400 101 2

400-101-2
Number: 000-000
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
Sections
1. Drag and Drop
2. Single Select
3. Multiple Select
QUESTION 1
Which two statements about migrating a network from pvst+ to rapid pvst+ are true? (Choose two)
A. Core switches must be migrated before the access layer switches

B. Because rapid-PVST+ is backward-incompatible with PVST+, all switches on the network must be
migrated at once in a single maintenance window
C. Access layer switches must be migrated before the core switches
D. If the LAN runs in mixed mode automatically during the migration, convergence time is less than when
all switches are in PVST+ mode
E. Root guard and BPDU guard are disabled automatically during the migration
F. UplinkFast and BackboneFast are disabled automatically during the migration
Correct Answer: CF
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which command must you configure on a device so it can establish an IPv6-in-IPv4 IPSec tunnel?
A. vrf context vrf-name

B. mpls ip
C. ip cef
D. ipv6 unicast-routing
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Refer to exhibit. If a DHCP server has generated the given debug output, which two statements about the
network enironment are true?
A. Client 0050.4332 has been assigned an IP address on the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet

B. The DHCP server received a DHCPREQUEST from a client whose ID ends in 4574.302f.30
C. The DHCP pool for the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet is configured incorrectly
D. The DHCP server receives discover messages through a relay agent
E. The DHCP server assigned PC2 an address from the 10.10.3.0/24 subnet
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
R1#sh ip eigrp top all
IP-EIGRP Topology Table for AS (192.168.13.1)
Codes: P - Passive, A - Active, U - Update, Q- Query, R - Reply,
r - reply Status, s - sia Status
P 10.0.0.0/8, 1 successors, FD is 3586560, serno 8
via 192.168.1.5 (3586560/3074560), Serial0/0
via 192.168.13.3 (409600/128256), FastEthernet0/1
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true.
A. The neighbors fail to meet the feasibility condition.

B. The reporting distance for the feasible successor is 49000
C. The reporting distance for the successor is 409600
D. The reported distance is too small to support a feasible successor route
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which two statements about AT0M are true? (Choose two)
A. When using AToM, the IP precedence field is not copied to the MPLS packet
B. It provides support for L2VPN features on ATM interfaces
C. It encapsulates Layer 2 frames at the egress PE
D. AToM supports connecting different L2 technologies using internetworking option
E. The loopback address of the PE router must be either /24 or /32
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
What are the two types of Embedded Event Manager policies?
A. action
B. event
C. script
D. applet
E. set
F. label
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which traffic-monitoring class allows PfR to run on platforms with limited border-router functionality?
A. passive monitoring
B. contained monitoring
C. fast failover monitoring
D. special monitoring
E. active monitoring
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit SW1 and SW2 are connected to routers R1 and R2 via their L2 trunk ports. Which
command can you enter on the switches to allow the hosts on VLAN 20 to join the multicast group
239.10.10.10 via the upstream L2 ports?
A. ip igmp snooping vlan 20 mrouter interface gigabitethernet0/0

B. ip igmp snooping vlan 20 static 239.10.10.10 interface gigabitethernet0/0
C. igmp snooping querier 239.10.10.10
D. ip igmp snooping vlan 20 mrouter learn cgmp
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which two statements about IGMP filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It supports IGMPv3 join messages.

B. By default, an interface can join a maximum of 4 IGMP groups
C. It supports general IGMP Queries
D. It can be configured on SVIs and on a per-port basis
E. Multicast profiles can be configured to filter multicast joins
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting the failure of two devices to establish an IPSec tunnel, you
generated the given debug output on R2. What is the most likely reason the tunnel failed?
A. Main mode processing failed on the peer

B. Main mode processing failed on R2
C. The ACLs are mismatched on the devices
D. R2 was unable to connect to the peer
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which Queuing strategy ignores packet markings?
A. WFQ
B. CBWFQ
C. CQ
D. LLQ
E. FIFO
F. WRED
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which two statements about 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two)
A. They allow isolated IPv6 domains to connect over an IPv4 network

B. The IPv4 infrastructure acts as a virtual NBMA link
C. There is no requirement for dual-stack(IPv4 and IPv6) on the border routers
D. They require routers to be configured in pairs
E. They support point-to-point automatic tunnels
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
What are three of the key fields that define a unique NetFlow flow ( choose three)
A. Source MAC address

B. Cyclic Redundancy Check
C. Layer 3 protocol type
D. Type of service
E. Input logical interface
F. Canonical Format Identifier
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. If the Web Server has been configured to listen only to TCP port 8080 for all the HTTP
requests, which command can you enter to show internet users to access the web server on http port 80?
A. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80

B. ip nat outside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80
C. ip nat outside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 10.1.1.100 80
D. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
Which PIM multicast type requires IGMPv3 and operates without using rendezvous point messages?
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. SSM
D. BIDIR-PIM
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which two options are potential impacts of microbursts? (Choose 2)
A. unicast flooding
B. asymmetric routing
C. tail drops
D. unnecessary broadcast traffic
E. invalid checksum errors
F. packet loss
Correct Answer: CF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which 2 statements about SNMP are true? (choose two)
A. The SNMP agent is responsible for collecting data from the MIB
B. SNMPv2c can provide authentication as well as encryption
C. The SNMP manager is responsible for collecting data for the MIB
D. SNMPv3 uses the SHA encryption algorithm to provide authorization
E. SNMPv2c supports only 32-bit counters
F. SNMPv3 uses the 3DES encryption algorithm to provide data privacy
Correct Answer: AF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
via 192.168.1.5 (3586560/3074560), Serial0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. Paths via 192.168.13.3 and 192.168.12.2 will be installed into the route table and load balanced
proportionally
B. The path through 192.168.12.2 is the feasible Successor route and will be automatically installed into
the route table if the path through 192.168.13.3 goes down
C. The destination network is unable to determine a valid Feasible Successor because the Feasibility
Condition is unmet
D. The path through 192.168.13.3 is the Feasible Successor route and will be automatically installed into
the route table if the path through 192.168.12.2 goes down
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which two statements about LISP encapsulation with EIGRP OTP are true ( Choose 2)
A. It supports dynamic multipoint tunneling

B. It supports dynamic point-to-point tunneling
C. It uses the instance ID to support virtualisation
D. It supports manual point-to-point tunneling
E. The LISP control plane exchanges routes and determines the next hop
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
R1
aaa authentication login default group radius group Lacacs+ local
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 contacts the RADIUS server but is unable to find the user name in the server
database, how will R1 respond?
A. it will prompt the user to enter a new username

