Roll No.

: Test Date: 16/02/2014

Centre Code: Test Booklet Code C

TEST No. 8

AKASH TE
A ST
IA for
D

SE
IN

RI
JEE (Main)-2015
ALL

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball point PEN to darken
the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page is
missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
ES
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,
the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section – I : Straight Objective Type Questions
Section – II : Assertion – Reason Type Questions
 Test No. 8

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Complete Syllabus of Class XI

Test - 8 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015

Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360

TEST - 8

PART - A (PHYSICS)

3. A bus is 2 m long and 3 m wide. The bus moves on a

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Choose the correct answer :
1. A motor boat travels across a river from a point A to
point B on the opposite bank along the line AB
making an angle  with the direction of flow of the
river. The flag on the mast of the motor boat makes
straight road with speed 10 m/s. A bullet hits it in a
direction making an angle 37° with the direction of
motion of bus as observed from road. The bullet enters
the one edge and comes out from diagonally opposite
edge as shown in the figure. Then time taken by the
bullet to cross the bus and speed of bullet are
respectively

3m
an angle  with direction of motion. Find the speed 10 m/s
of motor boat with respect to ground. Assuming
velocity of wind is u perpendicular to the stream.
⎤
2m
⎡
⎢ Assume   2 ⎥ (1) 2 s, 20 m/s (2) 1 s, 25 m/s
⎣ ⎦
⎛ ⎞ (3) 0.2 s, 25 m/s (4) 2 s, 15 m/s
u sin ⎜     ⎟
u cos(  ) ⎝ 2⎠ 4. A block of mass m rests on a bracket of mass M as
(1) (2)
sin  sin  shown. The coefficient of friction between the masses
M and m is s. The bracket rests on a smooth horizontal
u sin  u sin      surface. The maximum force F that can be applied on
(3) (4)
cos(  ) cos  the system for no relative motion between m and M is
2. Two intersecting straight lines move translationally,
perpendicular to their orientation with speed v1 and F
v2. If the lines are orthogonal to each other, the =0 m
speed of the point of intersection is M
v12  v 22 s Mg (m  M ) s mg
(1) v12  v 22 (2) (1) (2)
2 (M  2m ) (M  m)
v12  v 22 s Mg s mg (M  m)
(3) (4) v12  v 22  v1v 2 (3) (4)
2 (M  m ) (M  2m )

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015 Test - 8
5. A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a (1) 1.6 m/s up (2) 1.6 m/s down
velocity v along the straight line AB. If the angular (3) 1.2 m/s down (4) 1.2 m/s up
momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is
LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B, then 8. The figure shows a uniform cylinder of radius a and
weight 75 N. After drilling a cylindrical cavity in the
Y
cylinder, weight of remaining body is 60 N. The axis
A of cavity is parallel to that of solid cylinder. For
B
equilibrium of body, tension in the string must be
T
O X
(1) LA > LB
2a Rough
(2) LA = LB 3
(3) The relationship between LA and LB depends
(1) 2 N (2) 15 N
upon the slope of the line AB
(3) 5 N (4) 20 N
(4) LA < LB
9. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a wedge of mass
6. A particle of mass 1 kg is given a velocity 2 m/s
9 kg. A force of 210 N is applied on the wedge as
along positive x-axis at origin. A variable force is to
shown in figure. The time after which block leaves
act on particle given by F = 2 – 3x, where x is
the contact with the wedge is [Neglect friction
position of particle along x-axis. If the force continues
everywhere]
to act, the range in which particle oscillates is
y
2 m/s
x
m = 1 kg 210 N 9 kg
45° 2 kg

2 2 4 4 10 m
(1) x  to x  (2) x  to x 
3 3 3 3 1
(1) 2 s (2) s
2 2
(3) x  to x  2 (4) x = –6 to x = +6
3 (3) 2s (4) 4 s
7. At a certain instant block A has a downward velocity
10. Two rods of different materials having coefficients of
of 0.8 m/s. At this instant, velocity of block B is
thermal expansions 1 and 2 and Young's moduli
Y1 and Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid
walls. The rods are heated such that they undergo
the same increase in temperature. There is no
1 2
bending of rods. If  and stresses developed
2 3
Y1
in the two rods are equal, then is
A B Y2

