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Module EM090 – Stainless steel welding for supervisors

1. When ‘hydrogen control’ is specified for a manual metal arc welding project the electrode would normally
be:
A. Cellulosic
B. Iron oxide
C. Acid
D. Basic

2. You would certainly recognise a hydrogen controlled flux covered electrode from its
A. Colour
B. Length
C. Trade name
D. BS639/AWS code letter

3. When manual metal arc welding is being carried out on an open construction site, which group of welders
are most likely to require continuous monitoring?
A. Concrete shuttering welding teams
B. Pipe welding teams
C. Plater welders
D. Plant maintenance welders
4. You notice manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG welding. You
would object because:
A. It is too expensive
B. The wire would be too thick
C. The metal composition may be wrong
D. The wire is too short
5. When open site working, serious porosity in metal arc welds is brought to your attention. What would you
investigate?
A. Electrode type
B. Power plant type
C. Electrode storage
D. Day temperature
6. The steel composition in a structural contract is changed from 0.15% carbon 0.6% manganese, to 0.2%
carbon 1.2% manganese. This might influence the incidence of:
A. Porosity
B. Cracking in the weld area
C. Undercut for fillet welds
D. Lack of fusion defects
7. One of the following alloys is non-magnetic - which?
A. 4.0% chromium molybdenum
B. 12.0% chromium
C. Austenitic stainless steel
D. 9.0% nickel steel
8. When TIG welding austenitic stainless steel pipe, argon gas backing is called for. This is to:
A. Prevent oxidation
B. Prevent underbead cracking
C. Prevent porosity
D. Control the penetration bead shape
9. Pre-heating a carbon steel manual metal arc welding is carried out to minimise the risk of:
A. Scattered porosity
B. Worm hole porosity
C. Parent metal cracking
D. Lack of penetration
10. In UK practice, BS499 specifies that the drawing dimension quoted for a fillet weld is the:
A. Leg length
B. Throat thickness
C. Weld width
D. Actual throat thickness
11. For open site manual metal welding the following equipment is available. Which would you choose for
safe site working?
A. Single operator transformer
B. Multi operator transformers
C. AC/DC composite power unit
D. Diesel engine driven motor generator
12. If submerged arc welding is used to make butt welds, which would you be most critical of?
A. The root gap tolerance
B. The angle of preparation
C. The root face width
D. The gas cut finish
13. Preheating for arc welding applies to:
A. Assembly welding only
B. Assembly and tack welding
C. Joints over 25 mm thick only
D. Cruciform welds only
14. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Preheating increases hardness
B. Preheating increases cooling
C. Preheating increases dilution
D. Preheating increases shrinkage stress
15. You see a welder using an oxy-acetylene flame with a long feathered inner cone. What would be the
effect of this on a carbon steel?
A. The weld would be hard and brittle
B. The weld could be too sof
C. There will be no effect on the weld
D. The weld will have undercut
16. A welder qualification test is to verify:
A. The skill of the welder
B. The quality of the materials
C. The non-destructive test procedures
D. The manufacturing methods
17. A fabricating procedure calls for fillet welds to be 'blended in' by grinding. This influences:
A. HAZ. cracking
B. Fatigue life
C. Residual stress
D. Yield strength
18. During CO2 welding, the arc length is most likely to be affected by:
A. The wire diameter
B. The current return connections
C. The gas flow rate
D. The torch to work angle
19. Bend test specimens have been taken from a 25 mm thick carbon steel butt weld. Which would show lack
of inter-run fusion?
A. Side bend
B. Root bend
C. Face bend
D. Guided bend
20. Lamellar tearing has occurred in a steel fabrication. BEFORE welding could it have been found by:
A. X-ray examination
B. Dye penetrant
C. Ultrasonic examination
D. It would not have been found by any inspection method
21. You are to oversee the arc welding of some machine fittings and find that they are cadmium plated.
Would you:
A. Permit it to proceed
B. Permit it to proceed with fume extraction
C. Stop the operation at once
D. Advise the welder to drink milk and proceed
22. One of the reasons for excluding hydrogen from the weld metal is to prevent the weld from:
A. Cracking
B. Cooling slowly
C. Cooling quickly
D. Expanding
23. When a metal regains its original shape when a stress acting upon it is removed, the metal is said to have:
A. Ductility
B. Plasticity
C. Malleability
D. Elasticity
24. Proof stress is used when non-ferrous metals are undergoing tensile tests to determine the equivalent:
A. Tenacity
B. Elasticity
C. Yield strength
D. Tensile strength
25. To test a component for vibrational loading, a suitable mechanical test would be:
A. Impact
B. Tensile
C. Compressive
D. Fatigue
26. The main reason for pre-heating medium and high carbon steels before cutting by oxy-fuel gas technique
is to:
A. Improve the quality of the cut
B. Increase the cutting speed
C. Refine the grain structure
D. Prevent hardening and cracking
27. One purpose of a microscopic examination of a weld is to establish the:
A. Strength of the weld
B. Number of alloying elements
C. Grain size
D. Number of runs used
28. The predominant structure of an hyper-eutectoid steel that has been quenched at above its upper critical
point will be:
A. Austenite
B. Martensite
C. Troostite
D. Sorbite
29. When weld metal refinement takes place in a multi-run deposit, it is known by the term:
A. Weld annealing
B. Weld refining
C. Weld normalising
D. Weld recrystallisation
30. One advantage of metal gas arc shielded welding is:
A. Can be used in draughty locations without protection
B. Produces a deposit low in hydrogen content
C. Any welding position can be welded with spray transfer
D. Fine spatter at nozzle restricting gas flow
Questions -2
1. All things contain imperfections, but is only when they fall outside the level of acceptance they should be
termed?