B. it will attempt to contact the TACACS+ server
C. it will deny the user access
D. It will attempt to authenticate the user against the local database
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
What are two prerequisites for configuring Cisco Performance Monitor for IPv4 traffic? ( Choose two)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding or distributed Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled on the interface
B. Conditional debugging must be enabled on the router
C. Authenticated connection must be configured for at least one Syslog destination
D. IPv4 routing must be configured on the router
E. Netflow must be enabled on the interface
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which statement about STP port states is true?
A. Listening and learning are transitory port states that use the forward delay timer
B. A port in the blocking state remains in that state for 30 seconds before transitioning to the listening
state
C. A port in the blocking state remains in that state for 30 seconds before transitioning to the listening
state
D. When a port transitions to the listening state, it can send receive data frames
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
If you configure a router interface both IPv4 and IPv6 on an IS-IS network in single-topology mode, what
additional configuration is required?
A. IPv4 and IPv6 addresses must be configured with the same prefix length
B. IPv4 and IPv6 must be configured with different metric types
C. IPv4 and IPv6 must be configured to run the same IS-IS level
D. IPv4 and IPv6 must be configured on different routing protocols
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
enable secret cisco
username cisco1 password 0 cisco1
aaa new-model
aaa authentication enable default group radius enable
aaa authentication login default group radius line
radius-server host 192.168.1.1 auth-port 1812 acct-port 1646
radius-server key cisco4
line con 0
password cisco2
line vty 0 4
password cisco3
Refer to the exhibit, If the RADIUS server is inaccessible, which password can the user enter to access
user mode during a Telnet session?
A. cisco2
B. cisco4
C. cisco
D. cisco3
E. cisco1
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IGMP are true? (Choose two)
A. IGMPv2 supports IGMP querier election

B. IGMPv2 supports explicit source signaling
C. IGMPv1 supports group-specific queries
D. IGMPv3 uses 224.0.0.22 as destination address for reports
E. IGMPv3 is the first version of IGMP to support a basic query-response mechanism
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
interface ethernet 0/0
ip policy route-map PBR
route-map PBR
match ip address 144
set ip next-hop 172.16.12.5
set ip next-hop recursive 192.168.3.2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes a router with this configuration treats packets that
match access-list 144 if it does not know a path to 172.16.12.5 and does not know a path to 192.168.3.2?
A. It drops the packet immediately

B. It sends an ICMP source Qnch message
C. It routes the packet into a loop and drops it when the TTL reaches zero
D. It routes the packet based on the packet's destination using the routing table
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
How can you configure Wireshark captures to help you troubleshoot output drops on your network?
A. File the captures to show TCP errors

B. Reduce the time axis to subsecond intervals
C. Collect traffic that is both entering and leaving the affected subnet
D. Collect traffic only when output exceeds the interface rate
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
What are three core features of GET VPN? (Choose three)
A. Cooperative key servers

B. the rekey mechanism
C. time-based anti-replay
D. AES
E. partial mesh
F. MPLS
Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
You have noticed that a switch on your network that is configured for PIM snooping is flooding multicast
traffic excessively. What action can you take to correct the problem without disabling PIM?
A. Disable designated-route flooding

B. Enable IGMP filtering
C. Enable unknown unicast flood blocking
D. Disable IGMP on the VLANs
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which type of traffic requires NAT Application Level Gateways?
A. Telnet
B. HTTP
C. IPsec
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which two statements about RTF and RTCP are true? (Choose two)
A. An RTP port is a random even-numbered TCP port between 16,384 and 32,767 and the associated
RTCP port is the sequential odd-numbered port
B. RTCP provides encryption and authentication for RTP flows
C. RTCP packets contain application-level information about the RTP source
D. An RTP session includes TCP port numbers for both RTP and the associated RTCP session
E. RTCP provides QoS information about data delivered over RTP
F. RTCP supports multiple packet types, including sender reports, receiver reports, and application-
specific packets
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which two statements about Embedded Packet Capture are true? (Choose two)
A. Multicast packets are captured only on ingress

B. It can capture Ipv4 packets only
C. Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled
D. Captures must be decoded offline
E. Only a single capture point can be activated per interface
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding are true? (Choose two)
A. Changing MAC Header rewrite strings require cache validation

B. Cisco Express Forwarding tables contain reachability information and adjacency tables contain
forwarding
C. Adjacency tables and Cisco Express Forwarding tables require packet process-switching
D. Cisco Forwarding tables contain forwarding information and adjacency tables contain reachability
information
E. adjacency tables and Cisco Express Forwarding tables can be built seperately
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which two statements about WRED are true? (Choose two)
A. It is a packet-classification mechanism
B. It drops IP traffic before non-IP traffic
C. It is most useful with adaptive traffic
D. It is a congestion-management mechanism
E. It is a congestion-avoidance mechanism
F. It can be configured on the same interface as WFQ
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
via 192.168.1.5 (3586560/3074560), Serial0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?
A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256

B. The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600
C. The metric installed into the route table is 435200
D. The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Routing Process "ospf 1" with ID 1.1.1.1
Start time: 1w5d, Time elapsed: 4d11h
Supports only single TOS(TOS0) routes
Supports opaque LSA
Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)
Supports area transit capability
Router is not originating router-LSAs with maximum metric
Initial SPF schedule delay 5000 msecs
Minimum hold time between two consecutive SPFs 10000 msecs
Maximum wait time between two consecutive SPFs 10000 msecs
Incremental-SPF disabled
Minimum LSA interval 5 secs
Minimum LSA arrival 1000 msecs
LSA group pacing timer 240 secs
Interface flood pacing timer 33 msecs
Retransmission pacing timer 66 msecs
Number of external LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000
Number of opaque AS LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000
Number of DCbitless external and opaque AS LSA 0
Number of DoNotAge external and opaque AS LSA 0
Number of areas in this router is 1. 1 normal 0 stub 0 nssa
Number of areas transit capable is 0
External flood list length 0
IETF NSF helper support enabled
Cisco NSF helper support enabled
Reference bandwidth unit is 100 mbps
Area BACKBONE(0)
Number of interfaces in this area is 4 (1 loopback)
Area has no authentication
SPF algorithm last executed 00:00:08.616 ago
SPF algorithm executed 7 times
Area ranges are
Number of LSA 3. Checksum Sum 0x140E2
Number of opaque link LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000
Number of DCbitless LSA 0
Number of indication LSA 0
Number of DoNotAge LSA 0
Flood list length 0
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true?
A. This is the output of the show ip protocols command

B. This is the output of the show ip ospf command
C. This router is an ABR
D. Authentication is not configured for the area
E. This router is an ASBR
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
router ospf 20
network 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
redistribute eigrp 10
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?
A. OSPF and EIGRP will perform mutual redistribution

B. Network 10.10.1.0/24 will be redistributed in EIGRP
C. The routing table will show a metric of 10 for routes redistributed from EIGRP
D. Unless the subnets keyword is added to the redistribute command, subnetted networks will be
excluded from OSPF
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which Statement about the bgp soft-reconfig-backup command is true?
A. When the peer is unable to store updates, the updates are implemented immediately
B. It requires BGP to store all inbound and outbound updates
C. It overrides soft reconfiguration for devices that support inbound soft reconfiguration
D. It provides soft configuration capabilities for peers that are unable to support route refresh
E. It provides outbound soft reconfiguration for peers
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature? (Choose two)
A. The next-hop routers must be different

B. The next-hop routers must be the same
C. MPLS must be enabled
D. All attributes must have the same values
E. Route reflectors must be enabled
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which statement is true about LLDP?
A. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication

B. LLDP does not use a multicast address to communicate
C. LLDP provides VTP support
D. LLDP can indicate only the duplex setting of a link and not the speed capabilities
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
ipv6 nd raguard policy TST-RAGUARD
device-role host
int gig0/1
switchport access vlan 100
ipv6 nd raguard attach-policy TST-RAGUARD
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?
A. The port rejects inbound router advertisements and router redirect messages
B. The port allows and inspects inbound NDP messages
C. The port blocks inbound tunneled Ipv6 traffic
D. If the Ipv6 RA Guard feature is enabled on VLAN 100, it takes precedence over port-level policy
E. The Ipv6 RA Guard feature is disabled on VLAN 100
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which three security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities?
(Choose three)
A. Implementing Intrusion Detection Systems on IoT devices

