PROJECT CONTRACT MANAGEMENT

100 Que # 100

Que Which is not an element of procurement management?
A. Purchasing
B. Expediting
C. Acquisition
D. Marketing
E. C and D

101 Que # 101

Que The purchasing cycle consists of all the following elements except?
A. Defined Need
B. Transmit Need
C. Inspection
D. Price & Terms
E.

PMgroup Executing
102 Que # 102
Que The cost of corrective action taken by the purchaser and chargeable to the
supplier under the terms of the contract is
A. Payment authorization
B. Bid cost considerations
C. Release payment
D. Back charge
E.

PMgroup Planning
103 Que # 103
Que __________ is a narrative description of the work to be accomplished or
resource to be supplied.
A. Purchase order
B. Level of effort work
C. Scope of work
D. Contract stipulation
E.

PMgroup Executing
104 Que # 104
Que By which means is a contractor able to control costs overruns due to
changing requirements?
A. Project Data review
B. Change order
C. Change Control
D. Contract negotiations
E.

PMgroup Executing
105 Que # 105
Que _________ is a written order directing the contractor to make changes
according to the provisions of the contract documents.
 A. Change order/purchase order Amendment
B. Contract order Modifications.
C. Contractor claim
D. Owner Directive
E.

PMgroup Planning
106 Que # 106
Que _________ defines when the work is ready for or is being used for the purpose
intended and is so certified.
A. Final Completion
B. Substantial Completion
C. Final Acceptance
D. Mechanical Completion
E.

PMgroup Executing
107 Que # 107
Que _________ is a request for interim stoppage of work due to non conformance,
funding or technical considerations
A. Bid Protest
B. Stop Work order
C. Notice to Proceed
D. Supplier Default Notice
E.

PMgroup Executing
108 Que # 108
Que The process that may be used by an unsuccessful supplier to seek remedy for
a non award of work is
A. Bid Protest
B. Stop Work Order
C. Back charge
D. Contract Dispute
E.

PMgroup Planning
109 Que # 109
Que The __________ specification describes, defines or specifies the
goods/services to be supplied.
A. Performance
B. Functional
C. Technical
D. Bid
E. General Requirements

PMgroup Planning
110 Que # 110
Que The Bid Evaluation process is characterized by all of the following activities
except?
A. Evaluation of suppliers financial resources
B. Ability to comply with technical specifications,
C. Delivery schedule and Cost factors
 D. Performance Record
E. Competitors' method of sourcing

PMgroup Planning
111 Que # 111
Que Which is not a consideration in a make or buy decision?
A. Cost factors
B. Sales Volume
C. Existence of sufficient administration/technical personnel
D. Political and, social factors with the organization
E.

PMgroup Executing
112 Que # 112
Que There are four methods of government procurement. Which is not one of these
methods?
A. Assistance
B. Sealed Bidding
C. Competitive proposals
D. Acquisition
E. Small Purchases

PMgroup Executing
113 Que # 113
Que A purchasing operation does not contain this classification of work
A. Management
B. Buying
C. Follow up and expedition
D. Marketing
E. Clerical

PMgroup Executing
114 Que # 114
Que __________ is a register of suppliers invited to submit bids for goods/services
as specified.
A. Procurement invitation
B. Bid List
C. Resource Identification
D. Supplier's Rankings
E.

PMgroup Planning
115 Que # 115
Que __________ is a formal invitation to submit a price for goods and/or services
as specified.
A. Request for Quotation
B. Bid Response
C. Intention for Bid
D. Invitation for Bid
E. Request for Proposal

PMgroup Planning
116 Que # 116
 Que Which contract type should be used by the owner on a high risk project?
A. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee
C. Lump Sum
D. Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee
E. C and D

PMgroup Planning
117 Que # 117
Que Cost Reimbursable contracts are equivalent to
A. Progress Payment Contracts
B. Extra Work Order Contracts
C. Cost Plus Contracts
D. Fixed Price Contracts
E.

PMgroup Planning
118 Que # 118
Que Fixed price and incentive type contracts place responsibility for performance
and financial risks associated with delay or non performance on the
A. Contractor
B. Owner
C. Lending Institution
D. Project Manager
E.

PMgroup Executing
119 Que # 119
Que __________ is based on information gathered and analyzed about demand and
supply. This forecast provides a prediction of short and long term prices and
the underlying reasons for those trends.
A. Sales forecast
B. Consumer Price Index
C. Production forecast
D. Price forecast
E.

PMgroup Executing
120 Que # 120
Que The contract is signed at the end of the
A. Pre-award phase
B. Award phase
C. Post-award phase
D. Solicitation phase
E. Award cycle

PMgroup Planning
121 Que # 121
Que Definitive contract terms are spelled out in the
A. Pre-award phase
B. Award phase
C. Post-award phase
D. Purchasing phase
 E. Pre-award phase for fixed cost contracts, and Award phase for cost plus contracts

PMgroup Planning
122 Que # 122
Que A bilateral RFP is preferred to an invitation to bid when
A. supplier and terms are specified
B. the product or service is relatively low value and readily available
C. the product or service has high value and is unique
D. the product or service has high value, but is easy to obtain
E.

PMgroup Executing
123 Que # 123
Que PMI suggests which of the following behaviors as part of contract
negotiations?
A. Protocol, probing, scratching
B. Sniffing and smelling (olfactory)
C. Touching and caressing (tactile)
D. Mind-reading and extra-sensory perception
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
124 Que # 124
Que The bid package is developed in the
A. Requirements phase
B. Requisition cycle
C. Solicitation cycle
D. Award cycle
E. Award phase

PMgroup Executing
125 Que # 125
Que The Award phase includes the
A. requirements, requisition and award cycles
B. award and contractual cycles
C. requisition and solicitation cycles
D. solicitation cycle
E. cycles required for the contract

PMgroup Executing
126 Que # 126
Que To relieve pressure on the project schedule, Diane decided to fast-track and
hire a contractor to do part of the work. Which form of contract(s) should she
consider?
A. None. Fast-tracking is a very poor time to consider a contractor.
B. Fixed lump sum
C. Cost plus incentive
D. Cost plus percentage of cost
E. c and d

PMgroup Executing
127 Que # 127
Que Which is not a factor in choosing a contractor?
 A. Complexity of requirements
B. Price competition
C. Competency
D. Capacity
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
128 Que # 128
Que Requirements and specifications are always changing in the systems
integration business. Therefore, the best form of contract for this environment
would be
A. the form of contract required to get the best contractor
B. Fixed price
C. Cost plus
D. Overseas
E.

PMgroup Planning
129 Que # 129
Que In the area of contracting, there are two basic types of contracts that reflect
how the total price is determined. The ________ contract has an objective of a
pre-determined end price while the ________ contract has an objective of a
target end price.
A. full value; partial value
B. definitive; undefined
C. incentive fee; award fee
D. fixed price; cost-plus
E. end price; target price

PMgroup Planning
130 Que # 130
Que A contract is a promise to provide goods and/or services to one party in return
for something of value from that party. To define the goods, services, and
something of value in a legal document, the contract must be comprised of
________.
A. an explicit work and product description
B. a generic statement of the requirements
C. a basic contract, a statement of work, a specification, and a list of documentation
requirements
D. statements of the requirements using language that describes the physical
characteristics and the amount of money to be paid for the delivered products
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
131 Que # 131
Que The selection of the type of contract is important because of the cost risk
involved. In most cases, the buyer (owner) will attempt to transfer the risk to the
seller (project sponsor). The buyer, therefore, will always attempt to award a(n)
________ contract to the seller.
A. fixed price
B. cost-plus
C. time and materials
D. definitive
 E. incentive fee

PMgroup Planning
132 Que # 132
Que The buyer has not completely defined all the requirements for the project but
has enough definition to start. The type of contract that will most likely be
awarded while additional requirements are being finalized is the ________
contract.
A. letter
B. cost-plus
C. fixed price
D. variable price
E. temporary

PMgroup Planning
133 Que # 133
Que Contracts may be written in any form that is understandable and enforceable,
and often project personnel attempt to be "creative" in developing the
document. Given a choice, it is best to ________ to meet the requirements of
the project.
A. prepare a unique contract
B. tailor an old contract
C. use standard clauses in contracts
D. avoid using contractual documents
E. mix standard and unique clauses

PMgroup Executing
134 Que # 134
Que A purchase order can be considered a contract with a vendor to provide a
number of parts or components that will be used in project implementation. The
purchase order becomes a "contract" when it is ________.
A. issued by the project procurement section
B. received by the vendor
C. filled by the vendor
D. accepted and signed by the vendor
E. completed through delivery of the products by the vendor

PMgroup Planning
135 Que # 135
Que The marketplace often dictates the price of products and services through
competitive or noncompetitive supply situations, which will vary from many
suppliers to one supplier. However, ________ is not a market condition.
A. mixed competition
B. pure competition
C. monopolistic competition
D. oligopoly
E. monopoly

PMgroup Executing
136 Que # 136
 Que The contracting process for the negotiation and legal execution is divided into
pre-award, award, and post-award phases and five cycles that describe the
activities under the phases. The first cycle under the pre-award phase is the
________ cycle.
A. requisition
B. requirement
C. solicitation
D. award
E. contractual

PMgroup Planning
137 Que # 137
Que Project management, as an integration function, has the need to either make
or buy components of the system. The decision to make or buy is based on all
the following but ________.
A. availability of people
B. availability of funds
C. technology/know-how
D. availability of contractors/manufacturers
E. price

PMgroup Executing
138 Que # 138
Que A contract is a stand-alone legal document and must be individually managed
to ensure the proper performance. Many projects have several contracts to be
initiated and executed throughout the life of the project. Therefore, it is best to
have a ________ that anticipates and describes the types of contracts required
for the project.

