit of below figure (a) can be replaced by that in Figure
A (b) if V2/V1=K, then Y1 and Y2 are equal to
I
C
T
E
a) Y(1-K) each
b) Y(a-1/k) each
c) Y1=Y(1-K) and Y2=Y(a-1/k)
d) Y2=Y(1-K) and Y1=Y(a-1/k)
A
28. In which amplifier circuit conductanceis negligible?
I
a) JFET amplifier
C b) MOSFET amplifier
c) Both JFET and MOSFET amplifier
E 29. In the below circuit,the output voltage ‘V’o is
A
I
C a) 3V1+4V2
b) -3V1-4V2
T c) 4V1+3V2
d) -4V1-3V2
E
Page 6 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 30. An amplifier has input impedance of 4 K and output impedance of 80 K . It is used in

negative feedback circuit with 10% feedback. If open loop gain is 90, the closed loop
I input and output impedances are,
a) 40 K and 8 K respectively
C b) 4 K and 80 K respectively
c) 0.4 K and 800 K respectively
T
d) 8 K and 160 K respectively
E
31. A half wave diode rectifier and full wave bridge rectifier both have an input frequency of
50 Hz. The frequencies of the outputs respectively are
a) 100Hz and 50 Hz
b) 50Hz and 100 Hz
c) 100Hz each
A d) 50Hz each
I
32. A voltage doubler circuit uses
C a) Two diodes
b) Two capacitors
T c) Two diodes and two capacitors
d) None of the above.
E
33. To prevent a DC return between source and load, it is necessary to use
a) Resistor between source and load
b) Inductor between source and load
c) Capacitor between source and load
A d) Either (a) or (b).
I 34. For a transistor, the derating factor, for ambient temperature higher than specified, is
about
C a) 2.5mW/oC
b) 0.5mW/oC
T
c) 10mW/oC
E d) 20mW/oC
35. In a class C power amplifier the input signal has a frequency of 250 kHz. If the collector
current pulse are 0.1 wide, the duty cycle of current waveform is
a) 50%
b) 25%
A c) 2.5%
I d) 0.25%
C 36. In a BJT amplifier the power gain from base to collector is 4000. The power gain in dB
is,
T a) 3.6
b) 36
E c) 7.2
d) 72
Page 7 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A
37. A second order active bandpass filter can be obtained by cascading LP second order filter
I having higher cut off frequency fOH with a second order HP filter having lower cut off
frequency f OL provided
C
a) fOL  fOH
T b) fOL  fOH
E c) fOL  fOH
d) fOH  0.5 fOL
38. A DC power supply has no load voltage of 30 V and full load voltage of 25 V at full load
current of 1 A. The output resistance and voltage regulation respectively are,
A a) 5  and 25%
b) 25  and 20%
I c) 5  and 16.7%
C d) 25  and 16.7%
T 39. For transistor 2N 338 the manufacturer specifies Pmax =100mW at 25 oC free air
temperature and maximum junction temperature of 125oC. Its thermal resistance is
E a) 10oC/W
b) 100oC/W
c) 1000oC/W
d) 5000oC/W
A 40. Regulation of DC power supply of 12 V, 100mA is the effective resistance of power

supply is 20 
I a) 22%
b) 131%
C c) 30%
T d) 20%
1
41. System function H ( s )  , For a signal sin 2t , the steady state response is
E s3
a) 1/8
b) ∞
c) 0
d) 8
A 42. In a two terminals network the open circuit voltage measured at the given terminals is 100
I V and short circuit, currents at the same terminals is 5 A. If a load of 80 Ω resistance is
connected at the terminals, load current is
C a) 1 A
b) 1.25 A
T c) 6 A
d) 6.25 A
E
Page 8 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 43. Figure shows a dc circuit fed by a current source. With respect to terminals AB,
Thevenin's voltage and Thevenin's resistance are
I
C
T
E a) VTH = 5 V, RTH = 0.75 Ω
b) VTH = 2.5 V, RTH = 0.75 Ω
c) VTH = 2.5 V, RTH = 1 Ω
d) VTH = 5 V, RTH = 1 Ω
A 44. For the given network, the z11 =
I
C
T
E a) 5/3 Ω
b) 3/2 Ω
c) 2Ω
d) 2/3 Ω
45. An RLC series circuit has Q = 100 and ω0 = 20 rad/sec. The bandwidth is
A a) 0.2 rad/sec
b) 2 rad/sec
I c) 20 rad/sec
C d) 2000 rad/sec
T 46. A constant k band pass filter has a pass band from 100 to 400 Hz. The resonant frequency
of series and shunt arms is
E a) 300 Hz
b) 250 Hz
c) 200 Hz
47. Two similar coupled coils are connected in series. The total inductance in series aiding
A connection is 100 mH. If currents is 3 A, the energy stored in magnetic field is
I a) 0.9 J
b) 0.45 J
C c) 0.225 J
d) 1.8 J
T
E
Page 9 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 48. A 1 μF capacitor is connected to 12 V battery. The energy stored in the capacitor is

