Compiled 2000 Questions PDF

“The 2000 Items”
Intensive Final
Coaching
Questionnaires
Volume 1
(CLJ-LEA-CRIMINALISTICS)
By
Charlemagne James P. Ramos
What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
This review material (Volume 1) contains
Question and Answer on CLJ, LEA, and
Criminalistics. The answer key provided are mere
suggestions. It is strongly advised to seek
other information for proper verification of the
answers. If there are unintended errors it is
due to myopia of the writer and he humbly
accepts suggestions and comments. God bless and
Mabuhay Criminology Pilipinas!
-CJPR
Makati City, 2016
DEDICATION
This work is dedicated to all Criminology Students who will be later become an exceptional
Criminologists and to the Author’s Alma Mater Sumulong College of Arts and Sciences,
College of Criminal Justice Education.
To my Family, my Father Staff Sergeant Joseph C. Ramos and Mother Cerila P. Ramos, to my
Brother Lieutenant Charles Joseph P. Ramos and Sister Charmaine Joyce P. Ramos, to my
Niece Hayleigh Amber R. Catulay.
To all my teams that I’d set my heart and who filled my soul, Team LAPAY (Batch 2013 SCAS‐
CJE), Team AIDA (Batch 2014 SCAS‐UI‐CJE), Team ALPHA (Batch 2015 SCAS‐WCC‐TCC‐LA‐
CSU‐CJE), and Team BRAVO (Batch 2016 SCAS‐CJE‐TSU) and to my Mentor Dr. Rommel K.
Manwong I will be forever indebted for you of what I am now.
TO GOD BE ALL THE GLORY
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
Special mention to my team, Team Bravo (BATCH 2016) of Sumulong
College of Arts and Sciences for the editing of manuscript and design of
the book cover and more importantly for your unrelenting support.
To my Lolo Master Sergeant Bejamin P. Pangantihon and Brigadier
General Vicente C. Pangantihon who inspired me to be an exceptional
writer.
To my Classmates in PUP College of Law “Wansix” who always give
everything a good fight and to all the person who’d cross my path as
we all know that gratitude when profound has a special way of being
silent (Riano).
About the Author
Charlemagne James P. Ramos obtained his Bachelor of Science in
Criminology from Sumulong College of Arts and Sciences College
of Criminal Justice Education in 2013 and subsequently passed
the October 2013 Criminologist Licensure Examination with the
rating of 88.05. At the young age he became a former professor at
the same school and a national lecturer to various review centers
in the Philippines. His passion in teaching lead him to do writings
and a vast of opus and treatise that would help the candidates of
the Licensure Examination. Aside from writing and teaching at his
own coaching sessions he is also currently completing his degree
in Juris Doctor at the Polytechnic University of the Philippines
College of Law. The experience he gained for being a lecturer and
striker in every session of the Criminologist Licensure Examination
makes him specialized in training candidates of the Criminology
Licensure Examination evidence are the Registered Criminologist
of various schools he had produced in the first row of years in the
practice as a Criminologist.
Excerpt from the Book
What Criminologist Know?
By Charlemagne James P. Ramos
A Compilation of
Question and Answer in
Criminal Law and Jurisprudence
(500 Items)
(RPC Book 1 and 2, Criminal Procedure, Criminal Evidence)
QUESTION AND ANSWER IN
CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE
SET 1
By: Charlemagne James P. Ramos
1. Vice President Binay, while in office, unlawfully
acquired various properties. Due to his connection, no
one filed a criminal case against him. And even if one is
filed, the crime is already prescribed. Can the state still
recover the unlawfully acquired properties of the said
Vice President?
A. It depends C. no
B. possible D. yes
1. Vice President Binay, while in office, unlawfully
acquired various properties. Due to his connection, no
one filed a criminal case against him. And even if one is
filed, the crime is already prescribed. Can the state still
recover the unlawfully acquired properties of the said
Vice President?
A. It depends C. no
B. possible D. yes
2. How many years is the prescriptive period on
crimes punishable by correctional penalties (not
exceeding 6 years)
A. 15 C. 5
B. 2 D. 10
2. How many years is the prescriptive period on
crimes punishable by correctional penalties (not
exceeding 6 years)
A. 15 C. 5
B. 2 D. 10
3. In putting up self‐defense in criminal prosecution,
as prober, you have to determine the existence of
the most important element which is what?
A. deliberate C. motive
B. actual killing D. unlawful aggression
3. In putting up self‐defense in criminal prosecution,
as prober, you have to determine the existence of
the most important element which is what?
4. The prescriptions of crimes under art 90 of the RPC,
as amended, covers only the crimes defined and
punished under the said code. Offenses which are
defined and penalized under special laws are treated
differently. The prescription thereof is governed by Act.
No. 3326, wherein, as stated therein, acts in violation
of municipal, city ordinances prescribes in how many
months?
A. 2 months C. 4 months
B. 3 months D. 5 months
4. The prescriptions of crimes under art 90 of the RPC,
as amended, covers only the crimes defined and
punished under the said code. Offenses which are
defined and penalized under special laws are treated
differently. The prescription thereof is governed by Act.
No. 3326, wherein, as stated therein, acts in violation
of municipal, city ordinances prescribes in how many
months?
A. 2 months C. 4 months
B. 3 months D. 5 months
5. In the Philippines or even in other countries,
crime or offense crimes or offense are committed
either by commission of an act or what?
A. consummation C. overt violation

B. omission D. intent
5. In the Philippines or even in other countries,
crime or offense crimes or offense are committed
either by commission of an act or what?
A. consummation C. overt violation

B. omission D. intent
6. Under our penal laws, is negligence and
imprudence in itself a crime?
A. it depends C. maybe
B. no D. yes
A. it depends C. maybe
B. no D. yes
7. The purpose of the habitual delinquency law is
to confine the prisoner for a longer period of time
for the purpose of protecting the?
A. Witnesses C. complaint
B. Victim D. society
8. Aside from the RPC, as amended, and PD
issued during Martial Law era, the other main
source of criminal law are special laws which are
penal in nature or one that provides what?
A. obedience C. publication
B. punishment D. observance
8. Aside from the RPC, as amended, and PD
issued during Martial Law era, the other main
source of criminal law are special laws which are
penal in nature or one that provides what?
A. obedience C. publication
B. punishment D. observance
9. In criminal law, when one speak of capital
offense, it connotes that an offense wherein the
imposable penalty when committed as charged
is what?
A. divisible C. prision mayor

B. indivisible D. reclusion perpetua
9. In criminal law, when one speak of capital
offense, it connotes that an offense wherein the
imposable penalty when committed as charged
is what?
A. divisible C. prision mayor

B. indivisible D. reclusion perpetua
10. In criminal law, what is the other term for
negligence?
A. culpa C. prohibita
B. dolo D. reclusion perpetua
10. In criminal law, what is the other term for
negligence?
A. culpa C. prohibita
B. dolo D. reclusion perpetua
11. Prescription of crimes under art 90 of the
RPC refers to the period or years where the state
can no longer file a criminal case. In crimes
punishable by life imprisonment, how many
years are required to pass before the state can
no longer validly file the case.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 10
D. 15
11. Prescription of crimes under art 90 of the
RPC refers to the period or years where the state
can no longer file a criminal case. In crimes
punishable by life imprisonment, how many
years are required to pass before the state can
no longer validly file the case.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 10
D. 15
12. Conspiracy can be inferred from and proven
by acts of the accused themselves where said
acts point to a joint purpose and design,
concerted action and community of what?
A. Determination C. stylus
B. interests D. results
12. Conspiracy can be inferred from and proven
by acts of the accused themselves where said
acts point to a joint purpose and design,
concerted action and community of what?
A. Determination C. stylus
B. interests D. results
13. In the prescription of an offense, the period
of prescription shall start to run on the day on
which the crime is what?
A. Planned C. filed
B. discovered D. investigated
13. In the prescription of an offense, the period
of prescription shall start to run on the day on
which the crime is what?
A. Planned C. filed
B. discovered D. investigated
14. What kind of penalty shall be imposed if the
offense was committed by a member or a person
who belongs to an organized syndicated crime
group?
A. Maximum C. minimum
B. minimum D. death
14. What kind of penalty shall be imposed if the
offense was committed by a member or a person
who belongs to an organized syndicated crime
group?
A. Maximum C. minimum
B. minimum D. death
15. When one speaks of capital punishment or
crime with afflictive penalties, said crime is
categorized as?
A. Less grave C. grave

B. serious D. culpable
15. When one speaks of capital punishment or
crime with afflictive penalties, said crime is
categorized as?

B. serious D. culpable
16. Under the territorial application of our criminal
law, every crime committed within the Philippines
territory is punishable. Supposing in a parachuting
competition in Subic, an American participant,
while 2000 miles in the air, was shot to death by a
Nigerian rival, can the latter be charged criminally
in our local court?
A. It depends
B. B. yes
C. C. no
D. D. possible What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
16. Under the territorial application of our criminal
law, every crime committed within the Philippines
territory is punishable. Supposing in a parachuting
competition in Subic, an American participant,
while 2000 miles in the air, was shot to death by a
Nigerian rival, can the latter be charged criminally
in our local court?
A. It depends
B. B. yes
C. C. no
D. D. possible What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
17. In the legal period of duration of divisible
penalties under art. 76 of the RPC, there are 3
periods and these are medium, maximum and
what?
A. Fixed
B. B. reclusion
C. C. Minimum
D. D. possible
17. In the legal period of duration of divisible
penalties under art. 76 of the RPC, there are 3
periods and these are medium, maximum and
what?
A. Fixed
B. B. reclusion
C. C. Minimum
D. D. possible
18. A disposition wherein an accused, after
conviction and sentence is released subject to
the condition imposed by the court and into the
supervision of a probation officer is called?
A. Probation C. parole
B. executive clemency D. none
18. A disposition wherein an accused, after
conviction and sentence is released subject to
the condition imposed by the court and into the
supervision of a probation officer is called?
A. Probation C. parole
B. executive clemency D. none
19. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the state
the state to prosecute the offender after the
lapse of a certain period of time fixed by law is
called what?
A. Prescription of the crime
B. Prescription o4f the penalty
C. Estoppel
D. Waiver
19. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the state
the state to prosecute the offender after the
lapse of a certain period of time fixed by law is
called what?
A. Prescription of the crime
B. Prescription o4f the penalty
C. Estoppel
D. Waiver
20. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the
government to execute the final sentence after
the lapse of a certain time fixed by law is called
prescription of?
A. Penalty C. crime
B. Sentence D. execution
20. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the
government to execute the final sentence after
the lapse of a certain time fixed by law is called
prescription of?
A. Penalty C. crime
B. Sentence D. execution
21. When the evidence presented in court during
trial by the State and the accused are of equal
weight, which will prevail?
A. It depends
B. Accused
C. State
D. None
A. It depends
B. Accused
C. State
D. None
22. The degree of proof required to establish the
crime is similar to that of establishing conspiracy
and that is proof beyond reasonable?
A. Necessity C. doubt
B. Motive D. fault
crime is similar to that of establishing conspiracy
and that is proof beyond reasonable?
B. Motive D. fault
23. In self‐defense, from whom shall the
unlawful aggression come from?
A. Defender C. none
B. Victim D. other person
23. In self‐defense, from whom shall the
unlawful aggression come from?
A. Defender C. none
B. Victim D. other person
24. Generally, our criminal laws are applicable
only within the Philippine territory. However,
there are instances wherein our penal laws
maybe operative even in foreign countries. It is
what we call what?
A. None C. universally
B. Extraterritoriality D. internationality
24. Generally, our criminal laws are applicable
only within the Philippine territory. However,
there are instances wherein our penal laws
maybe operative even in foreign countries. It is
what we call what?
A. None C. universally
B. Extraterritoriality D. internationality
25. Since there is no death penalty today, what is
now the most severe penalty that carries loss of
freedom or liberty?
A. Life imprisonment C. prision correctional

B. Destierro D. prision mayor
25. Since there is no death penalty today, what is
now the most severe penalty that carries loss of
freedom or liberty?
A. Life imprisonment C. prision correctional

B. Destierro D. prision mayor
26. One of the characteristics of criminal law is
prospective which simply means no retroactive
effect. Before its effectivity, it is not punishable.
Does the argument accept an exception?
A. Yes C. no
B. It depends D. possible
26. One of the characteristics of criminal law is
prospective which simply means no retroactive
effect. Before its effectivity, it is not punishable.
Does the argument accept an exception?
A. Yes C. no
27. In the prosecution of crime particularly in the
imposition of penalty, what kind of penalty has
the purpose to serve as example to the public to
deter others from committing crime?
A. Exemplary C. retribution
B. Prevention D. reformation
imposition of penalty, what kind of penalty has
the purpose to serve as example to the public to
deter others from committing crime?
28. An accused was convicted and was
sentenced to suffer 6 months to 4 years
imprisonment. Unconvinced of the decision, he
appealed but at the same time applied for
probation. Will the application for probation
prosper?
A. Yes C. no
28. An accused was convicted and was
sentenced to suffer 6 months to 4 years
imprisonment. Unconvinced of the decision, he
appealed but at the same time applied for
probation. Will the application for probation
prosper?
A. Yes C. no
29. In the classification of crimes according to
nature, whether “mala in se” or “mala
prohibita”, in the former, what is the
indispensable requirement, if there is any?
A. Intent C. accidental
B. Nature D. none
29. In the classification of crimes according to
nature, whether “mala in se” or “mala
prohibita”, in the former, what is the
indispensable requirement, if there is any?
A. Intent C. accidental
B. Nature D. none
30. One day, a trying hard hold upper went to his intended
pawnshop target in Chinatown, Manila bur upon seeing that
his bare hands and a knife has no match to an armed security
personnel thereat, voluntarily desisted. Investigated by a
rookie prober but from the Manila’s finest, he argued that he
should not be charged because while he indeed had the
intention to rob the shop, it did not materialize. The argument
is correct because there was at that point what?
A. No loss whatsoever
B. A guard in the pawnshop
C. Commotion
D. No overt act
30. One day, a trying hard hold upper went to his intended
pawnshop target in Chinatown, Manila bur upon seeing that
his bare hands and a knife has no match to an armed security
personnel thereat, voluntarily desisted. Investigated by a
rookie prober but from the Manila’s finest, he argued that he
should not be charged because while he indeed had the
intention to rob the shop, it did not materialize. The argument
is correct because there was at that point what?
A. No loss whatsoever
B. A guard in the pawnshop
C. Commotion
D. No overt act
31. In the study of criminal laws, especially laws
outside RPC, is good faith in committing a crime
against a special law a defense?
A. Yes C. no
B. It depends D. maybe
31. In the study of criminal laws, especially laws
outside RPC, is good faith in committing a crime
against a special law a defense?
A. Yes C. no
B. It depends D. maybe
32. The most important element in self‐defense
is unlawful aggression. There can be no self‐
defense unless the victim first commit unlawful
aggression against the person who resorted to
what?
A. Treachery C. killing
B. Self‐defense D. self‐denial
32. The most important element in self‐defense
is unlawful aggression. There can be no self‐
defense unless the victim first commit unlawful
aggression against the person who resorted to
what?
A. Treachery C. killing
B. Self‐defense D. self‐denial
33. A couple had a bitter quarrel. Running after his
wife, the husband was seen by their son and the latter,
in order to stop his father from hurting his mother, hit
his mother with a piece of wood fracturing his skull
and causing his death. The son was charged with
parricide. This is a classic sample of what kind of
defense?
A. Complete defense of mother
B. None of these
C. Defense of relative
D. Incomplete self defense
33. A couple had a bitter quarrel. Running after his
wife, the husband was seen by their son and the latter,
in order to stop his father from hurting his mother, hit
his mother with a piece of wood fracturing his skull
and causing his death. The son was charged with
parricide. This is a classic sample of what kind of
defense?
A. Complete defense of mother
B. None of these
C. Defense of relative
D. Incomplete self defense
34. In criminal law, in order to validly invoke
exempting circumstance, there must be absence
of what on the part of the invoker?
A. Malice C. necessity
B. Freedom D. aggravating
34. In criminal law, in order to validly invoke
exempting circumstance, there must be absence
of what on the part of the invoker?
A. Malice C. necessity
B. Freedom D. aggravating
35. if an unlawful aggressor runs away from the
crime scene because the weapon on his
possession he also intended to use in a fight was
already taken from him by his adversary, can the
latter validly invoke self‐ defense if and when he
still killed the said fleeing man?
A. Yes C. no
35. if an unlawful aggressor runs away from the
crime scene because the weapon on his
possession he also intended to use in a fight was
already taken from him by his adversary, can the
latter validly invoke self‐ defense if and when he
still killed the said fleeing man?
A. Yes C. no
36. The mental capacity of a minor to fully
appreciate the consequences of his unlawful act,
which capacity maybe known and should be
determined by taking into account all the facts
and circumstances afforded by the records in
each case is what we call?
A. Incapacity C. discernment
B. Culpability D. determination
36. The mental capacity of a minor to fully
appreciate the consequences of his unlawful act,
which capacity maybe known and should be
determined by taking into account all the facts
and circumstances afforded by the records in
each case is what we call?
A. Incapacity C. discernment
B. Culpability D. determination
37. There are 3 stages in the execution in the
commission of a crime and these are:
consummated, frustrated and what?
A. Exempted C. attempted
B. Premeditated D. none
37. There are 3 stages in the execution in the
commission of a crime and these are:
consummated, frustrated and what?
A. Exempted C. attempted
B. Premeditated D. none
38. Pardon is an act of grace granted by the chief
executive. Which of the following is the
mandatory requirement in order that the
granting of that benefit be legally valid and
effective?
A. Acceptance C. motive
B. Innocence D. prior behavior
38. Pardon is an act of grace granted by the chief
executive. Which of the following is the
mandatory requirement in order that the
granting of that benefit be legally valid and
effective?
A. Acceptance C. motive
B. Innocence D. prior behavior
39. The date of effectivity of the Revised Penal
Code is January 1, _____
A. 1932 C. 1931
B. 1929 D. 1930
39. The date of effectivity of the Revised Penal
Code is January 1, _____
A. 1932 C. 1931
B. 1929 D. 1930
40. When by simultaneous acts a person
cooperated in the execution of an offense, he is
termed as:
A. An accessory C. an accomplice
B. A perpetrator D. a conspirator
40. When by simultaneous acts a person
cooperated in the execution of an offense, he is
termed as:
A. An accessory C. an accomplice
B. A perpetrator D. a conspirator
41. The following are considered alternative
circumstances EXCEPT:
A. Degree of intoxication
B. degree of instruction
C. Habitual education
D. relationship
41. The following are considered alternative
circumstances EXCEPT:
A. Degree of intoxication
B. degree of instruction
C. Habitual education
D. relationship
42. The degree of proof required in criminal
cases to convict the accused is:
A. Moral certainty
B. Preponderance of evidence
C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D. Substantial evidence
42. The degree of proof required in criminal
cases to convict the accused is:
A. Moral certainty
43. The following are special aggravating circumstances
which will increase the penalty in the crime of
violation of domicile except:
A. If effects not constituting a crime be not returned
immediately after the search
B. Nighttime
C. Dwelling
D. If papers not constituting a crime be not returned
43. The following are special aggravating circumstances
which will increase the penalty in the crime of
violation of domicile except:
A. If effects not constituting a crime be not returned
B. Nighttime
C. Dwelling
D. If papers not constituting a crime be not returned
44. What do you call that quantum of evidence
which a reasonable mind might accept as
sufficient to justify a conclusion?
A. Substantial C. appropriate
B. Proper D. adequate
44. What do you call that quantum of evidence
which a reasonable mind might accept as
sufficient to justify a conclusion?
A. Substantial C. appropriate
B. Proper D. adequate
45. The following aggravating circumstance will
qualify the crime to murder:
Employing means to weaken the defense
II. in consideration of price, reward or promise
III. the crime is committed in the broad daylight
IV. With evident premeditation
V. By stranding of a vessel
A. I,II,IV,V C. I,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,V D. I,II,III,IV
45. The following aggravating circumstance will
qualify the crime to murder:
Employing means to weaken the defense
II. in consideration of price, reward or promise
III. the crime is committed in the broad daylight
IV. With evident premeditation
V. By stranding of a vessel
A. I,II,IV,V C. I,III,IV,V
B. I,II,III,V D. I,II,III,IV
46. Which of the following is an exempting
circumstances? When the crime is committed by
a person _____________________________
A. Who had intention to commit so grave a
wrong as that committed
B. Who acts under the compulsion of an
irresistible force
C. Who acted with abuse of confidence or
obvious ungratefulness
D. In contempt of public authorities
46. Which of the following is an exempting
circumstances? When the crime is committed by
a person _____________________________
A. Who had intention to commit so grave a
wrong as that committed
B. Who acts under the compulsion of an
irresistible force
C. Who acted with abuse of confidence or
obvious ungratefulness
D. In contempt of public authorities
47. Minority is considered either as ________
circumstance.
A. A justifying or mitigating
B. An aggravating r justifying
C. An exempting or mitigating
D. An aggravating or exempting
47. Minority is considered either as ________
circumstance.
A. A justifying or mitigating
B. An aggravating r justifying
C. An exempting or mitigating
D. An aggravating or exempting
48. Crimes punishable by prision correctional
prescribe in _____ years.
A. Fifteen C. five
B. Ten D. one
48. Crimes punishable by prision correctional
prescribe in _____ years.
A. Fifteen C. five
B. Ten D. one
49. Person who, subsequent to the commission
of a crime and without taking part in it
concealed the instruments thereof are called:
A. Accomplices C. malefactors
B. Accessories D. fences
49. Person who, subsequent to the commission
of a crime and without taking part in it
concealed the instruments thereof are called:
A. Accomplices C. malefactors
50. Offenders are _______ from criminal liability
if they are completely wanting in discernment at
the time that they committed the offense.
A. Justified C. aggravated
B. Mitigated D. exempted
50. Offenders are _______ from criminal liability
if they are completely wanting in discernment at
the time that they committed the offense.
A. Justified C. aggravated
B. Mitigated D. exempted
51. When the accused is completely deprived of
reason or discernment and freedom of the will
at the time of committing the crime, it is said
that ______is present.
A. Insanity C. status
B. Lack of skill D. aberration
51. When the accused is completely deprived of
reason or discernment and freedom of the will
at the time of committing the crime, it is said
that ______is present.
A. Insanity C. status
B. Lack of skill D. aberration
52. Imbecility is exempting in all cases while
insanity is not if the offender committed the
crime during a lucid interval. This statement is
correct.
A. False C. partly true

B. True D. partly false
52. Imbecility is exempting in all cases while
insanity is not if the offender committed the
crime during a lucid interval. This statement is
correct.
A. False C. partly true

B. True D. partly false
53. The following are aggravating circumstances
EXCEPT:
A. Crime is committed in a place dedicated to
religious worship
B. Taking advantage of his public position by
the offender
C. Act is committed with insult to public
authorities
D. The offender is deaf and dumb
53. The following are aggravating circumstances
EXCEPT:
A. Crime is committed in a place dedicated to
religious worship
B. Taking advantage of his public position by
the offender
C. Act is committed with insult to public
authorities
D. The offender is deaf and dumb
54. What law established the period of
prescription for violations penalized by special
acts?
A. Act no. 3326 C. R.A. 7691
B. R.A. 7659 D. Act no. 3815
54. What law established the period of
prescription for violations penalized by special
acts?
A. Act no. 3326 C. R.A. 7691
B. R.A. 7659 D. Act no. 3815
55. The employment of such ways and means to
catch a perpetrator in the act of committing an
offense is called:
A. Investigation C. interrogation
B. Surveillance D. entrapment
55. The employment of such ways and means to
catch a perpetrator in the act of committing an
offense is called:
A. Investigation C. interrogation
B. Surveillance D. entrapment
56. When by prior acts a person joined in the
commission of a crime. He is identified as:
A. A malefactor C. an accessory
B. An accomplice D. a principal
56. When by prior acts a person joined in the
commission of a crime. He is identified as:
A. A malefactor C. an accessory
B. An accomplice D. a principal
57. Which of the following statements is wrong?
A. A child over 9 and under 15 years of age is

exempted from criminal liability.
B. A person over 18 but under 70 years of age
has full criminal responsibility.
C. A person over 70 years of age committing a
felony is entitled to mitigating circumstance.
D. A child under 15 years of age has criminal
liability.
57. Which of the following statements is wrong?
A. A child over 9 and under 15 years of age is

exempted from criminal liability.
B. A person over 18 but under 70 years of age
has full criminal responsibility.
C. A person over 70 years of age committing a
felony is entitled to mitigating circumstance.
D. A child under 15 years of age has criminal
liability.
58. What do you call that aggravating
circumstances which applies to all crimes?
A. Generic C. specific
B. Inherent D. qualifying
58. What do you call that aggravating
circumstances which applies to all crimes?
A. Generic C. specific
B. Inherent D. qualifying
59. The following are mitigating circumstance
EXCEPT:
A. Passion or obfuscation
B. Voluntary plea of guilt
C. Voluntary surrender
D. state of necessity
59. The following are mitigating circumstance
EXCEPT:
A. Passion or obfuscation
B. Voluntary plea of guilt
C. Voluntary surrender
D. state of necessity
60. The penalty for a felony is capital
punishment, it is said to be:

B. Light D. heinous
60. The penalty for a felony is capital
punishment, it is said to be:

B. Light D. heinous
61. If he had not acted with discernment, a
person ______ years of age is exempted from
criminal liability.
A. Under 15 C. over 70
B. Over 15 and under 18 D. under 9
61. If he had not acted with discernment, a
person ______ years of age is exempted from
criminal liability.
A. Under 15 C. over 70
B. Over 15 and under 18 D. under 9
62. The following are exempting circumstances
EXCEPT:
A. Imbecility C. lawful cause

B. Insuperable cause D. fulfillment of duty
62. The following are exempting circumstances
EXCEPT:
A. Imbecility C. lawful cause

B. Insuperable cause D. fulfillment of duty
63. Under the English Rule, crimes committed on
board a foreign merchant vessel while on the
waters of another country are ______ in that
country unless such crimes affect merely the
internal management of the vessel.
A. Not triable C. eligible

B. Triable D. coverable
63. Under the English Rule, crimes committed on
board a foreign merchant vessel while on the
waters of another country are ______ in that
country unless such crimes affect merely the
internal management of the vessel.
A. Not triable C. eligible

B. Triable D. coverable
64. When the offender has performed all the
acts of execution which should produce the
felony but it does not result due to cause of
which he has no hand, it is said to be:
A. Frustrated C. attempted
B. Consummated D. executed
64. When the offender has performed all the
acts of execution which should produce the
felony but it does not result due to cause of
which he has no hand, it is said to be:
A. Frustrated C. attempted
B. Consummated D. executed
65. Persons who assisted the offenders to profit
by the effects of the crime are known as:
A. Accomplices C. perpetrators
65. Persons who assisted the offenders to profit
by the effects of the crime are known as:
A. Accomplices C. perpetrators
66. If actus Reus is Guilty Act, Mens Rea is
______
A. Guilty mind C. Guilty person

B. Guilty Accused D. Guilty Suspect
66. If actus Reus is Guilty Act, Mens Rea is
______
A. Guilty mind C. Guilty person

B. Guilty Accused D. Guilty Suspect
67. The power to enact penal laws belongs to
A. Executive C. Legislative
B. Judiciary D. Police power
67. The power to enact penal laws belongs to
A. Executive C. Legislative
B. Judiciary D. Police power
68. Mar, Digong & Jun‐Jun raped Grace in that when Mar was having sex with
Grace, Digong & Jun‐Jun were holding the legs and arms of Grace. When it
was Digong's turn, Mar & Jun‐Jun were the ones holding Grace's legs and
arms. When Jun‐Jun was the one having sex with Grace, the ones holding
Grace arms and legs were Mar & Digong. Later, Mar succeeded in courting
Grace and later Mar contracted marriage with Grace. Is the criminal liability
for rape committed by Mar, Digong & Jun‐Jun extinguished?
A. No, because marriage of the offended party with the offender does not
apply to multiple rapes.
B. Yes, the marriage of the offender with the offended party shall extinguish
the criminal action or remit the penalty already imposed
C. No, because marriage by the offended party with the offender does not
apply to accomplices and accessories.
D. Yes, because a husband cannot be guilty of the crime rape upon his wife
because of the matrimonialWhat Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
consent.
68. Mar, Digong & Jun‐Jun raped Grace in that when Mar was having sex with
Grace, Digong & Jun‐Jun were holding the legs and arms of Grace. When it
was Digong's turn, Mar & Jun‐Jun were the ones holding Grace's legs and
arms. When Jun‐Jun was the one having sex with Grace, the ones holding
Grace arms and legs were Mar & Digong. Later, Mar succeeded in courting
Grace and later Mar contracted marriage with Grace. Is the criminal liability
for rape committed by Mar, Digong & Jun‐Jun extinguished?
A. No, because marriage of the offended party with the offender does not
apply to multiple rapes.
B. Yes, the marriage of the offender with the offended party shall extinguish
the criminal action or remit the penalty already imposed
C. No, because marriage by the offended party with the offender does not
apply to accomplices and accessories.
D. Yes, because a husband cannot be guilty of the crime rape upon his wife
because of the matrimonialWhat Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
consent.
69. There is complex crime when:
I. When a single act constitutes two or more grave
felonies known as compound crime
II. When an offense is a necessary means of
committing the other is the complex crime proper
III. Compound crime because the single act of shooting
resulted two or more grave felonies
A. I and II C. I,II,III
B. II only D. III only
69. There is complex crime when:
I. When a single act constitutes two or more grave
felonies known as compound crime
II. When an offense is a necessary means of
committing the other is the complex crime proper
III. Compound crime because the single act of shooting
resulted two or more grave felonies
70. Duterte with a revolver shot Roxas, missing him
but the bullet hit Binay who is Duterte's father.
Duterte committed the crime of attempted
homicide with parricide. What kind of a complex
crime is committed?
A. Compound crime (Delito Compuesto)
B. Complex crime proper (Delito Complejo)
C. Complex crime
D. Continuing Crime (Delito Continuado)
70. Duterte with a revolver shot Roxas, missing him
but the bullet hit Binay who is Duterte's father.
Duterte committed the crime of attempted
homicide with parricide. What kind of a complex
crime is committed?
A. Compound crime (Delito Compuesto)
B. Complex crime proper (Delito Complejo)
C. Complex crime
D. Continuing Crime (Delito Continuado)
71. It is an accessory penalty provided by law
when the principal penalty imposed upon the
offender for the commission of a crime is more
than twelve years imprisonment.
A. Amnesty C. Civil interdiction

B. Capital offense D. Fine
71. It is an accessory penalty provided by law
when the principal penalty imposed upon the
offender for the commission of a crime is more
than twelve years imprisonment.
A. Amnesty C. Civil interdiction

B. Capital offense D. Fine
72. Is a kind of a crime which is committed by a
person who performs an act which would be an
offense against person or property, were it not for
the inherent impossibility of its accomplishments
or on account of the employment of inadequate
or ineffectual means.
A. Complex crime C. Prescription of crime

B. Impossible crime D. Material Crime
72. Is a kind of a crime which is committed by a
person who performs an act which would be an
offense against person or property, were it not for
the inherent impossibility of its accomplishments
or on account of the employment of inadequate
or ineffectual means.
A. Complex crime C. Prescription of crime

B. Impossible crime D. Material Crime
73. Mirriam lends Poe the bolo, which was used
by Poe in the murder of Leni, is criminally liable
as?
A. Principal C. Accomplice
B. Accessory D. Conspirator
73. Mirriam lends Poe the bolo, which was used
by Poe in the murder of Leni, is criminally liable
as?
74. Charlemagne with intent to kill shot James using an
unlicensed firearm as a result James died instantly. Now,
future Criminologist what crime or crimes was committed by
Charlemagne?
A. Homicide, the unlicensed firearm will be appreciated only
as an aggravating circumstance
B. Separate crime of Homicide and illegal possession of
firearms under PD 1866 amended by RA 8294.
C. Murder, the use of unlicensed fire will be appreciated as a
qualifying aggravating circumstance.
D. Separate crime of Murder and illegal possession of
74. Charlemagne with intent to kill shot James using an
unlicensed firearm as a result James died instantly. Now,
future Criminologist what crime or crimes was committed by
Charlemagne?
75. Robin has in his possession a firearm,
unfortunately robin overlaps the date that his
license should be register then and there
resulting to the expiration of his license to
posses’ firearm. Could Robin be held liable for
Illegal Possession of Firearm?
A. Yes C. No
B. It Depends D. Maybe
75. Robin has in his possession a firearm,
unfortunately robin overlaps the date that his
license should be register then and there
resulting to the expiration of his license to
posses’ firearm. Could Robin be held liable for
Illegal Possession of Firearm?
A. Yes C. No
76. Persons who aid the felons to hide away
evidences or profit from the fruits of the crimes
are said to be.
B. Accessories D. Conspirator
76. Persons who aid the felons to hide away
evidences or profit from the fruits of the crimes
are said to be.
B. Accessories D. Conspirator
77. Cayetano kidnapped Marcos and demanded a ransom of
P100,000,00 from Marcos' parents. In time, the ransom was
paid and the victim was released. When Pia (Cayetano's
adopted sister) learned that Cayetano was being hunted by
the police for kidnapping, she (Pia) took Cayetano into her
house and concealed him. Cayetano was able to elude the
police. What is the criminal liability of Pia, if any?
A. No criminal liability as Pia was a relative of Cayetano
B. Principal as Pia is the adopted sister of Cayetano
C. Accessory as Pia conceal his brother Cayetano
D. Accomplice as Pia conceal and harbor Cayetano at her
house
77. Cayetano kidnapped Marcos and demanded a ransom of
P100,000,00 from Marcos' parents. In time, the ransom was
paid and the victim was released. When Pia (Cayetano's
adopted sister) learned that Cayetano was being hunted by
the police for kidnapping, she (Pia) took Cayetano into her
house and concealed him. Cayetano was able to elude the
police. What is the criminal liability of Pia, if any?
A. No criminal liability as Pia was a relative of Cayetano
B. Principal as Pia is the adopted sister of Cayetano
C. Accessory as Pia conceal his brother Cayetano
D. Accomplice as Pia conceal and harbor Cayetano at her
house
78. Honasan proposed to Chiz that they rob a certain
store, to which Chiz agreed, later, however, Chiz
undertook the robbery alone and made off with
P90.000.00 cash. The following day, after making some
shallow explanation, Chiz apologized to Honasan and
gave the latter P20.000.00 which Honasan somewhat
grudgingly accepted. What is Honasan's liability? If
any?
B. Accessory D. Conspirators
78. Honasan proposed to Chiz that they rob a certain
store, to which Chiz agreed, later, however, Chiz
undertook the robbery alone and made off with
P90.000.00 cash. The following day, after making some
shallow explanation, Chiz apologized to Honasan and
gave the latter P20.000.00 which Honasan somewhat
grudgingly accepted. What is Honasan's liability? If
any?
B. Accessory D. Conspirators
79. To be appreciated as mitigating, it must be
made to person in authority or his agent; it may be
present if made after the issuance of a warrant of
arrest, but before actual arrest is made.
A. Voluntary surrender C. Habitually reiteration

B. Recidivism D. Treachery
79. To be appreciated as mitigating, it must be
made to person in authority or his agent; it may be
present if made after the issuance of a warrant of
arrest, but before actual arrest is made.
A. Voluntary surrender C. Habitually reiteration

B. Recidivism D. Treachery
80. This kind of aggravating circumstance is present
when a person commits any of crimes against
person, employing such means, methods or forms
in the execution, without risk to himself arising
from the defense which the offended party might
make.
A. Abuse of Superior Strength C. Alevosia

B. Cruelty D. Ignominy
80. This kind of aggravating circumstance is present
when a person commits any of crimes against
person, employing such means, methods or forms
in the execution, without risk to himself arising
from the defense which the offended party might
make.
A. Abuse of Superior Strength C. Alevosia

B. Cruelty D. Ignominy
81. It means the mercy extended by the chief
executive to a person sentenced for an offense
whereby the personal effects of the penalty are
suspended subject to the conditions, if accepted by
the person sentenced, the effect of freeing him from
imprisonment if he is deprived of liberty; or from
preventing him from hanging his residence as he
pleases, if he is sentenced to exile.
A. Conditional pardon C. Deduction for loyalty

B. Good conduct allowance D. Indemnification
81. It means the mercy extended by the chief
executive to a person sentenced for an offense
whereby the personal effects of the penalty are
suspended subject to the conditions, if accepted by
the person sentenced, the effect of freeing him from
imprisonment if he is deprived of liberty; or from
preventing him from hanging his residence as he
pleases, if he is sentenced to exile.
A. Conditional pardon C. Deduction for loyalty

B. Good conduct allowance D. Indemnification
82. The new law amending Good Conduct and
Time Allowance and Special Time Allowance.
A. RA 10592
B. RA 10591
C. RA 10175
D. RA 10150
82. The new law amending Good Conduct and
Time Allowance and Special Time Allowance.
A. RA 10592
B. RA 10591
C. RA 10175
D. RA 10150
83. Placing a weapon in the hand of the dead
who was killed to plant evidence, or burying the
deceased who was killed by the principal
B. Accessory D. Direct participation
83. Placing a weapon in the hand of the dead
who was killed to plant evidence, or burying the
deceased who was killed by the principal
B. Accessory D. Direct participation
84. An accessory is exempt from criminal liability
when the principal is his:
I. Spouse, ascendants, descendants, brothers and
sister
II. Nephew, uncle, niece and aunt
III. Brother‐in‐law & sister‐in‐law
Half‐brother or sisters
A. I only C. I and II
B. I,II,III D. I,II,III,IV
84. An accessory is exempt from criminal liability
when the principal is his:
I. Spouse, ascendants, descendants, brothers and
sister
II. Nephew, uncle, niece and aunt
III. Brother‐in‐law & sister‐in‐law
Half‐brother or sisters
85. Purisima is chief of police in town of Antipolo. His
son Marquez committed murder whom he helped in
escaping by providing Marquez money and Car. Is
liable as an?
A. Accessory because his public functions
B. Accessory but exempted from criminal liability by
virtue of relationship
C. Accomplice he abuses his public functions
D. Accomplice but exempted from criminal liability by
85. Purisima is chief of police in town of Antipolo. His
son Marquez committed murder whom he helped in
escaping by providing Marquez money and Car. Is
liable as an?
A. Accessory because his public functions
B. Accessory but exempted from criminal liability by
C. Accomplice he abuses his public functions
D. Accomplice but exempted from criminal liability by
86. Leila is the mother of Delima who has just stolen
jewelries worth P123,456.00 Leila sold the jewelries and gave
the proceeds to her daughter Delima in order to elude arrest
and prosecution. Is Leila liable?
A. Accessory but exempted because he help Delima to profit in
the effects of the crime.
B. Accessory but exempted because the principal is Delima and
Leila are related.
C. Accessory but not exempted even if Leila is related to Delima
as she assisted Delima to profit by the effects of the crime.
D. Accessory but not exempted even if Leila is related to Delima
as she assisted Delima to escape.
86. Leila is the mother of Delima who has just stolen
jewelries worth P123,456.00 Leila sold the jewelries and gave
the proceeds to her daughter Delima in order to elude arrest
and prosecution. Is Leila liable?
A. Accessory but exempted because he help Delima to profit in
the effects of the crime.
B. Accessory but exempted because the principal is Delima and
Leila are related.
C. Accessory but not exempted even if Leila is related to Delima
as she assisted Delima to profit by the effects of the crime.
D. Accessory but not exempted even if Leila is related to Delima
as she assisted Delima to escape.
87. It is a law which a makes criminal an act done
before the passage of the law or which aggravates a
crime or make it greater than it was when
committed.
A. Ex post facto law C. Prospective

B. Bill of attainder D. Police power
87. It is a law which a makes criminal an act done
before the passage of the law or which aggravates a
crime or make it greater than it was when
committed.

88. A legislative act which inflicts punishment
without the benefit of a judicial trial.

88. A legislative act which inflicts punishment
without the benefit of a judicial trial.

89. Charlemagne & Paul agreed to rape Katrina
they proceeded to the house of Katrina
whereupon Charlemagne with a knife pointed to
Katrina and ordered Katrina to lie down and
when Charlemagne was having sex with Katrina,
Paul was holding both arms of Katrina. What is
the liability of Paul?
A. Principal by direct participation
B. Principal by inducement
C. Principal by indispensable cooperation
D. Principal by Co‐conspirator
89. Charlemagne & Paul agreed to rape Katrina
they proceeded to the house of Katrina
whereupon Charlemagne with a knife pointed to
Katrina and ordered Katrina to lie down and
when Charlemagne was having sex with Katrina,
Paul was holding both arms of Katrina. What is
the liability of Paul?
A. Principal by direct participation
B. Principal by inducement
C. Principal by indispensable cooperation
D. Principal by Co‐conspirator
90. Gaffud & Melgene are charged with
kidnapping of Flora. Gaffud contacted Richard
who has not participated in the actual
kidnapping to contact the parents of Flora to
negotiate the delivery of ransom. Richard have
successfully negotiate, receives the share from
the ransom. Richard is also liable as an?
A. Accomplice C. Principal
90. Gaffud & Melgene are charged with
kidnapping of Flora. Gaffud contacted Richard
who has not participated in the actual
kidnapping to contact the parents of Flora to
negotiate the delivery of ransom. Richard have
successfully negotiate, receives the share from
the ransom. Richard is also liable as an?
A. Accomplice C. Principal
91. Suppose that Duterte is being a co‐
conspirator in the crime theft, sold some of the
property stolen, he is liable as a?
A. Accessory C. Principal
B. Accomplice D. Conspirator
91. Suppose that Duterte is being a co‐
conspirator in the crime theft, sold some of the
property stolen, he is liable as a?
B. Accomplice D. Conspirator
92. Roxas rapes a woman and in his escape he
was assisted by C/PNP Marquez. The C/PNP
Marquez is liable as?
B. Accomplice D. Co‐conspirator
92. Roxas rapes a woman and in his escape he
was assisted by C/PNP Marquez. The C/PNP
Marquez is liable as?
B. Accomplice D. Co‐conspirator
93. Suppose in the preceding problem, Roxas was
assisted by Kris a private individual. Kris the private
person is liable as an accessory?
A. No, crime committed was not treason, murder,
parricide, and attempt to take the life of the chief
executive or known to be habitually guilty.
B. Yes, because he assisted in the escape of a person who
committed a serious crime
C. Yes, crime committed was treason, murder, parricide,
etc.
D. No, because he assisted in the escape of a person who
not committed a serious crime
93. Suppose in the preceding problem, Roxas was
assisted by Kris a private individual. Kris the private
person is liable as an accessory?
A. No, crime committed was not treason, murder,
parricide, and attempt to take the life of the chief
executive or known to be habitually guilty.
B. Yes, because he assisted in the escape of a person who
committed a serious crime
C. Yes, crime committed was treason, murder, parricide,
etc.
D. No, because he assisted in the escape of a person who
not committed a serious crime
Scenario for numbers 94‐96
Tito, Vic & Sotto conspired to kill Vice Ganda. They

went to the house of Vice Ganda. Upon arrival, Sotto
only acted as look‐out in the yard of Vice Ganda, Vic
accompanied Tito to the room where Vice Ganda was
sleeping; it was Tito who shot Vice Ganda to death
what is the participation of Tito, Vic & Sotto to the
crime of murder?
94. Tito is?
A. principal by direct participation
B. principal by indispensable cooperation
C. principal by Inducement
D. accomplice
95. Vic is?

D. accomplice What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
94. Tito is?
D. accomplice
95. Vic is?

D. accomplice What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
96. Sotto is?
D. accomplice
96. Sotto is?
D. accomplice
Situational 97‐100
Situation‐ Mr. Rody is a friend of Mr. Roxas, Mr. Jojo,

Ms. Grace and Ms. Mirriam. One night, Mr. Rody said
to his friends to meet up at his house to plan a
robbery. Mr. Rody begged off to join the talks because
he has a foot injury, telling them that he will just be a
liability to them. The foursome carried out the plan
and all of them, including Mr. Rody were arrested.
97. In this case, conspiracy may be appreciated against
Mr. Rody. This statement is correct.
True C. partly false
False D. partly true
98. The robbery in this case may be considered to

have been committed by a band because there are
four (4) malefactors. This statement is:
Partly true C. false
Partly false D. true
97. In this case, conspiracy may be appreciated against
Mr. Rody. This statement is correct.
True C. partly false
False D. partly true
98. The robbery in this case may be considered to

have been committed by a band because there are
four (4) malefactors. This statement is:
Partly true C. false
Partly false D. true
99. It can be said in this case that Mr. Rody conspired with his
four (4) friends to commit an offense. This statement is:
A. True C. party true
B. False D. partly false
100. Mr. Rody can be said to have conspired with his four (4)
friends because of his association with them and because he
allowed them to hatch their plan in his house. This statement
is correct.
A. Party true C. partly false
B. False D. true
99. It can be said in this case that Mr. Rody conspired with his
four (4) friends to commit an offense. This statement is:
A. True C. party true
B. False D. partly false
100. Mr. Rody can be said to have conspired with his four (4)
friends because of his association with them and because he
allowed them to hatch their plan in his house. This statement
is correct.
A. Party true C. partly false
B. False D. true
***END***
BEFORE YOU REACT, THINK
BEFORE YOU TALK, LISTEN
BEFORE YOU PRAY, FORGIVE
BEFORE YOU SPEND, EARN
BEFORE YOU CRITICIZE, WAIT
BEFORE YOU QUIT, TRY
BOOK 2
SET 1
1. Intod intended to kill Intoy, peppered the house of
Intoy with bullets, but since the intended victim was
not at home at the time no harm came to intoy. What
is the crime committed by Intod?
A. Malicious Mischief
B. Impossible crime
C. Reckless imprudence resulting to Damage to
property
D. Attempted Homicide
1. Intod intended to kill Intoy, peppered the house of
Intoy with bullets, but since the intended victim was
not at home at the time no harm came to intoy. What
is the crime committed by Intod?
A. Malicious Mischief
B. Impossible crime
C. Reckless imprudence resulting to Damage to
property
D. Attempted Homicide
2. Amiril a Moro, with five wives who are all living
with him, kills by means of poison his second wife
married by him is liable for?
A. Parricide
B. Homicide
C. Murder
D. No criminal liability
2. Amiril a Moro, with five wives who are all living
with him, kills by means of poison his second wife
married by him is liable for?
A. Parricide
B. Homicide
C. Murder
3. The following are crimes classified as physical
injuries EXCEPT:
A. Abortion
B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injuries
D. Maltreatment
3. The following are crimes classified as physical
injuries EXCEPT:
A. Abortion
B. Mutilation
C. Serious physical injuries
D. Maltreatment
4. The following are elements of abortion practiced by
the woman herself or by her parents:
I. There is a pregnant woman who suffered an
abortion
II. The abortion is intended
III. It is caused by the woman itself
IV. It is cause by any other person, with her consent
A. I,II,III,IV C. I,III,IV
B. I,II,IV D. I, II, III
4. The following are elements of abortion practiced by
the woman herself or by her parents:
I. There is a pregnant woman who suffered an
abortion
II. The abortion is intended
III. It is caused by the woman itself
IV. It is cause by any other person, with her consent
A. I,II,III,IV C. I,III,IV
B. I,II,IV D. I, II, III
5. The following are crimes against public order
EXCEPT:
A. Alarms and scandal
B. Illegal association
C. Usurpation of authority
D. Evasion of service of sentence
5. The following are crimes against public order
EXCEPT:
A. Alarms and scandal
B. Illegal association
C. Usurpation of authority
D. Evasion of service of sentence
6. The act of diminishing, by ingenious mean, the
metal content in the coin may give birth to an
accusation called?
A. Uttering false coins
B. mutilation of coin
C. Falsification
D. Forgery
6. The act of diminishing, by ingenious mean, the
metal content in the coin may give birth to an
accusation called?
A. Uttering false coins
B. mutilation of coin
C. Falsification
D. Forgery
7. Janeth Lim Napoles in connivance with the other
senators and persons, amasses, accumulates or
acquires ill‐gotten wealth through combination of
series of overt and criminal acts of 200,000,000 Pesos.
What is the minimum aggregate amount of the ill‐
gotten wealth in order for Janeth Lim Napoles be held
guilty for the crime of Plunder?
A. 200,000,000 Pesos
B. 100,000,000 Pesos
C. 50,000,000 Pesos
D. 30,000,000 Pesos
7. Janeth Lim Napoles in connivance with the other
senators and persons, amasses, accumulates or
acquires ill‐gotten wealth through combination of
series of overt and criminal acts of 200,000,000 Pesos.
What is the minimum aggregate amount of the ill‐
gotten wealth in order for Janeth Lim Napoles be held
guilty for the crime of Plunder?
A. 200,000,000 Pesos
B. 100,000,000 Pesos
C. 50,000,000 Pesos
D. 30,000,000 Pesos
8. Robin has in his possession a firearm, unfortunately
robin overlaps the date that his license should be
register then and there resulting to the expiration of
his license to posses’ firearm. Could Robin be held
liable for Illegal Possession of Firearm?
A. Yes C. No
8. Robin has in his possession a firearm, unfortunately
robin overlaps the date that his license should be
register then and there resulting to the expiration of
his license to posses’ firearm. Could Robin be held
liable for Illegal Possession of Firearm?
A. Yes C. No
9. During a town fiesta BF and GF were having a
romantic moment. while walking together they meet
the EX‐BF of GF who is still so in love with GF upon
chance of crossing their way EX‐BF kiss and Smashed
the neck of GF and utter words that he still love her.
What crime did EX‐BF committed?
A. Acts of Lasciviousness
B. Attempted Rape
C. Unjust Vexation
D. Seduction
9. During a town fiesta BF and GF were having a
romantic moment. while walking together they meet
the EX‐BF of GF who is still so in love with GF upon
chance of crossing their way EX‐BF kiss and Smashed
the neck of GF and utter words that he still love her.
What crime did EX‐BF committed?
A. Acts of Lasciviousness
B. Attempted Rape
C. Unjust Vexation
D. Seduction
10. A with intent to kill shot B using an unlicensed firearm as
a result B died instantly. Now, future Criminologist what
crime or crimes was committed by A?
10. A with intent to kill shot B using an unlicensed firearm as
a result B died instantly. Now, future Criminologist what
crime or crimes was committed by A?
11. A citizen who intellectually or emotionally favors
the enemy and harbors sympathies or connections
disloyal to his country’s interest or policy is guilty of
______
A. Adherence to the enemy
B. misprision of treason
C. Aid and comfort
D. levying war
11. A citizen who intellectually or emotionally favors
the enemy and harbors sympathies or connections
disloyal to his country’s interest or policy is guilty of
______
A. Adherence to the enemy
B. misprision of treason
C. Aid and comfort
D. levying war
12. Person directly vested with jurisdiction whether as
individuals or as members of some court or
government corporations, board or commission, are
________
A. persons in authority
B. agents of persons in authority
C. Constituted authorities
D. pubic officers
12. Person directly vested with jurisdiction whether as
individuals or as members of some court or
government corporations, board or commission, are
________
A. persons in authority
B. agents of persons in authority
C. Constituted authorities
D. pubic officers
13. In the case of Evasion of service of sentence, the
person who escaped from prison must have been
convicted by final judgment and is serving what?
A. destierro C. penalty
B. imprisonment D. banishment
13. In the case of Evasion of service of sentence, the
person who escaped from prison must have been
convicted by final judgment and is serving what?
A. destierro C. penalty
B. imprisonment D. banishment
14. A married man had sexual intercourse with
another woman not his wife. The latter filed a
case of concubinage against the paramour of her
husband only. Will it that prosper?
A. no C. it depends
B. yes D. possible
14. A married man had sexual intercourse with
another woman not his wife. The latter filed a
case of concubinage against the paramour of her
husband only. Will it that prosper?
A. no C. it depends
B. yes D. possible
15. Duterte hates Roxas because of his attitude, one
day Roxas left his house not knowing that Duterte has
been following his daily routine. Taking advantage of
the situation Duterte burned the house of Roxas
thereby sows and creates fear and panic among the
populace. What crime was committed by Duterte?
A. Arson C. Terrorism
B. Qualified Arson D. Malicious Mischief
15. Duterte hates Roxas because of his attitude, one
day Roxas left his house not knowing that Duterte has
been following his daily routine. Taking advantage of
the situation Duterte burned the house of Roxas
thereby sows and creates fear and panic among the
populace. What crime was committed by Duterte?
A. Arson C. Terrorism
B. Qualified Arson D. Malicious Mischief
17. In the preceding question what law Punishing acts
which sows and creates fear and panic among the
populace.
A. RA 9372
B. RA 9344
C. RA 9346
D. PD 1613
17. In the preceding question what law Punishing acts
which sows and creates fear and panic among the
populace.
A. RA 9372
B. RA 9344
C. RA 9346
D. PD 1613
17. Alden went to the house of his fiancée Maine who
is 16 years old knowing that no one is in the house
and waiting of that opportunity Alden promise to
marry her, due to his promise he succeeded in having
sexual intercourse with Maine. What crime was
committed by Alden?
A. Seduction
B. Statutory rape
C. Qualified seduction
D. Abduction with rape
17. Alden went to the house of his fiancée Maine who
is 16 years old knowing that no one is in the house
and waiting of that opportunity Alden promise to
marry her, due to his promise he succeeded in having
sexual intercourse with Maine. What crime was
committed by Alden?
A. Seduction
B. Statutory rape
C. Qualified seduction
D. Abduction with rape
18. Roxas, Binay and Duterte grabbed Mirriam who is
only 17 years old then dragged her to their safehouse,
then and there she was raped by Roxas, Binay and
Duterte, what crime was committed by them if any?
A. Forcible abduction with rape
B. Grave threats with rape
C. Kidnapping with rape
D. Coercion with rape
18. Roxas, Binay and Duterte grabbed Mirriam who is
only 17 years old then dragged her to their safehouse,
then and there she was raped by Roxas, Binay and
Duterte, what crime was committed by them if any?
A. Forcible abduction with rape
B. Grave threats with rape
C. Kidnapping with rape
D. Coercion with rape
19. A barangay chairman, without any legal
except in strong suspicion that the number one
police character in their area will commit a
crime, detained the high risk suspect for 10
hours. Is there a crime committed?
A. Illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. Expulsion without legal ground
D. none
19. A barangay chairman, without any legal
except in strong suspicion that the number one
police character in their area will commit a
crime, detained the high risk suspect for 10
hours. Is there a crime committed?
B. arbitrary detention
C. Expulsion without legal ground
D. none
A. possible C. it depends
B. no D. yes
A. possible C. it depends
B. no D. yes
21. In the crime of adultery, the offender is the
married what?
A. man C. paramour
B. lover D. woman
21. In the crime of adultery, the offender is the
married what?
A. man C. paramour
B. lover D. woman
22. The child and youth welfare code is what
particular law?
A. PD 603 C. RA 7610
B. RA 3815 D. PD 1866
22. The child and youth welfare code is what
particular law?
A. PD 603 C. RA 7610
B. RA 3815 D. PD 1866
23. While in the town fiesta dance, Jhun boy
took Hitomi as his dance partner. Could not
control himself because of the beauty of Hitomi
and it was already the 3rd year since his wife
went abroad, he tightly embraced Hitomi and
smashed her neck. What crime if any was
committed by Jhun boy?
A. Immorality
B. seduction
C. unjust vexation
D. Acts of lasciviousness
23. While in the town fiesta dance, Jhun boy
took Hitomi as his dance partner. Could not
control himself because of the beauty of Hitomi
and it was already the 3rd year since his wife
went abroad, he tightly embraced Hitomi and
smashed her neck. What crime if any was
committed by Jhun boy?
A. Immorality
B. seduction
C. unjust vexation
D. Acts of lasciviousness
24. In criminal law particularly in alarms and
scandals, this means a mock serenade of
discordant voices or sounds designed to deride
or insult. It is called?
A. Harana C. chorus
B. charivari D. videoke
24. In criminal law particularly in alarms and
scandals, this means a mock serenade of
discordant voices or sounds designed to deride
or insult. It is called?
A. Harana C. chorus
B. charivari D. videoke
25. Bimbi kills his illegitimate grandfather Aquino is
liable for?
A. Parricide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
25. Bimbi kills his illegitimate grandfather Aquino is
liable for?
A. Parricide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
26. It is committed by one who on the high seas or in
Philippine waters shall attack or seize a vessel or not
being a member of its complement or passengers,
shall seize the whole or part of the cargo of said
vessel, its equipment or personal belongings.
A. Terrorism
B. Robbery
C. Piracy
D. Mutiny
26. It is committed by one who on the high seas or in
Philippine waters shall attack or seize a vessel or not
being a member of its complement or passengers,
shall seize the whole or part of the cargo of said
vessel, its equipment or personal belongings.
A. Terrorism
B. Robbery
C. Piracy
D. Mutiny
27. James and Danga are best friends. To seal their
mutual that “come agreement what may” they will
help each other until death they sealed their covenant
with their own blood. Frustrated because his
sweetheart left him, Danga asked James to push him
immediately before the train passes near their house
and as a result, Danga died. However, before Danga
died, he thanked his bestfriend James for a job well
done. What is the crime committed?
A. Assisted in killing
B. Giving assistance to suicide
C. Death under tumultuous affray
D. No crime at all
27. James and Danga are best friends. To seal their
mutual that “come agreement what may” they will
help each other until death they sealed their covenant
with their own blood. Frustrated because his
sweetheart left him, Danga asked James to push him
immediately before the train passes near their house
and as a result, Danga died. However, before Danga
died, he thanked his bestfriend James for a job well
done. What is the crime committed?
A. Assisted in killing
B. Giving assistance to suicide
C. Death under tumultuous affray
D. No crime at all
28. Mendicancy law on the giving of small amounts of
money to street beggars is a special law. When
arrested for violating the said law, the suspect argued
that he should not be held liable because his motive is
not to violate the said law but to help the poor. Would
you still charge criminally the man with a soft heart
for the poor?
A. no because the motive is good
B. It depends
C. never
D. Yes
28. Mendicancy law on the giving of small amounts of
money to street beggars is a special law. When
arrested for violating the said law, the suspect argued
that he should not be held liable because his motive is
not to violate the said law but to help the poor. Would
you still charge criminally the man with a soft heart
for the poor?
A. no because the motive is good
B. It depends
C. never
D. Yes
29. RA 9346 also known as the “Law prohibiting the
imposition of death penalty” was signed on ________
A. June 24, 2006 C. July 6, 2006
B. August 6, 2006 D. September 6, 2006
29. RA 9346 also known as the “Law prohibiting the
imposition of death penalty” was signed on ________
A. June 24, 2006 C. July 6, 2006
B. August 6, 2006 D. September 6, 2006
30. Joime, a sexual pervert failed to have sex for a
month. However, in order to preserve for his birthday
his ‘manoy’ by sexually abusing Jessy, a losing
candidate for Miss Barangay, he used his middle and
ring fingers in penetrating the genitals of Jessy. What
crime is there?
A. Sodomy C. acts of lasciviousness
B. No crime D. rape
30. Joime, a sexual pervert failed to have sex for a
month. However, in order to preserve for his birthday
his ‘manoy’ by sexually abusing Jessy, a losing
candidate for Miss Barangay, he used his middle and
ring fingers in penetrating the genitals of Jessy. What
crime is there?
A. Sodomy C. acts of lasciviousness
B. No crime D. rape
31. This felony is characterized by a public and
malicious imputation of a crime, or of a vice or defect
real or imaginary, or any act, omission, condition,
status or circumstance tending to cause the dishonor,
discredit, or contempt of a natural or juridical person,
or to blacken the memory of one who is dead.
A. Incriminatory machination
B. Oral defamation
C. Libel
D. Slander
31. This felony is characterized by a public and
malicious imputation of a crime, or of a vice or defect
real or imaginary, or any act, omission, condition,
status or circumstance tending to cause the dishonor,
discredit, or contempt of a natural or juridical person,
or to blacken the memory of one who is dead.
B. Oral defamation
C. Libel
D. Slander
32. In crimes against persons such as murder,
homicide and parricide, the victim should die and
there must be intent to kill. Which of the said crimes
requires relationship between the victim and the
perpetrator?
A. Homicide C. parricide
B. Murder D. none of these
32. In crimes against persons such as murder,
homicide and parricide, the victim should die and
there must be intent to kill. Which of the said crimes
requires relationship between the victim and the
perpetrator?
A. Homicide C. parricide
B. Murder D. none of these
33. A legitimate grandfather who kills his grandson
who is three (3) days old is liable for?
A. Parricide
B. Homicide
C. Infanticide
D. Murder
33. A legitimate grandfather who kills his grandson
who is three (3) days old is liable for?
A. Parricide
B. Homicide
C. Infanticide
D. Murder
34. The taking of personal property against the will of
its owner and attended by violence against or
intimidation of person or force over things is?
A. Theft
B. Coercion
C. Estafa
D. Robbery
34. The taking of personal property against the will of
its owner and attended by violence against or
intimidation of person or force over things is?
A. Theft
B. Coercion
C. Estafa
D. Robbery
35. JO1 Bantay, and JO2 Tagatingin are prison guards
who escorted Escapo in attending a court hearing in
Malabon City. Arriving too early in the court room,
JO1 Bantay and went to a nearby restaurant to have a
cup of coffee. When Escapo was being watched by
CO2 Tagatingin only. Escapo and his cohorts
succeeded in escaping. The said prison guards can be
held liable for what crime?
A. Conniving with prisoner
B. Consenting to evasion
C. Illegal break time
D. Evasion through negligence
35. JO1 Bantay, and JO2 Tagatingin are prison guards
who escorted Escapo in attending a court hearing in
Malabon City. Arriving too early in the court room,
JO1 Bantay and went to a nearby restaurant to have a
cup of coffee. When Escapo was being watched by
CO2 Tagatingin only. Escapo and his cohorts
succeeded in escaping. The said prison guards can be
held liable for what crime?
A. Conniving with prisoner
B. Consenting to evasion
C. Illegal break time
36. Duterte, Roxas and Binay broke into the National
Food Authority forcibly destroyed the door of the
warehouse in order to address the sufferings of the
people within the area. Thus, they called all the
people to help them by empting all the goods stored
therein. Duterte, Roxas and Binay did not even took
something for themselves. What crime was
committed?
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Direct assault
D. Indirect assault
36. Duterte, Roxas and Binay broke into the National
Food Authority forcibly destroyed the door of the
warehouse in order to address the sufferings of the
people within the area. Thus, they called all the
people to help them by empting all the goods stored
therein. Duterte, Roxas and Binay did not even took
something for themselves. What crime was
committed?
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Direct assault
D. Indirect assault
37. A public officer who has under his custody or
charge a prisoner‐serving sentence by final judgment
or detention prisoner and such officer connives with
or consents to the escapes of such prisoner is liable
for?
A. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
B. Evasion of service of sentence
C. Dereliction of duty
D. Prevarication
37. A public officer who has under his custody or
charge a prisoner‐serving sentence by final judgment
or detention prisoner and such officer connives with
or consents to the escapes of such prisoner is liable
for?
A. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
B. Evasion of service of sentence
C. Dereliction of duty
D. Prevarication
38. Michael was charged with homicide and after 10
years of litigation, he was convicted and sentenced to
suffer 18 years of imprisonment and a civil damage of
P100,000.00. While on Appeal, he died of
tuberculosis. His death ended the imprisonment
penalty. How about the civil liability?
A. The obligation continues unless waived
B. It depends on the outcome of the appeal
C. Still with obligation
D. No more obligation
38. Michael was charged with homicide and after 10
years of litigation, he was convicted and sentenced to
suffer 18 years of imprisonment and a civil damage of
P100,000.00. While on Appeal, he died of
tuberculosis. His death ended the imprisonment
penalty. How about the civil liability?
A. The obligation continues unless waived
B. It depends on the outcome of the appeal
C. Still with obligation
D. No more obligation
39. Contracting a second or subsequent marriage
before the former marriage has been legally dissolved
is what crime?
A. Bigamy C. none
B. simulation D. usurpation
39. Contracting a second or subsequent marriage
before the former marriage has been legally dissolved
is what crime?
A. Bigamy C. none
B. simulation D. usurpation
40. Insurrection as one of the crimes against public
order, the principal objective of the movement is not
to overthrow the government but to affect what kind
of changes in the government?
A. Minor C. general
B. Specific D. major
40. Insurrection as one of the crimes against public
order, the principal objective of the movement is not
to overthrow the government but to affect what kind
of changes in the government?
A. Minor C. general
B. Specific D. major
41. While inside SM Subic, Joime stole an expensive
watch in a jewelry store and Mau without knowing
that the said watch was stolen property, purchased it
from Joime and while on the way out, Mau was
caught. What crime shall be filed against Mau if there
is any?
A. Theft C. none
B. Anti‐fencing law D. estafa
41. While inside SM Subic, Joime stole an expensive
watch in a jewelry store and Mau without knowing
that the said watch was stolen property, purchased it
from Joime and while on the way out, Mau was
caught. What crime shall be filed against Mau if there
is any?
A. Theft C. none
B. Anti‐fencing law D. estafa
42. In the preceding question what law punishes
fencing?
A. PD 1612 C. PD 1829
B. PD 9 D. PD 532
42. In the preceding question what law punishes
fencing?
A. PD 1612 C. PD 1829
B. PD 9 D. PD 532
43. Under art. 125 of RPC how many hour shall a Cop
deliver or file a case at the prosecutor’s office or
municipal judge in crimes punishable with light
penalties?
a. 8 c. 12
b. 6 d. 18
43. Under art. 125 of RPC how many hour shall a Cop
deliver or file a case at the prosecutor’s office or
municipal judge in crimes punishable with light
penalties?
a. 8 c. 12
b. 6 d. 18
44. Omni is a janitor and a public employee at Pembo
Elementary School. He is assigned to clean the
Hallways of the school. One day, he noticed a fellow
student loitering and spilling suspected liquid that
would taint on the floor. Omni got angry and so he
locked the student at the Inventory room and was
freed from the room after eight hours. Omni
committed the crime of?
A. Arbitrary detention
B. Illegal detention
C. Unlawful arrest
D. Incriminatory machination
44. Omni is a janitor and a public employee at Pembo
Elementary School. He is assigned to clean the
Hallways of the school. One day, he noticed a fellow
student loitering and spilling suspected liquid that
would taint on the floor. Omni got angry and so he
locked the student at the Inventory room and was
freed from the room after eight hours. Omni
committed the crime of?
A. Arbitrary detention
C. Unlawful arrest
45. In the preceding question what if the crime is
accompanied with serious physical injury. Decide
A. Omni is liable for illegal detention
B. Omni is liable for Serious Unlawful arrest
C. Omni is liable for Qualified Arbitrary Detention
D. Omni is liable for Serious Illegal Detention
45. In the preceding question what if the crime is
accompanied with serious physical injury. Decide
A. Omni is liable for illegal detention
B. Omni is liable for Serious Unlawful arrest
C. Omni is liable for Qualified Arbitrary Detention
D. Omni is liable for Serious Illegal Detention
46. A public officer shall commit illegal detention and
not arbitrary when _________________________
I. When his duty or function does not include the
power to arrest and detain a person.
II. Acting in a private capacity or beyond the scope of
his official duty
III. He becomes an accomplice or accessory to the
crime committed by a private person.
A. I,II,III C. I and II
B. I only D. I and III
46. A public officer shall commit illegal detention and
not arbitrary when _________________________
I. When his duty or function does not include the
power to arrest and detain a person.
II. Acting in a private capacity or beyond the scope of
his official duty
III. He becomes an accomplice or accessory to the
crime committed by a private person.
B. I only D. I and III
47. Mutiny and piracy are practically the same. The
only difference is that in Mutiny, the offenders are
passengers or crew members while in piracy, the
attackers are what to the vessel?
A. crew members C. passengers
B. officers D. strangers
47. Mutiny and piracy are practically the same. The
only difference is that in Mutiny, the offenders are
passengers or crew members while in piracy, the
attackers are what to the vessel?
A. crew members C. passengers
B. officers D. strangers
48. Planting evidence by a police officer of an
innocent person arrested by the former is liable for?
B. Arbitrary Detention
C. Intriguing against honor
D. Illegal arrest
48. Planting evidence by a police officer of an
innocent person arrested by the former is liable for?
B. Arbitrary Detention
C. Intriguing against honor
D. Illegal arrest
49. The crimes of piracy and brigandage are qualified
and provided with greater penalties if this crime is
also committed on the occasion of the said crimes.
Which of the herein crimes is that?
A. Robbery C. rape
B. Grave slander D. estafa
49. The crimes of piracy and brigandage are qualified
and provided with greater penalties if this crime is
also committed on the occasion of the said crimes.
Which of the herein crimes is that?
A. Robbery C. rape
B. Grave slander D. estafa
50. In searching domicile under art. 130 of the RPC, if
owner of the house or any member of the family is
not around, how many witness residing in that area is
required in order to have a valid search?
A. 3 C.4
B. 1 D.2
50. In searching domicile under art. 130 of the RPC, if
owner of the house or any member of the family is
not around, how many witness residing in that area is
required in order to have a valid search?
A. 3 C.4
B. 1 D.2
51. The offender that employs ingenuity or cunning in
order to deprive the victim of his money or property is
liable for?
A. Theft
B. Estafa or swindling
C. Robbery
D. Usurpation of boundary marks
51. The offender that employs ingenuity or cunning in
order to deprive the victim of his money or property is
liable for?
A. Theft
B. Estafa or swindling
C. Robbery
D. Usurpation of boundary marks
52. Bong issued a check in favor of Cayetano for a
debt he has incurred a month ago. When the check
was presented for payment, it was dishonored by the
bank. What crime is committed by Bong if any?
A. Estafa
B. Theft
C. Violation of bouncing check law
D. No Crime was committed
52. Bong issued a check in favor of Cayetano for a
debt he has incurred a month ago. When the check
was presented for payment, it was dishonored by the
bank. What crime is committed by Bong if any?
A. Estafa
B. Theft
C. Violation of bouncing check law
D. No Crime was committed
53. Supposing, Bong approach Cayetano and told
Cayetano to deliver to him 10,000 Pesos Pesos and
Bong would issue in his favor a check in the sum of
13,000 pesos as it was a Sunday and Bong needed the
cash urgently. Cayetano gave 10,000 pesos to Bong
having in mind the profit of the amount of 3,000
pesos When Cayetano encash the check on the
following day it bounced or dishonored. What crime
was committed by Bong if any?
A. Estafa and violation of BP 22
B. Malversation
C. No Crime
D. Theft What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
53. Supposing, Bong approach Cayetano and told
Cayetano to deliver to him 10,000 Pesos Pesos and
Bong would issue in his favor a check in the sum of
13,000 pesos as it was a Sunday and Bong needed the
cash urgently. Cayetano gave 10,000 pesos to Bong
having in mind the profit of the amount of 3,000
pesos When Cayetano encash the check on the
following day it bounced or dishonored. What crime
was committed by Bong if any?
A. Estafa and violation of BP 22
B. Malversation
C. No Crime
D. Theft What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
54. The law repealing the provision of RPC on pre‐
mature marriage.
A. RA 10655
B. RA 10175
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551
54. The law repealing the provision of RPC on pre‐
mature marriage.
A. RA 10655
B. RA 10175
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551
55. Intellectual property violations is defined and
penalized under Republic Act __________
A. 9344 C. 8293
B. 8551 D. 7691
55. Intellectual property violations is defined and
penalized under Republic Act __________
A. 9344 C. 8293
B. 8551 D. 7691
56. In crimes against chastity, like act of
lasciviousness, is relationship of the offender to the
victim considered an aggravating circumstance?
A. Yes C. no
56. In crimes against chastity, like act of
lasciviousness, is relationship of the offender to the
victim considered an aggravating circumstance?
A. Yes C. no
57. In seduction and qualified seduction, except when
the victim is either the daughter or sister of the
offender, the woman seduced must be
________________________
A. Over 9 but less than 12 years of age
B. Over 11 but less than 15 years of age
C. Over 12 but less than 18 years of age
D. Over 13 but less than 19 years of age
57. In seduction and qualified seduction, except when
the victim is either the daughter or sister of the
offender, the woman seduced must be
________________________
A. Over 9 but less than 12 years of age
B. Over 11 but less than 15 years of age
C. Over 12 but less than 18 years of age
D. Over 13 but less than 19 years of age
58. In arbitrary detention, it is required that the offender is a
public officer. If Police Insp. Cardo, and his Jeepdo and Busdo
serving as lookout and driver respectively, and without any
legal ground conspired in detaining Tricycledo, a police
character, whom do you charge if any?
A. Jeepdo and Busdo C. Jeepdo and Police insp. Cardo
B. All of them D. Police insp. Cardo
58. In arbitrary detention, it is required that the offender is a
public officer. If Police Insp. Cardo, and his Jeepdo and Busdo
serving as lookout and driver respectively, and without any
legal ground conspired in detaining Tricycledo, a police
character, whom do you charge if any?
A. Jeepdo and Busdo C. Jeepdo and Police insp. Cardo
B. All of them D. Police insp. Cardo
59. If a person is arrested by virtue of a warrant, it
means that there is already a case and if a person is
arrested without a warrant, it means that there is no
case filed in court yet. This statement is?
A. Correct C. Incorrect
B. Partially Correct D. Partially Incorrect
59. If a person is arrested by virtue of a warrant, it
means that there is already a case and if a person is
arrested without a warrant, it means that there is no
case filed in court yet. This statement is?
A. Correct C. Incorrect
B. Partially Correct D. Partially Incorrect
60. A public officer who agrees to commit a criminal
offense in connection with the exercise of the powers
of his office in consideration of a price, reward,
promise or gift is indication of?
A. Direct bribery
B. Indirect bribery
C. Malversation
D. Corruption of public officials
60. A public officer who agrees to commit a criminal
offense in connection with the exercise of the powers
of his office in consideration of a price, reward,
promise or gift is indication of?
A. Direct bribery
B. Indirect bribery
C. Malversation
D. Corruption of public officials
61. Those directly vested with the jurisdiction to
govern and execute the laws whether as individuals or
as members of some court or government corporation
board or commission.
A. Public officer
B. Duly constituted authorities
C. Parliament
D. Persons in authority
61. Those directly vested with the jurisdiction to
govern and execute the laws whether as individuals or
as members of some court or government corporation
board or commission.
A. Public officer
B. Duly constituted authorities
C. Parliament
D. Persons in authority
62. Which of the following is not a person in
authority?
A. Governor C. barangay tanod
B. Barangay captain D. mayor
62. Which of the following is not a person in
authority?
A. Governor C. barangay tanod
B. Barangay captain D. mayor
63. A public officer who does not account for what he
collects as a government employee and instead
misappropriates the fees collected is liable for?
A. Illegal exaction
B. Direct Bribery
C. Malversation
D. Corruption of public official
63. A public officer who does not account for what he
collects as a government employee and instead
misappropriates the fees collected is liable for?
A. Illegal exaction
B. Direct Bribery
C. Malversation
D. Corruption of public official
64. The following are crimes against the fundamental
laws of the state EXCEPT:
A. Abuse in the service of search warrants
B. Arbitrary detention
C. Alarms and scandal
D. Interruption of religious worship
64. The following are crimes against the fundamental
laws of the state EXCEPT:
A. Abuse in the service of search warrants
B. Arbitrary detention
C. Alarms and scandal
D. Interruption of religious worship
65. To be qualified theft the coconuts should be stolen
from the ________
A. Marketplace
B. Coconut Store
C. Buko Pie Store
D. Premises of the coconut plantation
65. To be qualified theft the coconuts should be stolen
from the ________
A. Marketplace
B. Coconut Store
C. Buko Pie Store
D. Premises of the coconut plantation
66. When a municipal treasurer collects payment of
taxes from a citizen and fails to issue receipt, the
treasurer is liable for what crime?
A. Illegal exaction
B. Malversation
C. Falsification
D. Estafa
66. When a municipal treasurer collects payment of
taxes from a citizen and fails to issue receipt, the
treasurer is liable for what crime?
A. Illegal exaction
B. Malversation
C. Falsification
D. Estafa
67. The penalty for concubine and a spouse who kill
his wife under exceptional circumstance is?
A. Destiero
B. Prison Mayor
C. A fine of 200 to 500 pesos
D. Reclusion Perpetua
67. The penalty for concubine and a spouse who kill
his wife under exceptional circumstance is?
A. Destiero
B. Prison Mayor
C. A fine of 200 to 500 pesos
D. Reclusion Perpetua
68. Joime Removes, conceals and destroy the court
records is liable for?
A. Theft
B. Swindling (Estafa)
C. Falsification of court records
D. Malicious Mischief
68. Joime Removes, conceals and destroy the court
records is liable for?
A. Theft
B. Swindling (Estafa)
C. Falsification of court records
D. Malicious Mischief
69. Philando by means of promises of marriage,
induces Philanda a minor of 19 years old to leave her
house and then had sexual intercourse with her and
immediately thereafter she returns to her house,
what crime was committed by philando?
A. Rape
B. Seduction
C. Consented abduction
D. No crime
69. Philando by means of promises of marriage,
induces Philanda a minor of 19 years old to leave her
house and then had sexual intercourse with her and
immediately thereafter she returns to her house,
what crime was committed by philando?
A. Rape
B. Seduction
D. No crime
70. Supposed that in the preceding number what if
Philanda is 15 years old and was induced to leave her
house and later forcibly raped by Philando. What
crime was committed by Philando?
A. Rape
B. Seduction
D. No crime
70. Supposed that in the preceding number what if
Philanda is 15 years old and was induced to leave her
house and later forcibly raped by Philando. What
crime was committed by Philando?
A. Rape
B. Seduction
D. No crime
71. If the offender is a public officer and vested with
the power to arrest and detain a person and detained
a person without legal grounds
B. Unlawful detention
C. Arbitrary detention
71. If the offender is a public officer and vested with
the power to arrest and detain a person and detained
a person without legal grounds
B. Unlawful detention
C. Arbitrary detention
72. Under Art. 125 the delivery of the arrested person to the
proper authorities does not mean physical delivery of the
arrested person to the court but simply means
_____________
I. Putting arrested person under the jurisdiction of the court
II. By filling the compliant or information against the person
arrested in court within 12, 18 or 36 hours, as the case be,
depending on whether the crime is punished by light,
correctional penalty or their equivalent
A. I and II C. I only
B. II only D. none of the following
72. Under Art. 125 the delivery of the arrested person to the
proper authorities does not mean physical delivery of the
arrested person to the court but simply means
_____________
I. Putting arrested person under the jurisdiction of the court
II. By filling the compliant or information against the person
arrested in court within 12, 18 or 36 hours, as the case be,
depending on whether the crime is punished by light,
correctional penalty or their equivalent
B. II only D. none of the following
73. Police Insp. Cardo and Police Senor Insp. Ramos
arrested and detained Escapo without legal grounds
they are liable for?
A. Illegal arrest
C. Unlawful arrest
D. Arbitrary Detention
73. Police Insp. Cardo and Police Senor Insp. Ramos
arrested and detained Escapo without legal grounds
they are liable for?
A. Illegal arrest
C. Unlawful arrest
74. What if the arrest is made without a warrant and
under circumstances not allowing a warrant less
arrest just so to charge him for a crime he did not
commit, the crime committed is
A. Illegal arrest
C. Unlawful arrest
74. What if the arrest is made without a warrant and
under circumstances not allowing a warrant less
arrest just so to charge him for a crime he did not
commit, the crime committed is
A. Illegal arrest
C. Unlawful arrest
Situational numbers 75‐76
Duterte, a taxi driver, had an indebtedness in the sum of

Pl00,000.00 which would become due in two weeks. He was
starting to worry because he still had not raised the amount
to pay for his debt. Every day, he had prayed for divine
intervention. One night, while returning the taxi to the
garage, he found a wallet on the back seat. Inspecting it, he
learned that it contained exactly Pl00,000.00 cash, the
amount of his obligation. Thinking it was divine intervention,
and that his prayers were answered, he took the money and
used it to pay his debt.
75. What crime, if any, did Duterte commit?
A. Theft
B. Estafa
C. Malversation
D. Robbery
76. Assuming that instead of using the money, Duterte turned over
the wallet and its contents to the nearby police station, and it was
the chief of police of that station who appropriated the money for
his own benefit, what crime was committed by the chief of police?
A. Theft
B. Estafa
C. Malversation
D. Robbery
75. What crime, if any, did Duterte commit?
A. Theft
B. Estafa
C. Malversation
D. Robbery
76. Assuming that instead of using the money, Duterte turned over
the wallet and its contents to the nearby police station, and it was
the chief of police of that station who appropriated the money for
his own benefit, what crime was committed by the chief of police?
A. Theft
B. Estafa
C. Malversation
D. Robbery
Viceganda planned to burn Alden’s house. One evening, during a

drinking spree at his house, Viceganda told to his friends what he
intended to do and even showed them the gasoline in cans that he
would use for the purpose. Bong, a common friend of Viceganda
and Alden, was present at the drinking spree. He was still sober
when Viceganda told them his plans. Before going home, Bong
warned Alden that Viceganda would burn his house and had
already bought gasoline that would be used for the purpose.
Alden reported the matter to the police authorities. Meanwhile,
Viceganda went to Alden’s house and proceeded to pour gasoline
around the walls of the house and it was at that point when he
was caught by the police.
77. What crime did Viceganda commit, if any?
A. No crime
B. Attempted Arson
C. Frustrated Arson
D. Consummated Arson
78. What if Viceganda already lit up the house but eventually

arrested by the police and the fire was put off by Alden but it was
slightly charred. What crime did Viceganda commit, if any?
A. No crime
B. Attempted Arson
C. Frustrated Arson
D. Consummated ArsonWhat Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
77. What crime did Viceganda commit, if any?
A. No crime
B. Attempted Arson
C. Frustrated Arson
D. Consummated Arson
78. What if Viceganda already lit up the house but eventually

arrested by the police and the fire was put off by Alden but it was
slightly charred. What crime did Viceganda commit, if any?
A. No crime
B. Attempted Arson
C. Frustrated Arson
D. Consummated ArsonWhat Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
Kathrine and Daniel were married in New York, and have

been living happily in Manila for the last three years. Daniel
was removing junk from his basement when he came across
an unlabeled recordable cd he put it in his computer's DVD
drive to check its contents. To his surprise, he saw a video of
Kathrine and another man James Read in the act of sexual
intercourse in the master's bedroom of his house. Angered
by what he saw, he filed a complaint for adultery against
James Read and Kathrine. During the course of the trial, and
again to the surprise of Daniel, it was proved that Kathrine
was born male and underwent sex reassignment later in life.
79. May Daniel's charge of adultery against Nadine and
James Read prosper?
A. Yes C. No
B. Maybe D. it depends
80. Can there be an impossible crime of adultery?

A. Yes C. No
79. May Daniel's charge of adultery against Nadine and
James Read prosper?
A. Yes C. No
80. Can there be an impossible crime of adultery?

A. Yes C. No
Alden After a heated argument over his philandering, Alden

punched on the face his wife Maine, who was six and a half
months pregnant. Because of the impact, Maine lost her
balance, fell on the floor with her head hitting a hard object.
Maine died and the child was expelled prematurely. After
thirty‐six hours, the child died.
81. What crime(s) did Alden commit?
A. Serious Physical Injury
B. Homicide with Abortion
C. Parricide with Infanticide
D. Parricide with Unintentional Abortion
82. What if Maine survived but the fetus died inside the
womb of Maine what crime is committed?
A. Abortion
B. Infanticide
C. Unintentional Abortion
D. Reckless imprudence resulting to abortion
81. What crime(s) did Alden commit?
A. Serious Physical Injury
B. Homicide with Abortion
C. Parricide with Infanticide
D. Parricide with Unintentional Abortion
82. What if Maine survived but the fetus died inside the
womb of Maine what crime is committed?
A. Abortion
B. Infanticide
C. Unintentional Abortion
D. Reckless imprudence resulting to abortion
Nadine convinced Kathrine to work in Japan, promising Kathrine that

she would take care of the processing of the necessary documents.
Nadine collected 140,000 pesos from Kathrine purportedly for the
processing of her papers. Upon receipt of the money, Kathrine was
made to accomplish certain forms and was told that she would be
deployed to Japan within two weeks. After two weeks, Kathrine
followed up on her application. Nadine made some excuses and told
Kathrine that the deployment would be delayed. Another month
passed and Nadine made other excuses which made Kathrine
suspicious. Kathrine later discovered that Nadine was not licensed to
recruit. Kathrine confronted Nadine and demanded the return of her
money. Nadine promised to return the same in a week's time.
83. A week later, Nadine was nowhere to be found. What crime did
Nadine commit?
A. Estafa
B. Malversation
C. Illegal presentation
D. Bouncing check
84. In the scenario, Nadine is also liable under illegal recruitment.

What law penalizes illegal recruitment?
A. RA 8042
B. RA 8493
C. BP 22
D. RA 8294 What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
83. A week later, Nadine was nowhere to be found. What crime did
Nadine commit?
A. Estafa
B. Malversation
C. Illegal presentation
D. Bouncing check
84. In the scenario, Nadine is also liable under illegal recruitment.

What law penalizes illegal recruitment?
A. RA 8042
B. RA 8493
C. BP 22
D. RA 8294 What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
85. What if the money collected from Kathrine was produced
by means of check and the check was dishonored because of
insufficiency of account. What law was violated by Kathrine
if any?
A. RA 8042
B. RA 8493
C. BP 22
D. RA 8294
85. What if the money collected from Kathrine was produced
by means of check and the check was dishonored because of
insufficiency of account. What law was violated by Kathrine
if any?
A. RA 8042
B. RA 8493
C. BP 22
D. RA 8294
Alden and Yayadub were married but had been living separately due to
irreconcilable differences. Alden later met Viceganda and fell in love
with her. Thinking that he could marry Viceganda if Yayadub were to
die, Alden decided to kill Yayadub. He secretly followed Yayadub for
weeks to learn her daily routine. He decided to kill her at night on her
way home. On the night he was to kill Yayadub, Alden wore dark
clothes so that he would not be easily seen. He waited in the dark alley
for Yayadub to pass by. He saw someone whom he thought looked like
Yayadub and shot her with a revolver. The bullet passed through the
person's head and grazed another passerby's arm. Some bystanders
who heard the shot were able to stop Alden. It turned out that Yayadub
did not report for work on that day, and the one who was shot in the
head was Pastilla’s Girl, who died. The passerby whose arm was grazed
by the bullet required medical attendance for two days.
86. For what crime would Alden be held liable for the
passerby who was grazed by the bullet?
A. Slight Physical Injury
B. Less Serious Physical Injury
C. Serious physical injury
D. Attempted homicide
87. Will your answer be the same, assuming that the other
passerby was hit in the left eye which caused his/her
blindness?
A. Yes C. No
B. Maybe D. It Depends
86. For what crime would Alden be held liable for the
passerby who was grazed by the bullet?
A. Slight Physical Injury
B. Less Serious Physical Injury
C. Serious physical injury
D. Attempted homicide
87. Will your answer be the same, assuming that the other
passerby was hit in the left eye which caused his/her
blindness?
A. Yes C. No
B. Maybe D. It Depends
88. For what crime would Alden be held liable for Pastilla’s
Girl?
A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Frustrated Parricide
88. For what crime would Alden be held liable for Pastilla’s
Girl?
A. Homicide
B. Parricide
C. Murder
D. Frustrated Parricide
A typhoon Yolanda destroyed the houses of many of the inhabitants of

Samar Municipality. Thereafter, Samar Municipality operated a shelter
assistance program whereby construction materials were provided to
the calamity victims, and the beneficiaries provided the labor. The
construction was partially done when the beneficiaries stopped
helping with the construction for the reason that they needed to earn
income to provide food for their families. When informed of the
situation, Mayor Maawain approved the withdrawal of ten boxes of
food from Samar Municipality's feeding program, which were given to
the families of the beneficiaries of the shelter assistance program. The
appropriations for the funds pertaining to the shelter assistance
program and those for the feeding program were separate items on
Samar Municipality's annual budget.
89. What crime did Mayor Maawain commit?
A. Illegal use of public funds
B. Malversation of public funds
C. Plunder
D. Bribery
90. May Mayor Maawain invoke the defense of good faith

and that he had no evil intent when he approved the transfer
of the boxes of food from the feeding program to the shelter
assistance program?
A. Yes C. No
B. Maybe D. It depends
89. What crime did Mayor Maawain commit?
A. Illegal use of public funds
B. Malversation of public funds
C. Plunder
D. Bribery
90. May Mayor Maawain invoke the defense of good faith

and that he had no evil intent when he approved the transfer
of the boxes of food from the feeding program to the shelter
assistance program?
A. Yes C. No
B. Maybe D. It depends
Mr. Duterte is angry with Mr. Roxas. Oneday, when Mr.