A. Discontinuity
B. Defect
C. Mechanical damage
D. Welding imperfections
2. A singular gas filled cavity that is= or more than 1.6 mm in diameter is termed?
A. Cavity
B. Cluster porosity
C. Blow hole
D. Rounded porosity
3. Lack of fusion imperfections are defined as?
A. Lack of union between two adjacent areas of material
B. Not cleaning out slag
C. Incorrect electrode manipulation in the final run
D. Incorrect set up
4. What should happen to spatter before visual inspection is carried out?
A. Spatter is not a problem for visual inspection
B. Spatter that is more than 2 mm need not be cleaned for visual inspection
C. Spatter should be cleaned off before visual inspection
D. Spatter will not have any affect on the weld or the base material
5. Undercut can be defined as one of the following?
A. Concavity in the root of the weld
B. Crater in the fill of the weld
C. An oxide within the weld
D. Depression at the toe of the weld
6. Excess penetration is ofen caused by which of the following?
A. Too high a welding current
B. Slow travel speed
C. Large root gap
D. All of the above
Questions -3
1. Which of the following butt-weld preparations is usually the most susceptible to lack of sidewall fusion
during the manual arc process?
A. A double-U butt
B. A single-V butt.
C. A double-V butt.
D. It is not normally a defect associated with the MMA welding process.
2. What is the leg length of a fillet weld?
A. The distance from the toe to face.
B. The distance from the root to the toe.
C. Its 0.7 of the design thickness.
D. Both b and c
3. What is the thickness of a fillet weld ( equal leg lengths )?
A. The distance from the toe to the face.
B. The distance from the root to the face centre.
C. The distance from the root to the toe.
D. The distance from toe to toe.
4. Compound welds:
A. Always contain butt and fillet welds
B. joints which have combinations of welds made by different welding processes
C. Combinations between two different weld types
D. All of the above.
5. A duty not normally undertaken by a welding inspector is to:
A. Check the condition of the parent material.
B. Check the condition of the consumables.
C. Measure residual stress.
D. Check calibration certificates.
6. Under most conditions which of the following welding positions will deposit the most weld metal.
A. PG
B. PE
C. PC
D. PA
7. What meant by the term crater pipe:
A. Another term for concave root.
B. Another term given for a burn through.
C. A type of gas pore found in the weld crater.
D. A shrinkage defect found in the weld crater.
8. What is meant by the term weld junction?
A. The area containing the HAZ and weld metal.
B. The weld metal and parent metal.
C. The boundary between the fusion zone and the HAZ.
D. The part of the weld which has undergone metallurgical changes due to the heat from welding.
9. The strength of a fillet weld is primary controlled by:
A. Leg length.
B. Design throat thickness.
C. Actual throat thickness.
D. All of the above.
10.Which of the following is applicable for none planar defects?
A. They are always repaired.
B. Their existence will result in the removal of the entire weld.
C.They are not usually as significant as planar defects.
D. They can only be detected using radiograph .
11. Which of the following welding processes/technique is likely to be used for the repair welding of localised
porosity in butt weld?
A. MMA, PG position.
B. Mechanised MAG.
C. Submerged arc.
D. None of the above.
12. When measuring the welding parameters with the MMA welding process for the purpose of approving a
welding procedure, the welding Inspector should measure the voltage:
A. As close to welding arc as possible.
B. Anywhere along the welding cable.
C. Always from the voltmeter on the welding plant.
D. As near to The welding terminals as possible.
13. In the MMA welding process, which of the following is most likely to be caused by a welder with a poor
technique?
A. Deep weld craters/crater cracks.
B. Copper inclusions
C. Hydrogen cracks
D. All of the above
14. Root concavity is caused by:
A. Excessive back purge pressure and entrapped gas.
B. Excessive back purge pressure and very high heat inputs.
C. Excessive root grinding and a slow travel speed.
D. Excessive root grinding and excessive back purge pressure.
15. When inspecting a critical component, the toes of a weld must be:
A. Always ground flush.
B. Must always overlap at least 1.5 mm onto the parent material.
C. Must always be inspected using a crack detection method ( MPI,DPI ).
D. None of the above can be selected – specification requirements unknown
16. When carrying out visual inspection, the specification makes no mention of the requirements for visual
inspection, in this situation what shroud you do?
A. Carry out normal visual inspection.
B. Seek advice from higher authority.
C. Carry out visual inspection.
D. Re–write the requirements of the specification.
17. Under most circumstances, which of the following do you consider to be duties of a welding inspector?
A. The supervision of welders.
B. Procedure writing.
C. Qualifying welders.
D. All of the above.
18. Which of the following is most likely to cause a burn through.
A. Root gap too small.
B.Travel speed too fast.
C. Root face too small.
D. All of the above.
19. In an arc welding process, which of the following is the correct term used for the amount of weld metal
deposited per minute?
A. Filling rate.
B. Deposition rate.
C. Weld deposition.
D. Weld duty cycle.
20. What is the term given for the area of a welded joint outside the weld metal that has undergone
microstructural changes?
