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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

NN
HLAAC

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005


Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
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1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

1. The magnetic potential energy stored in a Now,


certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in u2 = –20
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
inductance 1 1 1
 
f v2 u2
(1) 13.89 H (2) 0.138 H
1 1 1
(3) 1.389 H (4) 138.88 H  –
–15 v2 20
Answer ( 1 )
1 1 1
S o l . Energy stored in inductor  –
v2 20 15
1 2 v2 = –60 cm
U Ll
2
So, image shifts away from mirror by
–3 1 = 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
25  10   L  (60  10 –3 )2
2
3. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
6 –3 
25  2  10  10 V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
L a velocity
3600 oscillating electric field of this em wave is
500 along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating

36 magnetic field of the em wave will be along

= 13.89 H (1) –x direction

2. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm (2) –z direction


from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. (3) –y direction
If the object is displaced through a distance (4) +z direction
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
displacement of the image will be Answer ( 4 )
  
(1) 36 cm towards the mirror Sol. E  B  V
(2) 30 cm away from the mirror 
ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror

(4) 36 cm away from the mirror So, B  Bkˆ

Answer ( 4 ) Direction of propagation is along +z direction.


4. The refractive index of the material of a
Sol.
f = 15 cm prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
O One of the two refracting surfaces of the
40 cm
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
coating. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the
1 1 1 silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on
  the prism is
f v1 u
(1) Zero
1 1 1
–  – (2) 60°
15 v1 40
(3) 30°
1 1 1
  
v1 –15 40 (4) 45°

v1 = –24 cm Answer ( 4 )

When object is displaced by 20 cm towards S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
mirror. normally incident on silvered face.

2
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

(20  0)
IC 
30° 4  103
60°
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
M
i 30° Vi = VBE + IBRB
Vi = 0 + IBRB
20 = IB × 500 × 103
 2
20
IB   40 A
Applying Snell's law at M, 500  103
IC 25  103
sin i 2    125
 Ib 40  106
sin30 1
6. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
1 due to heating
 sin i  2 
2 (1) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
p-n junction
1
sin i  i.e. i = 45° (2) Affects only reverse resistance
2
(3) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
5. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
(4) Affects only forward resistance
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
values of IB, IC and  are given by Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
20 V will increase, so overall resistance of diode
will change.
RC 4 k
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
C
RB biasing both are changed.
Vi
500 k B 7. In the combination of the following gates the
E output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
and B as

A
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 B
Y
(2) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
(3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
(4) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 (1) A  B
Answer ( 1 ) (2) A  B
S o l . VBE = 0
(3) A  B  A  B
VCE = 0
(4) A  B  A  B
Vb = 0
Answer ( 4 )
20 V
A
IC Sol. A AB
RC = 4 k
B
RB B Y
Vi Vb A
Ib 500 k
AB
B

Y  (A  B  A  B)

3
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

8. The power radiated by a black body is P and


 F 
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.  l   l …(ii)
If the temperature of the black body is now  3AY 
changed so that it radiates maximum energy From equation (i) & (ii),
3
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4  F   F 
becomes nP. The value of n is l    3l   l
 AY   3AY 
81 3
(1)
256
(2)
4  F  9F

10. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and


256 4
(3) (4) normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
81 3 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
Answer ( 3 ) 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
S o l . We know, 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
sample, is
max T  constant (Wien's law)
(1) 84.5 J (2) 104.3 J
So, max1 T1  max2 T2 (3) 42.2 J (4) 208.7 J
Answer ( 4 )
3
 0 T  0 T S o l . Q = U + W
4
4  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
 T  T
3  U = 208.7 J
4 4
P2  T   4 256 11. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
So,     
P1  T  3 81 viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
9. Two wires are made of the same material and
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
have the same volume. The first wire has
velocity, is proportional to
cross-sectional area A and the second wire
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of (1) r4 (2) r3
the first wire is increased by l on applying a (3) r5 (4) r2
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
the socond wire by the same amount? Answer ( 3 )
2
(1) F (2) 9 F S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
(3) 4 F (4) 6 F
VT  r 2
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Wire 1 :  Power  r 5
F 12. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
A, 3l
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
Wire 2 : plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
F
3A, l incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
For wire 1,
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
 F  (1) 2 : 1
l    3l …(i)
 AY  (2) 1 : 2
For wire 2, (3) 4 : 1
F l (4) 1 : 4
Y
3A l Answer ( 2 )

4
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

1 Answer ( 2 )
S o l . E  W0  mv2
2 S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
1 h
h(20 )  h0  mv12 0  ...(i)
2 mV0
1
h0  mv12 …(i) E0
2
1 V0
h(50 )  h0  mv22 F
2
1 Acceleration of electron
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
2 eE0
a
Divide (i) by (ii), m
1 v12 Velocity after time ‘t’

4 v22  eE0 
V   V0  t
 m 
v1 1
 h h
v2 2 So,   
mV  eE 
13. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 m  V0  0 t
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of  m 
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the h 0
  …(ii)
disintegration of 450 nuclei is  eE0   eE0 
mV0 1  t 1  t
(1) 15 (2) 20  mV0   mV0 
(3) 30 (4) 10 Divide (ii) by (i),
Answer ( 2 )
0
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150 
 eE0 
n 1  t
N  1  mV0 

N0  2  15. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
t of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
150  1  t 1/2 atom, is

600  2  (1) 1 : –2 (2) 1 : 1
t
2 (3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –1
 1  1  t 1/2
2  2 Answer ( 4 )
   
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10 S o l . KE = –(total energy)
= 20 minute So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
14. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity 16. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
a glass tube. The length of the air column in

V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive
 resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
of column length. If the frequency of the
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
Broglie wavelength at time t is air at 27ºC is
(1) 0 (1) 300 m/s (2) 330 m/s
0
(3) 350 m/s (4) 339 m/s
(2)  1  eE0 
t Answer ( 4 )
 mV0  S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
(3) 0t
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
 eE0  = 339.2 ms–1
(4) 0  1  t
 mV0  = 339 m/s

5
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

17. The electrostatic force between the metal ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor smaller time.
C having a charge Q and area A, is
20. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
(1) Inversely proportional to the distance elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
between the plates and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
(2) Independent of the distance between the the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
plates at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
(3) Proportional to the square root of the figure. Then
distance between the plates
(4) Linearly proportional to the distance B
between the plates
Answer ( 2 ) A C
S
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
Q2
Fplate  (1) KB > KA > KC
2A0
F is Independent of the distance between (2) KA < KB < KC
plates.
(3) KB < KA < KC
18. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
sufficiently high building and is moving freely (4) KA > KB > KC
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. Answer ( 4 )
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
Sol. B
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean VC
position. The time period of oscillation is perihelion
A C
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s S
aphelion
(3) 2 s (4)  s VA

Answer ( 4 ) Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.