A. responsibility matrix
B. listing of contracts
C. contracting manual
D. project contract management plan
E. project configuration management plan

PMgroup Executing
139 Que # 139
Que Contracts for projects require revisions to meet the project needs as those
needs evolve. The correct method of initiating a change to the contract is to
prepare a ________ for submission to the customer (buyer).
A. change notice
B. new contract
C. change order
D. proposal
E. plan

PMgroup Executing
140 Que # 140
Que Changes to a contract are approved and signed by both the buyer and seller
as the desired performance requirements. These changes are ________.
A. separate contracts between the customer and the project
B. stand-alone subcontracts to the prime contract
C. an integral part of the prime contract as an amendment
D. secondary in legality to the prime contract
 E. primary in legality and the prime contract becomes secondary

PMgroup Executing
141 Que # 141
Que The concept of warranty is based upon one party's assurance that the product
or service will meet certain standards of quality, including ________.
A. function, performance, durability, and desirability
B. appearance, desirability, reliability, and maintainability
C. desirability, reliability, durability, and maintainability
D. reliability, maintainability, function, and reparability
E. condition, reliability, description, and function/performance

PMgroup Executing
142 Que # 142
Que Warranties are given in two manners, either implied or expressed. The implied
warranty differs from the expressed warranty in that the implied warranty
________.
A. is always given by a sales person
B. is always written at the time of sale
C. gives specific descriptions of the product's qualities
D. is not a recorded statement of the characteristics of the product
E. none of the above

PMgroup Executing
143 Que # 143
Que A project manager may issue a "waiver" on items received from a vendor
because the items are less than the purchase order specified. If the project
manager knowingly accepts faulty material, the vendor is usually ________ any
damages that the material may cause.
A. held responsible for
B. relieved of responsibility for
C. made to pay a percentage of
D. willing to repair/correct
E. not paid in the amount of

PMgroup Executing
144 Que # 144
Que A contract may include a clause that imposes a penalty on the project for late
delivery of the completed system. Although the contract specifies a specific
monetary penalty for delays, the key(s) to the issue is/are ________.
A. whether the delays were necessary for safety
B. whether the delay could be anticipated by the project manager
C. who caused the delay (buyer or seller) and the nature of the interruption
D. why the delay affected the delivery of the system
E. all of the above

PMgroup Executing
145 Que # 145
Que Performance bonds are required by some contracts to ensure the project is
completed and the system functions as specified. A performance bond should
never be for less than ________ percent of the contract price.
A. 25
B. 50
 C. 75
D. 100
E. none of the above

PMgroup Executing
146 Que # 146
Que Payment bonds are often required by the contract and require specific actions
under the stated conditions. Payment bonds are specifically designed to ensure
payment of ________ by the prime contractor.
A. insurance premiums
B. weekly payrolls
C. incremental earned value charges
D. subcontractors, laborers, and materials
E. damages for accidents caused

PMgroup Closing
147 Que # 147
Que Some contracts are not completed because the contractor fails or refuses to
complete the contractual conditions. This situation is called a ________ for
which damages can be assigned.
A. breech
B. stop-work
C. flawed contract
D. contract in situ
E. none of the above

PMgroup Executing
148 Que # 148
Que The time of delivery for a contract is often specified to ensure that both
parties, the buyer and seller, understand the need for the product, service, or
system on or before that date. When a time is not specified in a contract, it is
assumed that performance must be completed ________.
A. at the same pace as other work
B. sooner than contracts of a lesser dollar value
C. in the order in which the work (contract) was accepted
D. as soon as possible, but without causing the seller any additional expense
E. within a reasonable time

PMgroup Executing
149 Que # 149
Que The project manager is responsible for all the activities within a project and
interfaces with external functions, all of which consume his/her time. Therefore,
when a contract administrator is assigned to the project, the project manager
________ the contract.
A. does not need to manage
B. can transfer all responsibility to the contract administrator for matters related to
C. must still manage all major aspects of
D. must know only the general contents of
E. is not concerned with the management of

PMgroup Closing
150 Que # 150
 Que The final step on a project is the close-out phase where all activities are to be
terminated in a business-like fashion. From a contractual point of view, the
prime consideration is to determine ________.
A. the profit made on this project
B. who must be notified that the contract is completed
C. the degree to which the project met the provisions of the contract
D. what reports are required to terminate the contract
E. how many changes were made in the course of the project and whether all the
changes are accounted for

PMgroup Executing
151 Que # 151
Que In initiating a contract, the primary focus is on obtaining a product or service
without regard for the termination. The contract for goods or services should
have a termination provision (after successful completion) that ________.
A. fixes on a date that designates completion
B. permits adjustments to the perceived termination, when necessary
C. requires a specific action on the part of the seller and the buyer
D. requires the seller to demonstrate the product's capability
E. requires the buyer to formally accept the product on a specific date

PMgroup Executing
152 Que # 152
Que The language of contracts does not preclude misunderstanding and situations
that adversely affect project completion. Therefore, a contract should always
have a method of removing the obstacles to progress. One method is to form a
________ committee to address matters that the project manager and the
customer's representative cannot handle.

A. top management
B. disputes resolution
C. problem processing
D. steering
E. none of the above

PMgroup Closing
153 Que # 153
Que It is important to review the performance of subcontractors during post-
contract evaluations. This review establishes the baseline for ________.
A. payment of current bills and incentive bonuses
B. demonstrated performance and future potential
C. future pricing and costs
D. work measurement and work standards
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
154 Que # 154
Que Project contracts can be separated into two broad categories
A. how the work is to be performed; who will perform the work
B. what procedures are to be used; how the work will be performed
C. when the work is to be performed; what performance standards will be used
D. what the contractor (seller) is to provide; how the work is to be performed
E. who may be used to perform the work; the procedures to be used
 PMgroup Planning
155 Que # 155
Que In a cost-reimbursable contract, the owner (buyer) accepts most of the
________. Therefore, the owner has more input as to how the work is
accomplished as compared to a fixed price contract.
A. risk and exercises more control over the project
B. cost and has a greater interest in the schedule
C. design work and influences the end product
D. project management and daily direction of the work force
E. planning function and cost disbursements for the project

PMgroup Planning
156 Que # 156
Que During the proposal and bidding phase, the owner (buyer) must assess the
capability of the contractor (seller) to perform the work. For example, if the
owner believes the proposed team consists of some individuals who do not
have the requisite qualifications and suggests that these individuals be
replaced, the contractor should ________.

A. disregard the owner's suggestions unless it precludes the contractor from obtaining
the contract
B. immediately make changes to follow the owner's suggestions although the contractor
believes the replacements are less qualified
C. discuss the suggestions with the owner and clarify the qualifications of individuals
prior to making a change
D. tell the owner that personnel working on the contract are not his/her responsibility
and make no changes
E. tell the owner that the individuals will be replaced and ignore the situation (the owner
is not responsible for personnel selection)

PMgroup Planning
157 Que # 157
Que The contractor (seller) accepts all liability for engineering errors, poor
workmanship, and consequential damages under a(n) ________ contract.
A. letter
B. incentive fee
C. cost-plus
D. fixed price
E. variable production

PMgroup Executing
158 Que # 158
Que Contracting for project work follows a set sequence of activities that ensures a
favorable contracting strategy. The sequence of contracting activities includes
the following
A. receive proposals; evaluate proposals; select winner
B. prepare proposals; submit proposals; select bidder
C. prepare proposals; receive proposals; review proposals
D. receive invitation for bid; review invitation for bid; submit bid
E. prepare proposals; review proposals; submit proposals

PMgroup Executing
159 Que # 159
 Que Contractor screening is important to ensure that candidates are capable of
performing the work and the number is neither excessive, which will make the
proposal evaluation process difficult, nor too few, which will minimize the
competition. The four key items to be used in contractor screening are
________.

A. capacity, experience, capability, and interest

B. capital, capacity, experience, and location
C. experience, interest, financial stability, and skills
D. facilities, capital, capacity, and capability
E. industry, experience, risk, and cost

PMgroup Planning
160 Que # 160
Que A request for proposal (RFP) is used to
A. establish a project master plan.
B. establish project baselines.
C. create project budgets.
D. solicit bids from contractors.
E. maintain control over unauthorized work changes.

PMgroup Planning
160 Que # 160
Que When invitations for bid are issued to the contractors, the bids (proposals)
must be submitted in a standard format because ________.
A. the owner (buyer) has a format that he/she routinely uses and wants to force the
contractors to meet his/her requirements
B. the Uniform Commercial Code specifies that all proposals will comply with the law
and the standard format
C. the government has specified that proposals must meet the requirements of contract
law and this assures the incorporation of all items
D. the Association of Contractors has prescribed the format to which all bidders must
comply to meet a legal proposal
E. it gives the greatest assurance that all items are covered and the proposals can be
evaluated in a uniform manner

PMgroup Planning
161 Que # 161
Que Submission of proposals to perform work is the avenue for acquiring most
projects. The proposals, when submitted, must contain specific items to
obligate or bind the tendering organization. The most important item is
________.
A. the complete description of the work to be performed
B. the list of terms and conditions
C. the signature of a corporate officer
D. a statement of work that describes how the work will be accomplished
E. a price for the complete work to be performed

PMgroup Executing
162 Que # 162
Que The most critical aspect of selecting a contractor and awarding a contract is
the proposal evaluation (or bid review) process. The evaluators must be aware
of the need to balance fact versus judgment, objective versus subjective
reasoning, work tasks versus costs, time versus price, and ________.
 A. certainty versus uncertainty
B. quality versus cost
C. quality versus price
D. risk versus opportunity
E. none of the above

PMgroup Executing
163 Que # 163
Que Contracting is a means of obtaining required goods and/or services that are
required to meet the needs of a project. The contract defines the legal
relationship between the participants and what each participant is expected to
do before the contract can be concluded. The contract also forms a ________ in
which the participants strive to work toward the common goal of successfully
completing the legal obligations in the most efficient manner.

A. union
B. partnership
C. consortium
D. single team
E. situation of opposition

PMgroup Planning
Que The proposal preparation is in itself a short-term project that requires intense
effort to be completed in the owner's (buyer's) format and time frame, while
being responsive to the requirements of the formal invitation for bid. A
company bidding for projects can ease the workload and enhance the potential
for successfully "winning" contracts by ________.

A. appointing the proposal manager early in the process

B. identifying a proposal staff early in the process
C. having a technical information data base
D. having standard scopes of services
E. all of the above
164 Que # 164

PMgroup Planning
Que Similar to a small project, the proposal preparation process is started by a
________ meeting where the technical, legal, and compensation considerations
are reviewed and assignments of responsibility are made.
A. preliminary proposal
B. planning and approval
C. kickoff
D. technical assessment
E. staff assignment
165 Que # 165

PMgroup Executing
Que When entering into a contract, it is often assumed that the performance of the
work will be as specified and no disputes will be raised during the performance
period. On the contrary, it is better to assume that there will be disputes and
include a procedure in the contract as to the means for dispute resolution
because ________.

A. contracts, by their very nature, create situations where disputes will arise, but they
can be easily resolved with good procedures
 B. the tracking of claims is important for the best "win" position during the subsequent
litigation
C. disputes must be brought before the National Contract Arbitration Board to obtain
equitable resolution
D. there will be a hostile relationship between the contract participants once the
contract is signed
E. it is more economical to resolve disputes as soon as claims are made and before
time and effort are wasted
166 Que # 166

PMgroup Executing
Que A contract is a promise to do or not do something in exchange for some form
of consideration. A negotiated contract is one where both participants agree on
the basis for principal considerations
A. the period of performance and the specifications for the project
B. how the work will be performed, at what time, and for what price
C. the services to be rendered by one party and the price to be paid by the other party
D. who will perform the work and who will pay for the work
E. the description of services to be rendered and the description of the payment and
payment schedule
167 Que # 167

PMgroup Planning
Que In abstract theory, a contract is not essential to the performance of a project.
Contracts are, however, useful when the performance involves ________ ,
particularly when they are interdependent.
A. personnel, money, and material
B. cost, schedule, and quality
C. new, unique, and complex work
D. substantial, complex, and extended commitments
E. subcontractors, vendors, and suppliers
168 Que # 168

PMgroup Planning
453 Que # 453
Que When making the project procurement plan, the project manager should
consider all of the following EXCEPT
A. Preliminary cost estimates
B. Market conditions
C. Project funding availability
D. Application area extensions
E. Product descriptions

PMgroup Planning
454 Que # 454
Que Procurement documents should have all of the following attributes EXCEPT
A. Facilitating accurate and complete responses
B. Including a complete statement of work
C. Describing the desired form of response
D. Including the list of potential bidders/respondents
E.