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Test - 8 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015

3 16. A wire of area of cross-section 10–6 m2 is stretched to

(1) (2) 1 increase its length by 0.1%. The tension produced in
2
the wire is 1000 N. The Young's modulus of wire is
2 1
(3) (4) (1) 1017 N/m2 (2) 1012 N/m2
3 2
11. 2 kg of ice at –20°C is mixed with 5 kg of water at (3) 109 N/m2 (4) 1010 N/m2
20°C in an insulating vessel having a negligible heat 17. When two progressive waves y1 = 4 sin(2x – 6t) and
capacity. Calculate the final mass of water remaining
⎛ ⎞
in the container. It is given that the specific heats of y 2  3 sin ⎜ 2x  6t  ⎟ are superimposed, the
water and ice are 1 kcal/kg/°C and 0.5 kcal/kg/°C ⎝ 2⎠
while the latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 kcal kg–1 amplitude of the resultant wave is
(1) 7 kg (2) 6 kg (1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 4 kg (4) 2 kg 5 1
(3) (4)
12. A solid sphere of uniform density is released from 3 2
rest on an inclined plane. If it falls through a height 18. Angular frequency of small oscillation of the system
7 m along the inclined plane without slipping. The shown in figure is [Given, there is no slipping
speed of sphere will be [g = 10 m/s2] between the string and pulley]
(1) 10 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) 15 m/s (4) 7.5 m/s
13. Six moles of O2 gas are heated from 20°C to 35°C at (I)
constant volume. If specific heat capacity at constant R
pressure is 8 cal mol–1K–1 and R = 8.31 Jmol–1K–1,
what is change in internal energy of gas ? k
m
(1) 180 cal (2) 300 cal
(3) 360 cal (4) 540 cal
I k
14. If a satellite is moving around a planet in an elliptical 2
m
orbit of semi-major axis a 0. The time period of (1) 2 R (2) m
I
revolution of satellite is k R2
2I
a03 2a03 m
(1) 2 (2)  2 I
GM GM (3) 2 R (4)  m
k R2
a03 a03 19. A hollow cylinder with both sides open generates a
(3)  (4) 
GM 2GM frequency v in air. When the cylinder vertically
15. A floating raft of mass 600 kg has 7 cm of thickness immersed into water by half its length the frequency
submerged in water. When a man stands on the will be
raft, 8.4 cm are submerged. The mass of man is (1) v (2) 2v
(1) 100 kg (2) 60 kg
v v
(3) 120 kg (4) 80 kg (3) (4)
2 4

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015 Test - 8

20. A sound source is moving towards stationary listener 24. A horizontal tube of length l closed at both ends
1 contains an ideal gas. The tube is rotated with
with th of the speed of sound. The ratio of constant angular velocity , as shown in figure.
10
apparent to real frequency is Assuming temperature to be uniform and constant
2
and n1 and n2 be number of molecules of gas per unit
⎛ 9 ⎞ 9 volume in the two regions as shown in figure. Which
(1) ⎜ ⎟ (2)
⎝ 10 ⎠ 10 of the following is correct?

11
2 
⎛ 11 ⎞
(3) (4) ⎜ ⎟
10 ⎝ 10 ⎠
n1 n2
21. If vs is the speed of sound in a diatomic gas and v0
is the rms speed of its molecule at same
temperature, which of the following is correct? (1) n1 > n2 (2) n2 > n1

(1) vs = 0.68v0 (3) n1 = n2 (4) Cannot be decided

(2) vs = 0.5v0 25. For an enclosure maintained at 2000 K, the

maximum radiation occurs at wavelength m. If the
(3) vs = 0.6v0
temperature is raised to 3000 K, the peak will shift
(4) vs = 0.75v0 to