Roxas left for town, Mr. Duterte went to his nipa hut and
deliberately damaged and removed the sawali sidlings of Mr.
Roxas’ house. Contented with the damage and he was about
to leave the scene when he decided that he could use the
sidings of Mr. Roxas’s house to repair his house so, he took it
home.
91. Mr. Duterte is liable for
A. Malicious mischief C. theft
B. Destruction of property D. robbery
92. One of the following statements is true. Mr. Duterte is

_______
A. Liable for malicious mischief
B. Not liable of any crime
C. Liable for robbery
D. Liable for theft
91. Mr. Duterte is liable for
A. Malicious mischief C. theft
B. Destruction of property D. robbery
92. One of the following statements is true. Mr. Duterte is

_______
A. Liable for malicious mischief
B. Not liable of any crime
C. Liable for robbery
D. Liable for theft
93. One of the following statements is true:
A. Mr. Duterte is not liable for any crime
B. Theft is committed by Mr. Duterte because he used the
sidings of the house after having maliciously damaged it
C. Robbery is committed by Mr. Duterte because he removed
the sidings of the house
D. Malicious mischief is committed by Mr. Duterte because
he deliberately caused damage to the sidings of the house
93. One of the following statements is true:
A. Mr. Duterte is not liable for any crime
B. Theft is committed by Mr. Duterte because he used the
sidings of the house after having maliciously damaged it
C. Robbery is committed by Mr. Duterte because he removed
the sidings of the house
D. Malicious mischief is committed by Mr. Duterte because
he deliberately caused damage to the sidings of the house
94. To constitute malicious mischief, any of the following
requisites must be present EXCEPT:
A. The offender deliberately caused damage to another’s
property
B. He damaged the property merely for the sake of damaging
it
C. The act does not constitute arson
D. The offender deliberately caused damage to his property
94. To constitute malicious mischief, any of the following
requisites must be present EXCEPT:
A. The offender deliberately caused damage to another’s
property
B. He damaged the property merely for the sake of damaging
it
C. The act does not constitute arson
D. The offender deliberately caused damage to his property
Dr. Teresita the division superintendent of Pembo

Elementary school of the Department of Education. While
she was working in his office, Aryola gave him a fist blow on
the right temple and as a result she suffered an injury. The
assault made by Aryola was due to a standing grudge of Dr.
Teresita for blocking his promotion.
95. If the injury was serious physical injury, what crime was
committed?
A. Attempted Homicide with physical injuries
B. Direct assault with physical injuries
C. Indirect assault
D. Serious physical injuries
96. If the injury is slight physical injury, what crime was

committed?
A. Attempted Homicide with slight physical injuries
B. Direct assault and slight physical injuries
C. Indirect assault with slight physical injury
95. If the injury was serious physical injury, what crime was
committed?
A. Attempted Homicide with physical injuries
B. Direct assault with physical injuries
C. Indirect assault
96. If the injury is slight physical injury, what crime was

committed?
A. Attempted Homicide with slight physical injuries
B. Direct assault and slight physical injuries
C. Indirect assault with slight physical injury
Duterte was convicted for Homicide and was
sentenced to suffer an imprisonment from 14 years
and 1 day to 17 years. While serving his sentence he
was allowed to escape from his cell.
97. If the offender is the custodian of the convicted prisoner
what crime was committed?
A. Delivering prisoners from jail
B. Evasion of service
C. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
D. Other cases of evasion
98. If the offender is not the custodian at the time of the

escape of said prisoner, what crime was committed?
A. Evasion of service
B. Delivering prisoners from jail
97. If the offender is the custodian of the convicted prisoner
what crime was committed?
B. Evasion of service
98. If the offender is not the custodian at the time of the

escape of said prisoner, what crime was committed?
99. What is the liability of the convicted prisoner serving his
sentence?
C. Consenting or conniving to evasion
100. But the detention prisoner conspires with the one letting his
escapes said is liable for _____ as principal by indispensable
cooperation.
B. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoner
C. Evasion of service
99. What is the liability of the convicted prisoner serving his
sentence?
C. Consenting or conniving to evasion
100. But the detention prisoner conspires with the one letting his
escapes said is liable for _____ as principal by indispensable
cooperation.
B. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoner
C. Evasion of service
*** END ***
“A reviewee with negative personality traits almost invites failure”.
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
SET 2
1. What do you call the record of the court where the
proceedings of the court or the judgment of the court is
recorded in case the accused failed to appear for the
promulgation of judgment despite notice
A. Log book
B. Record book
C. Criminal docket book
D. Folio of the case.
1. What do you call the record of the court where the
proceedings of the court or the judgment of the court is
recorded in case the accused failed to appear for the
promulgation of judgment despite notice
A. Log book
B. Record book
C. Criminal docket book
D. Folio of the case.
2. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law for
the offense charged does not exceed six months fall under
the rule on
A. Regular procedure
B. Summary procedure
C. Criminal procedure
D. Civil procedure
2. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law for
the offense charged does not exceed six months fall under
the rule on
B. Summary procedure
C. Criminal procedure
D. Civil procedure
3. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of
the court is to be exercised.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Trial courts
C. Venue
D. Territory
3. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of
the court is to be exercised.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Trial courts
C. Venue
D. Territory
4. It is the examination before a competent court or
tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the
facts in issue for the purpose of determining such
issue.
A. Pre – Trial
B. Arraignment
C. New Trial
D. Trial
4. It is the examination before a competent court or
tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the
facts in issue for the purpose of determining such
issue.
A. Pre – Trial
B. Arraignment
C. New Trial
D. Trial
5. If the accused appears to be suffering from an unsound
mental condition, which effectively renders him unable to
fully understand the charge against him to plead
intelligently.
A. The criminal charged must shall be dismissed
B. The arraignment shall be suspended
C. The trial shall be suspended
D. All of the foregoing
5. If the accused appears to be suffering from an unsound
mental condition, which effectively renders him unable to
fully understand the charge against him to plead
intelligently.
A. The criminal charged must shall be dismissed
B. The arraignment shall be suspended
C. The trial shall be suspended
6. The following are included as a reason for the postponement of trial:
I. That the witness is really material to which the courts agrees
II. That no similar evidence could be obtained without negligence on the
party applying for postponement
III. That the court docket is full
IV. That the prosecutor is sick
A. I and II only C. I only
B. III only D. I,II,III,IV
6. The following are included as a reason for the postponement of trial:
I. That the witness is really material to which the courts agrees
II. That no similar evidence could be obtained without negligence on the
party applying for postponement
IV. That the prosecutor is sick
B. III only D. I,II,III,IV
7. In determining the probable cause, it is required that
A. The judge must examine the complaint and his
witnesses personally
B. The examination must be under oath
C. The examination must be in writing in the form of
searching questions and answers
7. In determining the probable cause, it is required that
A. The judge must examine the complaint and his
witnesses personally
B. The examination must be under oath
C. The examination must be in writing in the form of
searching questions and answers
8. The following are the requisites for the issuance of a
search warrant EXCEPT
A. It must be issued upon probable cause
B. The probable cause must be determined personally
by the judge
C. Particularly describing the place to be searched
D. Particularly describing the person to be seized
8. The following are the requisites for the issuance of a
search warrant EXCEPT
A. It must be issued upon probable cause
B. The probable cause must be determined personally
by the judge
C. Particularly describing the place to be searched
D. Particularly describing the person to be seized
9. The following statements are false, EXCEPT
A. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
B. The accused must personally enter his plea
C. The accused may excuse/waive arraignment
D. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than
where the case is assigned
9. The following statements are false, EXCEPT
A. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
B. The accused must personally enter his plea
C. The accused may excuse/waive arraignment
D. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than
where the case is assigned
10. It is the way or method fixed by law for the
apprehension and prosecution of persons suspected or
having committed a crime. It includes the imposition of
penalty in case of conviction. What is it?
A. Criminal procedure C. accusatorial system
B. Inquisitorial scheme D. civil code
10. It is the way or method fixed by law for the
apprehension and prosecution of persons suspected or
having committed a crime. It includes the imposition of
penalty in case of conviction. What is it?
A. Criminal procedure C. accusatorial system
B. Inquisitorial scheme D. civil code
11. Maybe defined as the security given for the release of
a person in custody of law, furnished by him or a
bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court
as required under the conditions herein specified.
A. Pardon
B. Bail
C. Probation
D. Parole
11. Maybe defined as the security given for the release of
a person in custody of law, furnished by him or a
bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court
as required under the conditions herein specified.
A. Pardon
B. Bail
C. Probation
D. Parole
12. In what instances is a warrant of arrest is not
necessary?
A. If the accused is already under detention
B. If the complaint or information was filed after
the accused was lawfully arrested without warrant
C. When the penalty is fine only
D. All of the Foregoing
12. In what instances is a warrant of arrest is not
necessary?
A. If the accused is already under detention
B. If the complaint or information was filed after
the accused was lawfully arrested without warrant
C. When the penalty is fine only
D. All of the Foregoing
13. One of the following is not included as a reason for
the postponement of trial.
I. That the witness is really material to which the courts
agrees
II. That no similar evidence could be obtained without
negligence on the party applying for postponement
A. I and II C. I and III
B. III only D. II only
13. One of the following is not included as a reason for
the postponement of trial.
I. That the witness is really material to which the courts
agrees
II. That no similar evidence could be obtained without
negligence on the party applying for postponement
A. I and II C. I and III
B. III only D. II only
14. When a court is satisfied, upon proof or oath,
that a material witness will not testify when
required, it may upon motion of either party order
the witness to __________
A. To be excused.
B. To post bail.
C. To be included in the information.
D. To be arrested.
14. When a court is satisfied, upon proof or oath,
that a material witness will not testify when
required, it may upon motion of either party order
the witness to __________
A. To be excused.
B. To post bail.
C. To be included in the information.
D. To be arrested.
15. During the pending of his case, X died due to
heart attack. His untimely death resulted in
A. Postponement of the case
B. Suspension of the case
C. Dismissal of the case
D. None of the above
15. During the pending of his case, X died due to
heart attack. His untimely death resulted in
A. Postponement of the case
B. Suspension of the case
C. Dismissal of the case
16. It is defined as an accusation in writing charging
a person with an offense subscribed by the fiscal
and filed with the court.
A. Information
B. Complaint
C. Action
D. Police blotter
16. It is defined as an accusation in writing charging
a person with an offense subscribed by the fiscal
and filed with the court.
A. Information
B. Complaint
C. Action
D. Police blotter
17. Are search warrants by the courts of law
always issued in the name of the Philippines?
A. no C. possible
B. it depends D. yes
17. Are search warrants by the courts of law
always issued in the name of the Philippines?
A. no C. possible
B. it depends D. yes
18. The offender who is still undergoing preliminary
investigation at the prosecutor’s office is referred to
as
A. Respondent
B. Suspect
C. Accused
D. Defendant
18. The offender who is still undergoing preliminary
investigation at the prosecutor’s office is referred to
as
A. Respondent
B. Suspect
C. Accused
D. Defendant
19. In this jurisdiction, when two or more accused
are jointly charged with any offense, they shall be
tried jointly. Separate trial is _________
A. Within sound discretion of the court.
B. A constitutional requirement.
C. Statutory requirement.
D. Mandatory.
19. In this jurisdiction, when two or more accused
are jointly charged with any offense, they shall be
tried jointly. Separate trial is _________
A. Within sound discretion of the court.
B. A constitutional requirement.
C. Statutory requirement.
D. Mandatory.
20. After arraignment, the accused failed to appear
in the subsequent trial dates. The trial can proceed
even in the absence of the accused and such
situation is termed as what?
A. absent accused C. trial in absentia
B. escaped accused D. trial on merit
20. After arraignment, the accused failed to appear
in the subsequent trial dates. The trial can proceed
even in the absence of the accused and such
situation is termed as what?
A. absent accused C. trial in absentia
B. escaped accused D. trial on merit
21. What doctrine does not allow evidence
obtained by the police officers in an illegal searched
and seizures to be used against the accused?
A. Exclusionary doctrine
B. Miranda ruling
C. Fruit of poisonous tree
D. Silver plater
21. What doctrine does not allow evidence
obtained by the police officers in an illegal searched
and seizures to be used against the accused?
B. Miranda ruling
D. Silver plater
22. In the preceding question what if it allows the
evidence obtained by the police officers in an illegal
searched and seizures to be used against the
accused?
B. Miranda ruling
D. Silver plater
22. In the preceding question what if it allows the
evidence obtained by the police officers in an illegal
searched and seizures to be used against the
accused?
B. Miranda ruling
D. Silver plater
23. To be state witness, one of the accused must
voluntarily execute a sworn statement in support of
his discharge. If the court denies the motion to
discharge said accused filed before the prosecution
rest its case, his sworn statement shall be as
_______________
A. Admissible in evidence.
B. Inadmissible evidence.
C. Admitted as material evidence.
D. Conditionally admitted as material evidence.
23. To be state witness, one of the accused must
voluntarily execute a sworn statement in support of
his discharge. If the court denies the motion to
discharge said accused filed before the prosecution
rest its case, his sworn statement shall be as
_______________
A. Admissible in evidence.
B. Inadmissible evidence.
C. Admitted as material evidence.
D. Conditionally admitted as material evidence.
24. Under our existing criminal procedure, who
automatically enter a plea of not guilty if the
accused refuse to plea?
A. prosecutor C. court
B. guardian D. defense lawyer
24. Under our existing criminal procedure, who
automatically enter a plea of not guilty if the
accused refuse to plea?
A. prosecutor C. court
B. guardian D. defense lawyer
25. In the preceding question, the on its own
initiative or automatic plea made is called as?
A. Motu proprio C. trial on merit
B. Non bis in idem D. De officio
25. In the preceding question, the on its own
initiative or automatic plea made is called as?
A. Motu proprio C. trial on merit
B. Non bis in idem D. De officio
26. The number of days the accused has to prepare
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered.
A. At least 30 days
B. At least 15 days
C. At least 20 days
D. At least 60 days
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered.
A. At least 30 days
B. At least 15 days
C. At least 20 days
D. At least 60 days
27. In the preceding question, after the plea of guilty was
made the trial shall commence _________
A. Within 30 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
B. Within 45 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
C. Within 20 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
D. Within 15 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
27. In the preceding question, after the plea of guilty was
made the trial shall commence _________
A. Within 30 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
B. Within 45 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
C. Within 20 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
D. Within 15 days from receipt of the pre‐trial order.
28. Under the penal laws and jurisprudence, all criminal
prosecutions in the entire country shall be done by the
prosecutor. Is there an instant where a private lawyer hired
by the victim can prosecute a case even without the
presence of the public prosecutor? The answer is yes,
however, the said private lawyer shall secure written
authority from the city prosecutor to what?
A. Behave C. continue
B. Defend D. prosecute
28. Under the penal laws and jurisprudence, all criminal
prosecutions in the entire country shall be done by the
prosecutor. Is there an instant where a private lawyer hired
by the victim can prosecute a case even without the
presence of the public prosecutor? The answer is yes,
however, the said private lawyer shall secure written
authority from the city prosecutor to what?
A. Behave C. continue
B. Defend D. prosecute
29. This requirement imports the degree of proof
necessary to convict an accused of the crime of
treason consisting of the testimony of two witnesses
to the same over act.
A. Dangerous tendency rule
B. All of the foregoing
C. Two witness rule
D. None of the foregoing
29. This requirement imports the degree of proof
necessary to convict an accused of the crime of
treason consisting of the testimony of two witnesses
to the same over act.
A. Dangerous tendency rule
B. All of the foregoing
C. Two witness rule
30. The status of an essential witness whenever his
whereabouts are unknown or his whereabouts
cannot be determined by due diligence.
A. Unavailable
B. Absent
C. Hostile
D. Adverse
30. The status of an essential witness whenever his
whereabouts are unknown or his whereabouts
cannot be determined by due diligence.
A. Unavailable
B. Absent
C. Hostile
D. Adverse
31. In putting up self‐defense in criminal
prosecution, as prober, you have to determine the
existence of the most important element which is
what?
31. In putting up self‐defense in criminal
prosecution, as prober, you have to determine the
existence of the most important element which is
what?
32. One reason for the re‐opening of trial of a case.
A. The case is appealable
B. Newly discovered evidence
C. The appearance of an essential witness
D. To avoid miscarriage of justice upon motion and
with hearing
32. One reason for the re‐opening of trial of a case.
A. The case is appealable
B. Newly discovered evidence
C. The appearance of an essential witness
D. To avoid miscarriage of justice upon motion and
with hearing
33. Pre‐trail conference in criminal cases is
mandatory. One of the matters that should be taken
during the said proceeding is stipulation and
admission of facts. The purpose of entering into a
stipulation or admission of facts is to what?
A. Ensure justice and fair play
B. making sure of facts
C. expedite trial
D. corroborate either side party
33. Pre‐trail conference in criminal cases is
mandatory. One of the matters that should be taken
during the said proceeding is stipulation and
admission of facts. The purpose of entering into a
stipulation or admission of facts is to what?
A. Ensure justice and fair play
B. making sure of facts
C. expedite trial
D. corroborate either side party
34. The law that prescribes certain rights of a person
arrested, detained or under custodial investigation
and the guidelines, procedure and responsibilities of
the arresting, detaining and investigating officer is
A. B.P. 129, as amended
B. R.A 7691
C. R.A. 8294
D. R.A. 7438
34. The law that prescribes certain rights of a person
arrested, detained or under custodial investigation
and the guidelines, procedure and responsibilities of
the arresting, detaining and investigating officer is
A. B.P. 129, as amended
B. R.A 7691
C. R.A. 8294
D. R.A. 7438
35. After the prosecution has rested its case, the
accused file a motion to dismiss, with or without
leave of court; this rule is known as:
A. Bill of particulars
B. Demurrer to evidence
C. Summary proceeding
D. Motion to quash
35. After the prosecution has rested its case, the
accused file a motion to dismiss, with or without
leave of court; this rule is known as:
A. Bill of particulars
B. Demurrer to evidence
C. Summary proceeding
D. Motion to quash
36. The right to bail is a matter of right except when
the accused is charged with a capital offense and
the evidence of guilt is what?
A. enough C. divisible
B. strong D. determined
36. The right to bail is a matter of right except when
the accused is charged with a capital offense and
the evidence of guilt is what?
A. enough C. divisible
B. strong D. determined
38. The entire trial period should not exceed
______ from the first day of trial, except if
authorized by special law or by the SC circulars.
A. 120 days C. 90 days
B. 180 days D. 60 days
38. The entire trial period should not exceed
______ from the first day of trial, except if
authorized by special law or by the SC circulars.
A. 120 days C. 90 days
B. 180 days D. 60 days
39. In habeas corpus proceedings, any person may
apply for a writ on behalf of the aggrieved part. The
important issue in such a case is deprivation of
one’s?
A. Honor C. liberty
B. reputation D. property
39. In habeas corpus proceedings, any person may
apply for a writ on behalf of the aggrieved part. The
important issue in such a case is deprivation of
one’s?
A. Honor C. liberty
B. reputation D. property
40. Requisite before recall of a witness.
A. Leading Question
B. Misleading Question
C. Impeachment
D. Leave of Court
40. Requisite before recall of a witness.
A. Leading Question
B. Misleading Question
C. Impeachment
D. Leave of Court
41. What is this search warrant wherein it fails to
sufficiently specify the place or person to be
searched or things to be seized?
A. General C. alias
B. borderless D. major
41. What is this search warrant wherein it fails to
sufficiently specify the place or person to be
searched or things to be seized?
A. General C. alias
B. borderless D. major
42. As a general rule, the silence of the accused should
not prejudice him the following are exception:
I. If the prosecution has already established a prima facie
case
II. If the defense of the accused is an alibi
III. If the defense of the accused is self‐defense
42. As a general rule, the silence of the accused should
not prejudice him the following are exception:
I. If the prosecution has already established a prima facie
case
II. If the defense of the accused is an alibi
III. If the defense of the accused is self‐defense
43. When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant of
arrest involving an offense, which requires a preliminary
investigation, the complaint or information may be filed
without need of such investigation, provided an _______ has
been conducted in accordance with existing law or
procedure
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Preliminary examination
C. Inquest proceeding
D. Fact finding investigation.
43. When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant of
arrest involving an offense, which requires a preliminary
investigation, the complaint or information may be filed
without need of such investigation, provided an _______ has
been conducted in accordance with existing law or
procedure
C. Inquest proceeding
D. Fact finding investigation.
44. Under the revised rule on summary procedure,
the filing of criminal cases falling within the scope of
that rule shall be either by complaint or what?
A. Indictment C. information
B. charge sheet D. None
44. Under the revised rule on summary procedure,
the filing of criminal cases falling within the scope of
that rule shall be either by complaint or what?
A. Indictment C. information
B. charge sheet D. None
45. After the prosecution rested its case, the accused filed a
demurrer to evidence. Would double jeopardy be a valid
defense if he charged again with the same offense against?
A. Yes, because the dismissal is tantamount to acquittal.
B. Yes, the case was not terminated on its own merits.
C. No, because the dismissal is with his consent or upon his
own motion.
D. No, The case was not terminated on its merits hence
double jeopardy is not a valid defense.
45. After the prosecution rested its case, the accused filed a
demurrer to evidence. Would double jeopardy be a valid
defense if he charged again with the same offense against?
A. Yes, because the dismissal is tantamount to acquittal.
B. Yes, the case was not terminated on its own merits.
C. No, because the dismissal is with his consent or upon his
own motion.
D. No, The case was not terminated on its merits hence
double jeopardy is not a valid defense.
46. If the accused refuses to plea the accusation
during arraignment, what will be the automatic plea
to be entered?
A. Denial C. waiver
B. not guilty D. guilty
46. If the accused refuses to plea the accusation
during arraignment, what will be the automatic plea
to be entered?
A. Denial C. waiver
B. not guilty D. guilty
47. The person, who is authorized by law to grant
probation to an accused convicted of a crime, is
A. President of the Philippines
B. Director of Prisons
C. Trial Court Judge
D. Jail Warden
47. The person, who is authorized by law to grant
probation to an accused convicted of a crime, is
A. President of the Philippines
B. Director of Prisons
C. Trial Court Judge
D. Jail Warden
48. When the judge directed the prosecutor to
‘qualify the witness’, what does it mean? Witness is?
A. To take an oath
B. An expert witness
C. Ready for trial
D. Due for cross examination
48. When the judge directed the prosecutor to
‘qualify the witness’, what does it mean? Witness is?
A. To take an oath
B. An expert witness
C. Ready for trial
D. Due for cross examination
49. At the hearing of an application for admission to
bail, the __________ has the burden of showing that
the evidence of guilt is strong.
A. Prosecution
B. Defense
C. Court
D. Bailiff
49. At the hearing of an application for admission to
bail, the __________ has the burden of showing that
the evidence of guilt is strong.
A. Prosecution
B. Defense
C. Court
D. Bailiff
50. The Judiciary Reorganization Act is otherwise
known as
A. PD 1612
B. BP 186
C. RA 7695
D. BP 129
50. The Judiciary Reorganization Act is otherwise
known as
A. PD 1612
B. BP 186
C. RA 7695
D. BP 129
51. It is the adjudication by the court that the
accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense
charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty
and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
A. Sentence C. Acquittal
B. Interlocutory D. Judgment
51. It is the adjudication by the court that the
accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense
charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty
and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
A. Sentence C. Acquittal
B. Interlocutory D. Judgment
52. If the motion to quash is based on an alleged
defect in the complaint/information, the court shall
order its?
A. Amendment C. accuracy
B. culpability D. particulars
52. If the motion to quash is based on an alleged
defect in the complaint/information, the court shall
order its?
A. Amendment C. accuracy
B. culpability D. particulars
53. In a judgment of acquittal, the court has
____________
I. Authority to reprimand
II. No authority to reprimand the accused
III. Authority to call a conference the counsels of the
prosecution and defense
A. I only C. II only
B. I and III D. III only
53. In a judgment of acquittal, the court has
____________
I. Authority to reprimand
II. No authority to reprimand the accused
III. Authority to call a conference the counsels of the
prosecution and defense
B. I and III D. III only
54. Under the rules of court, the lifetime of a
search warrant is how many days from its
issuance?
A. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 8
54. Under the rules of court, the lifetime of a
search warrant is how many days from its
issuance?
A. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 8
55. In case of acquittal, the judgment shall make a finding
on the civil liability of the accused in favor of the offended
party, the following are exception:
I. The guilty party die before judgment.
II. The guilty party die after judgment.
III. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did not exist.
IV. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did exist.
A. I and III only C. I,II,III
B. I only only D. II and III only
on the civil liability of the accused in favor of the offended
party, the following are exception:
I. The guilty party die before judgment.
II. The guilty party die after judgment.
III. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did not exist.
IV. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil
liability might arise did exist.
A. I and III only C. I,II,III
B. I only only D. II and III only
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered
A. Within 30 days
B. Within 45 days
C. Within 15 days
D. All of the above
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered
A. Within 30 days
B. Within 45 days
C. Within 15 days
D. All of the above
57. The accused pleaded guilty when arraigned. However,
since the charge is a capital offense, the court directed the
prosecution to present its star witness. In the middle of the
testimony of the eyewitness, the accused changed his mind
and requested the trial court to allow him to change his plea
of ‘guilty’ to ‘not guilty’. Is it legal?
A. No
B. Yes
C. possible
D. it depends
57. The accused pleaded guilty when arraigned. However,
since the charge is a capital offense, the court directed the
prosecution to present its star witness. In the middle of the
testimony of the eyewitness, the accused changed his mind
and requested the trial court to allow him to change his plea
of ‘guilty’ to ‘not guilty’. Is it legal?
A. No
B. Yes
C. possible
D. it depends
58. In the preceding question the accused may
change only due to what?
A. Mistake of fact
B. Palpable mistake
C. Misapprehension of facts
D. Ignorance
58. In the preceding question the accused may
change only due to what?
A. Mistake of fact
B. Palpable mistake
C. Misapprehension of facts
D. Ignorance
59. A person designated to assist destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de parte
B. Attorney at law
C. Attorney on record
D. Counsel de officio
59. A person designated to assist destitute litigants.
A. Counsel de parte
B. Attorney at law
C. Attorney on record
D. Counsel de officio
60. What do you call the wooden hammer like
instrument being used by judges during hearings?
A. Gavel
B. shaver
C. swivel
D. mallet
60. What do you call the wooden hammer like
instrument being used by judges during hearings?
A. Gavel
B. shaver
C. swivel
D. mallet
61. What is the stage of the proceedings in court
where the plea bargaining, stipulation of facts,
markings of exhibits, etc are considered or
discussed?
A. Pre‐trial conference
B. Trial
C. Arraignment
D. Preliminary conference
61. What is the stage of the proceedings in court
where the plea bargaining, stipulation of facts,
markings of exhibits, etc are considered or
discussed?
A. Pre‐trial conference
B. Trial
C. Arraignment
D. Preliminary conference
A. It depends
B. Accused
C. State
D. None
A. It depends
B. Accused
C. State
D. None
63. At what time may the accused move to quash
the complaint or information?
A. At any time before his arrest
B. Only after entering his plea
C. At any time before entering his plea
63. At what time may the accused move to quash
the complaint or information?
A. At any time before his arrest
B. Only after entering his plea
C. At any time before entering his plea
crime is similar to that of establishing conspiracy and
that is proof beyond reasonable?
B. Motive D. fault
crime is similar to that of establishing conspiracy and
that is proof beyond reasonable?
B. Motive D. fault
65. The allegation in the complaint or information of
the place where the offense was committed
determines the:
A. Trial
B. Proceedings
C. Venue
D. Plea
65. The allegation in the complaint or information of
the place where the offense was committed
determines the:
A. Trial
B. Proceedings
C. Venue
D. Plea
66. A solemn and formal declaration or assertion
that the witness will tell the truth is called:
A. Statement
B. Promise
C. Affirmation
D. Declaration
66. A solemn and formal declaration or assertion
that the witness will tell the truth is called:
A. Statement
B. Promise
C. Affirmation
D. Declaration
67. It is concerned with the procedural steps through
which a criminal case passes, commencing with the initial
investigation of a crime and concluding with the
unconditional release of the offender.
A. Evidence
B. Criminal procedure
C. Criminal law
D. Crime
67. It is concerned with the procedural steps through
which a criminal case passes, commencing with the initial
investigation of a crime and concluding with the
unconditional release of the offender.
A. Evidence
C. Criminal law
D. Crime
68. It is a generic term used to describe the network
of laws and rules which govern the procedural
administration of criminal justice.
A. Evidence
C. Criminal law
D. Crime
68. It is a generic term used to describe the network
of laws and rules which govern the procedural
administration of criminal justice.
A. Evidence
C. Criminal law
D. Crime
69. It is the authority to hear and decide a particular
offense and impose punishment for it.
A. Jurisdiction
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Police power
D. All of the above
69. It is the authority to hear and decide a particular
offense and impose punishment for it.
A. Jurisdiction
C. Police power
D. All of the above
70. It is the authority to hear and try a case.
A. Jurisdiction
C. Police power
D. All of the above
70. It is the authority to hear and try a case.
A. Jurisdiction
C. Police power
D. All of the above
71. judgment become final after the lapse of the
period for
A. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
B. Presentation of evidence by the defense
counsel
C. Perfecting an appeal
71. judgment become final after the lapse of the
period for
A. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
B. Presentation of evidence by the defense
counsel
C. Perfecting an appeal
72. In order for a court to validly exercise
jurisdiction the following must be present:
I. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
II. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
III. Jurisdiction over the territory
IV. Jurisdiction the case
A. I, II, III C. I and II
B. I and III D. I,II, III, IV
72. In order for a court to validly exercise
jurisdiction the following must be present:
I. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
II. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
III. Jurisdiction over the territory
IV. Jurisdiction the case
A. I, II, III C. I and II
B. I and III D. I,II, III, IV
73. _______ are cases of the general class where the
proceedings in question belong as determined by the
nature of the offense and the penalty imposed by
law.
A. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused
B. Jurisdiction over the subject matter
C. Jurisdiction over the territory
D. Jurisdiction the case
73. _______ are cases of the general class where the
proceedings in question belong as determined by the
nature of the offense and the penalty imposed by
law.
74. ________ is the geographical limits of the
territory over which the court presides and where
the offense was committed.
74. ________ is the geographical limits of the
territory over which the court presides and where
the offense was committed.
75. ________ is acquired thru arrest (with warrant or
warrantless) or by voluntary surrender.
75. ________ is acquired thru arrest (with warrant or
warrantless) or by voluntary surrender.
76. A complaint is one which:
A. Is a sworn written statement charging a person with
an offense
B. Is Executed and Subscribed by the Offended Party, Any
peace officer, or Other public officer charged with the
enforcement of the law violated.
C. Is may be filed in the Prosecutors office or directly to
the court
D. All of the above
76. A complaint is one which:
A. Is a sworn written statement charging a person with
an offense
B. Is Executed and Subscribed by the Offended Party, Any
peace officer, or Other public officer charged with the
C. Is may be filed in the Prosecutors office or directly to
the court
D. All of the above
77. Any lawyer or members of the bar shall, at the request
of the person arrested or of another acting in his behalf,
have the right to visit and confer privately with such
person, in jail or any other place of custody at
A. Any hour of the working day only
B. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the night
C. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
D. Any hour of the designated visiting day only
77. Any lawyer or members of the bar shall, at the request
of the person arrested or of another acting in his behalf,
have the right to visit and confer privately with such
person, in jail or any other place of custody at
A. Any hour of the working day only
B. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the night
C. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
D. Any hour of the designated visiting day only
78. A complaint is subscribed and executed by the
following:
A. Offended Party
B. Any peace officer
C. Other public officer charged with the
D. All of the above
78. A complaint is subscribed and executed by the
following:
A. Offended Party
B. Any peace officer
C. Other public officer charged with the
D. All of the above
79. An information is one which:
A. Is an accusation in writing
B. Is subscribed by the Prosecutor
C. Is filed with the court
D. All of the above
79. An information is one which:
A. Is an accusation in writing
B. Is subscribed by the Prosecutor
C. Is filed with the court
D. All of the above
80. A complaint and information are both
_________
A. In writing
B. In the name of the People of the Philippines
C. Directed against all persons who appear to be
responsible for the offense involved
D. All of the above
80. A complaint and information are both
_________
A. In writing
B. In the name of the People of the Philippines
C. Directed against all persons who appear to be
responsible for the offense involved
D. All of the above
81. Refers to the family history or descendant
transmitted from one generation to another.
A. Pedigree
B. Reputation
C. Privies
81. Refers to the family history or descendant
transmitted from one generation to another.
A. Pedigree
B. Reputation
C. Privies
82. The complaint or information should state the
following EXCEPT
A. Name of the offended party
B. The designation of the offense by the state
C. Name of the accused
D. Name of the court
82. The complaint or information should state the
following EXCEPT
A. Name of the offended party
B. The designation of the offense by the state
C. Name of the accused
D. Name of the court
83. A complaint or information is sufficient in form if it
states the following:
I. The Name of the accused
II. The Designation of the offense given by the statute
III. The Acts or omissions complained of as constituting the
offense
IV. The Name of the offended party
V. The Approximate date of the commission of the offense
VI. The Place where the offense was committed.
A. I,II,III,IV,V,VI C. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V D. I,II,III
83. A complaint or information is sufficient in form if it
states the following:
I. The Name of the accused
II. The Designation of the offense given by the statute
III. The Acts or omissions complained of as constituting the
offense
IV. The Name of the offended party
V. The Approximate date of the commission of the offense
VI. The Place where the offense was committed.
A. I,II,III,IV,V,VI C. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III,IV,V D. I,II,III
84. The following are elements of complaint or
information :
I. Formal elements
II. Substantive elements
III. Designation elements
B. I, II, III D. II only
84. The following are elements of complaint or
information :
I. Formal elements
II. Substantive elements
III. Designation elements
B. I, II, III D. II only
85. A complaint or information is sufficient in
substance if it does contain any of the defects which
is a ground for a motion to quash. This statement is.
A. Correct C. incorrect
B. Partially correct D. It depends
85. A complaint or information is sufficient in
substance if it does contain any of the defects which
is a ground for a motion to quash. This statement is.
A. Correct C. incorrect
B. Partially correct D. It depends
86. What administrative matter was the Revised Rules of
Criminal Procedure promulgated by the Supreme Court of
the Philippines as part of the rules of court?
A. A.M. No. 00‐05‐03‐SC
B. A.M. No. 02‐2‐07‐SC
C. A.M. No. 05‐8‐26‐SC
D. B.P. 129
86. What administrative matter was the Revised Rules of
Criminal Procedure promulgated by the Supreme Court of
the Philippines as part of the rules of court?
A. A.M. No. 00‐05‐03‐SC
B. A.M. No. 02‐2‐07‐SC
C. A.M. No. 05‐8‐26‐SC
D. B.P. 129
87. In the preceding number on what date it was
promulgated?
A. December 1, 2000
B. December 8, 2001
C. December 1, 2001
D. December 2, 2000
87. In the preceding number on what date it was
promulgated?
A. December 1, 2000
B. December 8, 2001
C. December 1, 2001
D. December 2, 2000
88. It refers to the final determination by a Court of
competent jurisdiction of the issues submitted to in a
case such that after it is issued, the case ends if the
losing party does not appeal.
A. Interlocutory order
B. Summons
C. Subpoena
D. Judgment
88. It refers to the final determination by a Court of
competent jurisdiction of the issues submitted to in a
case such that after it is issued, the case ends if the
losing party does not appeal.
A. Interlocutory order
B. Summons
C. Subpoena
D. Judgment
89. It is a doctrine usually applied where the police
officers is not searching for evidence against the
accused but nonetheless inadvertently come across
incriminating objects.
A. Waiver or consented search
B. Stop and frisk
C. In flagrante delicto
D. Plain view
89. It is a doctrine usually applied where the police
officers is not searching for evidence against the
accused but nonetheless inadvertently come across
incriminating objects.
A. Waiver or consented search
B. Stop and frisk
C. In flagrante delicto
D. Plain view
90. The following are the requisites of an information
except
A. It must be filed by the offended party
B. It must charge the person with an offense
C. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
D. It must be in writing
90. The following are the requisites of an information
except
A. It must be filed by the offended party
B. It must charge the person with an offense
C. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
D. It must be in writing
91. What if the offended party is a corporation,
how do you indicate it in the complaint or
information?
A. Leave it blank
B. State the name of the corporation
C. Aver it in the charge sheet
D. State the name of the owner of the corporation
and the member who are guilty
91. What if the offended party is a corporation,
how do you indicate it in the complaint or
information?
A. Leave it blank
92. What is the order of reverse trial?
A. Prosecution‐Defense‐Rebuttal‐Submission for
decision
B. Rebuttal‐Defense‐Prosecution‐Submission for
decision
C. Defense‐Prosecution‐Rebuttal‐Submission for
decision
D. Submission for decision‐Rebuttal‐Prosecution‐
Defense
92. What is the order of reverse trial?
A. Prosecution‐Defense‐Rebuttal‐Submission for
decision
B. Rebuttal‐Defense‐Prosecution‐Submission for
decision
C. Defense‐Prosecution‐Rebuttal‐Submission for
decision
D. Submission for decision‐Rebuttal‐Prosecution‐
Defense
93. After the cross examination of the witness, what
is the next procedure?
A. Direct examination
B. Re‐direct examination
C. Cross examination
D. Re‐cross examination
93. After the cross examination of the witness, what
is the next procedure?
A. Direct examination
B. Re‐direct examination
C. Cross examination
D. Re‐cross examination
94. In the preceding question, what if the offender is
the corporation how do you indicate it in the
complaint or information?
A. Leave it blank
94. In the preceding question, what if the offender is
the corporation how do you indicate it in the
complaint or information?
A. Leave it blank
95. Offenses involving criminal negligence where
the penalty of fines does not exceed a fine of
P10,000.00 is within the coverage of this rule.
B. Ordinary procedure
C. Summary procedure
D. Any of the following
95. Offenses involving criminal negligence where
the penalty of fines does not exceed a fine of
P10,000.00 is within the coverage of this rule.
B. Ordinary procedure
C. Summary procedure
D. Any of the following
96. The personal evaluation of the judge after the
filing of a case in court for the purpose of
determining the existence of a probable cause for
the issuance of a warrant of arrest.
C. Criminal investigation
D. Inquest proceeding
96. The personal evaluation of the judge after the
filing of a case in court for the purpose of
determining the existence of a probable cause for
the issuance of a warrant of arrest.
C. Criminal investigation
D. Inquest proceeding
97. The pre‐marking of evidence of the parties for
identification purposes are supposed to be made
during this stage of the proceedings
A. Arraignment
B. Trial proper
C. Pre‐trial conference
D. Direct examination
97. The pre‐marking of evidence of the parties for
identification purposes are supposed to be made
during this stage of the proceedings
A. Arraignment
B. Trial proper
C. Pre‐trial conference
D. Direct examination
98. An extra‐judicial confession made by an accused
shall not be sufficient and admissible unless it is in
A. Writing
B. Voluntarily given
C. Presence of his counsel
D. All of these
98. An extra‐judicial confession made by an accused
shall not be sufficient and admissible unless it is in
A. Writing
B. Voluntarily given
C. Presence of his counsel
D. All of these
99. Criminal actions requires preliminary
investigation by the proper officers where the
prescribed penalty at least
A. 6 months and 2 days
B. 4 years 2 months and 1 day
C. 6 years 2 months and 1 day
D. 4 years and 1 day
99. Criminal actions requires preliminary
investigation by the proper officers where the
prescribed penalty at least
A. 6 months and 2 days
B. 4 years 2 months and 1 day
C. 6 years 2 months and 1 day
D. 4 years and 1 day
100.An application for a search warrant can be made
in any court of the Philippines which has jurisdiction
over the subject matter
A. Wholly true
B. Partly true
C. Wholly false
D. Partly false
100.An application for a search warrant can be made
in any court of the Philippines which has jurisdiction
over the subject matter
A. Wholly true
B. Partly true
C. Wholly false
D. Partly false
*** END ***
“REPETITION IS THE KEY ON MEMORIZING”.
CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
SET 3
1. In the Philippines, there are several courts of
law. What is the example of ‘second level’ courts?
A. Supreme Court
B. Court of Appeals
C. Metropolitan trial court
D. Regional trial Courts
1. In the Philippines, there are several courts of
law. What is the example of ‘second level’ courts?
A. Supreme Court
B. Court of Appeals
C. Metropolitan trial court
D. Regional trial Courts
2. Motion to dismiss, motion to quash and
demurrer to evidence are remedies in the court of
justice wherein the main objective is to what?
A. Put an end to the case
B. Action to be taken by the party
C. Ensure there is justice
D. Determine the winner
2. Motion to dismiss, motion to quash and
demurrer to evidence are remedies in the court of
justice wherein the main objective is to what?
A. Put an end to the case
B. Action to be taken by the party
C. Ensure there is justice
D. Determine the winner
3. Is the taking of a person in custody in order that
he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense?
A. Arrest
B. Investigation
C. Subpoena
D. Bail
3. Is the taking of a person in custody in order that
he may be bound to answer for the commission of
an offense?
A. Arrest
B. Investigation
C. Subpoena
D. Bail
4. A restraint on person, depriving one of his own
will and liberty, binding him to become obedient to
the will of the law.
A. Arrest
B. Investigation
C. Subpoena
D. Bail
4. A restraint on person, depriving one of his own
will and liberty, binding him to become obedient to
the will of the law.
A. Arrest
B. Investigation
C. Subpoena
D. Bail
5. In the preceding question as to its manner of
enforcement, it is made by:
I. Actual restraint
II. Submission to the custody of the person making
arrest
III. By execution of service
B. I and II D. I,II,III
5. In the preceding question as to its manner of
enforcement, it is made by:
I. Actual restraint
II. Submission to the custody of the person making
arrest
III. By execution of service
6. In the preceding question number 4. As to the
presence or absence of judicial order it is by:
I. virtue of a warrant
II. Warrantless arrest, in cases allowed by the
Rules
III. Voluntary surrender
6. In the preceding question number 4. As to the
presence or absence of judicial order it is by:
I. virtue of a warrant
II. Warrantless arrest, in cases allowed by the
Rules
III. Voluntary surrender
7. In the preceding question number 4. As to
the person arresting it is made by:
I. A. Peace officer
II. B. Citizen’s arrest
III. C. Bail bond
7. In the preceding question number 4. As to
the person arresting it is made by:
I. A. Peace officer
II. B. Citizen’s arrest
III. C. Bail bond
8. Search warrants are issued by the courts to be
valid for implementation only within the area
covered or place where the issuing court is assigned.
Say for example, if manila court, it cannot be
implemented outside of it like pasay, pasig, etc. Is
there an exception to that rule? Yes, if there is prior
authority from whom?
A. Court of Appeals C. Supreme Court
B. Shari’a Court D. Sandiganbayan
8. Search warrants are issued by the courts to be
valid for implementation only within the area
covered or place where the issuing court is assigned.
Say for example, if manila court, it cannot be
implemented outside of it like pasay, pasig, etc. Is
there an exception to that rule? Yes, if there is prior
authority from whom?
A. Court of Appeals C. Supreme Court
B. Shari’a Court D. Sandiganbayan
9. In order to avoid effective prosecution, the NPA members,
when apprehended, uses various aliases. They do not reveal their
true identities. They do not have with them any document that
will identify them. One day, twenty armed members of the said
group raided a town hall and after killing all policemen there and
before escaping took all the firearms of the deceased cops. The
responding cops from the neighboring towns filed charges against
those people using John Doe as their names. The court issued
warrant for their arrest all in the name of John Does. Is that
warrants of arrest legally valid even if the names indicated therein
are merely John Doe’s?
A. Yes C. no
9. In order to avoid effective prosecution, the NPA members,
when apprehended, uses various aliases. They do not reveal their
true identities. They do not have with them any document that
will identify them. One day, twenty armed members of the said
group raided a town hall and after killing all policemen there and
before escaping took all the firearms of the deceased cops. The
responding cops from the neighboring towns filed charges against
those people using John Doe as their names. The court issued
warrant for their arrest all in the name of John Does. Is that
warrants of arrest legally valid even if the names indicated therein
are merely John Doe’s?
A. Yes C. no
10. An accused’s right to speedy trial is deemed
violated only when the proceeding is attended by
vexation, capricious and oppressive what?
A. Petitioner C. warnings
B. Delays D. motions
10. An accused’s right to speedy trial is deemed
violated only when the proceeding is attended by
vexation, capricious and oppressive what?
A. Petitioner C. warnings
B. Delays D. motions
11. Jurisdiction is the legal authority of the courts or
judicial bodies to try or hear cases, be it criminal, civil or
administrative. Jurisdiction is derived from the latin words
‘juris’ and ‘dico’ which means what?
A. Amen, I say to you C. I speak of law
B. You hear me D. reformation
11. Jurisdiction is the legal authority of the courts or
judicial bodies to try or hear cases, be it criminal, civil or
administrative. Jurisdiction is derived from the latin words
‘juris’ and ‘dico’ which means what?
A. Amen, I say to you C. I speak of law
B. You hear me D. reformation
imposition of penalty, what kind of penalty has the
purpose to serve as example to the public to deter
others from committing crime?
imposition of penalty, what kind of penalty has the
purpose to serve as example to the public to deter
others from committing crime?
13. An accused was convicted and was sentenced
to suffer 6 months to 4 years imprisonment.
Unconvinced of the decision, he appealed but at
the same time applied for probation. Will the
application for probation prosper?
A. Yes C. no
13. An accused was convicted and was sentenced
to suffer 6 months to 4 years imprisonment.
Unconvinced of the decision, he appealed but at
the same time applied for probation. Will the
application for probation prosper?
A. Yes C. no
14. When in court, everyone including the police
officers are under obligation to show respect and
dignity to the court by always addressing the
presiding judge as what?
A. Your Honor C. Justice
B. Your majesty D. Sir
14. When in court, everyone including the police
officers are under obligation to show respect and
dignity to the court by always addressing the
presiding judge as what?
A. Your Honor C. Justice
B. Your majesty D. Sir
15. Generally, plea bargaining is made during what
stage of the criminal proceeding?
A. Pre‐trial C. trial‐proper
B. Arraignment D. promulgation
15. Generally, plea bargaining is made during what
stage of the criminal proceeding?
A. Pre‐trial C. trial‐proper
B. Arraignment D. promulgation
16. In the preceding question plea bargaining are
not allowed in what kind of cases?
A. Violation of RA 9165
B. Violation of the RPC
C. Violation of Special penal laws
D. none of the following
16. In the preceding question plea bargaining are
not allowed in what kind of cases?
A. Violation of RA 9165
B. Violation of the RPC
C. Violation of Special penal laws
D. none of the following
17. PO2 Bautista is a gifted man and is in fact considered by many
in their office as having a third eye. There was a time when he said
that there will be two killings that will take place that week and it
happened. In another instance, he predicted that a big fire will
happen and it did. Meanwhile, in his new place of assignment, the
cop claimed that in the house of a certain Oscar, the said man has,
in his custody and safe keeping, a gold bar, a part of the yamashita
treasure.as the only criminologist in the police office, what shall
you do to verify the said policeman?
A. Conduct surveillance
B. Ransack Oscar’s house
C. Require PO2 to have an oath
D. Apply for search warrant
17. PO2 Bautista is a gifted man and is in fact considered by many
in their office as having a third eye. There was a time when he said
that there will be two killings that will take place that week and it
happened. In another instance, he predicted that a big fire will
happen and it did. Meanwhile, in his new place of assignment, the
cop claimed that in the house of a certain Oscar, the said man has,
in his custody and safe keeping, a gold bar, a part of the yamashita
treasure.as the only criminologist in the police office, what shall
you do to verify the said policeman?
A. Conduct surveillance
B. Ransack Oscar’s house
C. Require PO2 to have an oath
D. Apply for search warrant
18. What is this stage of the proceedings in court
wherein the decision of the court in a case is being
‘read’ in open court of a court personnel?
A. Promulgation C. imposition
B. arraignment D. determination
18. What is this stage of the proceedings in court
wherein the decision of the court in a case is being
‘read’ in open court of a court personnel?
A. Promulgation C. imposition
B. arraignment D. determination
19. Under the Rules on Summary Procedure, how
many days is allowed for the courts to render
judgment?
A. 30 C. 40
B. 15 D. 20
19. Under the Rules on Summary Procedure, how
many days is allowed for the courts to render
judgment?
A. 30 C. 40
B. 15 D. 20
20. May a potential accused be excluded from the
information or charge sheet to be utilized as a state
witness without the approval of the court?
A. Yes C. no
20. May a potential accused be excluded from the
information or charge sheet to be utilized as a state
witness without the approval of the court?
A. Yes C. no
21. Generally, what is the nature or category of
police officers on rendering court duties?
A. Prosecution witness C. judicial allies
B. Defense witness D. agents of justice
21. Generally, what is the nature or category of
police officers on rendering court duties?
A. Prosecution witness C. judicial allies
B. Defense witness D. agents of justice
22. Under existing laws, what government office is
required to conduct preliminary investigation on
public officers and employees?
A. NBI/DOJ
B. Sandiganbayan
C. Office of the Ombudsman
D. State Prosecutors office
22. Under existing laws, what government office is
required to conduct preliminary investigation on
public officers and employees?
A. NBI/DOJ
B. Sandiganbayan
C. Office of the Ombudsman
D. State Prosecutors office
23. What is the matter being determined in
Preliminary Investigation?
A. Judgment against the accused
B. Residence of the accused
C. Conviction of the accused
D. Existence of probable cause
23. What is the matter being determined in
Preliminary Investigation?
A. Judgment against the accused
B. Residence of the accused
C. Conviction of the accused
D. Existence of probable cause
24. The acts or omissions complained of as
constituting the offense is known as the:
A. Requisites
B. Elements
C. Complaint
D. Cause of accusation
24. The acts or omissions complained of as
constituting the offense is known as the:
A. Requisites
B. Elements
C. Complaint
D. Cause of accusation
25. If the offended party is a juridical person, is it sufficient
to state its name in the complaint or information without
averring that it is a juridical person or what it is organize in
accordance with law?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Possibly
D. Probably
25. If the offended party is a juridical person, is it sufficient
to state its name in the complaint or information without
averring that it is a juridical person or what it is organize in
accordance with law?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Possibly
D. Probably
26. The degree of proof required in criminal case to
convict the accused is:
A. Moral certainty
26. The degree of proof required in criminal case to
convict the accused is:
A. Moral certainty
27. In the preceding question it requires only what?
A. Moral certainty
B. Absolute certainty
C. Relative certainty
D. All of the above
27. In the preceding question it requires only what?
A. Moral certainty
B. Absolute certainty
C. Relative certainty
D. All of the above
28. What do you call the quantum of evidence
which a reasonable mind might accept as sufficient
to justify a conclusion?
A. Substantial
B. Proper
C. Appropriate
D. Adequate
28. What do you call the quantum of evidence
which a reasonable mind might accept as sufficient
to justify a conclusion?
A. Substantial
B. Proper
C. Appropriate
D. Adequate
29. case shall not be provisionally dismissed except
with the express consent of the accused and with
_____ the offended party.
A. The conformity of C. knowledge of
B. The authority of D. notice to
29. case shall not be provisionally dismissed except
with the express consent of the accused and with
_____ the offended party.
A. The conformity of C. knowledge of
B. The authority of D. notice to
30. When offered evidence is not objected to, such
failure to object amounts to ______
A. A waiver
B. A denial
C. An admission
D. A deferment
30. When offered evidence is not objected to, such
failure to object amounts to ______
A. A waiver
B. A denial
C. An admission
D. A deferment
31. The disposition of the court regarding the
culpability of the accused in the case including the
penalty to be imposed is known as:
A. Termination
B. Order
C. Judgment
D. Motion
31. The disposition of the court regarding the
culpability of the accused in the case including the
penalty to be imposed is known as:
A. Termination
B. Order
C. Judgment
D. Motion
32. The motion for leave of court to file demurrer to
evidence shall be filed within ______ period of 5
days after prosecution rests its case.
A. A non‐extensible
B. The extra
C. The required
D. An extensible
32. The motion for leave of court to file demurrer to
evidence shall be filed within ______ period of 5
days after prosecution rests its case.
A. A non‐extensible
B. The extra
C. The required
D. An extensible
33. The sureties may arrest the accused for the
purpose of ______ him.
A. Arresting
B. Surrendering
C. Investigating
D. Castigating
33. The sureties may arrest the accused for the
purpose of ______ him.
A. Arresting
B. Surrendering
C. Investigating
D. Castigating
34. What do you call the written record of the court
proceedings made by the official stenographer?
A. Record
B. Transcript
C. Entry
D. Blotter
34. What do you call the written record of the court
proceedings made by the official stenographer?
A. Record
B. Transcript
C. Entry
D. Blotter
35. The following are considered in determining the
sufficiency of the information except:
A. Name of the clerk of court
B. Acts complained of
C. Designation of the offense
D. Date of commission of the offense
35. The following are considered in determining the
sufficiency of the information except:
A. Name of the clerk of court
B. Acts complained of
C. Designation of the offense
D. Date of commission of the offense
36. The bouncing check law is covered by the rules
on:
B. Pre‐trial
C. Preliminary investigation
D. Summary procedure
36. The bouncing check law is covered by the rules
on:
B. Pre‐trial
C. Preliminary investigation
D. Summary procedure
37. If no appeal is made, a judgment becomes final
after _____ days from its promulgation
A. 15
B. 10
C. 5
D. 1
37. If no appeal is made, a judgment becomes final
after _____ days from its promulgation
A. 15
B. 10
C. 5
D. 1
38. At present, one of the following is NOT authorize
to conduct preliminary investigation.
A. Prosecutor
B. Judges
C. Assistant prosecutor
D. State prosecutor
38. At present, one of the following is NOT authorize
to conduct preliminary investigation.
A. Prosecutor
B. Judges
C. Assistant prosecutor
D. State prosecutor
39. Jurisdiction over the ______ is conferred only by
law.
A. Court
B. Person of the accused
C. Subject matter
D. Offended party
39. Jurisdiction over the ______ is conferred only by
law.
A. Court
B. Person of the accused
C. Subject matter
D. Offended party
40. A criminal action is instituted in chartered cities
by filing the complaint with the _______
A. Office of the prosecutor
B. Peace officer
C. Court
D. Barangay court
40. A criminal action is instituted in chartered cities
by filing the complaint with the _______
A. Office of the prosecutor
B. Peace officer
C. Court
D. Barangay court
41. What term refers to a single crime consisting of a
series of acts arising from a single criminal resolution
not susceptible of division?
A. Territorial
B. Continuing
C. Single
D. Static
41. What term refers to a single crime consisting of a
series of acts arising from a single criminal resolution
not susceptible of division?
A. Territorial
B. Continuing
C. Single
D. Static
42. If the information is not valid, the right of the
accused
_____________ is deemed violated.
A. To be informed of the nature and cause of the
accusation against him
B. To cross examine and confront the witness
C. To speedy trial and disposition of cases
D. all of the above
42. If the information is not valid, the right of the
accused
_____________ is deemed violated.
A. To be informed of the nature and cause of the
accusation against him
B. To cross examine and confront the witness
C. To speedy trial and disposition of cases
D. all of the above
43. A complaint or information is valid, if it can
support a judgment of conviction. This statement is
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
C. Partially correct
D. It depends
43. A complaint or information is valid, if it can
support a judgment of conviction. This statement is
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
D. It depends
44. If the information is not valid, the conviction of
the accused is null and void and there can be no first
jeopardy. This statement is
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
D. It depends
44. If the information is not valid, the conviction of
the accused is null and void and there can be no first
jeopardy. This statement is
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
D. It depends
45. If the information is valid, if it can support an
acquittal. this statement is incorrect
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
45. If the information is valid, if it can support an
acquittal. this statement is incorrect
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false
46. Alden charged Maine with Estafa. Later, the case was
dismissed provisionally with the consent of Maine. Can
another Estafa case be filed against Maine before the
temporary dismissal becomes permanent without placing
Maine in double jeopardy?
I. Yes, There was a previous provisional dismissal;
II. Yes, There was no conviction or acquittal or
unconditional dismissal of the case
III. Yes, a provisional dismissal such as the above case
does not validly terminate the first jeopardy
A. I,II,III C. I only
B. II and III only D. I and III only
46. Alden charged Maine with Estafa. Later, the case was
dismissed provisionally with the consent of Maine. Can
another Estafa case be filed against Maine before the
temporary dismissal becomes permanent without placing
Maine in double jeopardy?
I. Yes, There was a previous provisional dismissal;
II. Yes, There was no conviction or acquittal or
unconditional dismissal of the case
III. Yes, a provisional dismissal such as the above case
does not validly terminate the first jeopardy
47. As a general rule, a dismissal upon motion of the
accused or his counsel negates or denies the application of
double jeopardy. However, a dismissal even with the express
consent of the accused but such dismissal is equivalent to
acquittal which would entitle the accused to invoke double
jeopardy in the following:
I. Dismissal due to insufficiency of evidence
II. Dismissal due to unreasonable delay which constitutes
a violation of the right of the accused to speedy trial
III. Dismissal based on demurrer to evidence
47. As a general rule, a dismissal upon motion of the
accused or his counsel negates or denies the application of
double jeopardy. However, a dismissal even with the express
consent of the accused but such dismissal is equivalent to
acquittal which would entitle the accused to invoke double
jeopardy in the following:
I. Dismissal due to insufficiency of evidence
II. Dismissal due to unreasonable delay which constitutes
a violation of the right of the accused to speedy trial
III. Dismissal based on demurrer to evidence
48. The conviction of the accused of an offense shall not be a bar
to another prosecution for an offense which necessarily includes
the offense charged in the former information under any of the
following circumstances:
I. The graver offense developed due to supervening fact arising
from the same act or omission constituting the former charge
II. The facts constituting the grave offense became known or
were discovered only after a plea was entered in the former
information
III. The plea of guilty to a lesser offense was made without the
consent of the prosecutor and the offended party, except if the
offender party fails to appear at the arraignment
48. The conviction of the accused of an offense shall not be a bar
to another prosecution for an offense which necessarily includes
the offense charged in the former information under any of the
following circumstances:
I. The graver offense developed due to supervening fact arising
from the same act or omission constituting the former charge
II. The facts constituting the grave offense became known or
were discovered only after a plea was entered in the former
information
III. The plea of guilty to a lesser offense was made without the
consent of the prosecutor and the offended party, except if the
offender party fails to appear at the arraignment
49. Daniel was charge with frustrated Murder. After arraignment
Daniel pleaded guilty and it was entered, subsequently the victim
dies. Can Daniel be charged with Murder?
A. Yes, if the death of the victim can be traced to the acts of
Daniel, and the victim did not contribute of his death with his
negligence.
B. Yes, if the act of Daniel was not the proximate cause of death,
Daniel can still be charged with Murder.
C. No, if the death of the victim can be traced to the acts of
negligence.
D. No, if the act of Daniel was not the proximate cause of death,
49. Daniel was charge with frustrated Murder. After arraignment
Daniel pleaded guilty and it was entered, subsequently the victim
dies. Can Daniel be charged with Murder?
A. Yes, if the death of the victim can be traced to the acts of
negligence.
B. Yes, if the act of Daniel was not the proximate cause of death,
C. No, if the death of the victim can be traced to the acts of
negligence.
D. No, if the act of Daniel was not the proximate cause of death,
50. Before the finality of the judgment of conviction, the
accused can avail himself of any of the following remedy:
I. Motion for New Trial and Motion for reconsideration
II. Appeal the judgment
III. Annul the judgment
B. I only D. II and III
50. Before the finality of the judgment of conviction, the
accused can avail himself of any of the following remedy:
I. Motion for New Trial and Motion for reconsideration
II. Appeal the judgment
III. Annul the judgment
B. I only D. II and III
51. Which of the following are ground for New Trial?
I. Errors of fact in the judgment
II. Errors of law committed during the trial
III. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of
accused committed during the trial
IV. Newly discovered evidence
A. I,II,III,IV C. I,II,III
B. II,III,IV D. II and III only
51. Which of the following are ground for New Trial?
I. Errors of fact in the judgment
II. Errors of law committed during the trial
III. Irregularities prejudicial to the substantial rights of
accused committed during the trial
IV. Newly discovered evidence
52. Which of the following are ground for
Reconsideration?
I. Errors of law committed during the trial
II. Errors of law in the judgment, which requires no
further proceedings
III. Errors of fact in the judgment, which requires no
further proceedings
IV. Errors of fact and law in the judgment, which requires
no further proceedings
52. Which of the following are ground for
Reconsideration?
I. Errors of law committed during the trial
II. Errors of law in the judgment, which requires no
further proceedings
III. Errors of fact in the judgment, which requires no
further proceedings
IV. Errors of fact and law in the judgment, which requires
no further proceedings
53. The effect of granting a new trial or
reconsideration:
I. The original judgment shall be set aside or
vacated
II. A new judgment shall be rendered
III. The original judgment shall be modified only
B. III only D. I,II,III
53. The effect of granting a new trial or
reconsideration:
I. The original judgment shall be set aside or
vacated
II. A new judgment shall be rendered
III. The original judgment shall be modified only
B. III only D. I,II,III
54. It is a proceeding for review by which the whole
case is transferred to a higher court for a final
determination.
A. Appeal
B. New Trial
C. Arraignment
D. Motion for Reconsideration
54. It is a proceeding for review by which the whole
case is transferred to a higher court for a final
determination.
A. Appeal
B. New Trial
C. Arraignment
55. It is one which dispose of the whole subject matter or
terminates a particular proceeding or action leaving nothing
to be done but to enforce by execution of what has been
determined.
A. Final Order
B. Final judgment
C. Interlocutory Order
D. Final disposition of the case
55. It is one which dispose of the whole subject matter or
terminates a particular proceeding or action leaving nothing
to be done but to enforce by execution of what has been
determined.
A. Final Order
B. Final judgment
C. Interlocutory Order
D. Final disposition of the case
56. A motion for new trial should be filed at any time
within 15 days from the promulgation of a judgment of
conviction
A. Before the final entry of a judgment of conviction
B. Before the period of appeal is perfected
C. After the final entry of a judgment of conviction
D. After the period of appeal is perfected
within 15 days from the promulgation of a judgment of
conviction
B. Before the period of appeal is perfected
C. After the final entry of a judgment of conviction
D. After the period of appeal is perfected
57. The right to appeal a case decided by a lower
court is:
A. Constitutional right
B. Statutory right
C. Rule of court
D. Due process
57. The right to appeal a case decided by a lower
court is:
A. Constitutional right
B. Statutory right
C. Rule of court
D. Due process
58. Appeal by either party as used in the law has been
interpreted as ______________________________
A. Only the government and the accused
B. Both party have the right to appeal
C. Other persons who may be affected by the judgment
rendered in the criminal proceedings
D. All of the above
58. Appeal by either party as used in the law has been
interpreted as ______________________________
A. Only the government and the accused
B. Both party have the right to appeal
C. Other persons who may be affected by the judgment
rendered in the criminal proceedings
D. All of the above
59. The party appealing the case is known as
______.
A. Appellee
B. Appellant
C. Respondent
D. Plaintiff
59. The party appealing the case is known as
______.
A. Appellee
B. Appellant
C. Respondent
D. Plaintiff
60. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the
People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to
a peace officer commanding him to search for personal
property described therein and bring it before the court
A. Search Order
B. Search Warrant
C. Warrant of Arrest
D. Arrest Search and Seizure Order
60. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the
People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to
a peace officer commanding him to search for personal
property described therein and bring it before the court
A. Search Order
B. Search Warrant
C. Warrant of Arrest
D. Arrest Search and Seizure Order
61. _______ are protected by the provisions against
unreasonable search and seizure.
A. All Filipino Citizen only
B. All person under the order of the court
C. All persons whether citizens or aliens within the
jurisdiction of the State
D. All persons accused of acts and omission punishable
by the RPC
61. _______ are protected by the provisions against
unreasonable search and seizure.
A. All Filipino Citizen only
B. All person under the order of the court
C. All persons whether citizens or aliens within the
jurisdiction of the State
D. All persons accused of acts and omission punishable
by the RPC
62. The following are requisites for issuing search warrant, which
of the following is not included.
I. The warrant issued must particularly described the person
who committed the crime
II. Must be issued upon probable cause
III. The probable cause must be determined by the judge himself
and not by the applicant or any other person
IV. In the determination of probable cause, the judge must
examine under oath or affirmation the complainant and such
witness as the latter may produce
B. II,III,IV D. I only
62. The following are requisites for issuing search warrant, which
of the following is not included.
I. The warrant issued must particularly described the person
who committed the crime
II. Must be issued upon probable cause
III. The probable cause must be determined by the judge himself
and not by the applicant or any other person
IV. In the determination of probable cause, the judge must
examine under oath or affirmation the complainant and such
witness as the latter may produce
B. II,III,IV D. I only
63. Are outlawed because they place the sanctity of
the domicile and the privacy of communication and
correspondence at the mercy of the whims, caprice
or passion of peace officers.
A. Unreasonable search and seizure
B. Illegally sized documents
C. General Search Warrant
D. All of the above
63. Are outlawed because they place the sanctity of
the domicile and the privacy of communication and
correspondence at the mercy of the whims, caprice
or passion of peace officers.
A. Unreasonable search and seizure
B. Illegally sized documents
C. General Search Warrant
D. All of the above
64. Under the law, a search warrant shall be valid for
how many days?
A. 15 days from its date
B. 10 days after its date
C. 10 days from its date
D. 5 days after its date
64. Under the law, a search warrant shall be valid for
how many days?
A. 15 days from its date
B. 10 days after its date
C. 10 days from its date
D. 5 days after its date
65. In what instance may search and seizure be made
without warrant?
I. When it is with the consent of the accused
II. When search is incidental to lawful arrest
III. When it is made for dangerous weapon or anything
which may be used as proof of the commission of an
offense
B. II and III D. I only
65. In what instance may search and seizure be made
without warrant?
I. When it is with the consent of the accused
II. When search is incidental to lawful arrest
III. When it is made for dangerous weapon or anything
which may be used as proof of the commission of an
offense
B. II and III D. I only
66. The requirements for the issuance of a search warrant
are more stringent than the requirements for the issuance
of warrant of arrest because __________
I. In a warrant of arrest, the person to be arrested can
always post bail to prevent deprivation of his liberty.
II. The right against search and seizure is implicit in the
natural right to life, liberty and property.
III. The violation of the right to privacy produces a
humiliating effect which cannot be rectified anymore.
B. II and III only D. I,II,III
66. The requirements for the issuance of a search warrant
are more stringent than the requirements for the issuance
of warrant of arrest because __________
I. In a warrant of arrest, the person to be arrested can
always post bail to prevent deprivation of his liberty.
II. The right against search and seizure is implicit in the
natural right to life, liberty and property.
III. The violation of the right to privacy produces a
humiliating effect which cannot be rectified anymore.
B. II and III only D. I,II,III
67. The following are instances of warrantless arrests:
I. Arrest in flagrante delicto
II. Arrest effect in hot pursuit
III. Arrest of escape prisoners
B. I,II,III D. III only
67. The following are instances of warrantless arrests:
I. Arrest in flagrante delicto
II. Arrest effect in hot pursuit
III. Arrest of escape prisoners
68. Which of the following is not a requisite for the plain‐
view doctrine to apply.
I. There must have been a prior valid intrusion based on
the warrantless arrest in which the police are legally present
in the pursuit of their official duties.
II. The evidence was accidentally or unintentionally
discovered by the police who had a right to be where they
are and the evidence must be immediately seen or viewed.
III. There was no need for further search
A. I only C. II and III
68. Which of the following is not a requisite for the plain‐
view doctrine to apply.
I. There must have been a prior valid intrusion based on
the warrantless arrest in which the police are legally present
in the pursuit of their official duties.
II. The evidence was accidentally or unintentionally
discovered by the police who had a right to be where they
are and the evidence must be immediately seen or viewed.
III. There was no need for further search
A. I only C. II and III
69. Stop and frisk search known as Terry Search is the right
of the police to ________
A. Stop a suspicious looking person wandering at
midnight in a place where crimes have been reported
prevalent.
B. The right of the police to pat or frisk for concealed
weapons
C. It is a limited protective search of outer clothing
D. All of the above
69. Stop and frisk search known as Terry Search is the right
of the police to ________
A. Stop a suspicious looking person wandering at
midnight in a place where crimes have been reported
prevalent.
B. The right of the police to pat or frisk for concealed
weapons
C. It is a limited protective search of outer clothing
D. All of the above
70. A scatter shot warrant is a warrant of search and
seizure or arrest that is issued:
I. For more than one offense
II. It is void because the law requires that a warrant can
be issued only for one specific offense
III. It is valid for two specific offense only
A. I and II C. II and III
B. I,II,III D. II only
70. A scatter shot warrant is a warrant of search and
seizure or arrest that is issued:
I. For more than one offense
II. It is void because the law requires that a warrant can
be issued only for one specific offense
III. It is valid for two specific offense only
B. I,II,III D. II only
71. P/Insp Cardo and PO1 Bautista applied for a warrant to search
the Unit of Mr. Ramos in Makati City apartment. The court of
Makati issued the warrant; hence they proceeded but when they
arrived at the place they realized that what they thought as the
unit of Mr. Ramos was the unit of Mr. Right Can they search Door
the unit of Mr. Right?
I. No, because what is controlling is what is stated I the warrant
II. This is to prevent abused in the service of the search warrant
III. Yes, because the error is merely clerical and unintentional
IV. Yes, Because the unit is of the same location
71. P/Insp Cardo and PO1 Bautista applied for a warrant to search
the Unit of Mr. Ramos in Makati City apartment. The court of
Makati issued the warrant; hence they proceeded but when they
arrived at the place they realized that what they thought as the
unit of Mr. Ramos was the unit of Mr. Right Can they search Door
the unit of Mr. Right?
I. No, because what is controlling is what is stated I the warrant
II. This is to prevent abused in the service of the search warrant
III. Yes, because the error is merely clerical and unintentional
IV. Yes, Because the unit is of the same location
72. A buy bust operation is a method or procedure
employed by police authorities to malefactors _______
I. In the act of committing the crime of drug vending
II. It is form of entrapment, a procedure not prohibited
by the RPC or law
III. It is a form of instigation which is prohibited by law
72. A buy bust operation is a method or procedure
employed by police authorities to malefactors _______
I. In the act of committing the crime of drug vending
II. It is form of entrapment, a procedure not prohibited
by the RPC or law
III. It is a form of instigation which is prohibited by law
73. What is the effect if the arrest is illegal, and an
unlicensed firearm was confiscated in the process? Can the
unlicensed gun be used in evidence?
I. Yes because the person arrested can be charged with
Illegal Possession of a gun
II. No because the person was illegally obtained
III. The gun is the fruit of the poisonous tree
A. I and III C. II and III
73. What is the effect if the arrest is illegal, and an
unlicensed firearm was confiscated in the process? Can the
unlicensed gun be used in evidence?
I. Yes because the person arrested can be charged with
Illegal Possession of a gun
II. No because the person was illegally obtained
III. The gun is the fruit of the poisonous tree
74. What is the importance of a person arrested of signing
of a police booking sheet ad arrest report?
I. It is tantamount to extra‐judicial confession without
the assistance of a counsel
II. Signing said booking sheet and arrest report is not an
admission of the commission of the offense
III. It is merely a statement of the accused being booked
and the date of the fact of his arrest
74. What is the importance of a person arrested of signing
of a police booking sheet ad arrest report?
I. It is tantamount to extra‐judicial confession without
the assistance of a counsel
II. Signing said booking sheet and arrest report is not an
admission of the commission of the offense
III. It is merely a statement of the accused being booked
and the date of the fact of his arrest
75. What is the effect if the person arrested signed the
receipt of the property seized without the aid of a counsel?
I. It is admissible in evidence as it is a declaration against
interest
II. It is a tacit admission of the crime charged
III. It is inadmissible as an evidence as it is tantamount to
an uncounseled extra‐judicial confession
B. III only D. I,II and III
75. What is the effect if the person arrested signed the
receipt of the property seized without the aid of a counsel?
I. It is admissible in evidence as it is a declaration against
interest
II. It is a tacit admission of the crime charged
III. It is inadmissible as an evidence as it is tantamount to
an uncounseled extra‐judicial confession
76. Mayor Duterte was arrested 3 days after the
commission of alleged murder against Roxas. He was
arrested without warrant of arrest. Was the arrest legal?
I. No because the police were not present during the
killing
II. The police had no person knowledge of the criminal act
committed by Mayor Duterte
III. He was arrested after 3 days after the commission of
the crime
76. Mayor Duterte was arrested 3 days after the
commission of alleged murder against Roxas. He was
arrested without warrant of arrest. Was the arrest legal?
I. No because the police were not present during the
killing
II. The police had no person knowledge of the criminal act
committed by Mayor Duterte
III. He was arrested after 3 days after the commission of
the crime
77. Sofia was arrested because of illegal discharge of firearm. Then
she was subjected to a paraffin test. After trial, she was convicted. On
appeal she contended that when the paraffin test on her was taken, his
constitutional right to counsel and self‐incrimination were violated. Was
his contention legal, Decide Mr. Criminologist.
I. Legal because this is tantamount to uncounseled extra‐judicial
confession
II. It is not violation of his right to counsel as she is not yet under
custodial investigation
III. Not also a violation of his right against self‐incrimination as this
extends only too testimonial evidence and not when his body is
proposed to be examined
77. Sofia was arrested because of illegal discharge of firearm. Then
she was subjected to a paraffin test. After trial, she was convicted. On
appeal she contended that when the paraffin test on her was taken, his
constitutional right to counsel and self‐incrimination were violated. Was
his contention legal, Decide Mr. Criminologist.
I. Legal because this is tantamount to uncounseled extra‐judicial
confession
II. It is not violation of his right to counsel as she is not yet under
custodial investigation
III. Not also a violation of his right against self‐incrimination as this
extends only too testimonial evidence and not when his body is
proposed to be examined
78. A police officer cannot seize anything not
mentioned/included in the search warrant, unless _______
I. Mala prohibita
II. The seizure can be justified under the plain view
doctrine
III. Incidental to lawful arrest
78. A police officer cannot seize anything not
mentioned/included in the search warrant, unless _______
I. Mala prohibita
II. The seizure can be justified under the plain view
doctrine
III. Incidental to lawful arrest
79. As a rule, evidence illegally seized evidence is
_____
A. Inadmissible
B. Admissible
C. Voidable
D. Void
79. As a rule, evidence illegally seized evidence is
_____
A. Inadmissible
B. Admissible
C. Voidable
D. Void
80. The existence of such facts and circumstances, which
would lead a reasonable discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed and that the
objects sought in connection with the offense are in the
place to be searched.
A. Prima facie evidence
B. Substantial evidence
C. Search Warrant
D. Probable cause
80. The existence of such facts and circumstances, which
would lead a reasonable discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed and that the
objects sought in connection with the offense are in the
place to be searched.
A. Prima facie evidence
B. Substantial evidence
C. Search Warrant
D. Probable cause
81. What is the area of a coverage of an officer’s search
being an incident of a lawful arrest, Is it limited to the
person of the accused?
I. It may extend beyond the person of the one arrested
II. To include the premises or surroundings under his
immediate control
III. The search must be contemporaneous or
simultaneously, more or less, with the arrest, both in time
and place, without delay
81. What is the area of a coverage of an officer’s search
being an incident of a lawful arrest, Is it limited to the
person of the accused?
I. It may extend beyond the person of the one arrested
II. To include the premises or surroundings under his
immediate control
III. The search must be contemporaneous or
simultaneously, more or less, with the arrest, both in time
and place, without delay
82. As used in Rule 120, it means the adjudication by the
court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense
charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil
liability provided for by law on the accused.
A. Judgment
B. Acquittal
C. Sentence
D. Interlocutory
82. As used in Rule 120, it means the adjudication by the
court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense
charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil
liability provided for by law on the accused.
A. Judgment
B. Acquittal
C. Sentence
D. Interlocutory
83. From the provision of Section 1, Rule 120 it would
seem that in a judgment of acquittal, the court has
_________
A. Authority to impose a reprimand
B. No authority to impose a reprimand
C. Authority to call a conference with both prosecutor
and defense counsel
D. No authority to call a conference with both prosecutor
and defense counsel
83. From the provision of Section 1, Rule 120 it would
seem that in a judgment of acquittal, the court has
_________
A. Authority to impose a reprimand
B. No authority to impose a reprimand
C. Authority to call a conference with both prosecutor
and defense counsel
D. No authority to call a conference with both prosecutor
and defense counsel
on the civil liability of the accused in favor of the offender
party, except when _______________
A. There is a prejudicial question.
B. The offender is pardon by the offended party.
C. The guilty party dies before judgment.
D. There is a clear showing that the act from which the
civil liability might arise did not exist.
on the civil liability of the accused in favor of the offender
party, except when _______________
A. There is a prejudicial question.
B. The offender is pardon by the offended party.
C. The guilty party dies before judgment.
D. There is a clear showing that the act from which the
civil liability might arise did not exist.
85. The indemnity which a person is sentenced to pay,
forms an integral part of the penalty, it being expressly
provided by Article 100 of the Revised Penal Code, that
every person criminally liable is also _______
A. Presumed to be innocent
B. Not civil liable
C. Civilly liable
D. Exempted
85. The indemnity which a person is sentenced to pay,
forms an integral part of the penalty, it being expressly
provided by Article 100 of the Revised Penal Code, that
every person criminally liable is also _______
A. Presumed to be innocent
B. Not civil liable
C. Civilly liable
D. Exempted
86. It is said to exist when the complainant or information
sets out an offense but the evidence establishes another
crime.
A. Complex crimes
B. False accusation
C. Continuing offense
D. Variance
86. It is said to exist when the complainant or information
sets out an offense but the evidence establishes another
crime.
A. Complex crimes
B. False accusation
C. Continuing offense
D. Variance
87. In case of variance between information and proof,
the accused can only be convicted of the __________
A. Graver offense which is included in the order
B. Lesser crime which is included in the other offense
C. Mitigating circumstances
D. Aggravating circumstances
87. In case of variance between information and proof,
the accused can only be convicted of the __________
A. Graver offense which is included in the order
B. Lesser crime which is included in the other offense
C. Mitigating circumstances
D. Aggravating circumstances
88. Where the offense charged does not include the
offense proved, it matters not how conclusive and
convincing the evidence of guilt may be, an accused person
cannot be convicted in any court of any offense unless
______
I. The accused is charged of a complex crimes
II. It is charged in the information on which he is tried or
necessarily included therein
III. The accused is recidivist
88. Where the offense charged does not include the
offense proved, it matters not how conclusive and
convincing the evidence of guilt may be, an accused person
cannot be convicted in any court of any offense unless
______
I. The accused is charged of a complex crimes
II. It is charged in the information on which he is tried or
necessarily included therein
III. The accused is recidivist
89. Takes place when the Clerk of Court enters final
judgment in accordance with the order of the court and
when judgment is thus entered, it is legally promulgated.
A. Legal promulgation of the judgment
B. Pronouncing of the judgment
C. Rendering of the judgment
D. Entry of judgment
89. Takes place when the Clerk of Court enters final
judgment in accordance with the order of the court and
when judgment is thus entered, it is legally promulgated.
A. Legal promulgation of the judgment
B. Pronouncing of the judgment
C. Rendering of the judgment
D. Entry of judgment
90. Under Section 6 of the Rule 120 of the Rules of Court,
a judgment of acquittal is validly promulgated after the
Clerk of Court has entered it in the criminal docket and the
defendant served with copy thereof. The presence of the
defendant is not necessary where the judgment is one of
_______
A. Conviction of grave offense
B. Conviction of a light offense
C. Acquittal
D. Dismissal
90. Under Section 6 of the Rule 120 of the Rules of Court,
a judgment of acquittal is validly promulgated after the
Clerk of Court has entered it in the criminal docket and the
defendant served with copy thereof. The presence of the
defendant is not necessary where the judgment is one of
_______
A. Conviction of grave offense
B. Conviction of a light offense
C. Acquittal
D. Dismissal
91. A judgment becomes final after the lapse of
period for ______
A. Perfecting an appeal
B. 10 days from promulgation of judgment
C. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
D. Presentation of evidence by the defense counsel
91. A judgment becomes final after the lapse of
period for ______
A. Perfecting an appeal
B. 10 days from promulgation of judgment
C. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
D. Presentation of evidence by the defense counsel
92. It portrays a proceeding whereby errors of law or
irregularities are expunged from the record, or new evidence
is introduced, or both steps are taken, in a new trial, by the
nature of its purpose and what is to be done, both parties
have to intervene.
A. Appeal
B. New Trial
C. Trial Reconsideration
92. It portrays a proceeding whereby errors of law or
irregularities are expunged from the record, or new evidence
is introduced, or both steps are taken, in a new trial, by the
nature of its purpose and what is to be done, both parties
have to intervene.
A. Appeal
B. New Trial
C. Trial Reconsideration
93. It contemplates no new hearing or proceeding of any
kind to seek a change in judgment is accomplished but
only on the basis of what is already in the record.
A. Appeal
B. Trial
C. New Trial
93. It contemplates no new hearing or proceeding of any
kind to seek a change in judgment is accomplished but
only on the basis of what is already in the record.
A. Appeal
B. Trial
C. New Trial
within fifteen days from the promulgation of a judgment of
conviction __________
B. After the final entry of a judgment of conviction
C. After the appeal is perfected, the trial court
D. Before the appeal id perfected
within fifteen days from the promulgation of a judgment of
conviction __________
B. After the final entry of a judgment of conviction
C. After the appeal is perfected, the trial court
D. Before the appeal id perfected
95. Where the appeal has been perfected, the motion for
new trial should be presented to the appellate court,
because once an appeal is perfected, the trial court
____________
A. Still retains its power to set aside the judgment
rendered by it or to grant a new trial
B. Loses its power to set aside the judgment rendered by
it or to grant a new trial
C. Has the power to render ne judgement
D. Has no power to render judgment
95. Where the appeal has been perfected, the motion for
new trial should be presented to the appellate court,
because once an appeal is perfected, the trial court
____________
A. Still retains its power to set aside the judgment
rendered by it or to grant a new trial
B. Loses its power to set aside the judgment rendered by
it or to grant a new trial
C. Has the power to render ne judgement
D. Has no power to render judgment
96. The prosecution cannot appeal from a judgment of
conviction to increase the penalty _______
A. Because the accused would be placed in double
jeopardy
B. Because the prosecution can ask that the judgment
be set aside
C. Because the prosecution can ask for reopening of the
case
D. Because the could render new judgement
96. The prosecution cannot appeal from a judgment of
conviction to increase the penalty _______
A. Because the accused would be placed in double
jeopardy
B. Because the prosecution can ask that the judgment
be set aside
C. Because the prosecution can ask for reopening of the
case
D. Because the could render new judgement
97. The period for appeal from final orders, resolutions,
awards judgments or decisions of any court in all cases shall
be made ________
A. 15 days counted from the notice of the final order,
resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed from;
B. Within in 15 days from receipt of the notice of the final
order, resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed
from.
C. 15 days after the notice of the final order, resolution,
award, judgment or decision appealed from;
D. 15 days before the notice of the final order, resolution,
award, judgment or decision appealed from
97. The period for appeal from final orders, resolutions,
awards judgments or decisions of any court in all cases shall
be made ________
A. 15 days counted from the notice of the final order,
resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed from;
B. Within in 15 days from receipt of the notice of the final
order, resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed
from.
C. 15 days after the notice of the final order, resolution,
award, judgment or decision appealed from;
D. 15 days before the notice of the final order, resolution,
award, judgment or decision appealed from
98. The item above mentioned, when will the period for perfecting an
appeal be interrupted?
A. After the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration is filed
until notice of the order overruling the motion shall have served upon the
accused or his counsel.
B. After the time a motion for new trial or reconsideration is filed until
notice of the order overruling the motion shall have served upon the
C. Before the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration is filed
until notice of the order overruling the motion shall have been served
upon the accused or his counsel.
D. Before the time a motion for new trial or reconsideration is filed
accused only. What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
98. The item above mentioned, when will the period for perfecting an
appeal be interrupted?
A. After the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration is filed
B. After the time a motion for new trial or reconsideration is filed until
notice of the order overruling the motion shall have served upon the
C. Before the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration is filed
until notice of the order overruling the motion shall have been served
upon the accused or his counsel.
D. Before the time a motion for new trial or reconsideration is filed
accused only. What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
99. Supposing the judge rendered an oral decision. It may
be either be for conviction, acquittal or dismissal. The oral
decision will never become final until ______
I. It was not in writing
II. It is not signed by the judge
III. It can still can be changed or modify by the judge
B. III and II D. I,II,III
99. Supposing the judge rendered an oral decision. It may
be either be for conviction, acquittal or dismissal. The oral
decision will never become final until ______
I. It was not in writing
II. It is not signed by the judge
III. It can still can be changed or modify by the judge
B. III and II D. I,II,III
100. Arraignment is the stage in a criminal prosecution
which consists of:
A. Reading to the accused in open court of the
information charging him for an offense
B. Delivering to the accused a copy of the information
C. Asking him whether the accused pleads guilty or not
guilty as charged
D. All of the above
100. Arraignment is the stage in a criminal prosecution
which consists of:
A. Reading to the accused in open court of the
information charging him for an offense
B. Delivering to the accused a copy of the information
C. Asking him whether the accused pleads guilty or not
guilty as charged
D. All of the above
defendant‐appellant.
“REPITION IS A KEY IN
MEMORIZING AND RECALLING”.
SET 1
1. Under the rule of examination of a child witness,
testimony of a child is _______ to support a finding of
fact, conclusion or judgement subject to standard proof
required in criminal and non‐criminal cases.
A. sufficient
B. credible
C. corroboration is not required
D. all of the above
1. Under the rule of examination of a child witness,
testimony of a child is _______ to support a finding of
fact, conclusion or judgement subject to standard proof
required in criminal and non‐criminal cases.
A. sufficient
B. credible
C. corroboration is not required
D. all of the above
2. Mr. X was shot with .45 pistol after 2 hours. He was visited by Mr. Y at
the hospital where he was immediately brought before treatment of the
gunshot wound. Mr. X told Mr. Y that it was Mr. Z who shot him. Forwith,
Mr. Y who is a law graduate took the initiative of taking down in long hand
the statement of Mr. X who narrated the events surrounding ad the
categorically stated that it was Mr. Z who shot him. Ten days after Mr. X
died as the consequence of the gunshot wound. The statement of Mr. Y
may be received evidence as?
A. part of res gestae
B. dying declaration
C. A and B is correct
D. none of the above
2. Mr. X was shot with .45 pistol after 2 hours. He was visited by Mr. Y at
the hospital where he was immediately brought before treatment of the
gunshot wound. Mr. X told Mr. Y that it was Mr. Z who shot him. Forwith,
Mr. Y who is a law graduate took the initiative of taking down in long hand
the statement of Mr. X who narrated the events surrounding ad the
categorically stated that it was Mr. Z who shot him. Ten days after Mr. X
died as the consequence of the gunshot wound. The statement of Mr. Y
may be received evidence as?
A. part of res gestae
B. dying declaration
C. A and B is correct
3. the rules on electronic evidence applies to
A. quasi‐judicial proceedings
B. civil ations and proceeding
C. administrative cases
D. all of the above
3. the rules on electronic evidence applies to
A. quasi‐judicial proceedings
B. civil ations and proceeding
C. administrative cases
D. all of the above
4. in criminal cases, the factum probandum for the
prosecution of the crime of theft that the prosecution
must prove beyond reasonable doubt constitutes:
A. that there be personal property belonging to another
B. that there is unlawful taking of that property
C. that the taking is with intent to gain
D. all of the above
4. in criminal cases, the factum probandum for the
prosecution of the crime of theft that the prosecution
must prove beyond reasonable doubt constitutes:
A. that there be personal property belonging to another
B. that there is unlawful taking of that property
C. that the taking is with intent to gain
D. all of the above
5. This defense is viewed with disfavour as it can be
concocted an commonly used as defense in most
prosecution arising from the violations of dangerous
drugs act
A. defense of frame up
B. defense of alibi
C. self‐defense
D. denial
5. This defense is viewed with disfavour as it can be
concocted an commonly used as defense in most
prosecution arising from the violations of dangerous
drugs act
A. defense of frame up
B. defense of alibi
C. self‐defense
D. denial
6. The presentation of the informant in illegal drug
cases is not indispensible for a successful prosecution.
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
6. The presentation of the informant in illegal drug
cases is not indispensible for a successful prosecution.
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false
7. Under this doctrine of admissibility, it allows a party
to introduce otherwise inadmissible evidence to answer
the opposing party’s previous introduction of
inadmissibility evidence. If it would remove any unfair
prejudiced caused by the admission of the earlier
inadmissible evidence.
A. curative evidence
B. conditional evidence
C. multiple admissibility
D. rules on admissibility
7. Under this doctrine of admissibility, it allows a party
to introduce otherwise inadmissible evidence to answer
the opposing party’s previous introduction of
inadmissibility evidence. If it would remove any unfair
prejudiced caused by the admission of the earlier
inadmissible evidence.
A. curative evidence
B. conditional evidence
C. multiple admissibility
D. rules on admissibility
8. Under this doctrine, foreign laws must be alleged and
proved. In the absence of proof, the foreign law will
presumed to the same as the laws of the jurisdiction.
A. processual presumption
B. French rule
C. presumption of innocence
D. due process of law
8. Under this doctrine, foreign laws must be alleged and
proved. In the absence of proof, the foreign law will
presumed to the same as the laws of the jurisdiction.
A. processual presumption
B. French rule
C. presumption of innocence
9. The testimony of X that he saw Y hack A with a bolo
and the testimony of Z that he indeed saw Y strike the
victim with the bladed weapon. The testimony of X and
Z is what kind of evidence?
A. cumulative evidence
B. positive evidence
C. testimonial evidence
D. all of the above
9. The testimony of X that he saw Y hack A with a bolo
and the testimony of Z that he indeed saw Y strike the
victim with the bladed weapon. The testimony of X and
Z is what kind of evidence?
A. cumulative evidence
B. positive evidence
D. all of the above
10. Evidence obtained in violation of Anti‐wiretapping
law (RA 4200) shall not be admissible in evidence in
what proceedings?
A. judicial and quasi‐judicial
B. legislative
C. administrative hearing or investigation
D. all of the above
10. Evidence obtained in violation of Anti‐wiretapping
law (RA 4200) shall not be admissible in evidence in
what proceedings?
A. judicial and quasi‐judicial
B. legislative
C. administrative hearing or investigation
D. all of the above
11. According to the laws of the land, of the fact in issue
in a cause, for the purposes of determining such issue
A. indictment
B. judgment
C. arraignment
D. trial
11. According to the laws of the land, of the fact in issue
in a cause, for the purposes of determining such issue
A. indictment
B. judgment
C. arraignment
D. trial
12. The ultimate fact sought to be established may
be ascertained in:
A. pleading submitted by the parties
B. pre‐trial order
C. issued are tried with the express or implied
consent of the parties
D. all of the above
12. The ultimate fact sought to be established may
be ascertained in:
A. pleading submitted by the parties
B. pre‐trial order
C. issued are tried with the express or implied
consent of the parties
D. all of the above
13. Evidence when not required except
A. question of law
B. question of fact
C. judicial notice
D. judicial admission
13. Evidence when not required except
A. question of law
B. question of fact
C. judicial notice
D. judicial admission
14. This is not absolute rule of law and is not strictly
applied in our jurisdiction. This doctrine means that if
the testimony of a witness on a material issue is willfully
false and given with intention to deceive, the jury may
disregard all witness’ testimony.
A. the fruit of poisonous tree
B. false in one thing , false in everything
C. doctrine of processual presumption
14. This is not absolute rule of law and is not strictly
applied in our jurisdiction. This doctrine means that if
the testimony of a witness on a material issue is willfully
false and given with intention to deceive, the jury may
disregard all witness’ testimony.
A. the fruit of poisonous tree
B. false in one thing , false in everything
C. doctrine of processual presumption
15. Delayed reporting by witness of what they know
about a crime renders their testimony false or
incredible.
A. true
B. false
C. partially false
D. partially true
15. Delayed reporting by witness of what they know
about a crime renders their testimony false or
incredible.
A. true
B. false
C. partially false
D. partially true
16. Negative testimony normally enjoys more weight
than a positive testimony
A. True
B. False
C. partially true
D. partially false
16. Negative testimony normally enjoys more weight
than a positive testimony
A. True
B. False
C. partially true
D. partially false
17. P claims to have been injured by the negligence of D
who denies having been negligent, the negligence of D
and the casual connection between such negligence and
the injuries of P taken as a whole of the suit constitutes
A. factum probans
B. factum probandum
C. a and b is correct
17. P claims to have been injured by the negligence of D
who denies having been negligent, the negligence of D
and the casual connection between such negligence and
the injuries of P taken as a whole of the suit constitutes
A. factum probans
B. factum probandum
18. Unless the witness is incapacitated to speak,
the answer of the witness shall be given
A. by affidavit
B. in open court
C. orally
D. in writing
18. Unless the witness is incapacitated to speak,
the answer of the witness shall be given
A. by affidavit
B. in open court
C. orally
D. in writing
19. In court proceedings, examination of witness
means:
A. to be examined by a physician in court
B. to interrogate a person in the witness stand
C. to determine his capacity to speak
D. to be given a test before hearing
19. In court proceedings, examination of witness
means:
A. to be examined by a physician in court
B. to interrogate a person in the witness stand
C. to determine his capacity to speak
D. to be given a test before hearing
20. A misleading question is one which:
A. is wrong in grammar
B. assumes a fact not yet testified to by the witness
C. is impertinent to the issue
D. suggest the answer which the examining party
desires
20. A misleading question is one which:
A. is wrong in grammar
B. assumes a fact not yet testified to by the witness
C. is impertinent to the issue
D. suggest the answer which the examining party
desires
21. Extrajudicial confession made by the accused is
A. sufficient if corroborated by corpus delicti
B. not sufficient ground for conviction
C. sufficient ground for conviction
D. all of the above
21. Extrajudicial confession made by the accused is
A. sufficient if corroborated by corpus delicti
B. not sufficient ground for conviction
C. sufficient ground for conviction
D. all of the above
22. For the purpose of their presentation in
evidence, documents are either
A. public or private
B. affidavit or sworn statement
C. handwritten or type written
D. all of the above
22. For the purpose of their presentation in
evidence, documents are either
A. public or private
B. affidavit or sworn statement
C. handwritten or type written
D. all of the above
23. Unless a different period is allowed by the
court, an offer of evidence in writing shall be
objected _______
A. evidence in writing
B. evidence offered orally
C. as soon as the grounds become apparent
D. objections must be specified
23. Unless a different period is allowed by the
court, an offer of evidence in writing shall be
objected _______
A. evidence in writing
B. evidence offered orally
C. as soon as the grounds become apparent
D. objections must be specified
24. It refers to worthiness of belief, that quality
which renders a witness worthy of belief
A. credibility
B. admissibility
C. competency
D. relevancy
24. It refers to worthiness of belief, that quality
which renders a witness worthy of belief
A. credibility
B. admissibility
C. competency
D. relevancy
25. It exists when the drug is under the domination
and control of the accused or when he has the
right to exercise domination and control over the
place where it is found.
A. actual possession
B. constructive possession
C. illegal possession
D. all of the above
25. It exists when the drug is under the domination
and control of the accused or when he has the
right to exercise domination and control over the
place where it is found.
A. actual possession
B. constructive possession
C. illegal possession
D. all of the above
26. Under sec 7 of the human security act, the provision of R A 4200
notwithstanding, a ___________ may listen to, intercept and record, any
communication, message, conversation, discussion, or written or spoken
words between the following members of judicially declared outlawed
terrorist organization, or group of person or of any person charged with
or suspected of the crime of terrorism or conspiracy to commit
terrorism.
A. police officers
B. law enforcements officials
26. Under sec 7 of the human security act, the provision of R A 4200
notwithstanding, a ___________ may listen to, intercept and record, any
communication, message, conversation, discussion, or written or spoken
words between the following members of judicially declared outlawed
terrorist organization, or group of person or of any person charged with
or suspected of the crime of terrorism or conspiracy to commit
terrorism.
A. police officers
B. law enforcements officials
27. Waiver of the rules of evidence, under the civil code
of the Philippines (art 6) rights may be waived, unless
the waiver is contrary to
A. law and public order
B. public policy and morals
C. good customs or prejudicial to a third person with
a right recognized by law
D. all of the above
27. Waiver of the rules of evidence, under the civil code
of the Philippines (art 6) rights may be waived, unless
the waiver is contrary to
A. law and public order
B. public policy and morals
C. good customs or prejudicial to a third person with
a right recognized by law
D. all of the above
28. This term connotes an absence of a direct connection
between the evidence and the matter in dispute, it is a
parallel or diverging line merely additional or auxiliary
A. corroborative
B. negative
C. cumulative
D. collateral
28. This term connotes an absence of a direct connection
between the evidence and the matter in dispute, it is a
parallel or diverging line merely additional or auxiliary
A. corroborative
B. negative
C. cumulative
D. collateral
29. A party may make judicial admission in
A. the pleadings
B. during the trial, either by verbal or written
manifestation or stipulations
C. in other stages of the judicial proceedings
D. all of the above
29. A party may make judicial admission in
A. the pleadings
B. during the trial, either by verbal or written
manifestation or stipulations
C. in other stages of the judicial proceedings
D. all of the above
30. A mistake that is clear to the mind or plain to see, it
is mistake that is readily perceived by the senses or the
mind that would relieve a party from the effects of his
admission.
A. culpable
B. palpable
C. believable
D. inevitable
30. A mistake that is clear to the mind or plain to see, it
is mistake that is readily perceived by the senses or the
mind that would relieve a party from the effects of his
admission.
A. culpable
B. palpable
C. believable
D. inevitable
31. Offer of compromise is not admissible
A. in civil cases
B. in criminal cases, except those involving quasi‐
offenses or those allowed by law to be
compromised
C. a plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted
offer of plea of guilty to a lesser offense
D. an offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital
or other expenses occasioned by an injury
31. Offer of compromise is not admissible
A. in civil cases
B. in criminal cases, except those involving quasi‐
offenses or those allowed by law to be
compromised
C. a plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted
offer of plea of guilty to a lesser offense
D. an offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital
or other expenses occasioned by an injury
32. Is an act, declaration or omission of a party to a
relevant fact, it is a voluntary acknowledgement made
by a party of the existence of the truth of certain facts
which are inconsistent with his claim in an action.
A. confession
B. admission
C. declaration against interests
D. all of the above
32. Is an act, declaration or omission of a party to a
relevant fact, it is a voluntary acknowledgement made
by a party of the existence of the truth of certain facts
which are inconsistent with his claim in an action.
A. confession
B. admission
C. declaration against interests
D. all of the above
33. Mr. A in his Counter‐affidavit declares that he
performed an act like shooting the victim but denies
that he did so with criminal intent because the shooting
was done in self‐defense, the declaration of Mr. A is
A. confession
B. admission
C. declaration against interest
D. all of the above
33. Mr. A in his Counter‐affidavit declares that he
performed an act like shooting the victim but denies
that he did so with criminal intent because the shooting
was done in self‐defense, the declaration of Mr. A is
A. confession
B. admission
D. all of the above
34. This admission occurs when a person manifest his
assent to the statement of other person.
A. adoptive admission
B. extra‐judicial confession
C. judicial confession
D. offer of compromise
34. This admission occurs when a person manifest his
assent to the statement of other person.
A. adoptive admission
B. extra‐judicial confession
C. judicial confession
35.‐37
The mutilated cadaver of a woman was discovered near the creek,
due to witnesses attesting that he saw the last person seen with
the woman when she still alive was Carlito, Carlito was arrested
within 5 hours after the discovery of the cadaver and brought to
the police station. The crime laboratory determined that the
woman had been raped. While in police custody, Carlito broke
down in the presence of his assisting counsel and orally confessed
to the investigator that he had raped and killed the woman,
detailing the acts he had performed up to his dumping the body
near the creek. He was genuinely remorseful. During the trial, the
state presented the investigator to testify on the oral confession of
Carlito.
35. Oral confession of Carlito is?
A. admissible evidence of guilt
B. inadmissible evidence of guilt
C. sufficient to support conviction
D. insufficient to support conviction
35. Oral confession of Carlito is?
A. admissible evidence of guilt
B. inadmissible evidence of guilt
C. sufficient to support conviction
D. insufficient to support conviction
36. The oral confession of Carlito while in the police
custody is
A. judicial admission
B. judicial confession
C. extra‐judicial confession
D. all of the above
36. The oral confession of Carlito while in the police
custody is
B. judicial confession
D. all of the above
37. The witness attested that he saw the last person
seen with the woman when she was still alive was
Carlito is?
A. direct evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. demonstrative evidence
D. circumstantial evidence
37. The witness attested that he saw the last person
seen with the woman when she was still alive was
Carlito is?
A. direct evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. demonstrative evidence
D. circumstantial evidence
38. The silence of a person under investigation for the
commission of crime is
A. admission by silence
B. not an admission by silence because of the
constitutional mandates
D. confession
38. The silence of a person under investigation for the
commission of crime is
B. not an admission by silence because of the
constitutional mandates
D. confession
39. It literally means that things done between strangers
ought not to injure those who are not parties to them.
A. falsus in umo, falsus in omnibus
B. res inter alios acta nocre non debet
C. actus me invito factus non est meus actus
D. actus non facit reum nesi mens sit rea
39. It literally means that things done between strangers
ought not to injure those who are not parties to them.
A. falsus in umo, falsus in omnibus
B. res inter alios acta nocre non debet
C. actus me invito factus non est meus actus
D. actus non facit reum nesi mens sit rea
40. Person who are partakers or have an interest in any
action or thing, or any relation to another
A. privies
B. conspirator
C. co‐partner
D. agent
40. Person who are partakers or have an interest in any
action or thing, or any relation to another
A. privies
B. conspirator
C. co‐partner
D. agent
41. Evidence that tends to show what a person has done
a similar act at another time is probative of the
contention that he has done a similar act at another
time.
A. propensity evidence
B. demonstrative evidence
C. character evidence
D. demeanor evidence
41. Evidence that tends to show what a person has done
a similar act at another time is probative of the
contention that he has done a similar act at another
time.
A. propensity evidence
C. character evidence
D. demeanor evidence
42. The act, declaration or omission of a party as to
relevant fact may be given in evidence against the
offeror.
A. admission of a party
B. admission by the third party
C. confession
42. The act, declaration or omission of a party as to
relevant fact may be given in evidence against the
offeror.
A. admission of a party
B. admission by the third party
C. confession
43. An act or declaration made in the presence of and
within the hearing or observation of a party who does or
says nothing when the act or declaration in such as
naturally to call for action or comment if not true, and
when the act proper and possible for him to do so, may
be given in evidence against him.
B. admission by privies
C. admission by conspirator
D. admission by co partner or agent
43. An act or declaration made in the presence of and
within the hearing or observation of a party who does or
says nothing when the act or declaration in such as
naturally to call for action or comment if not true, and
when the act proper and possible for him to do so, may
be given in evidence against him.
B. admission by privies
C. admission by conspirator
D. admission by co partner or agent
44.An offer in writing to pay a particular sum of money or to deliver a
written instrument or specific personal property is, if rejected without
valid cause, equivalent to the actual production and tender of the
money, instrument or property.
A. unaccepted offer
B. offer of compromise in civil cases
C. offer of compromise in criminal cases
D. offer to pay the payment of medical, hospital or other
expenses on occasioned by injury
44.An offer in writing to pay a particular sum of money or to deliver a
written instrument or specific personal property is, if rejected without
valid cause, equivalent to the actual production and tender of the
money, instrument or property.
A. unaccepted offer
B. offer of compromise in civil cases
C. offer of compromise in criminal cases
D. offer to pay the payment of medical, hospital or other
expenses on occasioned by injury
45. Physical evidence ranks high in our hierarchy of
trustworthy evidence but where the physical
evidence runs counter to the testimonial what
should prevail?
A. physical evidence
B. testimonial evidence
45. Physical evidence ranks high in our hierarchy of
trustworthy evidence but where the physical
evidence runs counter to the testimonial what
should prevail?
A. physical evidence
B. testimonial evidence
46. Under which categories of object evidence
thus a caliber .45 pistol used in killing the victim
falls?
A. unique objects
B. object just made unique
C. non‐unique evidence
46. Under which categories of object evidence
thus a caliber .45 pistol used in killing the victim
falls?
A. unique objects
B. object just made unique
C. non‐unique evidence
47. Its purpose in establishing it is to guaranty that
the integrity of the physical evidence and to
prevent the introduction of evidence which is not
authentic.
A. chain of custody
B. custodial investigation
C. marking of evidence
D. all of the above
47. Its purpose in establishing it is to guaranty that
the integrity of the physical evidence and to
prevent the introduction of evidence which is not
authentic.
A. chain of custody
B. custodial investigation
C. marking of evidence
D. all of the above
48.These are forms of communication refer to telephone
conversations, text messages, chatroom sessions,
streaming audio, and other form of electronic
communication, the evidence of which is not recorded or
retained.
A. epheral electronic communications
B. recordings
C. motion pictures
D. electronic evidence
48.These are forms of communication refer to telephone
conversations, text messages, chatroom sessions,
streaming audio, and other form of electronic
communication, the evidence of which is not recorded or
retained.
A. epheral electronic communications
B. recordings
C. motion pictures
D. electronic evidence
49. It refers to evidence other than the original instrument
or documents itself.
A. secondary evidence
B. best evidence
C. original evidence
D. primary evidence
49. It refers to evidence other than the original instrument
or documents itself.
A. secondary evidence
B. best evidence
C. original evidence
D. primary evidence
50. When carbon sheets are inserted between two or
more sheets of paper with the writing and the signature
on the first sheet being reproduced in the sheets
beneath by the same stroke of the pen or writing
medium, all of the sheets are deemed?
A. original documents
B. secondary evidence
C. carbon copy
D. mimeograph
50. When carbon sheets are inserted between two or
more sheets of paper with the writing and the signature
on the first sheet being reproduced in the sheets
beneath by the same stroke of the pen or writing
medium, all of the sheets are deemed?
A. original documents
B. secondary evidence
C. carbon copy
D. mimeograph
51. Original documents is one which:
A. the contents are the subject of inquiry
B. when the subject is in two or more copies are
executed at or about the same time, with identical
contents
C. when an entry is repeated in the regular course of
business, one being copied from another at or near
the time of the transaction.
D. all of the above
51. Original documents is one which:
A. the contents are the subject of inquiry
B. when the subject is in two or more copies are
executed at or about the same time, with identical
contents
C. when an entry is repeated in the regular course of
business, one being copied from another at or near
the time of the transaction.
D. all of the above
52. Among various evidentiary rules, it is rule that
has direct application to the law on contracts
A. extrinsic evidence rule
B. evidence aluinde rule
C. parol evidence rule
D. all of the above
52. Among various evidentiary rules, it is rule that
has direct application to the law on contracts
A. extrinsic evidence rule
B. evidence aluinde rule
C. parol evidence rule
D. all of the above
53. Under the evidence of written agreements a party may
present evidence to modify, explain, or add to the terms of
written agreement if he did not puts in issue in his pleadings:
A. an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the
written agreement
B. the failure of the written agreement to express the true
intent and agreement of the parties
C. the validity of the written agreement or the existence of the
other terms agreed to by the parties of their successor in
interest after the execution of the written agreement
53. Under the evidence of written agreements a party may
present evidence to modify, explain, or add to the terms of
written agreement if he did not puts in issue in his pleadings:
A. an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the
written agreement
B. the failure of the written agreement to express the true
intent and agreement of the parties
C. the validity of the written agreement or the existence of the
other terms agreed to by the parties of their successor in
interest after the execution of the written agreement
54. These types of demonstrative evidence are presented
to indicate the relative locations or positions of objects
persons.
A. diagrams
B. model sketch
C. maps
D. all of the above
54. These types of demonstrative evidence are presented
to indicate the relative locations or positions of objects
persons.
A. diagrams
B. model sketch
C. maps
D. all of the above
55.Also refer as skiagraphs or radiographs
A. motion picture
B. recordings
C. epheral electronic communication
D. x‐ray pictures
55.Also refer as skiagraphs or radiographs
A. motion picture
B. recordings
C. epheral electronic communication
D. x‐ray pictures
56. This embraces any notable fact in the life of a
member of the family and includes relationship family
genealogy birth, marriage, death, the dates when and
the places where these facts occurred and the names of
relatives.
A. culture
B. heritage
C. inheritance
D. pedigree
56. This embraces any notable fact in the life of a
member of the family and includes relationship family
genealogy birth, marriage, death, the dates when and
the places where these facts occurred and the names of
relatives.
A. culture
B. heritage
C. inheritance
D. pedigree
57.That degree of proof which produces conviction in an
unprejudiced mind.
A. clear and convincing evidence
B. preponderance of evidence
C. substantial evidence
D. proof beyond reasonable doubt
57.That degree of proof which produces conviction in an
unprejudiced mind.
A. clear and convincing evidence
B. preponderance of evidence
C. substantial evidence
D. proof beyond reasonable doubt
58. To which of the following types of evidence may the
best evidence apply
A. testimonial
B. hearsay
C. object
D. documentary
58. To which of the following types of evidence may the
best evidence apply
A. testimonial
B. hearsay
C. object
D. documentary
59. Which of the following types of evidence cannot
stand on its own and must always be accompanied by
the testimonial evidence?
A. hearsay
B. documentary
C. secondary
D. object
59. Which of the following types of evidence cannot
stand on its own and must always be accompanied by
the testimonial evidence?
A. hearsay
B. documentary
C. secondary
D. object
60. Which of the following need not proved in a case?
A. judicial notice
B. judicial admission
C. presumption of law
D. all of the above
60. Which of the following need not proved in a case?
A. judicial notice
B. judicial admission
C. presumption of law
D. all of the above
61. Demonstrative matters, government matters and
notoriety of facts are categories of subject of?
B. judicial cognizance
C. judicial mandatory
D. judicial discretion
61. Demonstrative matters, government matters and
notoriety of facts are categories of subject of?
B. judicial cognizance
C. judicial mandatory
D. judicial discretion
62. When the terms of agreement had been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms
agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties,
no evidence of such terms other that the contents of the
agreement.
A. extrinsic evidence
B. evidence aluinde
C. parol evidence
D. all of the above
62. When the terms of agreement had been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms
agreed upon and there can be, as between the parties,
no evidence of such terms other that the contents of the
agreement.
A. extrinsic evidence
B. evidence aluinde
C. parol evidence
D. all of the above
63. Which if the following requisites must be present in
order that the admission of a conspirator may be given
in evidence against his co‐conspirator?
A. that there is conspiracy be first proved by the other
evidence
B. that there is two or more person coming to an
agreement regarding the commission of a crime
C. that admission relates to the common object
D. that the admission was made while engaged in the
conspiracy
order that the admission of a conspirator may be given
in evidence against his co‐conspirator?
evidence
conspiracy
64. Proof beyond reasonable doubt as a basis for
conviction in criminal cases requires
A. absolute certainty
B. clear and convincing evidence
C. corpus delicti
D. moral certainty of guilt
64. Proof beyond reasonable doubt as a basis for
conviction in criminal cases requires
A. absolute certainty
B. clear and convincing evidence
C. corpus delicti
D. moral certainty of guilt
65. Extra judicial admission and confession made by the
person orally and in the absence of his counsel during
custodial investigation is?
A. admissible
B. inadmissible
D. all of the above
65. Extra judicial admission and confession made by the
person orally and in the absence of his counsel during
custodial investigation is?
A. admissible
B. inadmissible
D. all of the above
66. It is the examination in chief of a witness by the
party presenting him on the facts relevant to the
issue.
A. cross examination
B. direct examination
C. custodial examination
D. custodial interrogation
66. It is the examination in chief of a witness by the
party presenting him on the facts relevant to the
issue.
C. custodial examination
D. custodial interrogation
67. It is where one assumes as true a fact not yet
testified to by the witness, or contrary to that which he
has previously started?
A. leading question
B. misleading question
C. direct examination
D. cross examination
67. It is where one assumes as true a fact not yet
testified to by the witness, or contrary to that which he
has previously started?
A. leading question
B. misleading question
C. direct examination
D. cross examination
68. When an instrument consists partly of written words
and partly of a printed form, and the two are
inconsistent which of them shall prevail if they are
inconsistent with each other?
A. the latter
B. the former
C. either of them
D. none of them
68. When an instrument consists partly of written words
and partly of a printed form, and the two are
inconsistent which of them shall prevail if they are
inconsistent with each other?
A. the latter
B. the former
C. either of them
D. none of them
69. Evidence which is standing alone unexplained or
uncontradicted, is sufficient to maintain its proposition
affirmed?
A. expert
B. prima facie
C. best evidence
D. conclusive
69. Evidence which is standing alone unexplained or
uncontradicted, is sufficient to maintain its proposition
affirmed?
A. expert
B. prima facie
C. best evidence
D. conclusive
70. ow do you classify photographs, maps , x rays,
charts and the like evidence
A. object evidence
C. physical evidence
D. all of the above
70. ow do you classify photographs, maps , x rays,
charts and the like evidence
A. object evidence
D. all of the above
71. A is an accused of killing B. AA who is the father of A
tried to settle the case with the family of B for his son A.
that the act of AA is settling the case is?
A. an offer of compromise and an implied admission
of guilt
B. an offer of compromise and not an implied
admission of guilt
C. not an offer of compromise and not an implied
admission of guilt
D. not an offer of compromise and an implied
admission of guilt
71. A is an accused of killing B. AA who is the father of A
tried to settle the case with the family of B for his son A.
that the act of AA is settling the case is?
A. an offer of compromise and an implied admission
of guilt
B. an offer of compromise and not an implied
admission of guilt
C. not an offer of compromise and not an implied
admission of guilt
D. not an offer of compromise and an implied
admission of guilt
72. Ms. Jinaleen is a virgin, sexy and beautiful woman who is
18 years old and Mr. Milgin who is 59 years old. Both of them
boarded a luxury cruise on the way to Singapore to celebrate
their monthsarry when the cruise ship encountered a heavy
downpour of water with strong winds that eventually
capsized the vessel. Now, both of them could no longer be
found. Who among the two shall be deemed to have survived
the other?
A. Ms. Jinaleen
B. Mr. Milgin
C. Ms. Jeanalyn dulay the chef
D. Mr. Melgean Hernandez the Captain
72. Ms. Jinaleen is a virgin, sexy and beautiful woman who is
18 years old and Mr. Milgin who is 59 years old. Both of them
boarded a luxury cruise on the way to Singapore to celebrate
their monthsarry when the cruise ship encountered a heavy
downpour of water with strong winds that eventually
capsized the vessel. Now, both of them could no longer be
found. Who among the two shall be deemed to have survived
the other?
A. Ms. Jinaleen
B. Mr. Milgin
C. Ms. Jeanalyn dulay the chef
D. Mr. Melgean Hernandez the Captain
73. One is not purpose of cross examination
A. to discredit the witness
B. to ask him misleading question
C. to discredit the testimony of the witness
D. to elicit admission from witness
73. One is not purpose of cross examination
A. to discredit the witness
B. to ask him misleading question
C. to discredit the testimony of the witness
74.Documents written in unofficial language shall
not be admitted as evidence except:
A. when accompanied with a translation in the
dialect understood by the witness
B. when translated in Filipino or English by
counsels before the trial
C. when translated in the dialect understood by
the accused
74.Documents written in unofficial language shall
not be admitted as evidence except:
A. when accompanied with a translation in the
dialect understood by the witness
B. when translated in Filipino or English by
counsels before the trial
C. when translated in the dialect understood by
the accused
75. Which of the following is the exemption to the
hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an
impending death?
A. parole evidence
B. ante mortem statement
C. suicide note
D. dead man statue
75. Which of the following is the exemption to the
hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an
impending death?
A. parole evidence
B. ante mortem statement
C. suicide note
D. dead man statue
76. Documentary and object evidence shall be offer
A. after the witness is called to testify
B. after the presentation of a party’s testimonial
evidence
C. immediately after the offer was mute
D. all of the above
76. Documentary and object evidence shall be offer
A. after the witness is called to testify
B. after the presentation of a party’s testimonial
evidence
C. immediately after the offer was mute
D. all of the above
77. Where the evidence is relevant and competent for
two or more purposes
A. conditional admissibility
B. multiple admissibility
C. curative admissibility
D. all of the above
77. Where the evidence is relevant and competent for
two or more purposes
A. conditional admissibility
B. multiple admissibility
C. curative admissibility
D. all of the above
78. The presiding judge for homicide orders the defense to
file affidavits of its witnesses which will serve as direct
examination, is the order of the judge correct?
A. yes because the purpose of the judge is to expedite
trial without delay
B. no because testifying orally of a witness in court will
enable the judge to observe the manner and
department of the witness whether he is an elusive
or rehearsed witness
C. maybe we don’t know what the judge think
78. The presiding judge for homicide orders the defense to
file affidavits of its witnesses which will serve as direct
examination, is the order of the judge correct?
A. yes because the purpose of the judge is to expedite
trial without delay
B. no because testifying orally of a witness in court will
enable the judge to observe the manner and
department of the witness whether he is an elusive
or rehearsed witness
C. maybe we don’t know what the judge think
79. In case of doubt, that is, the inculpatory facts and
circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation,
one which is inconsistent with guilt and the other is
inconsistent with the innocence of the accused, then the
evidence is
A. fulfils the test of moral certainty and therefore
warrants conviction
B. does not fulfils the test of moral certainty hence, not
enough to produce conviction
C. depend on the consistencies even there are two
impression
79. In case of doubt, that is, the inculpatory facts and
circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation,
one which is inconsistent with guilt and the other is
inconsistent with the innocence of the accused, then the
evidence is
A. fulfils the test of moral certainty and therefore
warrants conviction
B. does not fulfils the test of moral certainty hence, not
enough to produce conviction
C. depend on the consistencies even there are two
impression
80. The probative effect of evidence
A. burden of proof
B. proof
C. evidence
D. burden of evidence
80. The probative effect of evidence
A. burden of proof
B. proof
C. evidence
D. burden of evidence
81. Based on the express representation of statements
or upon positive acts or conducts. A party cannot, in the
course of litigation in pais, be permitted to repudiate his
representation or occupy inconsistent position.
A. estoppel by deed
B. estoppel by pais
C. estoppel against tenant
D. estoppel by record of judgement
81. Based on the express representation of statements
or upon positive acts or conducts. A party cannot, in the
course of litigation in pais, be permitted to repudiate his
representation or occupy inconsistent position.
A. estoppel by deed
B. estoppel by pais
C. estoppel against tenant
D. estoppel by record of judgement
82. The order of examination of individual witness
A. cross examination, direct examination, re‐cross
examination, re‐direct examination
B. direct examination, cross examination, re‐direct
examination, re‐cross examination
C. direct examination, cross examination, re‐cross
D. cross examination, direct examination, re‐direct
82. The order of examination of individual witness
A. cross examination, direct examination, re‐cross
B. direct examination, cross examination, re‐direct
C. direct examination, cross examination, re‐cross
D. cross examination, direct examination, re‐direct
83. Evidence that consist of writing or any material
containing letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols, or
other modes of written expression offered for the
evidence as part of their contents.
A. object evidence
B. documentary evidence
D. all of the above
83. Evidence that consist of writing or any material
containing letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols, or
other modes of written expression offered for the
evidence as part of their contents.
A. object evidence
B. documentary evidence
D. all of the above
84. Which of the following need not be proved in
case in court except
A. presumption of law
B. question of fact
C. judicial admission
D. judicial notice
84. Which of the following need not be proved in
case in court except
A. presumption of law
B. question of fact
C. judicial admission
D. judicial notice
85. Which of the following is a concept of the multiple
admissibility of evidence?
A. evidence proffered is admissible for one purpose
only
B. evidence is inadmissible for one purpose but
admissible for another or vice versa
C. evidence is admissible in one party only
D. all of the above
85. Which of the following is a concept of the multiple
admissibility of evidence?
A. evidence proffered is admissible for one purpose
only
B. evidence is inadmissible for one purpose but
admissible for another or vice versa
C. evidence is admissible in one party only
D. all of the above
86. The court shall consider no evidence which is has not
yet formally offered, as regards to the testimony of the
witness the offer of evidence should be made
_______________________
A. at the time the witness called to testify
B. after the presentation of testimonial evidence
C. as soon as ground become reasonably apparent
D. immediately after the offer is made
86. The court shall consider no evidence which is has not
yet formally offered, as regards to the testimony of the
witness the offer of evidence should be made
_______________________
A. at the time the witness called to testify
B. after the presentation of testimonial evidence
C. as soon as ground become reasonably apparent
D. immediately after the offer is made
87. In ______ cases, an offer of compromise is not an
admission of liability and is not admissible against the
offeror.
A. administrative
B. civil
C. criminal
D. labor
87. In ______ cases, an offer of compromise is not an
admission of liability and is not admissible against the
offeror.
A. administrative
B. civil
C. criminal
D. labor
88. Evidence which denies the existence of the fact in
issue
A. rebutting
B. negative
C. disputable
D. conclusive
88. Evidence which denies the existence of the fact in
issue
A. rebutting
B. negative
C. disputable
D. conclusive
89. Leading questions are allowed in except
C. preliminary matters
D. of an unwilling or hostile witness
89. Leading questions are allowed in except
C. preliminary matters
D. of an unwilling or hostile witness
90. It is the ultimate facts or proposition to be
established.
A. factum probans
B. factum probandum
C. positive evidence
D. negative evidence
90. It is the ultimate facts or proposition to be
established.
A. factum probans
B. factum probandum
C. positive evidence
D. negative evidence
91. Facts existing during the commission of the crime
(i.e. opportunity, presence of the accused at the scene of
the crime, etc)
A. subsequent
B. concominant
C. antecedent
D. collateral matters
91. Facts existing during the commission of the crime
(i.e. opportunity, presence of the accused at the scene of
the crime, etc)
A. subsequent
B. concominant
C. antecedent
D. collateral matters
92. Based on procedural rules and may be overcome by
evidence to the contrary
A. conclusive presumption
B. disputable presumption
C. processual presumption
D. all of the above
92. Based on procedural rules and may be overcome by
evidence to the contrary
A. conclusive presumption
B. disputable presumption
C. processual presumption
D. all of the above
93. Secondary evidence may prove it contents except
A. recital of its contents in some authentic document
B. by the handwriting of the person
C. by the testimony of the witness
D. by a copy
93. Secondary evidence may prove it contents except
A. recital of its contents in some authentic document
B. by the handwriting of the person
C. by the testimony of the witness
D. by a copy
94. X witness a man being slashed at the throat, because of
the trauma caused by the accidental witnessing of the
crime. He lost his sanity today. Is X qualified to testify as a
witness.
A. no because he became insane
B. yes provided that at the time that X would testify, he
must have regained his normal condition
C. no because he cannot testify because of the trauma
of witnessing the slashing of the throat
D. yes because at the time of the witnessing of the crime
he was sane and his insanity is thereafter immaterial
94. X witness a man being slashed at the throat, because of
the trauma caused by the accidental witnessing of the
crime. He lost his sanity today. Is X qualified to testify as a
witness.
A. no because he became insane
B. yes provided that at the time that X would testify, he
must have regained his normal condition
C. no because he cannot testify because of the trauma
of witnessing the slashing of the throat
D. yes because at the time of the witnessing of the crime
he was sane and his insanity is thereafter immaterial
95. A stole chicken under the house of B. after realizing that what
he did was a wrong. A returned the chicken to the place under
the house of B. Is A still criminally liable even if he desisted?
A. A is no longer criminally liable because he desisted
B. A still criminally liable even if he desisted because the
desistance should be made before acts of execution
performed
C. A still criminally liable because the act of the theft was
already committed and the return of the chicken does not
relieve him from criminal liability
D. B and C
95. A stole chicken under the house of B. after realizing that what
he did was a wrong. A returned the chicken to the place under
the house of B. Is A still criminally liable even if he desisted?
A. A is no longer criminally liable because he desisted
B. A still criminally liable even if he desisted because the
desistance should be made before acts of execution
performed
C. A still criminally liable because the act of the theft was
already committed and the return of the chicken does not
relieve him from criminal liability
D. B and C
96. An act which is to be understood as unjust or
improper conduct capable of exciting, inciting or
irritating anyone.
A. provocation
B. insinuation
C. aggression
D. irresistible force
96. An act which is to be understood as unjust or
improper conduct capable of exciting, inciting or
irritating anyone.
A. provocation
B. insinuation
C. aggression
D. irresistible force
97. Which of the following is place of worship
A. chapel
B. mosque
C. church
D. all of the above
97. Which of the following is place of worship
A. chapel
B. mosque
C. church
D. all of the above
98. Evidence directed to prove a fact in issue as
determined by the rules of substantive law and
pleading‐
A. Relevant Evidence
B. Material Evidence
C. Direct Evidence
D. Circumstantial Evidence
98. Evidence directed to prove a fact in issue as
determined by the rules of substantive law and
pleading‐
A. Relevant Evidence
B. Material Evidence
C. Direct Evidence
D. Circumstantial Evidence
99.Demonstrative evidence is applicable to the
presentation of
A. best evidence
B. document
C. testimonial
D. object
99.Demonstrative evidence is applicable to the
presentation of
A. best evidence
B. document
C. testimonial
D. object
order that the admission of a conspirator may be given in
evidence against his co‐conspirator?
evidence
conspiracy
order that the admission of a conspirator may be given in
evidence against his co‐conspirator?
evidence
conspiracy
*** END ***
“A STEP BACKWARD IN ORDER TO LEAP FROG TRIPPLE”.
A Compilation of
Law Enforcement Administration
(900 Items)
(History of Policing System, Planning and Operations, Police Concept of
Organization and Administration, RA 6975 amended by RA 8551, Personnel and
Records Management, Industrial Security Management, Police Patrol, Police
Intelligence, Comparative Police
LEA 1 HISTORY AND PERSONALITIES
By
Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
1. It means a “City”
A.Politiea
B.Politia
C.Polis
D.Polizei
1. It means a “City”
A.Politiea
B.Politia
C.Polis
D.Polizei
2. The term police is derived from the
word
A.Politiea
B.Politia
C.Polis
D.Polizei
2. The term police is derived from the
word
A.Politiea
B.Politia
C.Polis
D.Polizei
3. Republic Act No. 6975 entitled An Act
Establishing the Philippine National
Police under a reorganized Department of
the Interior and Local Government and
Other Purposes was passed on
A.December 30, 1990
B.December 13, 1991
C.December 13, 1990
D.December 30, 1991
3. Republic Act No. 6975 entitled An Act
Establishing the Philippine National
Police under a reorganized Department of
the Interior and Local Government and
Other Purposes was passed on
A.December 30, 1990
B.December 13, 1991
C.December 13, 1990
D.December 30, 1991
4. the PNP activated/created the Internal
Affairs Service (IAS) on a national scope
on
A.January 1, 1999
B.January 1, 1991
C.January 1, 1998
D.January 1, 1992
4. the PNP activated/created the Internal
Affairs Service (IAS) on a national scope
on
A.January 1, 1999
B.January 1, 1991
C.January 1, 1998
D.January 1, 1992
5. This was created in 1712 to enforce the
regulations of the Department of State.