A. Heat affected zone.
B. The weld zone
C. Fusion zone.
D. All of the above terms may be used.
Question -4
1. Which type of submerged arc welding flux is susceptible to moisture pick-up?
A. Neutral
B. Agglomerated
C.Fused
D. Are all about the same
2. A Large grain size in the HAZ of a C-Mn Steel weld joint may have:
A. Low ductility
B. Low toughness
C. High toughness
D. High tensile strength
3. A STRA test is used to measure the:
A. Tensile strength of the welded joint
B. Level of residual stress in butt joints
C. Fracture toughness of the HAZ
D. Through-thickness ductility of a steel plate (the Z direction)
4. The risk of hydrogen cracking is greater when MMA welding:
A. C-Mn Steels
B.Austenitic Stainless Steels
C. Low Alloy Steels For Elevated Temperature Service
D. Low Carbon Steels For Cryogenical Service
5. The property of a material which has the greatest influence on welding distortion is its
A. Yield strength
B. Coefficient of thermal expansion
C. Elastic modulus
D. Coefficient of thermal conductivity
6. Which of the following is a suitable shielding gas for FCAW of stainless steels?
A. 100% Argon
B. 70% Argon + 30% He
C. Argon + 5% Hydrogen
D. Argon + 20% CO2
7. The presence of iron sulphides in a weld bead may cause:
A. solidification cracking
B. Hydrogen cracking
C. Lamellar tearing
D. Weld decay
8. A macrosection is particularly good for showing:
A. The weld metal HAZ microstructure
B. Overlap
C. Joint hardness
D. Spatter
9. Which of the following procedures would be expected to produce the least distortion in a 15mm straight
butt weld?
A. TIG weld, single-sided, multi-pass
B. MMA weld, single-sided, multi-pass
C. MMA weld, double-sided, multi-pass
D. SAW weld, 1 pass per side
10. A suitable gas/gas mixture, for GMAW for aluminium is:
A. 100% CO2
B. 100% Argon
C. 80% Argon + 20% CO2
D. 98% Argon + 2% 02
11. Which of the following is associated with SAW more ofen than it is with MMA welds?
A. Hydrogen cracking in the HAZ
B. Solidification cracking in the weld metal
C. Reheat cracking during PWHT
D. Lamellar tearing
12. EN ISO 5817 (Level C) specifies that the limit for the diameter (D) of a single pore in a weld is: D <0.3s, but
max. 4mm where s=material thickness. For which of the following situations is the pore acceptable?
Discuss
A. S=20mm, measured pore diameter = 5mm
B. S=15mm, measured pore diameter = 4.5mm
C. S=10mm, measured pore diameter = 3mm
D. S=10mm, measured pore diameter = 3.5mm
13. To measure arc voltage accurately it is recommended that the voltmeter should be connected:
A. Across the arc and as near as practical to the arc
B. Across the power source terminals prior to arc initiation
C. Across the power source terminals during the welding operation
D. Anywhere in the circuit
14. Lamellar tearing has occurred in a steel fabrication. What technique could have been used to find it
before the weld was made?
A. X-ray examination
B. Liquid penetrant examination
C. Ultrasonic examination
D. It could not have been found by any inspection method
15. Preheating a low alloy steel prior to welding to minimise the risk of:
A. Porosity
B. Excessive distortion
C. HAZ cracking
D. Lack of fusion
16. Typical temperature used for normalising a C-Mn steel plate are:
A. 600-650ºC
B. 1000-1100ºC
C. 700-800ºC
D. 880-920ºC
17. For GMAW the burn-off rate of the wire is directly related to:
A. Stick-out length
B. Wire feed speed
C. Arc voltage
D. Travel speed
18. For MMA welding of a 60mm wall nozzle to a 100mm wall vessel shell, preheat temperatures should be
checked:
A. Before welding starts/restarts
B. On the shell and nozzle
C. At points at least 75mm from the joint edge
D. All of the above
19. A crack running along the centreline of a weld bead could be caused by:
A.Use of damp flux
B. Lack of preheat
C. Arc voltage too high
D. Weld bead too deep and very narrow
20. To improve resistance to service failure caused by cyclic loading, it is good practice to:
A. Use low heat input welding
B. Use steel with a low CEV
C. Ensure there are no features that give high stress concentration
D. PWHT the fabrication
21. The use of low carbon austenitic stainless steels and stabiliser stainless steels will minimise the risk of:
A. HAZ cracking
B.Weld decay
C. Weld metal cracking
D. Distortion
22. Which type of SAW flux is susceptible to breaking down into fine particles during circulation?
A. Fused
B. Neutral
C. Alloyed
D. Agglomerated
23. The maximum hardness in the HAZ of a steel will increase if the:
A. Heat input is increased
B. CEV is increased
C. Joint thickness is decreased
D. Basic electrodes are used
24. BS EN ISO 5817 (Level B) specifies the limit for excess weld metal (h) on a butt weld as: h <1mm+0.1b, but
max. 5mm, b= weld width. In which of the following situations is the measured excess weld metal
acceptable?
A. B = 10 measured excess weld metal = 2.5mm
B. B = 20 measured excess weld metal = 3.5mm
C. B = 35 measured excess weld metal = 4.5mm
D. B = 45 measured excess weld metal = 5.5mm
25. A C-Mn steel is being welded by MMA and the electrode run-out lengths that have been used are much
shorter than specified by the WPS. This deviation may give:
A. Increased risk of hydrogen cracking
B. Increased risk of solidification cracking
C. Lower values of HAZ toughness
D. Higher values of HAZ hardness
26. The first procedure prepared for a Weld Procedure Qualification test is a:
A. PWPS
B. WPS
C. WPQR
D. WPAR
27. Transfer of material identification by hard stamping is sometimes not allowed for high integrity
applications because it:
A. Is too slow
B. Can be a safety hazard
C. May damage the material
D. Causes problems with coating operations.
28. When welding thin plate distortion can be minimised by:
A. Welding from both sides
B. Using U preparations rather than V types
C. Using strongbacks
D. Using back-step welding
29. Which of the following would be considered to be high heat input welding?
A. 550J/mm
B. 55J/mm
C. 5.5J/mm
D. 5KJ/mm
30. Initiation of a TIG arc using high frequency spark may not be allowed because it:
A. Ofen causes tungsten inclusions
B. Can damage electronic equipment
C. Is an electrical safety hazard
D. Ofen causes stop/start porosity
Question-5
Questions and Answers
1. Weld Joint in which the parent materials have significant differences in mechanical properties and/or
chemical composition
A. Homogeneous Joint
B. Dissimilar JOint
C. Heterogeneous Joint
D. None Of These
2. Weld Joint in which the parent material and weld metal have significant differences in mechanical
properties and/or chemical composition
A. Homogeneous Joint
B. Dissimilar Joint
C. Heterogeneous Joint
D. All of These
3. Weld Joint in which the parent material and weld metal have no significant differences in mechanical
properties and/or chemical composition
A. Dissimilar Joint
B. Homogeneous Joint
C. Heterogeneous Joint
D. None Of These
4. The Boundary between the weld metal and HAZ
A. Weld Zone
B. Weld Junction
C. Haz
D. None Of these
5. A butt joint has how many toes?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 0 D. 1
6. Land is term used with?
A. J and U joint
B. Fillet Weld
C. Single V groove
D. All of these
7. Z=1.414 x a, this formula is not valid for which type of fillet weld
A. Mitre type
B. Convex Type
C. Concave Type
D. Valid for all type of fillets
8. Which type of fillet weld is preferred for cyclic loading conditions?
A. Mitre Type
B. Convex Type
C. Concave Type
D. Any of the above
9. For deep penetration fillet welds symbol used for throat thickness is
A. Z
B. A
C. S
D. None of these
10. Actual Throat Thickness of a weld is
A. Design Throat Thickness + Excess weld metal
B. Design Throat Thickness - Excess weld metal
C. Design Throat Thickness
D. None of these
Question- 6
2. BS EN 288 and BS EN ISO 15614 are specifications for?
A. Welder approval testing
B. Welding equipment calibration
C. Welding procedure approval
D. Consumables for submerged arc welding
3. What determines the penetrating power of gammer rays?
A. Time
B. Type of isotope
C. Source-to-film-distance
D. Source strength
4. Which element has the greatest effect on the HAZ hardness of C-Mn steel?
A. Molybdenum
B. Chromium
C. Titanium
D. Carbon
5. Preheating a steel plate with a carbon equivalent (CEV) of 0.48 may be required to:
A. Drive moisture from the plate
B. Prevent excessive hardening in the HAZ
C. Prevent the formation of carbides
D. Improve the mechanical properties of the weld metal
6. A welder approval certificate should be withdrawn if:
A. He has not done any welding for 4 months
B. He has been absent from work for 7 months
C. The repair rate for his work exceeds 1%
D.His work has been examined by UT only
7. In friction welding, the metal at the interface when the joining occurs is describes as being in the:
A. Liquid state
B. Intercritical state
C. Plastic state
D. Elastic state
8. A penertrameter (IQI) is used to measure the:
A. Size of discontinuity in a weld joint
B. Density of a radiographic film
C. Degree of film contrast
D. Quality of the radiographic technique
9. Which of the following cutting methods is suitable for cutting stainless steel?
A. Plasma
B. Oxy-acetylene
C. Oxy-propane
D. It depends upon the thickness.
10. Which of the following would be classed as the most serious type of defect?
A. A buried linear slag inclusion
B. Buried lack of inter-run fusion
C. Surface breaking lack of sidewall fusion
D. Surface porosity
11. Ultrasonic testing has an advantage over other NDT methods for the detection of:
A. Lack of sidewall fusion
B. Root undercut
C. Incompletely filled groove
D.Root concavity
12. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature specified for a C-Mn steel weld joint may give:
A. Excessive porosity
B. Burn through
C. Lower toughness
D. Higher strength
13. MIG/MAG welding has a tendency to give lack of sidewall fusion when:
A. Spray transfer conditions are used
B. 100% CO2 shielding gas is used
C. Pulsed current is used
D. Dip transfer
14. The temperature range over which a steel goes from having high to low toughness is called the:
A. Critical transformation temperature
B. Ductility dip temperature
C. Bi-modal temperature
D. Transition temperature
15. For SAW, what is the effect of raising arc voltage but keeping all other parameters the same?
A. Weld bead width will increase
B. Depth of penetration will increase
C. Weld bead width will decrease
D. Depth of penetration will decrease
16. Changing an essential variable beyond the allowed limits for a qualified welding procedure:
A. May change the mechanical properties of the joint
B. May adversely affect the quality of the weld
C. Will require a new welding procedure to be approved
D. All of the above
17. With reference to the various grades of stainless steels which of the following statements is true?
A. They are all non-magnetic
B. They all require 100% Ar for GMAW
C. They all have very high thermal conductivity
D. Only certain grades can be used for service at very low temperatures
18. Which of the following AWS A5.1 electrodes has a rutile covering:
A. E 6010
B. E 7016
C. E 7018
D. E 6013
19. Welds made with very high heat input will show a reduction in:
A. Tensile ductility
B. Notch toughness
C. Fatigue strength
D. Creep resistance
20. During PWHT of a complex fabrication, it is heated to the soak temperature at a much faster rate than
specified by the procedure. This may:
A. Cause excessive oxidation
B. Not allow sufficient time to relieve stresses
C. Introduce excessive compressive stresses
D. Cause distortion
21. When MAG welding in dip transfer (a short-circuiting mode) spatter can be reduced by:
A. Using inductance
B. Using 100%CO2
C. Using Ar +30% He
D. Increasing the stick-out length
22. Repair welding of in-service plant and equipment may be more difficult than making repairs during initial
fabrication because:
A. The material may be contaminated
B. Access to repair area may be difficult
C. Positional welding may be needed
D. All of the above
23. For gamma ray radiography of a steel weld at 35mm thickness, the recommended isotope is:
A. Thulium 170
B. Ytterbium 169
C. Iridium 192
D. Cobalt 60
24. The sensitivity of a radiograph is assessed:
A. By using a densitometer
B. By using an image quality indicator (IQI)
C. From the KVA used
D. From the source/tube to work standoff distance used
25. A transverse tensile test from a Weld Procedure Approval Record (WPAR) test plate is used to measure:
A. Tensile strength of the weld
B. Tensile strength of the joint
C. Stress/strain characteristics of the weld
D. Stress/strain characteristics of the joint
26. The highest and lowest heat input positions are considered to be:
A. PB highest; PA lowest.
B. PE highest; PC lowest.
C. PD highest; PB lowest.
D. PF highest; PG lowest.
27.What type of covering will an electrode have that is suitable for welding 60mm C-Mn steel and can give
good weld metal toughness at -50ºC?
A. Rutile
B. Basic
C. Cellulosic
D. Choice will depend on the welding position
28. The dip transfer or short-circuiting mode of metal transfer used for MIG/MAG welding is characterized
by:
A. Giving deep penetration
B. Being suitable for positional welding
C. Giving low spatter
D. Giving high deposition
29. Carbon equivalent values (CEV) are used to determine how to avoid the risk of:
A. Hydrogen cracking
B. Lamellar tearing
C. Solidification cracking
D. Weld decay
30. When two different material types are welded together the joint is referred to as:
A. A composite joint
B. A transition joint
C. An autogenous weld
D. Heterogeneous joint
Question – 7
1. The basic electrical requirement in arc welding is that there should be
A. Coated electrodes
B. High open-circuit voltage
C. No arc blow
D. Dc power supply
2. Welding is not done directly from the supply mains because
A. It is customary to use welding machines
B. Its voltage is too high
C. Its voltage keeps fluctuating
D. It is impractical to draw heavy currents
3. AC welding machine cannot be used for ____ welding.
A. MIG
B. Atomic hydrogen
C. Resistance
D. Submerged arc
4. In electrical welding, arc blow can be avoided by
A. Using bare electrodes
B. Welding away from earth ground connection
C. Using ac welding machines
D. Increasing arc length
5. In DCSP welding
A. Electrode is the hottest
B. Workpiece is relatively cooler
C. Base metal penetration is deep
D. Heavily-coated electrodes are used
6. Overhead welding position is thought to be the most ______.
A. Hazardous
B. Difficult
C. Economical
D. Useful
7. The ultimate aim of using electrode coating is to
A. Prevent atmospheric contamination
B. Improve bead quality
C. Cleanse the base metal
D. Provide shieding to weld pool
8. In electrode-positive welding, _____ of the total heat is produced at the electrode.
A. One-third
B. Two-third
C. One-half
D. One-fourth
9. Submerged arc process is characterized by
A. Deep penetration
B. High welding current
C. Exceptionally smooth beads
D. All of the above
10. The major disadvantage of carbon arc welding is that
A. There is occurence of blow holes
B. Electrodes are consumed fast
C. Separate filler rod is needed
D. Bare electrodes are necessary
11. . In atomic hydrogen welding, electrodes are long lived because
A. Two are used at a time
B. Arc is in the shape of a fan
C. Ac supply is used
D. it is a non-pressure process
12. Unlike TIG welding, MIG welding
A. Requires no flux
B. Uses consumable electrodes
C. Provides complete protection from atmospheric contamination
D. Requires no post-weld cleansing
13. The major power supply used in MIG welding is
A. Ac supply
B. DCSP
C. Electrode-negative
D. DCRP
14. MIG welding process is becoming increasingly popular in welding industry mainly because of
A. Its easy operation
B. Its high metal deposit rate
C. Its use in both ferrous and non-ferrous metals
D. Both its easy operation and its high metal deposit rate
15. A weld bead of wineglass design is produced in _____ welding.
A. Plasma arc
B. Laser
C. Electron beam
D. MAG
16. Spot welding process basically depends on
A. Ohmic resistance
B. Generation of heat
C. Application of forging pressure
D. Generation of heat and application of forging pressure
17. Electric resistance seam welding uses _____ electrodes.
A. Pointed
B. Disc
C. Flat
D. Domed
18. Projection welding can be regarded as a mass production form of ______ welding.
A. Seam
B. Butt
C. Spot
D. Upset
19. In the process of electroslag welding, theoretically there is no upper limit to the
A. Thickness of weld lead
B. Rate of metal deposit
C. Slag bath-temperature
D. Rate of slag consumption
20. High temperature metals like columbium can be easily welded by _____ welding.
A. Flash
B. MIG
C. TIG
D. Electron beam
Question -8
1. Potential hazards relating to arc welding are
A. Radiation
B. Fumes
C. Toxic gases
D. All of the above
2. When using a fire extinguisher to extinguish a fire, it should be
A.Pointed at the base of the fire
B. Moved up and down to cool the flames
C. Pointed at the top of the fire
D. Held within six (6) inches of the flames
3. What type of fire extinguisher should be used on electrical fires?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. TypeC
D. Type D
4. What are the initials of the federal organization created to insure safe and sanitary working conditions for
employees?
