Physci Pnu Edited

Nature of Science
Part II Analyzing Test Items Part III Enhancing Test Taking Skills
1. D 6. D 11. C 16. B 21. B 1. B 6. D 11. D 16. D 21. D
2. C 7. B 12. B 17. D 22. A 2. D 7. A 12. B 17. A 22. D
3. D 8. D 13. C 18. C 23. B 3. A 8. B 13. D 18. B 23. C
4. B 9. D 14. D 19. D 24. A 4. B 9. C 14. B 19. C 24. D
5. D 10. D 15. A 20. D 25. C 5. D 10. D 15. C 20. C 25. D
Physical Quantities and Vectors
1. A 6. D 11. C 16. A 21. A 1. D 6. B 11. A 16. D 21. C
2. B 7. A 12. D 17. D 22. D 2. C 7. B 12. C 17. D 22. C
3. D 8. B 13. A 18. B 23. D 3. D 8. A 13. B 18. B 23. A
4. C 9. D 14. A 19. D 24. A 4. B 9. D 14. C 19. B 24. A
5. C 10. D 15. C 20. B 25. D 5. A 10. A 15. C 20. B 25. D
Mechanics
1. D 9. D 17. A 25. D 33. D 1. C 9. D 17. D 25. B 33. B
2. A 10. C 18. B 26. B 34. B 2. A 10. C 18. C 26. C 34. D
3. B 11. A 19. B 27. C 35. B 3. D 11. A 19. C 27. B 35. D
4. C 12. C 20. C 28. C 36. B 4. D 12. D 20. A 28. D 36. A
5. B 13. C 21. C 29. D 37. D 5. B 13. D 21. C 29. A 37. A
6. A 14. C 22. B 30. C 38. C 6. C 14. D 22. A 30. A 38. B
7. D 15. A 23. C 31. C 39. C 7. A 15. A 23. C 31. A 39. D
8. A 16. D 24. B 32. D 40. C 8. A 16. D 24. C 32. A 40. A
Electricity, Magnetism and Electronics
1. B 13. D 25. A 37. D 49. A 1. A 13. B 25. C 37. D 49. A
2. A 14. A 26. A 38. B 50. A 2. A 14. C 26. D 38. B 50. A
3. D 15. D 27. B 39. D 51. B 3. B 15. C 27. C 39. B 51. B
4. D 16. B 28. A 40. D 52. B 4. C 16. B 28. C 40. D 52. B
5. D 17. B 29. B 41. B 53. B 5. B 17. A 29. D 41. B 53. D
6. B 18. B 30. B 42. A 54. B 6. A 18. B 30. D 42. C 54. D
7. A 19. B 31. D 43. A 55. A 7. B 19. D 31. A 43. A 55. C
8. A 20. B 32. C 44. B 56. C 8. D 20. A 32. B 44. B 56. B
9. B 21. A 33. B 45. D 57. B 9. C 21. B 33. D 45. B 57. C
10. B 22. A 34. D 46. A 58. B 10. B 22. A 34. A 46. D 58. B
11. D 23. D 35. C 47. D 59. A 11. B 23. All 35. A 47. D 59. D
12. D 24. A 36. D 48. A 60. D 12. C 24. C 36. D 48. B 60. B
Heat and Thermodynamics
1. D 6. C 11. A 16. B 21. D 1. C 6. B 11. C 16. A 21. B
2. C 7. C 12. D 17. D 22. C 2. B 7. A 12. C 17. C 22. D
3. B 8. B 13. B 18. A 23. A 3. B 8. C 13. D 18. B 23. A
4. C 9. A 14. D 19. A 24. A 4. C 9. B 14. B 19. D 24. D
5. C 10. C 15. B 20. D 25. D 5. C 10. B 15. C 20. C 25. B
Modern Physics
1. A 7. B 13. C 19. B 25. B 1. C 7. D 13. B 19. B 25. C
2. B 8. C 14. A 20. A 26. C 2. B 8. D 14. C 20. A 26. D
3. C 9. C 15. A 21. B 27. A 3. A 9. B 15. C 21. B 27. B
4. A 10. C 16. C 22. D 28. A 4. A 10. A 16. B 22. D 28. A
5. B 11. B 17. A 23. D 29. C 5. B 11. C 17. C 23. C 29. C
6. A 12. C 18. D 24. D 30. B 6. C 12. D 18. A 24. A 30. D
Light and Geometric Optics
1. B 9. D 17. C 25. B 33. C 1. B 9. B 17. C 25. A 33. C
2. D 10. B 18. B 26. B 34. B 2. C 10. B 18. A 26. B 34. C
3. A 11. B 19. B 27. A 35. A 3. B 11. C 19. C 27. A 35. D
4. A 12. C 20. A 28. B 36. D 4. B 12. C 20. D 28. B 36. B
5. A 13. C 21. B 29. B 37. A 5. D 13. C 21. D 29. D 37. A
6. A 14. D 22. C 30. A 38. A 6. B 14. D 22. C 30. B 38. D
7. A 15. A 23. C 31. B 39. D 7. A 15. C 23. B 31. C 39. B
8. C 16. A 24. A 32. D 40. C 8. B 16. A 24. B 32. B 40. B
Matter: Its Composition and Its Properties
1. A 6. A 11. D 16. A 21. C 1. C 6. C 11. B 16. D 21. C
2. B 7. D 12. A 17. D 22. A 2. D 7. C 12. B 17. A 22. A
3. D 8. D 13. C 18. C 23. B 3. A 8. D 13. C 18. B 23. A
4. D 9. C 14. C 19. B 24. A 4. D 9. B 14. B 19. B 24. C
5. B 10. B 15. A 20. B 25. C 5. C 10. B 15. A 20. D 25. B
323
Atom
1. D 6. C 11. C 16. D 21. C 1. C 6. A 11. B 16. D 21. B
2. C 7. D 12. B 17. C 22. B 2. D 7. C 12. C 17. C 22. C
3. B 8. B 13. A 18. B 23. B 3. D 8. B 13. B 18. A 23. C
4. D 9. B 14. C 19. A 24. B 4. D 9. D 14. B 19. C 24. A
5. A 10. C 15. C 20. D 25. B 5. B 10. B 15. A 20. D 25. C
Chemical Bonds
1. B 6. C 11. A 16. 21. 1. D 6. A 11. B 16. B 21. B
2. A 7. C 12. C 17. 22. 2. C 7. A 12. D 17. B 22. D
3. B 8. B 13. C 18. 23. 3. B 8. D 13. D 18. D 23. B
4. C 9. D 14. B 19. 24. 4. D 9. A 14. B 19. D 24. D
5. D 10. D 15. D 20. 25. 5. C 10. C 15. A 20. A 25. B
Conservation of Matter and Stoichiometry
1. B 6. B 11. C 16. B 21. C 1. A 6. B 11. C 16. D 21. C
2. C 7. D 12. C 17. A 22. C 2. C 7. B 12. C 17. A 22. B
3. C 8. C 13. C 18. B 23. B 3. A 8. C 13. C 18. B 23. D
4. B 9. D 14. D 19. C 24. C 4. B 9. C 14. C 19. B 24. A
5. B 10. D 15. B 20. C 25. D 5. C 10. B 15. B 20. C 25. D
Gases
1. B 6. B 11. B 16. A 21. D 1. B 6. C 11. A 16. A 21. B
2. A 7. C 12. B 17. A 22. D 2. D 7. D 12. A 17. A 22. A
3. B 8. C 13. C 18. C 23. A 3. A 8. A 13. C 18. B 23. D
4. B 9. D 14. C 19. B 24. C 4. B 9. D 14. A 19. B 24. B
5. B 10. D 15. D 20. B 25. A 5. B 10. D 15. B 20. D 25. C
Acids and Bases
1. A 6. D 11. C 16. B 21. D 1. B 6. D 11. C 16. D 21. B
2. D 7. D 12. D 17. B 22. D 2. A 7. C 12. C 17. A 22. C
3. D 8. C 13. A 18. C 23. B 3. C 8. B 13. A 18. B 23. B
4. C 9. D 14. C 19. C 24. A 4. C 9. D 14. C 19. A 24. D
5. A 10. D 15. C 20. C 25. C 5. D 10. B 15. A 20. D 25. B
Solutions
1. C 6. C 11. C 16. D 21. B 1. C 6. A 11. B 16. D 21. A
2. B 7. A 12. B 17. A 22. C 2. C 7. B 12. B 17. C 22. B
3. B 8. 13. C 18. A 23. B 3. D 8. A 13. C 18. A 23. C
4. A 9. A 14. B 19. B 24. A 4. B 9. D 14. C 19. C 24. C
5. D 10. D 15. A 20. D 25. C 5. C 10. B 15. B 20. B 25. B
Chemical Thermodynamics
1. D 6. D 11. D 16. D 21. B 1. B 6. B 11. B 16. C 21. A
2. C 7. C 12. D 17. C 22. D 2. B 7. C 12. C 17. A 22. C
3. B 8. D 13. B 18. C 23. D 3. D 8. A 13. D 18. A 23. B
4. A 9. A 14. B 19. D 24. A 4. B 9. C 14. D 19. B 24. B
5. B 10. B 15. D 20. A 25. C 5. D 10. B 15. A 20. B 25. D
Chemical Kinetics and Equilibrium
1. B 6. B 11. B 16. D 21. A 1. A 6. B 11. B 16. B 21. B
2. C 7. B 12. B 17. D 22. B 2. C 7. D 12. D 17. D 22. D
3. C 8. A 13. D 18. D 23. A 3. D 8. A 13. D 18. C 23. B
4. C 9. C 14. C 19. C 24. C 4. C 9. B 14. D 19. A 24. B
5. A 10. C 15. A 20. C 25. A 5. C 10. D 15. C 20. A 25. C
Organic Chemistry and Biochemistry
1. D 6. A 11. A 16. A 21. B 1. A 6. B 11. A 16. A 21. A
2. B 7. C 12. C 17. B 22. C 2. C 7. C 12. C 17. D 22. C
3. C 8. C 13. B 18. C 23. C 3. D 8. C 13. A 18. B 23. A
4. C 9. D 14. D 19. D 24. D 4. C 9. B 14. B 19. C 24. D
5. A 10. C 15. C 20. B 25. A 5. C 10. B 15. A 20. B 25. B
Nuclear Processes
1. A 6. B 11. D 16. B 21. D 1. B 6. D 11. A 16. C 21. B
2. A 7. D 12. B 17. D 22. D 2. B 7. A 12. C 17. D 22. C
3. B 8. B 13. A 18. C 23. B 3. A 8. A 13. D 18. A 23. D
4. C 9. A 14. A 19. B 24. B 4. B 9. C 14. C 19. A 24. C
5. C 10. D 15. D 20. A 25. D 5. A 10. B 15. C 20. C 25. C
Geology
1. B 6. A 11. B 16. A 21. B 1. C 6. D 11. D 16. B 21. D
2. A 7. B 12. D 17. A 22. D 2. B 7. A 12. B 17. C 22. D
3. B 8. C 13. D 18. A 23. A 3. A 8. D 13. C 18. A 23. C
4. A 9. A 14. C 19. C 24. D 4. D 9. D 14. C 19. A 24. B
5. B 10. B 15. A 20. C 25. A 5. D 10. A 15. A 20. A 25. A
324
SPECIALIZATION: PHYSICAL SCIENCES
Focus: Nature of Science
By: Dr. Leticia V. Catris
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
In addition to drawing graphs, it is important to interpret data that is represented in graph form.
Let us consider the following examples:
1. Identify the graph that matches each of the following stories:
a. I had just left home when I realized I

had forgotten my books so I went back
to pick them up. (iii)
b. Things went fine until I had a flat tire.
(iv)
c. I started out calmly, but sped up when I
realized I was going to be late. (i)
2. The graph at the right represents the typical

day of a teenager. Answer these questions:
a. What percent of the day is spent

watching TV? (13%)
b. How many hours are spent sleeping?
(8 hours)
c. What activity takes up the least amount
of time? (studying)
d. What activity takes up a quarter of the
day? (going to school)
e. What two activities take up 50% of the
day? (sleeping & talking on the
phone)
f. What two activities take up 25% of the
day? (eating & talking on the phone)
3. If the size of the map is increased so that its length and its width double, what is the scale?
a. 1 cm = 1.05 km
b. 2 cm = 1.05 km
c. 1 cm = 2.10 km Vigan
d. 1 cm = 4.20 km B
* If the map increases, the lengths change,
but the distance represented doesn't change.
Bicol
A
C
Mindoro
Key:
1 cm = 1.05 km
1. Which of the following is most true?

A. Scientists cannot make errors.
B. A stated hypothesis is always correct.
C. Empirical evidence will not support hypotheses.
D. The progress of science is determined by what kinds of questions are asked.
12
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Answer: D - The goal of science is to understand the world around us and what
distinguishes science from the other fields of study is the way in which it seeks
answers to questions. In the process, a hypothesis (tentative answer) is stated.
Empirical evidences are gathered that may either support or reject the
hypothesis.
2. To measure the mass of an irregular solid, water displacement is used. What apparatus
will you use?
A. Empty beaker C. Graduated cylinder
B. Graduated cylinder with water D. Metric ruler
Answer: C - A rise in the level of liquid marks the volume of the irregular solids. The
difference in the water level is equal to the volume of solid. The water level in
graduated cylinder is 48 mL. A piece of stone was dropped into it and the water
level rose to 62 mL. What is the volume of the stone?
The volume of the stone is 62 mL 48 mL = 14 mL or 14 cc or 14 cm3
An empty beaker and graduated cylinder measure volume of a liquid alone

A metric ruler measures the length of an object
3. Which of the following describes a measurement of 2.07 m if the actual length of object is
2.04 m?
A. Accurate and precise C. Neither accurate nor precise
B. Precise but not accurate D. Accurate but not precise
Answer: D - Precision describes the exactness of a measurement.

Accuracy compares a measurement to the actual value.
4. The graph relates velocity (v) and time (t) of four cars (1, 2, 3, and 4) traveling along a
straight highway. Which two cars move with zero acceleration?
A. 1 and 4 (2)
B. 2 and 3 v
C. 1 and 2 (1)
D. 3 and 4
(3)
(4) t
Answer: B the horizontal straight line graphs shows no change in velocity while the
diagonal straight line graphs for cars 1 and 4 show an increasing and decreasing
acceleration, respectively
5. To graph the temperature change of a cup of sand sitting in the sun, what is the
dependent variable? Where should it be plotted on a line graph?
A. Time of day, x- axis C. Temperature of the sand, x- axis

B. Time of day, y- axis D. Temperature of the sand, y- axis
Answer: D temperature of the sand is dependent on the time of day and in a line graph
the dependent variable is drawn on the y-axis while the independent variable
(time of day) is drawn on the x-axis
6. How is a hypothesis tested?

A. By using the hypothesis to make predictions about science.
B. By comparing observations in nature with predictions.
C. By making a new hypothesis.
D. All of the above.
7. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental quantity?

A. mass. B. force C. length D. temperature
8. A certain lot measures 7m x 8 m, what is its lot area?

A. 40 m2 B. 46 m2 C. 54 m2 D. 56 m2
13
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
9. What is the angle that the nitrogen section makes on the graph?
A. 66° C. 234o
B. 79o D. 281o
10. A can of coke-zero sinks in water and an identical can of coke-classic floats. Which
property of matter accounts for this?
A. Can size B. Density C. Mass D. Volume
11. Using correct significant digits, what is 5.21 kg x 3.2 kg equal to?
A. 16 kg B. 16.6 kg C.17 kg D. 17.1
12. Whenever you deal with electrical safety in the laboratory, which of the following
statement is NOT correct?
A. Never use extension cords to plug any electrical device.
B. Always touch an electrical device with wet and clean hands.
C. Never plug too many electrical devices in only one outlet.
D. Always use extension cords with multiple sockets.
13. What is the volume of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4cm cube in mL ?

A. 0.64 mL B. 6.4 mL C. 64 mL D. 640 mL
14. Why are steam burns are more damaging than burns caused by boiling water?
A. Steam is vapor of water molecules during boiling.
B. Steam occupies more space than water during boiling.
C. Steam has more energy per kilogram than boiling water.
D. Steam has a higher temperature than boiling water.
15. Scientists investigated that other stalky vegetables such as carrots also help lower blood
pressure. This statement is BEST classified as a/an:
A. Experiment C. Finding
B. Fact D. Prediction
16. A time-tested concept that makes useful and dependable predictions about the world is
called a (an) _________.
A. discovery C. hypothesis
B. theory D. investigation
17. You mix 28.65 g of Solid A with 93.2 g of Solid B. What is the mass of the mixture using
correct significant digits?
A. 121.85 g B. 121.8 g C. 122 D. 121.9 g
18. What is the basis for System Internationale units of measurement?

A. Inches C. Power of ten
B. Power of five D. English units
19. The product of (2 x 103) and (3 x 103) is

A. 6 x 101 C. 6 x 104
B. 6 x 103 D. 6 x 106
14
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Refer to the graph for questions 20 22
20. Which line represents the fastest speed? km

A. AB C. CD
B. BC D. DE
21. How many kilometers were traveled in the

first three hours of the trip?
A. 20 km C. 40 km
B. 30 km D. 50 km
22. What is the motion of the car between 5

12 hours?
A. at rest
B. 7 km/hr
C. 60 km/hr
D. constantly moving at 12 km/hr
23. Which of the following equations does not

show a direct relationship?
A. A = kB B. k = AB C. k = A/B D. A B
24. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a scientific method?

A. When results of an experiment do not fit the hypothesis, a scientist may ethically
discard the results and repeat the experiment.
B. The scientific method is a continuous process by which people learn about the
physical universe.
C. Scientists report the experimental results, but not the experimental design to their
competition.
D. People structure their lives on the principles of scientific method.
25. What is an attempt to explain a pattern observed repeatedly in nature called?

A. Opinion C. Scientific theory
B. Prediction D. Scientific fact
1. In nature, if one variable decreases as another variable increases, how is the relationship
between variables described?
A. Proportional C. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional D. Inverse square proportional
2. Science can be differentiated from non-science because scientific results ____________.

A. are repeatable C. are based on single events
B. are formed from opinions D. always take place in a laboratory
3. The current knowledge concerning the atom is the result of the investigations and
observations of many scientists. The work of these scientists forms a well-accepted body
of knowledge about atoms. This body of knowledge is an example of a
________________.
A. theory C. research plan
B. hypothesis D. controlled experiment
4. Which of the following means to make an inference?

A. Make a guess C. Communicate findings
B. Draw a conclusion D. Make an observation
5. If the relationship between your height and your age were a simple direct proportion, what
would be the shape of the line graph of height (H) versus age (A)?
A. C.
H H
A A
15
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
B. D.
H
H
A A
6. Which of the following is the best description of a scientific law?

A. It is enforced by nature and cannot be violated.
B. It is the exact report of the observations of scientists.
C. It is the theoretical explanation of natural phenomenon.
D. It is the generalized statement of relationships among natural phenomenon.
7. Using a test tube, you are asked to boil about 10 mL of water. What is the proper way of
holding the test tube when you are working with a partner inside a laboratory?
A. Hold the test tube towards you.
B. Keep the test tube away from your partner.
C. Hold the test tube directly above the flame.
D. Face the test tube to your partner while heating.
8. Which of the following procedures correctly show how acids should be diluted?
A. Pour acids into water, never the reverse.
B. Pour water into acids, never the reverse.
C. Pour either the acids or the water first while stirring.
D. Pour the acids and the water at the same time without stirring.
9. What should you do if your hypothesis is not supported?

A. Analyze your data C. Change the hypothesis
B. Repeat the experiment D. Communicate your results
10. Which of the following is NOT in the group of apparatus that are used in storing liquids?
A. Reagent bottle C. Florence flask
B. Beaker D. Graduated cylinder
11. All of the following are derived quantities EXCEPT ___________.

A. work C. weight
B. energy D. luminous intensity
12. Much of the United States resists changing to SI. However some units are in use. Which
of the following is probably not familiar to most people?
A. Buying soft drinks in 1.5 L bottles.
B. Purchasing shoes in centimeters.
C. Taking medicines prescribed in milligrams.
D. Watching Olympic athletes run 100-m dashes.
13. Which of the following properties is measured in a derived SI unit?

A. Width of a gift box.
B. Mass of a spacecraft.
C. Volume of a refrigerator.
D. Amps of current drawn by a stereo receiver.
14. The number 7.93 x 10 -3 can also be written as __________.

A. 0.0793 C. 0.000793
B. 0.00793 D. 0.0000793
15. Billy is baking a cake and the recipe calls for some milk. Which of the following units
should he use to measure the milk?
A. Grams C. Milliliters
B. Decimeters D. Milligrams
16. How many meters are in 186.7 km?

A. 0.1867 m C. C. 18 670 m
B. 18.67 m D. 186 700 m
16
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
17. Lyka wants to track her science test scores over the course of the semester. Which of the
following will best allow her to analyze her progress?
A. Bar graph C. Pie graph
B. Line graph D. Scatter graph
18. How do a Celsius and a Fahrenheit degree compare?

A. Celsius degree is 5/9 of a Fahrenheit degree
B. Celsius degree is 9/5 of a Fahrenheit degree
C. Celsius degree is 9/10 of a Fahrenheit degree.
D. Celsius degree is 1/10 of a Fahrenheit degree
19. Earth's atmosphere is about 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, and 1 % other gases. Which
graph will best display these data?
A. Bar graph C. Pie graph
B. Line graph D. Scatter graph
20. When doing an experiment like heating or anything that uses fire, what should you be
ready with?
A. A pail of water. C. A damp cloth.
B. A wet tissue paper. D. An apron.
21. A stick measures 400 cm. What is its length in kilometers?

A. 0.4 C. C. 0.004
B. 0.04 D. 0.0004
22. The number .00045700 has _____ significant figures.

A. 8 C. C. 6
B. 7 D. 5
23. Which variables are usually observed for change in an experiment?

A. Constants C. Dependent variables
B. Inferences D. Independent variables
24. What would a horizontal line in a position-time graph mean?

A. Changing position, constant velocity C. C. Changing position, increasing velocity
B. Constant position, constant velocity D. Constant position, zero velocity
25. The quotient of 66.0 x 105 and 3 x 108 is

A. 22 x 1013 C. C. 2.2 x 1013
B. 22 x 10-3 D. 2.2 x 10-2
17
Focus: Physical Quantities and Vectors
By: Prof. Marie Paz E. Morales
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
8. Express the resultant vector as R = R(magn

Analytical method of adding vectors are done using the concept of components or parts
of a given vector. A vector, expressed in polar coordinates, e.g. 500 N, 30 oNoE has usually 2
components (x- and y-components) in a rectangular coordinate system or 3 components (x-, y-,
z-components) in a 3-dimensional space. As illustrated below, the given force of F= 500 N, 30o
NoE has components F x and Fy. F X can be determined using the cosine function: F x
e angle and taking into consideration the quadrant where the vector
is located on the rectangular coordinate system. F y, on the other hand, can be determined using
the sine function where F y
Example:
sin = opp/hyp
F = 500 N, 30o NoE
cos = adj/hyp
Fx
= (500 N) (cos 30 o) tan = opp/adj
= 433.2 N
Fy = F sine
= (500 N) (sin 30 o)
= 250 N
The concept of components of vectors can be used in adding vectors. Below is a simple
guide to vector addition using component method:
1. Determine the angle between the + x-axis and the given vectors.
2. Determine the x- and y-components of all the given vectors.
3. Fill in the table below.
Vectors x-comp y-comp

A
B
R Rx = Ry =
4. Determine the sum of all the x-components. This is known as Rx.

5. Determine the sum of all the x-components. This is known as Ry.
6. Apply the Pythagorean Theorem and tangent function to determine the magnitude and
direction of the resultant vector.
The component method can be used when determining the resultant of several vectors.
The opposite vector to the resultant is known as the equilibrant. Thus, an equilibrant has the
same magnitude but is directed opposite the resultant vector.
Vectors can also undergo multiplication process. There are two kinds of products that
involve physical quantities: vector product and scalar product. Scalar product is a special product
of a scalar and a scalar or a vector and a vector that result to a scalar quantity. Some derived
quantities that have undergone such process include kinetic energy, power and work. On the
other, vector product is a special product of a scalar and a vector or a vector and vector that
result to a vector quantity such as momentum, acceleration, and magnetic field.
1. Which among the following is a fundamental quantity?

a. Electric Current c. Momentum
b. Energy d. Velocity
Explanation:
Choice A: (Correct Answer) Electric Current is one of the 7 fundamental

quantities, which can be readily determined by an instrument
known as an ammeter or a multi-tester.
Choice B: Energy is a one of the derived quantities. The quantity needs the concept
of mass, height and acceleration combined to be able to arrive at
potential energy. Furthermore, there exists no single instrument that
could determine the amount of energy of a substance or a body.
Choice C: Momentum is usually described as the product of mass and velocity and
is therefore considered as combination of several fundamental
quantities.
20
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Choice D: Velocity can be determined by dividing the distance covered by a body

by the time elapsed. Thus, is classified as a derived quantity.
2. Which among the following is a scalar quantity?

a. Acceleration c. Momentum
b. Kinetic energy d. Velocity
Explanation:
Choice A: Acceleration needs the concept of direction thus considered as a vector

quantity.
Choice B: Kinetic Energy is a scalar product of mass and the square of

velocity. This means that energy is a scalar quantity.
Choice C: Momentum is a vector product of mass and velocity. This means that
momentum is a vector quantity.
Choice D: Velocity is the vector equivalent of speed.
3. A vector quantity is usually represented by an arrow. Which among the following is the
main reason for the representation?
a. A vector has only direction.
b. A vector has magnitude only represented by the length of the arrow.
c. A vector has magnitude represented by the arrow head and direction
represented by the arrow tail.
d. A vector has magnitude represented by the length of the arrow and direction
represented by the arrow head.
Explanation:
Choice A: A vector is described as a quantity that is expressed as magnitude with

direction. This means that choice A is incorrect.
Choice B: Though the length of the arrow represents the magnitude of the vector, it
is noted however, that a vector includes direction and the arrow head
must play that part. This makes choice B incorrect.
Choice C: Arrow head usually represents direction and arrow length represents
magnitude. The given choice has incorrect descriptions.
Choice D: The magnitude is represented by the arrow length and the arrow
head represents the direction.
4. Which of the following is the equilibrant of the velocity equivalent to 50 kph, 40 o S o W?

a. 50 kph, 220o c. 50 kph, 40o
b. 50 kph, -140o d. 50 kph, - 40o
Correct Answer: An equilibrant is a force that has the same magnitude as the
resultant or the given force but with opposite direction.
South of West is located at the third quadrant of the
rectangular coordinate system. This means that the
opposite force is located at the first quadrant of the
rectangular coordinate system. Thus, 500 khp, 40 o is the
equilibrant force. Choice C
5. Which among the following is a vector quantity?

a. Chemical Energy c. Impulse
b. Electricity d. Pressure
Explanation:
Choice A: Chemical energy is a scalar product. Energy may be described without

the aid of direction.
Choice B: Electricity is also a form of energy. Energy is a physical quantity

described as a magnitude.
Choice C: Impulse is a vector product of force and time. This means that
impulse is a vector quantity.
21
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Choice D: Pressure is a scalar product of Force and the reciprocal of Area. This
means that pressure is a scalar quantity.
6. Which of the following is NOT a scalar quantity?

a. Area c. Specific gravity
b. Mass d. Weight
7. All of the following are derived quantities EXCEPT ____________.

a. Electric Current c. Pressure
b. Force d. Work
8. Which one of the following is an SI base unit?

a. Kilogram c. milligram
b. Meter d. Newton
9. Among the given units, which unit for length is the smallest?
a. m c.
nm
b. Mm d. pm
10. At what angle will the resultant of 2 co-planar vectors be a minimum?

a. 0o c. 90o
o
b. 45 d. 180o
11. Which one of the following quantities is a vector quantity?

a. The age of the earth c. The earth's pull on your body
b. The mass of a football d. The temperature of an iron bar
12. Which one of the following statements is true concerning scalar quantities?
a. Scalar quantities must be represented by base units.
b. Scalar quantities have both magnitude and direction.
c. Scalar quantities can be added to vector quantities using rules of trigonometry.
d. Scalar quantities can be added to other scalar quantities using rules of ordinary
addition.
13. When vectors A and B are added together to form a vector C, the relationship between
the magnitudes of the vectors is given by A + B = C. Which one of the following
statements concerning these vectors is true?
a. A and B must be displacements.
b. A and B must have equal lengths.
c. A and B must point in opposite directions.
d. A and B must point in the same direction.
14. Which one of the following is an SI base unit?

a. A platinum-iridium bar kept in Sèvres, France.
b. The wavelength of light emitted from a krypton atom.
c. The wavelength of light emitted from a sodium atom.
d. The distance
15. A particle has a mass of one milligram. Which one of the following statements indicates
the correct mass of the particle in grams?
a. The particle has a mass of 1 x10 3 grams.
b. The particle has a mass of 1 x10 1 grams.
c. The particle has a mass of 1 x10 3 grams.
d. The particle has a mass of 1 x10 6 grams.
16. Which one of the following is the longest length?

a. 100 meters c. 104 millimeters
b. 102 centimeters d. 105 micrometers
17. A displacement vector is 23 km in length and is directed 65° south of east. Which set
provides the components of this vector? Eastward Component Southward Component
a. 21 km | 9.7 km c. 23 km | 0 km
b. 23 km | 23 km d. 9.7 km | 21 km
18. Two people pull on a rope in a tug-of-war. Each pulls with a 400 N force. What is the
tension in the rope?
a. 0 c. 600 N
b. 400 N d. 800 N
22
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
19. What is the minimum resultant possible when adding a 5-N force to an 8-N force?
a. 11 N c. 5 N
b. 8 N d. 3 N
20. What is the maximum resultant possible when adding a 5-N force to an 8-N force?
a. 3 N c. 24 N
b. 13 N d. 40 N
21. Which one of the following statements concerning vectors and scalars is false?
a. A scalar component may be either positive or negative.
b. A vector that is zero may have components other than zero.
c. It is possible to use vector components that are not perpendicular.
d. Two vectors are equal only if they have the same magnitude and direction.
22. A runaway cat walks 0.64 km due north. It then runs due west to a hot dog stand. If the
placement vector is 0.91 km, what is the magnitude of the
a. 0.27 km c. 0.41 km
b. 0.33 km d. 0.65 km
23. A force, F1, of magnitude 2.0 N and directed due east is exerted on an object. A second
force exerted on the object is F2 = 2.0 N, due north. What is the magnitude and direction
of a third force, F3, which must be exerted on the object so that the resultant force is
zero?
a. 1.4 N, 45° north of east c. 2.8 N, 45° north of east
b. 1.4 N, 45° south of west d. 2.8 N, 45° south of west
24. A boat leaves a harbor and sails 1.1 km in the direction 75° north of east, where the
captain stops or dinner. A short time later, the boat sails 1.8 km in the direction 15° south
of east. What is the magnitude of the resultant displacement?
a. 2.1 km c. 2.9 km
b. 1.5 km d. 1.2 km
25. Which of the following will result to a scalar?

a. Vector multiplied to a vector c. Vector subtracted from a vector
b. Scalar multiplied to a vector d. Scalar multiplied by a scalar
1.Which of the following is a vector quantity?

a. Energy c. Work
b. Pressure d. Weight
2. Which among the following is NOT a vector quantity?

a. Acceleration c. Speed
b. Force d. Velocity
3. Which one of the following pairs of units may NOT be added together, even after the
appropriate unit conversions have been made?
a. grams and milligrams c. miles and kilometers
b. slugs and kilograms d. kilograms and kilometres
4. Which one of the following choices is equivalent to 248 m?

a. 2.48x101 m c. 24.8x10 1 m
b. 2.48x102 m d. 24.8x10 2 m
5. Which is NOT a fundamental unit?

a. kilogram c. second
b. meter d. watt
6. Which is NOT a unit of length?

a. angstrom c. kilometer
b. hertz d. meter
7. What is the minimum number of vectors with unequal magnitudes whose vector sum can
be zero?
a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. Five
23
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
8. What is the minimum number of vectors with equal magnitudes whose vector sum can be
zero?
a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. Five
9. A student adds two displacement vectors with magnitudes of 8.0 km and 6.0 km. Which
one of the following statements is true concerning the magnitude of the resultant
displacement?
a. It must be 10.0 km.
b. It must be 14.0 km.
c. It could be equal to zero kilometers, depending on how the vectors are oriented.
d. No conclusion can be reached without knowing the directions of the vectors.
10. When vectors A and B are added together to form a vector C the relationship between
the magnitudes of the vectors is given by: A2 + B2 = C2. Which statement concerning
these vectors is true?
a. A and B must be at right angles to each other.
b. A and B could have any orientation relative to each other.
c. A and B must be parallel.
d. A and B could be antiparallel.
11. A physics student adds two displacement vectors with magnitudes of 3.0 m and 4.0 m,
respectively. Which one of the following could not be a possible choice for the resultant?
a. 1.3 m c. 6.8 m
b. 5.0 m d. 7.0 m
12. Two displacement vectors of magnitudes 21 cm and 79 cm are added. Which one of the
following is the only possible choice for the magnitude of the resultant?
a. 0 cm c. 82 cm
b. 37 cm d. 114 cm
13. The x and y components of a displacement vector are 3.00 m and +4.00 m,
respectively. What angle does this vector make with the positive x axis?
a. 233° d. 53.0°
b. 127° e. 37.0°
c. 53.0°
14.
of travel changes from south to west. The bug then crawls 3.15 m before stopping. What
a. 3.83 m c. 5.29 m
b. 4.91 m d. 7.40 m
15. What is the minimum resultant possible when adding a 3-N force to an 8-N force?
a. 11 N c. 5 N
b. 8 N d. 3 N
16. When representing a force as a vector, ___________.

a. the length of the arrow represents the size of the force
b. the length of the arrow is drawn to a suitable scale
c. the direction of the arrow shows the direction of the force
d. All of the above.
17. Pheromone is a substance emitted by ants while they travel so that others may be able to
follow exactly the same direction as the others took. If a zoologist is to measure the
distance an ant travels and in what particular direction does it take, how would this
quantity be classified?
a. Equilibrant c. Scalar
b. Magnitude d. Vector
18. An antelope being chased by a lioness moved 3 km, south then 4 km, east. What must
be the resultant displacement of the antelope?
a. 5.0 km, 36.8o S of E c. 7 km, 36.8o S of E
b. 5.0 km, 53.13o S of E d. 7 km, 53.13o S of E
24
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
For nos. 19-20
An antelope being chased by a lioness moved 5 km, south then 4 km, east.
19. If the lioness would track the resultant vector, what must be the magnitude and direction
of the lioness?
a. 1 km, SE c. 9 km, SE
b. 6.41 km, 51o SE d. 9 km, 51o SE
20. What must be the equilibrant, if the lioness magnitude and direction is 9 km, SE?
a. 9 km, NE c. 9 km, SW
b. 9 km, NW d. 9 km, SE
21. Three vectors A, B, and C add together to yield zero: A + B + C = 0. The vectors A and
C point in opposite directions and their magnitudes are related by the expression: A =
2C. Which one of the following conclusions is correct?
a. A and B have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions.
b. B and C have equal magnitudes and point in the same direction.
c. B and C have equal magnitudes and point in opposite directions.
d. A and B point in the same direction, but A has twice the magnitude of B.
22. What is the angle between the vectors A and A when they are drawn from a common
origin?
a. 0° c. 180°
b. 90° d. 270°
23. A displacement vector has a magnitude of 810 m and points at an angle of 18° above the
positive x axis. What are the x and y scalar components of this vector? x scalar
component y scalar component
a. 770 m, 250 m c. 585 m 560 m
b. 560 m, 585 m d. 250 m, 750 m
24. A vector F1 has a magnitude of 40.0 units and points 35.0° above the positive x axis. A
second vector F2 has a magnitude of 65.0 units and points in the negative y direction.
Use the component method of vector addition to find the magnitude and direction, relative
to the positive x axis, of the resultant: F = F1 + F2.
a. 53.3 units, 52.1° below the +x axis c. 76.3 units, 37.9° below the +x axis
b. 53.3 units, 52.1° above the +x axis d. 76.3 units, 52.1° above the +x axis
25. Use the component method of vector addition to find the resultant of the following three
vectors:
A = 56 km, east C = 88 km, 44° west of south
B = 11 km, 22° south of east
a. 81 km, 14° west of south c. 52 km, 66° south of east

b. 97 km, 62° south of east d. 68 km, 86° south of east
25
Focus: Mechanics
By: Prof. Jasmine Angelie V. Albelda
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Units used for power are horsepower (hp), watt (W) and joule per second (J/s)
1 W = 1 J/s
1 hp = 746 W
D. Simple Machines and Efficiency
Simple machines are mechanical devices that are used to change the direction and
magnitude of its output force to do work on an external system. Simple machines are the
building blocks of all complicated mechanical machines.
There are six classical types of simple machines as defined by Renaissance scientists.
These are
a. Levers
b. Pulleys
c. Wedge
d. Inclined Plane
e. Wheel and Axle
f. Screw
The efficiency of a machine or system tells us how much of the input work or input energy
is converted into useful output work or output energy. It is the ratio of the energy output
and the energy input of the machine or the ratio of the output and input work. Since
friction could not be eliminated, no machine reaches an efficiency of 100%. A machine
with efficiency of 80% indicates that 80% of the input energy is converted by the machine
into useful work and the remaining 20% is converted into heat.
Mathematically, the efficiency of a machine is expressed as
Wout Eout Pout

Eff
Win Ein Pin
1. Which of the following statements is/are true about forces?

