1.

The ASIS i te atio al ge e al se u it Risk assess e t guideli e defi es a asset as a eal

o i di idual o s, that a e gi e o assig ed a o eta alue .

True

2. CPTED stands for Crime Prevention through Environment Dedication.

False

3. Physical security planning was originally based upon response to a military threat.

True

4. Risk management is a term closely associated with the insurance industry.

True

5. A vulnerability assessment will include a thorough examination of the following:

All of the above

6. Deterrence is the practice of discouraging an individual or group from even attempting to

attack the asset.

True

7. All risks can be reduced completely.

False

8. There is a theory of loss control developed by Bottom and Kostanoski in security and loss

control. It is known as:

WAECUP

9. The most intangible valuation of an asset would be in what is referred to as:

Reputational damage

10. Intangible property include things such as goodwill, proprietary information, and related

property.

True

Hoofdstuk 2

1. Which of these is a type of control force used in ancient Rome?

Praetorian guards

2. In what year and country did the Peshtigo fire occur?

1871, America

3. Railroad police were, and still are, a privately employed police force with full law enforcement

authority.

True

4. Which of these are reasons that are driving radical Islamic fundamentalism?

1
All of the above

5. What is the importance of the Taft-Hartley act?

The US president, via the attorney general, can obtain an injunction against a strike or lockout if a

substantial area is affected or national security is threatened

6. Intrusion alarms are point protection only.

False

7. Which of these are lessons that have been learned by studying the history of security?

Both B and C -> An increase in professionalism & The need for professional training

8. Allan Pinkerton was known for which of the following unique innovations?

Extensive centralized Records

9. The central alarm/dispat h ope atio is the ai of a se u it ope atio , se i g as the

command, control, and communications center.

True

Hoofdstuk 3

1. Which of the following best describes a protection officer?

A man or a woman who concentrates on safety and security while others perform various tasks

2. The career path of a protection officer might take him through:

All the above

3. The professional protection officer has some essential characteristics. Which of the following is

not one of them?

Masters the use of lethal and non-lethal weapons.

4. Competency can be demonstrated through professional certifications and consist of an

adequate balance of three characteristics which of the following is not one of those?

Communication

5. Every decision that a protection officer makes reflects on the organizations he represents; for

instance, patrol officers often times are the only people on the premises(during nights and

weekends) Which of the following tasks is most unusual to a basic protection officer?

Legal consultant role

6. The basic role of the protection officer is to prevent, mitigate, and respond to:

Accidental and unintentional risks (safety, health, environment, and quality)

7. There are five types of critical resources to be protected; which of the following is not one of

those?

Time

2
8. The alue added a p ote tio offi e s pe fo a e is easu ed i the le el of i p o e e t

that his work brings into the organizations protective process and objectives. Examples of this

can include:

All of the above

9. All actions taken before active protection measures are performed can be included in the

preventative functions. Which of the following is not one of those actions?

Separate physically or in time the aggressor from the objective.

10. One of the steps taken during response functions performed by protection officers is recovery.

Which of the following is an example of it?

All the above

Hoofdstuk 4

1. Leaders and supervisors are not one and the same. Our expectation is that every supervisor is a

leader but not every leader is necessarily a supervisor.

True

2. They key for a supervisor to get anyone to do anything is to:

Get them to want to do it

3. Leadership is not about self-interest; it is about being other-person-centered. Thus, before

embarking on a mission to become a leader, one should conduct a self-examination in all the

following ways, except to:

Assure that no one in the group will be able to pass you up and become your boss

4. An effective team member will display the following attributes:

All the above

5. Traits that can characterize a leader in any organization include all the following, except:

Support complacency in the ranks

6. There are numerous critical leadership skills. A leader will display all of the following skill sets,

except:

Learning how the mission of the organization compares to the leaders career goals

7. There are four communication skills needed for every leader. Which of the following is not one

of them?

Top down as a priority communications direction

8. The optimal way to communicate is written.

False

9. Some experts say we conduct a vast amount of our communications nonverbally. No matter

3
how we or other communicate nonverbally, we must always strive for clarification if we want

to achieve understanding. Which of the following is true about nonverbal communications?

All the above

10. Leaders are often called upon to institute change in a department. Change is hard to accept by

many subordinates because of insecurities or lack of trust. Resistance can be overcome by all

of the following suggestions, except:

Inform the employees that if they cannot accept the change you will help them find work

elsewhere

Hoofdstuk 5

1. Which of the following best describes the importance of career planning?

None of the above

2. When earning an education what are the most important considerations?

All of the above

3. On average, how much of a salary increase do college graduates earn over noncollege

graduates?

77%

4. Why is experience such an import component of your resume?

Experience provides exposure to scenarios and interaction not available in the classroom

5. On average, how many certifications should one obtain?

None of the above

6. What is the difference between a functional and a chronological resume?

A functional résumé is a summary of experience, whereas a chronological resume lists jobs or

positions by dates of employment

7. When interviewing for a job, what preparation is necessary?

All of the above

8. Why do employers search social networking sites for applicant information?

Searching these sites provides a quick and efficient way to learn more about the candidate

9. There are four strategies for developing a career; choose the one that is not a strategy.

List one’s résu é on an online job board

10. What is one of the fastest growing fields related to security?

Homeland security

Hoofdstuk 6

1. Which of the following best describes effective communications?

4
A faithful reproduction of a message sent to a receiver clearly understood and confirmed by the

receiver

2. Tort law expects every business to actively pursue the following:

Due diligence regarding safety and security

3. There are four channels of communications in most companies; which of the following is not a

channel?

Reverse-horizontal communications

4. There are six essentials of effective communications; which of the following is not one of those

essentials?

