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# UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY TAXILA

## Subject: M.Sc. Civil Engineering Dated: 18 – 08- 2016

Time Allowed: 100 Minutes Max Marks: 100

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1. A structure is statically indeterminate: a) No. of unknowns are more than equations of statics.
b) No. of unknowns are less than equations of statics.
c) No. of unknowns are equal to equations of statics.
2. A structure is kinematically determinate, a) It has zero degrees of freedom. (b) It has multiple
if degrees of freedom. (c)None of the above.
3. Bending force at a section is: a) Algebraic sum of all moments to one side of section.
b) Algebraic sum of forces. (c) Algebraic sum of all
vertical forces to one side of section.
4. Shearing force at a section is: a) Algebraic sum of moments of forces. (b)Algebraic
sum of shearing stresses.(c) Algebraic sum of all
vertical forces to once side of section.
5. For a force system in space: a) There are six equations of equilibrium.(b) There are
three equations of equilibrium. (c) None of the above.
6. A frame is a structure in which; a) Only axial forces are present. (b) Only shear forces
are present. (c) Axial force, shear forces and bending
moments are present.
7. In rectangular beam the distribution of a) Parabolic (b) Circular (c)Elliptical.
shear intensity over the cross-section,
8. Water cement ratio in concrete is; a) The ratio of volume of water to volume of cement.
b) The ratio of volume of water to weight of cement.
c) The ratio of weight of water to weight of cement.
d) The ratio of weight of water to volume of cement.
9. Initial setting time of ordinary Portland a) 15 min (b) 45 min. (c) 100 min.
cement is;
10. In case if a singly reinforced beam of the a) Under-reinforced section.
concrete reaches its maximum allowable b) Over-reinforced section.
stress earlier than steel, such a section is c) Balanced section.
known as; d) Critical section.
11. In prestressed concrete, generally steel a) Low tensile strength (b) Average tensile strength.
wires used are of; c) High tensile strength.
12. A method of prestressing concrete in a) Post-tensioning.
which the tendons are tensioned before b) Pre-tensioning.
the concrete is placed is known as; c) Bonding.
13. The workability of concrete is measured a) Cube testing apparatus. (b) Impact test apparatus.
by; c) Slump test.
14. The ultimate strain of RCC element in a) 0.003 (b) 0.0035
ACI code is; c) 0.30
15. The main reinforcement in a cantilever a) Top face. (b) Bottom face.
beam is at; c) Side face.

## Write Your Name and Roll No…………………………………………………………………………

16 The top of the ground on which the foundation of a road rests, is called
(a) Sub grade (b) Soling (c) Base (d) Wearing layer
17 Super-elevation is expressed as
(a) The difference of heights of two edges of the carriage-way to the width of the carriage-way
(b) The difference of radii of curves (c) The difference of road gradients (d) None of the above
18 The super-elevation is
(a) Directly proportional to the velocity of vehicles (b) Inversely proportional to the velocity of
vehicles (c) Directly proportional to the width of pavement (d) Inversely proportional to the width
of pavement
19 The cost of construction of rigid pavements as compared to flexible pavements is
(a) Same (b) Less (c) More
20 Highway density is defined as the total number of vehicles (a) That can be accommodated on a unit
length of the road (b) That can pass a given point in a unit period of time (c) That can pass a given
point in specified period of time (d) None of the above
21 The length of highway visible ahead to the driver of a vehicle is called (a) Perception-Reaction
distance (b) Breaking distance (c) Sight distance
22 Normally the recommended design life for a flexible pavement is: (a) 5 years (b) 20 years (c) 40
years (d) 50 years
23 A 160 kN axle load will damage the pavement
(a) Two-times to that of damage caused by standard axle load (b) Four-times to that of damage
caused by standard axle load (c) Sixteen times to that of damage caused by standard axle load
24 Stiffness is defined as
(a) Load carrying capacity (b) Load per unit deformation (c) Pressure on a unit area
25 Which of the following statements is correct:
(a) The group index of zero indicates a sub-grade soil of good quality (b) The group index of a soil
can be negative (c) The group index has no relation to the quality of soil (d) The group index of
zero indicates a sub-grade of soil of very poor quality
26 C.B.R. method is suitable for the design of
(a) Flexible pavements (b) Rigid pavements (c) Rigid as well as flexible pavements
27 Bitumen with lower penetration grades is preferred in
(a) Warm regions (b) Cold regions (c) In regions where temperature remains below freezing point
(d) When road is to be constructed in winter
28 Stability and flow value is determined by
(a) Marshall stability test (b) Stabilization (c) C.B.R. test (d) Standard penetration test
29 A junction so designed that traffic streams are divided to enable them to pass over or under each
other is called
(a) Sub-way (b) Fly over (c) By pass road (d) Loop road
30 Waves like deformation on the road are called
(a) Ruts (b) Zig-zag forms (c) Wavy defects (d) Currugation

