Important Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue or Black Ball Point
Pen. To mark answers on the OMR Sheet, use Blue or Black ball point pen only.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. There are three sections in the question paper,
Subject I, II and III consisting of Physics (45 Questions), Chemistry (45 Questions), Biology (90
questions) in each subject of equal weightage.
3. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. For each wrong answer, 1 (One)
mark will be deducted. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is
indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 3 above.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any text material, printed or written, mobile phone or any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.
7. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with regard
to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
Rules and Regulations of the Examination body.

SUBJECT SYLLABUS COVERED

PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY Full Syllabus Test-01
BIOLOGY
 Vidyamandir Classes

SECTION - I (PHYSICS) 180 MARKS

1. While measuring the acceleration due to gravity by a simple pendulum, a student makes a positive
error of 1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of time period. His
42 L
percentage error in the measurement of g by the relation g  2 will be:
T
(1) 2% (2) 4% (3) 7% (4) 10%
2. In uniform circular motion:
(1) Both velocity and acceleration are constant
(2) Acceleration and speed are constant but velocity changes
(3) Both acceleration and velocity changes
(4) Both acceleration and speed are constant
3. A person is sitting in a travelling train and facing the engine. He tosses up a coin and the coin falls
behind him. It can be concluded that the train is
(1) Moving forward and gaining speed (2) Moving forward and losing speed
(3) Moving forward with uniform speed (4) Moving backward with uniform speed
4. A ring, a solid sphere and a thin disc of different masses rotate with the same kinetic energy. Equal torques
are applied to stop them. Which will make the least number of rotations before coming to rest?
(1) Disc (2) Ring
(3) Solid sphere (4) All will make same number of rotations
5. The figure shows a glass tube (linear co-efficient of expansion is ) completely
A0
filled with a liquid of volume expansion co-efficient . On heating length of the
liquid column does not change. Choose the correct relation between  and :
l0
(1) = (2)  = 2

(3)  = 3 (4) 
3
6. The periodic time of a particle doing simple harmonic motion is 4 second. The time taken by it to go
from its mean position to half the maximum displacement (amplitude) is
2 1
(1) 2s (2) 1s (3) s (4) s
3 3
7. Two circular coils A and B are facing each other as shown in figure. The current i through A can be
altered:
(1) There will be repulsion between A and B if i is increased A B

(2) There will be attraction between A and B if i is increased

(3) There will be neither attraction nor repulsion when i is changed
i
(4) Attraction or repulsion between A and B depends on the direction
of current. If does not depend whether the current is increased or
decreased

8. If   2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ and B  iˆ  3 ˆj  4kˆ then projection of A on B will be

3 3 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
13 26 26 13

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 Vidyamandir Classes
9. A 60 kg man stands on a spring scale in the lift. At some instant he finds, scale reading has changed
from 60 kg to 50kg for a while and then comes back to the original mark. What should we conclude?
(1) The lift was in constant motion upwards
(2) The lift was in constant motion downwards
(3) The lift while in constant motion upwards, is stopped suddenly
(4) The lift while in constant motion downwards, is suddenly stopped
10. The mass and length of a wire are M and L respectively. The density of the material of the wire is d.
On applying the force F on the wire, the increase in length is l, then the Young's modulus of the
material of the wire will be :
Fdl FL FMl FdL2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ml Mdl dl Ml
11. A source of sound emits 400 W power which is uniformly distributed over a sphere of 10 m radius.
What is the loudness of sound on the surface of a sphere.
(1) 200 dB (2) 200  dB (3) 120 dB (4) 120  dB
12. The electric field in a region surrounding the origin is uniform and along the x-axis. A small circle is
drawn with the centre at the origin cutting the axes at points A, B, C, D having co-ordinates (a, 0), (0,
a), (– a, 0), (0, – a); respectively as shown in figure then potential in minimum at the point

B E

C A

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

13. Two bulbs consume same power when operated at 200 V and 300 V respectively. When these bulbs
are connected in series across a D.C. source of 500 V, then:
(1) Ratio of potential difference across them is 3/2
(2) Ratio of potential difference across them is 9/4
(3) Ratio of power consumed across them is 4/9
(4) Ratio of power consumed across them is 2/3
14. A bulb and a capacitor are in series with an ac source. On increasing frequency how will glow of the
bulb change.
(1) The glow decreases (2) The glow increases
(3) The glow remain the same (4) The bulb quenches
15. The figure shows different graphs between stopping potential (V0 ) and frequency () for photosensitive
surface of cesium, potassium, sodium and lithium. The plots are V0
parallel. Correct ranking of the targets according to their work
function greatest first will be:
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
5.0 5.2 5.4 5.6 5.8 
(4) (i) = (iii) > (ii) = (iv)
(1014 Hz)

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 Vidyamandir Classes
16. In a Young’s double slit experimental arrangement shown here, if a mica
sheet of thickness t and refractive index  is placed in front of the slit S1 , S1

then the path difference (S1P  S2 P) S2

(1) Decreases by (  1)t (2) Increases by (  1)t P

Screen
(3) Does not change (4) Increases by t Slit

v 
17. The position of a particle at time t is given by the relation x(t )   0  (1  ct ) , where v0 is a

constant and   0 . The dimensions of v0 and  are respectively:
1 1
(1) M 0 LT and T 1 (2) M 0 LT
1 0
and T 1
1 1
(3) M 0 LT and LT 2 (4) 1 1
M 0 LT and T
18. At the highest point of the path of a projectile, its
(1) Kinetic energy is maximum (2) Potential energy is minimum
(3) Kinetic energy is minimum (4) Total energy is maximum
19. If the normal force is doubled, the coefficient of friction is
(1) Not changed (2) Halved (3) Doubled (4) Tripled
20. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be
(1) 5I (2) 6I (3) 3I (4) 4I
21. When a capillary tube is dipped in water it rises upto 8 cm in the tube. What happens when the tube is
pushed down such that its end is only 5 cm above the outside water level?
(1) The radius of the meniscus increases and therefore water does not overflow
(2) The radius of the meniscus decreases and therefore water does not overflow
(3) The water forms a droplet on top of the tube but does not overflow
(4) The water start overflowing
22. Three identical vessels are filled with equal masses of three different liquids A, B and C
(A  B  C ) . The pressure at the base will be:
(1) Equal in all vessels (2) Maximum in vessel A
(3) Maximum in vessel B (4) Maximum in vessel C
23. Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal gas are as shown in figure. Choose the wrong
statement:
P P P