B. Change passwords every 90 days
C. Privacy Impact Assessment
D. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
E. Layered Security Approach
F. Place security above functionality
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
An NSSA area has two ABRs connected to Area 0. Which statement is true?
A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs

B. The ABR with the highest router ID translates Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs
C. No LSA translation is needed
D. Both ABRs forward Type-5 LSAs from the NSSA area to backbone area
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Which two statements about MPLS label stack encoding are true? ( Choose two)
A. When a device forwards a labeled packet, it must copy the TTL of the incoming label to the outgoing
label
B. When an MPLS label stack undergoes the swap operation, it swaps the top and bottom labels
C. When a device forwards a labeled packet, it must copy the TTL of the outgoing label to the top label
D. MPLS labels are encoded in little-endian format
E. The TTL is significant only on the top label
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which command can you enter to set a default route match tag for internal EIGRP routes?
A. eigrp route-tag 25.25.25.25

B. eigrp default-route-tag 25.25.25.25
C. route-map EIGRP 25
D. match-tag list EIGRP_Default
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
What is the minimum link MTU value for IPv6?
A. 68 bytes
B. 1280 bytes
C. 1200 bytes
D. 1500 bytes
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Which two methods do IPsec VTIs use to identify and transmit encrypted traffic through the tunnel?
(choose two)
A. static routing
B. object groups
C. ACLs
D. NAT
E. dynamic routing
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three)
A. It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports

B. It can suppress the flooding of traffic
C. It forwards Ethernet frames
D. It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops
E. it supports MAC address aging
F. it conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol
Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations must you apply to R2 so that it correctly translates the
internal network to a public IP address?
A. access-list 1 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.0.255

ip nat inside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip nat inside
ip nat outside
B. access-list 1 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat inside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 overload
ip nat outside
ip nat inside
C. ip nat pool NAT 209.165.201.9 209.165.201.14 netmask 255.255.255.248
access-list 1 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT
ip nat inside
ip nat outside
D. ip nat inside source static 10.1.2.100 209.165.201.9
ip nat inside source static 10.1.2.110 209.165.201.10
ip nat inside
ip nat outside
E. access-list 1 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat inside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 overload
ip nat inside
ip nat outside
F. ip nat inside source static 10.1.2.100 209.165.201.9
ip nat outside
ip nat inside
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
Refer to the exhibit. You have noticed that when the link netween R2 and R3 goes down, traffic to route
192.168.1.0/24 continues to exit R1 through interface F0/0. If all routers on the given network are running
EIGRP, what is the most likely reason for the problem?
A. R3 waits until the R2 hold time expires before advertising its path
B. R2 is failing to properly advertise 192.168.10.0/24 because it is configured as a hub router instead of a
Stub router
C. R2 is still advertising the summary route because one child route exists
D. The R3 metric for 192.168.10.0/24 is too high to be the preferred path
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. You have configured a VRF named Blue on R1 as shown. Which action must you take
to enable uRPF on the R1 interface E1/0?
A. Configure the ip verify Blue unicast source reachable-via rx allow-default command on interface E0/1
B. Configure the ip verify Blue unicast source reachable-via rx allow-default command under the VRF
Blue process
C. Configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx allow-default command under the VRF Blue
process
D. Configure the ip verify vrf Blue unicast source reachable-via rx allow-default command on interface
E0/1
E. Configure the ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx allow-default command on interface E0/1
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 52
R2#router ospf 1
router-id 10.2.2.2
log-adjacency changes
network 192.168.19.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2#show ip ospf
Routing Process "ospf 1" with ID 10.1.1.1
Start time: 00:00:32.552, Time elapsed: 00:03:00.996
Supports only single TOS(TOS0) routes
Supports opaque LSA
Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)
Supports area transit capability
Router is not originating router-LSAs with maximum metric
Initial SPF schedule delay 5000 msecs
Refer to the exhibit. After you applied a new configuration to router R2, you executed the show ip ospf
command and noticed that the new router ID was missing. Which two actions can you take to resolve the
problem?
A. Reload the router

B. Wait for the hello-interval to elapse
C. Issue the clear ip route command
D. Issue the clear ip ospf command
E. Execute a shutdown followed by a no shutdown on the OSRF interfaces
F. Wait for the dead-interval to elapse
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 53
With which protocol is COAP designed to be used?
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. TCP
Correct Answer: C
Section: Single Select
Explanation
QUESTION 54
Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true ?
A. APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol

B. APIC uses an imperative model
C. APIC does support a Southbound REST API
D. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 55
Which statement about Cisco StackWise technology is true ?
A. Removing switches can affect stack performance.

B. Only the master switch acts as a forwarding processor.
C. All switches in a stack share configuration and routing information to behave as a single unit.
D. Every switch in a stack has its own independent and uncoordinated configuration file.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 56
Which two operating modes does VPLS support? (Choose two)
A. Transport mode
B. Loose mode
C. VLAN mode
D. Strict mode
E. Port mode
F. Dynamic mode
Correct Answer: CE
Section: Multiple Select
Explanation
QUESTION 57
Which IP SLA operation type uses IP to measure the round-trip time between a router and a device?
A. UDP Jitter for VoIP

B. HTTP
C. ICMP Echo
D. ICMP Path Jitter
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 58
Refer to the exhibit, Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. It sets the TTL for discovery message to 60 hops.

B. It sets announcement interval to 60 seconds.
C. It created an administratively scoped boundary for ACL 60
D. It configures the router as the rendezvous point.
E. It prevents the device from falling back to dense mode.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 59
Which statement is true when using a VLAN ID from the extended VLAN range (1006-4094) ?
A. VLAN in the extended VLAN range cannot be pruned

B. STP is disabled by default on extended-range VLANs
C. VLANs in the extended VLAN range can only be used as private VLANs
D. VLANs in the extended VLAN range can be used with VTPv2 in either client or server mode
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 60
Which BGP attribute is used to influence inbound traffic?
A. Local preference
B. Origin
C. Multi-exit discriminator
D. Weight
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 61
Which two statements about PPP PAP are true? (Choose Two)
A. It can protect against playback attacks.