The communications must be consistent

5. Effective communications has built-in flexibility to facilitate the needs of the receiver or

receiver groups. Which of the following characteristics is important to take into consideration?

All of the above

6. A very important part of effective communications is that the communicator must be able to

tell which of the following?

That the message has been received and understood

7. The one misconception that causes more errors than any other in effective communications is:

Every message must be brief

8. The telephone equipment in a security program must be which of the following? Choose the

best answer.

It must be simple to use with the least probability of failing during an emergency

9. In the security office, separate and apart from the general use telephone, there will be a red

phone used exclusively for emergencies. That phone will have the following attachments to

make it more effective. Which of the following is not one of those?

Beeping sound every 3 seconds

10. During some emergency situations, the phone system will be destroyed, especially when there

is a building collapse. What can we do to protect that phone line?

All of the above

Hoofdstuk 7

1. Security awareness is simply letting everyone know in the organization how security impacts

them and how important they are, as stakeholders and team members, to the continued

success of the company.

True

5
2. To e effe ti e, the se u it depa t e t should i still se u it a a e ess a o g all le els of

the organization and external partners.

True

3. Security awareness meetings should be held with all departments at a minimum frequency of:

Quarterly

4. Security awareness should be instilled among half of the members, from all layers of the

organization and external partners.

False

5. In double loop communication, information should not only flow from the top of the

organization but also a process should be in place for information to travel back to the top.

True

6. The lesso s lea ed e a ples help e plo ees a d pa t e s u de sta d h se u it

awareness is important to them personally and for the success of the organization.

True

7. Which is a method to increase security awareness among all layers of the organization and

external partners?

Interactive activities

8. Focus groups consist of:

Individuals selected by management

9. When double loop communication is used, the following employees have the opportunity to

become active:

Stakeholders

10. Team members are trained and polled regularly to heighten their awareness about changing

trends in practices and rapidly advancing technology in security.

True

Hoofdstuk 8

1. Magnetic contact switches, motion sensors and glass break sensors are examples of what kind

of sensors.

Intrusion

2. Magnetic stripe, wiegand, proximity and biometric are examples of access control readers.

True

3. An advanced radio dispatch system may consist of the following:

All of the above

6
4. A main component of a medium to large access control system is the following:

Distributed processor

5. Network Attached Storage (NAS) and Storage Area Networks (SAN) are examples of large

capacity storage devices used with video surveillance systems.

True

6. The 10-codes are used to assist with rapid transmission of radio communications.

False

7. Access control sensors may be uses to detect unauthorized access to a facility, and to generate

security alarms in response. Which of the following is not one of those access control sensors:

Network attached storage device

8. A transmission medium is simply the method by which an electronic message is carried. Signals

may be transmitted in a variety of ways. Which of the following is not one of those mediums

used to transmit electronic messages:

None of the above

9. A smoke detector is a device to manually initiate a fire alarm.

False

10. Gas, temperature and power failure are examples of which of the following sensors:

Building automation

Hoofdstuk 9

1. Automated visitor management systems should only be used in large, complex organizations

with multiple facilities.

False

2. One use for crime mapping is to help determine where to locate new facilities.

True

3. Studies indicate that security technologies will soon make security officers obsolete.

False

4. Incident Management Systems today are really nothing more than word processing systems

that allow an officer to enter reports electronically.

False

5. Two dangers mentioned in this chapter that protection professionals should be aware of in

using online resources are (circle two):

The possibility of going off on a tangent rather than focusing on the objective & Assuming that

information in online database is credible

7
6. Among the advantages of automated visitor management systems are (circle all that apply):

Ability to keep a searchable record of visitors & Ability to better account for all building

occupants during an evacuation

7. A stud Bol a d a d Po ell o luded that se u it offi e s la ki g this k o ledge ould

e pla ed at a g eat disad a tage... What k o ledge e e the efe i g to?

An orientation on automated tools such as incident and visitor management systems as well as

crime mapping and analysis

8. Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are closely related to:

Crime mapping systems

9. A number of studies in recent years have projected massive expansion of electronic security

systems employing advanced technologies, but they also concluded that the human element

(i.e., security officers) will not be predominantly replaced by technology.

True

10. Technology and automation is not bringing the benefits, efficiencies, and opportunities to the

field of security and asset protection that was anticipated.

False

Hoofdstuk 10

1. Uniformed and paid police did not come around until which of the following:

The 1830s when Philadelphia started paying police

2. The patrol function is the lease important but necessary part of the loss control approach.

False

3. Based on organizational needs, there are many major purpose of patrol. Which of the following

is not one of those purpose:

To perform an activity that creates the appearance of authority

4. There are basically two types of patron. Which of the following are those two types?

Mobile and foot patrol

5. Preparation for a patrol tour of duty requires more than just putting on the uniform and going

to work. It also requires mental and psychological preparation.

True

6. If the officer is working the overnight shift, 2200 to 0600, it is advisable to do which of the

following:

Visit the work site during the day for facility orientation

7. There are numerous techniques that help an officer to detect unusual situations. Which of the

8
following is one of those techniques:

All of the above

8. One area of preparation often overlooked by many security departments is:

Failing to provide continuing training and education

9. Which of the following is a principle of patrol that every patrol person should follow:

All the above

10. The e a e a i te al fa to s that a i flue e a pat ol offi e s pe fo a e i a egati e

way. Which of the following is not one of those internal factors:

Environmental conditions

Hoofdstuk 11

1. The following sign is without doubt the most important sign in use today.

Stop

2. Directing traffic from or at the gate would include such duties as checking.

All of the above

3. On private property, the save movement of traffic is the responsibility of the security officer.

True

4. When signaling a driver to stop, you hand should be:

Palm open

5. Slow or timid drivers should not be urged forward with increased rapidity of arm motion

because they may over-react and cause an accident.