I. Forces are vector quantities.
II. Forces are present only when objects interact.
III. Forces cause an object to change its state of motion.
a. I and II c. I and III

b. II and III d. I, II and III
Answer: D
All the statements are true. Forces have magnitude and direction thus forces are vector
quantities. Forces arise only when there is an interaction between two or more bodies
and forces can cause an object to change its state of motion.
2. Seatbelts are used to protect passengers in automobiles from injuries that may be
caused by the sudden changes in the motion of the automobile. Which of the following
laws of motion best explains the use of seatbelts?
a. Law of inertia c. Law of interaction
b. Law of acceleration d. Law of inertia and Law of interaction
Answer: A
The law of motion that best explains the use of seatbelts is the law of inertia. When a
moving car suddenly stops, the tendency of the passengers is to keep on moving in the
direction of the initial motion.
inertia, not an outside force. So, the law of acceleration which relates the acceleration
and mass of an object and the force acting on it could not be the primary reason why
seatbelts are used. Although this law is also vital in the operation of the seatbelt since the
s movement, its application
is only secondary. The law of interaction on the other hand relates the force exerted by
the passenger to the seatbelt and the force of the seatbelt to the passenger.
3. A bow is drawn so that it has 50 J of potential energy. Assuming that there is no air
resistance, the bow will ideally have a kinetic energy of _______ when fired.
a. 0 J c. less than 50 J
b. 50 J d. more than 50 J
34
Focus: Mechanics
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Answer: B
Based on the law of conservation of energy, the energy in an isolated system is constant.
Energy is not lost but is simply transformed from one form to another. When the bow is
fired, all of its potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy.
4. Two forces of magnitude, 20 N and 30 N, are acting on a 30kg object that is lying on a
frictionless surface. What is the acceleration of the object when the two forces are
directed in the same direction?
a. 0.3 m/s2 c. 1.67 m/s2
2
b. 0.6 m/s d. 3.0 m/s2
Answer: C
Since there are two forces acting on the object, we need to determine first the net force
before calculating the acceleration of the object. The two forces are acting on the same
5. The power rating of machines indicates which of the following?

a. The amount of power dissipated per unit time.
b. The amount of energy consumed per unit time.
c. The total amount of work done by the machine.
d. The amount of fuel required to make the machine function.
Answer: B
Power is the rate of doing work. Since work done on an object is just equivalent to the
energy transferred on the object according to the work-energy theorem, power can also
be defined as the amount of energy expended or consumed by a system per unit time.
6. According to the work energy theorem, the energy gained by a system and the work
done on the system are ____________.
a. equal. c. less than input work.
b. not equal. d. greater than input work.
For numbers 7 13, refer to the diagram: A small bead slides without friction along the
wire shown, beginning at point A. The wire does not touch itself at point C, so the bead
has room enough to pass that point.
7. At what point would the bead acquire the maximum kinetic energy?
a. A c. D
b. B d. E
8. At what point would the bead have the maximum potential energy?
a. A c. C
b. B d. E
9. At what point would the bead have the maximum speed?

a. A c. C
b. B d. E
10. At what point would the bead have the minimum speed?
a. B c. D
b. C d. E
11. Compared to point A, the potential energy of the bead at point F is ____________.
a. the same. c. lesser.
b. greater. d. may be more or less.
12. Compared to point A, the kinetic energy of the bead at point F is _____________.
a. the same. c. lesser.
b. greater. d. may be more or less.
35
Focus: Mechanics
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
13. When the bead reaches the other end of the loop, the bead will ideally be at a point that
is _____________.
a. higher than F. c. exactly at F.
b. lower than F. d. slightly higher than F.
14. A picture frame is hanging on a wall as shown in the figure. How many
forces are acting on the picture frame? (Assume that the frame is not
touching the wall)
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
15. What do you call the force that tends to bring an object or system into a state of
equilibrium?
a. Equilibrant force c. Resultant force
b. Normal force d. Torque
16. What do you call the magnitude of the gravitational pull of the earth towards objects that
are at the surface of the earth?
a. Gravity c. Tension
b. Normal force d. Weight
17. It is very difficult to push a heavy object because of the force that tends to oppose the
motion of the object. What is the term referred to this opposing force?
a. Friction c. Torque
b. Normal force d. Weight
18. Which of the following forces provides the centripetal force that keeps the moon in orbit
around the Earth?
a. Friction c. Tension
b. Gravity d. Magnetic force
For numbers 19 22, refer to the following situation: A stone is dropped from the roof top
of a tall building. The stone reached the ground after 3 s. The stone made a soft splat as
it breaks upon impact to the ground.
h = 1/2 g*t^2
19. How high is the building? =1/2* 9.8* 3^2
a. 88.2 m = 44.1 m c. 29.4 m
b. 44.1 m d. 14.7 m
20. What is the speed of the stone before it hits the ground?
a. 3.3 m/s v = sqrt 2*9.8*44.1
c. 29.4 m/s
b. 14.7 m/s = 29.4 m/s d. 88.2 m/s
21. The soft splat produced upon the impact of the stone on the ground, indicates that some
of the energy of the stone was transformed into ___________.
a. Kinetic energy c. Sound energy
b. Mechanical energy d. Thermal energy
22. Which of the following forces influences the motion of the stone?
a. Friction c. Air resistance
b. Gravity d. Force applied by the person dropping the stone
23. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Frictional forces can be eliminated.
b. Friction is acting opposite to any applied force.
c. Friction is present in bodies that are at rest or that are moving.
d. Friction is not present when the two bodies in contact are at rest.
24. What is the speed of an object that travels a distance of 100 m in 35 s?

a. 0.35 m/s c. 65 m/s
b. 2.86 m/s d. 3500 m/s
25. The efficiency of the human body in converting food energy into work varies with activity.
When swimming the efficiency of the body is only 4%. What does this indicate?
I. Only 4% of the energy is converted into useful work.
II. 96% of the energy is stored in the body for future use.
III. 96% of the energy is converted into heat.
a. I only c. I and II
b. II only d. I and III
36
Focus: Mechanics
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
26. Using 1000 J of work, a toy elevator is raised from the ground floor to the second floor in
20 seconds. How much power does the elevator used?
a. 20 W p = work / time c. 100 W
b. 50 W = 1000 j * 20 s d. 1000 W
= 50 W
27. A 70 kg person climbs a 2.0 m high flight of stairs within 8 s when he walks and 2 s
when he runs up the stairs. What is the work done by the person as he walks up the
stairs? work = F * d <F= m*a>
a. 280 J =70 kg* 9.8 m/s^2 * 2 c. 1372 J
b. 560 J = 1372 J d. 10976 J
when he runs up the stairs. What is the work done by the person as he runs up the
stairs?
a. 280 J c. 1372 J
b. 560 J d. 10976 J
when he runs up the stairs What is the power dissipated by the person when he walks up
the stairs? P = W*d/t <W=F*d><F=m*a>
a. 2744 W = 70kg*9.8m/s^2 * 2m/ 8s c. 686 W
b. 1372 W =171.5 W d. 171.5 W
when he runs up the stairs. What is the power dissipated by the person when he runs up
the stairs?
P = W*d/t <W=F*d><F=m*a>
a. 2744 W = 70kg*9.8m/s^2 * 2m/ 8s c. 686 W
b. 1372 W =171.5 W d. 171.5 W
31. Which of the following is ?

a. Acceleration c. Inertia
b. Gravitation d. Interaction
32. Which of the following objects is NOT in equilibrium?

a. A car in the parking lot. c. A bus moving with constant speed
b. A boy sitting in a seesaw d. A ball thrown vertically upward
33. Which of the following has the greatest inertia?

a. 1 kg nails c. 2 kg of iron filings
b. 2 kg of gravel d. 3 kg of cotton candy
34. When a rock, connected to the end of a string, is whirled, the rock follows a circular path.
If the string breaks, the tendency of the rock is to _______________.
a. continue to follow a circular path c. move around and fly away
b. follow a straight line path d. become a projectile
35. A girl pulls a 10 kg wooden cart with a constant force of 30 N. What is the
acceleration?
a. 0.3 m/s2 c. 10 m/s2
b. 3 m/s2 d. 30 m/s2
36. Which of the following is true about the action and re

Third Law of Motion? The action and reaction force ___________________.
a. act on the same object c. are not equal in magnitude
b. act on different objects d. are directed to the same direction
37. A car has a mass of 1000 kg and accelerates at 2 m/s. What is the magnitude of the
force exerted on the car?
a. 500 N c. 1500 N
b. 1000 N d. 2000 N
38. A girl holding a balloon is sitting inside an airtight car stuck in traffic. The car suddenly
accelerates forward. Which of the following is true about the movement of the girl and the
balloon?
a. The girl will pitch forward and the balloon will pitch backward.
b. The girl will pitch backward and the balloon will pitch forward.
c. The girl and the balloon will pitch backward.
d. The girl and the balloon will pitch forward.
37
Focus: Mechanics
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
39. A tow truck exerts a force of 3000 N on a car accelerating it at 2 m/s. What is the mass of
the car?
a. 500 kg c. 1500 kg
b. 1000 kg d. 3000 kg
40. A girl whose weight is 500 N is standing on the ground. How much force does the ground
exert on the girl?
a. less than 500 N c. equal to 500 N
b. more than 500 N d. any of the above
1. A player hits a baseball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the
baseball. Which of the following is the reaction force?
a. The weight of the baseball
b. Air resistance on the baseball
c. The force of the baseball against the bat
d. The
2. Who formulated the universal law of gravitation?

a. Isaac Newton c. Galileo Galilei
b. Albert Einstein d. Johannes Kepler
3. Which of the following statements is true about gravity?

I. Gravity decreases with increasing distance.
II. Gravity causes the occurrence of ocean tides.
III. Gravity is directly proportional to the masses of interacting objects.
a. I only c. II and III

b. I and II d. I, II and III
4. A ball rolls off and falls at the edge of the table as shown. In which of the three positions
does gravity act on the ball?
Position A
Position B
Position C
a. A c. C
b. B d. A, B and C
5. A woman of mass 48 kg moves to the moon. What would be her mass on the moon?
a. 8 kg c. 80 kg
b. 48 kg d. 480 kg
6. What would be the weight of the woman in question number 5 on the surface of the
moon?
a. 8 N 78N/48kg= 1.625 m/s^2 c. 78 N
b. 48 N moons gravity is 16.6 or 17% d. 780 N
7. Work is done in the following cases EXCEPT ____________.

a. a girl holding a tray c. a boy pulling a cart
b. a boy closing the door d. a girl climbing a flight of stairs
8. A 2 kg book is held 1 m above the ground for 50 s. What is the work done on the book?
a. 0 J c. 100 J
b. 10.2 J d. 980 J
9. What is the work done in lifting a 30 kg bricks to a height of 20 m on a building under

construction?
a. 61 J c. 2940 J
b. 600 J d. 5880 J
10. A job is done slowly while an identical job is done quickly. Both jobs require the same
amount of work but different amounts of _______________.
a. energy c. power
b. mass d. time
38
Focus: Mechanics
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
11. How much power is delivered by a 1 N force exerted for a distance of 1 m in 1 s?

a. 1 W c. 3 W
b. 2 W d. 1/3 W
12. Which of the following is true about an object that is moving?

I. It has speed and acceleration
II. There is a change in its position
III. It may have zero acceleration
b. II only d. I, II and III
13. A person jogs in place. Is the person in motion?

a. Yes, because there is movement
b. Yes, because the person has speed when he jogs.
c. No, because although he is moving his acceleration is zero.
d.
14. Which of the following statements is true about friction between the road and the tires of
a car?
I. Friction is present when the car is slowed down by breaking.
II. Friction is not present when the car rounds a curve.
III. Friction is less when the car is moving.
b. II only d. I and III
15. Block A and block B in the system shown weighs 10 N each. If the system is in
equilibrium, what is the net force on B?
a. 0 N c. 20 N
b. 10 N d. 30 N
16. Block A and block B in the system shown weighs 10 N each. If the system is in
equilibrium, in what direction would blocks A and B move due to the net force acting on
them?
a. Upward c. To the right

b. To the left d. Stays at their position
17. Which of the following is true about work, energy and efficiency of a system?
I. The total energy of a system is constant.
II. The efficiency will never reach 100% because of friction.
III. The energy gained by a system is equal to the work done on it.
a. I and II c. II and III

b. I and III d. I, II and III
18. A nurse pushes a gurney. The action force is the force exerted by the nurse on the
gurney. The reaction force would be the force of ______________.
a. the hand of the nurse. c. the gurney on the nurse.
b. the gurney on the floor. d. the handle of the gurney.
For numbers 19 22, consider the situation: Two forces 10 N, east and 5 N, west are
acting on a 5 kg object that is lying on a smooth frictionless surface.
39
Focus: Mechanics
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
19. What is the magnitude of the net force acting on the 5 kg object?
a. 0.2 N c. 5 N
b. 2 N d. 50 N
20. What is the direction of the net force acting on the 5 kg object?
a. East c. Northeast
b. West d. East-west
21. What is the acceleration of the 5 kg object?

a. 0.04 m/s2 c. 1 m/s2
b. 0.04 m/s2 d. 10 m/s2
22. In what direction would the 5 kg object move?

a. East c. Northeast
b. West d. East-west
23. Two boys are pushing a cart with a force of 30 N each. The cart does not move. Which of
the following is true about the frictional force between tires and the road?
a. Frictional force is less than 60 N
b. Frictional force is equal to 30 N
c. Frictional force is equal to 60 N
d. Friction force is less than 30 N
24. Which of the following results to a change in the velocity of an object?

I. When there is change in speed of object.
II. When there is change in direction of motion.
III. When there is change in energy of the object
b. III only d. I and III
25.
falling ruler or meter stick and then measure the distance from the point where the fingers
of the person was placed before the ruler is released to the point where
finger was located after the ruler was released. If the distance of fall is 19 cm, what is the
19= t + 4.9t^2
a. 19 s t= sqrt 19/4.9 c. 0.2 s
b. 1.9 s = 1.96 s d. 0.1 s
26. An aspirin is dropped from a certain height. Which of the following is true about the object
as it moves down?
a. The acceleration increases c. The speed increases
b. The speed stays the same d. The speed decreases
27.
a. 75 m/s c. 48 km/s
b. 75 km/h d. 48 km/h
28. A vehicle running at a speed of 40 km/h decelerates and stops after 10 s. What is the
acceleration of the vehicle? -40km/hr (1000m/1km)÷3600
a. 4 m/s2 = -11.11 c. 1.1 m/s2
2 = -11.11/10
b. 4 m/s = -1.1 s
d. 1.1 m/s2
final speed of the vehicle?
a. 0 m/s c. 11 m/s
b. 4 m/s d. 40 m/s
distance covered by the vehicle?
a. 55 m c. 165 m
b. 55 km d. 165 km
31. When is the work done on a system equal to zero?

I. The force applied is perpendicular to the displacement of the system
II. The system changes its position due to the force applied
III. Energy is transferred to the system
b. II only d. II and III
40
Focus: Mechanics
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
32. What will happen to the energy of a system when work is done on it?
a. It will increase. c. It stays the same.
b. It will decrease. d. It is equal to zero.
33. What will happen to the energy of a system when work is done by it?
a. It will increase. c. It stays the same.
b. It will decrease. d. It is equal to zero.
34. Which of the following will indicate the direction of the acceleration of a moving object?
a. Frictional force c. Initial velocity
b. Final velocity d. Net force
35. A heavy ball is suspended as shown in the diagram. The upper and the lower string are
made up of the same material. A quick jerk on the lower string will break the lower string
but a slow pull on the lower string will cause the upper string to break. Which of the
following best explains the result of a quick jerk applied on the lower string?
a. A quick jerk results to a force that is not enough to break the upper string.
b. The upper sting is stronger than the lower string.
c. The ball and the upper string has a lot of energy
d. The heavy ball has inertia.
36. How much force is needed to keep an object with a constant speed moving?
a. Zero
b. Equal to the weight of the object
c. Just enough to produce acceleration
d. Greater than the frictional force met by the object.
37. A person stands on a weighing scale inside an elevator. In which of the following cases,
is the reading on the weighing scale greatest?
a. When the elevator is stationary
b. When the elevator is moving upward with increasing speed
c. When the elevator is moving upward with decreasing speed
d. When the elevator is moving downward with increasing speed
38. The action and re
force cancel each other?

a. Because the reaction force is present only when the action force is removed
b. Because action and reaction forces are acting on different objects
c. Because action and reaction forces produces acceleration
d. Because Isaac Newton said so
For numbers 39 40, consider: A wooden crate is pulled by a force P along a rough
surface as shown below. In the diagram, f is the frictional force, N is the normal force and
Fg is the weight of the wooden crate.
39. If the wooden crate moves with a constant speed to the right, which of the following is
true?
a. P > f and N = Fg c. P > f and N > F g
b. P < f and N = Fg d. P = f and N = Fg
40. If the wooden crate accelerates to the right, which of the following is true?
a. P > f and N = Fg c. P > f and N > Fg
b. P < f and N = Fg d. P = f and N = Fg
P is greater than F and N is equal to Fg
41
Focus: Electricity, Magnetism and Electronics
By: Prof. Jasmine Angelie V. Albelda and Prof. Antriman V. Orleans
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
H. Metal Detectors
Metal detectors at airport, harbors, and bus terminal and commercial

establis
person carrying a piece of metal pass through the detector, the metal will interact with the
field and induces current in the detector.
I. Applications in medicine
The operation of some medical equipment that creates images or patterns of how
an internal organ in the body functions or that stimulates senses is based on the concept
of electromagnetic induction. Some of these medical devices are listed below
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Endoscope
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Electroencephalogram (EEG)
Hearing Aids
Defibrillator
1. Which statement is true about a positively charged object?

a. It contains more electrons than protons.
b. It contains more protons than electrons.
c. It contains equal number of protons and electrons.
d. It contains more positively charged molecules than negatively charged ones.
Answer: b. It contains more protons than electrons.

Explanation:
An object having more protons is positively charged since the proton itself has
positive charge and the magnitude of the charge of a proton is equal to that of the electron.
charged. An object containing equal number of protons and electrons is electrically neutral or
ge
magnitude. There can be less negatively charged molecules, but the combined charge
cannot be the correct answer.
2. When resistors are connected in parallel __________.

a. the voltage across each resistor is the same
b. the current flowing through each resistor is the same
c. both the current through and the voltage across each resistor are equal
d. neither of the current through nor the voltage across each resistor is the same
Answer: a. the voltage across each resistor is the same

Explanation:
When resistances or any electrical device are connected in parallel, these circuit
is true if and only if the resistors have equal resistances. The steam of the item is general and
it does not indicate that the resistors have equal resistances. Thus, this option cannot be the
correct answer. Because of this principle, the rest of the options are also incorrect.
3. If R1 is doubled, ___________.
a. the current drawn from the voltage source decreases
b. the resistance of the network increases
c. the current in R2 and R3 decreases
d. all of the above
55
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Answer: d. all of the above

Explanation:
When R1 is increased, the equivalent resistance of the network will increase as well.
This increase in resistance results to lesser current which the voltage source will supply to
the network. It the current supplied to the network is reduced, then it follows automatically
that the current in R2 and R3
correct.
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true about radio waves?

a. Radio waves may be considered as low frequency light waves.po
b. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves.
c. Radio waves are transverse waves.
d. Radio waves are sound waves.
Answer: d.
Explanation:
Radio waves are NOT sound waves. Radio waves are low frequency
electromagnetic waves. Light is also an electromagnetic wave making
a
electromagnetic waves are perpendicular with each other and with the direction of the EM
wave propagation, radio waves are classified as transverse waves.
5. The primary coil of an ideal transformer has 1000 turns and the secondary coil has 100
turns. The current in the primary coil is 2 A and the input power of the transformer is 12
W. Which of the following is correct about the secondary current and the secondary
power output of the transformer?
Secondary Current Secondary Power Output

a. 0.2 A 12 W
b. 0.2 A 120 W
c. 20 A 1.2 W
d. 20 A 12 W
Answer: d.
Explanation:
The power input and the power output are equal to each other. To
determine the current in the secondary coil, the transformer equation is used as
shown
N p Is
Ns Ip
Np
Is Ip ;
Ns
1000
Is 2A
100
Is 20 A
6. What is the magnitude and polarity of an object if 1000 electrons were added to it?
a. + 1.6 x 10-16 C c. + 1.6 x 10-22 C
-16
b. 1.6 x 10 C d. 1.6 x 10-22 C
7. The electrostatic force on a proton in an electric field is _________ to the direction of

the field.
a. parallel c. perpendicular
b. opposite d. can not be determined from the given
8. When released in an electric field region, an electron will _________.

a. accelerate opposite to the direction of the electric field
b. move perpendicular to the direction of the electric field
c. accelerate to the direction of the electric field
d. not move at all
56
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
9. Which statement is true about electrostatic force between subatomic particles?

a. The force between two protons is equal in magnitude and same direction as
that of a proton and electron.
b. The force between two protons is equal in magnitude between that of a proton
and an electron.
c. The force between two electrons is equal to that of an electron and a neutron.
d. The force between two protons is equal to that of a proton and a neutron.
10. The force between two charges, Q 1 = +2 C and Q2 = +3 C is F. What is the magnitude
of F if Q2 is replaced by 3 C charge?
a. greater than F c. less than F
b. equal to F d. can not be determine
11. What happens to the force between two protons if their separation distance is
doubled?
a. Doubled c. Halved
b. Quadrupled d. Quartered
12. The force between two charges is 20 N. If the magnitude of the charges is reduced to
half, what is the magnitude of the force between them?
a. 80 N c. 10 N
b. 40 N d. 5 N
13. Force : newton ; electric field : ________

a. ampere c. newton per ampere
b. coulomb d. newton per coulomb
14. The resistance of a conductor is ___________.

a. directly proportional to its length
b. inversely proportional to its resistivity
c. inversely proportional to the square of its cross-sectional area
d. all of the above
15. A metal conductor has a circular cross-sectional area. What happens to its resistance
if its diameter is doubled?
16. Which statement is true about resistors in series?

a. The equivalent resistance is less than the biggest resistance, but greater than
the least resistance connected in the network.
b. The equivalent resistance is greater than any of the resistances in the network.
c. The equivalent resistance is less than any of the resistances in the network.
d. None of the above.
For items 17 to 20, refer to the figure below.
R1
10 V R2 R3
17.
18. What is the total current drawn out of this source?

a. 0.67 A c. 3.03 A
b. 1.33 A d. 16.67 A
19. What is the voltage across R3?

a. 1.52 V c. 6.65 V
b. 3.35 V d. 8.34 V
57
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
20. What is the current in R2?

a. 0.50 A c. 1.33 A
b. 0.67 A d. 3.03 A
21. In the laboratory, to verify the current in a resistor, _______________.

a. an ammeter is connected in series with the resistor
b. a voltmeter is connected in series with the resistor
c. an ammeter is connected parallel to the resistor
d. a voltmeter is connected parallel to the resistor
22. Which statement is true?

a. An ammeter has negligible resistance.
b. A voltmeter has negligible resistance.
c. An ammeter measures voltage.
d. A voltmeter measures current.
23.
a. junction c. meshes
b. loops d. b and c
24.
a. Always true c. Sometimes true
b. Often time d. Never true
25. T
a. conservation of charge c. conservation of mass
b. conservation of energy d. conservation of quantum numbers
26.
a. The sum of the currents entering the node is equal to that leaving the same
node.
b. The current in a conducting loop is the same for all resistors in the loop.
c. The numerical sum of the currents entering a node is zero.
d. The sum of the current over a loop is zero.
For Items 27 to 32, study the figure below.
I1 R1 R2 I2
+ +
I3
V1 + V2
V3
1 R3 2
27. Which current equation is correct?

a. I1 + I2 + I3 = 0 c. I1 I2 + I3 = 0
b. I1 + I2 I3 = 0 d. I1 + I2 + I3 = 0
28. Which current relationship is true when 2 > 1and R1 = R2 = R3?

a. I1 < I2 c. I1 > I3
b. I1 > I2 d. I2 > I3
29. When R3 is increased, __________.

a. I3 increases c. I3 remains the same
b. I3 decreases d. I3 becomes zero
30. Which power relationship is true when R1 is decreased and 1 = 2?

a. P1 > P2 c. P1 = P2
b. P1 < P2 d. Cannot be determined from the given
31. If 1 is equal to 2 and all the resistances are equal, ___________.

a. the voltage across each electrical elements is zero
b. the resistance of the resistors becomes infinite
c. the current in the circuit is zero
d. all of the above
58
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
32. When R3 is removed, ___________.

a. the sum of the voltage drop equal to that of the voltage rise
b. the currents become infinite
c. R1 and R2 are in series
d. 1 equals 2
33. A proton is shot from the right toward a spot just between the ends of the magnet.
Which will likely happen to the proton?
a. Unaffected by the magnetic field
b. Deflected away from the plane of the page
c. Repelled by both poles and therefore turned back
d. Attracted to one of the poles and repelled from the
other
34.
field?
a. Iron core of the earth
b. The changing atmosphere of the earth
c. The moving tectonic plates of the earth
d. Moving charges in the liquid core part of the earth
35. A device that transforms electrical energy to mechanical energy is known as a

a. Generator c. Motor
b. Magnet d. Transformer
36. Which of the following methods will result to an induced current in a loop of wire?
I. Moving a magnet into the loop of wire
II. Moving the loop of wire into a magnet
III. Placing the loop near a wire where an alternating current is flowing
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. I, II and III
37. A capacitor and an inductor are electronic components that store electrical energy.
How is an inductor different from a capacitor?
a. An inductor is an electromagnet
b. An inductor is made up of a coil of wire
c. An inductor may be made into a capacitor
d. An inductor stores energy in its magnetic field
38. Which of the following is NOT a function of a resistor in a circuit?

I. It limits the flow of current
II. It prevents short and overloading
III. It regulates the voltage of circuit elements
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. I, II and III
39. Which of the following describes a step up transformer?
Primary Coil Secondary Coil

No. of Turns Voltage No. of turns Voltage
a. 200 10 V 50 100 V
b. 200 10 V 150 100 V
c. 200 10 V 200 100 V
d. 200 10 V 2000 100 V
40. What is the difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker?

a. A fuse is cheaper than a circuit breaker.
b. A fuse is connected in parallel while a circuit breaker is connected in series.
c. A fuse protects a parallel circuit while a circuit breaker protects a series circuit.
d. A fuse needs to be replaced once used and a circuit breaker maybe used more than
once.
41. How does a diode convert an AC signal to a DC signal?

a. By filtering the flow of current in the circuit
b. By allowing current to pass in one direction
c. By resisting the flow of current in the circuit
d. By regulating the flow of current in the circuit
59
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
42. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the amount of current flowing in
an element in a circuit?
a. ammeter b. ohmmeter c. tester d. voltmeter
43. A transformer has 250 turns in its secondary coil. The secondary voltage is 10 V. If the
transformer is connected to a 220 V source, how many turns does the transformer have
in its primary coil?
a. 5500 b. 2500 c. 500 d. 11
44. The power rating of electrical devices or appliances indicates which of the following?
a. The amount of current consumed by the device per unit time.
b. The amount of energy consumed by the device per unit time.
c. The amount of potential difference needed to operate the device.
d. The amount of electric bill the consumer will pay when using the device.
45. Which of the following semiconducting device serves as an amplifier in a circuit?

a. capacitors b. diodes c. integrated circuits d. transistors
46. Which of the following is NOT a variable resistor?

a. Carbon film resistors c. Rheostat
b. Photoresistor d. Thermistor
47. A step up transformer is used by power plants to transmit electrical power at a very
high voltage over a large distance. Why is this so?
a. It is the cheapest way of transmitting electrical power.
b. Because large amount of power requires large amount of voltage for
transmission.
c. Because high voltage transmission lines have almost zero resistance to the flow
of current.
d. Because current is small in high voltage transmission lines preventing significant
waste of electrical energy.
48. A device that transforms mechanical energy to electrical energy is known as a

__________.
a. generator c. motor
b. magnet d. transformer
49. Broadcast frequencies of AM stations are between

a. 530 1600 kHz c. 54 900 MHz
b. 88 100 MHz d. 1000 2000 MHz
50. Which of the following semiconducting device is generally used as an indicator when
an appliance is turned on or off?
a. Light emitting diodes c. Photoresistors
b. Photodiodes d. Small lamps
51. What is produced when there is a rapid change in the magnetic field of a material?
a. Current c. Magnetic force
b. Electric field d. Potential difference
52. The unit kilowatt-hours (kWh) indicates which of the following?

a. Current b. Energy c. Power d. Voltage
53. Compared to the primary coil, the number of turns in the secondary coil of a step up
transformer is _____________.
a. less c. the same
b. more d. infinite
54. What does a changing magnetic field in a coil of wire produce?

a. An induced power c. An induced resistance
b. An induced voltage d. An induced coil polarity
55. Several paper clips dangle from the north pole of a magnet. What is the induced pole
in the bottom of the lowermost paper clip?
a. North pole c. North or South pole
b. South pole d. Cannot be determined
60
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
56. Which of the following is true about a magnet that is broken into two pieces?
a. Both pieces are as magnetic as the original magnet.
b. Both magnets are stronger than the original magnet.
c. Both magnets will have a north pole and a south pole.
d. One of the pieces is a north pole and the other is a south pole.
57. A bar magnet is passed through a coil of wire. In which case would the induced
current in the coil of wire greatest?
a. When the magnet moves slowly so that it is inside the coil for a long time
b. When the magnet moves fast so that it is inside the coil for a short time
c. When the north pole of the magnet enters the coil first
d. When the south pole of the magnet enters the coil first
58. Why does alternating current replace direct current for general use?
a. Alternating current has more power than direct current
b. Alternating voltages are convenient to transform
c. Generators always generate alternating current
d. Alternating current is safer than direct current
59. How does the audio signal of television networks transmitted?

a. By modulating the frequency of the wave
b. By modulating the amplitude of the wave
c By transforming it to an analog signal
d. By transforming it to a digital signal
60. Which of the following medical devices DOES NOT use the principles of electricity and
magnetism to create images or patterns of how organs in the body functions?
a. EEG b. ECG c. MRI d. Ultrasound
1. Which statement is true about a negatively charged object?

a. It contains more electrons than protons.
b. It contains more protons than electrons.
c. It contains equal number of protons and electrons.
d. It contains more negatively charged molecules than positively charged ones.
2. What is the magnitude and polarity of an object if 10,000 electrons were removed from
it?
a. + 1.6 x 10-15 C c. + 1.6 x 10-23 C
b. 1.6 x 10-15 C d. 1.6 x 10-23 C
3. The electrostatic force on an electron is directed downward in the electric field region.
What is the direction of the field at the point where the electron is placed?
a. Opposite c. Perpendicular
b. Parallel d. Cannot be determined from the given
4. A free proton in an electric field region will _________.

a. move perpendicular to the direction of the electric field
b. accelerate opposite to the direction of the electric field
c. accelerate to the direction of the electric field
d. not move at all
5. Which statement is true about electrostatic force between subatomic particles?

a. The force between two electrons is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
as that between an electron and a proton.
b. The force between two electrons is equal in magnitude and same direction as that
between a proton and an electron.
c. The force between two protons is equal in magnitude to that between two
neutrons.
d. The force between two electrons is equal to that between two neutrons.
6. The force between two charged particles is F. What happens to this force if the charge
of the particles is doubled?
a. 4F c. F/2
b. 2F d. F/4
61
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
7. What happens to the force between electrons if their separation distance is halved?
8. The force between two charges is 20 N. If the separation distance between them is
doubled, what is the magnitude of the force between them?
a. 80 N c. 10 N
b. 40 N d. 5 N
9. Electric potential energy: joule; electric potential: ________
a. ampere c. volt
b. coulomb d. watt
10. The graph of the resistance of a conductor versus its cross-sectional area is a
________.
a. parabola c. linear curve
b. hyperbola d. sinusoidal curve
11. A metal conductor has a circular cross-sectional area. What happens to its resistance
if its diameter is halved?
12. Which statement is true about resistors in parallel?

a. The equivalent resistance is less than the biggest resistance, but greater than the
least resistance connected in the network.
b. The equivalent resistance is greater than any of the resistances in the network.
c. The equivalent resistance is less than any of the resistances in the network.
d. None of the above.
13. When resistors are connected in series, _________.

a. the voltage across each resistor is the same
b. the current flowing through each resistor is the same
c. both the current through and the voltage across each resistor are equal
d. neither of the current through nor the voltage across each resistor is the same
For items 14 to 18, study the circuit below.
R2
10 V R1
R3
14.
15. What is the total current drawn out of this source?

a. 0.67 A c. 3.03 A
b. 1.33 A d. 16.67 A
16. What is the voltage across R2?

a. 2.5 V c. 7.5 V
b. 5.0 V d. 10 V
17. What is the current in R1?

a. 2.00 A c. 0.67 A
b. 1.00 A d. 0.50 A
18. If R1 is halved, ___________.

a. the current drawn from the voltage source increases
b. the resistance of the network decreases
c. the current in R1 remains the same
d. all of the above
62
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
19. In the laboratory, to determine the voltage across a resistor, ______________.

a. an ammeter is connected in series with the resistor
b. a voltmeter is connected in series with the resistor
c. an ammeter is connected parallel to the resistor
d. a voltmeter is connected parallel to the resistor
20. Which statement is true?

a. An ammeter has negligible resistance c. An ammeter measures voltage
b. A voltmeter has negligible resistance d. A voltmeter measures current
21. e Law :
__________
a. conservation of mass c. conservation of quantum numbers
b. conservation of energy d. b and c
22.
a. Always true c. Sometimes true
b. Often time d. Never true
23.
a. capacitors c. potential and current sources
b. inductors d. resistors
24.
a. The numerical sum of the voltage rise and that of the potential drop in a
conducting loop are equal.
b. The sum of the voltage rise and the voltage drop in a conducting loop is zero.
c. The voltage across any resistor in a loop is always a voltage drop.
d. The voltage across a voltage source is sometimes a voltage drop.
25. An electric motor converts electrical energy into _______________.

a. chemical energy c. mechanical energy
b. light d. voltage
26. Which of the following is increased or decreased in a transformer?

a. Current c. Magnetic field
b. Energy d. Voltage
27. Rapid changes of the electric field produces ____________.

a. current c. magnetic field
b. electromagnets d. voltage
28. In order to reduce resistance losses, how do power plants transmit electric power?
Power is transmitted in the power lines ____________.
a. at low voltage
b. at high current
c. using step up transformers at the generating plant
d. using step down transformers at the generating plant
For items 29 to 34, refer to the circuit below.
I1 R1 R2 I2
+ +
I3
V1 + V2
V3
1 R3 2
29. Which voltage equation is correct?

a. 1 V1 V3 = 0 c. 1 V1 + V2 2 = 0
b. 2 V2 V3 = 0 d. all of the above
30. Which voltage relationship is true if 2 > 1 and R1 = R2 = R3?

a. V1 > V3 c. V1 < V3
b. V2 > V3 d. V1 > V2
63
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
31. When R3 is decreased, the power in this resistor ___________.

a. increases c. remains the same
b. decreases d. becomes zero
32. Which relationship is true when R1 is increased and 1 = 2?

a. I1 > I2 c. I1 = I2
b. I1 < I2 d. can not be determined from the given
33. If 1 is negligible compared to 2 and all the resistances are equal, ___________.
a. the direction of I2 reverses c. the V1 becomes infinite
b. the magnitude of I2 becomes zero d. none of the above
34. When R2 is removed, ___________.
a. R1 and R3 are in series c. V3 becomes greater than V1
b. I2 reverses its direction d. the current in the circuit becomes zero
35. Compared to the primary coil, the number of turns in the secondary coil of a step down
transformer is _____________.
a. less c. the same
b. more d. infinite
36. Which of the following will most likely happen when there is a change in the magnetic
field in a closed loop of wire?
I. A voltage is induced in the wire
II. Electromagnetic induction occurs
III. Current is made to flow in the loop of wire
a. II only b. I and II c. II and III d. I, II and III
37. What is the nature of the force that is responsible in the operation of a DC motor?
a. Electrical c. Gravitational
b. Magnetic d. Electrical and magnetic
38. ed emf is proportional to ______________.

a. the rate of change of the magnetic field c. the rate of change of the electric field
b. the rate of change of the magnetic flux d. the rate of change of the electric flux
39. When does electromagnetic induction occur in a coil of wire?

a. When there is a change in electric field.
b. When there is a change in magnetic field.
c. When there is a change in the voltage of the coil.
d. When there is a change in the polarity of the coil.
40. In which of the following cases is voltage induced in a wire

I. Moving the wire near a magnet
II. Moving a magnet near a wire
III. Changing the current in the nearby wire
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. I, II and III
41. In what way does a circuit breaker protect the appliances or electronic elements in a
circuit when there is short or overloading?
a. The circuit breaker absorbs the excess current.
b. The circuit breaker opens the circuit when the current exceeds a certain value.
c. The circuit breaker distributes the excess current to all the appliances in the circuit.
d. The circuit breaker guides the current to the ground when it exceeds a certain
value.
42. Which of the following is true about magnets?

I. Like poles of magnets attract
II. Unlike poles of magnets repel
III. Always have north and south poles
a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I, II and III
43. Which pole of a compass needle points to a south pole of a magnet?

64
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
44. How does the video signal of television networks transmitted?

a. By modulating the frequency of the wave c By transforming it to an analog signal
b. By modulating the amplitude of the wave d. By transforming it to a digital signal
45. An electron is shot from the right toward a spot just between the ends of the magnet.
Which will likely happen to the electron?
a. Unaffected by the magnetic field.
b. Deflected into the plane of the page.
c. Repelled by both poles and therefore turned back.
d. Attracted to one of the poles and repelled from the other.
46. Which of the following describes a step down transformer?
Primary Coil Secondary Coil

No. of Turns Voltage No. of turns Voltage
a. 50 100 V 200 10 V
b. 150 100 V 200 10 V
c. 200 100 V 200 10 V
d. 2000 100 V 200 10 V
47. Which of the following instrument is used to measure the potential difference across
an element in a circuit?
a. Ammeter b. Ohmmeter c. Tester d. Voltmeter
48. The amount of energy consumed by an appliance per unit time is indicated as the
a. current b. power c. resistance d. voltage
49. Which of the following can be a function of a transistor in a circuit?

a. Amplifies current or electric signals c. Stores electrical energy
b. Limits the flow of current d. Regulates voltage
50. The heart pumps blood to the body by means of specialized heart cells, called
pacemaker cells, which sends pulses of electric current inside the heart enabling it to
contract and expand. The electric waves generated during heart activity maybe
recorded in an instrument called __________.
a. ECG b. EEG c. ECE d. MRI
51. Which of the following is needed for charges to flow through a circuit?
I. A path
II. A potential difference
III. An electrical component like resistors
a. I and II b. I and II c. II and III d. I, II and III
52. Which of the following law best explains the operation of a transformer?
c. Law of conservation of energy
53. A battery is connected to a lamp by means of a transformer. Current flows out of the
battery once the switch is turned on. Which of the following statements is true about the
light in the lamp?
I. The lamp will never light.
II. The lamp will momentarily light when the switch is turned on.
III. The lamp will momentarily light when the switch is turned off.
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. II and III
54. A battery has a voltage of 12 V. What does this mean?

a. Both terminals of the battery have a 12 V electric potential.
b. Both terminals of the battery have the same electric potential.
c. One of the terminals of the battery is 12 V and the other is 0 V.
d. One of the terminals of the battery is 12 V higher in electric potential than the other.
55. Which of the following device best demonstrates the concept that magnetism exerts a
force on a moving charge?
a. Diode b. Generator c. Motor d. Transformer
65
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
56. Which of the following can cause electric shock?

a. Current and power c. Voltage and power
b. Current and voltage d. Voltage and resistance
57. Which of the following can serve as a source of radio waves transmitted by
telecommunications systems?
a. Electromagnetic waves c. Electric circuits
b. Nuclear reactions d. The sun
58. Broadcast frequencies of FM stations are between_____________.

a. 530 1600 kHz c. 54 900 MHz
b. 88 100 MHz d. 1000 2000 MHz
59. A fuse or a circuit breaker is always connected in series with the appliance or the
circuit that it intends to protect when short or overloading happens. Why is this so?
a. It is easier to connect a fuse in series than in parallel.
b. Short and overloading always happen in series circuits.
c. There is higher probability for overloading in parallel circuits.
d. There is only one path for current to flow in a series connection.
60. Several pins dangle from the south pole of a magnet. What is the induced pole in the
bottom of the lowermost paper clip?
66
Focus: Heat and Thermodynamics
By: Prof. Ryan L. Arevalo
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Every process that requires a change in the temperature must be adiabatic.
The thermal efficiency of the Carnot Engine can be calculated using:
TC
e 1
TH
while the coefficient of performance of a Carnot Refrigerator can be expressed

as:
TC
K
TH TC
where the temperatures are expressed in Kelvin
Entropy is the quantitative measure of the amount of disorder. Whenever a physical

system is allowed to distribute its energy freely, its entropy increases while the available
energy of the system for doing work decreases.
1. Temperature is defined as the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules.