T T T
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Density of gas is increasing in graph (i) (2) Density of gas is decreasing in graph (ii)
(3) Density of gas is constant in graph (iii) (4) None of these

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 Vidyamandir Classes
24. A gas undergoes a change of state during which 100 J of heat is supplied to it and it does 20 J of
work. The system is brought back to its original state through a process during which 20 J of heat is
released by the gas. The work done by the gas in the second process is:
(1) 60 J (2) 40 J (3) 80 J (4) 20 J
25. A black body is heated from 27o C to 127o C . The ratio of their energies of radiations emitted will be:
(1) 3: 4 (2) 9 : 16 (3) 27 : 64 (4) 81: 256
26. The period of a simple pendulum, whose bob is a hollow metallic sphere, is T. The period is T1 when
the bob is filled with sand, T2 when it is filled with mercury and T3 when it is half filled with mercury.
Which of the following is true?

T T1 T2 T3

Hollow Sand Mercury

(1) T  T1  T2  T3 (2) T1  T2  T3  T (3) T  T3  T1  T2 (4) T  T1  T2  T3

27. A 500 F capacitor is charged at a steady rate of 100 C/sec. The potential difference across the
capacitor will be 10 V after an interval of:
(1) 5 sec (2) 20 sec (3) 25 sec (4) 50 sec
28. A charged particle is projected in a plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. The area bounded
by the path described by the particle is proportional to:
(1) The velocity (2) The momentum (3) The kinetic energy (4) None of these
29. A fixed horizontal wire carries a current of 200 A. Another wire having a mass per unit length
102 kg / m is placed below the first wire at a distance of 2 cm and parallel to it. How much current
must be passed through the second wire if it floats in air without any support? What should be the
direction of current in it?
(1) 25A (direction of current is same to first wire)
(2) 25A (direction of current is opposite to first wire)
(3) 49 A (direction of current is same to first wire)
(4) 49 A (direction of current is opposite to first wire)
30. In series with 20 ohm resistor a 5 henry inductor is placed. To the combination an e.m.f. of 5 volt is
applied. What will be the rate of increase of current at t = 0.25 sec.
(1) e (2) e 2 (3) e1 (4) None of these
31. If power factor is 1/2 in a series RL circuit R  100  . ac mains is used then L is:
3 
(1) Henry (2)  Henry (3) Henry (4) None of these
 3
32. If the mass of a radioactive sample is doubled, the activity of the sample and the disintegration
constant of the sample are respectively
(1) Increases, remains the same (2) Decreases, increases
(3) Decreases, remains same (4) Increases, decreases

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 Vidyamandir Classes
33. In the following circuit, a voltmeter V is connected across a lamp L. What change would occur in
voltmeter reading if the resistance R is reduced in value:
L
V

VCC
R
+ –
VBB
(1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) Remains same (4) None of these
34. A ground receiver station is receiving a signal at (i) 5 MHz and transmitted from a ground transmitter
at a height of 300 m, located at a distance of 100 km from the receiver station. The signal is coming
via. Radius of earth  6.4 106 m. N max of isosphere  1012 m3 .
(1) Space wave (2) Sky wave propagation
(3) Satellite transponder (4) All of these
35. A lens when placed on a plane mirror then object needle and its image coincide at 15 cm. The focal
length of the lens is:

(1) 15 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 

36. The figure here gives the electric field of an EM wave at a certain point and a certain instant. The
wave is transporting energy in the negative z direction. What is the direction of the magnetic field of
the wave at that point and instant?
Y

E

Z
(1) Towards + X direction (2) Towards – X direction
(3) Towards + Z direction (4) Towards – Z direction
37. In the following figure two parallel metallic plates are maintained at different potential. If an electron
is released midway between the plates, it will move:

– 200 V – 400 V

(1) Right ward at constant speed (2) Left ward at constant speed
(3) Accelerated right ward (4) Accelerated left ward
38. A conducting sphere of radius R and carrying a charge q is joined to a conducting sphere of radius 2R,
and carrying a charge – 2q. The charge flowing between them will be:
q 2q 4q
(1) (2) (3) q (4)
3 3 3

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39. A solenoid has a core of a material with relative permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are
insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A. If the number of turns is 1000 per metre. Then
magnetic intensity H is:
(1) 2 103 A / m (2) 3 103 A / m (3) 4 103 A / m (4) 5 103 A / m
40. Two point charges q1 and q2 of magnitude 108 C and 108 C respectively, are placed 0.1 m apart.
Calculate the electric field at point A as shown in figure.
A

0.1 m 0.1 m

q1 q2
+ –
0.05 m 0.05 m
(1) 4 103 NC 1 (2) 6 103 NC 1 (3) 9 103 NC 1 (4) 8 103 NC 1
41. A long straight wire of a circular cross section of radius a is carrying current I. The current I is
uniformly distributed across its cross section. Magnetic field at a distance r from its axis in the region
r < a is:
 0 I   0 I   0 I   0 I 
(1)  2r 2  a (2)  2a2  r (3)  2a  r (4)  2r 
       
42. A light bulb and an open coil inductor are connected an ac source through a
key as shown in figure. The switch is closed and after sometime, an iron rod is
inserted into the interior of the inductor. The glow of the light bulb:
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) increases then decreases (4) remain unchanged
43. A charge Q is fixed at a distance d in front of an infinite metal plate. The lines of force are represented by:
+Q

+Q +Q +Q +Q

(1) (2) (3) (4)