False

6. Directing traffic from the corner position is safer than a center-of-the-intersection position.

True

7. Proper protection against the elements is an important factor in maintaining efficient traffic

control.

True

8. The primary use of the traffic whistle is to attract the police.

False

9. General rules for traffic direction are:

All the above

10. When on traffic control, proper equipment includes:

All the above

Hoofdstuk 12

9
1. In controlling a hostile crowd, sufficient _______ is/are basic to you success.

Manpower

2. The protection officer should attempt to isolate an individual troublemaker by:

Removing them

3. If you are observe a hostile crowd gathering, never hesitate to request additional:

Assist

4. A demonstration is a crowd that is exhibiting sympathy for or against authority, or some

political, economical or social condition.

True

5. A riot means any extreme or catastrophic condition that imperils or result in loss of life and/ or

property.

False

6. The basic reason for the formation of any crowd is the occurrence of an event that is of

common interest to each individual.

True

7. A leaderless crowd that is attempting to flee from something it fears is a/an:

Escape crowd

8. Some psychological factors in crowd formation are:

All the above

9. The protection officer dealing with crowds should:

Give the impression he/she will enforce orders

10. Some riot control, force deployment procedures are:

Arrowhead, left and right flanking, line

Hoofdstuk 13

1. Environmental crime control theory focuses upon the _______ of the crime act:

Location

2. Basically the offender use a decision making process whereby the positive and negative

aspects of committing a particular act is weighed. This is an example of:

Rational choice theory

3. The application of situational crime prevention techniques are the results of this theory.

Rational choice theory

4. There are _______ aspects of displacement?

Six

10
5. There are three key concepts specific to CPTED. Which of the following is not one?

Defensible space

6. There are _______ main categories of Situational Crime Prevention Techniques.

Five

7. Further, the categories have _______ different sub-categories?

Five

8. Defensible Space: Crime prevention Through Urban Design was created by:

Oscar Newman

9. This revolves around public housing and seeks to reduce crime though the use of natural

surveillance, natural access control and territorial concern.

Defensible space

10. Routine Activity Theory, developed by Cohen and Felson, revolves around three things: which

of the following is not one of the three factors?

Acting under the influence of drugs or alcohol

Hoofdstuk 14

1. Risks are usually categorized into three categories. (Sele t o e that does t appl .

Insurance

2. Physical security planning is a recognized security process that, if followed, will result in the

selection of physical countermeasures based on appropriateness.

True

3. The security planning process consists of following a selected number of steps.

Five

4. Security-in-depth is also known as:

Layered Protection

5. Microwave detectors use high-frequency sound waves to establish a protected area.

True

6. Deadbolt locks should have a minimum of a ½ throw.

False

7. Card access system are permit accountability.

True

8. The most commonly used security fencing material is:

Chain-link

9. The minimum height of a security fencing should be:

11
7 feet

10. Which of the following types of light are only lit on an as-requires basis?

Standby

Hoofdstuk 15

1. I a ases, _______ f o the a k o e of a fa ilit s ph si al p ote tio p og a .

Alarm systems

2. The primary purpose of an alarm system is:

To provide early warning of an intruder

3. According to the text material, the most effective security is provided with a:

Layered approach

4. In more sophisticated alarm systems, sensors are interfaced with electronic entry-control

device, CCTV, alarm reporting displays (both visual and audible), and _______.

Security lighting

5. How many different types of alarm monitoring were examined in the text?

Four

6. Which of the following is not a type of alarm monitoring?

Satellite

7. Logging device are used for:

Recording systems activities and faults

8. Alarm printers are typically:

Of the high-speed, continuous-feed type

9. A glass-break sensor is an example of:

A perimeter sensor

10. A duress alarm is also sometimes called:

A panic button

Hoofdstuk 16

1. The task of performing effective Access Control includes record _______.

Keeping

2. Signing in at a security _______ is a common function of controlling access.

Register

3. _______ of regular occupants to a facility is considered a very secure form of access control.

Recognition

4. There needs to exist a clear policy for the denial of _______ for individuals without proper

12
credentials.

Access

5. The effectiveness of physical security is further enhanced by strict _______control.

Key

6. _______ key blanks can have a restricted issue to one distributor or end user.

Proprietary

7. The feature of access control systems operating off-line and not connected to a host computer

is often referred to as _______ o offli e ode.

Degraded

8. Smartcards have the ability to store a biometric _______ among other types of information.

Template

9. _______ _______ _______ is an effective alternative to manually searching airline passengers.

Millimeter Wave Scanning

10. Biometric technology is slowly being removed from usage in airports and other immigration

checkpoints.

False

Hoofdstuk 17

1. How many suspect components of an explosive device are needed to warrant a possible

threat?

Two

2. Which component is not considered a basic component of an explosive device?

Projectile

3. Which of the following is considered to be a downside to using detection dogs?

Unprofessional behavior by a dog and its handler may ruin the company’s reputatio

4. A magnetometer is a kind of metal detector that detects:

Ferromagnetic Material

5. Which of the following is not a metal detection technology used prominently in security

applications?