A.Guardrilleros
B.Guardia Civil
C.Carabineros de seguridad publica
D.Cuerpo De Carabineros De Seguridad
Publica
5. This was created in 1712 to enforce the
regulations of the Department of State.

A.Guardrilleros
B.Guardia Civil
Publica
6. In 1842 Carabineros de seguridad
publica was reorganized and named as
A.Guardrilleros
B.Guardia Civil
Publica
6. In 1842 Carabineros de seguridad
publica was reorganized and named as
A.Guardrilleros
B.Guardia Civil
Publica
7. A town or rural police known as
Guardrilleros established by Royal Decree
on ______ which provides that five percent
(5%) of the able-bodied male citizens of
every province were to be enlisted for
three (3) years.
A.January 8, 1936
B.January 1, 1936
C.August 8, 1936
D.August 1, 1936
7. A town or rural police known as
Guardrilleros established by Royal Decree
on ______ which provides that five percent
(5%) of the able-bodied male citizens of
every province were to be enlisted for
three (3) years.
A.January 8, 1936
B.January 1, 1936
C.August 8, 1936
D.August 1, 1936
8. ________ was a police organization with
military background established by a Royal
decree on _______ to alleviate the burden
of the Colonial Army Troops in policing
the towns.
A.Guadrilleros; January 8, 1936
B.Carabineros de seguridad publica; 1712
C.Cuerpo De Carabineros De Seguridad
Publica; 1842
D.Guardia Civil; February 12, 1852
8. ________ was a police organization with
military background established by a Royal
decree on _______ to alleviate the burden
of the Colonial Army Troops in policing
the towns.
A.Guadrilleros; January 8, 1936
B.Carabineros de seguridad publica; 1712
C.Cuerpo De Carabineros De Seguridad
Publica; 1842
D.Guardia Civil; February 12, 1852
9. It was Created On September 8, 1966 by
virtue of Republic Act No. 4864.
A.NAPOLCOM
B.POLCOM
C.INP
D.Philippine Constabulary
9. It was Created On September 8, 1966 by
virtue of Republic Act No. 4864.
A.NAPOLCOM
B.POLCOM
C.INP
D.Philippine Constabulary
10. By the virtue of Presidential Decree
No. 765, all the local police forces in
the Philippines were joined into one
National Police and integrated with the
Philippine Constabulary (PC) on ________
A.August 1, 1974
B.August 9, 1975
C.August 8, 1975
D.August 8, 1974
10. By the virtue of Presidential Decree
No. 765, all the local police forces in
the Philippines were joined into one
National Police and integrated with the
Philippine Constabulary (PC) on ________
A.August 1, 1974
B.August 9, 1975
C.August 8, 1975
D.August 8, 1974
11. It is "An Act Providing for the
organization and government of an insular
Constabulary and for the inspection of the
municipal police"
A.Organic act no. 175
B.Presidential Decree no. 765
C.RA 4864
D.Commonwealth act no. 343
11. It is "An Act Providing for the
organization and government of an insular
municipal police"
A.Organic act no. 175
B.Presidential Decree no. 765
C.RA 4864
D.Commonwealth act no. 343
12. He was appointed as the Philippine
Constabulary Chief in December 1917.
A.Brig. General Rafael Crame
B.General Rafael Crame
C.Captain Henry T. Allen
D.Director General Cesar Nazareno
12. He was appointed as the Philippine
Constabulary Chief in December 1917.
A.Brig. General Rafael Crame
B.General Rafael Crame
C.Captain Henry T. Allen
D.Director General Cesar Nazareno
13. On December 1935, ________ was enacted
creating the Philippine Army and this
ended the 35 years of service and
experience of the Philippine Constabulary
as an insular police force.
A.National Defense act no. 1
B.Commonwealth act no. 1
C.National Defense/Commonwelath act no. 1
D.All of the above
13. On December 1935, ________ was enacted
creating the Philippine Army and this
ended the 35 years of service and
experience of the Philippine Constabulary
as an insular police force.
A.National Defense act no. 1
C.National Defense/Commonwelath act no. 1
D.All of the above
14. The Philippine Constabulary personnel
and duties were transferred to the control
of the Chief of Staff of the Philippine
Army pursuant to ______
A.Executive order no. 11
B.Proclamation 1081
C.Proclamation no. 11
D.Executive order no. 10
14. The Philippine Constabulary personnel
and duties were transferred to the control
of the Chief of Staff of the Philippine
Army pursuant to ______
A.Executive order no. 11
B.Proclamation 1081
C.Proclamation no. 11
D.Executive order no. 10
15. The insular police duties of the
defunct Philippine Constabulary were
entrusted to the State Police pursuant to
A.Commonwealth act no. 88
C.organic act no. 175
D.commonwealth act no. 1
15. The insular police duties of the
defunct Philippine Constabulary were
entrusted to the State Police pursuant to
16. Commonwealth act no. 88 was approved
on _________
A.August 8, 1975
B.September 8, 1966
C.January 11, 1936
D.October 26, 1936
16. Commonwealth act no. 88 was approved
on _________
A.August 8, 1975
B.September 8, 1966
C.January 11, 1936
D.October 26, 1936
17. The State Police was abolished in
_______ at the instance of President
Quezon.
A.1935
B.1936
C.1938
D.1939
17. The State Police was abolished in
_______ at the instance of President
Quezon.
A.1935
B.1936
C.1938
D.1939
18. The ___________ was created on June
25, 1938 which reconstituted the
Philippine Constabulary.
18. The ___________ was created on June
25, 1938 which reconstituted the
Philippine Constabulary.
19. It was initially created as an Insular
(island) Police on July 18, 1901 known as
the Insular Constabulary, it was patterned
from the American Constabulary.
A.Guardia civil
B.Guardrilleros
C.Philippine Constabulary
D.Integrated nationa police
19. It was initially created as an Insular
(island) Police on July 18, 1901 known as
the Insular Constabulary, it was patterned
from the American Constabulary.
A.Guardia civil
B.Guardrilleros
C.Philippine Constabulary
D.Integrated nationa police
20. Commonwelath Act no. 343 was further
implemented by President Quezon's
____________ which specifically withdraw
the Philippine Constabulary from the Army
as an independent unit and detailed as a
National Police Force.
A.Executive Order No. 153
B.Executive Order No. 1
C.Executive Order No. 88
D.Executive Order No. 343
20. Commonwelath Act no. 343 was further
implemented by President Quezon's
____________ which specifically withdraw
the Philippine Constabulary from the Army
as an independent unit and detailed as a
National Police Force.
A.Executive Order No. 153
B.Executive Order No. 1
C.Executive Order No. 88
D.Executive Order No. 343
21. On September 21, 1972, the then
President Ferdinand E Marcos proclaimed
Martial Law throughout the country by
virtue of __________
A.Proclamation 1071
B.Proclamation 1081
C.Proclamation 1080
D.Proclamation 1181
21. On September 21, 1972, the then
President Ferdinand E Marcos proclaimed
Martial Law throughout the country by
virtue of __________
A.Proclamation 1071
B.Proclamation 1081
C.Proclamation 1080
D.Proclamation 1181
22. Organic Act No. 175 enacted on
_______which called for the organization
and establishment of an Insular
municipal police.
A.August 8, 1975
B.September 8, 1966
C.January 11, 1936
D.July 18, 1901
22. Organic Act No. 175 enacted on
_______which called for the organization
and establishment of an Insular
municipal police.
A.August 8, 1975
B.September 8, 1966
C.January 11, 1936
D.July 18, 1901
23. Republic Act 6975 was signed into law
on ________ by then President Corazon C
Aquino which called for the creation of
the Philippine National Police (PNP) and
the reorganization of the Department of
the Interior and Local Government (DILG)
A.February 25, 1998
B.December 13, 1990
C.March 31, 1991
D.July 1, 1972
23. Republic Act 6975 was signed into law
on ________ by then President Corazon C
Aquino which called for the creation of
the Philippine National Police (PNP) and
the reorganization of the Department of
the Interior and Local Government (DILG)
A.February 25, 1998
B.December 13, 1990
C.March 31, 1991
D.July 1, 1972
24. The First Director General of the
Philippine National Police.
A.Dir. Gen Cesar P. Nazareno
B.Brig. Gen Rafael Crame
C.Dir. Charles S. Mondejar
D.Captain Henry T. Allen
24. The First Director General of the
Philippine National Police.
A.Dir. Gen Cesar P. Nazareno
B.Brig. Gen Rafael Crame
C.Dir. Charles S. Mondejar
D.Captain Henry T. Allen
25. It was created by Director General
Arevalo Sarmiento II to imbibed to the PNP
personnel the commitment to the entire
populace.
A. CODE-P
B. POLICE PATROL
C. POLICE 2000
D. POLICE DREAMS
25. It was created by Director General
Arevalo Sarmiento II to imbibed to the PNP
personnel the commitment to the entire
populace.
A. CODE-P
B. POLICE PATROL
C. POLICE 2000
D. POLICE DREAMS
26. It is an operation to dismantle all
existing private armed groups throughout
the archipelago.
A.OPLAN SANDUGO/ALPHA
B.OPLAN SANDIGAN MILENYO
C.OPLAN PANLALANSAG
D.OPLAN BANAT
26. It is an operation to dismantle all
existing private armed groups throughout
the archipelago.
A.OPLAN SANDUGO/ALPHA
B.OPLAN SANDIGAN MILENYO
C.OPLAN PANLALANSAG
D.OPLAN BANAT
27. It is an operation of religiously
cleansing its force of misguided elements.
A.OPLAN SAKLOLO
B.OPLAN SANG-INGAT
C.OPLAN SANGYAMAN
D.OPLAN PAGBABAGO
27. It is an operation of religiously
cleansing its force of misguided elements.
A.OPLAN SAKLOLO
B.OPLAN SANG-INGAT
C.OPLAN SANGYAMAN
D.OPLAN PAGBABAGO
28. What is meant by the Greek word
“politeia”?
A. State of the Nation
B. Nationhood or Cityhood
C. Government of a City
D. Police Officers
28. What is meant by the Greek word
“politeia”?
A. State of the Nation
B. Nationhood or Cityhood
C. Government of a City
D. Police Officers
29. Which society first use the word
“Police” to mean person who enforce the
law?
A. Greeks
B. French
C. Germans
D. English
29. Which society first use the word
“Police” to mean person who enforce the
law?
A. Greeks
B. French
C. Germans
D. English
30. From where was the word constable
originated?
A.French
B.German
C.Greeks
D.English
30. From where was the word constable
originated?
A.French
B.German
C.Greeks
D.English
31. From where was the word patrol
originated?
A.Greeks
B.Spain
C.French
D.English
31. From where was the word patrol
originated?
A.Greeks
B.Spain
C.French
D.English
32. In the history of law enforcement,
which one is considered the earliest
codified law?
A. Code of King Hammurabi
B. 12 Tabulae
C. The Sumerian Code
D. Code of Kalantiao
32. In the history of law enforcement,
which one is considered the earliest
codified law?
A. Code of King Hammurabi
B. 12 Tabulae
C. The Sumerian Code
D. Code of Kalantiao
33. An ancient police system used by the
Greeks.
A. Medjays
B. Ephori
C. Tythingmen
D. Vigiles
33. An ancient police system used by the
Greeks.
A. Medjays
B. Ephori
C. Tythingmen
D. Vigiles
34. It is the Pre-Spanish policing
system in the Philippine.
A.Chieftains
B.Datu
C.Pueblo
D.Tribes
34. It is the Pre-Spanish policing
system in the Philippine.
A.Chieftains
B.Datu
C.Pueblo
D.Tribes
35. They are the one who use the first dog
patrol.
A.French
B.Egyptians
C.Medjays
D.Ephori
35. They are the one who use the first dog
patrol.
A.French
B.Egyptians
C.Medjays
D.Ephori
36. What was the earliest Roman law?
A. The Justinian Code
B. Code of Draco
C. 12 Tabulae
D. Anglo-Saxon Law
36. What was the earliest Roman law?
A. The Justinian Code
B. Code of Draco
C. 12 Tabulae
D. Anglo-Saxon Law
37. The first civilian police force in
Rome which keep the peace very ruthlessly.
A.Praetorian guard
B.Urban cohorts
C.Vigiles
D.Vigilantes
37. The first civilian police force in
Rome which keep the peace very ruthlessly.
A.Praetorian guard
B.Urban cohorts
C.Vigiles
D.Vigilantes
38. The oldest known warning device.
A.Trumpet
B.Horn
C.Alarm
D.Bell
38. The oldest known warning device.
A.Trumpet
B.Horn
C.Alarm
D.Bell
39. laws with the demand of the Knights of
the Round Table it was the beginning of
national/local government and legislation
A.Magnum Cart
B.Magna Carta
C.Leges Henri
D.Justinian Code
39. laws with the demand of the Knights of
the Round Table it was the beginning of
national/local government and legislation
A.Magnum Cart
B.Magna Carta
C.Leges Henri
D.Justinian Code
40. Under this law the policemen were
recognize as public officials.
A.Justinian code
B.12 tabulae
C.Leges Henri
D.Magna Carta
40. Under this law the policemen were
recognize as public officials.
A.Justinian code
B.12 tabulae
C.Leges Henri
D.Magna Carta
41. Sheriff came from the words Shire and
Rieve; Shire means
I.Ruler
II.District
III.County
IV.Police
A.I and II C. II and III
B.II and IV D. II only
41. Sheriff came from the words Shire and
Rieve; Shire means
I.Ruler
II.District
III.County
IV.Police
A.I and II C. II and III
B.II and IV D. II only
42. Under the Anglo-Saxon period the
complainant shouts for the mandatory
assembly of men to catch the culprit known
as
A.Color or hue
B.Hue and Cry
C.Shout and Cry
D.Horn and cry
42. Under the Anglo-Saxon period the
complainant shouts for the mandatory
assembly of men to catch the culprit known
as
A.Color or hue
B.Hue and Cry
C.Shout and Cry
D.Horn and cry
43. In ancient Rome he created the
Praetorian Guard, urban cohorts known as
city patrol and the Vigiles.
A.Emperor Justinian
B.King Alfred
C.Emperor Augustus
D.King Charles
43. In ancient Rome he created the
Praetorian Guard, urban cohorts known as
city patrol and the Vigiles.
A.Emperor Justinian
B.King Alfred
C.Emperor Augustus
D.King Charles
44. Approximately on ______ the Sumerian
code was set by Sumerians Lipithstar and
Eshumma which are the standards on what
constituted an offense against society.
A.2100 BC
B.2200 BC
C.2300 BC
D.1500 BC
44. Approximately on ______ the Sumerian
code was set by Sumerians Lipithstar and
Eshumma which are the standards on what
constituted an offense against society.
A.2100 BC
B.2200 BC
C.2300 BC
D.1500 BC
45. The Egyptian’s court system presided
by judges are appointed by the ______
A.King
B.Ruler
C.Pharoah
D.Hammurabi
45. The Egyptian’s court system presided
by judges are appointed by the ______
A.King
B.Ruler
C.Pharoah
D.Hammurabi
46. He was recognize as the father of
modern Law Enforcement
A.Sir. Robert Peel
B.August Vollmer
C.Hans Gross
D.Henry Fielding
46. He was recognize as the father of
modern Law Enforcement
A.Sir. Robert Peel
B.August Vollmer
C.Hans Gross
D.Henry Fielding
47. In the history of law enforcement
under the time of King Alfred the known
Tun policing the __________ sytem which
appoints 10 male residents as guardians of
the town known as tythings.
A.Frankpledge
B.Alfredpledge
C.Tunpledge
D.Tythingspledge
47. In the history of law enforcement
under the time of King Alfred the known
Tun policing the __________ sytem which
appoints 10 male residents as guardians of
the town known as tythings.
A.Frankpledge
B.Alfredpledge
C.Tunpledge
D.Tythingspledge
48. Under the Winchester period the
________ order the close of the gate of
London at sundown and which the curfew
system was adopted.
A.Statute of 1285
B.Statute of 1295
C.Statute of 1275
D.Statute of 1675
48. Under the Winchester period the
________ order the close of the gate of
London at sundown and which the curfew
system was adopted.
A.Statute of 1285
B.Statute of 1295
C.Statute of 1275
D.Statute of 1675
49. It was created by Henry fielding which
appoints foot and horse patrol.
A.The Charlies
B.Keepers of the peace
C.Bow street runner
D.Scotland yard
49. It was created by Henry fielding which
appoints foot and horse patrol.
A.The Charlies
B.Keepers of the peace
C.Bow street runner
D.Scotland yard
50. Night watchers that was appointed by
King Charles which has a duty from sunset
to sunrise is also known as?
A.Leatherman
B.Tythings
C.Bellmen
D.Vigils
50. Night watchers that was appointed by
King Charles which has a duty from sunset
to sunrise is also known as?
A.Leatherman
B.Tythings
C.Bellmen
D.Vigils
51. creation of Scotland Yard.
A.Metropolitan police act of 1839
B.Metropolitan police act of 1829
C.Statute of 1285
D.Statute of 1285
51. creation of Scotland Yard.
A.Metropolitan police act of 1839
B.Metropolitan police act of 1829
C.Statute of 1285
D.Statute of 1285
52. It is the slang term for police
officers in france
A.Gendermie
B.Gendarmei
C.Gendarmie
D.Gandermie
52. It is the slang term for police
officers in france
A.Gendermie
B.Gendarmei
C.Gendarmie
D.Gandermie
53. He is the father of modern policing
system.
A.Sir. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
B.August Vollmer
C.Sir. Robert Peel
D.Edmond Loccard
53. He is the father of modern policing
system.
A.Sir. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
B.August Vollmer
C.Sir. Robert Peel
D.Edmond Loccard
54. Under the Winchester period it has a
position to arrest, pursue and impose
punishment
A.Royal Judge
B.Travelling judge
C.Star chamber judge
D.Justice of the peace
54. Under the Winchester period it has a
position to arrest, pursue and impose
punishment
A.Royal Judge
B.Travelling judge
C.Star chamber judge
D.Justice of the peace
55. The Justinian Code is also known as
A.12 tabulae
B.Code of Emperor Justinian
C.Corpus Juris Civilis
D.Code of Justine
55. The Justinian Code is also known as
A.12 tabulae
B.Code of Emperor Justinian
C.Corpus Juris Civilis
D.Code of Justine
56. The Egyptians employed their civilian
police uner the comman of the military
known as
A.Ephori
B.Tythings
C.Medjays
D.Vigiles
56. The Egyptians employed their civilian
police uner the comman of the military
known as
A.Ephori
B.Tythings
C.Medjays
D.Vigiles
57. It was the Knights appointed at the
time of King Richard which keeps the
King’s peace
A.Bow Street Runners
B.Leathermen
C.Keepers of the peace
D.Bellmen
57. It was the Knights appointed at the
time of King Richard which keeps the
King’s peace
A.Bow Street Runners
B.Leathermen
C.Keepers of the peace
D.Bellmen
58. In what year was the “Officers De
Paix” was formed?
A.1812
B.1712
C.1912
D.1612
58. In what year was the “Officers De
Paix” was formed?
A.1812
B.1791
C.1912
D.1612
59. The first French police officer is
known as?
A.Sergent of arms
B.Sergents de ville
C.Sergeant major
D.Staff Sergeant
59. The first French police officer is
known as?
A.Sergent of arms
B.Sergents de ville
C.Sergeant major
D.Staff Sergeant
60. The Italian term for their police
officers
A.Guardia Civil
B.Gendarmie
C.Keishi
D.Carabenieri
60. The Italian term for their police
officers
A.Guardia Civil
B.Gendarmie
C.Keishi
D.Carabenieri
61. Vigilat ut Quiescant means
A.He sleeps that they may watch
B.He Watches while so he may sleep
C.He watches that they may not sleep
D.He watches that they may sleep
61. Vigilat ut Quiescant means
A.He sleeps that they may watch
B.He Watches while so he may sleep
C.He watches that they may not sleep
D.He watches that they may sleep
62. In the United States, Boston the first
night watch known as leathermen was formed
on _______
A.1833
B.1836
C.1844
D.1636
62. In the United States, Boston the first
night watch known as leathermen was formed
on _______
A.1833
B.1836
C.1844
D.1636
63. In 1833 the _______ first instituted
the daytime paid police service.
A.Boston
B.New York
C.England
D.Philadelphia
63. In 1833 the _______ first instituted
the daytime paid police service.
A.Boston
B.New York
C.England
D.Philadelphia
64. On what year was the modern American
police force organized basing on the
English Metropolitan police?
A.1833
B.1836
C.1844
D.1636
64. On what year was the modern American
police force organized basing on the
English Metropolitan police?
A.1833
B.1836
C.1844
D.1636
65. On what year the Bicycle patrol was
introduced by the Metropolitan police
department.
A.1938
B.1939
C.1935
D.1936
65. On what year the Bicycle patrol was
introduced by the Metropolitan police
department.
A.1938
B.1939
C.1935
D.1936
66. It is known as the Japanese Military
Police
A.Kemptai
B.Kimpetai
C.Kempetae
D.Kempetai
66. It is known as the Japanese Military
Police
A.Kemptai
B.Kimpetai
C.Kempetae
D.Kempetai
67. In 1945 He became the chief of the MPD
when it was reconstituted and placed under
the control of the America.
A.Captain Henry T. Allen
B.Colonel Marcus Elis Jones
C.General McArthur
D.William Taft
67. In 1945 He became the chief of the MPD
when it was reconstituted and placed under
the control of the America.
A.Captain Henry T. Allen
B.Colonel Marcus Elis Jones
C.General McArthur
D.William Taft
68. On what year the Japanese Military
police or known as Kempetai took over the
MPD?
A.1940
B.1941
C.1942
D.1943
68. On what year the Japanese Military
police or known as Kempetai took over the
MPD?
A.1940
B.1941
C.1942
D.1943
69. The law that provides the National
Police Commission to conduct Police
examination is
A.R.A 2260
B.R.A 6040
C.R.A 4864
D.R.A 6141
69. The law that provides the National
Police Commission to conduct Police
examination is
A.R.A 2260
B.R.A 6040
C.R.A 4864
D.R.A 6141
70. Automobile patrol was introduced in
the Philippines on __
A.May 17, 1939
B.May 17, 1953
C.May 17, 1940
D.May 17, 1954
70. Automobile patrol was introduced in
the Philippines on __
A.May 17, 1939
B.May 17, 1953
C.May 17, 1940
D.May 17, 1954
71. The law that consider Bar and Board
passers as Civil Service Eligible.
A.RA 907
B.RA 1081
C.RA 1080
D.RA 9708
71. The law that consider Bar and Board
passers as Civil Service Eligible.
A.RA 907
B.RA 1081
C.RA 1080
D.RA 9708
72. The law extending 5 years educational
qualification on educational qualification
under RA 6975
A.PD 907
B.RA 9208
C.RA 9708
D.RA 1080
72. The law extending 5 years educational
qualification on educational qualification
under RA 6975
A.PD 907
B.RA 9208
C.RA 9708
D.RA 1080
73. The law that grants Civil service
eligibility for College honorable
graduates.
A.RA 907
B.PD 907
C.EO 907
D.Napolcom circular no. 907
73. The law that grants Civil service
eligibility for College honorable
graduates.
A.RA 907
B.PD 907
C.EO 907
D.Napolcom circular no. 907
74. The terms constable and patrol came
from the French. Patrol originated
directly or via German Patrolla from the
French patrouller (patroullier), which
originally means –
A.“to walk straightway”
B.“to stand and watch”
C.“to walk through mud in a military camp”
D.“to walk back and forth under the sun”
75. The term police originated from the
Greek word politeia, the Romans slightly
changed the word to politia. However, the
first group of people to use the word
police were –
A.the French
B.the Americans
C.the Sumerians
D.the Portuguese
75. The term police originated from the
Greek word politeia, the Romans slightly
changed the word to politia. However, the
first group of people to use the word
police were –
A.the French
B.the Americans
C.the Sumerians
D.the Portuguese
76. In England, each petty kingdom was
divided into shires or counties. Each
shire was the responsibility of a “Reeve”,
later called the Sheriff, who in turn was
responsible to their King for law and
order in his respective district. This
system was generally known as –
A.Frankpledge system
B.Watchman system
C.Hue and cry system
D.Magna Carta
76. In England, each petty kingdom was
divided into shires or counties. Each
shire was the responsibility of a “Reeve”,
later called the Sheriff, who in turn was
responsible to their King for law and
order in his respective district. This
system was generally known as –
A.Frankpledge system
B.Watchman system
C.Hue and cry system
D.Magna Carta
77. In 1748, Henry Fielding became the
Chief Magistrate at Bow Street in
Middlesex, London. He organized a group
of men, for general policing, known as –
A.Highway men
B.Metropolitan police
C.London Patrol
D.Bow Street Runners
77. In 1748, Henry Fielding became the
Chief Magistrate at Bow Street in
Middlesex, London. He organized a group
of men, for general policing, known as –
A.Highway men
B.Metropolitan police
C.London Patrol
D.Bow Street Runners
78. During 16th Century Paris, the Citizen
Night Guard and the Royal Guard received
the Guard a motto - “Vigilat ut Quiescant”
which became part of the French police
emblem. The motto means –
A.“We are the guardians”
B.“Vigilance is the key to safety”
C.“He watches that they may sleep”
D.“Always on guard, always vigilant”
78. During 16th Century Paris, the Citizen
Night Guard and the Royal Guard received
the Guard a motto - “Vigilat ut Quiescant”
which became part of the French police
emblem. The motto means –
A.“We are the guardians”
B.“Vigilance is the key to safety”
C.“He watches that they may sleep”
D.“Always on guard, always vigilant”
79. In the United States, which place
first used the “night watch” practice in
1636?
A.New York
B.Chicago
C.Philadelphia
D.Boston
79. In the United States, which place
first used the “night watch” practice in
1636?
A.New York
B.Chicago
C.Philadelphia
D.Boston
80. In the Philippines, the history of the
police force marked its first official
organization as the national or insular
police force under the Philippine
Constabulary (PC) on –
A.1852 under the Spanish Guardia Civil
B.1901 with Capt. Henry T. Allen as Chief
C.1917 with Gen. Rafael Crame as Chief
D.1945 with Col. Marcus Jones as Chief
80. In the Philippines, the history of the
police force marked its first official
organization as the national or insular
police force under the Philippine
Constabulary (PC) on –
A.1852 under the Spanish Guardia Civil
B.1901 with Capt. Henry T. Allen as Chief
C.1917 with Gen. Rafael Crame as Chief
D.1945 with Col. Marcus Jones as Chief
81. Who was accorded the fame as “father
of police professionalism” for his
contribution as the great police reformer?
A.Alexander the great
B.August Vollmer
C.Robert Peel
D.John Edgar Hoover
81. Who was accorded the fame as “father
of police professionalism” for his
contribution as the great police reformer?
A.Alexander the great
B.August Vollmer
C.Robert Peel
D.John Edgar Hoover
82. Modern policing started in England
with the enactment of the Metropolitan
Police Act of ___, during the time of Sir
Robert Peel.
A.1829
B.1896
C.1842
D.1808
82. Modern policing started in England
with the enactment of the Metropolitan
Police Act of ___, during the time of Sir
Robert Peel.
A.1829
B.1896
C.1842
D.1808
83. Who among the Fielding brothers, the
great brothers of the Bow Street Runners,
in England was known as “the blind beak”
for he can identify criminals by their
voice alone?
A.Henry Fielding
B.John Fielding
C.William Fielding
D.Ford Fielding
83. Who among the Fielding brothers, the
great brothers of the Bow Street Runners,
in England was known as “the blind beak”
for he can identify criminals by their
voice alone?
A.Henry Fielding
B.John Fielding
C.William Fielding
D.Ford Fielding
84. By operation of this act, the Charter
of Manila was enacted consisting of the
Division of Metropolitan Police and the
Native Police is referred as to:
A.Act no. 175
B.R.A. no. 6975
C.Act no. 183
D.P.D. 75
84. By operation of this act, the Charter
of Manila was enacted consisting of the
Division of Metropolitan Police and the
Native Police is referred as to:
A.Act no. 175
B.R.A. no. 6975
C.Act no. 183
D.P.D. 75
85. Who among these popularized the idea
that “the police are the public and the
public are the police”?
A.August Vollmer
B.Sir Robert Peel
C.Henry Fielding
D.James Wilson
85. Who among these popularized the idea
that “the police are the public and the
public are the police”?
A.August Vollmer
B.Sir Robert Peel
C.Henry Fielding
D.James Wilson
86. As a means of relaying message of
intelligence value, which group of society
first started the use of domesticated
pigeons?
A.Romans
B.Indians
C.Egyptians
D.Greeks
86. As a means of relaying message of
intelligence value, which group of society
first started the use of domesticated
pigeons?
A.Romans
B.Indians
C.Egyptians
D.Greeks
87. The earliest private police
organization which paved the way for the
business of private security and detective
services was credited to the Americans
through the initiatives of –
A.Burns and Pinkerton
B.Thomas and Moore
C.Smith brothers
D.Fielding brothers
87. The earliest private police
organization which paved the way for the
business of private security and detective
services was credited to the Americans
through the initiatives of –
A.Burns and Pinkerton
B.Thomas and Moore
C.Smith brothers
D.Fielding brothers
88. In the history of patrol, the first
recorded organized police that utilized
dog patrol was the so called _.
A.Medjays
B.Vigiles
C.Ancient police
D.Jacobians
88. In the history of patrol, the first
recorded organized police that utilized
dog patrol was the so called _.
A.Medjays
B.Vigiles
C.Ancient police
D.Jacobians
89. The Chief magistrate at bow street in
London that organized the Bow Street
Runners is
A.King Charles II of London
B.Henry Fielding of London
C.King Richard of London
D.none of the above
89. The Chief magistrate at bow street in
London that organized the Bow Street
Runners is
A.King Charles II of London
B.Henry Fielding of London
C.King Richard of London
D.none of the above
90. ______ is a European term meaning to
catch or seize.
A.Cop
B.Constable
C.Patrol
D.Politia
90. ______ is a European term meaning to
catch or seize.
A.Cop
B.Constable
C.Patrol
D.Politia
91. In both the Old Testament (Song of
Solomon, Isaiah and Jeremiah) and the New
Testament (Matthew and John), finds
references to _________whose duty it was
to protect the city and arrest offenders.
A.Detective
B.Patrol
C.Watchmen
D.police
91. In both the Old Testament (Song of
Solomon, Isaiah and Jeremiah) and the New
Testament (Matthew and John), finds
references to _________whose duty it was
to protect the city and arrest offenders.
A.Detective
B.Patrol
C.Watchmen
D.police
92. Some believe that the present type
badge used by some police departments had
its origin with the _______
A.Shield of the knights
B.Shield of the Vigiles
C.Shield of Lapu-Lapu
D.All of the above
92. Some believe that the present type
badge used by some police departments had
its origin with the _______
A.Shield of the knights
B.Shield of the Vigiles
C.Shield of Lapu-Lapu
D.All of the above
93. In the United States, in year 1634 was
the development of the first _______
A.Police
B.Constable
C.Firefighters
D.All of the above
93. In the United States, in year 1634 was
the development of the first _______
A.Police
B.Constable
C.Firefighters
D.All of the above
94. During the World War II ________
required police men to get college
education and the “New Breed” was born.
A.GI bill
B.Taft order
C.McArthur’s Order
D.General Order
94. During the World War II ________
required police men to get college
education and the “New Breed” was born.
A.GI bill
B.Taft order
C.McArthur’s Order
D.General Order
95. He became the first Filipino Police
Chief in Manila.
A.Col. Marcus Elis Jones
B.Col. Antonio C. Torres
C.Capt. Henry T. allen
D.Gen. Rafael Crame
95. He became the first Filipino Police
Chief in Manila.
A.Col. Marcus Elis Jones
B.Col. Antonio C. Torres
C.Capt. Henry T. allen
D.Gen. Rafael Crame
96. When did Col. Torres declared manila
as an open city.
A.August 8, 1936
B.December 8, 1941
C.February 8, 1940
D.March 8, 1939
96. When did Col. Torres declared manila
as an open city.
A.August 8, 1936
B.December 8, 1941
C.February 8, 1940
D.March 8, 1939
97. In year 1935 the American Police Force
withdrawn with the advent of the
Commonwealth and he was the last American
Police Chief in Manila.
A.Capt. Columbus Piatt
B.Capot. Henry T. Allen
C.Col. Antonio C. Torres
D.Col. Marcus Elis Jones
97. In year 1935 the American Police Force
withdrawn with the advent of the
Commonwealth and he was the last American
Police Chief in Manila.
A.Capt. Columbus Piatt
B.Capot. Henry T. Allen
C.Col. Antonio C. Torres
D.Col. Marcus Elis Jones
98. San Francisco formed the “Committee of
Vigilance” in lieu of an established
police. Their motto: “Fiat Justitia Ruat
Coelum” means
A.Heaven decrees, Let There Be Justice
B.Heaven give grace to the humble
C.Heaven order thou shall not offend
D.Justice be serve and heaven will lead
98. San Francisco formed the “Committee of
Vigilance” in lieu of an established
police. Their motto: “Fiat Justitia Ruat
Coelum” means
A.Heaven decrees, Let There Be Justice
B.Heaven give grace to the humble
C.Heaven order thou shall not offend
D.Justice be serve and heaven will lead
99. In New York enforcement was aided by
the use of the old legal process known as
________ or the power of the state to
summon assistance in enforcing the law.
A.Posse Comitatus
B.Wanted Poster
C.Bounty hunters
D.All of the above
99. In New York enforcement was aided by
the use of the old legal process known as
________ or the power of the state to
summon assistance in enforcing the law.
A.Posse Comitatus
B.Wanted Poster
C.Bounty hunters
D.All of the above
100. After the passage of the Metropolitan
Police act of 1829 the police force was
later called as
A.Leathermen
B.Bow street runners
C.Scotland yard
D.Bellmen
100. After the passage of the Metropolitan
Police act of 1829 the police force was
later called as
A.Leathermen
B.Bow street runners
C.Scotland yard
D.Bellmen
*** END ***
“There are no limitations to the self. There are no limitations to its
potential. You can adopt artificial limitations through ignorance.”
‐Jane Roberts
LEA 1 (POLICE PLANNING AND OPERATIONS)
SET 1
By
1. After recognizing the need to plan, a
police officer must identify and formulate
the _______.
A. financial requirement of the plan
B. objectives of the plan
C. manpower requirements of the plan
D. linkages and coordinating units
the _______.
2. The ___ of the plan must be considered
thus the need to look into the personal
competence, morale, interest and enthusiasm;
leadership quality and style; availability
of resources.
A. responsiveness C. effectiveness
B. cost-efficiency D. functionality
competence, morale, interest and enthusiasm;
leadership quality and style; availability
of resources.
3. Responsibility for developing implementing plans
(IMPLANS) shall be left to the team assigned to
undertake the activity. This policy, in general,
results in planning which is:
A. More effective, the plans developed shall be
more adequate
B. Less effective, the plans developed will not
benefit the whole police force
C. Less effective, there will be no coordination
among various units
D. More effective, there will be fewer
misinterpretations in execution and there will be
greater will to succeed
3. Responsibility for developing implementing plans
(IMPLANS) shall be left to the team assigned to
undertake the activity. This policy, in general,
results in planning which is:
A. More effective, the plans developed shall be
more adequate
B. Less effective, the plans developed will not
benefit the whole police force
C. Less effective, there will be no coordination
among various units
D. More effective, there will be fewer
misinterpretations in execution and there will be
greater will to succeed
4. Effective crime control necessitates
preventing the development of individuals
as criminals. The police commander shall
recognize a need for preventing crime or
correcting conditions that induce
criminality and by rehabilitating the
delinquent.
A.Traffic Control
B.Vice control
C.Juvenile Delinquency control
D.Investigation
4. Effective crime control necessitates
preventing the development of individuals
as criminals. The police commander shall
recognize a need for preventing crime or
correcting conditions that induce
criminality and by rehabilitating the
delinquent.
A.Traffic Control
B.Vice control
C.Juvenile Delinquency control
D.Investigation
5. General statements and/or
understandings which guide or channel
thinking and action of subordinate is
called
A. Objectives C. Programs
B. Policies D. Decisions
called
6. The work program of a line unit which
must be analyzed according to the nature,
time and place of the tasks and measured
in terms of resource requirements is
called ____.
A. Procedural plan C. Tactical plan
B. Management plan D.Operational plan
6. The work program of a line unit which
must be analyzed according to the nature,
time and place of the tasks and measured
in terms of resource requirements is
called ____.
A. Procedural plan C. Tactical plan
B. Management plan D.Operational plan
7. The type of plan that requires action
and assistance from a person or agencies
outside the police organization is called
____.
A.Extra-departmental plan
B.Procedural plan
C.Management plan
D.Tactical plan
7. The type of plan that requires action
and assistance from a person or agencies
outside the police organization is called
____.
A.Extra-departmental plan
B.Procedural plan
C.Management plan
D.Tactical plan
8. Operational plans are _____ of line
divisions which should be correlated with
the nature and extent of the workload and
the availability of police resources.
A.crime prevention plans
B.work programs
C.administrative plans
D.manpower plan
8. Operational plans are _____ of line
divisions which should be correlated with
the nature and extent of the workload and
the availability of police resources.
A.crime prevention plans
B.work programs
C.administrative plans
D.manpower plan
9. In planning in arrest, the following
elements should be considered, EXCEPT the:
A. protection of bystanders
B. Resources to be used
C. Cost of operation
D. Possible resistance of offender
9. In planning in arrest, the following
elements should be considered, EXCEPT the:
A. protection of bystanders
B. Resources to be used
C. Cost of operation
D. Possible resistance of offender
10. The responsibility of the Chief PNP
and other chiefs of the different units or
headquarters within their area of
jurisdiction to achieve the objectives or
mission of the police organization.
A.External policy planning
B.Internal policy planning
C.Decision making
D.Delegation of authority
10. The responsibility of the Chief PNP
and other chiefs of the different units or
headquarters within their area of
jurisdiction to achieve the objectives or
mission of the police organization.
A.External policy planning
B.Internal policy planning
C.Decision making
D.Delegation of authority
11. Policing is most effective when
A.Community members participate in ride-
along programs
B.Officers stay in the same beat
C.Officers are regularly assigned in new
beats
D.Community members play decision making
roles
11. Policing is most effective when
A.Community members participate in ride-
along programs
B.Officers stay in the same beat
C.Officers are regularly assigned in new
beats
D.Community members play decision making
roles
12. What philosophy integrates police and
community interests and relationships so
as to produce the desired objective of
peace and order?
A. Police – community program
B. Community-oriented policing
C. Problem-oriented policing
D. Team policing
12. What philosophy integrates police and
community interests and relationships so
as to produce the desired objective of
peace and order?
A. Police – community program
B. Community-oriented policing
C. Problem-oriented policing
D. Team policing
13. Plans to cope with strikes and pickets
fall under the category of:
A. Procedural plan C.Tactical plan
B. Operational plan D.Management plan
13. Plans to cope with strikes and pickets
fall under the category of:
A. Procedural plan C.Tactical plan
B. Operational plan D.Management plan
14. An effective patrol strategy hinges on
the following, except _____
A.Adequacy of the resources of police
station
B.Training of patrol officers
C.Commitment of patrol officers
D.Qualifications of the patrol supervisor
station
15. Two cardinal principles of _____ are
1: the police should get there first and
2: they should be in sufficient force.
A.Decisive police action
B.Crowd control
C.Preparedness
D.Positive police action
15. Two cardinal principles of _____ are
1: the police should get there first and
2: they should be in sufficient force.
A.Decisive police action
B.Crowd control
C.Preparedness
D.Positive police action
16. When the operational plan is formulated
by the assigned team, the success of its
implementation is greater in view of _____
A.Effective linkage of other agencies
B.More adequate resources shall be given to
the plan
C.Adequate number of personnel involved
D.Effective consideration of all aspects of
the operations and each team member feels
ownership of the plan
16. When the operational plan is formulated
by the assigned team, the success of its
implementation is greater in view of _____
A.Effective linkage of other agencies
B.More adequate resources shall be given to
the plan
C.Adequate number of personnel involved
D.Effective consideration of all aspects of
the operations and each team member feels
ownership of the plan
17. In a patrol section or unit, plans for
responding to major accidents or disaster
is classified as ______.
A.Tactical plan
B.Management plan
C.Procedural plan
D.Extra-departmental plan
17. In a patrol section or unit, plans for
responding to major accidents or disaster
is classified as ______.
A.Tactical plan
B.Management plan
C.Procedural plan
D.Extra-departmental plan
18. These are the procedures for coping
with specific situations at known
locations such as plans for dealing with
an attack against buildings, attack
against the PNP headquarters by
lawless elements.
A.Procedural Plan
B.Reactive Plan
C.Proactive Plan
D.Tactical Plan
18. These are the procedures for coping
with specific situations at known
locations such as plans for dealing with
an attack against buildings, attack
against the PNP headquarters by
lawless elements.
A.Procedural Plan
B.Reactive Plan
C.Proactive Plan
D.Tactical Plan
19. A police station must have a _____
plan which includes every process and step
that have been outlined and officially
adopted as the standard method of action
to be followed by members of the PNP.
A.Operational
B.Tactical
C.Procedural
D.Management
19. A police station must have a _____
plan which includes every process and step
that have been outlined and officially
adopted as the standard method of action
to be followed by members of the PNP.
A.Operational
B.Tactical
C.Procedural
D.Management
20. Is an organized schedule or sequence
by methodical activities intended to
attain a goal and objectives for the
accomplishments of mission or objectives.
A. Procedure
B. Plan
C. Strategy
D. Alternative
20. Is an organized schedule or sequence
by methodical activities intended to
attain a goal and objectives for the
accomplishments of mission or objectives.
A. Procedure
B. Plan
C. Strategy
D. Alternative
21. The process of determining the problem
of the organization and coming up with
proposed resolutions and finding the best
Solution is called –
A. Staffing
B. Organizing
C. Planning
D. Coordinating
21. The process of determining the problem
of the organization and coming up with
proposed resolutions and finding the best
Solution is called –
A. Staffing
B. Organizing
C. Planning
D. Coordinating
22. The body of principles officially
accepted and taught about as the best way
of conducting public safety functions
namely: law enforcement, crime prevention
and control, maintenance of peace and
order, fire safety protection, jail
management and penology and social defense
in general, is called –
A. Public Safety Doctrine
B. Police Operational Doctrine
C. Public Trust Doctrine
D. The Peel Principles
22. The body of principles officially
accepted and taught about as the best way
of conducting public safety functions
namely: law enforcement, crime prevention
and control, maintenance of peace and
order, fire safety protection, jail
management and penology and social defense
in general, is called –
A. Public Safety Doctrine
B. Police Operational Doctrine
C. Public Trust Doctrine
D. The Peel Principles
23. Among the following, which one best
define the doctrine of maximum tolerance?
A.Crying policeman
B.Anger should be minimized at the heat
of a public chaos
C.Force is necessary when properly
ordered
D.No warning shot during police
interventions
A.Crying policeman
B.Anger should be minimized at the heat
of a public chaos
C.Force is necessary when properly
ordered
interventions
24. A specific design, method or course of
action to attain a particular objective in
consonance with strategy.
A.Strategy
B.Policy
C.Guidelines
D.Tactic
action to attain a particular objective in
consonance with strategy.
A.Strategy
B.Policy
C.Guidelines
D.Tactic
25. Is the basic principle in planning,
organization and management of the PNP in
support of the overall pursuits of the PNP
Vision, mission and strategic action plan
of the attainment of the national
objectives.
A.Operational Doctrine
B.Functional Doctrine
C.Fundamental Doctrine
D.All of the above
25. Is the basic principle in planning,
organization and management of the PNP in
support of the overall pursuits of the PNP
Vision, mission and strategic action plan
of the attainment of the national
objectives.
A.Operational Doctrine
B.Functional Doctrine
C.Fundamental Doctrine
D.All of the above
26. In police planning, the plan is
suitable when the course of action is
evaluated in accordance with general
policies, rules and laws. It is ___ when
the plan is appraised of the effects of a
number of factors weighed separately.
A. Acceptable
B. Feasible
C. Cost effective
D. Adjustable
26. In police planning, the plan is
suitable when the course of action is
evaluated in accordance with general
policies, rules and laws. It is ___ when
the plan is appraised of the effects of a
number of factors weighed separately.
A. Acceptable
B. Feasible
C. Cost effective
D. Adjustable
27. ___ is a series of preliminary
decisions on framework, which in turn
guides subsequent decisions that generate
the nature and direction of an
organization.
A. Visioning
B. Mission-Vision formulation
C. Strategic Planning
D. Goal orientation
27. ___ is a series of preliminary
decisions on framework, which in turn
guides subsequent decisions that generate
the nature and direction of an
organization.
A. Visioning
B. Mission-Vision formulation
C. Strategic Planning
D. Goal orientation
28. What is the policing system that is
focused on the problem that serves as root
causes or breeding grounds of crime?
A. Policing through participative law
enforcement
B. Problem Solving policing
C. Community oriented policing
D. Political Era
28. What is the policing system that is
focused on the problem that serves as root
causes or breeding grounds of crime?
A. Policing through participative law
enforcement
B. Problem Solving policing
C. Community oriented policing
D. Political Era
29. These are group- or activity-specific
lists of things to be done to prove or
disprove hypotheses. Unknown persons or
locations that need to be investigated are
pointed out. The focus is usually on
geographic territory.
A. Collection Plan
B. Commodity flow chart
C. Demographic analysis
D. Composite table
29. These are group- or activity-specific
lists of things to be done to prove or
disprove hypotheses. Unknown persons or
locations that need to be investigated are
pointed out. The focus is usually on
geographic territory.
A. Collection Plan
B. Commodity flow chart
C. Demographic analysis
D. Composite table
30. The CODE-P strategic plan of the PNP
under the administration of Gen. A.
Purisima, being the Chief PNP, states that
C in the acronym CODE is –
A. Control
B. Competence
C. Coordination
D. Crime prevention
30. The CODE-P strategic plan of the PNP
under the administration of Gen. A.
Purisima, being the Chief PNP, states that
C in the acronym CODE is –
A. Control
B. Competence
C. Coordination
D. Crime prevention
31. The police strategic plan 2030 of the
PNP is PATROL 2030. P in the acronym
PATROL means –
A. Prevention of Crime
B. Peace and Order
C. Protection of lives and Properties
D. Program
31. The police strategic plan 2030 of the
PNP is PATROL 2030. P in the acronym
PATROL means –
A. Prevention of Crime
B. Peace and Order
C. Protection of lives and Properties
D. Program
32. What operational plan can be prepared
in relation to police visibility patrol?
A. Oplan Sagip-yagit
B. Oplan Laging Handa
C. Oplan Tulong sa Nasalanta
D. Oplan Bantay Bata
A. Oplan Sagip-yagit
B. Oplan Laging Handa
C. Oplan Tulong sa Nasalanta
D. Oplan Bantay Bata
33. Because of the frequent changes of living
conditions in urban communities the roles of the
police becomes varied and complex, hence
community participation is an important
ingredient in the accomplishment of the said
functions. Which of the following policing
concepts can be applied to impose community
support on policing programs?
A. We are the police for the people
B. The police is the public, the public is the
police
C. Police “harana” principle
D. The police is public trust
33. Because of the frequent changes of living
conditions in urban communities the roles of the
police becomes varied and complex, hence
community participation is an important
ingredient in the accomplishment of the said
functions. Which of the following policing
concepts can be applied to impose community
support on policing programs?
A. We are the police for the people
B. The police is the public, the public is the
police
C. Police “harana” principle
D. The police is public trust
34. These are work programs of the top
management unit which related to the
nature and extent of the workload and the
availability of resources.
A. Administrative plan
B. Operational plan
C. Tactical plan
D. OPLAN
34. These are work programs of the top
management unit which related to the
nature and extent of the workload and the
A. Administrative plan
B. Operational plan
C. Tactical plan
D. OPLAN
35. What do we call police activities
involving raid, checkpoint, civil
disturbance management, etc?
A. Operational patrol
B. Police Intervention Operations
C. Log Police Info
D. Intelligence network
35. What do we call police activities
involving raid, checkpoint, civil
disturbance management, etc?
A. Operational patrol
B. Police Intervention Operations
C. Log Police Info
D. Intelligence network
36. The budget is a _________________ in
terms of expenditure requirements.
A. tactical plan
B. financial plan
C. work plan
D. control plan
36. The budget is a _________________ in
terms of expenditure requirements.
A. tactical plan
B. financial plan
C. work plan
D. control plan
37. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the
Chief of Police of a municipality. He
wants his subordinates to be drawn closer
to the people in the different barangays.
What should be the appropriate plan for
him to implement?
A. Oplan Dalampasigan
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Oplan Pagbabago
37. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the
Chief of Police of a municipality. He
wants his subordinates to be drawn closer
to the people in the different barangays.
What should be the appropriate plan for
him to implement?
A. Oplan Dalampasigan
B. Oplan Bakal
C. Oplan Sandugo
D. Oplan Pagbabago
38. Which of the following is also called
Master Plan?
A. Intermediate Range Plan
B. Strategic Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. Short Plan
38. Which of the following is also called
Master Plan?
A. Intermediate Range Plan
B. Strategic Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. Short Plan
39. What is the appropriate operational
plan designed to meet the needs of the
police during celebration of the All Souls
Day or All Saints Day in the Philippines?
A. Oplan Kalakal
B. Oplan Grasa
C. Oplan Kaluluwa
D. Oplan Termites
39. What is the appropriate operational
plan designed to meet the needs of the
police during celebration of the All Souls
Day or All Saints Day in the Philippines?
A. Oplan Kalakal
B. Oplan Grasa
C. Oplan Kaluluwa
D. Oplan Termites
40. In the history of our police force,
who was the Director General of the
Philippine National Police (PNP) who
popularized the strategic goal POLICE
2000?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
40. In the history of our police force,
who was the Director General of the
Philippine National Police (PNP) who
popularized the strategic goal POLICE
2000?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
the _______.
the _______.
competence, morale, interest and
enthusiasm; leadership quality and style;
43. Contingency planning in crisis
management is important because it enables
the Crisis Action Team to:
A.be prepared when a crises arise
B.manage the crisis effectively
C.prevent the crisis
D.contain damage effectively
43. Contingency planning in crisis
management is important because it enables
the Crisis Action Team to:
A.be prepared when a crises arise
B.manage the crisis effectively
C.prevent the crisis
D.contain damage effectively
44. Upon receipt of a report that a
hostage-taking incident is in progress the
PNP Command/Unit having jurisdiction over
the scene, shall immediately endeavor to
A.assault
B.isolate
C.prepare a plan
D.negotiate
44. Upon receipt of a report that a
hostage-taking incident is in progress the
PNP Command/Unit having jurisdiction over
the scene, shall immediately endeavor to
A.assault
B.isolate
C.prepare a plan
D.negotiate
45. This is responsible for all decision
making in a hostage situation.
A.Command Group
B.Operating Group
C.Negotiator
D.Administrative Group
45. This is responsible for all decision
making in a hostage situation.
A.Command Group
B.Operating Group
C.Negotiator
D.Administrative Group
46. One of the following is a Crisis
Action team duties after a crisis:
A.Delegate authority
B.Follow Organizational Policies
C.Ensure log maintenance
D.Debrief Personnel
46. One of the following is a Crisis
Action team duties after a crisis:
A.Delegate authority
B.Follow Organizational Policies
C.Ensure log maintenance
D.Debrief Personnel
47. The group responsible for checking the
hostage scene after the incident, if it is
free from booby traps
A.Special Equipment Team
B.Search and Recovery Team
C.Intelligence Team
D.EODT
47. The group responsible for checking the
hostage scene after the incident, if it is
free from booby traps
A.Special Equipment Team
B.Search and Recovery Team
C.Intelligence Team
D.EODT
48. In the strategic process SWOT
analysis are the following:
I.Strength
II.Threats
III.Vulnerabilities
IV.Training
V.Operations
VI.Opportunities
A.I, II, V, VI C. I, II, III, VI
B.I, II, IV, VI D. I, II, III, IV
48. In the strategic process SWOT
analysis are the following:
I.Strength
II.Threats
III.Vulnerabilities
IV.Training
V.Operations
VI.Opportunities
A.I, II, V, VI C. I, II, III, VI
B.I, II, IV, VI D. I, II, III, IV
49. Shortest range plan are prepared at
what level of the police organization
A.middle management
B.unit command
C.lowest command
D.top management
49. Shortest range plan are prepared at
what level of the police organization
A.middle management
B.unit command
C.lowest command
D.top management
50. Any association, organization,
political group or party organized for the
purpose of over throwing the government of
the Republic of the Philippines by force,
violence or deceit.
A.subversive organization
B.police emergency
C.specific emergency
D.illegal association
50. Any association, organization,
political group or party organized for the
purpose of over throwing the government of
the Republic of the Philippines by force,
violence or deceit.
A.subversive organization
B.police emergency
C.specific emergency
D.illegal association
51. The ultimate means of maintaining
public order during riot or mob is the use
of:
A.Force
B.wedge formation
C.discipline
D.barricade
51. The ultimate means of maintaining
public order during riot or mob is the use
of:
A.Force
B.wedge formation
C.discipline
D.barricade
52. A type of operational plan in terms of
time used for addressing immediate needs:
A.short-range plan
B.middle-range plan
C.future-range plan
D.long-range plan
52. A type of operational plan in terms of
time used for addressing immediate needs:
A.short-range plan
B.middle-range plan
C.future-range plan
D.long-range plan
53. The best formation for the police in
controlling riot or mob:
A.line formation
B.diagonal formation
C.interlocked armed formation
D.wedge formation
53. The best formation for the police in
controlling riot or mob:
A.line formation
B.diagonal formation
C.interlocked armed formation
D.wedge formation
54. In riot control, it is a must for the
police to have proper:
A.training and uniforms
B.discipline and uniforms
C.formation and organization
D.training and discipline
54. In riot control, it is a must for the
police to have proper:
A.training and uniforms
B.discipline and uniforms
C.formation and organization
D.training and discipline
55. A command post located at the nearest
area of a disaster:
A.real command post
B.advance command post
C.outpost
D.headquarter
55. A command post located at the nearest
area of a disaster:
A.real command post
B.advance command post
C.outpost
D.headquarter
56. Before conducting a raid, the raiding
party should be armed with:
A.search warrant
B.M16
C.Cal .45
D.warrant of arrest
56. Before conducting a raid, the raiding
party should be armed with:
A.search warrant
B.M16
C.Cal .45
D.warrant of arrest
action to attain objectives in consonance
with strategy:
A.procedure
B.plan
C.strategy
D.tactic
action to attain objectives in consonance
with strategy:
A.procedure
B.plan
C.strategy
D.tactic
58. Any mass or group action or assemblies
of person stage in order to express
sympathy or support for an opposition or
protest against official or government
action or some political, economic or
social condition:
A.strike
B.picket
C.riot
D.demonstration / rally
58. Any mass or group action or assemblies
of person stage in order to express
sympathy or support for an opposition or
protest against official or government
action or some political, economic or
social condition:
A.strike
B.picket
C.riot
D.demonstration / rally
59. Planning is a formal process of
choosing the following, EXCEPT
A.purpose for which the organization
performs
B.an organizational mission and overall
objectives for both the short and long
run
C.strategies to achieve the objectives
D.divisional, departmental and
individual objective based on
organizational objective
59. Planning is a formal process of
choosing the following, EXCEPT
A.purpose for which the organization
performs
B.an organizational mission and overall
objectives for both the short and long
run
C.strategies to achieve the objectives
D.divisional, departmental and
individual objective based on
organizational objective
60. It is a specific commitment to achieve
a measurable result within a specific
period of time?
A.Strategy
B.Goal
C.Objective
D.Procedure
60. It is a specific commitment to achieve
a measurable result within a specific
period of time?
A.Strategy
B.Goal
C.Objective
D.Procedure
61. These are work programs of line
division which related to the nature and
extend of the ______ workload and the
availability of resource.
A.administrative plan
B.operational plan
C.strategic plan
D.tactical plan
division which related to the nature and
extend of the ______ workload and the
availability of resource.
B.operational plan
C.strategic plan
D.tactical plan
62. Which of the following is the most
important characteristics of a good
operational plan?
A. only one officer is reasonable for his
execution
B. need for on-the-operation modification
and amplification is minimized
C. present objectives and allocation of
resources but not the methodology
D. all the details of the plans are
properly identified and evaluated and such
details are known by the implementers.
important characteristics of a good
operational plan?
A. only one officer is reasonable for his
execution
B. need for on-the-operation modification
and amplification is minimized
C. present objectives and allocation of
resources but not the methodology
D. all the details of the plans are
properly identified and evaluated and such
details are known by the implementers.
63. Your fire station received a call that
the Department Store “A” is burning.
Considering the huge facility and merchandise
of said department store, there is a need to?
A. Study the problem in advance and
formulate method of attack
B. Wait for further information about
progress of incident
C. Proceed to the area and start putting
off the fire
D. Organize the committee to direct fire
fighting
63. Your fire station received a call that
the Department Store “A” is burning.
Considering the huge facility and merchandise
of said department store, there is a need to?
A. Study the problem in advance and
formulate method of attack
B. Wait for further information about
progress of incident
C. Proceed to the area and start putting
off the fire
D. Organize the committee to direct fire
fighting
64. In disaster control operation, there
is a need to establish a ______________
where telephone or other means of
communication shall ensure public lines of
communication.
A. Command post B. Field room
C. Operation center D. Safe house
64. In disaster control operation, there
is a need to establish a ______________
where telephone or other means of
communication shall ensure public lines of
communication.
A. Command post B. Field room
C. Operation center D. Safe house
65. The budget is ___________ in terms of
expenditure requirements.
A. Tactical plan B. Work plan
C. Financial plan D. Control plan
65. The budget is ___________ in terms of
expenditure requirements.
A. Tactical plan B. Work plan
C. Financial plan D. Control plan
66. Two or more persons forming an
organization must identify first the
reason for establishing such
organizations. They must identify the
organizations ________________.
A. Strategy B. Vision
C. Objective D. Mission
66. Two or more persons forming an
organization must identify first the
reason for establishing such
organizations. They must identify the
organizations ________________.
A. Strategy B. Vision
C. Objective D. Mission
67. Designed to outline a series of
related operations to accomplice a common
objective normally within a given period
of time.
A. Contingency plan B. Supporting plan
C. Strategic plan D. Campaign plan
67. Designed to outline a series of
related operations to accomplice a common
objective normally within a given period
of time.
A. Contingency plan B. Supporting plan
C. Strategic plan D. Campaign plan
68. Which of the following best reflects
the first step, logically and to some
extent chronologically, in planning the
budget for an operating unit of the police
agency?
A. forecast of workload
B. find out how much money was given
last
C. establish a priority for each task or
activity
D. assess the prior budget spend by
previous administrative officers
68. Which of the following best reflects
the first step, logically and to some
extent chronologically, in planning the
budget for an operating unit of the police
agency?
A. forecast of workload
B. find out how much money was given
last
C. establish a priority for each task or
activity
D. assess the prior budget spend by
previous administrative officers
69. Which of the statement is TRUE?
A. In a small police station, the need
for a full time Records officer is
justifiable.
B. As police stations increases its
size, routine Desk officer is not able
to hand them all.
C. Police records are not that important
in police administration.
D. In large Departments, the Desk
officer devote full time exclusively to
record task.
A. In a small police station, the need
for a full time Records officer is
justifiable.
B. As police stations increases its
size, routine Desk officer is not able
to hand them all.
D. In large Departments, the Desk
officer devote full time exclusively to
record task.
70. A police station should have
_______________ plan which includes every
step that has been outlined and officially
adopted as the standard method of action to
be followed by the members of the police
organization.
A. tactical plan B. management plan
C. procedural plan D. operational plan
70. A police station should have
_______________ plan which includes every
step that has been outlined and officially
adopted as the standard method of action to
be followed by the members of the police
organization.
71. Which of the following is considered
as the most important factor in
formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. adequacy of resources of police
station
C. rank of the patrol commander
D. salary rates of police personnel
station
72. _______________ Plan relates to the
problem of equipping, staffing and preparing
the police station to do job rather than the
actual operation of the organization.
A. Tactical plan B. Management plan
C. Procedural plan D. Operational plan
72. _______________ Plan relates to the
problem of equipping, staffing and preparing
the police station to do job rather than the
actual operation of the organization.
A. Tactical plan B. Management plan
C. Procedural plan D. Operational plan
73. In undertaking a long range program
directly toward simplification of the
police records, the first step should be a
study of:
A. mechanic in which the current systems
operate
B. utilization of existing record system
C. administrative structure of the
organization
D. record system of similar organization
73. In undertaking a long range program
directly toward simplification of the
police records, the first step should be a
study of:
A. mechanic in which the current systems
operate
B. utilization of existing record system
C. administrative structure of the
organization
D. record system of similar organization
74. These procedure relates to the
assignment and method of performance of
police task away from headquarters.
A. Field procedures
B. Staff procedure
C. Headquarters procedure
D. System procedure
74. These procedure relates to the
assignment and method of performance of
police task away from headquarters.
A. Field procedures
B. Staff procedure
C. Headquarters procedure
D. System procedure
75. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10
years is called;
A. annual plan B. long-term plan
C. strategic plan D. Midterm plan
75. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 10
years is called;
A. annual plan B. long-term plan
C. strategic plan D. Midterm plan
76. Plans can be change to meet future
requirements which were not considered
during the planning stages. This indicates
________________ in planning.
A. Responsiveness B. Efficiency
C. Flexibility D. Effectiveness
76. Plans can be change to meet future
requirements which were not considered
during the planning stages. This indicates
________________ in planning.
A. Responsiveness B. Efficiency
C. Flexibility D. Effectiveness
77. It includes every procedure that has
been outlined and officially adopted as
the standard method of action to be
followed by members of the police
organizations.
77. It includes every procedure that has
been outlined and officially adopted as
the standard method of action to be
followed by members of the police
organizations.
78. Before the objective of a plan can be
formulated, the following must be
recognized:
A. what resources are necessary to carry
out the plan
B. who will implement the plan
C. when will be it implemented
D. the need to plan
78. Before the objective of a plan can be
formulated, the following must be
recognized:
A. what resources are necessary to carry
out the plan
B. who will implement the plan
C. when will be it implemented
D. the need to plan
79. What is the new concept, police
strategy which integrates the police and
the community interests into a working
relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive Patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team Policing
D. Directed Patrol
relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
C. Team Policing
D. Directed Patrol
divisions which related to the nature and
extent of the workload and the
B.operational plan
C.strategic plan
D.tactical plan
divisions which related to the nature and
extent of the workload and the
B.operational plan
C.strategic plan
D.tactical plan
81. Which of the following refers to the
long range planning?
A.Intermediate
B.Strategic
C.Medium
D.Short
81. Which of the following refers to the
long range planning?
A.Intermediate
B.Strategic
C.Medium
D.Short
82. A police strategy which aims to
directly involve members of the community
in the maintenance of peace and order by
police officers.
A.Integrated Police System
B.Comparative Police System
C.Police Visibility
D.Community Oriented Policing System(COPS)
82. A police strategy which aims to
directly involve members of the community
in the maintenance of peace and order by
police officers.
A.Integrated Police System
B.Comparative Police System
C.Police Visibility
D.Community Oriented Policing System(COPS)
83. Describes the procedures and defines
the duties of officers assigned to
specific post or position.
A.Department rule
B.Code of Ethical Standard
C.Duty Manual
D.Code of Conduct
83. Describes the procedures and defines
the duties of officers assigned to
specific post or position.
A.Department rule
B.Code of Ethical Standard
C.Duty Manual
D.Code of Conduct
84. Planning is a management function
concerned with the following, except:
A.visualizing future situations
B.making estimates concerning them
C.making money
D.identifying issues
84. Planning is a management function
concerned with the following, except:
A.visualizing future situations
B.making estimates concerning them
C.making money
D.identifying issues
85. Police administrators sometimes do not
appreciate the importance of planning
because
A.of their pattern of career development
B.people do not admire them
C.influential politicians involved in
planning
D.of positive view about planning
85. Police administrators sometimes do not
appreciate the importance of planning
because
A.of their pattern of career development
B.people do not admire them
C.influential politicians involved in
planning
D.of positive view about planning
86. Police Planning is an integral element
of good management and
A.Business administration
B.good police decision-making
C.prediction
D.performance
86. Police Planning is an integral element
of good management and
A.Business administration
B.good police decision-making
C.prediction
D.performance
87. According to Hudzik and Cordner,
planning is
A.Visioning
B.thinking what is right and doing what
is best
C.thinking about the future and what we
need to do now to achieve it
D.All of these
87. According to Hudzik and Cordner,
planning is
A.Visioning
B.thinking what is right and doing what
is best
C.thinking about the future and what we
need to do now to achieve it
D.All of these
88. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
A.Vulnerabilities
B.Threats
C.Intelligence
D.Win
88. In SWOT analysis, “W” means:
A.Vulnerabilities
B.Threats
C.Intelligence
D.Win
89. Which among the following is not
included in the 6 Master Plans of the PNP
A.Sandigang-Milenyo
B.Sandugo
C.Banat
D.Pagpapala
included in the 6 Master Plans of the PNP
A.Sandigang-Milenyo
B.Sandugo
C.Banat
D.Pagpapala
90. It refers to the production of plans,
which determine the schedule of special
activity and addresses immediate need
which are specific.
A.Operational Plan
B.Strategic Plan
C.Synoptic Plan
D.Guideline
90. It refers to the production of plans,
which determine the schedule of special
activity and addresses immediate need
which are specific.
A.Operational Plan
B.Strategic Plan
C.Synoptic Plan
D.Guideline
91. To properly achieve the administrative
planning responsibility within in the
unit, the commander shall develop unit
plans relating to, except
A.Policies or procedure
B.Tactics and operations
C.Extra-office activities
D.Interpersonal problems
91. To properly achieve the administrative
planning responsibility within in the
unit, the commander shall develop unit
plans relating to, except
A.Policies or procedure
B.Tactics and operations
C.Extra-office activities
D.Interpersonal problems
92. SOP in police parlance means
A.Standard Operation Procedure
B.Special Operating Procedure
C.Standard Operating procedure
D.Special Operation procedure
92. SOP in police parlance means
A.Standard Operation Procedure
B.Special Operating Procedure
C.Standard Operating procedure
D.Special Operation procedure
93. These are procedures intended to be
used in all situations of all kinds shall
be outlined as a guide to officers and men
in the field.
A.SOPs
B.HQ Procedures
C.Field Procedures
D.None of these
93. These are procedures intended to be
used in all situations of all kinds shall
be outlined as a guide to officers and men
in the field.
A.SOPs
B.HQ Procedures
C.Field Procedures
D.None of these
94. Strictly speaking, one of the
following is not a police field operation
A.Patrol
B.Investigation
C.Intelligence
D.Traffic Operations
94. Strictly speaking, one of the
following is not a police field operation
A.Patrol
B.Investigation
C.Intelligence
D.Traffic Operations
95. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to
A.Neutralization of wanted persons
B.Anti-illegal gambling
C.Anti-carnapping plan
D.None of the above
95. SOP Man Hunt Bravo refers to
A.Neutralization of wanted persons
B.Anti-illegal gambling
C.Anti-carnapping plan
D.None of the above
96. This SOP prescribes the operational
guidelines to be undertaken by the National
Headquarter (NHQ) of PNP in the establishment
of a quick reaction group that can be
detailed with the office of the Secretary of
Interior and Local Government (SILG), with
personnel and equipment requirements of that
reaction group supported by the PNP.
A.OPLAN JERICHO
B.OPLAN JERIMAYA
C.OPLAN THUNDERBOLT
D.OPLAN EXODUS
96. This SOP prescribes the operational
guidelines to be undertaken by the National
Headquarter (NHQ) of PNP in the establishment
of a quick reaction group that can be
detailed with the office of the Secretary of
Interior and Local Government (SILG), with
personnel and equipment requirements of that
reaction group supported by the PNP.
A.OPLAN JERICHO
B.OPLAN JERIMAYA
C.OPLAN THUNDERBOLT
D.OPLAN EXODUS
97. The institutionalization of the
Doctrine of Command Responsibility in all
Government offices
A.EO no. 226
B.PD no. 226
C.RA no. 226
D.Napolcom Circular 226
97. The institutionalization of the
Doctrine of Command Responsibility in all
Government offices
A.EO no. 226
B.PD no. 226
C.RA no. 226
D.Napolcom Circular 226
98. Sets forth the operational guidelines
on the heightened security measures and
sea borne security patrols.
A.Oplan Bantay Dagat
B.Oplan Bantay Katubigan
C.Oplan Bantay Dalampasigan
D.Oplan Sangyaman
98. Sets forth the operational guidelines
on the heightened security measures and
sea borne security patrols.
A.Oplan Bantay Dagat
B.Oplan Bantay Katubigan
C.Oplan Bantay Dalampasigan
D.Oplan Sangyaman
99. _______ are concerned with a specific
purpose and conclude when an objective is
accomplished or a problem is solved.
A.Procedural Plan
B.Visionary Plan
C.Time-specific plan
D.Standing Plan
99. _______ are concerned with a specific
purpose and conclude when an objective is
accomplished or a problem is solved.
A.Procedural Plan
B.Visionary Plan
C.Time-specific plan
D.Standing Plan
100. The operation by the Special Action
Force was intended to capture or kill
wanted Malaysian terrorist and bomb-
maker Zulkifli Abdhir and other Malaysian
terrorists and/or high-ranking members of
the BIFF.
A.Oplan Wolverine
B.Oplan Exodus
C.Oplan ISO
D.Oplan SANDUGO
100. The operation by the Special Action
Force was intended to capture or kill
wanted Malaysian terrorist and bomb-
maker Zulkifli Abdhir and other Malaysian
terrorists and/or high-ranking members of
the BIFF.
A.Oplan Wolverine
B.Oplan Exodus
C.Oplan ISO
D.Oplan SANDUGO
Beware:
Ignorantia est Nescire
LEA 1 (CONCEPT OF POLICE ORGANIZATION AND ADMINISTRATION)
By
1. The principal responsibility for
maintaining an appropriate level of
discipline in a unit rests with the:
A. Immediate line supervisor
B. First line senior police officers
(sergeants)
C. Middle-level supervisor
D. Chief of Police
(sergeants)
D. Chief of Police
2. Who should be dispatched be dispatched
by the police to the crime scene to search
for physical evidence?
A. evidence technician C. legal officer
B. criminal investigator D. foot patrol
2. Who should be dispatched be dispatched
by the police to the crime scene to search
for physical evidence?
A. evidence technician C. legal officer
B. criminal investigator D. foot patrol
3. Which of the following is inseparable
from the principle of delegation?
A. Training
B. Development Of Subordinate
C. Role Modeling
D. Order Giving
A. Training
B. Development Of Subordinate
C. Role Modeling
D. Order Giving
4. The following statements are on
employee morale. Which one is the most
correct?
I.Praising an employee for my job done is
important
II.Morale depends on personal
relationships and working conditions
III.A fair and impartial supervisor is a
positive impetus toward high morale
A.Statements I and II
B.Statements I and III
C.Statements II and III
D.All statements
4. The following statements are on
employee morale. Which one is the most
correct?
important
II.Morale depends on personal
relationships and working conditions
D.All statements
5. Which of the following is NOT a staff
function?
A.planning
B.personnel management
C.criminal investigation
D.inspection
function?
A.planning
D.inspection
6. The principle in which an employee
should be under the direct control one and
only immediate supervisor is known as____.
A.Scalar principle
B.Command Responsibility
C.Unity of Command
D.Span of Control
6. The principle in which an employee
should be under the direct control one and
only immediate supervisor is known as____.
A.Scalar principle
B.Command Responsibility
C.Unity of Command
D.Span of Control
7. The campaign to decrease the number of
drug user or deter the would-be drug user
is called_____
A.Demand reduction
B.Drug Control
C.Supply reduction
D.Drug Prevention
7. The campaign to decrease the number of
drug user or deter the would-be drug user
is called_____
A.Demand reduction
B.Drug Control
C.Supply reduction
D.Drug Prevention
8. Which of the following accomplishments
qualifies a police officer to a special
meritorious promotion?
A. Executive C. Operational
B. Procedural D. Administrative
9. IN the Philippine National Police, the
Directorate for ____ exercises command,
control, direction, coordination and
supervision of all PNP operation,
including the deployment and employment of
personnel.
A. Operations
B. Integrated Police Operations
C. Police-community relations
D. None
9. IN the Philippine National Police, the
Directorate for ____ exercises command,
control, direction, coordination and
supervision of all PNP operation,
including the deployment and employment of
personnel.
A. Operations
B. Integrated Police Operations
C. Police-community relations
D. None
10. The Police force shall be organized to
ensure:
A. Global Competitiveness
B. Police Integrity
C. Efficiency in the police service
D. Economic police operations
ensure:
B. Police Integrity
ensure:
B. Police Integrity
ensure:
B. Police Integrity
12. The amount and nature of the demands
of the police service are not the same on
all the three (3) shifts. It is therefore
necessary to make available maximum
manpower at the time the police service is
of greatest demand. This is organization
by ____
A.Purpose
B.Process
C.Clientele
D.Time Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
by ____
A.Purpose
B.Process
C.Clientele
D.Time Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
13. A personnel evaluation system will not
relatively be effective unless _____
A.The ratee is willing to listen and hear
the rater’s suggestions
B.The form is simple and easy to
accomplish
C.The ratee understand the form
D.The rater is trained on how to rate a
subordinate
A.The ratee is willing to listen and hear
the rater’s suggestions
B.The form is simple and easy to
accomplish
subordinate
14. The coordination of the units of
police manpower is called:
A.Coordination of platoons
B.Coordination of functional units
C.Coordination of geographic units
D.Coordination of the force
15. What is referred to as the number of
officers on actual duty at a given time?
A.Authorize strength
B.Mandatory strength
C.Actual strength
D.Effective strength
C.Actual strength
16. What is the other term for scalar
principle?
A.Line of authority
B.Chain of command
C.Unity of command
D.Unity of direction
principle?
A.Line of authority
B.Chain of command
C.Unity of command
17. One method of organizing a complex
organization is to subdivide the work into
small units, with each staff specializing
in one phase of the operation. Which of
the following is a likely disadvantage of
this subdivision of work?
A.More difficult coordination of work
B.More costly operation
C.More training requirements
D.Poorer quality of work
18. Police _____ comes from the people,
their laws and instructions
A.Authority
B.Work
C.Command
D.Responsibility
A.Authority
B.Work
C.Command
D.Responsibility
19. Supervision is:
A.Seeing to it that someone is responsible
for a particular task
B.Giving the right commands to a
subordinate
C.Seeing to it that a job is done properly
in accordance with the direction given
D.All of these
19. Supervision is:
A.Seeing to it that someone is responsible
for a particular task
B.Giving the right commands to a
subordinate
C.Seeing to it that a job is done properly
in accordance with the direction given
D.All of these
20. What is the process of directing and
controlling the resources of an
organization?
A.Organization
B.Supervision
C.Planning
D.Management
organization?
A.Organization
B.Supervision
C.Planning
D.Management
21. It is the process of directing and
controlling people and things so that
organizational objectives can be
accomplished.
A.Intervention
B.Assessment
C.Management
D.Recruitment
accomplished.
A.Intervention
B.Assessment
C.Management
D.Recruitment
an auxillary police function?
A.Intelligence
B.Traffic investigation
C.Patrol
D.Crime laboratory services
an auxillary police function?
A.Intelligence
B.Traffic investigation
C.Patrol
D.Crime laboratory services
23. Accepting gratuities and bribes is a
form of police _____
A.Indiscretion
B.Corruption
C.Protection
D.Conflict
23. Accepting gratuities and bribes is a
form of police _____
A.Indiscretion
B.Corruption
C.Protection
D.Conflict
24. Which of the following type of
training consolidates, deepens and
broadens skills and knowledge for a
particular task function or aspect of
personnel’s work?
A.Refresher
B.Retraining
C.Upgrading
D.Specialization
personnel’s work?
A.Refresher
B.Retraining
C.Upgrading
D.Specialization
25. A single uninterrupted line of
authority-often represented by boxes lines
of organizational chart should run in
order by rank from top command to the
level of the organization.
A. organizational control
B. scalar chain
C. administrative control
D. span of control
authority-often represented by boxes lines
A. organizational control
B. scalar chain
C. administrative control
D. span of control
26. Intelligence is under what type of
police function?
A.Primary
B.Auxiliary
C.Administrative
D.Secondary
police function?
A.Primary
B.Auxiliary
C.Administrative
D.Secondary
27. Police personnel may be effectively
distributed according to any of the
following classification, EXCEPT
A. by time B. by function
C. by area D. by gender
27. Police personnel may be effectively
distributed according to any of the
following classification, EXCEPT
A. by time B. by function
C. by area D. by gender
28. It is the entrustment of a particular
workload to some other person within the
organization.
A.Budgeting
B.Delegation
C.Inspection
D.Evaluation
28. It is the entrustment of a particular
workload to some other person within the
organization.
A.Budgeting
B.Delegation
C.Inspection
D.Evaluation
29. What administrative support unit
conducts investigation and evaluation of
physical evidences related to crimes, with
emphasis on their medical, chemical,
biological and physical nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronics Service
D. Finance Center
29. What administrative support unit
conducts investigation and evaluation of
physical evidences related to crimes, with
emphasis on their medical, chemical,
biological and physical nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronics Service
D. Finance Center
30. Those who are charge with actual
fulfillments of agency’s mission
are__________ personnel.
A. Staff B. Management
C. Supervision D. Line
30. Those who are charge with actual
fulfillments of agency’s mission
are__________ personnel.
A. Staff B. Management
C. Supervision D. Line
31. The number of subordinates that can be
supervised directly by one person tends to:
A. increase as the physical distance between
supervisor and subordinate as well as the
individual subordinate increases
B. decrease with an increase in the
knowledge and experience of the subordinate
C. decrease as the duties of subordinates
increase in difficulty and complexity
D. increase as the level of supervision
progresses for the first-line supervisory
level and management level.
31. The number of subordinates that can be
supervised directly by one person tends to:
A. increase as the physical distance between
supervisor and subordinate as well as the
individual subordinate increases
B. decrease with an increase in the
knowledge and experience of the subordinate
C. decrease as the duties of subordinates
increase in difficulty and complexity
D. increase as the level of supervision
progresses for the first-line supervisory
level and management level.
32. Police organization is a group of
trained personnel in the field of public
safety administration. In this context,
public safety means achievement of goals
and objectives that promotes
A.the maintenance of peace and order
B.the protection of life and property
C.enforcement of the laws and the
prevention of crimes
D.all of these
32. Police organization is a group of
trained personnel in the field of public
safety administration. In this context,
public safety means achievement of goals
and objectives that promotes
A.the maintenance of peace and order
B.the protection of life and property
C.enforcement of the laws and the
prevention of crimes
D.all of these
33. In the study of police organizations,
bureau is considered the largest organic
functional unit within a large department.
The second largest functional unit is __.
A.Unit
B.Post
C.Division
D.Battalion
33. In the study of police organizations,
bureau is considered the largest organic
functional unit within a large department.
The second largest functional unit is __.
A.Unit
B.Post
C.Division
D.Battalion
34. Which among the following territorial
units, what is known as the precinct?
A.Area
B.Route
C.Beat
D.Sector
34. Which among the following territorial
units, what is known as the precinct?
A.Area
B.Route
C.Beat
D.Sector
35. In the Metro Manila area, the historic
Manila Police Department is located in
what district?
A.Central Police District (CPD)
B.Northern Police District (NPD)
C.Eastern Police District (EPD)
D.Western Police District (WPD)
35. In the Metro Manila area, the historic
Manila Police Department is located in
what district?
A.Central Police District (CPD)
B.Northern Police District (NPD)
C.Eastern Police District (EPD)
D.Western Police District (WPD)
36. If a sworn officer is a personnel of the
police department who have taken oath and
possesses the power to arrest, a superior
officer is one who
A.has command of the department, a bureau, a
division, an area, or a district
B.has the more senior rank/higher rank in a
team or group
C.possess the power to give discipline among
members of the police force
D.has supervisory responsibilities over
officers of lower rank
36. If a sworn officer is a personnel of the
police department who have taken oath and
possesses the power to arrest, a superior
officer is one who
A.has command of the department, a bureau, a
division, an area, or a district
B.has the more senior rank/higher rank in a
team or group
C.possess the power to give discipline among
members of the police force
D.has supervisory responsibilities over
officers of lower rank
37. PO1 Juan took his oath of office on
June 1, 1991 as a rookie policeman. After
an active life in the service, he opted to
retire on June 2, 2011. What do we call the
period of time that has elapsed since the
oath of office was administered up to the
time of exit from the service?
A.Period of Active Duty
B.Length of Service
C.Period of Oath of Office
D.Longevity Period
37. PO1 Juan took his oath of office on
June 1, 1991 as a rookie policeman. After
an active life in the service, he opted to
retire on June 2, 2011. What do we call the
period of time that has elapsed since the
oath of office was administered up to the
time of exit from the service?
A.Period of Active Duty
B.Length of Service
C.Period of Oath of Office
D.Longevity Period
38. Under the PNP professionalization law,
how long is the period of time when an
officer is declared absent without
official leave (AWOL) and he or she will
be dropped from the rolls of officers of
active service?
A.10 days
B.15 days
C.30 days
D.60 days
38. Under the PNP professionalization law,
how long is the period of time when an
officer is declared absent without
official leave (AWOL) and he or she will
be dropped from the rolls of officers of
active service?
A.10 days
B.15 days
C.30 days
D.60 days
39. The functional organization in its
pure form is rarely found in present day
organizations, except at or near the top
of the very large organizations. In the
PNP organizational structure, the
functional type of organization is
obviously located at
A.the middle level of the hierarchy
B.the upper level of the hierarchy
C.the lower level of the hierarchy
D.all levels of the hierarchy
39. The functional organization in its
pure form is rarely found in present day
organizations, except at or near the top
of the very large organizations. In the
PNP organizational structure, the
functional type of organization is
obviously located at
A.the middle level of the hierarchy
B.the upper level of the hierarchy
C.the lower level of the hierarchy
D.all levels of the hierarchy
40. The design of a police organization
that is considered the simplest, military
type and perhaps the oldest type of
organizational structure?
A.Line type of organization
B.Functional type of organization
C.Matrix type of organization
D.Staff type of organization
40. The design of a police organization
that is considered the simplest, military
type and perhaps the oldest type of
organizational structure?
A.Line type of organization
B.Functional type of organization
C.Matrix type of organization
D.Staff type of organization
41. The line type of organizational
structure is more advantageous over the
functional type in terms of applying the
principle of span of control because
A.there is narrow span of control
B.there is broad span of control
C.there is no span of control
D.span of control is limited to two people
at all times
41. The line type of organizational
structure is more advantageous over the
functional type in terms of applying the
principle of span of control because
A.there is narrow span of control
B.there is broad span of control
C.there is no span of control
D.span of control is limited to two people
at all times
42. The Line and Staff organization is a
combination of the line and functional types.
It combines staff specialist such as the
criminalists, the training officers, the
research and development specialists, etc.
Channels of responsibility for this type is
A.to link upper to the lower commands
B.to “think and provide expertise” for the
line units
C.to prepare operational capabilities of the
units
D.to do the strategic planning processes
42. The Line and Staff organization is a
combination of the line and functional types.
It combines staff specialist such as the
criminalists, the training officers, the
research and development specialists, etc.
Channels of responsibility for this type is
A.to link upper to the lower commands
B.to “think and provide expertise” for the
line units
C.to prepare operational capabilities of the
units
D.to do the strategic planning processes
43. Whatever the method of grouping
internal activities, all bureaucratic
agencies segregate the function of line,
staff, and auxiliary personnel. Which of
the following is a line function?
A.Patrol activities
B.Records keeping
C.Planning and research
D.Logistical operations
43. Whatever the method of grouping
internal activities, all bureaucratic
agencies segregate the function of line,
staff, and auxiliary personnel. Which of
the following is a line function?
A.Patrol activities
B.Records keeping
C.Planning and research
D.Logistical operations
44. What principle of police organization
refers to the assignment of particular
workers to particular tasks which can be
thought of in terms of either jobs or
people?
A.Span of Control
B.Decentralization
C.Delegation of Authority
D.Specialization
44. What principle of police organization
refers to the assignment of particular
workers to particular tasks which can be
thought of in terms of either jobs or
people?
A.Span of Control
B.Decentralization
C.Delegation of Authority
D.Specialization
45. Any collaborative effort in a police
department requires a system of checks and
controls on individual behavior. Hence, the
department must have a person or persons with
authority to direct the actions of workers
and ensure compliance with standards in order
to achieve the department’s goals. This is
why there is such a thing as
A.Delegation of Authority
B.Hierarchy of Authority
C.Command Responsibility
D.Principle of Specialization
45. Any collaborative effort in a police
department requires a system of checks and
controls on individual behavior. Hence, the
department must have a person or persons with
authority to direct the actions of workers
and ensure compliance with standards in order
to achieve the department’s goals. This is
why there is such a thing as
A.Delegation of Authority
B.Hierarchy of Authority
C.Command Responsibility
D.Principle of Specialization
46. ___ is defined as the right to command
and control the behavior of employees in
lower positions within an organizational
hierarchy.
A.Police Power
B.Authority
C.Discipline
D.Command responsibility
46. ___ is defined as the right to command
and control the behavior of employees in
lower positions within an organizational
hierarchy.
A.Police Power
B.Authority
C.Discipline
47. What is illustrated by the situation
in which a subordinate abstains from
making his or her choice among several
courses of action and instead
automatically accepts the choice made by
the supervisor regardless of whether one
personally agrees?
A.Police Power
B.Authority
C.Discipline
47. What is illustrated by the situation
in which a subordinate abstains from
making his or her choice among several
courses of action and instead
automatically accepts the choice made by
the supervisor regardless of whether one
personally agrees?
A.Police Power
B.Authority
C.Discipline
48. Effective organization requires that only a
manageable number of subordinates be supervised
by one person at any given time. This number
will, of course, vary – not only from one
organization to another but also within each
organization depending on the number of task and
the size of personnel available at a given time.
What is being described?
A.Authority
B.Discipline
C.Command responsibility
D.Span of Control
48. Effective organization requires that only a
manageable number of subordinates be supervised
by one person at any given time. This number
will, of course, vary – not only from one
organization to another but also within each
organization depending on the number of task and
the size of personnel available at a given time.
What is being described?
A.Authority
B.Discipline
C.Command responsibility
D.Span of Control
49. In the absence of an officer, where
the position calls for the rank of
Inspector, what organizational principle
should be applied in order to give way for
a Senior Police Officer take the post as
Officer in Charge for a short span of
time?
A.Command responsibility
B.Delegation of Authority
C.Chain of Command
D.Unity of Command
49. In the absence of an officer, where
the position calls for the rank of
Inspector, what organizational principle
should be applied in order to give way for
a Senior Police Officer take the post as
Officer in Charge for a short span of
time?
A.Command responsibility
B.Delegation of Authority
C.Chain of Command
D.Unity of Command
50. Traditional theories of organization
insisted that each employee should have
only one supervisor of “boss”, and
considered this principle as the backbone
of any organizational structure. This
principle refers to
A.Principle of Unity of Command
B.Scalar Chain principle
C.Principle of delegation of authority
D.Principle of Span of Control
50. Traditional theories of organization
insisted that each employee should have
only one supervisor of “boss”, and
considered this principle as the backbone
of any organizational structure. This
principle refers to
51. What principle of organization shows
the vertical hierarchy of the organization
which defines an unbroken chain of units
from top to bottom describing explicitly
the flow of authority?
51. What principle of organization shows
the vertical hierarchy of the organization
which defines an unbroken chain of units
from top to bottom describing explicitly
the flow of authority?
52. Two superior officers are placed on
the same level of authority in command to
at least five subordinates is a clear
violation of
52. Two superior officers are placed on
the same level of authority in command to
at least five subordinates is a clear
violation of
53. The Philippine National Police
organization is guided by the philosophy
of ___ and value the virtues of Maka-Diyos
(God-fearing), Makabayan (Nationalistic),
Makatao (Humane), and Makakalikasan
(Environment –Friendly).
A.Service, Courage, Integrity
B.Service, Honor, Justice
C.Bravery, Honor, Commitment
D.Bravery, Courage, Integrity
53. The Philippine National Police
organization is guided by the philosophy
of ___ and value the virtues of Maka-Diyos
(God-fearing), Makabayan (Nationalistic),
Makatao (Humane), and Makakalikasan
(Environment –Friendly).
A.Service, Courage, Integrity
B.Service, Honor, Justice
C.Bravery, Honor, Commitment
D.Bravery, Courage, Integrity
54. Pursuant to Section 35, of RA No.
6975, the Chief of the PNP shall be
supported by the administrative and
operational units with each unit headed by
a Director with the rank of ___.
A.Inspector
B.Chief Superintendent
C.Senior Superintendent
D.Superintendent
54. Pursuant to Section 35, of RA No.
6975, the Chief of the PNP shall be
supported by the administrative and
operational units with each unit headed by
a Director with the rank of ___.
A.Inspector
B.Chief Superintendent
C.Senior Superintendent
D.Superintendent
55. The PNP is an organization that is national
in scope. National in scope simply means that
the PNP is a nationwide government organization
whose jurisdiction covers the entire breath of
the Philippines archipelago. This statement is –
A.Correct, even extends up to the municipality
of Kalayaan islands in the province of Palawan
B.Incorrect, because the police has limited