44. Two simple pendulums of lengths 1.44 m and 1 m start swinging together. After how many vibrations
will they again start swinging together:
(1) 5 oscillations of smaller pendulum (2) 6 oscillations of smaller pendulum
(3) 4 oscillations of bigger pendulum (4) 6 oscillations of bigger pendulum
45. A body of mass m1 moving with uniform velocity of 40 m/s collides with another mass m2 at rest and
m1
then the two together begin to move with uniform velocity of 30 m/s. The ratio of their masses is:
m2
(1) 0.75 (2) 1.33 (3) 3.0 (4) 4.0

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 Vidyamandir Classes

SECTION - II (CHEMISTRY) 180 MARKS

46. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit for He+ ion is –54.4 eV. Which one of the following
is a possible excited state for electron in Bohr orbit of He+ ion?
(1) –6.04 eV (2) – 6.8eV (3) – 1.7 eV (4) +1.36 eV
47. The hybridization of P in phosphate ion (PO34 ) is the same as:
(1) I in ICl4 (2) S in SO3 (3) N in NO3 (4) S in SO32
48. An aqueous solution of 6.3 gm oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N
NaOH required to completely neutralise 10 ml of this solution is:
(1) 40 ml (2) 20 ml (3) 10 ml (4) 4 ml
49. The IP1,IP2 ,IP3 ,IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The
element is likely to be:
(1) Na (2) Si (3) F (4) Ca
50. For which of the following, K p may be equal to 0.5 atm:
(1) 2HI H2  I2 (2) PCl5 PCl3  Cl2
(3) N2  3H2 2NH3 (4) 2NO2 N2O4
51. Densities of diamond and graphite are 3.5 and 2.3 grams respectively. Increase of pressure on the
equilibrium Cdiamond Cgraphite .
(1) Favours backward reaction (2) Favours forward reaction
(3) Have no effect (4) Increase the reaction rate
52. The conjugate acid of azide ion is:
(1) NH3 (2) N3 H (3) N2 H4 (4) N2

53. 102 mole of NaOH was added to 10 litre of water. The pH will change by:
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 11 (4) 7
54. When equal volumes of following solution are mixed, precipitation of AgCl( Ksp  1.8 1010 ) will
occur only with:
(1) 104 M; Ag  and 104 M; Cl (2) 105 M; Ag  and 105 M; Cl
(3) 106 M; Ag  and 106 M; Cl (4) 1010 M; Ag  and 1010 M; Cl
55. The heat of neutralisation of HCN by NaOH is –12.1 kJ/mole, the energy of dissociation of HCN is:
(1) –43.8 kJ (2) 45.4 kJ (3) 68 kJ (4) –68 kJ
56. The dissociation energy of CH4 and C2H6 are respectively 360 & 620 k. cal/mole. The bond energy of
C–C is:
(1) 260 kcal/mole (2) 180 kcal/mole (3) 130 kcal/mole (4) 80 kcal/mole

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57. In closest packing of A type of atoms (radius, rA ), the radius of atom B that can be fitted into
Octahedral void is:
(1) 0.155 rA (2) 0.125 rA (3) 0.414 rA (4) 0.732 rA
58. Close packing is maximum in the Crystal which is:
(1) Simple cube (2) bcc (3) fcc (4) none
59. The vapour pressure of benzene at 80°C is lowered by 10 mm by dissolving 2g of a non-volatile
substance in 78g of benzene. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 80°C is 750 mm. The molecular
weight of the substance will be:
(1) 15 (2) 150 (3) 1500 (4) 148
60. The standard reduction electrode potential values of elements A, B, C are + 0.68, –2.50, and – 0.50 V
respectively. The order of their reducing power is:
(1) A B  C (2) ACB (3) CBA (4) BCA
61. One coulomb of charge passes through solution of AgNO3 and CuSO4 connected in series and the
conc. of two solution being in the ratio 1:2. The ratio of weight of Ag and Cu deposited on Pt
electrode is:
(1) 107.9 : 63.54 (2) 54 : 31.77 (3) 107.9 : 31.77 (4) 54 : 63.54
62. Terephthalic acid is obtained by oxidation of which of following compounds.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

63. The relative stability order of carbanions CH  C ,– CH3 and CH2  – CH is_____.
(1) CH  C  CH2  CH  CH3 (2) CH3  CH2  CH  CH  C

(3) CH  C  CH2  CH  CH3 (4) CH2  CH  CH  C  CH3

64. The following compound can exhibit:

(1) geometrical isomerism
(2) geometrical and optical isomerisms
(3) optical isomerism
(4) tautomerism
65. Which of the following compounds yields only one product on monobromination?
(1) Neopentane (2) Toluene (3) Phenol (4) Aniline

66. . Identify ‘X’.

(1) (2) (3) (4) Cannot say

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67. The order of the basicity in the following compounds is:

(1) IV > I > III > II (2) III > I > IV > II
(3) I > III > II > IV (4) II > I > III > IV

68. . Identify Y.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) None of the above

69. Among the following, which have aromatic character?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

70. Which of the following structures are super imposable?

(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 1 and 4 (4) 1 and 3

71. Which of the following is fast de-brominated?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

72. A compound has the formula C2HCl2Br. The number of non identical structures that are possible is:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
73. Which of the following alkene on acid catalysed hydration form 2-methyl propan-2-ol?
(1) (CH3 )2 CH  CH2 (2) CH3  CH  CH2
(3) CH3  CH  CH  CH3 (4) CH3  CH2  CH  CH2
74. Point out (A) in the given reaction sequence:

(A) 
O3 /H2O
(B)   2CH3COOH  CO2

(1)
(2) (3) (4)

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75. Ozonolysis of will give:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

76. A mixture of benzoic acid and phenol may be separated by treatment with
(1) NaHCO3 (2) NaOH (3) NH3 solution (4) KOH

77. In the reaction HO – CH2 – CHO  dil.NaOH


How many distinct products (saturated) are possible?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
78. Zinc tarnishes in moist air due to formation of:
(1) ZnCO3.3Zn(OH)2 (2) Zn(OH)2
(3) ZnCO3.ZnCl2 (4) None of the above

79. Which compound does not dissolve in hot dilute HNO3 ?

(1) HgS (2) PbS (3) CuS (4) CdS
80. The product of reaction of an aqueous solution of Bi3+ salt with sodium thiosulphate is
(1) Bi2S3 (2) Na3[Bi(S2O3 )3 ] (3) Na3[Bi(S2O3 )2 ] (4) [Bi2(S2O3)2]Cl2

81.