a) 12 x 10-6 J
I b) 24 x 10-6 J
c) 48 x 10-6 J
C d) 72 x 10-6 J
T
49. A two branch parallel tuned circuit has a coil of resistance 100 Ω and inductance 0.005 H
E in one branch and 10 nF capacitor in the second branch. The resonance frequency is
a) 100 rad/sec
b) 10000 rad/sec
c) 1000 rad/sec
d) more than 10000 rad/sec
A 50. An RC series circuit is charged by a voltage E. After a long time the battery is removed
and a short circuit is placed across R-C. Then
I
a) the polarity of voltage across R is same during discharge and during charge
C b) the polarity of voltage across R during discharging is opposite to that during charging
c) the polarity of voltage across R depends on time constant RC
E 51. If in a network, there are 4 branches, 3 nodes then number of links in a co-tree are
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
A
52. The maximum power is delivered form a source to its load when the load resistance is
I _______ the source resistance.
a) Greater than
C b) Less than
c) Equal to
T
d) Less than or equal to
E
53. Inverse Z - transform is a procedure for transforming the Z - domain to
a) Frequency domain
b) Time domain
c) Space domain
A
I 54. In two port network, the parameters Y11, Y12, Y21, Y22 are called as
a) Open circuit impedance parameters
C b) Short circuit admittance parameters
c) Inverse transmission parameters
T d) Transmission parameters
E
Page 10 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 55. In an SR latch built from NOR gates, which condition is not allowed?
a) S=0, R=0
I b) S=0, R=1
c) S=1, R=0
C d) S=1, R=1
T
56. If both inputs of an S-R flip-flop are LOW, what will happen when the clock goes high?
E a) No change will occur in the output.
b) An invalid state will exist.
c) The output will toggle.
d) The output will reset.
57. A push-button switch is used to input data to a register. The output of the register is
A erratic. What could be causing the problem?
a) The power supply is probably noisy.
I
b) The switch contacts are bouncing.
C c) The socket contacts on the register IC are corroded.
d) The register IC is intermittent and failure is imminent.
T
58. A positive edge-triggered J-K flip-flop is used to produce a two-phase clock. However,
E when the circuit is operated it produces erratic results. Close examination with a scope
reveals the presence of glitches. What causes the glitches, and how might the problem be
corrected?
a) The PRESET and CLEAR terminals may have been left floating; they should be
properly terminated if not being used.
A b) The problem is caused by a race condition between the J and K inputs; an inverter
should be inserted in one of the terminals to correct the problem.
I c) A race condition exists between the Q and Q outputs to the AND gate; the AND gate
should be replaced with a NAND gate.
C d) A race condition exists between the clock and the outputs of the flip-flop feeding the
AND gate; replace the flip-flop with a negative edge-triggered J-K Flip-Flop.
T
E 59. In VHDL, how many inputs will a primitive JK flip-flop have?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
A 60. A J-K flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 has a 20 kHz clock input. The Q output is ________.
I a) constantly LOW
b) constantly HIGH
C c) a 20 kHz square wave
d) a 10 kHz square wave
T
E
Page 11 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 61. Consider the following statements

1. The amplitude of an FM wave is constant.
I 2. FM is more immune to noise than AM.
3. FM broadcasts operate in upper VHF and UHF frequency ranges.
C 4. FM transmitting and receiving equipments are simpler as compared to AM
transmitting and receiving equipments.
T
Which of the above are correct?
E a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
62. Signal to noise ratio of microphone is defined as the ratio of output when the sound
A pressure is __________ to the output in the absence of any sound signal.
a) 0.5 Pa
I
b) 0.2 Pa
C c) 0.1 Pa
d) 0.01 Pa
T
63. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves having modulation indices of
E 0.4 and 0.3. The total modulation index will be
a) 0.1
b) 0.7
c) 0.5
d) 0.35
A
64. Which of the following is the indirect way of FM generation?
I a) Reactance bipolar transistor modulator
b) Armstrong modulator
C c) Varactor diode modulator
d) Reactance FM modulator
T
65. Autocorrelation is a function which matches
E
a) Two same signals
b) Two different signals
c) One signal with its delayed version
A 66. c(t) and m(t) are used to generate an FM signal. If the peak frequency deviation of the
generated FM signal is three times the transmission bandwidth of the AM signal, then the
I coefficient of the term cos [2  (1008 x 103t)] in the FM signal (in terms of the Bessel
Coefficients) is
C a) 5 J4(3)
T b) 5/2 J8(3)
c) 5/2 J8(4)
E d) 5 J4(6)
Page 12 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 67. A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated with m = 0.75. The total power in AM is
a) 400 W
I b) 512 W
c) 588 W
C d) 650 W
T
68. In FM signal with a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency tripler. The wave
E in the output of the tripler will have a modulation index of
a) mf
b) 3mf
c) mf/3
d) mf/9
A 69. The number of noise sources in a BJT are

a) 3
I
b) 2
C c) 1
d) 4
T
70. A modem is classified as low speed if data rate handled is
E a) upto 100 bps
b) upto 250 bps
c) upto 400 bps
d) upto 600 bps
A
I
71. A voltage v  10sin t 10sin5t is applied to a pure capacitor having capacitance of 1
C  F . If   314 rad/sec, the current through the capacitor is
T a) 0.0314cos314t  0.0157cos1570t
b) 0.0314sin314t  0.0157sin1570t
E c) 0.0314cos314t  0.0314cos1570t
d) 0.0157cos314t  0.0157cos1570t
1  z 1
72. If H ( z )  the poles of H(z) are at
5 1 1 2
A 1 z  z
6 6
a) Z=1/2 and z=1/3
I
b) Z=1 and z=1
C c) Z=(-1/2) and z=(-1/3)
d) Z=(-1) and z=(-3)
T
E
Page 13 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 73. For initial value theorem in Time Domain if x (n) is causal then inz - Domain it is
a) x(0) = lim𝑧 ∞ 𝑋(𝑧)
I b) x(n) = lim𝑧 ∞ 𝑋(𝑧)
c) x(0) = lim𝑧 0 𝑋(𝑧)
C d) x(n) = lim𝑧 0 𝑋(𝑧)
T
74. Which of the following lines behaves as infinite line?
E a) A line terminated in inductance
b) A line terminated in capacitance
c) A short line
d) A line terminated in Z0
75. The joint probability function of two discrete random variable X and Y is given by
A x  2y
f ( x, y )  { } x=0,2; y=2,3
I 14
=0 otherwise
C
Then E(X)=
T a) 8/14
E b) 40/14
c) 16/14
d) 12/14
x
76. If f ( x)  , 0  x  3
2
A = 0 Otherwise
Find E(X)
I
a) 27/6
C b) 40/14
c) 28/6
T d) 0
E 77. A full wave bridge diode rectifier uses diodes having forward resistance of 50  each. The
load resistance is also 50  . The voltage regulations is,
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 100%
A d) 200%
I 78. In an amplifier with a gain of -1000 and feedback factor  =-0.1, the change in gain is
20% due to temperature. The change in gain for feedback amplifier will be,
C a) 10%
T b) 5%
c) 0.2%
E d) 0.01%
Page 14 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 79. A 12 kHz pulse wave-form is amplified by a circuit having a upper cut-off frequency of 1
MHz. the minimum input pulse width that can be accurately reproduced is
I a) 83.33  s
b) 1  s
C
c) 0.1 ms
T d) 3.5 ms
E 80. For system to work as oscillator the total phase shift of the loop gain must be equal to,
a) 90o
b) 45o
c) 0o
d) 360o
A
81. The JFET in below circuit has an IDSS=10mA and Vp=-5V. The value of resistance Rs for a
I drain current IDS=6.4 mA is
C
T
E
a) 156 
b) 470 
c) 560 
d) 1k 
A
82. Find Voltage VL in the circuit when Vs<0 where D is an ideal diode. R1=R2=RL=1 
I
C
T
E
a) 0
b) 1
c) 1.5
d) Can not find
A 83. The mobility of electron for Ge and Si respectively is

