ECOLOGY

1. Ecology deals with the study of:

A. Living things
B. Living and non-living components
C. Reciprocal relationship between living and non-living
D. Environment
2. Definition of ecosystem is
A. The community of organisms together with the environment in which
they live
B. The abiotic component of a habitat
C. The part of the earth and it’s atmosphere which inhibits living organisms
D. A community of organisms interacting with one another.
3. In a food chain of grassland ecosystem the top consumers are
A. Herbivorous
B. Carnivorous
C. Bacteria
D. Either carnivorous or herbivorous
4. The energy flow in ecosystem is
A. Unidirectional
B. Bidirectional
C. Multidirectional
D. None of these
5. Which one is true?
A. Symbiosis when neither population affects each other
B. Symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the populations
C. Commensalism when none of the interacting populations affect each other
D. Commensalism when the interaction is useful is useful to both the
populations.
6. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in
A. Mutualism
B. Intraspecific competition
C. Interspecific competition
D. Predation on one another
7. Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example for
A. Mutualism
B. Parasitism
C. Amensalism
D. commensalism
8. Penicillin does not swallow the growth bacterium Staphylococcus. This sort
example of relationship called__.
A. Commensalism
B. Predation
C. Amensalism
 D. Mutualism
9. Symbiosis is shown by
A. E. coli
B. Cuscuta
C. Rafflesia
D. Monotropa
10. Which of the following interactions will not promote co-evolution?
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Interspecific competition
11. The final stable community in an ecological succession is called
A. Final community
B. Ultimate community
C. Climax community
D. Serial community
12. The process of successful establishment of the species in a new area is called
A. Sere
B. Climax
C. Invasion
D. Ecesis
13. The order of basic processes involved in succession is
A. Nudation----invasion---- competition and co-action ---reaction ---
stabilization
B. Nudation--- stabilization—competition and co-action---invasion—reaction
C. Invasion—Nudation—competition and co-action--- reaction- stabilization
D. Invasion—stabilization—competition and co-action—reaction—nudation
14. Organisms having the potential to interbreeding and producing fertile offspring is
called
A. Class
B. Order
C. Genus
D. Species
15. The maintenance of relatively constant internal environment is called
A. Homeostasis
B. Exotherms
C. Homeobox
D. Endotherms
16. Ultraviolet radiation, which is not lethal but harm to the organism, is
A. 0.2 to 0.28 um
B. 0.28- 0.32 um
C. 0.32-0.4um
D. 0.4-0.5um
17. Ecological niche of an organism represents
A. The resource it utilizes
B. Functional role in the ecological system
C. The range of conditions that it can tolerate
D. All of these

18. the gradual physiological adjustment to slowly changing new environment

conditions is known as
A. Selection
B. Introduction
C. Acclimation
D. Quarantine
19. The upper layer of water in a single body of water in known as
A. Hypolimnion
B. Epilimnion
C. Thermocline
D. Hydroline
20. The lower limit of water availability in soil is known as
A. Filed capacity
B. Hypolimnion
C. Thermocline
D. Wilting point
21. What is the animal symbol of W.W.F (World Wilf Fund)?
A. Red panda
B. Giant panda
C. Tiger
D. Kangaroo
22. The most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife, is
A. Pollution of wildlife
B. Hunting for valuable wildlife products
C. Introduction of alien species
D. Alteration and destruction of natural habitats
23. When is the World Wild week?
A. First week of September
B. Last week of September
C. First week of October
D. Last week of October
24. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered
species?
A. Mammals
B. Fishes
C. Birds
 D. Reptiles
25. The unfavorable alteration of environment due to human activities is termed as
A. Ecological catastrophe
B. Catastrophe
C. Ecological degradation
D. Pollution
26. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution?
A. Bryophyte
B. Pteridophyte
C. Lichen
D. Algae
27. Heavy dust can cause
A. Leaf blights
B. Opening of stomata
C. Closure of stomata
D. Browning of leaves
28. Which of the following is the major cause of pollution
A. Plants
B. Man
C. Fungi
D. Hydrocarbon gases
29. Minimata disease was caused by pollution of water by
A. Mercury
B. Lead
C. Tin
D. Methyl iso cyanate
30. 5th of June is observed as
A. World forest day
B. World environment day
C. World wildlife day
D. World population day
31. Cement factory laborers are prone to
A. Leukemia
B. bone marrow disease
C. asbestosis
D. cytosilicosis
32. Noise is measured using sound meter and the unit is
A. Hertz
B. Decibel
C. Joule
D. Sound
33. The carrying capacity of population is determined by its
A. Population growth rate
 B. Natality
C. Mortality
D. Limiting resources
34. The major pollutant automobile exhaust is
A. NO
B. CO
C. SO2
D. Soot
35. The major greenhouse gases, otherwise called radioactively gases includes :
A. Carbon dioxide
B. CH4
C. N2O
D. All of the above
36. Which of the following levels of organization is arrange in correct sequence from
most to least inclusive?
A. Community, ecosystem, individual, population
B. Ecosystem, community, population, individual
C. Population, ecosystem, individual, community
D. Individual, population, community, ecosystem
37. What is probably the most important factor affecting the distribution of biomes?
A. Wind and water currents
B. Species diversity
C. Climate
D. Day length and rainfall
38. Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic
rates of plants and animals?
A. Water C. temperature
B. Wind D. disturbances
39. Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate
amounts of rainfall?
A. Tropical rainforest C. taiga
B. Chaparral D. savanna
40. An owl and a hawk both eat mice. Which of these terms describes the
relationship between, hawk, and owl?
A. Predation C. Competition
B. Parasitism D. Mutualism
41. What are you acting as when you eat a cabbage/
A. Producer
B. Primary consumer
C. Secondary consumer
D. Tertiary consumer
For number 42-43 please refer to the diagram below
1 2 3