Suppose hydrogen and oxygen molecules in a gas sample have the same temperature,
which of the following statements is correct?
a. Hydrogen molecules have the same speed as oxygen molecules but have more
kinetic energy.
b. Hydrogen molecules have the same speed as oxygen molecules but have less
kinetic energy.
c. Hydrogen molecules have the same kinetic energy as the oxygen molecules but
travel with greater speeds.
d. Hydrogen molecules have the same kinetic energy as the oxygen molecules but
travel with lesser speeds.
Since hydrogen and oxygen molecules have the same temperature, they must have the
same translational kinetic energy. However, the one with a smaller mass must be moving
faster than the other.
Choices A and B: These are false because both molecules have the same kinetic
energy but different speeds.
Choice C: Though hydrogen and oxygen molecules have the same kinetic energy,
oxygen molecules must be moving slower than hydrogen molecules
because of its greater mass.
Choice D: This is the correct answer. Both molecules must have the same kinetic
energy because they have the same temperature but oxygen must be
moving with a lesser speed because it has lesser compared to hydrogen.
Answer: D
2. The rate of heat transfer by radiation depends on the surface area of the body that
radiates electromagnetic wave. Assuming that stars radiate energy at the same rate,
which of the following is the biggest?
a. blue star
b. orange star
c. red star
d. yellow star
Note first that the rate of heat transfer by radiation is proportional to the surface area of
the body that radiates EMW and its temperature. Also, the frequency of EMW radiated
with the greatest intensity increases with increasing temperature. Assuming that all stars
radiate energy at the same rate, the one with the lowest temperature must have the
largest surface area.
Choice A: The blue star must have the highest temperature as compared to the
other options because it has the highest frequency of EMW radiation.
Therefore, this must be the smallest among the choices.
77
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Choices B and D: The colors of these stars are between blue and red in terms of its
frequency. Their corresponding sizes must be between that for
blue and red.
Choice C: Since red star has the smallest frequency of EMW radiation, it must also
have the lowest temperature compared to the other options. In order to
equal the rate of heat transfer by the other stars, it must have the largest
surface area.
Answer: C
3. During daytime, land is hotter than the sea. These inverts during nighttime: sea is hotter
than the land. What does this illustrate?
a. Land has higher specific heat capacity than water.
b. Sea has higher specific heat capacity than water.
c. Land receives more energy from the sun than the sea during daytime.
d. Sea receives more energy from the sun than the sea during daytime.
If we consider the same mass and amount of energy absorbed by the land and sea, the
one with the greater increase in temperature during daytime indicates a smaller specific
capacity. A body with a large specific heat capacity requires large amount of heat to
increase its temperature by given amount.
Choice A: By the argument above, land must have a lesser specific heat capacity
compared to the water in the sea. During daytime, land has higher
temperature than water because less amount of heat is needed to
increase its temperature by a given amount. During night time, land is
cooler than sea because it only needs to release small amount of heat to
cool its temperature by a given amount.
Choice B: This is the correct answer. Sea has higher specific heat capacity than
land. During daytime, it requires more heat than land to increase its
temperature by a given amount. During nighttime, it needs to release
more heat than land to decrease its temperature by a given amount. We
Choices C and D: These are incorrect because if we consider the same surface
area for the land and sea, both of them must receive the same
amount of sunlight from the sun.
Answer: B
4. Heat added to the system either raises the temperature of the substance or changes its
phase. Which of the following involves the greatest amount of heat?
a. Melting of 1 kg of ice to 1 kg of water at 0 degree Celsius.
b. Freezing of 1 kg of 0 degree Celsius water to 1 kg ice at absolute zero.
c. Condensation of 1 kg of steam at 100 degrees Celsius to 100 degrees Celsius
water.
d. Change of state of 1 kg of 100 degrees Celsius water to 1 kg of ice at absolute
zero.
Choices A and B: The heat needed is equal to the latent heat of fusion of water
which is 3.34×10 5 J.
Choice C: The heat involved is equal to the latent heat of vaporization which is
2.26×106 J. This has the greatest magnitude of heat compared to the
other choices.
Choice D: The heat required is the sum of heat released to change the temperature
of water from 100 degrees Celsius to 0 degrees Celsius, heat released to
freeze it into ice, and heat released to change the temperature from 0
degrees Celsius to absolute zero (273.15 oC). This is equal to 1.33×106 J.
Answer: C
78
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
5. While the first law of thermodynamics is a restatement of the conservation of energy, the
second law of thermodynamics limits the validity of this. Which of the following is a
violation of both the first and second law?
a. An ice cube is placed in a hot coffee; the ice gets colder and the coffee gets
hotter.
b. Butter is placed in a hot bread; the butter melts and the bread cools.
c. Cold water is placed in a cold glass; the glass gets colder and the water gets
colder.
d. A hot metal is placed in a cold water; the metal gets hotter and water gets colder.
Choice A: This violates the Second Law of Thermodynamics but satisfies First Law
(energy is conserved).
Choice B: This satisfies both First and Second Laws because energy is conserved
and the heat flows from the hot to cold body.
Choice C: This violates both laws because both bodies released energy by cooling
(energy is not conserved) and heat did not flow in a direction preferred
by the Second Law of Thermodynamics.
Choice D: This is a violation of Second Law but not of the First Law.
Answer: C
6. Heat can be transferred through conduction, convection, or radiation. When you place
your finger at the side of a flame of a burning candle, the warmth that you feel is primarily
caused by which mechanism of heat transfer?
a. conduction c. radiation
b. convection d. transpiration
7. When placed under the sun, a black pot of water will warm first than the white pot
because it is a good absorber of radiation. Suppose the two pots where filled with boiling
water, which pot will cool first?
a. Black pot because it is a poor emitter of radiation.
b. White pot because it is a good emitter of radiation.
c. Black pot because it will radiate energy at a greater rate.
d. White pot because it will radiate energy at a greater rate.
8. Three objects: cotton, wood, and metal are kept outside the room for a long time until all
of them have the same temperature. Which object feels coldest when you touch it?
a. cotton c. wood
b. metal d. they all feel equally cold
9. Three cups with the same amount of water are in a room with ambient temperature of
25oC. Cups A, B, and C have initial temperatures of 55 oC, 40oC, and 30oC, respectively.
Which cup will cool down at a faster rate?
a. cup A c. cup C
b. cup B d. they have the same rate of cooling
10. Evaporation is the process of converting liquid into gas. What can be done to increase
the rate of evaporation of a liquid?
a. decrease the surface area c. add more heat to the boiling liquid
b. increase the temperature d. increase the pressure on the surface
11. Latent heat is the amount of heat needed to change the phase of a given mass of a
substance. How much heat is needed to change the phase of one kilogram of ice into
one kilogram water?
a. 334 × 103 J c. 326 × 103 J
b. 38.1 × 103 J d. 2256 × 103 J
12. Liquid water and steam can coexist in equilibrium at 100 oC at atmospheric pressure. Why
does steam at 100oC cause more serious burn than liquid water at the same temperature
and mass?
a. Steam is less dense than water.
b. Steam strikes the skin with a greater pressure.
c. Steam has higher specific heat capacity than water.
d. Steam contains more internal energy than water at the same temperature.
79
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
13. A red-hot piece of iron is put into a bucket of cool water. Which of the following
statements is FALSE?
a. The iron and water both will reach the same temperature.
b. The decrease in iron temperature equals the increase in the water temperature.
c. The quantity of heat lost by the iron equals the quantity of heat gained by the
water.
d. The final temperature of the system is between the initial temperatures of iron
and water.
14. A thermometer is in a container half-filled with 20oC water. When a small amount of 40 oC
water is added, what is the final temperature of the mixture?
a. 20oC c. between 20oC and 30oC
o
b. 30 C d. between 30oC and 40oC
15. A thermodynamic process may be characterized by the following:

i. temperature
ii. internal energy
iii. heat
iv. work
v. entropy
Which of these are DEPENDENT on the path taken by the process?

a. i, ii, v c. ii, iii
b. iii, iv d. i, iii, iv
16. The second law of thermodynamics states that natural processes proceed towards the
direction of greater disorder. Which of the following obeys this statement?
hotter.
colder.
d. A hot metal is placed in cold water; the metal gets hotter and water gets colder.
17. When you blow your palm with your mouth narrowly opened, the air that you feel is cool
because of adiabatic expansion. Why does the temperature of a gas decrease during
adiabatic expansion?
a. Work is done on the system as the gas expands.
b. Heat is absorbed by the piston when it does work.
c. Heat is given up by the system when the piston moves.
d. Work done by the system is done entirely at the expense of its internal energy.
18. Carnot Engine is the most efficient engine consistent with the second law of
thermodynamics. What is the change in the entropy of the universe due to an operating
Carnot Engine?
a. zero c. negative
b. positive d. greater than one
19. OTEC or Ocean Thermal Energy takes advantage of the warm surface temperature of
ocean and cold underwater temperature. Calculate the ideal thermal efficiency of OTEC
that operates between temperatures 27 oC and 4oC.
a. 7.66% c. 27.66%
b. 17.66% d. 37.66%
20. Heat Engine is a device that absorbs heat from a hot reservoir and converts it partially
into mechanical work. Which of the following is an engine that violates the second law of
thermodynamics?
a. An engine that is less efficient than a Carnot Engine.
b. An engine that changes all of its mechanical work into heat.
c. An engine that operates in a cycle with two isotherms and two adiabats.
d. An engine that changes all the heat from the source to mechanical energy.
21. A heat engines exhausts heat Q to a cold reservoir. What amount of work was done by
the engine?
a. equal to Q c. greater than Q
b. lesser than Q d. may be any value
80
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
22. A diesel engine is not efficient than a gasoline engine. Which of the following does NOT
show that difference between the two?
a. The diesel engine has greater compression ratio than the gasoline engine.
b. The diesel engine has a fuel injector while a gasoline engine has a spark plug.
c. Pre-ignition can be avoided more in the gasoline engine than in the diesel
engine.
d. The gasoline engine takes in air and fuel mixture in the intake stroke, while the
diesel engine takes in air only.
23. The working substance or refrigerant in a refrigerator undergoes process such as

vaporization and condensation. Which of the following is the best characteristic of a
refrigerant?
a. easy to liquefy c. easy to solidify
b. hard to liquefy d. hard to solify
24. A refrigerator works by taking heat from a cold place and giving it off to a warmer place.
What accounts for the cooling effect inside the refrigerator?
a. The vaporization of the refrigerant liquid absorbs energy.
b. The motor converts electrical energy into thermal energy.
c. The inside of the refrigerator is properly insulated from heat.
d. The compression of the refrigeration gas into liquid takes in heat.
25. A refrigerator extracts heat Q from a cold reservoir. What amount of heat may be
exhausted by the refrigerator to the hot reservoir?
a. Zero c. equal to Q
b. less than Q d. greater than Q
1. A body with high coefficient of thermal expansion expands and contracts more than other
materials with low coefficient of thermal expansion. Which of the following nut and bolt
pairs needs to be cooled to make it easier to remove the nut?
Nut Bolt
a. Aluminum Steel
b. Brass Copper
c. Steel Brass
d. Brass Steel
2. Which of the following best explains why metals are both good heat and electrical
conductors?
a. Metals have relatively high density.
b. The outer electrons in a metal atom are loosely bound.
c. Unlike most materials, metals have high elastic properties.
d. For the case of metals, thermal and electrical conductive properties are similar.
3. A mind-over-matter show often presents a man walking barefoot on red-hot coals of

woods without burning the feet. How does he accomplish this?
a. Coals have low temperature.
b. Coals have low thermal conductivity.
c. A burning wood takes extra heat from the feet.
d. Since red is a low-frequency EMW, the rate of heat transfer by radiation is small.
4. Imagine one of your feet steps on a metal floor and the other on a wooden floor.
Assuming that the metal and wooden floor both have the same temperature but lower
than the temperature of your feet, which floor will feel colder?
a. Wooden floor, because it readily absorbs heat.
b. Metal floor, because it prevents the foot and itself to transfer heat.
c. Metal floor, because it is a good conductor, thus conducting heat out of the foot.
d. Wooden floor, because it is a good insulator, thus insulating the foot from heat
exchanges.
5. Where should the heater in a water tank be placed to efficiently warm the water?
a. Near the top, because water is less dense at the top.
b. Near the bottom, because water is denser at the bottom.
c. Near the bottom, because warm water rises and cold water sinks.
d. Near the top, because it is easier to warm cold water from the top part of the
tank.
81
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
6. Where should an airconditioner be placed to efficiently cool a room?

a. Near the ceiling, because the air is less dense at the top.
b. Near the ceiling, because warm air rises and cold air sinks.
c. Near the floor, because the air is denser at a lower elevation.
d. Near the floor, because it is easier to cool warm air from the lower part of the
room.
7. The intensity of EMW radiated by a blackbody with the greatest intensity varies with
temperature. Assuming that stars radiate energy at the same rate, which the following is
the hottest?
a. blue star c. red star
b. orange star d. yellow star
8. Energy from the sun reaches the earth even though the space between them is almost
vacuum. By what mechanism of heat transfer does the sun transfer energy to the earth?
a. conduction c. radiation
b. convection d. transduction
9. Land breeze and sea breeze result from the convection currents that stir the atmosphere.
During a sunny daytime, in which direction does cool breeze blow?
a. land to sea c. around the land only
b. sea to land d. around the sea only
10. Three objects: cotton, wood, and metal are kept outside the room for a long time until all
of them have the same temperature. Which object feels the hottest when you touch it?
a. cotton c. wood
b. metal d. they all feel equally hot
11. Three cups with the same amount of water are in a room with ambient temperature of
25oC. Cups A, B, and C have initial temperatures of 55 oC, 40oC, and 30oC, respectively.
Which cup will reach its final temperature most quickly?
a. cup A
b. cup B
c. cup C
d. they will reach their final temperature at the same time
12. How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one
Celsius degree?
a. 2400 J c. 4186 J
b. 2100 J d. 2010 J
13. Heat transfer which does not result to the change in temperature results to a change in
phase of the substance. In which of the following processes for phase change is energy
absorbed by the substance?
a. condensation c. freezing
b. deposition d. sublimation
14. A thermometer is in a container half-filed with 20oC water. When equal volume of 40 oC
water is added, what is the final temperature of the mixture?
a. 20oC c. 40oC
b. 30oC d. 50oC
15. The first law of thermodynamics is a restatement of the conservation of energy. Which of
the following violates this?
hotter.
colder.
d. A hot metal is placed in cold water; the metal gets hotter and water gets colder.
16. A thermodynamic process may be characterized by the following:

i. temperature
ii. internal energy
iii. heat
iv. work
v. entropy
82
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Which of these are INDEPENDENT of the path taken by the process?
a. i, ii, v c. ii, iii

b. iii, iv d. i, iii, iv
17. The temperature of a system composed of an ideal gas contained in a cylinder fitted
with a piston increases during an adiabatic compression. Why is this so?
a. Heat is absorbed by the system when work is done on it.
b. Work is done by the system which increases its pressure.
c. Work is done on the system which increases its internal energy.
d. Work done by the system is done entirely at the expense of its internal energy.
18. A liquid is irregularly stirred in a well-insulated container and thereby undergoes a rise
in temperature. Regarding the liquid as a system, which of the following statements is
true?
a. Heat has been transferred by doing work on the liquid.
b. There is a positive change in the internal energy of the liquid.
c. The work done by the system is equal to the wok done on the system.
d. The rise in temperature is an indication that work is done by the liquid on the
environment.
19. Isothermal process is a thermodynamic process wherein the temperature throughout its
path is constant. How can a gas absorb heat without changing its temperature?
a. by slowly compressing it c. by keeping its volume constant
b. by increasing its pressure d. by doing sufficient work in expanding
20. Two identical blocks of iron, one at 10 degrees Celsius and the other at 20 degrees
Celsius, are put in contact. Suppose the cooler block cools to 5 degrees Celsius and
the warmer block warms to 25 degrees Celsius, which law in thermodynamics will be
violated?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics c. Second Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics d. Third Law of Thermodynamics
21. A heat engine absorbs heat Q from a hot reservoir. What amount of work may be done
by the engine?
a. zero c. equal to Q
b. less than Q d. greater than Q
22. What will happen to the temperature of the room if you will keep the refrigerator door
open?
a. Decrease, because it will operate like an airconditioner.
b. Increase, because the refrigerator will operate in reverse process.
c. Decrease, because a refrigerator takes in heat from the room and exhaust it in its
hot reservoir.
d. Increase, because aside from the heat taken from the room, a net input of work
will also be exhausted in the same room.
23. Ice can be made from water through the process of freezing. What happens to the
entropy of water as it was converted into ice?
a. The entropy increases.
b. The entropy decreases.
c. The entropy is unchanged as the water cools and decreases as the water
freezes.
d. The entropy decreases while the water is cooling but does not change as it turns
to ice.
24. A refrigerator works by taking heat from a cold place and giving it off to a warmer place.
How does a refrigerator exhaust heat to a warmer place?
a. The vaporization of the refrigerant liquid absorbs energy.
b. The motor converts electrical energy into thermal energy.
c. The inside of the refrigerator is properly insulated from heat.
d. The compression of the refrigeration gas into liquid gives off heat.
25. A refrigerator exhausts heat Q to the hot reservoir. What amount of heat must have
taken by the refrigerator from the cold reservoir?
a. equal to Q c. greater than Q
b. less than Q d. twice of Q
83
Focus: Modern Physics
By: Prof. Jasmine Angelie V. Albelda and Prof. Arwin E. Borja
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Which of the following observations made by an observer in a moving inertial frame of

reference is consistent with the postulates of the special theory of relativity?
a. Moving clocks run fast.
b. Moving sticks oriented parallel to the direction of motion become longer.
c. Simultaneous events happening at two different places will always be
simultaneous to another observer.
d. Light always travel at the same speed in vacuum regardless of the relative
motion between the source and the observer.
3. If you consider a blinking light source that approaches an observer, what happens to its
speed?
a. Increases c. Remains the same
b. Decreases
frequency?
b. Decreases
wavelength?
b. Decreases
6. For a spaceship moving very fast with respect to the earth, the clocks on board are
perceived to run slow when viewed from _____.
a. the earth c. both places
b. the space ship d. none of them
7. According to the special theory of relativity, all laws of nature are the same in reference
frames that _____.
a. accelerate c. both a and b
b. move at constant speed d. none of them
8. Two meteorites are seen to strike two distant locations at the same time. As seen from a
different location, the two lightning bolts _____.
a. will also be seen at the same time
b. will not be seen at the same time
c. may or may not be seen at the same time
9. There is an upper limit on the speed of a particle. This means that there is also an upper
limit on its _____.
a. momentum c. both of them
b. kinetic energy d. none of them
10. Under what condition do relativity equations for length, mass, and time hold true?
a. Relativistic speeds c. Both of them
b. Everyday low speeds d. None of them
11. John and Paul are identical twins. One day, John embarked on a high speed deep
space travel into a distant star. When he gets back home, who is older than the other
twin?
a. John
b. Paul
c. none of them because they are still of the same age
12. While the spaceship is still at rest on earth, a woman on board finds that a wooden rod
she is carrying is 1 meter long. When the spaceship is moving very fast deep into the
outer space, what will the woman find out about the length of the same wooden rod she
is still carrying?
a. It will be longer. c. It will still be of the same length.
b. It will be shorter.
13. How does the relativistic momentum of a fast moving body compare to the momentum
(mv) of the same body according to classical physics?
a. Smaller c. The same
b. Greater
93
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
14. According to the well known equation E =mc2,

a. mass and energy are related.
b. mass and energy travel at the same speed, the speed of light.
c. when mass travels at the speed of light, it is converted to energy.
d. when energy travels at the speed of light, it is converted to mass.
15. According to the special theory of relativity, what will you notice about your own pulse
rate if you travel at a very high speed?
a. Smaller c. Just the same
b. Greater
16. Which of the following statements is consistent with the general theory of relativity?
a. Clock at the bottom of a skyscraper ticks faster than the clock at the top.
b. Light always travels along a straight line path even in the vicinity of a very strong
gravitational field.
c. Gravity is the manifestation of the warping of curved space time.
d. Time and space are two closely related concepts that are dependent on each
other.
17. Which clock ticks faster, the clock at the bottom of a skyscraper or another clock at the
top?
a. The clock at the top.
b. The clock at the bottom.
c. None because they tick at the same rate.
18. You are in a room with no windows. Which simple experiment would show whether you
are on earth or in a space station that rotates to produce artificial gravity?
a. Release a ball on the floor.
b. Drop a ball from above the floor.
c. Observe a body hanging from a spring, oscillating up and down.
d. No experiment such as these could distinguish the two possibilities.
19. When does light behave as if it were composed of particles?

a. When it propagates in space. c. Under all conditions.
b. When it interacts with matter.
20. When does light behave as if it were a wave phenomenon?

a. When it propagates in space. c. Under all conditions.
b. When it interacts with matter.
21. The photoelectric effect best demonstrates ______.

a. the wave nature of light c. both of them
b. the particle nature of light d. none of them
22. In photoelectric effect, what quantity determines work function?

a. Applied voltage c. Light intensity
b. Frequency of the incident light d. Metal that the light strikes
23. Which of the following assertions of classical theories is inconsistent with the
photoelectric effect?
a. A photocurrent is observed immediately.
b. No photoemission can occur below the threshold frequency.
c. The photocurrent is proportional to the light intensity.
d. The kinetic energy of the emitted electron is dependent on the intensity, but not
on the frequency.
24. The quantum theory was first proposed in an attempt to account theoretically for
experimental results in connection with _____.
a. Relativity c. Radio transmission
b. Radioactivity d. Blackbody radiation
25. In the photoelectric effect, what quantity is determined by the frequency of the
illuminating light on the photosensitive surface?
a. The number of ejected electrons c. Both of them
b. The speed of the ejected electrons d. None of them
94
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
26. A photosensitive surface is illuminated with both red and blue light. Which light will cause
the most electrons to be ejected?
a. Red light
b. Blue light
c. Both will eject the same number of electrons
d. Not enough information is given
27. When blue light is used to illuminate the smooth surface of a sodium metal,
photoelectrons are emitted. If the intensity of the blue light is increased, which of the
following will also increase?
a. The number of electrons ejected per second.
b. The threshold frequency of the ejected electrons.
c. The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons.
d. The time lag between the absorption of blue light and the emission of the
electrons.
28. The photoelectric effect can be understood on the basis of _____.

a. the Quantum Theory c. the General Theory of Relativity
b. the Special Theory of Relativity d. the Electromagnetic Theory of Light
29. A surface emits photoelectrons only when the light shone on it exceeds a certain _____.
a. speed c. frequency
b. wavelength d. intensity
30. Light falling on the surface of a metal such as potassium can liberate electrons from the
metal. Which of the following can increase the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
emitted?
a. Using light of lower frequency.
b. Using light of higher frequency.
c. Increasing the intensity of the incident light.
d. Using a metal with a greater work function.
1. If you consider a blinking light source that is receding an observer, what happens to its
speed?
b. Decreases
2. If you consider a blinking light source that is receding an observer, what happens to its
frequency?
b. Decreases
3. If you consider a blinking light source that is receding from an observer, what happens to
its wavelength?
b. Decreases
4. When two light atoms fuse together, mass _____.

a. is converted to energy c. remains the same
b. is created from energy
5. The reason nuclear fission works is that _____.

a. uranium has less mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments
b. uranium has more mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments
c. uranium has exactly the same mass per nucleon as the two fragments
6. Suppose a hydrogen bomb were exploded in a box that could contain all the energy
released by the explosion. The weight of the box after the explosion would be _____.
a. more c. the same
b. less
7. Nuclear fission and fusion reactions give off energy because _____.
a. they result in the production of protons
b. they result in the production of neutrons
c. the binding energy per nucleon is least for nuclei of intermediate size
d. the binding energy per nucleon is greatest for nuclei of intermediate size
95
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
8. The element whose nuclei contain the most tightly bound nucleons is _____.
a. helium c. carbon
b. iron d. uranium
9. The binding energy per nucleon is _____.

a. the same for all nuclei
b. greatest for very large nuclei
c. greatest for very small nuclei
d. greatest for nuclei of intermediate size
10. Relative to the sum of the masses of its constituents, the mass of a nucleus is _____.
a. smaller c. the same
b. greater
11. _____.
a. radioactivity c. the conversion of hydrogen to helium
b. nuclear fission d. the conversion of helium to hydrogen
12. Which of the following correctly describes chain reaction as it applies to nuclear
processes?
a. The joining together of light nuclei to form heavy ones.
b. The joining together of protons and neutrons to form atomic nuclei .
c. The burning of uranium in a special type of furnace called the nuclear reactor.
d. The successive fissions of heavy nuclei induced by neutron emitted in the
fissions of the other heavy nuclei.
13. Which of the following produces more fuel than it uses?

a. Fission reactor c. Breeder reactor
b. Fusion reactor d. Moderator reactor
14. What is the main purpose of a moderator in a nuclear reactor?

a. Absorb the neutrons the thereby decrease the reaction rate.
b. Absorb the neutrons the thereby increase the reaction rate.
c. Slow the neutrons thereby decreasing the reaction rate.
d. Slow the neutrons thereby increasing the reaction rate.
15. The control rods in a nuclear reactor are used to _____.

a. produce neutrons c. absorb neutrons
b. all fuel to the reactor d. fragment elements by fission
16. What do you call the nuclear reaction process in which a heavy nucleus splits into two
roughly equal parts?
a. Fusion c. Radioactive decay
b. Fission d. Nuclear transmutation
17. About 200 MeV of energy is released in the average fission reaction. What happens to
most of this energy released?
a. It becomes the kinetic energy of fission neutrons.
b. It becomes the kinetic energy of the fission fragments.
c. It is carried off as energy of the alpha and beta radiation
d. It is released as electromagnetic radiation in the visible portion of the spectrum.
18. Nuclear fusion takes place when _____.

a. small nuclei combine to form larger one
b.
c.
d. a large nucleus splits into two fragments with the release of a few neutrons
19. Fusion reactions on the earth are likely to use _______ as fuel.
a. deuterium c. plutonium
b. ordinary hydrogen d. uranium
20. In a nuclear power plant the nuclear reactor itself is used to supply _____.
a. electricity c. neutrons
b. heat d. steam
21. Enriched uranium is a better fuel for nuclear reactors than natural uranium because it has
a greater proportion of _____.
a. deuterium c. U 235
b. slow neutrons d. U 238
96
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
22. A fusion reactor for commercial production of energy has not yet been developed. Which
of the following best explains why this is so?
a. Fusion occur only at extremely low temperatures.
b. Fusion needs fuel that is unavailable on Earth.
c. Fusion forms highly radioactive products.
d. Fusion requires very high energies.
23. What is the function of the moderator in a fission reactor?

a. The moderator absorbs radiation from the core.
b. The moderator absorbs fast and slow moving neutrons.
c. The moderator decreases the speeds of fast moving neutrons.
d. The moderator prevents the reactor from reaching a meltdown.
24. The energy of a photon depends on which of the following?

a. Frequency c. Temperature
b. Mass d. Wave amplitude
25.
relativity?
a. It is possible to travel back to time.
b. .
c. The question of whether an object is at rest in the universe is meaningless.
d. The value of physical quantities depends on the reference frame in which it is
measure.
26. Two balloons filled with helium are released simultaneously at points A and B on the x
axis shown in the figure in an earth based reference frame. Which of the following
observations is true for an observer that is moving in the +x direction?
a. Balloon A is released first.

b. Balloon B is released first.
c. The observer cannot determine whether the balloons were released
simultaneously or separately.
d.
distance between A and B.
27. Light is thought to have a dual nature. It behaves like a wave and a particle. In which of
the following does light behave like a particle and a particle behaves like a wave?
a. Water being heated to its boiling point in a microwave oven.
b. A beam of electron is diffracted as it passes through a narrow slit.
c. An electron enters a parallel plate capacitor and is deflected downward.
d. X-rays being used to examine the crystal structure of salts like sodium chloride.
28. Which of the following event is true based on the special theory of relativity?
a. Clocks that are moving run slower than when they are at rest.
b. Clocks that are moving run faster than when they are at rest.
c. Clocks run at the same rate regardless of whether they are moving or not.
d. .
29. Which of the following is true about the speed of light?

a. The speed of light is slower in a moving frame of reference.
b. The speed of light is constant in an inertial frame of reference.
c. The speed of light has the same value for observers in all reference frames.
d. The speed of light has a value that
reference.
30. Which of the following statements about photons is incorrect?

a. Photons have zero mass.
b. Photons travel at the speed of light in vacuum.
c. The energy of a photon is proportional to its frequency.
d. Photons can be brought to rest by applying a strong magnetic field on them.
97
Focus: Light and Geometric Optics
Prof. Crisanta A. Ocampo
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Answer: b
The index of refraction, n, of a substance is equal to ratio of the speed of light in a
vacuum to the speed of light in a material.
Therefore : c = nv
The correct formula is NOT applicable for choices a, c and d
2. Which diagram on the right represents the behavior of ray of monochromatic light in air
incident on a block of crown glass?
a. b. c. d.
Answer: d
Light travels faster in less dense medium (air) than in denser medium (crown glass).
reflects light rays in which the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
Choice A: Light is refracted in crown glass, but the angle of refraction is greater than the
angle of incidence. Crown glass is denser than air.
Choice B: Light is refracted twice.
Choice C: Light was NOT refracted.
3. Two plane mirrors are positioned perpendicular to each

other as shown in the figure:
A ray of red light is incident on mirror 1 at an angle of 55º.

This ray is reflected from mirror 1 and then strikes mirror 2
and is reflected again. The angle of reflection will be:
a. 35º c. 55º
b. 45º
Answer: a
The angle of reflection is equal to angle of incidence. The angle of reflection in mirror 1 is
Choice B: NOT shown in the figure
Mirror 1
4. A ray of light with a frequency of 5.0 x 10 14 Hz is

inciden
shown. The ray is transmitted through parallel layers
of corn oil and glycerol and is then reflected from the
surface of a plane mirror located below which is
parallel to the layers of corn oil and glycerol. The ray
emerges from the corn oil and glycerol and back into
the air at point P. What will be the angle of refraction
of light rays as it enters the corn oil from air?
a. Less than 35º c. Equal to 35º
b. Greater than 35º d. None of these
Answer: a
Refraction is the bending of light rays upon entry to medium of different densities. Light
travel faster in less dense medium than in denser medium. Corn oil is denser than air.
Choice b: Light bend away from the normal if it travels from denser to less dense
medium.
Choice c: The angle of incidence is NOT equal to the angle of refraction because light
bends away or toward the normal depending on the density of the media.
111
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
5. A spherical mirror that forms only virtual images has radius of curvature of 0.50 m. The
focal of the mirror is
a. -0.25 m b. +0.25 m c. -0.50 m d. +0.50 m
Answer: a
A virtual image is always formed on a convex mirror. The focal length is one-half (½) the
radius of curvature and is negative (-)
Choices b: the focal length is +
Choice c and d is NOT ½ the radius of curvature
6. A light ray with a frequency of 5.09 x 10 14 Hz, is traveling in air

incident at an angle of 40º as shown. What will be the angle of
refraction as shown as it travels from air to water?
a. Less than 40º c. Greater than 40º
b. Equal to 40º d. None of these
7. The diagram on the right shows a ray of light passing from

air to glass at an angle of incidence of 0. Which of the
following statements best describes the speed and
direction of the light ray as it passes into the glass?
a. Only the speed changes
b. Only the direction changes
c. Both speed and direction changes
d. Neither the speed nor the direction changes
8. A ray of light is incident on air-sodium chloride boundary

as shown on the figure on the right. Part of the light rays is
reflected and some are refracted. Which statement best
describes the comparison between the angle of reflection
of air and the angle of refraction of sodium chloride?
a. The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of
refraction.
b. The angle of reflection is smaller than the angle of
refraction.
c. The angle of reflection is greater than the angle of
refraction.
d. Cannot be determined
9. Which diagram shown below represents the path taken by the light as it passes from air
to the other materials shown?
a. c.
b. d.
10. As light wave passes from a medium with index of refraction of 1.5 into a medium with
index of refraction of 1.2, its ________.
a. frequency increase c. frequency decreases
b. wavelength increase d. wavelength decreases
112
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
11. Light that has passed through a polarizing filter is called _______.
a. photoelectric light c. transverse light
b. polarized light d. white light
12. In 1905, Albert Einstein suggested that light energy travels in tiny packets or particles
called _______.
a. neutrons b. electrons c. photons d. gamma rays
13. Which electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelengths and lowest frequencies?
a. Infrared waves c. Radio waves radio waves
b. Gamma rays d. Ultraviolet rays
14. What happens when parallel rays of light hit a smooth surface?
a. Diffuse reflection c. Refraction
b. Diffraction d. Regular reflection
15. What occurs when parallel rays of light hit a rough or bumpy surface?
a. Diffuse reflection c. Regular reflection
b. Diffraction d. Refraction
16. When the surface of a mirror curves inward, like the inside of a bowl, it is called a
a. concave mirror c. diffuse mirror
b. convex mirror d. plane mirror
17. What happens when light passes from air into water?
a. The light speeds up. c. The light slows down.
b. The light forms a mirage. d. The light continues at the same
speed
18. An image of a distant object caused by refraction of light is called a _______.

a. prism b. mirage c. rainbow d. hologram
19. A curved piece of glass or other transparent material that is used to refract light is called
a(n) _______.
a. mirror b. lens c. reflector d. optical fiber
20. Parallel light rays emerged through a concave lens. What kind of image is produced?
a. No image c. Only a virtual image
b. Only a real image d. Both real and virtual images
21. What happens when white light strikes a black object?

a. Blue light is reflected. c. No light is reflected.
b. Red light is reflected. d. All of the light is reflected.
For Nos. 21 and 22, refer to the diagram at the right:
21. Which one of the angles is the angle of incidence?

a. A b. B c. C d. D
22. Which one of the angles is the angle of reflection?

a. A b. B c. C
23. Consider the four pairs of sunglasses below. Which pair of glasses is capable of
eliminating the glare resulting from sunlight reflecting off the calm waters of a lake?
24. A ray of light is incident towards a plane mirror at an angle of
25. The corpuscular theory of light explains that _______.

a. light is a wave c. light is an electromagnetic wave
b. light is a particle d. light is both a particle and a wave
113
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
For Nos. 26 to 28, refer to the diagram below:
The diagram above shows a double-sided (with one of the sides being the concave and
one being the convex side) spherical mirror which is silvered on both sides. The principal axis,
focal point f, and center of curvature C are shown. The region is divided into eight sections
(labeled M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, and W). Five objects (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5) are shown at various
locations about the double-sided mirror.
26. The image of object 1 will be located at region _____.

a. R b. S c. T d. W

a. R b. S c. T d. W

a. M b. P c. S d. W
29. If you look at the pool of still water your face is clearly seen. Which of the following best
explains this?
a. Scattering of white in different directions
b. Regular reflection of light by the surface of still water
c. Irregular reflection of light by the surface of still water
d. Light is reflected from the surface of still water in different directions
30. The filament in an automobile headlight radiates light that is reflected from a converging
mirror. The reflected rays form a parallel beam of light because the filament is placed
_____.
a. at the principal focus
b. at the center of curvature
c. beyond the center of curvature
d. between the mirror and the principal focus
31. A farsighted person needs a convex lens to correct his vision because this lens makes
the image fall on _____.
a. on the eyeball c. before the retina of the eye
b. on the retina of the eye d. beyond the retina of the eye
32. The sun appears more reddish at sunset than at noon. Which of the following
phenomena is responsible for this effect?
a. Dispersion c. Refraction
b. Reflection d. Scattering
33. A photographer wishes to use a light in the darkroom that will emit low energy photons.
Which among the following colors is the best?
a. Blue b. Green c. Red d. Violet
34. A person standing waist-deep in a swimming pool appears to have short legs because
light is _____.
a. diffracted b. refracted c. reflected d. superimposed
35. A real and inverted image of an object is focused on a screen by a converging lens. If the
upper half of the lens is then covered, what happens to the image?
a. The lower half of the image disappears.
b. The upper half of the image disappears.
c. The image does not change in any way.
d. The entire image remains the same and becomes less bright.
114
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
36. Which of the following properties of waves accounts for the different colors of object?
a. Amplitude b. Frequency c. Velocity d. Wavelength
37. When white light passes through a grating, what is visible on the screen?
a. A full spectrum of colors c. Dark fringes of only one wavelength
b. Bright fringes of one wavelength d. Nothing will appear on the screen
38. If the index of refraction from air to glass is 3/2 and from air to water is 4/3, what happens
to the speed of light?
a. It decreases as it leaves water to enter glass.
b. It decreases as it leaves air to enter glass.
c. It decreases as it leaves water to enter air.
d. It decreases as it leaves air to enter water.
39. An object 0.080 m tall is placed 0.20 m in front of a convex lens. If the distance of the
image to the lens is 0.40 m, how tall is the image?
a. 0.010 m b. 0.040 m c. 0.08 m d. 0.16 m
40. Materials are classified according to transmission of light. A material that reflects and
absorbs any light that strikes it is _______.
a. concave b. opaque c. translucent d. transparent
1. A lens produces a real image by causing light rays from a common point to _____.
a. reflect constructively c. disperse into different wavelength
b. converge and intersect at a point d. diverge and appear to come from a point
2. Light is an electromagnetic wave. All electromagnetic waves have the same _____.
a. amplitude b. frequency c. speed d. wavelength
3. Part of the electromagnetic spectrum is the visible light. Visible light can be separated into
the various colors of the visible spectrum to form a(n) _______.
a. MRI b. rainbow c. thermogram d. X-ray picture
4. Light is composed of different colors. An instrument used to view these different colors of
light produced is called a(n) _____.
a. thermogram. b. spectroscope c. radar gun d. MRI machine
5. Clear glass, water, and air are examples of what kind of material?
a. fluid b. opaque c. translucent d. transparent
For Nos. 6 8, refer to the diagram below:
6. How far is the image from the mirror?

a. 0.10 m c. 0.30 m
b. 0.20 m d. 0.40 m
7. At what distance from the mirror should an object be

placed to produce a virtual image?
a. 0.05 m b. 0.10 m c. 0.30 d. 0.50
8. As the object is moved from C to F, the size of the image _______.

a. decreases b. increases c. is unaffected d. none of these
9. What happens when light passes from air into water?

a. The light speeds up. c. The light continues at the same speed.
b. The light slows down. d. The light forms a mirage.
10. Mirrors are categorized as plane and spherical mirror or curved mirrors. A curved piece
of glass or other transparent material that is used to refract light is called a(n) _____.
a. mirror b. lens c. reflector d. optical fiber
11. What happens when white light strikes a black object?

a. Blue light is reflected. c. No light is reflected.
b. Red light is reflected. d. All of the light is reflected.
115
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
12. A person is nearsighted if he or she _______.

a. can see far away things very well c. has eyeballs that are a little too long
b. has eyeballs that are a little too short d. sees nearby objects as blurry
13. Farsightedness can usually be corrected using _______.

a. convex mirrors c. convex lenses
b. concave mirrors d. concave lenses
14. The frequency of a light wave is 5.0 x 1014 Hz. What is the period of the light wave?
a. 1.7 x 106 s b. 6.0 x 10-7 s c. 5.0 x 10-14 s d. 2.0 x 10-15 s
15. When yellow light shines on a photosensitive metal, photoelectrons are emitted. As the
intensity of light is decreased, the amount of energy emitted is _______.
a. decreased b. increased c. not changed d. unknown
16. A concave lens can form images that are _____.

a. virtual only c. either virtual or real
b. inverted only d. either inverted or erect
17. A ray of light with a frequency of 5.9 x 10 -7 m is traveling in
on the right. If the index of refraction of the liquid is 1.4, the

angle of refraction is approximately
18. What happens to light as it travels from alcohol to glass as

shown in the figure on the right?
a. The speed of light decreases and the ray bend toward the
normal.
b. The speed of light decreases and the ray bend away from
the normal.
c. The speed of light increases and the ray bend toward the
normal.
d. The speed of light increases and the ray bend away from
the normal.
19. Which of the following properties characterized light but not sound?
a. Doppler effect b. Interference c. Polarization d. Refraction
20. Which of the following diagrams best represents light emitted from a coherent source?
a. b. c. d.
21. When a student looks at a plane mirror, she sees a virtual image of herself. When she
looks into another mirror, the image formed was distorted. This is due to __________.
a. chromatic aberration c. regular reflection
b. diffuse reflection d. Spherical aberration
22. In which of the following diagrams could light source and an optical device be used to
demonstrate dispersion?
a. c.
b. d.
116
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
23. A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle of equal to 30. The angle between the
incidence ray and the reflected ray is _______.
24. A ray of light is traveling from glass to air. The ray strikes the glass at an angle of
incidence greater than the critical angle for the glass. Which of the diagrams below
represents the path of the refracted ray?
a. b. c. d.
bulb be located to produce a parallel beam of reflected light?

a. At the principal focus of the mirror
b. At the center of curvature of the mirror
c. Between the principal focus and the mirror
d. Beyond the center of curvature of the mirror
26. A 2.0 m tall student is able to view his image from head to foot at once using a plane
mirror. The minimum length of the mirror is approximately
a. 0.50 m b. 1.0 m c. 1.50 m d. 2.50 m
For questions 27 29, refer to the information below:
A 0.20 m tall object was placed 0.15 m in front of concave mirror. The image is formed
0.30 m also in front of the mirror.
27. The focal length of the mirror is _______.

a. 0.10 m b. 0.45 m c. -0.10 m d. -0.45 m
28. The image is _______.

a. real and erect c. virtual and erect
b. real and inverted d. virtual and inverted
29. The height of the image is _______.

a. 0.010 m b. 0.020 m c. 0.030 m d. 0.040 m
For nos. 31 33 refer to the diagram and information given below:
A convex lens with an optical center O and principal focus F is used to produce the
image of a candle as shown.
30. How will you describe the image formed?

a. real and erect c. virtual and erect
b. real and inverted d. virtual and inverted
31. What will happen to ray RF when it reaches the lens?

a. Reflect back to R
b. Refract and pass through point 2F
c. Refract and emerge parallel to the principal axis
d. Polarize and travel perpendicular to the principal axis
32. As the candle is moved toward the left, the size of its image will _______.
a. increase c. remain the same
b. decrease d. not change
117
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
33. Which of the following diagrams best represent the path of light rays as it travels through
a prism?
34. A light ray is incident on a plane mirror as shown on the

right:
Which best represents the reflected ray?
a. A c. C
b. B d. D
35. In which part of the visible spectrum is the energy

greatest?
a. Green b. Orange c. Red d. Violet
36. What happens when light rays pass from air to water?
a. Decrease in speed c. Decrease in frequency
b. Decrease in speed d. Increase in frequency
37. Which of the following waves can be polarized?

a. Light waves from an incandescent bulb
b. Sound waves emitted from flute
c. Roaring waves of a drum
d. Seismic waves
38. Which of the following lenses can produce an enlarged image?
a. b. c. d.
39. When parallel light rays emerged through

the device on the right, light rays diverge.
The device could be a
a. convex lens
b. concave lens
c. plane mirror
d. rectangular glass
40. Which phenomenon may cause a concave

mirror to form fuzzy or out-of-focus image?
a. Chromatic aberration c. Scattering of light
b. Spherical aberration d. Dispersion
118
Focus: Matter: Its Composition and Its Properties
By: Dr. Rebecca C. Nueva España
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
5. A material X has a sharp, constant melting point. When heat is applied to it, a black solid
Y and a brown gas Z are formed. Y melted when further heating at high temperature is
applied. What is the classification of material X?
A. Colloid C. Element
B. Compound D. Mixture
Explanation: The answer is Letter B. having a sharp and constant melting point suggest
that material X is a substance. It is a compound because it produces two substances
upon heating namely Y and Z.
For item numbers 6-7, refer to I, II, III, IV and V respectively to answer this question.
I. Ability to resist deformity

II. Ability of metal to be drawn into wire
III. Ability to withstand higher temperature
IV. Ability to conduct heat and electricity
V. Ability to be hammered into desirable shapes
What property of metals is exhibited in each statement?
6. The chain on a padlock is made from iron, not from aluminum.

A. I only C. V only
B. III and V D. II and IV
7. The filament of an electric bulb is made from tungsten.

A. II and III C. I and III
B. I and II D. III only
8. Which of the following elements are correctly grouped?

A. Boron and silicon are semiconductors of electricity.
B. Gold and silver are very malleable, ductile and very unreactive.
C. Carbon, oxygen, selenium and phosphorous exhibits allotropism.
D. All of the given statements.
9. All of the following are properties of bromine. Which one is NOT a chemical property of
bromine ?
A. When placed in contact with a salt, bromine forms a compound that melts at
801 C.
B. Bromine reacts with sodium metal to form a white solid residue.
C. Bromine is a reddish-brown liquid and boils at 59 oC
D. When exposed to ethylene, bromine decolorizes.
10. The melting and boiling points of four substances are shown below.
Substance Melting point 0 C Boiling point 0C
A -100 -45
B -10 60
C -7 230
D 50 300
Which of the above substances is a volatile liquid at room temperature and pressure ?
11. A material labeled A looks heterogeneous. When water is added a grayish residue was
left at the bottom of the beaker while the rest dissolved in water. What is the classification
of material A?
12. Which of the following is an INCORRECT classification of the sets of chemical symbols
or chemical formula given below?
Group Set of formulas/Symbols Classification

A Cu2+, Na+, NH4+, Polyatomic cations
B MgO , KCl, LiCl Compounds but not molecules
C CH4, CO, HCl Compounds but are molecules
D Cl2, N2, O2 Molecules but not compounds
126
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
13. Mr. A. TOMOS has the following materials on his table.

I. alcohol III. cooking oil
II. candle flakes IV. mineral water
If you are asked by Mr.A.TOMOS to prepare a homogeneous mixture, which two

materials will you select?
A. I and II C. I and IV
B. III and IV D. II and IV
14. What is your BEST explanation for you answer in item number 13?
A. Substances present can be separated by physical means.
B. Substances present can be separated by chemical means.
C. Forms a single phase in which its composition is the same throughout.
D. Produces more than one phase in which its composition is not the same
throughout.
15. Which of the following is an observable property of many acids?

A. They react with metals to release hydrogen gas.
B. They produce salts when mixed with other acids.
C. They become slippery when reacting with water.
D. They become more acidic when mixed with a base.
16. Table salt is the most familiar curing agent in preparing cured meat products. Which
formula represents a salt?
A. KCl C.CH3OONa
B. NaOH D. CH3COOH
17. In an experiment, five grams of table salts were dissolved in 100 mL of water. To recover
the salt from the solution, what is likely the easiest way to do?
A. Cool the solution C Filter the solution .
B. Distill the solution D. Boil and evaporate the solution
18. Which mixture can be separated by simple distillation?

