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This contains a list of questions recently been noted as being in the exam by more than 3 students

Generated Wednesday 16th of January 2019 10:19:29 AM

Question:621532 A 2D RNAV system provides guidance in:
Answer The horizontal plane
Option 1 The horizontal and vertical planes
Option 2 Terms of grid coordinates
Option 3 The vertical plane

Question:621298 A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain
navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
Answer ADF
Option 1 VOR
Option 2 Weather radar
Option 3 DME

Question:621417 A frequency of airborne weather radar is:
Answer 9375 MHz
Option 1 9375 kHz
Option 2 9375 GHz
Option 3 93.75 MHz

A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313
Question:621123 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a
pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
Answer 151 NM
Option 1 120 NM
Option 2 100 NM
Option 3 180 NM

Question:621005 A radio signal is transmitted in A2A. These three symbols collectively mean:
Answer an on-off keying of an amplitude modulated transmission used for aural telegraphy
Option 1 a frequency modulation with on-off keying telegraphy of an audio frequency
Option 2 an amplitude modulation used for telephony, single sideband, with suppressed carrier
Option 3 an amplitude modulation used for telephony, double sideband


Question:621685 A RAIM system has excluded a satellite. How many satellites are required to
maintain a 3D Position fix with RAIM capability?
Answer 5
Option 1 4
Option 2 6
Option 3 3

Question:621335 An aircraft at FL100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 ft
above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
Answer 137 NM
Option 1 137 km
Option 2 220 NM
Option 3 125 NM

Question:621558 An aircraft is flying at FL 150 with a modern EADI display. Which of the
following is not displayed?
Answer Radio Height
Option 1 Heading & Track
Option 2 Pressure altitude
Option 3 Attitude

Question:621144 An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser
inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
Answer May receive false course indications
Option 1 Only glide path information is available
Option 2 Will receive signals without identification coding
Option 3 Can expect signals to give correct indications

Question:621057 An aircraft, at FL 410 (ISA conditions) is passing overhead a DME station at
mean sea level. The DME indicates approximately:
Answer 6.8 NM
Option 1 6.1 NM
Option 2 6.8 km
Option 3 6.1 km

An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of
Question:621372 NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of
Magnetic Variation is:
Answer NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position
Option 1 NDB: aircraft position VOR: aircraft position
Option 2 NDB: beacon position VOR: beacon position
Option 3 NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position


Question:621641 Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning
of the term Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)?
Answer It is a technique by which a receiver checks the reliability of the signals it is receiving and
can detect if one of the signals is incorrect
Option 1 It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations
(ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message
Option 2 It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the
monitoring stations of the ground segment
Option 3 It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)
code transmitted by the satellites

Question:620948 Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
Answer One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving.
Option 1 A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omnidirectional antenna for receiving.
Option 2 One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving.
Option 3 An omnidirectional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna for receiving.

Question:621672 EGNOS (European Geostationary Navigation Overlay Service) is a:
Answer Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS)
Option 1 Airborne Based Augmentation System (ABAS)
Option 2 Local Area Augmentation System (LAA)
Option 3 Ground Based Augmentation System

Question:621541 Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-
based Area Navigation System Phantom Station:
Answer When operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference
Option 1 When in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station
Option 2 When the Phantom Station is out of range
Option 3 Because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than
180°/360°) it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information

Question:621370 FM broadcast stations transmitting just below 108 MHz are
Answer Likely to cause interference to ILS receiver not equipped with an immunity filter
Option 1 Unlikely to cause any interference to ILS receiver
Option 2 Causing interference only in extreme cases, affecting exclusively the glide path
Option 3 Likely to cause interference to all ILS receivers

Question:621280 For a conventional DME facility Beacon Saturation will occur whenever the
number of aircraft interrogations exceeds:
Answer 100

Option 1 80
Option 2 200
Option 3 60

For this question use annex

What Selection of WX+T mode on rotary switch 1 will help to detect and display
areas of
Answer Turbulence within precipitation by detecting the Doppler shift of the reflected radar signal
Option 1 Turbulence within precipitation by detecting the Doppler shift of the falling droplets.
Option 2 CAT within precipitation by detecting the Doppler shift of the falling droplets.
Option 3 CAT within precipitation by detecting the Doppler shift of the reflected radar signal.