a) 1.66, 2.5
I
b) 2.5, 1.66
C c) 2.7, 2.33
d) 2.33, 2.7
T
E
Page 15 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 84. In an unloaded transformer, the fluxes limiting the primary and secondary are 30 mWb
and 20 mWb. The coefficient of coupling is
I a) 1
b) 0.1
C c) 0.33
d) 0.67
T
E 85. In the circuit of figure, the current through 1F capacitor at t = ∞ is
A
I a) 4A
b) 2.5 A
C c) 3.1 A
d) 0
T
E 86. The circuit in figure is switched on at t = 0. At any time t, i(t) =
A
I
a) 3 + 3e-1
C b) 6 - 3e-1
T c) 3 - 3e-1
d) 6 - 6e-1
E
87. In figure, the capacitor is charged to 1 V. At t = 0 the switch is closed so that i = e-t. When
i = 0.37 A, the voltage across capacitor is
A
I
C a) 1V
b) 0.63 V
T c) 0.37 V
E d) 0.185 V
Page 16 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 88. The voltage e0 in the figure below is:
I
C
T
E
a) 48 V
b) 24 V
c) 36 V
d) 28 V
A 89. For the network of figure below, KVL for first loop is
I
C
T
E
𝑑𝑖 𝑑𝑖
a) v(t) =R1i1 + L1 𝑑𝑡1 + M 𝑑𝑡2
𝑑𝑖 𝑑𝑖
b) v(t) = R1i1- L1 𝑑𝑡1 - M 𝑑𝑡2
A 𝑑𝑖 𝑑𝑖
c) v(t) = R1i1 + L1 𝑑𝑡1 - M 𝑑𝑡2
I
𝑑𝑖 𝑑𝑖
C d) v(t) = R1i1- L1 𝑑𝑡1 + M 𝑑𝑡2
T
E 90. The small signal input impedance of a transistor whose output is shorted for measuring a
signal is
v
a) h11  1 / v2  0
i1
v
b) h12  1 i1  0
A i2
i
I c) h21  2 v2  0
i1
C i
d) h22  2 i1  0
T v2
Page 17 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 91. How many select lines are required for 1 to 8 demultiplexer?

a) 2
I b) 3
c) 4
C d) 5
T
92. Complement of the expression A’B+CD’ is
E a) (A’+B) (C’+D)
b) (A+B’) (C’+D)
c) (A’+B) (C+D’)
d) (A+B’) (C+D’)
93. A 555 timer is connected for astable operation as shown below along with the output
A waveform. It is determined that the duty cycle should be 0.5. What steps need to be taken
to correct the duty cycle, while maintaining the same output frequency?
I
C
T
E
A
I tL = 0.693RC
tH =0.693(R1+R2)C
C 𝑅 +𝑅 𝑡𝐻
Duty Cycle = 𝑅 1+2𝑅2 =
1 2 𝑇
T T = tL+tH
E
a) Increase the value of C.
b) Increase Vcc and decrease RL.
c) Decrease R1 and R2.
d) Decrease R1 and increase R2.
A 94. The output pulse width of a 555 monostable circuit with R1 = 4.7 k and C1 = 47 F is
________.
I a) 24 s
C b) 24 ms
c) 243 ms
T d) 243 s
Page 18 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 95. Two J-K flip-flops with their J-K inputs tied HIGH are cascaded to be used as counters.
After four input clock pulses, the binary count is ________.
I a) 00
b) 11
C c) 01
d) 10
T
E 96. The power and energy of the unit step sequence are
1
a) 2, 0
1
b) ,∞
2
1
c) ∞, 2
1
A d) 0,
2
97. Don’t care conditions can be used for simplifying Boolean expressions in
I a) Examples
C b) Terms
c) K-maps
T d) Latches
E 98. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves with modulation indices of 0.4
and 0.3. The resultant modulation index will be
a) 1.0
b) 0.7
c) 0.5
A d) 0.35
I 99. In the figure
C
T
E
The out-put Y(t) will be
A 𝑎 sin 2𝜋𝑡
(a) 𝑡
I
sin 2𝜋𝑡 𝑎 sin 𝜋𝑡
(b) + cos 3 𝜋𝑡
C 𝑡 𝑡
sin 2𝜋𝑡 sin 0.5𝜋𝑡

T (c) + cos 1.5 𝜋𝑡
𝑡 𝑡
E sin 2𝜋𝑡 sin 𝜋𝑡
(d) ) + cos 0.75 𝜋𝑡
𝑡 𝑡
Page 19 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 100. A 1000 kHz carrier is simultaneously modulated with 300 Hz, 800 Hz and 2 kHz audio
sine waves. Which of the following frequency is least likely to be present in the output?
I a) 1002 kHz
b) 1000 kHz
C c) 999.2 kHz
d) 998.0 kHz
T
E PART –C
a) 10and40
b) 10 and15
A c) 15 and40
I d) 10 and10
C 102. ThecharacteristicequationofamatrixAisλ3−4λ2+5λ=0,thenAwillbea
T b) Identitymatrix
c) Singularmatrix
a) Nullmatrix
b) Diagonalmatrix
A
C a) u
b) 1
T c) -1
d) 0
E
[−3, 1]
are
a) −7 and −8
A b) 81 and −8
c) 0 and −2
I d) 73 and −8
2
C 106. The differential equation 𝑑𝑥 4 + 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦 = 0 is
T a) Linear, Order = 4, Degree= 2
E c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree= 4
Page 20 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20

a) 3
I b) 6
c) 2
T
𝐵
E a) 𝑃 𝐴 ≥ 0
𝐵
b) 𝑃 =0
𝐴
𝐵
c) 𝑃 𝐴 = 1
A
109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then
I the probabilitythatthenumberoftheballdrawnwillbeamultipleof3or7is
13
C a) 30
17
T b) 30
19
c) 30
E
11 + 𝑖 −1 + 𝑖
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
a) Hermitianmatrix
A b) Unitorymatrix
C 111. The system of equations x + y = 2 and 2x + λy= µ has unique solution,if

T a) λ = 2 and µ =4
b) λ = 2 and µ ≠4
E
A determinant 𝐵 = 𝐴 + 2𝐴−1 + 𝐼 is
a) 62
I b) 44
c) 8
T
E
Page 21 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20

A 113.If A is an irrotational vector point function, then which one of the following is true