S o l . |a| = 2y So, VA > VB > VC
 20 = 2(5) So, KA > KB > KC
  = 2 rad/s
21. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
2 2 motion a body possesses translational kinetic
T  s
 2 energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
19. An electron falls from rest through a vertical energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
directed electric field E. The direction of
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 7 : 10
electric field is now reversed, keeping its
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to (3) 10 : 7 (4) 5 : 7
fall from rest in it through the same vertical Answer ( 4 )
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
1
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is S o l . Kt  mv 2
(1) Equal (2) Smaller 2

(3) 10 times greater (4) 5 times greater 2


1 1 1 1 2  v 
Answer ( 2 ) Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2  
2 2 2 25  r 
1 eE 2
Sol. h  t
2 m 7
 mv2
2hm 10
 t
eE
Kt 5
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and So, 
proton. Kt  Kr 7

6
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

22. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller S o l . For equilibrium,
°
and the universal gravitational constant were B 30
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the co
following is not correct? mg llB
I
lB
tan30
30° 30° llB
(1) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change n
si
0.5  9.8 g
(2) Raindrops will fall faster   11.32 A m 30°
0.25  3
(3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Earth would decrease 25. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
resistor 50  are connected in series across
(4) Walking on the ground would become a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
more difficult loss in the circuit is
Answer ( 1 ) (1) 1.13 W (2) 0.79 W

S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes (3) 2.74 W (4) 0.43 W


ten times, then G = 10 G Answer ( 2 )
So, acceleration due to gravity increases. 2
V 
S o l . Pav   RMS  R
i.e. (1) is wrong option.  Z 
23. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its 2

2 1 
Z  R   L   56 
C 
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
 
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
Which of the following physical quantities 2
 
would remain constant for the sphere? 10 
 Pav    50  0.79 W
(1) Angular momentum   
 2 56 

(2) Angular velocity 26. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
(3) Rotational kinetic energy the current in the electromagnet is switched
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
(4) Moment of inertia
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
Answer ( 1 ) rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
work required to do this comes from
S o l . ex = 0
(1) The induced electric field due to the
dL changing magnetic field
So, 0
dt (2) The current source
i.e. L = constant (3) The lattice structure of the material of the
So angular momentum remains constant. rod
(4) The magnetic field
24. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth Answer ( 2 )
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to into potential energy of the rod.
slide down by flowing a current through it
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is 27. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
acting on it in the vertical direction. The
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
is
galvanometer is
(1) 11.32 A (2) 7.14 A (1) 500  (2) 40 
(3) 14.76 A (4) 5.98 A (3) 250  (4) 25 
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 3 )

7
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

S o l . Current sensitivity S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic


NBA
IS  3v
C 
4l
Voltage sensitivity
NBA For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency
VS 
CRG
v
So, resistance of galvanometer 
2l 
IS 51 5000
RG     250  Given,
VS 20  103 20
28. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies 3v v

with its temperature (T), as shown in the 4l 2l 
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to 4l 2l
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a  l  
32 3
change from state A to state B, is
2  20
  13.33 cm
3
30. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is
(1) 12.5%

2 2 (2) 26.8%
(1) (2)
7 5 (3) 6.25%
(4) 20%
1 2
(3) (4) Answer ( 2 )
3 3
Answer ( 2 )  T 
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1 2 
S o l . Given process is isobaric  T1 
T2 : Sink temperature
dQ  n Cp dT
T1 : Source temperature

5   T 
dQ  n  R  dT %   1  2   100
2  T1 

dW  P dV = n RdT
 273 
  1   100
dW nRdT 2  373 
Required ratio   
dQ 5  5
n  R  dT
2   100 
   100  26.8%
 373 
29. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed 31. At what temperature will the rms speed of
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
pipe is (Given :
(1) 16 cm Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
(2) 13.2 cm Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(3) 12.5 cm (1) 1.254 × 104 K (2) 2.508 × 104 K
(4) 8 cm (3) 5.016 × 104 K (4) 8.360 × 104 K
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 4 )

8
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s



Say at temperature T it attains Vescape S o l . Angular width 
d
3kB T
So,  11200 m/s
mO2 
0.20  …(i)
2 mm
On solving,

T = 8.360 × 104 K 
0.21  …(ii)
d
32. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
plane surface of a material of refractive index
0.20 d
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the
 d = 1.9 mm
following options is correct for this situation?
34. An astronomical refracting telescope will
1
1 
(1) i  tan   have large angular magnification and high
 angular resolution, when it has an objective
(2) Reflected light is polarised with its lens of
electric vector parallel to the plane of (1) Small focal length and small diameter
incidence
(2) Small focal length and large diameter
1
1 
(3) i  sin   (3) Large focal length and large diameter

 
(4) Large focal length and small diameter
(4) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector perpendicular to the plane Answer ( 3 )
of incidence
f0
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised So, focal length of objective lens should be
with electric field vector perpendicular to the large.
plane of incidence.
D
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22

i So, objective should have large focal length


(f0) and large diameter D.
35. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
 frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
33. In Young's double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the h B
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
distance D between the screen and slits is
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of A
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
5 3
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the (1) D (2) D
separation between the slits needs to be 4 2
changed to
7
(1) 1.7 mm (2) 1.8 mm (3) D (4) D
5
(3) 2.1 mm (4) 1.9 mm
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 1 )

9
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

Sol. 37. Which one of the following statements is


incorrect?

h (1) Coefficient of sliding friction has


B dimensions of length.

vL (2) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding


A friction.
As track is frictionless, so total mechanical (3) Frictional force opposes the relative
energy will remain constant motion.
T.M.EI =T.M.EF (4) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction.
1
0  mgh  mvL2  0 Answer ( 1 )
2
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
v2 dimension.
h L
2g f = sN

For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR f


 s 
N
5gR 5 5
h  R D 38. A moving block having mass m, collides with
2g 2 4
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
36. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin lighter block comes to rest after collision.
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
have the same mass M and radius R. They all v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
spin with the same angular speed  about (e) will be
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
satisfy the relation (3) 0.8 (4) 0.25
Answer ( 4 )
(1) WA > WC > WB
S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
(2) WC > WB > WA momentum,
(3) WB > WA > WC mv  4m  0  4mv  0