PMgroup Planning
455 Que # 455
Que A request for bid differs from a request for proposal in that the
A. RFP is used when source selection will be price driven
B. RFP is used when the project timeframe is limited
C. RFB is used when source selection will be price driven
D. RFP disregards price considerations
E. RFB is concerned with price exclusively

PMgroup Executing
456 Que # 456
Que Contract administration change requests may include all of the following
EXCEPT
A. Modificaitons to the terms of the contract
B. Termination of teh contract if teh seller's work is unsatisfactory
C. Modification to the description of teh product or service to be provided
D. Seller invoices
E. Contracted changes

PMgroup Executing
457 Que # 457
Que Which of the following is true about the advertising in the solication process?
I. It is sometimes required on public projects II. It is an
effective method of expanding the list of potential bidders III. It can
cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes
A. I only
B. Ii only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III

PMgroup Planning
458 Que # 458
Que Which type of contract provides the highest risk to the Owner (Buyer)?
A. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee
C. Firm Fixed Price
D. Fixed Price Plus Incentive Fee
E. Cost Plus Incentive Fee

PMgroup Executing
459 Que # 459
Que In negotiations, what is a fait accompli tactic?
A. Accomplishing teh phase before teh otehr side is ready
B. Pretending to accept the other sidee's offer
C. Claiming an issue has already been decided on and cannont be changed
D. Acting in good faith
E. Promising that a requirement will be completed before it is due

PMgroup Executing
460 Que # 460
Que An expressed warranty
A. Is provided by the sales manager
B. Is a statement of the characteristics of the product
 C. Covers a longer period than the implied warranty
D. Is the best guarantee to teh buyer
E. Can be sold separately

PMgroup Executing
461 Que # 461
Que The project's contractor payment system should include
A. An administrative review
B. The contractor submission
C. A reveiw of work performed
D. Negotiations over price
E. A viable account payable system

PMgroup Executing
462 Que # 462
Que The contract administrator should provide ___________ at formal closure of
project I. Formal notice of project c ompletion to the contractor
II. Letters of commendation to all project staff III. Formal notice of
acceptance to the contractor IV. Internal notice to senior
management/buyer

A. I only
B. IV only
C. I and III only
D. II and IV only
E. I, III, and IV only

PMgroup Planning
463 Que # 463
Que Which type of contract should be used for a well-defined project
A. Unit price contract
B. Fixed price contract
C. Cost reimbursable contract
D. Partnership contract
E. A unit price contract that disallows such contracting

PMgroup Closing
464 Que # 464
Que Contract close-out documentation includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Technical documentation
B. Financial documents
C. The RFP or RFB and seller's working proposal
D. Results of contract-related inspections
E.

PMgroup Executing
465 Que # 465
Que Potential contract changes should be
A. Postponed as long as possible to protect the budget
B. Viewed as negative, quantified, and tabulated
C. Quantified and fed back through the project planning and procurement processes
D. Reviewed by senior management and the buyer
E. Submitted for bids to the relevant vendor list
 PMgroup Executing
466 Que # 466
Que The purpose of a procurement audit is to do all of the following EXCEPT
A. Maintain a complete file of contract-related records
B. Determine if all required work has been completed
C. Determine if the bid documents used were effective
D. Determine if the contract change control system was effective
E. Identify successes and failures and their implications

PMgroup Executing
467 Que # 467
Que When the procurement item is available from only one supplier, all of the
following evaluation criteria should be identified and documented to support an
integrated assessment EXCEPT
A. Management approach
B. Financial capaccity
C. Life cycle cost
D. Technical capabilities
E. Mode of delivery

PMgroup Planning
468 Que # 468
Que All of the following methods are available to the project manager for short-
listing contract proposals EXCEPT
A. Comparing proposals against independent estimates
B. Weighting systems
C. Subjective screening systems
D. Resource distribution system
E. Negotiation

PMgroup Executing
469 Que # 469
Que Which terms are used to describe contested changes when the seller and
project management team disagree on compensation for the change? I.
Appeals II. Mediation III. Claims IV. Disputes V.
Arbitration
A. I and III only
B. II and IV only
C. IV and V only
D. I, III, and IV only
E. II, III, and V only

PMgroup Planning
470 Que # 470
Que FFP is an acronym for
A. Free Flow Performance
B. Fundamentally Fixed Price
C. Firm Fixed Price
D. Free Form Project
E. Fixed File Procurement

PMgroup Planning
501 Que # 501
 Que The buyer has negotiated a cost-plus-incentive fee contract with the seller.
The contract has a target cost of $300k, a target fee of $40K, a share ration of
80/20, a maximum fee of $60K, and a minimum fee of $10K. If the seller has
actual costs of $380K, how much fee will the buyer pay?
A. $104K
B. $56K
C. $40K
D. $30K
E. $24K

PMgroup Planning
Que Which of the following terms is an expression by one party of its assent to
certain terms in the contract provided that the other party expresses its assent
to the identical terms?
A. Proposal
B. Counteroffer
C. Bargain
D. Offer
E. Exchange
502 Que # 502

PMgroup Executing
Que Which term describes the failure by either the buyer or seller to perform part or
all of the duties of a contract?
A. Termination of contract
B. Partial performance
C. Breach of contract
D. Contract litigation
E. Contract waiver
503 Que # 503

PMgroup Executing
Que Which of the following practices is NOT an important element of effective
contraxt administration?
A. Preparing contract change documenbtation
B. Processing payment vouchers
C. Establishing the appropriate contract type
D. Implementing a contract change control system
E. Preparing monthly contract status reports for the buyer
504 Que # 504

PMgroup Executing
Que When actual costs exceed estimated costs without any change in the scope of
work, the project is experiencing
A. Accelerated costs
B. Cost growth
C. Schedule compression
D. Cost overrun
E. Cost risk
505 Que # 505

PMgroup Planning
 Que Contract type selection is dependent on the degree of risk or uncertainty
facing the project manager. From the perspective of the buyer, the preferred
contract type in a low-risk situation is
A. Firm-fixed-price
B. Fixed-price-incentive
C. Cost-sharing
D. Cost-plus-fixed fee
E. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost
506 Que # 506

PMgroup Executing
Que Generally speaking, compensation to a contractor in a cost contract is based
on
A. Actual costs incured based on the contractor's best efforts
B. The amount of time required to complete the contract
C. Delivery of the goods and services stipulated in teh contract
D. The number of resources used
E. Actual costs incurred minus profit if the cost ceiling was exceeded
507 Que # 507

PMgroup Executing
Que The process of monitoring contract performance, making payments, and
awarding contract modifications occurs during
A. The preaward phase
B. The award phase
C. Contract administration
D. Contract formation
E. Contract resolution
508 Que # 508

PMgroup Executing
Que Which term describes those costs that are traceable to or caused by a specific
project work effort?
A. Variable
B. Direct
C. Indirect
D. Fixed
E. Semivariable
509 Que # 509

PMgroup Planning
Que Subcontracting may be the best option when
A. The subcontractor possesses special technical or engineering skills
B. The performing organization possesses limited capacity in an area
C. The subcontractor can augment the contractor's labor force at a lower cost than an
in-house cpability can be maintained
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C
510 Que # 510

PMgroup Executing
 Que During neotiation, the seller takes exception to the buyer's terms and
conditions and proposes different terms and conditions. Which negotiation
technique is the seller using?
A. Recommendation
B. Rejection of offer
C. Separate offer
D. Suggestion
E. Counteroffer
511 Que # 511

PMgroup Planning
Que Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller to
control costs?
A. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment
B. Fied-price incentive (firm target)
C. Firm-fixed-price
D. Cost-plus-award fee
E. Cost-plus-incentive fee
512 Que # 512

PMgroup Planning
Que Which of the following contract types does NOT encourage the seller to
control costs and, as a result, places the greatest risk on teh buyer?
A. Cost-sharing
B. Cost-plus-award fee
C. Cost-plus-fixed fee
D. Cost-plus-incentive fee
E. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost
513 Que # 513

PMgroup Planning
Que The purpose of the bidders' conference is to
A. Ensure that prospective sellers have a clear, common understanding of the buyer's
requirements
B. Confirm which bidders are going to be considered in the procurement
C. Ensure that all qualified sellers are on teh qualified sellers list
D. Obtain detailed information on the prospective sellers' past performance
E. Ensure that all bidders attending teh conference receive amendments
514 Que # 514

PMgroup Executing
Que A specification that describes the buyers requirements with special
dimensions, tolerances, or features, such as chemical or electronic
requirements and that is accompanied by engineering drawings, is called a
A. Design specification
B. Functional specification
C. Performance specificati0ons
D. Commercial standard
E. Qualified product
515 Que # 515

PMgroup Executing
 Que The language of contracts sometimes causes misunderstandings and creates
situations that adversely affect peojct completion. Therefore, a relatively fast
and informal method for removing the obstacles to progress should always be
available. One such method is to submit the issue in question to an impartial
third party for resolution. This process is known as

A. Cause of action
B. Alternative dispute resolution
C. Problem processing
D. Steering resolution
E. Mediation litigation
516 Que # 516

PMgroup Executing
Que The legal contractual relationship that exists between the buyer and the seller
is called
A. Caveat emptor
B. Apparent authority
C. Contract privity
D. Terms and conditions
E. Force majeure
517 Que # 517

PMgroup Planning
Que Which term is NOT a common name for a procurement document that solicits
an offer from prospective sellers?
A. Invitation for bid
B. Request for proposal
C. Request for information
D. Request for quotation
E. Invitation for negotiation
518 Que # 518

PMgroup Executing
Que Typically, a force majeure clause excuses a seller from failure to perform
because of
A. Unanticipated work loads
B. Serious illnss
C. Unusually severe weather
D. Delays caused by the negligence or fault of contractors
E. A and D
519 Que # 519

PMgroup Planning
Que Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to cost-
reimbursement contracts?
A. The seller's interest in cost control diminishes
B. Payment is based solely on teh delivery of goods and services
C. The seller is reimbursed for all allowable and allocable costs
D. The buyer's concern about the seller's performance increases
E. The buyer bears the greater financial risk
520 Que # 520

PMgroup Planning
 Que Buyers use a variety of methods to provide incentives to a seller to complete
work early or within certain contractually specified time frames. One such
incentive is the use of liquidated damages. From teh seller's perspective,
liquidated damages are what form of incentive?
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Nominal
D. Reverse
E. Risk-prone
521 Que # 521