I a) grad | A |  0

C b) curl A  0

c) div A  0
T
E
𝜕 𝜕 𝜕
(𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 + 𝑧 3 − 3𝑥𝑦𝑧) then
𝜕𝑥
a) 3 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −1
b) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −2
c) −9 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 −3
I
1 1 𝑛 −1
115. 0 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 =
C
a) ⎾(n − 1)
T b) ⎾(n)
n−1
E c) ⎾ 2
n+1
d) ⎾ 2

a) Hyperbolic
A b) Elliptic
c) Parabolic
C
𝑥 +𝑦
T 𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑢 = 0
E 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑢 = 0
A 118.Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the
2𝑥
I 1+ , −𝜋 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 0
𝜋
C 1− , 0≤𝑥≤𝜋
𝜋
a) 0
T
b) 4/𝑛2 𝜋 2
E c) (−1)𝑛 2/𝑛
d) None of these
Page 22 of 23
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
a) 𝑦 = 𝑛 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑚 , 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑛
I b) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 + 𝑚 𝑛, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑥 2 + 𝑚 𝑥
c) 𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 + 𝑛𝑐, 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑚 𝑥 2 + 𝑐 𝑥
T
E a) m2
b) 𝑚
c) 𝑚
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 23 of 23
UG1EC E20
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Electronics & Communication Engg.
Paper:1
1. d 63. c
2. b 64. b
3. d 65. c
4. a 66. d
5. c 67. b
6. c 68. b
7. b 69. a
8. d 70. d
9. a 71. a
10. c 72. a
11. a 73. a
12. a 74. d
13. a 75. b
14. c 76. a
15. c 77. b
16. d 78. c
17. b 79. d
18. a 80. d
19. c 81. a
20. c 82. a
21. c 83. b
22. d 84. d
23. c 85. a
24. b 86. b
25. c 87. c
26. a 88. d
27. c 89. c
28. c 90. a
29. b 91. b
30. a 92. b
31. b 93. d
32. c 94. c
33. c 95. a
34. b 96. b
35. c 97. c
36. b 98. c
37. a 99. c
38. b 100. b
39. c 101. a
40. d 102. c
41. a 103. a
42. b 104. d
43. b 105. d
44. a 106. d
45. a 107. a
46. c 108. a
47. c 109. a
48. d 110. b
49. c 111. c
50. b 112. d
51. a 113. b
52. c 114. a
53. b 115. b
54. b 116. b
55. d 117. d
56. a 118. a
57. b 119. d
58. d 120. c
59. d
60. d
61. b
62. c
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING/ ELECTRONICS

AND TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
I
C
E
PAPER-II
A
I Instructions:
C i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120
T
questions.
E ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.

A
I v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
C
T
specified.
E

A
C
T
E
Page 1 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
I 1. The ratio of impurity atoms to intrinsic semiconductor is about

a) 1:10
C b) 1:1000
c) 1:10000
T
d) 1:108
E
2. In a p type material, the Fermi level is 0.3 eV above valance band. The concentration of
acceptor atoms is increased. The new position of fermi level is likely to be
a) 0.5 eV above valance band
b) 0.28eV above valance band
c) 0.1 eV above valance band
A d) Below the valence band
I
3. For most metals, Fermi level EF is less than
C a) 0.1eV
b) 2eV
T c) 5eV
d) 10 eV
E
4. The intrinsic resistivity of silicon at 300K is about
a) 1   cm
b) 400   cm
c) 10000   cm
A d) 230000   cm
I 5. Hall coefficient K H and charge density  are related as

C 1
a) K H 

T
b) K H  
E 1
c) K H  ( )1.2

d) K H  (  )1.2
6. An electron rises through a voltage of 100V. The energy acquired by it will be

A a) 100 eV
I b) 100 joules
c) (100)1.2 eV
C d) (100)1.2 Joules
T
E
Page 2 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 7. Which of the following has highest conductivity?

a) Silver
I b) Aluminium
c) Tungsten
C d) Platinum
T 8. In photo electric emission the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is proportional to
a) f
E
b) f
c) f 2
d) f 3
9. The temperature of cathode is increased from 2500K to 2600K. The increase in thermionic
A
emission current is about
I a) 0.1%
b) 4%
C c) 50%
d) 150%
T
10. A reverse voltage of 18V is applied to a semiconductor diode. The voltage across the
E
depletion layer is,
a) 0 V
b) 0.7 V
c) About 10 V
d) 18 V
A
11. Choose the correct statement:
I a) MOSFET is an uncontrolled device
b) MOSFET is a voltage controlled device
C c) MOSFET is a current controlled device
d) MOSFET is atemperature controlled device
T
E 12. It is required to trace the output characteristics of CE bipolar transistor on a CRO screen.
The proper method is
a) Apply the voltage drop across the collector resistance to Y input, disconnect sweep
generator and apply VCE to X input
b) Apply voltage drop across the collector resistance to Y input
c) Apply VCE to X input
A d) Apply VCE to Y input, disconnect sweep generator and apply voltage drop across
I collector resistance to X input.
13. Which of the below mentioned statements is false regarding Schottky diodes?
C
a) Schottky diodes have a Al-Silicon junction
T b) There is no storage of charges in a Schottky diode
c) The majority charge carriers in a Schottky diode are holes.
E d) Schottky diodes can be switched off faster than a p-n junction diode of the same rating
Page 3 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 14. Which of the following is used for generating time varying wave form?
a) MOSFET
I b) PIN Diode
c) Tunnel Diode
C d) UJT
T
15. In a solar cell, the photovoltaic voltages are the voltage at which the resultant current is
E a) Positive
b) Zero
c) Negative
d) Rated current
16. Which is beta current ratio in a bipolar junction transistor?

A a) IB/IE
b) IC/IE
I
c) IC/IB
C d) IE/IB
T 17. In a 741 OP-amp, there is 20 dB/decade fall-off starting at a relatively low frequency. This
is due to
E a) applied load
b) internal compensation
c) impedance of the source
d) power dissipation in the chip
A 18. In standard TTL, the 'totem pole' stage refers to

a) the multi-emitter I/P stage
I b) phase splitter
c) the O/P buffer
C d) open collector O/P stage
T
19. If 100 V is the peak voltage across the secondary of the transformer in a half-wave rectifier
E (without any filter circuit), then the maximum voltage on the reverse-biased diode is
a) 200 V
b) 141.4 V
c) 100 V
d) 86 V
A 20. Hall's effect can be used to measure
I a) magnetic field intensity
b) average number of holes
C c) carriers concentration
d) electrostatic field intensity
T
E
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A 21. The system in the given figure, has
I
C
T
E
a) good gain and phase margin

