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GENERAL MULTI CHOICE-1

1. A code gives the acceptance standard for excess weld metal ‘h’ as h ≤ 1mm +0. 1b. max. 5mm; where ‘b’ is the
width of the weld cap. For which of the following situations is the excess weld metal acceptable?
a. b = 15; h =3.0
b. b = 20; h =3.0
c. b = 28; h = 4.0
d. b = 40; h = 5.4
2. A fatigue fracture can be identified (from examination of the fracture faces) by:
a. The presence of beach marks
b. The presence of plastic deformation
c. Being rough and torn
d. Being flat and rough

3. Ultraviolet and infrared radiation, produced during welding, may:


a. Make arc striking easier
b. Be used for weld testing
c. Increase the welding speed
d. Cause skin burns

4. A typical temperature for stress relieving carbon-manganese steel weldments is:


a. 580-620°C
b. 5000-6200°C
c. 75-80°C
d. 1500-1800°C

5. A typical temperature for normalizing carbon-manganese steels:


a. Approximately 200°C
b. Approximately 600°C
c. Approximately 900°C
d. Approximately 1200°C

6. The typical included angle used for MMA welding of a 15MM thick steel single V butt joint is most likely to be:
a. 35°
b. 120°
c. 70°
d. 90°
7 Which of the following alloying elements is used to improve the toughness of steel?

a. Manganese b. Sulphur c. Carbon d. Chromium


8 A steel designated as ‘Z’ quality will have:
a. Through-thickness ductility values > 20%
b. Through-thickness ductility values < 20%
c. Been specially heat treated
d. Zirconium added to improve weld ability

9 A transverse tensile test peace from a weld joint will give the:
a. Tensile strength of the weld
b. Tensile strength of the joint
c. Stress/strain characteristics of the weld
d. Stress/strain characteristics of the joint
10 Which NDT method is associated with burmah Castrol strips?
a. Radiographic testing
b. Helium leak testing
c. Magnetic particle testing
d. Ultrasonic testing

11 The penetrating power of an X-ray set is expressed in:


a. Curies
b. KV
c. IQI values
d. The number after the isotope type

12 The directions of shrinkage in a welded joint are:


a. Transverse and diagonal
b. Transverse, short transverse and conical
c. Transverse, short transverse and longitudinal
d. Angular, diagonal and trans granular

13 Sequence welding is referred to with reference to which of the following?


a. Distortion b. Residual stress
c. Fatigue life d. Not associated with any of the above
14 Standard oxly-fuel gas cutting equipment can be applied to:
a. Aluminum alloys
b. Carbon steels
c. Austenitic stainless steels
d. Copper

15 Weldments in carbon-manganese steels, made by low heat input welding may show
a. greater ductility
b. higher distortion
c. higher dilution
d. higher hardness

16 Using a stabilized stainless steel will reduce the risk of:


a. Excessive distortion
b. Weld decay
c. Formation of iron-sulphides
d. Sour service cracking

17 In the MAG welding process which gas type gives good penetration but an unstable arc high levels of spatter?
a. Pure carbon dioxide
b. Pure argon
c. Argon +5-20% carbon dioxide
d. Argon +1-2% oxygen or carbon dioxide

18 A MMA electrode which is classified as an E7024 (according to AWS) is a:


A. basic type
b. Cellulosic type
c. Rutile type
d. Thick coated iron powder
19 Which type of submerged arc flux can be described as sharp?
a. Agglomerated
b. Fused
c. Basic
d. Neutral

20 . An electrode is classified to BS EN ISO 2560as E35 3 B. what does 35 signify?


A) 350N/mm² yield strength
B) 35 joules @ +30°C
C) 35 N/mm² tensile strength
D) 35ksi tensile strength

21 .A large diameter pipe with a thickness of 10mm is to be used for a cross-country pipeline. Which electrode type
could be used to combine high welding speed and deep penetration?
a. Basic-covered
b. Cellulosic covered
c. Rutile covered
d. Iron powder loaded

22 Burn through may occur because the:


a. Current is too high
b. Root gap is too high
c. Travel speed is too fast
d. Current is to low
23 Which of the following imperfection types is NOT usually associated with TIG welding?
a. Lack of root fusion
b. Tungsten inclusions
c. Cater pipe
d. Spatters

24 .What is the abbreviation for a welding procedure specified that has being written for the purpose of qualifying
a welding procedure Test weld?
a. WPS
b. PWPS
c. sWPS
d. pWPT

25 Which polarity is normally used for GTAW welding of aluminum?


a. AC
b. DC electrode negative
c. DC electrode positive
d. It would make little difference which was used

26 .When MIG/MAG welding, wire feed speed is proportional to:


a. Travel speed
b. Welding current
c. Arc length
d. Inductance
27 .The output characteristics of a typical MAG set is:
a. Constant voltage
b. Constant current
c. Dropping
d. Raising

28 .Which of the following is NOT a fusion welding process?


a. Friction welding
b. Gas tungsten welding
c. Resistance welding
d. Laser welding