A. FAA
B. IRS
C. FDA
D. OSHA
5. The maximum safe working pressure for Acetylene is
A. 10 psi.
B. 15 psi.
C. 20 psi.
D. 32 psi.
6. Vaporized metals, such as zinc, cadmium, lead, chromium and beryllium
A. Are hazardous
B. Can be ignored
C. Are highly flammable
D. May cause slag inclusions
7. Fuel gas hoses are usually colored
A. Green
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Yellow
8. Flash burn is
A. Another name for a severe sunburn
B. A burn caused by the welding arc coming in contact with bare skin
C. A bum to the eye caused by exposure to ultraviolet light from the welding arc
D. Damage to equipment and clothing due to the extreme heat of the welding arc
9. One should never enter a welding shop without wearing
A.Gloves
B. Safety glasses
C. A welding helmet
D. Welding leathers
10. What should one never use on gas cylinders, regulators, connections and hoses?
A.Wrenches
B. Teflon tape
C. Leak detectors
D. Oil
11. One should never cut or weld directly against
A. Cast iron
B. Concrete
C.A workbench
D. A non-flammable surface
12. One should never operate arc welding equipment while
A. Standing on wet or damp floors
B. In poorly lighted areas
C. Someone is standing near by
D. In a confined area with proper ventilation
13. A burn that causes the skin to blister is referred to as a
A. First degree burn
B. Second degree burn
C. Third degree burn
D. Fourth degree burn
14. The selection of a correct lens shade number depends on the
A. Brightness of the sun in the area
B. Type of shielding gas being used
C. Amount of welding current being used
D. Filler metal being used
15. Federal regulation requires that hazardous information about a product be provided to all users of that
product. The form used to provide this information is called a(n)
A. Information Form (IF)
B. Hazardous Information Sheet (HIS)
C. Occupational Safety and Hazard Form (OSHF)
D. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
16. Which of the following is the only acceptable method for lighting oxyfuel torches?
A. Matches
B. Cigarette lighter
C. Welding arc
D. Striker
17. Areas that have less than__________ cubic feet per welder, or that have ceilings less than 16 feet high,
require forced ventilation.
A. 8,000
B. 4,000
C. 10,000
D. 12,000
18. A confined space is one that
A. Has a flammable atmosphere
B. Has unrestricted means of entry or exit for employees
C. Is designed for continuous employee occupancy
D. Is large enough that a person can enter and perform tasks
19. A Hot Work Permit
A. Authorizes the performance of work potentially posing a fire hazard
B. Promotes the development of standard fire safety guidelines
C. Records unsafe conditions at a job site
D. Helps the manager keep records of hazardous spaces
20. While welding, ventilation should be placed as close to the fume source as practical.
A. True
B. False
21. Because of the low amount of ultraviolet light present, it is not necessary to use shaded lenses when oxy-
fuel cutting.
A. True
B. False
22. Long hair, loose-fitting clothes, and ties are personal safety hazards around rotating equipment.
A. True
B. False
23. A butane or propane cigarette lighter is safe around welding equipment as long as it is kept in one's
pocket.
A. True
B. False
24. A fully charged oxygen cylinder contains approximately 225 psi at 70° F.
A. True
B.False
25.Safety glasses are not required when welding with the helmet down.
A. True
B.False
26. Skin contact with liquid oxygen can cause frostbite.
A. True
B. False
27. Gas cylinders must be chained or secured at all times.
A. True
B. False
28. Oxygen cylinders should never be stored with flammable gases such as acetylene cylinders.
A. True
B. False
29. In order to maintain production, it is acceptable to operate welding equipment beyond its rated capacity.
A. True
B. False
30. When not in use, an electrode holder, GTAW torch or MIG gun should not be placed in contact with a
grounded metal surface.
A. True
B. False
31. Acetylene cylinders should never be operated while lying on their side because acetone could be drawn
into the valve, regulator and hoses.
A. True
B. False
32. One should never touch an electrode to a metal surface other than the workpiece because those surfaces
may become electrically live.
A. True
B. False
33. ANSI Z49.1 allows oxygen to be used as a substitute for compressed air when necessary.
A. True
B.False
34. Burns are some of the most common and painful injuries in a welding shop.
A. True
B. False
35. Fuel gas fittings are equipped with lef hand threads.
A. True
B. False
36. Of the following, which is not a requirement for the SMAW process?
A. Electricity
B. Gas supply
C. Base metal
D. Filler metal
37. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about an E7018 electrode?