b) poor gain and phase margin
c) good gain margin but poor phase margin
A d) poor gain margin but good phase margin
I 22. In a minimum phase system

a) all poles lie in the left half plane
C b) all zeros lie in the left half plane
T c) all poles lie in the right half plane
d) all except one pole or zero lie in the left half plane
E
23. Gibb’s phenomenon is a problem of __________ filter.
a) FIR
b) IIR
c) Both a) and b)
A
24. A negative feedback system has
I
The closed loop system is stable for
C a) K > 20
b) 15 < K < 19
T
c) 8 ≤ K ≤ 14
E d) K < 6
1
25. In Bode diagram (log magnitude plot) the factor in the transfer function gives a line
j
having slope
a) -20 dB per octave
A b) -10 dB per octave
c) -6 dB per octave
I d) -2 dB per octave
C
T
E
Page 5 of 21
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A 26. For type 2 system, the magnitude and phase angle of the term (jω)2 in the denominator, at ω
= 0, are respectively
I a) 0 and - 90°
b) 0 and + 90°
C c) infinity and - 180°
d) infinity and + 180°
T
E 27. Which of the following is not correct for a filter?
a) Filter has always ideal amplitude response
b) Filter has always ideal frequency response
c) Filter has always ideal frequency & amplitude response
d) All of the above
A 28. The compensator of the given figure is a

I
C
T
E
a) lag compensator
b) lead compensator
c) lag-lead compensator
A
29. For the transport lag G(jω) = e-jωT, the magnitude is always equal to
I a) 0
C b) 1
c) 10
T d) 0.5
E 30. The log magnitude curve for a constant gain K is a

a) horizontal straight line
b) horizontal straight line of magnitude 20 log K decibels
c) an inclined line having slope K
d) an inclined line having slope –K
A
31. Assertion (A): The steady state response, of a stable, linear, time invariant system, to
I sinusoidal input depends on initial conditions.
Reason (R): Frequency response, in steady state, is obtained by replacing s in the transfer
C function by jω
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
T
b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
E c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) R is correct but A is wrong
Page 6 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 32. When a unit step voltage drives a lag network the output
a) remains constant at unit step value
I b) increases exponentially from zero to final value
c) decreases exponentially from 1 to 0
C d) either b) or c) depending on values of R and C
T
33. A system has its two poles on the negative real axis and one pair of poles lies on jω axis.
E The system is
a) stable
b) unstable
c) limitedly stable
d) either (a) or (c)
A 34. In a two phase ac servomotor rotor resistance is R and rotor reactance is X. The speed curve
will be linear if
I
X
a)  1
C R
X
T b)  1
R
E X
c) 1
R
d) X2 = R
35. From the noise point of view, bandwidth should be

a) large
A b) small
c) infinite
C 36. If a system is to follow arbitrary inputs accurately, the bandwidth should be
T a) large
b) small
E c) very small
d) neither small nor large
37. Assertion (A): Potentiometers cannot be used as error detectors in position control systems.
Reason (R): The resolution of a potentiometer places an upper limit on its accuracy
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
A b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
I
d) R is correct but A is wrong
C
38. Which of the following best defines Nyquist frequency?
T a) The frequency of resonance for the filtering circuit
b) The second harmonic
E c) The lower frequency limit of sampling
d) The highest frequency component of a given analog signal
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 39. Which is not an A/D conversion error?

a) Differential nonlinearity
I b) Missing code
c) Incorrect code
C d) Offset
T
40. What is the result of taking more samples during the quantization process?
E a) More errors in the analog-to-digital conversion
b) More bit requirements
c) More accurate signal representation
d) More bit requirements and more accurate signal representation
41. Delta Modulation uses _____ bits per sample.

A a) One
b) Two
I
c) Four
C d) Eight
T 42. Adaptive DPCM is used to

a) Increase Bandwidth
E b) Decrease Bandwidth
c) Increase SNR
43. In a digital reproduction of an analog curve, accuracy can be increased by ________.

a) sampling the curve more often
A
b) sampling the curve less often
I c) decreasing the number of bits used to represent each sampled value
d) all of the above
C
44. The name minimum phase shift keying implies minimum_____________.
T a) Frequency separation
E b) Amplitude separation
c) Phase change
d) Amplitude deviation
45. Which of the following is incorrect?

The advantages of GMSK are
A a) Improved spectral efficiency
b) Low battery/power consumption
I c) Resilient to noise
T
E
Page 8 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 46. For a error free channel, conditional probability should be

a) Zero
I b) One
c) Equal to joint probability
C d) Equal to individual probability
T
47. The dual-slope analog-to-digital converter finds extensive use in ________.
E a) digital voltmeters
b) function generators
c) frequency counters
d) all of the above
48. Which term applies to the maintaining of a given signal level until the next sampling?
A a) Holding
b) Aliasing
I
c) Shannon frequency sampling
C d) Stair-stepping
T 49. The frequency shifts in the BFSK usually lies in the range
a) 50 to 1000 Hz
E b) 100 to 2000 Hz
c) 200 to 500 Hz
d) 500 to 1000 Hz
50. The binary waveform used to generate BPSK signal is encoded in

A a) Bipolar NRZ format
b) Manchester coding
I c) Differential coding
C
51. In Binary Phase Shift Keying system, the binary symbols 1 and 0 are represented by carrier
T
with phase shift of
E a) Π/2
b) Π
c) 2Π
52. Coherent detection of binary ASK signal requires

A a) Phase synchronization
I b) Timing synchronization
c) Amplitude synchronization
C d) Both a) and b)
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 53. ASK modulated signal has the bandwidth

a) Same as the bandwidth of baseband signal
I b) Half the bandwidth of baseband signal
c) Double the bandwidth of baseband signal
T
54. Orthonormal set is a set of all vectors that are
E a) Mutually orthonormal and are of unit length
b) Mutually orthonormal and of null length
c) Both a)& b)
55. The transmission bandwidth of the raised cosine spectrum is given by