29 .Which of the following standards is concerned with welder approval?


a. BS EN ISO 2560
b. BS EN 15614
c. BS EN ISO 22553
d. BS EN 287

30 .A drawing with symbols to BS EN 22553 will show a 5mm leg filet by which of the following
a.a5 b. t5 c. z5 d. 5z

GENERAL MULTI CHOICE-2

1. Which of the following unit is used for impact toughness?


A) Newton’s
B) kJ/mm
C) psi
D) Joules
2. If magnification is used for visual inspection in accordance with BS EN ISO 17637 it should be magnified how many times?
A) 5-10
B) 2-5
C) 2-10
D) As many as required to find the defects

3. Shrinkage stresses are greater when welding metals that have:


A) A high coefficient of thermal expansion
B) No restraint
C) A low coefficient of expansion
D) A high melting point
4. The main purpose of preheating steels is to:
A) Prevent excessive distortion
B) Reduce residual stresses in the joint
C) Reduce the risk of hydrogen cracking
D) Drive any moisture out of the plate

5. Which if the following may increase the risk of HAZ cracking when welding thick section carbon manganese steels?
A) Slow cooling after welding
B) Low moisture content in the electrode covering
C) Use of a steel grade with a low CEV
D) Use of a low heat input
6. The use of cellulose electrodes for very high strength materials is restricted because
A) It produces thin slag
B) It produces very high arc force
C) It can operate only in AC
D) It produces large volumes of hydrogen in the weld metal
7. When cutting method is described by the following statement? The arc is formed between this tip of the electrode and the
work place, it requires special purpose electrodes with thick flux coatings to generate a strong arc force and gas stream?
A) Oxy-fuel cutting
B) Manual metal arc gauging
C) Arc air gauging
D) Plasma arc cutting
8. Very high deposition efficiency electrodes (180%) have what disadvantage?
A) Higher yield strength of weld metal
B) Higher level of hydrogen in the weld metal
C) Operation is limited to only some positions
D) They produce very hard weld metals

9. What does the term high frequency mean when referring to TIG welding?
A) A high integrity weld is easily achievable
B) The power source gives a high duty cycle
C) A high voltage spark is used to initiate the arc
D) The output from the power source is high

10. To BS EN ISO 15607 an essential variable influences the:


A) The amount of skill the welder has
B) Mechanical properties of the joint
C) Quality of the joint
D) Mechanical and metallurgical properties of the joint

11. Which weld dimension is correct BS EN 22553 for a 7mm design throat thickness:
A) z7
B) s7
C) a7
D) 7z

12. A martensitic transformation takes place in plain carbon steels only


A) When the materia0l is cooled sufficiently rapidly
B) When the carbon content is sufficiently high
C) When there is a formation of austenite
D) All of the above

13. Which would general the least angular distortion when welding a 50mm thick plate?
A) Single vee preparation using MMA
B) Single vee preparation using MIG
C) Square edge open butt using electroslag welding
D) Single U preparation using submerged arc welding

14. In general thicker materials require higher preheat temperatures, but for a given CEV and arc energy heat input,
they are likely to remain similar for wall thickness up to approximately ___________
A) 10mm
B) 20mm
C) 40mm
D) 50mm
15. The term probe relates to which of the following NDT processes?
A) Radiography
B) Magnetic particle
C) Ultrasonic
D) Fluorescent particle

16. TIG welding of aluminum is normally carried out on the following


A) AC
B) DC-
C) DC+
D) Any polarity
17. The most common type of service failure caused by cyclic loading is:
A) Ductile tearing
B) Fatigue
C) Brittle fracture
D) Stress corrosion cracking

18. An amount of which of the following elements is positively required to make steels stainless?
A) Carbon
B) Manganese
C) Boron
D) Chromium

19. What is the main difference between EN and ASME welding procedures?
A) NDT requirements
B) Bend requirements
C) Tensile requirements
D) Visual acceptance

20. In GMAW, MIG/MAG welding, which mode of metal transfer uses frequencies in cycle time?
A) Spray transfer
B) Pulse transfer
C) Dip transfer
D) Globular transfer

21. The welding position usually posing the greatest risk of fume inhalation is:
A) Horizontal vertical (PC)
B) Vertical up (PF)
C) Downhand (PA)
D) Overhead (PE)

22. A weld joint between dissimilar material types is known as a:


A) Homogenous weld
B) Mismatch weld
C) Transition weld
D) Compound weld

23. In GMAW/MIG/MAG welding, which parameter can be used to help reduce the level of spatter?
A) Inductance
B) Voltage
C) Gas flow rate
D) Polarity
24. A visual examination after welding will reveal which of the following:
A) Overlap
B) Under bead cracks
C) Weld inclusions above the hot pass
D) Internal porosity

25. A lack of root penetration differs from a lack of root fusion defect in which of the following respects?
A) They are the same and don’t differ
B) Lack of root penetration shows two straight edges
C) Lack of root fusion shows one straight edge
D) Both (B) and (C) are true