A. Once opened, it should be kept in an electrode oven.
B. The weld deposit has a minimum tensile strength of 70,000 psi.
C. It is suitable for use in the flat and horizontal fillet positions only.
D. It is suitable for use in all positions.
E. It is a low hydrogen electrode.
38. The distance from the molten tip of the SMAW electrode to the surface of the molten weld pool should
be
A. One electrode diameter
B. Open circuit voltage
C. Ignition length
D. Arc current
39. In the SMAW process, as arc length increases, current (amperage)
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains relatively constant
D. First increases then decreases
E. First decreases then increases
40. Which one of the following electrodes is not suitable for use in all positions?
A. E6010
B. E6011
C. E7018
D. E7024
E. E7048
41. Which of the following electrodes would you select to produce a weld with shallow penetration?
A. E6010
B. E6011
C. E6013
D. E7018
42. An engine-driven generator without a rectifier produces what form of welding current?
A. AC only
B. DC only
C. Both AC and DC
D.AC and DCEP
43. Which of the following group of electrodes is low hydrogen type?
A. 7024, 7027, and 7028
B. 6010 and 6011
C. 6012, 6013, and 7014
D. 7015, 7016 and 7018
44. "Arc blow" is caused by
A. Strong winds
B. Magnetic forces
C. Too high an amperage for the size of the electrode
D. Too low an amperage for the size of the electrode
45. "Duty cycle" is a term used to indicate the
A. Amount of time a machine is used each day at maximum output
B. Percentage of time a machine can operate at maximum in a 10-minute period
C. Type of work duty the machine was designed to do by the manufacturer
D. Length of time required to cycle
46. When DCEP is used, direction of current flows
A. From the work to the electrode
B. From the electrode to the work
C. Both to and from the electrode
D. Depending on the electrode being used
47. Which of the following welding cable sizes is the largest?
A. #1/0
B.#2
C. #1
D. #2/0
48. Rectifiers are noted for their ability to
A. Control welding power
B.Reduce spatter
C.Change AC to DC current
D. Eliminate arc blow
49. When referring to standard Alternating Current in North America, the current changes direction
A.Once per second
B. 60 times per second
C. 120 times per second
D. Every 1/240th of a second
50. In order to reduce waste and control cost, you should weld until the electrode is
A. One half inch from the core wire
B. Down to the core wire
C. Four (4) inches form the core wire
D. Down to the classification numbers
51. In GMAW, the shielding for the molten metal is accomplished through the use of
A. Granular flux
B. Inert and reactive gases
C. Reactive gases only
D. Inert gases only
52. GMAW is the abbreviation for?
A.Gas Machine Arc Welding
B. Gas Method Arc Welding
C. Gas Material Arc Welding
D.Gas Metal Arc Welding
53. In GMAW, insufficient gas flow can cause?
A. Undercut
B. Overlap
C. Porosity
D. Hydrogen cracking
54. A worn contact tube results in
A. Poor arc starts
B. Ropey welds
C. Excessive spatter
D. Porosity
55. The benefit of copper coated electrode wires is
A.Better arc starts
B. Increased contact tip life
C. Improved wire feeding
D. All of the above
56. What type of power source is used for GMAW?
A. Constant Current
B. Alternating Current
C. Variable Voltage
D. Constant Voltage
57. What type of electrode wire is used with GMAW?
A. Flux cored
B. Solid
C. Tubular
D. None of the above
58. In GMAW, the amperage is controlled by adjusting the
A. Voltage
B. Wire feed speed
C. Wattage
D. Arc length
59. In GMAW, electrode extension is defined as the distance from the
A. Nozzle the molten weld pool
B. End of the contact tube to the molten weld pool
C. Tip of the wire to the molten weld pool
D. End of the contact tube to the tip of the wire
60. Which AWS electrode classification is correct for GMAW wire?
A. ER70S-3
B. E70S-6
C. E70-S3
D. E71T-1
61. Which of the following is considered an advantage of the GMAW process?
A. Higher deposition rates than manual processes
B. Easy to use compared to manual processes
C.Less electrode waste than with SMAW
D. All of the above
62. Electric current is transferred to the electrode through the
A. Gun cable liner
B. Contact tube
C. Wire feed rolls
D. Gas diffuser
63. The contact tube should be
A. Sized to match the wire diameter
B. Slightly smaller than the wire diameter
C. 1-1/2 times larger than the wire diameter
D. 2 times larger than the wire diameter
64. What does the 70 indicate in the electrode classification ER70S-3?
A. Trade name
B. Tensile Strength
C. Yield Strength
D. Hardness
65. Excessive amounts of weld spatter in the nozzle may cause
A. Lack of fusion
B. Undercutting
C. Poor shielding
D. Longitudinal cracks
66. Which of the following is not an advantage of the GMAW process?
A. Higher deposition rates
B. Relatively easy process for a beginner to learn
C. Can be used to weld ferrous and nonferrous metals
D. Good for use in windy areas
67. Which shielding gas or gas mixture is most ofen used for welding carbon steel with the short-circuiting
transfer mode?