Question:620969 From which physical phenomenon do skywaves originate?
Answer Refraction
Option 1 Interference
Option 2 Absorption
Option 3 Diffraction

Given: W/V (T) 230/ 20 kt, Var. 6E, TAS 80 kt What relative bearing from an
Question:621347 NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M)
from overhead the beacon?
Answer 188°
Option 1 008°
Option 2 352°
Option 3 172°

Question:621644 How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation?
Answer 24
Option 1 12
Option 2 6
Option 3 36

Question:621210 If during an ILS approach after having been established the pilot deviates by
more than half scale deflection on the Localizer:
Answer an immediate missed approach should be executed because obstacle clearance may no
longer be guaranteed
Option 1 the approach may be continued but a warning for excessive beam bends should be
Option 2 the approach may be completed as long as the associated locator gives the information that
the aircraft is on the centre line.
Option 3 the approach may be continued as long as the GP needle has less than a half scale deflection

Question:621699 If the signal were lost when using EGNOS for GP augmentation, how soon would
there be an indication on the flight deck?
Answer 6 seconds
Option 1 0.3 seconds
Option 2 15 seconds
Option 3 10 seconds

Question:621421 In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency
(PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
Answer Maximum theoretical range
Option 1 Beam width
Option 2 Minimum range
Option 3 Target discrimination

Question:621390 In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between
targets in azimuth is a factor of:
Answer Beam width
Option 1 Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
Option 2 Aerial rotation rate
Option 3 Pulse length

Question:621627 In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
Answer Height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
Option 1 Flight level
Option 2 Geometric height above ground
Option 3 Height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)

In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at
Question:621318 which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility
sited 340 feet above mean sea level?
Answer 204 NM
Option 1 163 NM
Option 2 245 NM
Option 3 183 NM

In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft
Question:621321 at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 ft
above MSL?
Answer 134 NM
Option 1 158 NM
Option 2 114 NM
Option 3 107 NM

In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar
Question:621394 (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to:
(Assume a beam width of 5°)
Answer 2.5° up
Option 1 5° up
Option 2 0°
Option 3 2.5° down

In order to carry out an Independent three-dimensional fix, Receiver
Question:621596 Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and failure detection and exclusion of
any faulty satellite, signal reception is required from a minimum number of how
many satellites?
Answer 6
Option 1 4
Option 2 7
Option 3 5

In order to provide an Air Traffic Services (ATS) surveillance service, what
Question:621483 minimum information must be provided to the controller on the surveillance
system display? Indication of position and also...
Answer any map information needed to provide the surveillance service, and (when available) the
aircraft identification and level.
Option 1 any map information needed to provide the surveillance service, aircraft speed, and (when
available) the aircraft identification and level.
Option 2 an overlay of the terrain, and the aircraft identification, speed, vertical speed, and level.
Option 3 level, speed, vertical speed, an overlay of the terrain, and (when available) the aircraft
identification and destination

Question:621546 In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
Answer Navigation database
Option 1 Performance database
Option 2 Air data computer
Option 3 Auto flight computers

Question:621605 In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
Answer Is corrected by using signals from four satellites
Option 1 Is negligibly small because of the great accuracy of the atomic clocks installed in the
Option 2 Can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks
Option 3 Is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected

Question:621587 In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time
taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
Answer 12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)

Option 1 12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
Option 2 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
Option 3 24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

Question:620954 In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly
Answer At night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.
Option 1 By day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.
Option 2 By day and when raining.
Option 3 At night and when raining.

Question:621426 In what circumstances will an aircraft transponder receive a P2 pulse that is
stronger than the P1 or P3 pulse?
Answer The aircraft is located in the side lobe pulse zone.
Option 1 The ground station is requesting a mode C response.
Option 2 The aircraft is located in the primary pulse zone.
Option 3 The aircraft is out of range of the SSR ground transmitter.

Question:621323 In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
Answer UHF
Option 1 SHF
Option 2 VHF
Option 3 EHF

Question:621507 On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead
reckoning mode?
Answer TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last computed
Option 1 TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass.
Option 2 Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data computer; heading
from the aircraft compass.
Option 3 Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs.