A a) Bt = 2w(1 + α)
b) Bt = w(1 + α)
I
c) Bt = 2w(1 + 2α)
C d) Bt = 2w(2 + α)
T 56. Zero forced equalizers are used for

a) Reducing ISI to zero
E b) Sampling
c) Quantization
57. The difficulty in achieving the Nyquist criterion for system design is
A a) There are abrupt transitions obtained at edges of the bands
b) Bandwidth criterion is not easily achieved
I c) Filters are not available
C
58. Roll off factor is defined as
T
a) The bandwidth occupied beyond the Nyquist Bandwidth of the filter
E b) The performance of the filter or device
c) Aliasing effect
59. The criterion used for pulse shaping to avoid ISI is

a) Nyquist criterion
A b) Quantization
I c) Sample and hold
d) PLL
C
60. The number of bits of data transmitted per second is called
T a) Data signalling rate
b) Modulation rate
E c) Coding
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 61. For a noise to be white Gaussian noise, the optimum filter is known as
a) Low pass filter
I b) Base band filter
c) Matched filter
C d) Bessel filter
T
62. The interference caused by the adjacent pulses in digital transmission is called
E a) Inter symbol interference
b) White noise
c) Image frequency interference
d) Transit time noise
63. Advantages of using Alternate Mark inversion (AMI) encoding in digital communication is
A a) Needs least power as due to opposite polarity
b) Prevents build-up of DC
I
c) May be used for longer distance
T 64. For M equally likely messages, M>>1, if the rate of information R ≤ C, the probability of
error is
E a) Arbitrarily small
b) Close to unity
c) Not predictable
d) Unknown
A 65. Run Length Encoding is used for

a) Reducing the repeated string of characters
I b) Bit error correction
c) Correction of error in multiple bits
T
66. Which among the following is/are responsible for the occurrence of ‘Delay Faults’?
E a) Variations in circuit delays & clock skews
b) Improper estimation of on-chip interconnect & routing delays
c) Aging effects & opens in metal lines connecting parallel transistors
d) All of the above
67. According to the principle of current mirror, if gate-source potentials of two identical MOS
A transistors are equal, then the channel currents should be _______
I a) Equal
b) Different
C c) Both a) and b)
T
E
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A 68. In accordance to the scaling technology, the total delay of the logic circuit depends on
______
I a) The capacitor to be charged
b) The voltage through which capacitance must be charged
C c) Available current
d) All of the above
T
E 69. In CMOS circuits, which type of power dissipation occurs due to switching of transient
current and charging & discharging of load capacitance?
a) Static dissipation
b) Dynamic dissipation
c) Both a) and b)
A
70. Which factor(s) plays a crucial role in determining the speed of CMOS logic gate?
I
a) Load capacitance
C b) Supply voltage
c) Gain factor of MOS
E 71. In a chip, which type(s) of pad design is/are adopted to solve the problem of pin count?
a) Input pad design
b) Output pad design
c) Three state pad design
d) All of the above
A
72. Viterbi algorithm performs _________ decoding of convolution codes
I a) Maximum likelihood
b) Maximum a posteriori
C c) Minimum square
d) Minimum mean square
T
E 73. Which type of CPLD packaging comprises pins on all four sides that wrap around the edges
of chip?
a) Plastic-Leaded Chip Carrier (PLCC)
b) Quad Flat Pack (QFP)
c) Ceramic Pin Grid Array (PGA)
d) Ball Grid Array (BGA)
A
I 74. If a port is declared as buffer, then which problem is generated in hierarchical design due to
mapping with port of buffer mode of other entities only?
C a) Structural Modelling
b) Functional Modelling
T c) Behavioral Modelling
d) Data Flow Modelling
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A
75. What is/are the necessity/ies of Simulation Process in VHDL?
I a) Requirement to test designs before implementation & usage
b) Reduction of development time
C c) Decrease the time to market
d) All of the above
T
E 76. A 10 km long line has a characteristics impedance of 400 ohms. A line length is 100 km, the
characteristic impedance is
a) 4000 ohms
b) 400 ohms
c) 40 ohms
d) 4 ohms
A
77. When the channel is noisy, producing a conditional probability of error p=0.5; the channel
I
capacity and entropy function would be respectively.
C a) 1 and 1
b) 1 and 0.5
T c) 0.5 and 1
d) 0 and 1
E
78. The code in convolution coding is generated using
a) EX-0R logic
b) AND logic
c) OR logic
I 79. In microwave detector used in laboratory measurement of relative power levels, standing
wave ratio is about
C a) 0.1
b) 1.25
T
c) 5
E d) 10
80. Hollow waveguide is used as the transmission lines at frequencies

a) Above 1 GHz
b) Above 5 GHz
c) Above 10 GHz
A d) Above 1 MHz
I
C
T
E
Page 13 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A
I
81. In a bipolar junction transistor  dc  0.98, I OC  2 A and I B  15 A . The collector current Ic
C
is
T a) 635mA
b) 735 mA
E c) 835mA
d) 935mA
82. A sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 x 108/cm2 at 300 K. If the
intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 x 1013/cm3 at this temperature, the
hole density works out to be
A
a) 106/cm3
I b) 108/cm3
c) 1010/cm3
C d) 10l2/cm3
T 83. The Hall constant of silicon bar is given by 5 x 103 cm3/coulomb, the hole concentration in
E the bar is given by
a) 105 /cm3
b) 1.25x1015 /cm3
c) 1.5x1015 /cm3
d) 1.6x1015 /cm3
A 84. Determine the transistor capacitance of a diffused junction varicap diode of a reverse
potential of 4.2 V if C(0)=80 pf and VT=0.7V
I a) 42 pf
C b) 153.03 pf
c) 13.33 pf
T d) Data inadequate
E 85. Two identical silicon diodes D1 and D2 are connected back to back shown in figure. The
reverse saturation current Is of each diode is 10-8 amps. And the break down voltage Vbr is
50 volt. Determine the voltage VD1 and VD2 dropped across the diodes D1 and D2 assuming
KT/q to be 25 mV.
A
I
C
T
a) 4.983V, 0.017V
E b) -4.98V, -0.017 V
c) 0.17V, 4.983V
Page 14 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A d) -0.17V, -4.983V
86. The mean free path of conduction electrons in copper is about 4x10-8m. For a copper block,
I find the electric field which can give, on an average, 1eV energy to a conduction electron
a) 2.62 x 107 V/m
C b) 2.64 x 107 V/m
c) 2.5 x 107 V/m
T
d) 2.58 x 107 V/m
E
87. The static characteristics of an adequately forward biased P-N junction is a straight line, if
the plot is of _______ .
a) Log I Vs log V
b) Log I vs V
c) I vs Log V
A d) I vs V
I
88. In the given figure a silicon diode is carrying a constant current of 1mA. When the
C temperature of the diode is 20 oC, VD is found to be 700 mV. If the temperature rises to 40
o
C, VD becomes approximately equalsto
T
E
a) 747 mV
A b) 660 mV
c) 680 mV
I d) 700 mV
C
89. An n type silicon bar 0.1 cm long and 100  m 2 in cross sectional area has a majority carrier
T concentration of 5 x 1020/ m3 and the carrier mobility is 0.13 m2/v-s at 300 K. If the charge
of an electron is 1.6 x 10-19 coulomb, then the resistance of the bar is
E a) 106 ohm
b) 104 ohm
c) 10-1 ohm
d) 10-4 ohm
A 90. The intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon sample at 300 k is 1.5 x 1016 /m3. If after
doping, the number of majority carrier is 5 x 1020/m3. The minority carrier density is
I a) 4.5 x 1011 /m3
b) 3.33 x 104 /m3
C c) 5 x 1020 /m3
T d) 3 x 10-5/m3
Page 15 of 21
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A 91. Calculate the stability factor and change in Ic from 25 oC to 100 o