(1) X  H4P2O7 (l) Y  HPO3 (s) (2) X  H4P2O7 (s) Y  PH3 (g)
(3) X  H4P2O7 (s) Y  P2O5 (g) (4) X  H4P2O7 (l) Y  H3PO3 (l)
82. When excess of SnCl2 is added to HgCl2 , the substance formed is:
(1) HgCl2 (2) Sn (3) Hg (4) Cl2
83. In the reaction, 2PCl5 PCl4  PCl6 , the change in hybridization state is from:
(1) sp3d to sp3 and sp3d2 (2) sp3d to sp2 and sp3
(3) sp3d to sp3d2 and sp3d3 (4) sp3d2 to sp3 and sp3d
84. The increasing order of affinity of P4O10 ,Cl2O7 and I2O5 for water is:
(1) P4O10  I2O5  Cl2O7 (2) Cl2O7  I2O5  O4O10
(3) P4O10  Cl2O7  I2O5 (4) I2O5  Cl2O7  P4O10

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85. HNO3  S 
H2SO4

HNO3  Se 
H2SeO3
S and Se belong to same group. Despite this, they are giving different types of products. Which of the
following best explains this?
(1) Inert pair effect
(2) d-orbitals have poor shielding power when compared to p-orbitals
(3) Lattice energy of H2SeO3 is very high when compared to that of H 2SeO 4
(4) H2SeO3 is stronger acid than H 2SeO 4

86. An element X forms compounds of the formula XCl3 , X2 O5 and Ca 3 X 2 , but does not form XCl5 .
Which of the following is the element X?
(1) B (2) Al (3) N (4) P
87. When boron is fused with NaOH, products formed are:
(1) Na2B4O7 and H 2 (2) NaBO2 and H 2
(3) Na3BO3 and H 2 (4) B2O3 and H 2

88. The hydroxide which has lowest value of Ksp at 25oC is:

(1) Be(OH) 2 (2) Ba(OH)2 (3) Ca(OH)2 (4) Mg(OH)2

89. The increasing order of thermal stability of the following carbonates are:
(i) K2CO3 (ii) MgCO3 (iii) CaCO3 (iv) BeCO3
(1) (iv) <(ii) < (iii) < (i) (2) (iv) < (ii) < (i) < (iii)
(3) (ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (i) (4) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)

90. A white solid (X) gives golden yellow flame on platinum wire. A piece of red litmus paper turns
white when it is dipped into a freshly made aqueous solution of white solid. The formula of (X) is:
(1) Na 2O (2) NaOH (3) Na 2O2 (4) Na 2SO3

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SECTION - III (BIOLOGY) 360 MARKS

91. Mark the wrong table match:
Figure Phylum character present in all its members

(1) Porifera Presence of water canal system

(2) Platyhelminthes Hooks and suckers

(3) Annelida Organ system level of body organization

(4) Echinodermata Always indirect development

92.

In the given Cladogram a, b, c d is:

(1) Cephalochordata, agnatha, Tetrapoda, Rohu
(2) Protochordata, gnathostomata, osteichthyes, Angel Fish
(3) Protochordata, gnathostomata, chondrichtyes, hippocampus
(4) Urochordata, gnathostomata, osteichthhyes, clarias

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93. What are common characteristics in between given diagram a and b?

(i) Both are example of specialized connective tissue.

(ii) Presence of similar ground substance
(iii) Presence of Lacunae
(iv) Presence of collagen fibres
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (i), (iv) only
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) only (4) (i) only
94. In the given diagram of mouth parts of cockroach a, b, c, d is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Mandible, maxilla, labium, hypopharyax
(2) Mandible, maxilla, labrum, hypopharynx
(3) maxilla, mandible, labium, hypophanynx
(4) Mandible, maxillae, labrum, labium
95. Mark the incorrect statement?
(1) All the co-enzymes are co-factors.
(2) Prosthetic group and co-enzymes are organic compounds.
(3) Metal ions form coordination bond with the active site and substrate molecule.
(4) Zinc is a co-factor for the enzymes peroxidase and catalase.
96. How many statements are true related to human digestive process?
(i) Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into disaccharide.
(ii) Fats are broken down by gastric lipases with the help of bile into di-and monoglycerides.
(iii) Nucleases in the intestinal Juice acts on nucleic acids to form nucleotides and nucleosides.
(iv) Dipeptides are formed by the action of proteolytic enzymes of pancreas in the upper part of
small intestine.
(1) Three (2) Two (3) Four (4) one
97. We can-not directly alter the pulmonary volume because:
(1) Lungs are covered with double layered pleura with pleural fluid between them.
(2) The movement of air in and out of the lungs is carried out by creating a pressure gradient
between the lungs and the atmosphere.
(3) The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air tight chamber.

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(4) We can change the strength of inspiration and expiration with the help of abdominal muscles
only.
98. Human heart is myogenic, because:
(1) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function.
(2) Normal activities of the heart are regulated intrinsically.
(3) Cardiac function is moderated by Adrenal medullary hormones.
(4) Autonomic nervous system can increase or decrease the rate of heart beat.
99. Mark the incorrect match for the given diagram of ECG.

(1) P wave – Electrical excitation of atria.

(2) T wave – Returns of the ventricles from the excited to normal state.
(3) QRS – depolarization of ventricle.
(4) End of T wave – marks the end of joint diastole.
100. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding physiology of urine formation?
(1) During ultrafiltration, all the constituent of the blood filtered out to Bowman’s capsule except
proteins.
(2) During tubular reabsorption, maximum nitrogenous wastes are absorbed by passive transport
in PCT.
(3) Process of tubular secretion starts from PCT and end to collecting duct.
(4) Henle’s loop plays significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary
interstitial fluid.
101. Mark the wrong statement regarding vasa-recta?
(i) it is the fine branches of efferent arteriole.
(ii) it is the branches of afferent arteriole which runs parallel to the Henle’s loop.
(iii) it is absent or highly reduced in cortical nephron.
(iv) during countercurrent process, NaCl is returned the interstitium by ascending portion of vasa
recta.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (ii), (iv) only
(3) (ii), (iii) only (4) (ii) only
102. What is correct for the given diagram?