26. In order to calculate the design throat thickness of a mitre fillet welded T joint, you would multiply the leg
length by:
A) 0.55
B) 0.7
C) 0.65
D) None of the above

27. The soak temperature specified by code will depend on the type of steel. Low alloy steels (such as Cr-Mo steels
used for elevated temperature service) require temperatures typically in the range of:
A) ~700 to ~9600C
B) ~900 to ~11000C
C) ~600 to ~6500C
D) ~700 to ~7600C

28. When handling welding electrodes you should ensure that:


A) The electrodes are always kept open for easy identification
B) All electrodes are heated and kept at 1200C always
C) All electrodes are issued immediately after opening the fresh cartons
D) Electrodes are not re-baked repeatedly

29. When welding with GMAW a typical mixture of gas for stainless steel would be?
A) 98% argon 2% oxygen
B) 60% argon 40% oxygen
C) 80% argon 20% carbon dioxide
D) 9% nitrogen 91% carbon dioxide

30. Which MMA electrode is commonly used for vertical down welding?
A) Rutile
B) Cellulosic
C) Basic
D) Low hydrogen

GENERAL MULTI-CHOICE -3
31. Which of the following types of imperfection is generally considered to be serious?
E) Surface breaking planar
F) Root concavity
G) Buried planar
H) Surface breaking non-planar

32. _____________________ shock is very hazardous because it is must greater than the _____________________
of the welding equipment. (select from A to D to complete the blanks)
A) Secondary voltage, primary voltage
B) Primary voltage, secondary voltage
C) Secondary amperage, primary amperage
D) Primary amperage, secondary amperage
33. During PWHT it is important to control the rate of heating and cooling in order to
A) Control the grain size
B) Allow time for the hydrogen to escape
C) Ensure the surface layers do not overheat
D) Minimize the risk of distortion
34. A typical bevel angle used for MMA welding of 15mm thick steel plate is –
A) 350
B) 1200
C) 600
D) 900

35. In a Martensitic grain structure which of the following mechanical properties would be more likely to increase?
A) Ductility
B) Hardness
C) Softness
D) Toughness

36. Can plate laminations be found using visual inspection methods?


A) Only in austenitic stainless steel
B) Yes with the right lighting conditions on the plate face
C) Only in the unrolled condition
D) Only when viewed in cross section

37. A short transverse tensile test (through thickness) will give:


A) The tensile strength of the weld
B) Indication of susceptibility to lamellar tearning
C) The stress/stain characteristics of the weld
D) Indication of susceptibility to hydrogen cracking

38. Which of the following cannot be detected by penetrant testing?


A) Surface breaking planar flaws
B) Undercut
C) Buried planar flaws
D) Non-planar surface breaking flaws

39. A small diameter (<150mm) pipeline is to be laid across country. Which of the following methods would
normally be used to detect internal volumetric defects within the welds?
A) Eddy current testing
B) Radiography
C) Hydrostatic testing
D) Liquid penetrant inspection
40. The stresses that remain after welding are called?
A) Post stresses
B) Relieving stresses
C) After welding stresses
D) Residual stresses

41. Sequence welding is referred to with reference to which of the following?


A) Distortion
B) Residual stress
C) Fatigue life
D) Not associated with any of the above
42. Plasma cutting can be applied to:
A) Aluminium alloys only
B) Carbon steels only
C) Austenitic stainless steels only
D) It can cut most materials
43. Weldments in carbon-manganese steels, made using a heat input higher than the maximum specified by the
WPS, may show:
A) Higher integrity
B) Lower distortion
C) Lower toughness
D) Higher hardness
44. Which welding parameter normally has the greatest influence on heat input?
A) Travel speed
B) Current
C) Polarity
D) Voltage
45. What level of diffusible hydrogen, per 100/gr of deposited weld metal, is classed as a low hydrogen electrode
when using manual metal arc (MMA/SMAW) welding consumables?
A) >90ml
B) <15ml
C) >35 but less than <60
D) It depend on the heat input
46. Which of the following shielding gases cannot produce a spray transfer?
A) Argon
B) Argon & Helium
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Nitrogen
47. Arc strikes are often prohibited on fabrications because they:
A) Arc unsightly
B) Arc indicative of high arc volts
C) May cause problems with subsequent coatings
48. May give rise to cracking
49. When all weld imperfections have been located, it is mandatory that:
A) They are repaired
B) The weld is rejected
C) The welder’s qualification certificates are reviewed
D) Imperfections are assessed against code requirements
50. Which of the following welding processes would you expect to give the highest heat input when using typical
parameters?
A) Shielded metal arc welding
B) Manual metal arc welding
C) Submerged arc welding
D) Tungsten inert gas welding
51. Which polarity is normally used for TIG welding of stainless steel?
A) AC
B) DC electrode negative
C) DC electrode positive
D) It would make little difference which were used
52. Which of the following is NOT an essential variable for welding procedure qualification in accordance with BS EN
ISO 15614?
A) Welding process
B) Material type
C) Welding position
D) PWHT
53. In MIG/MAG solid wire welding uses which polarity
A) DC+ve
B) AC-ve
C) DC-ve
D) AC+ve
54. When measuring arc voltage, where should the measuring instrument be connected?
A) Across the terminals on the power source
B) Across the arc and as near as practical to the arc
C) Across the power source positive terminal and earth cable
D) It does not matter – anywhere in the circuit