C for,
  50, RB / RE  250, I CO  19.9nA for emitter based configuration.
I a) 42.53,0.85  A
C b) 40.91, 0.58  A
c) 40.92, 0.59  A
T d) 41.10, 0.39  A
E 92. A transistor has a current gain of 0.99 in the CB mode. Its current gain in the CC mode is
a) 100
b) 99
c) 1.01
d) 0.99
V
A 93. For the circuit in the given figure, o 
Vi
I
C
T
E
a)
b)
A
I c)
C
d)
T
94. For the given figure C(s)/R(s)
E
A
I
a)
C
b)
T
E c)
d)
Page 16 of 21
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A 95. In the given figure, the input frequency is such that R = XC. Then
I
C
T
E
a) V0 lags Vi by 45°
b) V0 lags Vi by 90°
c) V0 leads Vi by 45°
d) V0 leads Vi by 90°
A 96. For the system of the given figure, the damping ratio of closed loop poles is
I
C
T
E
a) 1.5
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0.25
A 97. The discrete time signal x(n) is said to be energy signal if its energy ‘E’ is
I a) Zero
b) Maximum
C c) Finite
d) Infinite
T
98. z-transform of sequence
E X(n) = {1, 2, 5, 7, 0, 1}
a) X(z) = 1z+2z2+5z3+7z4+z6
b) X(z)= 1+2z-1+5z-2+7z-3+z-5
A
c) X(z)= 1+2z+5z2+7z3+z5
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 21
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A 99. If a and b are width and height of the rectangular waveguide, the cut-off wave length c for
TE20 mode is equal to
I
a) a
C b) a+b
c) a-b
T d) a 2  b2
E
100. If  r is relative permeability,  r is relative permittivity, c is velocity of light, f c is the cut-
off frequency, phase velocity v p of a rectangular waveguide at frequency f is given by
c / r r
a) v p 
A 1  ( fc / f )2
c / r  r
I b) v p 
1  ( f / fc )2
C
c
c) v p 
T 1  ( fc / f )2
E c
d) v p 
1  ( f / fc )2
101. To ensure that only dominant mode TE10 is allowed to propagate in an air filled rectangular
waveguide, the lower frequency limit and upper frequency limit are
A a) About 25% above f c for TE10 and 5% below f c for TE20 mode respectively
I b) About 50% above f c for TE10 and 25% below f c for TE20 mode respectively
c) About 25% below f c for TE10 and 5% above f c for TE20 mode respectively
C
T
102. A transmission line has Z 0 =300  and Z L  (300  j300) ohm. The transmission
E coefficient is
a) 1.265  18.43o
b) 1.01  10o
c) 1.14  66.68o
d) 1.09  66.68o
A
I 103. Convolution of two discrete signals x1(n) and x2 (n) in time domain is equivalent to
______in frequency domain
C a) Addition
b) Subtraction
T c) Multiplication
d) Division
E
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A 104. A TE10 rectangular waveguide is to be designed for operation over 25-35 GHz and band
centre is 1.5 times the cut-off frequency. The dimension of broad side is
I a) 15 mm
b) 10mm
C
c) 9 mm
T d) 7.5 mm
E 105. A 75 ohm line is first short terminated and mimima locations are noted. Then the short is
replaced by resistive load and minima locations are again noted. If minima location are not
altered and VSWR is 3, the value of resistive load is
a) 25 
b) 50 
c) 225 
A
d) 250 
I
106. Figure shows a 10dB directional coupler. If power input at port 1 is 100 mW, power output
C at port 3 is
T
E
A
I
a) 10 mW
C b) 15 mW
T c) 20 mW
d) 25 mW
E
107. A circular waveguide carries TE11 mode Whole radial electric field is given by
Er  E0 j (r )sin  V/m. Where, r is the radial distance in cm from the axis. The cut-off
wavelength is
a) 10cm
A b) 3π cm
c) 2π cm
I d) 8 cm
C 108. In a Gunn diode oscillator drift velocity of electron is 107 cm/s and active region length is
10x 10-4 cm. The natural frequency of oscillation is
T a) 1MHz
b) 10MHz
E c) 1GHz
d) 10GHz
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A 109. A line excited by a 100 V, 200 ohm source and is terminated by 100 ohm resistance. If the
voltage on line reaches steady value in 80ns, the natural resonant frequency is
I a) 100MHz
b) 50MHz
C c) 12.5MHz
d) 6.25MHz
T
E 110. A coaxial line has L=500 nHz/m and c=50pF/m. The characteristics impedance is
a) 500 ohm
b) 250 ohm
c) 100 ohm
d) 50 ohm
A 111. For a 50-ohm resistor for 3 GHz application, the stray capacitance should be less than
a. 1  F
I
b. 1 nF
C c. 1 pF
d. 0.1 pF
T
E 112. A resistive microwave load with Z L  150 is connected to 50  coaxial line. SWR is
a) More than 3
b) Less than 3
c) Equal to 3
d) Either a) or c).
A
113. In directional coupler of below figure, the terms S14 and S 23 of scattering matrix are
I nearly
C
T
E
A a) 1 each
I b) 0.5 each
c) 0.1 each
C d) 1 and 0.5 respectively
T 114. In a multi cavity klystron amplifier the electron velocity is of the order of
a) 10 m/s
E b) 103 m/s
c) 106 m/s
Page 20 of 21
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A d) 1012 m/s
115. In a magnetron, magnetic flux density is of the order of
I a) 1 mWb/s
b) 1 Wb/m2
C c) 106 m/s
d) 1012 m/s
T
E 116. If S represents the carrier synchronization at the receiver and r represents the bandwidth
efficiency, then the correct statement for the coherent binary PSK is
a) r = 0.5, S is required
b) r = 1.0, S is required
c) r = 0.5, S is not required
d) r = 1.0, S is not required
A
117. The process by which Aluminium is grown over the entire wafer, also filling the contact
I
cuts is
C a) sputtering
b) chemical vapour deposition
T c) epitaxial growth
d) ion implantation
E
118. Discrete Fourier transform (DFT) possess which of the following properties.
a) Periodicity
b) Linearity
c) Symmetry
I 119. Multiplication of the DFTs of two sequences is equivalent to the ______________ of the
two sequences in the time domain
C a) Auto correlation
b) Circular convolution
T
c) Correlation
120. i) FFT algorithm is used for linear filtering, correlation and spectrum analysis
ii) FFT algorithm is used as an efficient means to compute the DFT and IDFT.
Which of thefollowing is correct?
a) (i) is False (ii) is False
A b) (i) is False (ii) is True
I c) (i) is True (ii) is False
d) (i) is True (ii) is True
C
T
E
Page 21 of 21
UG2EC E20
ANSWER KEY
Subject: Electronics & Communication Engg.
Paper: 2
1. d 63. d
2. b 64. a
3. c 65. a
4. d 66. d
5. a 67. a
6. a 68. d
7. a 69. b
8. b 70. d
9. d 71. c
10. d 72. a
11. b 73. a
12. a 74. a
13. c 75. d
14. d 76. b
15. b 77. d
16. c 78. a
17. d 79. b
18. c 80. a
19. b 81. b
20. a 82. b
21. d 83. b
22. b 84. a
23. a 85. b
24. d 86. c
25. c 87. b
26. c 88. a
27. d 89. c
28. b 90. a
29. b 91. a
30. b 92. a
31. d 93. c
32. b 94. a
33. c 95. a
34. a 96. c
35. b 97. c
36. a 98. b
37. d 99. d
38. d 100. d
39. a 101. a
40. d 102. a
41. a 103. c
42. b 104. d
43. a 105. c
44. a 106. a
45. d 107. a
46. a 108. c
47. d 109. c
48. a 110. c
49. a 111. d
50. a 112. c
51. b 113. a
52. d 114. b
53. a 115. a
54. a 116. d
55. a 117. a
56. a 118. d
57. a 119. b
58. a 120. d
59. a
60. a
61. c
62. a