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(i) it represents two molecules of meromyosin
(ii) it consists of both ATP and actin binding sites
(iii) it consists of both HMM and LMM
(iv) its cross arm consists of HMM only
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (i), (iii), (iv) only
(3) (ii), (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) only
103. Mark the wrong table match:
(1) Total number of carpals, metacarpals and phalanges in one arm 27
(2) Total number of facial and cranial bone 22
(3) Total number of bone from pelvic girdle to phalanges in lower limb 30
(4) number of vertebrochondral ribs 6
104. From the following events of nerve impulse conduction:
(i) Axonal membrane is more permeable for K+ and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions during
resting potential.
(ii) Stimulus is applied at a site on the depolarized membrane to generate action potential.
(iii) Na+ - K+ pump maintain inner surface of axonal membrane more negatively charged.
(iv) Rapid influx of Na+ changes the polarity; the outer surface of axonal membrane becomes
+vely charged, and the inner side becomes –vely charged.
(1) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect and (i) is followed by (iii) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iv) are incorrect and (i) & (iii) occur simultaneously
(3) only (iv) is incorrect, while (i) & (iii) is followed by (ii)
(4) only (ii) is incorrect while (i), (iii) & (iv) occur simultaneously
105. Mark the wrong match?
(1) Pons – A part of brain stem consists of fibre tracts that interconnects different regions of the
brain.
(2) Corpora Quadrigemina – A part of brain stem present in the ventral portion of midbrain.
(3) Medulla – A part of brainstem which controls cardiovascular reflexes.
(4) Association area – A part of cerebral cortex which performs memory and communication.
106. The ear detects sound by the movement of
(1) The cupula that surround the hair cells (2) The basilar membrane
(3) The tectorial membrane (4) Fluid in the semi-circular canals
107. Mark the wrong combination?
Hormone Source Function
(1) Glucagons -cells of many Islet It is a peptide hormone that stimulates
of Langerhans glycogenolysis in the liver cells
(2) Catecholamine Adrenal Medulla Rapidly secreted in response to stress, and increases
sweating
(3) Melatonin Pineal gland Helps in maintain the normal rhythm of sleep- wake
cycle
(4) ANF Renal artery It causes dilation of blood vessels which decreases
blood pressure

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108. An animal that is oviparous, reproduces by:
(1) giving birth to free living young
(2) producing internally fertilized eggs that develop externally
(3) producing eggs that are fertilized externally
(4) incubating eggs internally while the fetus develops.
109. Eggs and sperm are genetically very similar but structurally very different. Why is this so?
(1) both contain a haploid chromosome number, but egg must provide nutrient for early
development, while sperm must be able to move efficiently.
(2) both contain a diploid chromosome number, but egg must provide nutrient for early
development, while sperm must be able to move efficiently.
(3) both contain maternal chromosome but only sperm can control which chromosomes are
passed on.
(4) both contain a haploid chromosome number but only eggs can control which chromosomes
are passed on.
110. If we could monitor the amount of total gonadotrophin activity in pregnant women, we would expect.
(1) High level of FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening.
(2) High level of circulating FSH and LH to stimulate implantation of the embryo.
(3) High level of HCG in the uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening.
(4) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis.
111. Which of the following application prevents pregnancy within 72 hours of unsafe coitus?
(i) oral pills containing progestogens only
(ii) oral pills containing both progestogens and estrogen.
(iii) IUD
(iv) Surgical method:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) only
(3) (ii), (iii) only (4) (iii), (iv) only.
112. Which of the following process operates to eliminate intermediate phenotype?
(1) genetic drift and directional selection
(2) bottle neck effect and stabilizing selection.
(3) disruptive selection
(4) genetic drift always.
113. During evolutionary history of vertebrates.
(1) Mammals were originated from the sauropsids.
(2) Early ancestor of dinosaurs were sauropsids.
(3) Mammals and dinosaurs both were originated from synapsida.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
114. Mark the wrong match regarding facts of human ancestor.
(1) Dryopithecus and Existed around 15 mya They were hairy and walked like
ramapithecus gorillas and chimpanzees.
(2) Australopithecus Two mya lived in east They hunted with stone weapon and
African grass land essentially ate meat.

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(3) Homo-erectus 1.5 mya Had a large brain around 900 cc and
probably ate meat.
(4) Neanderthal man Lived near east and Used hides to protect their body and
central Asia between buried their dead.
100,000 – 40,000 years
back.
115. Intestinal perforation, Bluish finger nails, stools with excess mucous and blood clots, blockage of
intestinal passage can be the symptoms of specific disease like
(1) Typhoid, Common cold, Ascariasis, Amoebiasis respectively.
(2) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Amoebiasis, Ascariasis respectively.
(3) Malaria, Common cold, Ascariasis, Amoebiasis respectively.
(4) Filaria, Pnemonia, Ascariasis, Malaria respectively.
116. Which of the following statement is true regarding primary and secondary immune response?
(1) Primary immune response is due to B lymphocyte, and secondary immune response is due to
T lymlphocyte.
(2) Primary immune response is the result of innate immunity, while secondary immune response
is the result of acquired immunity.
(3) The primary and secondary immune response are carried out with the help of B and T-
lymphocyte.
(4) Antigenic interaction is not needed for primary immune response but it is needed for
secondary response.
117. Process of inbreeding in useful for:
(1) Increasing homozygosity in a population.
(2) Remove inbreeding depression.
(3) Developing pureline in cattles
(4) Restoring fertility in sterile cattles.
118. In the process of evolution term ‘saltation’ is used for:
(1) Darwinian variations which are small and directional.
(2) Single step large mutation explained by Hardy Weinberg.
(3) The process of speciation explained by Hugo devries.
(4) Darwininan variations which are small and random.
119. For the transfer of desired gene in eukaryotic cells, Agrobacterium tumifaciens bacteria has been
modified for:
(i) It becomes no more pathogenic to plant.
(ii) Acts like as cloning vector.
(iii) It can deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plant and animal cells.
(iv) Can be used as disarmed pathogen vector.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (i), (iv) only
(4) (i), (ii), (iv) (4) (ii) only.
120. In the process of RNA interference, agrobactrium vectors are used for
(1) Transfer of ds-RNA into the nematodes.