CT Scan

6. Which chemical compound does chemiluminescence technology detect?

Nitrogen dioxide

7. The selection of detection equipment should be based on:

All of the above

13
8. Electronic article surveillance (EAS) systems are used to detect:

Fraudulent activity

9. When responding to an alarm, it is important to:

Abide by company policy and procedure

10. Which of the following is not a consideration when using X-ray detection technologies?

Training new operators is lengthy and expensive

Hoofdstuk 18

1. One component of the fire triangle is heat.

True

2. Class A fires are those involving alcohol as the fuel.

False

3. Fighting a fire with an extinguisher is very safe.

False

4. Human life and safety should be the primary concerns in fire situations.

True

5. Fire plans should include:

All of the above

6. The detection of fire can be broken into:

Both of the above -> Electronic methods & Human Methods

7. Arson fire are:

All of the above

8. Typical hazard areas include:

All of the above

9. Dry chemical hand extinguishers are usually considered:

All of the above

10. A magnesium fire is an example of a Class B Fire.

False

Hoofdstuk 19

1. The dis ipli es of safet a d se u it a e dissi ila . The do t sha e the sa e o o

objectives in terms of the overall protection process.

False

2. The protection officer must take continuing education in HAZMAT and first aid.

True

14
3. The Wo ld Health O ga izatio has defi ed health as o e tha just the a se e of disease.

True

4. One aspect of a formal safety policy is to prevent accidents and illness on and off the job.

False

5. One of the main functions of a safety committee is to administer effective rescue training

programs.

False

6. The safety committee has the authority to make safety recommendations to management.

True

7. The protection officer should carefully inspect the work habits of members of the workforce

and report deficiencies detected.

True

8. A safety program that initiates regular safety inspections(audits) demonstrates to employees:

Ma age e t’s interest in accident prevention

9. When a safety recommendation made by an employee is acted upon:

Ma age e t re og izes the e ployee’s o tri utio to the safety progra

10. A safety checklist is useful because(check best answers):

All of the above

Hoofdstuk 20

1. Hazardous material is well defined and easily identifiable.

False

2. The emergency response guide is updated and reprinted on a 5-year cycle.

False

3. Always approach hazardous material incidents from upwind, uphill or upstream.

True

4. In a crisis involving the release of a hazardous material, the first thing that must be done is to

identify what has been released in what quantity.

True

5. The stand response protocol consists of three consecutive steps. The correct order of these

steps is:

Identify the material, activate the appropriate contingency plan, perform site security

6. There are several ways to determine what hazardous material has been released in an

employee-related spill, but the best way is to:

15
Ask the person who was using it

7. There is a standard that should be used for preparing an MSDS.

True

8. The media present unique challenges for site security personnel.

True

9. The most comprehensive and detailed information concerning a specific hazard would be

found in the:

Emergency Response Guide

10. The fumes from hazardous materials release have been known to carry 20 miles or more.

True

Hoofdstuk 21

1. Computer security, information security, and information technology (IT) security all mean the

same thing and are interchangeable terms.

False

2. Counterintelligence is an important function and can be applied in private sector companies as

well as in government agencies.

True

3. Legal easu es a e ge e all ea ti e athe tha p oa ti e i atu e.

True

4. A o di g to o sulta t Mi hael Mo e l , app o i atel hat pe e tage of a o pa s

value generally lies in information and intangible assets?

75%

5. The practice of asset p ote tio fo uses o hi h atego ies of assets ? Ci le all that appl .

Information & People & Property

6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Economics Espionage Act of 1996?

It must be updated every 5 years

7. According to this hapte , the field of i fo atio se u it i ludes:

IT security

8. When an information loss is known or suspected, the following actions should be taken:

Determine root cause

9. Information that is lost is not permanently lost.

False

10. An important tool is protecting information assets is the Economic Espionage Act (EEA) of

16
1996.

True

Hoofdstuk 22

1. Which of the following is not relevant to general deterrence?

Punishment carnality

2. Routine activity theory states that crime will only happen when a motivated offender, a

suitable target, and the absence of _______ occur at the same place and time.

Capable guardians

3. Social learning theory is only about learning how to commit a crime, not why crime might be

acceptable.

False

4. Which of the following is an example of a technique of neutralization that would be used if the

employee believed the company would get insurance money to replace the loss?

Denial of injury

5. Which step must immediately follow observation of suspicious activity?

Reporting

6. Liaison with nonsecurity employees has many benefits for the protection officer.

True

7. P ote tio offi e s a isit a offi e o a ti it ithout oti e a d at the offi e s

convenience.

False

8. Employee package policies usually include:

Either a or b

9. Suspicious activity should be reported only in writing.

False

10. Reporting observations to the right person or persons is vital.

True

Hoofdstuk 23

1. Drug dependence is a primary disease.

True

2. Which of the following applies to drug dependence?

All of the above

3. The iggest si gle oad lo k to add essi g a pe so s su sta e a use p o le is thei d ug of

17
choice.

False

4. A company can effectively fight substance abuse by just starting a drug testing program.

False

5. A person who does not use drugs, but is preoccupied with a loved one who does, is said to be

codependent.

True

6. The first step in developing a Drug-Free Workplace Program is to:

Write a policy

7. The most widely used drug testing material is use today is:

Urine

8. Psychoactive drugs affect which of the following:

Brain

9. Nicotine and marijuana are referred to as which of the following:

The most dangerous drug

10. The protection officer is to take which of the following actions in reference to substance abuse

behavior in the workplace:

Observe and report to your up line

Hoofdstuk 24

1. Workplace violence is broadly defined as the use of violence against workers.

True

2. xx

3. Workplace violence can occur in almost every workplace: small business, large companies,

government facilities.

True

4. An employee who exhibits rude manners toward his or her fellow workers is a definite

workplace violence threat.

False

5. In a 2006 survey conducted by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, U.S. Department of Labor, for the

National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health, Centers for Disease Control, what

percentage of workplace violence events were perpetrated by coworkers?

34,1%

6. There are many effects of workplaces violence on an organization. Find the most correct group

18
of effect below.