UG Question Papers &amp; Answer Keys 17.01.2019

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UG Question Papers &amp; Answer Keys 17.01.2019

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ROLL NO.

PART-A (70 X 1= 70 Marks)

5. This military airplane of IAF is also termed as DPSA

8. The relationship between the elastic constants E, G and K is given by

9. Stress acting on an arbitrary plan under arbitrary loading is

T 15. An airplane is airborne under the principle of

31. Stream function is not defined for

34. If a complex potential function is defined as W = ɸ + iѱ

36. One distinct advantage of thin airfoiltheory is that it

C 37. The equation of conservation of momentum for a viscous,unsteady incompressible

u=v=0 and y = ∞ , u = 0.99𝑈∞

41. Supersonic flows withrapidly varying density gradients can be visualized by

46. The parameter 𝑀∗ in nozzle flow is defined as the ratio

51. If the drag Polar of an airplane is given by 𝐶𝐷 = 4𝐶𝑑𝑜 , then it represents

C 52. The effect of increasing Reynolds number results in the increase of

53. The lift-off distance of an airplane is directly proportional to

57. The relationship between 𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑝 and𝐶𝐿𝑚𝑑 (usual rotation) is given by

58. The terminal velocity of an airplane is

59. The relationship of 𝛼𝑡 , 𝛼𝑤 , 𝜖 , 𝑖𝑡 , 𝑖𝑤 (usual notation in longitudinal dynamics of

A 61. As an airplane approaches the runway,

63. The tendency to re-establish the equilibrium position 𝐶𝐿 𝑉 2 = 𝐾 is known as

C 67. A flying wing will require (usual notation)

PART-B (30 X 2= 60 Marks)

77. A simple suggestion to the airplane designers for improving 𝐶𝑚𝛿 is to

82. One method of controllingboundary layer separation on an airplane wing

84. Skin friction in aturbulent boundary layer is higher in comparison withthat in a

87. The velocity of sound a, at the stagnation temperature is given by

89. The Rayleigh Pitot formula is given by

90. The pressure coefficient 𝐶𝑃 for compressible fluid flow is given by

91. Shock strength of a normal shock wave (usual notation) is given by

97. The effect of jet exhaust on airplane’s state longitudinal stability is

100. Inter- crystalline corrosion of aircraft materials results in

104. If u  tan 1 y / x then xux  yu y is equal to

105. The absolute maximum and minimum values respectively for 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥 4 − 8 on

107. Family of curves y = m2x + m6 is represented by the differential equation ofdegree

109. Abagcontains30ballsnumberedfrom1to30. One ball is drawn at random. Then the

111. The system of equations x + y = 2 and 2x + λy= µ has unique solution,if

116. The partial differential equation 4𝑈𝑥𝑥 + 3𝑈𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑈𝑦𝑦 + 𝑥𝑈𝑦 = 0 is

118. Value of 𝑏𝑛 in the Fourier series expansion of the

QUESTION No. Ans 61 a

v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use

A PART-A (80 X 1= 80 Marks)

2. Wherever the bending moment is maximum, shear force is

8. For an isotropic elastic material, the number of independent elastic constants is

14. Slenderness of a column is the ratio of its

C 15. For a long column, the slenderness ratio is more than

16. Failure of long columns occur due to

20. Euler’s theory of buckling is valid for

22. Maximum slope of a cantilever having u.d.l. of w(usual notation)

23. A plane frame structure is a system having

35. ----------------------- deformation in a structural member of an airplane under constant

40. Torsional rigidity of a solid shaft is given by (usual notation in SOM)

43. Neutral axis in abeam carries __________ bending stresses

A 57. Pressure rise in a Ram Jet engine is achieved by

61. The phenomenon of surge creates damage to the

65. _______ is the most difficult component of a Ram jet to designed

67. MiG - 21 airplane has ________________ of air intakes

69. A turbo-prop engine is used in airplanes for

A 75. The aeroelastic design of an airplane focuses on its

A 86. Maximum BM in a cantilever beam with u.d.l.of wis

87. In a pure tension field beam, the web

C 88. Castigliano’s theorem is a consequence of

92. In a turbojetengine, compared to the momentum thrust, the pressure thrust is

96. A good deal of the jet engine noise comes from

UG Question Papers & Answer Keys 17.01.2019

UG Question Papers & Answer Keys 17.01.2019