PMgroup Planning
Que Payment bonds are often required by the contract and require specific actions
under the stated conditions. Payment bonds are specifically designed to
ensure that the prime contractor provides payment of
A. Insurance premiums
B. Weekly payrolls
C. Incremental earned value charges
D. Subcontractors, labrers, and suppliers of material
E. Damages for accidents caused
522 Que # 522

PMgroup Executing
Que When a seller breaches a contract, the buyer cannot receive
A. Compensatory damages
B. Punitive damages
C. Specific performance
D. Liquidated damages
E. All of the above
523 Que # 523

PMgroup Executing
Que The contracting function in an organiztion is considered to be decentralized
when
A. Each project manager has control over the contracting process for his or her project

B. The project manager controls contract award

C. The contracting person appointed to the project is available and under the project
manager's direct control
D. Contracting is tailored to a single project
E. All of the above
524 Que # 524

PMgroup Planning
Que Which of the following terms represents a contract type category
A. Fixed-price
B. Cost-reimbursement
C. unit-price
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
525 Que # 525

PMgroup Executing
 Que Which item is NOT a basic element of a contract?
A. Offer
B. Acceptance
C. Consideration
D. Pricing structure
E. Legality of purpose
526 Que # 526

PMgroup Planning
Que Three techniques used for procurement planning are
A. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgement, and contract type selection
B. Fixed-price, cost-reimbursement, and unit-price contracts
C. Cost and schedule estimates, invoice processing, and cash flow projections
D. Scope statement, change management, and marketing analysis
E. Contract type selection, negotiation, and cash flow projections
527 Que # 527

PMgroup Executing
Que A buyer has negotiated a fixed-price incentive contract with the seller. The
contract has a target cost of $200K, a target profit of $30K, and a target price of
$230K. The buyer has also negotiated a ceiling price of $270K and a share ratio
of 70/30. If the seller completes the contract with actual costs of $170K, how
much profit will teh buyer pay the seller?

A. $1K
B. $30K
C. $35K
D. $39K
E. $51k
528 Que # 528

PMgroup Executing
Que Contracts may be written in any form that is understandable and enforceable,
so project personnel often attempt to be "creative" in developing the contract's
terms and conditions. If all the following options are available, the best course
of action to meet the requirements of the project is to
A. Prepare unique terms and conditions
B. Tailor an existing contract
C. Use standard clauses whenever possible
D. Avoid using contractual documents
E. None of the above
529 Que # 529

PMgroup Executing
Que When costs increase because of changes in the scope of work, the project is
experiencing
A. Accelerated costs
B. Cost growth
C. Cost escalation
D. Cost overrun
E. Cost risk
530 Que # 530

PMgroup Planning
 Que Issues to be addressed during procurement planning are
A. Importance of price versus quality of products
B. Lead time required to fordering products
C. Poetntial delays in receiving products and development of appropriate follow-up
procedures
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
531 Que # 531

PMgroup Planning
Que During solicitation planning, the project team is responsible for
A. Determining the make-or-buy decision
B. Specifying schedule parameters in the form of delivery dates
C. Developing the procurement documents
D. Developing the specifications and drawings to accompany the solicitation
E. Preparing "should cost" estimates if required
532 Que # 532

PMgroup Executing
Que After the contract is signed by both parties, a post negotiation critique should
be conducted to
A. Obtain feedback on how well teh negotiation was planned and conducted
B. Target areas for improvement in future negitiations
C. Establish how well teh negotiations achieved the objectives
D. Analyze the strategy and tactics of both parties to determine how to improve
negotiations in the future
E. All of the above
533 Que # 533

PMgroup Executing
Que The principal function of a warranty is to
A. Provide assurance of teh level of quality to be provided
B. Provide a way to assert claims for late payment
C. Provide a way to allow additional time following acceptance to correct deficiencies
without additional costs
D. Ensure that goods purchased fit the purposes for which they are to be used
E. Ensure that goods are merchantable
534 Que # 534

PMgroup Executing
Que Which term describes those costs that are assiociated with two or more
projects but are not traceable to each of them individually?
A. Variable
B. Direct
C. Indirect
D. Fixed
E. Semivariable
535 Que # 535

PMgroup Executing
Que The procurement audit
A. Identifies successes and failures that can be applied to other projects
B. Verifies that all work was completed correctly so that the buyer is satisfied
 C. Includes updating al records to reflect final results
D. Provides a way for final acceptance and closure of the contract
E. All of the above
536 Que # 536

PMgroup Executing
Que A purchase order is a good example of which form of contracting?
A. Bilateral
B. Trilateral
C. Unilateral
D. Severable
E. Promissory
537 Que # 537

PMgroup Executing
Que What doctrine causes a party to relinquish rights under a contract because he
or she knowlingly fails to execute those rights?
A. Quantum meruit
B. Assignment of claims
C. Material breach
D. Waiver
E. Warranties
538 Que # 538

PMgroup Planning
Que Requirements for inspection and acceptance are defined in the
A. Contract
B. Procurement management plan
C. Overall project plan
D. Quality control plan
E. Proposal
539 Que # 539

540 Que # 540

PMgroup Planning
Que A specification that expresses the buyer's requirements in terms of a range of
acceptance characteristics or minimum acceptable standards, such as
minimum and maximum capacity, function, velocity, or operation of equipment,
is called a
A. Design specification
B. Functional specification
C. Commercial standard
D. Performance specification
E. Qualified product

607 Que # 607

PMgroup Executing
Que A new project manager has been assigned to an existing project. While
reviewing the project plan, it is discovered that a subcontractor has a contract
clause stating a 5% payroll increase per year is included. This may result in a
cost overrun. No one found this before. What does the new project manager do
first?

A. Ask for management reserve

B. Analyze cost impact
C. Call the customer immediately
D. Refuse to honor the contract
E.

ANSWERS

100 E
101 C
102 D
103 C
104 C
105 A
106 B
107 B
108 A
109 C
110 E
111 B
112 D
113 D
114 B
115 A
116 C
117 C
118 A
119 D
120 E
121 C
122 C
123 A
124 B
125 D
126 E
127 E
128 C
129 D
130 C
131 A
132 B
133 C
134 D
135 A
136 B
137 B
138 D
139 D
140 C
141 D
142 D
143 B
144 C
145 D
146 D
147 A
148 E
149 C
150 C
151 C
152 B
153 B
154 D
155 A
156 C
157 D
158 D
159 A
160 D
160 E
161 C
162 D
163 A
164 E
165 C
166 A
167 C
168 D
453 D
454 D
455 C
456 D
457 C
458 A
459 C
460 B
461 D
462 C
463 B
464 C
465 C
466 A
467 E
468 D
469 D
470 C
501 E
502 D
503 C
504 C
505 D
506 A
507 A
508 C
509 B
510 E
511 E
512 C
513 E
514 A
515 AB
516
517 C
518 C
519 C
520 BB
521
522 D
523 B
524 E
525 E
526 D
527 A
528 D
529 C
530 B
531 E
532 C
533 E
534 A
535 C
536 E
537 C
538 D
539 A
540 D
607 B
 PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT

PMgroup Planning
Que # 117
Que Budgeted contingencies can be determined by
A. Past experience
B. Applying standard allowances
C. Determining the sum total of the most probable variances of the various risk item properly
identified
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 100
Que By using Project Risk management techniques project managers can develop
strategies that do all but which of the following
A. Significantly reduce project risks
B. Eliminate project risks
C. Provide a rational basis for better decision making
D. Identify risks, their impact(s), and any appropriate responses
E. None of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 101
Que Which phase of the project life cycle typically has the highest uncertainty and risk
associated with it?
A. Concept
B. Development
C. Execution
D. Conclusion
E. All of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 102
Que Risks classified as unknown unknowns (i.e., those which cannot be identified or
evaluated)
A. Should be deflected to the contracting officer
B. Should be handled via contingency allowances
C. Should be ignored since they cannot be identified
D. Should be ignored, since they are not covered in the Project Risk Assessment
E. C. and D.
PMgroup Planning
Que # 103
Que Risks can be divided into two basic types, business risk and pure (or insurable risk).
Of the following, which one(s) fall(s) under business risk?
A. Liability loss
B. Direct property loss
C. Profit loss
D. Personnel-related loss
E. B and C
PMgroup Planning
Que # 104
Que The type of contract (payment mechanism) chosen for a project is of the degree of risk
associated with completing that project. For a firm fixed price contract, payment for
risks
 A. Is accomplished by paying the actual costs to the contractor
B. Is accomplished by paying the contractor for his cost a plus a fixed fee (profit)
C. Is an undisclosed contingency in the contractor's bid
D. Is accomplished by paying for the budgeted costs of dealing with as predicted in the Project
Risk Assessment
E. B and C
PMgroup Planning
Que # 105
Que The principles of risk management should be followed only for
A. Complex projects
B. Simple projects
C. Large projects
D. A and C
E. All of the above
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 106
Que Deflection involves the transfer of risk by such means as
A. Contracting out to another party
B. Developing schedule alternatives
C. Developing discrete organizational functions under the project manager to handle risk events
D. Disaster planning and responses
E. None of the above
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 107
Que Risk mitigation involves all but which of the following
A. Developing system standards (policies, procedures, responsibility standards)
B. Obtaining insurance against loss
C. Identification of project risks
D. Performing contingent planning
E. Developing planning alternatives
PMgroup Planning
Que # 108
Que Total Project Risk.
A. Should not be calculated for small project
B. Is the probability of each project event times the sum of the consequences of individual
project risk events which could occur during the project
C. Is the cumulative sum of the probability of each individual project risk event times the
consequences of occurrence of that risk event
D. A and B
E. A and C
PMgroup Planning
Que # 109
Que In Project Risk Management, Risk Response may include actions to
A. Reduce the probability of risk events
B. Change the scope, budget, schedule or quality specifications of the project
C. Reduce the consequences or severity of impacts of a potential risk event
D. A and C
E. All of the above
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 110
Que "Fast tracked" project awarded and begun before all planning and risk assessment
information is complete and available
A. May be completed in reduced overall time than other projects
 B. Are in a higher risk category than other projects
C. Are not compatible with project risk assessment
D. A and B.
E. All of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 111
Que Risk event probability is determined as
A. The total number of possible events divided into the expectation or frequency of the risk event
B. The number of times the risk event may occur
C. The fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk event
D. The total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk event
E. A and D.
PMgroup Planning
Que # 112
Que Final risk quantification and modeling normally considers the impacts of all risks
combined and
A. Translated the impacts into economic terms for analysis
B. Concentrates on schedule impacts
C. May not consider safety and environmental impacts
D. A and B
E. A and C
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 113
Que Sensitivity Analysis can be used in risk analysis to
A. Substitute for uncertainty analysis in risk quantification
B. Estimate the level of risk aversion adopted by management
C. Estimate the effect of change of one project variable on the overall project
D. A and B
E. All of the above
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 114
Que Many companies self-insure against some risks. Problems which can arise from self
insurance include
A. Failure to reserve funds to handle worst-case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in
severe financial damage to the company
B. Stiff competition from insurance companies
C. Confusion of business risks with insurable risks
D. A and C
E. All of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 115
Que Using the figure below, what is the probability of success for project B?
A. 0.3
B. 0.2
C. 0.35
D. 0.15
E. 0.12
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 116
Que In performing an impact analysis the most effective tool to ensure all risks are
identified on large projects is the
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Milestone review and schedule technique
 C. Cost/schedule Control system
D. Planning programming budget system
E. Program and evaluation review technique
PMgroup Planning
Que # 118
Que During which phase of the project life cycle is the amount at stake lowest?
A. Concept
B. Development
C. Execution
D. Conclusion
E. C and D
PMgroup Planning
Que # 119
Que Contingent planning should include all but which of the following?
A. The development of a contingency allowance determined by combining (layering) various
estimate segments to form larger estimate segments
B. The development of schedule alternatives and work-arounds
C. The management of a contingency budget
D. An assessment of project shut-down liabilities
E. A and C
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 120
Que Critical variance is best described as
A. variation beyond which the project will likely fail
B. the variance resulting from sensitivity analysis
C. the maximum tolerable variance in any single element of an estimate's bottom line total cost
D. the contingency required for a given level of confidence
E. c and d
PMgroup Planning
Que # 121
Que The Delphi method involves brainstorming as a method of risk identification.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
E.
PMgroup Planning
Que # 123
Que The single point standard deviations are 3, 5, 10 and 3 for the critical path. What is the
standard deviation for the entire path?
A. 21
B. 12
C. 143
D. 5.5
E. impossible to determine without optimistic and pessimistic estimates
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 124
Que Mitigating risk could involve
A. identifying risks, obtaining insurance and developing alternatives
B. contracting and quality assurance
C. developing standards, buying insurance, and planning for contingencies and alternatives
D. rescoping the project and reassessing requirements
E. c and d
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 125
Que The 200 million dollar nuclear power plant you have just built cannot be activated
because a pair of rare spotted owls have just built their nest in your steam tower. You
explain this to the CEO of the utility as
A. the importance of concern for endangered species
B. an unknown - unknown
C. a known - unknown
D. an occurrence that should be handled via contingency allowances
E. c and d
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 126
Que A manager who says "I'll pay for it, but I want it as soon as possible" is considered to
be
A. authoritarian
B. risk accepting
C. risk averse
D. in need of a solution
E. intolerant of basic project management principles
PMgroup Planning
Que # 127
Que If the mean is 3, the mode is 4, the median is 2, the PERT is 6 and one standard
deviation is 3, a 95% confidence level is between
A. 0 and 12
B. 3 and 9
C. -3 and 9
D. 1 and 7
E. 0 and 6
PMgroup Planning
Que # 128
Que Final risk quantification and modeling normally considers the impacts of all risks
except possibly those due to
A. producibility
B. reliability
C. affordability
D. acceptability
E. operability
PMgroup Planning
Que # 129
Que Risk management is defined as the art and science of ________ risk factors throughout
the life cycle of a project.
A. researching, reviewing, and acting on
B. identifying, analyzing, and responding to
C. reviewing, monitoring, and managing
D. identifying, reviewing, and avoiding
E. analyzing, changing, and suppressing
PMgroup Planning
Que # 130
Que Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of the chances of ________ that will
adversely affect project objectives.
A. likely events
B. complex activities
C. complex schedules
 D. uncertain occurrences
E. new work
PMgroup Planning
Que # 131
Que The three factors that characterize project risk are ________.
A. severity of impact, duration of impact, and cost of impact
B. identification, type of risk category, and probability of impact
C. risk event, risk probability, and the amount at stake
D. occurrence, frequency, and cost
E. cost, schedule, and quality
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 132
Que Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the ________ of the
project.
A. manager
B. detriment
C. schedule
D. budget
E. length
PMgroup Planning
Que # 133
Que In the risk management context, mitigation and deflection are both means of ________
the risk to the ________ objectives.
A. improving; client's
B. increasing; project's
C. decreasing; sponsor's
D. decreasing; project's
E. decreasing; corporation's
PMgroup Planning
Que # 134
Que Contingency planning is a means to ________ risks to the project through a formal
process and provide the resources to meet the risk events.
A. address
B. classify
C. assign
D. resolve
E. eliminate
PMgroup Planning
Que # 135
Que Suppose a project manager is negotiating with a subcontractor to provide the
installation and integration of a computer system with data links. The data links must
access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication.
This integration of the data protocols has never been accomplished before. Since both
are attempting to avoid any risk, the project manager would like to award a ________
contract, while the subcontractor would like to sign only a ________ contract.

A. letter; formal
B. fixed price; cost-plus
C. cost-plus; fixed price
D. no-fault; no-obligation
E. variable; lump-sum
PMgroup Planning
Que # 136
Que Suppose a project manager of a research and development contract is charged with
building a new radar antenna for an aircraft. The weight is limited to 12 pounds in the
specification. This represents a major weight reduction over current systems, which
weigh in excess of 26 pounds. Before starting the project, the project manager should
________.

A. attempt to cancel the cost-plus contract because the antenna just can't be built to the
specification
B. ignore the situation because no one has said the antenna can't be built to the specification
C. assess the probability of failing to meet the specification
D. start work immediately to get most of the hardware fabricated so it can be weighed to
determine the actual weight of the completed antenna.
E. delay and perform a risk assessment until the project is better defined through building
experience
PMgroup Planning
Que # 137
Que Suppose the project manager is evaluating the bids of two vendors. Each vendor offers
to sell similar electronic components, which are integrated at the vendors site. To avoid
the most risk, the project manager views items such as the vendor's ________.

A. price, sales volume, and profit margin

B. price, promised delivery, and inspection schedule
C. personnel policies, personnel training program, and price
D. price, experience, and delivery means
E. experience, personnel skills, and material control procedures
PMgroup Planning
Que # 138
Que Suppose the project manager must submit a summary risk assessment to the director
of project managers. The assessment is to be made for each component of a new
electronics system. The project manager submits the following
Component A - Low Risk Component B - Medium Risk Component C - Moderate Risk
Component D - High Risk Component E - Median Risk The problem with the project
manager's risk assessment is that ________.

A. the project risk has a full range of risk values

B. the project risk is normally distributed
C. the project risk has one high risk assessment that could cause problems
D. the project risk assessment does not have a uniform evaluation criteria for the middle risk
category
E. there is no identifiable problem
PMgroup Planning
Que # 139
Que Suppose the project budget is set at $2,300,000 for the total project. Some work that
must be accomplished has not been identified in the initial planning. The most
appropriate source of funds to cover this work is the ________.
A. management reserve
B. contingency reserve
C. slush fund reserve
D. sinking fund
E. corporate profit
PMgroup Planning
Que # 140
Que Suppose the project manager is planning courses of action to develop the strategy for
the project. Courses "A" and "B" are both feasible options and can be implemented.
Senior management has directed that risk be considered, but there is a need to
maximize the profit on this project. A decision tree is used as a valid means for selecting
the most profitable option. Course A has a potential profit of $27,500 with a probability of
0.75 success. Course B has a potential profit of $20,800 with a probability of 0.90
success. The course of action that should be selected is ________.

A. Course A because it has a higher profit potential

B. Course B because it has a higher probability of success
C. Course A because it has an expected value of $36,667 when the probability is factored into
the decision
D. Course A because it has an expected value of $1,905 more than Course B
E. Either course because there is no difference in expected value
PMgroup Planning
Que # 141
Que Suppose the project has many hazards that could easily injure one or more persons
and there is no method of avoiding the potential for damages. The project manager
should consider ________ as a means of deflecting the risk.
A. abandoning the project
B. buying insurance for personal bodily injury
C. establishing a contingency fund
D. establishing a management reserve
E. not acknowledging the potential for injury
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 142
Que The primary characteristic that distinguishes external and internal risk areas is the
________.
A. magnitude of the impact on the project
B. project manager's perception of risk
C. technical nature of the project
D. use of more or fewer subcontractors
E. project manager's ability to influence the risk
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 143
Que There are two general categories of risk areas, internal and external. Examples of
external risk areas are ________.
A. schedule delays, cost overruns, and changes in technology
B. regulatory, project completion, and taxation
C. natural disasters, regulatory, and design
D. currency rates, design, and social impact
E. inflation rates, performance, and schedule delays
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 144
Que In the area of legal risks, there are two reasons for licensing of projects. One reason is
for revenue generation by the community, while the other is for ________.
A. harassment of the project manager
B. bureaucratic interest in the project
C. public safety of the product
D. monitoring of the project schedule
E. identification of the project manager
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 145
Que Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright
have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of
a project can ________.
A. cause a law suit to be initiated for damages
B. cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rights
C. cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patent
D. diminish the reputation of the project's parent corporation
E. all of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 146
Que During the conduct of impact analysis for any risk, the individual performs screening.
Screening is for the purpose of determining whether the risk is ________ the project.
A. within or outside the scope of
B. a contingency item for
C. significant enough to adversely affect
D. realistic and treatable during implementation of
E. all of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 147
Que Suppose a project of $1.5 million has an adverse event that has the probability of 0.07
of occurrence and a potential loss of $15,000. This represents an expected negative
value of ________.
A. $10,500
B. $1,050
C. $105
D. $15,000
E. cannot be determined from the available data
PMgroup Planning
Que # 148
Que The assigned values of risk for a project is best accomplished through a structured
methodology that ensures all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is
best suited for the structured analysis of the project risk is the ________.
A. contract
B. specification
C. statement of work
D. work breakdown structure
E. linear programming diagram
PMgroup Planning
Que # 149
Que During the assessment of the risk to attempt to quantify the probability of failure and
the amount of potential loss, the project manager uses the ________ personnel to make
the estimates.
A. engineering
B. marketing
C. experienced
D. planning
E. project
PMgroup Planning
Que # 150
Que Suppose during the risk analysis process that one identified risk event cannot be
avoided, mitigated, or insured. This risk event is a critical item that, if it occurs, could
cause the project to fail. The best option for the project manager is to ________.
A. play down the risk because the team will find a means of overcoming any failure
 B. place special emphasis on the risk event to intensely manage that item and all interfacing
items
C. have the risk assessment team continue to analyze the risk event until it reduces the expected
negative value
D. continue to search for an insurance company that will assume the risk
E. ignore the risk assessment because any assigned value is a point estimate that is never
precisely the expected state of nature
PMgroup Planning
Que # 151
Que Suppose during project implementation on a fixed price contract, the budget for one
work package has cost more than estimated because of an error that required reworking
the task. The cost of materials and labor to rework the task required $3,117 more than
the budget. The money for this rework is covered by the ________.
A. contingency funds
B. management reserve
C. overhead charges
D. profit margin
E. G&A charges
PMgroup Planning
Que # 152
Que The PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is a method of scheduling
projects. In the context of risk, PERT is better than CPM (Critical Path Method) because it
deals with the ________.
A. logic associated with cost estimates
B. logic associated with schedule estimates
C. certainty associated with cost estimates
D. uncertainty associated with schedule estimates
E. certainty associated with schedule estimates
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 153
Que Suppose the project manager establishes a risk model that will be used on the
CALTRON Project. The risk model identifies the risk events and assigns probabilities of
occurrence. However, what is missing from this risk model is ________.
A. nothing-the model is complete
B. that the risk probabilities need to be summed to determine the total project risk
C. that the risk events must be labeled as internal or external risks
D. that the risk events do not address the technology used by the CALTRON Project
E. that the impact of the risk on the project's objectives has not been assessed and assigned
PMgroup Planning
Que # 154
Que A high-risk project usually receives the highest priority by the top management. To
effectively manage the project, the project manager should establish with the top
management a charter that calls for his/her ________ and the basis for ________ without
prior consultation.
A. schedule; change
B. budget; change
C. responsibilities; managing
D. resources; obtaining additional resources
E. obligations; conducting tradeoffs
PMgroup Planning
Que # 155
Que High-risk projects are always of concern to senior management and will receive the
most scrutiny. The major concern of the project manager of a high-risk project is the
tendency for senior management to often ________.
A. interrupt or intervene in the project's management
B. avoid or deny the project's potential risk
C. give low priority to resource allocation
D. stay informed as to the project's progress
E. give support to the project when additional resources are requested
PMgroup Planning
Que # 156
Que Risk may be transferred from the owner (buyer) to the contractor (seller) through a
contractual vehicle. This risk transfer is usually accomplished by the owner awarding a
fixed price contract where the contractor agrees to perform for a single price. For the
owner this simple solution has hidden costs that include all but ________.
A. conservatism in design and fabrication
B. conservatism in scheduling
C. a focus on the avoidance of liability, rather than the important project issues
D. an unclear assignment of work because the contractor accepts no performance criteria
E. loss of productivity through excessive checking (inspection)
PMgroup Planning
Que # 157
Que Guarantees in a project agreement give some degree of assurance to the owner (buyer)
that the end product will meet the specified requirements, but they also represent
potential future costs to the contractor (seller), or cost risk, if the system fails. The four
express (as compared to implied) guarantee categories are ________.
A. scope, cost, schedule, and quality
B. design, safety, fabrication, and functional
C. mechanical, electrical, software, and physical
D. operational, functional, maintainability, and reparability
E. design, workmanship, equipment, and performance (process)
PMgroup Planning
Que # 158
Que A project may have an implied warranty that is not specifically detailed in the contract.
This implied warranty represents potential future costs for failure to meet the
requirements and is a risk to the project. Implied warranties are usually those associated
with ________ , which are spelled out in the Uniform Commercial Code.
A. conformance to requirements and safety of use
B. regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollution
C. lawful use of the product and safety of use
D. merchantability and fitness for purpose
E. operability and durability
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 159
Que Performance of a contract can bring liabilities that have implications of risk but are
perhaps not as visible as the stated and implied warranty and guarantee. Two of these
liabilities are ________ infringements.
A. trade secret and technology
B. process secret and advanced technology
C. patent and copyright
D. trade name and trade secret
E. design and fabrication
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 160
Que Project risk through liability comes in two forms
breach of contract and a tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the
service or provide the required product, while a tort is a personal wrong such as
________.
A. an automobile accident
B. an accident on commercial premises
C. slander or libel
D. assault and battery
E. all of the above
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 161
Que Risk of loss may be transferred to an insurance underwriter by means of an insurance
policy. Such policies state the monetary value of property damage that will be given for
sustained losses. To make an informed decision about buying insurance, the project
manager needs to determine the ratio of insurance cost and the expected value of the
loss. For example, if the cost of insurance is $10,000, the value of the property is
$200,000, and the probability of loss is 0.05 (or five percent), the insurance is ________.