territorial power
C.Incorrect, because the PNP is a civilian
organization
D.Correct, a policeman is always a policeman
55. The PNP is an organization that is national
in scope. National in scope simply means that
the PNP is a nationwide government organization
whose jurisdiction covers the entire breath of
the Philippines archipelago. This statement is –
A.Correct, even extends up to the municipality
of Kalayaan islands in the province of Palawan
B.Incorrect, because the police has limited
territorial power
C.Incorrect, because the PNP is a civilian
organization
D.Correct, a policeman is always a policeman
56. A police officer is mirrored to have the
“wisdom of Solomon, the courage of David, the
strength of Samson, the patience of Job, the
leadership of Moses, the faith of Daniel, the
diplomacy of Lincoln, the tolerance of the
carpenter of Nazareth, the kindness of the Good
Samaritan”. If he possesses all these
qualities, then he might be a good policeman as
popularized by
A.Sir Robert Peel
B.August Vollmer
C.James Q. Wilson
D.Henry Fielding
56. A police officer is mirrored to have the
“wisdom of Solomon, the courage of David, the
strength of Samson, the patience of Job, the
leadership of Moses, the faith of Daniel, the
diplomacy of Lincoln, the tolerance of the
carpenter of Nazareth, the kindness of the Good
Samaritan”. If he possesses all these
qualities, then he might be a good policeman as
popularized by
A.Sir Robert Peel
B.August Vollmer
C.James Q. Wilson
D.Henry Fielding
57. The following are philosophies under
which Community Oriented Policing System
(COPS) is founded, except
A.Planning
B.Partnership
C.Problem Solving
D.Proactive
57. The following are philosophies under
which Community Oriented Policing System
(COPS) is founded, except
A.Planning
B.Partnership
C.Problem Solving
D.Proactive
58. The term police administration focuses
on the policing process or how police
agencies are organized and managed in
order to achieve the goals of law
enforcement most effectively, efficiently,
and productively. This statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Neither
D.Either
58. The term police administration focuses
on the policing process or how police
agencies are organized and managed in
order to achieve the goals of law
enforcement most effectively, efficiently,
and productively. This statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Neither
D.Either
59. The basic assumption in understanding
administration is the recognition that
without well-structured and well-managed
institutions of public service, they would
not be effective, efficient, and
impartial. Formal organizations are
A.Structured
B.not structured
C.complicated
D.simple and straight forward
59. The basic assumption in understanding
administration is the recognition that
without well-structured and well-managed
institutions of public service, they would
not be effective, efficient, and
impartial. Formal organizations are
A.Structured
B.not structured
C.complicated
D.simple and straight forward
60. The standard unit of comparison
between militaries is the division. A
division consists of infantry, armor,
artillery, and support under one command
and capable of independent operation for
extended periods of time. Which of the
following has the biggest number of men?
A.Brigade
B.Battalion
C.Company
D.Platoon Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
60. The standard unit of comparison
between militaries is the division. A
division consists of infantry, armor,
artillery, and support under one command
and capable of independent operation for
extended periods of time. Which of the
following has the biggest number of men?
A.Brigade
B.Battalion
C.Company
D.Platoon Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
61. The PLEB is the central receiving body
of all citizen’s complaint against a
member of the PNP. The PLEB is composed of
–
A.5 members
B.7 members
C.9 members
D.None of these
61. The PLEB is the central receiving body
of all citizen’s complaint against a
member of the PNP. The PLEB is composed of
–
A.5 members
B.7 members
C.9 members
D.None of these
62. ___ is the sum of the traits that
serves as an index of the essential
intrinsic nature of a person. It is the
aggregate of distinctive mental and moral
qualities that have been impressed by
nature, education and habit upon the
individual.
A.Moral
B.Integrity
C.Character
D.Loyalty Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
62. ___ is the sum of the traits that
serves as an index of the essential
intrinsic nature of a person. It is the
aggregate of distinctive mental and moral
qualities that have been impressed by
nature, education and habit upon the
individual.
A.Moral
B.Integrity
C.Character
D.Loyalty Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
63. The head of the Internal Affairs
Service of the PNP is –
A.Senior Superintendent
B.Superintendent General
C.Senior Inspector
D.Inspector General
63. The head of the Internal Affairs
Service of the PNP is –
A.Senior Superintendent
B.Superintendent General
C.Senior Inspector
D.Inspector General
64. The classical philosophy of management
that sought to discover the best method of
performing specific task. This is based
from the works of Frederick Taylor.
A.Scientific Management
B.Bureaucratic Model
C.Theory X and Y
D.The Hawthorne Effect
64. The classical philosophy of management
that sought to discover the best method of
performing specific task. This is based
from the works of Frederick Taylor.
A.Scientific Management
B.Bureaucratic Model
C.Theory X and Y
D.The Hawthorne Effect
65. Every organization, to be effective,
must have a structure. What best describe
a structure from the following?
A. Set up
B. Hierarchy
C. Design
D. Drawing
65. Every organization, to be effective,
must have a structure. What best describe
a structure from the following?
A. Set up
B. Hierarchy
C. Design
D. Drawing
66. The organizational structure
determines the hierarchy and flow of
reporting in an organization. Hierarchy is
closest to the concept of –
A.Chain of command
B.Ranking system
C.Chart
D.Leadership style
66. The organizational structure
determines the hierarchy and flow of
reporting in an organization. Hierarchy is
closest to the concept of –
A.Chain of command
B.Ranking system
C.Chart
D.Leadership style
67. The different types of organizational
structures that an organization follow
depends on a variety of factors like the
following, except –
A.Leadership style
B.Type of Organization
C.Gender of Personnel
D.Work Flow
67. The different types of organizational
structures that an organization follow
depends on a variety of factors like the
following, except –
A.Leadership style
B.Type of Organization
C.Gender of Personnel
D.Work Flow
68. What is the kind of structure that has
a specific line of command where approvals
and orders in this kind of structure come
from top to bottom in a line?
A.Line type
B.Functional type
C.Informal type
D.Staff type
68. What is the kind of structure that has
a specific line of command where approvals
and orders in this kind of structure come
from top to bottom in a line?
A.Line type
B.Functional type
C.Informal type
D.Staff type
69. Among the following, what kind of
organizational structure is suitable for
smaller organizations since it is simple
and direct?
A.Functional type
B.Matrix type
C.Line type
D.All of the above
69. Among the following, what kind of
organizational structure is suitable for
smaller organizations since it is simple
and direct?
A.Functional type
B.Matrix type
C.Line type
D.All of the above
70. Which of these best describe the most
advantage of a line type of organization?
A.Simplest kind of organizational
structure
B.Strict authority which results in
stronger discipline
C.Prompt decision which result to quick
and effective action
D.All of the above
70. Which of these best describe the most
advantage of a line type of organization?
A.Simplest kind of organizational
structure
B.Strict authority which results in
stronger discipline
C.Prompt decision which result to quick
and effective action
D.All of the above
71. Which of these best describe the
disadvantage of a line type of
organization?
A.Lack of specialization
B.Superiors can misuse authority for their
benefit
C.Two heads is better than one
D.A and B are correct
71. Which of these best describe the
disadvantage of a line type of
organization?
A.Lack of specialization
B.Superiors can misuse authority for their
benefit
C.Two heads is better than one
D.A and B are correct
72. What organizational structure
characterized by approvals come from top
to bottom at the same time staff
departments are utilized for support and
specialization?
A.Line Type
B.Functional Type
C.Line and Staff Type
D.Mixed Type
72. What organizational structure
characterized by approvals come from top
to bottom at the same time staff
departments are utilized for support and
specialization?
A.Line Type
B.Functional Type
C.Line and Staff Type
D.Mixed Type
73. This kind of organizational structure
classifies people according to the
function they perform in their
professional life or according to the
functions performed by them in the
organization. Which one of the following
is described?
A.Functional type
B.Line type
C.Line and staff type
D.All of these
73. This kind of organizational structure
classifies people according to the
function they perform in their
professional life or according to the
functions performed by them in the
organization. Which one of the following
is described?
A.Functional type
B.Line type
C.Line and staff type
D.All of these
74. Large organizations have offices at
different places, for example, there could
be a north, south, west and east zones.
The organizational structure, in such a
case, follows a zonal structure which are
based on a
A.Matrix structure
B.Geographical structure
C.Bureaucratic structure
D.Product structures
74. Large organizations have offices at
different places, for example, there could
be a north, south, west and east zones.
The organizational structure, in such a
case, follows a zonal structure which are
based on a
A.Matrix structure
B.Geographical structure
C.Bureaucratic structure
D.Product structures
75. A matrix structure of organization is
a combination of function and product
structures thus a complex structure. It
uses teams of employees to accomplish work
by capitalizing on their strengths while
creating weaknesses which are of
functional form. This statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Unknown
D.Depend on leadership style
75. A matrix structure of organization is
a combination of function and product
structures thus a complex structure. It
uses teams of employees to accomplish work
by capitalizing on their strengths while
creating weaknesses which are of
functional form. This statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Unknown
D.Depend on leadership style
76. What characterizes a Bureaucratic
Structure of organization?
A.The structure can be seen in tall
organizations where tasks, processes and
procedures are all standardized.
B.This type is suitable for huge enterprises
that involve complex operations and
require smooth administration of the same.
C.There is strict hierarchies ensure timely
completion of tasks and quality.
D.All of the above
76. What characterizes a Bureaucratic
Structure of organization?
A.The structure can be seen in tall
organizations where tasks, processes and
procedures are all standardized.
B.This type is suitable for huge enterprises
that involve complex operations and
require smooth administration of the same.
C.There is strict hierarchies ensure timely
completion of tasks and quality.
D.All of the above
77. In organizational developments, what
is known as the Horizontal Organization
Structure organization?
A.Flat structure type
B.Vertical structure type
C.Lateral structure type
D.Organic structure type
77. In organizational developments, what
is known as the Horizontal Organization
Structure organization?
A.Flat structure type
B.Vertical structure type
C.Lateral structure type
D.Organic structure type
78. Patrol officers run the greatest risk
in performing this role, which is due in
part to the nature of the laws which they
are expected to enforce. Which one is
described by the statement?
A.Crime prevention
B.Order maintenance
C.Law enforcement
D.Protection of lives and properties
A.Crime prevention
B.Order maintenance
C.Law enforcement
79. The police system in the Philippines
is constitutionally mandated. A
constitution is a system for government,
codified as a written document, which
contains _________
A. fundamental laws and principles of the
land
B. a preamble and body
C. the whole archipelago
D. strict rules of politics and governance
79. The police system in the Philippines
is constitutionally mandated. A
constitution is a system for government,
codified as a written document, which
contains _________
A. fundamental laws and principles of the
land
B. a preamble and body
C. the whole archipelago
D. strict rules of politics and governance
80. The PNP was born during the time of
the so called “Freedom Constitution”.
Which one is called the Freedom
Constitution of the Philippines?
A. Malolos Constitution
B. 1935 Constitution
C. 1973 Constitution
D. 1987 Constitution
80. The PNP was born during the time of
the so called “Freedom Constitution”.
Which one is called the Freedom
Constitution of the Philippines?
A. Malolos Constitution
B. 1935 Constitution
C. 1973 Constitution
D. 1987 Constitution
81. Which of the following is not one among
the nature or purpose of the Philippine
Constitution?
A. It serves as the supreme or fundamental
law
B. It establishes basic framework and
underlying principles of government
C. It must contain a preamble and a
transitory provision
D. It lays down and guides the duties and
powers of the government, and the duties and
rights of its citizens and residents
81. Which of the following is not one among
the nature or purpose of the Philippine
Constitution?
A. It serves as the supreme or fundamental
law
B. It establishes basic framework and
underlying principles of government
C. It must contain a preamble and a
transitory provision
D. It lays down and guides the duties and
powers of the government, and the duties and
rights of its citizens and residents
82. The Police in the Philippines should
enforce the law to protect the rights of
the people especially those in the Bill of
Rights of the Philippine Constitution.
What article in the constitution
enumerates the Bill of Rights?
A. Article II
B. Article III
C. Article IV
D. Article V
82. The Police in the Philippines should
enforce the law to protect the rights of
the people especially those in the Bill of
Rights of the Philippine Constitution.
What article in the constitution
enumerates the Bill of Rights?
A. Article II
B. Article III
C. Article IV
D. Article V
83. The meaning of the Lapu-Lapu image in
the PNP logo is
A. Courage
B. Bravery
C. Integrity
D. Wariorship
83. The meaning of the Lapu-Lapu image in
the PNP logo is
A. Courage
B. Bravery
C. Integrity
D. Wariorship
84. The meaning of the three stars in the
PNP logo is
A. Reflection of Honor, Service, Justice
B. Reflection of Luzon, Visayas, Mindanao
C. That police is a star ranking
organization
D. Policing embodies discipline, action,
professionalism
84. The meaning of the three stars in the
PNP logo is
A. Reflection of Honor, Service, Justice
B. Reflection of Luzon, Visayas, Mindanao
C. That police is a star ranking
organization
D. Policing embodies discipline, action,
professionalism
85. Law enforcement in the Philippines is
premiered by the PNP under the core value
of
A. Service and Protection of the people
B. The People are the Police
C. Humanity and policy
D. Training and discipline
85. Law enforcement in the Philippines is
premiered by the PNP under the core value
of
A. Service and Protection of the people
B. The People are the Police
C. Humanity and policy
D. Training and discipline
86. The PNPs transformation program is
aligned with the provisions of RA 8551
which is
A. The DILG act of 1990
B. The Reformation and Transformation of
the PNP law
C. The NAPOLCOMs battle cry
D. The Modernization law
86. The PNPs transformation program is
aligned with the provisions of RA 8551
which is
A. The DILG act of 1990
B. The Reformation and Transformation of
the PNP law
C. The NAPOLCOMs battle cry
D. The Modernization law
87. Police management today is anchored on
what modern policing approach?
A. Problem solving policing
B. Participative law enforcement
C. Contingency and systems theory
D. Classical theory
87. Police management today is anchored on
what modern policing approach?
A. Problem solving policing
B. Participative law enforcement
C. Contingency and systems theory
D. Classical theory
88. On police perspective, an increase in
rank carries with it an increase in –
A. Level of discipline
B. Authority and Responsibility
C. Salary or compensation
D. Position and power
88. On police perspective, an increase in
rank carries with it an increase in –
A. Level of discipline
B. Authority and Responsibility
C. Salary or compensation
D. Position and power
89. What agency of the government is
responsible as the implementing arm on
police standards upon their release from
the appropriate office?
A. Civil Service Commission
B. Security and Exchange Commission
C. National Police Commission
D. Philippine National Police
89. What agency of the government is
responsible as the implementing arm on
police standards upon their release from
the appropriate office?
A. Civil Service Commission
B. Security and Exchange Commission
C. National Police Commission
D. Philippine National Police
90. Under the law, the Provincial Governor
choose the PNP Provincial Director from a
list of five eligible recommended by the
PNP Director and
A. preferably coming from the same
province, city, municipality
B. preferably the most senior officers
C. preferably a star rank officer
D. preferably upon consultation with the
DILG
90. Under the law, the Provincial Governor
choose the PNP Provincial Director from a
list of five eligible recommended by the
PNP Director and
A. preferably coming from the same
province, city, municipality
B. preferably the most senior officers
C. preferably a star rank officer
D. preferably upon consultation with the
DILG
91. To improve police delegation, the most
primordial consideration to be done is
A. determine the mission of the department
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
91. To improve police delegation, the most
primordial consideration to be done is
A. determine the mission of the department
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
92. Those who are charged with the actual
fulfillment of the police agency’s mission
are _____
A. Staff members
B. Supervisors
C. Liason Officers
D. Line unit members
92. Those who are charged with the actual
fulfillment of the police agency’s mission
are _____
A. Staff members
B. Supervisors
C. Liason Officers
D. Line unit members
93. The PNP in-service training programs
are under the responsibility of the ______
A. Directorate for Plans
B. Directorate for Human Resource and
Doctrine Development
C. Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. Directorate for Comptrollership
93. The PNP in-service training programs
are under the responsibility of the ______
A. Directorate for Plans
B. Directorate for Human Resource and
C. Directorate for Personnel and Records
Management
D. Directorate for Comptrollership
94. What is the so called mother principle
of police organizational structures?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
94. What is the so called mother principle
of police organizational structures?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
95. Governors and mayors, upon having been
elected and having qualified as such, are
empowered to employ and deploy members of
the PNP. Employ here means
A. Utilization of the PNP elements
B. Assigning PNP members to any point of
the country
C. Proper movements of troops
D. Activation as body guards
95. Governors and mayors, upon having been
elected and having qualified as such, are
empowered to employ and deploy members of
the PNP. Employ here means
A. Utilization of the PNP elements
B. Assigning PNP members to any point of
the country
C. Proper movements of troops
D. Activation as body guards
96. When we say that a commander is
directly responsible for any act or
omission of his subordinates in relation
to the performance of their official
duties, we are referring to
A. Chain of command
B. Delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. Span of control
96. When we say that a commander is
directly responsible for any act or
omission of his subordinates in relation
to the performance of their official
duties, we are referring to
A. Chain of command
B. Delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. Span of control
97. The act of increasing the rank of an
officer is called promotion; ___ is
reducing his level of authority and
privilege of performing police duties as a
consequence of an offense and violation of
rules and regulations.
A. Dismissal
B. Restriction
C. Suspension
D. Demotion
97. The act of increasing the rank of an
officer is called promotion; ___ is
reducing his level of authority and
privilege of performing police duties as a
consequence of an offense and violation of
rules and regulations.
A. Dismissal
B. Restriction
C. Suspension
D. Demotion
98. Malingering is a case of
A. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
C. Non-feasance
D. Grave coercion
98. Malingering is a case of
A. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
C. Non-feasance
D. Grave coercion
99. Moonlighting is a case of
A. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
C. Non-feasance
D. Extortion
99. Moonlighting is a case of
A. Malfeasance
B. Misfeasance
C. Non-feasance
D. Extortion
100. This term refers to the period when a
police officer is actively engaged in the
performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
100. This term refers to the period when a
police officer is actively engaged in the
performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
“Exercise the habit of overkill to avoid procrastination”
LEA 1 (RA 6975, 8551)
SET 1
1. Gerano Delman was born in 1982. Considering
the Age requirement. Can he be appointed as
Police Officer 1 during the 2016 recruitment?
A.Yes, He meets the age requirement
B.Yes, he meets the minimum age requirement
C.No, he does not meet the maximum age
requirement
D.No, he does not meet the minimum age
requirement
1. Gerano Delman was born in 1982. Considering
the Age requirement. Can he be appointed as
Police Officer 1 during the 2016 recruitment?
A.Yes, He meets the age requirement
B.Yes, he meets the minimum age requirement
C.No, he does not meet the maximum age
requirement
D.No, he does not meet the minimum age
requirement
2. Andrew Sebastian was appointed as Police
officer 1 on July 1, 2015 how is he classified?
A.Regular employee
B.Contractual employee
C.Casual employee
D.Probationary employee
2. Andrew Sebastian was appointed as Police
officer 1 on July 1, 2015 how is he classified?
A.Regular employee
B.Contractual employee
C.Casual employee
D.Probationary employee
A.The ratee is willing to listen and hear the
rater’s suggestions
B.The form is simple and easy to accomplish
subordinate
A.The ratee is willing to listen and hear the
rater’s suggestions
B.The form is simple and easy to accomplish
subordinate
4. Highly qualified and technical
professionals such as doctors, dentists,
nurses may apply and be appointed to the
officers rank of the PNP through _____
A.Promotion
B.Attrition
C.Lateral entry
D.Commissionship
4. Highly qualified and technical
professionals such as doctors, dentists,
nurses may apply and be appointed to the
officers rank of the PNP through _____
A.Promotion
B.Attrition
C.Lateral entry
D.Commissionship
5. How much is the longevity pay of PNP
uniformed personnel?
A.10 % of the basic monthly salary for every 3
years of service
B.10 % of the basic monthly salary for every 5
years of service
C.5 % of the basic monthly salary for every 5
years of service
D.5 % of the basic monthly salary for every 3
years of service
5. How much is the longevity pay of PNP
uniformed personnel?
A.10 % of the basic monthly salary for every 3
years of service
B.10 % of the basic monthly salary for every 5
years of service
C.5 % of the basic monthly salary for every 5
years of service
D.5 % of the basic monthly salary for every 3
years of service
6. The National Police Commission
(NAPOLCOM) is ______ the department of
the interior and Local Government (DILG)
for policy and program coordination
A.Attached to
B.Under
C.Connected to
D.Equal to
6. The National Police Commission
(NAPOLCOM) is ______ the department of
the interior and Local Government (DILG)
for policy and program coordination
A.Attached to
B.Under
C.Connected to
D.Equal to
7. From what rank can the Chief of the PNP be
selected?
A.Deputy Director General only
B.Chief inspector and above
C.Chief superintendent and above
D.Secretary general and above
7. From what rank can the Chief of the PNP be
selected?
A.Deputy Director General only
B.Chief inspector and above
C.Chief superintendent and above
D.Secretary general and above
8. When may the president extend the tour of
duty of the chief of the PNP?
A.If the present Chief PNP is not yet 56
years old
B.If in times of police reorganization
approved by Congress
C.If the incumbent PNP chief is performing
very satisfactorily
D.In times of war or other national emergency
8. When may the president extend the tour of
duty of the chief of the PNP?
A.If the present Chief PNP is not yet 56
years old
B.If in times of police reorganization
approved by Congress
C.If the incumbent PNP chief is performing
very satisfactorily
D.In times of war or other national emergency
9. Leonila Aberton is a licensed physician and
applied through the lateral entry of the PNP.
If she is found to be qualified what would be
her rank?
A.P/Senior Inspector
B.P/Superintendent
C.P/Inspector
D.P/Chief Inspector
9. Leonila Aberton is a licensed physician and
applied through the lateral entry of the PNP.
If she is found to be qualified what would be
her rank?
B.P/Superintendent
C.P/Inspector
D.P/Chief Inspector
10. A police applicant can apply for an age
waiver if he/she is:
A.Not below twenty-five (25) nor over thirty-
five (35) years of age
B.Not below twenty (20) nor over thirty-five
(35) years of age
C.Not below twenty-one (21) nor over thirty-
one (31) years of age
D.Not below eighteen (18) nor over thirty
(30) years of age
10. A police applicant can apply for an age
waiver if he/she is:
A.Not below twenty-five (25) nor over thirty-
five (35) years of age
B.Not below twenty (20) nor over thirty-five
(35) years of age
C.Not below twenty-one (21) nor over thirty-
one (31) years of age
D.Not below eighteen (18) nor over thirty
(30) years of age
11. Who among the following have summary
disciplinary powers over errant police
members?
A.Provincial Director
B.District Director
C.Chief PNP
D.Chief of Police
disciplinary powers over errant police
members?
A.Provincial Director
B.District Director
C.Chief PNP
D.Chief of Police
12. Are leave credits for absences incurred
(approved leave with pay) by reason of
service-connected ailment/injury restored
under the permanent disability benefit
system?
A.No
B.Partially
C.Sometimes
D.Yes
12. Are leave credits for absences incurred
(approved leave with pay) by reason of
service-connected ailment/injury restored
under the permanent disability benefit
system?
A.No
B.Partially
C.Sometimes
D.Yes
13. The lifetime pension guaranteed under the
permanent total disability benefits under R.A.
no. 4864 as amended by PD nos. 649 and 1184 is
______ of the police member’s basic monthly
salary.
A.85 %
B.50%
C.90%
D.80%
13. The lifetime pension guaranteed under the
permanent total disability benefits under R.A.
no. 4864 as amended by PD nos. 649 and 1184 is
______ of the police member’s basic monthly
salary.
A.85 %
B.50%
C.90%
D.80%
14. Senior Superintendent Jaime Salang was charged
administratively for grave misconduct before the
inspection, monitoring and investigation service of
the National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM) which pre-
charge evaluation report indicated that there is
prima facie case against him. Can the NAPOLCOM
conduct formal investigation immediately?
A.Yes, because there is a probable cause
B.No, a presidential clearance is still needed before
formal investigation
C.No, the case has to be endorsed to the chief PNP
D.Yes, NAPOLCOM is an administrative disciplinary
authority Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
14. Senior Superintendent Jaime Salang was charged
administratively for grave misconduct before the
inspection, monitoring and investigation service of
the National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM) which pre-
charge evaluation report indicated that there is
prima facie case against him. Can the NAPOLCOM
conduct formal investigation immediately?
A.Yes, because there is a probable cause
B.No, a presidential clearance is still needed before
formal investigation
C.No, the case has to be endorsed to the chief PNP
D.Yes, NAPOLCOM is an administrative disciplinary
authority Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
15. Under R.A. 8551, who among the following
meets the educational qualification for
appointment to the police service?
A.Rodrigo who has 72 college units
B.Ben who is a graduate of Baccalaureate
degree in accountancy
C.Amado who is a high school graduate
D.Romeo who is a graduate of associate in
Criminology
15. Under R.A. 8551, who among the following
meets the educational qualification for
appointment to the police service?
A.Rodrigo who has 72 college units
B.Ben who is a graduate of Baccalaureate
degree in accountancy
C.Amado who is a high school graduate
D.Romeo who is a graduate of associate in
Criminology
16. All of the following are members of the
People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A.A Barangay Captain of the city/municipality
chosen by the association of barangay captains
B.Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council among respected members of the
community
C.A Bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of
the Philippines
D.Any member of the sanguniang
panglungsod/pambayan
16. All of the following are members of the
People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A.A Barangay Captain of the city/municipality
chosen by the association of barangay captains
B.Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council among respected members of the
community
C.A Bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of
the Philippines
D.Any member of the sanguniang
panglungsod/pambayan
17. Under the waiver program of R.A. no. 8551,
the qualification requirements for appointment
to the police service shall be waiver in the
following order: _____
A.Weight, Height, education, age
B.Height, Weight, age, education
C.Education, age, height, weight
D.Age, height, weight, education
17. Under the waiver program of R.A. no. 8551,
the qualification requirements for appointment
to the police service shall be waiver in the
following order: _____
A.Weight, Height, education, age
B.Height, Weight, age, education
C.Education, age, height, weight
D.Age, height, weight, education
18. Under R.A. no. 6975, who has the
power to choose the Chief of Police in
his/her municipality?
A.Napolcom Commisioner
B.Governor
C.DILG secretary
D.Mayor
18. Under R.A. no. 6975, who has the
power to choose the Chief of Police in
his/her municipality?
A.Napolcom Commisioner
B.Governor
C.DILG secretary
D.Mayor
19. A PNP member for the purposes of pay, is
retired to the next higher rank provided he or
she has served for at least ____ of service in
permanent status.
A.Three (3)
B.Two (2)
C.Five (5)
D.One (1)
19. A PNP member for the purposes of pay, is
retired to the next higher rank provided he or
she has served for at least ____ of service in
permanent status.
A.Three (3)
B.Two (2)
C.Five (5)
D.One (1)
20. In the police disciplinary system, a _____
refers to an act of omission not involving
moral turpitude but affecting the internal
discipline of the PNP.
A.Negligence
B.Minor offense
C.Major offense
D.Grave misconduct
20. In the police disciplinary system, a _____
refers to an act of omission not involving
moral turpitude but affecting the internal
discipline of the PNP.
A.Negligence
B.Minor offense
C.Major offense
D.Grave misconduct
21. Before a PNP member can join the
Internal Affairs Service, one must have a
five(5) year law enforcement experience
and no derogatory records. Application
for appointment is _____.
A. Voluntary C. Optional
B. Mandatory D. Compulsory
21. Before a PNP member can join the
Internal Affairs Service, one must have a
five(5) year law enforcement experience
and no derogatory records. Application
for appointment is _____.
A. Voluntary C. Optional
B. Mandatory D. Compulsory
22. The cadetship program for the police,
fire and jail service is conducted at:
A. Napolcom
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resources
and doctrine Development
C. Philippine National Police Academy
D. PNP Training Command
22. The cadetship program for the police,
fire and jail service is conducted at:
A. Napolcom
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resources
and doctrine Development
C. Philippine National Police Academy
D. PNP Training Command
23. Withholding of privileges, suspension or
forfeiture of salary or any combination of
these maybe imposed by the People’s Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB) on a PNP member
guilty of less grave offense for a minimum
period of:
A. 16 to 30 days C. 40 to 60 days
B. 45 to 60 days D. 31 to 45 days
23. Withholding of privileges, suspension or
forfeiture of salary or any combination of
these maybe imposed by the People’s Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB) on a PNP member
guilty of less grave offense for a minimum
period of:
A. 16 to 30 days C. 40 to 60 days
B. 45 to 60 days D. 31 to 45 days
24. To what rank are graduates of the
Philippine National Police Academy appointed
to
A. Inspector C. Superintendent
B. Senior Inspector D.Senior Superintendent
24. To what rank are graduates of the
Philippine National Police Academy appointed
to
A. Inspector C. Superintendent
B. Senior Inspector D.Senior Superintendent
25. Mr. Pedro de mesa was born on June 6,
1985 and wants to enter the police service
before the end of 2015. Considering his age,
can he be appointed as police officer I?
A. No, he is too young to be a police
officer
B. No, his age exceeded the age requirement
C. Yes, he will file an age waiver
D. Yes, his age is within the age
requirement
25. Mr. Pedro de mesa was born on June 6,
1985 and wants to enter the police service
before the end of 2015. Considering his age,
can he be appointed as police officer I?
A. No, he is too young to be a police
officer
B. No, his age exceeded the age requirement
C. Yes, he will file an age waiver
D. Yes, his age is within the age
requirement
26. The City Mayor did NOT choose a Police City
Director from a list of five (5) eligible submitted
by the PNP Regional director. This was done three (3)
times already by the City Mayor who prefers the
incumbent Officer-In-Charge. What should the Police
Regional Director do?
A. Request authority from the COMELEC to designate
OIC-city director
B. Request authority for C,PNP to designate an OIC
C. Relieve the incumbent OIC and designate an OIC
D. Report the matter to NAPOLCOM and request
authority to designate a qualified senior officer
to be designatedCharlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
as OIC-city director
26. The City Mayor did NOT choose a Police City
Director from a list of five (5) eligible submitted
by the PNP Regional director. This was done three (3)
times already by the City Mayor who prefers the
incumbent Officer-In-Charge. What should the Police
Regional Director do?
A. Request authority from the COMELEC to designate
OIC-city director
B. Request authority for C,PNP to designate an OIC
C. Relieve the incumbent OIC and designate an OIC
D. Report the matter to NAPOLCOM and request
authority to designate a qualified senior officer
to be designatedCharlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
as OIC-city director
27. There is no Chief of Police in
Municipality “B”. The Mayor did not choose one
among the five(5)police officers recommended
by the provincial police director to the Chief
of Police. Inspector Martin L. Nueva was
designated Officer-In-Charge. How long shall
P/Insp.Nueva stay as Officer-In-Charge?
A. At least sixty (60) days
B. Not less than sixty (60) days
C. Not more than thirty (30) days
D. At least thirty (30) days
27. There is no Chief of Police in
Municipality “B”. The Mayor did not choose one
among the five(5)police officers recommended
by the provincial police director to the Chief
of Police. Inspector Martin L. Nueva was
designated Officer-In-Charge. How long shall
P/Insp.Nueva stay as Officer-In-Charge?
A. At least sixty (60) days
B. Not less than sixty (60) days
C. Not more than thirty (30) days
D. At least thirty (30) days
28. Who is qualified to apply for age waiver?
A. an applicant who is 21 years old
B. an applicant who is not below 20 years
old nor more than 35 years old
C. an applicant who is below 21 years old
nor more than 30 years old
D. an applicant who is not below 30 years
28. Who is qualified to apply for age waiver?
A. an applicant who is 21 years old
B. an applicant who is not below 20 years
C. an applicant who is below 21 years old
nor more than 30 years old
D. an applicant who is not below 30 years
29. The maximum tenure of office of a Police
Regional Director is
A. three years C. four years
B. five years D. six years
29. The maximum tenure of office of a Police
Regional Director is
A. three years C. four years
B. five years D. six years
30. A prisoner under the custody of PO3
Delfin Agas was able to escape. PO3
Agas may be charged before the People’s
Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) with:
A. Gross incompetency
B. Serious irregularity in the
performance of duty
C. Dishonesty
D. Serious Neglect of duty
30. A prisoner under the custody of PO3
Delfin Agas was able to escape. PO3
Agas may be charged before the People’s
Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) with:
A. Gross incompetency
B. Serious irregularity in the
performance of duty
C. Dishonesty
D. Serious Neglect of duty
31. A criminologist maybe appointed to the
rank of P/Inspector through lateral entry. On
the other hand a medical doctor may be
appointed the PNP in the rank of ____.
A. P/Superintendent C. P/Inspector
B. P/Chief Inspector D.P/Senior Inspector
31. A criminologist maybe appointed to the
rank of P/Inspector through lateral entry. On
the other hand a medical doctor may be
appointed the PNP in the rank of ____.
A. P/Superintendent C. P/Inspector
B. P/Chief Inspector D.P/Senior Inspector
32. Decisions of the People’s Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB)may be appealed with
the NAPOLCOM _____.
A. National Appellate Board
B. Regional Appellate Board
C.Inspection, Monitoring and Investigation
Service
D. Legal Affairs Service
32. Decisions of the People’s Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB)may be appealed with
the NAPOLCOM _____.
A. National Appellate Board
B. Regional Appellate Board
C.Inspection, Monitoring and Investigation
Service
D. Legal Affairs Service
33. The application letter of the
claimant for death benefits shall be in
writing, under oath, in triplicate copies
and shall be addressed to the ____
concerned.
A. PNP Regional Director
B. DILG Regional director
C. DBM Regional Director
D. Napolcom Regional Director
33. The application letter of the
claimant for death benefits shall be in
writing, under oath, in triplicate copies
and shall be addressed to the ____
concerned.
34. PO1 Andres Buyos was appointed in 2009.
In 2012, he is three (3) years in the service
and is entitled to a fix amount to buy
uniforms and accessories. This allowance is
known as:
A. Replacement clothing allowance
B. Incentive clothing allowance
C. Reimbursable clothing allowance
D. Repair clothing allowance
34. PO1 Andres Buyos was appointed in 2009.
In 2012, he is three (3) years in the service
and is entitled to a fix amount to buy
uniforms and accessories. This allowance is
known as:
A. Replacement clothing allowance
B. Incentive clothing allowance
C. Reimbursable clothing allowance
D. Repair clothing allowance
35. A PNP member who comes permanently
disabled receives a monthly pension as
authorized under ____.
A. Repulic Act 6975
B. Presidential Decree No. 1184
C. Republic Act No. 8551
D. Presidential Decree No. 448
35. A PNP member who comes permanently
disabled receives a monthly pension as
authorized under ____.
A. Repulic Act 6975
B. Presidential Decree No. 1184
C. Republic Act No. 8551
D. Presidential Decree No. 448
36. The actual strength of the police
by cities and municipalities shall be
determined by the following factors,
EXCEPT:
A. Population density
B. Number of establishments
C. State of peace and order
D. Actual demands of service
36. The actual strength of the police
by cities and municipalities shall be
determined by the following factors,
EXCEPT:
A. Population density
B. Number of establishments
C. State of peace and order
D. Actual demands of service
37. The following are grounds for non-
compensabilty of the death benefits of
police members, EXCEPT:
A. Only one (1) year of service
B. Willful intention to kill oneself
C. Notorious negligence
D. Intoxication or drunkenness
37. The following are grounds for non-
compensabilty of the death benefits of
police members, EXCEPT:
A. Only one (1) year of service
B. Willful intention to kill oneself
C. Notorious negligence
D. Intoxication or drunkenness
38. What percent (%) of monthly salary
is given as longevity pay to a PNP
uniformed personnel every five (5)
years?
A. 5% C. 15%
B. 20% D. 10%
38. What percent (%) of monthly salary
is given as longevity pay to a PNP
uniformed personnel every five (5)
years?
A. 5% C. 15%
B. 20% D. 10%
39. If the PNP member is a mohammedan,
the award for compensation benefits to
the beneficiaries shall be made in
accordance with provisions of ____.
A. Act creating the Autonomous Muslim
Mindanao Region
B. Presidential Decree no. 1184
C. Code of Muslim Personal Law of the
Philippines
D. Presidential Decree no. 448
39. If the PNP member is a mohammedan,
the award for compensation benefits to
the beneficiaries shall be made in
accordance with provisions of ____.
A. Act creating the Autonomous Muslim
Mindanao Region
B. Presidential Decree no. 1184
C. Code of Muslim Personal Law of the
Philippines
D. Presidential Decree no. 448
40. R.A. No. 8551 provides that the
following shall be covered by the field
training program of police recruits:
A. Intelligence, patrol and traffic
B. Patrol, traffic and criminal
investigation
C. Traffic, criminal, investigation
and intelligence
D. Patrol,investigation,traffic
40. R.A. No. 8551 provides that the
following shall be covered by the field
training program of police recruits:
A. Intelligence, patrol and traffic
B. Patrol, traffic and criminal
investigation
C. Traffic, criminal, investigation
and intelligence
D. Patrol,investigation,traffic
41. All regional appointments of
commissioned officers commence with the
rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Police Officer III
C. Inspector
D. Senior Inspector
41. All regional appointments of
commissioned officers commence with the
rank of:
A. Senior Police Officer I
B. Police Officer III
C. Inspector
D. Senior Inspector
42. It is the premier institution for the
police, fire, and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the
Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology
(PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College
(PPSC)
42. It is the premier institution for the
police, fire, and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy (PMA)
B. Development Academy of the
Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology
(PCCR)
D. Philippine Public Safety College
(PPSC)
43. All the following are members of the Peoples
Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and
Order Council from among the respected members
of the community.
B. Any Barangay Captain of the
City/Municipality concerned chosen by the
Association of Barangay Captains.
C. Any members of the Sanguniang
Panlungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of
the Philippines (IBP)
43. All the following are members of the Peoples
Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and
Order Council from among the respected members
of the community.
B. Any Barangay Captain of the
City/Municipality concerned chosen by the
Association of Barangay Captains.
C. Any members of the Sanguniang
Panlungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of
the Philippines (IBP)
44. In the Civil Service System, merit
and fitness are the primary consideration
in the ________.
A. two-party system
B. promotional system
C. evaluation system
D. tools system
44. In the Civil Service System, merit
and fitness are the primary consideration
in the ________.
A. two-party system
B. promotional system
C. evaluation system
D. tools system
45. The provincial governors shall choose
the provincial Director from a list of
______ eligible recommended by the PNP
Director, preferable from the same
province, city, or municipality.
A. six (6) B. five (5)
C. Three (3) D. four (4)
45. The provincial governors shall choose
the provincial Director from a list of
______ eligible recommended by the PNP
Director, preferable from the same
province, city, or municipality.
A. six (6) B. five (5)
C. Three (3) D. four (4)
46. Republic Act No. 6975 provides that on the
average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP
shall be approximately in accordance with a
police to population ratio of;
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred
(700) inhabitants
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand
five hundred (1500) inhabitants
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred
(500) inhabitants
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand
(1000) inhabitants
46. Republic Act No. 6975 provides that on the
average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP
shall be approximately in accordance with a
police to population ratio of;
A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred
(700) inhabitants
B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand
five hundred (1500) inhabitants
C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred
(500) inhabitants
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand
(1000) inhabitants
disciplinary powers over errant police members?
A. District Director B. Chief of Police
C. Provincial Director D. Chief, PNP
disciplinary powers over errant police members?
A. District Director B. Chief of Police
C. Provincial Director D. Chief, PNP
48. Highly qualified police applicants
such as engineers, nurses, and graduates
of forensic science enter the police
service as officers through;
A. regular promotion B.lateral entry
C. commissionship D. attrition
48. Highly qualified police applicants
such as engineers, nurses, and graduates
of forensic science enter the police
service as officers through;
A. regular promotion B.lateral entry
C. commissionship D. attrition
49. It enforces all traffic laws and
regulations to ensure the safety of
motorists and pedestrians and attain an
orderly traffic.
A. Civil relation unit
B. Traffic operation center
C. Traffic management command
D. Aviation security command
49. It enforces all traffic laws and
regulations to ensure the safety of
motorists and pedestrians and attain an
orderly traffic.
A. Civil relation unit
B. Traffic operation center
C. Traffic management command
D. Aviation security command
50. A peace and Order Council is
organized in every city/municipality by
virtue of;
A. Executive Order 386
B. Executive Order 1012
C. Executive Order 309
D. Presidential Degree 118
50. A peace and Order Council is
organized in every city/municipality by
virtue of;
A. Executive Order 386
B. Executive Order 1012
C. Executive Order 309
D. Presidential Degree 118
51. Graduates of the Philippine National
Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically
appointed to the rank of?
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Senior Police Officer 1
C. Inspector
D. Superintendent
51. Graduates of the Philippine National
Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically
appointed to the rank of?
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Senior Police Officer 1
C. Inspector
D. Superintendent
52. PNP in-service training programs are
under the responsibility of the;
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and
Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
52. PNP in-service training programs are
under the responsibility of the;
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and
Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
53. It is the LOWEST medal given to a PNP
officer.
A. Medalya ng mabuting asal
B. Medalya ng papuri
C. Medalya ng karunungan
D. Medalya ng kasanayan
53. It is the LOWEST medal given to a PNP
officer.
A. Medalya ng mabuting asal
B. Medalya ng papuri
C. Medalya ng karunungan
D. Medalya ng kasanayan
54. PO IV Ram Edgar is assigned to
collect available information concerning
the activities of Blue Sagittarius
Group. He is in what unit of the police?
A. Criminal investigation
B. Patrol
C. Intelligence
D. Women’s Desk
54. PO IV Ram Edgar is assigned to
collect available information concerning
the activities of Blue Sagittarius
Group. He is in what unit of the police?
B. Patrol
C. Intelligence
D. Women’s Desk
55. Fidel Calla is a licensed physician
and applied through the lateral entry of
the PNP. If he is found to be qualified
what would be her rank?
B.P/Superintendent
C.P/Inspector
D.P/Chief Inspector
55. Fidel Calla is a licensed physician
and applied through the lateral entry of
the PNP. If he is found to be qualified
what would be her rank?
B.P/Superintendent
C.P/Inspector
D.P/Chief Inspector
56. Bryan Dolendo is a licensed
Optometrist and applied through the
lateral entry of the PNP. If he is found
to be qualified what would be his rank?
B.P/Superintendent
C.P/Inspector
D.P/Chief Inspector
56. Bryan Dolendo is a licensed
Optometrist and applied through the
lateral entry of the PNP. If he is found
to be qualified what would be his rank?
B.P/Superintendent
C.P/Inspector
D.P/Chief Inspector
57. Under the law, the NAPOLCOM shall
establish a system of promotion for uniformed
and non-uniformed member of the PNP on the
basis of, except one
A.Seniority
B.Merit
C.Responsibility of police officer
D.Availability of vacant position
establish a system of promotion for uniformed
and non-uniformed member of the PNP on the
basis of, except one
A.Seniority
B.Merit
58. Rule VII, R.A. 8551 the creation of
women`s Desk in all police station and
the formulation of gender sensitivity
program
A.SEC. 68
B.SEC. 84
C.SEC. 64
D.SEC. 57
58. Rule VII, R.A. 8551 the creation of
women`s Desk in all police station and
the formulation of gender sensitivity
program
A.SEC. 68
B.SEC. 84
C.SEC. 64
D.SEC. 57
59. The movement of personally upward
from one classification or rank to
another carrying higher pay and more
responsibility.
A.Appointment
B.Attrition
C.Promotion
D.Specification
59. The movement of personally upward
from one classification or rank to
another carrying higher pay and more
responsibility.
A.Appointment
B.Attrition
C.Promotion
D.Specification
60. R.A. 8551-IRR all uniformed member of
the PNP shall undergo field training program
involving actual experience and assignment
in patrol, traffic and investigation
A.SEC. 19
B.SEC. 39
C.SEC. 49
D.SEC. 59
60. R.A. 8551-IRR all uniformed member of
the PNP shall undergo field training program
involving actual experience and assignment
in patrol, traffic and investigation
A.SEC. 19
B.SEC. 39
C.SEC. 49
D.SEC. 59
61. A uniformed personnel and or his
heir shall entitled to all benefits
relative to demise or permanent
incapacity of said personnel
A.Early retirement program
B.Permanent physical disability
C.Death and disability benefits
D.Retirement benefits
61. A uniformed personnel and or his
heir shall entitled to all benefits
relative to demise or permanent
incapacity of said personnel
62. Official designated by NAPOLCOM to
investigate application for benefits
claims
A.Hearing officer
B.NAPOLCOM investigation
C.Claim officer
D.Investigator
claims
A.Hearing officer
C.Claim officer
D.Investigator
63. The following are appointed to the
PNP with the rank of inspector, through
lateral entry EXCEPT;
A.Licensed criminologist
B.Optometrist
C.Engineers
D.Doctor of medicine
63. The following are appointed to the
PNP with the rank of inspector, through
B.Optometrist
C.Engineers
64. Appointed by the president among the
senior officer down to rank of chief
superintendent.
A.Chief superintendent
B.Director general
C.Senior superintendent
D.Deputy director general
64. Appointed by the president among the
senior officer down to rank of chief
superintendent.
A.Chief superintendent
B.Director general
C.Senior superintendent
D.Deputy director general
65. Kind of appointment in the PNP which
the applicant is under waiver program
due to education and weight requirement
under sec. 17 RA 8551.
A.Meritorious
B.Probationary
C.Temporary
D.Permanent
the applicant is under waiver program
due to education and weight requirement
under sec. 17 RA 8551.
A.Meritorious
B.Probationary
C.Temporary
D.Permanent
66. Shall refer to any act or omission
not involving moral turpitude, but
affecting the internal discipline of the
PNP.
A.Citizen complaint
B.Minor offense
C.Major offense
D.Less grave offense
66. Shall refer to any act or omission
not involving moral turpitude, but
affecting the internal discipline of the
PNP.
A.Citizen complaint
B.Minor offense
C.Major offense
67. Under sec. 57 of R.A. 8551 when
administrative complaint is filed with
police disciplinary authority, such
PLEB, no other case involving the same
cause of action shall be filed with any
disciplinary authority.
A.Internal affairs
B.Forum shopping
C.Summary procedure
D.Customer service
67. Under sec. 57 of R.A. 8551 when
administrative complaint is filed with
police disciplinary authority, such
PLEB, no other case involving the same
cause of action shall be filed with any
disciplinary authority.
A.Internal affairs
B.Forum shopping
C.Summary procedure
D.Customer service
68. Under selection process the objective
tends to focus on mental health than that
on the general assessment of personality.
A.Physical, medical, and drug examination
B.Psychological evaluation
C.Psychiatric examination
D.Intelligence
D.Intelligence
69. PO1 to SPO4 shall be appointed by
________, except those who will be
assigned in the office of the PNP for
national headquarters who will be
appointed by the chief, PNP
A.Provincial director
B.Chief, PNP
C.Chief of Police
D.Regional Director
B.Chief, PNP
C.Chief of Police
D.Regional Director
70. Inspector to superintendent shall be
appointed by_________ and recommended by
their immediate superiors and attested
by the CSC.
A.DDG
B.Chief, PNP
C.President
D.RD
their immediate superiors and attested
by the CSC.
A.DDG
B.Chief, PNP
C.President
D.RD
71. The maximum years that the RD must
be in his position before he would
attrited is______
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
71. The maximum years that the RD must
be in his position before he would
attrited is______
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
72. PSI James Dela Cruz has a remaining
11 months in the PNP service before
compulsory retirement. Is he qualified
for promotion considering that met other
requirements?
A.No
B.Yes
C.Maybe
D.It defends
compulsory retirement. Is he qualified
for promotion considering that met other
requirements?
A.No
B.Yes
C.Maybe
D.It defends
73. PO3 venerasion, after his tour of duty
boarded a bus, while in transit, 3 suspects
announced a heist because of vigilance,
courage and exceptional skill he was able to
neutralize and kill all of the suspects. Is
qualified for promotion wanting eligibility
and training?
A.Yes
B.No
C.It defends
D.Maybe Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
73. PO3 venerasion, after his tour of duty
boarded a bus, while in transit, 3 suspects
announced a heist because of vigilance,
courage and exceptional skill he was able to
neutralize and kill all of the suspects. Is
qualified for promotion wanting eligibility
and training?
A.Yes
B.No
C.It defends
D.Maybe Charlemagne James P. Ramos/What Criminologist Knows? Files
74. The PNP COPCES must be guided by the
principle that public office is a public
trust and all public officer must be, at all
times accountable of the people. This is
enunciated in _
A.RA 6975
B.RA 6713
C.RA 8511
D.RA 9708
74. The PNP COPCES must be guided by the
principle that public office is a public
trust and all public officer must be, at all
times accountable of the people. This is
enunciated in _
A.RA 6975
B.RA 6713
C.RA 8511
D.RA 9708
75. PCI De Guzman is set to retire next
year and have served the PNP for 1 year
in permanent status carrying the said
rank. He is qualified for_
A.1 Rank higher
B.1 salary grade higher
C.2 rank higher
D.2 salary grade higher
75. PCI De Guzman is set to retire next
year and have served the PNP for 1 year
in permanent status carrying the said
rank. He is qualified for_
A.1 Rank higher
B.1 salary grade higher
C.2 rank higher
D.2 salary grade higher
76. Appointing authority of Sr Supt to DDG.
A.Chief PNP
B.Vice president
C.Senate president
D.President
76. Appointing authority of Sr Supt to DDG.
A.Chief PNP
B.Vice president
C.Senate president
D.President
77. Who Has the power to impose
disciplinary punishment of dismissal
from service suspension or forfeiture of
salary combination thereof for period
not exceeding 180 days?
A.RD
B.PD
C.Chief, PNP
D.COP
77. Who Has the power to impose
disciplinary punishment of dismissal
from service suspension or forfeiture of
salary combination thereof for period
not exceeding 180 days?
A.RD
B.PD
C.Chief, PNP
D.COP
78. Which of the following composed the
PNP under its creation on R.A 6975?
A.member of the INP
B.members of the PC
C.jail guards
D.all of them
78. Which of the following composed the
PNP under its creation on R.A 6975?
A.member of the INP
B.members of the PC
C.jail guards
D.all of them
79. What is the rank of the Chief
Directorial Staff?
A.Deputy Dir General
B.Police Director
C.Police Chief Superintendent
D.Police Senior Superintendent
79. What is the rank of the Chief
Directorial Staff?
A.Deputy Dir General
B.Police Director
C.Police Chief Superintendent
D.Police Senior Superintendent
80. Which is known as the Police Act of
1966 and created the office of the
NAPOLCOM?
A.R.A. 6975
B.R.A. 8551
C.P.D. 765
D.R.A. 4864
80. Which is known as the Police Act of
1966 and created the office of the
NAPOLCOM?
A.R.A. 6975
B.R.A. 8551
C.P.D. 765
D.R.A. 4864
81. What is the kind of promotion
granted to candidates who meet all the
basic qualification for promotion?
A.Special
B.Meritorious
C.Regular
D.Ordinary
81. What is the kind of promotion
granted to candidates who meet all the
basic qualification for promotion?
A.Special
B.Meritorious
C.Regular
D.Ordinary
82. How many deputies do the PNP has?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
82. How many deputies do the PNP has?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
83. MNSA or Master’s in National
Security in Administration is offered
and administered by this institution.
A.PPSC
B.NAPOLCOM
C.Department of Interior and Local
Government
D.National Defense College
83. MNSA or Master’s in National
Security in Administration is offered
and administered by this institution.
A.PPSC
B.NAPOLCOM
C.Department of Interior and Local
Government
D.National Defense College
84. The staff directorate in charge of
providing the necessary supplies and
materials to all PNP units is the
A.Research Development Office
B.Logistics Office
C.Plans
D.Comptrollership
84. The staff directorate in charge of
providing the necessary supplies and
materials to all PNP units is the
A.Research Development Office
B.Logistics Office
C.Plans
D.Comptrollership
85. How many years of satisfactory
service must a PNP member renders before
he can apply for optional retirement?
A.10 years
B.20 years
C.15 years
D.25 years
85. How many years of satisfactory
service must a PNP member renders before
he can apply for optional retirement?
A.10 years
B.20 years
C.15 years
D.25 years
86. Decision of the Chief, PNP in
administrative cases where the penalty
is dismissal, demotion and forced
resignation may be appealed before the
A.Regional Appellate Body
B.Office of the President
C.National Appellate Board
D.Chairman, NAPOLCOM
86. Decision of the Chief, PNP in
administrative cases where the penalty
is dismissal, demotion and forced
resignation may be appealed before the
A.Regional Appellate Body
B.Office of the President
C.National Appellate Board
D.Chairman, NAPOLCOM
87. Verification of academic
accomplishment, standardized exam and
affiliation with organization of police
applicants are information required in
the:
A.Written Examination Procedure
B.Character investigation procedures
C.Appointment Procedures
D.Eligibility Requirements
87. Verification of academic
accomplishment, standardized exam and
affiliation with organization of police
applicants are information required in
the:
A.Written Examination Procedure
B.Character investigation procedures
C.Appointment Procedures
D.Eligibility Requirements
88. The number of eligible for which the
Regional Director may recommend for
Provincial Director to the governor is
__.
A.2
B.3
C.5
D.4
88. The number of eligible for which the
Regional Director may recommend for
Provincial Director to the governor is
__.
A.2
B.3
C.5
D.4
89. The utilization of units or
elements, of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws and maintenance of
peace and order.
A.employment
B.deployment
C.assignment
D.designation
89. The utilization of units or
elements, of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties,
enforcement of laws and maintenance of
peace and order.
A.employment
B.deployment
C.assignment
D.designation
90. The orderly and organized physical
movement of elements or units of the
PNP.
A.employment
B.deployment
C.assignment
D.designation
90. The orderly and organized physical
movement of elements or units of the
PNP.
A.employment
B.deployment
C.assignment
D.designation
91. The head of a local peace and order
council is the __.
A.judge
B.chief of police
C.mayor
D.governor
91. The head of a local peace and order
council is the __.
A.judge
B.chief of police
C.mayor
D.governor
92. They have the authority to recommend
to the Provincial Director the transfer,
reassignment of PNP members outside of
their town residences.
A.Regional Directors
B.Priests
C.Chiefs of Police
D.Mayors
92. They have the authority to recommend
to the Provincial Director the transfer,
reassignment of PNP members outside of
their town residences.
A.Regional Directors
B.Priests
C.Chiefs of Police
D.Mayors
93. They are automatically deputized as
NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise
supervision and control over PNP units.
A.Chief of Police
B.Judges
C.Local Government Executives
D.Fiscals
93. They are automatically deputized as
NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise
supervision and control over PNP units.
A.Chief of Police
B.Judges
C.Local Government Executives
D.Fiscals
94. Which of the following administers
and attends to cases involving crimes
against chastity?
A.CIDG
B.DSWD
C.Women’s Desk
D.Homicide Division
94. Which of the following administers
and attends to cases involving crimes
against chastity?
A.CIDG
B.DSWD
C.Women’s Desk
D.Homicide Division
95. The annual reservation percentage
quota for women in the PNP recruitment
is __.
A.25%
B.5%
C.10%
D.20%
95. The annual reservation percentage
quota for women in the PNP recruitment
is __.
A.25%
B.5%
C.10%
D.20%
96. It exercise supervision and control
over all city and municipal jails.
A.BJMP
B.Bureau of Prisons
C.Department of Justice
D.Local Government
over all city and municipal jails.
A.BJMP
B.Bureau of Prisons
D.Local Government
97. The required rank for the head of
the Fire Bureau.
A.Chief Superintendent
B.Director General
C.Director
D.Deputy Director General
E.Senior Superintendent
97. The required rank for the head of
the Fire Bureau.
B.Director General
C.Director
E.Senior Superintendent
over the provincial jails.
A.BJMP
B.Bureau of Prisons
D.Provincial Government
over the provincial jails.
A.BJMP
B.Bureau of Prisons
D.Provincial Government
99. Under the law, the city/municipal
jail warden should have a rank of __.
A.Inspector
B.Chief Inspector
C.Senior Inspector
D.Superintendent
E.Chief Superintendent
99. Under the law, the city/municipal
jail warden should have a rank of __.
A.Inspector
B.Chief Inspector
C.Senior Inspector
D.Superintendent
E.Chief Superintendent
100. The required rank for the Chief of
Jail Bureau.
B.Director General
C.Director
Jail Bureau.
B.Director General
C.Director
Jail Bureau.
B.Director General
C.Director
*** END of SET 1***
“YOUR SUCCESS IS HIDDEN ON YOUR DAILY ROUTINE”
LEA 5 (PRM)
1. Administrative authority is derived from
the exercise of political power and its basic
purpose in the accomplishment of a particular
goal and it source of management authority
are Law, Tradition and ________
A.Leadership
B.Delegation
C.Charisma
D.All of the above
1. Administrative authority is derived from
the exercise of political power and its basic
purpose in the accomplishment of a particular
goal and it source of management authority
are Law, Tradition and ________
A.Leadership
B.Delegation
C.Charisma
D.All of the above
2. Items either handwritten, type written,
or otherwise reproduced matter, photographs
or other documentary materials regardless of
physical form or characteristics, made or
received by a law enforcement agency in
pursuance of it’s legal obligations.
A.Documents
B.Dossier
C.Records
D.File
2. Items either handwritten, type written,
or otherwise reproduced matter, photographs
or other documentary materials regardless of
physical form or characteristics, made or
received by a law enforcement agency in
pursuance of it’s legal obligations.
A.Documents
B.Dossier
C.Records
D.File
3. A facility sometimes especially
designed and constructed for low-cost and
efficient storage and furnishing or
reference service or semi-current or non-
current records with suitable protection
pending their ultimate disposition.
A.Records center
B.Records office
C.Records custodian
D.Records management
3. A facility sometimes especially
designed and constructed for low-cost and
efficient storage and furnishing or
reference service or semi-current or non-
current records with suitable protection
pending their ultimate disposition.
A.Records center
B.Records office
C.Records custodian
4. Focal point of the agency where records
are received, released and maintained for
future use.
A.Records center
B.Records office
C.Records custodian
4. Focal point of the agency where records
are received, released and maintained for
future use.
A.Records center
B.Records office
C.Records custodian
5. A qualified officer who coordinates
across the department lines on their
records activities and shall have the
responsibility and control of all records
holding of the agency in his or her
possession of custody.
A.Records center
B.Records office
C.Records custodian
5. A qualified officer who coordinates
across the department lines on their
records activities and shall have the
responsibility and control of all records
holding of the agency in his or her
possession of custody.
A.Records center
B.Records office
C.Records custodian
6. A folder containing records
A.Documents
B.Dossier
C.Records
D.File
6. A folder containing records
A.Documents
B.Dossier
C.Records
D.File
7. Method of expediting the sorting and
filing of records.
A.Filing system
B.Coding system
C.Retention period
D.All of the above
7. Method of expediting the sorting and
filing of records.
A.Filing system
B.Coding system
C.Retention period
D.All of the above
8. A specific period of time established
and approved by competent authority after
which a given set of files is deemed ready
to permanent storage or storage.
A.Filing system
B.Retention period
C.Recalling period
D.Filing period
8. A specific period of time established
and approved by competent authority after
which a given set of files is deemed ready
to permanent storage or storage.
A.Filing system
B.Retention period
C.Recalling period
D.Filing period
9. An act of determining the subject or
subjects which may be the name of
individuals, functions or topics under
which the records are to be filed and
cross-referred according to an established
plan for filing
A.Public records
B.Indexing records
C.Filing system
D.Filing period
9. An act of determining the subject or
subjects which may be the name of
individuals, functions or topics under
which the records are to be filed and
cross-referred according to an established
plan for filing
A.Public records
B.Indexing records
C.Filing system
D.Filing period
A. Training
B. Development of Subordinate
C.Role Modeling
D. Order Giving
A. Training
B. Development of Subordinate
C.Role Modeling
D. Order Giving
11. The coordination of the efforts of
patrol officers on several beats on the
same shift is called ___
A. Coordination of the platoon
B. Coordination of geographical units
C. Coordination of functional units
D. Coordination of the force
12. The following statements are on employee
morale. Which one is the most correct?
important
II.Morale depends on personal relationships
and working conditions
D.All statements
12. The following statements are on employee
morale. Which one is the most correct?
important
II.Morale depends on personal relationships
and working conditions
D.All statements
13. The fitness and potential of an
applicant to the PNP is determined by:
A. Recruitment and appointment system
B. Personnel management system
C. Appointment and performance system
D. Recruitment and selection system
applicant to the PNP is determined by:
A. Recruitment and appointment system
B. Personnel management system
C. Appointment and performance system
D. Recruitment and selection system
14. A records, writing, or entry occurring
in the course of public official business,
and which is required by statute to be
preserved.
A.Public records
B.Indexing records
C.Filing system
D.Filing period
14. A records, writing, or entry occurring
in the course of public official business,
and which is required by statute to be
preserved.
A.Public records
B.Indexing records
C.Filing system
D.Filing period
function?
A.planning
D.inspection
function?
A.planning
D.inspection
A.responsiveness
B.cost-efficiency
C.effectiveness
D.functionality
A.responsiveness
B.cost-efficiency
C.effectiveness
D.functionality
called
called
19. A police officer who operates on a
“leave things alone” basis falls under the
____ style of leadership.
A. Democratic C. Authoritarian
B. Participative D. Laissez-faire
19. A police officer who operates on a
“leave things alone” basis falls under the
____ style of leadership.
A. Democratic C. Authoritarian
B. Participative D. Laissez-faire
20. The application letter of the claimant
for death benefits shall be in writing,
under oath, in triplicate copies and shall
be addressed to the ____ concerned.
20. The application letter of the claimant
for death benefits shall be in writing,
under oath, in triplicate copies and shall
be addressed to the ____ concerned.
21. Recorded information regardless of
medium or characteristics.
A.Dossier
B.Documents
C.Records
D.File
21. Recorded information regardless of
medium or characteristics.
A.Dossier
B.Documents
C.Records
D.File
22. A respondent police officer pleaded guilty
of the charges filed against him before the
People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB). The
PLEB shall now determine his/her ______.
A. Nature of offense and his/her accomplice
B. Degree of responsibility and the
appropriate penalty to be imposed
C. Penalty to be imposed upon the respondent
D. Sincerity of the admission of guilt
22. A respondent police officer pleaded guilty
of the charges filed against him before the
People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB). The
PLEB shall now determine his/her ______.
A. Nature of offense and his/her accomplice
B. Degree of responsibility and the
appropriate penalty to be imposed
C. Penalty to be imposed upon the respondent
D. Sincerity of the admission of guilt
ensure:
B. Police Integrity
ensure:
B. Police Integrity
24. What type of police leader is one who
tells his/her subordinates what to do,
allowing no discussion?
A.Command presence leader
B.Free-rein leader
C.Democratic leader
D.Autocratic leader
24. What type of police leader is one who
tells his/her subordinates what to do,
allowing no discussion?
A.Command presence leader
B.Free-rein leader
C.Democratic leader
D.Autocratic leader
26. It is the function of administrative
management business operations and education
concerned with the creation, protection,
retrieval, preservation of records information
required for the continuance of government
business and industry operations at cost
consistent with the services involved.
A.Records center
B.Records office
C.Records custodian
26. It is the function of administrative
management business operations and education
retrieval, preservation of records information
required for the continuance of government
business and industry operations at cost
consistent with the services involved.
A.Records center
B.Records office
C.Records custodian
C.Actual strength
C.Actual strength
principle?
A.Line of authority
B.Chain of command
C.Unity of command
principle?
A.Line of authority
B.Chain of command
C.Unity of command
30. Under which type of leadership would
morals, Discipline, efficiency and
productivity begin to deteriorate?
A.Laisses-faire leader
B.Autocratic leader
C.Hands-on leader
D.Democratic leader
30. Under which type of leadership would
morals, Discipline, efficiency and
productivity begin to deteriorate?
A.Laisses-faire leader
B.Autocratic leader
C.Hands-on leader
D.Democratic leader
31. What is the process of searching for
people who fill vacant positions in an
organization?
A.Recruitment
B.Appointment
C.Promotion
D.Designation
31. What is the process of searching for
people who fill vacant positions in an
organization?
A.Recruitment
B.Appointment
C.Promotion
D.Designation
32. It is the administrative function
retention, retrieval, and preservation of
records?
A.Records development
B.Records management
C.Records administration
D.Records system
32. It is the administrative function
retention, retrieval, and preservation of
records?
A.Records development
B.Records management
C.Records administration
D.Records system
A.Authority
B.Work
C.Command
D.Responsibility
A.Authority
B.Work
C.Command
D.Responsibility
34. The process of screening out
undesirable and unqualified candidate and
appointing the best qualified is:
A.Selection
B.Appointment
C.Recruitment
D.Enlistment
34. The process of screening out
undesirable and unqualified candidate and
appointing the best qualified is:
A.Selection
B.Appointment
C.Recruitment
D.Enlistment
organization?
A.Organization
B.Supervision
C.Planning
D.Management
organization?
A.Organization
B.Supervision
C.Planning
D.Management
accomplished.
A.Intervention
B.Assessment
C.Management
D.Recruitment
accomplished.
A.Intervention
B.Assessment
C.Management
D.Recruitment
personnel’s work?
A.Refresher
B.Retraining
C.Upgrading
D.Specialization
personnel’s work?
A.Refresher
B.Retraining
C.Upgrading
D.Specialization
38. Is the maximum number of subordinates
at a given position that superior can
supervise effectively?
A.Span of control
B.Scalar principle
C.Unity of command
38. Is the maximum number of subordinates
at a given position that superior can
supervise effectively?
A.Span of control
B.Scalar principle
C.Unity of command
39. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the
organization which defines an unbroken
chain of units from top to button
describing explicitly the flow of
authority?
A.Span of control
B.Scalar principle
C.Unity of command
39. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the
organization which defines an unbroken
chain of units from top to button
describing explicitly the flow of
authority?
A.Span of control
B.Scalar principle
C.Unity of command
40. POSDCORB is an acronym developed by early
management theorist Luther Gulick, this acronym
supposed to define all duties of an
administration or manager and this stand for?
A.Planning, organizing, staffing, directing,
coordinating, reporting and balancing
B.Planning, organizing, staffing, directing,
cooperating, reporting and budgeting
C.Planning, organizing, supervision, directing,
D.Planning, organizing, staffing, directing,
coordinating, reporting and budgeting
40. POSDCORB is an acronym developed by early
management theorist Luther Gulick, this acronym
supposed to define all duties of an
administration or manager and this stand for?
A.Planning, organizing, staffing, directing,
coordinating, reporting and balancing
B.Planning, organizing, staffing, directing,
C.Planning, organizing, supervision, directing,
D.Planning, organizing, staffing, directing,
coordinating, reporting and budgeting
41. Unity of command means?
A.Command should come from one superior
only
B.Conferring of an amount of authority by
a superior position by a subordinate
C.Shows the vertical hierarchy of the
organization
D.Organization is effective if it enables
the individual
41. Unity of command means?
A.Command should come from one superior
only
B.Conferring of an amount of authority by
a superior position by a subordinate
C.Shows the vertical hierarchy of the
organization
D.Organization is effective if it enables
the individual
42. Is the conferring of an amount of authority by
a superior onto a lower-level position? The person
to whom authority is delegated becomes responsible
to the superior for doing the assigned job.
However, the delegators remain accountable for
accomplishment of the job within the guidelines
and quality standards of the agency?
a.Delegation of authority
b.Unity of command
c.Ranking officer
d.Superior strength
42. Is the conferring of an amount of authority by
a superior onto a lower-level position? The person
to whom authority is delegated becomes responsible
to the superior for doing the assigned job.
However, the delegators remain accountable for
accomplishment of the job within the guidelines
and quality standards of the agency?
a.Delegation of authority
b.Unity of command
c.Ranking officer
d.Superior strength
43. Implies that system of varied
functions arrange into a workable
pattern?
A.Functional type
B.Functional principle
C.Line and staff
D.Functional arrangement
43. Implies that system of varied
functions arrange into a workable
pattern?
A.Functional type
B.Functional principle
C.Line and staff
D.Functional arrangement
44. All that goes of budgeting in the form
of fiscal planning, accounting and
control?
A.Allowances
B.Saving
C.Financial
D.Budgeting
44. All that goes of budgeting in the form
of fiscal planning, accounting and
control?
A.Allowances
B.Saving
C.Financial
D.Budgeting
45. Is keeping those to whom the executive
is responsible informed as to what is
going on, which thus includes keeping
himself and his subordinates informed
through records research and inspection?
A.Recording
B.Reporting
C.Response
Receive
45. Is keeping those to whom the executive
is responsible informed as to what is
going on, which thus includes keeping
himself and his subordinates informed
through records research and inspection?
A.Recording
B.Reporting
C.Response
Receive
46. All important duty of interrelating
the various parts of the work?
A.Cooperation
B.Coordinating
C.Unity
D.Division of work
46. All important duty of interrelating
the various parts of the work?
A.Cooperation
B.Coordinating
C.Unity
D.Division of work
47. In his book Police Practice and
Procedure suggested that the police
officer must enter his memo book all
material facts occurred during his TOD. It
must be entered into a chronological order
in accurate and concise manner.
A.August Vollmer
B.Cornelius F. Calahane
C.Elmer Graper
D.Kate wayne
47. In his book Police Practice and
Procedure suggested that the police
officer must enter his memo book all
material facts occurred during his TOD. It
must be entered into a chronological order
in accurate and concise manner.
A.August Vollmer
B.Cornelius F. Calahane
C.Elmer Graper
D.Kate wayne
48. Task of making decisions and embodying
them in specific and instructions and
serving as the leader of the enterprise?
A.Directing
B.Boss
C.Leader
D.Management
48. Task of making decisions and embodying
them in specific and instructions and
serving as the leader of the enterprise?
A.Directing
B.Boss
C.Leader
D.Management
49. Personnel function of bringing in and
out training the staff the favorable
conditions of work filing the organization
with the right people and right position.
A.Efficiency
B.Effectiveness
C.Discipline
D.Staffing
49. Personnel function of bringing in and
out training the staff the favorable
conditions of work filing the organization
with the right people and right position.
A.Efficiency
B.Effectiveness
C.Discipline
D.Staffing
50. Establishment of the formal structure
of authority through which work
subdivisions are arranged, defined and
coordinated for the define objective.
A.Organizing
B.Division of work
C.Coordinating
D.Efficiency
50. Establishment of the formal structure
of authority through which work
subdivisions are arranged, defined and
coordinated for the define objective.
A.Organizing
B.Division of work
C.Coordinating
D.Efficiency
51. Working out in broad outline the
things that need to be done and methods
for doing them to accomplish the purpose
set for the enterprise.
A.Objective
B.Mission
C.Planning
D.Task
51. Working out in broad outline the
things that need to be done and methods
for doing them to accomplish the purpose
set for the enterprise.
A.Objective
B.Mission
C.Planning
D.Task
52. Responsible for the direct
accomplishment of the objectives.
A.Law enforcement
B.Line
C.Staff
D.Investigator
52. Responsible for the direct
accomplishment of the objectives.
A.Law enforcement
B.Line
C.Staff
D.Investigator
53. Responsible for support, advisory, or
facilitative capacity?
A.Law enforcement
B.Staff
C.Logistic
D.Line
53. Responsible for support, advisory, or
facilitative capacity?
A.Law enforcement
B.Staff
C.Logistic
D.Line
applicant to the PNP to determine by whom?
A.Recruitment and appointment system
B.Personnel management system
C.Appointment and performance system
D.Recruitment and selection system
applicant to the PNP to determine by whom?
A.Recruitment and appointment system
B.Personnel management system
C.Appointment and performance system
D.Recruitment and selection system
55. Pertains to the utilization of
available resources in an organization?
A.Administration
B.Organization
C.Management
D.Utilization
55. Pertains to the utilization of
available resources in an organization?
A.Administration
B.Organization
C.Management
D.Utilization
(sergeants)
D. Chief of Police
(sergeants)
D. Chief of Police
authority often represented by boxes lines
A.Organization control
B.Scalar chain
C.Chain of Command
D.Span of Control
authority often represented by boxes lines
A.Organization control
B.Scalar chain
C.Chain of Command
D.Span of Control
58. Which can be done by providing simple
organizational plan clearly understood by
all concerned yet detailed enough to clear
lines of authority and responsibility.
A.Organizing by function
B.Simplicity
C.Chain of Command
D.Span of Control
58. Which can be done by providing simple
organizational plan clearly understood by
all concerned yet detailed enough to clear
lines of authority and responsibility.
B.Simplicity
C.Chain of Command
D.Span of Control
59. Emphasis the grouping of similar tasks
job assignments performance of functions
together and placing them under a single
supervision of command officer.
B.Simplicity
C.Chain of command
D.Span of control
59. Emphasis the grouping of similar tasks
job assignments performance of functions
together and placing them under a single
supervision of command officer.
B.Simplicity
C.Chain of command
D.Span of control
60. From the first level supervisor to the
chief of police must be given an
opportunity to deal with those incidents
for which he or she is responsible.
B.Simplicity
C.Chain of command
D.Span of control
60. From the first level supervisor to the
chief of police must be given an
opportunity to deal with those incidents
for which he or she is responsible.
B.Simplicity
C.Chain of command
D.Span of control
61. It is based on the assumption that
there is limit to the number of
individuals that one person can
effectively surprise.
A.Organizing by Function
B.Simplicity
C.Chain of command
D.Span of Control
61. It is based on the assumption that
there is limit to the number of
individuals that one person can
effectively surprise.
A.Organizing by Function
B.Simplicity
C.Chain of command
D.Span of Control
62. A management function concerned with
human resources of an organization
A.Personnel Management
B.Personnel administration
C.Recruitment
D.Effectiveness
human resources of an organization
A.Personnel Management
B.Personnel administration
C.Recruitment
D.Effectiveness
63. The process of attracting candidates
who have the maximum qualifications to be
eligible for the selection procedure.
A.Selection
B.Appointment
C.Promotion
D.Recruitment
63. The process of attracting candidates
who have the maximum qualifications to be
eligible for the selection procedure.
A.Selection
B.Appointment
C.Promotion
D.Recruitment
64. Process of screening out or
eliminating undesirable applicants that do
not meet the organization’s selection
criteria
A.Recruitment
B.Selection
C.Appointment
D.Attrition
64. Process of screening out or
eliminating undesirable applicants that do
not meet the organization’s selection
criteria
A.Recruitment
B.Selection
C.Appointment
D.Attrition
65. Selection by the authority, vested
with power, of an individual who is to
exercise the functions of a given office.
A.Promotion
B.Appointment
C.Attrition
D.Selection
65. Selection by the authority, vested
with power, of an individual who is to
exercise the functions of a given office.
A.Promotion
B.Appointment
C.Attrition
D.Selection
66. The movement upward from one
classification or rank to another carrying
higher pay and more responsibility
A.Attrition
B.Promotion
C.Selection
D.Recruitment
66. The movement upward from one
classification or rank to another carrying
higher pay and more responsibility
A.Attrition
B.Promotion
C.Selection
D.Recruitment
67. Loss of PNP personnel in the
organization in the normal course of
event.
A.Attrition
B.Promotion
C.Selection
D.Recruitment
67. Loss of PNP personnel in the
organization in the normal course of
event.
A.Attrition
B.Promotion
C.Selection
D.Recruitment
establish a system of promotion for
uniformed and non-uniformed member of the
PNP on the basis of, except one
A.Seniority
B.Merit
establish a system of promotion for
uniformed and non-uniformed member of the
PNP on the basis of, except one
A.Seniority
B.Merit
the human resources of an organization
A.Personnel management
B.Panning management
C.Management plans
D.Personal management
the human resources of an organization
A.Personnel management
B.Panning management
C.Management plans
D.Personal management
70. It is the end result or the product in
the form of police service
A.Police efficiency
B.Input
C.Output
D.Police effectiveness
70. It is the end result or the product in
the form of police service
A.Police efficiency
B.Input
C.Output
D.Police effectiveness
71. It is the best concept of management
A.Effectiveness
B.Efficient
C.Delegation
D.Loyalty
71. It is the best concept of management
A.Effectiveness
B.Efficient
C.Delegation
D.Loyalty
72. Management function concerned with
monitoring employees activities, keeping
the records on the track toward its goal
and making correction.
A.Leading
B.Controlling
C.Planning
D.Organizing
72. Management function concerned with
monitoring employees activities, keeping
the records on the track toward its goal
and making correction.
A.Leading
B.Controlling
C.Planning
D.Organizing
73. Decision are choices whom among the
applicants are to be hire
A.Recruitment
B.Process
C.Selection
D.Eligibility
73. Decision are choices whom among the
applicants are to be hire
A.Recruitment
B.Process
C.Selection
D.Eligibility
74. The movement of personally upward from
one classification or rank to another
carrying higher pay and more
responsibility.
A.Appointment
B.Attrition
C.Promotion
D.Specification
74. The movement of personally upward from
one classification or rank to another
carrying higher pay and more
responsibility.
A.Appointment
B.Attrition
C.Promotion
D.Specification
75. Training that develops self-control
and orderly conduct.
A.Procedure
B.Discipline
C.Specialize training
D.Supervisory training
75. Training that develops self-control
and orderly conduct.
A.Procedure
B.Discipline
C.Specialize training
D.Supervisory training
76. Failure to report on duty in
prescribed uniformed is an example what
A.Simple misconduct
B.Simple neglect of duty
C.Simple irregularity in the performance
of duty
D.Less grave misconduct
76. Failure to report on duty in
prescribed uniformed is an example what
A.Simple misconduct
B.Simple neglect of duty
C.Simple irregularity in the performance
of duty
D.Less grave misconduct
77. Any loss or impairment of the normal
function of the physical or mental
faculties of the PNP members
A.Disability
B.Injury
C.Sickness
D.Permanent total disability
77. Any loss or impairment of the normal
function of the physical or mental
faculties of the PNP members
A.Disability
B.Injury
C.Sickness
78. Any harmful change in human organism
from any incident sustained at work, or by
reason of the performance of duty.
A.Injury
B.Disability
C.Sickness
78. Any harmful change in human organism
from any incident sustained at work, or by
reason of the performance of duty.
A.Injury
B.Disability
C.Sickness
79. A uniformed personnel and or his heir
shall entitled to all benefits relative to
demise or permanent incapacity of said
personnel
79. A uniformed personnel and or his heir
shall entitled to all benefits relative to
demise or permanent incapacity of said
personnel
claims
A.Hearing officer
C.Claim officer
D.Investigator
claims
A.Hearing officer
C.Claim officer
D.Investigator
81. The following are appointed to the PNP
with the rank of inspector, through
B.Optometrist
C.Engineers
81. The following are appointed to the PNP
with the rank of inspector, through
B.Optometrist
C.Engineers
82. For eligibility purpose, following are
the different police examinations
administer by the national police
examination, EXCEPT;
A.Entrance/qualifying examination
B.Promotional examination for Senior
police officer
C.Promotional examination for inspector
D.Promotional examination for Chief
superintendent
82. For eligibility purpose, following are
the different police examinations
examination, EXCEPT;
A.Entrance/qualifying examination
B.Promotional examination for Senior
police officer
C.Promotional examination for inspector
D.Promotional examination for Chief
superintendent
the applicant is under waiver program due
to education and weight requirement under
sec. 17 RA 8551.
A.Meritorious
B.Probationary
C.Temporary
D.Permanent
the applicant is under waiver program due
to education and weight requirement under
sec. 17 RA 8551.
A.Meritorious
B.Probationary
C.Temporary
D.Permanent
84. Shall refer to any act or omission not
involving moral turpitude, but affecting
the internal discipline of the PNP.
A.Citizen complaint
B.Minor offense
C.Major offense
84. Shall refer to any act or omission not
involving moral turpitude, but affecting
the internal discipline of the PNP.
A.Citizen complaint
B.Minor offense
C.Major offense
85. Refers to any offense committed by a
member of the PNP affecting order or
discipline within the organization.
A.Withholding the privileges
B.Breach of the internal discipline
C.Disciplinary action
D.Violation of the law
85. Refers to any offense committed by a
member of the PNP affecting order or
discipline within the organization.
A.Withholding the privileges
B.Breach of the internal discipline
C.Disciplinary action
D.Violation of the law
86. It is the area of the management that
is concerned with human relations.
A.Administration
B.Operation
C.Personnel
D.Customer service
86. It is the area of the management that
is concerned with human relations.
A.Administration
B.Operation
C.Personnel
D.Customer service
87. The involvement of the section and
processing of reliable and well trained
personnel or putting the right of person
the right job is_
A.Staffing
B.Controlling
C.Leading
D.Organizing
87. The involvement of the section and
processing of reliable and well trained
personnel or putting the right of person
the right job is_
A.Staffing
B.Controlling
C.Leading
D.Organizing
88. Types of central personnel agencies
which can operate with or without the
civil service commission.
A.Staff personnel
B.Personnel policies
C.Personnel strategies
D.Civil service commission
88. Types of central personnel agencies
which can operate with or without the
civil service commission.
A.Staff personnel
B.Personnel policies
C.Personnel strategies
D.Civil service commission
89. For eligibility purpose following are
the different police examination
commission, except_
A.Chief inspector examination
B.Chief superintendent examination
C.Entrance/qualifying examination
D.Police officer examination PO1-PO3
89. For eligibility purpose following are
the different police examination
commission, except_
A.Chief inspector examination
B.Chief superintendent examination
C.Entrance/qualifying examination
D.Police officer examination PO1-PO3
90. It has two aspect, first is to have
desirable job and second is to well
potential application how desirable the
job are;
A.Job description
B.Recruitment
C.Selection
D.Appointment
90. It has two aspect, first is to have
desirable job and second is to well
potential application how desirable the
job are;
A.Job description
B.Recruitment
C.Selection
D.Appointment
D.Intelligence
D.Intelligence
92. Applicants who successfully pass the
battery of mental and physical test and
whose character investigation and oral
board appraised that they are qualified
for the job.
A.Final selection
B.Oral interview
C.Psychological evaluation
D.Intelligence
92. Applicants who successfully pass the
battery of mental and physical test and
whose character investigation and oral
board appraised that they are qualified
for the job.
A.Final selection
B.Oral interview
C.Psychological evaluation
D.Intelligence
93. The following are types of administrative
records:
I.Personnel records
II.Correspondence files
III.Memoranda, orders, policy files
IV.Assignment record
V.Other files
A.I, II, III, IV, V C. I only
B.I, II, III, and IV D. II, IV and V only
93. The following are types of administrative
records:
I.Personnel records
II.Correspondence files
III.Memoranda, orders, policy files
IV.Assignment record
V.Other files
A.I, II, III, IV, V C. I only
B.I, II, III, and IV D. II, IV and V only
94. Means of communicating police policies
to all personnel, that is fast and they
provide greatest assurance of reaching
every employees
A.Police manuals
B.Police handbooks
C.Memoranda and circular
D.Bulletin board
94. Means of communicating police policies
to all personnel, that is fast and they
provide greatest assurance of reaching
every employees
A.Police manuals
B.Police handbooks
C.Memoranda and circular
D.Bulletin board
95. The central personnel agency has
primary responsibility to perform certain
specific functions as required by law,
such as the administration of civil
service commission for all government
employees.
A.Uniformity
B.Expertise
C.Public convenience
D.Legal requirement
95. The central personnel agency has
primary responsibility to perform certain
specific functions as required by law,
such as the administration of civil
service commission for all government
employees.
A.Uniformity
B.Expertise
C.Public convenience
D.Legal requirement
96. In the selection process for the
purpose of ranking applicants which
usually has high concentration of
achievement of educational skills and
levels rather that the potential or
aptitude for learning.
A.Written examination
B.Positive approach in selection
C.Intelligence
D.Examination and test
96. In the selection process for the
purpose of ranking applicants which
usually has high concentration of
achievement of educational skills and
levels rather that the potential or
aptitude for learning.
A.Written examination
B.Positive approach in selection
C.Intelligence
D.Examination and test
B.Chief, PNP
C.Regional director
D.Chief of police
B.Chief, PNP
C.Regional director
D.Chief of police
98. The evaluation of personality of the
applicants involves appraisal of personal
qualities particularly the impact of his
reflection to others.
A.Psychological evaluation
B.Oral interview
C.Character investigation
D.Psychiatric examination
98. The evaluation of personality of the
applicants involves appraisal of personal
qualities particularly the impact of his
reflection to others.
A.Psychological evaluation
B.Oral interview
C.Character investigation
D.Psychiatric examination
their immediate superiors and attested by
the CSC.
A.DDG
B.Chief, PNP
C.President
D.RD
their immediate superiors and attested by
the CSC.
A.DDG
B.Chief, PNP
C.President
D.RD
compulsory retirement. Is he qualified for
promotion considering that met other
requirements?
A.No
B.Yes
C.Maybe
D.It defends
compulsory retirement. Is he qualified for
promotion considering that met other
requirements?
A.No
B.Yes
C.Maybe
D.It defends
*** END OF SET 1 ***
“Pressure among the examinees are relieved only by promptness and
preparation”
LEA 2 (ISM)
SET 1
1. Registration of a security agency
must be processed at what particular
government agency.
A.PNP SAGSD
B.DND, Civil Defense Office
C.NAPOLCOM
D.Securities and Exchange Commission
1. Registration of a security agency
must be processed at what particular
government agency.
A.PNP SAGSD
B.DND, Civil Defense Office
C.NAPOLCOM