22. A horizontal wire of length L and mass M is under (1) 0.5m (2) m
tension T. If mass density (linear) of the wire follows
the relation  = kX, where X is distance of point 2 3
(3) m (4) m
from one end of the rod, find the time taken by wave 3 2
pulse to reach from X = 0 to X = L.
SECTION - II
3 2ML 2 2ML Assertion – Reason Type Questions
(1) (2)
2 T 3 T
Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-
3 ML 2 ML Reason type questions. Each of these questions
(3) (4)
2 T 3 T contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
23. The value of initial temperature of an ideal gas Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
contained in a rigid container, such that increase in four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
temperature by 1°C results in a pressure increment answer. You have to select the correct choice.
of 0.4%, is
26. Statement-1 : Emissive power of a body is
(1) 250°C dimensionless quantity.
(2) 250 K and
(3) –17 K
Statement-2 : Absorptive power of a body is a
(4) 17°C dimensionless quantity.

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Test - 8
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
27. Statement-1 : If error in measurement of mass is 2%
and that in measurement of velocity is 5%, then error
in measurement of kinetic energy is 6%.
and
Statement-2 : Error in kinetic energy is
k m ⎛ v ⎞
  2⎜ ⎟.
k m ⎝ v ⎠
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
28. Statement-1 : Total energy of a satellite in an
elliptical path remains constant.
and
Statement-2 : Power delivered by gravitational force
is always zero in the elliptical path.
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
29. Statement-1 : Two row boats moving parallel to each
other and nearby are attracted towards each other.
and
Statement-2 : Increase in velocity of fluid flow
decreases pressure between them.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
30. Statement-1 : Sound waves cannot be polarised.
and
Statement-2 : Polarisation is shown by transverse
wave only.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015 Test - 8

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
34. Which one of the following isomers of PBr 2Cl 3
SECTION - I molecules has zero dipole moment?
Straight Objective Type Questions Cl Br
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), P
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (1)
Cl Cl
31. In a carbohydrate, hydrogen and oxygen are present Br
in the same ratio as they are present in water. Cl Cl
Carbohydrate is compound of carbon, hydrogen and
oxygen. If its molar mass is 180 g mole–1 and it
P
contains 60% carbon by mass, then what will be (2)
Br Cl
molecular formula of the carbohydrate?
Br
(1) C6H12O6 (2) C3H6O3 Br Cl
(3) C9H8O4 (4) C12H24O6
P
32. Alcohol level in blood can be determined by a redox (3)
titration, with dichromate solution in acidic medium Cl Br
according to the balanced equation Cl
Br Cl
C2H5OH(aq) + 2Cr2O72–(aq) + 16H+(aq) 
2CO2(g) + 4Cr3+(aq) + 11H2O(l)
P
9.0 mL of 0.04 M Cr2O72– solution is required for (4)
Cl Br
titration of a 20 mg sample of blood, then what is
the percentage level of alcohol present in blood? Cl
35. Which of the following statements is not correct
(1) 41.4% (2) 20.7% regarding first law of thermodynamics?

(3) 82.8% (4) 33.33% (1) The total energy of the universe is constant
(2) The total energy of an isolated system remains
33. The pH of 0.04 M aqueous solution of dimethylamine constant
is 12. What is the value of Kb of dimethylamine (3) Whenever a certain quantity of one kind of
under the given conditions? energy is displaced, another type of energy will
appear in same quantity
(1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 2.5 × 10–3
(4) It is possible to construct a perpetual machine
(3) 3.33 × 10–3 (4) 4 × 10–3 which could produce work without releasing heat

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Test - 8 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015