(4) WA > WB > WC v


v 
4
Answer ( 2 )
v
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
Relative velocity of approach v
W = KE
1
e  0.25
1 4
W  I2
2 39. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be
marked with rings of different colours for its
W  I for same  identification. The colour code sequence will
be
2 1
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2 (1) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
5 2
(2) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

2 1
(3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
= : :1
5 2 (4) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
Answer ( 4 )
= 4 : 5 : 10
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%
 WC > WB > WA  Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

10
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

40. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, 42. A toy car with charge q moves on a
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' frictionless horizontal plane surface under 
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn the influence of a uniform
 electric field E .
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
parallel to the same battery. Then the current from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of that instant the direction of the field is
'n' is reversed. The car continues to move for two
(1) 9 (2) 10 more seconds under the influence of this field.
(3) 20 (4) 11 The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
Answer ( 2 )
respectively
E
Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R (1) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
E
10 I  ...(ii) (2) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
R
R
n (3) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
Dividing (ii) by (i),
(n  1)R (4) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
10 
1 
 n  1 R Answer ( 4 )
 
After solving the equation, n = 10 Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
t=2
41. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' C
t=3 –a
each) which are connected in series. The
–1
terminals of the battery are short-circuited v = –6 ms
and the current I is measured. Which of the
graphs shows the correct relationship 60
between I and n? Acceleration a   6 ms2
1

For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
I I
1
(1) (2) S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2
O O
n n For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,

1
I I S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2
(3) (4) For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
O O
n n 1
Answer ( 2 ) S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
2
n 
Sol. I   Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
nr r
So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
3
 I Average velocity   1 ms 1
3

Total distance travelled = 9 m

9
Average speed   3 ms 1
O 3
n
11
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

43. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth (1) 0.529 cm


inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
in the figure. The wedge is given an (2) 0.521 cm
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The (3) 0.053 cm
relation between a and  for the block to
remain stationary on the wedge is (4) 0.525 cm

A Answer ( 1 )
m
S o l . Diameter of the ball
a = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error

C B = 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)

(1) a = g tan  = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004

= 0.529 cm
g
(2) a  
cosec  45. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
(3) a = g cos  by

g (1) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ


(4) a 
sin 
(2) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ
Answer ( 1 )

Sol. N cos (3) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ

N (4) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ

 Answer ( 1 )
ma N sin
(pseudo)  Sol. Y

mg a
 F

In non-inertial frame, A r  r0
P
N sin  = ma ...(i)
r0
r
N cos  = mg ...(ii)

a O X
tan  
g    
  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
a = g tan    ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k) ˆ
44. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
zero of circular scale division coincides with ˆi ˆj kˆ
25 divisions above the reference level. If 
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
the correct diameter of the ball is 4 5 6

12
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

46. Which of the following hormones can play a S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
significant role in osteoporosis? all emotions in our body but not movements.
(1) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin 49. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
in its place by
(2) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(1) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
body
(4) Progesterone and Aldosterone (2) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
Answer ( 3 ) (3) smooth muscles attached to the iris
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast (4) ligaments attached to the iris
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
Answer ( 2 )
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
estrogen. Parathormone promotes S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
Excessive activity of parathormone causes body.
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis. 50. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
47. Which of the following is an amino acid from
derived hormone? (1) ectoderm and endoderm

(1) Estriol (2) ectoderm and mesoderm


(3) mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) Epinephrine
(4) endoderm and mesoderm
(3) Estradiol
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Ecdysone S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
Answer ( 2 ) amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
side and ectoderm on inner side.
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
catecholamine. Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
48. Which of the following structures or regions is membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
incorrectly paired with its functions? endoderm in inner side.
(1) Corpus callosum : band of fibers 51. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
connecting left and maintain pregnancy are
right cerebral
(1) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
hemispheres.
glucocorticoids
(2) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
and cardiovascular
reflexes. (3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(4) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) Hypothalamus : production of
releasing hormones Answer ( 3 )
and regulation of S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
temperature, gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
hunger and thirst. stimulates the Corpus luteum during
(4) Limbic system : consists of fibre pregnancy to release estrogen and
tracts that progesterone and also rescues corpus
interconnect luteum from regression. Human placental
different regions of lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
brain; controls mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
movement. pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
increasing uterine threshold to contractile
Answer ( 4 )
stimuli.
13
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

52. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ 55. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
of evolution is
(1) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(1) Minor mutations
(2) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted. (2) Multiple step mutations
(3) Phenotypic variations
(3) is an IUD.
(4) Saltation
(4) increases the concentration of estrogen
and prevents ovulation in females. Answer ( 4 )
S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
Answer ( 2 )
Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
pill. It contains centchroman and its saltation.
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
56. All of the following are part of an operon
Receptor modulation.
except
53. The difference between spermiogenesis and (1) a promoter (2) an operator
spermiation is
(3) an enhancer (4) structural genes
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
Answer ( 3 )
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
are released from sertoli cells into the Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
cavity of seminiferous tubules. eukaryotes.
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are 57. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
formed. strand of a gene. What will be the
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
mRNA?
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation (1) UCCAUAGCGUA
spermatozoa are formed. (2) AGGUAUCGCAU
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are (3) ACCUAUGCGAU
formed, while in spermiation spermatids (4) UGGTUTCGCAT
are formed. Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
spermiation is the release of the sperms from 58. Match the items given in Column I with those
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous in Column II and select the correct option
tubule. given below :
54. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of Column I Column II
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
inherited by endometrial
(1) Both sons and daughters lining
(2) Only daughters b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
(3) Only grandchildren c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
(4) Only sons a b c
Answer ( 1 ) (1) iii i ii
Sol. • Woman is a carrier (2) iii ii i
• Both son & daughter inherit (3) ii iii i
X–chromosome (4) i iii ii
• Although only son be the diseased Answer ( 3 )
14
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start 62. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
developing, hence, called follicular phase. disease?
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase (1) Vitiligo
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
(2) Psoriasis
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
the endometrium maintained by (3) Alzheimer's disease
progesterone. (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
Menstruation occurs due to decline in Answer ( 3 )
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune
overgrown endometrial lining.
disorder in which antibodies are produced
59. In which disease does mosquito transmitted against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
lymphatic vessels?
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
(1) Amoebiasis
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
(2) Elephantiasis or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
(3) Ringworm disease autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
(4) Ascariasis due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
acetylcholine.
Answer ( 2 )
63. Which of the following characteristics
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by humans?
Culex mosquito.
a. Dominance
60. Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect b. Co-dominance
option : c. Multiple allele
(1) Eye of octopus, bat and man
d. Incomplete dominance
(2) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
e. Polygenic inheritance
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(1) a, c and e (2) b, c and e
(4) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
Answer ( 1 ) (3) b, d and e (4) a, b and c
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same Answer ( 4 )
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
vertebrates which have developed along relationship
different directions due to adaptation to
 IAIB - Codominance
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
and man are examples of analogous organs  IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
showing convergent evolution. forms of a gene
61. The similarity of bone structure in the (multiple allelism)
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example 64. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
of nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(1) Adaptive radiation (1) Vitamin E
(2) Homology (2) Vitamin D
(3) Convergent evolution
(3) Vitamin B12
(4) Analogy
(4) Vitamin A
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
different way as per their adaptation, hence  It has enriched presence of vitamins
example of homology. specially Vit-B12.