D.Securities and Exchange Commission
2. Minimum age requirement for Security
Manager or Operator of a Security
Agency.
A.25 years old
B.35 years old
C.30 years old
D.40 years old
2. Minimum age requirement for Security
Manager or Operator of a Security
Agency.
A.25 years old
B.35 years old
C.30 years old
D.40 years old
3. He exercises the power to revoke, for
causes licenses issued to security
guards.
A.Chief, PNP
B.Chairman, NAPOLCOM
C.Under Secretary, for Peace and Order
D.Secretary, DILG
3. He exercises the power to revoke, for
causes licenses issued to security
guards.
A.Chief, PNP
B.Chairman, NAPOLCOM
C.Under Secretary, for Peace and Order
D.Secretary, DILG
4. Refers to a natural or man-made
structure which is capable of delaying
illegal access to a facility.
A.Wall
B.Fence
C.Barriers
D.Beach front
4. Refers to a natural or man-made
structure which is capable of delaying
illegal access to a facility.
A.Wall
B.Fence
C.Barriers
D.Beach front
5. It refers to means and ways that
personnel and employees making them
security conscious.
A.Security promotion
B.Security Investigation
C.Security Education
D.Security seminar
5. It refers to means and ways that
personnel and employees making them
security conscious.
A.Security promotion
B.Security Investigation
C.Security Education
D.Security seminar
6. Industrial establishments must
establish the first line of physical
defense, it refers to:
A.Perimeter barriers
B.Door, lock s, window barriers
C.The building itself
D.Entry points where security guards are
located
6. Industrial establishments must
establish the first line of physical
defense, it refers to:
A.Perimeter barriers
B.Door, lock s, window barriers
C.The building itself
D.Entry points where security guards are
located
7. Physical security is a system of barriers
placed between the potential intruder and the
object matters to be protected. As a
criminologist, this is simply a denial
of_______________.
A.Opportunity to commit the offense
B.Access to the object of protection
C.Opportunity to the object of protection
D.Criminal instinct to surface in the
potential offender
7. Physical security is a system of barriers
placed between the potential intruder and the
object matters to be protected. As a
criminologist, this is simply a denial
of_______________.
A.Opportunity to commit the offense
B.Access to the object of protection
C.Opportunity to the object of protection
D.Criminal instinct to surface in the
potential offender
8. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security guards
B. manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
8. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security guards
B. manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
9. Perimeter barriers, protective lighting,
and system are known in industrial security
as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
9. Perimeter barriers, protective lighting,
and system are known in industrial security
as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
10. This is an additional outward inclined
fixed structure, usually barbed wires placed
above a vertical fences to increase physical
protection from intruders of a certain area,
this is known as ______.
A. Cellar guard
B. Tower guard
C. Top guard
D. Top tower
10. This is an additional outward inclined
fixed structure, usually barbed wires placed
above a vertical fences to increase physical
protection from intruders of a certain area,
this is known as ______.
A. Cellar guard
B. Tower guard
C. Top guard
D. Top tower
11. The exterior and interior parallel area
near the perimeter barrier of an industrial
compound to afford better observation and
patrol movement is known as .
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. patrol lane zone
11. The exterior and interior parallel area
near the perimeter barrier of an industrial
compound to afford better observation and
patrol movement is known as .
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. patrol lane zone
12. Protective guarding in a compound can
be done by the use of electronic hardware,
human guards and even animals. In England,
an owner to protect his compound used this
and they are not only effective but also
the cheapest to maintain. This man is using
A. Doberman dog
B. tamed tigers and lions
C. Geese
D. Duck
12. Protective guarding in a compound can
be done by the use of electronic hardware,
human guards and even animals. In England,
an owner to protect his compound used this
and they are not only effective but also
the cheapest to maintain. This man is using
A. Doberman dog
B. tamed tigers and lions
C. Geese
D. Duck
13. The government agency that issues
licenses for private and government
security guards is-
A.PNP SOSIA
B.Municipal \City mayor office
C.PNP FEO
D.PNP SAGSD
13. The government agency that issues
licenses for private and government
security guards is-
A.PNP SOSIA
B.Municipal \City mayor office
C.PNP FEO
D.PNP SAGSD
14. If access is limited only to
authorized personnel, this particular
place is referred to as-
A.Compromise area
B.Danger area
C.Restricted area
D.Exclusive area
14. If access is limited only to
authorized personnel, this particular
place is referred to as-
A.Compromise area
B.Danger area
C.Restricted area
D.Exclusive area
15. First measure undertaking before a
comprehensive security program for an
industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security survey
B. Security education
C. Security check
D. Security Inspection
15. First measure undertaking before a
comprehensive security program for an
industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security survey
B. Security education
C. Security check
D. Security Inspection
16. Security of a plant or industrial firm
is also known by other terms except.
A.Security audit
B.risk assessment
C.Vulnerability
D.Robbery evaluation
16. Security of a plant or industrial firm
is also known by other terms except.
A.Security audit
B.risk assessment
C.Vulnerability
D.Robbery evaluation
17. Today there are three categories of
security guards belonging to the Blue
Army. One of these listed below does not
belong to the group.
A.Body guard’s
B.Agency guard’s
C.Company guards
D.Government security guards
17. Today there are three categories of
security guards belonging to the Blue
Army. One of these listed below does not
belong to the group.
A.Body guard’s
B.Agency guard’s
C.Company guards
D.Government security guards
18. Whether to put up its own security guards
organic to the firm or hire contractual agency
guards have their individual merits and
disadvantages. To determine which type of
guarding system an industrial firm will
require, management must consult .
A.a security agency owner
B.a police officer
C.a military intelligence officer
D.a security consultant not connected to or
owning a security agency or part thereof
18. Whether to put up its own security guards
organic to the firm or hire contractual agency
guards have their individual merits and
disadvantages. To determine which type of
guarding system an industrial firm will
require, management must consult .
A.a security agency owner
B.a police officer
C.a military intelligence officer
D.a security consultant not connected to or
owning a security agency or part thereof
19. As a security officer, you cannot
prevent nor protect natural hazards like
storm, earthquakes, floods and the like.
In order to reduce the disastrous effects
of these natural hazards, you will .
A.Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
B.Not take any concern on such hazards
C.Alert your guards when hazards occur
D.Call PAGASA and inquire when the next
storm is coming
19. As a security officer, you cannot
prevent nor protect natural hazards like
storm, earthquakes, floods and the like.
In order to reduce the disastrous effects
of these natural hazards, you will .
A.Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
B.Not take any concern on such hazards
C.Alert your guards when hazards occur
D.Call PAGASA and inquire when the next
storm is coming
20. Practical exercise or test of a plan
or activity to determine its effectiveness
is called.
A.Evacuation Plan
B.Dry-run
C.Fire drill
D.Sham drill
20. Practical exercise or test of a plan
or activity to determine its effectiveness
is called.
A.Evacuation Plan
B.Dry-run
C.Fire drill
D.Sham drill
21. The management of keys used in plant,
office or business organization to prevent
unauthorized access is referred to as-
A. Key management
B. key control
C. Lock control
D. Security key control
21. The management of keys used in plant,
office or business organization to prevent
unauthorized access is referred to as-
A. Key management
B. key control
C. Lock control
D. Security key control
22. There are many types of types of electronic
and electric protective devices available for
security buildings, storehouses and compounds.
One of the following is true.
A.Electronic\electric devices eliminate human
guards
B.Each building or compound requires
particular electronic\electrical protective
devices
C.Types of alarms needed can best be given by
the dealers of said devices
D.Electronic\electrical devices provide total
protection for the place to be safeguarded
22. There are many types of types of electronic
and electric protective devices available for
security buildings, storehouses and compounds.
One of the following is true.
A.Electronic\electric devices eliminate human
guards
B.Each building or compound requires
particular electronic\electrical protective
devices
C.Types of alarms needed can best be given by
the dealers of said devices
D.Electronic\electrical devices provide total
protection for the place to be safeguarded
23. As a security chief of an industrial
firm, inventory shows that pilferage is
rampant in the warehouses.
A.What will be your choice of action?
A.Tighten checking at exits of vehicles
of the compound\complex
B.Prepare your protective plans and
confer with management for their
immediate implementation
C.Deploy intelligence men in pilferage
prone areas to catch the culprits
D.To resign as you have failed your job.
23. As a security chief of an industrial
firm, inventory shows that pilferage is
rampant in the warehouses.
A.What will be your choice of action?
A.Tighten checking at exits of vehicles
of the compound\complex
B.Prepare your protective plans and
confer with management for their
immediate implementation
C.Deploy intelligence men in pilferage
prone areas to catch the culprits
D.To resign as you have failed your job.
24. In an industrial firm, there is a need
for document security. As a security
officer, you can advise management on this
aspect although this is not totally your
assigned work. Document security is not a
protection of vital records from-
A.Unauthorized access
B.Theft or loss
C.Compromise or destruction
D.Authorized handless
24. In an industrial firm, there is a need
for document security. As a security
officer, you can advise management on this
aspect although this is not totally your
assigned work. Document security is not a
protection of vital records from-
A.Unauthorized access
B.Theft or loss
C.Compromise or destruction
D.Authorized handless
25. The main reason for a personnel
security investigation is-
A.To weed out undesirable employees;
B.To check loyalty of employees to the
organization
C.Preclude assignment to sensitive
positions for those who are security
risks;
D.To determine the character and
reputation of certain employees
secretly tagged as risks.
25. The main reason for a personnel
security investigation is-
A.To weed out undesirable employees;
B.To check loyalty of employees to the
organization
C.Preclude assignment to sensitive
positions for those who are security
risks;
D.To determine the character and
reputation of certain employees
secretly tagged as risks.
26. It is defined as system of barriers
placed between the matters protected and
the potentials intruder.
A.Physical Security
B.Personnel Security
C.Document Security
D.Computer Security
26. It is defined as system of barriers
placed between the matters protected and
the potentials intruder.
A.Physical Security
B.Personnel Security
C.Document Security
D.Computer Security
27. This type of alarm system utilizes a
station located outside the compound.
A.local alarm system
B.Proprietary system
C.Central alarm system
D.Auxiliary system
27. This type of alarm system utilizes a
station located outside the compound.
A.local alarm system
B.Proprietary system
C.Central alarm system
D.Auxiliary system
28. It is installed as part of the
building which holds up to 10,000 cubic
meters of essential items. At least 12
feet in height, with enough ventilation
and fire proof of at least 1 hour.
A.safe
B.file room
C.vault
D.protective cabinet
28. It is installed as part of the
building which holds up to 10,000 cubic
meters of essential items. At least 12
feet in height, with enough ventilation
and fire proof of at least 1 hour.
A.safe
B.file room
C.vault
D.protective cabinet
29. It is the susceptibility of a plant or
establishment to damage, loss or
disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
A.relative criticality
B.risk assessment
C.relative vulnerability
D.risk analysis
29. It is the susceptibility of a plant or
establishment to damage, loss or
disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
B.risk assessment
D.risk analysis
30. It refers to the importance of the
establishment with reference to the
national economy and security.
B.risk assessment
D.risk analysis
30. It refers to the importance of the
establishment with reference to the
national economy and security.
B.risk assessment
D.risk analysis
31. The association of all licensed
security agencies operators.
A.PAOPAD
B.PODPAO
C.PADPAO
D.POAPAD
31. The association of all licensed
security agencies operators.
A.PAOPAD
B.PODPAO
C.PADPAO
D.POAPAD
32. Who among below can own or operate a
security agency.
A.an alien but living here
B.a Filipino citizen
C.any one provided he knows the job
D.all of them
32. Who among below can own or operate a
security agency.
A.an alien but living here
B.a Filipino citizen
C.any one provided he knows the job
D.all of them
33. A license issued to operate security
agency or company forces.
A.License to operate
B.business license
C.license to engage in business
D.all of them
33. A license issued to operate security
agency or company forces.
A.License to operate
B.business license
C.license to engage in business
D.all of them
34. Republic Act No. 5487 governs the
operation of-
A.private security forces\agencies
B.private detective
C.company security
D.all of them
34. Republic Act No. 5487 governs the
operation of-
A.private security forces\agencies
B.private detective
C.company security
D.all of them
35. A fact-finding probe to determine a
plant adequacy and deficiency all aspects
of security, with the corresponding
recommendation.
A.security operation
B.security survey
C.security inquiry
D.security audit
35. A fact-finding probe to determine a
plant adequacy and deficiency all aspects
of security, with the corresponding
recommendation.
A.security operation
B.security survey
C.security inquiry
D.security audit
36. Barrier which includes but not limited
to wall, fences, grill, etc.
A.natural barriers
B.man-made barriers
C.physical barriers
D.structural barriers
36. Barrier which includes but not limited
to wall, fences, grill, etc.
A.natural barriers
B.man-made barriers
C.physical barriers
D.structural barriers
37. One who steals due to his inability to
resist the unexpected opportunity and has
little fear by detection.
A.insider
B.outsider
C.casual
D.systematic
37. One who steals due to his inability to
resist the unexpected opportunity and has
little fear by detection.
A.insider
B.outsider
C.casual
D.systematic
38. A barrier which includes but not
limited to mountains, cliff, ravines, etc.
A.animals
B.human
C.natural
D.energy
38. A barrier which includes but not
limited to mountains, cliff, ravines, etc.
A.animals
B.human
C.natural
D.energy
39. Issued by the security guard for
personnel to be admitted to the company.
A.access list
B.pass system
C.ID
D.duress code
39. Issued by the security guard for
personnel to be admitted to the company.
A.access list
B.pass system
C.ID
D.duress code
40. Mechanical device of supplying water
which can be manual or motor driven.
A.fire pump
B.fire extinguisher
C.fire hydrant
D.stand pipe
40. Mechanical device of supplying water
which can be manual or motor driven.
A.fire pump
B.fire extinguisher
C.fire hydrant
D.stand pipe
41. Intrusion alarm devices are designed
to and not prevent criminals from
trespassing and should be used normally as
an independent adjunct and not a
replacement of the human guard forces.
A.impeded
B.deterred
C.provide
D.detect
41. Intrusion alarm devices are designed
to and not prevent criminals from
trespassing and should be used normally as
an independent adjunct and not a
replacement of the human guard forces.
A.impeded
B.deterred
C.provide
D.detect
42. An authenticated list of personnel
given to security allowing entry to
compound or installation or part thereof.
A.duress code
B.ID
C.access list
D.pass system
42. An authenticated list of personnel
given to security allowing entry to
compound or installation or part thereof.
A.duress code
B.ID
C.access list
D.pass system
43. The act or condition affecting the
safe operation of the facility caused by
human action, accidental or intentional.
It includes sabotage espionage, pilferage
and theft, disloyalty, disaffection and
subversive activities.
A.human hazard
B.natural hazard
C.artificial hazard
D.electronic hazard
43. The act or condition affecting the
safe operation of the facility caused by
human action, accidental or intentional.
It includes sabotage espionage, pilferage
and theft, disloyalty, disaffection and
subversive activities.
A.human hazard
B.natural hazard
C.artificial hazard
D.electronic hazard
44. Example of the security communication
system.
A.Radio
B.Telephone
C.paging system
D.all of them
44. Example of the security communication
system.
A.Radio
B.Telephone
C.paging system
D.all of them
45. The revised rules and regulations
governing the organization and operation
of private detective and private security
agencies and company security forces
throughout the country.
A.Security law
B.International law
C.Private law
D.Private security law
45. The revised rules and regulations
governing the organization and operation
of private detective and private security
agencies and company security forces
throughout the country.
A.Security law
B.International law
C.Private law
D.Private security law
46. A metallic container used for the
safekeeping of documents or small items in
an office or installation.
A.safe
B.drawer
C.basket
D.steel cabinet
46. A metallic container used for the
safekeeping of documents or small items in
an office or installation.
A.safe
B.drawer
C.basket
D.steel cabinet
47. A heavily constructed fire and burglar
resistant container usually a part of the
building structure used to keep and
protect cash, document and negotiable
instruments.
A.concrete coffin
B.vault
C.steel cabinet
D.basket
47. A heavily constructed fire and burglar
resistant container usually a part of the
building structure used to keep and
protect cash, document and negotiable
instruments.
A.concrete coffin
B.vault
C.steel cabinet
D.basket
48. Steel or plastic pipes located the
building from the lowest to the top floor
with water under pressure for use in case
of fire.
A.stand pipe
B.wet pipe
C.top pipe
D.lowering pipe
48. Steel or plastic pipes located the
building from the lowest to the top floor
with water under pressure for use in case
of fire.
A.stand pipe
B.wet pipe
C.top pipe
D.lowering pipe
49. Who among below are exempted from pre-
licensing training.
A.AFP and PNP veterans
B.AFP and PNP retirees
C.Graduates of ROTC basic or advance
D.all of the above
49. Who among below are exempted from pre-
licensing training.
A.AFP and PNP veterans
B.AFP and PNP retirees
C.Graduates of ROTC basic or advance
D.all of the above
50 Tenure of security personnel is based
on-
A.tenure provided by the labor law
B.labor only contracting between the
agency and the guard
C.the service contract between the
agency and the client
D.can be extended by the client
50 Tenure of security personnel is based
on-
A.tenure provided by the labor law
B.labor only contracting between the
agency and the guard
C.the service contract between the
agency and the client
D.can be extended by the client
51. Before private security agencies
.
render security services to its clients,
there must be a contract that must bind
them called-
A.Security service contract
B.Contract service
C.Security contact
D.Contract service
51. Before private security agencies
.
render security services to its clients,
there must be a contract that must bind
them called-
A.Security service contract
B.Contract service
C.Security contact
D.Contract service
52. Which below is a qualification for the
operator or manager of security agency?
A.Filipino Citizen
B.At least 25 years of age
C.Commissioned officer, inactive or
retired from AFP or PNP or a graduate
of Industrial Security Management with
adequate training and experience in
the security business
D.all of them
52. Which below is a qualification for the
operator or manager of security agency?
A.Filipino Citizen
B.At least 25 years of age
C.Commissioned officer, inactive or
retired from AFP or PNP or a graduate
of Industrial Security Management with
adequate training and experience in
the security business
D.all of them
53.A security force maintained and
operated by any private
company\corporation for its own security
requirements only.
A.Private Security Agency
B.Company Security Force
C.Government Security Unit
D.Insular Security force
53.A security force maintained and
operated by any private
company\corporation for its own security
requirements only.
54. A person who offers or renders
personal services to watch or secure a
residence or business establishment or
both is-
A.security guard
B.watchman
C.a and b
D.a only
54. A person who offers or renders
personal services to watch or secure a
residence or business establishment or
both is-
A.security guard
B.watchman
C.a and b
D.a only
55. Includes all the security measures
designed to prevent unsuitable individuals
or person of doubtful loyalty to the
government, from gaining access to
classified matter or to any security
facility, and to prevent appointment, or
retention as employees of such
individuals.
A.Personnel security
B.Security personnel
C.Employee security
D.both a and c
55. Includes all the security measures
designed to prevent unsuitable individuals
or person of doubtful loyalty to the
government, from gaining access to
classified matter or to any security
facility, and to prevent appointment, or
retention as employees of such
individuals.
A.Personnel security
B.Security personnel
C.Employee security
D.both a and c
56. It is an inquiry into the character,
reputation, discretion and loyalty of
individual in order to determine a
person’s suitability to be given security
clearance.
A.PSI
B.NAC
C.LAC
D.BI
56. It is an inquiry into the character,
reputation, discretion and loyalty of
individual in order to determine a
person’s suitability to be given security
clearance.
A.PSI
B.NAC
C.LAC
D.BI
57. Consist of the investigation of the
background of an individual but limited
only to some of the circumstances of his
personal life which are deemed pertinent
to the investigation.
A.BI
B.CBI
C.PBI
D.PSI
background of an individual but limited
only to some of the circumstances of his
personal life which are deemed pertinent
to the investigation.
A.BI
B.CBI
C.PBI
D.PSI
58. Through and complete investigation of
all or some of the circumstances or
aspects of a person’s life is conducted.
A.BI
B.CBI
C.PBI
D.PSI
58. Through and complete investigation of
all or some of the circumstances or
aspects of a person’s life is conducted.
A.BI
B.CBI
C.PBI
D.PSI
59. Factors considered in background
investigation, except-
A.loyalty
B.character
C.Personal Prestige
D.Integrity
59. Factors considered in background
investigation, except-
A.loyalty
B.character
C.Personal Prestige
D.Integrity
60. Motives that cause people to be
disloyal.
A.reputation
B.revenge
C.Moral
D.character
60. Motives that cause people to be
disloyal.
A.reputation
B.revenge
C.Moral
D.character
61. Weaknesses that makes people
susceptible to pressure.
A.Close relative in foreign lands
B.Jealousy
C.Weakness of character
D.all of them
61. Weaknesses that makes people
susceptible to pressure.
A.Close relative in foreign lands
B.Jealousy
C.Weakness of character
D.all of them
62 A security unit maintained and operated
by any government entity.
62 A security unit maintained and operated
by any government entity.
background of a person, particularly all
the circumstances of hi9s personal life.
A.BI
B.CBI
C.PBI
D.PSI
background of a person, particularly all
the circumstances of hi9s personal life.
A.BI
B.CBI
C.PBI
D.PSI
64. Any person, association, partnership,
firm or private corporation, who
contracts, recruits, trains, furnishes or
post any security guard, to do its
functions.
64. Any person, association, partnership,
firm or private corporation, who
contracts, recruits, trains, furnishes or
post any security guard, to do its
functions.
65. Shall be responsible to the Detachment
Commander as far as his shift is
concerned.
A.Assistant Detachment Commander
B.Shift-in-charge
C.Security Guard on Duty
D.Officer-in-charge
65. Shall be responsible to the Detachment
Commander as far as his shift is
concerned.
A.Assistant Detachment Commander
B.Shift-in-charge
C.Security Guard on Duty
D.Officer-in-charge
66. Before a security guard can practice
his profession; he shall possess valid
security license.
A.Security guard license
B.License to operate
C.Driver’s license
D.Firearms license
66. Before a security guard can practice
his profession; he shall possess valid
security license.
A.Security guard license
B.License to operate
C.Driver’s license
D.Firearms license
67. How many firearms issued for every two
guards employed to the security agency as
authorized by law.
A.one
B.two
C.three
D.four
67. How many firearms issued for every two
guards employed to the security agency as
authorized by law.
A.one
B.two
C.three
D.four
68. Firearms of security agency should be
covered with firearms license issued by
the PNP through its Firearms Explosive
Division under the Civil Security Group,
renewable every-
A.One year
B.Two years
C.Three years
D.Four years
68. Firearms of security agency should be
covered with firearms license issued by
the PNP through its Firearms Explosive
Division under the Civil Security Group,
renewable every-
A.One year
B.Two years
C.Three years
D.Four years
69. That aspect of security which involves
the application of security measures for
the protection and safeguarding of
classified information.
A.document security
B.information security
C.personnel security
D.Top Secret
69. That aspect of security which involves
the application of security measures for
the protection and safeguarding of
classified information.
A.document security
B.information security
C.personnel security
D.Top Secret
70. Refers to assign information by one of
the four classification categories.
A.Security clearance
B.Classified
C.Declassify
D.Reclassify
70. Refers to assign information by one of
the four classification categories.
B.Classified
C.Declassify
D.Reclassify
71. Refers to the administrative
determination that an individual is
eligible for access to classified matter.
B.Classified
C.Declassify
D.Reclassify
71. Refers to the administrative
determination that an individual is
eligible for access to classified matter.
B.Classified
C.Declassify
D.Reclassify
72. Means loss of security, which results
from an authorized persons obtaining
knowledge of classified matter.
A.Compromise
B.Criticality
C.Probability
D.Vulnerability
72. Means loss of security, which results
from an authorized persons obtaining
knowledge of classified matter.
A.Compromise
B.Criticality
C.Probability
D.Vulnerability
73. These are information and material,
the unauthorized disclosure of which would
cause exceptional grave damage to the
nation, politically, economically or from
a security aspect. This category is
reserve for the nation’s closet secret and
is to be used with great reserve.
A.Top Secret matters
B.Secret matters
C.Confidential matters
D.Restricted matters
73. These are information and material,
the unauthorized disclosure of which would
cause exceptional grave damage to the
nation, politically, economically or from
a security aspect. This category is
reserve for the nation’s closet secret and
is to be used with great reserve.
B.Secret matters
74. These information and material, the
authorized disclosure of which would
endanger national security, cause serious
injury to the interest or prestige of the
nation or of any governmental activity or
would be of great advantage to a foreign
nation.
B.Secret matters
authorized disclosure of which would
endanger national security, cause serious
injury to the interest or prestige of the
nation or of any governmental activity or
would be of great advantage to a foreign
nation.
B.Secret matters
authorized disclosure of which, while not
endangering the national security, would
be prejudicial to the interest or prestige
of the nation or any government activity,
or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an
individual or would be of the advantage to
a foreign nation.
B.Secret matters
authorized disclosure of which, while not
endangering the national security, would
be prejudicial to the interest or prestige
of the nation or any government activity,
or would cause administrative
embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an
individual or would be of the advantage to
a foreign nation.
B.Secret matters
76. It is information that in some special
way relates to the status or activities of
the possessor and over which the possessor
asserts ownership.
A.Proprietary information
B.Trade Secret
C.Patents
D.Transmission security
76. It is information that in some special
way relates to the status or activities of
the possessor and over which the possessor
asserts ownership.
B.Trade Secret
C.Patents
77. It maybe a formula for a chemical
compounds a process of manufacturing,
treating or preserving materials, a
pattern for machine or device, or a list
of customers.
B.Trade Secret
C.Patents
77. It maybe a formula for a chemical
compounds a process of manufacturing,
treating or preserving materials, a
pattern for machine or device, or a list
of customers.
B.Trade Secret
C.Patents
78. It is the protection resulting from
the application of various measures which
prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
persons in gaining information through our
communications.
A.Communication Security
B.Transmission Security
C.Cryptographic Security
D.all of the above
78. It is the protection resulting from
the application of various measures which
prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
persons in gaining information through our
communications.
D.all of the above
79. Is that component of communication
security which results from the provisions
of technically sound crypto-system and
their proper use
D.all of the above
79. Is that component of communication
security which results from the provisions
of technically sound crypto-system and
their proper use
D.all of the above
80. A system which uses words as the
smallest element.
A.Cipher
B.Code
C.Concealment
D.Transposition System
80. A system which uses words as the
smallest element.
A.Cipher
B.Code
C.Concealment
81. A system that manipulate one, two or
three characters at a time.
A.Cipher
B.Code
C.Concealment
81. A system that manipulate one, two or
three characters at a time.
A.Cipher
B.Code
C.Concealment
82. It is the potential damage or loss of
an asset.
A.Criticality
B.Risk
C.Security hazard
D.Adversary
82. It is the potential damage or loss of
an asset.
A.Criticality
B.Risk
C.Security hazard
D.Adversary
83. It is the impact of a loss as measured
in financial terms.
A.Criticality
B.Risk
C.Security hazard
D.Adversary
83. It is the impact of a loss as measured
in financial terms.
A.Criticality
B.Risk
C.Security hazard
D.Adversary
84. Eliminating or removing the risk
totally from the business, government, or
industrial environment for which the risk
manager has responsibility.
A.Risk Reduction
B.Risk Spreading
C.Risk Avoidance
D.Risk Self-assumption
84. Eliminating or removing the risk
totally from the business, government, or
industrial environment for which the risk
manager has responsibility.
A.Risk Reduction
B.Risk Spreading
C.Risk Avoidance
D.Risk Self-assumption
85. It is an act of spying.
A.Sabotage
B.Espionage
C.Pilferer
D.Saboteur
85. It is an act of spying.
A.Sabotage
B.Espionage
C.Pilferer
D.Saboteur
86. It is one of the most annoying and
common human hazards which security has to
deal with.
A.Pilferage
B.Casual Pilferage
C.Systematic Pilferage
D.none of the above
86. It is one of the most annoying and
common human hazards which security has to
deal with.
A.Pilferage
B.Casual Pilferage
D.none of the above
87. One who steals with preconceived plans
and takes always any or all types of items
or supplies for economic gain.
A.Pilferage
B.Casual Pilferage
D.none of the above
87. One who steals with preconceived plans
and takes always any or all types of items
or supplies for economic gain.
A.Pilferage
B.Casual Pilferage
D.none of the above
88. What date that Republic Act 5487 or
the private Security Agency Law was passed
A.June 21, 1969
B.June 21, 1959
C.June 21, 1958
D.June 21, 1968
88. What date that Republic Act 5487 or
the private Security Agency Law was passed
A.June 21, 1969
B.June 21, 1959
C.June 21, 1958
D.June 21, 1968
89. Natural hazards or act of God.
A.Force majeure
B.Phenomenon
C.Disaster
D.Calamity
89. Natural hazards or act of God.
A.Force majeure
B.Phenomenon
C.Disaster
D.Calamity
90. A restricted area where visitors are
limited in movement and are usually
escorted.
A.Protected Area
B.Limited area
C.Restricted area
D.Exclusive area
90. A restricted area where visitors are
limited in movement and are usually
escorted.
A.Protected Area
B.Limited area
C.Restricted area
D.Exclusive area
91 A structure placed above a vertical
fence to increase protection from
intruder.
A.Top guard
B.Clear zone
C.Tower guard
D.Guard house
91 A structure placed above a vertical
fence to increase protection from
intruder.
A.Top guard
B.Clear zone
C.Tower guard
D.Guard house
92. A conference similar to entrance
conference, this is only done after the
completion of security survey.
A.Exit conference
B.Briefing
C.Debriefing
D.Entrance conference
92. A conference similar to entrance
conference, this is only done after the
completion of security survey.
A.Exit conference
B.Briefing
C.Debriefing
D.Entrance conference
93. It is the lost that would be sustained
if a given target or combination of target
where totally removed, destroyed or both.
A.Possible Maximum Loss
B.Probable Maximum loss
C.Risk Transfer
D.Risk Reduction
93. It is the lost that would be sustained
if a given target or combination of target
where totally removed, destroyed or both.
C.Risk Transfer
D.Risk Reduction
94. Refers to the amount of loss a target
would be likely to sustain through, e.g.
robbery, theft and so on.
C.Risk Transfer
D.Risk Reduction
94. Refers to the amount of loss a target
would be likely to sustain through, e.g.
robbery, theft and so on.
C.Risk Transfer
D.Risk Reduction
95. A term used in England for lock
pickers, safe crackers and penetrators of
restricted rooms or area.
A.Peterman
B.Peter pan
C.Batman
D.Superman
95. A term used in England for lock
pickers, safe crackers and penetrators of
restricted rooms or area.
A.Peterman
B.Peter pan
C.Batman
D.Superman
96. The badge or pass coded for
authorization to enter specific areas is
issued to an employee who keeps it in his
possession until his authorization is
terminates.
A.Multiple pass system
B.Pass exchange system
C.single pass system
D.Pass system
96. The badge or pass coded for
authorization to enter specific areas is
issued to an employee who keeps it in his
possession until his authorization is
terminates.
A.Multiple pass system
B.Pass exchange system
C.single pass system
D.Pass system
97. Company owned alarm systems with a
unit in the nearest police station so that
in case of need, direct call is possible.
A.Central Station System
B.Proprietary System
C.Local alarm system
D.Auxiliary alarm
97. Company owned alarm systems with a
unit in the nearest police station so that
in case of need, direct call is possible.
D.Auxiliary alarm
98. This system consists of ringing up a
visual or audible alarm system near the
subject to be protected.
D.Auxiliary alarm
98. This system consists of ringing up a
visual or audible alarm system near the
subject to be protected.
D.Auxiliary alarm
99. The basic load of ammunition per unit
of duly licensed firearm shall no exceed:
A. 20 loads
B. 30 loads
C. 25 loads
D. 50 loads
99. The basic load of ammunition per unit
of duly licensed firearm shall no exceed:
A. 20 loads
B. 30 loads
C. 25 loads
D. 50 loads
100. The equivalent position of security
guard 2 in the staff of security guards:
A. Shift-in-charge
B. Post-in-charge
C. Watchman
100. The equivalent position of security
guard 2 in the staff of security guards:
A. Shift-in-charge
B. Post-in-charge
C. Watchman
LEA 3 (POLICE PATROL AND COMMUNICATIONS)
By
2. Which of the following is NOT a patrol
function?
A. Suppression of criminal activity
B. Prevention of crime
C. Apprehension of criminals
D. Fingerprint identification
2. Which of the following is NOT a patrol
function?
A. Suppression of criminal activity
B. Prevention of crime
C. Apprehension of criminals
D. Fingerprint identification
3. Which of the following is the least
considered in determining patrol
deployment?
A. Arrests made C. Crimes committed
B. Fund support D. Complaints logged
3. Which of the following is the least
considered in determining patrol
deployment?
A. Arrests made C. Crimes committed
B. Fund support D. Complaints logged
4. A patrol officer must employ what
technique in order to recall events which
happened while he was patrolling his beat.
A. He communicate events to his buddy
B. He memorizes and mentally records
events
C. He records events in his notebook
D. He telephones events to dispatcher
4. A patrol officer must employ what
technique in order to recall events which
happened while he was patrolling his beat.
A. He communicate events to his buddy
B. He memorizes and mentally records
events
C. He records events in his notebook
D. He telephones events to dispatcher
5. While searching for a suspect in a
house during the night, how should your
flashlight be held?
A. Close to the weapon as possible
B. Close to the body as possible
C. Away from your body and preferably
with your weak hand
D. Away from your body and preferably
with your strong hand
5. While searching for a suspect in a
house during the night, how should your
flashlight be held?
A. Close to the weapon as possible
B. Close to the body as possible
C. Away from your body and preferably
with your weak hand
D. Away from your body and preferably
with your strong hand
6. Which of the following ensures that
patrol officers are on their beats?
A. Have an effective patrol supervision
B. Have greater police authority
C. Deploy 50% more patrol officers
D. Require them to present a report
after duty
6. Which of the following ensures that
patrol officers are on their beats?
A. Have an effective patrol supervision
B. Have greater police authority
C. Deploy 50% more patrol officers
D. Require them to present a report
after duty
7. Search Warrant is an order signed by a
___ and directed to a peace officer.
A. Arresting Officer C. Prosecutor
B. Judge D. Chief of Police
7. Search Warrant is an order signed by a
___ and directed to a peace officer.
A. Arresting Officer C. Prosecutor
B. Judge D. Chief of Police
8. The localization of the recruitment of
policemen shall ensure that they are
familiar with the___ of the patrol beats.
A. projects C. terrain
B. personnel D. size
8. The localization of the recruitment of
policemen shall ensure that they are
familiar with the___ of the patrol beats.
A. projects C. terrain
B. personnel D. size
9. Provides the fastest response to police
assistance.
A. canine patrol C. foot patrol
B. bicycle patrol D. mobile patrol
9. Provides the fastest response to police
assistance.
A. canine patrol C. foot patrol
B. bicycle patrol D. mobile patrol
10. Effective helicopter surveillance
requires coordinated effort and teamwork
between ____ observers and those in the
helicopter.
A. Road C. Station
B. Ground D. Sea
10. Effective helicopter surveillance
requires coordinated effort and teamwork
between ____ observers and those in the
helicopter.
A. Road C. Station
B. Ground D. Sea
11. What is the process of collecting and
analyzing data on patrol activities for the
purpose of more efficient scheduling and
deployment of manpower?
A. Workload analysis C.Manpower analysis
B. Staffing analysis D.Shift analysis
11. What is the process of collecting and
analyzing data on patrol activities for the
purpose of more efficient scheduling and
deployment of manpower?
A. Workload analysis C.Manpower analysis
B. Staffing analysis D.Shift analysis
12. Which of the following is not a
responsibility of a patrol officer?
A. Observe and check suspicious people,
structure/buildings and compounds
B. Check suspicious vehicles along the
highways in the course of his/her patrol
C. Evaluate the items recovered in the
crime scene from the result of
interrogation of suspects and interview of
witnesses
D. Conduct home visitations when
circumstances warrants
12. Which of the following is not a
responsibility of a patrol officer?
A. Observe and check suspicious people,
structure/buildings and compounds
B. Check suspicious vehicles along the
highways in the course of his/her patrol
C. Evaluate the items recovered in the
crime scene from the result of
interrogation of suspects and interview of
witnesses
D. Conduct home visitations when
circumstances warrants
13. With whom does the public make
majority of contacts and interactions?
A. investigator C.patrol officer
B. vice control D.detective
13. With whom does the public make
majority of contacts and interactions?
A. investigator C.patrol officer
B. vice control D.detective
14. What is the fixed point or location to
which an officer is assigned such as
designated work, office or spot?
A. Beat C. Post
B. Route D. Sector
14. What is the fixed point or location to
which an officer is assigned such as
designated work, office or spot?
A. Beat C. Post
B. Route D. Sector
15. Police marks and signs at the side of
police cars are not advantageous as these:
A. Enhance police image and support
B. Increase the suppressive value of
patrol
C. Foster community support and
participation
D. Promote police authority on the
streets
15. Police marks and signs at the side of
police cars are not advantageous as these:
A. Enhance police image and support
B. Increase the suppressive value of
patrol
C. Foster community support and
participation
D. Promote police authority on the
streets
16. SPO Ricardo Tulito is the patrol supervisor for
the morning shift. He has few men to cover all the
patrol beats. Which of the following is best
recommended for him to implement?
A. Assign all patrol officers to roving mobile
patrols
B. Assign foot patrol in busy and congested areas
and roving patrol to cover the other beats
c. Maintain all patrol officers at the station and
just wait for calls for police assistance
D. Assign mobile patrol in busy areas and leave
the rest of the patrol officers at the station
16. SPO Ricardo Tulito is the patrol supervisor for
the morning shift. He has few men to cover all the
patrol beats. Which of the following is best
recommended for him to implement?
A. Assign all patrol officers to roving mobile
patrols
B. Assign foot patrol in busy and congested areas
and roving patrol to cover the other beats
c. Maintain all patrol officers at the station and
D. Assign mobile patrol in busy areas and leave
the rest of the patrol officers at the station
17. The most important factor in
formulating an effective patrol strategy
is ____.
A. Rank of patrol supervisor
B. Training of patrol officers and
members
C. Salary rates of patrol officers
D. Adequacy of resources of the police
station
17. The most important factor in
formulating an effective patrol strategy
is ____.
A. Rank of patrol supervisor
B. Training of patrol officers and
members
C. Salary rates of patrol officers
D. Adequacy of resources of the police
station
18. PO1 randy Surial saw Lolo Andoy, a senile
old man from the neighborhood, seated outside
the Jollibee restaurant counting so many US
Dollar bills. PO1 Surial would be most helpful
if he would tell the old man to:
A.Keep the money inside his pocket and walk
back home with him
B.Call a friend or a relative to bring him home
C.Go inside the restaurant and continue
counting his money
D.Give him the money and they go to the station
18. PO1 randy Surial saw Lolo Andoy, a senile
old man from the neighborhood, seated outside
the Jollibee restaurant counting so many US
Dollar bills. PO1 Surial would be most helpful
if he would tell the old man to:
A.Keep the money inside his pocket and walk
back home with him
B.Call a friend or a relative to bring him home
C.Go inside the restaurant and continue
counting his money
D.Give him the money and they go to the station
19. Which of the following police units
can best handle a call concerning an “in-
progress crime incident”?
A.Unit with police officers and who are
most experience with the type of crime
incident
B.Unit closest to the place of incident
C.Unit with the most number of personnel
D.Unit with the highest ranking officer
19. Which of the following police units
can best handle a call concerning an “in-
progress crime incident”?
A.Unit with police officers and who are
most experience with the type of crime
incident
B.Unit closest to the place of incident
C.Unit with the most number of personnel
D.Unit with the highest ranking officer
by ____
A.Purpose
B.Process
C.Clientele
D.Time
by ____
A.Purpose
B.Process
C.Clientele
D.Time
21. The first-line patrol supervisor is the
key to the success of the patrol function.
This statement is generally _____
A.False, since he/she is no better than
subordinates
B.False, since he/she cannot be in all
places to supervise
C.True, since the public air their
complaints to him/her
D.True, since he/she ensures that patrol is
performed properly
21. The first-line patrol supervisor is the
key to the success of the patrol function.
This statement is generally _____
A.False, since he/she is no better than
subordinates
B.False, since he/she cannot be in all
places to supervise
C.True, since the public air their
complaints to him/her
D.True, since he/she ensures that patrol is
performed properly
station
station
23. A criticism against mobile patrol is
that police officers ride by streets and
have become strangers to the public. Which
of the following can effectively resolve
the problem?
A.Convince the public that the mobile patrol
covers a wider and response faster
B.Eliminate mobile patrol and undertake foot
patrol
C.Expand police community relation program
D.Mobile patrol officers park their car and
walk their seat from time to time
23. A criticism against mobile patrol is
that police officers ride by streets and
have become strangers to the public. Which
of the following can effectively resolve
the problem?
A.Convince the public that the mobile patrol
covers a wider and response faster
B.Eliminate mobile patrol and undertake foot
patrol
C.Expand police community relation program
D.Mobile patrol officers park their car and
walk their seat from time to time
24. Which of the following should not be
done by a beat patrolman?
A.Issue police clearance
B.Arrest criminals
C.Direct traffic
D.Protect the crime scene
24. Which of the following should not be
done by a beat patrolman?
A.Issue police clearance
B.Arrest criminals
C.Direct traffic
D.Protect the crime scene
25. The following are factors in
designating patrol beats EXCEPT _____
A.Number of patrol officers to be assigned
at one time
B.Types of reports to be prepared
C.Size of the area to be covered
D.Natural and man-made barriers
25. The following are factors in
designating patrol beats EXCEPT _____
A.Number of patrol officers to be assigned
at one time
B.Types of reports to be prepared
C.Size of the area to be covered
D.Natural and man-made barriers
26. The police must be able to let the
residents feel that they are secure in
their homes and process of work and that
the police are readily available to
respond to their calls for assistance is
called _____
A.Police omnipresence
B.Police authority
C.Police responses
D.Police discretion
26. The police must be able to let the
residents feel that they are secure in
their homes and process of work and that
the police are readily available to
respond to their calls for assistance is
called _____
A.Police omnipresence
B.Police authority
C.Police responses
D.Police discretion
27. An impression of police ______ is
created by a frequent and conspicuous
patrol at every hour in all sections of
the community.
A.Efficiency
B.Responsiveness
C.Effectiveness
D.Omnipresence
27. An impression of police ______ is
created by a frequent and conspicuous
patrol at every hour in all sections of
the community.
A.Efficiency
B.Responsiveness
C.Effectiveness
D.Omnipresence
28. In small police stations, a patrol
officer must be trained as _____.
A.Generalist
B.Traffic enforcer
C.Specialist
D.Investigator
28. In small police stations, a patrol
officer must be trained as _____.
A.Generalist
B.Traffic enforcer
C.Specialist
D.Investigator
29. It serves as reference for arrest and
complaint numbers as well as give to
supervisors easily read portrayal of the
day’s activities.
A.Operational report
B.Crime report
C.Daily bulletin
D.Incident report
29. It serves as reference for arrest and
complaint numbers as well as give to
supervisors easily read portrayal of the
day’s activities.
A.Operational report
B.Crime report
C.Daily bulletin
D.Incident report
30. Which type of patrol is best
recommended for adaptation in busy and
thickly populated streets and places like
divisoria and baclaran.
A.Foot
B.Bicycle
C.Mobile
D.Horse
30. Which type of patrol is best
recommended for adaptation in busy and
thickly populated streets and places like
divisoria and baclaran.
A.Foot
B.Bicycle
C.Mobile
D.Horse
31. How is the time elapsed between the
receipt of civilian call for assistance
and the time of arrival of the police at
the scene called?
A.Critical time
B.Crime reporting time
C.Proximate time
D.Response time
31. How is the time elapsed between the
receipt of civilian call for assistance
and the time of arrival of the police at
the scene called?
A.Critical time
B.Crime reporting time
C.Proximate time
D.Response time
32. Search and rescue operations can be
best undertaken through the use of _____
A.Patrol car
B.Helicopter
C.Bicycle
D.Motorcycle
32. Search and rescue operations can be
best undertaken through the use of _____
A.Patrol car
B.Helicopter
C.Bicycle
D.Motorcycle
33. The PNP has a program which ensures
the deployment of policemen in busy and
crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police visibility program
33. The PNP has a program which ensures
the deployment of policemen in busy and
crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police visibility program
34. In busy and thickly populated Commercial
Street like those in Divisoria, police patrol
is very necessary. Since three are several
types of patrol, which of the following will
you recommend?
A. Horse patrol B. Foot patrol
C. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol
34. In busy and thickly populated Commercial
Street like those in Divisoria, police patrol
is very necessary. Since three are several
types of patrol, which of the following will
you recommend?
A. Horse patrol B. Foot patrol
C. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol
35. A crew which is assigned to a mobile
car usually consists of
____________________.
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
35. A crew which is assigned to a mobile
car usually consists of
____________________.
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
36. Police Officer must develop the
_________________ of recording the facts
as they are learned and as the evidence is
obtained:
A. obligation B. habit
C. perspective D. Duty
36. Police Officer must develop the
_________________ of recording the facts
as they are learned and as the evidence is
obtained:
A. obligation B. habit
C. perspective D. Duty
37. Bicycle patrol has the combined
advantage of ______________ since they can
be operated very quietly and without
attracting attention.
A. Reduced speed and greater area of
coverage
B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter time travel
D. Mobility and stealth
37. Bicycle patrol has the combined
advantage of ______________ since they can
be operated very quietly and without
attracting attention.
A. Reduced speed and greater area of
coverage
B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter time travel
D. Mobility and stealth
38. It is the police function which serves
as the Backbone of the police service. In
all types of police situations, there is a
specific unit assigned to undertake this
function in view of its importance.
A. vice control
B. Traffic enforcement
C. criminal investigation
D. patrol
38. It is the police function which serves
as the Backbone of the police service. In
all types of police situations, there is a
specific unit assigned to undertake this
function in view of its importance.
A. vice control
B. Traffic enforcement
C. criminal investigation
D. patrol
39. Which of the following strategies is
FALSE?
A. patrol officers are assigned to the
New Cops on the Block
B. foot patrol places the patrol
officers to greater danger than mobile
patrol
C. helicopter patrol is of no use in
search and rescue operation
D. the PNP does employ foot patrol
39. Which of the following strategies is
FALSE?
A. patrol officers are assigned to the
New Cops on the Block
B. foot patrol places the patrol
officers to greater danger than mobile
patrol
C. helicopter patrol is of no use in
search and rescue operation
D. the PNP does employ foot patrol
A. In a small police station, the need for
a full time Records officer is
justifiable.
B. As police stations increases its size,
routine Desk officer is not able to hand
them all.
D. In large Departments, the Desk officer
devote full time exclusively to record
task.
A. In a small police station, the need for
a full time Records officer is
justifiable.
B. As police stations increases its size,
routine Desk officer is not able to hand
them all.
D. In large Departments, the Desk officer
devote full time exclusively to record
task.
station
station
42. You are the Patrol Supervisor for morning
shift, you don’t have enough men to cover all the
patrol beats. Which of the following will you
implement?
A. Assign roving patrol with no foot patrol
B. Assign mobile patrol only in strategic place
C. Maintain your patrolmen in the station and
D. Assign foot patrol in congested and busy
patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol
to cover beats which are not covered by foot
patrol.
42. You are the Patrol Supervisor for morning
shift, you don’t have enough men to cover all the
patrol beats. Which of the following will you
implement?
A. Assign roving patrol with no foot patrol
B. Assign mobile patrol only in strategic place
C. Maintain your patrolmen in the station and
D. Assign foot patrol in congested and busy
patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol
to cover beats which are not covered by foot
patrol.
43. Listed below are all types of patrol,
EXCEPT
A. Horse patrol B. Highway patrol
C. Foot patrol D. Motorcycle patrol
43. Listed below are all types of patrol,
EXCEPT
A. Horse patrol B. Highway patrol
C. Foot patrol D. Motorcycle patrol
44. Upon arrival at his assigned beat, the
patrol officer must immediately report to
the ________.
A. Desk officer
B. Commander
C. Unit supervisor
D. Supervisor
44. Upon arrival at his assigned beat, the
patrol officer must immediately report to
the ________.
A. Desk officer
B. Commander
C. Unit supervisor
D. Supervisor
45. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s
area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the
police through;
A. foot patrol B. highway patrol
C. mobile Patrol D. helicopter patrol
45. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s
area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the
police through;
A. foot patrol B. highway patrol
C. mobile Patrol D. helicopter patrol
46. The first step a dispatcher must take
when a felony-in-progress call has been
received through telephone or by direct
alarm signal is to?
A. assign an investigator to investigate
the witness
B. clear the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to
crime scene
D. send augmentation force
46. The first step a dispatcher must take
when a felony-in-progress call has been
received through telephone or by direct
alarm signal is to?
A. assign an investigator to investigate
the witness
B. clear the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to
crime scene
D. send augmentation force
47. In case of special anti-crime squad,
it should be used during normal times to
intensify patrol in crime prone areas and
it be restricted to ____________ and be
given missions to accomplish.
A. an area corresponding to two (2)
beats
B. any area in the barangay
C. specific areas
D. general patrol area
47. In case of special anti-crime squad,
it should be used during normal times to
intensify patrol in crime prone areas and
it be restricted to ____________ and be
given missions to accomplish.
A. an area corresponding to two (2)
beats
B. any area in the barangay
C. specific areas
D. general patrol area
48. The random and unpredictable character
of patrol, cultivation of feeling of
police omnipresence, high hazard areas,
adequacy of the number of man to meet the
need, likelihood of criminal apprehension,
and safety of control officers determine:
A. patrol coverage and deployment
B. degree of police-community relations
C. type of weapon to be used
D. deployment of intelligence agent
48. The random and unpredictable character
of patrol, cultivation of feeling of
police omnipresence, high hazard areas,
adequacy of the number of man to meet the
need, likelihood of criminal apprehension,
and safety of control officers determine:
A. patrol coverage and deployment
B. degree of police-community relations
C. type of weapon to be used
D. deployment of intelligence agent
49. The presence of a uniformed patrol
officer and observant of the persons and
things around, deters the desire and
destroys the _________________ for one to
commit crime.
A. Opportunity
B. Need
C. Intention
D. Ambition
49. The presence of a uniformed patrol
officer and observant of the persons and
things around, deters the desire and
destroys the _________________ for one to
commit crime.
A. Opportunity
B. Need
C. Intention
D. Ambition
50. Dogs have an acute sense of
____________ thus, their utilization in
tracking down lost persons or illegal
drugs.
A. Smell B. Eating
C. Hearing D. Drinking
50. Dogs have an acute sense of
____________ thus, their utilization in
tracking down lost persons or illegal
drugs.
A. Smell B. Eating
C. Hearing D. Drinking
ideally suited in evacuation and search-
and-rescue duties?
A. Motorcycle B. Patrol car
C. Helicopter D. Bicycle
ideally suited in evacuation and search-
and-rescue duties?
A. Motorcycle B. Patrol car
C. Helicopter D. Bicycle
relationship so as to produce the
desired organizational objectives of
peacemaking?
C. Team Policing
D. Directed Patrol
relationship so as to produce the
desired organizational objectives of
peacemaking?
C. Team Policing
D. Directed Patrol
53. A person, thing or situation which
possesses a high potential for criminal
attack or for creating a clamor for police
service is considered as:
A. Patrol hazards B. Patrol effort
C. Police discretion D. None of these
53. A person, thing or situation which
possesses a high potential for criminal
attack or for creating a clamor for police
service is considered as:
A. Patrol hazards B. Patrol effort
C. Police discretion D. None of these
54. It requires the use of flashing light
and siren and may violate traffic laws.
A. Roll call
B. Exit call
C. Emergency call
54. It requires the use of flashing light
and siren and may violate traffic laws.
A. Roll call
B. Exit call
C. Emergency call
55. It is the total number of police
officers assigned in patrol duties.
A. Mandatory strength
B. Effective strength
C. Physical strength
55. It is the total number of police
officers assigned in patrol duties.
A. Mandatory strength
B. Effective strength
C. Physical strength
56. Field operations are directed by the
police commander and the subordinate
commanders aimed at the accomplishment of
the primary tasks more effectively and
economically. What force has the primary
task of safeguarding the community?
A.Investigation unit
B.Patrol unit
C.Traffic control unit
D.Auxiliary unit
56. Field operations are directed by the
police commander and the subordinate
commanders aimed at the accomplishment of
the primary tasks more effectively and
economically. What force has the primary
task of safeguarding the community?
A.Investigation unit
B.Patrol unit
C.Traffic control unit
D.Auxiliary unit
57. In Philippine context of policing,
what SOP prescribes the basic procedures
to be observed by all PNP Units and mobile
patrol elements in the conduct of
visibility patrols?
A.REACT 166
B.Police Beat Patrol Procedures
C.SOP 101
D.SOP No. 17
57. In Philippine context of policing,
what SOP prescribes the basic procedures
to be observed by all PNP Units and mobile
patrol elements in the conduct of
visibility patrols?
A.REACT 166
B.Police Beat Patrol Procedures
C.SOP 101
D.SOP No. 17
59. Normally, criminals think twice before
executing their plans if there is obvious
presence of police officers. Thus, patrol
activity should be carried in a manner that
attracts maximum attention to the police
officer or police vehicles. This statement
refers to the application of –
A.High visibility theory
B.Low visibility theory
C.Smart patrol theory
D.Opportunity-removal theory
59. Normally, criminals think twice before
executing their plans if there is obvious
presence of police officers. Thus, patrol
activity should be carried in a manner that
attracts maximum attention to the police
officer or police vehicles. This statement
refers to the application of –
A.High visibility theory
B.Low visibility theory
C.Smart patrol theory
D.Opportunity-removal theory
60. In this type of patrol, there is
greater personal contact with the public
leading to increased community support for
the police. The Police become closer to
the community residents.
A.Bicycle patrol
B.Motor vehicle patrol
C.Foot patrol
D.All of the above
60. In this type of patrol, there is
greater personal contact with the public
leading to increased community support for
the police. The Police become closer to
the community residents.
A.Bicycle patrol
B.Motor vehicle patrol
C.Foot patrol
D.All of the above
obvious disadvantage of foot patrol method
over the other types of patrol?
A.Low mobility resulting to limited coverage
of the patrol area.
B.Low response time to telephone complaints.
C.Foot patrol method involves a large number
of personnel, since officers are assigned
on small areas of jurisdiction called
posts and beats.
D.All of the above
obvious disadvantage of foot patrol method
over the other types of patrol?
A.Low mobility resulting to limited coverage
of the patrol area.
B.Low response time to telephone complaints.
C.Foot patrol method involves a large number
of personnel, since officers are assigned
on small areas of jurisdiction called
posts and beats.
D.All of the above
62. In covering a highway intersection,
the patrol pattern must be designed to
route traffic without interference, by
means of a system of curving ramps, from
one level to another.
A.Clover leaf patrol
B.Rectangular patrol
C.Triangular patrol
D.Straightway patrol
62. In covering a highway intersection,
the patrol pattern must be designed to
route traffic without interference, by
means of a system of curving ramps, from
one level to another.
A.Clover leaf patrol
B.Rectangular patrol
C.Triangular patrol
D.Straightway patrol
63. On motor vehicle patrol, the officer
should avoid driving too fast on general
patrol conditions except during
emergencies or in pursuing some
criminals/suspects. The recommended
cruising speed of during patrol is –
A.20-25 mph
B.40-45 mph
C.50-55 mph
D.Not less than 60 mph
63. On motor vehicle patrol, the officer
should avoid driving too fast on general
patrol conditions except during
emergencies or in pursuing some
criminals/suspects. The recommended
cruising speed of during patrol is –
A.20-25 mph
B.40-45 mph
C.50-55 mph
D.Not less than 60 mph
64. In motorcycle patrol, which equipment
is the most important protective measure
which must be mandatory among riders?
A.Firearm
B.Helmet
C.Siren
D.Whistle
64. In motorcycle patrol, which equipment
is the most important protective measure
which must be mandatory among riders?
A.Firearm
B.Helmet
C.Siren
D.Whistle
65. What patrol method is mostly
appropriate to be adopted in patrolling
jurisdiction that covers large park areas
or similar places where automobiles cannot
go or may be forbidden such as grassy
fields or wooded areas?
A.Canine Patrol
B.Helicopter patrol
C.Horse or Mounted Patrol
D.Foot patrol
65. What patrol method is mostly
appropriate to be adopted in patrolling
jurisdiction that covers large park areas
or similar places where automobiles cannot
go or may be forbidden such as grassy
fields or wooded areas?
A.Canine Patrol
B.Helicopter patrol
C.Horse or Mounted Patrol
D.Foot patrol
66. It is the old system of police patrol
activity which consists of continuously
driving around the area of patrol waiting
for something to happen and to react
accordingly in case something does happen.
A.Proactive patrol
B.Crocodile patrolling
C.Foot patrol
D.Reactive patrol
66. It is the old system of police patrol
activity which consists of continuously
driving around the area of patrol waiting
for something to happen and to react
accordingly in case something does happen.
A.Proactive patrol
B.Crocodile patrolling
C.Foot patrol
D.Reactive patrol
67. It is a crime repression activity of the
police which is accomplished by making their
presence known in such a way that even if they
are longer present in a certain location, would
be criminals would still have the impression
that they are still around and would therefore
refrain from committing an offense. This is
commonly called –
A.Psychology of crime
B.Anatomy of police patrol and crime prevention
C.Theory of police omnipresence
D.Resistance to crime formula
67. It is a crime repression activity of the
police which is accomplished by making their
presence known in such a way that even if they
are longer present in a certain location, would
be criminals would still have the impression
that they are still around and would therefore
refrain from committing an offense. This is
commonly called –
A.Psychology of crime
B.Anatomy of police patrol and crime prevention
C.Theory of police omnipresence
D.Resistance to crime formula
68. In patrol operations with the use of
police vehicle, which of the following
conditions do not necessarily require the
use of flashing lights and siren or “wang-
wang”?
A.Emergency call
B.Routine call
C.Hot pursuit
D.Cold pursuit
68. In patrol operations with the use of
police vehicle, which of the following
conditions do not necessarily require the
use of flashing lights and siren or “wang-
wang”?
A.Emergency call
B.Routine call
C.Hot pursuit
D.Cold pursuit
69. The Integrated Patrol System (IPS) of the
Philippine National Police is a concerted effort
of the whole PNP organization with other
government agencies. The purpose is for the
effective performance of the general role of the
PNP which is –
A.to maintain a participative kind of law
enforcement
B.to deliver the basic public safety services to
the community
C.to make arrest and put criminals behind bars
D.to involve all public safety sectors in
patrolling
69. The Integrated Patrol System (IPS) of the
Philippine National Police is a concerted effort
of the whole PNP organization with other
government agencies. The purpose is for the
effective performance of the general role of the
PNP which is –
A.to maintain a participative kind of law
enforcement
B.to deliver the basic public safety services to
the community
C.to make arrest and put criminals behind bars
D.to involve all public safety sectors in
patrolling
70. In the study of police communication
systems, the hand held radio (HHR) an
important equipment for patrol officer. It
is sometimes called radio transceiver or
jargonly called –
A.Talk and talk
B.Walkie Talkie
C.Walk and talk
D.Handyman
70. In the study of police communication
systems, the hand held radio (HHR) an
important equipment for patrol officer. It
is sometimes called radio transceiver or
jargonly called –
A.Talk and talk
B.Walkie Talkie
C.Walk and talk
D.Handyman
71. The inventor of the “Morse code” use
in police communications was an American
by the name –
A.Samuel Morse
B.Motley Morse
C.Charles Morse
D.William Morse
71. The inventor of the “Morse code” use
in police communications was an American
by the name –
A.Samuel Morse
B.Motley Morse
C.Charles Morse
D.William Morse
72. The sending of written messages is a
standard feature of government in early
civilizations. Much of our knowledge of those
times derives from archives of such messages,
discovered by archaeologists. In the
estimation of the ancient world the most
efficient Postal Service is that of the ____.
A.Persians
B.Indians
C.Peruvians
D.Egyptians
72. The sending of written messages is a
standard feature of government in early
civilizations. Much of our knowledge of those
times derives from archives of such messages,
discovered by archaeologists. In the
estimation of the ancient world the most
efficient Postal Service is that of the ____.
A.Persians
B.Indians
C.Peruvians
D.Egyptians
73. The telegraph was invented as a medium
of communication and was used in police
communication in the history of policing.
It was invented by –
A.Joseph Hill
B.William Cooke
C.Billy Cook
D.Samuel Cooker
73. The telegraph was invented as a medium
of communication and was used in police
communication in the history of policing.
It was invented by –
A.Joseph Hill
B.William Cooke
C.Billy Cook
D.Samuel Cooker
74. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan
chased upon a pickpocket. What will be his
first action?
A.Arrest the pickpocket
B.Call for a criminal investigation
C.Bring the pickpocket to the police
department
D.Just continue his beat
74. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan
chased upon a pickpocket. What will be his
first action?
A.Arrest the pickpocket
B.Call for a criminal investigation
C.Bring the pickpocket to the police
department
D.Just continue his beat
75. The police must endeavor to establish
and impress upon the law abiding citizens
and would be criminals alike that the
police are always available to respond to
any situation at a moment’s notice and he
will just around the corner at all times.
What does this situation indicate?
A.Police Omnipresence
B.Police Discretion
C.Police Control
D.Police Interaction
75. The police must endeavor to establish
and impress upon the law abiding citizens
and would be criminals alike that the
police are always available to respond to
any situation at a moment’s notice and he
will just around the corner at all times.
What does this situation indicate?
A.Police Omnipresence
B.Police Discretion
C.Police Control
D.Police Interaction
76. The patrol force is the largest and
oldest of all police services and it is the
focal point of all police activities. This
statement is –
A.True, because it is considered as the most
important component of the police
organization
B.False, since it is just a minor component
C.True, because it is the arm and mind of the
organization
D.False, since there are other line functions
of the police
76. The patrol force is the largest and
oldest of all police services and it is the
focal point of all police activities. This
statement is –
A.True, because it is considered as the most
important component of the police
organization
B.False, since it is just a minor component
C.True, because it is the arm and mind of the
organization
D.False, since there are other line functions
of the police
77. There are five major objectives of
police patrol, which one is the most
primordial?
A.Police visibility and response to
criminal activities
B.Crime prevention and suppression
C.Preventive patrol
D.Criminal investigation
77. There are five major objectives of
police patrol, which one is the most
primordial?
A.Police visibility and response to
criminal activities
B.Crime prevention and suppression
C.Preventive patrol
D.Criminal investigation
A.Crime prevention
B.Order maintenance
C.Law enforcement
A.Crime prevention
B.Order maintenance
C.Law enforcement
A.Oplan Sagip-yagit
B.Oplan Laging Handa
C.Oplan Tulong sa Nasalanta
D.Oplan Bantay Bata
A.Oplan Sagip-yagit
B.Oplan Laging Handa
C.Oplan Tulong sa Nasalanta
D.Oplan Bantay Bata
80. Organization should be directed to a
systematic management of patrol personnel
and their functions including other
resources in a manner consistent with proper
management for –
A.imposing required professionalism and
leadership
B.achieving an efficient and effective
patrol objectives
C.enhancing police visibility and
omnipresence
D.improving police use of discretion
80. Organization should be directed to a
systematic management of patrol personnel
and their functions including other
resources in a manner consistent with proper
management for –
A.imposing required professionalism and
leadership
B.achieving an efficient and effective
patrol objectives
C.enhancing police visibility and
omnipresence
D.improving police use of discretion
81. ___ is considered the backbone and
operational heart of the Police
Organization.
A.Investigation division
B.Patrol division
C.Intelligence division
D.Records division
81. ___ is considered the backbone and
operational heart of the Police
Organization.
A.Investigation division
B.Patrol division
C.Intelligence division
D.Records division
82. The use of discretion or one’s
judgment, personal experience and common
sense to decide a particular situation
should be controlled and minimized due to
the following, except –
A.does not support “side walk justice”
B.lack of uniformity for implementation
C.Discriminatory
D.foster corruption on victimless crime
82. The use of discretion or one’s
judgment, personal experience and common
sense to decide a particular situation
should be controlled and minimized due to
the following, except –
A.does not support “side walk justice”
B.lack of uniformity for implementation
C.Discriminatory
D.foster corruption on victimless crime
83. ___ is a strategy in which patrol
officers are involved in designing and
implementing patrol activities on the
basis of analysis of specific community
problems.
A.Directed patrol
B.Interactive patrol
C.Decoy patrol
D.Aggressive patrol
83. ___ is a strategy in which patrol
officers are involved in designing and
implementing patrol activities on the
basis of analysis of specific community
problems.
A.Directed patrol
B.Interactive patrol
C.Decoy patrol
D.Aggressive patrol
84. ___ is a patrol strategy where the
principal tactics are blending in which
patrol personnel are deployed in specific
high crime areas in discreet disguises in
an effort to blend into their surroundings
in the expectation of observing crime in
progress.
A.Directed patrol
B.Decoy patrol
C.Aggressive patrol
D.Low visibility patrol
84. ___ is a patrol strategy where the
principal tactics are blending in which
patrol personnel are deployed in specific
high crime areas in discreet disguises in
an effort to blend into their surroundings
in the expectation of observing crime in
progress.
A.Directed patrol
B.Decoy patrol
C.Aggressive patrol
D.Low visibility patrol
85. Which of the following describes High
Visibility patrol?
A.Police in plain clothes
B.Unmarked vehicles
C.Maximized number of officers on field to
specific location
D.Use of siren and fluctuating police
lights
85. Which of the following describes High
Visibility patrol?
A.Police in plain clothes
B.Unmarked vehicles
C.Maximized number of officers on field to
specific location
D.Use of siren and fluctuating police
lights
86. When the patrol force is divided into
two separate elements, one responds to
calls for service while the other remains
free to concentrate on self-initiated non-
dispatched patrol duties, then the
strategy used is called –
A.Team policing strategy
B.Split patrol strategy
C.Aggressive patrol
D.High visibility patrol
86. When the patrol force is divided into
two separate elements, one responds to
calls for service while the other remains
free to concentrate on self-initiated non-
dispatched patrol duties, then the
strategy used is called –
A.Team policing strategy
B.Split patrol strategy
C.Aggressive patrol
D.High visibility patrol
A.Crying policeman
B.Anger should be minimized at the heat of
a public chaos
C.Force is necessary when properly ordered
interventions
A.Crying policeman
B.Anger should be minimized at the heat of
a public chaos
C.Force is necessary when properly ordered
interventions
88. In arresting the traffic violator or when
it involved arrest due to traffic violation,
the following procedures are followed except:
A.bring the suspended person before the court
B.detention of the arrested person may take
place
C.arrest can be effected even without a
warrant
D.impose the probable penalty that might be
imposed
88. In arresting the traffic violator or when
it involved arrest due to traffic violation,
the following procedures are followed except:
A.bring the suspended person before the court
B.detention of the arrested person may take
place
C.arrest can be effected even without a
warrant
D.impose the probable penalty that might be
imposed
89. The delay resulting from traffic
congestion affect not only the time of
travel but also the productivity of
individual is part of:
A.traffic engineering
B.traffic economy
C.traffic congestion
D.traffic environment
89. The delay resulting from traffic
congestion affect not only the time of
travel but also the productivity of
individual is part of:
A.traffic engineering
B.traffic economy
C.traffic congestion
D.traffic environment
90. The method of training where the
student is placed in the real life of
driving is known as:
A.simulated training
B.comprehensive training
C.commentary training
D.traditional training
90. The method of training where the
student is placed in the real life of
driving is known as:
A.simulated training
B.comprehensive training
C.commentary training
D.traditional training
91. The traffic enforcement action that
does not contemplate possible assessment
of penalty by the court
A.traffic arrest
B.traffic warning
C.traffic violation
D.traffic citation
91. The traffic enforcement action that
does not contemplate possible assessment
of penalty by the court
A.traffic arrest
B.traffic warning
C.traffic violation
D.traffic citation
92. The law which expedite the methods of
prescribing, refining, or modifying the
lines and modes of operations of public
utility vehicle is
A. P.D. 96
B. P.D. 207
C. P.D. 612
D. P.D. 101
92. The law which expedite the methods of
prescribing, refining, or modifying the
lines and modes of operations of public
utility vehicle is
A. P.D. 96
B. P.D. 207
C. P.D. 612
D. P.D. 101
93. The occurrence in a sequence of events
which usually produces unintended injury,
property damage or even death is called
A.accident
B.damage
C.fatal
D.key event
93. The occurrence in a sequence of events
which usually produces unintended injury,
property damage or even death is called
A.accident
B.damage
C.fatal
D.key event
94. It is the more economical alternative
patrol system, which has an objective
approach against criminality as much as
practicable. It addresses crime at its
very root before it is able to develop
into felonious act?
A.Reactive patrol
B.Proactive patrol
C.Police omnipresence
D.Participative law enforcement
94. It is the more economical alternative
patrol system, which has an objective
approach against criminality as much as
practicable. It addresses crime at its
very root before it is able to develop
into felonious act?
A.Reactive patrol
B.Proactive patrol
C.Police omnipresence
D.Participative law enforcement
95. . Length of streets designated for
patrol purposes. It is also called “LINE
BEAT”
A.Bureau
B.Beat
C.Patrol
D.Route
95. . Length of streets designated for
patrol purposes. It is also called “LINE
BEAT”
A.Bureau
B.Beat
C.Patrol
D.Route
96. An area containing two or more beats,
routes or posts?
A.Beat
B.Route
C.Post
D.Sector
96. An area containing two or more beats,
routes or posts?
A.Beat
B.Route
C.Post
D.Sector
97. A geographical subdivision of a city
for patrol purposes, usually with its own
station?
a.Venue
b.Territorial
c.Location
d.District
97. A geographical subdivision of a city
for patrol purposes, usually with its own
station?
a.Venue
b.Territorial
c.Location
d.District
98. A section or territorial division of a
large city each comprised of designated
districts?
a.Sector
b.Territorial
c.District
d.Area
98. A section or territorial division of a
large city each comprised of designated
districts?
a.Sector
b.Territorial
c.District
d.Area
99. A fixed point or location to which an
officer is assigned for duty, such as a
designated desk or office or an
intersection or cross walk from traffic
duty. It is spot location for general
guard duty?
A.Post
B.Unit
C.Section
D.Division
99. A fixed point or location to which an
officer is assigned for duty, such as a
designated desk or office or an
intersection or cross walk from traffic
duty. It is spot location for general
guard duty?
A.Post
B.Unit
C.Section
D.Division
100. What is the most expensive type of
Patrol?
A.Helicopter Patrol
B.Marine Patrol
C.Mobile Patrol
D.Foot Patrol
100. What is the most expensive type of
Patrol?
A.Helicopter Patrol
B.Marine Patrol
C.Mobile Patrol
D.Foot Patrol
“Company the wise and you will be wise”
LEA 4 (POLICE INTELLIGENCE)
By
1. In Intelligence work, an information is
evaluated to determine its___
A. Reliability C. Feasibility
B. Effectiveness D. Efficiency
1. In Intelligence work, an information is
evaluated to determine its___
A. Reliability C. Feasibility
B. Effectiveness D. Efficiency
2. The detection, prevention and
neutralization of any activity inimical to the
best interest of the organization.
A. Intelligence
B. Counter-Intelligence
C. Line Intelligence
D. Subversive Intelligence
2. The detection, prevention and
neutralization of any activity inimical to the
best interest of the organization.
A. Intelligence
B. Counter-Intelligence
C. Line Intelligence
D. Subversive Intelligence
3. When the subject identifies or obtains
knowledge that the investigator is
conducting a surveillance on him, the
latter is:
A. get out C. sold out
B. burnt out D. cut out
conducting a surveillance on him, the
latter is:
A. get out C. sold out
B. burnt out D. cut out
4. A surveillant becomes an ___ when
he/she discards his/her identity, changes
his/her name and/or his/her appearance and
gets into contact with his subject.
A. Undercover agent C. Informant
B. Informer D. Asset
4. A surveillant becomes an ___ when
he/she discards his/her identity, changes
his/her name and/or his/her appearance and
gets into contact with his subject.
A. Undercover agent C. Informant
B. Informer D. Asset
5. The process of preparing an
intelligence agent for a specific mission
including a good description of the target
area.
A. De-briefing C. Orientation
B. Briefing D. Demonstrating
5. The process of preparing an
intelligence agent for a specific mission
including a good description of the target
area.
A. De-briefing C. Orientation
B. Briefing D. Demonstrating
6. Collection agents should give
consideration to the information they are
gathering.
A. Credibility and adequacy
B. Reliability and availability
C. Reliability and adequacy
D. Reliability and credibility
6. Collection agents should give
consideration to the information they are
gathering.
A. Credibility and adequacy
B. Reliability and availability
C. Reliability and adequacy
D. Reliability and credibility
7. The _____ does not get paid for the
information he gives to the police
intelligence officer.
A. informer C. asset
B. aide D. informant
7. The _____ does not get paid for the
information he gives to the police
intelligence officer.
A. informer C. asset
B. aide D. informant
8. What is the oral method of collecting
information wherein the suspect is subject
to intense questioning?
A. interview C. interrogation
B. elicitation D. inspection
8. What is the oral method of collecting
information wherein the suspect is subject
to intense questioning?
A. interview C. interrogation
B. elicitation D. inspection
9. The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
was created under the US National Security
Act of 1947 and took over the functions of
the____.
A.National Criminal Investigation
Service (NCIS)
B.Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
C.Office of Strategic services (OSS)
D.US Navy/Communication Intelligence
Service (USNCIS)
9. The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
was created under the US National Security
Act of 1947 and took over the functions of
the____.
A.National Criminal Investigation
Service (NCIS)
B.Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
C.Office of Strategic services (OSS)
D.US Navy/Communication Intelligence
Service (USNCIS)
10. When frisking a suspect, it is
considered most important that the Police
Officer should keep his eyes on the:
A.Suspect’s accomplices
B.Suspect’s head
C.Suspect’s hands
D.Suspect’s legs
10. When frisking a suspect, it is
considered most important that the Police
Officer should keep his eyes on the:
A.Suspect’s accomplices
B.Suspect’s head
C.Suspect’s hands
D.Suspect’s legs
11. In the Intelligence process,
evaluation is a critical appraisal of
information as a basis for the subsequent
interpretation regarding the following,
EXCEPT___
A. Accuracy of information
B. Reliability of source
C. Manner of dissemination
D. None of these
11. In the Intelligence process,
evaluation is a critical appraisal of
information as a basis for the subsequent
interpretation regarding the following,
EXCEPT___
A. Accuracy of information
B. Reliability of source
C. Manner of dissemination
D. None of these
12. What is the covert observation of an
area, a building or stationary object
inorder to get information?
A. Penetration C. Casing
B. Surveillance D. Undercover work
12. What is the covert observation of an
area, a building or stationary object
inorder to get information?
A. Penetration C. Casing
B. Surveillance D. Undercover work
13. Money Laundering has two (2)
processes, that is the concealment of
money and the ___ of that money.
A. cleaning C. investing
B. profiting D. depositing
13. Money Laundering has two (2)
processes, that is the concealment of
money and the ___ of that money.
A. cleaning C. investing
B. profiting D. depositing
14. The investigator is ___ when the
subject identifies or obtains knowledge
that said investigator is conducting
surveillance on him.
A. Sold out C. Burnt out
B. Cut out D. Get out
14. The investigator is ___ when the
subject identifies or obtains knowledge
that said investigator is conducting
surveillance on him.
A. Sold out C. Burnt out
B. Cut out D. Get out
15. The information cycle consists of five
(5) stages, namely: creation, use, storage
and retrieval, transfer and ____.
A. disposition C. development
B. deactivation D. duplication
15. The information cycle consists of five
(5) stages, namely: creation, use, storage
and retrieval, transfer and ____.
A. disposition C. development
B. deactivation D. duplication
16. Reliability rating of an intelligence
is A to F. If A is very reliable, B is
____.
A.Unreliable
B.Fairly Reliable
C.Not usually reliable
D.Usually Reliable
16. Reliability rating of an intelligence
is A to F. If A is very reliable, B is
____.
A.Unreliable
B.Fairly Reliable
C.Not usually reliable
D.Usually Reliable
17. A close surveillance is being conducted
when:
A. There is constant observation of the
subject, regardless of whether or not the
target becomes aware that he is being
followed
B. There is a randomized observation of the
movements of the target personality
C. There is an off-and-on observation of the
target and periodic schedules of observation
D. There is a long running time of
observation followed by a short respite
17. A close surveillance is being conducted
when:
A. There is constant observation of the
subject, regardless of whether or not the
target becomes aware that he is being
followed
B. There is a randomized observation of the
movements of the target personality
C. There is an off-and-on observation of the
target and periodic schedules of observation
D. There is a long running time of
observation followed by a short respite
18. An information that is “fairly
reliable source-information confirmed from
other sources “is evaluated as ____.
A. A-1 C. B-1
B. A-2 D. C-1
18. An information that is “fairly
reliable source-information confirmed from
other sources “is evaluated as ____.
A. A-1 C. B-1
B. A-2 D. C-1
19. What is the formal surrender of a
fugitive by one state to another?
A. Extradition C. Reconduction
B. Deportation D. Negotiation
19. What is the formal surrender of a
fugitive by one state to another?
A. Extradition C. Reconduction
B. Deportation D. Negotiation
20. What is the evaluation of an
information which is “completely reliable
source-probably true?”
A. A-5 C. A-2
B. A-1 D. A-4
20. What is the evaluation of an
information which is “completely reliable
source-probably true?”
A. A-5 C. A-2
B. A-1 D. A-4
21. It deals with all things which should be
known in advance before initiating a course
of action
A. Crime research C. Information
B. Crime investigation D. Intelligence
21. It deals with all things which should be
known in advance before initiating a course
of action
A. Crime research C. Information
B. Crime investigation D. Intelligence
22. A type of surveillance that uses
devices such as electronics, wire-tapping,
bugging and others.
A.Technical surveillance
B.Intermittent surveillance
C.Overt surveillance
D.Undercover surveillance
22. A type of surveillance that uses
devices such as electronics, wire-tapping,
bugging and others.
A.Technical surveillance
B.Intermittent surveillance
C.Overt surveillance
D.Undercover surveillance
23. Police Intelligence Operations
involved a number of tasks. Below is an
enumeration of these tasks EXCEPT:
A.Custodial investigation
B.Clipping services
C.Discovery and identification activity
D.Surveillance
23. Police Intelligence Operations
involved a number of tasks. Below is an
enumeration of these tasks EXCEPT:
A.Custodial investigation
B.Clipping services
C.Discovery and identification activity
D.Surveillance
24. It comprises all documents, reports
and all recorded information that pertains
to a single personality or subject.
Contained in a folder for storage
convenience
A.Document
B.File
C.Information
D.Dossier
24. It comprises all documents, reports
and all recorded information that pertains
to a single personality or subject.
Contained in a folder for storage
convenience
A.Document
B.File
C.Information
D.Dossier
25. A person or object used by the subject
in an attempt to elude the surveillant?
A.Convoy
B.Decoy
C.Agent
D.Contact
A.Convoy
B.Decoy
C.Agent
D.Contact
26. When casing a suspect , it is an
improper technique to:
A.Undertake necessary precautions
B.Familiarize himself with the area
C.Resort to extreme facial disguises
D.Avoid being detected
26. When casing a suspect , it is an
improper technique to:
A.Undertake necessary precautions
B.Familiarize himself with the area
C.Resort to extreme facial disguises
D.Avoid being detected
27. The covert observation of an area, a
building or stationary object in order to
gain information is called:
A.Surveillance
B.Undercover works
C.Penetration
D.Casing
27. The covert observation of an area, a
building or stationary object in order to
gain information is called:
A.Surveillance
B.Undercover works
C.Penetration
D.Casing
28. In counter intelligence, the
operational file that contains the list of
persons who are known to be friendly with
the intelligence forces is known as
A.Tactical list
B.Black list
C.White list
D.CI list
28. In counter intelligence, the
operational file that contains the list of
persons who are known to be friendly with
the intelligence forces is known as
A.Tactical list
B.Black list
C.White list
D.CI list
29. Police Norberto Iso works as
intelligence officer and he has a civilian
friend who gives him information without
any monetary reward. What is his friend
called?
A.Ally
B.Informer
C.Informant
D.Asset
29. Police Norberto Iso works as
intelligence officer and he has a civilian
friend who gives him information without
any monetary reward. What is his friend
called?
A.Ally
B.Informer
C.Informant
D.Asset
A.Convoy
B.Decoy
C.Agent
D.Contact
A.Convoy
B.Decoy
C.Agent
D.Contact
31. The act of extracting from an agent
the maximum amount of pertinent and useful
information which he obtained in the
collection mission.
A.Briefing
B.Debriefing
C.Penetration
D.Infiltration
31. The act of extracting from an agent
the maximum amount of pertinent and useful
information which he obtained in the
collection mission.
A.Briefing
B.Debriefing
C.Penetration
D.Infiltration
32. The process of combining elements
which are isolated through analysis and
other known information to form a logical
theory is called _____
A.Collection
B.Integration
C.Deduction
D.Evaluation
32. The process of combining elements
which are isolated through analysis and
other known information to form a logical
theory is called _____
A.Collection
B.Integration
C.Deduction
D.Evaluation
33. What is an agent doing when he
discards his identity changes his name
and/or his appearance and gets into
contact with the subject.
A.Casing
B.Undercover
C.Surveillance
D.Penetration
33. What is an agent doing when he
discards his identity changes his name
and/or his appearance and gets into
contact with the subject.
A.Casing
B.Undercover
C.Surveillance
D.Penetration
34. Police intelligence is the gathering
of information on the activities of
criminals and law violators while the
procuring of information pertaining to the
security of the state is called _____
intelligence.
A.Counter
B.Military
C.Overt
D.Covert
34. Police intelligence is the gathering
of information on the activities of
criminals and law violators while the
procuring of information pertaining to the
security of the state is called _____
intelligence.
A.Counter
B.Military
C.Overt
D.Covert
35. In counter intelligence, surveillance
is categorized according to intensity and
sensitivity. When there is intermittent
observation varying n occasions, this
surveillance is called _____
A.Discreet
B.Closed
C.Loose
D.Open
35. In counter intelligence, surveillance
observation varying n occasions, this
surveillance is called _____
A.Discreet
B.Closed
C.Loose
D.Open
36. This type of surveillance is one which
the surveillant follows or observes a
person on occasions, such as after work
for a few hours to see if the subject is
planning a robbery for the evening.
A.Closed surveillance
B.Loose surveillance
C.Open surveillance
D.Decoy surveillance
36. This type of surveillance is one which
the surveillant follows or observes a
person on occasions, such as after work
for a few hours to see if the subject is
planning a robbery for the evening.
A.Closed surveillance
B.Loose surveillance
C.Open surveillance
D.Decoy surveillance
37. Gathering anything of intelligence
interest and for use as leads in the
solicitation of crime under investigation.
A.Report preparation
B.Collection
C.Analysis
D.Dissemination
37. Gathering anything of intelligence
interest and for use as leads in the
solicitation of crime under investigation.
A.Report preparation
B.Collection
C.Analysis
D.Dissemination
38. What do you call the list of persons
which are required by the guards at the
malacanang palace to determine who should
be permitted to enter the malacanang gate?
A.Security list
B.Gate pass
C.Secret list
D.Access list
38. What do you call the list of persons
which are required by the guards at the
malacanang palace to determine who should
be permitted to enter the malacanang gate?
A.Security list
B.Gate pass
C.Secret list
D.Access list
39. In Counter intelligence, surveillance
observation, varying in occasion, then
this surveillance is called:
A. loose B. open
C. discreet D. close
39. In Counter intelligence, surveillance
observation, varying in occasion, then
this surveillance is called:
A. loose B. open
C. discreet D. close
40. It is the product resulting from the
collection evaluation analysis integration
and interpretation of criminal activity
and which is immediately or potentially
significant to police planning.
A. Investigation B. Information
C. Data D. Intelligence
40. It is the product resulting from the
collection evaluation analysis integration
and interpretation of criminal activity
and which is immediately or potentially
significant to police planning.
A. Investigation B. Information
C. Data D. Intelligence
41. In the de-briefing, the intelligence
agent is asked to discuss which of the
following:
A. his education profile and schools
attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his
age, religion, affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party
affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the
intelligence function
41. In the de-briefing, the intelligence
agent is asked to discuss which of the
following:
A. his education profile and schools
attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his
age, religion, affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party
affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the
intelligence function
42. What form of intelligence is involved
when information is obtained of the person
against whom the information or document
may be used, or the information is