36. 120 mL of buffer of pH 8.56 is to be prepared by 40. Certain sample of water was found to contain
mixing 0.10 M NH4OH and 0.25 M NH4Cl. If pKb of 68 ppm of CaSO4 and 19 ppm of MgCl2. Then what
NH4OH is 4.74, calculate the volume of NH 4OH will be the total hardness of water in terms of ppm
solution required. [Use log 5 = 0.7] of CaCO3?
(1) 50 mL (1) 87 ppm (2) 49 ppm
(2) 40 mL (3) 70 ppm (4) 80 ppm
(3) 30 mL 41. Water (hydrane) is a type of solvent
(4) 20 mL (1) Protophilic solvent (2) Protogenic solvent
37. Glass is a solid solution, which is an optically (3) Amphiprotic solvent (4) All of these
transparent fusion product of inorganic materials. The
42. Which is the correct increasing order of the energy
colour of glass is due to presence of metal ions.
of hybrid orbital of the central atom?
Then which of the following is not correct match?
(1) [PCl6]– < [PCl4]+ < NH4+ < SO2 < CO2
Column-I Column-II
Colour of glass Metal oxide (2) CO2 > SO2 > NH4+ > [PCl4]+ > [PCl6]–
(1) Green Fe2O3 (3) CO2 < SO2 < NH4+ < [PCl6]– < [PCl4]+
(2) Yellow Na2O2 (4) CO2 < SO2 < NH4+ < [PCl4]+ < [PCl6]–
(3) Blue CuO 43. The correct relationship among the following pairs of
(4) Red Colloidal Au, Cu given compound is

38. Boron and silicon both have similarity due to O O

I.
diagonal relationship, then which of the following is O O
not true for them?
O
(1) Both are semi-conductor O
II. O
(2) As borate, silicates have tetrahedral structural O
unit
O
(3) Both can dissolve in cold dilute acid O
III. O
(4) Borides and silicides can be hydrolysed by H2O O
39. Which one of the following processes can be used Column-I Column-II
for removing both types of hardnesses of water? (I, II) (II, III)
(1) Permutit process (1) Functional isomers Metamers
(2) Washing soda process (2) Metamers Functional isomers
(3) Clark's process (3) Metamers Metamers
(4) Calgon process (4) Functional isomers Functional isomers

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015 Test - 8
44. Which one is incorrect pair of degree of unsaturation (1) 4 (2) 3
(DU) with the structure?
(3) 2 (4) 1
Column-I Column-II
Compound Degree of 47. A conjugated alkadiene having molecular formula
unsaturation C13H22 on ozonolysis gives butanone, ethanedial and
cyclohexane carbaldehyde. Which of the following is
(1) 3 the correct structural formula of the alkadiene?

CH3 H CH3
(1) C = CH – CH = C
H3C – CH – CH2 – C = CH2 CH3 – CH2
(2) 4
H3C H
(2) C = CH – CH = C
H3C – CH2

(3) 5
H3C
(3) C – CH = CH – CH2
CH2 – CH2 – CH3 CH3 – CH
(4) 2
CH3 H
45. Which of the following is most stable? (4) CH – CH = CH – C
CHO CHO H3C – CH2

H NH2 H H
48. The two equilibria,
(1) (2) H H
H H 
  
 A (aq)  B (aq)
AB(aq) 
H NH2
and AB(aq)  B (aq) 

 
 AB 2 (aq)
CHO CHO
NH2 H are simultaneously maintained in a solution with
equilibrium constants K1 and K2 respectively. The
(3) H (4) H ratio of concentration of A+ to AB2– in the solution is
H H H H (1) Directly proportional to the concentration of B
H NH2
46. How many isomeric alkynes will produce (2) Inversely proportional to the concentration of B
3-chloro-3-ethylpentane in the following sequence of
(3) Directly proportional to the square of the
reactions?
concentration of B
Catalytic Photochemical
Alkynes    
Hydrogenation Chlorination (4) Inversely proportional to the square of the
3-chloro-3-ethylpentane concentration of B

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Test - 8 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015

49. The equilibrium constant for the reaction, 53. 10 mL of 10–6 M HCl solution is mixed with 90 mL
H2O. pH will change approximately by