55. The number 111 is shown at the tail-end of a weld symbol reference line. According to BS EN ISO 22553. What
does this number indicate?
A) The welding process
B) The type electrode
C) The welding position
D) The WPS number
56. Which of the following standards relates to welding procedure approval?
A) BS EN ISO 2560
B) BS EN 288 / (ISO) 15614
C) BS EN 22553
D) BS EN 287
57. A fillet weld has a design throat thickness of 8mm. What is the minimum leg length that is required?
A) 5.6mm
B) 11.2mm
C) 11.8mm
D) It cannot be determined from the information given
58. Which of the following heating methods would NOT be allowed for PWHT?
A) Electrical resistance mats
B) Hand held gas torch
C) Gas fired furnace
D) Induction heating

59. An electrode is classified to BS EN ISO 2560 as E 35 3B. What does the “B” mean?
A) Manufactured to a British standard
B) Can only be used in the “B” position
C) The covering is a low hydrogen type
D) To be used only for lower grade work

60. Which of the following MMA electrode types is generally ONLY suitable for welding in the PA and PB positions?
A) Basic
B) Cellulosic
C) Rutile
D) Iron powder

61. A typical baking temperature for basic electrodes is:


A) 1200C
B) 3500C
C) 5000C
D) 2000C

The basic electrode is also known as a low hydrogen rod ('lo-hi'). The coating contains no cellulose and little or no moisture provided the
electrodes are correctly handled. When exposed to the atmosphere, moisture pick-up can berapid. However, baking the electrodes at the
manufacturers' recommended baking temperature, generally around 400°C, will drive off any moisture and should provide hydrogen levels of
less than 5ml/100g weld metal. After baking the electrodes need to be carefully stored in a holding oven at a temperature of some 120°C to
prevent moisture pick-up.

GENERAL MULTIPLE CHOICE -4

1. Which NDT method is associated with Burmah Castrol strips?


a. Radiography testing
b. Helium leak testing
c. Magnetic particle testing
d. Ultrasonic testing
2. In a single pass weld, the width of the zone in which longitudinal residual stresses are tensile, is: Page
19-2
a. Independent of the weld width
b. Narrower than the weld metal
c. The same width as the weld metal
d. Wider than the weld metal and heat affected zone

3. Standard oxy-fuel gas cutting equipment can be applied to:


a. Aluminum alloys
b. Copper
c. Carbon Steels
d. Austenitic stainless steel
4. In TIG welding hydrogen is added to argon for the welding of which type of steel?
a. Carbon steel
b. Copper
c. Carbon manganese steel
d. Austenitic stainless steel
5. What may be a reason for using nitrogen gas in TIG welding?
a. To stabilize the arc when welding carbon steel
b. It can be used to weld copper
c. The gas used is always the choice of the welder
d. It is the very best gas to nickel alloys
6. If the maximum inter pass temperature is exceeded in a carbon manganese butt weld, what would be
affected most.
a. Hardness
b. Toughness
c. Fusion
d. Penetration
7. What is meant by the term duty cycle?
a. How long a welder can weld for in a given period
b. The amount of time the electrode is being used
c. The amount of time a welding machine can be used
d. The amount of electricity being consumed
8. Which of the following standards is concerned with welder approval?
a. BS EN ISO 2560
b. BS EN 15614
c. BS EN 287
d. BS EN ISO 22553

9. A drawing with symbols to BS EN 22553 will show a 5mm leg fillet by which of the following:
A) a5 b. t5 c. z5 d. 5z
10. Which of the following types of destructive test is sometimes used for welder qualification testing?
a. Hardness test b. Fracture test c. Charpy V notch impact test d. CTOD
11. What does the term ‘back-step’ refer to during welding?
a. A QA term referring to inspection points
b. Use of step wedges on the root of the joint
c. Use of step wedges for radiography
d. A weld run sequence

12. A typical temperature for stress relieving carbon-manganese steel weld-ments is:
a. 580-620’c
b. 5000-6200’c
c. 75-80’c
d. 1500-1800’c

13. Which of the following materials is most susceptible to hydrogen cracking?


a. Low carbon steel
b. Austenitic stainless steel
c. High strength low alloy steel
d. Aluminum
14. Ultraviolet and infrared radiation, produced during arc welding, may:
a. Make arc striking easier
b. Be used for weld testing
c. Increase the welding speed
d. Cause skin burns

15. The penetrating power of an X-ray set is expressed in:


a. Curies b. KV c. IQI values d. The number of Isotope type

16. If pre heating is decreased, which of the following would be most affected?
a. Impact value b. Hardness c. Tensile strength d. Toughness
17. Preheating may not be necessary during welding in which of the following cases?
a. Welding of cast iron
b. Welding of low alloy streets
c. Welding of manganese stainless steel
d. Welding of Austenitic stainless steel