15
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

65. Match the items given in Column I with those 68. In a growing population of a country,
in Column II and select the correct option (1) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
given below : the reproductive individuals.
Column-I Column-II (2) pre-reproductive individuals are more
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation than the reproductive individuals.
(3) reproductive and pre-reproductive
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
individuals are equal in number.
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
(4) reproductive individuals are less than the
enrichment
post-reproductive individuals.
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal Answer ( 2 )
a b c d S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
(1) i ii iv iii the younger population size is larger than the
reproductive group, the population will be an
(2) ii i iii iv
increasing population.
(3) iii iv i ii
69. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
(4) i iii iv ii the drug “Smack”?
Answer ( 3 ) (1) Leaves (2) Flowers
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient (3) Roots (4) Latex
enrichment Answer ( 4 )
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation Poppy plant.
66. Which one of the following population 70. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
interactions is widely used in medical science help in erythropoiesis?
for the production of antibiotics? (1) Parietal cells (2) Chief cells
(1) Amensalism (3) Goblet cells (4) Mucous cells
(2) Commensalism Answer ( 1 )
(3) Parasitism S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
(4) Mutualism intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
Answer ( 1 ) be absorbed easily and used during
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –) erythropoiesis.
 Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
harm other microbes (eg : pernicious anaemia.
Staphylococcus) 71. Match the items given in Column I with those
 It has no effect on Penicillium or the in Column II and select the correct option
organism which produces it. given below :
Column I Column II
67. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
(1) Seed banks b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
c. Albumin (iii) Defence
(2) Wildlife safari parks
mechanism
(3) Botanical gardens
a b c
(4) Sacred groves (1) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer ( 4 ) (2) (iii) (ii) (i)
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation. (3) (i) (iii) (ii)
 Represent pristine forest patch as (4) (i) (ii) (iii)
protected by Tribal groups. Answer ( 1 )
16
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
coagulation. These strands forms a network many folds in the sarcoplasm.
and the meshes of which are occupied by  Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot. (troponin "C") which is masking the active
site on actin filament and displaces the
Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
sub-unit of troponin.
of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms.  Once the active site is exposed, head of
the myosin attaches and initiate
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly contraction by sliding the actin over
responsible for BCOP. myosin.
72. Which of the following is an occupational 74. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
respiratory disorder? (1) Free ribosomes and RER
(1) Emphysema (2) Proteins and lipids

(2) Anthracis (3) Nucleic acids and SER


(4) DNA and RNA
(3) Botulism
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Silicosis
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
Answer ( 4 ) even extend into the dendrite but absent in
axon and rest of the neuron.
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
breaking industries.
protein synthesis.
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation 75. Which of these statements is incorrect?
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
lung damage.
outer mitochondrial membrane
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused (2) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects mitochondrial matrix
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
(3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
supplied with NAD that can pick up
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
hydrogen atoms
decreased.
(4) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
Answer ( 1 )
by Clostridium botulinum.
S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
73. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle mitochondrial membrane.
contraction because it
76. Select the incorrect match :
(1) Prevents the formation of bonds between (1) Polytene – Oocytes of
the myosin cross bridges and the actin chromosomes amphibians
filament.
(2) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
(2) Binds to troponin to remove the masking chromosomes
of active sites on actin for myosin.
(3) Submetacentric – L-shaped
(3) Detaches the myosin head from the actin chromosomes chromosomes
filament. (4) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(4) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to Answer ( 1 )
it. S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
Answer ( 2 ) glands of insects of order Diptera.

17
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

77. Which of the following terms describe human S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
dentition? having two types of nuclei.
(1) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont macronucleus & micronucleus.

(3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont 81. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
digestive system
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Osteichthyes
S o l . In humans, dentition is
(2) Amphibia
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
(3) Aves
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
(4) Reptilia
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are Answer ( 3 )
replaced by a set of permanent or adult S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
teeth. chambers in their digestive system as crop
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists and Gizzard.
of different types of teeth namely incisors, Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
canine, premolars and molars.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
78. Which of the following events does not occur
crush food grain.
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
82. Which one of these animals is not a
(1) Phospholipid synthesis
homeotherm?
(2) Protein folding
(1) Psittacula
(3) Cleavage of signal peptide
(2) Macropus
(4) Protein glycosylation
(3) Camelus
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Chelone
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are Answer ( 4 )
involved in lipid synthesis. S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
79. Many ribosomes may associate with a single constant body temperature, irrespective of
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide surrounding temperature.
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
termed as
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
(1) Nucleosome (2) Polysome which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
(3) Plastidome (4) Polyhedral bodies 83. Which of the following features is used to
Answer ( 2 ) identify a male cockroach from a female
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many cockroach?
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to (1) Presence of anal cerci
formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or (2) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
ergasomes. 9th abdominal segment
80. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in (3) Forewings with darker tegmina
(1) having two types of nuclei
(4) Presence of caudal styles
(2) using flagella for locomotion
Answer ( 4 )
(3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
(4) having a contractile vacuole for removing styles which are absent in females.
excess water
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
Answer ( 1 ) segment in male cockroach.
18
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

84. Which of the following animals does not a b c


undergo metamorphosis?
(1) ii i iii
(1) Starfish (2) Earthworm
(2) iii i ii
(3) Moth (4) Tunicate
(3) i ii iii
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of (4) i iii ii
larva into adult. Answer ( 2 )
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
to have indirect development. between right atrium and right ventricle.
In earthworm development is direct which Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
means no larval stage and hence no left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
metamorphosis. are present at the openings of aortic and
85. Which of the following organisms are known pulmonary aorta.
as chief producers in the oceans? 88. Match the items given in Column I with those
(1) Euglenoids (2) Dinoflagellates in Column II and select the correct option
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Diatoms given below:
Answer ( 4 ) Column I Column II
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
86. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
emphysema, respectively?
volume
(1) Decreased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
(2) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased volume
respiratory surface
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(3) Increased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles a b c d
(4) Increased number of bronchioles;
(1) iv iii ii i
Increased respiratory surface
Answer ( 2 ) (2) iii ii i iv