H3BO3 + Glycerine 
(H3BO3 + Glycerine complex) (1) 1 unit (2) 0.3 unit

is 0.90. How much glycerine should be added to (3) 0.8 unit (4) 0.1 unit
one litre of 0.10 M H3BO3 solution, so that 60% of 54. 280 mmol of a perfect gas occupies 12.7 L at
the H 3BO 3 is converted to boric acid-glycerine 310 K. Calculate the work done when the gas
complex? expands isothermally and reversibly against a
(1) 1.67 m (2) 1.73 m constant external pressure of 0.25 atm until its
volume has increased by 3.3 L. [log101.26 = 0.1004]
(3) 3.73 m (4) 3.23 m
(1) 166.9 J
50. Consider the arrangement of bulbs shown below at
300 K temperature. (2) –166.9 J
(3) –266.9 J
1.0 L N2 1.0 L N2 0.5 L H2 (4) 266.9 J
635 mm 212 mm 418 mm
55. Which of the following disease is directly due to
pollutants?
What is the pressure in atm of the system when all (1) Pneumoconiosis
the stopcocks are opened?
(2) AIDS
(1) 13.65 atm (2) 56 atm
(3) Pneumonia
(3) 0.56 atm (4) 0.65 atm
(4) Malaria
51. The correct order of normal boiling points of O2, N2,
NH3 and CH4 for which the values of van der Waal's
SECTION - II
constant 'a' are 1.360, 1.390, 4.170 and 2.253 L2 atm
mol–2 respectively, is Assertion – Reason Type Questions

(1) O2 < N2 < NH3 < CH4 (2) NH3 < CH4 < O2 < N2
(3) NH3 < CH4 < N2 < O2 (4) O2 < N2 < CH4 < NH3
52. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) pH of an acidic buffer decreases if less salt is
added
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion-
Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.

(2) pOH of a basic buffer decreases if less salt is
added
(3) At the saturation point, the ionic product is
equal to solubility product
(4) The term solubility product is only for sparingly
soluble salts
56. Statement-1 : NO2 gas is paramagnetic at room
temperature. On cooling below 1°C, its molecular
weight increases and it loses its paramagnetism.
When it is reheated the behaviour is reversed.
and
Statement-2 : NO2 molecule shows resonance.

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : Al2(SO4)3 is used as a mordant in
textile industry.
and
Statement-2 : The process of formation of metallic
hydroxides on the fibres before dyeing is known as
mordanting.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
58. Statement-1 : If the equation for a reaction is
reversed, the equilibrium constant is inverted and if
the equation is multiplied by 2, the equilibrium
constant is squared.
and
Statement-2 : The numerical value of an equilibrium
constant depends on the reaction and reaction
coefficients.
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Test - 8
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : All strong acids in water show almost
same acidic nature.
and
Statement-2 : This is due to levelling effect of water
on account of its high dielectric constant and strong
protons accepting tendency.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : The presence of excessive nutrients in
a lake due to inflow of nutrients from fertilizers is
called eutrophication.
and
Statement-2 : Eutrophication badly affects the
aquatic life.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Test - 8 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
65. If (x2 + x + 2)2 – (a – 3)(x 2 + x + 2)(x 2 + x + 1) +
SECTION - I (a – 4)(x 2 + x + 1)2 = 0 has at least one real root,
Straight Objective Type Questions then
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
19
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (1) 0 < a < 5 (2) 5  a 
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 3
(3) 5  a < 7 (4) a  7
61. Let f : R  R be the function defined by
66. In a geometric series of real numbers, the first term
⎧ x 2  4 x  3, if x  2
⎪ is 2 and the sum of the reciprocals of its third and
f (x)  ⎨
⎩ x  3, if x  2
⎪ fourth terms is more than its second term by 2. The
sum of all possible values for its seventh term is
Then the number of real numbers x for which
f(x) = 3 is 33 65
(1) (2)
16 32
(1) 1 (2) 2
17 1
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) (4)
8 8
62. In a survey it was found that 38% people like
67. If cos  + cos  = a and sin  + sin  = b, then
watching Football, 75% like watching Cricket and x%
the value of cos   cos  equals to
like both. Then
(1) x = 13 (2) x = 38 (a 2  b2 )2  4a 2 (a 2  b 2 ) 2  4 b 2
(1) (2)
4(a 2  b 2 ) 2(a2  b2 )
(3) 13  x  38 (4) 13  x  75
(a 2  b2 )2  4a 2 (a 2  b2 )2  4b 2
(3) (4)
63. If log3 2 
y 6
 ⎛ 5⎞
– 7  log3 4  2log3 ⎜ 2y  4 – ⎟ , then
⎝ 2⎠
2(a2  b2 )2 4(a2  b 2 )
68. The sum
the value of y is
1 1 1
(1) –3 (2) –2  
sin 45 sin 46 sin 47 sin 48 sin 49 sin 50
(3) 2 (4) 4
1
64. If the equation z2 + (a + ib)z + (c + id) = 0, where ... 
sin 133  sin 134
a, b, c, d are real and bd  0, has real roots, then
the value of d2 – abd + b2c is equal to is equal to