18. Which of the following is normally true?


a. Impact energy a specified in N/mm²
b. Heat input is specified in K.I/mm²
c. Yield strength in specified in N/mm²
d. Diffusible hydrogen is specified in ml.
19. Which standard is used for European welding procedure qualification?
a. ASME IX
b. BS EN ISO 4872
c. BS EN ISO 15614
d. BS EN ISO 287
20. The term manual welding is often used when the welder controls:
a. Arc length b. Wire speed
c. Burn off rate d. Transfer mode
21. A fatigue fracture can be identified (from examination of the fracture faces) by:
a. The presence of beach marks
b. The presence of plastic deformation
c. Being rough and torn
d. Being flat and rough
22. An efficient weld metal volume reduction can be achieved by: Page No. 19-13
a. Changing from double V to single V
b. Changing from single V to single U
c. Changing from double U to double V
d. Changing from single J to single V

23. Which welding process develops the lowest level of hydrogen?


a. TIG
b. SAW
c. MMA
d. MIG / MAG

24. Which of the following defects will have the more severe effect on the load bearing condition?
a. Undercut c. Incompletely filled groove
b. Irregular width d. Excess penetration

25. Which of the following actions/ can help to prevention of spatter during arc welding?
a. Switch to AC power
b. Use dry electrodes
c. Reduces arc current
d. All of the above

26. A triangular section filet weld equal leg lengths of 12mm has a throat thickness?
a. 0.8mm
b. 17mm
c. 9.5mm
d. 8.4mm

27. When comparing the properties of plain carbon steels and austenitic stainless steel following
statements is true?
a. Carbon steels have better thermal conductivity
b. Stainless steels have low expansion and contraction
c. Carbon steels have higher expansion rates in the Z direction
d. Stainless steels have lower chromium

28. Cast and helix are terms that refers to:


a. Ingredients in the flux covering
b. Bead deposition techniques for distortion control
c. Quality of the welding wires
d. Sources from which wires are drawn
29. Which of the following electrodes don’t requires re-baking at higher temperature
a. Cellulosic types
b. Vacuum packed types
c. Hydrogen types
d. All the types above require re-baking

30. Carbon dioxide shielding is NOT suitable for MAG welding of austenitic stainless steel?
a. Carbon dioxide is a heavier gas
b. Carbon dioxide is an active gas
c. The heat content of this gas is very high
d. There is insufficient gas coverage

General Examination - 5

1. When reviewing the WPS during welding the maximum inter-pass stated is 250 oC. What would be the minimum
inter pass temperature?
a. The Pre Heat Temperature
b. The welder would decide this
c. Any Temperature above 25 0c would be acceptable
d. The Inter pass temperature is never stated on a WPS
2. Which of the following elements is added to steel for de-oxidation?
a. Phosphorous
b. Silicon
c. Carbon
d. Sulphur
3. The term ”Transition temperature” is associated with:
a. Tensile Testing
b. Fillet Fracture Testing
c. Impact Toughness
d. The electrical characteristic of a power source
4. Which of the following cannot be tested by MPI?
a. 5 % Chromium 1% molybdenum steel
b. 12% Chromium Steel
c. Austenitic Stainless Steel
d. 9 % Nickel Steel
5. Which method of inspection is used to detect laminations?
a. Radiography
b. Fluorescent Penetrant Inspection
c. Magnetic Particle Inspection
d. Ultrasonic Testing
6. Residual stresses in a butt weld in the longitudinal direction are ______
a. Mixed in Nature
b. Tensile in Nature
c. Compressive in nature
d. Shear in nature

7. The correct joint preparation is very important since it decides the volume of weld metal to be used. High
volumes of weld metal deposited can ______.
a. Increase the residual stresses
b. Be useful since the joint will have better strength
c. Give a longer service life
d. Give superior corrosion resistance
8. In oxy-fuel gas cutting, when cutting thin plates which gas is preferred?
a. Propane
b. Propylene
c. Acetylene
d. Methane
9. Which of the following welding positions would normally give the highest heat input during MMA welding?

a. PA (1G)
b. All would be the same
c. PC (2G)
d. PF (3G)
10. Which one of these electrodes has the highest recovery rate?
a. Rutile
b. Basic
c. Cellulose
d. Iron Powder

11. Which of the following statements about lamellar tearing is correct?


a. They are formed by the removal of strong backs
b. They are located in the center of weld metal
c. They are formed during steel manufacture
d. They are formed, During or immediately after welding
12. Which type of MMA electrode gives the deepest penetration?
a. High Iron Powder
b. Rutile
c. Cellulosic
d. Basic

13. Which process would not be suitable for welding carbon steel?
a. MMA
b. MIG
c. SAW
d. MAG
14. In BSEN 287-1 an all positional qualification may be obtained by welding a pipe in the:
a. 6G Position
b. 6E Position
c. HL045 Position
d. Only by welding in all three welding positions
15. For Submerged Arc welding, increasing the travel speed will give:
a. A narrower weld bead
b. Wider Weld bead
c. More Spatter
d. Increased Penetration