## Write Your Name and Roll No…………………………………………………………………………

31 Suitable turbine for relatively very high heads is
(a) Reaction turbine (b) Impulse turbine (c) Turbine pump
32 Delta is more for
(a) Rice crop (b) Wheat crop (c) Sugar cane
33 Piezometric head of 1 ft. of water represents a pressure
(a) 62.4 psf (b) 1 psf (c) 144 psi
34 Pressure head in terms of ft of water will be equivalent to
(a) 1/13.6 times the head of Hg in ft (b) 13.6 times the head of Hg. In ft. (c) 2 times the head of Hg.
in ft.
35 Venturimenter is used to measure discharge in case of
(a) Pipe flow (b) Open channel flow (c) Uniform flow in open channels
36 Flow in a pipe half full will be
(a) Pipe flow (b) Open channel flow (c) Uniform flow in open channels

37 Wetted perimeter in cse of flow in a pipe half full in terms of radius of pipe ‘r’ will be
(a) πr/2 (b) πr (c) 2πr
38 Hydraulic radius in case of flow in a pipe half full in terms of radius of pipe ‘r’ will be
(a) r (b) r/2 (c) 2r
39 Velocity head in a critical flow is equal to
(a) Half the depth of flow (b) Two times the depth of flow (c) Equal to the depth of flow
40 Froude No. for a critical flow will be
(a) Equal to 1 (b) Less than one (c) Equal to the velocity of flow
41 Reynolds No. has
(a) Same units as that of the velocity (b) Not any units (c) Units of distance
42 Reynolds No. is higher in case of
(a) Laminar flow (b) Turbulent flow (c) Transitional flow
43 For a water flow velocity of √2g ft/sec the velocity head will be
(a) 1 ft of water (b) 9.8 ft of water (c) 2g
44 For an open channel flow the hydraulic grade line is
(a) The same as water surface profile (b) The same as energy grade line (c) The same as the bed
profile of the channel (d)
45 For an open channel flow the most efficient cross section is
(a) The semi circular section (b) The rectangular section (c) The trapezoidal section

## 46 Standard penetration test is recommended for determining the bearing capacity of

(a) Sandy soil (b) Clayey soil (c) Soil containing boulders (d) Rocks
47 Field density of gravelly soil is accurately determined by
(a) Core cutter method (b) Sand cone method (c) Cassagrande apparatus (d) Pycnometer
48 Common range of specific gravity of soil is
(a) 2.6-2.8 (b) 60-70 (c) 13.6-14.6 (d) 100-120
49 The angle of internal friction of soil is greater if the particles are
(a) Angular in shape (b) Rounded (c) Flaky in shape (d) Sub-rounded
50 Sandy soils generally have color
(a) Brown (b) Grey (c) White (d) Black
51 A soil is most suitable for subgrade construction if it is
(a) Highly plastic (b) Non plastic (c) Organic(d) Cohesive
52 For highway construction the soil is classified according to
(a) AASHTO soil classification system (b) FAA soil classification system (c) USC soil
classification system (d) Textural soil classification
53 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) 100% saturation line and zero percent air void line are identical (b) 100% saturation line is
above the zero percent air void line (c) 100% saturation line is below the zero percent air void line
(d) 100% saturation line intersects the zero percent air void line
54 Oven temperature of 110o ± 50o C is used for determination of water content of
(a) All types of soil (b) For most of the soil types (c) Soil containing gypsum and organic matter (d)
Soil containing organic matter only
55 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) A well graded soil contains particles of one size (b) A gap graded soil is also called a uniform
soil (c) Well graded soil contains particles over a wide range of sizes (d) A well graded soil means
a fine grained soil
56 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) The liquidity index cannot be more than 1.0 (b) The liquidity index can be more than 1.0 (c)
Consistency index cannot be negative (d) P.I. = P.L. – L.L.
57 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) At shrinkage limit the soil is fully saturated (b) At shrinkage limit the soil is partially saturated
(c) Shrinkage limit is more than liquid limit (d) For clayey soil shrinkage limit is equal to plastic
limit
58 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) The upstream face of an earth dam is an equipotential line (b) The pheriatic line is an equipotential
line(c) The pheriatic line at the entrance may rise upwards (d) The upstream face of an earth dam is
a flow line
59 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) Quick sand is a type of sand (b) Quick sand condition can develop even is gravels (c) Piping is
the same as quick sand (d) There is no difference between quick sand and soil boiling
60 The decrease in volume under sustained static load on a saturated soil is called
(a) Compaction (b) Consolidation (c) Creep (d) Shear strength