(1) 1 (2) –1 (1) sec 1° (2) cosec 1°

(3) 0 (4) 2 (3) cot 1° (4) tan 1°

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015 Test - 8

69. If S = 12 + 32 + 52 + ... + 992, then the value of the 74. The graphs of y = sin x, y = cos x, y = tan x and
sum 22 + 42 + 62 + ... + 1002 is y = cosec x are drawn on the same axes from 0 to

(1) S + 2550 (2) 2S . A vertical line is drawn through the point where
2
(3) 4S (4) S + 5050 the graphs of y = cos x and y = tan x cross,
intersecting the other two graphs at points A and B.
70. The constant term in the quadratic expression The length of the line segment AB is
n
⎛ 1 ⎞⎛ 1⎞ 5 1
∑ ⎜⎝ x  k  1 ⎟⎜
⎠⎝
x ⎟
k⎠
as n   is (1) 1 (2)
k 1 2

(1) 1 (2) –1 5 1
(3) 2 (4)
2
1 75. Let A(5, 12), B(–13 cos , 13 sin ) and C(13 sin ,
(3) 0 (4)
2 –13 cos ), where  is real, be the vertices of a
71. The equation (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) = 24 has the real ABC. Then, the orthocentre of ABC lies on the
root equal to a and the complex roots b and c. Then line
bc (1) x – y – 7 = 0 (2) x + y – 7 = 0
the value of is
a (3) x – y + 7 = 0 (4) x + y + 7 = 0
1 1 76. The line 3x + 2y – 24 = 0 meets x-axis at A and
(1) (2) y-axis at B. The perpendicular bisector of AB meets
5 5
the line through (0, –1) parallel to x-axis at C. Then,
6 6 the area of the ABC is
(3) (4)
5 5 (1) 91 sq. unit (2) 12 sq. unit

⎛ 1025 ⎞ (3) 36 sq. unit (4) 48 sq. unit

72. If log10 ⎜ ⎟  p and log102 = q, then the value of 77. If the line x cos  + y sin  = 2 is the equation of a
⎝ 1024 ⎠
log10(4100) in terms of p and q is equal to transverse common tangent to the circles
x 2 + y 2 = 4 and x 2  y 2  6 3 x  6 y  20  0 , then
(1) p + 9q (2) p + 10q the value of  is
(3) 12p + q (4) p + 12q  
(1) (2)
73. The sum of the infinite series 3 6
2 5
1 1 1 1 1 (3) (4)
     ...  is 3 6
9 18 30 45 63
78. Two circles with centres at A(2, 3) and B(5, 6) and
1 1 having equal radii are intersecting orthogonally. Then,
(1) (2) the radius of the circles is
3 4
(1) 3 2 (2) 2 2
1 2
(3) (4) (3) 3 (4) 2
5 3

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Test - 8 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015

79. The angle between the tangents drawn from the point 84. The value of x satisfying the equation
(1, 4) to the parabola y2 = 4x is
x  2  2  2  x is given by
 