S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing (3) i iv ii iii


wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder (4) iii i iv ii
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to Answer ( 4 )
which respiratory surface is decreased.
87. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
in Column II and select the correct option expired during normal respiration. It is
given below : approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
volume is additional volume of air a person
Column I Column II
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
and left ventricle volume is additional volume of air a person
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
ventricle and averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
pulmonary artery
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right lungs even after forceful expiration. This
atrium and right averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
ventricle
19
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

89. Match the items given in Column I with those a b c d


in Column II and select the correct option
(1) v iv i iii
given below :
Column I Column II (2) iv v ii iii

a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of (3) v iv i ii


uric acid in joints
(4) iv i ii iii
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
Answer ( 4 )
salts within the
kidney S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in particles having molecular weight less than
glomeruli 68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in Concentration of urine refers to water
nephritis glucose urine absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
a b c d of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii ii iv i Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
(3) ii iii i iv through ureter.

(4) i ii iii iv Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of


Answer ( 1 ) urine.
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the 91. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
urine. This is observed when blood glucose are produced by
level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
(1) Axillary meristems
is called renal threshold value for glucose.
Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals (2) Apical meristems
in the joint.
(3) Phellogen
Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
phosphate produced in the pelvis of the (4) Vascular cambium
kidney. Answer ( 4 )
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
condition of glomerulus characterised by
proteinuria and haematuria. • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
90. Match the items given in Column I with those and secondary phloem towards outsides.
in Column II and select the correct option • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
given below: produced than secondary phloem.
Column I Column II
92. Pneumatophores occur in
(Function) (Part of Excretory
system) (1) Submerged hydrophytes

a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop (2) Halophytes


b. Concentration ii. Ureter (3) Carnivorous plants
of urine (4) Free-floating hydrophytes
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
Answer (2)
urine
Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian pneumatophores.
urine corpuscle
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
v. Proximal having lenticels called pneumathodes to
convoluted tubule uptake O2.

20
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

93. Plants having little or no secondary growth S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
are for storage of food

(1) Cycads • Rhizomes are underground modified stem

(2) Grasses • Tap root is primary root directly elongated


from the redicle
(3) Conifers
97. Which of the following statements is correct?
(4) Deciduous angiosperms
(1) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Answer (2)
Cycas and Cedrus
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
(2) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
do not have secondary growth.
gymnosperms
Palm like monocots have anomalous
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms
secondary growth.
(4) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
94. Select the wrong statement :
Salvinia is homosporous
(1) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
Answer ( 2 )
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule.
(2) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
and Plantae • Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding 98. What type of ecological pyramid would be
structures in Sporozoans obtained with the following data?

(4) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes Secondary consumer : 120 g


Primary consumer : 60 g
Answer ( 3 )
Primary producer : 10 g
S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
(1) Upright pyramid of biomass
sarcodines (Amoeboid)
(2) Inverted pyramid of biomass
95. Casparian strips occur in
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
(1) Endodermis (4) Pyramid of energy
(2) Epidermis Answer ( 2 )

(3) Cortex Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted


pyramid of biomass, usually found in
(4) Pericycle aquatic ecosystem.
Answer ( 1 ) • Pyramid of energy is always upright

Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial • Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
and inner tangential wall. are not possible, as the data depicts
primary producer is less than primary
• It is suberin rich. consumer and this is less than secondary
consumers.
96. Sweet potato is a modified
99. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(1) Rhizome
(1) 22nd April
(2) Stem
(2) 5th June
(3) Tap root (3) 16th September
(4) Adventitious root (4) 21st April
Answer ( 4 ) Answer (3)

21
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th 103. Which of the following is a secondary


September. pollutant?
5th June - World Environment Day (1) O3
21st April - National Yellow Bat Day (2) CO
22nd April - National Earth Day (3) SO2
100. In stratosphere, which of the following (4) CO2
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
Answer ( 1 )
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
(1) Oxygen (2) Carbon
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
(3) Fe (4) Cl
CO – Quantitative pollutant
Answer ( 4 )
CO2 – Primary pollutant
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
SO2 – Primary pollutant
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
method converting into oxygen 104. Winged pollen grains are present in
Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to (1) Pinus
ozone layer depletion
(2) Mustard
101. Natality refers to (3) Mango
(1) Number of individuals entering a habitat (4) Cycas

(2) Death rate Answer (1)


S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
(3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
(4) Birth rate form the wings of pollen. It is the
characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
Answer ( 4 )
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate. not winged shaped.
• Death rate – Mortality 105. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
are produced exogenously in
• Number of individual – Immigration
entering a habitat is (1) Saccharomyces
(2) Neurospora
• Number of individual – Emigration
leaving the habital (3) Agaricus

102. Niche is (4) Alternaria

(1) the functional role played by the organism Answer ( 3 )


where it lives Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
(2) all the biological factors in the organism's basidiospores or meiospores are
environment produced exogenously.
(3) the range of temperature that the  Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
organism needs to live produces ascospores as meiospores but
endogenously inside the ascus.)
(4) the physical space where an organism
lives  Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
Answer ( 1 ) does not produce sexual spores.

S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It  Saccharomyces (Unicellular


refers the functional role played by the ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
organism where it lives. endogenously.

22
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

106. Which one is wrongly matched? 108. Which one of the following plants shows a
(1) Unicellular organism – Chlorella very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can complete its life
(2) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
cycle without the other?
(3) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(1) Viola (2) Hydrilla
(4) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(3) Banana (4) Yucca
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
where asexual spores and gametes are
species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
non-motile or non-flagellated.
109. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
• Other options (1, 3 & 4) are correctly
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
matched
(1) –160°C
107. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option (2) –120°C
given below: (3) –196°C
Column I Column II (4) –80°C
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a Answer ( 3 )
collection of preserved
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
plants and animals
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates (Cryopreservation)
methodically all the
110. In which of the following forms is iron
species found in an area
absorbed by plants?
with brief description
aiding identification (1) Both ferric and ferrous
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried (2) Ferric
and pressed plant (3) Free element
specimens mounted on (4) Ferrous
sheets are kept
Answer ( 2 * )
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
list of characters and S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
their alternates which ions. (According to NCERT)
are helpful in *Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
identification of various Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
taxa. 111. Which of the following elements is responsible
a b c d for maintaining turgor in cells?
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Calcium (2) Magnesium
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (3) Potassium (4) Sodium
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Answer ( 3 )
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of
Answer ( 1 ) cells.

Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant 112. Double fertilization is


specimen (1) Syngamy and triple fusion
• Key – Identification of various (2) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
taxa tube with two different eggs
• Museum – Plant and animal (3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
specimen are preserved (4) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of nuclei
species Answer ( 1 )

23
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell


that occur in angiosperms only. shaped stomata in their leaves.
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization 118. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
113. What is the role of NAD + in cellular (1) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
respiration? synthesis
(1) It is the final electron acceptor for (2) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
anaerobic respiration. cells
(2) It functions as an enzyme. (3) It takes part in spindle formation
(3) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. (4) It is a membrane-bound structure
(4) It functions as an electron carrier. Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron
carrier. 119. Which of the following is not a product of light
reaction of photosynthesis?
114. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
by (1) Oxygen (2) ATP
(1) Chara (3) NADPH (4) NADH
(2) Green sulphur bacteria Answer ( 4 )

(3) Cycas S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light


reaction, while NADH is a product of
(4) Nostoc respiration process.
Answer ( 2 ) 120. The stage during which separation of the
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as paired homologous chromosomes begins is
source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
O2.
(3) Diakinesis (4) Diplotene
115. The Golgi complex participates in
(1) Activation of amino acid Answer ( 4 )
(2) Fatty acid breakdown S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
(3) Respiration in bacteria
chiasmata start to shift towards end.
(4) Formation of secretory vesicles
121. The two functional groups characteristic of
Answer ( 4 )
sugars are
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
(1) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
(2) Hydroxyl and methyl
116. Stomatal movement is not affected by
(3) Carbonyl and phosphate
(1) CO2 concentration
(4) Carbonyl and methyl
(2) Temperature
Answer ( 1 )
(3) O2 concentration
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
(4) Light
carbohydrate.
Answer ( 3 )
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 ketone or their derivatives, which means they
affect opening and closing of stomata while have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
they are not affected by O2 concentration.
122. Which among the following is not a
117. Stomata in grass leaf are prokaryote?
(1) Barrel shaped (1) Oscillatoria
(2) Dumb-bell shaped (2) Saccharomyces
(3) Rectangular (3) Nostoc
(4) Kidney shaped (4) Mycobacterium
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
24
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote 126. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
(unicellular fungi) matched?
Mycobacterium – a bacterium (1) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria. (2) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
123. Offsets are produced by (3) XO type sex : Grasshopper
(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Meiotic divisions determination
(4) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) Parthenocarpy (4) Mitotic divisions
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed pleiotropic gene.
by mitosis.
Other options (1, 3 & 4) are correctly
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic matched.
cells.
127. Select the correct match
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of (1) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
embryo from ovum or egg without
Jacques Monod
fertilisation.
(2) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
fertilisation, (generally seedless) pneumoniae
(3) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
124. Select the correct statement
and F. Stahl
(1) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(4) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
(2) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
Martha Chase
(3) Spliceosomes take part in translation
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Punnett square was developed by a British
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
scientist model of gene regulation known as operon
Answer ( 4 ) model/lac operon.
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British – Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. technique.

– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative – Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi-


conservative DNA replication in E. coli.
mode of replication.
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase –
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder
Proved DNA as genetic material not
and Laderberg. protein
– Spliceosome formation is part of post- 128. Which of the following flowers only once in its
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes life-time?
125. Which of the following has proved helpful in (1) Papaya (2) Bamboo species
preserving pollen as fossils? (3) Mango (4) Jackfruit
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Pollenkitt Answer ( 2 )
(3) Oil content (4) Cellulosic intine S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
generally only once in its life-time after 50-
Answer ( 1 )
100 years.
S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil. their life-time.
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination. 129. The experimental proof for semiconservative
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of replication of DNA was first shown in a
pollen grain known as intine made up (1) Virus (2) Fungus
cellulose & pectin. (3) Plant (4) Bacterium
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation. Answer ( 4 )
25
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl. and trademark office that was actually been
130. Which of the following is commonly used as a derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in The diversity of rice in India is one of the
human lymphocytes? richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
(1) pBR 322 (2) Retrovirus of Basmati are grown in India.
(3)  phage (4) Ti plasmid Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
varieties and claimed as an invention or a
Answer ( 2 )
novelty.
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
introducing a DNA fragment in human Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
lymphocyte. of wheat.

Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of 134. In India, the organisation responsible for
patient are grown in culture outside the body, assessing the safety of introducing
a functional gene is introduced by using a genetically modified organisms for public use
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte. is

131. Select the correct match (1) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC)
(1) G. Mendel - Transformation
(2) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(2) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(3) Research Committee on Genetic
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
Manipulation (RCGM)
(4) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(4) Council for Scientific and Industrial
Answer ( 2 )
Research (CSIR)
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
Answer ( 1 )
acid.
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
132. Use of bioresources by multinational
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
companies and organisations without
Committee) which will make decisions
authorisation from the concerned country and
regarding the validity of GM research and
its people is called
safety of introducing GM-organism for public
(1) Bioexploitation (2) Bio-infringement services. (Direct from NCERT).
(3) Biodegradation (4) Biopiracy 135. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
Answer ( 4 ) Chain Reaction (PCR) is
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use (1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
of bioresources by multinational companies
(2) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
and other organisation without proper
authorisation from the countries and people (3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
concerned with compensatory payment (4) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
Answer ( 1 )
133. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
foreign company, though such varieties have
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
been present in India for a long time. This is
related to Each cycle has three steps
(1) Basmati (2) Co-667 (i) Denaturation
(3) Lerma Rojo (4) Sharbati Sonora (ii) Primer annealing
Answer ( 1 ) (iii) Extension of primer

26
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
136. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the 137. Which of the following compounds can form a
following sequence of reactions: zwitterion?

Anhydrous
(1) Glycine (2) Aniline
AlCl3 (3) Benzoic acid (4) Acetanilide
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
Answer ( 1 )
(i) O2
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R Sol.
  –
H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
(Zwitterion form)
P Q R
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
OH H2N – CH2 – COO–
CH(CH3)2
138. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
(1) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(1) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO (2) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

, , CH3CH2 – OH
(3) Square planar geometry and
(2)
paramagnetic
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
CH(CH3)2 OH
, , CH3CH(OH)CH3
Answer ( 4 )
(3)
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2

CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH ∵ CO is a strong field ligand


Configuration would be :
(4) , , 3
sp -hybridisation

Answer ( 1 ) ×× ×× ×× ××

Cl CO CO CO CO
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
3 2 2 Al
sp 3 and thus the complex would be
Cl Cl diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.