16. According to BS EN 22553 what is meant by a large Z through the reference line, on the right hand side of the
fillet weld symbols?
a. Leg Length
b. The weld toes must be blended
c. Throat Thickness
d. Intermittent welds that are staggered
17. The most important factor in the safe operation of welding equipment is the use of
a. Low welding currents
b. Low open circuit voltage
c. A relatively low operating voltage
d. DC rather than AC
18. As the carbon percentage increases, in plain carbon steels which of the following is true
a. Tensile strength decreases
b. Yield strength decreases
C. ductility decreases
d. Hardness Decreases
19. How long is the period of time before prolongation is required for a welder qualification to EN standards?
a. 6 months
b. 2 Years
c. Indefinitely
d. 10 years

20. Centre –line cracks in butt weld made using high dilution welding process, may result from
a. The welds being too deep compared with their width
b. The chilling effect of a too high gas flow
c. The copper coating of the filler wires
d. Flux Contamination

21. From the examination of fracture faces, a brittle failure can be identified by
a. The presence of beach marks
b. Plastic deformation
c. Being rough & Torn
d. Being flat & Crystalline

22. The use of a degreasing solvent, for cleaning a joint prior to welding, may be an unsafe practice because:
a. Harmful fumes may be given off
b. The welds may contain Porosity
c. Traces of the solvent will cause irregular arcing
d. It may cause HAZ cracking
23. When TIG welding of some materials, pipe bores must be purged with an inert gas before and during welding.
The reason for this is to
a. Prevent Burn through
b. Avoid moisture pickup
c. Prevent root concavity
d. Prevent oxidation of the root bead
24. Which factor from below cannot help to prevent tungsten inclusions?
a. The use of argon-oxygen or argon –carbon dioxide mixtures.
b. Keep tungsten out of weld pool; use HF start.
c. Avoid contact between electrode and filler metal.
d. Reduce welding current adjust shielding gas flow rate
25. Which from the descriptions below most closely represents undercut?
a. Concavity in the root of the weld
b. A groove at the toe of the weld
c. An oxide within the weld
d. Crater in the fill of the weld
26. When calculating fillet weld strength, which dimensions is usually used?
a. Design throat
b. CTOD value
c. Excess weld metal
d. CEV
27. Post heating of welded joints is carried out in order to?
a. Remove the residual stresses
b. Diffuse out hydrogen
c. Improve the Tensile strength
d. Achieve dimensional stability
28. An MMA electrode which part of covering missing will:
a. Have a low arc voltage
b. Give more undercut
c. Have an unstable arc
d. Increase the depth of penetration
29. MMA electrodes show a light coating of rust on the core wire, should:
a. Be cleaned with a solvent
b. Be baked according to manufacturers instructions
c. Have all rust removed by using wire wool before use.
d. Be quarantined for further inspection.

30. According to AWS A5.1, What type of covering does an E 6013 electrode have?
a. Fused
b. Rutile
c. Cellulosic
d. Basic

General Examination -6
,,
1. Some of the material properties which have a significant influence on the welding characteristics of metal and
alloys are:
a. Thermal expansion and contraction
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Ultimate tensile strength
d. All of the above
2. The main objective of fillet fracture tests is to?
a. Estimate fracture toughness
b. Asses the weld for defects
c. Estimate resistance to fatigue failure
d. Asses the microstructure of the weld metal
3. As the energy of an X-ray set is increased the:
a. Penetrating power will increase
b. Image Quality will be higher
c. Exposure time will need to be longer
d. Wave length of the energy will be longer
4. Restraining members are sometimes welded to the back faces of plates to be welded. The main purpose of
these is to:
a. Enlarge the joint gap
b. Improve access
c. Improve the electrical earth
d. Hold the plates in a pre-set position

5. Which of the following will help to reduce distortion?


a. Using the maximum number of runs
b. Using the minimum number of runs
c. Welding by a manual method
d. Using very high heat inputs

6. Which of the following statements is NOT correct when referring to fully austenitic stainless steels?
a. It can be susceptible to solidification cracking
b. Stainless steel tooling should be used where possible
c. It has a low coefficient of thermal expansion
d. It is non-magnetic
7. Which cutting method is described by the following statement?
“The arc is formed between the tip of the electrode and the work piece. It requires special purpose electrodes
with thick flux coatings to generate a strong arc force and gas stream”?
a. Oxy-Fuel cutting
b. Manual metal arc gouging
c. Arc air gouging
d. Plasma arc cutting
8. For some welding application, the weave width of weld beads is restricted. This is because wide weave widths
may give?
a. Low heat input
b. Magnetic arc blow
c. HAZ cracking
d. High heat input