Question:621406 On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the
shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
Answer Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
Option 1 Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
Option 2 Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
Option 3 Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

Question:621291 Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
equipment are caused by:
Answer Signal bending by reflection or re-radiation from the aircraft structure

Option 1 Skywave/groundwave contamination
Option 2 Signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
Option 3 Misalignment of the loop aerial

Question:621705 Range is calculated by a GPS receiver as a
Answer sphere with the satellite at its centre
Option 1 sphere with the receiver at its centre
Option 2 circle with the receiver at its centre
Option 3 circle with the satellite at its centre

Question:621389 Regarding Airborne Weather Radar, which of the following statements is
Answer Thunderstorms may not be visible behind other heavy showers.
Option 1 Areas of clear air turbulence can be detected.
Option 2 It is safe to fly through a finger-like extension from the main radar return.
Option 3 Narrow colour bands indicate less severe weather

Question:621101 Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
Answer The transponder reply carrier frequency differs by 63 MHz from that of the interrogation
Option 1 DME operates in the VHF frequency band.
Option 2 When passing overhead the DME station the DME will indicate 0.
Option 3 The DME measures the phase difference between the reference and variable phase signals to
calculate the distance.

Question:620953 Skip distance is the:
Answer Range from the transmitter to the first sky wave.
Option 1 Highest critical frequency distance.
Option 2 Thickness of the ionosphere.
Option 3 Wavelength distance of a certain frequency.

The basic principle of operation of the ILS is the difference in depth of
modulation (DDM) between the two lobes: 1. If the aircraft strays right, the
higher tone lobe will be received at a higher intensity than the lower tone lobe;
Question:621308 2. A DDM of zero indicates the exact runway centreline; 3. The depth of
modulation increases away from the centerline; 4. A DDM of zero indicates a
balance between modulations; The combination that regroups all the corrects
statements is:
Answer 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Option 1 1 and 3.
Option 2 2, 3 and 4.
Option 3 2 and 3.

Question:621089 The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
Answer Hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal
Option 1 Hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
Option 2 Stop loop rotation
Option 3 Find the loop null position

Question:621339 The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the on position to
enable the pilot to:
Answer Hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A1A transmissions
Option 1 Hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A2A transmissions
Option 2 Stop the loop rotation
Option 3 Adjust the loop to the aural null position

Question:621466 The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
Answer Pulses
Option 1 Phase differences
Option 2 Amplitude differences
Option 3 Frequency differences

Question:621225 The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:
Answer Decimetric
Option 1 Metric
Option 2 Hectometric
Option 3 Centimetric

Question:620986 The electromagnetic waves refracted from the E and F layers of the ionosphere
are called:
Answer Sky waves
Option 1 Refracted waves
Option 2 Ground waves
Option 3 Space waves

Question:621526 The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
Answer The computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
Option 1 The same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
Option 2 Another source of aircraft position; it is independent of other navigation sources (IRS,
Radio, ILS, etc)
Option 3 The actual position of the aircraft at any point in time

Question:620976 The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 8.25 m is:
Answer 36.36 MHz

Option 1 3636 MHz
Option 2 363.6 MHz
Option 3 3.63 MHz

Question:621405 The gain control knob of an AWR adjusts:
Answer The receiver sensitivity in order to achieve optimum target acquisition.
Option 1 The automatic gain control of the AWR is activated.
Option 2 The power level of the transmitted energy is made dependent on the selected range.
Option 3 The brightness of the display.

Question:621626 The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
Answer An ellipsoid
Option 1 A mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
Option 2 A sphere
Option 3 A geoid

The heading of your aircraft is 075° (M). On the CDI a course of 025° is
Question:621085 preselected. The VOR indications are TO with the needle showing right
deflection. Relative to the station, you are situated in a quadrant defined by
the radials:
Answer 205° and 295°
Option 1 115° and 205°
Option 2 025° and 115°
Option 3 295° and 025°

Question:621258 The ILS Outer Marker modulation frequency is:
Answer 400 Hz.
Option 1 1300 Hz.
Option 2 1500 Hz.
Option 3 3000 Hz.

Question:621131 The ILS receiver of an aircraft flying down the exact runway centreline will
Answer 90 Hz and 150 Hz lobes at equal depth.
Option 1 The same frequency modulated signal from both lobes with the maximum of magnitude.
Option 2 No modulated signal because the left and the right lobes cancel each other along the
Option 3 The maximum magnitude of the difference between the 90 Hz and 150 Hz amplitudes.