B. Login attempts are controlled by the remote node.
C. It is supported only on synchronous interface.
D. It requires two way authentication.
E. It is vulnerable to trial and error attacks.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 62
Which two options are valid IPV6 extension header types ? (Choose two)
A. Mobility
B. Traffic Class
C. Version
D. Encapsulating security Payload
E. Flow Label
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 63
Which IPv4 feature can limit indiscriminate flooding of multicast traffic on a VLAN?
A. IGMP Filtering
B. PIM Snooping
C. MLD Filtering
D. IGMP Snooping
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 64
Which option describes the difference between Ansible and puppet?
A. Ansible is client server based and puppet is not

B. Ansible automates repetitive tasks and puppet allows you to run plain ssh command
C. Ansible is python based and puppet is Ruby based.
D. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit. You organization has two offices, Site 1 and Site 2, which are connected by provider
backbone, as shown. Where must you configure an attachment circuit to allow the two sites to connect
over a Layer 2 networking using L2TPv3?
A. CE Site 1 Fa0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0

B. CE Site 1 Fa0/0 and CE Site 2 Se0/0
C. PE Site 1 Fa0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0
D. PE Site 1 Fa1/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements can this output verify? (Choose two)
A. The device will tear down and restart its EIGRP process in 24 seconds
B. The device must receive an EIGRP packet within 24 seconds to maintain a neighbor relationship.
C. The EIGRP neighbor has been up for 28 ms
D. The device will wait 200 ms before retransmitting an EIGRP packet
E. The EIGRP neighbor has been up for 28 secs
F. The device must receive an EIGRP packet within 28 seconds to maintain a neighbor relationship.
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
QUESTION 67
Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control ?
A. Nova
B. Keystone
C. Neutron
D. Horizon
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 68
Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?
A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR that is flooded throughout the area and that describes a
route to the ASBR.
B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ASBR.
C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ASBR.
D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route
to the ABR.
E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the area, and that describes a route
to the ASBR.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 69
An IPv6 network has different MTUs on different segments, if the network is experiencing reliability issues,
which option is the most likely reason ?
A. HSRPv6 is configured inly

B. The MTU size is greater than 1470 bytes
C. The do not fragment bit is marked
D. ICMPv6 is filtered
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 70
Refer to the exhibit. Your network uses an MPLS VPN backbone with OSPF routing between all PE and
CE routers and on the 10MB back links between the CE routers. You notice that traffic from CE3 to CE2
and CE4 is flowing over the backup links instead of the higher-bandwidth MPLS VPN backbone even when
the backbone is up. What change can you make to ensure that traffic uses the MPLS VPN backbone
instead?
A. Configure 1 GB sham link between PE2 and PE4

B. Configure 1 GB sham links between PE3 and PE4 and between PE3 and PE2
C. Configure internal BGP on PE2, PE3 and PE4
D. Configure a lower cost metric on the provider network’s OSPF-to-BGP redistribution
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Which three values are used to generate a unique bridge ID for each VLAN in PVST+? (Choose Three)
A. Switch priority
B. Spanning-tree MAC address
C. Port cost
D. Max age
E. Extended system ID
F. Port priority
Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation
QUESTION 72
Company has 2 remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is
using the same autonomous system number. Which BGP feature can you implement to enable routing
between the two sites?
A. Communities
B. Peer group
C. Allowas-in
D. AS path prepending
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 73
A. The overload bit is not set for any topology under router IS-IS on R5.
B. The overload bit is set by R4 for IPv4 and IPv6
C. The overload bit is set by R5 for IPv4 and IPv6
D. The overload bit is set by R4 for IPv6 only
E. The overload bit is set by R5 for IPv6 only.
F. The overload bit is not set for any topology under router IS-IS on R4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 74
Which statement about EIGRP request packets is true ?
A. They determine whether a destination is reachable

B. They are sent in response to queries.
C. They are transmitted via broadcast
D. They are transmitted unreliably
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 75
Which extended ping IP header option allows you to specify one or more hops over which the packets will
travel without specifying the full path ?
A. verbose
B. record
C. strict
D. loose
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this route table are true?( Choose two).
A. The OSPF routes with the IA flag have their administrative distances incremented as they leave the
router.
B. The OSPF routes with the E2 flag retain the same metric as they leave the router.
C. The BGP routes are internal.
D. The BGP routes are external.
E. The OSPF routes with the E2 flag have their metrics incremented as they leave the router.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which statement about route summarization is true?
A. EIGRP can summarize routes at the classful network boundary

B. It can be disabled in RIP, RIPv2 and EIGRP
C. RIPv2 can summarize-routes beyond the classful network boundary
D. EIGRP and RIPv2 route summarize are configured with the ip summary-address command under the
route
process
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 78
When you deploy DMVPN, what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest address
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0?
A. It is configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router.

B. It is configured on hub to set the pre-shared key for the spoke routers.
C. It is configured on hub and spoke router to establish peering
D. It is configured on the internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 79
Which three types of traffic are protected when you implement IPsec with an IPv6-in-IPv4 tunnel? (Choose
three)
A. IPv6 link-local traffic

B. IPv6 multicast traffic
C. IPv4 tunnel control traffic
D. IPv4 broadcast traffic
E. IPv6 broadcast traffic
F. IPv6 unicast traffic
Correct Answer: ABF

Explanation
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit. Router A is connected as a BGP neighbor to routers B and C. Which path does router
A use to get to AS 65010?
A. Through router C because it has a higher local preference

B. Will load balance because both routes have the same Med value
C. Through router B because it has the shortest AS path
D. Through router B because the default local preference is 500 and higher than router C
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 81
Which feature can be used to allow hosts with routes in the global routing table to access hosts in a VRF?
A. Extended communities
B. Route target communities
C. Route leaking
D. Address families
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 82
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. BFD and SPF throttling are configured

B. Only BFD is enabled
C. Fast convergence is not configured
D. BFD, SPF and LSA timers are tuned for faster convergence.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit. When packets are transmitted from R1 to R2, where are they encrypted?
A. On the E0/1 interface on R2

B. On the outside Interface
C. In the tunnel
D. In the forwarding engine
E. Within the crypto map
F. On the E0/0 interface on R1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 84
Which statement about PMTUD is true?
A. It increases the connection’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.

B. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets at the endpoint of a TCP connection.
C. It is used to prevent fragmentation of packets travelling across a smaller MTU link between.
D. It is supported by TCP and UDP
E. GRE tunnels are use PMTUD to fragment data packets by default.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 85
Which mechanism can be used on Layer 2 switches so that only multicast packets with downstream
receives are sent on the multicast router-connected ports?
A. multicast filtering
B. PIM snooping
C. Router Guard
D. IGMP snooping
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 86
Which feature can mitigate hung management sessions?
A. The service tcp-small servers command

B. Control plane policing
C. The service tcp-keepalives-in and service tcp-keepalives-out command
D. Vty line ACLs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 87
Which two statements about NAT are true? Choose two?
A. Static NAT supports a one to one address mapping

B. One to one mapping denies outside traffic from accessing an inside host
C. PAT uses destination port numbers identity address mapping
D. Static NAT release the translated address for use by another device when it is inactive
E. Dynamic NAT allows hosts inside a network to use a pool of addresses to access hosts outside the
network
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 88
Which three session tables does NAT64 maintain? (Choose 3)
A. TCP
B. 464XLAT
C. UDP
D. SIP
E. 6rd
F. ICMP Query
Correct Answer: ACF

Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which DHCP message type does the DHCP server send to client to confirm its allocated IP address?
A. DHCPOFFER
B. DHCPDISCOVER
C. DHCPACK
D. DHCPREQUEST
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the purpose of the as-set argument of the aggregate-address
command?
A. It provides a list of AS numbers top which the aggregate is advertised.