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(2) Transfer of specific mRNA into the host plant.
(3) Transfer of ds-RNA into the host plant cell.
(4) Transfer, nematode specific genes into the host plant.
121. The mechanism of reproduction of an organism depends on which of the following factors?
(1) Habitat and Internal Physiology
(2) Habitat and Food habit
(3) Internal Physiology and Food habit
(4) Locomotion and Food habit
122. Which of the following is the typical pattern of nervous system in invertebrates?
(1) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
(2) Ventral hollow nerve cord
(3) Double ventral hollow nerve cord
(4) Double ventral solid ganglionated nerve cord
123. Pick the incorrect option:
(1) Inulin  Polyglycan homopolysaccharide  (1  4)
(2) Chitin – heteropolysaccharide -  (1  4)
(3) Cellulose – polyglycan homopolysacchariede -  (1  4)
(4) Glycogen – polyglycan homopolysaccharide -  (1  4) &  (1  6)
124. The inner layer of retina contains three layers of cells from inside to outside, and it is like
(1) photoreceptor cells – ganglionic cells – bipolar cells.
(2) ganglionic cells – bipolar cells – photoreceptor cells.
(3) bipolar cells – ganglionic cells – photoreceptor cells.
(4) ganglionic cell – photoreceptor cell – bipolar cells.
125. Mark the incorrect statement regarding ECG?
(1) ECG is the electro-cardiograph which is a machine.
(2) In a normal heart QRS complex appear only after the impulse discharge of SA node.
(3) QRS complex appear after the contraction of ventricle.
(4) By counting the number of QRS we can determine the heart beat of an individual.
126. Which of the following is not true about Autonomic nervous system?
(1) The ANS is part of the peripheral nervous system consisting of motor neurons that control
internal organs.
(2) It has two subsystems-sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
(3) The sympathetic nervous system is involved in relaxation while parasympathetic nervous
system is involved in flight and fight response.
(4) Both systems innervate the same organ and act in an opposition to maintain homeostasis.
127. Mark the wrong match?
(1) Thalamus and Hypothalamus – Part of fore brain.
(2) Cerebral aqueduct – Part of mid brain.
(3) Limbic system – A part of hind brain.
(4) Pons and medulla – Part of brain stem.

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128. Which of the following can be expected from the condition a to b?

(i) Contraction of external intercostals muscle

(ii) Contraction of diaphragm
(iii) Relaxiation of diaphragm
(iv) Relaxiation of external intercostals muscle
(1) (i), (ii) only (2) (ii), (iv) only (3) (iii), (iv) only (4) (iii) only
129. Find the incorrect match
(1) Uremia – abnormal rise in blood urea (2) Gout-accumulation of uric acid
(3) Ketonuria – ketone bodies in urine (4) Haematuria – excretion of bile pigments
130. Match the following:
A. Tubectomy i. Prevent the entry of sperm
B. LNG -20 ii. Reduces the fertilizing capacity of sperms
C. Copper T iii. Semen contains no sperms
D. CuT iv. Prevents implantation of blastocyst
E. Diaphragms vi. Fertilization prevented
(1) A-vi, B-ii, C – I, D- v, E – iv (2) A-vi, B – v, C – iv, D – ii, E – i
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – I, D – v, E – iv (4) A – ii, B – I, C – vi, D – iii, E – v
131. Pick the correct option.
(1) Estronge, the most important component of oral contraceptive pills prevent ovulation.
(2) Genital herpes is a type of sexually transmitted disease.
(3) ZIFT is an assisted reproductive technology.
(4) Lippes loop is a copper releasing IUCD.
132. The layer of zona pellucida around the developing ova can be see in:
(1) Ovary (2) Fallopian tube
(3) In uterus after implantation (4) both (1) and (2)
133. Mark the correct statement regarding insertional inactivation?
(1) it can be applied for every cloning vector.
(2) it can be applied during micro-injection and biolistic gun method.
(3) it is applicable for bacterial plasmid.
(4) it is applicable for the disarmed pathogen vector.

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134. RNA interference (RNAi) process is:

(i) useful for all eukoryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
(ii) a method involves silencing of a specific mRNA.
(iii) a method to form transgenic plant and make it protected from all the pathogens.
(iv) a method of cellular defense at transcriptional level.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) (i), (ii) only
(3) (i) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) only
135. Mark the incorrect match?
(1) B and T lymptocyte  Together provide primary and secondary immune response.
(2) B – lymphocyte  Humoral immune response.
(3) Bone marrow and Thymus gland  Provide micro-environment for the development and
maturation of T lymphocyte.
(4) Peyer’s paches and appendix  Primary lymphoidal organ.
136. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(1) For Plants the scientific names are given on the basis of agreed principles of ICBN.
(2) Plant systematics includes identification, nomenclature and classification of the plant species.
(3) Systematics deals with the evolutionary relationships between organisms.
(4) Taxon of categories higher in rank have less characters common than the taxon of lower
category.
137. Which of the following is not the characteristic of the five kingdom classification?
(1) The structure of cell, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic
relationships were the basis of classification.
(2) This brought together the prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
(3) Organisms having cellulosic cell wall grouped under plantae.
(4) Kingdom monera includes only prokaryotic organisms.
138. Match the List – A and B correctly and choose the correct option among given below:
List – A List B
(A) Antheridiophore (i) Coralloid roots
(B) Heterosporous plant (ii) Needle-like leaves
(C) Cycas (iii) Marchantia
(D) Winged pollen grains (iv) Salvinia
(E) Conifers (v) Pinus
(1) (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (v), (E) – (ii)
(2) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i), (E) – (v)
(3) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v)
(4) (A) – (v), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (iii)
139. Which of the following is not the correct match of the family and characteristic?
Family Characteristic
(1) Fabaceae – Diadelphous androecium
(2) Solanaceae – Epipetalous condition
(3) Crucifereae – Parietal placentation
(4) Liliaceae – Stamens (4 + 4)