A. desirable because it will costs less than the probable losses

B. undesirable because it costs more than the probable losses
C. indeterminable because of insufficient data
D. the same as the cost of the probable loss and there is no advantage
E. none of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 162
Que Lease, rental, and hire of equipment for short periods of time to perform specified
project work is a common practice. The equipment poses ________ unless the
contractor (lessor) ________.
A. no risk; abuses the equipment beyond fair usage
B. no risk; assumes title to the equipment during the use period
C. risk; insures for damage or loss
D. risk; denies liability during the use period
E. risk; is insured for the cost of lease, rental, or hire
PMgroup Planning
Que # 163
Que The owner (buyer) of a project usually has the right to direct changes to the scope of
work while the project work is being accomplished. Often, the owner will orally request a
change and insist that the change be initiated immediately without the normal
documentation (e.g., a change order). When the change is initiated without
documentation, ________.

A. the owner assumes all responsibility for paying for the change although s/he may at a later
date not want the change
B. the owner assumes responsibility for one-half of the cost of the change until the
documentation is completed and then assumes all at that time
C. the project manager assumes all risk for the change, if initiated, until the documentation is
received
D. the project manager assumes only the risk of misinterpreting the owner's oral change
directive, while the owner assumes responsibility for paying for the requested change
E. it cannot be determined who is responsible for payment and risk without further information
PMgroup Planning
Que # 164
Que The probability of failure for a project element is often called exposure to risk, or risk
exposure. This exposure may be mitigated by taking measures to avoid a particular
approach or use of specific technologies. When the risk exposure cannot be reduced
through selection of another alternative, the project manager should ________.
A. conduct further studies and analyses until a more attractive alternative is found
B. disregard the exposure to risk because nothing can be done
C. not perform the activities with risk exposure and save the money that would have beenspent
on them
D. hire an independent consultant to manage the risk exposure through extensive investigations
and new technologies
E. establish a contingency plan to overcome any adverse activity, which may include a
contingency allowance
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 165
Que Project risk should be identified and assessed prior to project initiation during the
planning phase. Once the implementation starts, there is less time to objectively assess
risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation there may be
indications of risk (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) such as ________.
A. numerous change orders pending approval
B. instability of project progress information
C. conflict between the project manager and customer
D. loss of focus on the work by line supervisors
E. all of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 166
Que The project manager may realize that some terms of the contract and project objectives
will not be met. It would be costly and time consuming to meet some specifications. The
project has a high degree of exposure to risk at this point. Negotiation with the customer
to reduce the risk exposure is a means that ________.
A. could eliminate all risk to the project and customer at no cost to either party
B. could redefine the risk exposure to one of opportunities for both the project and customer
C. could result in reduced scope for the project and an improved product for the customer
D. may cost less to pay penalties and meet a modified specification to meet the minimum
customer requirements
E. all of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 167
Que Demonstration and performance tests are used to prove the functional and operating
characteristics of a deliverable to the customer. The tests pose a risk when the ________
criteria are selected to demonstrate the capabilities because ________.
A. low end; the system will be stressed to meet the minimum requirements and meet all the
customer's requirements
B. more stringent; the system may meet the requirements but fail the testing
C. standard; the system will always pass the testing and not fully stress the functions
D. manufacturer's; the system will always pass the testing and not fully stress the functions
E. none of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 168
Que Uncertainty is often used in conjunction with the term risk, implying that uncertainty is
risk. Uncertainty is an unknown situation that may result from a lack of information to
sufficiently quantify the probability of occurrence of an event and to determine the most
likely outcome. Therefore, any uncertainty that has a potential for a major impact on a
project should be ________.
 A. assigned a risk exposure index of >=.8 pending further resolution of the risk exposure
B. ignored until additional information can be obtained to resolve the actual risk exposure
C. studied to determine alternatives that may have a high-risk index but are fully understood
D. resolved before project implementation but must be resolved before starting that area of work
E. resolved before project implementation or the project must be delayed pending a better
understanding of the situation
PMgroup Planning
Que # 433
Que The categories of risk response development include
I. Interpretation II. Acceptance III. Mitigation IV.
Avoidance
A. II and III
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
E. II, III, and IV only
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 434
Que Risk mitigation could involve
A. Buying insurance
B. Policies and procedures for a response system
C. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun
D. Licensing and intellectual property rights
E. Eliminating risk through beta testing
PMgroup Planning
Que # 435
Que Risk Identification should be done
A. Just before a meeting with the client
B. Ona regular basis throughout the project
C. As soon as time and cost estimates are ready
D. Early in the execution phase
E. When preparing the project plan
PMgroup Planning
Que # 436
Que What is "risk event probability"?
A. An estimate of teh probebility that an uncontrollable event will occur
B. The value used in mitigation and deflection
C. An estimate of teh risk value at loss
D. The probability of the risk not occurring at this time
E. An estimate of teh probability that a given risk will occur
PMgroup Planning
Que # 437
Que The major processes of project risk management are
A. Plan, identify, document, and assess
B. Identify, mitigate, and plan
C. Respond, evaluate, and document
D. Identify, quantify, develop, and control
E. Identify, respond, assess, adn document
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 438
Que Outputs from response development could include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Corrective actions
B. Risk management plan
 C. Insurance policies
D. Management reserves
E. Contingency plans
PMgroup Planning
Que # 439
Que The tools and techniques for risk quantification are
A. Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance
B. Work arounds and additional response development
C. Checklists, damage control reports, standards allowances, and inspection
D. Checklists, historical results, and interviewing
E. Expected monetary value, staistical sums, scheudle simulations, and decision trees
PMgroup Planning
Que # 440
Que Response development is sometimes called risk
A. Identification
B. Mitigation
C. Control
D. Quantification
E. Action analysis
PMgroup Planning
Que # 441
Que 1996 PMBOK GUIDE Stakeholder risk tolerances
A. Provide a mathematical technique that can be used to create a false impression of precision
and reliability
B. Provide a screen or filter to help determine staffing levels
C. Provide a screen or filter to help determine which project risks to quantify
D. Is important because different organizations and different individuals have thesame tolerances
for risk
E. Are the same for all stakeholdesr
PMgroup Planning
Que # 442
Que The outputs from risk quantification include
A. Opportunities to pursue, threats to respond to
B. Threats to ignore, opportunities to accept
C. Threats to respond to, threats to accept
D. Checklists, corrective actions, and decision trees
E. Direction, resources, and costs
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 443
Que Acceptance means to
A. Agree with the project manager
B. Ignore the consequences
C. Eliminate a specific thgreat
D. Accept the consequences
E. Purchase the insurance
PMgroup Planning
Que # 444
Que One of the outputs of risk identification is
A. Potential risk events
B. Expected monetary value of the risk events
C. Alternate strategies
D. Corrective ations
E. The plan for mitigation
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 445
Que Products or projects that use unproven technologies will, all other things being equal,
involve _________ than products or projects using proven technologies
A. more risk
B. The same risk
C. Less risk
D. Half the risk
E. Twice the risk
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 446
Que A thorough review of ___________ will help identify potential opportunities and threats
to the project
A. Historical results of similar projects
B. The project's change control system
C. The project's mission statement
D. The project's budget
E. Historical data from the project manager's experience
PMgroup Planning
Que # 447
Que All of the following are inputs to the risk identification process EXCEPT
A. WBS
B. 1996 PMBOK GUIDE staffing plan
C. Work-around plan
D. Procurement plan
E. Cost and duration estimates
PMgroup Planning
Que # 448
Que A risk event description should include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Event probability
B. Event frequency
C. Expected timing
D. Anticipated mitigation strategy
E. Alternative outcomes
PMgroup Planning
Que # 449
Que Expected monetary value is the mathematical product of the
A. Risk event probability and the risk event value
B. Risk event probability and beta
C. Risk event value and sigma
D. Risk event probability and the standard deviation
E. Risk event value and beta
PMgroup Planning
Que # 450
Que Risk response development will utilize which of the following tools
A. Contracting
B. Risk Management Plan
C. Work-arounds
D. Contingency plan
E. Corrective action
PMgroup Planning
Que # 451
Que A risk management plan should include all of the following EXCEPT
 A. Who is responsible for managing various areas of risks
B. A WBS
C. How reserves will be allocated
D. RRisk identificaiton and risk quantification processes
E. How contingency plans will be implemented
PMgroup Planning
Que # 452
Que The risk management plan is a major component of the
A. Project plan
B. Communication plan
C. Procurement plan
D. Contingency plan
E. Quality management plan
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 501
Que A project manager has the option of proposing one of the three systems to a client
A. $9.9K
B. $44K
C. $45K
D. $48K
E. $60K
PMgroup Planning
Que # 502
Que The first requirement for effective risk management is
A. Clewar visibility of the information needed for decision making
B. Ownership of the risks that are identified
C. Appointment of the project manager early in the process to manage the identified risks
D. Project team members who are trained in risk and understand its causes to help construct and
implment risk mitigation strategies
E. A project sponsor who requires a risk management plan
PMgroup Planning
Que # 503
Que A person estimates that a commute home will most likely take 1 hour. On further
questioning, she estimates that the trip could take as little as 45 minutes, best case, or 1
hour 45 minutes worst case. What is the standard deviation based on the estimates?
A. 10 min
B. 15 min
C. 50 min
D. 60 min
E. 65 min
PMgroup Planning
Que # 504
Que Projects are particularly susceptible to risk because
A. Murphy's law states that "if something can go wrong, it will"
B. Each project is unique in some measure
C. Matrix management has not yet gained wide acceptance in organizations
D. Project management tools are generally unavailable at teh project team level
E. There are never enough resources to do the job
PMgroup Planning
Que # 505
Que Which of the following tools is the most appropriate for measuring schedule risk?
A. CPM
B. Decision trees
 C. WBS
D. PERT
E. PDM
PMgroup Planning
Que # 506
Que The term RISK PORTFOLIO refers to
A. Risk quantification strategies
B. Identified scheudle and cost risks
C. Cumulative EMV of teh most critical risks
D. Risk mitigation strategies
E. Risk data assembled for the management of the project
PMgroup Planning
Que # 507
Que The Delphi method is a particularly useful risk quantification technique to