B. It provides a predefined AS path in the aggregate advertisement that is used to indicate and aggregate
prefix.
C. It provides as AS path in the aggregate advertisement that contains only the local AS number.
D. It provides an AS path in the aggregate advertisement that includes the AS numbers of the component
members.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 91
Which two methods are used to configure an RP in a PIM-SM network? (Choose Two)
A. Auto-RP
B. anycast
C. SSM
D. PIM-DM
E. BSR
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must you apply to a router so that it can generate a log message
in this format?
A. Service timestamps log datetime localtime show-timezone

Service sequence-numbers
B. Service timestamps log datetime msec localtime
C. Service timestamps log datetime msec localtime show-timezone
D. Service timestamps log datetime msec localtime show-timezone
Service linenumber
E. Service timestamps log datetime msec localtime show-timezone
Service alignment logging
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 93
What statement about type 4 LSA in OSPFv2 is true?
A. It is present only in the backbone area

B. It is forwarded in NSSA areas
C. It is generated by the ASBR and forwarded throughout the whole OSPF domain
D. It is generated by each ABR and forwarded in non stub areas.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 94
In Which 802.1D port state are the root bridge, the root part, and the designated ports elected?
A. Disabled
B. Blocking
C. Learning
D. Forwarding
E. Listening
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 95
What are the three required attributed in a BGP update message?
A. Aggregator
B. Community
C. Next_hop
D. Origin
E. Med
F. AS_PATH
Correct Answer: CDF

Explanation
QUESTION 96
Refer to the exhibit. If the given network is in the process of being migrated from EIGRP to OSPF, includes
external routes and all routers are currently running both protocols, what action must you perform to
complete the migration?
A. Change the OSPF administrative distance to 91, wait until all routers are present, and then change it
back to the default value.
B. Change the EIGRP administrative distance to 111, wait until all routers are present, and then change it
C. Change the EIGRP Administrative distance to match the OSPF Admin distance, wait until all routers
are present, and then change the EIGRP Admin distance back to the default value
D. Change the OSPF Administrative distance to 171, wait until all routers are present and then change it
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 97
Which prefix list matches and permits all RFC 1918 network 10.0.0.0 routes that have masks of /16
through /24?
A. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 15 le 25

B. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 16 le 24
C. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 le 24
D. ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/16 ge 15 le 25
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 98
What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for UDP flows ?
A. reachability
B. delay
C. loss
D. throughput
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 99
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the R3 network environment is true?
A. 172.16.20.0/24 has an administrative distance of 20

B. OSPF external routes are preferred over OSPF internal routes
C. The administrative distance for 172.16.X.X addresses is 110
D. RIP OSPF and IS-IS are running
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 100
Which QoS policy is recommended to support an MPLS network with six classes?
A. map IP CoS bits into the IP Precedence field

B. map IP precedence bits into the DSCP field
C. map DSCP bits into the Exp field
D. map Flow-label bits into the Exp field
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 101
Which LSA type is associated with default route in a totally stubby area?
A. Router LSA(Type 1)
B. Autonomous system external LSA (Type 5)
C. Interarea-router LSAs for ASBRs (Type 4)
D. Interarea-prefix LSA for ABRs (Type 3)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 102
Refer to exhibit. Which statement is true about a valid IPv6 address that can be configured on tunnel
interface0 ?
A. 2001:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPv6 address

B. 6to4 tunneling allows you to use any IPv6 address
C. 2002:7DCB:5901::/128 is a valid IPV6 address
D. There is not enough information to calculate the IPv6 address
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 103
When EIGRP Auto-Summary is enabled, what does Auto Summarization do in EIGRP ?
A. Summarizes all network boundaries

B. Summarizes network from different network boundaries crossing different major boundary
C. Summarize network from the same network boundaries
D. Summarizes networks from different network boundaries crossing the same major boundary
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configurations to R1 and R2,
which network does R2 advertise to R1?
A. 172.16.0.0 /16 only

B. Both 172.16.32.0/20 and 172.16.33.0/24
C. 172.16.32.0/20 only
D. 172.16.33.0/24 only
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 105
Refer to the exhibit, The route-map wan2site is being used to redistribute BGP routes into the eigrp 28
process. Which option best describes the resulting redistribution of routes?
A. The deny, sequence 5 is preventing any routes from and a tag
B. A default routes is being redistributed with a metric and a tag
C. Policy routing matches 0 packets means that there are no matches and no routes are being
redistributed
D. All routes are being redistributed with a metric and a tag
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 106
Refer to the exhibit. A packet from network 10.0.1.0/24 destined for network 10.0.2.0/24 arrives at R1 on
interface Gi0/0, but the router drops the packet instead of transmitting it out interface Gi0/1. Which feature
that i configured on R1 can cause this problem?
A. Spanning Tree
B. uRPF
C. Split horizon
D. UDLD
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 107
What are two differences between IPv6 ISATAP tunnelling and IPv6 6to4 tunneling ? (Choose Two)
A. Only ISATAP tunneling can transfer IPv6 multicast packets.

B. Only 6t4 tunneling requires 2002::/16 addresses.
C. Only ISATAP tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets within a site.
D. Only 6to4 tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets with a site
E. Only ISATAP tunneling transfers unicast IPv6 packets between sites.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 108
Which two options are two problems that Bridge Assurance can protect against ? (Choose two)
A. The forwarding of data traffic, after the spanning tree algorithm is stopped
B. BPDU flooding
C. Ports being put into a root-inconsistent state
D. Show convergence time after a topology change
E. Unidirectional link failures
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 109
Which two protocols are used by the management plane? Choose two?
A. Telnet
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. ISSU
E. DTP
F. FTP
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
QUESTION 110
Which option is an example of Saas?
A. Google apps
B. Google app engine
C. Microsoft Azure
D. Amazon AWS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 111
Which two statements about redistribution are true?(Choose two)
A. When EIGRP routes on a CE are redistributed through a PE into BGP, the Cost Community POI is set
automatically.
B. When EIGRP traffic is redistributed into BGP, a default metric is required.
C. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, eBGP and iBGP routes are advertised.
D. When BGP traffic is redistributed into OSPF, the metric is set to 1 unless the metric is defined.
E. When OSPF traffic is redistributed into BGP, internal and external routes are redistributed.
F. iBGP routes automatically redistribute into the IGP if the routes are in the routing table.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 112
Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true ?
A. APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol

B. APIC uses an imperative model
C. APIC does support a Southbound REST API
D. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 113
Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three)
A. MAC address
B. Domain ID
C. IP Address
D. Area ID
E. System ID
F. NSAP selector
Correct Answer: DEF

Explanation
QUESTION 114
Which statement about MAC authentication bypass is true?
A. It can initiate after 802.1X authentication times out

B. It relies on Cisco Discovery Protocol to learn MAC addresses
C. It authenticates by using MAC addresses when a switch port is tuned up
D. It uses the ARP and MAC tables to authenticate users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 115
A. HRMLv5
B. XML
C. JSON
D. BASH
E. HTML
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which two route types are allowed to exit an EIGRP stub? (Choose two)
A. Host
B. Connected
C. Default
D. Static
E. Summary
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 117
Which two conditions can cause unicast flooding? (Choose two)
A. symmetric routing
B. multiple MAC addresses in the Layer 2 forwarding table
C. recurring TCNs
D. RIB table overflow
E. forwarding table overflow
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 118
Which condition must be true to allow an access port trust QoS marking on an incoming frame?
A. The port must be configured with the mls qos trust dscp command
B. The switch must be configured globally with the vlan dot1q tag native command
C. The port must be configured with the mls qos cos command
D. The switch must be configured globally with the mls qos trust cos command
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 119
Which option describes the characteristics of a public infrastructure as a service cloud service cloud?
A. It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
B. It is a cloud computing platform that facilitates the creation of web application without the need to
maintain the supporting software applications
C. It is a cloud computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to
maintain the supporting software operating systems.
D. It is a way of delivering cloud computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network and operating
systems) as an on demand service.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit. Which change must you make to this configuration to enable the router to participate in
DR election?
A. Increase the OSPF priority for the interface