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140. Identify the components of phloem given in the figure below labeled as (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

Sieve pore Sieve Tube Element Phloem Parenchnyma Companion Cell

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
141. Which statement is not appropriate to water potential?
(1) Its value expresses inverse relationship to the concentration of cell sap.
(2) Its value is never positive.
(3) Movement of water in plant tissues takes place from the zone of low water potential to the
zone of high water potential.
(4) Water potential is denoted by Greek symbol  and is expressed in pressure unit pascal.
142. Fixation of the atmospheric nitrogen by symbiotic bacteria requires the following except :
(1) Mo – Fe – Protein i.e., nitrogenase
(2) Oxygen scavenging activity of leg-haemoglobin
(3) Anaerobic atmosphere, and 8 ATP for each NH3 molecule produced
(4) Zn++ as modulator of enzyme nitrogenase
143. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis, there is the basic difference between the respiration and
photosynthesis. This is _____ :
(1) In chloroplast, H+ accumulation takes place in the lumen of thylakoid but in mitochondria this
takes place in perimitochondrial space.
(2) Accumulation of H+ in chloroplast takes place in matrix i.e., stroma and in mitochondria this
takes place in cristae.
(3) In both the mitochondria and chloroplast the accumulation of H+ takes place in inter-
membranous space but with high rate in mitochondria
(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct.
144. Structures of angiospermic plants have been compared to corresponding structures of pteridophytes.
Which of the following is wrong combination?
(1) Anther – Microsporangium (2) Stamen – Micrsporophyll
(3) Ovule – Megasporangia (4) Seed – megasporangium
145. The Embryosac of a tetraploid plant is given below in the diagram. The components of this have been
labelled. If this is cross pollinated by the pollen grain of diploid plant in which component wrong
ploidy is shown?

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CHALAZAL END

1 (2n)

2 (5n)

3 (n)
4 (2n)
MICROPYLAR END
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
146. Following are the statements given regarding the Mendelian disorders. Find out incorrect statement:
(1) These are mainly due to alteration or mutation in the single gene.
(2) Down’s syndrome is a Mendelian disorder.
(3) Can be traced in a family by the pedigree analysis.
(4) Their dominance or recessiveness can be determined by the pedigree analysis.
147. Which of the following is not the salient feature of human genome?
(1) This consists of 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
(2) 99.9% nucleotide bases are exactly same in all people.
(3) The functions of over 50% genes are not known.
(4) Approximately 10% of genome codes for proteins.
148. Which of the following plant variety is showing disease resistance against white rust disease?
(1) Himgiri of wheat (2) Pusa swarnim of Brassica
(3) Pusa shubhra of Cauliflower (4) Pusa sadabahar of chilli
149. Find the correct statement regarding the population interaction
(1) Amensalism is that in which one species is harmed and other is not affected.
(2) High efficiency of the predator causes its own extinction.
(3) According to Gause’s Principle related to competition no two closely related species can
coexist indefinitely.
(4) Superior barnacle Balanus and smaller barnacle Chathamalus show mutualism.
150. Regarding the biomagnifications which is correct?
(1) The organism at higher trophic level gets minimum quantity of toxicant.
(2) In the pond water ecosystem carnivorous birds have highest level of DDT.
(3) Biomagnification of DDT in pond water ecosystem is not possible.
(4) Biomagnification helps in increasing the primary productivity in the pond water ecosystem.
151. Cryopreservation of germplasm is done at
(1) 273°C (2) –196°C (3) –50°C (4) 0°C
152. In young anther, center of each microsporangia is occupied by:
(1) Archesporial tissue (2) Sporogenous tissue
(3) Connective tissue (4) Central tissue
153. A family with swollen placenta, ex-stipulate leaf and epipetalous stamen shows pollen viability for
(1) 30 minute (2) one month (3) months (4) years

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154. Two traits, that is starch synthesis and shape of seed is
(1) Two effects of same gene
(2) Two different effects of two different gene
(3) Two different effects of alleles of same gene
(4) Two different effects of group of gene
155. Match the following:
I. Henking A. Trisomy of 21
II. Sturtevant B. X-body in insect
III. Langdon Down C. Physical association of two genes
IV. Morgan D. Mapped position of gene on chromosome
Options:
I II III IV
(1) B D C A
(2) D A B C
(3) B D A C
(4) A B C D
156. In Griffith's transforming experiment, R-strain gets transformed into S-strain
(1) Due to development of smooth lipid coat
(2) Due to development of smooth protein coat
(3) Due to development of smooth polysaccharide coat
(4) Due to development of smooth glucose coat
157. How many of the following statements are correct for coding strands of transcriptional unit?
(i) It has 5'  3' polarity
(ii) The sequence is exactly similar to RNA
(iii) It does not code for anything
(iv) All the reference points in transcriptional unit are made with respect to it
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
158. Which of the following step in plant breeding is considered as crucial to meet breeding objective?
(1) Collection of variability
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents
(3) Selection and testing of superior recombinant
(4) Cross hybridisation among selected parents
159. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Trichoderma is free living fungi, present in root ecosystem acts as biocontrol agent
(2) Gene of baculoviruses is species specific broad spectrum insecticide
(3) All harmful insect pests should be kept at manageable level as it furthers biodiversity
(4) Ladybird and Dragonflies are used as biocontrol agent
160. An area with mean annual precipitation of 50-250 cm and mean annual temperature between 0-15°C
is characterised by which type of biome?
(1) Temperate forest (2) Coniferous forest
(3) Grassland (4) Scrub vegetation