A. Present a sesqunce of decision choices graphically to decision makers
B. Define the probability of occurrence of specific variables
C. Determine probability assessments relating to future events
D. Help take into account the attitude toward risk of teh decision maker
E. Formalize management's attitude toward risk
PMgroup Planning
Que # 508
Que Most statistical simulations of budgets, schedule, and reosurce allocations use which
of the following approaches?
A. PERT
B. Decision-tree analysis
C. Present value analysis
D. NMonte Carlo techniques
E. Random number generation (normal, triangular, beta, uniform, and so on)
PMgroup Planning
Que # 509
Que If, in the path convergence example below, the odds of completing activities 1,2 and 3
are 50%, and 50% respectively, what are the changes of starting activiy 4 on day 6?
A. 10%
B. 13%
C. 40%
D. 50%
E. 150%
PMgroup Planning
Que # 510
Que All of the following criteria are considered essential to the assessment of technical risk
except
A. Planned procedures
B. Explicit attention to technical risk, not just to schedule or cost risk with consideration of
technicalo risk implied
C. Critical path analysis
D. Documentation of procedures and results
E. Reassessment to detect changes in risk during a system's development
PMgroup Planning
Que # 511
Que Range estimating identifies the
A. Mathematical probability that a cost overrun will occur
B. Amount of financial exposure
C. Risks and opportunties ranked in order of bottom-line importance
 D. Contingency required for a given level of confidence
E. All of the above
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 512
Que Each of the following statements about risk avoidance is true except that it
A. Focuses on eliminating the elements that are creating the risk
B. Includes making the decision not to bid on a project in which the risk exposure is believed to
be too high
C. Accepts the consequences of the risk event should it occur
D. Includes adopting an alternative, lower-risk technology path
E. Includes leaving the risk with the customer when the customer is in the best position to
mitigate the risk
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 513
Que If the probability of event 1 is 80%, and event 2 is 70%, and they are independent
events, how likely is it that both events will occur
A. 6%
B. 15%
C. 24%
D. 56%
E. None of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 514
Que The WBS is a key input to the risk identification process because it
A. Identifies all the work that must be done and, therefore, helps to identify potential sources of
risk
B. Identifies all the work that must be done and, therefore, includes all the risks on teh project
C. Helps to organize all the work that must be done on teh project
D. Provides a basis for cost estimating
E. Identifies work packages, which enables specific resonsibility to be assigned
PMgroup Planning
Que # 515
Que To be effective, the risk management process
A. Should be applied primarily during the concept and closeout phases and to some extent
during the implementation and planning phases
B. Should be applied throughout the project and at all levels of system decomposition and
project organization
C. Should include assembly of certain stakeholders to identify risks and develop mitigation
strategies
D. Must be separated from the project management process by assigning a risk manager to the
project
E. Should focus on those risks that senior management finds most critical
PMgroup Planning
Que # 516
Que The simplest form of risk analysis is
A. Probability analysis
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Decision-tree analysis
D. Delphi method
E. Utility theory
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 517
Que If a business venture has a 60% chance to earn $2M and a 20% chance to lose $1.5M,
what is the expected monetary value of the venture?
A. ($50K)
B. $300K)
C. $500K)
D. $900K
E. $1.2M
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 518
Que Categories of responses to threats are
A. Technical, marketing, financial, and human
B. Identification, quantification, response development, and response control
C. Avoidance, mitigation and acceptance
D. Avoidnace, retention, control, and deflection
E. Avoidance, mitigation, and retention
PMgroup Planning
Que # 519
Que All of the following are disadvantages of using statistical approaches to quantify risk
except
A. Input data are inaccurate and incomplete
B. Accurate processing of poor-quality data is expensive, time-consuming, and difficult to
accomplish
C. Managers sometimes rely on computer-produced results that are detailed and impressive but
inaccurate, which makes decision making difficult
D. Risk specialists may understand the statistical copmlexities but fail in communicating what
they know
E. Statistical techniques are considered too theoretical when applied to risk
PMgroup Planning
Que # 520
Que Of the following risk quantification approaches, which one considers the attitude of the
decision maker toward risk
A. Decision-tree analysis
B. Sensitivity anlysis
C. Utility theory
D. Monte Carlo method
E. Decision theory
PMgroup Planning
Que # 521
Que Risk exposure measures the
A. Variability of the estimate
B. Product of the probability and impact of the risk
C. Range of schedule and cost outcomes
D. Reduced monetary value of the risk event
E. B and D
Que # 522
PMgroup Planning
Que The primary advantage of using decision-tree analysis in project risk management is
that it
A. Considers the attitude of teh decision maker toward risk
B. Impresses upon management that there is a range of possible outcomes and shows the
relative importance of each variable examined
C. Forces consideration of teh probability of each outcome
D. Helps to identify and postulate risk scenarios for teh project
 E. Shows how risks can occur in combination
PMgroup Planning
Que # 523
Que Contingency planning involves
A. Defining the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur
B. Establishing a management reserve to cover unplanned expenditures
C. Preparing a stand-alone document that is separate from the overall project plan
D. Determining needed adjustments to make during the implementation phase of a project
E. Determining what risks to avoid on a project
PMgroup Planning
Que # 524
Que In a proactive approach to project risk management, the amount of a contingency
reserve should be based on
A. Standard allowances
B. Percentages based on past experience
C. The sum total of teh most likely probability and impact of the various risk items
D. A set amount allocated to each item proportionately
E. An allowance of 10% for each phase in the project life cycle
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 525
Que Risk mitigation involves
A. Using performance and payment bonds
B. Eliminating a specific threat by eliminating the cause
C. Avoiding the schedule risk inherent in the project
D. Assigning the risk to a subcontractor
E. Reducing the expected monetary value of a risk event by reducing the probability of
occurance
PMgroup Planning
Que # 526
Que On a typical project, when are risks highest and impacts lowest?
A. When the resource histogram peaks
B. During the concept phase
C. At or near completion of the project
D. During the implementation phase
E. When the project manager is replaced
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 527
Que All of the following are examples of external risks except
A. Regulatory considerations
B. Natural hazards
C. Inflation
D. Contract type
E. Taxation
PMgroup Planning
Que # 528
Que The highest risk impact generally occurs during which of the following project life-cycle
phases?
A. Concept and planning
B. Concept and implementation
C. Planning and implementation
D. Implementation and closeout
E. Concept and closeout
PMgroup Planning
Que # 529
Que The major processes in project risk management are
A. Risk identification,m risk quantification, risk response development, and risk response control
B. Risk analysis, risk assessment, and risk management
C. Risk mitigation, risk assessment, and risk quantification
D. Risk identification, impact analysis, response planning, response system, and data
applications
E. Deflection, contingency planning, risk identification, and impact analysis
PMgroup Planning
Que # 530
Que Of the four types of risk inherent in project management, which one will have the most
lasting effect from the customer's perspective if not managed well?
A. Scope risk
B. Schedule risk
C. Cost risk
D. Quality risk
E. Procurement risk
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 531
Que Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to
complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks
in the worst case. What is the PERT estimate for the expected duration of the work
package?
A. 45 weeks
B. 70 weeks
C. 90 weeks
D. 140 weeks
E. None of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 532
Que Which of the following statements best describes the principle of fairness in risk
allocation regarding contracts?
A. The party who has the most knowledge of certain risks and is in the best position to minimize
those risks should bear most, if not all, of those risks
B. The party who can gain whatever competitive advantage exists as a result of certain risks not
occurring should bear most if not all of those risks
C. The greater the number of risks, the better it is to share them among all contractual parties
D. The seller should bear more risk than the buyer, because the seller is the party to the contract
who is being reimbursed for the work performed
E. The buyer should bear more risk than the seller, because the buyer has more knowledge of
how risk relates to its operations
PMgroup Planning
Que # 533
Que All the following are purposes of project risk management except
A. Identifyting factors that are likely to affect the project scope, quality, time, and cost
B. Developing response strategies for all identified risks
C. Providing a baseline for project factors that cannot be controlled
D. Mitigating impacts by influencing project factors that can be controlled
E. Quantifying the expected impact of each factor
PMgroup Planning
Que # 534
Que The most important aspects of a risk from a management point of view are its
A. Causes
 B.
Effects
C.
Costs
D.
Exposure value
E.
Probability of occurrence
Que # 535
PMgroup Planning
Que What are risk triggers?
A. Indirect manifestations of actual risk events
B. A symptom of a risk
C. An output of the risk identification process
D. An event that indicates that a risk event may occur
E. All of the above
Que # 536
PMgroup Controlling
Que The objectives of a risk audit are to
A. Confirm that risk management has been practices throughout the project life cycle
B. Confirm that the project is well managed and that the risks are being controlled
C. Verify the effectiveness of project reporting and project management
D. Help identify the deterioration of teh project's profit potential in its early stages
E. All of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que # 537
Que Of the following types of historical information that serve as input to risk identification,
which one is the least reliable?
A. Project files
B. Commercial databases
C. Project team knowledge
D. Previous project results
E. Lessons learned databases
PMgroup Planning
Que # 538
Que A business risk
A. Has only a loss associated with it
B. Has only a gain associated with it
C. Can be mitigated through insurance
D. Has the potential for both gain and loss
E. Cannot be identified with any accuracy in the concept phase of teh project life cycle
PMgroup Planning
Que # 539
Que The ultimate responsibility for identifying and managing project risks rests with the
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Contractor's guarantor, if a performance bond is required
D. Project team
E. Project manager and project sponsor
PMgroup Planning
Que # 540
Que The primary objective of risk quantification is to
A. Improve the accuracy of risk assessment
B. Take the guesswork out of the risk response management process
C. Compare the cost of risk response development to the risk's expected monetary value
D. Determine which risk events warrant responses
E. Reduce the ambiguities in describing risks when using qualitative criteria
117 D
100 B
101 A
102 B
103 C
104 C
105 E
106 A
107 C
108 C
109 E
110 D
111 A
112 E
113 C
114 D
115 C
116 A
118 A
119 A
120 C
121 B
123 B
124 A
125 E
126 B
127 A
128 D
129 B
130 D
131 C
132 B
133 D
134 A
135 B
136 C
137 E
138 D
139 B
140 D
141 B
142 E
143 B
144 C
145 E
146 A
147 B
148 D
149 C
150 D
151 B
152 D
153 E
154 C
155 A
156 D
157 E
158 D
159 C
160 E
161 E
162 C
163 C
164 E
165 E
166 D
167 B
168 D
433 E
434 A
435 B
436 E
437 D
438 A
439 E
440 B
441 C
442 A
443 D
444 A
445 A
446 A
447 C
448 D
449 A
450 D
451 B
452 A
501 B
502 A
503 A
504 B
505 D
506 E
507 C
508 D
509 B
510 C
511 E
512 C
513 D
514 A
515 B
516 B
517 D
518 C
519 E
520 C
521 B
522 C
523 A
524 C
525 E
526 B
527 D
528 D
529 A
530 D
531 B
532 A
533 B
534 A
535 E
536 E
537 C
538 D
539 A
540 D
 PROJECT COMMUNICATION MANAGEMENT