Question:621656 The inclination to the equatorial plane of the NAVSTAR/GPS orbits is:

Answer 55º

Option 1 45º
Option 2 65º
Option 3 35º

Question:621606 The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
Answer Minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals
transmitted by the satellites
Option 1 Minimised by computing the average of all signals
Option 2 Negligible
Option 3 Only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon

Question:621521 The IRS is a self-contained system because:
Answer It operates independently of navigational aids outside the aircraft.
Option 1 The system generates a warning in case of a failure.
Option 2 The calculation of the position does not require any software.
Option 3 It operates off its own power supply

Question:621479 The maximum range of a pulse radar is affected by:
Answer All of these
Option 1 Pulse width
Option 2 Transmission frequency
Option 3 PRP

Question:621385 The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
Answer Pulse repetition frequency
Option 1 Frequency
Option 2 Pulse length
Option 3 Wave length

Question:621259 The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half scale deflection left
and to. The aircraft is on the radial:
Answer 050°
Option 1 240°
Option 2 230°
Option 3 060°


Question:621022 The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:
Answer Time between the transmission and reception of radio pulses
Option 1 Frequency change between the emitted wave and reflected wave
Option 2 Phase difference between emitted wave and reflected wave

Option 3 Frequency of the reflected wave

Question:621061 The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
Answer Phase comparison
Option 1 Beat frequency discrimination
Option 2 Difference in depth of modulation
Option 3 Envelope matching

Question:621617 The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
Answer 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
Option 1 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
Option 2 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a
geostationary orbital plane
Option 3 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane

Question:621388 The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
Answer Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
Option 1 Transponder malfunction
Option 2 An emergency
Option 3 Radio communication failure

Question:621414 The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
Answer An emergency
Option 1 Transponder malfunction
Option 2 Radio communication failure
Option 3 Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

Question:620955 The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
Answer Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
Option 1 Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
Option 2 Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
Option 3 Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.

Question:621689 The typical coverage of a Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) station is
Answer 30 km
Option 1 90 km
Option 2 60 km
Option 3 12 km

Question:621320 The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:
Answer Metric
Option 1 Decimetric
Option 2 Hectometric
Option 3 Centimetric

Question:620945 The wave length of a radio signal transmitted at a frequency of 118.7 MHz is:
Answer 2.53 m
Option 1 25.3 m
Option 2 2.53 cm
Option 3 25.3 cm

Question:620944 The wave length of a radio signal transmitted at a frequency of 75 MHz is:
Answer 4m
Option 1 40 m
Option 2 75 m
Option 3 7.5 m

Question:621060 Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
Answer Uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
Option 1 Night effect
Option 2 Quadrantal error
Option 3 Static interference

Question:621484 Under CS-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
Answer Cautions, abnormal sources
Option 1 Flight envelope and system limits
Option 2 Warnings
Option 3 Engaged modes

Question:621581 Under CS-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
Answer Warnings; flight envelope and system limits
Option 1 Warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
Option 2 Flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
Option 3 Cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes

Question:621503 Under CS-25 general colour code rules, features displayed in green on an
Electronic Flight Information System should indicate:
Answer Engaged modes

Option 1 The ILS deviation pointer
Option 2 Cautions, abnormal sources
Option 3 The earth

Question:621213 VDF measures the bearing of the aircraft with:
Answer Reference to true or Magnetic North at the station.
Option 1 Reference to true or Magnetic North at the aircraft.
Option 2 Reference only to Magnetic North at the aircraft.
Option 3 Reference to aircraft relative bearing.

Question:621608 What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on
the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
Answer It may prevent the reception of signals
Option 1 It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected
Option 2 It causes multipath propagation
Option 3 The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and
information from unaffected signals

Question:621059 What causes the so-called night effect?
Answer A change in the direction of the plane of polarisation due to reflection in the ionosphere.
Option 1 Interference between the ground and the space wave.
Option 2 The difference in velocity of the EM-waves over land and over sea, at night.
Option 3 The absence of the surface wave at distances larger than the skip distance.