A. Crude oil C. Seawater ( free from impurities)
B. Evaporated milk D. Starch and sugar
19. How is the mixture of sulfur and iron filings be separated into its individual substances?
A. Stirring it using a glass rod.
B. Using a magnet to attract the iron filings.
C. Shaking the container for iron filings to float.
D. Scooping the sulfur powder using a glass spatula
20. What method would you prefer to separate sodium and chlorine from sodium chloride?
A. Crystallization C. Distillation
B. Electrolysis D. Sublimation
21. What is the correct sequence of separating the components in a mixture of copper oxide
(insoluble in water) and copper sulfate ( soluble in water) ?
( i) Filter and dry the crystals.

(ii) Add water and stir to dissolve the mixture.
(iii) Evaporate the filtrate until the solution is saturated.
(iv) Allow the solution to cool to form the crystals
(v) Filter to remove the residue.
A. ii, i, iii, v, iv C. ii, v, iii,iv, i

B. ii, iii,v, iv, i D. ii, iv, iii, I, v
22. The boiling points of some gases are shown in the table below.
Name Boiling Point,oC

krypton -152
neon -246
nitrogen -196
oxygen -183
127
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
What is the order in which these gases distil out when a mixture of them undergoes
fractional distillation?
A. neon, nitrogen, oxygen, krypton C. krypton, oxygen, nitrogen, neon
B. nitrogen, neon, oxygen, krypton D. oxygen, krypton, nitrogen, neon
23. Substance A melts at 5.5 oC, boils at 80 oC and it is insoluble in water. Which of the
following methods is most appropriate to separate a mixture of substance A and water?
A. crystallization C. magnetic separation
B. decantation D. filtration
24. Petrol is a form of fuel used to run vehicles. Which statement best describes that petrol is
a mixture?
A. Petrol evaporates to form a vapor.
B. Petrol is a highly combustible liquid.
C. Petrol boils over a wide range of temperatures.
D. Petrol is in liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
25. A group of students analyzed the sugar content of a popular brand of fruit juice using a
chromatography method. After treating the sample, the chromatogram below was
obtained.
How many classes of sugar are present and what sugar is NOT found in the sample fruit
juice?
A. 3 classes and maltose C. 2 classes and maltose

B. 3 classes and sucrose D. 2 classes and glucose
1. The circle in each box represents atoms
Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc and it is used to make decorative articles. Pure air is
a mixture of gases. Which of the above representations appropriately suggest pure air
and brass respectively?
A. I and II C. I and IV
B. II and III D. III and IV
128
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Carbon, silicon, germanium, tin and lead belong to group IVA and have properties quite
different from each other .Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about these
elements?
A. Because it exhibits allotropism, carbon forms allotropes of diamond, graphite and
fullerene.
B. Because of their hardness, lead and tin are the preferred constituents of an
alloy called solder.
C. Silicon and germanium have properties between those of the metals and
nonmetals.
D. All the elements belonging to Group IVA exhibit amphoteric property
3. Which of the following statements describes properties of most metals?

A. They have high melting and boiling points.
B. They accept electrons to form negative ions.
C. They have densities lower than that of water.
D. They share electrons to form covalent bonds.
4. Metals are used to make weapons, knives and saws due to their hardness. Which of the
following group of metals shows this characteristic property?
A. aluminum and gold C. copper and tin
B. calcium and magnesium D. iron and lead
5. Metal alloys can be engineered to have high resistance to shear, torque and deformation.
Why are titanium alloys preferably used in supersonic aircraft like the Concorde? This is
because titanium alloys can _____.
A. change to desirable shapes C. withstand stress and high temperature
B. resist corrosion and deformity D. conduct heat and electricity
For item numbers 6-7, refer to I, II, III, IV and V respectively to answer this question.
I. Ability to resist corrosion

II. Ability to conduct heat and electricity
III. Ability of metal to be drawn into wire
IV. Ability to withstand higher temperature
V. Ability to be hammered into desirable shapes
What property of metals are exhibited in each statement?
6. Electrical wires are made from copper.

A. III and IV C. II and III
B. I and II D. IV and V
7. Cans are made from tin or aluminum

A. I and IV C. I and V
B. II and III D. III and IV
8. Iron metal is a very useful material for construction and building purposes. Why is iron
metal used in the form of a steel (alloy) than as a pure metal?
A. Iron is very soft and shiny.
B. Iron is malleable and ductile.
C. Iron can be mold according to its desired shape.
D. Iron can form alloys to make it harder and stronger.
9. Metalloids have characteristic properties of both metals and non-metals. Silicon and
germanium are metalloids. Which statement is INCORRECT about metalloids?
A. Oxides of metalloids exhibit amphoteric property
B. Metalloids are especially suitable for jewelry making.
C. Metalloids are generally found near zigzag lines in the periodic table.
D. Metalloids can be dull and shiny and typically conduct heat and electricity.
10. Which of the following groupings is composed ONLY of nonmetals?

A. aluminum, boron, carbon, nitrogen C. bromine, beryllium, barium, boron
B. chlorine, oxygen, selenium, sulfur D. gold, lithium, magnesium, sodium
11. When magnesium metal is burned in the presence of oxygen gas, magnesium oxide is
produced. The properties of magnesium oxide are different than the individual properties
of magnesium and oxygen gas. What is the classification of magnesium oxide?
129
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
12. A solid grayish material was found to conduct heat and electricity. Burning the material
also produced a white residue. The solution formed from the residue turns red litmus to
blue. What is the nature of the solution?
A. Acidic C. Neutral
B. Basic D. Salty
13. A piece of zinc metal was dipped into a beaker containing aqueous solution of lead (II)
nitrate. After some few minutes, a gray solid was formed. What is the classification of the
product formed in the reaction?
A. Alloy C. Element
14. Which property of table salt and refined sugar could be used to check its purity before
using it as food preservatives?
A. Color C. Density
B. Melting point D. Solubility in water
15. Which of the following statements is an example of a physical property?

A. Sugar is a high-energy food.
B. Gold is highly resistant to corrosion.
C. Hydrogen cyanide is an extremely poisonous gas.
D. Baking powder gives off bubbles of carbon dioxide.
16. Which of the following is the CORRECT classification of the sets of chemical formulas
given below?
Group Chemical Formulas Classification

A NaCl, MgO, CH4 Compounds that exit as ions in solution
B HCl, CH3COOH, NaOH Compounds that donates proton ( H+)
C KCl, LiCl, MgO Molecules but not compounds
D NH3, NaOH, Mg(OH)2 Compounds that turn red litmus to blue
17. Mrs. Reyes assigned her class to bring materials for their experiment. Her requirements
are the following: (i) It must have several distinct phases which can be separated by
physical means; and (ii) It must contain more than two substances. Listed are the
materials brought by each group.
Group I: perfume Group III: antibiotic suspension

Group II: rubbing alcohol Group IV: fruit gelatin
Which of the following groups satisfy the requirements?

A. Group I and II C. Group I and IV
B. Group II and III D. Group III and IV
18. What will happen when acetic acid is mixed with sodium bicarbonate in a beaker?
A. No reaction occurs. C. An acid and a salt are formed.
B. A salt and water are formed. D. A new acid and a new base are
formed.
19. In the activity sheet, it is indicated that two of the liquids are dilute acids, one is a base,
and the other is distilled water. The table below shows the recorded observations of Irish
after doing the confirmatory test on the four beakers labeled P, Q, R, and S with colorless
liquid in it.
Liquid Visible Observation

P No color change with phenolphthalein indicator and no visible
reaction with litmus paper
Q Produces hydrogen gas when it reacts with metal
R No color change with the phenolphthalein indicator; blue litmus
turns to red
S Pink coloration persist with the phenolphthalein indicator
Which of the following conclusions is correct about the nature of the four liquids?
A. P is basic, Q and S are acidic while R is neutral.

B. Q and R are acidic, S is basic while P is neutral.
C. P and S are acids, R is a base while P is distilled water.
D. Q and R are acids, S is a base while P is distilled water.
130
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
20. Which of the following elements burns in air to form an oxide and when shaken with
distilled water gives a solution that turns litmus paper to red ?
A. Calcium C. Silicon
B. Copper D. Sulfur
21. The table below shows the melting point and boiling point of four substances.
Substance Melting point 0C Boiling point 0C
A 80 801
B 4 110
C -2 59
D -101 -36
Which of the above substances is a volatile liquid at room temperature ?
22. Which of the following is the correct description of the fraction collected at the bottom of
the fractionating column during fractional distillation of petroleum ? The collected fraction
has ____.
A. high molecular mass C. the lowest density
B. Little resistance to flow D. the lowest boiling point
23. An unknown substance X , together with three known substances P, Q and R was
analyzed by chromatographic separation using ethanol and water as solvents. The final
chromatograms are given below.
From the final chromatograms of the two solvents, which of the three known substances
P, Q and R is present in X ?
A. X is substance R C. X is substance P
B. X is substance Q D. X is either substance P and R
24. Material B contains a mixture of limestone and table salt. How will you separate the table
salt from the mixture?
A. Pass a magnet over the mixture.
B. Scoop the table using a glass spatula.
C. Add water to the mixture, stir and filter.
D. Add dilute acid to the mixture, stir and filter.
25. Some properties of sodium metal are given in the following statements:
(I) Metallic sodium is soft enough to be cut with a knife;

(II) When sodium metal is cut, the surface is first shiny; after a few seconds of
exposure to air, it turns dull gray;
(III) The density of sodium is 0.97 g/mL.
(IV) When sodium comes in contact with water, it evolves a flammable gas, and
eventually disappears altogether.
Which of the following statements are correctly classified as physical or chemical

property?
Choices Physical Chemical

A I and II III and IV
B I and III II and IV
C III and IV I and II
D II and IV I and III
131
Focus: Atom
By: Adolfo P. Roque
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
ternary compounds that contain metal (cation) + polyatomic ion (anion)

polyatomic cation + monoatomic anion
polyatomic cation + polyatomic anion
Name the cation ion and anion as it is.
Examples: Cu2+ SO42- CuSO4 = cupric sulfate or copper (II) sulfate

-
NH 4 Cl NH4Cl = ammonium chloride
2
NH 4 CO 3 (NH4)2CO3 = ammonium carbonate
Ternary compounds that contain H + oxyanions (or Oxyacids)

-in naming oxyacids, if the polyatomic anion is ending in ate change the suffix to
ic + the word acid and if it ends in ite change to the suffix to ous + the word
acid
Examples: H+ NO 3 HNO3= nitric acid

H+ NO 2 HNO2 =nitrous acid
1. Who is the Greek philosopher who viewd that matter is made up of tiny indivisible
A. Dalton C. Thales
B. Socrates D. Democritus
2. Which of the following is NOT true about the nature of the subatomic particles in an
atom?
A. Electrons spin around the nucleus.
B. The nuclear charge of the nucleus holds the electron.
C. The number of neutron depends on the number of proton.
D. Protons and neutrons are non-fundamental subatomic particles.
Explanation: Options A, B and D are correct while option C is incorrect. The trueness of
option A is illustrated in the atomic model of N. Bohr. Option B is consistent with the fact
that positive charge (protons) in the nucleus attracts its opposite charge. Option D is
supported by experimental evidence on the presence of quarks, which compose this
subatomic particles. On the other hand, option C is incorrect because atoms can have
varying numbers of protons and neutrons which is proven by the existence of isotopes.
3. Carbon 14 is radioactive and is used by archeologists in carbon dating. Which species

has both the same number of electrons and the same number of neutrons as an atom of
carbon -14?
A. 14N+ C. 17 +
F
B. 16O2+ D. 28
Si
Explanation: Adding Z (atomic number) to complete the symbols of the species given
14 14 + 16 2+ 17 + 28
above will result to, 6 C, 7 N , 8 O , 9 F , and 14 Si. With this, the number of electron s
can be calculated for each by subtracting the charge with Z and neutron can then be
calculated by subtracting Z to A (mass number). Doing so, each species will be having
electron and neutron as follows:
14 14 + 16 2+ 17 + 28
6C 7N 8O 9F 14 Si
e- 6 6 6 8 14
no 8 7 8 8 14
Option A is only equal with the number of electrons. Option C is only equal with the
number of neutrons and option D is over the requirement to be equal to C-14. Hence, the
best answer is option B.
4. Which condensed electron configuration represents elements that have similar

properties?
i) [He] 2s2 2p4 ii) [He] 2s2 2p5 iii) [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p3 iv) [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p4
A. i and ii C. ii and iv
B. i and iii D. i and iv
140
Focus: Atom
By: Adolfo P. Roque
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Explanation: The elements with similar properties are those that belong to the same
group. From the electron configuration, the group can be determined by getting the
valence electrons. Respectively, elements i), ii), iii) and iv) have valence electrons of 6, 7,
5, and 6 that are occupying valence orbital s and p. This suggests that they belong to
group VIA, VIIA, VA, and VIA, in that order. Hence, element i) and iv) belong to the same
group which is represented by option D.
5. Which of the following diagrams represents an atom that is neutral?
A B C D
Explanation: An atom to be neutral must have the same number of electrons and protons.
Option A satisfies this requirement which eliminates option B that is positively charged
and option C and D that are negatively charged.
6. What is the maximum number of electron that can be accomodated in n=3?

A. 2 C. 18
B. 8 D. 32
7. How many orbitals are there in an atom if its n=4?

A. 1 C. 9
B. 4 D. 16
8. Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for a neutral atom the has a Z
of 7?
A. 1s22s32p2 C. C. 1s12s12p5
B. 1s22s22p3 D. D. 1s22s12p4
9. Which of the given elements below has the largest atomic radius?
A. Mg C. C. F
B. Ca D. Cl
10. Which given pair of chemical formulas and names is CORRECT?

A. Fe2O3 : iron(II) oxide C. Na2CO3 : sodium carbonate
B. BaOH : barium hydroxide D. S2Cl2 : disulfur dichlorine
Explanation: Applying the rules in naming and writing chemical formulas for binary and
ionic compounds shows that options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A has an incorrect
name, due to the oxidation number of (II) where it must be written with an oxidation
number of (III). Remember that subscripts in a chemical formula is a result of
crisscrossing the number from the charges, which means that the 3 of O is coming from
iron that is Fe3+. Option B must have a chemical formula of Ba(OH) 2 because it is a
combination of Ba of group IIA that carries a charge of 2+ and hydroxide that carries a
charge of -1. Option D is misnamed because the less positive element in a molecular
compound will be named with the root word of the element plus the suffix ide. Thus
option D must be named as disulfur dichloride.
11. Before the idea of the nucleus radiation was first known, the term radioactivity was
coined. Who coined this term ?
A. Becquerel C. Curie
B. Roentgen D. Chadwick
12. The diagram shown below represents radiation passing through an electric field.
141
Focus: Atom
By: Adolfo P. Roque
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
What does the arrow labeled "A" most likely represents?

A. Alpha radiation C. Positron
B. Electron D. Gamma radiation
13. The isotope 68Ga of the group IIIA element can be produced from a natural radioactive
process of 68Ge. This transformation of 68Ge, caused by an electron entering its nucleus,
is medically useful because 68Ga can be used to detect tumors. Which statement about
the composition of an atom of the gallium isotope is correct?
A. It has 37 neutrons. C. It has a total of 32 electrons.
B. Its proton number is 32. D. It has 4 electrons in its outer shell.
14. Which of the quantum numbers predicts the number of orbitals?

A. n C. ml
B. l D. ms
3+
15. What is the condensed configuration for 26Fe ?
A. [Ar] 4s23d6 C. [Ar] 3d5
B. [Ar] 4s23d3 D. [Ar] 4s13d4
16. Which of the following elements has the highest first ionization energy?
A. Na C. P
B. Mg D. Cl
17. Element X has an electron configuration of [Ne] 3s 2 3p2. In what, group, period and
sublevel-block of the periodic table does X belong?
A. IIIA, 2, s C. IVA, 3, p
B. IIA, 3, p D. IVB, 3, s
18. Diagrams below depict various types of matter on the atomic scale. Which of these best
represents a mixture of elements & compounds?
A. B. C. D.
19. The atoms J and Q have the electron configurations shown as follows
J: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 Q: 1s2 2s2 2p4
Which compound are they likely to form?

A. JQ C. JQ4
B. JQ2 D. J2Q4
20. What subatomic particle identifies the chemical behavior of an atom?

A. Electron C. Neutron
B. Proton D. Both A and B
23
21. How many protons, electrons and neutrons are present in 11 Na?
A. 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 23 neutrons
B. 12 protons, 11 electrons, and 23 neutrons
C. 11 protons, 11 electrons, and 12 neutrons
D. 23 protons, 23 electrons, and 11 neutrons
22. Effective nuclear charge greatly influences atomic properties. Which of the following
statement is INCORRECT?
A. The effective nuclear charge increases slightly down a group.
B. The effective nuclear charge increases significantly right to left across a period
C. The higher the effective nuclear charge the tighter the electrons will be held by
the nucleus.
D. The higher the effective nuclear charge the closer the electrons will be pulled
towards the nucleus.
23. Consider an element with the following electron configuration, [Kr] 5s 2 4d10 5p5.
Where will you group this element?
A. Alkali metals C. Noble gas
B. Halogen D. Transition metals
142
Focus: Atom
By: Adolfo P. Roque
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
24. Isotopes of hydrogen (H), is known to be protium ( 1H), deuterium (2H), and tritium (3H).
Which of the diagram below depicts the isotope deuterium?
25. Which of the following can be classified as inorganic, molecular, and acid-forming
compound?
A. Methanol (CH3OH) C. Calcium oxide (CaO)
B. Sulfur dioxide (SO2) D. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
1. Who discovered the charged to mass ratio of an electron?

A. Dalton C. Thomson
B. Rutherford D. Chadwick
2. Which of the following statements about neutron is INCORRECT?

A. It is slightly heavier than proton.
B. It is the only uncharged subatomic particle.
C. It is found to be at the inner core of an atom.
D. It is added to a proton number to signify the atomic number.
2
3. An oxygen atom loses two electrons and forms the ion, 8 O . What is the number of
proton and electron?
A. 8 protons and 6 electrons C. 10 protons and 8 electrons
B. 8 protons and 8 electrons D. 8 protons and 10 electrons
4. The table shows the electron configuration of different elements with their groups and
periods. Which element has an INCORRECTLY assigned group and period?
Element Electron Configuration Group Period

D 1s22s22p63s23p4 VI A 3
J 1s22s22p63s23p64s2 II A 4
Q 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1 III B 4
X 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d2 II B 4
A. D C. Q
B. J D. X
4
5. Which of the diagram below represents an ion with a hypothetical symbol, 2 X ?
6. What is the maximum number of electron that can be accomodated if an atom has n=3
and l = +1?
A. 4 C. 18
B. 8 D. 32
7. How many orbitals are there in an atom if its n=3?

A. 1 C. 9
B. 4 D. 16
8. Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for a neutral atom the has 15
electrons?
A. 1s22s22p43s23p7 C. 1s22s23s23p63d3
B. 1s22s22p63s23p3 D. 1s22s22p63s23p6
143
Focus: Atom
By: Adolfo P. Roque
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
9. Which of the following has a correct arrangement based on increasing atomic size?
A. Na<K<N<P C. P>N>Na>K
B. K>Na>N>P D. P<N<Na<K
10.What is the chemical formula if an element P of an alkaline earth metal combines with an
element Q of the group VA?
A. P5Q2 C. Q3P2
B. P3Q2 D. P3Q
11.Who proposed that electron has dual character where it is a particle and travels in wave?
A. Bohr C. Heisenberg
B. de Broglie D. Scrodinger
12.If a certain subatomic elementary particle, given a hypothetical symbol x, is twice the
mass of a proton but carries a charge equivalent to two electrons, which of the following
symbol will be appropriate?
2 1
A. 1 x C. 2 x
2 1
B. 2 x D. x
1
13.A given species, X, has the following Z = 13, e = 10, n o = 14 and A =27. The species
would be most likely ________.
A. an anion C. an isotope
B. a cation D. neutral
14. Which of the quantum numbers predicts the shape of orbitals?

A. n C. ml
B. l D. ms
3-
15. What is the condensed configuration for 15P ?
A. [Ar] C. [Ne] 3d8
B. [Ne] 3s23p6 D. [Ne] 2s22p6
16. Which of the following elements has the greatest electron affinity?
A. Na C. P
B. Mg D. Cl
17.Element Z belongs to group IV, family B, period 5 and a transition metal. Which of the
following electron configuration will best represent element Z?
A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p2 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d2
B. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s2 D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105p2
18.Diagrams below depict various types of matter on the atomic scale. Which of these best
represents a mixture of molecules but not compounds?
A. B. C. D.
19.What is the correct name of the chemical formula, CuSO 4?

A. Copper sulfate C. Copper(II) sulfate
B. Cuprous sulfate D. Copper sulfur tetroxide
20.Which of the following statement is NOT true about the sub-atomic particles?
A. Electron is a negatively charged particle.
B. Proton is a positively charged particle.
C. Neutron is a neutral subatomic particle.
D. Proton is a slightly heavier particle than neutron.
21.Which is the correct atomic symbol for protactinium if it has 91 protons, 91 electrons and
140 neutrons?
140 232
A. 91
Pa C. 91
Pa
231 91
B. 91
Pa D. 231
Pa
144
Focus: Atom
By: Adolfo P. Roque
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
22.Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

A. Aluminum is the smallest metal in period 3.
B. Sodium has the lowest ionization energy in period 3.
C. Francium has the smallest atomic radius in group 1A.
D. Argon is the period 4 element with filled outer level.
23.An element has a condensed electron configuration of [Ar]4s 2. Which of the following
would NOT be a fitting description of the element?
A. It is a reactive metal.
B. It has two valence electrons.
C. It can combine with metals to form salts.
D. It belongs to the representative elements.
24.Which representation is most likely to be a carbon -12 atom?
25.Drain cleaners major component is highly basic and corrosive substance commonly
known as caustic soda. What is the chemical name of this component?
A. Sodium bicarbonate C. Sodium hydroxide
B. Sodium carbonate D. Sodium hypochlorite
145
Focus: Chemical Bonds
By: Prof. Adolfo P. Roque
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
INTERMOLECULAR FORCES & LIQUIDS AND SOLIDS
The attraction between atoms in a chemical bond is termed as intramolecular forces.

Their bonding forces are relatively strong due to the larger charges that are close
together. Intermolecular forces are nonbonding attractive forces between molecules as
a result of partial charges, or the attraction between ions and molecules. Their forces are
relatively weak due to smaller charges that are farther apart. Below are the different types
of intermolecular forces of attraction (IMFA) presented according to their strength of
attraction:
Ion-dipole forces is an attraction of an ion (either a cation or an anion) and a

polar molecule to each other with a approximate energy of 40-600 kJ/mol. This is
commonly exhibited in aqueous salt solutions. A smaller ion and a greater dipole
moment of a molecule creates a stronger attraction. Example: Na + OH2
Hydrogen bonding is a special type of dipole-dipole interaction between a
partially positive hydrogen atom of one molecule and a negative lone pair on the
2
Dipole-dipole forces are attractive forces between polar molecules exhibiting
dipole moments. Example: I- -Cl
Ion-induced dipole is the attraction between an ion and the induced dipole with
an energy of 3-15 kJ/mol. Example: Cu2+ O2
Dispersion forces are attractive forces that arise as a result of temporary
dipoles induced in atoms or molecules. It is also known as London Forces.
Example: Br- -Br
The three latter forces are collectively known as van der Waal forces.
Substances may exist as gas, liquid and solids. The distance between their particles is
the major difference between them. IMFA affects mostly the behavior of the substances.
IMFA between molecules is considered as a factor in the non-ideal behavior of gases.
Below are the properties of liquids and their relationship to IMFA
Surface tension-is t forces, which must be

overcome to increase the surface area.
Capillary action is the rising of a liquid through a narrow space against the pull
of gravity. This phenomenon is an example of surface tension that is brought
about by cohesion (attraction between like molecules) and adhesion (attraction
between unlike molecules)
Viscosity is a measure of the ease with which molecules move past one
another. Viscosity decreases with increasing temperature.
Vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by the gas molecules that evaporated
from a liquid.
Boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals atmospheric
pressure
For a given liquid at a certain temperature has high or greater
intermolecular forces of attraction the surface tension and vapour pressure is

high while viscosity is low.
Solids are classified as crystalline (made up of ions, molecules, atoms arranged in

definite repeating geometric patters) and amorphous (without regular structure). Ice is an
example of crystalline solid and glass is of amorphous type.
1. Which of the following statements about a bond in a given substance is INCORRECT?

A. Cesium chloride is made up of an ionic bond.
B. Nonpolar bonds are present in a CCl 4 molecule.
C.
D. The N-N bond in hydrazine (H2N-NH2) is a nonpolar bond.
151
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Explanation: Statements A, C, and D are correct. In option A, cesium chloride is

composed of a metal and a nonmetal so it is an ionic bond based on definition. Copper in
Option D shows that the bond N-N is nonpolar since the atoms in the bond have the
same ability to pull the electron. Option B is incorrect because all the C-Cl bonds are
polar due to the difference in electronegativity of C and Cl. However, CCl 4 is a nonpolar
molecule even though the bonds are polar.
2. K, L, and M represent elements of atomic numbers 9, 11, and 16. What type of bond will
be formed between L and M?
A. Ionic bond C. metallic bond
B. Polar covalent bond D. nonpolar covalent bond
Explanation: Using the atomic number of the elements K, L, and M, the deduced
condensed configuration will be [He] 2s22p5, [Ne] 3s1, and [Ne] 3s 23p4. This means that
elements L and M belong to group I A and VI A which is an alkali metal and a non-metal.
If they will form a bond that is an ionic type of bond which is option A. Option B and C
will only be formed from non-metals while option D will only be formed.
3. Which of the following Lewis structure is INCORRECTLY drawn?
A. B. C. D.
Explanation: The correctness of a Lewis structure is guided by the octet rule. Each atom
must satisfy the rule so counting the number of bonded and unbonded electrons for each
atom will help. However, there are atoms that are exempted to the rule like Be in option A
and S in option B. Carefully counting the number of electrons for each atom in option A
shows that Cl atoms satisfy the rule. On the other hand, Be atom on the same molecule
has only 4 electrons around it. On the first look it may not satisfy the rule but it is
acceptable since it can only share two of its valence electrons. If the process is applied to
option C and D all the atoms has eight electrons therefore there Lewis structures are
correct. Option B shows a little irregularity on its structure, O atoms satisfy the rule but
the central atom S on the first counting may satisfy the rule but completing the number of
its valence electrons clearly show that there are two missing electrons that makes it
incorrect.
4. Which of the following molecule will exhibit a tetrahedral geometry?

A. XeF4 C. SiH4
B. SI4 D. SOF4
Explanation: A tetrahedral geometry is shown by a simple molecule with four attached

atoms of group of atoms in central atom with no lone pair. By inspection option D can be
eliminated because it has five surrounding atoms (4-F, 1-O). Option A, B and C as shown
by the molecular formula has four attached atoms but Xe and S will have unbonded pairs
of electrons that cause the deviation to form a tetrahedral molecule. Hence, option C is
the best answer since Si has no lone pair left and its four valence electrons is all bonded
to the H atoms.
5. The boiling point of substance Z is higher than that of substance W. What does this
indicate?
A. Substance Z is less viscous than substance W.
B. Substance Z evaporates faster than substance W.
C. Substance W has greater surface tension than substance Z.
D. Substance W has weaker intermolecular forces than substance Z.
Explanation: It is a fact that if a substance exhibit strong intermolecular forces it follows

that the viscosity, surface tension, and boiling point are also greater while the rate of
evaporation is slower. If substance Z exhibits higher boiling point than W, therefore Z
exhibits strong intermolecular forces, greater viscosity and surface tension, and slow rate
of evaporation. With this, Options A, B and C are incorrect and letter D is the correct
answer.
152
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
6. Analysis of substance X showed that it has a high boiling point and is brittle. It is an
insulator as a solid but conducts electricity when melted. Which of the following
substances exhibit these characteristics?
A. HF C. LiBr
B. Al D. CF4
7. Which of the following covalent bond is the most polar?

A. N F C. C F
B. N CI D. C Cl
8. Which response includes all the molecules below that do NOT follow the octet rule?
(i) SiH4 (ii) PCl (iii) NH3 (iv) SF4
A. (i) and (iii) C. (iii) and (iv)

B. (ii) and (iv) D. (ii) and (iii)
9. Which of the following pair of molecule and geometry is INCORRECT?

A. ClF3, T-shaped C. XeF2, linear
B. AsF5, trigonal bipyramidal D. SF4, tetrahedral
10. Which of the following intermolecular forces is INCORRECTLY assigned as the principal
force in the compound given?
A. HBr: dipole-dipole C.
B. NH3: hydrogen bonding D.
11. Which of the following exhibits the greatest percent ionic character?
A. Li-Cl C. Be-Cl
B. Na-l D. Al-Cl
12. Which of the following molecule is NOT polar?

A. NH3 C. BF3
B. H2O D. CH3Cl
13. Hydrazine, N2H4, is a good reducing agent that has been used as a component in rocket
fuels. If the Lewis structure is drawn, how many single bonds are present?
A. 2 C. 5
B. 4 D. 7
14. What is the molecular shape of NOCl as predicted by the VSEPR theory?
A. Linear C. T-shaped
B. Bent D. Trigonal planar
15. Which of the following properties of a liquid indicates very strong intermolecular forces?
A. Very low viscosity C. Very low boiling point
B. Very low surface tension D. Very low vapor pressure
16. Which is the Lewis dot symbol for the calcium ion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17. What type of chemical bond holds the atoms together within a water molecule?
A. Ionic bond C. Polar covalent bond
B. Nonpolar covalent bond D. Coordinate covalent bond
153
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
18. Which is the corect Lewis structure for CS 2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19. What is the formal charge on sulfur in the best Lewis structure for the SCN - (thiocyanate)
ion?
A. +2 C. +1
B. -2 ` D. -1
20. Which of these species can have two resonance structures?

A. CH2O C. H2O
B. ClNO2 D. CH4
21. Which of these compounds does not follow the octet rule?
A. NF3 C. PF5
B. CF4 D. AsH3
22. According to the VSEPR theory, what will be the shape of the SO 3 molecule?
A. pyramidal. C. trigonal planar.
B. tetrahedral. D. distorted tetrahedron (seesaw).
23. According to VSEPR theory, which one of the following molecules should have a shape
that is trigonal bipyramidal?
A. SF4 C. NF3
B. XeF4 D. SF6
24. Which one of the following molecules has a zero dipole moment?
A. CO C. SO3
B. CH2Cl 2 D. SO2
25. Which two properties are more typical of molecular compounds than of ionic compounds?
1. They are gases or liquids at room temperature.

2. They have high melting points.
3. Solids do not conduct electricity, but liquids do.
4. Atoms share electrons.
A. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4
1. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

A. Most ionic compounds have high melting point.
B. Polar molecules show unsymmetrical distribution of electron clouds.
C. Metallic substances possess high thermal and electrical conductivity.
D. Ionic compounds are formed by the electrostatic force of attraction held between
nonmetals.
2. Which of the following is most likely a covalent compound?

A. Rb2S C. CS2
B. SrCl2 D. CaO
3. Formaldehyde (H2CO) is a compound commonly known as formalin, which is in aqueous

solution form used in preserving biological specimens. The proper Lewis structure of
formaldehyde has ____ single bonds, ____ double bond and ____ lone pairs.
A. 3,0,4 C. 4, 0, 4
B. 2,1,2 D. 3,1,4
154
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. Which of the following substances is a not a deviation of trigonal pyramidal geometry?

A. SF3- C. I3-
B. IF4+ D. ICl4-
5. If liquid substance A is composed of nonpolar molecules while liquid substance B is

composed of polar molecules, and both molecules have the same molecular formula then
it is true that:
A. B will not boil.
B. B boils at a lower temperature than A.
C. A boils at a lower temperature than B.
D. Both compounds have the same boiling point.
6. Which one of the following properties is least characteristic of typical metals?

A. Brittleness C. Good electrical conductor when solid
B. High boiling point D. Good electrical conductor when molten
7. Which of the following elements should be paired with Cl to create the most polar pond?
A. Si C. P
B. S D. Cl
8. Which of the following structures is CORRECTLY drawn?
A. C.
B. D.
9. What is the bond angle along F-S-F bond for the molecule SF 6?
A. 90o C. 120o
o
B. 109.5 D. 180o
10. Identify which of the given compounds has the correctly assigned principal intermolecular
forces?
A. CH3OCH2CH3, Hydrogen bonding C. CH3-NHCH3, Hydrogen bonding
B. H2C=CHCH3, dipole-dipole D. CH3CH2CH2Cl, dispersion forces
11. How many atoms of aluminum is needed to bond with oxygen to form an ionic
compound?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
12. What is the element needed to bond with F to create the most ionic bond?
A. Li C. K
B. Na D. Rb
13. Which of the following homonuclear elements has the shortest bond length?
A. H2 C. O2
B. F2 D. N2
14. Which of the following gases is most soluble in water at 25 oC?

A. CO2 C. CH4
B. NH3 D. O2
15. Under which of these conditions will you achieve a fast rate of evaporation?
A. high molecular energy, small surface area
B. high mass, large surface area, high kinetic energy
C. low kinetic energy, strong molecular forces, large surface area
D. weak forces between molecules, high kinetic energy, large surface area
16. In which of these pairs of atoms would the bond be the least polar?
A. C.
B. D.
155
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
17. What is the formal charge on the singly bonded oxygens in the Lewis structure for the
carbonate ion?
A. -2 C. 0
B. -1 D. +1
18. Which molecule has a Lewis structure that does not obey the octet rule?
A. N2O C. PH3
B. CS2 D. NO2
19. Which of the following substance is/are planar?
(i) SO3 (ii) SO32- (iii) NO3- (iv) PF3 (v) BF3
A. only (i) and (ii) C. only (iv)

B. only (i), (iii), and (v) D. all are planar except (iv)
20. The F-Cl-F bond angles in ClF3 are expected to be approximately

A. 90 only. C. 120 only.
B. 109.5 only. D. 180 only.
21. Predict the geometry and polarity of the CS 2 molecule.

A. linear, polar C. tetrahedral, nonpolar
B. linear, nonpolar D. bent, nonpolar
22. Which of the following liquids would have the highest viscosity at 25 C?
A. CH3OCH3 C. C2H5OH
B. CH2Cl2 D. HOCH2CH2OH
23. Which of the following would be expected to have the highest vapor pressure at room
temperature?
A. ethanol, bp = 78 C C. water, bp = 100 C
B. methanol, bp = 65 C D. acetone, bp = 56 C
24. Which of the responses includes all of the following that can form hydrogen bonds with
water molecules?
(1) Na+ (2) CH3COOH (3) C2H6 (4) CH3NH2
A. (1) and (2) C. (2) and (3)

B. (1) and (3) D. (2) and (4)
25. Butter melts over a range of temperature, rather than with a sharp melting point. Butter is
classified as a/an
A. metallic crystal. C. molecular crystal
B. covalent solid. D. amorphous solid.
156
Focus: Conservation of Matter and Stoichiometry
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
SAMPLE PROBLEM:
1000kg
of H2 gas reacts with 500 kg of N2 gas, answer the following questions below given the
balanced chemical equation: N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) 2 NH3 (g)
a. What is the amount in moles of NH3 (g) from kg N2 (g)?
b. What is the amount in moles of NH3 (g) from kg H2 (g)?
c. Which is the limiting reagent? Excess reagent?
d. If the actual yield is 550. kg NH 3 , what is the percent yield?
Process: In doing calculation from chemical equations remember the following steps:
1. write down the correct equation for the reaction and balance;
2. work out the number of moles of the substance whose amount/mass/volume is
given;
3. from the equation, read off the mole ratios (the stoichiometry);
4. using the ratios, work out the number of moles of the unknown substance;
5. using the key relationship above, convert the moles onto units asked for; give your
answer in the correct number of significant figures and do not forget to indicate
the unit.
The balanced chemical equation is given, which shows that 3 mol H 2 (g) = 1mol N2 (g)= 2
mol NH3 (g).
1kmol 2kmolNH 3 1000mol
a. mol of NH3 (g)=1000kg =3.333 x105 mol NH3
2kgH 2 3kmolH 2 1kmol
b. mol of NH3 (g)=500kg 1kmolN 2 2kmolNH 3 1000mol =3.57 x104 mol NH

3
28kgN 2 1kmolN 2 1kmol
c. Since the number of moles NH3 produced by N2 is smaller than that of H2, N2 is
the limiting reagent while H2 is the excess reagent.
d. PY = 550kgNH 3 =90.6% of NH3
100
4 17 g 1kg
3.57 10 molNH 3
1mol 1000 g
1. Sulfur powder and oxygen gas chemically combined to form two compounds. One compound
contains 50.0% sulfur and 50.0% oxygen; the other is 40.0% sulfur and 60.0% oxygen. Which of
the following laws does this illustrate?
A. Law of Definite Proportion C. Law of Conservation of Mass
D. Law of Multiple Proportions D. Law of Conservation of Energy
Explanation: From the stem of the item, there is no direct mention of either the mass of
reactants and products or amount of energy. Therefore, option C & D can be eliminated from
the choices. On the other hand, options A and B talk of ratios that is much closed to the given
values. However, option A defines only ratios of elements in a compound and not the ratios of
same elements in a compound that is found to be different. This leads us to option B as the best
answer.
2. Which of the following chemical equations is an example of a combustion reaction?

A. Cl2 (g) + Zn (s) ZnCl 2 (s)
B. 2 KClO3 (s) 3 O2 (g) + 2 KCl (s)
C. CH4 (g) + 2 O2 (g) CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (g)
D. HCl (aq) + Mg (s) MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Explanation: Generally, all combustion reactions are with the presence of oxygen gas and yield
water and carbon dioxide gas as products. From the choices, only option C satisfies this
requirement. Option A shows a combination reaction, option B is a decomposition reaction and
option D is an example of single replacement reaction. However, all fall under redox reaction.
163
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
3. Ethyne or commonly known as acetylene (C 2H2) has high heat of combustion that can weld
metals. If the chemical equation involved in burning acetylene is balanced, and all the coefficients
are reduced to lowest whole-number terms, which of the following would be the coefficient for
O2?
___ C2H2 + _?__ O2 ___ CO2 + ___ H2O
5
A. C. 5
2
D. 2 D. 10
Explanation: In balancing the given equation, you must fit each of the given values to oxygen.
Then, complete the other numerical coefficients and check if it will give a correctly balanced
equation. D is a large numerical coefficient which will make other coefficients larger. So you are
left with options B and C. It is important to note that there is an odd number of oxygen in the
product side which requires also an odd number at the product side. Option C is an odd number
and trying option C completes the numerical coefficient as, 2, 5, 4, & 2, respectively. Checking
the number of atoms shows that there are four C, four H and 10 oxygen atoms at the reactant
and product side.
4. Which of the following quantities is equivalent to one mole?

A. 11.2 L of ammonia gas @STP C. 2.00 amu of helium atoms
B. 44.0 g of carbon dioxide D. 6.02 x10 24 ion pairs of lithium fluoride
Explanation: One mole of any substance contains the same number of particles which is 6.02
x 1023 but will not have the same molar mass. This is so, because molar mass is dependent on
the type and number of atoms present. Option D is obviously wrong because its exponent is
half the mass of a one mole of
He atoms which is also true with option D which is just also half of the molar volume of a gas at
standard temperature pressure, 22.4 L. These two just present a half mole so they are wrong.
The correct answer is shown by option B that gives a molecular mass equivalent to one mole of
carbon dioxide.
5. An electric spark is passed through a mixture of 12 grams of hydrogen gas and 24 grams of
oxygen gas in an enclosed tube. In the completion of the reaction, how many grams of water will
be formed?
A. 14 g C. 54 g
D. 27 g D. 108 g
Explanation: The first step you are to do is to create a balanced equation and interpret the
balanced equation stoichiometrically as shown below
Given: 12 g 24 g ?
Bal.Equation 2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) 2 H2O (l)
2 mol = 1 mol = 2 mol
Theoritical 4g = 32 g = 36 g
g required 96 g O2 3 g H2
g H2O yield 108 g 27 g
reagent Excess Limiting
Based on the balanced equation ideally, you need 4 g of H 2 for every 32 g of O2 to produced 36 g
water. However, since there is only 24 g of O 2 available it will only require 3 g of H2 and will
produced water that is less than that of 36 g. Therefore your answer must be less than 36, option
A and B are among the choices left. But option A is too small for a mole of water thus; option B
is the best answer.
6. In a chemical analysis conducted, compound 1 has a composition of 46.7 mass % of element X

and 53.3 mass % of element Y. X and Y also form a second binary compound (compound 2). If
the compositions of the two compounds are consistent with the law of multiple proportions, which
of the following compositions could be that of compound 2?
A. 23.4 mass % X 76.6 mass % Y C. 33.3 mass % X 66.7 mass % Y
D. 30.5 mass % X 69.5 mass % Y D. 53.3 mass % X 46.7 mass % Y
7. Which of the following equations does NOT represent an oxidation-reduction reaction?