42. Which species is autotrophic?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
43. Which species is most likely the decomposer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
44. Excluding the decomposer, for which species would biomass would probably be
smallest.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
45. Carbon dioxide traps heat and warms the atmosphere, what effect is this known
as.
A. Warming
B. Carbon
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Greenhouse

46. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of population?

A. Sex ratio
B. Natality
C. Mortality
D. Stratification
47. Which decade has been designed as the Decade of Biodiversity “ by United
Nations?
A. 2021-2030
B. 2011-2020
C. 2001-2010
D. 1991-2000
48. Decomposers which specifically act on the fecal matter of other organisms are
called as:
A. Heterophagic
B. Allophagic
C. Coprophagic
D. Paraphagic

49. In a pond ecosystem, the top area where the production is greater than
respiration ( P/R >1 ) is termed as:
A. Limnetic zone
B. Profundal zone
C. Benthic Zone
D. Tidal Zone

50. Which of the following bacteria is NOT involved in the nitrification process during
nitrogen cycle?
A. Nitrosomonas
B. Nitococcus
 C. Bacillus ramosus
D. Nitrospira
51. Which of the following is a ” K” selected species?
A. grass
B. Aspergillus
C. Human
D. Taraxacum
52. Which of the following is NOT a denitrifying bacteria
A. Thiobacillus
B. Psuedomonas aeruginosa
C. Thiobacillus denitrificans
D. Bacillus ramosus

53. The energy flow in an ecosystem is:

A. In any direction
B. Always unidirectional
C. Always bi-directional
D. Always down-directional
54. The term ‘ allelopathy” describe :
A. Inhibition of the sporulation of pathogen by the host
B. Inhibition of growth of one species by another by producing toxins
C. Inhibiting the growth of one species by another by preventing reproduction
D. Altering the reproductive cycle of one organism by another
55. The ratio between energy flow at different points along the food chain is called:12
A. Ecological efficiency
B. Ecological capacity
C. Ecological-potential
D. Ecological assimilation
56. Species with wide geographical ranges which develop locally adapted
populations are known as:13
A. Ecological species
B. ecotypes
C. Ecophenes
D. Sub-species

57. Lincoln Index is used to measure : 14

A. Population size
B. Population mortality rate
C. Population natality rate
D. Population density
58. The ability of a population of living species to increase under ideal environmental
conditions is called:
A. Biotic potential
B. Carrying capacity
C. Natality
D. Absolute natality
59. The population of a widely distributed species gets into two subpopulation due to
the appearance of a mountain barrier. eventually these subpopulation evolve two
separate species, this is a case of :
A. Allopatric speciation
B. Parapatric speciation
C. Peripatric speciation
D. Sympatric speciation