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161. Which of the following population interaction helps in maintaining biodiversity at population level?
(1) Mutualism (2) Competition (3) Parasitism (4) Predation
162. How many of the following statements are correct?
(i) Primary productivity of an ecosystem depends upon plant species of that area and not on
environmental factors
(ii) During decomposition oxygen is required; the rate is controlled by chemical composition of
detritus and climatic factors
(iii) In aquatic ecosystem GFC is major conduit of energy flow, whereas in terrestrial ecosystem it
is DFC.
(iv) In most ecosystems, all the pyramids are upright.
Option:
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
163. Loss of biodiversity in a region might lead to all except.
(1) Decrease in plant productivity (2) Lower resistance to abiotic stress
(3) Variability in certain ecosystem process (4) Increased rate of precipitation
164. Out of the following six statements how many of them are correct?
i. Electrostatic precipitator can remove more than 99% of particulate matter
ii. According to CPCB particulate size 2.5 m or less in diameter are most harmful for human
health
iii. Catalytic converter reduces emission of poisonous gas
iv. Amount of biodegradable inorganic matter in sewage water is estimated by measuring BOD
v. Biomagnification is due to the metabolisation of toxic substance by living organisms
vi. Eutrophication is natural aging of lake by nutrient enrichment of its water
Option:
(1) vi (2) v (3) vi (4) iii
165. Which of the following statement is not correct for vernalisation?
(1) Vernalisation controls flowering quantitatively or qualitatively
(2) It prevents precocious reproductive development early in the growing season
(3) In biennial plants vernalisation results in photoperiodic flowering response
(4) Winter varieties of wheat, barley and rye requires vernalisation before flowering
166. What are the assumption made during calculation of net gain of ATP for every glucose molecule
during aerobic respiration?
i. Process is sequential, orderly pathway with one substrate forming another
ii. NADH produced during glycolysis is transferred to mitochondria
iii. None of intermediates in the pathway is withdrawn
iv. Only respiratory substrate is glucose and no other alternative substrates
Option:
(1) iv (2) iii (3) ii (4) i
167. In an experiment a plant is grown in greenhouse and there is increase in productivity. This is due to
(1) It is a C4 plant which shows increase in productivity due to increase in CO2 concentration
(2) It is a C3 plant which show increase in productivity with increase in CO2 concentration
(3) It can be C3 or C4 plant
(4) Photo-synthetically it is a facultative plant

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168. Find wrong statement among the following statements.
(1) Zinc is activator of carboxylase and it is also required for synthesis of auxin
(2) Like iron, copper is involved in redox reaction
(3) Boron is required for pollen germination, cell-elongation, carbohydrate translocation
(4) Iron is a macronutrient and it is required in large amount
169. Deficiency of which group will lead to chlorosis along with necrosis?
(1) Mg and K (2) Mg and P (3) P and K (4) K and Fe
170. Compare diagram ‘a’ with ‘b’ and find out which statement is incorrect about difference between
these two diagrams.

(1) In ‘a’ mesophyll is of two type where as in case of ‘b’ mesophyll is of single type
(2) In ‘a’ stomata is mainly at lower surface whereas in ‘b’ stomata is at both the surface
(3) In ‘a’ vascular bundle is of different size whereas in ‘b’ vascular bundle is of more or less
equal size
(4) In ‘a’ xylem is towards adaxial surface whereas in ‘b’ xylem is towards abaxial surface
171. Study the diagram given below mark 1, 2, 3 and 4

1 2 3 4
Seed coat and fruit
(1) Plumule Scutellum Radicle
wall 2

(2) Plumule Aleurone layer Scutellum Radicle

3
Seed coat and fruit
(3) Radicle Coleoptile Plumule
wall
1

(4) Radicle Aleurone layer Coleoptile Plumule 4

172. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Apocarpous – Lotus and rose (2) Syncarpous – Mustard and tomato
(3) Epigynous – Disc florets of sunflower (4) Imbricate – Cassia and gulmohur
173. Four statements are given below for the life cycle of bryophytes and pteridophytes. Select two correct
statements for bryophytes or pteridophytes from the given options.
1. sporophyte is totally or partially dependent on gametophyte.
2. sporophyte alternates with saprophytic/autotrophic gametophyte.
3. sporophyte is independent, photosynthetic and vascular body.
4. photosynthetic gametophyte alternates with short lived multicellular sporophyte.
Options:

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 Vidyamandir Classes
(1) 1, 2 are true for bryophytes (2) 2, 3 are true for pteridophytes
(3) 2, 4 are true for bryophytes (4) 2,4 are true for pteridophytes
174. The statement incorrect for Numerical taxonomy is
(1) carried out by using computers.
(2) number and codes assigned to few characters
(3) based on observable characters
(4) each character is given equal importance
175. Growth cannot be considered as a definite property of living organisms because
(1) It is intrinsic in living organism
(2) Growth and reproduction is synonymous in higher plants
(3) In terms of increase in mass mountains, boulders and sand moulds also grow
(4) In plants, growth is a continuous process
176. In fungi sexual life cycle involves Plasmogamy, Dikaryophase, Karyogamy and meiosis. Which of the
following class of fungi lacks dikaryophase?
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes
177. Following are six statements related to virus. How many of them are correct?
i. Viruses are obligate parasite and inert outside host.
ii. In viruses, genetic material can be DNA or RNA but never both.
iii. In viruses, genetic material is infectious.
iv. Viruses can be crystallised and crystal is mainly nucleic acid
v. In bacteriophages, genetic material is usually double stranded DNA.
vi. Smaller form of virus is known as viroids.
Options:
(1) vi (2) v (3) iv (4) iii
178. The space limited by inner membrane of the chloroplast is
i. Stroma ii. Site of dark reaction
iii. Thylakoid iv. Stroma lamella
Options:
(1) Both (i) and (ii) (2) Both (i) and (iii)
(3) Both (iii) and (iv) (4) Both (ii) and (iv)
179. Study the diagram given and find out odd statement with respect to this stage.

(1) Onset of this stage is marked by complete disintegration of nuclear envelope

(2) Chromosome is spread through cytoplasm
(3) Spindle fibres attached to kinetochores of chromosome
(4) Pairing between non-sister chromatids takes place
180. Water potential of a solution at atmospheric pressure is
(1) zero (2) equals to atmospheric pressure
(3) equals to solute potential (4) equals to pressure potential
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