A. 2 H2O 2 H2 + O2 C. 3 Al + 6 HCl 3 H2 + AlCl3
D. 2 NaI + Br2 2 NaBr2 + I2 D. 2 NaCl + Pb(NO3)2 PbCl2 + 2 NaNO3
164
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
8. Rusting is a natural occurrence that illustrates reduction-oxidation reaction. Rust is formed if an

iron metal reacts with oxygen gas in the air. If you are two write the correct and balanced
chemical equation for this reaction, which of these will it be?
A. Fe (s) + O (g) FeO (s) C. 4 Fe (s) + 3 O2 (g) 2 Fe2O3 (s)
D. Fe (s) + 2 O2 (g) FeO2 (s) D. 4 Fe (s) + 3 O2 (g) Fe4O6 (s)
9. Sulfuric acid is a colorless strong acid that is miscible with water. It is also kno
it is very toxic, corrosive and dissolves most metals. What is the formula mass of
this acid if its chemical formula is H 2SO4?
A. 7 g C. 84 g
D. 49 g D. 98 g
10. Methane, CH4(g), reacts with steam to give a synthesis gas, which is a mixture of carbon
monoxide and hydrogen. This mixture is used as starting material for the synthesis of a number
of organic and inorganic compounds. The unbalanced chemical equation is given below.
CH4(g) + H2O(g g) + H2(g)
What mass of hydrogen is formed if 275 L of methane (measured at STP) is converted to

synthesis gas?
A. 12.3 g C. 36.8 g
B. 24.7 g D. 73.7 g
11. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a chemical reaction?
A. Chemical reaction illustrates a chemical change.
B. Chemical reaction is the interaction of atoms, molecules, or ions to form one or more
substances.
C. Chemical reaction involves the protons, neutrons, electrons and other elementary
particles.
D. Chemical reaction is accompanied by absorption or release of relatively small amount of
energy.
12. The diagrams below represent a chemical reaction in which the hollow spheres are J atoms and
the solid spheres are Q atoms.
Which of the equations below correctly represents the reaction?
A. J2 + QJ QJ2 C. J2 + 2 QJ 2 QJ2
B. 2 J2 + 4 QJ 4 QJ2 D. ½ J2 + QJ QJ2
13. Baking soda and vinegar are chemicals known as or contains sodium bicarbonate and acetic
acid, respectively. If these two substances are mixed together, a bubbling gas is produced from
the reaction mixture. What do you call the gaseous product form from this common reaction of
bicarbonates and acids?
A. H2(g) C. CO2(g)
D. O2 (g) D. CH4 (g)
14. Ferrous sulfide is a black crystal that serves as hydrogen sulfide generating substance in the
manufacture of ceramic. It is produced via the following reaction: Fe + S FeS. Which of the
following statements correctly describe the said reaction?
A. Iron is oxidized.
B. Sulfur is the oxidizing agent.
C. The sulfide ion in FeS is the product of reduction.
D. All statements above correctly describe the reaction.
15. According to the balanced chemical equation given, which of the following statements is TRUE
about the stoichiometry of the reaction?
Zn (s) + 2 HCl (aq) ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
165
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
A. For every one mole of Zn used, 0.5 mole of HCl is consumed.

B. For every two moles of Zn used, two moles of H 2 are produced.
C. For every one mole of HCl used, one mole of ZnCl 2 is produced.
D. For every two moles of HCl used, two moles of Zn are consumed.
For numbers 16-25 consult the given chemical equation below.
Mustard gas is a poisonous gas that was used in World War I and banned afterward. It causes
general destruction of body tissues, resulting in the formation of large water blisters. The
chemical formula of mustard gas is C 4H8Cl2S and the chemical equation below describes its
production.
C2H4 (g) + SCl2 (g) C4H8Cl2S (g)

(ethene) (sulfur dichloride) (mustard gas)
16. What type of chemical reaction is given in the equation above?

A. combustion C. decomposition
B. combination D. neutralization
17. What is the numerical coefficient for ethene if you are to balance the chemical equation?
A. two C. three
B. four D. six
18. How many molecules of mustard gas are there in one mole?
A. 1.00 C. 2.00
B. 6.02 x1023 D. 3.01 x1023
19. What is the molecular mass of mustard gas?

A. 100 g C. C. 159 g
B. 148 g D. 318 g
20. How many atoms of chlorine are there in 1.00 molecule of mustard gas?
A. 1.00 C. 2.00
B. 6.02 x1023 D. 3.01 x1023
21. What is the percent composition of sulfur in mustard gas?

A. 44.0% C. 20.1%
B. 30.2% D. 5.70%
22. How many moles of ethene is needed to produce 10.0 moles of mustard gas?
A. 2.00 C. 20.0
B. 10.0 D. 35.0
23. What is the empirical formula of ethene?

A. CH C. C2H
B. CH2 D. C0.5H
24. How many moles of mustard gas can be produced if a chemist reacts 78.0 g of sulfur dichloride
with 28.0 g of ethene?
A. 0.500 C. 79.5
B. 0.760 D. 121
25. What will be the percent yield if a chemist only managed to collect only 69.5 g of mustard gas
due to some laboratory errors?
A. 1.14% C. 57.4 %
B. 10.0% D. 87.4 %
1. Deposits of two pure salts from two different regions in the Philippines were subjected to analysis
and gave the following data:
Details Sample 1 Sample 2

mass of sodium (g) 0.115 0.690
mass of chlorine (g) 0.178 1.065
mass of salt (g) 0.293 1.755
What law of chemical combination is in accordance with the given data?
A. Law of Definite Proportion C. Law of Conservation of Mass

D. Law of Multiple Proportions D. Law of Conservation of Energy
166
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Which one of the given equation is an example of single displacement reaction?

A. H2(g) + Cl2(g g)
B. 2H2O2(aq 2O(l) + O2(g)
C. 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l aq) + H2(g)
D. Fe2O3(s) + 3H2SO4(aq 2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2O(l)
3. Batteries in our cars generate electricity through the following redox reaction.
Pb + PbO2 + H2SO4 PbSO4 + H2O
What is the numerical coefficient for H2SO4 and PbSO4 respectively?
A. 2, 2 C. 2, 1
D. 1, 2 D. 1, 1
4. A chemistry student would like to determine the empirical formula for titanium sulfide. To do so
she reacted titanium with excess sulfur, and recorded the following data:
Weight of crucible 11.12 g

Weight of titanium 8.82 g
Weight of crucible and product 31.70 g
What is the percent composition by mass of Sulfur?
A. 79.0 % C. 43.0 %
B. 57.0 % D. 28.0 %
5. In the figure below, the hydrogen molecule is represented as , the oxygen molecule is
represented as . After the hydrogen and the oxygen molecules totally react to form liquid water
in the following closed container,
which of the following represents a product?
A. B. C. D.
6. Which of the following observations demonstrates the Law of Mass Conservation?

A. A sample of sodium chloride from Luzon contains the same percentage by mass of
sodium as one from Visayas.
B. A flashbulb contains magnesium and oxygen before use and magnesium oxide
afterward, but its mass does not change.
C. Arsenic and oxygen from one compound that is 65.2 mass % arsenic and another that is
75.8 mass % arsenic.
D. A separate analysis of two compounds made of aluminum and oxygen showed that one
of the compounds has greater percentage by mass of aluminum than the other.
7. Which of the following chemical equation shows a decomposition reaction?

A. N2(g) + 3H2(g 3(g)
B. CuSO4 5 H2O (s) CuSO4 (s) + 5 H2O (l)
C. BaCl2(aq) + K2CrO4(aq 4(aq) + 2KCl(aq)
D. Na2CO3(s) + HCl(aq aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
8. Which one of the following is NOT a balanced chemical equation?

A. N2(g) + 3H2(g 3(g)
B. CaCl2(aq) + K2CrO4(aq) 4(s) + 2KCl(aq)
C. K2CO3(s) + HCl(aq aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
D. H2CrO4 (aq) + 2NaOH(aq 2CrO4(aq) + 2 H2O(l)
167
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
9. Which of the following acid and base reagents must be combined to produce an insoluble salt
product?
i. H2SO4 ii. HClO3 iii. HNO3 iv. Ba(OH)2 v. NaOH
A. i & v C. i & iv
B. ii & iv D. iii & v
10. The fermentation of glucose produces ethanol and carbon dioxide as follows
C6H12O6 (aq) 2 C2H5OH(aq) + 2 CO2(g)
How many grams of ethanol will be produced when 4.00 g of glucose reacts in this fashion? (The
molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol while ethanol is 46.0 g/mol.)
A. 1.02 g C. 31.4 g
B. 2.04 g D. 92.0 g
11. A pinch of iron filings was dropped in an aqueous solution of copper (II) sulfate. Which of the
following products will complete the chemical equation for this single replacement reaction?
A. FeSO4 (aq) C. Cu (s) + FeSO4 (aq)
B. CuS (s) + FeSO4 (aq) D. No reaction products
12. Analysis of gas gave the percent composition as follows: C= 85.76%, and H = 14.30 %. If the
molar mass of this gas is 42 g/mol, what are the empirical formula and the true formula?
A. CH; C4H4 C. CH2; C3H6
B. CH3; C3H9 D. C2H4, C3H6
13. Which of the following is the net ionic equation that best represents the neutralization reaction:
NaOH(aq) + HCl (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)?
A. Na+ (aq) + Cl - (aq) NaCl (aq) C. OH- (aq) + H+ (aq) H2O (l)
B. H+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) HCl (aq) D. Na+ (aq) + H+ (aq) NaH (aq)
14. Which of the following best defines oxidation?

A. It is the loss of oxygen.
B. It is a decrease in the oxidation number.
C. It is a complete loss of electrons in an ionic equation.
D. It is a shift of electrons toward an atom in a covalent bond.
15. Methyl alcohol (CH3OH, 32.0) is commonly used as an antifreeze and or fuel for racing cars?
This can be manufactured by the given reaction below:
CO (g) + 2 H2 (g) CH3OH (l)
Using 70.0 g carbon monoxide (CO) and 12.0 g of hydrogen gas, 36.0 g of methyl alcohol is
actually produced. What is the percent yield?
A. 37.5 % C. 44.0 %
B. 45.0 % D. 51.0 %
For numbers 16-25 consult the given chemical equation below.
Silicon is
a process represented by the following chemical reaction.
SiCl4 (s) + Mg (s) Si (s) + MgCl2 (s)

(silicon tetrachloride) (magnesium chloride)
16. What type of chemical reaction is given in the above equation?

A. combustion C. decomposition
B. combination D. single replacement
17. What is the numerical coefficient for magnesium if you are to balance the chemical equation?
A. two C. one
B. four D. six
18. How many atoms of silicon are there in one mole?

A. 1.00 C. 2.00
B. 6.02 x1023 D. 3.01 x1023
168
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
19. What is the atomic mass of silicon?

A. 14 g C. 42 g
B. 28 g D. 50 g
20. How many atoms of chlorine are there in 1.00 molecule of silicon tetrachloride?
A. 2.00 C. 4.00
B. 6.02 x1023 D. 2.41 x1024
21. What is the percent composition of silicon in silicon tetrachloride?

A. 83.3% C. 16.7%
B. 22.2% D. 8.30%
22. How many moles of silicon tetrachloride is needed to produce 10.0 moles of silicon?
A. 2.00 C. 20.0
B. 10.0 D. 35.0
23. What is the empirical formula of silicon tetrachloride?

A. SiCl C. Si2Cl
B. SiCl2 D. SiCl4
24. How many moles of silicon can be produced if a chemist reacts 78.0 g of sulfur tetrachloride with
28.0 g of magnesium?
A. 0.464 C. 13.0
B. 0.583 D. 16.3
25. What will be the percent yield if a chemist only managed to collect only 10.0 g of silicon due to
some laboratory errors?
A. 1.30% C. 61.3 %
B. 10.0% D. 76.9 %
169
Focus: Gases
By: Prof. Vic Marie I. Camacho
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Sample Problem 9:
What is the ratio of the effusion rates of methane and helium?
Using the equation,
A ratio < 1 implies that methane effuses slower. Helium effuses twice as fast.
Final Note
Gases are everywhere. Some are important to humans and others are toxic to the
human body. It boils down to humans being able to understand the behaviour of the gas to
maximize its use in this world.
The components of dry air at sea level in order of decreasing amount are the following:
nitrogen, oxygen, argon, carbon dioxide, neon, helium, methane and krypton.
Others are used as fuels but if not properly handled it may cause fire, destruction of
properties. The light weight hydrocarbons are gases at room temperature such as methane,
ethane, propane, and butane.
Gases containing sulphur are foul smelling and noxious. Some are hazardous when they
react with water. Sulfur oxides when it reacts with water causes acid rain, thus causing corrosion
and destroy buildings.
Volcanic organic compounds (VOCs) are the emitted gases from a variety of products
which may cause adverse health effects to humans. Examples of products which contain VOCs
are paints and lacquers, paint strippers, cleaning supplies, pesticides, building materials and
furnishings, office equipment such as copiers and printers, correction fluids and carbonless copy
paper, graphics and craft materials including glues and adhesives, permanent markers, and
photographic solutions. Household cleaning materials, disinfecting, cosmetic, degreasing, and
hobby products may release organic compounds thus, while using them, better be in open area in
your homes.
1. If all of the following flasks are the same size, at the same temperature, and contain the
same number of molecules, in which flask will the molecules be moving slowest?
A. H2 C. O2
B. CO2 D. N2
Explanation:
* The correct answer is B. The basis is the relationship of the molar mass of a gas which
is inversely proportional to its speed. In terms of molar mass, the correct arrangement is
A<D<C<B.
2. Which causes gas pressure?

A. Gas molecules colliding frequently with surfaces
B. Gas molecules hitting other gas molecules
C. Gas molecules condensing to a liquid
D. Gas molecules in random motion.
Explanation:
* Options B and D describe the elastic movement of gas molecules. While C is an
evidence of increase in orderliness of molecules. However, the bumping of gas
molecules to the container surfaces causes the gas pressure to build up. The answer is
A.
3. What are the conditions for a gas to be real?

A. High temperatures and low pressures C. Low temperatures and low pressures
B. Low temperatures and high pressures D. High volumes and low temperatures
Explanation:
* The correct answer is B. At low temperature and high pressure, the volume of the gas
decreases creating an avenue for particles to be closer to one another, allowing attractive
and repulsive forces to occur. This attraction then makes the volume of gas significant
and causes the deviation for the gas to behave ideally.
179
Focus: Gases
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. In an effusion experiment, it required 40 s for a certain number of moles of a gas of

unknown molar mass to pass through a small orifice into a vacuum. Under the same
conditions, 16 s were required for the same number of moles of O 2 to effuse. What can
you deduce on the molar mass of the unknown gas?
A. The unknown gas has the same molar mass of oxygen.
B. The unknown gas has greater molar mass than oxygen.
C. The unknown gas has lesser molar mass than oxygen.
D. Oxygen is twice as heavy as the unknown gas.
Explanation:
is directly proportional to the square root of its molar mass. Qualitatively, the greater the
mass of a gas molecule, the longer it takes to effuse in a hole. Thus the correct answer is
B.
5.
A. Inflated car tire C. Aerosol canister thrown in a camp fire
B. Rising of the dough when baked D. Tenderizing meat in a pressure cooker
Explanation:
A
C and D are evidences of pressure-

correct answer is B.
6. A 6.2-liter of an ideal gas is placed in a canister at 3.0 atm and 37 °C. How many moles of
this gas are present?
A. Equal to one mol C. Greater than one mol
B. Less than one mol D. Cannot be determined
7. A small bubble rises from the bottom of a swimming pool, where the temperature and
pressure are 19 °C and 2.50 atm respectively, where the temperature is 25 °C and
pressure is 0.88 atm. Which relationship is true on the final volume of the bubble if its
initial volume was 3.6 mL?
A. As the temperature increases, volume decreases
B. As pressure decreases, volume decreases
C. As pressure decreases, temperature increases and volume decreases
D. As pressure decreases, temperature increases and volume increases
8. Most explosives are compounds that can produce large quantity of gas in a confined
space in a short period of time. Suppose that a cannon is charged with sufficient
gunpowder to produce 12.5 moles of gas inside a 521-mL chamber. If the temperature in
the chamber is 103 °C after the charge is ignited, what is the correct way of solving for
the pressure, in atmospheres, behind the cannonball when the gunpowder goes off?
C. Ideal Gas Equation
D. Combined Gas Law
9. One mole of a gas is in a ten liter container. At which temperature does it have the highest
pressure?
A. 0oC C. 25oC
B. 15oC D. 100 oC
10.
A. The temperature of the gas affects the size of the molecule.
B. Ideal gas molecules have no volume; the size of the molecule does matter.
C. The increase in the number of moles of a gas causes the decrease in volume.
D. r; there are no intermolecular
forces to change the volume of the gas.
11. A metal tank contains three known gases: oxygen, helium, and nitrogen and an
unidentified gas. If the partial pressures of the three gases in the tank are 35 atm of O 2,
5 atm of N2, and 20 atm of He and the total pressure inside of the tank is 130 atm, what is
the partial pressure of the other gas?
A. 195 atm C. 60 atm
B. 70 atm D. 1 atm
180
Focus: Gases
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
12. For the reaction 2 H2(g) + O2(g) 2 H2O(g), how many liters of water can be made from 5L
of oxygen gas and an excess of hydrogen?
A. 5L C. 15L
B. 10L D. 20L
13. One hot day, a 250 mL potato chip bag at a temperature of 19 0C was left inside the car.
What happens to volume of the bag if the temperature increases to 60 0 C?
A. Increase in V, decrease in T C. Increase in V, increase in T
B. Decrease in V, increase in T D. No change in V, Increase in T
14. What happens to the liquid molecules as it changes to gas?

A. The molecules will be closer to one another.
B. The molecules will move slowly in a uniform manner.
C. The molecules will move away from each other and move faster.
D. The particle arrangement will not be changed during the phase change.
15. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the kinetic molecular theory for a gas?
A. Gases are composed of tiny particles in constant chaotic motion.
B. Gas particles have elastic collisions with the walls of their container.
C. Gas particles have negligible volume compared to the volume of the container.
D. The average velocity of the gas particles is directly proportional to the absolute
temperature.
16. Which statement below explains why a hot-air balloon rises up through the air?
A. The density of the air inside the balloon is less than the density of the outside air.
B. The amount of the gas outside is less than the amount of gas inside the balloon.
C. The volume of the gas inside the balloon is greater than the outside air.
D. The atmospheric pressure is conducive for the balloon to go up the air.
17. Which gas is highly flammable and is used as fuel for lighters?
A. propane C. pentane
B. butane D. hexane
18. A smelly compound is added to natural gas so it can be detected easily. When the
natural gas is burned, the unknown compound, X, undergoes combustion as well as
shown in the reaction below:
X + 9O2 (g) 4CO2 (g) + 6 H2O(g) + 2 SO2(g)
What is the unknown gas?
A. ammonium nitrate C. ethane thiol

B. calcium sulfate D. sulfuric acid
19. Leavening agents such as steam, air and carbon dioxide are the reasons why doughs of
bakery products rise and increase in volume. Yeast cells in bread dough may convert
glucose into either of the reactions:
Rxn I C6H12O6 (s) + 6O2(g) 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(g)

Rxn II C6H12O6(s) 2CO2(g) + 2C2H5OH(g)
Which among the statements below is correct when equal amounts of glucose is reacted?
A. Both reactions produces the same degree of leavening
B. Rxn I produces greater degree of leavening
C. Rxn II produces greater degree of leavening
D. No leavening is produced
20. The explosion of dynamite can be represented by the following reaction
4C3H5(NO3)3(l) O2(g) +12CO2(g) + 10H2O(g) + 6N2(g)
Which statement below is INCORRECT for this exothermic reaction?

A. As the temperature increases, thus, the gas pressure increases.
B. As the temperature increases thus, the gas pressure decreases.
C. The kinetic energy of gases increases as temperature increases.
D. The number of moles of gases produced is greater than the reactants.
21. Which of the gases below is not found in a light bulb?

A. mercury vapour C. Argon
B. xenon D. Bromine
181
Focus: Gases
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
22. Which of the gases below is NOT a principal component of volcanic gases?
A. water vapor. C. Hydrogen sulfide
B. carbon dioxide. D. halocarbons
23. Which term is appropriate when a white cloud forms on top of the beaker of ammonium
hydroxide and a beaker of hydrochloric acid which are placed side by side?
A. Diffusion C. Osmosis
B. Effusion D. Translocation
24. Which statement is correct during the collection of gas over water?
A. The partial pressure of the gas cannot be calculated.
B. The partial pressure of the gas is equal to the total pressure
C. The partial pressure of the gas is equal to the total pressure minus the vapor
pressure of water.
D. The partial pressure of the gas is equal to the vapor pressure of water plus the
total pressure.
25. Which graph shows the variation in volume (y) of a fixed mass of ideal gas at constant
pressure with absolute temperature (x)?
1. Four different flasks of the same size contain gas samples at 298 K. In which of the
following samples will the gas molecules be moving the fastest?
A. Ar C. Kr
B. He D. Ne
2. Which of the following changes to a system WILL NOT result in an increase in pressure?
A. Decreasing the volume C. Increasing number of particles
B. Increasing the temperature D. Increasing the volume of the container
3. What does it take for a real gas to behave like an ideal gas?
A. High temperatures and low pressures C. Low temperatures and low pressures
B. Low temperatures and high pressures D. High volumes and low temperatures
4. What is the relationship between the mass of a gas particle and the rate at which it
diffuses through another gas?
A. The lighter molecules have lower molecular speed thus diffusing slower.
B. The lighter molecules have greater molecular speed thus diffusing faster.
C. The heavier molecules have greater molecular speed thus diffusing faster.
D. The heavier molecules have greater molecular speed thus diffusing slower.
5. Which is NOT an explanation for a balloon that bursts when it is placed outdoors at
noontime?
A. The pressure is high, and temperature increases.
B. The pressure is high, thus the volume of the balloon increases.
C. The particles move in excited random motion, and the volume of the balloon
increases.
D. The particles collide frequently at the walls of the balloon because the temperature
increases.
6. If 4.00 g of gas occupies 11.2 L at 0.0 oC and 0.25 atm, what is the molecular mass of the
gas?
A. 8.0 g B. 16.0 g C. 32.0 g D. 48.0 g
7. Gas evolved in the fermentation of sugar in wine making occupies a volume of 0.75 L at
20oC at 730 mm Hg. What happens to the volume of the gas at 39 oC and 1.00 atm?
A. The gas particles are compressed.
B. The new volume is lesser than the initial volume.
C. The new volume is greater than the initial volume.
D. The volume of the gas in unaffected with the change in temperature and
pressure.
182
Focus: Gases
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
8. A sample of a gas occupies 2.78 x 10 3 mL at 25 °C and 760 mmHg. What gas law must be
used to determine the volume occupied by the gas at the same temperature and its
pressure equal to 475 mmHg?
A. C. Ideal Gas Equation
B. D. Combined Gas Law
9. At what temperature will gas molecules in a room be moving fastest?

A.10 oC B.18 oC C. 25 oC D. 30 oC
10. A box of ideal gas consists of light particles and heavy particles. The heavy particles
have 16 times the mass of the light ones. Initially all the particles have the same speed.
When equilibrium is reached, what will be true?
A. All the particles will still have the same speed.
B. The average speed of the heavy particles is larger than that of the light particles.
C. The average speed of the heavy particles is smaller than that of the light
particles.
D. The average speed of the heavy particles equals the average speed of the light
particles.
11. Blast furnaces give off many unpleasant and unhealthy gases. If the total air pressure is
0.99 atm, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 0.05 atm, and the partial pressure of
hydrogen sulfide is 0.02 atm, what is the percentage of the partial pressure of the
remaining air?
A. 93 % C. 7%
B. 92% D. 1%
12. What volume of hydrogen (in L) at STP is required to produce 0.4 L moles of HCl by the
following reaction?
H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2 HCl(g)
A. 0.2 L C. 0.8 L
B. 0.4 L D. 1.0 L
13. A thermometer which measures temperature by compressing and expanding of gas in a

piston was constructed. When the temperature reach 100 0 C, the volume of the piston is
20 L. What is the expected change in volume with respect to temperature?
A. Increase in V, decrease in T C. Increase in V, increase in T
B. Decrease in V, increase in T D. Increase in V, no change in T
14. What makes the molecules in a gas different from molecules of solids and liquids?
A. Gas particles move faster and are farther apart.
B. Gas particles move slowly and are closer together.
C. Gas particles move uniformly and are spaced evenly.
D. Gas particles become bigger as it bump with the container.
15. Which of the following is NOT a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?
A. The attractive forces between particles are insignificant.
B. The mass of gas particles are concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.
C. Elastic collisions happen when the gas particles bump with the container walls.
D. The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute
temperature.
16. Bulbs heat up as they generate light. What happens to the pressure inside the light bulb
when the temperature rises?
A. increases C. Remains the same
B. decreases D. Insufficient data
17. Which gas is utilized to power a hot-air balloon?

A. propane C. pentane
B. butane D. Hexane
183
Focus: Gases
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
18. Which is NOT TRUE about volatile organic sulfur gases?

A. The VOSCs can be produced through decomposition of organic matter such as
releases by algae and in marine estuarine and salt marsh environments
B. Foul smells associated with VOSCs do not pose concern in waste treatment
plants, pulp mills and aqueducts.
C. Volatile organic sulfur gases occur in the environment and many give
pleasant tastes and flavours to foods.
D. VOSC emissions from oceans contribute to cloud formation which means more
light is reflected back into space, thus reducing the warming effect of solar
radiation.
19. Popcorn is a favorite snack for many people. What is the BEST explanation on the
formation of a popped corn from its kernel?
A. The pressure inside the kernel decreases causing the volume of the kernel to
increase its size.
B. The pressure inside the kernel increases with temperature, causing the kernel to
B. burst.
C. The kinetic energy of the kernels increases as temperature increases.
D. There is an increase in the number of moles of gases produced.
20. What is the best explanation of the gas behavior in baking a dough?
A. The yeast increases its size causing the dough to rise.
B. Bubbles are formed because air passes through the dough.
C. The pressure of the gas cause the good tastes in dough.
D. The carbon dioxide expands and the bubbles it produced caused the delectable
taste.
21. In a cylinder of a diesel engine, 500 ml of air at 40 oC and 1.00 atm is powerfully
compressed just before the diesel fuel is injected. What is the relationship of the final
volume and pressure for the cylinder?
A. constant C. direct
B. inverse D. cannot be determined
22. A geyser is an underground heated water seeping into the narrow shaft in the ground.
What gas law is applied to produce a geyser effect?
A. C. Ideal Gas Equation
B. D. Combined Gas Law
23. Compressed gases are gases at pressures above atmospheric pressures are useful.
Which is not an example of a compressed gas?
A. propane fuel tank C. aerosol
B. tires of vehicles D. hot air balloon
24. In commercial gas cylinders, gas pressures can be are very high. If the gas in the tank is
released in a tiny hole, the pressure propels the tank to become a formidable projectile that
might cause a considerable damage. What term is used when a gas pass through a tiny
hole?
A. Diffusion C. Osmosis
B. Effusion D. Translocation
25. Which graph shows the variation in pressure (y) of a fixed mass of ideal gas at constant
temperature with volume (x)?
184
Focus: Acids and Bases
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Household acids and bases
Use Acid Base

Acetic acid, CH3COOH (Flavouring
agent)
Sodium hydrogen carbonate,
Food Citric acid, H3C6H5O7
NaHCO3, (baking soda)
Aluminium salts, NaAl (SO4)2. 12 H2O
(baking powder)
Sodium hydroxide, NaOH (oven
and drain)
Phosphoric acid, H3PO4 (rust) Ammonia, NH3 (ammonia)
Hydrochloric acid, HCl (brick and Sodium carbonate, Na 2CO3
Sanitation
ceramic tile) (grease)
Boric acid, H3BO3 (antiseptic) Sodium phosphate, Na3PO4
(surfaces before wallpapering or
painting)
Medicine NaHCO3, (mild antacid)
Car accessories Sulfuric acid ,H2SO4 (car battery)
Industrial Uses
Pickling is a process at which acids are used to remove rust and other corrosion from
metals.
Mineral processing. Phosphate minerals react with sulfuric acid to produce phosphoric
acid for the production of phosphate fertilizers. Zinc is produced by dissolving zinc oxide
into sulfuric acid.
Chemical industry. Acids react in neutralization reactions to produce salts. For example,
nitric acid reacts with ammonia to produce ammonium nitrate, a fertilizer. Additionally,
carboxylic acids reacts alcohols to produce esters.
Acids are used as catalysts; for example, sulfuric acid is used in very large quantities in
the alkylation process to produce gasoline. Strong acids, such as sulfuric, phosphoric and
hydrochloric acids also contributes to dehydration and condensation reactions.
Acids are used as additives to drinks and foods, as they alter their taste and serve as
preservatives. Phosphoric acid, for example, is a component of cola drinks.
Biological occurrence
In humans and many other animals, hydrochloric acid is a part of the gastric acid
secreted within the stomach to help hydrolyze proteins and sugars, as well as converting the
inactive pro-enzyme, pepsinogen into the enzyme, pepsin, an enzyme that aids in the digestion
process.
Some organisms produce acids for defense; for example, ants produce formic acid.
Buffer
A buffer solution has the ability to resist change in pH upon the addition of small
amounts of either acid or base. It is a solution of a weak acid and its weak salt or a weak base
and its salt. Aqueous solutions of amphiprotic compounds can act as buffers.
An example is the preparation of acetate buffer by adding comparable molar amounts of

acetic acid and its salt sodium acetate (CH3COONa) to water. This buffer solution can be written
as CH3COONa/CH3COOH or CH3COO-/CH3COOH. The equilibrium that is occurring between the
acids and the conjugate base helps in maintaining the pH of a given system. Let us say for
example:
Case 1. If an acid is added, the H+ ions will be consumed by the conjugate base
in the buffer.
Case 2. If a base is added to the buffer system, the OH- ions will be neutralized
by the acid in the buffer.
Buffering capacity is the effectiveness of the buffer solution. It depends on the amount
of acid and conjugate base from which the buffer is made. The greater the concentration of the
weak acid and its conjugate base, the greater the buffer capacity.
Buffers are important in biological system. It is used to maintain the pH of the human
body for proper enzyme functions as well as in keeping balance of osmotic pressure.
192
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Blood buffers. In order for the pH of blood which is about 7.4 to be maintained, the
blood contains bicarbonates and phosphates as buffering systems.
The blood contains bicarbonates (H2CO3/HCO3-) as buffers with a ratio of 1:10. It is a

better buffer for acids. In normal conditions, larger amounts of acidic rather than basic substances
enter human blood.
The phosphate buffer made from 1.6: 1 ratio of hydrogen phosphate and dihydrogen
phosphate ions [HPO 42-]/H2PO4-].
Acidosis. It is a condition that occurs if the blood pH goes below 7.35.

Alkalosis. It is a condition that occurs if the blood pH goes above 7.45.
1. Which is true regarding the electrical conductivity of 1 x 10 -7M HCl and 1.0 x 10 -7 M
CH3COOH?
A. HCl > CH3COOH C. HCl = CH3COOH
B. HCl < CH3COOH D. No conductivity at all
Explanation: Strong acids have greater intensity as electrolytes. HCl is a strong acid
while acetic acid is weak. Therefore, HCl will have greater intensity. The correct answer
is A.
2. Which acids are arranged in increasing strength?

A. HClO4< H3PO4< H2SO4< HNO3 C. HClO4>H2SO4>HNO3>H3PO4
B. HClO4 > H3PO4> H2SO4> HNO3 D. HClO4>HNO3>H2SO4>H3PO4
Explanation: Oxoacids with the highest difference in number of oxygen and hydrogen is
considered as strong. The correct answer is letter D.
3. Which is TRUE regarding a 0.10 M solution of a weak acid, HA?

A. The pH is 1.00. C. [H+] < [A-]
+ -
B. [H ] = [A ] D. The pH is less than 7.
Explanation:A substance with a pH is a strong acid. Letter B choice signifies neutrality.

Letter C reflects a description of a base. The probable answer to this number is letter D.
4. Which of the following can act as a buffer?

A. KCl/HCl C. Na2HPO4/NaH2PO4
B. HNO3/HNO2 D. H2SO4/KHSO4
Explanation: A buffer is composed of a weak acid and its conjugate base. From the
choices, only letter C fits the description of the buffer.
5. Calcium propanoate [Ca(CH3CH2COO)2]is a mold inhibitor used in food, tobacco and

pharmaceuticals. What is the resulting solution when dissolved in water?
A. It is basic. C. It is neutral.
B. It is acidic. D. It is insoluble.
Explanation: Calcium propanoate is a salt derived from a strong base and a weak acid,
thus it results to a basic solution. The correct choice is A.
6. Sodium phosphate has industrial uses ranging from clarifying crude sugar to
manufacturing paper. It is used to remove boiler scale and to wash painted bricks and
concrete. Which statement is TRUE about the aqueous solution of sodium phosphate?
A. The solution has low pH.
B. The solution turns blue litmus paper to red.
C. The solution cannot completely achieve neutralization.
D. The solution turns pink in the presence of phenolphthalein.
7. A certain salt, containing M+ ions and X-ions, is dissolved in water. The resulting solution
has a pH of 7.0. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the salt?
A. It is derived from a weak acid and a weak base.
B. It is derived from a weak acid and a strong base.
C. It is derived from a strong acid and a weak base.
D. It is derived from a strong acid and a strong base.
193
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
8. There are two unknown beakers given by your instructor. One contains a solution of a
strong acid and the other an aqueous solution of weak acid. Which test is NOT applicable
to determine the identity of the substances?
A. pH measurement
B. electrical conductance measurement
C. Addition of phenolphthalein in the solution
D. Determining the reaction rate of hydrogen gas evolution
9. Acid rain is formed when sulfur oxides react with water in air. It causes lakes and streams
decrease in pH which makes it unable to support fish and plant life. Which is the LEAST
means of solving this problem?
A. Limestone may be added to the water basins.
B. Neutralize sulfur oxides with basic compounds.
C. Reduction of sulphur emissions from the industrial establishments.
D. Providing adsorbent colloidal materials to screen acid rain before hitting the
water
10. Phenylacetic acid (C 6H5CH2COOH) builds up in the blood of persons with

phenylketonuria, an inherited disorder that may cause mental retardation or death if left
untreated. Putrescine [NH2 (CH2)4NH2] is not only found in rotting animal tissues but was
found to be an essential component of cells for its normal and cancerous growth as well
as in the formation of GABA, a neurotransmitter. Which statement is TRUE for the two
compounds?
A. Both compounds completely ionize in water.
B. Phenylacetic acid has a higher pOH than putrescine.
C. Phenylacetic acid donates OH - and putrescine donates H+.
D. Phenylacetic acid is a H + donor and putrescine is a H+ acceptor.
11. Most strong acids and bases ionize completely in water. Which of the following
compounds is a strong electrolyte?
A. H2O B. C2H5OH C. KOH D. CH3COOH
12. Which of the following household materials has a pH below 7?

A. Slaked lime C. Window cleaner, NH3
B. Milk of magnesia D. zonrox
13. Which of the acids should be handled carefully?

A. Car battery acids C. Citric acid
B. Vinegar D. Tartaric acid
14. Which is the correct set of base properties?

A. Sour taste, corrosive, change litmus from red to blue
B. Bitter taste, corrosive, change litmus from blue to red
C. Bitter taste, slippery, change litmus from red to blue
D. Sweet taste, slippery, change litmus from blue to red
15. According to the Lewis definition of acids and bases

A. Acid is needed to neutralize a basic substance.
B. Acids are proton donors and bases and proton acceptors.
C. Acids are electron pair acceptors and bases are electron pair donors.
D. Acids are substances that releases hydrogen while bases are substances that
produces hydroxide ions in solution.
16. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning strong acids and strong bases?
B. Acids mixed with bases to neutralize each other.

C. Acids mixed with bases make stronger bases
D. Acids mixed with bases make stronger acids
17. A very well known gas is highly basic when dissolved in water but mildly basic in vapour
form. It is a component in making explosives such as TNT and fertilizers such as urea.
Which compound is it?
A. Carbon dioxide C. nitrous oxide
B. Ammonia D. acetylene
18. A base which is used in making soft soaps is .

What is the correct formula for this base?
A. LiOH C. KOH
B. NaOH D. Ba(OH)2
194
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
19. Antacids are taken by the body when the stomach is acidic. Which two bases are
components of antacids?
A. Barium hydroxide and aluminium hydroxide
B. Magnesium hydroxide and sodium hydroxide
C. Aluminium hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide
D. Sodium hydroxide and barium hydroxide
20. Why is universal indicator a better indicator to use than litmus paper?
A. Litmus paper is only used for acids.
B. Litmus paper is only used for bases.
C. Universal indicator gives the pH of the solution.
D. Universal indicator goes green for neutral solutions.
21. Which statement is best describes the effect of acid rain in the environment?
A. Acid rain promotes growth of plants by optimizing the soil pH.
B. Acid rain washes off the compounds of cement, limestone and marble making
them shine.
C. Acid rain causes the color changes in trees at high elevations and help in
increasing the number of wildlife in the forest.
D. Pollutants of acid rain such as the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen may cause
severe heart and lung conditions when inhaled.
22. What are the reagents that can produce a base?

A. an active nonmetal with water C. a sulfide with water
B. a gas with water D. an active metal with water
23. Which acid is responsible for the sour taste of lemons and limes?
A. Acetic acid C. hydrochloric acid
B. Citric acid D. carbonic acid
24. Which of the following CANNOT act as both a Brönsted acid and a Brönsted base?
A. CO3 B. HPO42- C. HSO3- D. H2O
25.Which 0.10 molar solution of the following salts is basic?

A. Zn(NO3)2 B. KBr C. Na2HPO4 D. NH4Cl
1. Which is true regarding the electrical conductivity of 0.1M HCl and 0.1M CH 3COOH?
A. HCl > CH3COOH C. HCl = CH3COOH
B. HCl < CH3COOH D. No conductivity at all
2. Which acids are arranged in increasing strength?

A. HF < HCN< HCl < HI C. HI >HCI>HF>HCN
B. HCl > HCN> HF> HI D. HCl >HCN >HI>HF
3. What is TRUE about a 1.0 M solution of a strong acid?

A. [A-] > [H+] C. [H+] = 1.0 M
B. The pH = log [1.0]. D. [HA] = 1.0 M
4. Which of the following solutions CANNOT act as a buffer?

A. KCN/HCN C. NH3/NH4NO3
B. Na2SO4/NaHSO4 D. NaI/HI
5. A classic example of the medicinal wealth of tropical forests is Quinine (C 20H24N2O2), a

natural product with antimalarial properties. What can you deduce on the presence of
nitrogen in the compound?
A. It makes the compound a weak acid.
B. It makes the compound weakly basic.
C. It contributes to the strong acidity of the compound.
D. It contributes to the strong basic character of the compound.
6. Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid HC9H7O4) is the most widely used pain reliever and fever
reducer. Which statement is NOT TRUE about the aqueous solution of aspirin?
A. The solution conducts electricity.
B. The solution turns red litmus paper to blue.
C. The aspirin solution completely ionizes in water.
D. The solution is colorless in the presence of phenolphthalein.
195
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
7. Drinking water is often disinfected with chlorine gas, which hydrolyzes to form
hypochlorous acid,HClO, a powerful disinfectant as shown in the reaction.
+
Cl2 + 2H2 3O + Cl- . Which statement is TRUE?
A. Water is not safe to drink because it has disinfectant.

B. The pH of the drinking water is greater than 7.
C. The pH of the drinking water is lower than 7.
D. The pH of the drinking water at 7.
8. There are two unknown beakers given by your instructor. One contains a solution of an
acid and the other is base. Which test is the easiest way to differentiate the substances?
A. Dip your hands to determine the texture.
B. Add phenolphthalein in the solution.
C. Measure the electrical conductance.
D. Determine the boiling point.
9. Gout is caused by an error in nucleic acid metabolism that leads to the build up of uric
acid in body fluids deposited as slightly soluble sodium urate (C 5H3N4O3Na) in the soft
tissues of joints. What is needed to prevent this malfunction from occurring in the body?
A. Increase intake of acidic drinks.
B. Drink a lot of fluids that contain salts.
C. Veer away from eating vegetables that are bitter.
D. Choose dietary requirements that maintain the pH of body fluids.
10. Toothpaste contains SnF 4, which is a source of fluoride ion, F-. What is the most
prevalent form in the stomach where the pH is between 1and 3?
HF H+ + F-
A. Only H+ is present.
B. HF is more prevalent.
C. There are more F - ions than H+ ions.
D. There is an equal amount of F- ions and HF.
11. Most weak acids and bases do not ionize completely in water. Which of the following
compounds is a NOT a weak electrolyte?
A. citric acid B. Sodium benzoate C. HCl D. ammonia
12. Which of the following water solutions is basic?

A. pure water B. Soft water C. Hard water D. Ice water
13 There are two acids available for removing iron (III) hydroxide commonly known as rust in
homes, glycolic acid and vinegar. Which statement below is correct on the reaction of
equal amounts of acid to rust?
A. Glycolic acid reacts faster with rust than vinegar.
B. Vinegar reacts faster with rust than glycolic acid.
C. There is no reaction because both are organic acids.
D. Both acids will have the same reaction with rust.
14. Which of the acids does not require to be handled carefully?

A. Sulfuric acid found in car batteries C. Carbonic acid in carbonated beverages
B. Phosphoric acid as rust removers D. Nitric acid in copper etching
15. Which of the bases below is the starting material for making soaps?
A. Sodium hydroxide C. Barium hydroxide
B. Calcium hydroxide D. Potassium hydroxide
16. Scurvy leads to the formation of spots on the skin, spongy gums, and bleeding from
the mucous membranes and it is a disease due to Vitamin C deficiency. What is the
chemical name of this vitamin?
A. Citric acid C. Tartaric acid
B. Acetic Acid D. Ascorbic acid
17.
it given this name?
A. It dissolves gold.
B. It is found near silver deposits.
C. The ancient Greek kings used it as a drink.
D. Roman Emperor used it for cleaning bathrooms.
196
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
18. Which of the following is TRUE for a buffer solution?