Interruption to business, Increased legal/medical fees, Loss of productivity, Repair/replacement

of equipment/facilities

7. Although the 2006 survey discussed in this section indicated that 51,4% of responds reported

that workplace violence events had no effect on their workplace, 29,7% reported that this

effect was observed:

Fear levels

8. Examples of workplace violence situations are:

All the above

9. According to this chapter, the generally recognized primary objective of a security program is

the protection of:

People, property and information

10. According to this chapter, a very small percentage of employees who have violent propensities

will actually perform a violent crime.

True

Hoofdstuk 25

1. This is ofte efe ed as the sile t kille .

Stress

2. Whe ou lose ou _______, so eo e else has o t ol o e ou.

Temper

3. Some rules for settings limits are to:

All of the above

4. Being complacent during a crisis situation is good; is allows the individual not to know what

you are thinking.

False

5. The best stance during a crises situation is just off the side at an angle.

True

6. Indistinct signs of possible physical acting out, such as gritting teeth, closing and opening of

hands, and tensing, may precede more combative behavior.

True

7. Experts say that 7 – 15% of the messages we convey are nonverbal.

False

8. Paraverbal communications – how we deliver our words of verbal intervention – includes

19
which of the following?

All the above

9. Persons who are behaving in a physically violent manner may be controlled in all of the

following ways except:

Challenged

10. When involved in a one-on-one situation, the first action taken should be:

Be sure assistance is en route

Hoofdstuk 26

1. Labor relations include the employee/employer relations dealing with matters pertaining to

which of the following activities:

Collective bargaining and associated activities

2. The role of the protection officer has an influence on the labor relations climate at any given

company. Which of the following activities does the protection officer influence:

All the above

3. Which of the following is a legal move by management to put pressure on the unions:

Lockout

4. A wildcat strike is a legal strike.

False

5. Work stoppages as a result of labor relations difficulties will arise when union officials order

production limitations.

True

6. The protection officer should be aware of the types of discipline available to his employer

because:

Discipline is an effective deterrent

7. Which of the following is not illegal during a legal strike?

Carrying placards

8. An incident of theft whereby an employee is discharged can become an issue in:

All the above

9. The strike plan is designed and updated to eliminate problems that occur during a strike and

provide guidelines for security and management.

True

10. When stopped at a picket line in your vehicle, you should:

Remain in the vehicle and proceed with caution

20
Hoofdstuk 27

1. The te s th eat a d isk a e used i te ha gea l ; fo e a ple, a th eat assess e t

is the sa e as a isk assess e t .

True

2. The o ept of isk a age e t o igi ated ithi the se u it p ofessio .

False

3. Because vulnerabilities are actually a characteristic of the organization or facility, they are:

The risk factor over which the organization has the most control

4. A o di g to P i e o Se u it Risk Ma age e t, the p i a atego ies of th eats a e

(circle all correct answers):

Intentional & Inadvertent & Natural

5. I a s atte ha t used fo isk a al sis, hi h uad a t ep ese ts a high-likelihood/high-

o se ue e isk?

Quadrant 1

6. In order to effectively mitigate risk, a security professional should:

Apply a protection strategy that employs a suite of solutions

7. Buying insurance is one example of:

Risk transfer

8. Which one of the following is not one of the underlying concepts on which a risk mitigation

strategy should be based?

Quantitative analysis

9. Risk management is a critical process that touches every aspect of organizational asset

protection – and the activities of the professional protection officer.

True

10. Service providers should not base their core business on risk management principles.

False

Hoofdstuk 28

1. Regardless of the type of crises, there is a series of common requirements that must be taken

into account for an organization to be successful when a critical incident occurs. These include

all the following except:

Being willing to spend lots of money on a solution

2. Observing which of the following guidelines increases the chances that emergency plans will be

more effective and efficient:

21
None of the above

3. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) standard 1600 sets criteria for both developing

and evaluating existing emergency management programs.

True

4. The Incident Command System (ICS) indentified common concepts that form the basis for the

control and management of emergencies. Which of the following is not one of those concepts:

Concentricity

5. The National Response Framework (NRF) established and on-scene management system that

would help responding agencies work together using a coordinated and systematic approach

that can be used for all types of incident regardless of size.

False

6. The ICS structure is built around five major management activities of functions. Which of the

following is not one of these functions:

Safety

7. The National Incident Management System (NIMS) provides a systematic, proactive, all-

hazards approach that guides all levels of government, non-governmental organizations, and

the private sector to work together to respond to and manage incidents of all sizes.

True

8. Effective crisis media communications steps that organizations should consider include all the

following except:

Develop strict restrictions on what media can do on your property

9. An emergency response plan will work regardless of any realistic training prior to the

implementation in an actual emergency.

False

10. In addition to a yearly audit of the emergency plan, that plan should be evaluated and

modified, is necessary, at all of the following times except:

None of the above

Hoofdstuk 29

1. Histo i all , the te te o ist a e t a ed to 1975.

True

2. As a security professional it is often less important to classify a potential threat as terrorism of

crime than to indentify and address the threat itself.

True

22
3. The worst terrorist act on U.S. soil was the bombing of the Murrah Federal Building in

Oklahoma City of April 19, 1995.

False

4. The acroynom ELF refers to:

Earth Liberation Front

5. The smallest sized cell is:

Individual

6. The CARVER model of target selection offers a useful tool for considering a target.

True

7. A security professional need only concentrate on their own facility when coping with terrorism.

False

8. Formal threat assessments are certainly important, however, regularly monitoring of the

environment offers the opportunity to identify potential problems earlier.

True

9. An example of a non-violent extremist might be an animal rights supporter that uses no animal

products at all.

True

10. It is impossible to identify potential targets.

False

Hoofdstuk 30

1. Personal protection specialist should attempt to stand out as obvious security personnel in the

p i ipal s e tou age so people k o ho to el o i a e e ge .