B. Configure the interface to be in area 0
C. Change the OSPF network type
D. Remove authentication
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 121
Refer to the exhibit. The PC is experiencing intermittent connectivity failures to the internet. If ADSL-R1
uses a PPPoE connection, what action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure a system MTU of 1512 on ADSL-R1

B. Configure OSPF on the connection between PC1 and HomeS1
C. Replace the dialer interface with a virtual template.
D. Configure an MTU of 1492 on the dialer interface on ADSL-R1
E. Configure the same OSPF process on HomeR1 and HomeS1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 122
Which two statements about IP SLA are true? (Choose Two)
A. It’s a layer 2 transport-independent

B. It uses active traffic monitoring
C. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device
D. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring
E. It can measure MOS
F. SNMP access is not supported
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 123
What are the two Cisco recommended methods for reducing the size of the TCAM on a Layer 3 Switch ?
(Choose Two)
A. Adjust the output queue buffers

B. Use summary routes
C. Use the ip route profile command
D. Filter unwanted routes
E. Optimize the SDM template
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 124
What is a reason for an EIGRP router to send an SIA reply to a peer ?
A. To respond to an SIA query that the router is still waiting on replies from its peers
B. To respond to a reply reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active
C. To respond to a query reporting that the prefix has gone stuck-in-active
D. To respond to an SIA query with the alternative path requested
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 125
Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)
A. The priority queue is disabled

B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2
C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth
D. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1
E. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth
F. Queue 1 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the
available bandwidth
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 126
What terminal line command can you enter to prevent a router from attempting a telnet connection in
response to an in host name entry at the EXEC prompt?
A. Logging synchronous
B. Transport input none
C. Ip ip domain-lookup
D. Transport output none
E. Transport preferred none
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 127
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring Router1 and Router2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional
configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router2 to establish the tunnel? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router1

B. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface Fast Ethernet1/0 on Router1
D. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1
E. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class
R1toR2
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 128
Which two statements about root guard and loop guard are true? (Choose two)
A. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic.

B. Loop guard uses its own keepalives to prevent loops by detecting failures.
C. Loop guard uses BPDU keepalives to determine unidirectional traffic.
D. Root guard should be enabled on an upstream interface.
E. Root guard disables an interface only when a superior BPDU is received
F. When loop guard is enabled, the port is transitioned to the root-inconsistent state.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 129
A. Router advertisement
B. Router discovery
C. Before
D. Neighbor advertisement
E. Neighbor solicitation
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 130
Which Cisco IOS XE component provides separation between the control plane and the data plane ?
A. POSIX
B. Forwarding and Feature
C. Free and Open Source software
D. Common Management Enabling Technology
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 131
Which two statements about VPLS are true? (Choose two)
A. Split horizon is used on PE devices to prevent loops
B. PE routers dynamically associate to peers
C. VPLS extends a Layer 2 broadcast domain
D. Spanning tree is extended from CE to CE
E. IP is used to switch Ethernet frames between sites
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 132
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its link-state database?
A. LSAs
B. Hello packets
C. LSPs
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 133
Which two statements about 6PE are true? (Choose two)
A. It does not require MPLS between the PE routers.

B. It requires BGP to exchange labeled IPv6 unicast between PE routers.
C. It requires a VRF on the IPv6 interface.
D. Uses an IPv4 mapped IPv6 address as the IPv4 next hop on PE router
E. iBGP peering between the PE routers should be done using an IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 134
If running an OSPF process without the capability vrf-lite command in a VRF, which value does the router
additionally check on an OSPF Type 3 LSA?
A. the tag
B. the Max Age timer
C. the prefix length
D. the DN bit
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 135
Which statement about NAT64 is true?
A. NAT64 provides address family translation and translates IPv4 to IPv6 and IPv6 to IPv4
B. NAT64 provides address family translation and can translate only IPv6 to IPv4.
C. NAT64 should be considered as a permanent solution
D. NAT64 requires the use of DNS64.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 136
Which feature must be enabled to support IGMP snooping on VLAN that is operating without a multicast
router?
A. Auto-RP
B. The IGMP snooping querier
C. PIM snooping
D. MLD
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 137
Which PHB type allows for the best interoperability with IP Precedence already used in the network?
A. Expedited Forwarding
B. Assured Forwarding
C. Class Selector
D. Default
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 138
Which three protocols are permitted by IEEE 802.1x port-based authentication before the client is
successfully authenticated by the RADIUS server?
A. EAPOL
B. BOOTP
C. STP
D. CDP
E. TCP
F. IP
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
QUESTION 139
Which circumstance can cause interface overruns?
A. out-of-order packets
B. microbursts
C. fragmentation
D. asymmetric routing
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 140
Which statement about the default QoS configuration on a Cisco switch is true?
A. Port trust is enabled

B. All traffic is sent through four egress queues
C. The port Cos value is 0
D. The Cos value of each tagged packet is modified
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 141
Oct 1 13:08:10.635: OSPF-1 HELLO Fa0/0: Send hello to 224.0.0.5 area 0 from 172.16.1.1
Oct 1 13:08:11.098: OSPF-1 HELLO Fa0/0: Mismatched hello to 172.16.1.2 area 0 from 172.16.1.2
Oct 1 13:08:11.099: OSPF-1 HELLO Fa0/0: Send R 40 C 40, Hello R 10 C 10 Mask R 255.255.255.248 C
255.255.255.240
Oct 1 13:08:12.407: OSPF-1 ADJ Fa0/0: end of wait on interface
Oct 1 13:08:12.407: OSPF-1 ADJ Fa0/0: DR/BDR election
Oct 1 13:08:12.407: OSPF-1 ADJ Fa0/0: Elect BDR 172.16.1.1
Oct 1 13:08:12.411: OSPF-1 ADJ Fa0/0: Elect DR 172.16.1.1
Oct 1 13:08:12.411: OSPF-1 ADJ Fa0/0: Elect BDR 0.0.0.0
Oct 1 13:08:12.411: OSPF-1 ADJ Fa0/0: Elect DR 172.16.1.1
Oct 1 13:08:12.411: OSPF-1 ADJ Fa0/0: DR: 172.16.1.1 (1d) BDR: none
Oct 1 13:08:21.015: OSPF-1 HELLO Fa0/0: Mismatched hello to 172.16.1.2 area 0 from 172.16.1.2
Refer to the exhibit. After observing that an OSPF neighbor relationship failed to form, you executed a
debug that returned the given output. Which configuration issue prevented the OSPF neighbor relationship
from forming?
A. The devices are on different subnets