A. Maintains the pH of the solution
B. Resists sudden pH changes when acid or base is added
C. Contains a weak acid or base and its salt
D. All of the above
19. Which substance has the lowest pH?

A. Kalamansi juice C. Hard water
B. Milk D. shampoo
20. Which compound is combined with bicarbonate (HCO 3-) in blood plasma to maintain a pH
between 7.35 and 7.45?
A. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide
B. Acetic Acid D. Carbonic acid
21. Which of the following species CANNOT be considered as Brønsted acid and at the
same time a Bronsted base?
A. H2O B. OH- C. HCO3- D. NH2-
22. Which is the correct conjugate acid-base pairing of the reaction below?
NH4+ + H2O NH3 + H3O+
A. NH4+ and H2O C. NH4+ and NH3

B. H2O and NH3 D. NH4+ and H3O-
23. Which 0.10 molar solution of the following salts is neutral?

A. Zn(NO3)2 B. KBr C. Na2HPO4 D. KNO2, NH4Cl
24. Phenol red can be used as the indicator in a titration of an HCl solution with a solution
of NaOH, the indicator undergoes a color change from yellow to red at the end point of
the titration. What is the explanation of the abrupt color change?
A. phenol red is a very strong acid that is capable of rapid dissociation
B. phenol red undergoes an irreversible reaction in basic solution
C. phenol red is a weak acid that is red and its conjugate base is yellow.
D. D.the solution being titrated undergoes a large pH change near the end point of
the titration
25. Which of the following is generally true as the number of oxygen increases for oxoacids
such as HXO, HXO2, HXO3
A. The acid strength decreases.
B. The acid strength increases.
C. The acid strength varies unpredictably. T
D. The acid strength increases as the electronegativity of X increases.
197
Focus: Solutions
By: Prof. Ruel A. Avilla
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Table 4. Classifications of Colloids
Dispersed Phase
Medium / Phases Gas Liquid Solid
NONE Liquid Aerosol Solid Aerosol
Gas (All gases are Examples: fog, mist, Examples: smoke,
mutually miscible) clouds soot, air particulates
Foam Emulsion Sol
Liquid Example: whipped Examples: milk, Examples: pigmented
Dispersing cream mayonnaise, hand cream ink, blood
Medium
Solid Foam Gel Solid Sol

Solid Examples: aerogel, Examples: agar, gelatin, Example: cranberry
styrofoam, pumice jelly, silicagel, opal glass
SOURCE:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Colloid
Colloids in Food Preservation and Industry
Most colloidal mixtures are edible like mayonnaise, milk and creams in salads. Foods are
preserved to prolong its shelf-life without limiting its quality like fruit jams and jellies which
are best examples of colloidal mixtures.
There are also some colloidal mixtures that are used for industrial purposes. Gas masks
contain colloidal dispersion to adsorb toxic dusts or fumes. This is due to the adsorptive
property of colloidal particles.
Colloids in biology
Colloids were thought to be the key to the operation of enzymes; i.e., the addition of small
quantities of an enzyme to a quantity of water would alter the properties of the water so
that it would break down the enzyme's specific substrate, such as a solution of ATPase
breaking down ATP.
The properties of the water in the solution are not altered, other than the simple osmotic
changes that would be caused by the presence of any solute. In humans, both the thyroid
gland and the intermediate lobe (pars intermedia) of the pituitary gland contain colloid
follicles.
Colloids in the environment
Colloidal particles also serves as transport vector of diverse contaminants in the surface
water (sea water, lakes, rivers, fresh water bodies) and in underground water circulating
in fissured rocks (limestone, sandstone, granite, ...).
Radionuclides and heavy metals easily sorb onto colloids suspended in water. Various
types of colloids are recognized: inorganic colloids (clay particles, silicates, iron oxy-
hydroxides ...), organic colloids (humic and fulvic substances). When heavy metals or
radionuclides form their own pure colloids, the term "Eigencolloid" is used to designate
pure phases, e.g., Tc (OH) 4, U (OH) 4, Am (OH) 3.
1. water with dissolved carbon dioxide gas. The

drinks are bottled with a CO2 pressure greater than 1 atm. How does the solubility of
carbon dioxide (CO2) in softdrinks vary with temperature?
A Temperature does not affect solubility.
B. The higher the temperature, the greater the solubility of CO 2.
C. The higher the temperature, the lesser the solubility of CO 2.
D. The carbon dioxide is soluble to the same extent at any temperature.
The solubility of gases decreases at higher temperature. An increase in the kinetic

energy of the gas molecules result to the escape of gas molecules to atmosphere, thus
the correct answer is letter C.
205
Focus: Solutions
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
2. Buffer solutions maintain the pH of a human blood. Which of the following performs this
function?
A. Cl- C. K+
-
B. HCO3 D. Na+
The ions Cl-, K+ and Na+ are important in the proper functioning inside and outside the
cells while HCO3- is important in maintaining the pH of blood as a buffer. Thus, the
correct answer is letter B.
3. One way to express the concentration of a solution is molarity. What does a molar salt
solution contain?
A. 1 mole of salt in 1 kg of water C. 1 mole of salt in 1 L of water
B. 1 mole of salt in 1 L of solution D. 1 mole of salt in 1 mole of water
The correct answer is letter B since molarity is mole of solute in a liter of a solution.
Option A is expressed as molality while in option C, the given volume is for the solvent
and not for the solution.
4. A colloidal dispersion of very fine activated carbon powder is used in the sugar refining
industry to remove odor and color from raw sugar. What property of the fine powder
makes it a good adsorbent?
A. its large exposed surface area C. its being lighter than sugar crystals
B. its color D.its being unreactive
The correct answer is letter A. Due to large exposed area, it easily removes the odor and
color from raw sugar. This means that a good adsorbent must have a large surface area
while color and mass are not its main requirements.
5. Suppose the following were dissolved in water:

1 carbon tetrachloride, CCl 4
2 potassium bromide, KBr
3 glycerol, C3H (OH)
What will be the correct order of increasing solubility?

A. 1-2-3 C. 3-2-1
B. 2-3-1 D. 1-3-2
6. Acid waste from a factory is suspected to kill the fish in a nearby river. Which of the
following substances might be added to the waste water to prevent this?
A. chlorine C. limewater
B. salt D. sand
7. What is the concentration of the resulting acid solution made by diluting 100 mL of 2.0
molar acid to 1.0 L?
A. 0. 2 M C. 10 M
B. 2.0 M D. 20 M
8. Adding egg yolk to an oil-vinegar mixture in the preparation of mayonnaise stabilizes the
system. What is the function of egg yolk?
A. separates oil and vinegar C. serves as dispersing medium
B. acts as protective colloid D. acts as peptizing agent
9. Which of the following is NOT a property of solutions?

A. It has a definite composition.
B. It consists of a single phase.
C. It has homogeneous composition.
D. it can be physically separated to its component parts
10. Concentration expresses the amount of solute obtained in a given amount of material.
Which of the following is NOT a unit to describe concentration?
A. ppm C. mg/L
B. mmol/mL D. g/mol
11. A liter of salt solution containing 2 moles NaCl is 2 M in concentration. What is the molar
concentration of a 5 liter salt solution containing 10 moles of NaCl?
A. 3 mol/L or 3M C. 2 mol/L or 2M
B. 4 mol/L or 4M D. 7 mol/L or 7M
206
Focus: Solutions
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
12. What opposing processes occur in a saturated solution?

A. vaporization and condensation C. oxidation and reduction
B. dissolution and crystallization D. dissociation and combination
13. Which of the following solutions has a concentration of 1 m (molal)? The molar mass of
sucrose is 342 g.
A. 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water. C. 342 g in 1000 g of water
B. 342 g sucrose in 100 g of solution D. 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
14. What volume of 2 molar NaOH solution contains 10 g of NaOH?

A. 25 mL C. 250 mL
B. 125 mL D. 49.35 mL
15. Water in rivers and lakes contains a sufficient amount of dissolved oxygen to support
aquatic life. What is the minimum amount of dissolved oxygen needed for that purpose?
A. 5 ppm C. 15 ppm
B. 10 ppm D. 20 ppm
16. Dimercaprol is a compound used as an antidote for mercury or arsenic poisoning. This is
prepared by mixing 100 mg of dimercaprol with 700 mg of peanut oil. What is the percent
by mass of dimercaprol in this solution?
A. 12.0% C. 12.3%
B. 12.1% D. 12.5%
17. Saccharin, one of the first non-nutritive sweeteners used in soft-drinks, is 500 times
sweeter than sugar in dilute aqueous solutions. The solubility of saccharin is 1.00 gram
per 290 mL of solution. What is the molarity of a saturated saccharin solution?
saccharin= 183.2 g/mol
A. 0.0188 M
B. 0.632 M
C. 1.58 M
D. 3.45 M
18. Isoamyl salicylate ( = 208.25 g/mol) has a pleasant aroma and is used in perfumes
and soaps. Which of the following combinations gives a 0.75 m solution of isoamyl
salicylate in ethyl alcohol (d = 0.7893 g/mL)?
A. 117.2 g isoamyl salicylate in 950.0 mL of ethyl alcohol
B. 117.2 g isoamyl salicylate in 750.0 mL of ethyl alcohol
C. 117.2 g isoamyl salicylate in 750.0 mL of solution
D. 117.2 g isoamyl salicylate in 592.0 g of ethyl alcohol
19. A fresh fruit shrinks when placed in a sugar solution. What factor explains this?
A. The sugar solution in the fruit has the same concentration as the surrounding
sugar solution.
B. The sugar solution in the fruit has a lower concentration than the surrounding
sugar solution.
C. The sugar solution in the fruit has a higher concentration than the surrounding
solution.
D. The fruit has no sugar solution, thus the surrounding sugar solution diffused into
the fruit.
20. In the preparation of some candied fruits, sliced fruits are cooked in a solution of sugar in
water. Upon cooling, sugar crystallized on the surface of the fruit pieces. What type of sugar
solution was used?
A. dilute C. unsaturated
B. saturated D. supersaturated
21. A water solution has a pH of 8. Which of the following can correctly be deduced about the
solution?
A. It is a solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate.
B. It is a solution of sodium hydroxide.
C. It is an acid.
D. It is slightly acidic.
22. Colloidal mixtures are intermediary between a solution and suspension. Which of the
following mixtures is a colloid?
A. alcohol C. cooked starch
B. seawater D. sugar solution
207
Focus: Solutions
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
23. Which would be a practical application of colloids?

A. lowering temperature to cause weather changes
B. removing undesirable odors from the refrigerator
C. attracting some of the charged particles that pass into the atmosphere
D. helping clean the body of toxic chemicals
24. A colloidal dispersion of very fine activated carbon powder is used in the sugar refining
industry to remove odor and color from raw sugar. What property of the fine powder
makes it a good adsorbent?
A. its large exposed surface area C. its being lighter than sugar crystals
B. its color D. its being unreactive
25. Carbon black is used as fillers for rubber tires. It is prepared by burning methane in
limited air and collecting the soot or carbon atoms on cool surfaces. What is this method
of making the colloid?
A. adsorption C. condensation
B. electrophoresis D. dispersion
1. When the bottle of soft drink is opened, the solubility of CO 2 decreases according to
2 escape from solution. What factor affecting
solubility is being exhibited?
A. catalyst C. pressure
B. nature of solute and solvent D. temperature
2. A cell with a semi-permeable membrane contains 5 % aqueous solution of sucrose. What

will happen to the cell if it is immersed in water?
A. burst C. swell
B. shrink D. unchanged
3. Solutions are homogeneous mixtures composed mostly of a solute and solvent. Which of
the following is NOT a solution?
A. alloy C. bronze
B. brass D. milk
4. Which is a gas in liquid solution?

A. alcohol in water C. air
B. carbonated drink D. brass
5. What should you do to dissolve more solid solute in a saturated liquid solution?
A. Stir the solution. C. Apply heat to the solution.
B. Reduce the pressure on the solution. D. Remove some solvent from the solution.
6. What is the percentage by volume of ethyl alcohol in a 90 proof lambanog?

A. 45 C. 90
B. 55 D. 180
7. Which of these properties best explains why charcoal is used in gas masks?
A. Tyndall effect C. surface tension
B. adsorption D. Brownian movement
8. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Pressure changes have little effect on solubility if the solute is a liquid or a solid.
B. All solids are soluble in a liquid as temperature rises.
C. Supersaturated solution is an example of a dynamic system.
D. Solubility of a gas in liquid increases as temperature increases.
9. The amount of solute present in a solution is usually expressed in concentration units.

Which of the following has the correct concentration unit?
A. 0.0015 g/mL C. 0. 015 atm
B. 0.11 psi D. 0.0011 mol/L
10. A chemistry student prepares an aqueous solution of a gas, with 0.3 g of the gas at
ordinary condition. If the pressure is doubled, what will be the mass of the gas that will be
dissolved?
A. 0.3 g C. 0.9 g
B. 0.6 g D. 0.15 g
208
Focus: Solutions
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
11. A solution was prepared by dissolving 100 g of NaCl (A) in 900 g of water (B). What are
the mole fractions of the components of the solution?
A. XA = 0.023, XB = 0.977 C. XA = 0.333, XB = 0.667
B. XA = 0.033, XB = 0.967 D. XA = 0.300, XB = 0.700
12. The chemist, Anna Lytic, must prepare 1.00 kg of 15.0% (w/w) acetic acid using a stock
solution which is 36.0% (w/w) acetic acid (d = 1.045 g/mL). Which of the following
combinations will give her the solution she wants?
A. 417 mL of 36% acetic acid in 583 mL of distilled water
B. 417 g of 36% acetic acid in 583 g of distilled water
C. 360 mL of 36% acetic acid in 640 mL of distilled water
D. 360 g of 36% acetic acid in 640 g of distilled water
13. Which of the following statements describes the correct method of preparation of 1.00 L
of a 2.0 M urea solution? urea = 60.06 g/mol
A. Dissolve 120 g of urea in 1.00 kg of distilled water.
B. Dissolve 120 g of urea in 880 g of distilled water.
C. Dissolve 120 g of urea in enough distilled water to produce 1.00 L of solution.
D. Dissolve 120 g of urea in 1.00 liter of distilled water.
14. About 3.5 g of CoCl 2 is dissolved in 100mL solution. Assuming the density of the solution
is 1.0 g/mL, what is concentration of the solution in % mass?
A. 2.0 % C. 3.5%
B. 3.0 % D. 4.0 %
15. If 0.435 g of KMnO4 is dissolved in enough water to give 250. mL of solution, what is the
molarity of KMnO4?
A. 0.00110 M C. 0.1100 M
B. 0.0110 M D. 0.1010 M
16. What volume of concentrated (14.7 M) phosphoric acid is needed to prepare 25.0 L of 3.0
M H3PO4?
A. 0.20 L
B. 0.57 L
C. 1.8 L
D. 5.1 L
17. Which demonstrates the adsorptive property of colloids?

A. cloud seeding
B. adding egg yolk in preparing mayonnaise
C. using charcoal to remove unpleasant odors
D. using a kidney machine in dialysis
18. The following alcohols are made to dissolve in water:

1 - ethanol (C2H5OH),
2 - propanol (C3H7OH)
3 - pentanol (C5H11OH)
What will be its correct order of increasing solubility?

A. 3-2-1 C. 2-3-1
B. 1-2-3 D. 1-3-2
19. Calculate the concentration of CO2 in a soft drink that is bottled with a partial pressure of
4.0 atm over the liquid at 25 o 2 in water at this
temperature is 3.1 x 10 -2 mol/L-atm.
A. 0.10 M C. 0.12 M
B. 0.11 M D. 0.13 M
For items 20-21, refer to the figure below
Solubility
in g/1000
mL H2O
Temperature in oC
209
Focus: Solutions
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
20. Which salt is not affected in its solubility when the solution is heated?
A. W only C. W and Y
B. Z only D. X and Y
21. Which salt has a solubility that decreases with increase in temperature?
A. Y only C. W and X
B. X only D. Y and Z
22. A solution of potassium hydroxide is in equilibrium with undissolved solute at 45°C. What
will happen if the temperature is raised to 50°C?
A. The mass of dissolved KOH will increase.
B. The mass of dissolved KOH will decrease.
C. The mass of dissolved KOH will be unchanged.
D. The mass of water in the solution will increase.
23. What type of colloid forms when coconut milk is shaken with water?
A. sol C. emulsion
B. aerosol D. foam
24. As you enter a building, you observe a beautiful blue beam of light from the glass roof.
What is this phenomenon called?
A. Brownian motion C. Tyndall Effect
B. Peptization D. Precipitation
25. What makes colloidal particles in air harmful?

A. They are toxic and poisonous.
B. They adsorb and carry along poisonous substances.
C. They corrode metal surfaces.
D. They absorb ultraviolet rays from the sun.
210
Focus: Chemical Thermodynamics
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
1. Which of the following best describes temperature?

A. Temperature measures of the total kinetic energy contained in an object.
B. Temperature measures the total energy in something.
C. Temperature measures the kinetic energy in a substance.
D. Temperature measures the average molecular kinetic energy in a substance.
The correct letter is D. Temperature is defined as the measure of the average

molecular kinetic energy in a substance.
2. In which of the following occurs heat transfer by convection?

A. gases only C. both in liquids and gases only
B. liquids only D. solids, liquids and gases
Convection is the transfer of thermal energy through the mass movement of particles
over considerable distances. This only occurs in all fluids which include gases and
liquids. The correct letter is C.
3. A reaction takes place endothermically. Which of the following statements best describes
endothermic reactions?
A. The temperature of the system drops.
B. The temperature of the surrounding drops.
C. The temperature of the surroundings rises.
D. The temperature of the surroundings remains the same.
Endothermic reaction gains heat thereby releasing heat from the surroundings while the
system absorbs heat. The correct answer must be letter B.
4. The heat of solution of NH 4NO3 is + 26.2 kJ/mol. What change in heat will take place
when a solution of NH4NO3 is diluted by addition of more water?
A. absorbed C. released
B. evolved D. unchanged
Positive sign for the heat of solution indicates that the process is an endothermic
reaction. This means heat is absorbed. Thus, the correct answer is letter A.
5. Tremendous heat changes occur when warm air is trapped leading to global warming.
This is mainly due to some greenhouse gases. Which of the following is NOT considered
as a greenhouse gas?
A. CO2 C. SO2
B. He D. O3
The correct letter is B. Helium is a noble gas and considered as inert gases as well in the
atmosphere while options A, C and D are all greenhouses gases that contribute to global
warming.
6. What happens to the temperature of boiling water when sufficient amount of heat is
added?
A. increases C. increases then decreases
B. decrease D. remains the same
7. The earth receives tremendous heat coming from the sun which could be beneficial at
one point and harmful to a large extent. Which of the following methods of transferring
heat is being illustrated?
A. conduction C. radiation
B. convection D. transduction
8. Which of the following processes is endothermic?

A. O2(g) + 2 H2(g) 2O(g)
B. H2 2O(l)
C. 3O2(g) + 2CH3 2(g) + 2 H2O(g)
D. H2O(s 2O(l)
9. Which of the following best illustrates when 1 mol of a substance combines with O 2?
A. heat of combustion C. heat of reaction
B. heat of fusion D. heat of vaporization
219
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
10. Which of the following environmental conditions does NOT immediately involve heat
changes?
A. air pollution C. global warming
B. flash flood D. volcanic eruption
11. Which of the following changes is exothermic?

A. frying of fish C. drying of clothes
B. melting of lard D. burning of gasoline
12. Which of the following is NOT an endothermic process?

A. breaking a covalent bond C. decomposition of limestone
B. photosynthesis D. forming a covalent bond
13. What is the currently adapted SI unit for heat energy?

A. calorie C. kilocalorie
B. joule D. all of the above
14. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by 1 oC is
____.
A. heat capacity C. heat energy
B. specific heat D. molar heat capacity
15. The heat capacity of the substance is usually expressed in unit of ____.
A. J/g oC C. J/gK
B. J/K D. J/oC
16. When the heat (q) involved in a particular process is assigned as (+), this means that
____.
A. the process is spontaneous
B. the process is exothermic
C. the process involves the release of heat
D. the process involves the absorption of heat
17. In a calorimetric experiment using a bomb calorimeter, the increase in temperature of the
system is 5.5oC. If the heat capacity of the bomb calorimeter is 2.0kJ/K, how much heat
is absorbed by the calorimeter?
A. 1512.5 kJ C. 11.0 kJ
B. 284.0 kJ D. 2.75 kJ
18. A 500-g iron rod is cooled from 90 oC to 30oC. How much is the amount of heat released
by the metal? Specific heat of iron = 0.451 J/g K
A. 1.35 kJ C. 13.5 kJ
B. 75.1 kJ D. 751 kJ
19. Most fuels contain small amounts of sulfur. When they burn, a gas which pollutes the
atmosphere and causes acid rain is formed. What is the gas formed?
A. carbon monoxide C. sulfur monoxide
B. carbon dioxide D. sulfur dioxide
20. Four pieces of iron are heated in a furnace to different temperatures. Which of the
following will appear at the highest temperature?
A. white C. orange
B. yellow D. red
21. The natural direction of heat flow is from a high-temperature reservoir to a low
temperature reservoir regardless of their respective internal energy. This fact is
incorporated in the _____.
A. first law of thermodynamics C. law of conservation of energy
B. second law of thermodynamics D. law of conservation of entropy
22. What should be done to increase the rate of evaporation of a liquid?

A. increase the temperature C. increase the pressure on the surface
B. decrease the surface area D. all of them
220
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
23. Cold packs, whose temperatures are lowered when ammonium nitrate dissolves in water,
are carried by athletic trainers when transporting ice is not possible. Which of the
following is true of this reaction?
A. H < 0, process is exothermic
B. H > 0, process is exothermic
C. H < 0, process is endothermic
D. H > 0, process is endothermic
24. Given the thermochemical equation:
2SO2 + O2 3 -198kJ
What is the enthalpy change for the decomposition of one mole of SO 3?
A. 198 kJ C. 99 kJ
B. -99 kJ D. 396 kJ
25. What way of transferring heat is illustrated when you feel the warmth when you place your
finger at the side of flame of a burning candle?
A. conduction of heat C. radiation of heat
B. convection of heat D. transduction of heat
1. What will happen to the boiling point of a liquid when the atmospheric pressure
decreases?
A. decreases C. cannot be determined
B. increases D. not affected
2. Heat is associated in the formation of a cool breeze from the sea to the land during sunny
day. Which method of heat transfer is exhibited?
A. conduction C. radiation
B. convection D. transduction
3. The burning of charcoal is a spontaneous process, yet heat must first be applied to start
a charcoal fire. Why?
A. The reaction is endothermic and requires heat.
B. Heat causes the bonds to break immediately.
C. Heat is needed to disperse the atoms.
D. Heat supplies the necessary activation energy of the molecules.
4. The chemical system in a constant-volume bomb calorimeter can be best described as

a/an ____.
A. closed system C. open system
B. isolated system D. adiabatic system
5. Entropy measures randomness or disorder of a system. Which of the following has the
greatest entropy value for a gaseous carbon dioxide?
A. 1 mol C. 3 mol
B. 2 mol D. 4 mol
6. Why does a piece of metal feel colder than a piece of wood at the same temperature?
A. Metal is colder than wood.
B. Metal allows heat to flow through it easily.
C. Metal has higher specific heat capacity than wood.
D. None of the above.
7. Combustion of methane gas, CH 4, liberates 890 kJ of heat. Which of the following

statements is NOT correct?
A. The reaction is an exothermic process.
B. The reaction produces carbon dioxide and water.
C. The reaction absorbs 890 kJ of heat.
D. The reaction releases 890 kJ of heat.
8. Which of the following is NOT allowed to use the constant-pressure calorimeter?

A. heat of combustion C. heat of neutralization
B. heat of solution D. heat of vaporization
221
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
9. Which of the following describes what happens when you hold an ice cube in your hand?
A. Heat flows from the ice to your hand; the melting of the ice is endothermic.
B. Heat flows from the ice to y our hand; the melting of the ice is exothermic.
C. Heat flows from your hand to the ice; the melting of the ice is endothermic.
D. Heat flows from your hand to the ice; the melting of the ice is exothermic.
10. Which among the following has the smallest entropy value?
A. boiling water C. melting ice
B. crystallizing salt D. vaporizing iodine crystals
11. Which process is NOT an endothermic process?

A. baking a bread C. cooking an egg
B. making an ice cube D. melting ice cubes
12. Which of the following materials with the highest heat conductivities?
A. gases C. metals
B. liquids D. nonmetals
13. Two metal strips of equal lengths were tied together. When heated, the strips bend.
Which statements below best explains this?
A. One metal is more elastic than the other.
B. One metal conducts heat better than the other.
C. The heat is not evenly distributed on the strips.
D. One metal expands more than the other for the same increase in temperature.
14. An endothermic reaction causes the surroundings to __________.

A. warm up. C. condense.
B. become acidic. D. decrease in temperature.
15. An exothermic reaction causes the surroundings to ______.

A. warm up. C. expand.
B. become acidic. D. decrease its temperature.
16. A glass containing 200. g of H 2O at 20 C was placed in a refrigerator. The water loses
11.7 kJ as it cools to a constant temperature. What is its new temperature? The specific
heat of water is 4.184 J/g· C.
A. 0.013 C C. 6 C
B. 4 C D. 14 C
17. A piece of copper with a mass of 218 g has a heat capacity of 83.9 J/ C. What is the
specific heat of copper?
A. 0.385 J/g· C C. 2.60 J/g· C
B. 1.83 104 J/g· C D. 1.32 J/g· C
18. As atmospheric pressure increases, the boiling temperature of a liquid ____.

A. increases C. remains the same
B. decrease D. no change
19. What will happen when a vapor condenses into a liquid?

A. It will absorb heat. C. The temperature will rise.
B. It will evolve heat. D. The temperature will drop.
20. Suppose a 50.0 g block of silver (specific heat = 0.2350 J/g· C) at 100 C is placed in
contact with a 50.0 g block of iron (specific heat = 0.4494 J/g· C) at 0 C, and the two
blocks are insulated from the rest of the universe. The final temperature of the two
blocks
A. will be higher than 50 C. C. will be exactly 50 C.
B. will be lower than 50 C. D. is unrelated to the composition of the blocks
21. The heat of solution of NH 4NO3 is +26.2 kJ/mol. What will happen to the heat when a solution of
NH4NO3 is diluted by addition of more water?
A. absorbed C. released
B. gave off D. remains the same
22. Which of the following refers to the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a
substance by one degree Celsius?
A. heat C. specific heat
B. heat capacity D. enthalpy
222
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
23. Table salt is made to dissolve with sufficient amount of water to produce a solution. During this
process, the change in heat is noted. Which of the following best describes the change in heat?
A. heat of dilution C. heat of vaporization
B. heat of solution D. heat of fusion
24. Which of the following has the highest entropy at 25 oC?

A. CH3OH (l) C. MgCO3 (s)
B. CO (g) D. H2O (l)
25. The heat of combustion of ethane gas burned in the presence of oxygen is -198 kJ.
Which of the following are the correct products of combustion?
A. CO2 C. CO and H2O
B. H2O D. CO2 and H2O
223
Focus: Chemical Kinetics and Equilibrium
By: Prof. Nelson Garcia
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1. The values for the activation energy of the given reactions are given in the table below. Which
among the given reaction will not require a catalyst?
Reaction Activation energy (kJ/mol)

1.8 x 107
X2 42.0 x 103
4.0 x 105
10.0 x 104
a. c. X2
b. d.
2. Which among the following factors have a profound effect on the reaction rate constant?
a. Concentration c. Temperature
b. Pressure d. Volume
3 In the synthesis of ammonia, which of the following will increase the formation of product?
o
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) = - 92kJ/mol
a. Add the catalyst c. Increase the pressure

b. Heat the system d. Decrease the pressure
4. Which among the following statement is correct for an endothermic reaction?

a. The rate of reaction increases with time.
b. The rate of reaction decreases with time.
c. The energy content of the reactant is less than the product.
d. The energy content of the reactant is greater than the product.
5. What relationship is exhibited by the rate of reaction with the concentration of the reactants?
a. Direct proportionality.
b. Inversely proportionality.
c. None, it depends on the nature of the reactants.
d. None, it depends on the temperature of the system.
6. In the given reaction for the production of sulfuric acid by the contact process, which reaction is
affected by temperature?
a. S(g)+ O2 (g) SO2(g) c. SO3(g) + 3H2O(l) H2SO4 (i)
b. SO2(g) + O2(g) SO3(g) d. H2SO4 SO3(l) + 3H2O(l) H2SO4 (i)
7. The values for the molecular speed of a given molecule are given in the table below. Which
among the given molecule will most likely to form a product when collision occur?
Molecule Speed (m/s)

A 3.0 x 105
Q 2.0 x 106
M 4.0 x 107
X 10.0 x 105
a. Molecules A and Q c. Molecules X and M

b. Molecules Q and M d. Molecules A and X
8. What is the rate law expression for a zero order reaction whose initial concentration is maximum?
a. Rate law is equal to zero.
b. Rate law is equal to the reaction rate constant.
c. Rate law is less than the reaction rate constant.
d. Rate law is greater than the reaction rate constant.
9. What does a value of Keq = 100 imply for a certain reversible reaction?
a. The reaction is exothermic. c. There are more products formed.
b. The reaction is endothermic. d. There are more reactants formed.
10. What statement exemplifies the activated complex theory?

a. Reacting molecules should first be excited.
b. Collision is a prerequisite for the formation of product.
c. The existence of an intermediate species forms the product.
d. The reacting molecules should possess the required energy.
229
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
11. Given the rate constant of a particular reaction, which among the following will need to be heated
to speed up the rate of reaction?
Reaction Rate constant (M/s)

3.85 x 10-5
X2 8.25 x 10-2
0.85 x 10-3
8.50 x 10-4
a. c.
b. d. X2
12. Which of the following statement is correct about chemical equilibrium?

a. Initial concentration affects the equilibrium constant.
b. The rates of forward and reverse reactions are the same.
c. Final concentration of reactants and products are equal.
d. The pressure of the system no longer changes with time.
13. In a displacement reaction of the hydrogen by a metal, which among the following concentration
of acid will give a faster reaction?
a. 1M c. 6M
b. 3M d. 12M
14. Which among the following are not included when writing equilibrium expression?
a. Aqueous solution c. Solids and liquids
b. Liquids and gases d. Solids and gases
15. What is the equilibrium expression for the given reaction?
SrCO3 (g) SrO (s) + CO2 (g)
a. K = [CO2] / [SrCO3] c. K = {[SrO] + [CO2]} / [SrCO3]

b. K = [SrO][CO2] / [SrCO3] d. K = [SrCO3] / {[SrO] + [CO2]}
16 Consider the reaction 2A (g) X2 (g) whose equilibrium concentrations are as follows: [A] = 0.1M
and [X2] = 0.8M. What is the equilibrium constant?
a. 0.125 c. 8
b. 0.156 d. 80
17. Which of the following processes exhibit equilibrium?

a. The oxidation of iron forming rust.
b. Dissolution of sugar in 100mL water.
c. Dissolution of sugar in 100mL kerosene.
d. Evaporation and condensation of water in closed vessel.
18. A certain reaction is carried out at constant pressure. It was found out that the reaction is
reversible and endothermic. Which of the following will increase the yield of the product?
a. Increasing the pressure. c. Increasing the temperature.
b. Decreasing the pressure. d. Decreasing the temperature.
19. In general, the rate of reaction increases as the temperature increases. Which of the following
scenario exemplify the given statement?
a. The rusting of iron in winter. c. The spoiling of food during summer.
b. The evaporation of water at 20 oC. d. The condensation of water at 100 oC.
20. Which of the given statement is correct about the Arrhenius equation for a given reaction?
a. The activation energy increases as temperature increases.
b. The reaction rate constant changes as the slope increases.
c. The reaction rate constant changes as temperature increases.
d. The slope of a reaction will change when the temperature is changed.
21. The rusting of iron can be prevented by adding a small amount of chromium. Which of the
following statement gives a plausible explanation?
a. The nature of the metal is altered.
b. The melting point of the metal is altered.
c. The particle size of the metal decreased.
d. The chromium serves as catalyst to prevent the corrosion.
230
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
22. Reactant A has an initial concentration of 5M. After three (3) hours, its concentration was
reduced to 2.5M. In another experiment, the concentration of reactant A was increased to 20M
and after three (3) hours, the concentration was found to be 10M. What is the order of the
reaction?
a. Zero order c. Second order
b. First order d. The data given is incomplete.
23. Consider the reaction A(aq) X(aq). The color of A is red while that of X is blue. At
equilibrium, the resulting color of the solution is orange. What will be the color of the solution if
an appreciable amount of X is added?
a. Red c. Orange
b. Blue d. No color change is observed.
24. What happens to the half-life of a first order reaction when the initial concentration is increased?
a. The half-life increases. c. There is no change in its half-life.
b. The half-life decreases. d. It depends on the reacting system.
25. A set of data was obtained from a given reaction and was plotted on a graph. The Y -axis
represents the concentration of the reactant whereas the X-axis represents time. If a negative
slope is produced from the graph, what is the order of the reaction?
a. Zero order. c. Second order.
b. First order. d. Cannot be determined.
1. The values for the molecular speed of a given molecule are given in the table below. When
collisions between these molecules occur, which among the given molecule will need a catalyst
in order to form a product?
Molecule Speed (m/s)

Y 3.0 x 104
Q 2.0 x 105
A 4.0 x 106
X 10.0 x 105
a. Molecules Y and Q c. Molecules Y and A

b. Molecules A and Q d. Molecules Q and X
2. The half-life of A is 10hours and that of B is 20hours. Which statement is CORRECT?

a. Mass of A = Mass of B after 30hours c. A decays faster than B
b. Mass of A = Mass of B after 600hours d. B decays faster than A
3. Which among the given reaction is NOT reversible?

a. Reaction of N2 with H2 forming NH3. c. Reaction of SO3 with O2 forming SO3.
b. Reaction of NO with O 2 forming NO2. d. Reaction of iron with O 2 forming Fe2O3.
4. Which among the following is needed by reacting molecules to overcome in order for products to
be formed?
a. Kinetic energy c. Activation energy
b. Potential energy d. Heats of reaction mixtures
5. Consider two (2) blocks of wood having the same mass and volume. One was chopped to smaller
sizes while the other was not chopped. Which of the following statement CORRECTLY
describes why the chopped wood burns faster?
a. The density of the chopped wood decreased.
b. The density of the unchopped wood increased.
c. The chopped wood has more surface area exposed than the unchopped wood.
d. The unchopped wood has more surface area exposed than the chopped wood.
6. What is the equilibrium expression for the given reaction?
O3 (g) O2 (g)
a. K = [O3]2 [O2]3 c. K = 2[O3] 3[O2]

b. K = [O2]3 / [O3]2 d. K = 2[O3] + 3[O2]
231
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
7. For a chemical reaction, which conditions will result to the formation of product?
a. Low kinetic energy and more collision among molecules.
b. High kinetic energy and more collision among molecules.
c. Low kinetic energy and proper orientation among molecules.
d. High kinetic energy and proper orientation among molecules.
8. What factor explains the evidence of chemical reaction when magnesium ribbon reacts with 1M
HCl whereas no evidence of chemical reaction can be seen when copper wire is reacted with
3MHCl?
a. The nature of the reactant. c. The particle size of the reactant.
b. The nature of the acid used. d. The concentration of the acid used.
9. The reaction 2X(g) Q2(g) was found to be endothermic. What happens when the reaction is
heated?
a. There will be more reactants formed. c. The reaction will no longer continue.
b. There will be more products formed. d. The reaction will come to completion.
10. For the given reaction A(g) + 2B(g) (g) + D(g)
The order of reaction for A and B are second and first order respectively. What is the rate law
and over-all order of the reaction?
a. r = -k [A][B]2; over-all third order c. r = -k [A][B]2; over-all second order

b. r = -k [A]2[B]; over-all third order d. r = -k [A]2[B] ; over-all second order
11. The table below shows the reversible reaction given its K eq. What is the arrangement as to
increasing products formation?
Reaction Keq
A. 2X(g) Q2(g) 6.3 x 10-5
B. M2(g) 2G(g) 0.52 x 10-2
C. X(g) + Y(g) M(g) 4.8 x 10-4
D. G2(g) M(g) + X2(g) 7.7 x 10-5
a. B, C, A, D c. D, A, B, C
b. A, D, C, B d. B, C, D, A
12. For the given reaction, what changes will favor the formation of the reactant?
HBr (g)) H2 (g) + Br2 (g)
a. Increasing the pressure. c. Decreasing the amount of the reactants.

b. Decreasing the volume. d. Decreasing the amount of the products.
13. The enthalpy change in an exothermic reaction is -45kJ and its activation energy is 155kJ. What
will be the activation energy if the reaction was reversed?
a. 45 kJ c. +110 kJ
b. -155 kJ d. +200 kJ
14. The reaction of A with Y proceeds only when the temperature is raised. The addition of
substance X promotes the reaction even at room temperature. Which of the following statement
describes the effect of substance X?
a. Substance X increased the enthalpy change of the reaction.
b. Substance X increased the activation energy of the reaction.
c. Substance X decreased the enthalpy change of the reaction.
d. Substance X decreased the activation energy of the reaction.
15. Which of the following reaction is NOT affected by changes in pressure?

a. O3(g) O2(g) c. N2(g) + O2(g) NO(g)
b. H2O(g) H2O(l) d. CO(g) + O2(g) CO2(g)
16 Consider the reaction X(aq) + Y(aq) Z(s) + Q(aq) whose equilibrium concentrations are
as follows: [X] = 0.1M, [Y] = 0.5M, Z = 0.5g and [Q] = 0.2M. What is the equilibrium constant of
the given reaction?
a. 0.25 c. 2.00
b. 0.50 d. 4.00
17. Which of the following reactions exhibit equilibrium?

a. Combustion of methane c. Reaction of acids and bases.
b. Dissolution of water and salt. d. Reaction of alcohol and acid.
232
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________
18. How will the yield of product increase for an exothermic and reversible reaction?
a. Add a catalyst. c. Cool the system.
b. Heat the system. d. Alter the pressure.
19. Which of the following statement best explain why increasing the concentration of the reactants
increases the rate of the reaction?
a. The probability of collision increases.
b. There is the presence of domino effect.
c. There is a change in the activation energy.
d. The reactants are experiencing an increase in pressure.
20. Which among the given processes/reactions produce a more stable product?
a. Combustion of alcohol. c. Equilibrium reactions.
b. Evaporation of water. d. Endothermic reactions.
21. One of the safety concerns in a starch milling industries is the possibility of explosion. What
factors contribute to this observed danger?
a. Particle size and temperature.
b. Particle size and nature of the reactants.
c. Temperature and presence of dusts as catalysts.
d. Nature of the reactants and presence of dusts as catalysts.
22. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen gas can be hastened by the
addition of catalyst. Which of the following observation describes the effect when a catalyst is
added to the hydrogen peroxide?
a. The addition of iron fillings darkened the solution.
b. The addition of sodium chloride crystals form precipitate.
c. The addition of calcium carbonate made the solution cloudy.
d. The addition of manganese (IV) oxide produced lots of bubbles.
23. Consider the reaction X2(aq) 2Y(aq). The color of X2 is yellow at acidic solution while that of
Y is blue at basic solution. What color is observed when Y is added to the solution at
equilibrium?
a. Blue c. It depends on the pH.
b. Yellow d. No change is observed.
24. The half-life of a certain reaction, second order is 2hours. What is observed if the initial
concentration of the reaction was increased?
a. The half-life will decrease.
b. The half-life will increase.
c. The half-life does not change.
d. The reaction will come to completion immediately.
25. A set of data was obtained from a given reaction and was plotted on a graph. The Y -axis
represents the concentration of the reactant in a log scale whereas the X-axis represents time.
Which of the following statement best describe the observation when the initial concentration was
changed?
a. The reaction order is first order and the half-life increases.
b. The reaction order is first order and the half-life decreases.
c. The reaction order is first order and there is no change in half-life.
d. There is no change in half-life whether the reaction order is first or second.
233
Focus: Organic Chemistry and Biochemistry
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
The transfer of biological information as proposed by Crick (1958) is known as the

Central Dogma of Molecular Biology. Its stages are summarized as follows:
REPLICATION: The DNA makes it own copy, producing new DNA molecules.
TRANSCRIPTION: The DNA molecule is transcribed to produce an RNA, complimentary

to the DNA.
TRANSLATION: The RNA sequence is translated to produce the corresponding amino

acids forming the desired protein.
The figure shows the process in the transfer of biological information.