1, 2–H
CO
+ + –
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(Incipient carbocation)
Cl Ni
CO
– OC
AlCl3
Now, CO
139. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
CH3
(1) Dinuclear (2) Tetranuclear
CH – CH3
(3) Trinuclear (4) Mononuclear
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
Answer ( 4 )

(P) S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms


present in a complex, they are classified
CH3 into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
HC –C – O– O –H so on.
OH 3
O eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
+
H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
Rearrangement
(R) (Q) Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear

27
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
140. Match the metal ions given in Column I with 142. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given transition and paramagnetism as well?
in Column II and assign the correct code : (1) MnO42– (2) CrO42–
Column I Column II
(3) MnO4– (4) Cr2O72–
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM Answer ( 1 )

b. Cr3+ S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]


ii. 35 BM
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
v. 15 BM
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
a b c d
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
(1) iii v i ii
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
(2) iv v ii i
(3) iv i ii iii 143. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
(4) i ii iii iv left to right atoms?
Answer ( 2 ) (1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
Sol. Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) =4 (2) HC  C – C  CH
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM (3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3 (4) CH2 = CH – C  CH


Answer ( 4 )
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM sp2 sp2 sp sp
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5
Number of orbital require in hybridization
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM
= Number of -bonds around each carbon
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2 atom.
Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM 144. Which of the following carbocations is
expected to be most stable?
141. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
[CoCl2(en)2] is NO2
NO2
(1) Linkage isomerism
H 
(2) Geometrical isomerism
(1) Y (2)
(3) Ionization isomerism 
(4) Coordination isomerism Y H
Answer ( 2 )
NO2 NO2
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
is 6 and this compound has octahedral 
geometry.
(3) H (4)
Y  Y H
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
with increase in distance. In option (3)
positive charge present on C-atom at
• As per given option, type of isomerism is maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
geometrical isomerism. is minimum and stability is maximum.

28
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

145. Which of the following is correct with respect 148. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl) different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
different concentrations :
(1) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(2) – NH2 < – OR < – F M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
(3) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(4) – NR2 < – OR < – F M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
Answer ( 2 * ) 10 10
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
M M
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
*Most appropriate Answer is option (2), M M
however option (4) may also be correct answer. d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
146. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be (1) c (2) b

(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) (3) d (4) a

(1) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 Answer ( 1 )

(2) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2 1


Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
(3) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 5
(4) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
1
Answer ( 2 ) • Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5

2.42  103 • Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10


S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233 • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture

= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1) 10 1


= 
100 10
 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s) 
s s
⎡ 1⎤
pH = –log[H+] =  log ⎢ ⎥ = 1.0
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2 ⎣ 10 ⎦
= (1.04 × 10–5)2 149. On which of the following properties does the
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2 coagulating power of an ion depend?

147. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 (1) The sign of charge on the ion alone
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and (2) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
3.59, which one of the following gases is most alone
easily liquefied?
(3) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
(1) CO2 the ion
(2) NH3 (4) Size of the ion alone
(3) O2 Answer ( 3 )
(4) H2 Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using
an electrolyte depends on the charge
Answer ( 2 )
present (positive or negative) on colloidal
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies particles as well as on its size.
intermolecular forces of attraction.
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be depends on the magnitude of charge
the liquefaction of gas. present on effective ion of electrolyte.
29
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
150. Which of the following statements is not true 154. The correct order of N-compounds in its
for halogens? decreasing order of oxidation states is
(1) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
enthalpy (1) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
(2) All form monobasic oxyacids (2) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(3) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
states (3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(4) All are oxidizing agents (4) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
5 2 0 –3
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4
HOF.
151. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the 155. Which one of the following elements is unable
following metals can be used to reduce
to form MF63– ion?
alumina?
(1) Cu (2) Fe (1) In
(3) Mg (4) Zn
(2) Ga
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' (3) B
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
(4) Al
correct option.
152. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 Answer ( 3 )
elements is
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
(1) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
(2) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In BF63(–).
(4) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
156. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
Answer ( 1 )
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
Sol.
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
Elements B Ga Al In Tl in the order
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
(1) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
153. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (2) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl

(1) Three (2) One (3) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH


(3) Four (4) Two
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is Answer ( 1 )
 
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH
 

 

F
(A) (B)
 
 

F Cl PCl5
 

C2H5Cl
 

 

F (C)
 
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
The number of lone pair of electrons on C2H5OC2 H5
central Cl is 2. (B) (C)

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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
157. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by 160. The correct difference between first and
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by second order reactions is that
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous (1) The rate of a first-order reaction does
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon depend on reactant concentrations; the
atoms. (A) is rate of a second-order reaction does not
(1) CH4 (2) CH  CH depend on reactant concentrations
(2) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
(3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH2  CH2
depend on reactant concentrations; the
Answer ( 1 ) rate of a second-order reaction does
depend on reactant concentrations
Br2/h
S o l . CH4 CH3Br (3) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a
(A) Na/dry ether second-order reaction cannot be
Wurtz reaction catalyzed
(4) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
CH3 — CH3
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
158. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following second-order reaction does depend on
reactions: [A]0
Answer ( 4 )
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
0.693
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
The product 'C' is k
(1) p-bromotoluene which is independent of initial
concentration of reactant.
(2) m-bromotoluene
1
(3) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene  For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k[A0 ]
(4) o-bromotoluene which depends on initial concentration of
Answer ( 2 ) reactant.
161. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
CH3 CCl3 CCl3 character is
3Cl 2 (1) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
Br2
Sol.  Fe (2) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
Br
(C7H8) (A) (B) (3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2

Zn HCl (4) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2


Answer ( 2 )
CH3 S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
group metallic character of metals increases
so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
Br 162. Consider the change in oxidation state of
(C)
Bromine corresponding to different emf values
159. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common as shown in the diagram below :
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both – 1.82 V – 1.5 V
due to natural and human activity? BrO4 BrO3 HBrO

(1) NO –
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
(2) N2O5
Then the species undergoing
(3) N2O disproportionation is
(4) NO2
(1) HBrO (2) BrO3
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Fact (3) Br2 (4) BrO4

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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
Answer ( 1 ) 165. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
1 0
o yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2 smell.
1 5 A and Y are respectively
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
BrO3 /HBrO CH3
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO, (1) CH3 OH and I2
o o
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo 
2 BrO3 /HBrO