B. The stub flag is set on the neighboring device
C. The hello and hold timers are mismatched
D. The area IDs are mismatched
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 142
A. 2-WAY
B. ATTEMPT
C. LOADING
D. EXCHANGE
E. FULL
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 143
Which two statements about the spanning-tree timers in a switched network are true? (Choose two)
A. The root bridge sends out a configuration BPDU every hello interval
B. The default hello time is two seconds
C. After receiving a BPDU from the root bridge, a non-root bridge waits for the hello interval before
forwarding it out
D. The root bridge sends out a TCN every max-age interval
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 144
Which three configuration settings must match for switches to be in the same MST region? (Choose three)
A. VLAN names
B. password
C. revision number
D. VLAN-to-instance assignment
E. region name
F. domain name
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 145
What are two of the commands that you ccan enter to gracefully shut down OSPF and notify neighbors?
(CHoose two)
A. router(config-router)#shutdown
B. router(config-router)#graceful shutdown
C. router(config)#ip notify
D. router(config-if)#ip ospf shutdown
E. router(config-if)#ip ospf graceful shutdown
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 146
When do summary black holes occur in eigrp?
A. when a summary is created for security purposes to draw undesired traffic to a termination point
B. when a summary is advertised that contains components that the advertising router cannot reach
C. when the summary is removed due to the last component disappearing
D. when components of the summary are present at multiple summary points
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 147
How long will the root bridge continue to send configuration BPDUs to notify all bridges to age out their
MAC address tables?
A. The max-age time

B. The forward delay + max-age time
C. The forward delay time
D. Three times the hello interval
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 148
When the BGP additional-paths feature is used, what alows a BGP speaker to differentiate between the
different available paths?
A. The remote BGP peer prepends its own next-hop address to the prefix
B. A route distinguisher is appended to the prefix by the receiving BGP speaker
C. A unique path identifier is encoded into a dedicated field to the NLRI
D. The additional path information is encoded in an ectended community
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 149
Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
A. It affects LSA flooding

B. It can be based on the source router ID
C. It can be based on the external route tag
D. It can be based on distance
E. It can be based on the as path
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 150
Which two statements about the client-identifier in a DHCP pool are true? (Choose two)
A. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for DHCP requests

B. It specifies a unique identifier that is used only on BOOTP requests
C. It specifies a hardware address for the client
D. It requires that you specify the hardware protocol
E. It is specified by appending 01 to the MAC address of a DHCP client
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 151
Refer to the exhibit. This network is undergoing a migration from pvst+ to mst. S1 is the MSTO root bridge
and S2 is the MSTO secondary root
A. Interface G0/1 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN 50 and load balancing fails until S3 is migrated
to MST
B. Interface G0/0 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN50 unless it is configured for load balancing with
PVST+
C. Interface G0/0 is blocked on S3 for VLAN40 and VLAN 50 and load balancing fails until S3 is migrated
to MST
D. VLAN traffic automatically load balances between G0/0 and G0/1 on S3 using PVST+
E. PVST+ inherits the load-balancing configuration from MST
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 152
What is the function of the rendezvous point in PIM?
A. It acts as a shared root for a multicast tree

B. It is the main source of the multicast traffic
C. It redistributes the multicast configuration to its connected neighbors
D. It will redistribute the unicast routes to avoid an RPF failure
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which three statements are functions that are performed by IKE phase 1? (Choose three)
A. It builds a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 1 parameters

B. It establishes IPSec security associations
C. It authenticates the identity of the IPsec peers
D. It protects the IKE exchange by negotiating a matching IKE SA policy
E. It protects the identity of IP sec peers
F. It negotiates IPsec SA parameters
Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 154
Which statement is true about PIM?
A. PIM SM uses shared trees

B. In Bidir-PIM, sources register to RP as in PM SM
C. The PIM DM flood and prune process is repeated every five minutes
D. PIM SM mode, by default, always forwards multicast traffic on shared tree
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 155
What are two functions of an NSSA in an OSPF network design?(Choose two)
A. Ity overcomes issues with suboptimal routing when there are multiple exit points from the areas
B. It uses opaque LSAs
C. It allows ASBRs to inject external routing information into the area
D. An ASBR advertises type 7 LSAs into the area
E. An ABR advertises type 7 LSAs into the area
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 156
Which two options are the two main phases of PPPoE? (Choose two)
A. Active Discovery Phase

B. IKE Phase
C. Main Mode Phase
D. PPP Session Phase
E. Aggression Mode Phase
F. Negotiation Phase
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 157
Which two options are required parts of an EEM policy? (Choose two)
A. event register keyword

B. body
C. environment must defines
D. namespace import
E. entry status
F. exit status
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 158
What does the DIS on a LAN periodically transmit in multicast to ensure that the IS-IS link-state database
is accurate?
A. ISH
B. CSNP
C. IIH
D. PSNP
E. LIP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 159
Which two statements about native VLANs are true? (Choose two)
A. They require VTPv3

B. They are used to forward tagged traffic only
C. They are configured under the trunk interface
D. They are configured in VLAN database mode
E. They are used to forward both tagged and untagged traffic
F. They are used to forward untagged traffic only
Correct Answer: CF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 160
Which two are features of DMVPN? (Choose two)
A. It does not support spoke routers behind dynamic NAT

B. It reuires IPsec encryption
C. It only supports remote peers with statically assigned addresses
D. It supports multicast traffic
E. It offers configuration reduction
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 161
Which two options are requirements for AToM support? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled

B. MPLS must be configured with an LSP in SP core
C. MPLS must be enabled between the PE and CE routers
D. The PE routers must be able to communicate with each other over IP
E. IP routing must be configured between the PE and CE routers
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 162
Refer to the exhibit. Between which routers is an LDP session established?
A. R1 and R3
B. R1, R2 and R3
C. R2 and R3
D. R1 and R2
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 163
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes what the authoritative flag indicates?
A. Authentication was used for the mapping

B. The registration request had the same flag set
C. R1 learned about the NHRP mapping from a registration request
D. Duplicate mapping in the NHRP cache is prevented
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 164
Which two statements about VPLS are true? (choose two)
A. The service provider provisions CE devices

B. It enables CE devices to operate as part of an L3 VPN
C. It uses broadcast replication to transmit Ethernet packets with multicast MAC addresses
D. It enables CE devices on different networks to operate as if they were in the same LAN
E. It transmits broadcast traffic more efficiently than Ethernet switches
F. It enables PE and CE devices to operate as if they were routing neighbors
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 165
wrr-queue cos-map 1 2 2 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about this CoS mapping are true? (Choose two)
A. It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS 3.

B. It maps CoS values to the transmit queue threshold.
C. It maps the second queue and first threshold to CoS 2.
D. It maps the first queue and first threshold to CoS 2 and CoS 3.
E. It maps the second threshold to CoS 2 and CoS 3.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
QUESTION 166
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing mutual redistribute, but ospf router from R3 are unable to reach R2.
Which three options are possible reasns for this behaviour? (Choose three)
A. R1 and R3 have an MTU mismatch

B. The RIP version supports only classful subnet masks
C. R3 and R1 have the same router ID
D. R1 requires a seed metric to redistribute RIP
E. R1 is filtering OSPF routes when redistributing into RIP
F. R2 is configured to offset OSPF routes with a metric of 16
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 167
R1 (config-router)#bgp bestpath ?
compare-routerid Compare router-id for identical EBGP paths
cost-community cost community
med MED attribute
Refer to the exhibit. When entering a question mark after bgp bestpath only three options are visible.
Which two options are valid BGP hidden options for the bgp bestpath command? (Choose two)
A. bgp bestpath as-path multipath relax

B. bgp bestpath as-path ignore
C. bgp bestpath compare-all
D. bgp bestpath localpref ignore
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 168
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on R1 and R2 as shown. Which action can you take to allow a
neighbour relationship to be established?
A. On R1, change the process ID to 1