9. Pure argon is used with the MIG process to weld which material?
a. Stainless steel
b. Steels
c. All material
d. Aluminum
10. What do the first two numbers on a MMA electrode represent to EN classification?
a. Impact value
b. Recovery rate
c. Yield strength
d. Welding position
11. The main purpose of a slope in control in TIG welding is to?
a. Avoid the risk of start porosity
b. Reduce the risk of tungsten inclusions
c. Allow more time for the filler wire to melt
d. Stabilize the arc
12. Which standard covers welding procedure qualification for aluminum and aluminum alloys?
a. BS EN 25817
b. BSEN ISO 15614-2
c. BSEN ISO 15614-1
d. BSEN EN 287-1
13. Which weld dimension is correct to BSEN 22553 for a 7mm design throat thickness?
a. z7
b. s7
c. a7
d. 7z
14. The maximum PWHT heating rates specified for C-Mn steel depend on the thickness of the item but tend to be
in the range of?
a. - 200 to -9000 C/h
b. - 100 to -3000 C/h
c. - 60 to -200 0 C/h
d. - 50 to -3500 C/h
15. When doing visual inspection which of the following is NOT required?
a. Access to the relevant WPSs
b. Access to all relevant standards
c. Adequate lighting
d. Access to welding procedure qualification records

16. Which of the following statements is correct?


a. AC only can be used for MMA welding
b. DC only can be used for TIG welding
c. DC only can be used for SAW
d. AC and DC can be used for MMA welding
17. Noise levels allowable in a work place depend upon?
a. Just the dB level and the time exposed
b. The frequency band of the noise and the age of the operator
c. The make of ear protectors provided
d. A combination of dB level, frequency and exposure time
18. At extreme low temperatures a material ________
a. Starts expanding
b. Does not show any change in properties
c. Starts showing reduced toughness values
d. Shows greater elongation

19. Within a procedure, what is an essential variable?


a. The welding parameters
b. Material type
c. Consumable type
d. All of the above

20. For MMA welding, arc voltage is controlled by the?


a. Open circuit voltage control
b. Arc length
c. Power source giving out a constant voltage
d. Electrode polarity

21. The most common type of service failure caused by cyclic loading is:
a. Ductile tearing
b. Fatigue
c. Brittle fracture
d. Stress corrosion cracking
22. The “fusion line” is the boundary between:
a. The root and the hot pass
b. The weld metal an the parent metal
c. The weld symbol and supplementary symbol
d. The HAZ and parent metal
23. Overlap at the toe in a butt weld made by MAG welding, may be caused by?
a. Shielding gas flow rate being too low
b. Torch angle being incorrect
c. Root gap being too small
d. Using DC+ve
24. Poor inter-pass cleaning will most likely lead to?
a. Porosity
b. Under bead cracking
c. Slag inclusions
d. Lack of penetration

25. During welding you observe excess spatter, what may be the cause of this?
a. Wrong polarity
b. Damp electrodes
c. High current
d. All of the above

26. Assuming that all other factors remain the same, which will have the greatest effect on the cost of fabrication
when using MMA welding?
a. 10% increase in deposition rate
b. A 10% increase in duty cycle from 25% to 35%
c. A 10% reduction in weld metal
d. They will all have the same effect
27. To control the preheat temperature for a plate where is less than 50mm, at what distance from the bevel edge
and from which surface should the temperature be checked?
a. At a distance of 4t but a maximum of 50mm and the temperature shall be measured on the surface of the
work piece facing the welder
b. At a distance of 4t but a minimum of 50mm and the temperature shall be measured on the surface of the
work piece facing the welder
c. At a minimum distance of 75mm and the temperature shall be measured on the surface of the work piece
facing the welder
d. At a minimum distance of 75mm and where practicable the temperature should be measured on the face
opposite to that being heated

28. Which of the following electrodes would normally contain 80-90ml of hydrogen per 100g of weld metal?
a. Basic
b. Iron powder
c. Cellulosic
d. Rutile

29. In GTAW which tungsten is most commonly used for welding stainless steel?
a. Zirconaited
b. Thoriated
c. Carbonated
d. Austenite

30. In MAG welding, which one of these gas mixtures is used for welding carbon manganese steels?
a. Argon / Oxygen
b. Nitrogen / Carbon dioxide
c. Helium / Oxygen
d. Argon / Carbon dioxide

General Examination -7

1. The main reason for qualifying welding procedures is to:


a. Allow a welder to practice before production welding starts
b. Check whether the NDT acceptance standard can be met.
c. Show that joint properties satisfies the specification
d. Show that the fabricator has good control over welding.