clandestinely acquired?
A. Covert B. Active
C. Overt D. Underground
42. What form of intelligence is involved
when information is obtained of the person
against whom the information or document
may be used, or the information is
clandestinely acquired?
A. Covert B. Active
C. Overt D. Underground
43. The term used for the object of
surveillance is subject while the
investigator conducting the surveillance
is:
A. Rabbit B. Decoy
C. Surveillant C. Target
43. The term used for the object of
surveillance is subject while the
investigator conducting the surveillance
is:
A. Rabbit B. Decoy
C. Surveillant C. Target
44. The father of military espionage was;
A. Akbar
B. Genghis Khan
C. Alexander the great
D. Fredrick the great
44. The father of military espionage was;
A. Akbar
B. Genghis Khan
C. Alexander the great
D. Fredrick the great
police function?
A. Primary
B. Auxiliary
C. Administrative
D. Secondary
police function?
A. Primary
B. Auxiliary
C. Administrative
D. Secondary
common reason why an informer gives
information to the police?
A. wants to be known to the police
B. monetary reward
C. as good citizen
D. revenge
common reason why an informer gives
information to the police?
A. wants to be known to the police
B. monetary reward
C. as good citizen
D. revenge
47. In surveillance, the following are
done to hide the appearance of the
surveillance vehicle EXCEPT.
A. changing license plate of
surveillance vehicle
B. putting on and removing hats, coats
and sunglasses
C. change of setting arrangement within
the surveillance vehicle
D. keep the cars behind the subject’s
car
47. In surveillance, the following are
done to hide the appearance of the
surveillance vehicle EXCEPT.
A. changing license plate of
surveillance vehicle
B. putting on and removing hats, coats
and sunglasses
C. change of setting arrangement within
the surveillance vehicle
D. keep the cars behind the subject’s
car
48. Fredrick the Great is known as the;
A. Father of Military Espionage
B. Intelligence Father
C. Great Intelligence Father
D. Father of Criminology
48. Fredrick the Great is known as the;
A. Father of Military Espionage
B. Intelligence Father
C. Great Intelligence Father
D. Father of Criminology
49. Which of the following is contained in
the heading of an intelligence report?
A. reporting unit
B. conclusion
C. signature of the Director
D. assessment of the operation
49. Which of the following is contained in
the heading of an intelligence report?
A. reporting unit
B. conclusion
C. signature of the Director
D. assessment of the operation
conducting surveillance on him, the latter
is,
A. cut out B. burnt out
C. sold out D. get out
conducting surveillance on him, the latter
is,
A. cut out B. burnt out
C. sold out D. get out
51. Some of the instruction in foot
surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens
to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflections
D. retraces steps
51. Some of the instruction in foot
surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens
to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflections
D. retraces steps
52. On many occasions, the bulk of the
most information comes from?
A. business world
B. an underworld
C. news clippings
D. communications media
52. On many occasions, the bulk of the
most information comes from?
A. business world
B. an underworld
C. news clippings
D. communications media
53. A method of collecting information
wherein the investigator merely uses his
different senses.
A. Observation B. Research
C. Casing D. Interrogation
53. A method of collecting information
wherein the investigator merely uses his
different senses.
A. Observation B. Research
C. Casing D. Interrogation
54. In stationary surveillance, the
following must be observed, EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognized fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
54. In stationary surveillance, the
following must be observed, EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognized fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
55. In intelligence evaluation, the
evaluation rating of A-4 means;
A. completely reliable source -
Doubtfully true information
B. Usually reliable source – Probably
true information
C. fairly reliable source - Probably
true information
D. Usually reliable source – Probably
true information
55. In intelligence evaluation, the
evaluation rating of A-4 means;
A. completely reliable source -
Doubtfully true information
B. Usually reliable source – Probably
true information
C. fairly reliable source - Probably
true information
D. Usually reliable source – Probably
true information
56. One way of extending the power of
observation is to get information from
persons within the vicinity. In police
work, this is called:
A. Data gathering
B. Interrogation
C. Field inquiry
D. Interview
56. One way of extending the power of
observation is to get information from
persons within the vicinity. In police
work, this is called:
A. Data gathering
B. Interrogation
C. Field inquiry
D. Interview
57. Intelligence on ______________ makes
heavy usage of geographic information
because law enforcement officials must
know exact location to interdict the flow
of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Narcotics Trafficking
C. Human Cargo Trafficking
D. Economic Resources
57. Intelligence on ______________ makes
heavy usage of geographic information
because law enforcement officials must
know exact location to interdict the flow
of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Narcotics Trafficking
C. Human Cargo Trafficking
D. Economic Resources
58. A method of collection of information
wherein the investigator tails the person
or vehicle.
A. Investigation
B. Casing
C. Undercover Operation
D. surveillance
58. A method of collection of information
wherein the investigator tails the person
or vehicle.
A. Investigation
B. Casing
C. Undercover Operation
D. surveillance
59. Disguise or secret observation of
places, persons or vehicles for purpose of
obtaining information.
A. Evaluation B. Surveillance
C. Elicitation D. Infiltration
59. Disguise or secret observation of
places, persons or vehicles for purpose of
obtaining information.
A. Evaluation B. Surveillance
C. Elicitation D. Infiltration
60. It is the combination of analyzed data
to form a logical picture.
A. Integration B. Infiltration
C. Elicitation D. Deception
60. It is the combination of analyzed data
to form a logical picture.
61. The information is obtained through
direct communication in which the other
party is unaware of the specific purpose
of the conversation.
61. The information is obtained through
direct communication in which the other
party is unaware of the specific purpose
of the conversation.
62. It is conducted when the subject is
moving from one place to another.
A. Casing B. Lost
C. Made D. Shadowing
62. It is conducted when the subject is
moving from one place to another.
A. Casing B. Lost
C. Made D. Shadowing
63. PO IV Ram Edgar is assigned to collect
available information concerning the
activities of Blue Sagittarius Group. He
is in what unit of the police?
B. Patrol
C. Intelligence
D. Women’s Desk
63. PO IV Ram Edgar is assigned to collect
available information concerning the
activities of Blue Sagittarius Group. He
is in what unit of the police?
B. Patrol
C. Intelligence
D. Women’s Desk
64. If the information or documents are
produced openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose/s for which it
is being gathered.
A. Overt operation B. Covert operation
C. Evaluation D. Interpretation
64. If the information or documents are
produced openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose/s for which it
is being gathered.
A. Overt operation B. Covert operation
C. Evaluation D. Interpretation
65. It is the type of intelligence
activity which deals with defending of the
organization against its criminal
activities.
A. Counter intelligence
B. Military intelligence
C. Military information
D. Strategic intelligence
65. It is the type of intelligence
activity which deals with defending of the
organization against its criminal
activities.
A. Counter intelligence
B. Military intelligence
C. Military information
D. Strategic intelligence
66. In intelligence, what is meant by
C.B.I?
A. Complete Background Investigation
B. Complete Background Investigator
C. Complete Back draft Investigation
D. Competent Background Investigator
66. In intelligence, what is meant by
C.B.I?
A. Complete Background Investigation
B. Complete Background Investigator
C. Complete Back draft Investigation
D. Competent Background Investigator
67. Red Gestapo for Germany, Mossad for
Israel; M15 for the British, KGB for the
Russians. What are being referred to by
each country?
A.Network of assets and agents
B.National Intelligence Systems
C.Strategic plans for National Interest
D.National Intelligence headquarters
67. Red Gestapo for Germany, Mossad for
Israel; M15 for the British, KGB for the
Russians. What are being referred to by
each country?
A.Network of assets and agents
B.National Intelligence Systems
C.Strategic plans for National Interest
D.National Intelligence headquarters
68. Who among the following was considered
“father of intelligence operations”?
A.Joseph Petrosino
B.Joseph Fouche
C.Joseph Montiel
D.Antonio Alsivok
68. Who among the following was considered
“father of intelligence operations”?
A.Joseph Petrosino
B.Joseph Fouche
C.Joseph Montiel
D.Antonio Alsivok
69. An enemy agent who has been captured,
turned around and sent back where he came
from as an agent of his captors is
considered –
A.Agent in place
B.Double agent
C.Expandable agent
D.Penetrating agent
69. An enemy agent who has been captured,
turned around and sent back where he came
from as an agent of his captors is
considered –
A.Agent in place
B.Double agent
C.Expandable agent
D.Penetrating agent
70. X clandestinely followed Y as he
entered a restaurant. Y brought out a
small size of brown envelop allegedly
containing disk of sensitive information
and handed it to Z. In the parlance of
police surveillance activities in this
scenario, Z is considered -
A.the surveillant
B.the subject
C.the contact
D.the assassin
70. X clandestinely followed Y as he
entered a restaurant. Y brought out a
small size of brown envelop allegedly
containing disk of sensitive information
and handed it to Z. In the parlance of
police surveillance activities in this
scenario, Z is considered -
A.the surveillant
B.the subject
C.the contact
D.the assassin
71. Every nation has its own national
intelligence. Non comparable with the super
powers, but the Philippines has its own
coordinating agency for intelligence concerning
national security and interest. If the USA has
its CIA, and the former Soviet Union has its
former KGB, and Great Britain has its M16/M15,
the Philippines has its –
A.Armed Forces of the Philippines
B.National Bureau of Investigation
C.Department of National Defense
D.National Intelligence Coordinating Agency
71. Every nation has its own national
intelligence. Non comparable with the super
powers, but the Philippines has its own
coordinating agency for intelligence concerning
national security and interest. If the USA has
its CIA, and the former Soviet Union has its
former KGB, and Great Britain has its M16/M15,
the Philippines has its –
A.Armed Forces of the Philippines
B.National Bureau of Investigation
C.Department of National Defense
D.National Intelligence Coordinating Agency
72. The examination of raw information to
determine intelligence value, pertinence
of the information, reliability of the
source and agency, and its credibility or
truth of information is called
A.Recording
B.Analysis
C.Evaluation
D.Collection
72. The examination of raw information to
determine intelligence value, pertinence
of the information, reliability of the
source and agency, and its credibility or
truth of information is called
A.Recording
B.Analysis
C.Evaluation
D.Collection
72. What is an example of a special
reconnaissance?
A.Covert missions to conduct surveillance
activities in foreign countries
B.Secret observation of persons
C.Clandestine police operations in a town
fiesta
D.All of these
72. What is an example of a special
reconnaissance?
A.Covert missions to conduct surveillance
activities in foreign countries
B.Secret observation of persons
C.Clandestine police operations in a town
fiesta
D.All of these
73. The insertion of an action agent to
the target organization in an undercover
project is called –
A.Penetration
B.Infiltration
C.Recruitment
D.Access to information
73. The insertion of an action agent to
the target organization in an undercover
project is called –
A.Penetration
B.Infiltration
C.Recruitment
D.Access to information
74. The term unconventional warfare is a
fancy term for –
A.Chinese communism
B.long-term guerrilla warfare
C.special operations
D.Political Terrorism
74. The term unconventional warfare is a
fancy term for –
A.Chinese communism
B.long-term guerrilla warfare
C.special operations
D.Political Terrorism
75. When the person accept every story at
face value and can see no wrong in anyone,
usually idealists and can sometimes be
utilized by unscrupulous persons, then
he/she possess a weakness known as –
A.Jealousy
B.Gullibility
C.Weakness of Character
D.Infidelity
75. When the person accept every story at
face value and can see no wrong in anyone,
usually idealists and can sometimes be
utilized by unscrupulous persons, then
he/she possess a weakness known as –
A.Jealousy
B.Gullibility
C.Weakness of Character
D.Infidelity
76. ___ is all about being able to produce
"products" that are disseminated in a
timely fashion to those in a position to
make decisions and take action.
A.Data Analysis
B.Intelligence work
C.Espionage
D.Cold war
76. ___ is all about being able to produce
"products" that are disseminated in a
timely fashion to those in a position to
make decisions and take action.
A.Data Analysis
B.Intelligence work
C.Espionage
D.Cold war
77. When an undercover man is burnt out,
he –
A.recorded the information
B.was being compromised
C.has escaped from a shoot out
D.was able to eliminate the subject
77. When an undercover man is burnt out,
he –
A.recorded the information
B.was being compromised
C.has escaped from a shoot out
D.was able to eliminate the subject
78. It is the circumspect inspection of a
place to determine its suitability for
particular operational purposes.
A. Inspection B. Survey
C. Surveillance D. Casing
78. It is the circumspect inspection of a
place to determine its suitability for
particular operational purposes.
A. Inspection B. Survey
C. Surveillance D. Casing
79. . What phase in the intelligence cycle
a more complete process of evaluating data
for reliability, validity, and relevance
are made?
A.Phase I
B.Phase II
C.Phase III
D.Phase IV
79. . What phase in the intelligence cycle
a more complete process of evaluating data
for reliability, validity, and relevance
are made?
A.Phase I
B.Phase II
C.Phase III
D.Phase IV
80. . To effectively understand
intelligence work, one should have an
understanding of the ____, which is the
beginning of the cycle.
A.Strategic Intelligence Planning
B.Data Analysis
C.Intelligence Networking
D.Evaluation and Processing information
gathered
80. . To effectively understand
intelligence work, one should have an
understanding of the ____, which is the
beginning of the cycle.
A.Strategic Intelligence Planning
B.Data Analysis
C.Intelligence Networking
D.Evaluation and Processing information
gathered
81. In the world of intelligence, ___ are
verified information; something known to
exist or to have happened.
A.Fictions
B.Facts
C.Narratives
D.Estimates
81. In the world of intelligence, ___ are
verified information; something known to
exist or to have happened.
A.Fictions
B.Facts
C.Narratives
D.Estimates
82. Basically, the content of
intelligence reports, research, and
reflection on an intelligence issue that
helps to evaluate the likelihood that
something is factual and thereby reduces
uncertainty is called –
A.Intelligence product
B.Documentary evidence
C.Legal reports
D.Intel Estimates
82. Basically, the content of
intelligence reports, research, and
reflection on an intelligence issue that
helps to evaluate the likelihood that
something is factual and thereby reduces
uncertainty is called –
A.Intelligence product
B.Documentary evidence
C.Legal reports
D.Intel Estimates
83. ____ is the separation of a whole into
its parts to allow an examination and
interpretation of the information. It
typically involves certain methods and
techniques, some of which are statistical,
others which are not, which reveal
patterns and trends that often reveal the
probability of conclusions.
A.Evaluation procedures
B.Analysis
C.Reporting
D.Testing
83. ____ is the separation of a whole into
its parts to allow an examination and
interpretation of the information. It
typically involves certain methods and
techniques, some of which are statistical,
others which are not, which reveal
patterns and trends that often reveal the
probability of conclusions.
A.Evaluation procedures
B.Analysis
C.Reporting
D.Testing
84. The sole basis for clearance to a
classified matter is none but –
A.Access to information
B.Need-to-know basis
C.Order of superior officer
D.Linkage with the president
84. The sole basis for clearance to a
classified matter is none but –
A.Access to information
B.Need-to-know basis
C.Order of superior officer
D.Linkage with the president
85. What form of intelligence work
involves national estimates about the
strength, size, and capabilities of
another nation’s military and/or
counterintelligence threat?
A.Estimative Intelligence
B.Political Intelligence
C.Technical Intelligence
D.Biographical Intelligence
85. What form of intelligence work
involves national estimates about the
strength, size, and capabilities of
another nation’s military and/or
counterintelligence threat?
B.Political Intelligence
D.Biographical Intelligence
86. One of the following involves threat
assessment, the analysis of surprise,
intelligence failures, and other
indicators of catastrophe. It’s the use of
hindsight to improve foresight.
B.Warning Intelligence
D.None of these
86. One of the following involves threat
assessment, the analysis of surprise,
intelligence failures, and other
indicators of catastrophe. It’s the use of
hindsight to improve foresight.
B.Warning Intelligence
D.None of these
87. What is meant by the word “drop” in
intelligence operations?
A.Observation from a fixed point
B.Moving surveillance
C.Unsuspecting place for information relay
D.Sensitive items to purchase
87. What is meant by the word “drop” in
intelligence operations?
A.Observation from a fixed point
B.Moving surveillance
C.Unsuspecting place for information relay
D.Sensitive items to purchase
88. When the knowledge we want to derive
consists of the things that economists
collect data on, such as population
demographics, labor statistics, crop
statistics, manufacturing production rates,
import-export rates, natural resources, and
public opinion, then intelligence falls under
-.
A.Science and technology intelligence
B.Economic intelligence
C.Biographical intelligence
D.Any of the above
88. When the knowledge we want to derive
consists of the things that economists
collect data on, such as population
demographics, labor statistics, crop
statistics, manufacturing production rates,
import-export rates, natural resources, and
public opinion, then intelligence falls under
-.
A.Science and technology intelligence
B.Economic intelligence
C.Biographical intelligence
D.Any of the above
89. Form of investigation in which the
investigator assumes a different identity
in order to obtain information is known
as:
A.surveillance
B.intelligence
C.shadowing
D.undercover
89. Form of investigation in which the
investigator assumes a different identity
in order to obtain information is known
as:
A.surveillance
B.intelligence
C.shadowing
D.undercover
90. “If you know the enemy and know
yourself, you need not to fear the results
of hundred battles, if you know yourself
and not the enemy, for every victory, you
are a fool who will meet defeat in every
battle.” This is stated by whom?
A.Sun Yat Sen C.Sun tzu
B.Budda D.Mao Tze tung
90. “If you know the enemy and know
yourself, you need not to fear the results
of hundred battles, if you know yourself
and not the enemy, for every victory, you
are a fool who will meet defeat in every
battle.” This is stated by whom?
A.Sun Yat Sen C.Sun tzu
B.Budda D. Mao Tze tung
91. The product resulting from the
collecting information concerning an
actual and potential situation and
condition relating to foreign activities
and to foreign enemy held areas
A. Interrogation C. information
B. Intelligence D. investigation
91. The product resulting from the
collecting information concerning an
actual and potential situation and
condition relating to foreign activities
and to foreign enemy held areas
A. Interrogation C. information
B. Intelligence D. investigation
92. An evaluated and interpreted
information concerning organized crime and
other major police problems.
A.military Intelligence
B.police intelligence
C.military information
D.police investigation
information concerning organized crime and
other major police problems.
A.military Intelligence
B.police intelligence
C.military information
D.police investigation
93. The combination of two or more persons
for the purpose of establishing terror or
corruption in the community or section of,
either monopoly, or virtual monopoly or
criminal activity in a field that provides
a continuing financial profit.
A. organized C. criminal syndicate
B. criminal record D. Mafia
93. The combination of two or more persons
for the purpose of establishing terror or
corruption in the community or section of,
either monopoly, or virtual monopoly or
criminal activity in a field that provides
a continuing financial profit.
A. organized C. criminal syndicate
B. criminal record D. Mafia
94. The social organization of criminals,
having its own social classes from the
hobo to the moneyed gangsters or
racketeers.
A. Mafia C. criminal world
B. organized crime D. criminal syndicate
94. The social organization of criminals,
having its own social classes from the
hobo to the moneyed gangsters or
racketeers.
B. organized crime D. criminal syndicate
95. A stable business with violence
applied and directed at unwelcome
competitors.
B. criminal syndicate D. organized crime
95. A stable business with violence
applied and directed at unwelcome
competitors.
B. criminal syndicate D. organized crime
96. A form of intelligence which concerns
with the various types of confidential
information that filter into the
possession of the police, and the
techniques employed in developing these
lines of information.
A.counter intelligence
B.under cover intelligence
C.Department intelligence
D.strategic intelligence
96. A form of intelligence which concerns
with the various types of confidential
information that filter into the
possession of the police, and the
techniques employed in developing these
lines of information.
B.under cover intelligence
C.Department intelligence
D.strategic intelligence
97. Which of the following police
administrator must rely as one of the most
indispensable tools of management; it is
derived from organized information
available in the police records division
which is concerned with the nature, size
and distribution of the police problems of
crime and traffic.
A.strategic intelligence
B.Departmental intelligence
C.counter intelligence
D.undercover intelligence
97. Which of the following police
administrator must rely as one of the most
indispensable tools of management; it is
derived from organized information
available in the police records division
which is concerned with the nature, size
and distribution of the police problems of
crime and traffic.
A.strategic intelligence
B.Departmental intelligence
C.counter intelligence
D.undercover intelligence
98. Intelligence which is primarily long-
range in nature with little or no
immediate practical value.
A. Departmental Intelligence
B. strategic intelligence
C. undercover intelligence
D. counter intelligence
98. Intelligence which is primarily long-
range in nature with little or no
immediate practical value.
A. Departmental Intelligence
B. strategic intelligence
C. undercover intelligence
D. counter intelligence
99. Intelligence activity which deals with
defending of the organization against its
criminal enemies.
B.Military intelligence
C.strategic intelligence
D.military intelligence
99. Intelligence activity which deals with
defending of the organization against its
criminal enemies.
B.Military intelligence
C.strategic intelligence
D.military intelligence
information concerning an actual or
possible enemy or theatre of operations,
including weather and terrain, together
with conclusions drawn therefrom.
A.Line intelligence
B.Strategic intelligence
C.Military intelligence
D.covert operation
information concerning an actual or
possible enemy or theatre of operations,
including weather and terrain, together
with conclusions drawn therefrom.
A.Line intelligence
B.Strategic intelligence
C.Military intelligence
D.covert operation
Warning! “Worrying excessively can paralyzed anyone by an
upcoming event or could result to obsession of a current problem”.
LEA 6 (COMPARATIVE POLICE SYSTEM)
By
1. In modern world study of crimes, there is
a new kind of warfare where information and
attacks on information and its system are
used as a tool. Which of these?
A.Warfare of the internet
B.Information warfare
C.Access to information
D.Access warfare
1. In modern world study of crimes, there is
a new kind of warfare where information and
attacks on information and its system are
used as a tool. Which of these?
A.Warfare of the internet
B.Information warfare
C.Access to information
D.Access warfare
2. In understanding cyber crimes, what is
known as the technologically-based "attack"
on one person who has been targeted
specifically by reasons of anger, revenge or
control?
A.Denial Of Service attack
B.Cyber Stalking
C.Malware or malicious coding
D.Cyborge attack
2. In understanding cyber crimes, what is
known as the technologically-based "attack"
on one person who has been targeted
specifically by reasons of anger, revenge or
control?
A.Denial Of Service attack
B.Cyber Stalking
C.Malware or malicious coding
D.Cyborge attack
3. ___________________is the use of a
computer to take or alter data, or to gain
unlawful use of computer services.
A.Computer Fraud
B.Customs Fraud
C.Conduit Fraud
D.Bank card fraud
3. ___________________is the use of a
computer to take or alter data, or to gain
unlawful use of computer services.
A.Computer Fraud
B.Customs Fraud
C.Conduit Fraud
D.Bank card fraud
4. In the study of terrorism, when it is
characterized by a revolutionary approach
such as acts of terrorism which are
committed for ideological or political
motives but which are not part of a
concerted campaign to capture control the
state, it is called -
A.Quasi-Terrorism
B.Limited Political Terrorism
C.Civil Disorder
D.Official or State Terrorism
4. In the study of terrorism, when it is
characterized by a revolutionary approach
such as acts of terrorism which are
committed for ideological or political
motives but which are not part of a
concerted campaign to capture control the
state, it is called -
A.Quasi-Terrorism
B.Limited Political Terrorism
C.Civil Disorder
D.Official or State Terrorism
5. In what year that the Bilateral Agreement
among its members at the INTERPOL approved?
A.1923
B.1924
C.1978
D.1932
5. In what year that the Bilateral Agreement
among its members at the INTERPOL approved?
A.1923
B.1924
C.1978
D.1932
6. What kind of modern crime is committed
when the use of one person's personal
information by another to commit fraud or
other crimes is made?
A.Larceny
B.Identity Theft
C.Espionage
D.Customary
6. What kind of modern crime is committed
when the use of one person's personal
information by another to commit fraud or
other crimes is made?
A.Larceny
B.Identity Theft
C.Espionage
D.Customary
7. What kind of cyber crime is committed by
the act of sending an e-mail to a user
falsely claiming to be an established
legitimate enterprise in an attempt to scam
the user into surrendering private
information that will be used for identity
theft?
A.Plunders and Scams
B.Fishing Scams
C.Phishing Scams
D.Email bonuses
7. What kind of cyber crime is committed by
the act of sending an e-mail to a user
falsely claiming to be an established
legitimate enterprise in an attempt to scam
the user into surrendering private
information that will be used for identity
theft?
A.Plunders and Scams
B.Fishing Scams
C.Phishing Scams
D.Email bonuses
8. These are experts in a purely advisory
capacity, who may be appointed by the
Executive Committee and confirmed by the
General Assembly of the INTERPOL. Which one
of the following?
A.Staff personnel
B.Advisers
C.Intelligence Officers
D.Informants
8. These are experts in a purely advisory
capacity, who may be appointed by the
Executive Committee and confirmed by the
General Assembly of the INTERPOL. Which one
of the following?
A.Staff personnel
B.Advisers
C.Intelligence Officers
D.Informants
9. a.k.a 1-24/7. It serves the police of
member countries of the INTERPOL via secure
communication.
A.Secure global police communication
services
B.Operational data services and databases
for police
C.Operational police support services
D.Police training and development
9. a.k.a 1-24/7. It serves the police of
member countries of the INTERPOL via secure
communication.
services
for police
10. At the INTERPOL, which one of these
gives development- equipping activities for
member countries in fighting transnational
crimes?
services B.Operational data services and
databases for police
gives development- equipping activities for
member countries in fighting transnational
crimes?
services B.Operational data services and
databases for police
11. INTERPOL means?
A.International Criminal Police Organization
B.International Police
C.Inter-policeOr ganizational Network
D.International Policing System
11. INTERPOL means?
A.International Criminal Police Organization
B.International Police
C.Inter-policeOr ganizational Network
D.International Policing System
12. What year is known as the Birth year of
INTERPOL?
A.1923
B.1924
C.1925
D.1932
12. What year is known as the Birth year of
INTERPOL?
A.1923
B.1924
C.1925
D.1932
13. In Cambodia, military police are also
known as -
A.Private
B.Gendarmerie
C.Police officer
D.Constable Patrol
13. In Cambodia, military police are also
known as -
A.Private
B.Gendarmerie
C.Police officer
D.Constable Patrol
14. In Colombia, the rank equivalent of the
PNPs Police Officer 1 is -
A.Detective
B.Constable
C.Bhayangkara
D.Private
14. In Colombia, the rank equivalent of the
PNPs Police Officer 1 is
A.Detective
B.Constable
C.Bhayangkara
D.Private
15. At the INTERPOL, which of these is a
24/7 operation of Command and Coordination
Center which provides support to law
enforcement officials in the field.
services
for police
15. At the INTERPOL, which of these is a
24/7 operation of Command and Coordination
Center which provides support to law
enforcement officials in the field.
services
for police
16. The Headquarters of Police Forces in
Cambodia is located in
A.Jakarta
B.Phnom Penh
C.Cali
D.Myanmar
16. The Headquarters of Police Forces in
Cambodia is located in
A.Jakarta
B.Phnom Penh
C.Cali
D.Myanmar
17. In general, the term use to refer to the
Military Police is
A.Gendarmerie
B.Police Force
C.Private 1st class
D.MP
17. In general, the term use to refer to the
Military Police is
A.Gendarmerie
B.Police Force
C.Private 1st class
D.MP
18. ASEANAPOL means?
A.Asian Police Organization
B.Association of National Police Forces of
the ASEAN Region
C.Association of National Police Forces
D.ASEAN Chief of National Police
18. ASEANAPOL means?
A.Asian Police Organization
B.Association of National Police Forces of
the ASEAN Region
C.Association of National Police Forces
D.ASEAN Chief of National Police
19. In Japan, what is the oversight agency
of which has an authority to impose the
proper administration of Police Force
personnel?
A.National Police Agency in Tokyo
B.Department of Interior and Local
Government
C.Nationale Federales de Japanese
D.The Kempetai
19. In Japan, what is the oversight agency
of which has an authority to impose the
proper administration of Police Force
personnel?
A.National Police Agency in Tokyo
B.Department of Interior and Local
Government
C.Nationale Federales de Japanese
D.The Kempetai
20. In the Japanese police ranking system,
the equivalent of Superintendent of the PNP
is -
A.Koshie
B.Keishie
C.Koushie ne
D.Rakerakei
20. In the Japanese police ranking system,
the equivalent of Superintendent of the PNP
is -
A.Koshie
B.Keishie
C.Koushie ne
D.Rakerakei
21. One among the following has the overall
power over the police organization of
Japanese Police Force.
A.Legislative Branch
B.Prime Minister
C.President
D.Police Commissioner
21. One among the following has the overall
power over the police organization of
Japanese Police Force.
A.Legislative Branch
B.Prime Minister
C.President
D.Police Commissioner
22. In Philippines, there are two categories
of police officers in rank namely: the
Commissioned Officers and the Non-
Commissioned Officers while in Malaysia
there are -
A.3 categories
B.2 categories
C.4 categories
D.5 categories
22. In Philippines, there are two categories
of police officers in rank namely: the
Commissioned Officers and the Non-
Commissioned Officers while in Malaysia
there are -
A.3 categories
B.2 categories
C.4 categories
D.5 categories
23. In the Malaysian Police force, the
rank of Corporal is equivalent to in
the PNP ranking system.
A.Police Officer 1
B.Police Officer 2
C.Police Officer 3
D.Inspector
23. In the Malaysian Police force, the
rank of Corporal is equivalent to in
A.Police Officer 1
B.Police Officer 2
C.Police Officer 3
D.Inspector
provides access to members on
different databases?
services
for police
provides access to members on
different databases?
services
for police
25. In the Columbian Police Force, the
chief of police is equivalent to
A.Superintendent
B.Police Director General
C.Senior Inspector
D.none of these
25. In the Columbian Police Force, the
chief of police is equivalent to
A.Superintendent
B.Police Director General
C.Senior Inspector
D.none of these
26. In the Philippines, we have
Philippine National Police (PNP)
while in Colombia they have -
A.Metropolitan Police Department of
Colombia
B.Police Department of Colombia
C.Royal Police Department of Colombia
D.None of these
26. In the Philippines, we have
Philippine National Police (PNP)
while in Colombia they have -
A.Metropolitan Police Department of
Colombia
B.Police Department of Colombia
C.Royal Police Department of Colombia
D.None of these
27. In New Zealand, the supervision of
the Police Force is under the command
of -
A.Minister of Affairs
B.Minister of Police
C.The Constable
D.Chief of the PNP
27. In New Zealand, the supervision of
the Police Force is under the command
of -
A.Minister of Affairs
B.Minister of Police
C.The Constable
D.Chief of the PNP
28. NATO is an acronym which means -
A.National Treaty Organization
B.National Atlantic Treaty Organization
C.National Aquatic Technological
Organization
D.National Academy for Training and
Organizing
28. NATO is an acronym which means -
A.National Treaty Organization
B.National Atlantic Treaty Organization
C.National Aquatic Technological
Organization
D.National Academy for Training and
Organizing
29.While the Philippines has the NAPOLCOM
as its oversight agency for the PNP, Japan
has the for the National Police Agency.
A.National Safety Public Commission
B.National Public Safety Commission
C.Commission on National Police Agency
D.All of these
29.While the Philippines has the NAPOLCOM
as its oversight agency for the PNP, Japan
has the for the National Police Agency.
A.National Safety Public Commission
B.National Public Safety Commission
C.Commission on National Police Agency
D.All of these
30. As per PNP Organization structure, the
provinces should be under the headship of a
Provincial Director. In Japan, the head of
the Metropolitan Police Department is called
-
A.The Chief
B.The Kempetai
C.The Commander
D.The Director
30. As per PNP Organization structure, the
provinces should be under the headship of a
Provincial Director. In Japan, the head of
the Metropolitan Police Department is called
-
A.The Chief
B.The Kempetai
C.The Commander
D.The Director
31.Newly admitted member of the Cambodian
Police commenced with the rank of -
A. Police Officer 1
B. Detective
C. Officer Constable
D. Aide de camp
31.Newly admitted member of the Cambodian
Police commenced with the rank of -
A. Police Officer 1
B. Detective
C. Officer Constable
D. Aide de camp
32. Historical accounts of terrorism provide
that the group responsible in a bomb
explosion on U.S. Airbase at Ramstein then
in West Germany was known as the -
A.White Army
B.Red Army
C.Jihad
D.Black Society
32. Historical accounts of terrorism provide
that the group responsible in a bomb
explosion on U.S. Airbase at Ramstein then
in West Germany was known as the -
A.White Army
B.Red Army
C.Jihad
D.Black Society
33. The highest rank in the Philippine
National Police ranking system is Police
Director General with 4 stars, while in the
Hongkong Police, it is the -
A.Police Constable
B.Inspector General
C.Commissioner of Police
D.Constable Patrol
33. The highest rank in the Philippine
National Police ranking system is Police
Director General with 4 stars, while in the
Hongkong Police, it is the -
A.Police Constable
B.Inspector General
C.Commissioner of Police
D.Constable Patrol
34. The National Headquarters of PNP is
located at Camp Crame, Quezon City while the
Malaysian Police is located in -
A.Malaysia National Headquarters
B.Bukit Aman
C.Kuala Lumpur
D.Jakarta
34. The National Headquarters of PNP is
located at Camp Crame, Quezon City while the
Malaysian Police is located in -
A.Malaysia National Headquarters
B.Bukit Aman
C.Kuala Lumpur
D.Jakarta
35. Among the following, which is considered
as the primordial purpose of the Royal
Malaysian Police?
A.Traffic and Intelligence
B.Patrolling and Crime prevention
C.Police Engineering and Education
D.Personnel and Records Management
35. Among the following, which is considered
as the primordial purpose of the Royal
Malaysian Police?
A.Traffic and Intelligence
B.Patrolling and Crime prevention
C.Police Engineering and Education
D.Personnel and Records Management
36. What is the highest rank that can be
attained in the Royal Malaysian Police?
A.Inspector Police
B.Inspector General of the Police
C.Police Director General
D.Master Sergeant
36. What is the highest rank that can be
attained in the Royal Malaysian Police?
A.Inspector Police
B.Inspector General of the Police
C.Police Director General
D.Master Sergeant
37. The word “Al Queda” literally means -
A.The Network
B.God Servants
C.The Base
D.Blaze of Glory
37. The word “Al Queda” literally means -
A.The Network
B.God Servants
C.The Base
D.Blaze of Glory
38. One of the following is among the
international deployment of Philippine peace
keeping mission in Cambodia?
A.TACUN
B.UNTAC
C.NUCTAC
D.UTAC
38. One of the following is among the
keeping mission in Cambodia?
A.TACUN
B.UNTAC
C.NUCTAC
D.UTAC
39. The Japanese Police officers are
commonly known as -
A.Kempetai
B.Keishie
C.Koban
D.Kakokeshie
39. The Japanese Police officers are
commonly known as -
A.Kempetai
B.Keishie
C.Koban
D.Kakokeshie
40. What is the Community Program for the
police launched in Malaysia on August 9,
2005?
A.Rakan Cop
B.Recon Cop
C.Rakrak Order
D.Kare Cop
40. What is the Community Program for the
police launched in Malaysia on August 9,
2005?
A.Rakan Cop
B.Recon Cop
C.Rakrak Order
D.Kare Cop
41. One of these is one among the
keeping mission in Iraq?
A.PHCI
B.PHPI
C.AFPRM
D.PPCS
41. One of these is one among the
keeping mission in Iraq?
A.PHCI
B.PHPI
C.AFPRM
D.PPCS
42. For purposes of understanding the
Malaysian police, RMP stands for -
A.Royal Mounted Police
B.Royal Malaysian Police
C.Royale de Malay Polizei
D.Royal Military Police
42. For purposes of understanding the
Malaysian police, RMP stands for -
A.Royal Mounted Police
B.Royal Malaysian Police
C.Royale de Malay Polizei
D.Royal Military Police
43. The rank of a PO2 in PNP is equivalent
to the rank of in the Malaysian Police.
A.Constable
B.Corporal
C.Lance Corporal
D.Captain
43. The rank of a PO2 in PNP is equivalent
to the rank of in the Malaysian Police.
A.Constable
B.Corporal
C.Lance Corporal
D.Captain
44. Many ASEAN countries have the rank of
constable in their ranking system. Constable
in the PNP is -
A.Corporal
B.Police Officer 1
C.Private
D.Police Officer 2
44. Many ASEAN countries have the rank of
constable in their ranking system. Constable
in the PNP is -
A.Corporal
B.Police Officer 1
C.Private
D.Police Officer 2
45. In the PNP, all Non Commissioned
Officers are ranked from Police Officer 1 up
to Senior Police Officer 4. In the Indian
police, the term “Commissioned” is also the
same as
A.High Profile
B.High Rank
C.Gazzette
D.Inspector Rank
45. In the PNP, all Non Commissioned
Officers are ranked from Police Officer 1 up
to Senior Police Officer 4. In the Indian
police, the term “Commissioned” is also the
same as
A.High Profile
B.High Rank
C.Gazzette
D.Inspector Rank
46. In the Philippine National Police, we
use the word “trainees” to refer to those
newly recruited members. In the Indonesian
Police, police trainees are called -
A.Kama
B.Kamara
C.Kamra
D.Karma
46. In the Philippine National Police, we
use the word “trainees” to refer to those
newly recruited members. In the Indonesian
Police, police trainees are called -
A.Kama
B.Kamara
C.Kamra
D.Karma
47. The term Markas Baser or Mabes is also
known as -
A.Headquarters
B.Base network
C.Place of Reconnaissance
D.Basis for promotion
47. The term Markas Baser or Mabes is also
known as -
A.Headquarters
B.Base network
C.Place of Reconnaissance
D.Basis for promotion
48. The Philippine National Police is under
the Department of Interior and Local
Government, while the Singaporean Police is
under .
A.Ministry of Foreign Affairs
B.Ministry of Defense
C.Ministry of Home Affairs
D.Homeland Security Office
48. The Philippine National Police is under
the Department of Interior and Local
Government, while the Singaporean Police is
under .
A.Ministry of Foreign Affairs
B.Ministry of Defense
C.Ministry of Home Affairs
D.Homeland Security Office
49. On current trends of policing, what
country’s police model has the most notable
crime rate efficiency as it had the
reputation of maintaining a very low crime
rate?
A.Japan
B.Hongkong
C.China
D.Singapore
49. On current trends of policing, what
country’s police model has the most notable
crime rate efficiency as it had the
reputation of maintaining a very low crime
rate?
A.Japan
B.Hongkong
C.China
D.Singapore
50. The Philippine police is commonly called
PNP, while Canada has its -
A.RMCP
B.RCMP
C.PRCM
D.RMPC
50. The Philippine police is commonly called
PNP, while Canada has its -
A.RMCP
B.RCMP
C.PRCM
D.RMPC
51. Among the following, it was considered
as the Asia’s Finest in term of
implementation of crime prevention programs?
A.China
B.Hong Kong
C.Japan
D.Singapore
51. Among the following, it was considered
as the Asia’s Finest in term of
implementation of crime prevention programs?
A.China
B.Hong Kong
C.Japan
D.Singapore
52. The term Bhayangkara in the Indonesian
Police is referred to as -
A.Private
B.Officers
C.Senior Officers
D.Detective
52. The term Bhayangkara in the Indonesian
Police is referred to as -
A.Private
B.Officers
C.Senior Officers
D.Detective
53______is for the Singapore Police Force;
SPO4 is for the PNP.
A. Senior Inspector
B. Private
C. SuperintendenT
D. Senior Staff Sergeant
53______is for the Singapore Police Force;
SPO4 is for the PNP.
A. Senior Inspector
B. Private
C. SuperintendenT
D. Senior Staff Sergeant
54. Commissioned Officers of the PNP is
equivalent to what Officers in the
Singaporean Police?
A.Senior Staff Sergeant
B.Senior Police Officers
C.Superintendent
D.Commissioner of Police
54. Commissioned Officers of the PNP is
equivalent to what Officers in the
Singaporean Police?
A.Senior Staff Sergeant
B.Senior Police Officers
C.Superintendent
D.Commissioner of Police
55. The PNP is under the supervision of DILG
while the Indian Police is under what
agencies?
A. State of Police Service
B. Headquarter Officers
C. Sergeant at arms
D. Internal Affairs
55. The PNP is under the supervision of DILG
while the Indian Police is under what
agencies?
A. State of Police Service
B. Headquarter Officers
C. Sergeant at arms
D. Internal Affairs
56. The equivalent rank of the Police
Director General in the PNP in the Indian
police rank is –
A. Director General Manager
B. Director of Intelligence Bureau
C. Constable
D. Commissioned Officer
56. The equivalent rank of the Police
Director General in the PNP in the Indian
police rank is –
A. Director General Manager
B. Director of Intelligence Bureau
C. Constable
D. Commissioned Officer
57. The lowest rank in Indian Police
service which is equivalent to the
PNP’s Police Officer 1 is the .
A.Private
B.Police Constable
C.Sergeant
D.Gendarmie
57. The lowest rank in Indian Police
service which is equivalent to the
PNP’s Police Officer 1 is the .
A.Private
B.Police Constable
C.Sergeant
D.Gendarmie
58.In Hongkong, the oversight agency for the
police force is the .
A.Security Bureau
B.Bureau of Immigration
C.Bureau of Customs
D.Office of the Chairman
58.In Hongkong, the oversight agency for the
police force is the .
A.Security Bureau
B.Bureau of Immigration
C.Bureau of Customs
D.Office of the Chairman
59. which is the following is also referred
to as the metropolitan police service in
England.
a. ministry of police
b. national police force
c. Scotland yard
d. the “bobbies”
59. which is the following is also referred
to as the metropolitan police service in
England.
a. ministry of police
b. national police force
c. Scotland yard
d. the “bobbies”
60. What is the hall surrounding the
headquarters of the metropolitan police
service in England located at new Scotland
yard ?
A. The Side Hall
B.The Black Hall
C.The White Hall
D.The Holy Hole
60. What is the hall surrounding the
headquarters of the metropolitan police
service in England located at new Scotland
yard ?
A. The Side Hall
B.The Black Hall
C.The White Hall
D.The Holy Hole
61. The PNP Chief has an equivalent
designation in the Metropolitan Police
Service in England as .
A.Director
B.Commissioner
C.Police General
D.Captain of the Royal Guard
61. The PNP Chief has an equivalent
designation in the Metropolitan Police
Service in England as .
A.Director
B.Commissioner
C.Police General
D.Captain of the Royal Guard
62. The Deputy Chief of the PNP has the
equivalent designation as in the ranking
system of the Metropolitan Police Service
in England.
A.Deputy Commissioner
B.Deputy Director
C.Deputy of the Royal Guard
D.Assistant Director
62. The Deputy Chief of the PNP has the
equivalent designation as in the ranking
system of the Metropolitan Police Service
in England.
A.Deputy Commissioner
B.Deputy Director
C.Deputy of the Royal Guard
D.Assistant Director
63. In Japan, the office of which has the
authority in their police force is the .
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Kobayashi
D. Ministry of Defense
63. In Japan, the office of which has the
authority in their police force is the .
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Kobayashi
D. Ministry of Defense
64. The word “Abu Sayyaf” literally means .
A.The Sword Bearer
B.Father of Local Terrorist
C.Muslim Revolutionary
D.For the Love of God
64. The word “Abu Sayyaf” literally means .
A.The Sword Bearer
B.Father of Local Terrorist
C.Muslim Revolutionary
D.For the Love of God
65. In terms of operation, the Abu Sayyaf,
as a network group of terrorist
concentrates mostly in the .
A.Philippines and Indonesia
B.Philippines and Malaysia
C.Only in the Philippines
D. Uncertain/unknown
65. In terms of operation, the Abu Sayyaf,
as a network group of terrorist
concentrates mostly in the .
A.Philippines and Indonesia
B.Philippines and Malaysia
C.Only in the Philippines
D. Uncertain/unknown
66. The Abu Sayaff group of terrorist has
known to be organized and originated in the
Philippines with headquarters in the
Mindanao area, particularly .
A.Tawi-Tawi, Philippines
B.Jolo, Sulu Philippines
C.Cotabato, Philippines
D.Maguindanao, Philippines
66. The Abu Sayaff group of terrorist has
known to be organized and originated in the
Philippines with headquarters in the
Mindanao area, particularly .
A.Tawi-Tawi, Philippines
B.Jolo, Sulu Philippines
C.Cotabato, Philippines
D.Maguindanao, Philippines
67. The Al Queda network of terrorist is
popularly headed by after the downfall
of their leader Bin Laden.
A.Bin Laden Jr.
B.Zawahari
C.Zabaya
D.Omar Khadafi
67. The Al Queda network of terrorist is
popularly headed by after the downfall
of their leader Bin Laden.
A.Bin Laden Jr.
B.Zawahari
C.Zabaya
D.Omar Khadafi
68. Among the following, which was tagged by
the United States as the largest Foreign
Terrorists Organization?
A. The Abu Sayyaf
B. The Al Queda
C. The Taliban
D. The Jemaah Islamiya
68. Among the following, which was tagged by
the United States as the largest Foreign
Terrorists Organization?
A. The Abu Sayyaf
B. The Al Queda
C. The Taliban
D. The Jemaah Islamiya
69. The word “Jemaah Islamiya” also means?
A.Islamic Leaders
B.Religious Revolutionaries
C.Islamic Congregation
D.The Lamb of God
69. The word “Jemaah Islamiya” also means?
A.Islamic Leaders
B.Religious Revolutionaries
C.Islamic Congregation
D.The Lamb of God
70. In terms of operations, which part of
Asia the Jemaah Islamiyah is mostly active?
A.Northern Asia
B.Southeast Asia
C.Western Asia
D.Eastern Asia
70. In terms of operations, which part of
Asia the Jemaah Islamiyah is mostly active?
A.Northern Asia
B.Southeast Asia
C.Western Asia
D.Eastern Asia
71. In the study of the history of drug
trafficking in the Philippines, the law
which was approved in 1972 as a drug control
effort was .
A. RA 9165
B. RA 6975
C. RA 6425
D. PD 953
71. In the study of the history of drug
trafficking in the Philippines, the law
which was approved in 1972 as a drug control
effort was .
A. RA 9165
B. RA 6975
C. RA 6425
D. PD 953
72. The Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
is an agency for drug control efforts
attached to the office of the .
A. Department of Interior and Local
Government
B. Bureau of Customs
C. President
D. Department of Justice
72. The Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
is an agency for drug control efforts
attached to the office of the .
A. Department of Interior and Local
Government
B. Bureau of Customs
C. President
D. Department of Justice
73. What is known as the practice of
engaging in financial transactions to
conceal the identity, source, and/or
destination of illegally gained money by
which the proceeds of crime are converted
into assets which appear to have a
legitimate origin?
A. The crime of Plunder
B. “5-6”
C. Money Laundering
D. Dollar Trafficking
73. What is known as the practice of
engaging in financial transactions to
conceal the identity, source, and/or
destination of illegally gained money by
which the proceeds of crime are converted
into assets which appear to have a
legitimate origin?
A. The crime of Plunder
B. “5-6”
C. Money Laundering
D. Dollar Trafficking
74. Violent criminal behavior designed
primarily to generate fear in the community,
or substantial segment of it, for political
purposes is commonly known as .
A. Political Terrorism
B. Civil Disorder
C. Criminal Terrorism
D. Narco-Terrorism
74. Violent criminal behavior designed
primarily to generate fear in the community,
or substantial segment of it, for political
purposes is commonly known as.
B. Civil Disorder
D. Narco-Terrorism
75. The following are steps involved in
money laundering, except?
A. physical distribution of the cash
B. carrying out complex financial
transactions in order to camouflage the
illegal source
C. acquiring wealth generated from the
transactions of the illicit funds
D. Committing Plunder Case
75. The following are steps involved in
money laundering, except?
A. physical distribution of the cash
B. carrying out complex financial
transactions in order to camouflage the
illegal source
C. acquiring wealth generated from the
transactions of the illicit funds
D. Committing Plunder Case
76. At the INTERPOL, what is the independent
body whose mandate is threefold - to ensure
that the processing of personal information, to
advise INTERPOL on any project, operation, set
of rules or other matter involving the
processing of personal information and to
process requests concerning the information
contained in INTERPOL'S files?
A. Intelligence Bureau
B. Internal Security Bureau
C. Commission for the Control of INTERPOL's
Files
D. ASEANAPOL
76. At the INTERPOL, what is the independent
body whose mandate is threefold - to ensure
that the processing of personal information, to
advise INTERPOL on any project, operation, set
of rules or other matter involving the
processing of personal information and to
process requests concerning the information
contained in INTERPOL'S files?
A. Intelligence Bureau
B. Internal Security Bureau
C. Commission for the Control of INTERPOL's
Files
D. ASEANAPOL
77. What is the Anti-Money Laundering Law in
the Philippines?
A. RA 9165
B. RA 9166
C. RA 9160
D. RA 6019
77. What is the Anti-Money Laundering Law in
the Philippines?
A. RA 9165
B. RA 9166
C. RA 9160
D. RA 6019
78. It refers to an act of recruiting,
transporting, transferring, harboring or
receiving a person through a use of force,
coercion or other means, for the purpose of
exploiting them.
A. Illegal recruitment
B. Human Trafficking
C. Crime against person
D. Slavery
78. It refers to an act of recruiting,
transporting, transferring, harboring or
receiving a person through a use of force,
coercion or other means, for the purpose of
exploiting them.
A. Illegal recruitment
B. Human Trafficking
C. Crime against person
D. Slavery
79. What is the law known as “Anti-
Trafficking of Persons of 2003”?
A. RA 9160
B. RA 9208
C. RA 9802
D. RA 9082
79. What is the law known as “Anti-
Trafficking of Persons of 2003”?
A. RA 9160
B. RA 9208
C. RA 9802
D. RA 9082
80. In the policing system of the Soviet
Union, the office responsible for
administration of the regular police force
is the.
A. Ministry of Internal Affairs
B. Prime Minister
C. Ministry of Defense
D. Internal Affairs Service
80. In the policing system of the Soviet
Union, the office responsible for
administration of the regular police force
is the.
A. Ministry of Internal Affairs
B. Prime Minister
C. Ministry of Defense
D. Internal Affairs Service
81. What is the lowest rank of the auxiliary
force adopted by the Soviet Union?
A. Constable
B. Private Molotov
C. Gendarmie
D. Komsomol
81. What is the lowest rank of the auxiliary
force adopted by the Soviet Union?
A. Constable
B. Private Molotov
C. Gendarmie
D. Komsomol
82. What is the counterpart police force of
the Philippine National Police (PNP) in
Mexico?
A. Mexican Nationale Police
B. Mexico Police Force
C. The Federal Police of Mexico
D. The Metropolitan Police
82. What is the counterpart police force of
the Philippine National Police (PNP) in
Mexico?
A. Mexican Nationale Police
B. Mexico Police Force
C. The Federal Police of Mexico
D. The Metropolitan Police
83. Terrorism does not only aim for
political purposes but also can exhibit
conscious design to create and maintain a
high degree of fear for coercive purposes
with end pursuit of collective gain. If so,
what is being referred to?
B. Civil Disorder
C. Non-Political Terrorism
D. Narco-Terrorism
83. Terrorism does not only aim for
political purposes but also can exhibit
conscious design to create and maintain a
high degree of fear for coercive purposes
with end pursuit of collective gain. If so,
what is being referred to?
B. Civil Disorder
C. Non-Political Terrorism
D. Narco-Terrorism
84. In New Zealand, it was obviously noted
that the priority of their Police Force is
.
A. Enforcement of Traffic Laws
B. Crime Prevention
C. Anti-Vagrancy
D. Anti-Prostitution
84. In New Zealand, it was obviously noted
that the priority of their Police Force is
.
A. Enforcement of Traffic Laws
B. Crime Prevention
C. Anti-Vagrancy
D. Anti-Prostitution
85. Globalization impacts on policing.
Simply, globalization is the influence of.
A. Economics, Politics, Cultures, and
Society
B. Mental deterioration of Police Force
C. Indifference of Policing System in the
World
D. All of these
85. Globalization impacts on policing.
Simply, globalization is the influence of.
A. Economics, Politics, Cultures, and
Society
B. Mental deterioration of Police Force
C. Indifference of Policing System in the
World
D. All of these
86. Reform of the different paradigms of
policing system in the world is needed to
effectively address transnational crimes.
Which of the following is an acceptable
measure?
A. International Conventions
B. Addressing the Laws
C. Policies and Training
D. All of the above
86. Reform of the different paradigms of
policing system in the world is needed to
effectively address transnational crimes.
Which of the following is an acceptable
measure?
A. International Conventions
B. Addressing the Laws
C. Policies and Training
D. All of the above
87. The use of force or threats to
intimidate people and could result to a
worldwide concern is an act of .
A. Demonism
B. Organized Criminality
C. Terrorism
D. Human disgrace
87. The use of force or threats to
intimidate people and could result to a
worldwide concern is an act of .
A. Demonism
B. Organized Criminality
C. Terrorism
D. Human disgrace
88. A form of collective violence
interfering with the peace, security, and
normal functioning of the community. Which
one of these?
B. Civil Disorder
D. Large group
88. A form of collective violence
interfering with the peace, security, and
normal functioning of the community. Which
one of these?
B. Civil Disorder
D. Large group
89. The activities incidental to the
commission of crimes of violence that are
similar in form and method to genuine
terrorism but lacks some essential
ingredient. The use the modalities and
techniques of the genuine terrorist but the
purpose is quite different. Which one of
these?
A. Civil Disorder
B. Quasi-Terrorism
C. Limited Political terrorism
D. Organized Criminals
89. The activities incidental to the
commission of crimes of violence that are
similar in form and method to genuine
terrorism but lacks some essential
ingredient. The use the modalities and
techniques of the genuine terrorist but the
purpose is quite different. Which one of
these?
A. Civil Disorder
B. Quasi-Terrorism
C. Limited Political terrorism
D. Organized Criminals
90. It may also be referred to as Structural
Terrorism, such that terrorist acts are
carried out by governments in pursuit of
political objectives, often as part of their
foreign policy. Which one of these?
A. Quasi-Terrorism
B. Limited political Terrorism
C. Civil Disorder
D. Official or State Terrorism
90. It may also be referred to as Structural
Terrorism, such that terrorist acts are
carried out by governments in pursuit of
political objectives, often as part of their
foreign policy. Which one of these?
A. Quasi-Terrorism
B. Limited political Terrorism
C. Civil Disorder
D. Official or State Terrorism
91. One is synonymous as Computer crimes?
A. The e-crimes
B. Cyber Crimes
C. Viruses in Computer
D. Data Theft
91. One is synonymous as Computer crimes?
A. The e-crimes
B. Cyber Crimes
C. Viruses in Computer
D. Data Theft
92. In the generation and transfer of data,
it may happen that a computer program can
copy itself and infect another computer.
This means that there is.
A. Cyber Crime
B. Hacking
C. Computer virus
D. Computer programming
92. In the generation and transfer of data,
it may happen that a computer program can
copy itself and infect another computer.
This means that there is.
A. Cyber Crime
B. Hacking
C. Computer virus
D. Computer programming
93. Of the following, what kind of cyber
modus operandi is made whereby an attempt to
make a computer resource unavailable to its
intended users is made?
A. Computer Virus infection
B. Cyber Crime
C. Hacking
D. Denial-of-service attack
93. Of the following, what kind of cyber
modus operandi is made whereby an attempt to
make a computer resource unavailable to its
intended users is made?
A. Computer Virus infection
B. Cyber Crime
C. Hacking
D. Denial-of-service attack
94. It is a malicious computer software that
interferes with normal computer functions or
sends personal data about the user to
unauthorized parties over the internet. This
refers to -
A. Denial-of-Service Attack
B. Plain Cyber Crime
C. Malware (malicious code)
D. Virus Infection
94. It is a malicious computer software that
interferes with normal computer functions or
sends personal data about the user to
unauthorized parties over the internet. This
refers to -
A. Denial-of-Service Attack
B. Plain Cyber Crime
C. Malware (malicious code)
D. Virus Infection
95. Control of computer crimes has been
undertaken through legislative measures. In
the Philippines, what is known as Electronic
Commerce Act of 2000?
A. RA 6996
B. RA 8792
C. RA 9278
D. RA 8899
95. Control of computer crimes has been
undertaken through legislative measures. In
the Philippines, what is known as Electronic
Commerce Act of 2000?
A. RA 6996
B. RA 8792
C. RA 9278
D. RA 8899
96. It is also known as Anti-Photo and Video
Voyeurism Act of 2009?
A. RA 5599
B. RA 9999
C. RA 9995
D. RA 9595
96. It is also known as Anti-Photo and Video
Voyeurism Act of 2009?
A. RA 5599
B. RA 9999
C. RA 9995
D. RA 9595
97. What is the INTERPOLs supreme governing
body that meets annually and comprises
delegates appointed by each member country?
A. Assembly Meeting
B. General Assembly
C. Consultative Meeting
D. Meeting de Avance
97. What is the INTERPOLs supreme governing
body that meets annually and comprises
delegates appointed by each member country?
A. Assembly Meeting
B. General Assembly
C. Consultative Meeting
D. Meeting de Avance
98. At the INTERPOL, there is this 13-member
committee that is elected and comprises of
the president, three vice- presidents and
nine delegates covering the four regions.
A. Legislative Committee
B. Executive Committee
C. Administrative Committee
D. Legal Committee
98. At the INTERPOL, there is this 13-member
committee that is elected and comprises of
the president, three vice- presidents and
nine delegates covering the four regions.
A. Legislative Committee
B. Executive Committee
C. Administrative Committee
D. Legal Committee
99. The General Secretarial of the INTERPOL
is located in Lyon, France, and operates 24
hours a day, 365 days a year and officials
from more than 80 countries work side-by-
side in any of the organization's four
official languages. This is
the home of the -
A. Director General
B. Secret General
C. Secretary General
D. Executive Officer
99. The General Secretarial of the INTERPOL
is located in Lyon, France, and operates 24
hours a day, 365 days a year and officials
from more than 80 countries work side-by-
side in any of the organization's four
official languages. This is
the home of the -
A. Director General
B. Secret General
C. Secretary General
D. Executive Officer
100. Each INTERPOL member country
maintains Staffed by national law
enforcement officers. It is the designated
contact point for the General Secretariat,
regional offices and other member countries
requiring assistance with overseas
investigations and the location and
apprehension of fugitives.
A. Federal Bureau of Investigation
B. National Central Bureau
C. Central Intelligence Agency
D. National Bureau of Investigations
100. Each INTERPOL member country
maintains Staffed by national law
enforcement officers. It is the designated
contact point for the General Secretariat,
regional offices and other member countries
requiring assistance with overseas
investigations and the location and
apprehension of fugitives.
A. Federal Bureau of Investigation
B. National Central Bureau
C. Central Intelligence Agency
D. National Bureau of Investigations
“Gain support from your love ones, family and friends”.
A Compilation of
Criminalistics
(600 Items)
(Dactyloscopy, Police Photography, Question Document
Examination, Forensic Ballistics, Polygraphy, Legal
Medicine)
Fingerprint Identification
(Dactyloscopy)
SET 1
By
1. In fingerprint identification, the
pattern which conforms to one of the
definition but is not a plain arch is
what?
A.Accidental whorl
B.Tented arch
C.None of these
D.Ulnar whorl
1. In fingerprint identification, the
pattern which conforms to one of the
definition but is not a plain arch is
what?
A.Accidental whorl
B.Tented arch
C.None of these
D.Ulnar whorl
2. Which of the following government
issued I.D. cards on documents had an edge
over the others with respect to the
authenticity, acceptability and legality?
The document with:
A.Signature and thumbmark
B.Signature only
C.Thumbmark only
D.Photo and signature
2. Which of the following government
issued I.D. cards on documents had an edge
over the others with respect to the
authenticity, acceptability and legality?
The document with:
B.Signature only
C.Thumbmark only
3. In key classification, no matter where
the impression is found, is always placed
to the extreme left of the numerator of
the classification, is it correct?
A.Yes
B.Possible
C.No
D.Sometimes
3. In key classification, no matter where
the impression is found, is always placed
to the extreme left of the numerator of
the classification, is it correct?
A.Yes
B.Possible
C.No
D.Sometimes
4. The sum total of all numerical values
of whorls in a set of fingers plus the
fraction of one (1) over one (1) is what
kind of classification?
A.Minor
B.Primary
C.Secondary
D.Multiple
4. The sum total of all numerical values
of whorls in a set of fingers plus the
fraction of one (1) over one (1) is what
kind of classification?
A.Minor
B.Primary
C.Secondary
D.Multiple
5. The fingerprint pattern usually found
in loops and whorls is what?
A.Insufficient recurve
B.Core
C.Delta
D.Type lines
5. The fingerprint pattern usually found
in loops and whorls is what?
A.Insufficient recurve
B.Core
C.Delta
D.Type lines
6. In dactyloscopy, the lifting of
fingerprints in the crime scene is
necessary in cases of?
A.Rape
B.Crimes against persons
C.All of these
D.Kidnapping with ransom
6. In dactyloscopy, the lifting of
fingerprints in the crime scene is
necessary in cases of?
A.Rape
B.Crimes against persons
C.All of these
D.Kidnapping with ransom
7. In fingerprint study, the pattern that
has two deltas and with at least one ridge
that make a turn through one complete
circuit is called what?
A.Accidental
B.Loop
C.Whorl
D.Arch
7. In fingerprint study, the pattern that
has two deltas and with at least one ridge
that make a turn through one complete
circuit is called what?
A.Accidental
B.Loop
C.Whorl
D.Arch
8. The main purpose of the fingerprint
system is to confirm the identity and the
criminal history of the?
A.Relatives of the suspect
B.Suspect
C.Victims
D.Gangmates
8. The main purpose of the fingerprint
system is to confirm the identity and the
criminal history of the?
A.Relatives of the suspect
B.Suspect
C.Victims
D.Gangmates
9. Can there be an accidental whorl even
if there is only one (1) delta?
A.It depends
B.Yes
C.No
D.Sometimes
9. Can there be an accidental whorl even
if there is only one (1) delta?
A.It depends
B.Yes
C.No
D.Sometimes
10. Like fingerprints, no two (2) sets of
fingernails are:
A.Alike in their markings
B.Easy to analyze
C.None of these
D.The same color and texture
10. Like fingerprints, no two (2) sets of
fingernails are:
A.Alike in their markings
B.Easy to analyze
C.None of these
D.The same color and texture
11. The approximate center of a
fingerprint pattern, usually found in
loops and whorls is?
A.middle ridge
B.Core
C.Central ridge
D.Slope
11. The approximate center of a
fingerprint pattern, usually found in
loops and whorls is?
A.middle ridge
B.Core
C.Central ridge
D.Slope
12. Can a strong acid burn completely and
never to recur fingerprints?
A.None of these
B.It depends
C.No
D.Always
12. Can a strong acid burn completely and
never to recur fingerprints?
A.None of these
B.It depends
C.No
D.Always
13. In dactyloscopy particularly
fingerprint patterns, the symbol of tented
arch is?
A.TA
B.A
C.U
D.T
13. In dactyloscopy particularly
fingerprint patterns, the symbol of tented
arch is?
A.TA
B.A
C.U
D.T
14. In the study of dactyloscopy, the
approximate center of a fingerprint
pattern which is usually found in loops
and whorls is called?
A.Core
B.Middle ridge
C.Central ridge
D.Delta
14. In the study of dactyloscopy, the
approximate center of a fingerprint
pattern which is usually found in loops
and whorls is called?
A.Core
B.Middle ridge
C.Central ridge
D.Delta
15. In searching for latent prints on a crime
with forcible entry, look for: crowbars,
screw driver, electrical systems, etc.
because those are the possible sources of
scene fingerprints, correct?
A. Not true
B. Maybe
C. Possibly true
D. Yes
15. In searching for latent prints on a crime
with forcible entry, look for: crowbars,
screw driver, electrical systems, etc.
because those are the possible sources of
scene fingerprints, correct?
A. Not true
B. Maybe
C. Possibly true
D. Yes
16. The process of writing the symbols of
the corresponding patterns on the space
provided in the fingerprint card is
called:
A.Blocking
B.Pairing
C.Fingers system
D.Spacing
16. The process of writing the symbols of
the corresponding patterns on the space
provided in the fingerprint card is
called:
A.Blocking
B.Pairing
C.Fingers system
D.Spacing
17. What do you call of the innermost
ridges running parallel or nearly parallel
to each other which diverge and surround
or tend to surround the pattern area?
A.Delta lines
B.Diverging lines
C.Type lines
D.Eyelet lines
17. What do you call of the innermost
ridges running parallel or nearly parallel
to each other which diverge and surround
or tend to surround the pattern area?
A.Delta lines
B.Diverging lines
C.Type lines
D.Eyelet lines
18. In dactyloscopy, when we speak of
polydactyl hands, it refer to person with?
A.Abnormalities in the fingers
B.Less than five fingers on one hand
C.More than normal number of fingers
D.Exceedingly long fingers
18. In dactyloscopy, when we speak of
polydactyl hands, it refer to person with?
A.Abnormalities in the fingers
B.Less than five fingers on one hand
C.More than normal number of fingers
D.Exceedingly long fingers
19. Along with fingerprints, which of the
following is a mandatory requirement in
securing NBI clearance to ensure one’s
identity?
A.None of these
B.Photograph
C.Thumbmark
D.Signature
19. Along with fingerprints, which of the
following is a mandatory requirement in
securing NBI clearance to ensure one’s
identity?
A.None of these
B.Photograph
C.Thumbmark
D.Signature
20. Considered one of the most infallible
means of personal identification which is
formed when still inside mother’s womb and
remain unchanged throughout life until
decomposition is what kind of ridges?
A. auxillary C. friction
B. papillary D. poroscopic
20. Considered one of the most infallible
means of personal identification which is
formed when still inside mother’s womb and
remain unchanged throughout life until
decomposition is what kind of ridges?
A. auxillary C. friction
B. papillary D. poroscopic
21. Who was the one who said “Let no one
despise the ridges on account of their
smallness, for they are in some respect, the
most important of all anthropological data”?
A. Francis Galton C. Ridge Cook
B. Cesare Lombroso D. John Howard
21. Who was the one who said “Let no one
despise the ridges on account of their
smallness, for they are in some respect, the
most important of all anthropological data”?
A. Francis Galton C. Ridge Cook
B. Cesare Lombroso D. John Howard
22. Fingerprint is one of the most
infallible means of personal identification
because the ridges and other characteristics
never?
A. change throughout life
B. appear dissimilar
C. add ridges when closely examined
D. be substituted
22. Fingerprint is one of the most
infallible means of personal identification
because the ridges and other characteristics
never?
A. change throughout life
B. appear dissimilar
C. add ridges when closely examined
D. be substituted
23. The ridge that divides itself into two
(2) ridges and which resembles a fork-like
structure is called?
A. island C. bifurcation
B. enclosure D. convergence
23. The ridge that divides itself into two
(2) ridges and which resembles a fork-like
structure is called?
A. island C. bifurcation
B. enclosure D. convergence
24. It is in windows, tables and doors that
we can usually find them. In dactyloscopy it
is called?
A. latent prints C. tool marker
B. shoe prints D. birth marks
24. It is in windows, tables and doors that
we can usually find them. In dactyloscopy it
is called?
A. latent prints C. tool marker
B. shoe prints D. birth marks
25. In fingerprint identification, what is a
single ridge which divide into two or more
ridge?
A. Island ending C. None of these
B. Bifurcation D. Anular ridge
25. In fingerprint identification, what is a
single ridge which divide into two or more
ridge?
A. Island ending C. None of these
B. Bifurcation D. Anular ridge
26. In fingerprint patterns, what is the
symbol of accidental?
A. A C. R
B. W D. X
26. In fingerprint patterns, what is the
symbol of accidental?
A. A C. R
B. W D. X
27. What is this means of identification
which occurs when the original tissues have
been injured or destroyed noticeable marks?
A. deformities C. scars
B. bitten marks D. tattoos
28. No attempt should ever be made to
develop fingerprints on any wet surface or
to use dusting techniques during rain
because it will what?
A. result to nothing but wastage;
B. serve as maturity in the profession;
C. show one’s desire to solve a case;
D. be highly commendable if successful;
28. No attempt should ever be made to
develop fingerprints on any wet surface or
to use dusting techniques during rain
because it will what?
A. result to nothing but wastage;
B. serve as maturity in the profession;
C. show one’s desire to solve a case;
D. be highly commendable if successful;
29. The principle of individuality in
dactyloscopy is based on statistical
probability that it would be impossible for
any two persons to have similar what?
A. structures C. signature
B. style D. fingerprints
29. The principle of individuality in
dactyloscopy is based on statistical
probability that it would be impossible for
any two persons to have similar what?
A. structures C. signature
B. style D. fingerprints
30. Impressions which are taken at the same
time on the fingerprint card is known as
what kind of impressions?
A. plain C. visible
B. rolled D. direct
30. Impressions which are taken at the same
time on the fingerprint card is known as
what kind of impressions?
A. plain C. visible
B. rolled D. direct
31. In fingerprints study, it refers to the
canal-like impression found between the
ridges. It is called?
A. furrows C. ridges
B. dust D. arch
31. In fingerprints study, it refers to the
canal-like impression found between the
ridges. It is called?
A. furrows C. ridges
B. dust D. arch
32. Considered to be the most expensive but
reliable and acceptable means preserving
evidence and in the identification of
persons is by means of what?
A. DNA fingerprinting C. photography
B. sketching D. illustration
32. Considered to be the most expensive but
reliable and acceptable means preserving
evidence and in the identification of
persons is by means of what?
A. DNA fingerprinting C. photography
B. sketching D. illustration
33. In dactyloscopy, the reproduction of
some smooth surfaces of the pattern or
design formed by the ridges on the inside of
the joint of the finger or thumb is called?
A. blueprint C. patented print
B. none of these D. fingerprint
33. In dactyloscopy, the reproduction of
some smooth surfaces of the pattern or
design formed by the ridges on the inside of
the joint of the finger or thumb is called?
A. blueprint C. patented print
B. none of these D. fingerprint
34. Can fingerprint identification be
resorted to by probers in order to establish
the identity of headless victims or persons
who are already in the advance state of
decomposition?
A. no C. yes
B. never D. probably no
34. Can fingerprint identification be
resorted to by probers in order to establish
the identity of headless victims or persons
who are already in the advance state of
decomposition?
A. no C. yes
B. never D. probably no
35. A noted British anthropologist who began
observation which led to the publication in
1882 of his book “Fingerprints.” That
established the individuality of classifying
fingerprint patterns.
A.Francis Galton
B.Gilbert Thompson
C.Wayne Kate
D.Alphonse Bertillon
35. A noted British anthropologist who began
observation which led to the publication in
1882 of his book “Fingerprints.” That
established the individuality of classifying
fingerprint patterns.
A.Francis Galton
B.Gilbert Thompson
C.Wayne Kate
D.Alphonse Bertillon
36. The delta is also known as the
A.Lower ridge
B.Outer terminus
C.Upper rod
D.Stump
36. The delta is also known as the
A.Lower ridge
B.Outer terminus
C.Upper rod
D.Stump
37. The location of the core is mainly of
importance in determining the _____
A.Ridge count of a loop
B.Position of the upper radiant
C.Position of the lower radiant
D.Neither a core Nor delta
37. The location of the core is mainly of
importance in determining the _____
A.Ridge count of a loop
B.Position of the upper radiant
C.Position of the lower radiant
D.Neither a core Nor delta
38. In the study of fingerprint patterns,
the symbol of plain whorl is?
A. T C. P
B. W D. PW
38. In the study of fingerprint patterns,
the symbol of plain whorl is?
A. T C. P
B. W D. PW
39. The area surrounded by typeline is
called?
A.Type area C. baselines
B.Typelines D. pattern area
39. The area surrounded by typeline is
called?
A.Type area C. baselines
B.Typelines D. pattern area
40. The loops with slanting ridges that
slope towards the little fingers are what
kind of loops?
A.Ulnar C. radial
B.Slanted D. sloping
40. The loops with slanting ridges that
slope towards the little fingers are what
kind of loops?
A.Ulnar C. radial
B.Slanted D. sloping
41. In dactyloscopy, plaster of paris is
mainly used in?
A.Moulage
B.Developing alkaline
C.casting test
D.house construction
mainly used in?
A.Moulage
C.casting test
42. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he
used fingerprints to prevent fraudulent
collection of army pay account and for
identification of other documents. He was
known as the Father of Chiroscopy.
A.William Herschel
B.Francis Galton
C.Gilbert Thompson
D.Alphose Bertillon
42. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he
used fingerprints to prevent fraudulent
collection of army pay account and for
identification of other documents. He was
known as the Father of Chiroscopy.
A.William Herschel
B.Francis Galton
C.Gilbert Thompson
D.Alphose Bertillon
43. The science of fingerprints
identification is called?
A.Dactyloscopy C. dactylography
B.Dactylomany D. dactylosophy
43. The science of fingerprints
identification is called?
A.Dactyloscopy C. dactylography
B.Dactylomany D. dactylosophy
44. How many fingerprint classification
are used internationally?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
44. How many fingerprint classification
are used internationally?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
45. Between birth and death, there is
_______ change in the numerous
characteristics of the fingerprints
A.Considerable
B.Almost complete
C.Practically none
D.Some
45. Between birth and death, there is
_______ change in the numerous
characteristics of the fingerprints
A.Considerable
B.Almost complete
C.Practically none
D.Some
46. The terms natural, Junction, dots,
enclosures, forked, abrupt ending and
beginnings and fractional refer most
frequently to _______
A.Delta
B.Core
C.Ridges
D.Envelop
46. The terms natural, Junction, dots,
enclosures, forked, abrupt ending and
beginnings and fractional refer most
frequently to _______
A.Delta
B.Core
C.Ridges
D.Envelop
47. The Three (3) fingerprint
classifications are; Arch, Loops, and
________.
A.Tented Arch
B.Accidental Whorl
C.Whorls
D.Ulnar Loop
47. The Three (3) fingerprint
classifications are; Arch, Loops, and
________.
A.Tented Arch
B.Accidental Whorl
C.Whorls
D.Ulnar Loop
48. A single ridge which splits into two
ridges forming a “Y” shape formation or
structure is commonly known as
A.Diverging ridges
B.Bifurcating ridges
C.Loop
D.Delta
48. A single ridge which splits into two
ridges forming a “Y” shape formation or
structure is commonly known as
A.Diverging ridges
B.Bifurcating ridges
C.Loop
D.Delta
49. Covers the surface of the dermis with
blunt peg-like formation.
A.Epidermis
B.Sweat pores
C.Dermal papillae
D.Sweat gland
A.Epidermis
B.Sweat pores
C.Dermal papillae
D.Sweat gland
50. A principle in fingerprint which
states that the ridge patterns on the
digits never change during the life of an
individual.
A.Principle of Permanency
B.Principle of Individuality
C.Principle of Infallibility
D.Principle of Lividity
50. A principle in fingerprint which
states that the ridge patterns on the
digits never change during the life of an
individual.
A.Principle of Permanency
B.Principle of Individuality
C.Principle of Infallibility
D.Principle of Lividity
51. The identity of two impressions is
established primarily through _______.
A.Dimensions of pattern
B.Similarity of traces
C.Unexplained similarity of patterns
D.Ridge characteristics and the relative
position of these ridge characteristics
51. The identity of two impressions is
established primarily through _______.
A.Dimensions of pattern
B.Similarity of traces
C.Unexplained similarity of patterns
D.Ridge characteristics and the relative
position of these ridge characteristics
52. All fingers are rolled AWAY from the
subject’s body except?
A.Both Index fingers
B.Both Little fingers
C.Both Middle fingers
D.Both Thumbs
52. All fingers are rolled AWAY from the
subject’s body except?
A.Both Index fingers
B.Both Little fingers
C.Both Middle fingers
D.Both Thumbs
53. There are always two deltas in what
fingerprint pattern?
A.Ach
B.Loop
C.Whorls
D.Accidental whorl
53. There are always two deltas in what
fingerprint pattern?
A.Ach
B.Loop
C.Whorls
D.Accidental whorl
54. It is the ridge count of the first
loop pattern appearing on the fingerprint
card except the two little fingers.
A.Primary classification
B.Secondary classification
C.Final Classification
D.Key classification
54. It is the ridge count of the first
loop pattern appearing on the fingerprint
card except the two little fingers.
A.Primary classification
B.Secondary classification
C.Final Classification
D.Key classification
55. Symbolized by letter W in the
fingerprint classification. It is a
fingerprint pattern which there are two
deltas and in which at least one ridge makes
a turn through one complete circuit.
A.Plain whorl
B.Central pocket loop whorl
C.Accidental loop
D.Ulnar loop
55. Symbolized by letter W in the
fingerprint classification. It is a
fingerprint pattern which there are two
deltas and in which at least one ridge makes
a turn through one complete circuit.
A.Plain whorl
B.Central pocket loop whorl
C.Accidental loop
D.Ulnar loop
56. In tented arches, the ridges _________
A.Make a complete circuit
B.Makes an obstruction
C.Run from one side to another with rise
at the center
D.Make a backward turn
56. In tented arches, the ridges _________
A.Make a complete circuit
B.Makes an obstruction
C.Run from one side to another with rise
at the center
D.Make a backward turn
57. If a subject has more than ten (10)
fingers, the extra finger is printed
on the_______ of the fingerprint chart
with notation to the effect that same
is an extra finger.
A.Face
B.Other side
C.Face, upper corner
D.Face, lower corner
57. If a subject has more than ten (10)
fingers, the extra finger is printed
on the_______ of the fingerprint chart
with notation to the effect that same
is an extra finger.
A.Face
B.Other side
C.Face, upper corner
D.Face, lower corner
58. In taking fingerprints, __________ are
rolled towards the body of the subject.
A. All fingers
B. Both thumbs
C. Little fingers
D. All fingers except thumb
58. In taking fingerprints, __________ are
rolled towards the body of the subject.
A. All fingers
B. Both thumbs
C. Little fingers
D. All fingers except thumb
59. In case of minor injury affecting only
the layer of the friction skin, the
injury will not permanently deface the
ridge formation provided that the
______ is not affected.
A.Dermis
B.Epidermis
C.Bone of the finger
D.Ulna bone
59. In case of minor injury affecting only
the layer of the friction skin, the
injury will not permanently deface the
ridge formation provided that the
______ is not affected.
A.Dermis
B.Epidermis
C.Bone of the finger
D.Ulna bone
60. When inking fingers for the purpose of
taking rolled impressions, the fingers
must be inked from ______ to base of
the joint.
A.Base
B.Tip
C.Second joint
D.Third joint
60. When inking fingers for the purpose of
taking rolled impressions, the fingers
must be inked from ______ to base of
the joint.
A.Base
B.Tip
C.Second joint
D.Third joint
61. If the same digits of both hands are
missing, the impressions are held to be
__________.
A.Dependent on the classification of the
print of the other finger
B.Dependent on the ridge tracing
C.Loops
D.Plain whorl, Meeting
61. If the same digits of both hands are
missing, the impressions are held to be
__________.
A.Dependent on the classification of the
print of the other finger
B.Dependent on the ridge tracing
C.Loops
D.Plain whorl, Meeting
62. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern in
which one or more ridges enter on
either side of the impression by a
recurve, pass out or terminate on the
same side as the ridges enter.
A.Loop
B.Ulnar loop
C.Radial loop
D.Tented arch
62. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern in
which one or more ridges enter on
either side of the impression by a
recurve, pass out or terminate on the
same side as the ridges enter.
A.Loop
B.Ulnar loop
C.Radial loop
D.Tented arch
63. DNA is a chemical substance found in
all cells and individuals has a unique
DNA and only ________ share the same
DNA pattern.
A.Mother and child
B.Father and child
C.Mother and father
D.Identical twins
63. DNA is a chemical substance found in
all cells and individuals has a unique
DNA and only ________ share the same
DNA pattern.
A.Mother and child
B.Father and child
C.Mother and father
D.Identical twins
64. In ridge tracing, 3 or more ridges
below the right delta is considered
whorl type of pattern with
A. Inner tracing
B. Outer tracing
C. Meeting Tracing
D. IMO tracing
64. In ridge tracing, 3 or more ridges
below the right delta is considered
whorl type of pattern with
A. Inner tracing
B. Outer tracing
C. Meeting Tracing
D. IMO tracing
65. The simplest of all fingerprint
patterns is the –
A.Plain arch
B.Loop
C.Whorl
D.Plain whorl
65. The simplest of all fingerprint
patterns is the –
A.Plain arch
B.Loop
C.Whorl
D.Plain whorl
66. It was found out by the authorities
in Dactyloscopy that 65% of fingerprint
patterns are classified as –
A.Whorl
B.Loops
C.Arches
D.Combination of loop and whorl
66. It was found out by the authorities
in Dactyloscopy that 65% of fingerprint
patterns are classified as –
A.Whorl
B.Loops
C.Arches
D.Combination of loop and whorl
67. The fingerprint of a person appears on
fetus between _________ after
conception.
A.100-200 days
B.100-120 days
C.100-220 days
D.100-150 days
conception.
A.100-200 days
B.100-120 days
C.100-220 days
D.100-150 days
68. A type of fingerprint pattern in which
the slope or downward flow of the innermost
sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of
radius bone of the hand of origin.
A.ulnar loop
B.tented arch
C.accidental whorl
D.radial loop
68. A type of fingerprint pattern in which
the slope or downward flow of the innermost
sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of
radius bone of the hand of origin.
A.ulnar loop
B.tented arch
C.accidental whorl
D.radial loop
69. The following are considerations used
for the identification of a loop except one:
A.Delta
B.Core
C.a sufficient recurve
D.a ridge count across a looping bridge
69. The following are considerations used
for the identification of a loop except one:
A.Delta
B.Core
C.a sufficient recurve
D.a ridge count across a looping bridge
70. In dactyloscopy, after so many years of
studies and the researches, it was confirmed
that “No two person have exactly the same:
A.Size and color
B.Origin and traits
C.Loops and details
D.Fingerprint patterns and characteristics
70. In dactyloscopy, after so many years of
studies and the researches, it was confirmed
that “No two person have exactly the same:
A.Size and color
B.Origin and traits
C.Loops and details
D.Fingerprint patterns and characteristics
71. The process of recording fingerprint
through the use of fingerprint ink.
A.Pathology
B.Fingerprinting
C.Dactyloscopy
D.Printing press
71. The process of recording fingerprint
through the use of fingerprint ink.
A.Pathology
B.Fingerprinting
C.Dactyloscopy
D.Printing press
72.The fingerprint method of identification.
A.Pathology
B.Fingerprinting
C.Dactyloscopy
D.Printing press
72.The fingerprint method of identification.
A.Pathology
B.Fingerprinting
C.Dactyloscopy
D.Printing press
73. Two lines that run parallel or nearly
parallel, diverge and surround the pattern
area.
A.Ridges
B.Delta
C.Type line
D.Bifurcation
73. Two lines that run parallel or nearly
parallel, diverge and surround the pattern
area.
A.Ridges
B.Delta
C.Type line
D.Bifurcation
74.The art of identification by comparison
of fingerprint is called:
A.Dactylography
B.All of the these
C.Dactyloscopy
D.Palmistry
74.The art of identification by comparison
of fingerprint is called:
A.Dactylography
B.All of the these
C.Dactyloscopy
D.Palmistry
75. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at
the crime scene which are not clearly
visible.
A.plane impressions
B.visible fingerprints
C.rolled impressions
D.latent fingerprints
75. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at
the crime scene which are not clearly
visible.
A.plane impressions
B.visible fingerprints
C.rolled impressions
D.latent fingerprints
76. The impressions left by the patterns of
ridges and depressions on various surfaces.
A.kiss marks
B.finger rolls
C.thumb marks
D.fingerprints
76. The impressions left by the patterns of
ridges and depressions on various surfaces.
A.kiss marks
B.finger rolls
C.thumb marks
D.fingerprints
77. A part of the whorl or loop in which
appear the cores, deltas and ridges.
A.type line
B.bifurcation
C.pattern area
D.furrow
77. A part of the whorl or loop in which
appear the cores, deltas and ridges.
A.type line
B.bifurcation
C.pattern area
D.furrow
78. The minimum identical characteristics to
justify the identity between two points.
A.Eighteen
B.Fifteen
C.Twelve
D.Nine
78. The minimum identical characteristics to
justify the identity between two points.
A.Eighteen
B.Fifteen*
C.Twelve
D.Nine
considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
A.Arch
B.Accidental
C.Loop
D.Whorl
considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
A.Arch
B.Accidental
C.Loop
D.Whorl
80. The depression between the ridges
which maybe compared with the low areas
in a tire tread.
A.Core
B.Delta
C.Furrows
D.Sweat pores
80. The depression between the ridges
which maybe compared with the low areas
in a tire tread.
A.Core
B.Delta
C.Furrows
D.Sweat pores
81. Under the management of Lt. Darby during
the American occupation in the Philippines,
a modern and complete fingerprint file has
been established for the Philippine
commonwealth. In 1937, the first Filipino
fingerprint technician employed by the Phil.
Constabulary was
A.Mr. Generoso Reyes
B.Mr. Amado Delos Santos
C.Mr. Calixto Solis
D.None of these
81. Under the management of Lt. Darby during
Constabulary was
C.Mr. Calixto Solis
D.None of these
Note: Isabela Bernales (first female)
82. A fingerprint pattern in which the
ridges form a sequence of spirals around
core axes.
A.whorl
B.double loop
C.central pocket loop
D.accidental
82. A fingerprint pattern in which the
ridges form a sequence of spirals around
core axes.
A.whorl
B.double loop
C.central pocket loop
D.accidental
83. The point on a ridge at or in front of
and nearest the center of the divergence of
the type lines.
A.Divergence
B.Island
C.Delta
D.Bifurcation
83. The point on a ridge at or in front of
and nearest the center of the divergence of
the type lines.
A.Divergence
B.Island
C.Delta
D.Bifurcation
84. In fingerprinting, the space between
shoulders of a loop, free of any appendage,
and a butting at right angle.
A.Complete curve
B.Sufficient Recurve
C.Straight arrow
D.Core
84. In fingerprinting, the space between
shoulders of a loop, free of any appendage,
and a butting at right angle.
A.Complete curve
B.Sufficient Recurve
C.Straight arrow
D.Core
85. The forking or dividing of one line to
two or more branches.
A.Ridge
B.Island
C.Delta
D.Bifurcation
85. The forking or dividing of one line to
two or more branches.
A.Ridge
B.Island
C.Delta
D.Bifurcation
86. What is the science of palm print
identification?
A.Chiroscopy
B.Poroscopy
C.Podoscopy
D.Astrology
86. What is the science of palm print
identification?
A.Chiroscopy
B.Poroscopy
C.Podoscopy
D.Astrology
87. These are depressions or canals between
the ridges of a fingerprint which maybe
compared with the low area in a tire tread.
A.None of these
B.Envelope
C.Furrows
D.Bifurcation
87. These are depressions or canals between
the ridges of a fingerprint which maybe
compared with the low area in a tire tread.
A.None of these
B.Envelope
C.Furrows
D.Bifurcation
88. Types of fingerprint patterns, except:
A.Arches
B.Ordinary
C.Loop
D.Whorl
88. Types of fingerprint patterns, except:
A.Arches
B.Ordinary
C.Loop
D.Whorl
89. Who has given the fame title as “Father
of Dactyloscopy”?
A.Johannes Purkinje
B.Leonard Keeler
C.Charles Darwin
D.Sir Francis Galton
89. Who has given the fame title as “Father
of Dactyloscopy”?
A.Johannes Purkinje
B.Leonard Keeler
C.Charles Darwin
D.Sir Francis Galton
90. The first leading judicial decision in
the Philippine jurisprudence on the science
of fingerprinting was the case of
A.People vs Medina
B.People vs Pineda
C.People vs Amador
D.People vs. Rosas
90. The first leading judicial decision in
the Philippine jurisprudence on the science
of fingerprinting was the case of
A.People vs Medina
B.People vs Pineda
C.People vs Amador
D.People vs. Rosas
91. They are considered as the focal
points in fingerprint identification.
A.Appendage and Upthrust
B.Core and Delta
C.Recurving ridge and Coverging ridge
D.Pattern area and Typelines
91. They are considered as the focal
points in fingerprint identification.
A.Appendage and Upthrust
B.Core and Delta
C.Recurving ridge and Coverging ridge
D.Pattern area and Typelines
92. The notorious gangster and a police
character, who attempted to erase his
fingerprints by burning them with acid but
as time went by the ridges were again
restored to their “natural” feature.
A.John Feilding
B.Johanes Curie
C.John Dellinger
D.Billy the Kid
92. The notorious gangster and a police
character, who attempted to erase his
fingerprints by burning them with acid but
as time went by the ridges were again
restored to their “natural” feature.
A.John Feilding
B.Johanes Curie
C.John Dellinger
D.Billy the Kid
93. In fingerprinting, it refers to the
process of counting the intervening ridges
that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn
between the core and the delta.
A.Ridge counting
B.Ridge tracing
C.Delta tracing
D.All of these
93. In fingerprinting, it refers to the
process of counting the intervening ridges
that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn
between the core and the delta.
A.Ridge counting
B.Ridge tracing
C.Delta tracing
D.All of these
94. In writing out formula for the left
hand act as _____
A.The denominator
B.The numerator
C.The numerator in in whorls and the
denominator in loops
D.The denominator in in whorls and the
numerator in loops
94. In writing out formula for the left
hand act as _____
A.The denominator
B.The numerator
C.The numerator in in whorls and the
denominator in loops
D.The denominator in in whorls and the
numerator in loops
95. When there is a choice between several
deltas and one of which is a bifurcation,
the one to be selected should be the
________.
A.Arch
B.Core
C.Bifurcation
D.Eyelet
95. When there is a choice between several
deltas and one of which is a bifurcation,
the one to be selected should be the
________.
A.Arch
B.Core
C.Bifurcation
D.Eyelet
96. In a part, the ridges are shown as
________ lines.
A.White
B.Thickened
C.Black
D.Thinned
96. In a part, the ridges are shown as
________ lines.
A.White
B.Thickened
C.Black
D.Thinned
97. A fingerprint pattern which one or more
ridges enter on either side of the
impression by a recurve, and terminate on
the same side where the ridge has entered.
A.Loop
B.radial loop
C.ulnar loop
D.tented arch
97. A fingerprint pattern which one or more
ridges enter on either side of the
impression by a recurve, and terminate on
the same side where the ridge has entered.
A.Loop
B.radial loop
C.ulnar loop
D.tented arch
98. Two (2) persons who tried to destroy
there fingerprints
A.John Dillenger and Robert James Pitt
B.Tom Dillenger and Brad Pitt
C.John Denver and Robert James Pitt
D.John Denver and Brad Pitt
98. Two (2) persons who tried to destroy
there fingerprints
A.John Dillenger and Robert James Pitt
B.Tom Dillenger and Brad Pitt
C.John Denver and Robert James Pitt
D.John Denver and Brad Pitt
99. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It
was valued for purposes of identification
since time immemorial as found on a Chinese
clay seal made not later than the 3rd
Century B.C.
A.Hua Chi
B.Mah Whang
C.Wong Cho
D.Tiang Hin
99. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It
was valued for purposes of identification
since time immemorial as found on a Chinese
clay seal made not later than the 3rd
Century B.C.
A.Hua Chi
B.Mah Whang
C.Wong Cho
D.Tiang Hin
100. The fingerprint of a person appears
on fetus between _________ after
conception.
A. 7-9 months C. 3-4 months
B. 5-6 months D. 12 months
100. The fingerprint of a person appears
on fetus between _________ after
conception.
A. 7-9 months C. 3-4 months
B. 5-6 months D. 12 months
Police Photography
(Forensic Photography)
SET 1
By
What Criminologist Knows Charlemagne James P.