(Taken from: http://www.accessexcellence.org/RC/VL/GG/central.php)
1. All of the following contain C, H and N atoms EXCEPT?

a. Purine c. Pyrimidine
b. Amino acid d. Sucrose
Explanation: The answer is D. Sucrose contains H, C, and O atoms only. The rest
contains N atoms .
2. An organic compound was isolated and was found to be soluble in hexane and insoluble
in ethanol and acetone. What best describe the isolated compound?
a. The compound contains alcohol group
b. The compound contains long chain alkyl group
c. The compound contains double bond in its structure
d. The compound contains carboxylic group in its structure
Explanation: The answer is B. The long alkyl group exhibits non-polar character and
non-polar compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents like hexane.
3. Which of the following differentiates a plant from an animal?

a. Growth c. Photosynthesis
b. Reproduction d. REDOX reactions
Explanation: The answer is C. Plants have chlorophyll that is needed for
246
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. What is the product when amino acids are joined together forming peptides?
a. ammonia c. water
b. carbon dioxide d. ATP
Explanation: The answer is C. Once the amino acid joined together their C-terminal
releases OH group that abstracts the H atom from the N-terminal which
then form water.
5. Which among the following physical properties given below distinctly differentiates organic
compound from inorganic compound?
i. Melting and boiling point.

ii. Solubility in water.
iii. Physical state of the substance.
iv. Optical activity.
a. i and iv. c. iii and iv.

b. ii and iv. d. i and iii.
Explanation: The answer is A. Inorganic compounds have unusual high melting points
and optical activity is a special property exhibited by organic compounds.
6. What is the orientation of the double bond in an unsaturated fatty acid?

a. Cis configuration. c. Depends on the temperature.
b. Trans configuration. d. Depends on the type of species.
7. A certain refrigerant contains chlorine and fluorine atoms as substituent in an organic

molecule. Where does this organic molecule belong?
a. Belongs to alcohol group c. Belongs to organic halide group
b. Belongs to carbonyl group d. Belongs to carboxylic acid group
8. Two (2) compounds were isolated from the depth of the ocean. Both compounds have a
molar mass of 1 ATP 00 g/mol. What test WILL NOT differentiate the two compounds?
a. Solubility in water c. Phase test
b. Melting point d. Combustibility
9. What will join the monomeric units in nucleic acid?

a. H-bonding link c. O-glycosidic link
b. N-glycosidic link d. Phosphodiester link
10. Which shows hydrophobic interactions among the pairs of functional groups given
below?
i. Carbonyl compounds and saturated hydrocarbons.

ii. Alcohols and saturated hydrocarbons.
iii. Saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
iv. Aromatics.
a. i and iv. c. iii and iv.

b. ii and iv. d. iv only.
11. An alcohol was synthesized and found to be soluble in almost all non-polar solvents.
Which among the following best describes the synthesized alcohol?
a. It is hydrophobic in nature.
b. It contains short alkyl group.
c. It is capable of hydrogen bonding.
d. It contains halogen as one of its substituent.
12. Which biomolecule is concern with the transfer of genetic information from parents to
offspring?
a. Lipids c. Nucleic acids
b. Amino acids d. Polysaccharides
13. Which of the following statement is CORRECT if a plastic material cannot be blended
with other plastic during heat processing?
a. It is a thermoset. c. It contains many impurities.
b. It is a thermoplastic. d. It has been recycled many times.
14. In DNA, what is the correct complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases?
a. AG & CT c. AC & GC
b. AA & GG d. AT & GC
247
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
15. A phospholipid with a very low melting point is likely to be .

a. Highly hydrophobic c. Highly unsaturated
b. Highly hydrophilic d. Highly saturated
16. A certain organic compound was found to be unsaturated. Which of the following test will
confirm that the compound is unsaturated?
a. Bromine test c. Solubility test
b. Melting point d. Oxidation test
17. The solubility of alcohol decreases as the number of carbon atoms increases. Which of
the following best explains the statement above?
a. The polarity of the molecule increases.
b. The non-polar character predominates.
c. The polarity of the molecule decreases.
d. There is crowding of carbon atoms in the chain.
18. Which functional group classifies an organic molecule as alkyl halide?

a. Ether groups c. Halogen groups
b. Hydrohalogens d. Methyl & ethyl groups
19. Unsaturated fatty acids are fatty acids whose physical state is liquid at room
temperature. This is attributed to the lowering of hydrophobic interactions among the
molecules. Which among the given fatty acids will have the lowest melting point if it were
to contain certain number of double bonds?
a. It depends on the carbonyl.
b. Unsaturated fatty acid that has one double bond.
c. Unsaturated fatty acid that has two double bonds.
d. Unsaturated fatty acid that has three double bonds.
20. What is the role best played by lipids in living system?

a. Biomarkers c. Structural membrane
b. Energy source d. Immunity enhancement
21. Which among the given set of amino acid belongs have the same solubility?
a. K, A, L c. P, Y, H
b. K, E, D d. W, D, E
22. In the central dogma of protein synthesis, which part involves the production of
information prior to protein synthesis?
a. Replication c. Transcription
b. Translation d. Reverse transcriptio
23. What anomer configuration/projection is exhibited by cellulose?

a. Chiral projection c. Beta configuration
b. Fischer projection d. Alpha configuration
24. What functional group is found in ketones and aldehydes?

a. Oxygen c. Nitro group
b. Alkyl group d. Carbonyl group
25. What biomolecular structure mediates the passage of molecules and nutrients in and out
of the cell?
a. Lipid c. Nucleic acids.
b. Protein d. Polysaccharides
1. Which pairs of functional group given below are most capable of forming hydrogen bonds
with water?
Pair 1:Alcohols and amines.

Pair 2:Amines and alkyl halides.
Pair 3: Alcohols and alkyl halides.
Pair 4: Carboxylic acids.
a. pairs 1 and 4. c. pairs 3 and 4.

b. pairs 2 and 4. d. pair 4 only.
2. The data below shows the boiling point and molecular mass of selected compounds.
Which compounds exhibit strong hydrogen bonding?
248
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Molecular Mass and Boiling Point of Selected compounds
Molecular
Compound mass Boiling Point (0C)
(g/mol)
A 32 62
B 38 35
C 45 78
D 77 50
a. Compounds A and B. c. Compounds A and C.

b. Compounds C and D. d. Compounds B and D.
3. What is the compliment of the DNA sequence GCCAAA?

a. CGGTTT c. TTTCGG
b. AAAGCC d. CGGUUU
4. A certain compound was analyzed and found to contain three (3) carbon atoms. Further
tests showed that there is the presence of a double bond between carbon atoms. There
was only one (1) hydrogen atom present and the rest were chlorine atoms. Which of the
following statement best describes the compound?
Statement 1
The compound is organic due to the presence of halogens.
Statement 2
The compound is organic and is considered saturated.
Statement 3
The compound is organic and is considered unsaturated.
Statement 4
The compound can be an organic or inorganic. Further tests are necessary.
a. Statement 1 and 2. c. Statement 3 only.

b. Statement 1 and 3. d. Statement 4 only.
5 Which among the following physical and chemical properties below are generally exhibited
by organic compounds?
i. High boiling point, highly soluble in water.
ii. Low melting point, less soluble in water.
iii. Flammable, form ionic bonds.
iv. Flammable, form covalent bonds.
a. i and iii. c. ii and iv.

b. ii and iii. d. iii and iv.
6. Which among the given components differentiate between DNA and RNA in terms of
structure?
i. The nucleoside sequence.
ii. The type of sugar present.
iii. The type of nitrogenous bases.
iv. The sugar-phosphate backbone sequence.
a. i and ii c. iii and iv

b. ii and iii d. i and iv
7. Which pairs of functional groups display the carbon-nitrogen bond?
Pair 1: Nitriles and carbonyl compounds.
Pair 2: Alcohol and ammonia.
249
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Pair 3: Amines and nitriles.
a. pairs 1 and 2. c. pair 3 only.

b. pairs 2 and 3. ` d. pairs 1, 2 and 3.
8. Which of the following are NOT considered as an organic compound(s)?

a. Vanilla b. Ethyl alcohol c. Chalk d. menthol
9. The three (3) important monosaccharides are glucose, galactose and fructose. What
sugar unit makes up the table sugar or sucrose?
a. Glucose and glucose c. Glucose and galactose
b. Glucose and fructose d. Galactose and fructose
10. Which of the following organic compounds DO NOT contain oxygen atoms?
a. amides and esters. c. aldehydes and ketones.
b. amines and nitriles. d. acid anhydrides and acid chlorides.
11. The amino acid glycine has no stereogenic center whereas alanine possesses one
stereogenic center. Which of the following statement is correct?
Statement 1
Alanine will have a mirror image.
Statement 2
Glycine will have a mirror image.
Statement 3
The presence of stereogenic center makes the amino acid acidic.
Statement 4
The presence of stereogenic center increases the isoelectric point of amino acid.
a. Statement 1. c. Statement 1 & 3.

b. Statement 2. d. Statement 2 & 4.
12. A certain fatty acid was isolated from a marine species. The fatty acid has a melting
point of 20 0C and three (3) moles of hydrogen is consumed upon hydrogenation. From
the given data, which of the following statement is correct about the isolated fatty acid?
Statement 1
The fatty acid is solid and highly saturated.
Statement 2
The fatty acid is liquid and highly unsaturated.
Statement 3
There are three (3) double bonds in the fatty acid.
Statement 4
There are six (6) double bonds in the fatty acid.
a. Statement 1 & 3. c. Statement 2 & 3.

b. Statement 1 &4. d. Statement 2 & 4.
13. Which of the following explains the solubility of OH group in water?

a. The capability to form hydrogen bond.
b. The chance for van der waals interactions.
c. The chance for hydrophobic interactions.
d. The presence of strong dipole-dipole interactions.
14. Why is there a need to separate the study of carbon from other elements?
Statement 1
Carbon is capable of forming polymers.
Statement 2
Compounds formed from carbon are stable.
Statement 3
Compounds formed from carbon exhibit isomerism.
250
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Statement 4
Carbon is capable of forming multiple bonds with any metals.
a. Statement 1 and 2. c. Statement 2 and 3.

b. Statement 1 and 3. d. Statement 3 and 4.
15. In humans, which among the following biomolecules store energy the most in terms of
quantity?
a. Lipids c. Starch and fats.
b. Proteins d. Polysaccharides
16 An unsaturated fatty acid consumes 3 moles of hydrogen gas. How many double bonds
are present in the said fatty acid?
a. 3 c. 9
b. 6 d. 12
17. A polymer was formed from a single monomer. What is the involved polymerization
reaction?
a. Thermosetty polymerization c. Step-reaction polymerization
b. Thermophilic polymerization d. Chain reaction polymerization
18. Which of the following will differentiate an amine from an amide in terms of structure?
a. Amine has carbonyl group
b. The amide has carbonyl group
c. Amide is directly linked to an alkyl group
d. Amine group is directly bonded to carbonyl group
19. An organic molecule is said to be soluble in polar solvent and possesses high boiling
point despite having a low molar mass. What functional group contributes to the said
characteristic of the organic molecule?
a. Ethers c. Hydroxyl
b. Alkenes d. Halogens
20. What classification does the sugar fructose belongs?

a. Aldoses c. Cellulose
b. Ketoses d. Anhydrides
21. What is the backbone of the lipid triglyceride?

a. Glycerol c. Phospholipid
b. Sphingolipid d. Sugar-phosphate
22. Which of the following involves DNA replication?

a. Formation of mRNA c. Formation of daughter strands
b. The presence of ribosome d. The copying of the genetic code
23. What is the stored form of carbohydrates in plants?

a. Starch c. Glycogen
b. Cellulose d. Cellobiose
24. How many stereogenic carbons are present in glucose?

a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
25. What is the anomeric configuration/projection of the polysaccharide, starch?

a. Beta configuration c. Fischer projection
b. Alpha configuration d. Stereogenic projection
251
Focus: Nuclear Processes
By: Prof. Crisanta A. Ocampo
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Radioactive isotopes are used as tracers to identify abnormal bodily processes. Some
natural elements tend to concentrate in certain parts of the body like iodine in the thyroid,
phosphorus in the bones, potassium in the muscles. When a patient with arthritis is
165
injected with a radioactive element Dysprosium, Dy , a special camera can take
pictures of the internal workings of the organ.
The latest single photon emission typography (SPET) or positron emission

tomography (PET) enable scientists to watch color images of chemical reactions
in living tissue and body organs.
NUCLEAR REACTOR FUEL - radioactive materials are produced commercially

for nuclear reactors or cyclotrons, also called particle accelerators. With nuclear
reactors and cyclotrons, it is possible to make useful amounts of radioactive
material safely.
ENERGY CONVERTER - plutonium-238 and curium-244 sources of power

through radioactive-decay heat is converted directly to electricity by
thermoelectric devices.
137
1. Which stable nucleus is formed when an unstable nucleus of 56 Ba emits a gamma
radiation?
137 137 138 133
a. 56 Ba b. 57 La c. 55 Cs d. 54 Xe
Answer: a
0
Gamma radiation is the most penetrating type of radiation represented by 0 . It does
NOT change the mass nor the atomic number of the atom.
2. In the nuclear equation 74 Be X 7

3 Li , X represents what radioactive particle?
a. electron b. neutron c. positron d. proton
Answer: a
0
The nuclear reaction is a beta decay. A beta particle is represented by 1e , a particle
similar to an electron.
3. The diagram below represents a nuclear reaction which a neutron bombards a heavy
nucleus. What type of nuclear reaction is shown?
a. fusion b. fission c. beta decay d. alpha decay
Answer: b
Fission is a nuclear reaction in which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei
releasing energy.
4. During a fission reaction, which type of particle is captured by a nucleus?

a. electron b. deuteron c. neutron d. proton
259
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Answer: c
During fission reaction, a high particle is needed to release enough energy. Neutron is
the most penetrating particles.
5. From the series on nuclear transformation, an atom of uranium-238 changes an atom of

uranium-234 by the emission of ____.
a. one alpha particle followed by beta particle
b. one beta particle followed by one alpha particle
c. one alpha particle followed by two beta particle
d. one beta particle followed by two alpha particle
Answer: c
A nuclear transformation is a series of decay of different radioactive particles until a
stable nucleus is obtained.
6. High-energy neutrons are released in all nuclear fission reactions. What material is used
to reduce the energy of these neutrons to thermal levels?
a. shielding c. thin metal foils
b. moderators d. fissionable isotopes
7. A cyclotron is used in medical research to make radioisotopes. The primary function of a

cyclotron is to
a. determine the mass of an atom c. accelerate neutrons
b. determine the half-life of a nuclide d. accelerate charged particles
8. As the nucleus of an unstable atom emits only gamma radiation, the nucleus must
a. gain energy c. lose protons
b. lose energy d. gain protons
24 24
9. In the nuclear reaction 11 Na 12 Mg X , what particle is represented by X?
10. A 24-g sample of a radioactive nuclide decayed to 3.0 g in 36 minutes. How much of the
original sample was left after the first 12 minutes?
a. 2.0 g b. 6.0 g c. 8.0 g d. 12 g
11. The half-life of a radioactive sample is 12 hours. If after 2 days, how much of the original
sample of mass 4.8 x 10-2 kg was left?
a. 2.4 x 10-2 b. 1.2 x 10-2 c. 6.0 x 10-3 d. 3.0 x 10-3
12. An atomic nucleus emits energy as it decays from an excited state to a more stable state
without a change in its atomic number. The energy emitted is in the form of
a. alpha particle b. beta particle c. electron d. gamma ray
13. Which nuclear phenomenon produces a change in the mass number of a nucleus?
a. alpha decay c. gamma ray emission
b. electron decay d. positron emission
14. Uranium-235 and plutonium-239 are used as fuels in nuclear reactors because of their
a. ability to under fission c. ability to undergo fusion
b. inability to absorb neutrons d. inability to release neutrons
15. Which type of force overcomes the repulsive electrostatic force between protons in the
nucleus of an atom which result to radioactivity?
a. magnetic force c. strong nuclear force
b. gravitational force d. weak nuclear force
2 3 4
16. In the nuclear reaction 1 H 1 H 2 He 01n Q , Q represents the energy released. The
masses of the nuclei are:
2
1 H =2.0172 amu; 13 H = 3.01697 amu; 24 He = 4.0091amu; 01 n =
1.00897 amu. This reaction is an example of
a. fission b. fusion c. beta decay d. alpha decay
17. In the reaction shown in question No. 16, the value of Q is closest to
a. 5.03169 amu b. 5.01288 amu c. 2.01472 amu d. 0.01881amu
18. In the nuclear reaction shown, what is the value of the coefficient y?
235 1 144 89
92 U 0 n Ba
56 Kr y 01n
36
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
260
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
19. What is the relationship between the atomic R, the mass number M and the number of
neutrons N, in a nucleus?
a. R = MN b. R = M N c. d.
214
20. When lead, 82 Pb , emits a beta particle, the resultant nucleus will be
214 214 213 214
a. 83 Bi b. 84 Po c. 82 Pb d. 81 Tl
234
21. If the half-life of 90 Th is 24 days, the amount of 12 g sample remaining after 96 days is
a. 6.0 g b. 3.0 g c. 1.0 g d. 0.75 g
27 4 30
22. Given the nuclear equation, 13 Al 2 He 15 P X , what is X?
0 0 0 1
a. 1 e b. 1 e c. 1 n d. 0 n
90
23. What is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of 38 Sr ?
a. 38 b. 52 c. 90 d. 128
24. The diagram represents the path of an alpha particle as it passes very near the nucleus
the nucleus of a gold atom. The shape of the path is caused by the force between the
a. positively-charged alpha particle and the
neutral nucleus
b. positively-charged alpha particle and the
positively-charged nucleus
c. negatively-charged alpha particle and the
positively-charged nucleus
d. negatively charged alpha particle and the positively-charged nucleus
25. The isotopes of an element can be measured using a

a. cathode ray tube c. Geiger Muller counter
b. diffraction grating d. mass spectrometer
1. In which of the following nuclear reactions is NEUTRON represented?

3 1 4 2 2 3 1
a. 1 H 1 H 2 H X c. 1H 1 H 1 H 1 H X
2 3 4 12 1 13
b. 1 H 1 H 2 He X d. 6 C 0 n 7 N X
2. As the nucleus of an stable atom emits gamma radiation, the nucleus
a. gain energy c. lose protons
b. lose energy d. gain protons
238
3. One isotope of uranium is 92 U . Other isotope of uranium, have
a. 92 protons c. 146 protons
b. 92 neutrons d. 146 neutrons
4. From the series of nuclear transformation, how many beta particles are emitted when an
218 206
atom of 84 Po decays to 82 Pb ?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7
30 0
5. In the transmutation reaction 15 P X 1 e , the X represents
30 30 31 31
a. 16 S b. 14 Si c. 14 Si d. 16 S
235 1 141 92
6. Which process is demonstrated by the reaction 92 U 0 n 56 Ba 36 Kr 310 n Q?
a. alpha decay c. nuclear fusion
b. beta decay d. nuclear fission
7. Neutrons are used to bombard a nucleus is that neutrons

a. can be accelerated
b. have high kinetic energy
c. are nor repelled by the nucleus
d. have a relatively low atomic mass
261
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
8. According the Uranium transmutation series, undergoes

a. an alpha decay, forming
b. a beta decay, forming
c. an alpha decay, forming
d. a beta decay, forming
9. Which pair represents isotopes of the same element?

a. and c. and
b. and d. and
10. A 96 g sample of a radioactive nuclide is placed in a container. 6 g of the sample was left
after 12 hours. What is the half-life of the sample?
a. 2 h b. 3 h c. 6 h d. 12 h
11. In the nuclear reaction , what particle is particle Y?

For Questions 12 13, refer to this equation

12. How many neutrons are in an atom of ?
a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 32
13. What radioactive particle is represented by Y?

a. alpha particle c. neutron
b. beta particle d. proton
14. Gamma radiation is the most penetrative type of radiation because it consists of a stream
of high-energy ______.
a. electrons b. neutrons c. photons d. protons
15. A radioactive nuclei sample has a half-life of 6.0 days. If the remaining nuclei is only 4.0
kg after 18.0 days, what was the initial mass of the sample?
a. 12 kg b. 16 kg c. 32 kg d. 36 kg
16. Compared to the mass and charge of a proton, an antiproton has

a. the same mass and the same charge
b. greater mass and the same charge
c. the same mass and the opposite charge
d. greater mass and the opposite charge
17. A helium atom consists of two protons, two electrons, and two neutrons. In the helium
atom, the strong force is a fundamental interaction between the
a. electrons only c. neutrons and electrons
b. electrons and protons d. neutrons and protons
18. What total mass must be converted into energy to produce a gamma photon with energy
of 1.03 x 10-13 joule?
a. 1.14 x 10-30 b. 3.43 x 10-22 c. 3.09 x 10-5 d. 8.75 x 10 29
19. The particles in a nucleus are held together by the ________.

a. electrostatic force c. strong nuclear force
b. gravitational force d. weak nuclear force
20. The principal reason for using neutrons to bombard a nucleus is that neutrons
a. can easily be accelerated c. are not repelled by the nucleus
b. have a very high kinetic energy d. have a relatively low atomic mass
21.
a. fission c. electron capture
b. fusion d. natural radioactive decay
22. Compared to the gravitational force between two nucleons in an atom of helium, the
nuclear force between the nucleons is ______.
a. weaker and has a longer range c. stronger and has shorter range
b. weaker and has a shorter range d. stronger and has longer range
262
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
23. Neutrons penetrate matter readily primarily because they _____.

a. occupy no more than one-tenth of the volume of the electrons
b. occupy no more than one-tenth of the volume of the protons
c. have a smaller mass than protons
d. are electrically neutral
24. It is characteristics of alpha particles emitted from radioactive nuclei that they _____.
a. are the ultimate unit of positive charge c. usually consist of electrons
b. are sometimes negatively charged d. are helium nuclei
25. When describing isotopes of the same element, the most accurate statement is that they
have ______.
a. the same spin as a top
b. the same atomic mass but different atomic number
c. the same atomic number but different atomic mass
d. the same chemical properties and therefore cannot be separated.
263
Focus: Geology
By: Dr. Virgil D. Duad
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Some weathering processes change the chemical composition of a rock. Chemical

weathering is the breaking down of rock by changing its chemical composition. Such changes
often weaken a rock's structure. As a result, physical weathering more easily breaks down the
rock.
Many substances on Earth cause chemical weathering. Water, oxidation, carbonation,

sulfuric acid, and plant acids are responsible for most of the chemical weathering of rocks.
Soil
Soil contains the water and minerals plants need to make food. All animals, directly or
indirectly, depend on plants for food. Thus, soil is necessary for life to exist.
Soil is a product of the processes of weathering. It is a mixture of weathered rock and

humus. Humus is material produced by the breaking down of plant and animal remains. It is the
main source of nutrients for plant growth. Humus mixes with clay and sand, adding nutrients to
the soil. These added nutrients enrich the soil. Other substances such as air, water, and living
things can be found in soil.
Agents of Erosion
Many processes working together are changing the shape of the Earth's surface. The
processes of weathering break down solid rock into sediments. Other processes then pick up and
move the sediments. Erosion is the process by which weathered rock and soil particles are
moved from one place to another. As sediment is moved, it smooths down and wears away rock,
changing the shape of the land. The process by which sediments are laid down in new locations
is called deposition. Deposition changes the shape of the land.
The processes of weathering and erosion break down mountains and other landforms.
Deposited materials, however, build up new landforms. Weathering, erosion, and deposition are
all part of an unending duel between forces that wear down and build up the land.
Gravity, wind, running water, glaciers, and waves can cause erosion. These are the
five agents of erosion. An agent of erosion is a material or force that moves sediments from place
to place.
1. Through what process does the ocean floor constantly renew itself?
A. Continental drift C. Subduction
B. Sea-floor spreading D. Terranes
The correct answer is B. A great deal of volcanic activity occurs at the mid-ocean
ridges. Lava erupts from the rift valley that runs the
length of a ridge. When the lava wells up and hardens,
the ocean floor is pushed away on either side of the
ridge. The hardened lava forms new ocean floor. This
process is called sea-floor spreading.
Choice A. Continental drift is a hypothesis that suggests the continents have been
in different positions through geologic time.
Choice C. Subduction is the process whereby an oceanic plate moves under

another plate, descends into the mantle, and melts.
Choice D. A terrane is a piece of land with a geologic history distinct from that of the
surrounding land.
2. What is the state of balance between the thickness of the crust and the depth at which it
floats on the asthenosphere?
A. Isostasy C. Strain
B. Shearing D. Stress
The correct answer is A. The floating crust exerts a downward force. But the
mantle also exerts a force. Its force is exerted upward on
the crust. A balance exists between the downward force
of the crust and the upward force of the mantle. The
balancing of these two forces is called isostasy.
270
Focus: Geology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Choice B. Shearing is a system of forces that pushes against a body from different
sides not directly opposite each other.
Choice C. Strain is the change in shape and volume of rocks that occurs due to
stress.
Choice D. Stress is a force that applies pressure to rocks in the Earth's crust.
3. According to the elastic rebound theory, what happens when the rocks are strained past
a certain point?
A. Deforms C. Melts
B. Fractures D. Rebounds
The correct answer is B. According to the elastic rebound theory, the rocks on
each side of a fault are moving slowly. If the fault is
locked, strain in the rock increases. When they are
strained past a certain point, however, the rocks fracture,
separate at their weakest point, and rebound.
Choice A. Deformation is the breaking, bending, tilting, and folding of rocks.
Choice C. Melting is the change of phase (state) from a solid to a liquid.
Choice D. Rebound means to spring back to the original position or shape.
4. What type of volcano has a narrow base, very steep slope, and rarely more than a few
hundred meters high?
A. Cinder cone C. Shield cone
B. Composite cone D. Strato-volcano
The correct answer is A. A cinder cone is a volcano made mostly of cinders and
other rock particles that have been blown into the air.
Cinder cones have very steep slopes, often close to forty
degrees. Because the fragments are loosely arranged
and thus tend to roll down a slope easily, they are rarely
a few hundred meters high.
Choice B. A composite cone is a volcano built up of alternating layers of tephra and

hardened lava flows.
Choice C. A shield volcano is a gently sloping, dome-shaped volcano composed

almost entirely of hardened lava flows.
Choice D. Strato-volcano is another name for composite cone.
5. What type of rock forms from magma that cools and hardens?
A. Clastic C. Metamorphic
B. Igneous D. Sedimentary
The correct answer is B. A rock is grouped, or classified, according to how it was

formed. One type of rock is formed from magma or lava.
Magma is found deep inside the Earth. Lava is magma
that reaches the Earth's surface. When magma and lava
cools, they harden into igneous rocks.
Choice A. Clastic rock is sedimentary rock formed from sediments that have been
cemented or compacted together. These sediments are often broken bits
of rocks and minerals.
Choice C. Another type of rock is formed when already existing rock is changed by
great heat, great pressure, or chemical action. This new rock is called
metamorphic rock.
Choice D. Sediments are small bits of matter deposited by water, ice, or wind. They
can be bits of rocks, shells, or the remains of a plant or animal. A
sedimentary rock is formed when sediments are cemented together or
hardened by other processes.
271
Focus: Geology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
6. Which layer of the mantle consists of slowly flowing solid rocks that support the moving
tectonic plates?
A. Asthenosphere C. Oceanic crust
B. Lithosphere D. Terrane
7. What is formed by two tectonic plates moving away from each other?
A. Convergent boundary C. Fracture
B. Divergent boundary D. Transform plate boundary
8. In what region along lithospheric plate boundaries is one plate pushed under another?
A. Convergent boundary C. Subduction zone
B. Rift valley D. Transform fault boundary
9. Which type of stress squeezes rocks together?

A. Compression C. Shearing
B. Faulting D. Tension
10. What happens when rocks are subjected to high pressure and high temperature?
A. Adjust C. Fracture
B. Deform D. Plateau
11. Forces acting on the crust have produced cracks, or breaks, in rocks. Which type of
break exists when there is no movement in the rocks along either side of a crack?
A. Fold C. Hanging wall
B. Fracture D. Normal fault
12. Which characteristic of an earthquake causes the most damage?

A. Deep epicenter C. Intermediate focus
B. Deep focus D. Shallow focus
13. In which medium/media can P waves travel?

A. solids only C. solids and liquids only
B. liquids and gases only D. solids, liquids, and gases
14. Which aspect of an earthquake is expressed by the Richter scale?

A. Intensity C. Magnitude
B. Location D. Speed
15. What type of lava is associated with explosive volcanic eruptions?

A. Felsic C. Pahoehoe
B. Mafic D. Tephra
16. What is the depression that results when a volcanic cone collapses into an empty
magma chamber?
A. Caldera C. Fissure
B. Crater D. Vent
17. Before an eruption, the upward movement of magma beneath push out the surface.
What may happen to the sloping surface of the volcano?
A. Bulges C. Gets darker
B. Caves in D. Melts
18. Which of the following gives intrusive igneous rocks a coarse grained texture?
A. Large crystals C. Heavy elements
B. Small crystals D. Fragments of different shapes and
sizes
19. Which of the following is an example of an igneous extrusion?

A. Batholith C. Lava plateau
B. Dike D. Stock
20. Which of the following is an example of a chemical sedimentary rock?

A. Breccia C. Evaporite
B. Coal D. Gneiss
21. Which of the following increases the surface area of rocks exposed to weathering?
A. Burial C. Leaching
B. Joints D. Quartz grains
272
Focus: Geology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
22. Where does chemical weathering occur most rapidly?

A. cold, dry climates C. hot, dry climates
B. cold, wet climates D. hot, wet climates
23. What is the transport of weathered materials by a moving natural agent called?
A. Erosion C. Soil creep
B. Mass wasting D. Weathering
24. Which is the most effective of all mass movements?

A. Landslide C. Rockfall
B. Mudflow D. Soil creep
25. Which mineral group contains metals, silicon, and oxygen?

A. Silicate minerals C. Sulfide minerals
B. Sulfate minerals D. Ores
1. A rock is hard, crystalline, and dense. Its crystals are large and arranged in alternating
light and dark colored layers. It contains no fossils. What type of rock is most likely being
described?
A. clastic sedimentary rock C. foliated metamorphic rock
B. extrusive igneous rock D. nonfoliated metamorphic rock
2. Which of the following is an example of an igneous rock?

A. Gneiss C. Marble
B. Granite D. Sandstone
3. Which clastic sedimentary rock is formed by the cementation of pebbles, gravel, and
sand?
A. Conglomerate C. Sandstone
B. Rock gypsum D. Shale
4. Which layer makes up most of the Earth's mass and volume?

A. Core C. Magma
B. Crust D. Mantle
5. Which elements make up most of the Earth's crust?

A. copper and nickel C. iron and silicon
B. iron and nickel D. oxygen and silicon
6. How does oceanic crust compare with continental crust?

A. oceanic crust is granitic C. thicker than continental crust
B. as thick as continental crust D. thinner than continental crust
7. Which of the following is the wearing away of rocks by solid particles carried by wind,
water, and other forces?
A. Abrasion C. Joint sheeting
B. Exfoliation D. Root-pry
8. Which agent causes most of the chemical weathering?

A. Air pollution C. Sulfuric acid
B. Nitrates D. Water
9. What term refers to the size of individual soil particles?

A. Horizon C. Profile
B. Porosity D. Texture
10. Which landscape region has the lowest overall elevation?

A. Coastal plain C. Mountain belt
B. Interior plain D. Plateau
11. What are the large areas of very old, exposed rock that form the core of each continent?
A. Cratons C. Meridians
B. Icecaps D. Shields
12. What is the process by which sediments are laid down in new locations?
A. Abrasion C. Erosion
B. Deposition D. Transportation
273
Focus: Geology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
13. Which are two examples of rapid mass wasting?

A. earthflows and landslides C. landslides and slump
B. earthflows and soil creep D. slump and soil creep
14. What type of stress pulls rocks apart?

A. Compression C. Tension
B. Shearing D. Torsion
15. In which type of fault do blocks move horizontally past one another?
A. Lateral C. Reverse
B. Normal D. Thrust
16. What kind of valley is formed when the block of land between two normal faults slide s
downward?
A. Anticline C. Horst
B. Graben D. Syncline
17. What is the balancing of floating crystal rock on the denser mantle called?
A. Buoyancy C. Isostasy
B. Drift D. Suspension
18. Which is the most common cause of earthquakes?

A. Faulting C. Seismic waves
B. Folding D. Tsunamis
19. Where does the most violent shaking during an earthquake occur?
A. Epicenter C. Hypocenter
B. Focus D. Ring of Fire
20. Which seismic wave causes most of the damage during an earthquake?
A. L C. S
B. P D. V
21. What is the smallest pyroclastic material blown into the air during a volcanic eruption?
A. Volcanic ash C. Volcanic cinder
B. Volcanic bomb D. Volcanic dust
22. In which process does the ocean floor plunge back into the Earth's interior?
A. Convection C. Deformation
B. Convergence D. Subduction
23. What theory is used to explain the formation of the Earth's crust and its movements,
collision, and destruction?
A. Continental drift C. Plate tectonics
B. Magnetic stripes D. Sea-floor spreading
24. What is created by the collision between two oceanic plates?

A. Convection currents C. Mountain belts
B. Island arcs D. Rift valleys
25. According to current ideas, to which landmass was South America originally connected
to?
A. Africa C. Eurasia
B. Australia D. India
274
Focus: Hydrology
By: Dr. Gloria L. Follosco
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
The answer is c.
which is primarily a function of latitude. The intensity of solar radiation in high latitudes is
significantly less than that received in tropical latitudes. Particles of water are closer if
temperature is low, so density of colder water is greater. Particles move slower if the
temperature is lower.
Choice a: The poles receive slanting rays of light from the sun. Rays striking Earth
at low angle toward the poles travel through more of the atmosphere.
This makes radiation that is received at the surface less intense, so
surface water is cooler in the poles.
Choice b: If surface water is cooler in the poles, then, it is denser.
Choice d: Particles move generally slower if water is cooler.
2. What usually happens to the level of the water table during summer? It would probably
_____.
a. be higher c. disappear
b. be lower d. remain the same
The answer is b.
The primary source of practically all subsurface water is precipitation that soaks into the
ground. There are several factors that affect the amount of water that soaks into the
ground. One of which is the intensity of rainfall. The lesser the amount of rainfall the
lower is the level of the water table.
Choices a, c, d: For as long as rock is saturated, there will be a water table

because this is the upper boundary of the zone of saturation.
The height of the water table depends on the amount of rainfall.
There is less rainfall during summer so the level of the water
table is low, not high but it will never disappear.
3. Temperature and salinity are the most significant factors in creating a dense mass of
ocean water. What probably happens if the rate of evaporation in ocean water increases?
a. The mineral salts also evaporate with water.
b. The salinity of ocean surface water decreases.
c. The density of surface ocean water decreases.
d. More mineral salts are left in the surface ocean water.
The answer is a.
When water evaporates the impurities do not go with the escaping molecules. Mineral
salts are left in the surface water. The density of the surface water, therefore, increases.
Since salinity is the amount of mineral salts dissolved in seawater, the salinity of surface
water increases.
Choice b: Pure water evaporates leaving the impurities, which are the mineral
salts.
Choice c: Since mineral salts are left in the surface water and that the density of
salt is greater than the density of pure water, then, density of the surface
water increases.
Choice d: Salinity is the proportion of dissolved salts to pure water. If more mineral
salts are left in surface water, the density of surface water increases.
4. Oceanographers recognize that the structure of the open ocean has three layers
described for salinity. What is this zone where temperature rapidly changes called?
a. Deep zone c. High polar latitudes
b. Transition zone d. Shallow surface zone
The correct answer is c.

Below the shallow surface zone, the temperature of ocean water decreases abruptly with
depth. This marks the transition between the warm surface layer and the deep zone.
There is no mixing of water in this layer.
Choice a: Solar energy is received at the ocean surface, so, it is here that the water
temperature is warmest. But, waves and the turbulence from currents
mix these waters. Heat vertically transfers, thus, making the temperature
in this zone uniform. This zone is called the shallow surface zone.
277
Focus: Hydrology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Choice b: In the high polar latitudes, surface water is cold and there is no so much
change in the temperature. So, the three- layered structure is not
present.
Choice c: Below the transition zone is the deep zone where temperatures of ocean
water is very low and decreases only a few degrees.
5. Seawater has a salinity of 35 parts per thousand. If you get 1000 grams of seawater, how
much of this mass is mineral salt?
a. 3.5 g c. 100 g
b. 35 g d. 1000 g
The correct answer is b.

Salinity is the proportion of dissolved salts to pure water. In other things, the proportion is
expressed in percent which is parts per hundred. But, the proportion of salts in seawater
is small, so scientists express salinity in parts per thousand.
Choice a: If there are 100 grams of seawater, the proportion of dissolved salts is
3.5. This is part per hundred or percent.
Choices c, d: To determine the percentage of salts to pure water, we get 100 g of

seawater. To determine the part per thousand of salts to pure water, we
have to get 1000 g of seawater.
6. Before it rains, we usually feel warmer. Which of the following best explains this
phenomenon?
a. Evaporation of water absorbs heat.
b. There are no condensation nuclei in the air.
c. Condensation of water vapor releases energy.
d. Clouds trap the infrared radiation from the surface of the earth.
7. Seawater contains mineral substances. Of these mineral substances which contribute the
a. Sodium chloride c. Magnesium chloride

b. Sodium bicarbonate d. Sodium sulfate
8. Seawater is a complex solution of salts that make it salty. What do you call the proportion
of dissolved salts to pure water commonly expressed in parts per thousand?
a. Density c. Humidity
b. Salinity d. Specific gravity
9. The unending transfer of water from oceans into the atmosphere and then back to the
ocean is called __________.
a. rock cycle c. oxygen cycle
b. water cycle d. nitrogen cycle
10. The hydrologic cycle consists of different processes involved in the unending exchange
of water from the surface to the atmosphere. Which is responsible for getting water into
the atmosphere?
a. Evaporation c. Sublimation
b. Condensation d. Melting
For questions 11 to 13, please refer to the table below:
Amount of water Volume

(%) (km3)
Ocean 97 1.3200Billion
Lakes, streams,
subsurface, and 2 0.0088 Billion
atmosphere
Ice sheets and
1 0.0292 Billion
glaciers
Total 100 % 1.36 Billion
11. By percentage, how much is the total amount of water on Earth found in the ocean?
a. 0.65 c. 97.2
b. 2.15 d. 100
278
Focus: Hydrology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
12. What is the percentage of water found in lakes, streams, subsurface and atmosphere?
a. 0.65 c. 97.2
b. 2.15 d. 100
13. Which of the following contains the greatest volume of water on Earth?
a. Ice sheets and glaciers c. Groundwater
b. Atmosphere d. Oceans
14. Water on Earth exists in different phases. In what phase of matter does condensed water
vapor exist?
a. Solid c. Gas
b. Liquid d. Plasma
15. The change of phase undergone by water in the water cycle may be a heat-absorbing or
a heat-releasing process. Which of the following is a heat releasing process?
a. Condensation c. Melting
b. Evaporation d. Sublimation
16. In the water cycle, water is transferred from the ocean to the atmosphere, then, back to
the ocean again. Condensed water vapor falls back to earth as rain, sleet, or hail. Which
a. Condensation nuclei c. Precipitation

b. Water droplets d. Clouds
17. Tides are periodic changes in the elevation of ocean water at a specific location. Which of
the following causes tides?
a. c.
b. d. Strong winds that blow across ocean water
18. The restless waters of the oceans are constantly in motion. All of the following cause
motion of the ocean water EXCEPT _______.
a. Tides c. density differences
b. Wind d. evaporation
19. Salinity variations with depth correspond to the three- layered system in the open ocean.
The most dense ocean water is generally found in ____.
a. deep zone c. surface mixed zone
b. polar zone d. transition zone
20. Water in the oceans is generally salty. The following are sources of the vast quantities of
salts in the ocean EXCEPT ______.
a. c. plants and animals
b. volcanic eruptions d. chemical weathering of rocks
21. A lake is a body of water surrounded by land. All of the following can form a lake
EXCEPT _____.
a. glaciers c. stream deposition
b. volcanic activity d. weathering of rocks
22. Several factors affect the way sediments are carried by agents of erosion. Which of the
following is TRUE about the way sediments are carried by agents of erosion?
a. A slow-moving river carries big particles of sediment.
b. Water and air can carry a wider range of sediment than ice.
c. The faster a medium moves the more sediment it can carry.
d. The smaller the particles of sediment, the nearer they are carried by streams.
23. Several factors affect the rate of deposition of sediments. Which one is NOT a factor?
a. Particle size c. Particle color
b. Particle shape d. Particle density
24. Lakes form either naturally or artificially. Which of the following is NOT a natural cause of
the formation of lakes?
a. Deep excavations c. River action
b. Earthquakes d. Volcanic action
25. The reservoir of groundwater is the zone of saturation, which is bounded on the top by
the water table. During rainy days, the water table would probably ___.
a. be lower c. disappear
b. be higher d. remain the same
279
Focus: Hydrology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
1. Ocean water contains mineral salts. Approximately what percentage (by weight) of
a. 3.5 % c. 71 %
b. 35 % d. 97 %
2. A view of Earth from space shows that the planet is dominated by oceans. Which of
these oceans is the largest?
a. Arctic Ocean c. Pacific Ocean
b. Atlantic Ocean d. Indian Ocean
3. Below the surface zone of the open ocean water is a layer where temperature rapidly
changes. What is this layer called?
a. Transition zone c. Surface zone
b. Deep zone d. Polar zone
4. Salinity of ocean water changes as a consequence of changes in the water content of the
solution. What happens to the salinity of the ocean water when the rate of evaporation
increases?
a. It increases. c. It remains the same.
b. It decreases. d. It depends on the depth of the ocean.
5. What happens to the density of ocean water when its temperature increases?
b. It decreases. d. It cannot be determined.
6. Aside from producing surface current in ocean water winds can also induce vertical
movement of ocean water. What do you call this rising of cold water from deeper ocean
to replace warmer surface water?
a. Ocean circulation c. Surfing
b. Reefing d. Upwelling
7. All of the following are brought about by coastal upwelling EXCEPT____.

a. growth of plankton
b. increase in populations of fish
c. warming of water in the Pacific off the coast of California
d. bringing greater concentration of nutrients to the ocean surface
8. Salinity variations in the open ocean normally range from 33% to 37%. What happens to
the density of seawater when its salinity increases?
b. It decreases. d. It depends on the temperature of water.
9. An estuary is a partially enclosed coastal water body that is connected to the ocean.
Which of the following DOES NOT happen in an estuary?
a. Freshwater from the river becomes salty.
b. There is so much growth of sea grasses and phytoplankton.
c. Salinity of seawater is reduced by freshwater inflow of the river water.
d. The river provides constant supply of nutrients and organic matter to living things.
For questions 10 to 13, follow the instruction: Arrange in order of occurrence how
thermohaline circulation happens.
a. Water at the surface of the ocean is made colder by heat loss to the atmosphere
or water at the surface is made saltier by removal of water by evaporation.
b. Less dense water displaced by denser water moves back toward zone where
denser water formed.
c. Denser water then sinks toward the ocean bottom.
d. Denser water displaces less dense water.
10.
11.
12.
13.
280
Focus: Hydrology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
14. Movement of ocean water is not confined to surface currents but significant deep-water
movements also occur. Which of the following creates deep ocean circulation?
a. Wind c. Earthquake
b. Air pressure d. Differences in density of water
15. In what oceans is the densest water found?