B. Configure R1 and R2 as neighbors using interface addresses
C. On R1, set the network type of the FastEthernet0/0.12 interface to broadcast
D. Configure R1 and R2 as neighbors using router IDs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 169
Which two statements about the Add path support in EIGRP feature are true ? (Choose two)
A. The next-hop-self command should be disabled to prevent interference with the add-paths command
B. It uses the variance command to alter the metrics of routes
C. It is supported with both DMVPN and GETVPN
D. It is supported in both classic EIGRP and EIGRP named mode configurations
E. It allows a DMVPN hub to advertise as many as five best paths
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 170
Which options is the default LACP load-balancing algorithm for IP traffic on Layer 3?
A. the destination port

B. the destination IP port
C. the source and destination IP port
D. the source IP port
E. the source and destination IP address
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 171
Which option describes the purpose of the no ip next-hop-self eigrp configuration line in DMVPN
deployment?
A. It preserves the original next hop value as learned by the spoke routers.
B. It allows the spoke routers to change the next hop value when sending EIGRP updates to the hub
router.
C. It preserves the original next hop value as leaned by the hub routers.
D. It enables EIGRP to dynamically assign the next hop value based on the EIGRP database.
E. It allows the spoke routers to change the next hop value when sending EIGRP updates to the spoke
router.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 172
Which two statements about the Cisco Express Forwarding glean adjacency type are true? (Choose Two)
A. the router FIB table maintains a prefix for the subnet instead of individual hosts.
B. Packets destined for the interface are discarded and the prefix check is skipped
C. Packets destined for the interface can be dropped. Which provide a form of access filtering?
D. the adjacency database is used to gather specific prefixes when packets are destined to a specific host
E. Packets destined for the interface are discarded and the prefix is checked
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 173
Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true? (Choose two)
A. When IGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 110

B. When IGP is redistributed into RIP, it has a default metric of 1
C. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20
D. When BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1
E. When IGP is redistributed into IS-IS, it has a default metric of 115
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 174
Which two statement about the host addresses 172.150.100.10 /18 are true? Choose two
A. The broadcast address is 172.150.127.255
B. The broadcast address is 172.150.100.255
C. The network address is 172.150.0.0
D. The broadcast address is 172.150.255.255
E. The network address is 172.150.64.0
F. The network address is 172.150.100.0
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
QUESTION 175
When you implement the EIGRP add-paths feature, which configuration can cause routing issues on a
DMVPN circuit?
A. enabling synchronization under the EIGRP process

B. enabling next-hop-self under the EIGRP process
C. disabling automatic summarization
D. disabling the default variance under the EIGRP process
E. disabling ECMP mode under the EIGRP process
F. disabling NHRP when deploying EIGRP over DMVPN
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 176
Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose Two)
A. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default

B. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths
C. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces
D. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor
E. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit. What tag will be applied to the 172.16.130.0/24 route?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 10
D. 40
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 178
Which two statements about NBAR classification are true? (Choose Two)
A. It can classify IP packets

B. It requires CEF to be enable on the router
C. It is recommended for capacity planning
D. It cannot distinguish UDP flows
E. It can classify MPLS packets
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 179
ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0
duplex auto
speed auto
media-type RJ45
!
interface Tunnel0
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252
tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0
tunnel destination 192.168.1.240
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the IP MTU of tunnel0?

A. 1500
B. 1524
C. 1476
D. 1452
E. 1548
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 180
Which two hashing algorithms can be used when configuring SNMPv3? (Choose two)
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. Blowfish
D. DES
E. AES
F. SSL
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 181
What are the two BFD modes? (Choose two)
A. active
B. asynchronous
C. passive
D. established
E. demand
F. synchronous
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 182
You have been asked to connect a remote network with different DSCP mappings to the primary network
of your organization. How can you configure the network devices so that the two networks work together
seamlessly?
A. Configure the mls qos trust command on the trunk ports that internetwork two networks
B. Configure VLAN-based QoS on all switchs on both networks
C. Configure an aggregate policewr on the ingres interfaces of the trunk ports that interconnect the two
networks
D. Configure a mutation map on the devices on the primary network that connect to the network
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 183
Which two statements about IGPs are true? (Choose two)
A. RIPv2 and OSPF are distance vector protocols

B. OSPF and EIGRP have high resource usage
C. IS-IS and EIGRP are link-state protocols
D. OSPF and IS-IS are classless protocols
E. RIPv2 and EIGRP support VLSM
F. RIPv2 and IS-IS claculate the metric of a link based on the bandwidth of a link
Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 184
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are the edge devices at two different sites as shown. If each site
contains an IPv6 network that must be able to communicate over an IPsec tunnel, which type of
authentication can be in use between the two sites?
A. MD5
B. pre-shared key
C. 802.1x
D. CHAP
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 185
Which three options are the main security features in SNMPv3? (Choose three)
A. authentication
B. MIB persistence
C. message integrity
D. authorization
E. encryption
F. accounting
Correct Answer: ACE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 1
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QUESTION 5
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QUESTION 6
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Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
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QUESTION 9
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QUESTION 10
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QUESTION 16
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Explanation

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A. Core switches must be migrated before the access layer switches

A. vrf context vrf-name

A. Client 0050.4332 has been assigned an IP address on the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet

A. The neighbors fail to meet the feasibility condition.

A. ip igmp snooping vlan 20 mrouter interface gigabitethernet0/0

A. It supports IGMPv3 join messages.

A. Main mode processing failed on the peer

A. They allow isolated IPv6 domains to connect over an IPv4 network

A. Source MAC address

Correct Answer: CDE

A. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 10.1.1.100 80

A. It supports dynamic multipoint tunneling

A. it will prompt the user to enter a new username

A. IGMPv2 supports IGMP querier election

A. It drops the packet immediately

A. File the captures to show TCP errors

A. Cooperative key servers

Correct Answer: ABC

A. Disable designated-route flooding

A. Multicast packets are captured only on ingress

A. Changing MAC Header rewrite strings require cache validation

A. The metric installed into the route table is 128256

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true?

A. This is the output of the show ip protocols command

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?

A. OSPF and EIGRP will perform mutual redistribution

A. The next-hop routers must be different

A. LLDP does not support native VLAN indication

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?

A. Implementing Intrusion Detection Systems on IoT devices

Correct Answer: CDE

A. Both ABRs translate Type-7 LSAs to Type-5 LSAs

A. eigrp route-tag 25.25.25.25

A. It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports

Correct Answer: ACE

A. access-list 1 permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.0.255

A. Reload the router

A. APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol

A. Removing switches can affect stack performance.

A. UDP Jitter for VoIP

A. It sets the TTL for discovery message to 60 hops.

A. VLAN in the extended VLAN range cannot be pruned

A. It can protect against playback attacks.

A. Ansible is client server based and puppet is not

A. CE Site 1 Fa0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0

A. HSRPv6 is configured inly

A. Configure 1 GB sham link between PE2 and PE4

Correct Answer: ABE

A. They determine whether a destination is reachable

A. EIGRP can summarize routes at the classful network boundary

A. It is configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router.

A. IPv6 link-local traffic

Correct Answer: ABF

A. Through router C because it has a higher local preference

A. BFD and SPF throttling are configured

A. On the E0/1 interface on R2

A. It increases the connection’s send MSS value to prevent fragmentation.

A. The service tcp-small servers command

A. Static NAT supports a one to one address mapping

Correct Answer: ACF

A. It provides a list of AS numbers top which the aggregate is advertised.

A. Service timestamps log datetime localtime show-timezone