Ramos
1. It pertains to a lens defect
characterized by the inability of the lens
to bring horizontal and vertical lines in
the subject to the same plane of focus in
the image.
A. chromatic aberration
B. astigmatism
C. coma
D. curvature of field

Ramos
to bring horizontal and vertical lines in
the subject to the same plane of focus in
the image.
A. chromatic aberration
B. astigmatism
C. coma
D. curvature of field

Ramos
2. Which among the following choices is not
included in the PNP Core Values?
A. love of God
B. respect of women and sanctity of marriage
C. orderliness
D. respect for authority

Ramos
2. Which among the following choices is not
included in the PNP Core Values?
A. love of God
B. respect of women and sanctity of marriage
C. orderliness
D. respect for authority

Ramos
3. It pertains to a type of shutter which
is made of black cloth or metal sheet and
found generally in the film plane
A. between-the-lens shutter
B. leaf shutter
C. both A and B
D. focal plane shutter

Ramos
3. It pertains to a type of shutter which
is made of black cloth or metal sheet and
found generally in the film plane
A. between-the-lens shutter
B. leaf shutter
C. both A and B
D. focal plane shutter

Ramos
4. It is the study of the general
practices, methods, and steps in taking
pictures of the crime scene, physical
things, and other circumstances that can
be used as criminal evidences or of law
enforcement purposes.
A. forensic photography
B. photography
C. crime scene photography
D. police photography
Ramos
4. It is the study of the general
practices, methods, and steps in taking
pictures of the crime scene, physical
things, and other circumstances that can
be used as criminal evidences or of law
enforcement purposes.
B. photography
Ramos
5. it is a process of developing film
which is being done in order to make the
image permanent in the film.
A. top-coating
B. fixing bath
C. rinse bath
D. development actual with the use
of developer

Ramos
5. it is a process of developing film
which is being done in order to make the
image permanent in the film.
A. top-coating
B. fixing bath
C. rinse bath
D. development actual with the use
of developer

Ramos
6. It was considered in the history as
birth year of photography
A. 1939
B. 1869
C. 1839
D. 1639

Ramos
6. It was considered in the history as
birth year of photography
A. 1939
B. 1869
C. 1839
D. 1639

Ramos
7. In a gray wall, you can read this phrase
“you must die tomorrow” and printed in red
ink. In black and white photography, what
type of filter will you use in order to
emphasize or darken this phrase?
A. red
B. green
C. yellow
D. any of these
Ramos
7. In a gray wall, you can read this phrase
“you must die tomorrow” and printed in red
ink. In black and white photography, what
type of filter will you use in order to
emphasize or darken this phrase?
A. red
B. green
C. yellow
D. any of these
Ramos
8. This is a classification of film
according to speed which is capable to
capture good images in dim lights or when
using fast shutter speed to freeze moving
objects.
A. super fast speed
B. fast speed
C. medium speed
D. slow speed

Ramos
8. This is a classification of film
according to speed which is capable to
capture good images in dim lights or when
using fast shutter speed to freeze moving
objects.
A. super fast speed
B. fast speed
C. medium speed
D. slow speed

Ramos
behavior of light?
A. reflection
B. refraction
C. attraction
D. none of these

Ramos
behavior of light?
A. reflection
B. refraction
C. attraction
D. none of these

Ramos
10. Photographing of object directly enlarge
to the negative and magnified from 1 to 9X.
It is a process whereby enlargement is
accomplished directly with the camera
without the aid of a microscope.
A. macrophotography
B. photomicrography
C. forensic photography
D. microphotography

Ramos
10. Photographing of object directly enlarge
to the negative and magnified from 1 to 9X.
It is a process whereby enlargement is
accomplished directly with the camera
without the aid of a microscope.
A. macrophotography
B. photomicrography
D. microphotography

Ramos
11. The following are early types of
camera EXCEPT;
A. camera obscura
B. box camera
C. pinhole camera
D. none of these

Ramos
11. The following are early types of
camera EXCEPT;
A. camera obscura
B. box camera
C. pinhole camera
D. none of these

Ramos
12. The taking of pictures of suspects and
prisoners for identification purposes
usually in police stations pertains to what
well in common as mug photography while
photographing minute objects when enlarged
by microscope is known as
A. mug photography
B. photomicrography
D. microphotography
Ramos
12. The taking of pictures of suspects and
prisoners for identification purposes
usually in police stations pertains to what
well in common as mug photography while
photographing minute objects when enlarged
by microscope is known as
A. mug photography
B. photomicrography
D. microphotography
Ramos
13. The Daguerreotype is for Daguerre
while the ________ is for Talbot.
A. heliographic drawing
B. Calotype
C. photogenic writing
D. Talbotype

Ramos
13. The Daguerreotype is for Daguerre
while the ________ is for Talbot.
A. heliographic drawing
B. Calotype
C. photogenic writing
D. Talbotype

Ramos
14. A French inventor who, in 1826 he
successfully made the first surviving
permanent photograph, of the courtyard of
his house, using a bitumen-coated pewter
plate exposed in a camera obscura.
A. Edwin H. Land
B. Aristotle
C. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
D. William Henry F. Talbot

Ramos
14. A French inventor who, in 1826 he
successfully made the first surviving
permanent photograph, of the courtyard of
his house, using a bitumen-coated pewter
plate exposed in a camera obscura.
A. Edwin H. Land
B. Aristotle

Ramos
15. The type of printing in photography
carried out by making prints of exactly the
same size as the negative pertains is
referred to as;
A. projecting
B. enlarging
C. contact printing
D. A or B

Ramos
15. The type of printing in photography
carried out by making prints of exactly the
same size as the negative pertains is
referred to as;
A. projecting
B. enlarging
C. contact printing
D. A or B

Ramos
16. The difference between what is seen
through the viewfinder and what is exactly
recorded on the film especially occurring in
twin lens reflex camera is known as
A. infinity
B. depth of field
C. parallax
D. none of these

Ramos
16. The difference between what is seen
through the viewfinder and what is exactly
recorded on the film especially occurring in
twin lens reflex camera is known as
A. infinity
B. depth of field
C. parallax
D. none of these

Ramos
17. This pertains to the margin of errors
within which over or under exposed
negatives or prints are still acceptable
A. exposure latitude
B. over and under exposure
C. sharpness
D. over and under developed

Ramos
17. This pertains to the margin of errors
within which over or under exposed
negatives or prints are still acceptable
B. over and under exposure
C. sharpness
D. over and under developed

Ramos
18. It is an essential element of
photography which pertains to the process
of converting the latent image into a
visible and permanent image.
A. chemical processing
B. paper development
C. printing
D. imaging

Ramos
18. It is an essential element of
photography which pertains to the process
of converting the latent image into a
visible and permanent image.
A. chemical processing
B. paper development
C. printing
D. imaging

Ramos
19. It pertains to an action of moving the
lens in relation to the image plane so as
to obtain the required degree of sharpness
of the film
A. digital focusing
B. infinity focusing
C. focusing
D. sharp shooting

Ramos
19. It pertains to an action of moving the
lens in relation to the image plane so as
to obtain the required degree of sharpness
of the film
A. digital focusing
B. infinity focusing
C. focusing
D. sharp shooting

Ramos
20. A small portion of the view finder is
optically split, except when the camera is
correctly focused. Matching the split
halves indicate precise focus. This
pertains to what type of focusing system?
A. micro prism system
B. ground glass
C. split image range finder
D. half-image focusing

Ramos
20. A small portion of the view finder is
optically split, except when the camera is
correctly focused. Matching the split
halves indicate precise focus. This
pertains to what type of focusing system?
A. micro prism system
B. ground glass
C. split image range finder
D. half-image focusing

Ramos
21. It pertains to a frame or stand with
three legs that are usually collapsible,
used for supporting something such as a
camera.
A. camera frame
B. tripod
C. camera post
D. photographic skeleton

Ramos
21. It pertains to a frame or stand with
three legs that are usually collapsible,
used for supporting something such as a
camera.
A. camera frame
B. tripod
C. camera post
D. photographic skeleton

Ramos
22. The four basic exposure controls of an
adjustable camera includes the following
except;
A. film speed dial
B. shutter speed dial
C. lens opening
D. film speed rating

Ramos
22. The four basic exposure controls of an
adjustable camera includes the following
except;
A. film speed dial
B. shutter speed dial
C. lens opening
D. film speed rating

Ramos
23. The distance between the nearest
object and the farthest object that appear
to be in focus pertains to;
A. infinity focus
B. focal length
C. depth of field
D. focal distance

Ramos
23. The distance between the nearest
object and the farthest object that appear
to be in focus pertains to;
A. infinity focus
B. focal length
C. depth of field
D. focal distance

Ramos
24. This is a filter designed to cut down
(reduce) amount of light that reaches the
film during exposure
A. Neutral Density Filter
B. Polarizing Filter
C. Color filter
D. Haze filter

Ramos
24. This is a filter designed to cut down
(reduce) amount of light that reaches the
film during exposure
C. Color filter
D. Haze filter

Ramos
25. It is a filter that reduces reflections
from some surfaces and increases color
saturation by reducing glare and scattered
light or reducing reflections from the
surface of shiny subject.
C. Color filter
D. Haze filter
Ramos
25. It is a filter that reduces reflections
from some surfaces and increases color
saturation by reducing glare and scattered
light or reducing reflections from the
surface of shiny subject.
C. Color filter
D. Haze filter
Ramos
26. It pertains to the rating of
sensitivity of a film to light which is
used to determine the required exposure
B. film speed
C. ISO/ASA/DIN dial
D. light meters

Ramos
26. It pertains to the rating of
sensitivity of a film to light which is
used to determine the required exposure
B. film speed
C. ISO/ASA/DIN dial
D. light meters

Ramos
27. It is known in photography as the
optical imperfection resulting to image
distortion.
A. aberration
B. astigmatism
C. curvilinear
D. distortion

Ramos
27. It is known in photography as the
optical imperfection resulting to image
distortion.
A. aberration
B. astigmatism
C. curvilinear
D. distortion

Ramos
28. Which aperture size can have greater
depth of field?
A. f 2.8
B. f 5.6
C. f 8
D. f 16

Ramos
28. Which aperture size can have greater
depth of field?
A. f 2.8
B. f 5.6
C. f 8
D. f 16

Ramos
29. It is always advisable that manual
method of film development must be done
with safelight at what place?
A. safe house
B. safelight
C. darkroom
D. photographic studio

Ramos
29. It is always advisable that manual
method of film development must be done
with safelight at what place?
A. safe house
B. safelight
C. darkroom
D. photographic studio

Ramos
30. In the film development, what is the
main function of solution known as the
developer?
A.it makes the image permanent in the
negative
B.it converts the latent image into
metallic silver
C.it dissolves the chemical content of the
film
D.it stops or halts the development
Ramos
30. In the film development, what is the
main function of solution known as the
developer?
A.it makes the image permanent in the
negative
B.it converts the latent image into
metallic silver
C.it dissolves the chemical content of the
film
D.it stops or halts the development
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to produce the same enlargement in the
image form by the edges of the lens
A. distortion
B. curvature of field
C. coma
D. astigmatism

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to produce the same enlargement in the
image form by the edges of the lens
A. distortion
B. curvature of field
C. coma
D. astigmatism

Ramos
32. Which of the following group of
lenses can produce larger image?
A. wide angle
B. standard
C. telephoto
D. fish eye

Ramos
32. Which of the following group of
lenses can produce larger image?
A. wide angle
B. standard
C. telephoto
D. fish eye

Ramos
33. Which of the following group of lenses
cover a narrow field of view?
A. wide angle
B. standard
C. telephoto
D. fish eye

Ramos
33. Which of the following group of lenses
cover a narrow field of view?
A. wide angle
B. standard
C. telephoto
D. fish eye

Ramos
34. Which aperture size has the largest
opening?
A. f 2.8
B. f 5.6
C. f 8
D. f 16

Ramos
34. Which aperture size has the largest
opening?
A. f 2.8
B. f 5.6
C. f 8
D. f 16

Ramos
35. A person who was recognized by the
French Academy of Sciences in Paris for
the first practical photographic process
he introduced is __________.
A. L.J.M Daguerre
B. J.N. Niepce
C. W.H.F. Talbot
D. Edwin H. Land

Ramos
35. A person who was recognized by the
French Academy of Sciences in Paris for
the first practical photographic process
he introduced is __________.
A. L.J.M Daguerre
B. J.N. Niepce
C. W.H.F. Talbot
D. Edwin H. Land

Ramos
36. The color photograph was allowed by
court in Denver to be used as evidence on
what year?
A. 1935
B. 1943
C. 1945
D. 1953

Ramos
36. The color photograph was allowed by
court in Denver to be used as evidence on
what year?
A. 1935
B. 1943
C. 1945
D. 1953
September 27, 1943

Ramos
37. The American court approved the
presentation of Ultra-violet photograph of
foot print on what year?
A.1934
B.1943
C.1945
D.1953

Ramos
37. The American court approved the
presentation of Ultra-violet photograph of
foot print on what year?
A.1934
B.1943
C.1945
D.1953

Ramos
38. Lens hood is used in the presence of
flare while tripod is also used
_______________.
A.if the subject is in dim area
B.if there is no filter available and
the camera is SLR
C.if the focus is not accurate
D.if the camera needs longer duration of
exposure

Ramos
38. Lens hood is used in the presence of
flare while tripod is also used
_______________.
A.if the subject is in dim area
B.if there is no filter available and
the camera is SLR
C.if the focus is not accurate
D.if the camera needs longer duration of
exposure

Ramos
39. Which among the following type of
camera that does not need films?
A. instamatic
B. video camera
C. polaroid still
D. view camera

Ramos
39. Which among the following type of
camera that does not need films?
A. instamatic
B. video camera
C. polaroid still
D. view camera

Ramos
40. It is a layer or structure of
photographic paper which is placed in order
to increase reflectivity of the paper and
make it glossy
A. carey-lea silver
B. emulsion
C. gelatin adhesives
D. baryta layer

Ramos
40. It is a layer or structure of
photographic paper which is placed in order
to increase reflectivity of the paper and
make it glossy
A. carey-lea silver
B. emulsion
C. gelatin adhesives
D. baryta layer

Ramos
41. It is a technique of focusing on the
most important part of the subject when
depth of field is limited and most often
applied to close-up photography
A. infinity
B. critical focus
C. selective focus
D. depth of field focus

Ramos
41. It is a technique of focusing on the
most important part of the subject when
depth of field is limited and most often
applied to close-up photography
A. infinity
B. critical focus
C. selective focus
D. depth of field focus

Ramos
42. If you want to darken the green color
of subject’s clothing in black and white
photography, what type of color filter
will you use?
A. green filter
B. blue filter
C. red filter
D. either B or C

Ramos
42. If you want to darken the green color
of subject’s clothing in black and white
photography, what type of color filter
will you use?
A. green filter
B. blue filter
C. red filter
D. either B or C

Ramos
43. Which of the following is a group of
the secondary colors?
A. RGB
B. CMY
C. BRY
D. RBM

Ramos
43. Which of the following is a group of
the secondary colors?
A. RGB
B. CMY
C. BRY
D. RBM

Ramos
44. The study concerning the production of
permanent records of images by the combined
action of light on sensitive surfaces, a
mechanical device and chemical processing
is of course photography but the door of
camera is knows as
A. phornography
B. photography
C. shutter
D. camera
Ramos
44. The study concerning the production of
permanent records of images by the combined
action of light on sensitive surfaces, a
mechanical device and chemical processing
is of course photography but the door of
camera is knows as
A. phornography
B. photography
C. shutter
D. camera
Ramos
45. An early form of camera used for
sketching is known as
A. camera obscura
B. box camera
C. pinhole camera
D. instamatic camera

Ramos
45. An early form of camera used for
sketching is known as
A. camera obscura
B. box camera
C. pinhole camera
D. instamatic camera

Ramos
46. It is basically known as the major part
or component of the film
A. film base
B. emulsion
C. top-coating
D. anti-halation backing

Ramos
46. It is basically known as the major part
or component of the film
A. film base
B. emulsion
C. top-coating
D. anti-halation backing

Ramos
47. Sharpness of image to be photographed
can be attained by manipulating the
_______.
A. shutter speed dial
B. ISO/ASA/DIN dial
C. focusing ring
D. aperture ring

Ramos
47. Sharpness of image to be photographed
can be attained by manipulating the
_______.
A. shutter speed dial
B. ISO/ASA/DIN dial
C. focusing ring
D. aperture ring

Ramos
48. Lens that are constructed of more than
one element, which enables various optical
corrections to be made pertains to;
A. lens
B. lens group
C. compound lens
D. lens element

Ramos
48. Lens that are constructed of more than
one element, which enables various optical
corrections to be made pertains to;
A. lens
B. lens group
C. compound lens
D. lens element

Ramos
49. The salient feature of negative lens
is ________.
A. it constrict the light
B. it diverge the light
C. it converge the light
D. all of these

Ramos
49. The salient feature of negative lens
is ________.
A. it constrict the light
B. it diverge the light
C. it converge the light
D. all of these

Ramos
50. A famous Greek philosopher who invented
the first pinhole camera that was known as
CAMERA OBSCURA, which is literally
translated as darkened box.
A. Sir Isaac Newton
B. Aristotle

Ramos
50. A famous Greek philosopher who invented
the first pinhole camera that was known as
CAMERA OBSCURA, which is literally
translated as darkened box.
A. Sir Isaac Newton
B. Aristotle

Ramos
51. Basically, the best factor considered
in knowing the field of view of the lens
is the _______.
A. focal point
B. focal length
C. lens speed
D. depth of field

Ramos
51. Basically, the best factor considered
in knowing the field of view of the lens
is the _______.
A. focal point
B. focal length
C. lens speed
D. depth of field

Ramos
52. The word photography derived from the
Greek word “photo” and “graphia” which
means;
A. printing with light
B. drawing with light
C. picture with light
D. sketching with light

Ramos
52. The word photography derived from the
Greek word “photo” and “graphia” which
means;
A. printing with light
B. drawing with light
C. picture with light
D. sketching with light

Ramos
53. It is simply known as the light-
transmitting power of the lens at its
maximum aperture or f-stop setting.
A. lens flare
B. lens speed
C. lens opening
D. diaphragm or aperture

Ramos
53. It is simply known as the light-
transmitting power of the lens at its
maximum aperture or f-stop setting.
A. lens flare
B. lens speed
C. lens opening
D. diaphragm or aperture

Ramos
54. It refers to the study of the
fundamentals of photography, its
application to Police work and the
preparation of photographic evidence for
court presentation.
B. photography
Ramos
54. It refers to the study of the
fundamentals of photography, its
application to Police work and the
preparation of photographic evidence for
court presentation.
B. photography
Ramos
55. It is a term used to describe the
angular extent of a given scene that is
imaged by a camera
A. angle of view
B. field of view
C. focal length
D. A or B

Ramos
55. It is a term used to describe the
angular extent of a given scene that is
imaged by a camera
A. angle of view
B. field of view
C. focal length
D. A or B

Ramos
56. A historic event in police photography
happened in Denver, Colorado, USA. When the
court admitted for the first tie a “colored”
photograph and that year was?
A.1956
B.1977
C.1943
D.1928
What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P.
Ramos
56. A historic event in police photography
happened in Denver, Colorado, USA. When the
court admitted for the first tie a “colored”
photograph and that year was?
A.1956
B.1977
C.1943
D.1928
Ramos
57. The process of photographing or
recording crime scene or any object in the
crime scene for court presentation is
called?
A.Forensic photography
B.Crime scene sheets
C.Photographing crime
D.Police photography
Ramos
57. The process of photographing or
recording crime scene or any object in the
crime scene for court presentation is
called?
A.Forensic photography
B.Crime scene sheets
C.Photographing crime
D.Police photography
Ramos
58. What is the first country in the world
who used photographs in police work
particularly in the identification of
criminals?
A.Philippines
B.Germany
C.France
D.USA
Ramos
58. What is the first country in the world
who used photographs in police work
particularly in the identification of
criminals?
A.Philippines
B.Germany
C.France
D.USA
Ramos
59. In addition to medical certificates, as
prober, how can you preserve perishable
evidence like injuries, contusions, hematoma
and the like? By:
A.Photographing it
B.Written interrogatories
C.Tape recording them
D.Memoirs
Ramos
evidence like injuries, contusions, hematoma
and the like? By:
A.Photographing it
D.Memoirs
Ramos
60. A positive print or a reproduction made
with a camera, light, and sensitive material
or in common use the end result of “SMILE!”
is:
A.Memento
B.Photograph
C.Computerized Photostat
D.Machine copy
Ramos
60. A positive print or a reproduction made
with a camera, light, and sensitive material
or in common use the end result of “SMILE!”
is:
A.Memento
B.Photograph
C.Computerized Photostat
D.Machine copy
Ramos
61. In Holy Bible (Genesis 1:3-5), God,
after creating the heavens and earth,
commanded, “let there be light” and there
was light which we call “day” and darkness
as “night” and there was evening and there
was morning. Which of the said creations
are the basic components of photography?
A.Light only
B.Earth and heaven
C.Light and darkness
D.Evening and morning
Ramos
61. In Holy Bible (Genesis 1:3-5), God,
after creating the heavens and earth,
commanded, “let there be light” and there
was light which we call “day” and darkness
as “night” and there was evening and there
was morning. Which of the said creations
are the basic components of photography?
A.Light only
B.Earth and heaven
C.Light and darkness
D.Evening and morning
Ramos
62. In photography, an exhibit shown in
court for scrutiny by litigants and others
is what?
A.Vivid photos
B.None of these
C.Hand exhibit
D.Negative exhibit

Ramos
62. In photography, an exhibit shown in
court for scrutiny by litigants and others
is what?
A.Vivid photos
B.None of these
C.Hand exhibit
D.Negative exhibit

Ramos
63. In a robbery case, the photographs
should include the close-up shots of what?
A.Good stolen
B.Entrance and exit
C.Cohorts
D.Escaped car

Ramos
63. In a robbery case, the photographs
should include the close-up shots of what?
A.Good stolen
B.Entrance and exit
C.Cohorts
D.Escaped car

Ramos
64. Just in any other aspects of
investigation, crime scene photography can
be used in obtaining what?
A.Clear vision of the crime
B.All of these
C.Confession
D.Corroborative evidence

Ramos
64. Just in any other aspects of
investigation, crime scene photography can
be used in obtaining what?
A.Clear vision of the crime
B.All of these
C.Confession
D.Corroborative evidence

Ramos
65. In photography, the undeveloped
sensitized material is known as the?
A.Positive
B.Flash
C.Film
D.Negative

Ramos
65. In photography, the undeveloped
sensitized material is known as the?
A.Positive
B.Flash
C.Film
D.Negative

Ramos
66. The mechanical and chemical result of
photography which uses light and sensitized
material is termed called?
A.Photograph
B.Representation
C.Image
D.Replica

Ramos
66. The mechanical and chemical result of
photography which uses light and sensitized
material is termed called?
A.Photograph
B.Representation
C.Image
D.Replica

Ramos
67. The modern definition of photography covers
the recording of images of scenes or objects
not only with the use of conventional camera
but also of other instruments used in taking
digital imaging and?
A. Accessories
B. Computers
C. Microscope
D. Filters

Ramos
67. The modern definition of photography covers
the recording of images of scenes or objects
not only with the use of conventional camera
but also of other instruments used in taking
digital imaging and?
A. Accessories
B. Computers
C. Microscope
D. Filters

Ramos
68. In police or even in ordinary
photographing activity, when we say tripod,
the stand has how many legs or vertical
support?
A.3
B.4
C.1
D.2
Ramos
68. In police or even in ordinary
photographing activity, when we say tripod,
the stand has how many legs or vertical
support?
A.3
B.4
C.1
D.2
Ramos
69. Flashbulb and electronic flash are two
examples of light sources of short duration.
One that remains very popular even today is
the?
A.Electronic flash
B.Flash blub
C.Organic flash
D.Electric bulb
Ramos
69. Flashbulb and electronic flash are two
examples of light sources of short duration.
One that remains very popular even today is
the?
A.Electronic flash
B.Flash blub
C.Organic flash
D.Electric bulb
Ramos
70. Murder should be discounted if there
exists in photographs of the crimes scene,
broken glasses, disarray of furnitures which
shows the possible defenses put-up by the:
A.Probers
B.Assailant
C.Victim
D.Bystanders
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broken glasses, disarray of furnitures which
shows the possible defenses put-up by the:
A.Probers
B.Assailant
C.Victim
D.Bystanders
Ramos
71. In photographing a dead victim, see to
it that its identity is duly?
A.Stored
B.Recorded
C.Proven
D.Measured

Ramos
71. In photographing a dead victim, see to
it that its identity is duly?
A.Stored
B.Recorded
C.Proven
D.Measured

Ramos
72. When the photographing of crime scenes
or any other object has the purpose or goal
of using them in court as evidence in any
litigation, then it is defined as what kind
of photography?
A.Modern/technical
B.Police
C.Forensic
D.Legal
Ramos
72. When the photographing of crime scenes
or any other object has the purpose or goal
of using them in court as evidence in any
litigation, then it is defined as what kind
of photography?
A.Modern/technical
B.Police
C.Forensic
D.Legal
Ramos
73. In the so called “total take” in crime
scene photography, it means you have to
photograph all the angles possible in order
to reflect the
A. truth
B. exact area where the victim fell
D. entire area

Ramos
73. In the so called “total take” in crime
scene photography, it means you have to
photograph all the angles possible in order
to reflect the
A. truth
B. exact area where the victim fell
D. entire area

Ramos
74. In case spectrographic or color analysis
or comparison microscopes are not available,
which of the following photography would you
use?
A. infra-red C. cosmic
B. gamma D. ultra-violet

Ramos
74. In case spectrographic or color analysis
or comparison microscopes are not available,
which of the following photography would you
use?
A. infra-red C. cosmic
B. gamma D. ultra-violet

Ramos
75. In taking photographs, the lights must
be regulated that upon reaching the
sensitized material or film, all other
lights must be?
A. deducted C. controlled
B. exposed D. excluded

Ramos
75. In taking photographs, the lights must
be regulated that upon reaching the
sensitized material or film, all other
lights must be?
A. deducted C. controlled
B. exposed D. excluded

Ramos
76. What is this part of a camera which is
usually an enclosure devoid of light?
A. film house C. body
B. tripod D. viewfinder

Ramos
76. What is this part of a camera which is
usually an enclosure devoid of light?
A. film house C. body
B. tripod D. viewfinder

Ramos
77. In introducing photographs as evidence,
the only thing required of you is to testify
that the photograph is the accurate
representation of what?
A. situation C. victim
B. environments D. crime scene

Ramos
77. In introducing photographs as evidence,
the only thing required of you is to testify
that the photograph is the accurate
representation of what?
A. situation C. victim
B. environments D. crime scene

Ramos
78. In murder case, the photograph should
include the close-up shots of:
A. ingress and egress
B. cohorts of the suspects
C. goods stolen
D. assailants escape car

Ramos
78. In murder case, the photograph should
include the close-up shots of:
A. ingress and egress
B. cohorts of the suspects
C. goods stolen
D. assailants escape car

Ramos
79. In police photography, the entire
electromagnetic spectrum refers to both
visible and invisible radiations?
A. it depends C. yes
B. no D. seldom

Ramos
79. In police photography, the entire
electromagnetic spectrum refers to both
visible and invisible radiations?
A. it depends C. yes
B. no D. seldom

Ramos
80. In photography, comparable to the pupil
of an eye is what?
A.lens
B.circular photo static
C.single film
D.variable shutter

Ramos
80. In photography, comparable to the pupil
of an eye is what?
A.lens
B.circular photo static
C.single film
D.variable shutter

Ramos
81. In photographing sexual crime victims
especially rape, you must first secure a
written permission from the?
A.Court
B.Officer on case
C.doctor or priest or parents
D.victim

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A.Court
B.Officer on case
D.victim

Ramos
82. Autoptic photography refers to the
taking of photographs of:
A.Scenic views C. cadavers
B.Film making D. sexy dancers

Ramos
82. Autoptic photography refers to the
taking of photographs of:
A.Scenic views C. cadavers
B.Film making D. sexy dancers

Ramos
83. Although the focus is accurate in taking
a shot/photograph, there will be a blurred
image if it is what?
A.Bad use of lens
B.error in distance
C.Lacking in light
D.Camera movement

Ramos
83. Although the focus is accurate in taking
a shot/photograph, there will be a blurred
image if it is what?
A.Bad use of lens
B.error in distance
C.Lacking in light
D.Camera movement

Ramos
84.Lens that is characterized by a thicker
center and thinner sides.
A.concave lens
B.convex lens
C.negative lens
D.positive lens

Ramos
84.Lens that is characterized by a thicker
center and thinner sides.
A.concave lens
B.convex lens
C.negative lens
D.positive lens

Ramos
85.The normal developing time of a paper or
film.
A.30-60 minutes
B.20-30 minutes
C.10-15 minutes
D.1- 2 minutes

Ramos
85.The normal developing time of a paper or
film.
A.30-60 minutes
B.20-30 minutes
C.10-15 minutes
D.1- 2 minutes

Ramos
86.This part of a camera is used to allow
light to enter through the lens for a
predetermined time interval.
A.holder of sensitised material
B.view finder
C.shutter
D.Focusing ring

Ramos
86.This part of a camera is used to allow
light to enter through the lens for a
predetermined time interval.
A.holder of sensitised material
B.view finder
C.shutter
D.Focusing ring

Ramos
87.A lens with a focal length of less than
the diagonal of its negative material.
A.telephoto lens
B.long lens
C.normal lens
D.wide angle lens

Ramos
87.A lens with a focal length of less than
the diagonal of its negative material.
A.telephoto lens
B.long lens
C.normal lens
D.wide angle lens

Ramos
88.Chemical used as an accelerator in a
developer solution.
A.Potassium Bromide
B.Sodium Carbonate
C.Sodium Sulfite
D.Hydroquinone

Ramos
88.Chemical used as an accelerator in a
developer solution.
A.Potassium Bromide
B.Sodium Carbonate
C.Sodium Sulfite
D.Hydroquinone

Ramos
89.A part of a camera used in focusing the
light from the subject
A.view finder
B.lens
C.shutter
D.light tight box

Ramos
89.A part of a camera used in focusing the
light from the subject
A.view finder
B.lens
C.shutter
D.light tight box

Ramos
90.In police photography studies, what are
called the thin, gelatinous, light-sensitive
coatings on film that react chemically to
capture the color and shadings of a scene?
A.Films
B.Emulsions
C.Chemical Coatings
D.None of these

Ramos
90.In police photography studies, what are
called the thin, gelatinous, light-sensitive
coatings on film that react chemically to
capture the color and shadings of a scene?
A.Films
B.Emulsions
C.Chemical Coatings
D.None of these

Ramos
91.A medium that divert or absorb light, but
does not allow lights to pass though, they
absorb most of the light while reflecting
some of it is called
A.Opaque object
B.Convection
C.Visible light
D.Prisms

Ramos
91.A medium that divert or absorb light, but
does not allow lights to pass though, they
absorb most of the light while reflecting
some of it is called
A.Opaque object
B.Convection
C.Visible light
D.Prisms

Ramos
92.The bending of light around an object
gives rise to the phenomenon called
A.attraction
B.diffraction
C.light curve
D.light fingerprint

Ramos
92.The bending of light around an object
gives rise to the phenomenon called
A.attraction
B.diffraction
C.light curve
D.light fingerprint

Ramos
93.Under the law of reflection, The angle of
reflection depends upon the angle of the
light striking the material, which is
referred to as the
A.angle of incidence
B.angle of biometry
C.angle of light
D.none of these

Ramos
93.Under the law of reflection, The angle of
reflection depends upon the angle of the
light striking the material, which is
referred to as the
A.angle of incidence
B.angle of biometry
C.angle of light
D.none of these

Ramos
94.Which film is suitable for general use in
the preparation of black and white
photography because it produces the most
natural recording of colors?
A.Panchromatic film
B.Chrome Films
C.X-Ray Films
D.Color Films

Ramos
94.Which film is suitable for general use in
the preparation of black and white
photography because it produces the most
natural recording of colors?
A.Panchromatic film
B.Chrome Films
C.X-Ray Films
D.Color Films

Ramos
95.One film maybe rated ISO – 100, and
another film ISO- 200. This means that the
200 films are twice as fast (twice more
sensitive to light) than the ISO-100 film.
This statement is
A.true
B.false
C.partly true
D.partly false

Ramos
95.One film maybe rated ISO – 100, and
another film ISO- 200. This means that the
200 films are twice as fast (twice more
sensitive to light) than the ISO-100 film.
This statement is
A.true
B.false
C.partly true
D.partly false

Ramos
96.Among the following speed of film, which
has the fastest speed?
A.ISO – 25
B.ISO – 100 to ISO – 200
C.ISO – 400
D.ISO – 1000 and up

Ramos
96.Among the following speed of film, which
has the fastest speed?
A.ISO – 25
B.ISO – 100 to ISO – 200
C.ISO – 400
D.ISO – 1000 and up

Ramos
97. _______ is the failure of different
colored light rays to focus after passing
through a lens, focusing of light of
different colors at different points
resulting in a blurred image.
A.Astigmatism
B.Bended light
C.Chromatic aberration
D.Pragmatic rays

Ramos
97. _______ is the failure of different
colored light rays to focus after passing
through a lens, focusing of light of
different colors at different points
resulting in a blurred image.
A.Astigmatism
B.Bended light
C.Chromatic aberration
D.Pragmatic rays

Ramos
98.What is the defect in which the light coming
from an off-axis object point is spread along
the direction of the optic axis? If the object
is a vertical line, the cross section of the
refracted beam at successively greater
distances from the lens is an ellipse that
collapses first into a horizontal line, spreads
out again, and later becomes a vertical line
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
Ramos
98.What is the defect in which the light coming
from an off-axis object point is spread along
the direction of the optic axis? If the object
is a vertical line, the cross section of the
refracted beam at successively greater
distances from the lens is an ellipse that
collapses first into a horizontal line, spreads
out again, and later becomes a vertical line
A. Astigmatism
B. Bended light
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Pragmatic rays
Ramos
99. ____________ is the range in front of
and behind a sharply focused subject in
which details also look sharp in the final
photographic image.
A.Focus
B.Depth of field
C.Camera trick
D.Aperture

Ramos
99. ____________ is the range in front of
and behind a sharply focused subject in
which details also look sharp in the final
photographic image.
A.Focus
B.Depth of field
C.Camera trick
D.Aperture

Ramos
100.In photography, what determines how
effectively a moving object can be stopped,
that is, how sharply it can be reproduced
without blurring, or streaking in the final
image?
A.Focus
B.Shutter speed
C.Aperture
D.Lens

Ramos
100.In photography, what determines how
effectively a moving object can be stopped,
that is, how sharply it can be reproduced
without blurring, or streaking in the final
image?
A.Focus
B.Shutter speed
C.Aperture
D.Lens

Ramos
Questioned Document
(Forensic Document Examination)
SET 1
By
What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne

James P. Ramos
1. When did the Americans introduce the
ball point pen in the Philippines?
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1945
D. 1959

James P. Ramos
1. When did the Americans introduce the
ball point pen in the Philippines?
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1945
D. 1959

James P. Ramos
2. Legally speaking, what is the
description of the act of passing,
delivering, or giving a counterfeit coin to
another person?
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Reproduction
D. Uttering

James P. Ramos
2. Legally speaking, what is the
description of the act of passing,
delivering, or giving a counterfeit coin to
another person?
A. Counterfeiting
B. Falsification
C. Reproduction
D. Uttering

James P. Ramos
3. The ruled or imaginary line where the
letters in the handwriting rests is simply
called -
A. alignment
B. baseline
C. line quality
D. pen position

James P. Ramos
3. The ruled or imaginary line where the
letters in the handwriting rests is simply
called -
A. alignment
B. baseline
C. line quality
D. pen position

James P. Ramos
4. Preliminary embellished initial stroke
which usually occurs in capital letters
A. Ascender
B. Beaded
C. Bucklenot
D. Diacritic

James P. Ramos
4. Preliminary embellished initial stroke
which usually occurs in capital letters
A. Ascender
B. Beaded
C. Bucklenot
D. Diacritic

James P. Ramos
5. What technique should be applied in
recording the original appearance of a
charred document that was discovered at the
crime scene?
A. Microphotography
B. Infrared photography
C. Ultraviolet photography
D. The golden rule in crime scene
investigation
James P. Ramos
5. What technique should be applied in
recording the original appearance of a
charred document that was discovered at the
crime scene?
A. Microphotography
B. Infrared photography
C. Ultraviolet photography
D. The golden rule in crime scene
investigation
James P. Ramos
6. Who is the most influential document
examiner in America and sometimes regarded
as the father of QDE?
A. Wilson Harrison
B. Alfred Dreyfus
C. Albert Osborn
D. Gilbert Thompson

James P. Ramos
6. Who is the most influential document
examiner in America and sometimes regarded
as the father of QDE?
A. Wilson Harrison
B. Alfred Dreyfus
C. Albert Osborn
D. Gilbert Thompson

James P. Ramos
7. Which of the following deals primarily
on the study of handwriting based on 2
fundamental strokes - the curve and the
straight strokes?
A. Bibliomancy
B. Graphology
C. Graphometry
D. Grapho-analysis

James P. Ramos
7. Which of the following deals primarily
on the study of handwriting based on 2
fundamental strokes - the curve and the
straight strokes?
A. Bibliomancy
B. Graphology
C. Graphometry
D. Grapho-analysis

James P. Ramos
8. The art of handwriting is now known
today as
A. paleography
B. graphology
C. calligraphy
D. cacography

James P. Ramos
8. The art of handwriting is now known
today as
A. paleography
B. graphology
C. calligraphy
D. cacography

James P. Ramos
9. Paleography came from the Greek word
‘palaios’ which literally means-
A. art
B. writing
C. to write
D. old

James P. Ramos
9. Paleography came from the Greek word
‘palaios’ which literally means-
A. art
B. writing
C. to write
D. old

James P. Ramos
the earliest material that served the
purpose of paper during the ancient times?
A. Cellulose from wood pulp
B. Vegetable fiber
C. Papyrus
D. Parchment

James P. Ramos
the earliest material that served the
purpose of paper during the ancient times?
A. Cellulose from wood pulp
B. Vegetable fiber
C. Papyrus
D. Parchment

James P. Ramos
11. A figure resembling a hole or opening as
part of the letter
A. Ascender
B. Beaded
C. Bucklenot
D. Eyeloop

James P. Ramos
11. A figure resembling a hole or opening as
part of the letter
A. Ascender
B. Beaded
C. Bucklenot
D. Eyeloop

James P. Ramos
12. What ancient writing material was
made of goatskin or sheep skin?
A. Papyrus
B. Parchment
C. Vellum
D. Venom

James P. Ramos
12. What ancient writing material was
made of goatskin or sheep skin?
A. Papyrus
B. Parchment
C. Vellum
D. Venom

James P. Ramos
13. Which of these is the oldest ink that
was developed?
A. Gallotanic ink
B. Logwood ink
C. Indian ink
D. Nigrosine

James P. Ramos
13. Which of these is the oldest ink that
was developed?
A. Gallotanic ink
B. Logwood ink
C. Indian ink
D. Nigrosine

James P. Ramos
14. Which of these refers to the special
way how various hand muscles work together
to produce written form of the ideas
conceived by the mind of the writer?
A. Muscle coordination
B. Motor coordination
C. Rhythm
D. Handwriting movement

James P. Ramos
14. Which of these refers to the special
way how various hand muscles work together
to produce written form of the ideas
conceived by the mind of the writer?
A. Muscle coordination
B. Motor coordination
C. Rhythm
D. Handwriting movement

James P. Ramos
15. Which of these terms is used to
describe a line, sentence or paragraph
that is inserted in between lines or
paragraphs written in a document?
A. Addition
B. Superimposition
C. Substitution
D. Interlineations

James P. Ramos
15. Which of these terms is used to
describe a line, sentence or paragraph
that is inserted in between lines or
paragraphs written in a document?
A. Addition
B. Superimposition
C. Substitution
D. Interlineations

James P. Ramos
16. Who is regarded as the grandfather of
modern graphology?
A. Aristotle
B. Albert Osborne
C. Jean Hippolyte Michon
D. Camillo Baldi

James P. Ramos
16. Who is regarded as the grandfather of
modern graphology?
A. Aristotle
B. Albert Osborne
C. Jean Hippolyte Michon
D. Camillo Baldi

James P. Ramos
17. There are materials which contain
marks, signs or symbols, either visible or
partially visible, that may convey a
meaning or message to someone. These are
called
A. questioned documents
B. disputed document
C. documents
D. handwritings
James P. Ramos
17. There are materials which contain
marks, signs or symbols, either visible or
partially visible, that may convey a
meaning or message to someone. These are
called
A. questioned documents
B. disputed document
C. documents
D. handwritings
James P. Ramos
18. Any instrument executed in accordance
with the mercantile law that contains
disposition of trade rights and obligations
is classified as
A. public document
B. commercial document
C. notarized document
D. official document

James P. Ramos
18. Any instrument executed in accordance
with the mercantile law that contains
disposition of trade rights and obligations
is classified as
A. public document
B. commercial document
C. notarized document
D. official document

James P. Ramos
19. A document maybe questioned due to the
following reasons, unless
A. the circumstances regarding its
production arouse suspicion
B. the document raises skepticism
C. it is objectionable to someone
D. the document is irrefutable

James P. Ramos
19. A document maybe questioned due to the
following reasons, unless
A. the circumstances regarding its
production arouse suspicion
B. the document raises skepticism
C. it is objectionable to someone
D. the document is irrefutable

James P. Ramos
20. If a document is disputed by one or
more persons because of the materials used
in their production, then such document
is considered
A. questioned document
B. holographic documents
C. disputed documents
D. falsified document

James P. Ramos
20. If a document is disputed by one or
more persons because of the materials used
in their production, then such document
is considered
A. questioned document
B. holographic documents
C. disputed documents
D. falsified document

James P. Ramos
21. Based on the Supreme Court rulings,
which of the following legally constitutes
a document?
A. Pamphlet or book that do not establish
any disposition or agreement
B. Draft of a payroll for a particular
government agency
C. Blank forms of official documents
D. Neither one of the above
James P. Ramos
21. Based on the Supreme Court rulings,
which of the following legally constitutes
a document?
A. Pamphlet or book that do not establish
any disposition or agreement
B. Draft of a payroll for a particular
government agency
C. Blank forms of official documents
D. Neither one of the above
James P. Ramos
22. The legal classification of documents
are the following, except
A. official document
B. questioned document
C. commercial and private document
D. public document

James P. Ramos
22. The legal classification of documents
are the following, except
A. official document
B. questioned document
C. commercial and private document
D. public document

James P. Ramos
23. Which of these refers to the art of
determining the character or disposition
of person by analyzing his handwriting?
A. Calligraphy
B. Graphology
C. Haplography
D. QD examination

James P. Ramos
23. Which of these refers to the art of
determining the character or disposition
of person by analyzing his handwriting?
A. Calligraphy
B. Graphology
C. Haplography
D. QD examination

James P. Ramos
24. When he investigates a questioned
document, the document examiner must follow
the scientific method of examination and the
first official stage is –
A. scientific comparison
B. preliminary investigation
C. evaluation
D. analysis

James P. Ramos
24. When he investigates a questioned
document, the document examiner must follow
the scientific method of examination and the
first official stage is –
A. scientific comparison
B. preliminary investigation
C. evaluation
D. analysis

James P. Ramos
25. A person, by reason of his special
technical training or experience, can be
permitted to express his opinion about
scientific issues involved in a lawsuit.
Legally speaking, what is the best
description of this person?
A. Document examiner
B. Handwriting expert
C. Expert witness
D. Forensic scientist
James P. Ramos
25. A person, by reason of his special
technical training or experience, can be
permitted to express his opinion about
scientific issues involved in a lawsuit.
Legally speaking, what is the best
description of this person?
A. Document examiner
B. Handwriting expert
C. Expert witness
D. Forensic scientist
James P. Ramos
26. A signature which is executed while the
writer's hand or arm is steadied in any by
another person is classified as –
A. model signature
B. disguised signature
C. fraudulent signature
D. guided signature

James P. Ramos
26. A signature which is executed while the
writer's hand or arm is steadied in any by
another person is classified as –
A. model signature
B. disguised signature
C. fraudulent signature
D. guided signature

James P. Ramos
27. Paleographers study writings found on
ancient documents made of papyrus,
parchment, vellum, & wax-tablets.
From what material is papyrus made of?
A. Calf skin
B. Sheep skin
C. Reed grass
D. Goatskin

James P. Ramos
27. Paleographers study writings found on
ancient documents made of papyrus,
parchment, vellum, & wax-tablets.
From what material is papyrus made of?
A. Calf skin
B. Sheep skin
C. Reed grass
D. Goatskin

James P. Ramos
28. What should be used to make the
examiner discover or see minute physical
details of the writings in a document
which would not be possible by merely
using his naked eye?
A. Transmitted light examination
B. Infra-red light examination
C. Microscopic examination
D. Preliminary examination

James P. Ramos
28. What should be used to make the
examiner discover or see minute physical
details of the writings in a document
which would not be possible by merely
using his naked eye?
A. Transmitted light examination
B. Infra-red light examination
C. Microscopic examination
D. Preliminary examination

James P. Ramos
29. In questioned document examination
(and other forms of criminalistic
examinations), any significant property
or mark that serve as identifying detail
of the specimen is referred to as -
A. writing habits
B. individual characteristics
C. signature
D. handwriting

James P. Ramos
29. In questioned document examination
(and other forms of criminalistic
examinations), any significant property
or mark that serve as identifying detail
of the specimen is referred to as -
A. writing habits
B. individual characteristics
C. signature
D. handwriting

James P. Ramos
30. Technically, what is the appropriate
term for blotting out or shearing over a
word or letter in a document to make the
original handwriting invisible to the
naked eye?
A. Erasure
B. Shading
C. Obliteration
D. Retouching

James P. Ramos
30. Technically, what is the appropriate
term for blotting out or shearing over a
word or letter in a document to make the
original handwriting invisible to the
naked eye?
A. Erasure
B. Shading
C. Obliteration
D. Retouching

James P. Ramos
31. What device can be used to show a tri-
dimensional enlargement of writings found
in a document under scrutiny?
A. Shadowgraph
B. Stereoscopic microscope
C. Ultra-violet lamp
D. Infra-red lamp

James P. Ramos
31. What device can be used to show a tri-
dimensional enlargement of writings found
in a document under scrutiny?
A. Shadowgraph
B. Stereoscopic microscope
C. Ultra-violet lamp
D. Infra-red lamp

James P. Ramos
32. What are the 3 stages involved in
scientific document examination?
A. Evaluation, Comparison & Analysis
B. Off-hand opinion, Evaluation & Decision
C. Theory, Comparison & Examination
D. Analysis, Comparison & Evaluation

James P. Ramos
32. What are the 3 stages involved in
scientific document examination?
A. Evaluation, Comparison & Analysis
B. Off-hand opinion, Evaluation & Decision
C. Theory, Comparison & Examination
D. Analysis, Comparison & Evaluation

James P. Ramos
33. What feature of the document can be used
to indicate the source or origin of paper?
A. Wire mark
B. Postmark
C. Watermark
D. Compression mark

James P. Ramos
33. What feature of the document can be used
to indicate the source or origin of paper?
A. Wire mark
B. Postmark
C. Watermark
D. Compression mark

James P. Ramos
34. A person who can write either with his
left or right hand is called
A. ambidextrous
B. analogous
C. bicephalous
D. dextrous or dexterous

James P. Ramos
34. A person who can write either with his
left or right hand is called
A. ambidextrous
B. analogous
C. bicephalous
D. dextrous or dexterous

James P. Ramos
35. What do we call with the result of the
writer’s muscular control & coordination as
influenced by his age, health, emotional
condition, and personality that show
uniqueness of his writings?
A. Habits
B. General characteristics
C. Strokes
D. Individual characteristics
James P. Ramos
35. What do we call with the result of the
writer’s muscular control & coordination as
influenced by his age, health, emotional
condition, and personality that show
uniqueness of his writings?
A. Habits
B. General characteristics
C. Strokes
D. Individual characteristics
James P. Ramos
36. If our hands have 3 groups of muscles
that are used in the act of writing, what
muscles are used in pushing the pen for the
upward strokes of our handwriting?
A. Flexor muscles
B. Extensor muscles
C. Lumbricals
D. Biceps

James P. Ramos
36. If our hands have 3 groups of muscles
that are used in the act of writing, what
muscles are used in pushing the pen for the
upward strokes of our handwriting?
A. Flexor muscles
B. Extensor muscles
C. Lumbricals
D. Biceps

James P. Ramos
37. What line of inquiry in QDE is intended
to determine the basic nature of the
document whether it is authentic or not?
A. Analyze the details
B. Ascertain the facts
C. Qualify the case
D. Recognize the characteristics

James P. Ramos
37. What line of inquiry in QDE is intended
to determine the basic nature of the
document whether it is authentic or not?
A. Analyze the details
B. Ascertain the facts
C. Qualify the case
D. Recognize the characteristics

James P. Ramos
38. What handwriting is made by a person
with the intention of hiding his identity
by deliberate altering his normal habits of
writing?
A. Forgery
B. Normal writing
C. Disguised writing
D. Tremulous writing

James P. Ramos
38. What handwriting is made by a person
with the intention of hiding his identity
by deliberate altering his normal habits of
writing?
A. Forgery
B. Normal writing
C. Disguised writing
D. Tremulous writing

James P. Ramos
39. What is the modern term of a
handwriting specimen obtained personally
from a known source that can be used by the
examiner as the basis for his ID or non-ID
of the writings found in a QD?
A. Handwriting standards
B. Samples
C. Collected standard
D. Exemplar
James P. Ramos
39. What is the modern term of a
handwriting specimen obtained personally
from a known source that can be used by the
examiner as the basis for his ID or non-ID
of the writings found in a QD?
A. Handwriting standards
B. Samples
C. Collected standard
D. Exemplar
James P. Ramos
40. Questioned document examination
often involves comparing questioned
handwriting with known handwriting to
determine
A. authentic document
B. the falsification committed
C. the writer's identity
D. any sign of forgery

James P. Ramos
40. Questioned document examination
often involves comparing questioned
handwriting with known handwriting to
determine
A. authentic document
B. the falsification committed
C. the writer's identity
D. any sign of forgery

James P. Ramos
41. A genuine signature which has been
used to prepare imitated or traced
signature is known as
A. exemplars
B. standard signature
C. model signature
D. formal signature

James P. Ramos
41. A genuine signature which has been
used to prepare imitated or traced
signature is known as
A. exemplars
B. standard signature
C. model signature
D. formal signature

James P. Ramos
42. What handwriting movement is usually
used by children and barely literate
people? The thumb, index and middle finger
are the ones in actual motion while the
person is writing.
A. Finger movement
B. Hand movement
C. Forearm movement
D. Whole arm movement
James P. Ramos
42. What handwriting movement is usually
used by children and barely literate
people? The thumb, index and middle finger
are the ones in actual motion while the
person is writing.
A. Finger movement
B. Hand movement
C. Forearm movement
D. Whole arm movement
James P. Ramos
43. The top portion of a letter forming an
upper loop
A. Ascender
B. Beaded
C. Bucklenot
D. Diacritic

James P. Ramos
43. The top portion of a letter forming an
upper loop
A. Ascender
B. Beaded
C. Bucklenot
D. Diacritic

James P. Ramos
44. If cases are lost mostly not in the court
room but at the prosecutor’s office when the
documentary exhibits are presented for the
first time, what then is considered the key
to successful questioned document
examination?
A. Logical progress of inquiry
B. Scientific evaluation of the documents
C. Analysis of handwriting characteristics
D. Preliminary examination of documentary
exhibits
James P. Ramos
44. If cases are lost mostly not in the court
room but at the prosecutor’s office when the
documentary exhibits are presented for the
first time, what then is considered the key
to successful questioned document
examination?
A. Logical progress of inquiry
B. Scientific evaluation of the documents
C. Analysis of handwriting characteristics
D. Preliminary examination of documentary
exhibits
James P. Ramos
45. A gap occurring between a continuous
stroke without lifting the pen
A. Foot
B. Hiatus
C. Hump
D. Ligature

James P. Ramos
45. A gap occurring between a continuous
stroke without lifting the pen
A. Foot
B. Hiatus
C. Hump
D. Ligature

James P. Ramos
46. The bottom part of the letter which
rests on the base line
A. Foot
B. Hiatus
C. Hump
D. Ligature

James P. Ramos
46. The bottom part of the letter which
rests on the base line
A. Foot
B. Hiatus
C. Hump
D. Ligature

James P. Ramos
47. Due to brain infection caused by a
head injury, Brenda lost the ability to
write in an orderly fashion although she
can still manage to manipulate writing
materials. Brenda is suffering from –
A. agraphia
B. aphasia
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. dyslexia

James P. Ramos
47. Due to brain infection caused by a
head injury, Brenda lost the ability to
write in an orderly fashion although she
can still manage to manipulate writing
materials. Brenda is suffering from –
A. agraphia
B. aphasia
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. dyslexia

James P. Ramos
48. Which of these refers to the act of the
author in intermittently forcing the pen
against the paper surface with increasing
pressure while writing?
A. Pen emphasis
B. Pen hold
C. Pen lift
D. Pen pressure

James P. Ramos
48. Which of these refers to the act of the
author in intermittently forcing the pen
against the paper surface with increasing
pressure while writing?
A. Pen emphasis
B. Pen hold
C. Pen lift
D. Pen pressure

James P. Ramos
49. There is interruption in a stroke
caused by removing the writing instrument
from the paper. This is described as -
A. pen hold
B. pen lift
C. retouching
D. tremor

James P. Ramos
49. There is interruption in a stroke
caused by removing the writing instrument
from the paper. This is described as -
A. pen hold
B. pen lift
C. retouching
D. tremor

James P. Ramos
50. The existence of more movement impulse
in the questioned signature as compared with
the standard signature indicates what?
A.Poor line quality
B.Forgery
C.Traced
D.Poor pen lift

James P. Ramos
50. The existence of more movement impulse
in the questioned signature as compared with
the standard signature indicates what?
A.Poor line quality
B.Forgery
C.Traced
D.Poor pen lift

James P. Ramos
51. In handwriting examination, the
imaginary line upon which the writing rests
is called what line?
A.Note
B.Vase
C.Base
D.Stroke

James P. Ramos
51. In handwriting examination, the
imaginary line upon which the writing rests
is called what line?
A.Note
B.Vase
C.Base
D.Stroke

James P. Ramos
52. One of the ways in determining the date
of the manufacture of the paper is by the?
A.Secret code
B.Copyright
C.Production code
D.Watermark

James P. Ramos
52. One of the ways in determining the date
of the manufacture of the paper is by the?
A.Secret code
B.Copyright
C.Production code
D.Watermark

James P. Ramos
53. Which of the following government issued
I.D. cards on documents had an edge over the
others with respect to the authenticity,
acceptability and legality? The document
with:
B.Signature only
C.Thumbmark only

James P. Ramos
53. Which of the following government issued
I.D. cards on documents had an edge over the
others with respect to the authenticity,
acceptability and legality? The document
with:
B.Signature only
C.Thumbmark only

James P. Ramos
54. The document examiner’s work is
basically that of comparing the questioned
document to that of the:
A.Official specimen
B.Certified copies
C.Admissible specimen
D.Standard specimen

James P. Ramos
54. The document examiner’s work is
basically that of comparing the questioned
document to that of the:
A.Official specimen
B.Certified copies
C.Admissible specimen
D.Standard specimen

James P. Ramos
55. A document duly signed or notarized by a
former RTC judge is what kind of document?
A.Private
B.Personal
C.Official
D.Public

James P. Ramos
55. A document duly signed or notarized by a
former RTC judge is what kind of document?
A.Private
B.Personal
C.Official
D.Public

James P. Ramos
56. In questioned documents, the retouching
or going back over to a defective portion of
a writing stroke is called?
A.Slicing
B.All of these
C.Embracing
D.Patching

James P. Ramos
A.Slicing
B.All of these
C.Embracing
D.Patching

James P. Ramos
57. In questioned signature document
examinations, the number of standard
specimen required is at least how many?
A.10
B.6
C.8
D.7

James P. Ramos
57. In questioned signature document
examinations, the number of standard
specimen required is at least how many?
A.10
B.6
C.8
D.7

James P. Ramos
58. To a biologist, it is a microscope: to a
document examiner, it is?
A.Telescope
B.Cameras
C.Stethoscope
D.Magnifying glasses

James P. Ramos
58. To a biologist, it is a microscope: to a
document examiner, it is?
A.Telescope
B.Cameras
C.Stethoscope

James P. Ramos
59. In questioned documents inquiry, the
addition of writing and other materials
between lines or paragraphs or the addition
of whole pages to a document is called?
A.Insertion or interlineation
B.Attribution
C.Supplication
D.Contrition

James P. Ramos
59. In questioned documents inquiry, the
addition of writing and other materials
between lines or paragraphs or the addition
of whole pages to a document is called?
A.Insertion or interlineation
B.Attribution
C.Supplication
D.Contrition

James P. Ramos
60. Basically, the main job of a document
examiner is to compare the questioned
document with the?
A.Stolen but readable documents
B.Stolen but recovered documents
C.Highly suspected altered documents
D.Standard documents

James P. Ramos
60. Basically, the main job of a document
examiner is to compare the questioned
document with the?
A.Stolen but readable documents
B.Stolen but recovered documents
C.Highly suspected altered documents

James P. Ramos
61. When there is alteration or erasure in a
document such document is questionable. When
such change is effected in order to speak
the truth, then such action is?
A.Disputable
B.Questionable
C.Fraudulent
D.Alright

James P. Ramos
61. When there is alteration or erasure in a
document such document is questionable. When
such change is effected in order to speak
the truth, then such action is?
A.Disputable
B.Questionable
C.Fraudulent
D.Alright

James P. Ramos
62. There are several classes of questioned
documents but MOST disputed documents are
documents with:
A.Questioned signature;
B.Questioned typewriting;
C.Forgery;
D.Alternations;

James P. Ramos
62. There are several classes of questioned
documents but MOST disputed documents are
documents with:
A.Questioned signature;
B.Questioned typewriting;
C.Forgery;
D.Alternations;

James P. Ramos
63. In typewriting examination, the first
step to consider in the procurement of
typewriting exemplars is to?
A.Study the questioned typewriting
B.Prepare the exemplars
C.Locate the typewriter used
D.Acquisition of similar typewriter

James P. Ramos
63. In typewriting examination, the first
step to consider in the procurement of
typewriting exemplars is to?
A.Study the questioned typewriting
B.Prepare the exemplars
C.Locate the typewriter used
D.Acquisition of similar typewriter

James P. Ramos
64. In typewriter examination, the type race
detects in which the letters are printed to
the right or to the left of its proper
position is termed as what?
A.Horizontal malalignment
B.Off-beat alignment
C.Twisted print
D.Vertical malalignment

James P. Ramos
64. In typewriter examination, the type race
detects in which the letters are printed to
the right or to the left of its proper
position is termed as what?
A.Horizontal malalignment
B.Off-beat alignment
C.Twisted print
D.Vertical malalignment

James P. Ramos
65. The type of forgery which is made when
the writer exerts no much efforts to effect
resemblance of facsimile between the forged
and genuine signature is called?
A.Traced
B.Spurious
C.Simulated
D.Simple

James P. Ramos
65. The type of forgery which is made when
the writer exerts no much efforts to effect
resemblance of facsimile between the forged
and genuine signature is called?
A.Traced
B.Spurious
C.Simulated
D.Simple

James P. Ramos
A.All of these
B.Embracing
C.Slicing
D.Patching

James P. Ramos
A.All of these
B.Embracing
C.Slicing
D.Patching

James P. Ramos
67. In questioned document, any stroke which
goes back over another writing strokes is
called?
A.Retracing
B.Restroking
C.Retouching
D.Reforming

James P. Ramos
67. In questioned document, any stroke which
goes back over another writing strokes is
called?
A.Retracing
B.Restroking
C.Retouching
D.Reforming

James P. Ramos
68. Which of the following documents is the
other term of questioned document?
A.Disputed
B.Guided
C.Blurred
D.Cased

James P. Ramos
68. Which of the following documents is the
other term of questioned document?
A.Disputed
B.Guided
C.Blurred
D.Cased

James P. Ramos
69. A document examination that uses
invisible radiation beyond the red portion
of the visible spectrum (rainbow) is called?
A. infra-red examination
B. radiation
C. ultra-violet examination
D. hazy sunlight examination

James P. Ramos
69. A document examination that uses
invisible radiation beyond the red portion
of the visible spectrum (rainbow) is called?
A. infra-red examination
B. radiation
C. ultra-violet examination
D. hazy sunlight examination

James P. Ramos
70. In questioned document examination, good
open control is a sign of forgery in guided?
A. markings C. missile
B. forgery D. hand signature

James P. Ramos
70. In questioned document examination, good
open control is a sign of forgery in guided?
A. markings C. missile
B. forgery D. hand signature

James P. Ramos
71. Can there be a conclusive and legally
valid findings in a questioned document case
if no original copy was produced for
comparison?
A. yes C. it depends
B. no D. oftentimes

James P. Ramos
71. Can there be a conclusive and legally
valid findings in a questioned document case
if no original copy was produced for
comparison?
A. yes C. it depends
B. no D. oftentimes

James P. Ramos
72. In questioned document examination, the
other term of burned document is?
A.blackened document
B.charred document
C.none of these
D.poisoned document

James P. Ramos
72. In questioned document examination, the
other term of burned document is?
A.blackened document
B.charred document
C.none of these
D.poisoned document

James P. Ramos
73. In writing controversy, it refers to the
obscuring of writing by superimposing ink,
pencil or other writing material. It is
called what kind of writing?
A. Obliterated C. Slanted
B. Indented D. Illegible

James P. Ramos
73. In writing controversy, it refers to the
obscuring of writing by superimposing ink,
pencil or other writing material. It is
called what kind of writing?
A. Obliterated C. Slanted
B. Indented D. Illegible

James P. Ramos
74. As a possible future expert in
questioned document, you must know the
acknowledged “Father of Questioned
document” and he is?
A. John Hansbury C. Albert Osborn
B. John Adams D. Dr. Hans Gross

James P. Ramos
74. As a possible future expert in
questioned document, you must know the
acknowledged “Father of Questioned
document” and he is?
A. John Hansbury C. Albert Osborn
B. John Adams D. Dr. Hans Gross

James P. Ramos
75. The dates of the standard specimen
should be how many years before and after
the questioned document?
A. two C. five
B. three D. seven

James P. Ramos
75. The dates of the standard specimen
should be how many years before and after
the questioned document?
A. two C. five
B. three D. seven

James P. Ramos
76. With a very clear machine copy (powder)
of a questioned document and as good as
original and with several (more than 20)
standards, as a document examiner, can you
have a definitive and legally accepted
opinion?
A. yes C. seldom
B. sometimes D. no

James P. Ramos
76. With a very clear machine copy (powder)
of a questioned document and as good as
original and with several (more than 20)
standards, as a document examiner, can you
have a definitive and legally accepted
opinion?
A. yes C. seldom
B. sometimes D. no

James P. Ramos
77. The assumption is, “no two writers write
exactly alike”. Every person has his/her own
way/manner of holding pen, so the resultant
effect is to produce an entirely different?
A. replica of writing C. modes of quantity
B. observations D. strokes or writing

James P. Ramos
77. The assumption is, “no two writers write
exactly alike”. Every person has his/her own
way/manner of holding pen, so the resultant
effect is to produce an entirely different?
A. replica of writing C. modes of quantity
B. observations D. strokes or writing

James P. Ramos
78. In questioned document inquiry, when we
speak of insertion or interlineation in a
document, it refers to the addition of?
A. paper marks C. forgery
B. standards D. writing

James P. Ramos
78. In questioned document inquiry, when we
speak of insertion or interlineation in a
document, it refers to the addition of?
A. paper marks C. forgery
B. standards D. writing

James P. Ramos
79. What is this natural phenomenon that
even expert document examiners cannot give
an opinion as regards a questioned document
case without it?
A. Natural talent C. Eclipse
B. Light D. Acquired knowledge

James P. Ramos
79. What is this natural phenomenon that
even expert document examiners cannot give
an opinion as regards a questioned document
case without it?
A. Natural talent C. Eclipse
B. Light D. Acquired knowledge

James P. Ramos
80. A sign of forgery in guided hands
signature is:
a. Bad shading c. good pen control
b. Irregular alignment d. discounted stroke

James P. Ramos
80. A sign of forgery in guided hands
signature is:
a. Bad shading c. good pen control
b. Irregular alignment d. discounted stroke

James P. Ramos
81. In question document inquiry, it is a
kind of movement wherein the writer uses
his/her entire arm in writing without rest
and is usually employed in large writing.
What kind of writing is it?
A.Muscular C. finger
B.Forearm D. whole arm

James P. Ramos
81. In question document inquiry, it is a
kind of movement wherein the writer uses
his/her entire arm in writing without rest
and is usually employed in large writing.
What kind of writing is it?
A.Muscular C. finger
B.Forearm D. whole arm

James P. Ramos
82. In questioned signature cases, there are
two forging methods and these are tracing
and?
A.Shading C. simulating
B.Copying D. imitating

James P. Ramos
82. In questioned signature cases, there are
two forging methods and these are tracing
and?
A.Shading C. simulating
B.Copying D. imitating

James P. Ramos
83. In homicide or murder, the cause of
death and existence of the Victim is a MUST.
In Questioned document examination, which of
the following is indispensable?
A.Officially prepared document
B.Computer printout
C.Newly discovered documents

James P. Ramos
83. In homicide or murder, the cause of
death and existence of the Victim is a MUST.
In Questioned document examination, which of
the following is indispensable?
A.Officially prepared document
B.Computer printout
C.Newly discovered documents

James P. Ramos
84. Involuntary divergence of the pen line
from the natural direction in the
formation of letters.
a. Tremor
b. Hiatus
c. Shading
d. loose writing
10/7/2016 What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne 168

James P. Ramos
84. Involuntary divergence of the pen line
from the natural direction in the
formation of letters.
a. Tremor
b. Hiatus
c. Shading
d. loose writing

James P. Ramos
85. Regarded as a special form of pen lift
disguise in which a perceptible group
appears in the writing.
a. Diacritic
b. Hiatus
c. Hesitation
d. Tremor

James P. Ramos
85. Regarded as a special form of pen lift
disguise in which a perceptible group
appears in the writing.
a. Diacritic
b. Hiatus
c. Hesitation
d. Tremor

James P. Ramos
86. A typewriter defect that can be
corrected by cleaning the machine or
replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect
b. Typeface defect
c. Alignment defect
d. Permanent defect

James P. Ramos
86. A typewriter defect that can be
corrected by cleaning the machine or
replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect
b. Typeface defect
c. Alignment defect
d. Permanent defect

James P. Ramos
87. To be able to make a positive
identification of a person, document
examiner must be able to observe the –
a. Characteristics of his handwriting

b. Writing position of the writer
c. Manner on how the writer moves the pen
d. Distinguishing individual features of
his handwriting
James P. Ramos
87. To be able to make a positive
identification of a person, document
examiner must be able to observe the –
a. Characteristics of his handwriting

b. Writing position of the writer
c. Manner on how the writer moves the pen
d. Distinguishing individual features of
his handwriting
James P. Ramos
88. Writing characterized by too much
freedom of movement and lack of
regulation which is usually tall
letters.
a. Loss writing
b. Restrained writing
c. Genuine writing
d. Regulated writing
James P. Ramos
88. Writing characterized by too much
freedom of movement and lack of
regulation which is usually tall
letters.
a. Loss writing
b. Restrained writing
c. Genuine writing
d. Regulated writing
James P. Ramos
89. Contemporary handwriting standards means
that the age of the standard should be
within –
a. 5 years prior to the date of the

questioned document
b. 10 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
c. 8 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
d. 12 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
James P. Ramos
89. Contemporary handwriting standards means
that the age of the standard should be
within –
a. 5 years prior to the date of the

questioned document
b. 10 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
c. 8 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
d. 12 years prior to the date of the
questioned document
James P. Ramos
90. The identification of handwriting is
based on the proposition that –
a. People are all alike

b. People are with different handwriting
c. People are all different
d. All of the foregoing

James P. Ramos
90. The identification of handwriting is
based on the proposition that –
a. People are all alike

b. People are with different handwriting
c. People are all different
d. All of the foregoing

James P. Ramos
91. One that is executed in accordance with
the Code of Commerce or any Mercantile Law,
containing disposition of commercial rights
or obligations.
A.Commercial document
B.Holographic wills
C.Notarial wills
D.Private document

James P. Ramos
91. One that is executed in accordance with
the Code of Commerce or any Mercantile Law,
containing disposition of commercial rights
or obligations.
A.Commercial document
B.Holographic wills
C.Notarial wills
D.Private document

James P. Ramos
92. The term _______ include the addition
of writing and other
material between lines or paragraphs
or the addition of whole page to a
document.
A.Insertion or interlineations
B.Integration
C.Obliteration
D.None of these

James P. Ramos
92. The term _______ include the addition
of writing and other
material between lines or paragraphs
or the addition of whole page to a
document.
A.Insertion or interlineations
B.Integration
C.Obliteration
D.None of these

James P. Ramos
93. In questioned document examination, what
is an “OFF-HAND OPINION”?
A.A conclusion that is not based on
scientific examination
B.A mere speculation of facts contained in
the document
C.A scientific findings as to the content
of document
D.All of these
James P. Ramos
93. In questioned document examination, what
is an “OFF-HAND OPINION”?
A.A conclusion that is not based on
scientific examination
B.A mere speculation of facts contained in
the document
C.A scientific findings as to the content
of document
D.All of these
James P. Ramos
94. It is a kind of handwriting that is
characterized by being connected in which
one letter is joined to the next.
A.Script
B.Block
C.Vigorous
D.Cursive

James P. Ramos
94. It is a kind of handwriting that is
characterized by being connected in which
one letter is joined to the next.
A.Script
B.Block
C.Vigorous
D.Cursive

James P. Ramos
95. A writer may deliberately try to alter
his usual writing habits in hopes of hiding
his identity. The results, regardless of
their effectiveness are termed as ___.
A.Down stroke
B.Gestalt
C.Disguised writing
D.Graphology

James P. Ramos
95. A writer may deliberately try to alter
his usual writing habits in hopes of hiding
his identity. The results, regardless of
their effectiveness are termed as ___.
A.Down stroke
B.Gestalt
C.Disguised writing
D.Graphology

James P. Ramos
96. The place where the writer grasps the
barrel of the pen and the angle at which he
holds it is called
A.Pen lift
B.Pen hold
C.Print script
D.Pren pressure

James P. Ramos
96. The place where the writer grasps the
barrel of the pen and the angle at which he
holds it is called
A.Pen lift
B.Pen hold
C.Print script
D.Pren pressure

James P. Ramos
97. The element of the writing movement
which is marked by regular or periodic
recurrences. It may be classed as smooth,
intermittent, or jerky in its quality.
A.Shading
B.Simplification
C.Slope slant
D.Rhythm

James P. Ramos
97. The element of the writing movement
which is marked by regular or periodic
recurrences. It may be classed as smooth,
intermittent, or jerky in its quality.
A.Shading
B.Simplification
C.Slope slant
D.Rhythm

James P. Ramos
98. What do we call the series of lines or
curves written in a single letter; one of
the lines of an alphabet or series of lines
or curves within a single letter; the path
traced by the pen on the paper?
A.Pen lift
B.Slope
C.Delta
D.Stroke

James P. Ramos
98. What do we call the series of lines or
curves written in a single letter; one of
the lines of an alphabet or series of lines
or curves within a single letter; the path
traced by the pen on the paper?
A.Pen lift
B.Slope
C.Delta
D.Stroke

James P. Ramos
99. One is not a type of handwriting
"Standards"
A.Collected Standards
B.Requested standards
C.Post litem motan exemplars
D.All of these

James P. Ramos
99. One is not a type of handwriting
"Standards"
A.Collected Standards
B.Requested standards
C.Post litem motan exemplars
D.All of these

James P. Ramos
100. The act/process of making the content/s
of a document not the intended content.
A.falsification
B.counterfeiting
C.forgery
D.erasure

James P. Ramos
100. The act/process of making the content/s
of a document not the intended content.
A.falsification
B.counterfeiting
C.forgery
D.erasure