A. 100% Argon
B. 10% Carbon dioxide, 90% Helium
C. 98% Argon, 2% Oxygen
D. 75% Argon, 25% Carbon Dioxide
68. The chemical symbol for tungsten is
A. T
B. Tu
C. W
D. L
E. Tg
69. How long should the post purge (shielding gas) be allowed to flow afer the welding arc is broken?
A. Stop at the same time the arc is broken
B. Long enough to allow the electrode to cool
C. At least one minute afer the arc is broken
D. Long enough to allow the base metal to cool
E. Long enough to allow the base metal and electrode to cool
70. When using GTAW to weld Aluminum with Alternating Current (AC), the tip of the tungsten electrode
should be
A. Tapered
B. Tapered with the end slightly blunted
C. Rounded at the tip
D. Ground at right angles to the grain of the electrode
71. Alternating Current (AC) is used for welding aluminum because
A. It produces deeper penetration than Direct Current
B. Of the cleaning action and medium penetration of the arc
C. AC power is more cost effective than DC power
D. Aluminum conducts AC better than DC
E. DCEP produces too much penetration on aluminum
72. Which of the following methods is used to start the GTAW arc without touching the base metal?
A. Touch start
B. High frequency start
C. Pulse start
D. Lif start
E. Scratch start
73. High Frequency current is added to Alternating Current to
A. Maintain the arc
B. Prevent distortion
C. Provide cleaning action
D. Refine the grain structure of the weld
74. The shielding gas most commonly used for welding low carbon steel with GTAW is
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Argon
C. Helium
D. A mix of Argon and Helium
75. To remove the oxide layer from aluminum prior to welding you should
A. Brush the weld joint with a steel brush
B. Brush the weld joint with a stainless steel brush
C. Wipe the weld joint with a dry, clean rag
D. Aluminum oxides normally do not require removal
76. Tungsten is used for GTAW electrodes because it has which of the following properties?
A. High melting point
B. Low electrical resistance
C. Good heat conductivity
D. High electron emission
E. All of the above
77. The voltage present when the welding machine power switch is in the ON position, but no welding is
taking place is called
A. Open-circuit voltage
B. Operating voltage
C. Arc voltage
D. High frequency voltage
78. Filler metal with an AWS classification of ER4043 is used to weld
A. Carbon Steel
B. Stainless Steel
C. Aluminum
D. Copper
79. Filler metal with an AWS classification of ER70S-X is used to weld
A. Carbon Steel
B. Stainless Steel
C. Aluminum
D. Copper
80. What is the term for the width of the cut produced by any cutting process?
A. Drag line
B. Kerf
C. Wraparound
D. Slag
81. The maximum recommended safe working pressure for Acetylene is
A. 10 pounds per square inch
B. 15 pounds per square inch
C. 20 pounds per square inch
D. 32 pounds per square inch
82. Which oxyacetylene flame has an excess of fuel?
A. Oxidizing
B. Neutral
C. Carburizing
D. None of the above
83. The oxyfuel process uses oxygen and what other types of gases?
A. Inert Gases
B. Reactive Gases
C. Mixed gases
D. Flammable gases
84. What type of thread and color are fuel gases fittings?
A. Right hand - Red
B. Lef hand-Red
C. Right hand - Green
D. Lef hand - Green
85. While cutting with acetylene, the oxygen working pressure is
A. Greater than the acetylene working pressure
B. Equal to the acetylene working pressure
C. Less that the acetylene working pressure
D. A constant 20 pounds per square inch
Question – 9
In which welding process is it possible to change from Constant Voltage to Constant Current?
A. Manual Metal Arc - MMA
B. Tungsten Inert Gas TIG
C. Submerged Arc Welding - MAG
D. Metal Active Gas - MAG
Manual metal arc electrodes, stripped of flux, are being used as filler wire for TIG welding. You would object
because:
A. The wire would be too thick
B. The wire is too short
C. It is too expensive
D. The weld metal composition may be wrong
The steel composition in a structural contract is changed form 0.15% carbon, 0.6% manganese to 0.2%
carbon, 1.2% manganese. Might this influence the incidence of:
A. Undercut for fillet welds
B. Cracking in the weld area
C. Lack of root fusion defects
D. Porosity
Bend test specimens have been taken from a 25mm thick carbon steel butt weld. Which would show lack of
inter-run fusion:
A. Face Bend
B. Guided Bend
C. Root bend
D. Side bend
Lamellar tearing has occurred in a steel fabrication. Before welding could it have been found by:
A. Dye penetrant
B. Ultrasonic inspection
C. It would not have been found by any inspection method
D. X-ray examination
Spatter may be finely controlled during MIG / MAG welding by:
A. Increasing the arc voltage
B. Adjusting the inductance control
C. Welding with no gas
D. Using CO2 gas
Fatigue testing is used to test welds:
A. Under creep stress loading
B. Under cyclic loading
C. Under tensile loading
D. Under dynamic loading
If a welder is found to be working outside the parameters of the procedure the welding inspector is within
his rights to revoke his approval?
A. True
B. False
If pipe bores are not matched correctly it can result in:
A. Overheating during welding.
B. Excessive root faces.
C. Incorrect gap setting.
D. Lack of root penetration.
Quenching a carbon or low alloy steel will result in an [Blank] in hardness and a [Blank] in ductility.
The property of a metal to return to its original shape is called [Blank].
Select the correct welding process:
A.MMA
B. MIG / MAG
C. TIG
D. SAW
Select the correct MMA welding rod:
A. Cellulosic
B. Rutile
C. Basic
D. Rutile High Recovery
The most common type of defect found in a structure when it is undergoing service is:
A. Crystallisation.
B. Fatigue cracking.
C. Weld decay.
D. Stress fracture.
Which of the following elements has the greater effect on the hardenability of a steel plate?
A. Sulphur
B. Molybdenum
C. Carbon
D. Chromium
You have a macro section of a 'T' butt joint that shows a step-like defect lying outside the visible HAZ. What
would this defect possibly signify?
A. HAZ cracking.
B. Toe cracking.
C. Lamellar tearing.
D. Lamination.
When weld metal refinement takes place in a multi-run deposit, it is known by the term:
A. Weld annealing
B. Weld normalising
C. Weld refining
D. Weld recrystallisation
Proof stress is used when non-ferrous metals are undergoing tensile tests to determine the equivalent Yield
strength
A. True
B. False
A welder qualification test is to verify:
A. The quality of the materials
B. The non-destructive test procedures
C. The skill of the welder
D. The manufacturing methods
Which of the following defects would you not expect to find by visual inspection of welds?
A. Overlap.
B. Linear misalignment.
C. Linear slag inclusions.
D. Undercut.
Welder qualification tests are designed to:
A. Test the correctness of the welding procedure.
B. Test the welder's skill.
C. Prove the weldability of the parent material.
D. All the above.
Which physical test is more likely to reveal HAZ embrittlement?
A. Transverse tensile.
B. All weld tensile.
C. Root bend.
D. Charpy impact.
Sulphur and phosphorus are not alloying elements; they are [Blank].
Which gas shroud should be used when tungsten arc gas shielded welding aluminium alloys?
A. Nitrogen.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Argon/carbon dioxide mixture.
D. Argon.
Which of the following coatings is associated with stove welding?
A. Rutile
B. Basic
C. Cellulosic
D. Oxidising
The tough laminated structure that is formed on slow cooling of ferrite and iron carbide (cementite) is called
_______.
A. Austenite
B. Martenesite
C.Pearlite
D. Trootsite
An Izod impact machine is used to give indication of the _______ of a material.
A. Hardness
B. Tensile Strength
C. Ductility
D. Yield Strength

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