a. Arctic and Antarctic Oceans c. Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
b. Arctic and Pacific Oceans d. Indian and Pacific oceans
16. Two factors are most significant in creating a dense mass of water in the ocean. Which
are these?
a. Temperature and salinity c. Salinity and pressure
b. Temperature and pressure d. Volume and temperature
17. Heat spontaneously transfers from a body of high temperature to a body of low
temperature. What happens to a given mass of seawater when heat flows into it?
a. Its temperature increases. c. It becomes denser.
b. Its particles move closer. d. It becomes colder.
18. The underground region in which most of the spaces in between rock particles are filled
with water and the rest with air is called ______.
a. zone of saturation c. water table
b. zone of aeration d. aquiclude
19. Which of the following is TRUE of spaces between soil or rock particles if rock or soil is
saturated?
a. They are completely filled with air. c. They are partly filled with water.
b. They are completely filled with water. d. They contain nothing.
20. One of the most interesting properties of water is the way in which its volume changes
when its temperature is changed. Which of the following is an unusual behavior of water
as a liquid?
a. At 4 0 C the density of water is 1 g/cm3.
b. At room temperature the volume increases as temperature increases.
c. Below room temperature, its volume decreases as temperature decreases.
d. As temperature is cooled below 4 0C the volume of water increases until it freezes
at 00C.
21. The oceans contain many dissolved salts. What is the most abundant salt in seawater?
a. Calcium chloride c. Sodium chloride
b. Magnesium chloride d. Sodium bicarbonat
22. Cold ocean currents have many climatic influences. Which one is NOT a climatic
influence of cold ocean currents?
a. It influences temperatures of adjacent land areas.
b. It has a dramatic impact on tropical deserts existing along the west coast of
continents.
c. It causes temperature of air to approach and often reach due point.
d. It causes adjacent land areas to have low relative humidity and less fog.
23. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about water resources on Earth?
a. Total water abundance is a problem on a global scale.
b. s unavailable or unsuitable
for beneficial human use.
c.
used also increases.
d. The amount of water for which all the people, plants and animals on Earth
compete is much less than 1 %.
24.
drink. Why?
a. A greater percentage of our water on Earth is salty water.
b. Most of the freshwater are stored in glaciers and ice caps.
c. Many of our water bodies are polluted.
d. All of a,b,c
25. Water on Earth may be fresh or salt water. Which of the following contains salt water?
a. Lake c. River
b. Ocean d. Spring
281
Focus: Meteorology
By: Gloria L. Follosco
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Climate
Climate is the average condition of the atmosphere over long period of time. This
involves large bodies of air characterized by the same temperature and moisture at any given
latitude, called air masses.
Air masses are named based on the nature of origin of source or the latitude of source
region. When the origin is land, it is designated continental. When the origin is over water, it is
designated as maritime. Based on latitude, polar air masses originate in high latitudes, while
tropical air masses originate in low latitudes.
According to the classification scheme, the basic types of air masses are continental
polar, continental tropical, maritime polar, and maritime tropical.
If air mass originates over land, it is dry while if over water, it is humid. If air mass
originates in high latitudes, it is cold, while if it originates in low latitudes, it is warm.
Fronts are boundaries that separate air masses of different temperatures. Cold front
forms where cold air is actively advancing into a region occupied by warmer air. Warm front
forms where warm air occupies a territory formerly covered by cooler air.
1. What component of the atmosphere is responsible for the weather changes?

a. Nitrogen c. Particulates
b. Oxygen d. Water vapor
Correct Answer: d
Although water vapor constitutes only a small fraction of the gases in the atmosphere, it
is the source of all clouds and precipitation. Water vapor transports latent heat of water
from one region to another. This is the energy source that helps power many storms.
Choices a, b: Although the two gases, nitrogen and oxygen are the most abundant in
the atmosphere they do not play important role in changing the day to
day condition of the atmosphere. They are, however, significant to life on
earth.
Choice c: Particulates help in the formation of precipitation. They act as surfaces

on which water vapor can condense. They can also absorb or reflect
incoming solar radiation, reducing the amount of sunlight reaching
r in the air, even if there are
particulates or dust particles in the air, there will be nothing to condense,
hence, no precipitation.
2. The presence of ozone layer in our atmosphere is of vital importance to those of us on

Earth. Why?
a. Ozone makes life on Earth uninhabitable.
b. Ozone reflects incoming radiation from the sun.
c. Ozone absorbs the potentially harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun.
d. Ozone contributes to a phenomenon we all observe- red and orange color of
sunset and sunrise.
Correct choice: c
Ozone absorbs most of the ultraviolet rays from the sun, so a little only reaches the
troposphere. Too much ultraviolet rays are harmful. It can cause cancer of the skin and
cataract.
Choice a: Without ozone life on earth would be uninhabitable.
Choice b: Ozone actually allows incoming radiation from the sun to pass through,
except UV which it absorbs.
Choice d: Its aerosols or particulates that contribute to the red and orange color of
sunrise and sunset.
3. The atmosphere is divided vertically into four layers on the basis of temperature. In which
of the four layers is the air thickest?
a. Mesosphere c. Thermosphere
b. Stratosphere d. Troposphere
286
Focus: Meteorology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Correct choice: d
The atmosphere consists of gas particles which are held around the earth by gravitational
pull of the earth. The troposphere, being the lowest layer of the atmosphere naturally
surface.
Choices: a, b, c: Since the other layers ar

particles here are fewer.
4. During the night warm air blows from the beach to the sea. What do you call this local
wind?
a. Land breeze c. Sea breeze
b. Mountain breeze d. Valley breeze
Correct choice: a
Local winds are small scale winds produced by a locally generated temperature
pressure variations. In nighttime, water is warmer than the land, so, air rises creating low
pressure area over the sea. Since air moves from area of higher pressure to area of
lower pressure, air moves from the over the land to the sea. Recall that wind is named
from where it comes from, so, land breeze.
Choice c: It happens during the day where land is warmer than water, so, since air
over the land is less dense than air over water, it rises creating low
pressure area. Air, then moves from the sea.
Choices b, d: Creation of valley and mountain breezes applies the principle of uneven
heating of air. However, here, heating is due to which is more exposed to
sunlight. Since during the day, the mountain side is more exposed to
sunlight, air over the mountain side is warmer. At night, the reverse
happens.
5. A cold air comes in contact with the warm ground. What happens to the air?
a. It gets colder. c. Its temperature remains the same.
b. It gets warmer. d. Its density increases.
Correct choice: b
When a cold body comes in contact with warm body, there will be transfer of energy from
the body of higher temperature to a body of lower temperature. In this case, energy
transfers from the warm ground to the cold air making the air warmer than before. Its
temperature increases.
Choices a, c: Please see explanation for the correct choice.
Choice d: Air becomes warmer. Warm air has low density.
6.
TRUE about ozone in our atmosphere?
a. Ozone is the same as oxygen we breathe.
b. Ozone is evenly distributed in our atmosphere.
c. Ozone is formed when an electric discharge is passed through molecular
oxygen.
d. Ozone is created when a molecule of oxygen (O 2) and another molecule of
oxygen (O2) collide in the presence of a third, neutral molecule.
7. In which layer is the atmospheric pressure greatest?

8. In the troposphere what happens to the temperature as altitude increases?

a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It remains the same.
d. It increases, then, at certain height, it decreases.
9. In which layer of the atmosphere do all the weather changes happen?

287
Focus: Meteorology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
10. Why does temperature in the stratosphere increase as altitude increases?

a. Very short-wave, high energy solar radiation is absorbed by atoms of oxygen and
nitrogen.
b.
c. Ultraviolet radiation from the sun is absorbed by the atoms of ozone.
d. Pressure of the atmosphere decreases as altitude increases.
11. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the atmosphere?

a. It is the layer in which weather occurs.
b. It is the layer that contains the ozone layer.
c. It is the layer of water in the oceans.
d. It is the layer of gases that surrounds the earth.
12. Climate is determined by which of the following factors?

a. Temperature and pressure c. Precipitation and pressure
b. Temperature and cloud cover d. Temperature and precipitation
13. What causes the change in temperature in the thermosphere as altitude increases?
a. Direct solar radiation
b. Radiation from the surface of the earth
c. Absorption of ultraviolet rays from the sun
d. Too much water vapor content of the air
14.
relative humidity?
a. Changing c. Low
b. High d. Medium
15. Clouds are visible indication of what is going on in the atmosphere? All of the following
are indicated by cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT ___.
a. fair weather c. more precipitation
b. thunderstorm d. vertical formation of clouds
16. For condensation to occur, air must be saturated. Saturation of air takes place when
either of the following happens EXCEPT ___.
a. when air is cooled to its dew point
b. when water vapor is added to air
c. there is downward movement of air
d. there is a surface on which water vapor can condense
17. Relative humidity depends on two factors: temperature and amount of moisture added to
or removed from air. Which does NOT happen if temperature is changed?
a. When temperature is increased, relative humidity is increased.
b. When air is cooled beyond dew point more moisture is held, thus increasing
relative humidity.
c. Cooling of air beyond dew point produces precipitation in the form of clouds,
dew, or fog.
d. When temperature is lowered relative humidity remains the same.
18. Clouds are classified on the basis of their form and height. Which of the following does
not belong to the group?
a. Altocumulus c. Cirrostratus
b. Cirrocumulus d. Cirrus
19. Some of the incoming radiation from the sun is reflected back to space. What is the
fraction of the total radiation encountered that is reflected by a surface called?
a. Albedo c. Greenhouse effect
b. Diffused light d. Ultraviolet radiation
20. What is the correct arrangement of the solar radiation from the least to the greatest
frequency?
a. Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, x ray, gamma
b. Gamma, x ray, ultraviolet, infrared, microwave
c. Gamma, ultraviolet, infrared, microwave, x ray
d. Microwave, x ray, ultraviolet, gamma, infrared
288
Focus: Meteorology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
21.
destructive forces. Which are NOT produced by tornadoes?
a. Air mass c. Heavy rainfall
b. Damaging hail d. High winds
22-25. Arrange the following sequence in the idealized global air circulation:
a. The heated equatorial air would rise until it reaches the tropopause which, would
then, be deflected poleward.
b. Two large thermally produced cells would form.
c. The air that sinks move back toward the equator.
d. The upper level air flow that reach the poles sink and spread out in all directions
at the surface.
1. As the westerlies move poleward, they encounter the cool polar easterlies in the region of
the subpolar low. In the statement, which of the following happens?
a. The air starts from the eastern side of the polar region.
b. The air starts from the west and moves toward the pole.
c. The air that is encountered goes to the eastern side of the polar region.
d. The air that is encountered comes from the eastern side of the polar region.
2. Wind is the horizontal flow of air. What is the underlying cause of wind?
a. Varying amount of water vapor in the air c. Rotation of the Earth
d. Ocean currents
3. Which of the following is NOT a form of precipitation?

a. Condensed water vapor c. Rain
b. Hail d. Snow
4-7. Greenhouse effect is the warming of the atmosphere. Arrange the following sequence on
how greenhouse effect is produced.
a. Greenhouse gases absorb outgoing long wavelength radiation.
b. long wavelength radiation skyward.
c. Greenhouse gases reradiate some of the energy received earthward trapping
heat in the lower atmosphere.
d. Much of the incoming short wavelength solar radiation penetrates the
8. What happens to the temperature of a given mass of fluid like air when heat flows into it?
b. It decreases. d. Cannot be determined.
9. The boundary between two different air masses is called a _______.

a. Albedo c. Front
b. Convergence d. Isotherms
10. Among the most common features on any weather map are areas designated as
pressure centers. In what direction do winds move out around a high pressure area in the
Northern Hemisphere?
a. Clockwise, inward c. Counterclockwise, inward
b. Clockwise, outward d. Counterclockwise, outward
11. What happens to the salinity of ocean water when the rate of evaporation increases?
b. It decreases. d. It is reduced to zero.
12. Which of the following is a middle cloud?

a. Altostratus c. Cumulonimbus
b. Cirrostratus d. Nimbostratus
13. Air masses are classified on the basis of their source region. Which of the following
indicates cold, dry air?
a. Continental polar (cP) c. Continental tropical (cT)
b. Maritime polar (mP) d. Maritime tropical (mT)
289
Focus: Meteorology
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
14. Maritime tropical air masses that affect North America originate in the Gulf of Mexico,
Caribbean Sea, or the Atlantic Ocean. Which of the following describes the condition of
air in these areas?
a. Cold, moisture laden c. Cold, dry
b. Warm, moisture-laden d. Warm, dry
15. Which of the following is NOT associated with cumulonimbus clouds?

a. Formation of snow c. Lightning
b. Heavy rain d. Thunderstorm
16. What happens to the weather if the difference in air masses is great?
a. More violent
b. Less violent
c. Not affected
d. May be violent sometimes and less violent at other times
17. Which of the following is NOT true about ocean surface currents?
a. They are driven by winds.
b. They can cause upwelling.
c. They move heated water from equator to poles.
d. They can pile up water at eastern boundary of oceans.
18. The clockwise circulation of the North Atlantic Ocean leaves a large central area which
has no well-defined currents. What is this zone of calmer water called?
a. Canaries current c. Gulf Stream
b. Coriolis effect d. Sargasso Sea
19. Which of the following are NOT caused by winds?

a. Upwelling c. Ocean waves
b. Surface currents d. Deep ocean circulation
20. During the day, cool air blows from the sea to the land. What do you call this local wind?
a. Land breeze c. Sea breeze
b. Mountain breeze d. Valley breeze
21. What can cause an increase in the density of ocean surface water?
a. Warm air above the surface water c. Less evaporation of surface water
b. Freezing of surface water d. Warming of surface water
22. as is most
soluble in ocean water?
a. Carbon dioxide c. Nitrogen oxide
b. Nitrogen d. Oxygen
23. What part of the electromagnetic spectrum is reflected by ocean water?

a. Blue light c. Orange light
b. Green light d. Red light
24. Why does greenhouse effect result to warmer air near the surface of the earth?
a. Clouds trap infrared radiation released from the surface of the Earth.
b. Ozone traps ultraviolet radiation from incoming solar radiation.
c. Carbon dioxide traps infrared radiation released from the surface of the Earth.
d. Soil absorbs incoming solar radiation.
25. Which of the following is NOT true about air in our atmosphere?
a. Air moves from area of high pressure to area of low pressure.
b. The higher the air pressure the slower the air moves.
c. The greater the difference in air pressure between two air masses, the stronger
is the wind.
d. Cool air is denser and is, therefore, heavier than an equal volume of air.
290
Focus: Astronomy
Prof. Marie Paz E. Morales
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
1. The universe is believed to be composed of units called galaxies. Galaxies appear very
bright because they are composed of billions of luminous bodies. Which of these are
considered luminous bodies that make up a galaxy?
A. Nova C. Satellites
B. Planets D. Stars
Explanation:
Choice A: Nova is an explosion which is not considered as a body that is able to produce
its own light.
Choice B: Planets are opaque bodies thus they can only absorb light.
Choice C: Satellites are also opaque bodies that can only absorb light.
Choice D: Correct Answer. The only body capable of producing its light through
thermonuclear fusion
2. Which among these tools first invented in 1500 which until now are used for viewing
distant objects?
A. Kaleidoscope C. Spectroscope
B. Microscope D. Telescope
Explanation:
Choice A: Kaleidoscope is an instrument that produces abstract images by combining

reflected images.
Choice B: Microscope is an instrument that magnifies the image of small objects unseen
by naked eyes.
Choice C: Spectroscope is an instrument that analyzes light.
Choice D: Telescope is an instrument that brings the image of a distant object

closer to the eyes of the observer.
3. The star Alpha Centauri which is often considered as the closes star to our solar system is
about 4.7 light years away from earth. If the star emits a beam of light, how long will it take
the light to reach earth? Express your answers in years?
A. 1.0 year C. 4.7 years
B. 4.0 years D. 4700 years
Explanation:
Correct Answer is C. 4.7 years. This is due to the fact that a light year is the distance
traveled by light in 1 year. This means that 4.7 light years is the distance traveled by light
in 4.7 years.
4. Antares is a red star, Arcturus is an orange star, while the Sun is a yellow star. Which among
these stars is the youngest star?
A. Antares C. Sun
B. Arcturus D. There is not enough information.
Explanation:
Choice A: Antares is a red star. Reddish color connotes lower frequency and thus lower
amount of energy.
Choice B: Arcturus is an orange star. According to the color spectrum, orange has higher
energy than red but lower than yellow.
Choice C: Sun is a yellow star. According to the color spectrum, yellow has the
highest energy as compared to red and orange.
300
Focus: Astronomy
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
5. Andromeda is a galaxy classified as an elliptical galaxy with a reddish color, while Milky
Way, our own galaxy, is classified as a spiral galaxy with whitish nucleus and bluish
arms. On which galaxy will we probably observe the birth of a new star?
A. Andromeda C. Milky Way
B. Irregular Galaxy D. There is not enough information.
Explanation:
Choice A: Andromeda, a reddish galaxy is composed of reddish stars which are low
energy stars.
Choice B: Irregular galaxies are not considered the home of new stars.
Choice C: Milky Way is a bluish galaxy that can be considered as the home of
new stars.
6. Antares is a red star; Arcturus is an orange star, while the Sun is a yellow star. Which is
an arrangement according to star age from youngest to oldest?
A. Antares, Arcturus, Sun C. Arcturus, Antares, Sun
B. Sun, Antares, Arcturus D. Sun, Arcturus, Antares
7. The measure of a star's brightness is called its ____________.

A. Intensity C. color index
B. Parallax D. magnitude
8. Which of the objects listed below is largest in size?

A. Stars C. Planets
B. Nebula D. Galaxies
9. Which color of star has the highest surface temperature?

A. Blue C. Red
B. Orange D. Yellow
10. Which main-sequenced star is the most massive?

A. Blue C. Red
B. Orange D. Yellow
11. Which of the objects listed below are the smallest in size?
A. Galaxies C. Planets
B. Nebula D. Stars
12. Which color of stars has the lowest surface temperature?

A. Blue C. Red
B. Orange D. Yellow
13. Which main-sequenced stars are the least massive?

A. Blue C. Red
B. Orange D. Yellow
14. Which among the following is an evidence that the universe is an expanding universe?
A. Motion of the sun around an external axis
B. Motion of the earth around the sun
C. Precession of planets
D. Red shift phenomenon
15. In the last 1500, Nicolaus Copernicus made a sweeping discovery that the earth is one of
the wonderers and that the sun is the center of the solar system. This is a contradictory
statement to the Ptolemaic system that the sun is on
resides at the center of the solar system. Which among the following is also known as the
Copernican Theory of the Universe?
A. Big Bang Theory C. Geocentric Theory
B. Binary Star Theory D. Heliocentric Theory
16. The sun is considered as a luminous body. This means that it is capable of producing
and emitting its own light by combining 4 hydrogen nuclei to form a single helium atom
that resides at the center and becomes part of the core of the sun. Which among the
processes is described?
A. Nuclear radiation C. Nuclear Fission
B. Nuclear decay D. Nuclear Fusion
301
Focus: Astronomy
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
17. Lunar eclipses are phenomena that include the Sun-Moon-Earth System. When does a
lunar eclipse occur?
A.
B. When the moon moves into its own umbra
C.
D.
18. Planetary alignment or conjunctions occurs every after several years. In this
phenomenon, planets are viewed to follow a straight-line path as traced out on the sky.
Conjunctions have appeared in the years 2000, 2002, and 2005. What two planets
exhibited conjunction and formed a smiling face with the moon last December 1, 2008?
A. Jupiter and Venus C. Jupiter and Saturn
B. Saturn and Venus D. Venus and Mars
19. If full moon occurs on May 5, 2009, when will the next full moon be?
A. May 31, 2009 C. June 3, 2009
B. June 1, 2009 D. June 5, 2009
20. On what phase of the moon will a lunar eclipse occur?

A. Full moon C. Gibbous moon
B. New moon D. Crescent moon
21. If a solar eclipse occurred 2 weeks ago, what would be the phase of the moon today?
A. First quarter C. New moon
B. Full moon D. Last quarter
22.
A. December C. March
B. June D. September
23. On what day will the sun reach its greatest altitude at noon?
A. Summer solstice C. Vernal equinox
B. Winter solstice D. Spring equinox
24. Which among these types of galaxies can we observe the birth of a star?
A. Big Magellanic Cloud C. Small Magellanic Cloud
B. Elliptical Galaxy D. Spiral Galaxy
25. The solar system is composed of the Sun, planets, and the minor members. Identify the 3
minor members of the solar system.
A. Asteroids, comets, meteors C. Asteroids, comets, meteoroids
B. Asteroids, comets, meteorites D. Asteroids, comets, variable stars
1. Galaxies appear very bright because that they are composed of billions of luminous
bodies. What do you call these luminous bodies that make up a galaxy?
A. Blackhole C. Nova
B. Nebulae D. Stars
2. Mercury is said to orbit the Sun in about 88 earth days. If your twin brother landed on
Mercury when he was 15 years old, how old are you when your brother reaches 20 years
old?
A. 15.2 years old C. 17.2 years old
B. 16.2 years old D. 18.2 years old
3. Which among the planets is known as the morning and evening star as viewed from
Earth?
A. Mars C. Neptune
B. Mercury D. Venus
4. Different countries in the world have different seasons. Why is this so?
A. The earth is rotating in its axis, C. Earth is revolving around the Sun.
0
B. D. Earth is exhibiting precession.
302
Focus: Astronomy
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
5. Which of the following sets are called terrestrial planets?

A. Mercury, Mars, Neptune, Uranus C. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
B. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Uranus D. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Neptune
6. Which is the correct arrangement of the Jovian planets according to their decreasing size
or diameter?
A. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune C. Saturn, Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus
B. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, Uranus D. Neptune, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus
7. Which is the correct list of minor members of the solar system?

A. Pluto, Asteroid, Meteoroid C. Asteroid, Meteoroid, Biyo
B. Asteroid, Meteoroid, Comets D. Biyo, Pluto, Comets, Meteor
8. has a weight of 60 kg on
Earth, how much would he weigh on the moon?
A. 6 N C. 60 N
B. 10 N D. 600 N
9. Among the terrestrial planets, which exhibits greenhouse effect due to extreme amount of
carbon dioxide in its atmosphere?
A. Earth C. Mercury
B. Mars D. Venus
10. Which among the theories explains the origin of the Universe?
A. Accretion Theory C. Capture Theory
B. Big Bang Theory D. Nebular Theory
11. Which non-

A. Electrostatic force C. Magnetic force
B. Gravitational force D. Nuclear force
12.
A. December C. March
B. June D. September
13. Eclipses do not occur each month because the ______________________ .

A. Moon is always in the ecliptic C. Earth
B. Moon is not always in the ecliptic D.
14. What particular time does the sun crosses the celestial equator?
A. Equinox C. Winter solstice
B. Summer solstice D. None of the above
15. Of all the planets in the solar system, which is the closest to the Earth in terms of size
and mass?
A. Biyo C. Mercury
B. Mars D. Venus
For numbers 16-17.
In 1969, Neil Armstrong and other scientists set foot on the moon and were able to gather
the following data about the moon: cratered, no atmosphere, gravity is about 1/6 of the
earth, has high lands and low lands, absence of water.
16. Which among the following should be brought when you are given the chance to join
these astronauts to the moon?
A. Life vest C. Helmets
B. Nitrogen tank D. Flashlight
17. What would be the implication of the findings of the astronomers that the moon has no
atmosphere?
A. It is the reason why it is revolving very fast.
B. It would eventually capture the atmosphere of the Earth.
C. Its sky would be so white which is observed on Earth.
D. Its sky would be so dark and there will be a lot of craters due to the collision of
meteoroids to its surface.
18. Which kind of tide occurs during a new moon phase?

A. High tide C. Neap tide
B. Low tide D. Spring tide
303
Focus: Astronomy
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
19. When does a lunar eclipse occur?

A.
B. When the moon moves into its own umbra
C.
D. None of the above
20. How much time does it take for the moon to go through all its phases?
A. C. 30 days
B. 29 ½ days D. 31 days
21. Which among the following causes the changes in the length of day?
A. C. Phases of the moon
B. D. None of the above
22. How long does it take for the moon to rotate once?
A. C. 29 ½ days
B. 24 hours D. 365 days
23. The day on which the sun reaches its shortest altitude at noon is __________.
A. summer solstice C. vernal equinox
B. winter solstice D. spring equinox
24. olution is the same?

A. The moon will eventually move faster in its orbit that the earth.
B. Observers on earth will clearly see all the surfaces of the moon.
C. Observers on earth will only see half of the surface of the moon always.
D. The moon will eventually capture the atmosphere of the earth
25. How long does our moon revolve around the sun?
a. C. 30 days
b. 29 ½ days D. 365 ¼ days
304
Focus: Environment
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Improper disposal of hazardous chemicals down the drain introduce toxic

materials into to the ecosystem, contaminating the water supplies in a way that
can harm aquatic organisms.
Sewage generated by houses or runoff from septic tanks into nearby waterways
contaminates water system
Leaks of oil and antifreeze from a car on a driveway can be washed off by the
rain into nearby waterways, polluting it.
Land pollution is the degradation of the Earth's land surface through misuse of the soil
by poor agricultural practices, mineral exploitation, industrial waste dumping, and
indiscriminate disposal of urban wastes.
Soil Pollution
Soil pollution is mainly due to chemicals in herbicides (weed killers) and
pesticides (poisons which kill insects and other invertebrate pests). Litter is waste
material dumped in public places such as streets, parks, picnic areas, at bus
stops and near shops.
Waste Disposal
The accumulation of waste threatens the health of people in residential areas.
Waste decays, encourages household pests and turns urban areas into
unsightly, dirty and unhealthy places to live in.
Solid waste can be classified into different types depending on their source:
Household waste is generally classified as municipal waste.

Industrial waste as hazardous waste.
Biomedical waste or hospital waste as infectious waste.
1. Which process provides most of the oxygen found on Earth's atmosphere?

a. Aerobic respiration c. Fermentation
b. Dehydration synthesis d. Photosynthesis
Answer: d
Photosynthesis is the process of making organic food (glucose) by combining the
hydrogen from water with carbon dioxide. The oxygen from splitting water is released into
the atmosphere.
Choice a: Aerobic respiration takes in the oxygen from the atmosphere,

Choice b: Dehydration synthesis is a mechanism of building up molecules by
removing water, not oxygen
Choice c: Fermentation is a form of anaerobic respiration which is done in the
absence of oxygen.
2. All of Earth's water, land, and atmosphere within which life exists is known as __.
a. a biome c. a community
b. a biosphere d. a population
Answer: b
The biosphere is the sphere of life where the great four spheres are interrelated.
Choice a: A biome is an area with distinct climate.

Choice c: A community is a group of population in a given area.
Choice d: A population is a group of species in an area at a time.
3. Energy stored in organic molecules is transferred from producers to consumers. This is

called _____.
a. a food chain c. an ecological succession
b. a natural selection d. the process of photosynthesis
Answer: a
The energy flow is from producer to consumer. It is a series of producer and consumer
feeding relationship.
315
Focus: Environment
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
Choices b, c, d: Natural selection, ecological succession and photosynthesis are

not description of a pathway of producer-consumer relationship.
4. An ecosystem is represented by the diagram on the right. This ecosystem will be self-
sustaining if ______.
a. the type of organisms
represented by B are
eliminated
b. the organisms labeled A
outnumber the organisms
labeled B.
c. the organisms labeled A are
equal in number to the
organisms labeled B
d. materials cycle between the
organisms labeled A and the
organisms labeled B
Answer: d
An ecosystem is self-sustaining if there is a complete cycle between living and non-living
parts of a physical environment.
Choices a, b, c: The absence of one factor (biotic) or (abiotic) in an area cannot

be considered a self-sustaining ecosystem
5. Solid waste includes all of the following EXCEPT _____.

a. newspaper and soda bottles c. CO and CO2
b. food scraps and yard clippings d. junk mail and milk cartons
Answer: c
Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are air pollutants.
Choices a, b, d: [Newspapers and soda bottles] and [junk mail and milk cartoons]
are recyclable in solid wastes and [Food scraps and yard
clippings] are compostible solid wastes
6. Which of the following processes is the main source of atmospheric oxygen?

a. Hydrolysis c. Photosynthesis
b. Oxygenation d. Respiration
7. Which information is represented by the

diagram on the right?
a. Respiration and photosynthesis
are interrelated.
b. Transpiration and condensation
are related to water cycle.
c. Predators and their prey are
involved in many interactions.
d. Decomposers release a material
that acted on by other organisms.
8. A certain plant requires moisture, oxygen,

carbon dioxide, light and minerals in order
to survive. This shows that living
organisms is dependent on _____.
a. abiotic factors c. symbiotic relationships

b. biotic factors d. carnivore-herbivore relationships
9. In order to preserve the biosphere for the future generations, one must _____.
a. put all wild animals and game preserves
b. make use of technology to develop new herbicides
c. explore ways to drain and fill wetlands along the seacoast
d. understand how living things interact with their environment
316
Focus: Environment
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
10. A material in a cycle undergoes the following processes like photosynthesis,

transpiration, evaporation, respiration and condensation. Which of the following materials
rely least on these processes?
a. Carbon cycle c. Oxygen cycle
b. Nitrogen cycle d. Water cycle
11.
example of _____.
a. abiotic control of insect pests c. exploitation of insect pests
b. biological control of insect pests d. use of biocides to kill insect pests
For Nos. 12 13, refer to the diagram on the below
Each circle in the diagram represents a specific location of different types of bacteria that
plays a role in the cycle.
12. What letter represents decomposing bacteria?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D
13. What letter is represented by denitrifying bacteria?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D
14. A student sets up a terrarium which contains moist soil, several plants and snails. Then
he placed his terrarium where the sun shines. Which of the following factors is NOT
essential for the maintenance of his terrarium?
a. A constant source of energy.
b. The introduction of another heterotroph into the terrarium.
c. A cycling of materials between organisms and their environment.
d. A living system capable of converting energy into organic compounds.
15. The diagram below represents a FOOD WEB. Which statement supports the information
shown?
317
Focus: Environment
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
a. Sparrows and hawks are omnivores.

b. Snakes eat grass, grasshoppers and frogs.
c. Foxes, snakes and sparrows are secondary consumers.
d. Rabbits, mice and grasshoppers contain the greatest amount of food energy.
16. An activity that should help ensure a suitable environment for the future generations is
the increased use of _____.
a. biological controls c. fossil fuels
b. chemical dumps d. pesticides
17. The diagram below represents a food web.
If the food web is represented as a pyramid of biomass, the level of the pyramid with the
least amount of biomass would be the _____.
a. grass c. hawk
b. grasshopper d. mouse
18. Which human activity would be more likely to have a negative impact on the
environment?
a. Investigating the use of the biological controls for the pests.
b. Using reforestation and cover cropping to control soil erosion.
c. Using insecticides to kill insects that compete with human for food.
d. Developing a research aimed toward the preservation of endangered species.
For Nos. 19 21, refer to the diagram at the right:
19. Letter B represents _____.

a. autotrophs c. decomposers
b. carnivores d. scavengers
20. What letter represents the nitrifying bacteria?

a. A c. D
b. C d. E
318
Focus: Environment
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
21. The diagram represents the cycling of _____.

a. carbon c. phosphorus
b. nitrogen d. sulfur
22. Which abiotic factor has the least effect on the ability of aerobic organisms to live and
reproduce in a cave?
a. Shape of rocks inside the cave
b. Amount of oxygen inside the cave
c. Availability of moisture inside the cave
d. Amount of energy present inside the cave
CARBON - OXYGEN CYCLE
23. The carbon oxygen cycle is shown above.
What process is represented by letters A and B?

a. A transpiration B excretion
b. A excretion B respiration
c. A respiration B - photosynthesis
d. A photosynthesis B transpiration
24. Everything an organism does and needs in its environment is known as its _____.
a. habitat c. feeding level
b. adaptation d. ecological niche
25. Which statement below best describes an ecosystem?

a. It can exist with or without a source of energy.
b. It can have consumers even without producers.
c. It can exist on land but cannot in lakes, rivers or oceans.
d. It involves the interactions between biotic and abiotic factors.
1. Depletion of the ozone layer is due to _____.

a. a decrease in temperature
b. a decrease amount of air pollutants
c. an increase in number of marine ecosystem
d. an increase in temperature due atmospheric pollutants
2. The thinning of the ozone layer may result to _____.

a. improvement of weather
b. the prevention of air pollution
c. an increase marine ecosystem stability
d. an increase in skin cancer among humans
3. The diagram on the right describes a biochemical

process that occurs in some organisms. Which
statement below best explains the process?
a. The process used solar energy to convert
oxygen into carbon dioxide
b. The process is respiration and the primary
source of energy is the Sun.
c. The process is photosynthesis and the
primary source of energy is the Sun.
319
Focus: Environment
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
d. The process converts energy in organic compounds into solar energy which is
released into the atmosphere.
4. Which situation below has had the most negative effec

a. Use of air pollution control
b. Increasing human population
c. Recycling glass, plastics and metals
d. Use of natural predators to control insect pests
5. Which of the following factors is the major source of global warming?

a. Increased burning of fuels
b. Decreased mineral availability
c. Increased number of green plants
d. Decreased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
6. Which process usually uses carbon dioxide molecules?

a. Active transport c. Autotrophic nutrition
b. Asexual reproduction d. Cellular respiration
7. Communities have attempted to control the size of mosquito populations to prevent the
spread of Dengue fever and malaria. Which of the following methods used will most likely
cause the least ecological damage?
a. Draining the swamps where mosquitoes breed.
b. Spraying swamps with pesticides to kill mosquitoes.
c. Spraying oil over swamps to suffocate mosquito larvae.
d. Increasing populations of native fish that feed on mosquito larvae in the swamps.
8. An environment can support only as many organisms as the available energy, minerals
and oxygen will allow. What term best fit this statement?
a. Biological diversity c. Carrying capacity
b. Biological feedback d. Homeostatic control
9. Factories nowadays post negative impacts to the environment because they ___.
a. decrease the need for finite resources.
b. limit the amount of emissions produced per year.
c. utilize agricultural technology that decreases soil erosion.
d. have high energy demands that require the use of fossil fuels and nuclear fuels.
10. Given the diagram at the right. What

term should describe everything that
is represented in the diagram?
a. Community
b. Ecosystem
c. Organisms
d. Population
11. Car exhaust has been blamed for increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the air.
This added amount of carbon dioxide may cause _____.
a. global warming c. increased biodiversity
b. habitat preservation d. ozone destruction
12. Which of the following statements best describe how humans affect the dynamic
equilibrium in the ecosystem?
a. Strong winds increases water evaporation.
b. A typhoon causes a stream to overflow its banks.
c. Water pollution causes a decrease in fish populations in rivers.
d. The ozone shield helps prevent harmful radiation from reaching th
surface.
13. Which of the following statements below has contributed to the production of acid rain?
a. Passing environmental land pollution laws
b. Establishing reforestation projects in lumbered areas
c. Using pesticides for the control of insects that feed on lakes
d. Burning fuels that produce air pollutants containing sulfur and carbon monoxide
320
Focus: Environment
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
14. Which of the following statements best describe a stable environment?

a. It usually consists of one type of producer.
b. It usually consists of a great diversity of species.
c. It has complex food webs that have more heterotrophs than autotrophs.
d. It has simple food chains that have more consumers than producers.
15. In the DDT cycle, an unexpected result on the use of DDT was noted. Before the DDT
was banned, DDT was used to combat an organism called red mite. The population of
the red mite increased rather than decreased, while the population of insect predators of
the red mite decreased. What can be inferred from this situation?
a. The red mites were immune to the effects of DDT.
b. Using pesticides is a reliable way to eliminate all insect predators.
c. The red mite and its insect predators were all competing for the same resources.
d. Environmental changes that affect one population can affect other populations.
16. Which sequence shows a correct pathway for the flow of energy in a food chain?
a. algae snake duck deer
b. bacteria grass fox owl
c. fungi beetle algae mouse
d. grass grasshopper frog snake
17. What would have existed on the primitive Earth given the environmental conditions as
shown in the diagram?
a. Migration of
vertebrates to
cooler portion of the
Earth.
b. Development of
heterotrophic life
forms from plants
c. Decrease in
asexual
reproduction in
primitive organisms
d. Evolution of the first
heterotrophs from aggregates of organic molecules
18. Which two organisms given below are considered heterotrophic?
a. A and B c. C and E
b. B and C d. D and E
19. Dr. John Snow discovered that a cholera outbreak was caused by drinking water polluted
by _____.
a. heat c. pesticides
b. industrial wastes d. sewage
321
Focus: Environment
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
20. In the carbon-oxygen cycle as shown on the diagram below, what two processes are
involved in the cycle?
a. Hydrolysis and oxygenation c. Photosynthesis and respiration

b. Evaporation and transpiration d. Nitrification and ammonification
21. Biogeochemical cycle is the pathway of all nutrients present on Earth in which the four
great spheres atmosphere, hydrosphere-cryosphere, and lithosphere are interrelated.
Which among the chemical cycles is atmosphere not taking part?
a. Carbon cycle c. Phosphorus cycle
b. Oxygen cycle d. Sulfur cycle
For Nos. 22 23, refer to the

nitrogen cycle given.
22. What is the role of NO3 in the cycle?

a. For protein synthesis by
plants
b. To produce atmospheric
nitrogen
c. To synthesize ammonia by
bacteria
d. For carbohydrates synthesis
by animals
23. What is be the product formed as
a. Urea
b. Sulfur
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Hydrogen sulfide
NITROGEN CYCLE
24. Pollutant/s often found in road runoff is / are _____.
a. industrial chemicals c. pesticide
b. oil d. sewage
25. Which of the following is NOT a major source of freshwater pollution?

a. Human and animal wastes c. Wetlands
b. Industrial wastes d. Agricultural chemicals
322

Physci Pnu Edited

Transféré par

Informations du document

Copyright

Formats disponibles

Partager ce document

Partager ou intégrer le document

Options de partage

Avez-vous trouvé ce document utile ?

Ce contenu est-il inapproprié ?

Droits d'auteur :

Formats disponibles

Physci Pnu Edited

Transféré par

Droits d'auteur :

Formats disponibles

Nature of Science

1. Identify the graph that matches each of the following stories:

a. I had just left home when I realized I

2. The graph at the right represents the typical

a. What percent of the day is spent

1. Which of the following is most true?

The volume of the stone is 62 mL 48 mL = 14 mL or 14 cc or 14 cm3

An empty beaker and graduated cylinder measure volume of a liquid alone

Answer: D - Precision describes the exactness of a measurement.

A. Time of day, x- axis C. Temperature of the sand, x- axis

6. How is a hypothesis tested?

7. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental quantity?

8. A certain lot measures 7m x 8 m, what is its lot area?

13. What is the volume of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4cm cube in mL ?

18. What is the basis for System Internationale units of measurement?

19. The product of (2 x 103) and (3 x 103) is

Refer to the graph for questions 20 22

20. Which line represents the fastest speed? km

21. How many kilometers were traveled in the

22. What is the motion of the car between 5

23. Which of the following equations does not

24. Which of the following statements is TRUE about a scientific method?

25. What is an attempt to explain a pattern observed repeatedly in nature called?

2. Science can be differentiated from non-science because scientific results ____________.

4. Which of the following means to make an inference?

6. Which of the following is the best description of a scientific law?

9. What should you do if your hypothesis is not supported?

11. All of the following are derived quantities EXCEPT ___________.

13. Which of the following properties is measured in a derived SI unit?

14. The number 7.93 x 10 -3 can also be written as __________.

16. How many meters are in 186.7 km?

18. How do a Celsius and a Fahrenheit degree compare?

21. A stick measures 400 cm. What is its length in kilometers?

22. The number .00045700 has _____ significant figures.

23. Which variables are usually observed for change in an experiment?

24. What would a horizontal line in a position-time graph mean?

25. The quotient of 66.0 x 105 and 3 x 108 is

8. Express the resultant vector as R = R(magn

Vectors x-comp y-comp

4. Determine the sum of all the x-components. This is known as Rx.

1. Which among the following is a fundamental quantity?

Choice A: (Correct Answer) Electric Current is one of the 7 fundamental

Choice D: Velocity can be determined by dividing the distance covered by a body

2. Which among the following is a scalar quantity?

Choice A: Acceleration needs the concept of direction thus considered as a vector

Choice B: Kinetic Energy is a scalar product of mass and the square of

Choice D: Velocity is the vector equivalent of speed.

Choice A: A vector is described as a quantity that is expressed as magnitude with

4. Which of the following is the equilibrant of the velocity equivalent to 50 kph, 40 o S o W?

5. Which among the following is a vector quantity?

Choice A: Chemical energy is a scalar product. Energy may be described without

Choice B: Electricity is also a form of energy. Energy is a physical quantity

6. Which of the following is NOT a scalar quantity?

7. All of the following are derived quantities EXCEPT ____________.

8. Which one of the following is an SI base unit?

10. At what angle will the resultant of 2 co-planar vectors be a minimum?

11. Which one of the following quantities is a vector quantity?

14. Which one of the following is an SI base unit?

16. Which one of the following is the longest length?

25. Which of the following will result to a scalar?

1.Which of the following is a vector quantity?

2. Which among the following is NOT a vector quantity?

4. Which one of the following choices is equivalent to 248 m?

5. Which is NOT a fundamental unit?