= 1.595 – 1.5
(2) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
= 0.095 V = + ve
163. In which case is number of molecules of
water maximum? CH – CH3 and I2
(3)
(1) 10–3 mol of water OH
(2) 18 mL of water
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and (4) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
273 K
(4) 0.18 g of water Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Option (3) is secondary alcohol which on
S o l . (1) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
(2) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
18
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA 2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O
18
= NA
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
0.00224
(3) Moles of water = = 10–4 OH O
22.4 Acetophenone
(A)
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
I2
0.18 COONa + CHI3 NaOH
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA Iodoform
18 Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
= 10–2 NA 166. In the reaction
164. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points – +
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of OH O Na
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
CHO
(1) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding + CHCl3 + NaOH
(2) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(3) More extensive association of carboxylic
The electrophile involved is
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(4) Formation of carboxylate ion (1) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(2) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

 
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence Θ
boiling point increases and become more (3) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
and alcohols of comparable molecular
masses.
(4) Formyl cation CHO  

32
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
Answer ( 1 ) 169. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile equation corresponds to
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to (1) Forces of attraction between the gas
the following reaction molecules
.–. (2) Density of the gas molecules
CHCl3  OH– 
 CCl3  H2 O
(3) Electric field present between the gas
.–. molecules
 : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
Electrophile (4) Volume of the gas molecules
Answer ( 1 )
167. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the 2 ⎞

formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond S o l . In real gas equation, ⎜ P  an ⎟ (V  nb)  nRT
dissociation energy of X2 will be ⎜ V ⎟⎠
2

(1) 400 kJ mol–1
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
(2) 200 kJ mol–1 intermolecular forces of attraction.
(3) 800 kJ mol–1
170. Which one of the following conditions will
(4) 100 kJ mol–1 favour maximum formation of the product in
Answer ( 3 ) the reaction,
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
 X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
1 1
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g) (1) High temperature and low pressure
2 2
(2) Low temperature and high pressure
X (3) High temperature and high pressure
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2
respectively (4) Low temperature and low pressure
Answer ( 2 )
⎛X X⎞
 H  ⎜  ⎟  X  200
⎝2 4⎠  X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) 

On solving, we get On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a


direction where pressure decreases i.e.
X X
⇒   200 forward direction.
2 4
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
 X = 800 kJ/mole in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
168. When initial concentration of the reactant is So, high pressure and low temperature
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order favours maximum formation of product.
reaction
171. For the redox reaction
(1) Remains unchanged
(2) Is halved MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
(3) Is tripled
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
(4) Is doubled the balanced equation are
Answer ( 4 )
MnO4 C2 O24 H+
S o l . Half life of zero order
(1) 5 16 2
[A ]
t 1/2  0 (2) 16 5 2
2K
(3) 2 16 5
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
concentration. (4) 2 5 16
33
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
Answer ( 4 )
NH2 NH3
Reduction
H
+7 +3 +4 Sol.
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
Anilinium ion
Oxidation

 –NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para


n-factor of MnO4  5
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
also formed in significant yield.
n-factor of C2 O24  2
174. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2 nature?
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5 (1) CaO (2) MgO
 The balanced equation is (3) BaO (4) BeO

2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O Answer ( 4 )

S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO

172. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, 


which of the following statements is
Basic character increases.
incorrect?
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
(1) They contain strong covalents bonds in
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
their polymer chains.
oxides are basic.
(2) They contain covalent bonds between
175. The difference between amylose and
various linear polymer chains.
amylopectin is
(3) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(1) Amylose is made up of glucose and
(4) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional galactose
monomers.
(2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
Answer ( 1 ) 1 6 -linkage
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed (3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers 1  6 -linkage
and contain strong covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite, (4) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
melamine etc. Option (1) is not related to -linkage
cross-linking. Answer ( 2 )
173. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
also gives m-nitroaniline because D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
(1) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
present as anilinium ion. Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
and 1  6 -linkages.
(2) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
goes to only m-position. 176. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
(3) In absence of substituents nitro group gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
always goes to m-position. pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
(4) In electrophilic substitution reactions at STP will be
amino group is meta directive.
(1) 4.4 (2) 1.4
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 2.8 (4) 3.0
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC

Answer ( 3 ) 178. Consider the following species :


CN+, CN–, NO and CN
Conc.H2 SO4
S o l . HCOOH 
 CO(g)  H2 O(l) Which one of these will have the highest bond
⎛ 1 ⎞ 1
2.3 g or ⎜ mol ⎟ mol order?
⎝ 20 ⎠ 20
(1) CN
(2) NO
Conc.H2SO4
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1 (3) CN+
mol mol
COOH 20 20
(4) CN–
⎛ 1 ⎞
4.5 g or ⎜ mol ⎟
⎝ 20 ⎠ Answer ( 4 )
S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z ) 2 ,
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when (2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO. 10  5
BO =  2.5
2
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
is CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
= (2py)2,(2pz)2
2
 28  2.8 g
20 10  4
BO = 3
2
177. Which one is a wrong statement?
CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
(1) The value of m for dz2 is zero
= (2py)2,(2pz)1
(2) Total orbital angular momentum of
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero 9 4
BO =  2.5
(3) The electronic configuration of N atom is 2

1 1 1
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
= (2py)2

8 4
BO = 2
2
(4) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is 179. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
designated by four quantum numbers an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
Answer ( 3 ) the simplest formula for this compound is
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum (1) Mg3X2
multiplicity, the correct electronic
(2) Mg2X3
configuration of N-atom is
(3) Mg2X
(4) MgX2

1s2 2s2 2p3 Answer ( 1 )


S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
OR
1s2 2s2 2p3
So, valency of X will be 3.

2 2 3
Valency of Mg is 2.
1s 2s 2p
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
 Option (3) violates Hund's Rule. be Mg3X2.

35
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
180. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room Answer ( 3 )
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at 4r
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming 3
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
constant with temperature) is For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r

1 3
(1) (2) ⎛ ZM ⎞
2 2 ⎜ N a3 ⎟ 3
d25C ⎝ A ⎠ BCC 2 ⎛ 2 2 r⎞ ⎛3 3⎞
   ⎜ ⎜
d900C ⎛ ZM ⎞ 4 4r ⎟ ⎝ 4 2 ⎟⎠
3 3 4 3 ⎜ ⎟
(3) (4) ⎜ N a3 ⎟ ⎝ 3 ⎠
4 2 3 2 ⎝ A ⎠ FCC

  

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