2. Weldments in carbon manganese steels, made using a heat input higher than the maximum specified
by the WPS, may show?
A) Higher integrity
B) Lower distortion
C) Lower toughness
D) Higher hardness
3. An electrode is classified to BS EN ISO 2560 as E 35 3 B. What does 35 signify?
A) 350 N/mm2 yield strength
B) 35 joules @-30oc
C) 35 N/ mm2 tensile strength
D) 35ksi tensile strength
4. According to BS EN 22553 what is meant by a large Z through the reference line, on the right-hand side
of the fillet weld symbols?
A) Leg length
B) The weld toes must be blended
C) Throat thickness
D) Intermittent welds that are staggered
5. Which polarity is normally used for TIG welding of stainless steel?
A) AC
B) DC electrode negative
C) DC electrode positive
E) It would make little difference which were used
6. Weldments in carbon manganese steels made by low heat input welding may show?
A) Greater ductility
B) Higher distortion
C) Higher dilution
D) Higher hardness
7. A weld joint that is to be subjected to ultrasonic testing, usually requires?
A) No special preparation
B) A rough surface finish to ensure the couplant adheres to the surface
C) The removal of the weld cap in all cases
D) A reasonably smooth surface free from spatter
8. Which of the following alloying elements is used mainly to improve the toughness of steel?
A) Chromium
B) Manganese
C) Sulphur
D) Carbon
9. A MMA electrode which is classified as an E7024 (according to AWS) is a?
A) Basic type
B) Cellulosic type
C) Rutile type
D) Thick coated iron powder
10. What is the purpose of a cross joint tensile test? To check?
A) The strength of the weld
B) For lack of side wall fusion
C) The strength of the joint
D) The strength of the HAZ

11. In oxy-fuel gas cutting when cutting thin plates which gas is preferred?
A) Propane
B) Propylene
C) Acetylene
D) Methane

12. Post heating of welded joints is carried out in order to?


A) Remove the residual stresses
B) Diffuse out hydrogen
C) Improve the tensile strength
D) Achieve dimensional stability

13. The correct joint preparation is very important since it decides the volume of weld metal to be used.
High volumes of weld metal deposited can_______?
A) Increase the residual stresses
B) Be useful since the joint will have better strength
C) Give a longer service life
D) Give superior corrosion resistance

14. The output characteristic of a typical MAG set is


A) Constant voltage
B) Constant current
C) Drooping
D) Pulsing

15. In MIG/MAG solid wire welding uses which polarity?


A) DC + ve
B) AC - ve
C) DC -ve
D) AC +ve

16. The recommended distance for checking preheat temperature and preheat maintenance temperature
on a butt weld >50mm thick is?
A) 75mm from the bevel edge-on both sides of the joint
B) Within the groove-midway between root and surface
C) As close as practical to the heaters
D) 25mm from the centre of the joint-on both sides

17. Which of the following may lead to distortion?


A) Heating
B) Cooling
C) Restraining
D) All of the above

18. The “output characteristic” of a typical TIG power source, for manual welding is?
A) Constant voltage
B) Constant current
C) Flat
D) Pulsing
19. Which of the following imperfection types is NOT usually associated with TIG welding?
A) Tungsten inclusions
B) Lack of root fusion
C) Crater pipe
D) Spatter
20. Arc strikes are often prohibited on fabrications because they?
A) Are unsightly
B) Are indicative of high arc volts
C) May cause problems with subsequent coatings
D) May give rise to cracking

21. From the examination of fracture faces, a brittle failure can be identified by?
A) The presence of beach marks
B) Plastic deformation
C) Being rough and torn
D) Being flat and crystalline

22. Which method of inspection is used to detect lamination?


A) Radiography
B) Fluorescent penetrant detection
C) Magnetic particle inspection
D) Ultrasonic testing

23. In BS EN 287-1 an “all positional” qualification may be obtained by welding a pipe in the?
A) 6G position
B) PE position
C) H-L045 position
D) Only by welding in all three of the above position

24. The most important factor in the safe operation of welding equipment is the use of
A) Low welding currents
B) Low open circuit voltage
C) A relatively low operating voltage
D) DC rather than AC
25. In which of the following fillet weld ratios will the higher depth-to-width ratio increases the probability
of solidification centre-line cracking?
A) 2:1
B) 1:3
C) 4:1
D) 1:5
26. A typical baking temperature for basic electrode is?
A) 1200C
B) 3500C
C) 5000C
D) 2000C
27. An electrode is classified to BSEN ISO 2560 as E 35 3 B. what does the “B” mean?
A) Manufactured to a British standard
B) Can only be used in the “B” position
C) The covering is a low hydrogen type
D) To be used only for lower grade work
28. What level of diffusible hydrogen, per 100/gr of deposited weld metal, is classed as a low hydrogen
electrode when using manual metal arc (MMA/SMAW) welding consumables?
A) >90ml
B) <15ml
C) >35 but less than<60
D) It depend on the heat input

29. A fillet weld has a design throat thickness of 8mm. what is the minimum leg length that is required?
A) 5.6mm
B) 11.2mm
C) 11.8mm
D) It cannot be determined from the information given

30. Which of the following alloying elements would cause the most concern if present in the same
quantity in welding fume?

a. Chromium
b. Iron
c. Manganese
d. Molybdenum
31. Which of the following is NOT an essential variable for welding procedure qualification and accordance
with BSEN ISO 15614?
a. Welding process b. Material type c. welding position d. PWHT
32. In a Martensite grain structure which of the following mechanical properties would be more likely to
increase?
A) Ductility
B) Hardness
C) Softness
D) Toughness

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