## Write Your Name and Roll No…………………………………………………………………………

61 Pick out the factor that is essential in estimating the quantity of water required for a water supply
scheme
(a) Quantity of rainfall (b) Rate of demand (c) Type of treatment plant (d) Catchment area
62 In a water supply project, the distribution system will have to be designed for
(a) Present population (b) Future population at end of one decade (c) Future population at end of 3
63 The total solids in water are due to the presence of
(a) Suspended and dissolved solids (b) Suspended and dissolved solids (c) Colloidal and settleable
solids (d) Colloidal and bacterial load
64 Temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of
(a) Chloride hardness (b) Carbonate hardness (c) Calcium hardness (d) Manganese hardness
65 PH value of potable water is
(a) 3 to 5 (b) 10.5 to 12.6 (c) 6.5 to 8 (d) 1.5 to 2
66 The process of killing infective bacteria in water is called
(a) Sterilization (b) Disinfection (c) Coagulation (d) Sedimentation
67 The detention period for water in a sedimentation tank is
(a) 1 to 2 hours (b) 2 to 4 hours (c) 4 to 8 hours (d) 8 to 10 hours
68 Alum is used for the process of
(a) Filtration (b) Coagulation (c) Softening (d) Disinfection
69 The slow sand filter is more efficient in removing bacteria because
(a) Effective size of sand grains is small (b) Uniformity coefficient of sand is small (c) Water is
pretreated (d) Size of filter is large
70 Normal dosage of chlorine in public water supply scheme is
(a) 0.05 to 0.2 ppm (b) 0.2 to 0.5 ppm (c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm (d) 1 to 2 ppm
71 Algea growth is controlled by
(a) Chlorination (b) Aeration (c) Filtration (d) Bleaching
72 The type of layout distribution system adopted for unplanned cities and for irregularly growing
town is
73 Air relief water in distribution system are provided at
(a) Dead-ends in distribution system (b) Junctions of main and branch pipes (c) Summit points on
water mains (d) Places where the pressure is minimum
74 The function of skimming tank is to remove
(a) Oily and fatty substance (b) Suspended solids (c) Gritty substance (d) Inorganic substance
75 What is the detention period allowed for oxidation ponds
(a) 1 to 2 weeks (b) 2 to 3 weeks (c) 3 to 4 weeks (d) 4 to 5 weeks
1 Pick out the factor that is essential in estimating the a) Quantity of rainfall
quantity of water required for a water supply scheme b) Rate of demand
c) Type of treatment plant
d) Catchment area
2 In a watersupply project, the distribution system will a) Present population
have to be designed for b) Future population at end of one decade
c) Future population at end of 3 decades
d) Future population at end of 6 decades
3 The total solids in water are due to the presence of a) Suspended and dissolved solids
b) Suspended and dissolved solids
c) Colloidal and settleable solids
4 Temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of a) Chloride hardness
b) Carbonate hardness
c) |Calcium hardness
d) Manganese hardness
5 PH value of potable water is a) 3 to 5
b) 10.5 to 12.6
c) 6.5 to 8
d) 1.5 to 2
6 The process of killing infective bacteria in water is a) Sterilisation
called b) Disinfection
c) Coagulation
d) Sedimentation
7 The detention period for water in a sedimentation tank a) 1 to 2 hours
is b) 2 to 4 hours
c) 4 to 8 hours
d) 8 to 10 hours
8 Alum is used for the process of a) Filtration
b) Coagulation
c) Softening
d) Disinfection
9 The slow sand filter is more efficient in removing a) Effective size of sand grains is small
bacteria because b) Uniformity coefficient of sand is small
c) Water is pretreated
d) Size of filter is large
10 Normal dosage of chlorine in public watersupply a) 0.05 to 0.2 ppm
scheme is b) 0.2 to 0.5 ppm
c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm
d) 1 to 2 ppm
11 Algea growth is controlled by a) Chlorination
b) Aeration
c) Filtration
d) Bleaching
12 The type of layout distribution system adopted for a) Grid-iron
unplanned cities and for irregularly growing town is b) Circular