60. At the mid-latitude, which of the following is associated with hot dry summer and
cool rainy winter?
A. Boreal Forests
B. Chapparal Forests
C. Temperate Broadleaf Deciduous Forests
D. Temperate Grassland
61 . Q.2 If serum is removed from the growth medium of human embryonic kidney cell
line (HEK) then the cells will
A. proliferate faster
B. proliferate normally
C. undergo cell cycle arrest
D. undergo immediate apoptosis
62. Which one of the following techniques is use to monitor RNA transcripts, both
temporally and spatially?
A. Northern blotting
B. In situ hybridization
C. Southern blotting
D. Western blotting
63. Which of the following microorganisms leach metals out of rock ores and can
accumulate silver?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Thiobacillus
C. Pseudomonas putida
D. Zoogloea ramigera
64. Which of the protein is involved in Alzheimer's disease?
A. A4

B. Amylin

C. Fibrin

D. Alzhemin
65. Which of the modification in hemoglobin is the cause of sickle cell anemia?

A. A mutation in the beta chain

B. A deletion in the beta chain
C. Replacement of the B chain by D chain
D. None of the above
66. Klinefelter syndrome is a manifestation of which chromosome aneuploidy?
A. XXX
B. XYY
C. XXY
D. None of these
67. DNA staining is done by:
A. crystal violet
B. Geimsa staining
C. Methylene blue
D. Feulgen staining
68. Use of alkaline phosphate is to
A. remove terminal phosphates from 3 end
B. remove terminal phosphates from 5 end
C. remove terminal phosphates from both end
D. All of these
69. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its:
A. low thermal stability
B. high fidelity
C. high speed
D. High thermal stability
70. Introduction of recombinant DNA into bacterial cell by using current is called:
A. transformation
B. Electroporation
C. transportation
D. transduction
 71. Plant biotecnology involves
A. Production of valuable products in plants
B. Repid clonal multiplication of desired genotypes
C. Production of virus free plants
D. All of these
72. The most common solidifying agent in micropropagation is
A. Agar
B. dextran
C. mannan
D. All of these
73. The culturing of cells in liquid agitated medium is called
A. Liquid culture
B. micropropagation
C. agar culture
D. Suspension culture
74. Which of the following is best suited method for production of virus free
plants
A. embryo culture
B. meristem culture
C. ovule cullture
D. anther culture

75. All are plant derived except:

A. menthol
B. nicotine
C. quinine
D. codeine
76. The variation in invitro culture is called as
A. invitro variation
B. mutation
C. somacional variation
D. all of these
77. Haploid plants are produced in large numbers by:
A. anther culture
B. ovary culture
C. both A and B
D. embryo culture

‘
78. Animal biotechnology involves
A. production of valuable products in animal using rDNA technology
B. rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes
C. alteration of genes to make it more desirable
D. all of these

79. Animal cell are used widely for the production of

A. insulin
B. somatostatin
C. mabs
D. thyroxine
80. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was
A. Hepatitis B vaccine
B. Influenza vaccine
C. Small pox vaccine
D. Polio Vaccine
81. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell cultures
A. interferon
B. mab
C. vaccines
D. all of these
82. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was
A. Primate Kidney cell line
B. CHO cell line
C. Dog kidney cell line
D. Mouse fibroblast cell line
83. Recombinant proteins are
A. Proteins synthesized in animals
B. Proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by DNA technology
C. Proteins synthesized in cells that are produced by protoplast fusion
D. Proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines
84. Interferons are
A. anti-bacterial proteins
B. Anti-viral proteins
C. Bacteriostatic proteins
D. All of these
85. The virus commonly used to infect cell cultures for the production of interferon is
A. Corona virus
B. sendai virus
C. poliovirus
D. Small poxvirus
86. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and
production of animals with a desirable genotype is
A. protoplast fusion and embryo transfer
B. hybrid selection and embryo transfer
C. in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
D. all of these
87. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an animal is called
A. gene cloning
B. Animal cloning
C. cell cloning
D. All of these
88. the first successfully animal was
A. Monkey
B. gibbon
C. sheep
D. rabbit
89. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was
popularly called as
A. In vitro babies
B. test tube babies
C. in vitro- in vivo babies
D. all of these

90. Two bacteria most useful in genetic engineering are

A. Rhizobium and Azobacter
B. Nitrosomonas and Klebsilla
C. Escherichia and Agrobacterium
D. Rhizobium and Diplococcus