False

2. Personal protection specialist should only worry about assassins and kidnappers, since

common criminals are unlikely to attack a VIP.

False

3. A principal is about to enter a room; a protection specialist should enter the room before the

protectee to make sure it is safe and consider closing the blinds to prevent outside adversaries

from observing activity in the room.

True

4. When in the presence of a hostage taker or other violence-prone individual you should

attempt to take what actions?

23
Remain calm, use your first name, and cooperate with the hostage takers

5. There has been a hostage-taki g i a uildi g o ou e plo e s p ope t . What ite s of

information would be valuable to hostage response teams?

All the above

6. A polite respectful approach will make those being searched more cooperative with a search

officer and make the search more effective.

True

7. Searches should be conducted randomly without a pattern that can be detected by

adversaries.

True

8. Counterterrorist security personnel should read and become intimately familiar with detection

equipment manuals, calibration techniques, and capabilities.

True

9. Te o ist g oups f e ue tl atte pt to i filt ate a fa ilit s o kfo e, i ludi g the se u it

department, prior to conducting an attack.

True

10. Which of the following is the least agreeable time to detect a terrorist plot?

When the terrorist arrive at the site to conduct the attack

Hoofdstuk 31

1. Accident investigations can be investigated by any of the following except:

Federal or state agency investigators

2. The foundation of a good report lies in and begins with:

Notes and reports

3. Weingarten established the Exclusionary Rule, which prohibits statements made in violation of

the law from being used in a criminal court:

False

4. A case effort undertaken in cooperation with other organizations is called:

Liaison

5. Which of the following is a good investigative interviewing technique?

Request that the subject tell the story multiple times

6. All except which of the following is a key step in preliminary investigation?

Detaining those who have committed the crime

7. Informants are a very expensive and risky method to use:

24
False

8. An officer can testify in several different legal arenas for a single case:

True

9. On-the-job visits can be used to evaluate investigations:

False

10. The single overarching goal of all investigations is:

To discover facts about a situation, person, or behavior

Hoofdstuk 32

1. The security offi e s responsibilities when arriving at a crime scene is which of the following:

All the above

2. To track loss-event-occurrences, the organization needs to know all of the following except?

How long was it lost

3. Physical evidence found at the crime scene may explain what exactly happened and/or provide

a list of suspects. Which of the following is not an item of physical evidence found at a crime

scene?

Low levels of C02 in the soil samples

4. If it is imperative that evidence at a crime scene is recovered and protected by the security

officer, which of the following is are commended procedure?

Keep individual items separate so they do not contaminate each other

5. When writing a report from your notes, which of the following will not be included:

Your best interpretation of why the incident happened

6. Which of the following is the fi st responding officer responsible for at the crime scene:

Take emergency actions necessary to preserve life and protect property

7. Once the protection officer arrives on the scene, the fi st priority is to:

Provide first aid a d all for assistance

8. The scene of a crime or incident will always require a boundary using police tape.

True

9. The boundaries of a crime scene will be immediately evident once the protection officer arrives

on the scene.

False

10. It is necessary to establish the boundaries of a crime scene before an investigation can begin.

True

Hoofdstuk 33

25
1. When an incident or crime occurs, the responding protection officer is expected to protect the

scene until investigators arrive.

True

2. It is i po ta t that a p ote tio offi e understands the importance of statements, whether

written or verbal.

True

3. Interviewing people is NOT the best way to gather information as there are many other more

effective methods and resources.

False

4. Nonverbal communication is the most commonly understood form of interviewing.

False

5. Tension will often cause speech to become more rapid and stammered sometimes

______times the normal speed.

2 — 3 times

6. Avoid close-ended questions that will t pi all e ui e a si ple es o o response.

True

7. Guidelines for written statements may include:

All of the above

8. Deception can take additional forms other than what some may immediately think is a lie or

untruthful statement.

True

9. Whe the p ote tio offi e o ludes the interview they should make detailed notes of the

following:

All the above

10. The p ote tio offi e should continue with a professional demeanor when dealing with:

All the above

Hoofdstuk 34

1. Covert operations are intended not to be known or recognized.

True

2. Personal operations are the least expensive in the long run.

False

3. Equipment requirements vary depending on the location, nature, and goal of the operation.

True

26
4. A proper understanding of privacy issues is only important if the case goes to court.

False

5. Electronic surveillance could include:

All of the above

6. Considerations for the retention of record should include:

All of the above

7. Overt personal surveillance:

Could deter some incidents

8. A simple camera surveillance system will often include:

All of the above

9. In some states/provinces/countries, recording a telephone conversation may not be done

without the prior knowledge and consent of both parties on that call.

True

10. If storage space becomes an issue, it might be that noncritical materials have to be discarded.

True

Hoofdstuk 35

1. Incidents must always be written in a way that shows the organization in a favorable manner.

False

2. Verbal reports are equally as reliable as written reports.

False

3. There are six (6) questions that every report must attempt to answer and they include: Who,

What, Where, When, Why. What is the additional question?

How

4. The three (3) Cs of report writing are:

Clear, Complete and Concise

5. It is important to state your opinion in incident reports to ensure that a age e t a figu e

out what really occurred.