James P. Ramos
CRIMINALISTICS
(FORENSIC BALLISTICS)
Set 1
By
1. A smith and Wesson type of firearm has
a class characteristic of.
a. Four land, four grooves right twist
b. Even lands, seven grooves right twist
c. Six lands, six groove left twist
d. Five lands, five grooves right twist
1. A smith and Wesson type of firearm has
a class characteristic of.
a. Four land, four grooves right twist
b. Even lands, seven grooves right twist
c. Six lands, six groove left twist
d. Five lands, five grooves right twist
2. In the campaign against the fanatical
natives of the north-west frontier of India
at the close of the last century of English
Army, they invented a kind of bullet which
were called DUM-DUM or otherwise expanding
bullets, they are:
a. Boat tail bullet
b. Incendiary bullet
c. Soft point and hallow point bullet
d. Sharp pointed military bullet
2. In the campaign against the fanatical
natives of the north-west frontier of India
at the close of the last century of English
Army, they invented a kind of bullet which
were called DUM-DUM or otherwise expanding
bullets, they are:
a. Boat tail bullet
b. Incendiary bullet
c. Soft point and hallow point bullet
d. Sharp pointed military bullet
3. To impose a motion of rotation to
bullet during its passage inside the barrel
to insure gyroscopic stability in its
flight is called:
a. Range
b. Gauge
c. Riflings
d. Center fire
3. To impose a motion of rotation to
bullet during its passage inside the barrel
to insure gyroscopic stability in its
flight is called:
a. Range
b. Gauge
c. Riflings
d. Center fire
4. Most commonly these marks are found on
the bullet fired from revolver due to pour
alignment of cylinder with bore:
a. Shaving marks
b. Pivot marks
c. Skid marks
d. Land marks
4. Most commonly these marks are found on
the bullet fired from revolver due to pour
alignment of cylinder with bore:
a. Shaving marks
b. Pivot marks
c. Skid marks
d. Land marks
5. the inventor if gunpowder is credited to:
a. James Forsythe
b. Philip O. Gravelle
c. Van Amberg
d. Berthold Scwartz
5. the inventor if gunpowder is credited to:
a. James Forsythe
b. Philip O. Gravelle
c. Van Amberg
d. Berthold Scwartz
6. The equipment in Forensic Ballistics
that measure the pitch of rifling is:
a. Chronograph
b. Helixometer
c. Micrometer
d. Tape gauge
6. The equipment in Forensic Ballistics
that measure the pitch of rifling is:
a. Chronograph
b. Helixometer
c. Micrometer
d. Tape gauge
7. A magnified photograph of a small object
produced by connecting a camera with the
ocular of a compound microscope is:
a. Photomacrograph
b. Microphotograph
c. Photomicrograph
d. Photography
7. A magnified photograph of a small object
produced by connecting a camera with the
ocular of a compound microscope is:
a. Photomacrograph
b. Microphotograph
c. Photomicrograph
d. Photography
8. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in
which the lands have been drown out or
through a bore is slightly oversize or oily,
the mark is called:
a. Acid marks
b. Rifling marks
c. Shearing marks
d. Slippage marks
8. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in
which the lands have been drown out or
through a bore is slightly oversize or oily,
the mark is called:
a. Acid marks
b. Rifling marks
c. Shearing marks
d. Slippage marks
9. When two specimens are compared under
the comparison microscope at the same
direction, the same level, the same
magnification and the same image, they are
called:
a. Juxtaposition
b. Drag marks
c. Pseudomatch
d. Positively charge
9. When two specimens are compared under
the comparison microscope at the same
direction, the same level, the same
magnification and the same image, they are
called:
a. Juxtaposition
b. Drag marks
c. Pseudomatch
d. Positively charge
10. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent
diameter: when referring to decimal of an
inch.
a. .739’’
b. .729’’
c. .728’’
d. 726’’
10. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent
diameter: when referring to decimal of an
inch.
a. .739’’
b. .729’’
c. .728’’
d. 726’’
11. Rifling located inside the barrel of a
gun is a combination of:
a. Lands and grooves
b. Cannelures
c. Twist
d. Pitch
11. Rifling located inside the barrel of a
gun is a combination of:
a. Lands and grooves
b. Cannelures
c. Twist
d. Pitch
12. An investigator who recovered a fired
bullet from the crime scene will request
the ballistician to determine:
a. Owner of the firearm
b. Model of firearm
c. Calibre and type of the firearm
d. Manufacture
12. An investigator who recovered a fired
bullet from the crime scene will request
the ballistician to determine:
a. Owner of the firearm
b. Model of firearm
c. Calibre and type of the firearm
d. Manufacture
13. The marks left on a bullet by a gun
barrel are different from those left by any
other barrel. This fact is most useful in
directly identifying the:
a. Person who fired the particular gun
b. Direction from which a fire was fired
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
13. The marks left on a bullet by a gun
barrel are different from those left by any
other barrel. This fact is most useful in
directly identifying the:
a. Person who fired the particular gun
b. Direction from which a fire was fired
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
14. A law enforcement should fire his gun:
a. At no time
b. Only as a last resort
c. Primarily to stop quarrel
d. To impress upon citizen the need for
respect
14. A law enforcement should fire his gun:
a. At no time
b. Only as a last resort
c. Primarily to stop quarrel
d. To impress upon citizen the need for
respect
15. The term muzzle velocity refers
accurately to the;
a. Speed which the bullet leaves the
revolver
b. Rate expansion of the grooves in the
muzzle
c. Average speed of the bullet in flight
d. Acceleration of the projectile in
flight
15. The term muzzle velocity refers
accurately to the;
a. Speed which the bullet leaves the
revolver
b. Rate expansion of the grooves in the
muzzle
c. Average speed of the bullet in flight
d. Acceleration of the projectile in
flight
16. Riffling in the bore of small arms is
designed to;
a. Decrease the amount of recoil
b. Increase the speed of the bullet
c. Prevent the bullet from turning over in
the air
d. Mark the bullet for purpose of
identification
e. B and C
16. Riffling in the bore of small arms is
designed to;
a. Decrease the amount of recoil
b. Increase the speed of the bullet
c. Prevent the bullet from turning over in
the air
d. Mark the bullet for purpose of
identification
e. B and C
17. A homicide was by a shotgun, all parts
of he exploded shell have been recovered by
the investigator of a crime, in order to
identify the shell of the gun that fired,
the laboratory should be given;
a. The shot shell only
b. The cap and the wads.
c. The cap and the pellets
d. The caps the wads the pellets
17. A homicide was by a shotgun, all parts
of he exploded shell have been recovered by
the investigator of a crime, in order to
identify the shell of the gun that fired,
the laboratory should be given;
a. The shot shell only
b. The cap and the wads.
c. The cap and the pellets
d. The caps the wads the pellets
18. Paraffin test is used to;
a. Select whether a witness is telling the
truth
b. Discover whether the diseased person
was poisoned
c. Estimate the approximate time of death
of the diseased
d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a
gun recently
18. Paraffin test is used to;
a. Select whether a witness is telling the
truth
b. Discover whether the diseased person
was poisoned
c. Estimate the approximate time of death
of the diseased
d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a
gun recently
19. The pitch or rate of twisted in the
riffling of the pistol or riffled barrel is
called;
a. Land
b. Grooves
c. Lead
d. One complete turn of the bullet inside
the bore
19. The pitch or rate of twisted in the
riffling of the pistol or riffled barrel is
called;
a. Land
b. Grooves
c. Lead
d. One complete turn of the bullet inside
the bore
20. The maximum distance from the muzzle at
which a firearm discharge will usually
produce detectable powder pattern on a
target is about;
a. 6 to 10 inches
b. 6 to 10 feet
c. 1 to 10 yard
d. 6 to 10 meters’
20. The maximum distance from the muzzle at
which a firearm discharge will usually
produce detectable powder pattern on a
target is about;
a. 6 to 10 inches
b. 6 to 10 feet
c. 1 to 10 yard
d. 6 to 10 meters’
21. When automatic pistol was fired by a
criminal;
a. The sell is rarely found at the crime
scene
b. The cartridge case in most cases will
be found in the crime or (crime scene)
c. The empty shell remains within the
chamber
d. The cartridge case is usually dispose
by the perpetrator
21. When automatic pistol was fired by a
criminal;
a. The sell is rarely found at the crime
scene
b. The cartridge case in most cases will
be found in the crime or (crime scene)
c. The empty shell remains within the
chamber
d. The cartridge case is usually dispose
by the perpetrator
22. The term ‘’Magnum’’ originated in;
a. United states
b. France
c. England
d. Italy
22. The term ‘’Magnum’’ originated in;
a. United states
b. France
c. England
d. Italy
23. The chemical eating away of the bore of
an arm due to rusting or the action of
salts deposited from the cap of gun powder
is
a. Pressure
b. Extractor
c. Corrosion
d. Priming composition
23. The chemical eating away of the bore of
an arm due to rusting or the action of
salts deposited from the cap of gun powder
is
a. Pressure
b. Extractor
c. Corrosion
d. Priming composition
24. The chemical wear and tears of the bore
of an arm due to sliding friction when a
bullet passes through is;
a. Ejector
b. Single Action
c. Erosion
d. Potassium nitrate
24. The chemical wear and tears of the bore
of an arm due to sliding friction when a
bullet passes through is;
a. Ejector
b. Single Action
c. Erosion
d. Potassium nitrate
25. During the seven years of radical
agitation that followed the arrest of these
men, it was apparently forgotten that they
have been seized on specific charge of
murdering one parameter, a paymaster and his
guard Berardeli forensic ballistic sprange
into national prominence during this last
phase of;
a. Brownell Case
b. Sacco- Vanzetti Case
c. Weber case
d. Mitchell case
25. During the seven years of radical
agitation that followed the arrest of these
men, it was apparently forgotten that they
have been seized on specific charge of
murdering one parameter, a paymaster and his
guard Berardeli forensic ballistic sprange
into national prominence during this last
phase of;
a. Brownell Case
b. Sacco- Vanzetti Case
c. Weber case
d. Mitchell case
26. He is the doctor of Medicine in medical
corps in first word war who had translated
to the ordinance corps and consider the
father of modern ballistics
a. Maj. Calvin M. Goddard.
b. Lieutenat Van Amberg
c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman
d. Philip O. Gravelle
26. He is the doctor of Medicine in medical
corps in first word war who had translated
to the ordinance corps and consider the
father of modern ballistics
a. Maj. Calvin M. Goddard.
b. Lieutenat Van Amberg
c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman
d. Philip O. Gravelle
27. A knurled ring or serrated groove
around the body of the bullet which
contains lubricant in order to minimized
friction during the passage of the bullet
inside the bore is;
a. Cannelure
b. Plated bullet
c. Jacketed bullet
d. Wad cutter bullet
27. A knurled ring or serrated groove
around the body of the bullet which
contains lubricant in order to minimized
friction during the passage of the bullet
inside the bore is;
a. Cannelure
b. Plated bullet
c. Jacketed bullet
d. Wad cutter bullet
28. The bouncing off or deflect of bullet
its original trajectory is;
a. Range
b. Recoil
c. Key hole shot
d. Ricochet
28. The bouncing off or deflect of bullet
its original trajectory is;
a. Range
b. Recoil
c. Key hole shot
d. Ricochet
29. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode
on time or there is a delayed due to faulty
functioning of the primer or faulty ignition
of the propellant is.
a. Hang Fire
b. Misfire
c. Recoil
d. Velocity
29. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode
on time or there is a delayed due to faulty
functioning of the primer or faulty ignition
of the propellant is.
a. Hang Fire
b. Misfire
c. Recoil
d. Velocity
30. A type of weapon design to propel by
means of composed air is;
a. Spring Field
b. Marline riffle
c. Carbine
d. Air-Riffle
30. A type of weapon design to propel by
means of composed air is;
a. Spring Field
b. Marline riffle
c. Carbine
d. Air-Riffle
31. How many lead pellet does a 12 gauge
00 buckshot cartridge contains;
a. 12 Gauge
b. 24 Pellets
c. 6 Pellets
d. 9 Pellets
31. How many lead pellet does a 12 gauge
00 buckshot cartridge contains;
a. 12 Gauge
b. 24 Pellets
c. 6 Pellets
d. 9 Pellets
32. Here is a case, when to specimen
examined under the comparison microscope
and was erroneously drawn a conclusion and
actually no identify exist. This matching
is called;
a. Photomicropgraph
b. Striagraph
c. Pseusomatch
d. Microphotograph
32. Here is a case, when to specimen
examined under the comparison microscope
and was erroneously drawn a conclusion and
actually no identify exist. This matching
is called;
a. Photomicropgraph
b. Striagraph
c. Pseusomatch
d. Microphotograph
33. When the bullet enters the riffle bore
from a stationary position and is forced
and abruptly into the riffling its natural
tendency is to go straight forward before
encountering the regular rifling’s twist is
called;
a. Shaving Marks
b. Skid marks
c. Individual characteristics
d. Slippage marks
33. When the bullet enters the riffle bore
from a stationary position and is forced
and abruptly into the riffling its natural
tendency is to go straight forward before
encountering the regular rifling’s twist is
called;
a. Shaving Marks
b. Skid marks
c. Individual characteristics
d. Slippage marks
34. The steel block which closes the rear of
the bore against the force of the charge is;
a. Breechblock
b. Chamber
c. Bore
d. Breech-face
34. The steel block which closes the rear of
the bore against the force of the charge is;
a. Breechblock
b. Chamber
c. Bore
d. Breech-face
35. The type of bore found on sewed of
shotgun is usually a;
a. Rifled bore
b. Choke Bore
c. Full coke bore
d. Smooth bore
35. The type of bore found on sewed of
shotgun is usually a;
a. Rifled bore
b. Choke Bore
c. Full coke bore
d. Smooth bore
36. The science which deal with the motion
of projectiles and the condition governing
that motion:
a. Forensic Ballistic
b. Ballistic
c. Firearm Identification
d. Forensic
36. The science which deal with the motion
of projectiles and the condition governing
that motion:
a. Forensic Ballistic
b. Ballistic
c. Firearm Identification
d. Forensic
37. The science which deal the
identification of firearms through the
ammunition fired through the;
A. Forensic Ballistic
B. Ballistics
C. Firearm Identification
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. None of the above
37. The science which deal the
identification of firearms through the
ammunition fired through the;
A. Forensic Ballistic
B. Ballistics
C. Firearm Identification
D. A and B
E. A and C
F. None of the above
38. What are the three branches of
ballistic:
a. Forensic ballistics, Inferior
ballistics and exterior ballistics
b. Interior ballistics, Exterior
ballistics and terminal ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics, Terminal
ballistics and Forensic ballistics
d. Terminal Ballistics, forensic
ballistics and interior ballistics
38. What are the three branches of
ballistic:
a. Forensic ballistics, Inferior
ballistics and exterior ballistics
b. Interior ballistics, Exterior
ballistics and terminal ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics, Terminal
ballistics and Forensic ballistics
d. Terminal Ballistics, forensic
ballistics and interior ballistics
39. The science of a motion to projectile
while still inside the gun barrel
a. Interior ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics
c. Forensic ballistics
d. Terminal ballistics
39. The science of a motion to projectile
while still inside the gun barrel
d. Terminal ballistics
40. The science of motion of the projectile
after leaving the muzzle of the frearm;
d. Germinal ballistics
40. The science of motion of the projectile
after leaving the muzzle of the frearm;
d. Germinal ballistics
41. The study of the effect of the impact of
the bullet to the target;
d. terminal ballistics
41. The study of the effect of the impact of
the bullet to the target;
d. terminal ballistics
42. It is an instrument use for the
propulsion of projectile by means of the
expensive force of gases coming from the
burning gun powder;
a. Hand arms
b. Small arms
c. Ballien
d. Firearm
42. It is an instrument use for the
propulsion of projectile by means of the
expensive force of gases coming from the
burning gun powder;
a. Hand arms
b. Small arms
c. Ballien
d. Firearm
43. A complete unfired unit round
consisting a bullet, cartridge case, gun
powder and primer;
a. Ammunition
b. Cartridges
c. Cartridge
d. Short shell
43. A complete unfired unit round
consisting a bullet, cartridge case, gun
powder and primer;
a. Ammunition
b. Cartridges
c. Cartridge
d. Short shell
44. Where can you find the legal definition
of firearm and ammunition;
a. Chapter VII, Se. 290 of National
Internal Revenue code?
b. Sec. 877 Of the revised administrative
code
c. A And B
d. R.A 8264
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
44. Where can you find the legal definition
of firearm and ammunition;
a. Chapter VII, Se. 290 of National
Internal Revenue code?
b. Sec. 877 Of the revised administrative
code
c. A And B
d. R.A 8264
f. All of the above
45. A gigantic bow or catapult used to
throw missiles and large objects such as
stone to deter animals or enemy forces
a. Ballistics
b. Ballo
c. Ballien
d. Ballista
45. A gigantic bow or catapult used to
throw missiles and large objects such as
stone to deter animals or enemy forces
a. Ballistics
b. Ballo
c. Ballien
d. Ballista
46. A latin word which means market place
where people gather for public discussion
a. Ballien
b. Ballista
c. Forum
d. Cartouche
46. A latin word which means market place
where people gather for public discussion
a. Ballien
b. Ballista
c. Forum
d. Cartouche
47. A French word which means roll of
paper;
a. Charta
b. Charge
c. Cartouche
d. A and C
47. A French word which means roll of
paper;
a. Charta
b. Charge
c. Cartouche
d. A and C
48. The projectile propelled through the
barrel of a firearm by means of the
expansive force of gasses coming from
burning gunpowder;
a. Bullet
b. Slug
c. Shot
d. All f the above
e. None of the above’
48. The projectile propelled through the
barrel of a firearm by means of the
expansive force of gasses coming from
burning gunpowder;
a. Bullet
b. Slug
c. Shot
d. All f the above
e. None of the above’
49. The tubular metallic container for
gunpowder, primer and bullet
a. Shell
b. Slug
c. Cartridge case
d. All of the above
49. The tubular metallic container for
gunpowder, primer and bullet
a. Shell
b. Slug
c. Cartridge case
d. All of the above
50. The powder charge which when ignited by
the primer flash is converted to heated gas
under high pressure and propels the bullet
through the barrel and to the target
a. Primer
b. Chemical Mixture
c. Gunpowder
d. Priming Mixture
50. The powder charge which when ignited by
the primer flash is converted to heated gas
under high pressure and propels the bullet
through the barrel and to the target
a. Primer
b. Chemical Mixture
c. Gunpowder
d. Priming Mixture
51. Another term for gun powder.
a. Propellant powder
b. Chemical mixture
c. Powder charge
d. A and c
51. Another term for gun powder.
a. Propellant powder
b. Chemical mixture
c. Powder charge
d. A and c
52. The metal cup containing the highly
sensitive priming mixture of chemical
compound which when hit or struck by the
firing pin would ignite.
a. Explosion
b. Primer
c. Gunpowder
d. Cartridge case
52. The metal cup containing the highly
sensitive priming mixture of chemical
compound which when hit or struck by the
firing pin would ignite.
a. Explosion
b. Primer
c. Gunpowder
d. Cartridge case
53. what do you call the action involve in
the ignition of the priming mixture when
struck by the firing pin?
a. Explosion
b. Detonation
c. Percussion
d. None of the above
53. what do you call the action involve in
the ignition of the priming mixture when
struck by the firing pin?
a. Explosion
b. Detonation
c. Percussion
54. A kind of firearm that contain rifling
inside the gun barrel.
a. Rifling
b. Rifled bore firearm
c. Smooth bore firearm
d. Rifle
54. A kind of firearm that contain rifling
inside the gun barrel.
a. Rifling
b. Rifled bore firearm
d. Rifle
55. A firearm that propel projectiles more
than one inch in diameter.
a. Artillery
b. Small arms
c. Machine gun
d. Shoulder arm
55. A firearm that propel projectiles more
than one inch in diameter.
a. Artillery
b. Small arms
c. Machine gun
d. Shoulder arm
56. It’s a mixture of substances which upon
suitable ignition releases a large amount
of chemical energy at high and controllable
rate.
a. Priming mixture
b. Primer
c. Gunpowder
d. Chemical mixture
56. It’s a mixture of substances which upon
suitable ignition releases a large amount
of chemical energy at high and controllable
rate.
a. Priming mixture
b. Primer
c. Gunpowder
d. Chemical mixture
57. A firearm that has no rifling, from the
breech end to the muzzle end of the gun
barrel.
a. Shoulder arm
b. Rifled
d. Rifled bore firearm
57. A firearm that has no rifling, from the
breech end to the muzzle end of the gun
barrel.
a. Shoulder arm
b. Rifled
d. Rifled bore firearm
58. Small arm is a type of firearm that
propel projectiles.
a. More than one inch in diameter
b. Less than one inch in diameter
c. One inch in diameter
58. Small arm is a type of firearm that
propel projectiles.
a. More than one inch in diameter
b. Less than one inch in diameter
c. One inch in diameter
59. These firearms that are designed or
intended to fired using one hand.
a. Hand arms
b. Shoulder arms
c. Machine gun
d. Small arms
59. These firearms that are designed or
intended to fired using one hand.
a. Hand arms
b. Shoulder arms
c. Machine gun
d. Small arms
60. These are firearms that are normally
fired from the shoulder.
a. Hand arms
b. Shoulder arm
c. Machinegun
d. Small arms
60. These are firearms that are normally
fired from the shoulder.
a. Hand arms
b. Shoulder arm
c. Machinegun
d. Small arms
61. A type of firearm which fires or is
design to fire automatically or semi-
automatic, more than one shot without
manual reloading by a single press of the
finger.
a. Handgun
b. Semi-automatic pistol
c. Pistol
d. Machine gun
61. A type of firearm which fires or is
design to fire automatically or semi-
automatic, more than one shot without
manual reloading by a single press of the
finger.
a. Handgun
b. Semi-automatic pistol
c. Pistol
d. Machine gun
62. its mechanical operation of firearm
where the hummer must be manually cocked
before firing, the trigger performs single
function of releasing the hummer to fire
the gun.
a. Single action
b. Double action
c. Single action semi-automatic
d. A and c
62. its mechanical operation of firearm
where the hummer must be manually cocked
before firing, the trigger performs single
function of releasing the hummer to fire
the gun.
a. Single action
b. Double action
d. A and c
63. A firearm that can be fired without
first cocking the hummer, the trigger
performs two function of cocking and
releasing the hummer.
a. Single action
b. Double action
d. Automatic
63. A firearm that can be fired without
first cocking the hummer, the trigger
performs two function of cocking and
releasing the hummer.
a. Single action
b. Double action
d. Automatic
64. An automatic or semi-automatic firearm
with a locked breech that uses a small
amount of the expanding gasses created by
the burning powder charge to cycle the
action.
a. Gas operated
b. Recoil operated
c. Blowback
64. An automatic or semi-automatic firearm
with a locked breech that uses a small
amount of the expanding gasses created by
the burning powder charge to cycle the
action.
a. Gas operated
b. Recoil operated
c. Blowback
65. A semi-automatic or automatic system
which the breech is not locked during
firing but held closed only by the recoil
spring and the weight of the bolt.
a. Gas operated
b. Recoil operated
c. Blowback
65. A semi-automatic or automatic system
which the breech is not locked during
firing but held closed only by the recoil
spring and the weight of the bolt.
a. Gas operated
b. Recoil operated
c. Blowback
66. A locked breech semi-automatic or
automatic system firearms using a portion
of the recoil energy to cycle the action.
a. Gas operated
b. Recoil operated
c. Blowback
66. A locked breech semi-automatic or
automatic system firearms using a portion
of the recoil energy to cycle the action.
a. Gas operated
b. Recoil operated
c. Blowback
67. Technically, a firearm that chambers
and fires rounds continuously as its
trigger is held down.
a. Machine pistol
b. Machine gun
c. Automatic
d. Semi-automatic
67. Technically, a firearm that chambers
and fires rounds continuously as its
trigger is held down.
a. Machine pistol
b. Machine gun
c. Automatic
d. Semi-automatic
68. A repeating firearm that uses some of
the energy generated upon firing to eject
the empty shell and chamber a fresh round.
Only one shot is fired each time the
trigger is pulled may also be called self-
loaders or auto loaders.
a. Machine pistol
b. Machine gun
c. Automatic
d. Semi-automatic
68. A repeating firearm that uses some of
the energy generated upon firing to eject
the empty shell and chamber a fresh round.
Only one shot is fired each time the
trigger is pulled may also be called self-
loaders or auto loaders.
a. Machine pistol
b. Machine gun
c. Automatic
d. Semi-automatic
69. Any weapon designed or intended to be
operated from the shoulder and uses the
energy of the explosive in a fixed metallic
cartridge to fire only a single projectile
through a rifled bore for each of the
trigger. It is designed for target at a
longer distance.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Carbine
d. Shotgun no longer than22 inches, it
fires What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
69. Any weapon designed or intended to be
operated from the shoulder and uses the
energy of the explosive in a fixed metallic
cartridge to fire only a single projectile
through a rifled bore for each of the
trigger. It is designed for target at a
longer distance.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Carbine
d. Shotgun no longer than22 inches, it
fires What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
70. An ancient smooth bore and muzzle
loading military shoulder arm designed to
fire a single round lead ball.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Carbine
d. Shotgun
70. An ancient smooth bore and muzzle
loading military shoulder arm designed to
fire a single round lead ball.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Carbine
d. Shotgun
71. A short barrel rifle with its barrel
measuring not longer than 22 inches. It
fires a single projectile through a rifled-
bore, either semi-automatic or full
automatic, for every press of the trigger.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Carbine
d. Shotgun
71. A short barrel rifle with its barrel
measuring not longer than 22 inches. It
fires a single projectile through a rifled-
bore, either semi-automatic or full
automatic, for every press of the trigger.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Carbine
d. Shotgun
72. A smooth bore and breech loading
shoulder arm designed to fire a number of
lead pellets or shot in one charge.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Carbine
d. Shotgun
72. A smooth bore and breech loading
shoulder arm designed to fire a number of
lead pellets or shot in one charge.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Carbine
d. Shotgun
73. A short barrel hand arm designed to
fire a single projectile through a rifled
bore for every press of the trigger.
a. Cal. 38
b. Cal. 45
c. Revolver
d. Pistol
73. A short barrel hand arm designed to
fire a single projectile through a rifled
bore for every press of the trigger.
a. Cal. 38
b. Cal. 45
c. Revolver
d. Pistol
74. A hand firearm equipped with rotating
cylinder serving as magazine, successively
places a cartridge into position for
firing.
a. Cal. 38
b. Cal. 45
c. Revolver
d. Pistol
74. A hand firearm equipped with rotating
cylinder serving as magazine, successively
places a cartridge into position for
firing.
a. Cal. 38
b. Cal. 45
c. Revolver
d. Pistol
75. The three main component of pistol.
a. Frame, barrel, slide
b. Frame, barrel, cylinder
c. Frame, barrel, magazine
d. Frame, barrel, bolt
75. The three main component of pistol.
76. The three component of rifle.
76. The three component of rifle.
77. The three main component of revolver.
77. The three main component of revolver.
78. It is part of the barrel where the
bullets exits.
a. Muzzle
b. Breech end
c. Bore
d. Muzzle end
78. It is part of the barrel where the
bullets exits.
a. Muzzle
b. Breech end
c. Bore
d. Muzzle end
79. It is the rear end of the bore of
afire arm where the cartridge is seated.
a. Muzzle
b. Breech end
c. Bore
d. Muzzle end
79. It is the rear end of the bore of
afire arm where the cartridge is seated.
a. Muzzle
b. Breech end
c. Bore
d. Muzzle end
80. The first type of cartridge, commonly
attributed to Monsieur Le Fracheux of
Paris and no longer used.
a. Pin-fire cartridge
b. Rim-fire cartridge
c. Center-fire cartridge
80. The first type of cartridge, commonly
attributed to Monsieur Le Fracheux of
Paris and no longer used.
81. In this type of cartridge, priming
mixture is contained or located in a
cavity inside and around the rim of the
cartridge which is a very sensitive area.
81. In this type of cartridge, priming
mixture is contained or located in a
cavity inside and around the rim of the
cartridge which is a very sensitive area.
82. The priming mixture is contained in the
primer cup which is located on the central
rea of the base of the cartridge.
82. The priming mixture is contained in the
primer cup which is located on the central
rea of the base of the cartridge.
83. The two kinds of bullet according to
mechanical construction.
a. Lead bullet and ball
b. Lead bullet and jacketed bullet
c. Ball bullet and jacketed bullets
83. The two kinds of bullet according to
mechanical construction.
a. Lead bullet and ball
b. Lead bullet and jacketed bullet
c. Ball bullet and jacketed bullets
84. Bullet that are made of lead alloys of
this metal; lead, tin and antimony, which
is slightly harder than pure lead.
a. Lead bullets
b. Ball bullets
c. Jacketed bullets
d. Soft point bullets
84. Bullet that are made of lead alloys of
this metal; lead, tin and antimony, which
is slightly harder than pure lead.
a. Lead bullets
b. Ball bullets
c. Jacketed bullets
d. Soft point bullets
85. Bullets that made of a core of lead
covered by a jacket of harder material such
as gliding metal.
a. Lead bullets
b. Ball bullets
c. Jacketed bullets
d. Soft bullets
85. Bullets that made of a core of lead
covered by a jacket of harder material such
as gliding metal.
a. Lead bullets
b. Ball bullets
c. Jacketed bullets
d. Soft bullets
86. Those bullets that have soft cores
inside a jacketed and use against personnel
only.
a. Lead bullets
b. Ball bullets
c. Jacketed bullets
d. Soft bullets
86. Those bullets that have soft cores
inside a jacketed and use against personnel
only.
a. Lead bullets
b. Ball bullets
c. Jacketed bullets
d. Soft bullets
87. Bullets have hardened steel cores and
are fired at vehicles and other armored
targets in general.
a. Jacketed bullets
b. Armor piercing bullets
c. Tracer bullets
d. Incendiary bullets
87. Bullets have hardened steel cores and
are fired at vehicles and other armored
targets in general.
a. Jacketed bullets
b. Armor piercing bullets
c. Tracer bullets
d. Incendiary bullets
88. A bullets that contains a compound at
the base usually similar to barium nitrates
which is set on fire when the bullet is
projected. The flash of smoke from this
burning permits the flight of the bullet to
be seen.
a. Armor piercing bullet
b. Explosive bullet
c. Tracer bullet
d. Incendiary bullet
88. A bullets that contains a compound at
the base usually similar to barium nitrates
which is set on fire when the bullet is
projected. The flash of smoke from this
burning permits the flight of the bullet to
be seen.
b. Explosive bullet
c. Tracer bullet
89. A type of bullet that contain a mixture,
such as phosphorus, that can be set on fire
by impact are used on targets that will
readily burn.
b. Explosive bullet
c. Tracer bullet
89. A type of bullet that contain a mixture,
such as phosphorus, that can be set on fire
by impact are used on targets that will
readily burn.
b. Explosive bullet
c. Tracer bullet
90. Kind of bullet that contain a high
charge of explosive. The use of this bullet
is usually limited to 20 mm and above.
b. Explosive bullet
c. Tracer bullet
90. Kind of bullet that contain a high
charge of explosive. The use of this bullet
is usually limited to 20 mm and above.
b. Explosive bullet
c. Tracer bullet
91. A cartridge that has a flange/rim at
the base which is larger than the diameter
of the body of the cartridge.
a. Rimmed
b. Semi-rimmed
c. Rebated
d. Rimless
91. A cartridge that has a flange/rim at
the base which is larger than the diameter
of the body of the cartridge.
a. Rimmed
b. Semi-rimmed
c. Rebated
d. Rimless
92. The diameter of the rim is the same as
the case body.
a. Rimmed
b. Semi-rimmed
c. Rimless
d. Belted
92. The diameter of the rim is the same as
the case body.
a. Rimmed
b. Semi-rimmed
c. Rimless
d. Belted
93. The cartridge ha an extractor flange
which is less than the diameter of the
cartridge body.
a. Semi-rimmed
b. Rimless
c. Rebated
d. Belted
93. The cartridge ha an extractor flange
which is less than the diameter of the
cartridge body.
a. Semi-rimmed
b. Rimless
c. Rebated
d. Belted
94. The diameter of the rim is slightly
larger than the diameter of the case body.
a. Semi-rimmed
b. Rimless
c. Rebated
d. Belted
94. The diameter of the rim is slightly
larger than the diameter of the case body.
a. Semi-rimmed
b. Rimless
c. Rebated
d. Belted
95. It has a pronounced raised belt
encircling the base of the cartridge, the
belt is for additional strength in high
pressure cartridge.
a. Semi-rimmed
b. Rimless
c. Rebated
d. Belted
95. It has a pronounced raised belt
encircling the base of the cartridge, the
belt is for additional strength in high
pressure cartridge.
a. Semi-rimmed
b. Rimless
c. Rebated
d. Belted
96. A type of cartridge case has a wide
where the case diameter is approximately
the same long its length.
a. Straight cased
b. Bottle-necked
c. Tapered case
d. Rimless
96. A type of cartridge case has a wide
where the case diameter is approximately
the same long its length.
a. Straight cased
b. Bottle-necked
c. Tapered case
d. Rimless
97. The cartridge case has a wide body and
is reduced just before the case mouth to
accommodate the bullet.
a. Straight case
b. Bottled-necked
c. Tapered case
d. Belted
97. The cartridge case has a wide body and
is reduced just before the case mouth to
accommodate the bullet.
a. Straight case
b. Bottled-necked
c. Tapered case
d. Belted
98. The wide base cartridge case is
gradually reduced in diameter along its
length.
a. Straight case
b. Bottle-necked
c. Tapered case
d. Belted
98. The wide base cartridge case is
gradually reduced in diameter along its
length.
a. Straight case
b. Bottle-necked
c. Tapered case
d. Belted
99. Classification of cartridge according
to shape.
a. Straight, tapered and bottle-necked
b. Bottle necked, tapered and belted
c. Rimmed, semi-rimmed, rimless and
rebated
d. Rimmed, semi-rimmed, rimless, rebated
and belted
99. Classification of cartridge according
to shape.
b. Bottle necked, tapered and belted
c. Rimmed, semi-rimmed, rimless and
rebated
and belted
100. Kinds of cartridge case according to
the configuration of its base.
b. Bottlenecked, tapered and belted
c. Rimmed, semi-rimmed, rimless and rebated
and belted
100. Kinds of cartridge case according to
the configuration of its base.
b. Bottlenecked, tapered and belted
c. Rimmed, semi-rimmed, rimless and rebated
and belted
Polygraph Examination
(Lie Detection Examination)
SET 1
By
1. These are questions, which have no
bearing to the case under investigation.
a. Control
b. Relevant
c. Irrelevant
d. Supplementary
1. These are questions, which have no
bearing to the case under investigation.
a. Control
b. Relevant
c. Irrelevant
d. Supplementary
2. An Austrian known as the Father of
Criminalistics defined search for truth
as the basis and goal of all criminal
investigations.
a. Dr. Hans Gross
b. Angelo Mosso
c. William Marston
d. Cesare Lombroso
2. An Austrian known as the Father of
Criminalistics defined search for truth
as the basis and goal of all criminal
investigations.
a. Dr. Hans Gross
b. Angelo Mosso
c. William Marston
d. Cesare Lombroso
3. It is a scientific police method in the
detection of crime, therefore, not a part
of criminalistics, but rather a kind of
instrumentation in the detection of crime.
a. Photography
b. Forensic chemistry
c. Polygraphy or lie detection
d. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
3. It is a scientific police method in the
detection of crime, therefore, not a part
of criminalistics, but rather a kind of
instrumentation in the detection of crime.
a. Photography
b. Forensic chemistry
c. Polygraphy or lie detection
d. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
4. What is the basis of the polygraph
theory that when an examinee is lying
he/she will react physiologically to the
questions during the test?
a. Fear of the unknown
b. Fear of deception
c. Fear of being untruthful
d. Fear of detection
4. What is the basis of the polygraph
theory that when an examinee is lying
he/she will react physiologically to the
questions during the test?
a. Fear of the unknown
b. Fear of deception
c. Fear of being untruthful
d. Fear of detection
5. In the etymology of polygraph, poly
means ___________ and graph also means
writings.
a. multi
b. many
c. anti
d. lie
e. detect
5. In the etymology of polygraph, poly
means ___________ and graph also means
writings.
a. multi
b. many
c. anti
d. lie
e. detect
6. Polygraph records the _______ changes
of a normal person whenever he is
consciously telling a lie.
a. psychological
b. physiological
c. physical
d. personal
e. hormonal
6. Polygraph records the _______ changes
of a normal person whenever he is
consciously telling a lie.
a. psychological
b. physiological
c. physical
d. personal
e. hormonal
7. Lando was sent to Sagang in 2012 so that
he will undergo an extensive training in
polygraphy. After one year, he was able to
complete the said training with excellent
performance. In the parlance of law
enforcement, Baldo is therefore considered
as;
a. polygraphist
b. polygraph examiner
c. forensic psychophysiologist
d. all of these
e. none of these
7. Lando was sent to Sagang in 2012 so that
he will undergo an extensive training in
polygraphy. After one year, he was able to
complete the said training with excellent
performance. In the parlance of law
enforcement, Baldo is therefore considered
as;
a. polygraphist
b. polygraph examiner
c. forensic psychophysiologist
d. all of these
e. none of these
8. It refers to the quality of
interrogation or polygraphy room
characterized by its capability to resist
or minimize penetration of sounds inward
and outward.
a. one-way mirror
b. sound-proof
c. minimal furniture
d. simple
e. all of these
8. It refers to the quality of
interrogation or polygraphy room
characterized by its capability to resist
or minimize penetration of sounds inward
and outward.
a. one-way mirror
b. sound-proof
c. minimal furniture
d. simple
e. all of these
9. All of our involuntary reflexes such as
our heart beat, pulse rate, increase and
decrease in blood pressure and the
expansion and constriction of arteries are
governed by what?.
a. Automatic NS
b. Central NS
c. Respiratory System
d. Middle NS
e. none of these
9. All of our involuntary reflexes such as
our heart beat, pulse rate, increase and
decrease in blood pressure and the
expansion and constriction of arteries are
governed by what?.
a. Automatic NS
b. Central NS
c. Respiratory System
d. Middle NS
e. none of these (note: Autonomic Nervous
system) What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos
10. Is polygraph examination result
admissible in court as evidence?
a. yes, if allowed by the judge
b. yes, if both parties and their
counsels agree
c. absolutely no because its accuracy is
questionable
d. all of these
e. both A and B
10. Is polygraph examination result
admissible in court as evidence?
a. yes, if allowed by the judge
b. yes, if both parties and their
counsels agree
c. absolutely no because its accuracy is
questionable
d. all of these
e. both A and B
11. Which of the following statement is
true?
a. The purpose of polygraph examination
is to seek conviction
b. Polygraph is considered as an
investigative aid in the investigation
process
c. Polygraphy can be a substitute for
investigation
d. all of the above
11. Which of the following statement is
true?
a. The purpose of polygraph examination
is to seek conviction
b. Polygraph is considered as an
investigative aid in the investigation
process
c. Polygraphy can be a substitute for
investigation
d. all of the above
12. A component of cardiosphymograph
attached or placed on the right arm of the
subject in such a way that the rubber
bladder part should be located over the
brachial artery pertains to;
a. blood pressure cuff
b. sphygmomanometer
c. cardiograph
d. sphymograph
12. A component of cardiosphymograph
attached or placed on the right arm of the
subject in such a way that the rubber
bladder part should be located over the
brachial artery pertains to;
a. blood pressure cuff
b. sphygmomanometer
c. cardiograph
d. sphymograph
13. It is a division of ANS whose function
is to calm the body, bringing functions
back to normal after an emergency has
passed.
a. sympathetic
b. Parasympathetic
c. homeostasis division
d. equilibrium division
13. It is a division of ANS whose function
is to calm the body, bringing functions
back to normal after an emergency has
passed.
a. sympathetic
b. Parasympathetic
c. homeostasis division
d. equilibrium division
14. Blushing of the subject and his failure
to look at the investigator straightly eye-
to-eye during the interview are indications
of lying or deception while direct denial
of facts is what type of lie?
a. True
b. false
c. lie of omission
d. direct denial
14. Blushing of the subject and his failure
to look at the investigator straightly eye-
to-eye during the interview are indications
of lying or deception while direct denial
of facts is what type of lie?
a. True
b. false
c. lie of omission
d. direct denial
15. What is the length of corrugated
rubber tube which is the transducer of
pneumograph?
a. 6-7 inches
b. 7-8 inches
c. 5-6 inches
d. 8-9 inches
15. What is the length of corrugated
rubber tube which is the transducer of
pneumograph?
a. 6-7 inches
b. 7-8 inches
c. 5-6 inches
d. 8-9 inches
16. Mr. X, a mentally deranged person said
that he saw Y committing the act of
bestiality against the pet of R. This
statement given by X is absolutely out of
truthfulness due to the millions of facts
contradicting it. Therefore, Mr. X can be
considered as________.
a. pathological lier
b. black liar
c. tournament liar
d. panic liar
16. Mr. X, a mentally deranged person said
that he saw Y committing the act of
bestiality against the pet of R. This
statement given by X is absolutely out of
truthfulness due to the millions of facts
contradicting it. Therefore, Mr. X can be
considered as________.
a. pathological lier
b. black liar
c. tournament liar
d. panic liar
17. Many authors believed that the
following are physical symptoms of lying
except one, which is it?
a. Excessive sweating
b. elongation of the nose
c. Rapid breathing
d. Fidgeting
e. none of these
17. Many authors believed that the
following are physical symptoms of lying
except one, which is it?
a. Excessive sweating
b. elongation of the nose
c. Rapid breathing
d. Fidgeting
e. none of these
18. Mr. A actually saw X boxing, kicking,
and stoning Y. He also saw that X stabbed Y
five times that resulted to his death.
However, when Mr. A was interviewed, he
only stated that X stabbed Y to death
without mentioning those specific acts. Mr.
A told what type of lie?
a. Lie of minimization
b. lie of fabrication
c. lie of omission
d. direct denial
18. Mr. A actually saw X boxing, kicking,
and stoning Y. He also saw that X stabbed Y
five times that resulted to his death.
However, when Mr. A was interviewed, he
only stated that X stabbed Y to death
without mentioning those specific acts. Mr.
A told what type of lie?
a. Lie of minimization
b. lie of fabrication
c. lie of omission
d. direct denial
19. Perjury is usually committed in order
to mislead justice. This is what type of
lie?
a. black lie
b. malicious lie
c. benign lie
d. lie of fabrication
e. red lie
19. Perjury is usually committed in order
to mislead justice. This is what type of
lie?
a. black lie
b. malicious lie
c. benign lie
d. lie of fabrication
e. red lie
20. Who introduced hypnosis or hypnotism?
a. Franz Anton Mesmer
b. Francis Galton
c. John Larson
d. Leonard Keeler
20. Who introduced hypnosis or hypnotism?
a. Franz Anton Mesmer
b. Francis Galton
c. John Larson
d. Leonard Keeler
21. In the WAT, the rate of subject’s
response or answer to relevant questions
is;
a. quick
b. delayed
c. fast
d. very slow
e. any of these
21. In the WAT, the rate of subject’s
response or answer to relevant questions
is;
a. quick
b. delayed
c. fast
d. very slow
e. any of these
22. The following may not be subjected for
polygraph examination EXCEPT;
a. Person who has extreme nervousness
b. Person who has physiological
abnormalities
c. Person who is in the stage of sanity
d. Unresponsive person
22. The following may not be subjected for
polygraph examination EXCEPT;
a. Person who has extreme nervousness
b. Person who has physiological
abnormalities
c. Person who is in the stage of sanity
d. Unresponsive person
23. Digong, the offended party, filed a
case of murder against Hulk Hogan. For
the purpose of polygraph examination, in
this case, Juterte is considered as;
a. suspect
b. complaint
c. complainant
d. none of these
23. Digong, the offended party, filed a
case of murder against Hulk Hogan. For
the purpose of polygraph examination, in
this case, Juterte is considered as;
a. suspect
b. complaint
c. complainant
d. none of these
24. If the polygraph result is offered as
evidence in court, the opposing party can
cross examine the following except;
a. qualification of the expert
b. stipulations under which the test was
conducted
c. restrictions and possibilities of
errors of the techniques
d. none of these
24. If the polygraph result is offered as
evidence in court, the opposing party can
cross examine the following except;
a. qualification of the expert
b. stipulations under which the test was
conducted
c. restrictions and possibilities of
errors of the techniques
d. none of these
25. The word ordeal derived from the
Latin words judicium dei and dei indicum
in which the former means____.
a. judgment of God
b. miraculous decision
c. judgment day
d. decision of the miracles
25. The word ordeal derived from the
Latin words judicium dei and dei indicum
in which the former means____.
a. judgment of God
b. miraculous decision
c. judgment day
d. decision of the miracles
26. Who is the first person who started
to develop a polygraph apparatus used in
detecting deception?
a. John Larson
b. Cleve Backster
c. Leonarde Keeler
d. William Marston
26. Who is the first person who started
to develop a polygraph apparatus used in
detecting deception?
a. John Larson
b. Cleve Backster
c. Leonarde Keeler
d. William Marston
27. He is considered as the father of
modern polygraphy?
a. John Larson
b. Cleve Backster
c. Leonarde Keeler
d. William Marston
27. He is considered as the father of
modern polygraphy?
a. John Larson
b. Cleve Backster
c. Leonarde Keeler
d. William Marston
28. The component of polygraph intrument
which is not attached to a subject’s
body during the test is ______.
a. Cardiosphymograph
b. Kymograph
c. Pneumograph
d. none
28. The component of polygraph intrument
which is not attached to a subject’s
body during the test is ______.
a. Cardiosphymograph
b. Kymograph
c. Pneumograph
d. none
29. Which of the following is the
transducer for galvanograph?
a. corrugated rubber tube
b. blood pressure cuff
c. finger electrodes
d. brachial artery
e. chart mover
29. Which of the following is the
transducer for galvanograph?
a. corrugated rubber tube
b. blood pressure cuff
c. finger electrodes
d. brachial artery
e. chart mover
30. This takes the form of specific
responses indicative of deception, such as
increase or decrease of blood pressure,
increase or decrease of pulse beat, etc.
a. Galvanograph
b. Cardiospygmograph
c. Pneumograph
d. All of these
30. This takes the form of specific
responses indicative of deception, such as
increase or decrease of blood pressure,
increase or decrease of pulse beat, etc.
a. Galvanograph
b. Cardiospygmograph
c. Pneumograph
d. All of these
31. What is the term used on a chart
tracing different from the physiological
norm of the subject, which may be either
caused by deception or other causes?
a. specific response
b. normal response
c. physiological response
d. general response
31. What is the term used on a chart
tracing different from the physiological
norm of the subject, which may be either
caused by deception or other causes?
a. specific response
b. normal response
c. physiological response
d. general response
32. Who is the first person to use the
term “psychogalvanic skin reflex” in his
study on the skin resistance of the
examinee? He further believed that the
electrical phenomenon is due to the
activity of the sweat gland.
a. Sticker
b. Galvani
c. Veraguth
d. Benussi
32. Who is the first person to use the
term “psychogalvanic skin reflex” in his
study on the skin resistance of the
examinee? He further believed that the
electrical phenomenon is due to the
activity of the sweat gland.
a. Sticker
b. Galvani
c. Veraguth
d. Benussi
33. The questions during the actual test
or instrumentation process are objective
such that they are answerable by ________.
a. yes or no only
b. true or false only
c. short explanations
d. silence and oral
e. narrative answers
33. The questions during the actual test
or instrumentation process are objective
such that they are answerable by ________.
a. yes or no only
b. true or false only
c. short explanations
d. silence and oral
e. narrative answers
34. Which phase of the test procedure in
polygraph where the subject is appraised
of his rights?
a. Interview with the investigator of
the case.
b. Pre-test interview.
c. The conduct of instrumentation.
d. Post Test or Interrogation
polygraph where the subject is appraised
of his rights?
a. Interview with the investigator of
the case.
b. Pre-test interview.
c. The conduct of instrumentation.
d. Post Test or Interrogation
35. It pertains to a nature of test
questions that is designed and constructed
to test for direct involvement only.
a. Strong relevant
b. Weak relevant
c. Irrelevant
d. Control question
35. It pertains to a nature of test
questions that is designed and constructed
to test for direct involvement only.
a. Strong relevant
b. Weak relevant
c. Irrelevant
d. Control question
36. In the crime of theft of wristwatch
against Hazel last night, what is this type
of question during polygraph test? “Were
you in the vicinity of Hazel’s house
between 7:00-9:00 last night?”
a. Strong relevant
b. Weak relevant
c. Irrelevant
d. Control question
36. In the crime of theft of wristwatch
against Hazel last night, what is this type
of question during polygraph test? “Were
you in the vicinity of Hazel’s house
between 7:00-9:00 last night?”
a. Strong relevant
b. Weak relevant
c. Irrelevant
d. Control question
37. Which fingers do you attached the
finger electode?
a. thumb and index
b. index and ring
c. index and middle
d. middle and ring
37. Which fingers do you attached the
finger electode?
a. thumb and index
b. index and ring
c. index and middle
d. middle and ring
38. This supplementary test consists of a
test concerning fabricated incident of a
similar nature but one which appears to
be real in so far as the subject is
concerned.
a. Guilt complex test
b. Peak of tension
c. Control questions
d. Knowledge Test
38. This supplementary test consists of a
test concerning fabricated incident of a
similar nature but one which appears to
be real in so far as the subject is
concerned.
a. Guilt complex test
b. Peak of tension
c. Control questions
d. Knowledge Test
39. The assumption of relevant-irrelevant
test is that a ________ will be more
aroused by relevant questions than
irrelevant ones, while an ________ person
will show no difference
a. deceptive-innocent
b. honest-innocent
c. honest-deceptive
d. liar-deceptive
39. The assumption of relevant-irrelevant
test is that a ________ will be more
aroused by relevant questions than
irrelevant ones, while an ________ person
will show no difference
a. deceptive-innocent
b. honest-innocent
c. honest-deceptive
d. liar-deceptive
40. According to Keeler’s searching peak
of tension test, it assumes that a guilty
person will react ___ when the correct
alternative is chosen
a. least
b. normally
c. strongest
d. variedly
40. According to Keeler’s searching peak
of tension test, it assumes that a guilty
person will react ___ when the correct
alternative is chosen
a. least
b. normally
c. strongest
d. variedly
41. It is a phase of polygraph test that
covers the time that the polygraph machine
is attached to the subject until it is
being turned off.
a. Pre-test
b. Actual test
c. Instrumentation stage
d. B or C
41. It is a phase of polygraph test that
covers the time that the polygraph machine
is attached to the subject until it is
being turned off.
a. Pre-test
b. Actual test
c. Instrumentation stage
d. B or C
42. What type of question is asked during
the test that deals with a known fact,
which the subject cannot lie?
a. Knowledge question
b. irrelevant question
c. Control question
d. Relevant question
42. What type of question is asked during
the test that deals with a known fact,
which the subject cannot lie?
a. Knowledge question
b. irrelevant question
c. Control question
d. Relevant question
43. What component of the polygraph drives
the chart paper during the test?
a. Galvanograph
b. Kymograph
c. Pneumograph
d. Cardiograph
43. What component of the polygraph drives
the chart paper during the test?
a. Galvanograph
b. Kymograph
c. Pneumograph
d. Cardiograph
44. It refers to the complete record of
the pneumograph, cardiograph and
galvanograph tracings from the moment the
actual questioning of the subject starts
until it ends.
a. polygraph chart
b. Polygram
c. instrumentation marks
d. A and B
44. It refers to the complete record of
the pneumograph, cardiograph and
galvanograph tracings from the moment the
actual questioning of the subject starts
until it ends.
a. polygraph chart
b. Polygram
c. instrumentation marks
d. A and B
45. The examiner shows the recorded
result to the subject with a brief
explanation as to the significance of the
recorded reactions. This is done during
______.
a. chart interpretation
b. chart marking
c. chart probing
d. chart investigation
45. The examiner shows the recorded
result to the subject with a brief
explanation as to the significance of the
recorded reactions. This is done during
______.
a. chart interpretation
b. chart marking
c. chart probing
d. chart investigation
46. Which among the following choices is
NOT a characteristic of a polygraph
examination room?
a. sound proof
b. firewall
c. one-way mirror
d. none of these
46. Which among the following choices is
NOT a characteristic of a polygraph
examination room?
a. sound proof
b. firewall
c. one-way mirror
d. none of these
47. “Any change from normal requires an
explanation.” This statement is the
cardinal rule in chart _______.
a. interpretation
b. probing
c. marking
d. tracings
47. “Any change from normal requires an
explanation.” This statement is the
cardinal rule in chart _______.
a. interpretation
b. probing
c. marking
d. tracings
48. It is an act or practice of
misleading somebody usually accompanied
by lying making them believe what is not
true
a. Lying
b. Deception
c. Reaction
d. Reception
48. It is an act or practice of
misleading somebody usually accompanied
by lying making them believe what is not
true
a. Lying
b. Deception
c. Reaction
d. Reception
49. Arousal of the subject during the
polygraph examination is due to the
increased sympathetic nervous system’s
activities. This can be seen in the
following except;
a. sweating
b. pulse rate
c. respiration
d. none of these
49. Arousal of the subject during the
polygraph examination is due to the
increased sympathetic nervous system’s
activities. This can be seen in the
following except;
a. sweating
b. pulse rate
c. respiration
d. none of these
50. Which component of the polygraph
instrument has the longest pen?
a. Galvanograph
b. Cardiograph
c. Kymograph
d. Pneumograph
50. Which component of the polygraph
instrument has the longest pen?
a. Galvanograph
b. Cardiograph
c. Kymograph
d. Pneumograph
51. Miss Leila had an illicit sexual
relationship with Mr. Matabata, a married
man. During the polygraph test conducted to
the former, she was asked of this question
“regarding sexual relationship with Diego,
do you intend to answer all the questions
truthfully?” What is this type of question?
a. evidence connecting
b. sacrifice relevant
c. weak irrelevant
d. strong relevant
51. Miss Leila had an illicit sexual
relationship with Mr. Matabata, a married
man. During the polygraph test conducted to
the former, she was asked of this question
“regarding sexual relationship with Diego,
do you intend to answer all the questions
truthfully?” What is this type of question?
a. evidence connecting
b. sacrifice relevant
c. weak irrelevant
d. strong relevant
52. In the five-pens polygraph, the
component that has two pens are
cardiograph and _______.
a. pneuomograph
b. kymograph
c. galvanograph
d. any of these
52. In the five-pens polygraph, the
component that has two pens are
cardiograph and _______.
a. pneuomograph
b. kymograph
c. galvanograph
d. any of these
53. Changes in respirations as an
indication of lying was first studied by
whom?
a. Harold Burt
b. Vittorio Benussi
c. Fred Inbau
d. John Larson
53. Changes in respirations as an
indication of lying was first studied by
whom?
a. Harold Burt
b. Vittorio Benussi
c. Fred Inbau
d. John Larson
54. It is a short vertical mark placed in
the polygraph chart during the actual
test.
a. specific mark
b. stimulus mark
c. hyphen mark
d. chart mark
54. It is a short vertical mark placed in
the polygraph chart during the actual
test.
a. specific mark
b. stimulus mark
c. hyphen mark
d. chart mark
55. The most common type of conventional
polygraph being used at this point in
time are;
a. Lafayette and Stoelting
b. Lafayette and Computerized
c. Lafayette and Analogue
d. Stoelting and Analogue
55. The most common type of conventional
polygraph being used at this point in
time are;
a. Lafayette and Stoelting
b. Lafayette and Computerized
c. Lafayette and Analogue
d. Stoelting and Analogue
56. The other term of “lie detector” is:
A.Galvanograph
B.Polygraph
C.Monograph
D.Seismograph
56. The other term of “lie detector” is:
A.Galvanograph
B.Polygraph
C.Monograph
D.Seismograph
57. If after the polygraph tests, the
subject voluntary informed the examiner on
his involvement in the crime, your next
action is to inform the?
A.Witness
B.Investigator
C.Relative of the subject
D.Victim
57. If after the polygraph tests, the
subject voluntary informed the examiner on
his involvement in the crime, your next
action is to inform the?
A.Witness
B.Investigator
C.Relative of the subject
D.Victim
58. The post-test interview is conducted
after the polygraph tests. It is conducted
if the examination shows subject’s
involvement in the crime and the purpose
of which is to conduct what?
A.Further investigation
B.None of these
C.Background check
D.Deception detection
58. The post-test interview is conducted
after the polygraph tests. It is conducted
if the examination shows subject’s
involvement in the crime and the purpose
of which is to conduct what?
A.Further investigation
B.None of these
C.Background check
D.Deception detection
59. In polygraph examination, the act of
finding out something which is made
obscure or secret is called:
A.Reception
B.Deception
C.Discovering
D.Detection
59. In polygraph examination, the act of
finding out something which is made
obscure or secret is called:
A.Reception
B.Deception
C.Discovering
D.Detection
60. The component of the lie detector
machine responsible in recording pulse
rate, amplitude and changes of blood
pressure is called:
A.Calvanograph
B.Cardio sphymograph
C.Smearnograph
D.Pneumograph
60. The component of the lie detector
machine responsible in recording pulse
rate, amplitude and changes of blood
pressure is called:
A.Calvanograph
B.Cardio sphymograph
C.Smearnograph
D.Pneumograph
61. In polygraph examination, is the
taking of medicine like tranquilizer and
for colds affect the result of the tests?
A.Yes
B.It depends
C.Never
D.No
61. In polygraph examination, is the
taking of medicine like tranquilizer and
for colds affect the result of the tests?
A.Yes
B.It depends
C.Never
D.No
62. In polygraphy, the second most
important section that records the
subject’s respiratory movement and the
changes and variations of the graph is
what section?
A.Pneumograph
B.Cardio
C.Diastolic
D.Sphygmograph
62. In polygraphy, the second most
important section that records the
subject’s respiratory movement and the
changes and variations of the graph is
what section?
A.Pneumograph
B.Cardio
C.Diastolic
D.Sphygmograph
63. A mandatory requirement, before a lie
detection examination can be legally
conducted, it is really a must that the
subject be directed to sign and submit
what?
A.Biodata
B.Waiver
C.Urine sample
D.List of medicine taken
63. A mandatory requirement, before a lie
detection examination can be legally
conducted, it is really a must that the
subject be directed to sign and submit
what?
A.Biodata
B.Waiver
C.Urine sample
D.List of medicine taken
64. Who was that scientist who developed
his own method of systolic blood pressure
test for detecting deception?
A.Fenne
B.William Marston
C.Angelo Mosso
D.John Larson
64. Who was that scientist who developed
his own method of systolic blood pressure
test for detecting deception?
A.Fenne
B.William Marston
C.Angelo Mosso
D.John Larson
65. In polygraph, what is the part of the
cardio component which indicate air
pressure in the system in millimeters of
mercury?
A.Anode indicator
B.Electrode
C.Sphygmomanometer
D.Polygram
65. In polygraph, what is the part of the
cardio component which indicate air
pressure in the system in millimeters of
mercury?
A.Anode indicator
B.Electrode
C.Sphygmomanometer
D.Polygram
66. Questions intended to absorb the
responses generally acquired by the first
relevant question in the series is what
kind of question?
A.Sacrifice relevant
B.Symptomatic
C.Peak of tension
D.Control test
66. Questions intended to absorb the
responses generally acquired by the first
relevant question in the series is what
kind of question?
A.Sacrifice relevant
B.Symptomatic
C.Peak of tension
D.Control test
67. In polygraph testing, to determine the
author of the crime, relevant questions
posed on subject are designed to determine
the subject’s?
A. denial C. response
B. answers D. involvement
67. In polygraph testing, to determine the
author of the crime, relevant questions
posed on subject are designed to determine
the subject’s?
A. denial C. response
B. answers D. involvement
68. This part of the polygraph machine
records the subject’s respiratory movement
and the changes and variation of the graph.
It is called the?
A. Sphygmograph C.cardiograph section
B. Diastolic section D.pneumograph section
68. This part of the polygraph machine
records the subject’s respiratory movement
and the changes and variation of the graph.
It is called the?
A. Sphygmograph C.cardiograph section
B. Diastolic section D.pneumograph section
69. In polygraph testing, relevant question
are those that are related to or has
something to do with the case. It is in
these questions that the examiner detect
what?
A.Motive C. composure
B.Deception D. fear
69. In polygraph testing, relevant question
are those that are related to or has
something to do with the case. It is in
these questions that the examiner detect
what?
A.Motive C. composure
B.Deception D. fear
70. In lie detection probe, the force that
arouses the organism or any of its parts to
activity is called:
A.Detection C. reception
B.Control reaction D. stimulus
70. In lie detection probe, the force that
arouses the organism or any of its parts to
activity is called:
A.Detection C. reception
B.Control reaction D. stimulus
71. Two of the pioneers in polygraph?
A.Cesar Lombroso and John Larson
B.None of these
C.Goddard and Welts
D.Churchill William and Tony Tubb
71. Two of the pioneers in polygraph?
A.Cesar Lombroso and John Larson
B.None of these
C.Goddard and Welts
D.Churchill William and Tony Tubb
72. In polygraph tests, before the pre-test
interview, the examiner shall coordinate
with the investigator for purposes of
acquiring vital information concerning the?
A.Victim C. case
B.Modus operandi D. witnesses
72. In polygraph tests, before the pre-test
interview, the examiner shall coordinate
with the investigator for purposes of
acquiring vital information concerning the?
A.Victim C. case
B.Modus operandi D. witnesses
73. “ Did you ever steal anything?” is
what kind of questions.
a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question
10/7/2016 What Criminologist Knows? Charlemagne James P. Ramos 146

73. “ Did you ever steal anything?” is
what kind of questions.
a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question

74. A component of a polygraph machine
which is used to record the respiration
and breathing of a subject with the aid
of a convoluted rubber tube.
a. Plethysmograph
b. Pneumograph
c. Galvanograph
d. Kymograph

74. A component of a polygraph machine
which is used to record the respiration
and breathing of a subject with the aid
of a convoluted rubber tube.
a. Plethysmograph
b. Pneumograph
c. Galvanograph
d. Kymograph

75. “Is your mother’s name Madalena?” is
what kind of question?
a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question

75. “Is your mother’s name Madalena?” is
what kind of question?
a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question

76. This will serve as authority of
polygraph examiner to examine the
subject as evidence that subject
voluntary submits to undergo the test.
a. Willingness of the subject to undergo

Pre-test in interview
b. Willingness of the subject to take the
test to prove his innocence
c. Willingness of the subject to give his
personal data during the pre-test
interview
d. None of the foregoing
76. This will serve as authority of
polygraph examiner to examine the
subject as evidence that subject
voluntary submits to undergo the test.
a. Willingness of the subject to undergo

Pre-test in interview
b. Willingness of the subject to take the
test to prove his innocence
c. Willingness of the subject to give his
personal data during the pre-test
interview
d. None of the foregoing
77. Upon beginning the test, how many
seconds should the examiner wait before
asking the first question?
a. 10-15
b. 15-20
c. 5-10
d. 20-25

77. Upon beginning the test, how many
seconds should the examiner wait before
asking the first question?
a. 10-15
b. 15-20
c. 5-10
d. 20-25

78. One of the following is considered the
“cardinal rule in chart
interpretation”.
a. Chart makings is the keynote to

accurate chart interpretation
b. Specific response must form a deviation
from norm
c. Any change from normal response
requires an explanation
d. Chart probing shall be done after each
chart
78. One of the following is considered the
“cardinal rule in chart
interpretation”.
a. Chart makings is the keynote to

accurate chart interpretation
b. Specific response must form a deviation
from norm
c. Any change from normal response
requires an explanation
d. Chart probing shall be done after each
chart
79. Who studied fear and its influence on the
hearth and his observations subsequently
formed the basis for the technique in the
development of the sphygmamomanometer and the
scientific cradle, which he used in studying
fear on the heart?
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Angelo Mosso
C. William Marston
D. John Larson
79. Who studied fear and its influence on the
hearth and his observations subsequently
formed the basis for the technique in the
development of the sphygmamomanometer and the
scientific cradle, which he used in studying
fear on the heart?
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Angelo Mosso
C. William Marston
D. John Larson
80. Who employed the first scientific
instrument to detect deception? This
instrument known as hydrosphygmograph,
measured changes in pulse and blood pressure
when suspects were questioned about their
involvement in or knowledge of a specific
response.
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Angelo Mosso
C. William Marston
D. John Larson
80. Who employed the first scientific
instrument to detect deception? This
instrument known as hydrosphygmograph,
measured changes in pulse and blood pressure
when suspects were questioned about their
involvement in or knowledge of a specific
response.
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Angelo Mosso
C. William Marston
D. John Larson
81. It is a scientific diagnostic
instrument used to record physiological
changes in the blood pressure, pulse rate,
respiration and skin resistance of an
examinee under controlled condition.
A.Lie detection
B.Polygraph
C.Polygraph examination
D.Truth serum
81. It is a scientific diagnostic
instrument used to record physiological
changes in the blood pressure, pulse rate,
respiration and skin resistance of an
examinee under controlled condition.
A.Lie detection
B.Polygraph
C.Polygraph examination
D.Truth serum
82. Any untruthful statement; falsehood;
anything that deceives or creates false
impression.
A.Joke
B.Story
C.Telling
D.Lie
82. Any untruthful statement; falsehood;
anything that deceives or creates false
impression.
A.Joke
B.Story
C.Telling
D.Lie
83. “Hindu book of health and science”
which is considered as the earliest known
reference of the methods for detecting
deception.
A.Hindu Yoga
B.Ayur-Veda
C.Arya abram
D.Midos Yagu
83. “Hindu book of health and science”
which is considered as the earliest known
reference of the methods for detecting
deception.
A.Hindu Yoga
B.Ayur-Veda
C.Arya abram
D.Midos Yagu
84. In polygraph examination, the whole
chart when finished is called
A.result
B.polygram
C.analysis
D.diagnostic
84. In polygraph examination, the whole
chart when finished is called
A.result
B.polygram
C.analysis
D.diagnostic
85. The major component of the polygraph
machine are, except
A.pneumograph
B.cardio-sphymograph
C.galvanograph
D.kymograph
E.pen and inking system
85. The major component of the polygraph
machine are, except
A.pneumograph
B.cardio-sphymograph
C.galvanograph
D.kymograph
E.pen and inking system
86. “Did you shoot Mr X?” is an example of
__ in polygraph examination.
A.Control question
B.Relevant question
C.Irrelevant question
D.Evidence connecting question
86. “Did you shoot Mr X?” is an example of
__ in polygraph examination.
A.Control question
B.Relevant question
C.Irrelevant question
D.Evidence connecting question
87. Which of the following questions made
in a polygraph examination maybe
considered an irrelevant question?
A.Have you ever been called by the name
Allan?
B.Is today Monday?
C.Are you over 20 years of age?
D.All of the above
87. Which of the following questions made
in a polygraph examination maybe
considered an irrelevant question?
A.Have you ever been called by the name
Allan?
B.Is today Monday?
C.Are you over 20 years of age?
D.All of the above
88. This test is applied when the response
to relevant and control questions are
similar in degree and in consistency and
in a way that the examiner cannot
determine whether the subject is telling
the truth or not.
A.Silent answer test
B.Peak of tension test
C.Guilt complex test
D.General question test
88. This test is applied when the response
to relevant and control questions are
similar in degree and in consistency and
in a way that the examiner cannot
determine whether the subject is telling
the truth or not.
A.Silent answer test
B.Peak of tension test
C.Guilt complex test
D.General question test
89. To facilitate evaluation and
interpretation of test charts, markings
are made with the use of signs and
symbols. Which of the following examples
of chart markings should be the first
marking of the examiner in the chart?
A.X / 60 / 1.5 A
B.XX / 60 / 1.5 A
C.X
D.XX
89. To facilitate evaluation and
interpretation of test charts, markings
are made with the use of signs and
symbols. Which of the following examples
of chart markings should be the first
marking of the examiner in the chart?
A.X / 60 / 1.5 A
B.XX / 60 / 1.5 A
C.X
D.XX
90.A component of the polygraph instrument
which records the breathing of the subject.
A.Cardiosphygmograph
B.Pneumograph
C.Galvanograph
D.Kymograph
which records the breathing of the subject.
B.Pneumograph
C.Galvanograph
D.Kymograph
which records the blood pressure and the
pulse rate of the subject.
B.Pneumograph
C.Galvanograph
D.Kymograph
which records the blood pressure and the
pulse rate of the subject.
B.Pneumograph
C.Galvanograph
D.Kymograph
which is a motor that drives or pulls the
chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches
per minute.
B.Pneumograph
C.Galvanograph
D.Kymograph
which is a motor that drives or pulls the
chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 or 12 inches
per minute.
B.Pneumograph
C.Galvanograph
D.Kymograph
93.The following are specific rules to be
followed in the formulation of the questions
in a polygraph test except one.
A.Questions must be clear and phrased in a
language the subject can easily
understand.
B.Questions must be answerable by yes or
no.
C.Questions must be as short as possible.
D.Questions must all be in the form of
accusations
93.The following are specific rules to be
followed in the formulation of the questions
in a polygraph test except one.
A.Questions must be clear and phrased in a
language the subject can easily
understand.
B.Questions must be answerable by yes or
no.
C.Questions must be as short as possible.
D.Questions must all be in the form of
accusations
94.In “ polygraph examination”, the term “
examination” means a detection of
A.Forgery
B.Emotion
C.the mind
D.deception
94.In “ polygraph examination”, the term “
examination” means a detection of
A.Forgery
B.Emotion
C.the mind
D.deception
95.It refers to an emotional response to a
specific danger, which appears to go beyond
a person’s defensive power.
A.Fear
B.Stimuli
C.Response
D.Reaction
95.It refers to an emotional response to a
specific danger, which appears to go beyond
a person’s defensive power.
A.Fear
B.Stimuli
C.Response
D.Reaction
96.The primary purpose of pre-test
interview.
A.Prepare subject for polygraph test
B.Obtain confession
C.Make the subject calm
D.Explain the polygraph test procedures
96.The primary purpose of pre-test
interview.
A.Prepare subject for polygraph test
B.Obtain confession
C.Make the subject calm
D.Explain the polygraph test procedures
97.The deviation from normal tracing of the
subject in the relevant question.
A.positive response
B.specific response
C.normal response
D.reaction
97.The deviation from normal tracing of the
subject in the relevant question.
A.positive response
B.specific response
C.normal response
D.reaction
98.What test is given if a subject of
interrogation is not yet informed of the
details of the offense for which he is being
interrogated by the investigation, or by
other persons or from other sources like the
print media?
A.Peak of Tension test
B.Control test
C.IQ Test
D.Guilt Complex Test
98.What test is given if a subject of
interrogation is not yet informed of the
details of the offense for which he is being
interrogated by the investigation, or by
other persons or from other sources like the
print media?
A.Peak of Tension test
B.Control test
C.IQ Test
D.Guilt Complex Test
99.In the practice of polygraphy, what do
you call questions unrelated to the matter
under investigation but are of similar
nature although less serious as compared to
those relevant questions under
investigation?
A.Irrelevant questions
B.Relevant questions
C.Control questions
D.Interrogative questions
99.In the practice of polygraphy, what do
you call questions unrelated to the matter
under investigation but are of similar
nature although less serious as compared to
those relevant questions under
investigation?
A.Irrelevant questions
B.Relevant questions
C.Control questions
D.Interrogative questions
polygraph where the subject is appraised of his
rights?
A. Interview with the investigator of the case.
B. Pre-test interview.
C. The conduct of instrumentation.
D. Post Test or Interrogation
polygraph where the subject is appraised of his
rights?
A. Interview with the investigator of the case.
B. Pre-test interview.
C. The conduct of instrumentation.
D. Post Test or Interrogation
LEGAL MEDICINE
SET 1
By
1. The main and official purpose of
medico-legal post-mortem examination of a
cadaver is to determine the:
A.Proper treatment
B.Origin of death
C.Complications
D.Cause of death
1. The main and official purpose of
medico-legal post-mortem examination of a
cadaver is to determine the:
A.Proper treatment
B.Origin of death
C.Complications
D.Cause of death
2. Which of the following should be a must
or be included in the sketch?
A.Name of witness
B.Time prepared
C.Place prepared
D.Compass direction
2. Which of the following should be a must
or be included in the sketch?
A.Name of witness
B.Time prepared
C.Place prepared
D.Compass direction
evidence like injuries, contusions,
hematoma and the like? By:
A.Photographing it
D.Memoirs
evidence like injuries, contusions,
hematoma and the like? By:
A.Photographing it
D.Memoirs
4. What is the test used in determining
whether the blood is a human origin or
not?
A.Acid hematin
B.Albumin test
C.Precipitin test
D.Alkaline test
4. What is the test used in determining
whether the blood is a human origin or
not?
A.Acid hematin
B.Albumin test
C.Precipitin test
D.Alkaline test
5. If in drowning cases a prober found
“live fleas” in the clothing of the
victim: it indicates that the drowning did
exceed how many hours?
A.12
B.36
C.15
D.18
5. If in drowning cases a prober found
“live fleas” in the clothing of the
victim: it indicates that the drowning did
exceed how many hours?
A.12
B.36
C.15
D.18
6. Onset of rigor mortis means the setting
of body changes due to:
A.Death
B.Putrefaction
C.Obesity
D.Poisoning
6. Onset of rigor mortis means the setting
of body changes due to:
A.Death
B.Putrefaction
C.Obesity
D.Poisoning
7. What is the test used in conforming the
presence of blood?
A.Benzidine test
B.Simon’s test
C.Takayama test
D.Marquis test
7. What is the test used in conforming the
presence of blood?
A.Benzidine test
B.Simon’s test
C.Takayama test
D.Marquis test
8. To a biologist, it is a microscope: to
a document examiner, it is?
A.Telescope
B.Cameras
C.Stethoscope
8. To a biologist, it is a microscope: to
a document examiner, it is?
A.Telescope
B.Cameras
C.Stethoscope
9. In violent death, it is indispensable
that the victim’s death is due to the
natural and direct consequence of the
injuries inflicted. If there is an
intervening cause, the offender can:
A.Invoke mitigating circumstance
B.Be held liable
C.Be held jointly liable
D.Escape liability
9. In violent death, it is indispensable
that the victim’s death is due to the
natural and direct consequence of the
injuries inflicted. If there is an
intervening cause, the offender can:
A.Invoke mitigating circumstance
B.Be held liable
C.Be held jointly liable
D.Escape liability
10. What is this death is due to a sudden,
fatal stoppage of heart functioning?
A.Heart attack
B.Death from syncope
C.Thrombosis
D.Myocardiac infarction
10. What is this death is due to a sudden,
fatal stoppage of heart functioning?
A.Heart attack
B.Death from syncope
C.Thrombosis
D.Myocardiac infarction
11. Blood may remain fluid inside the
blood vessels up to between how many hours
after death?
A.8 to 10
B.4 to 6
C.2 to 4
D.6 to 8
11. Blood may remain fluid inside the
blood vessels up to between how many hours
after death?
A.8 to 10
B.4 to 6
C.2 to 4
D.6 to 8
broken glasses, disarray of furnitures
which shows the possible defenses put-up
by the:
A.Probers
B.Assailant
C.Victim
D.Bystanders
broken glasses, disarray of furnitures
which shows the possible defenses put-up
by the:
A.Probers
B.Assailant
C.Victim
D.Bystanders
13. Which of the following evidence is not
material or no bearing the conviction of
an accused?
A.Inadmissible
B.Optic/real
C.Documentary
D.Circumstantial
13. Which of the following evidence is not
material or no bearing the conviction of
an accused?
A.Inadmissible
B.Optic/real
C.Documentary
D.Circumstantial
14. A victim’s cadaver if exposed to
either heat or cold may result to post-
mortem lividity color of:
A.Violet
B.Bright-red
C.Yellowish
D.Pole
14. A victim’s cadaver if exposed to
either heat or cold may result to post-
mortem lividity color of:
A.Violet
B.Bright-red
C.Yellowish
D.Pole
15. What do you call a situation of one
where there are abnormal reaction patterns
that are seriously incapacitating but there
is no loss of contact with reality?
A. associative reaction C. neuroses
B. hysteric reaction D. psychoses
15. What do you call a situation of one
where there are abnormal reaction patterns
that are seriously incapacitating but there
is no loss of contact with reality?
A. associative reaction C. neuroses
B. hysteric reaction D. psychoses
16. In our law, euthanasia is the willful,
deliberate and painless acceleration of
death of what?
A. tissue C. none of these
B. person D. organ
16. In our law, euthanasia is the willful,
deliberate and painless acceleration of
death of what?
A. tissue C. none of these
B. person D. organ
17. Cadaveric lividity may determine how
long the person has been:
A. in comatose C. in the area
B. dead D. strangulated
17. Cadaveric lividity may determine how
long the person has been:
A. in comatose C. in the area
B. dead D. strangulated
18. In the Philippines which is generally a
warm country, rigor mortis starts to occur
how many hours after death?
A. 48 C. 24
B. 12 D. 36
18. In the Philippines which is generally a
warm country, rigor mortis starts to occur
how many hours after death?
A. 48 C. 24
B. 12 D. 36
19. The process of dissolution of tissues by
the digestive action of the enzymes and
bacteria resulting to liquefaction of
tissues and liberation of foul-smelling
gases is called?
A. decomposition C. decay
B. detixification D. putrefaction
19. The process of dissolution of tissues by
the digestive action of the enzymes and
bacteria resulting to liquefaction of
tissues and liberation of foul-smelling
gases is called?
A. decomposition C. decay
B. detixification D. putrefaction
20. Hemorrhage or loss of blood maybe fatal.
Which can stand more loss of blood, the male
or the female?
A.female
B.it depends
C. male has no known advantage
D. male
20. Hemorrhage or loss of blood maybe fatal.
Which can stand more loss of blood, the male
or the female?
A.female
B.it depends
C. male has no known advantage
D. male
21. What is this condition in which the
supply of oxygen in the body ceases and as a
result thereof the person dies?
A. valvular disease C. thrombosis
B. rupture of the aortic D. asphyxia
21. What is this condition in which the
supply of oxygen in the body ceases and as a
result thereof the person dies?
A. valvular disease C. thrombosis
B. rupture of the aortic D. asphyxia
22. Which of the following are objects of an
autopsy if legally ordered or requested?
A. Victim of suspended animation
B. fire victim’s cadaver
C. victims in coma
D. victim’s cadaver who died not of natural
cause
22. Which of the following are objects of an
autopsy if legally ordered or requested?
A. Victim of suspended animation
B. fire victim’s cadaver
C. victims in coma
D. victim’s cadaver who died not of natural
cause
24. Medico-legal officers can immensely
contribute in the administration of justice
by noting in his report even minor injuries
and other noticeable physical appearance in
the:
A. patient’s diagnostic report
B. victim’s body
C. suspect’s record
D. gang’s modus operandi
24. Medico-legal officers can immensely
contribute in the administration of justice
by noting in his report even minor injuries
and other noticeable physical appearance in
the:
A. patient’s diagnostic report
B. victim’s body
C. suspect’s record
D. gang’s modus operandi
25. Normally, how many how many hours after
meal for the stomach to digest the food
taken?
A. 1 to 2 C. 5 to 6
B. 3 to 4 D. 6 to 8
25. Normally, how many how many hours after
meal for the stomach to digest the food
taken?
A. 1 to 2 C. 5 to 6
B. 3 to 4 D. 6 to 8
26. What is the color of the ultra-violet
powder in money bills when subjected to UV
lamp examination?
A.purple to blue
B.orange to brown
C.brownish
D.brilliant yellow
26. What is the color of the ultra-violet
powder in money bills when subjected to UV
lamp examination?
A.purple to blue
B.orange to brown
C.brownish
D.brilliant yellow
27. Although you are an expert witness, the
court is:
A. answerable to the public
B. welcoming other witnesses
C. not bound to believe your testimony
D. duty bound to believe you
27. Although you are an expert witness, the
court is:
A. answerable to the public
B. welcoming other witnesses
C. not bound to believe your testimony
D. duty bound to believe you
A.Court
B.Officer on case
D.victim
A.Court
B.Officer on case
D.victim
29. Who declared with scientific proof that
the human skeleton is unchangeable after the
20th year?
A.Alphonse C. Bertillon
B.Thoms D. Gumma
29. Who declared with scientific proof that
the human skeleton is unchangeable after the
20th year?
A.Alphonse C. Bertillon
B.Thoms D. Gumma
30. Is trauma or the destruction of the
blood vessel wall and the resulting
hemorrhage can only be caused by external
force?
A.Sometimes C. yes
B.It depends D. no
30. Is trauma or the destruction of the
blood vessel wall and the resulting
hemorrhage can only be caused by external
force?
A.Sometimes C. yes
B.It depends D. no
31. Which of the following can provide a
system or technique in making visible those
things that cannot be seen by the naked eye?
A.Gamma rays
B.Photography
C.Photographer
D. x-rays
31. Which of the following can provide a
system or technique in making visible those
things that cannot be seen by the naked eye?
A.Gamma rays
B.Photography
C.Photographer
D. x-rays
32. Another method for determining the
cessation of respiration is placing a fine
feather and the like infront of the lips and
nostrils. The person is still breathing when
there what?
A.Blackening of the feather
B.movement of the feather
C.No moving of the feather
D.reddening of the feather
32. Another method for determining the
cessation of respiration is placing a fine
feather and the like infront of the lips and
nostrils. The person is still breathing when
there what?
A.Blackening of the feather
B.movement of the feather
C.No moving of the feather
D.reddening of the feather
mainly used in?
A.Moulage
C.casting test
mainly used in?
A.Moulage
C.casting test
34. Can all physicians allowed to conduct
Autopsy?
a. Yes
b. no
c. never
d. False
34. Can all physicians allowed to conduct
Autopsy?
a. Yes
b. no
c. never
d. False
35. The test used in textile fibers.
a. photography
b. lie detection
c. burning and solubility test
d. comparison microscope
35. The test used in textile fibers.
a. photography
b. lie detection
c. burning and solubility test
d. comparison microscope
36. Brach of Metallurgy that involves the
microstructures of metals and alloys.
a. Metallography
b. alloygraphy
c. macro etching
d. micro etching
36. Brach of Metallurgy that involves the
microstructures of metals and alloys.
a. Metallography
b. alloygraphy
c. macro etching
d. micro etching
37. Three (3) types of poisons.
a. Organic, Inorganic, Biological

b. Hypnotic, Sedatives, Laxatives
c. Emetics, Biological, Inorganic
d. Organic, Sedatives, Biological
37. Three (3) types of poisons.
a. Organic, Inorganic, Biological

b. Hypnotic, Sedatives, Laxatives
c. Emetics, Biological, Inorganic
d. Organic, Sedatives, Biological
38. Antidote for Arsenic Poisoning.
a. Thiamine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Succimer
d. Fabahistine
38. Antidote for Arsenic Poisoning.
a. Thiamine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Succimer
d. Fabahistine
39. Breaking down of complex proteins into
simpler components associated with foul
smelling gasses and accompanied by chance
in color of the body.
a. Putrefaction
b. Maceration
c. Mummification
d. Marbolization
39. Breaking down of complex proteins into
simpler components associated with foul
smelling gasses and accompanied by chance
in color of the body.
a. Putrefaction
b. Maceration
c. Mummification
d. Marbolization
40. Can rigor mortis determine the time of
death?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. Maybe
40. Can rigor mortis determine the time of
death?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never
d. Maybe
41. In post-mortem lividity, the blood
cannot be transferred even if the body
has been moved to another position when
the blood is defused in the
____________.
a. tissues
b. plasma
c. Outer skin
d. Veins
41. In post-mortem lividity, the blood
cannot be transferred even if the body
has been moved to another position when
the blood is defused in the
____________.
a. tissues
b. plasma
c. Outer skin
d. Veins
42. Most common form of asphyxia.
a. Strangulation
b. hanging
c. lynching
d. Garroting
42. Most common form of asphyxia.
a. Strangulation
b. hanging
c. lynching
d. Garroting
43. A condition in which the supply of
oxygen to the blood has been reduced
below working levels. (5x question)
a. Asphyxia
b. homicide
c. syncope
d. Coma
43. A condition in which the supply of
oxygen to the blood has been reduced
below working levels. (5x question)
a. Asphyxia
b. homicide
c. syncope
d. Coma
44. First police surgeon or forensic
pathologist who performed the autopsy of
Julius Caesar.
a. Paul Zacchias
b. Antistius
c. Landsteiner
d. Hipocrates
44. First police surgeon or forensic
pathologist who performed the autopsy of
Julius Caesar.
a. Paul Zacchias
b. Antistius
c. Landsteiner
d. Hipocrates
45. How many percent of alcohol is needed
to be considered that a person is
intoxicated?
a. 0.05%
b. 0.10%
c. 0.15%
d. 1.05%
45. How many percent of alcohol is needed
to be considered that a person is
intoxicated?
a. 0.05%
b. 0.10%
c. 0.15%
d. 1.05%
46. Used to see stains on clothes that are
invisible to a normal light.
a. X-ray
b. Infrared light
c. UV light
d. visible lights
46. Used to see stains on clothes that are
invisible to a normal light.
a. X-ray
b. Infrared light
c. UV light
d. visible lights
47. A little bit better than idiots.
a. Imbecile
b. Moron
c. Moral defficiency
d. Feeble-minded
47. A little bit better than idiots.
a. Imbecile
b. Moron
c. Moral defficiency
d. Feeble-minded
48. The poisonous gas that smells like a
rotten egg.
a. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Hydrogen dioxide
d. Hydrochloride
48. The poisonous gas that smells like a
rotten egg.
a. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Hydrogen dioxide
d. Hydrochloride
49. A violent volatile poison producing an
almond odor in vomit’s of the victim.
a. Plasma
b. Cyanide
c. Sulfur
d. Lead
49. A violent volatile poison producing an
almond odor in vomit’s of the victim.
a. Plasma
b. Cyanide
c. Sulfur
d. Lead
50. Another term for Ultra-violet light.
a. White light
b. Red light
c. Black light
d. Roentgen
50. Another term for Ultra-violet light.
a. White light
b. Red light
c. Black light
d. Roentgen
a. Epidermis
b. Sweat pores
c. Dermal papillae
d. Sweat gland
a. Epidermis
b. Sweat pores
c. Dermal papillae
d. Sweat gland
52. An instrument used to detect alcohol
in human body.
a. Alcotest
b. Drunkometer
c. Breath analyzers
d. Intoximeter
52. An instrument used to detect alcohol
in human body.
a. Alcotest
b. Drunkometer
c. Breath analyzers
d. Intoximeter
53. The morphological constituents of human
hair.
a. Medulla, Cortex, Cuticle

b. Root, Shaft, Tip
c. Anagen, Catagen, Telogen
d. Refracting index, Birefringence, Density
53. The morphological constituents of human
hair.
a. Medulla, Cortex, Cuticle

b. Root, Shaft, Tip
c. Anagen, Catagen, Telogen
d. Refracting index, Birefringence, Density
54. How many days after infliction does a
“black-eye” can be observed to be turning
Purple?
a. 1-4 days
b. 4-5 days
c. 6-7 days
d. 8-9 days
54. How many days after infliction does a
“black-eye” can be observed to be turning
Purple?
a. 1-4 days
b. 4-5 days
c. 6-7 days
d. 8-9 days
55. The two types of glass fractures are?
a. Radial and Ulnar fractures

b. Radial and Concentric fractures
c. Concentric and emetic fractures
d. Plain and one-way fractures
55. The two types of glass fractures are?
a. Radial and Ulnar fractures

b. Radial and Concentric fractures
c. Concentric and emetic fractures
d. Plain and one-way fractures
56. It refers to the last stage of
toxological examination.
a. Quantification
b. Microscopic examination
c. Biological
d. None of the following
56. It refers to the last stage of
toxological examination.
a. Quantification
b. Microscopic examination
c. Biological
d. None of the following
57. Human hair has medullary index of less
than ________, and animal hair has a
medullary index of greater than
_________.
a. 0.1, 0.2
b. 0.2, 0.3
c. 0.3, 0.5
d. 0.5, 0.7
57. Human hair has medullary index of less
than ________, and animal hair has a
medullary index of greater than
_________.
a. 0.1, 0.2
b. 0.2, 0.3
c. 0.3, 0.5
d. 0.5, 0.7
58. In the investigation of a rape case, use
of ultra violent light is a useful method
because-
a. Only to establish whether certain stains,

after they have been located by some other
method.
b. To locate stains, but not to establish
whether they are semen stains
c. Both to locate stains and to establish
d. Neither for finding nor for determining
their nature
58. In the investigation of a rape case,
use of ultra violent light is a useful
method because-
a. Only to establish whether certain

stains, after they have been located by
some other method.
b. To locate stains, but not to establish
c. Both to locate stains and to establish
d. Neither for finding nor for determining
their nature
59. A drop of blood which falls from the
moving object or person is elongated and
the splashes are found to be concentrated
around one end of the stain. As a general
rule, the splashes and the extension of
the drop of blood indicates –
a. Fresh blood
b. Dried stain
c. Direction of movement
d. Dead person
59. A drop of blood which falls from the
moving object or person is elongated and
the splashes are found to be concentrated
around one end of the stain. As a general
rule, the splashes and the extension of
the drop of blood indicates –
a. Fresh blood
b. Dried stain
c. Direction of movement
d. Dead person
60. A characteristic of post-mortem
symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is
a –
a. Vary texture and appearance of the skin

b. Contorted position of the body
c. Pinkish lividity of all part of the
body
d. Marked protuberance of the eyeballs
60. A characteristic of post-mortem
symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is
a –
a. Vary texture and appearance of the skin

b. Contorted position of the body
c. Pinkish lividity of all part of the
body
d. Marked protuberance of the eyeballs
61. This condition mimics rigor mortis
when the dead body is exposed to very
low temperature.
a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffening
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Instantaneous rigor
61. This condition mimics rigor mortis
when the dead body is exposed to very
low temperature.
a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffening
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Instantaneous rigor
62. The type of special kind of death is
done by making convict face a firing
squad and is put to death by a volley
of fire.
a. Musketry
b. Euthanasia
c. Judicial death
d. Hanging
62. The type of special kind of death is
done by making convict face a firing
squad and is put to death by a volley
of fire.
a. Musketry
b. Euthanasia
c. Judicial death
d. Hanging
63. A form of sexual perversion where a
male individual derives pleasure from
wearing the female apparels.
a. Homosexuality
b. Transexualism
c. Tranvestism
d. Intersexuality
63. A form of sexual perversion where a
male individual derives pleasure from
wearing the female apparels.
a. Homosexuality
b. Transexualism
c. Tranvestism
d. Intersexuality
64. Portrait parle is correctly defined by
which of the following?
a. The verbal, accurate, and pictures que

description of the person identified
b. It is the file of pictures of missing or
wanted persons
c. The use of anthropometrical measurement
of human body as the basis for
identification
d. It is the used of several evidences to
eliminate or include in choice for
identification
64. Portrait parle is correctly defined by
which of the following?
a. The verbal, accurate, and pictures que

description of the person identified
b. It is the file of pictures of missing or
wanted persons
c. The use of anthropometrical measurement
of human body as the basis for
identification
d. It is the used of several evidences to
eliminate or include in choice for
identification
65. The restoration of tampered serial
numbers can be done by the use of –
a. Benzidine solution
b. Saline solution
c. Etching solution
d. Sulfuric acid
65. The restoration of tampered serial
numbers can be done by the use of –
a. Benzidine solution
b. Saline solution
c. Etching solution
d. Sulfuric acid
66. Period of time wherein human bones
will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. 40 years
66. Period of time wherein human bones
will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. 40 years
67. A wound produced by blunt
object/instrument such as log and
stone.
a. Punctured
b. Incised
c. Lacerated
d. Stab wound
67. A wound produced by blunt
object/instrument such as log and
stone.
a. Punctured
b. Incised
c. Lacerated
d. Stab wound
68. A physical injury which is found at
the site and also the opposite site of
application of force.
a. Extensive injury
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury
68. A physical injury which is found at
the site and also the opposite site of
application of force.
a. Extensive injury
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury
conception.
a. 100-200 days
b. 100-120 days
c. 100-220 days
d. 100-150 days
conception.
a. 100-200 days
b. 100-120 days
c. 100-220 days
d. 100-150 days
70. A type of burn produced as a result of
the body come in contact with a moving
object.
a. Radiation burn
b. Electrical burn
c. Friction burn
d. Thermal burn
70. A type of burn produced as a result of
the body come in contact with a moving
object.
a. Radiation burn
b. Electrical burn
c. Friction burn
d. Thermal burn
71. In cases of suicide, what would be the
noticeable muscular change?
a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffening
c. Instantaneous rigor
d. Putrefaction
71. In cases of suicide, what would be the
noticeable muscular change?
a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffening
c. Instantaneous rigor
d. Putrefaction
72.The following are types of medical
evidence, except:
A.Photographic evidence
B.Experimental evidence
C.Testimonial evidence
D.Autoptic evidence
72.The following are types of medical
evidence, except:
A.Photographic evidence
B.Experimental evidence
C.Testimonial evidence
D.Autoptic evidence
73.Some scientific methods of identification
are the following, except:
A.Fingerprinting
B.Handwriting
C.Dental identification
D.Identification by close friends and
relatives
73.Some scientific methods of identification
are the following, except:
A.Fingerprinting
B.Handwriting
C.Dental identification
D.Identification by close friends and
relatives
74.The greater the number of points of
similarities and dissimilarities of two
persons compared, the greater the
probability for the conclusion t be correct
is found in the
A.Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in
Identification
B.All of the these
C.Identification by Comparison and
Exclusion
D.Law of Super Imposition
74.The greater the number of points of
similarities and dissimilarities of two
persons compared, the greater the
probability for the conclusion t be correct
is found in the
A.Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in
Identification
B.All of the these
C.Identification by Comparison and
Exclusion
D.Law of Super Imposition
75.In the strict sense of the word, Forensic
Medicine means
A.application of medicine to legal cases
B.application of medical science to
elucidate legal problems
C.knowledge of law in relation to practice
of medicine
D.all of the above
75.In the strict sense of the word, Forensic
Medicine means
A.application of medicine to legal cases
B.application of medical science to
elucidate legal problems
C.knowledge of law in relation to practice
of medicine
D.all of the above
76.The different test to determine
peripheral circulation are the following,
except
A.Magnus test
B.Diaphanous test
C.I card’s test
D.Winslow’s test
76.The different test to determine
peripheral circulation are the following,
except
A.Magnus test
B.Diaphanous test
C.I card’s test
D.Winslow’s test
77.The following officials of the Philippine
Government are authorized to conduct death
investigation, except -
A.Public Prosecutor
B.Judges of the regional trial court
C.Director PNP
D.SOCO team
77.The following officials of the Philippine
Government are authorized to conduct death
investigation, except -
A.Public Prosecutor
B.Judges of the regional trial court
C.Director PNP
D.SOCO team
78.The following statements are important in
death determination. Which is not valid?
A.Civil personality of a natural person is
extinguished by death
B.Civil property of a person is
transmitted to the heirs, if not, to the
government
C.The death of the partner is one of the
causes of dissolution of partnership
agreement
D.The criminal liability of a person is
78.The following statements are important in
death determination. Which is not valid?
A.Civil personality of a natural person is
B.Civil property of a person is
transmitted to the heirs, if not, to the
government
C.The death of the partner is one of the
causes of dissolution of partnership
agreement
D.The criminal liability of a person is
79.The following are kinds of death, which
one is not?
A.Somatic or Clinical Death
B.State of Suspended Animation
C.Cellular or Molecular Death
D.Regulated Death
79.The following are kinds of death, which
one is not?
A.Somatic or Clinical Death
C.Cellular or Molecular Death
D.Regulated Death
80.In molecular or cellular death, death of
individual cells is with in
A.3-6 minutes
B.3-6 hours
C.20-30 minutes
D.20-30 hours
80.In molecular or cellular death, death of
individual cells is with in
A.3-6 minutes
B.3-6 hours
C.20-30 minutes
D.20-30 hours
81.Post-mortem lividity has the following
mechanisms:
A.Hypostatic pressure
B.Diffusion
C.Gravitational pressure
D.All of the above
81.Post-mortem lividity has the following
mechanisms:
A.Hypostatic pressure
B.Diffusion
C.Gravitational pressure
D.All of the above
82.Of the following kinds of death, which
one is relevant to Organ Transportation?
A.Somatic or clinical Death
C.Molecular Death
D.Cellular Death
82.Of the following kinds of death, which
one is relevant to Organ Transportation?
A.Somatic or clinical Death
C.Molecular Death
D.Cellular Death
83.Hanging is asphyxia due to the
constriction of the neck as a result of
suspension in which the weight of the body
pulls upon the ligature. What differentiates
it from strangulation by a ligature
therefore is:
A.The factor of suspension
B.Hanging raises a presumption of suicide
C.Strangulation is usually homicidal
D.All of the above
83.Hanging is asphyxia due to the
constriction of the neck as a result of
suspension in which the weight of the body
pulls upon the ligature. What differentiates
it from strangulation by a ligature
therefore is:
A.The factor of suspension
B.Hanging raises a presumption of suicide
C.Strangulation is usually homicidal
D.All of the above
84.Distinctions between ante-mortem from
post-mortem clot are the following. Which
one is not valid?
A.Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B.Clot is homogenous in construction so it
cannot be stripped into layers
C.Clot with varied colours
D.Surface of the blood vessels are raw
after the clots are removed
84.Distinctions between ante-mortem from
post-mortem clot are the following. Which
one is not valid?
A.Ante-mortem clot is firm in consistency
B.Clot is homogenous in construction so it
cannot be stripped into layers
C.Clot with varied colours
D.Surface of the blood vessels are raw
after the clots are removed
85.Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of
the following, except:
A.Hypostasis
B.Autolysis
C.Diffusion
D.Suggillation
85.Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of
the following, except:
A.Hypostasis
B.Autolysis
C.Diffusion
D.Suggillation
86.Comprehensive study of dead body,
performed by a trained Physician, to
determine the cause of death:
A.Autopsy
B.Biopsies
C.Dissection
D.Physicians
86.Comprehensive study of dead body,
performed by a trained Physician, to
determine the cause of death:
A.Autopsy
B.Biopsies
C.Dissection
D.Physicians
87.Articles and materials found in the crime
scene:
A.Physical evidence
B.Associative evidence
C.Evidence
D.Tracing evidence
87.Articles and materials found in the crime
scene:
A.Physical evidence
B.Associative evidence
C.Evidence
D.Tracing evidence
88.Circumscribed extravation of blood or
subcutaneous tissue or underneath the mucous
membrane.
A.Contusion
B.Petechia
C.Abrasion
D.All of them
88.Circumscribed extravation of blood or
subcutaneous tissue or underneath the mucous
membrane.
A.Contusion
B.Petechia
C.Abrasion
D.All of them
89.One is a condition that can approximate
the time of death.
A.Cadaver
B.Magnus test
C.Rigor mortis
D.None of these
89.One is a condition that can approximate
the time of death.
A.Cadaver
B.Magnus test
C.Rigor mortis
D.None of these
90.The means sanctioned by the law, of
ascertaining the judicial power/proceeding,
the truth respecting the matter of fact.
A.Polygraph
B.Evidence
C.Lie detector
D.All of these
90.The means sanctioned by the law, of
ascertaining the judicial power/proceeding,
the truth respecting the matter of fact.
A.Polygraph
B.Evidence
C.Lie detector
D.All of these
91.Determination of individuality of a
person or thing:
A.Description
B.Perception
C.Identification
D.All of these
91.Determination of individuality of a
person or thing:
A.Description
B.Perception
C.Identification
D.All of these
92.It is any unusual pattern of sexual
behavior including habitual, preference and
completing need for sexual gratification by
any means except sexual intercourse which
results to bodily excitement
A.Virginity
B.Sexual intercourse
C.Prostitution
D.Sexual deviation
92.It is any unusual pattern of sexual
behavior including habitual, preference and
completing need for sexual gratification by
any means except sexual intercourse which
results to bodily excitement
A.Virginity
B.Sexual intercourse
C.Prostitution
D.Sexual deviation
93.An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed
instrument and is characterized by a small
opening of the wound.
A.Gunshot wound
B.Stab wound
C.Shrapnel wound
D.Punctured wound
93.An open wound produced by a sharp-pointed
instrument and is characterized by a small
opening of the wound.
A.Gunshot wound
B.Stab wound
C.Shrapnel wound
D.Punctured wound
94.A physical injury wherein the offended
victim is incapacitated for work or requires
medical assistance for 10 days or more but
not more than 30 days.
A.Slight physical injury
B.Mutilation
C.Serious physical injury
D.less serious physical injury
94.A physical injury wherein the offended
victim is incapacitated for work or requires
medical assistance for 10 days or more but
not more than 30 days.
A.Slight physical injury
B.Mutilation
C.Serious physical injury
D.less serious physical injury
95.It is the type of burn due to gamma rays
and which is difficult to remedy:
A.Thermal burn
B.Electric burn
C.Chemical burn
D.Radiation burn
95.It is the type of burn due to gamma rays
and which is difficult to remedy:
A.Thermal burn
B.Electric burn
C.Chemical burn
D.Radiation burn
96.Under the management of Lt. Darby during
Constabulary was
C.Mr. Calixto Solis
D.None of these
96.Under the management of Lt. Darby during
Constabulary was
C.Mr. Calixto Solis
D.None of these
97.What is the intermediate and the thickest
layer of the hair and is composed of
elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils which
cohere? They contain pigment granules in
varying proportion depending on the type of
hair.
A.Medulla
B.Cortex
C.Core
D.Cuticle
97.What is the intermediate and the thickest
layer of the hair and is composed of
elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils which
cohere? They contain pigment granules in
varying proportion depending on the type of
hair.
A.Medulla
B.Cortex
C.Core
D.Cuticle
98.It is the art of extracting and working
on metals by the application of chemical and
physical knowledge.
A.Cryptography
B.Metallurgy
C.Casting
D.Matalisky
98.It is the art of extracting and working
on metals by the application of chemical and
physical knowledge.
A.Cryptography
B.Metallurgy
C.Casting
D.Matalisky
99. The branch of geology that deals with
the systematic classification and
identification of rocks, rock forming
minerals and soil. Also includes study of
dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and
other such materials, both natural and
artificial.
A.Petrography
B.Serology
C.Anthropology
D.Ecology
99. The branch of geology that deals with
the systematic classification and
identification of rocks, rock forming
minerals and soil. Also includes study of
dust, dirt, safe insulation, ceramics and
other such materials, both natural and
artificial.
A.Petrography
B.Serology
C.Anthropology
D.Ecology
100.In a fire, the presence of reddish brown
smoke indicates
A.Nitrocellulose
B.Sulfuric acid
C.Nitric acid
D.All of these
100.In a fire, the presence of reddish brown
smoke indicates
A.Nitrocellulose
B.Sulfuric acid
C.Nitric acid
D.All of these

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“The 2000 Items”

A. consummation C. overt violation

A. consummation C. overt violation

A. divisible C. prision mayor

A. divisible C. prision mayor

A. Less grave C. grave

A. Less grave C. grave

A. Life imprisonment C. prision correctional

A. Life imprisonment C. prision correctional

A. False C. partly true

A. False C. partly true

A. A child over 9 and under 15 years of age is

A. A child over 9 and under 15 years of age is

A. Less grave C. grave

A. Less grave C. grave

A. Imbecility C. lawful cause

A. Imbecility C. lawful cause

A. Not triable C. eligible

A. Not triable C. eligible

A. Guilty mind C. Guilty person

A. Guilty mind C. Guilty person

A. Amnesty C. Civil interdiction

A. Amnesty C. Civil interdiction

A. Complex crime C. Prescription of crime

A. Complex crime C. Prescription of crime

A. Voluntary surrender C. Habitually reiteration

A. Voluntary surrender C. Habitually reiteration

A. Abuse of Superior Strength C. Alevosia

A. Abuse of Superior Strength C. Alevosia

A. Conditional pardon C. Deduction for loyalty

A. Conditional pardon C. Deduction for loyalty

A. Ex post facto law C. Prospective

A. Ex post facto law C. Prospective

A. Ex post facto law C. Prospective

A. Ex post facto law C. Prospective

Tito, Vic & Sotto conspired to kill Vice Ganda. They

95. Vic is?

95. Vic is?

Situation‐ Mr. Rody is a friend of Mr. Roxas, Mr. Jojo,

98. The robbery in this case may be considered to

98. The robbery in this case may be considered to

Duterte, a taxi driver, had an indebtedness in the sum of

Viceganda planned to burn Alden’s house. One evening, during a

78. What if Viceganda already lit up the house but eventually

78. What if Viceganda already lit up the house but eventually

Kathrine and Daniel were married in New York, and have

80. Can there be an impossible crime of adultery?

80. Can there be an impossible crime of adultery?

Alden After a heated argument over his philandering, Alden

Nadine convinced Kathrine to work in Japan, promising Kathrine that

84. In the scenario, Nadine is also liable under illegal recruitment.

84. In the scenario, Nadine is also liable under illegal recruitment.

A typhoon Yolanda destroyed the houses of many of the inhabitants of

90. May Mayor Maawain invoke the defense of good faith

90. May Mayor Maawain invoke the defense of good faith

Mr. Duterte is angry with Mr. Roxas. Oneday, when Mr.

92. One of the following statements is true. Mr. Duterte is

92. One of the following statements is true. Mr. Duterte is

Dr. Teresita the division superintendent of Pembo

96. If the injury is slight physical injury, what crime was

96. If the injury is slight physical injury, what crime was

98. If the offender is not the custodian at the time of the

98. If the offender is not the custodian at the time of the