Question:621439 What does it mean if a transponder receives a stronger P2 pulse than P1 pulse?
Answer a side lobe is being received
Option 1 the P1 pulse is valid and will be responded to
Option 2 a primary lobe is being received
Option 3 the P1 pulse is valid

Question:621143 What happens to frequency and amplitude when A1A modulation is keyed?
Answer Both remain the same.
Option 1 Frequency increases but amplitude remains the same
Option 2 Amplitude increases but frequency remains the same
Option 3 Both increase

Question:620967 What is meant by keying A1A modulation?
Answer Interrupting the carrier wave to break it into dots and dashes
Option 1 Changing the amplitude of the carrier wave to add information
Option 2 Interrupting the modulating signal to break it into dots and dashes
Option 3 Adding information on the carrier wave by use of modulating signal


Question:621715 What is the accuracy of an NDB/ADF
Answer 5 Degrees
Option 1 2 Degrees
Option 2 10 Degrees
Option 3 20 Degrees

Question:621032 What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner
Marker beacon?
Answer Blue - Amber - White
Option 1 Blue - Green - White
Option 2 Amber - White - Green
Option 3 White - Amber - Blue

Question:620999 What is the definition of an antenna?
Answer A wave type transducer for the process of converting a line AC into a free electromagnetic
Option 1 A transformer for the process of converting AC into a radio wave
Option 2 A wave type transducer for the process of converting DC into a free electromagnetic wave.
Option 3 A device used for the purpose of receiving a free electromagnetic radio wave and converting
it into an audible frequency.

Question:621357 What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?
Answer 800 m
Option 1 8m
Option 2 8000 m
Option 3 80 m

Question:620972 Whats the reason DME utilises pulse-pairs instead of single pulses?
Answer To distinguish the transmissions from transmitters of other systems utilising single pulses
Option 1 To be able to use a separate interrogations and reply frequencies and thus increase the
number of DME-stations which can transmit in the same part of the DME frequency band
Option 2 To increase the number of aircraft which can simultaneously use the DME-stations to
determine DME range
Option 3 To increase accuracy and reliability of the range measurement

Question:621251 When a DME arc is used to guide an aircraft to join a holding procedure which
entries are permitted
Answer Sector 1 & 3
Option 1 Sector 1
Option 2 Sector 2 & 3
Option 3 Sector 2


Question:621683 When a GPS receiver is using altitude as an augmentation to RAIM:
Answer The number of satellites to perform RAIM function can be reduced by one
Option 1 The accuracy of displaced position will be greatly enhanced
Option 2 Better correction for ionospheric delay will be available
Option 3 Failure reporting time will be reduced

Question:621295 When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is
the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME?
Answer 4.9 NM
Option 1 4.6 NM
Option 2 4.3 NM
Option 3 5.2 NM

Question:621475 Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
Answer Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
Option 1 Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
Option 2 Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
Option 3 Global Positioning System (GPS)

Question:621257 Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
Answer Scalloping.
Option 1 Night effect.
Option 2 Quadrantal error.
Option 3 Coastal refraction.

Question:621548 Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight
between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
Answer ETO
Option 1 ETD
Option 2 ATA
Option 3 Elapsed time on route.

Question:621494 Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV
Answer It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance
indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
Option 1 It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
Option 2 It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
Option 3 It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues
working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air

Which of the following modes which are selectable on the mode control panel
Question:621474 represent a parameter that is downlinked from a Mode S enhanced surveillance
(EHS) transponder?
Answer Selected altitude
Option 1 Selected course
Option 2 Selected vertical speed
Option 3 Selected heading

Question:621516 Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based
Area Navigation System when tracking inbound to a phantom waypoint?
Answer Crosstrack distance; Distance to Go
Option 1 Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
Option 2 True airspeed; drift angle
Option 3 Wind velocity

Which RNP can be can be used in all phases of flight except for en-route
Question:620940 oceanic/remote and final approach phases and is intended primarily for
Answer RNP 0.3
Option 1 RNP 10
Option 2 RNP AR APCH
Option 3 RNP 5

Question:621377 Why should the tilt of an Airborne Weather Radar system (without auto tilt) be
changed to a higher setting when descending over terrain?
Answer If the beam’s tilt remains at the setting used during cruise, the scanning range will be
reduced and significant ground clutter may be displayed.
Option 1 The higher tilt setting will keep the beam above the aircraft’s flight path.
Option 2 The higher tilt setting will narrow the beam width, allowing for effective detection of
cumulonimbus clouds at shorter range.
Option 3 If the beam’s tilt remains at the setting used during cruise, the scanning range will be
reduced and the strength of the reflected signals will be weaker.

Question:621477 With thunderstorms reported in the vicinity, when lining up on the runway what
would you do with the weather radar?
Answer After scanning upwards to look for weather set the tilt a few degrees up
Option 1 Select map mode so get a wider coverage during the take-off period
Option 2 Increase the gain to get a better image
Option 3 Turn the Ground clutter switch to off

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