Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 4


1. Victor Magtanggol, with treachery, killed his father. What was the crime committed?
A. Murder B. Homicide C. Parricide D. Qualified Homicide

2. Prof. Sugar gave a failing grade to one of his students, Puma. When the two met the following day,
Puma slapped Prof. Sugar on the face. What was the crime committed by Puma?
A. Corruption of Public Officials C. Slight Physical Injuries
B. Direct Assault D. Indirect Assault

3. Factum probans means __.

A. preponderance of evidence C. evidentiary fact
B. ultimate fact D. sufficiency of evidence

4. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain, by means of force and/or
A. qualified theft B. theft C. robbery D. malicious mischief

5. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to
do something against his will, whether right or wrong.
A. grave threat B. direct assault C. grave coercion D. slander by deed

6. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband
who knows her to be married, although the marriage can be later declared void.
A. concubinage B. bigamy C. adultery D. immorality

7. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or
simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices B. Suspects C. Principals D. Accessories

8. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of
a certain time fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime C. prescription of judgment
B. prescription of prosecution D. prescription of penalty

9. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs
of the society.
A. mala prohibita C. private crimes
B. mala in se D. public crimes

10. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and
this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery C. corruption of public officer
B. direct bribery D. indirect bribery

11. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by authority
of law on a material matter.
A. libel B. falsification C. perjury D. slander

12. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

A. Treachery C. ignominy
B. evident premeditation D. cruelty
13. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence B. imprudence C. omission D. act

14. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.

A. Insanity C. passion or obfuscation
B. intoxication D. evident premeditation

15. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually
satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment C. preliminary investigation
B. plea bargaining D. trial

16. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a bondsman,
conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law.
A. Subpoena B. recognizance C. bail D. warrant

17. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the acts in
issue in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue.
A. Trial B. Arraignment C. pre-trial D. judgment

18. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and
the imposition of the proper penalty.
A. Trial B. Arraignment C. pre-trial D. judgment

19. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to
engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty
thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial C. preliminary investigation
B. arraignment D. plea bargaining

20. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence C. corroborative evidence
B. prima facie evidence D. best evidence

21. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such
as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence C. material evidence
B. testimonial evidence D. real evidence

22. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence C. secondary evidence
B. corroborative evidence D. negative evidence

23. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above

24. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
A. impossible crime C. accidental crime
B. mistake of facts D. complex crime

25. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than -

A. 36 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours

26. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if it was not for the inherent
impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime C. complex crime
B. impossible crime D. accidental crime

27. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party,
any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. subpoena B. information C. complaint D. warrant

28. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that
would make an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability.
A. Exempting B. alternative C. justifying D. aggravating

29. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs
no criminal and civil liability.
A. Exempting B. alternative C. justifying D. aggravating

30. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing
him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy B. cruelty C. treachery D. masochism

31. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final
judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism C. habitual delinquency
B. reiteracion D. quasi-recidivism

32. Alevosia means

A. Craft B. treachery C. evident premeditation D. cruelty

33. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime
of serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of
any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist C. quasi-recidivist
B. habitual delinquent D. hardened criminal

34. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed
a crime, and/or their punishment in case of conviction.
A. Criminal Law C. Criminal Procedure
B. Criminal Evidence D. Criminal Jurisprudence

35. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

A. 20 years B. 15 years C. 10 years D. 40 years

36. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

A. Accomplices B. Accessories C. Instigators D. Principals
37. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been convicted by final
judgment, shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the
A. quasi-recidivism B. recidivism C. reiteracion D. charivari

38. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

A. 30 days B. 15 days C. 10 days D. 60 days

39. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.
A. treason B. espionage C. rebellion D. coup d’ etat

40. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong.
A. treachery B. premeditation C. recidivism D. discernment

41. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

A. Estafa B. Murder C. Rebellion D. Rape

42. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended.
A. Aberratio ictus C. Dura Lex Sed lex
B. Error in personae D. Praeter Intentionem

43. It means mistake in the blow.

A. Aberratio ictus C. Dura Lex Sed lex
B. Error in personae D. Praeter Intentionem

44. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are
A. Attempted B. Frustrated C. Consummated D. Accomplished

45. Crimes that have three stages of execution.

A. Material B. Formal C. Seasonal D. Continuing

46. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious.
A. Culpable B. Intentional C. Ordinary D. Inculpable

47. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

A. Offenses B. Misdemeanors C. Felonies D. Ordinances

48. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the
A. Generality B. Territoriality C. Prospectivity D. Retroactivity

49. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission
of an offense.
A. Search B. Seizure C. Arrest D. Detention

50. It is committed whenever the offender commences the commission of a crime directly by overt
acts but does not perform all the acts of execution which should produce the felony as a consequence
by reason of some cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
A. Frustrated felony C. Consummated felony
B. Attempted felony D. Accomplished felony