(1) (2) (1) 2 cos 10° (2) 2 cos 20°
6 4
  (3) 2 cos 40° (4) 2 cos 80°
(3) (4)
3 2 85. A circle of radius 2 has centre at (2, 0). A circle of
80. Let P  ( 12 cos , 8 sin ) and radius 1 has the centre at (5, 0). A line is tangent
to the two circles at points in the first quadrant.
Q  (  12 sin , 8 cos ) be the points on the
Which of the following is the y-intercept of the line?
x2 y 2
ellipse   1 . Then, the locus of the point of 2
12 8 (1) 3 (2)
intersection of the tangents at P and Q is 4
8
x2 y 2 x2 y 2 (3) (4) 2 2
(1)  1 (2)  1 3
12 9 12 8
x2 y 2 x2 y 2 SECTION - II
(3)  2 (4)  2
12 8 8 12 Assertion – Reason Type Questions
3 11 ⎡ ⎤ Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-
81. If sin   , cos   , where ,   ⎢0, ⎥ ,
73 146 ⎣ 2⎦ Reason type questions. Each of these questions
then ( + ) is equal to contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
  four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
(1) (2)
6 4 answer. You have to select the correct choice.
 5
(3) (4) 86. Statement-1 : The point (5, –4) is inside the
3 12 hyperbola y 2 – 9x 2 + 1 = 0.
82. The exact value of cos 5° + cos 77° + cos 149° +
and
cos 221° + cos 293° is equal to
Statement-2 : The point (x1 , y1) lies inside the
5 1
(1) 0 (2)
2 x2 y2 x12 y12
hyperbola   1 , then
1 0 . 
(3) 1 (4) –1 a2 b2 a2 b 2
83. In an acute angled triangle ABC, point D, E and F (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
are the foot of perpendiculars from A, B and C onto Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
BC, AC and AB respectively. H is the intersection of Statement-1
3 (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
AD and BE. If sin A = and BC = 39, then the
5 Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
length of AH is Statement-1
(1) 45 (2) 48 (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(3) 52 (4) 54 (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015
87. Statement-1 : A chord y = mx + c of the curve
3x2 – y2 – 2x + 4y = 0, which passes through the
point (1, –2), subtend a right angle at the origin.
and
Statement-2 : Lines represented by the equation
(3c + 2m)x 2 – 2(1 + 2m)xy + (4 – c)y 2 = 0 are
perpendicular if c + m + 2 = 0.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
88. Statement-1 : The real roots of the equation
x4 – 3x 3 – 2x2 – 3x + 1 = 0 lie in the interval [0, 4].
and
Statement-2 : The real roots of the equation are
reciprocal to each other.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
  
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Test - 8
89. Statement-1 : If a, b, c, d  R+ and (a + b + c +
d + 3)5 = 9375abcd, then a + b + c + d = 12.
and
Statement-2 : If for positive real numbers AM = GM,
then numbers are equal.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
90. Statement-1 : The minimum distance between the
parabola y 2 = 4x and the circle x 2 + y2 – 54y + 704
= 0 is 522 .
and
Statement-2 : Shortest distance between these two
curves occurs along the common normal.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
 Test Booklet Code C

Test No. 7

AKASH TE
A ST
IA
D
SE
IN

for
RI
AL L

ES

JEE (Main)-2015
Test - 7 (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2015

TEST - 7

ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (1) 31. (3) 61. (2)
2. (3) 32. (3) 62. (4)
3. (1) 33. (3) 63. (1)
4. (2) 34. (3) 64. (3)
5. (1) 35. (4) 65. (3)
6. (3) 36. (2) 66. (4)
7. (2) 37. (1) 67. (3)
8. (3) 38. (3) 68. (2)
9. (3) 39. (2) 69. (4)
10. (2) 40. (2) 70. (4)
11. (2) 41. (1) 71. (1)
12. (3) 42. (3) 72. (3)
13. (1) 43. (3) 73. (1)
14. (4) 44. (3) 74. (4)
15. (2) 45. (2) 75. (2)
16. (2) 46. (1) 76. (3)
17. (2) 47. (1) 77. (3)
18. (3) 48. (3) 78. (4)
19. (2) 49. (3) 79. (1)
20. (2) 50. (4) 80. (3)
21. (1) 51. (1) 81. (4)
22. (4) 52. (1) 82. (2)
23. (3) 53. (4) 83. (1)
24. (1) 54. (4) 84. (3)
25. (3) 55. (3) 85. (2)
26. (2) 56. (2) 86. (4)
27. (1) 57. (2) 87. (1)
28. (1) 58. (2) 88. (4)
29. (4) 59. (3) 89. (1)
30. (2) 60. (4) 90. (3)

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