False

6. Incident reports must be treated as legal documents.

True

7. Field notes are equivalent to incident reports.

False

8. Writing a report is one of the most important duties of a security professional.

27
True

9. A good rule to follow is: If it is an uncommon event, then report it.

True

10. A good acronym to remember when it comes to writing reports is H.U.G.

False

Hoofdstuk 36

1. A protection officer may force a search of an employee where there is a company policy.

False

2. A store can be liable for the actions of its protection officer if it can be proven that the officer

was:

Their agent

3. A person can be convicted on circumstantial evidence alone.

True

4. If a law is not written down and passed by government it is not a law.

False

5. The purpose of our legal system is to:

All of the above

6. The common law is not used in North America today.

True

7. You cannot sue someone and press criminal charges. It is double jeopardy.

False

8. At criminal trials, the prosecutor must prove the accused guilty:

Beyond a reasonable doubt

9. The police will investigate:

Criminal matters

10. A confession may not be admissible in court unless it can be shown that (check all that apply).

There was no promises

Hoofdstuk 37

1. Force is any touching of another person.

True

2. Using force is generally the first option that an officer chooses when managing the behavior of

others.

False

28
3. Persons that force is used against must demonstrate that they have the _______ to cause

injury, that they manifest intent to do so, and that they are placing the officer in imminent

jeopardy.

Means

4. _______ means that officers must show that they had no other alternative than to use force.

Preclusion

5. Objects of materials that protect one from bullets or other projectiles as rocks that are thrown

is:

Cover

6. Control = _______/emotions.

Intellect

7. The security officer must use alternative use of force whenever possible. Which of the

following is an alternative to the use of force:

All of the above

8. There are five primary justifications for using force. Which of the following is not one of them?

That the aggressor was known to be a troublemaker

There are five primary justifications for using force. Which of the following is not one of them?

That the aggressor was known to be a troublemaker

9. The following are three recommendations on how to safely manage violence prone

encounters. There is also one recommendation that you should never try. Which one is the

recommendations you should never try?

Do now waste time evaluating the situation; react immediately before anyone gets hurts

10. Report writing after a use of force is very important. What the officer writes of fails to write

can get that officer in trouble if the subject decides to bring a lawsuit. Therefore, remember

that you may be writing to the lawyers, a judge, or a jury in a civil lawsuit. While writing the

incident report, the officer must include all the following, except:

If the subject was injured, be sure to state that you accidently injured the subject; is was not

intended

Hoofdstuk 38

1. Caution should be used at all times.

True

2. Additional support will never be required if you are cautious.

False

29
3. It is always wrong to withdraw from a situation.

False

4. Firearms are the final phase (highest level) of the range of response.

True

5. The critical factors when designing a training programs are:

Both a and b -> Realism & Repetition

6. The possession and use of weapon are dependent upon which policies?

All of the above

7. The three basic factors of combat include:

Control over space

8. Points of consideration when entering into physical confrontation include:

All of the above

9. Never get close to an aggressor, no matter what the weapon.

True

10. Training that is going to help every day in a security job is:

All of the above

Hoofdstuk 39

1. The definition of a hazard specifies those conditions in the physical or natural environment

which can harm the security.

False

2. An example of workplace violence may include when a security officer is surprised and

attacked by a buckler in a warehouse.

True

3. Environmental risks are unavoidable regardless of the offi e s t ai i g a d self a a e ess.

True

4. Most injuries to security officers are a result of falls.

False

5. The security officer must make personal choices in health and fitness to help them adjust to a

hazardous environment.

True

6. A security office s supe iso o a e e of fa ilit a age e t should e elied upo to

indentify and communicate all hazardous conditions.

False
30
7. Risk assessment is a thorough, comprehensive, and ongoing evaluation of the key assets,

threats, hazards, vulnerabilities, and procedures in place to protect a facility from loss.

True

8. Risky behavior or improper operation of equipment by the security officer are a few examples

of environmental hazards.

False

9. The most important asset that should be protected within a facility is the security command

post.

False

10. Durable, safe, comfortable footwear is a key piece of personal safety equipment for the

industrial security officer.

True

Hoofdstuk 40

1. Bla k s La Di tio a defi es a a est as: To dep i e a pe so of his li e t by legal

autho it .

True

2. In order for an arrest to be legal and binding, the person making the arrest and the person

being arrested have to know:

The authority to arrest is real

3. Security officers do not have the same authority to make an arrest as a citizen unless some

special circumstances exist.

False

4. Based on the circumstances a private person may make an arrest for which of the following

offenses:

All the above

5. Authorization to make an arrest will come from all the following places except:

The local Police Department

6. Contrary to popular belief, at least in most jurisdictions, you do not have a touch someone to

be looking at a criminal assault charge. You only have to place another person in a reasonable

fear of being battered.

True

7. Assault is the intentional touching of someone in a non-consensual, non-privileged manner.

False
31
8. Guilt in civil court requires what percentages of proof?

More than 51%

9. Malicious prosecution happens when a security officer detains someone with the full intention

of bringing criminal charges against them, of filing criminal charges without probable cause.

False

10. Under law everyone has the right to defend themselves.

True

Hoofdstuk 41

1. In a multicultural World, what type of language must a protection officer use to gain the trust

of their audience?

Inclusive

2. The p ote tio offi e s a ilit to effe ti el o u i ate ill also e e ha ed _______

listening.

Active

3. In a multicultural world, leadership ability can determine if a protection officer has the

aptitude and capacity to protect their customer.

False

4. Future policing will depend in large part on the type of society being policed – the _______,

_______, _______ realities and, in more developed countries, the technological sophistication

of the populace.

Ethical, political and multicultural

5. Globalization has grown largely due the lowering of shipping costs.

False

6. Sexual harassment has traditionally taken the form of a hostile environment.

False

7. Women in protection are taking on more leadership roles than ever before. There is, however,

a _______ ceiling that prevents them from being promoted beyond a certain level.

Glass

8. The first female investigator was Kate Warne.

True

9. Racial profiling in retail is counterproductive as it:

All of the above

10. Supply chain security is a rapidly growing area for both corporations and government.

32
True

Hoofdstuk 42

1. No atte hat the se u it offi e sp i a duties a d espo si ilities a e, a d o atte

ho the se u it offi e sp i a o stitue is, hi h of the follo i g people g oups have a

legitimate interest in how those duties and responsibilities are carried out?

All of the above

2. There is more to department of the security officer than looking professional, and performing

in a reasonable and necessary manner. The security officer must have all the following

characteristics but one. Which one of the following is not mentioned in the text?

The security officer must appear to have real concern for others

3. To accomplish the goal of projecting a positive image, the security department must first have

a quality program in place. Once this one, the Ten Rules of Public Relations in Private Security

can be applied. Which of the following is not one of these rules?

The Security Officer must select the persons he or she will serve

4. In addition, the Ten Rules of Public Relations in Private Security instruct the security officers in

the following ways. Which one of the following rules is incorrect?

When the person you are serving only wants to argumentative, you must cut them off cold and

take over the conversation

5. There are many actions that a security supervisor can take to motivate their subordinates to do

a better job at public relations. Which of the following is not one of those actions?

Give each officer extended smoke breaks as a reward for a job well done

6. In addition to daily refresher training, supervisors should make certain that the security

officers in his or her command adopt favorable work behaviors. Of the following work

behaviors, which is not included in the text?

The security officer should be schooled in money management so they will be able to live very

comfortably on the wages they receive from being a guard

7. Handling customer complaints is not always fun. In some cases, the security officer may wind

up acting like a referee. Of the following, which is a good recommendation for how to handle

complaints?

All of the above

8. Security departments are service departments. The personnel in security departments can be

found doing all kinds of jobs to help their companies. Of the following activities that security

officers might be asked to do, which is not likely a task they will follow?
33
Li i g up ateri g servi es for the CEO’s a ual vi e preside ts’ eeti g a d golf outi g

9. By performing a risk analysis, the security department is placing itself in a security consulting

relationship whit the company. Risk analysis can also help with loss control efforts. Which of

the following is not a setting where a risk analysis would be very helpful?

None of the above

10. Whenever a facility has a critical fire, explosion, or another cataclysmic event, the media is

sure to be there. When they arrive, they will attempt to interview the first person they see so

they can get the story on the evening news. Many times, that person is the security officer.

Which of the following is a good idea of how the security officer should respond?

Never, never, never, under any circumstances, give an interview

Hoofdstuk 43

1. The society that wants to buy what they buy based on the thrill derived from the item

purchased is an example of which of the following types of economy:

Experience economy

2. Creating a positive experience involves being effective in which of the following:

All of the above

3. Total quality costs include all the following except:

High federal tax cost

4. In a service-related business, such as security, total quality costs can be significantly reduced

by providing which of the following:

All of the above

5. The ope atio s a d is a fu tio of all of the e pe ie es, as e e plo ed a o e, pe ei ed

by the various users of its services with whom the operation comes in contact. It is more than

just a logo on a letterhead, it is also which of the following:

All of the above

6. Branding is about the image of the operation at every touch point, at every single place anyone

has any contact whatsoever with the operation.

True

7. Our account representative, our executives, even our officers should interact with our client or

overseeing executive as though:

All of the above

8. Almost every complaint presents some:

34
Opportunity for improvement

9. The key to your success lies in your ability to build which of the following with the

communities in which you serve. (Choose the best answer.)

A sense of profit for your company

10. The next type of economy, after the experience economy, will be the transformation economy.

True

Hoofdstuk 44

1. Contacts made outside your company with other professionals tend to enhance both the

security operation as well as the security professional. Professional liaison relationships can

come from all the following except:

Colleagues you work with on the job every day

2. The elements of VIP protection include protective detail, access control, armored limousines,

and fire arms proficiency.

False

3. Performing duties professionally when VIPs are in the area creates an opportunity for security

personnel to be noticed by some very influential observers.

False

4. When emergency situations occur, the first responding security officer is expected to take

certain emergency steps. When public assistance arrives, what they find can bring recognition

for that first responding security officer. Which of the following is one of those recognition

tasks:

Clear the area of all non-emergency persons, secure the incident scene providing an

unobstructed work area, and report conditions to management

5. Which of the following are good contacts for the security professional to make contact with

because they offer the best opportunity to form long lasting relationships with:

All of the above

6. Networking relationships are valuable because they can lead to training opportunities.

True

7. As for fire emergencies, security personnel might be in a position to assist the responding

police officers hence forging positive relationships with local law enforcement. Detectives from

that same police department may arrive asking for additional help providing even a further

opportunity for valuable contact development. Which of the following are ways to be of

assistance:

35
All of the above

8. A relationship with police investigators might lead to which of the following:

Training opportunities

9. Professional development groups, like the IFPO and ASIS International, can also introduce a

wide variety of professionals with whom a liaison-type relationship is beneficial.

True

10. Every large company in the United States employs instructors in the security discipline that

have had real-world experience. This provides future opportunities for security professionals

with good networking capabilities.

True

Hoofdstuk 45

1. What is the greatest issue in public safety?

Private security

2. _______ a e ho o e a ies the sel es, o du t, a d o e s attitude of i age.

Deportment

3. Where do most poor decisions emerge from?

Failure to explore all potential options

4. There is substantial legal leeway concerning the amount of force that can be used to restrain a

patient. This is an ethical issue in protection.

True

5. Professionals think in terms of their authority.

False

6. Using the _______ acronym can assist one in dealing with ethical dilemmas.

PORT

7. _______ may be established by statute, custom, or contract.

Rights

8. Taking shortcuts are one reason why unethical behavior occurs.

True

9. T aditio alis is _______ to change.

Resistance

10. The world of asset protection is black and white. There is no gray area. : FALSE

36