100 Que # 100

Que Due to the cost overruns, Diane has sent a status report to the CEO of her
company. Assuming he reads it, she can expect him to remember what percent
of the report?
A. 73% to 77%
B. 23% to 27%
C. -25% to 75%
D. 85%
E. 50%

PMgroup Planning
101 Que # 101
Que Which of the following methods to resolve conflict is most likely to create a
"wounded warrior"?
A. Forcing
B. Compromising
C. Accommodation
D. Avoidance
E. Coercion

PMgroup Executing
102 Que # 102
Que "Decoder" is not synonymous with "receiver" because
A. the decoder interprets based on his or her frame of reference
B. the decoder is not a position on the team
C. the decoder evaluates, uses assumptions and self-interest while the receiver sees or
hears
D. the decoder uses skills and credibility to challenge the encoder
E. a and c

PMgroup Executing
103 Que # 103
Que People generally remember __ % of the spoken word in 1-2 days and __ % in 2
months.
A. +50, +75
B. +50, +25
C. +75, -25
D. +25, -10
E. +10, -5

PMgroup Executing
104 Que # 104
Que In a simple, interactive, one-on-one communication process, there are the
sender and receiver of information. The sender is the one who transmits the
signals, while the receiver ________ the signals.
A. accepts
B. mixes
C. rejects
D. interprets [PMBOK p. H-2]
 E. intercepts

PMgroup Executing
105 Que # 105
Que The communication process must have a medium to convey information
between two or more parties. The three common media are ________.
A. written, spoken, and signalized
B. visual, audio, and tactile
C. seeing, talking, and listening
D. seeing, listening, and touching
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
106 Que # 106
Que Communications between two individuals can be affected by either the attitude
of either party or an external source disrupting the flow of information. An
example of a barrier between the parties involved in verbal communications and
an example of a disruptive influence could be ________.
A. a wall between desks and a difference in language skills
B. a third party injecting comments and a fourth party attempting to change the subject
C. an attitude of hostility by the receiver or sender and a ringing telephone nearby
D. a confrontation over schedules and a lack of a scheduling tool
E. an excessive spatial distance between the individuals and one of the individuals has
a hearing loss

PMgroup Planning
107 Que # 107
Que Of the five basic approaches to conflict resolution that characterize an
individual's human resource management style, the one that produces a "win-
lose" outcome whereby the project manager uses his/her power to overrule the
participant in the conflict is ________.
A. confrontation
B. compromise
C. smoothing
D. forcing
E. withdrawal

PMgroup Planning
108 Que # 108
Que Management styles affect the confidence level given a project manager by
subordinates, peers, and superiors. When a project manager is judicial in
his/her management style, s/he is ________ .
A. honest, sincere, able to motivate and to press for the best and fairest solution, and
one who generally goes "by the books"
B. marked by an eagerness to fight or be disagreeable over any given situation
C. encouraging subordinates to realize their full potential, cultivates team spirit, and lets
subordinates know that good work will be rewarded
D. one who tends to break apart the unity of the group by agitating and causing
disorder on a project
E. one who exercises sound judgment in most areas of the project

PMgroup Planning
109 Que # 109
Que Communications between individuals while talking may also involve nonverbal
communications, or body language. Body language is most commonly
associated with ________.
A. twisting and shrugging
B. gestures and facial expressions
C. toe tapping and foot shuffling
D. dancing and waltzing
E. pointing and smiling

PMgroup Executing
110 Que # 110
Que Communication, as the key to successfully implementing a project, is reflected
in many forms and styles. The communication medium/media used in the
project can be a ________.
A. budget
B. schedule
C. configuration management plan
D. meeting agenda
E. all of the above

PMgroup Executing
111 Que # 111
Que In negotiations, there are always ongoing communications in an attempt to
reach a position that is mutually agreeable to all parties. One means (facilitator)
of communication during the negotiation phase is to ________.
A. obtain written concurrence at the end of each session
B. be calm, poised, and patient
C. use surprise as required
D. not be afraid to say no
E. all of the above

PMgroup Executing
112 Que # 112
Que Communication includes understanding the other person and reaching a
consensus as to what was said. The use of ________ is a means of giving
feedback to the speaker by rephrasing the speaker's words to ensure there is a
level of understanding.
A. give-back
B. active listening
C. double talk
D. double speak
E. double entendre

PMgroup Planning
113 Que # 113
Que Communications between the project manager and a team member take many
forms, but it would not include a ________.
A. memorandum announcing a meeting of the team
B. letter of commendation to a team member
C. performance appraisal for a team member
D. newsletter article reviewing the project's progress
 E. counseling session for a team member

PMgroup Executing
114 Que # 114
Que In face-to-face communications, individuals send two messages when they
speak. The two message aspects are content and command. The first contains
that part of the message about which two or more persons can agree, and the
second contains ________.
A. that portion that is intentionally meant to be misunderstood
B. that portion that imposes behavior and the relationship between the parties
C. inferences as to future messages to be sent
D. reinforcement of prior messages
E. random information that does not contribute to the message content

PMgroup Planning
115 Que # 115
Que Barriers to communication can be invisible to the casual observer but can
often be greater obstacles than physical barriers. However, barriers do not
include ________.
A. semantic ordinates, or absolute words
B. differences in frames of reference
C. lack of credibility or trust
D. an overly technical approach to communicating
E. perceived status difference

PMgroup Controlling
116 Que # 116
Que Team members may "filter" information to the project manager for several
reasons. Filtering, a selective reduction in the quantity and quality of
information, is promoted through all of the following except when the team
member ________.
A. does not believe the information to be important
B. receives an adverse reaction when "bad news" is given
C. fails to understand the information in the context given
D. summarizes to save reporting time
E. takes too long in obtaining the correct information

PMgroup Controlling
117 Que # 117
Que The factors of the structural environment can be manipulated (positively and
negatively) to improve or degrade the effective communications within a project
team. Of the following factors, the one that can be manipulated the most to
change the level of communications is ________.
A. mobility opportunity
B. status
C. organizational climate
D. autonomy
E. security

PMgroup Executing
118 Que # 118
 Que Project managers must strive to improve communications within the project
team as well as with external elements. The project manager can improve
communications by removing ________ of the information.
A. delays, impediments, and barriers
B. filtering, distortion, and blockage
C. haste, waste, and redundancy
D. pushing, pulling, and putting aside
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
119 Que # 119
Que The most basic model for the communication process consists of three basic
elements ________. When these three elements are present, communication
may result.
A. words, illustrations, and mathematics
B. people, transmission medium, and information processor
C. verbal, nonverbal, and physical
D. sender, receiver, and message
E. common language, physical means, and common understanding

PMgroup Planning
120 Que # 120
Que In the communication process, "noise" is the word used to describe factors
and forces inhibiting the exchange of information between two or more parties.
Noise includes all of the following but ________.
A. culture
B. behavior
C. language
D. traditional way of doing things
E. loud talking

PMgroup Planning
121 Que # 121
Que In the project environment, there are four general categories of communication
formal written, informal written, formal verbal, and informal verbal. Of the
following, the one that is not an example of formal written communication is a
________.
A. project charter
B. project budget
C. project management plan
D. project engineer's notes
E. project schedule

PMgroup Executing
122 Que # 122
Que To ensure a team member understands the work to be accomplished, the
project manager may be more assured of the effectiveness of his/her
communication by ________.
A. obtaining feedback and evaluating the end result of the work
B. restating the directive and asking for a commitment
C. restating the directive and using active listening
D. using active listening and obtaining feedback
 E. emphasizing the importance of the work and restating the directive

PMgroup Planning
123 Que # 123
Que Communication to a group in a meeting multiplies the potential for
misunderstanding unless the structure is maintained. One major
communication consideration in obtaining an understanding and commitment
is that ________.
A. objectives may not be realistic
B. starting the meeting before all participants arrive ensures some people do not have
all the information
C. asking for additional comments on a subject only increases the amount of
information to be processed
D. silence on a matter does not ensure communication
E. addressing only one item at a time does not provide all related information to be
processed

PMgroup Executing
124 Que # 124
Que Meeting management facilitates the communication of information between
individuals. A legitimate reason for assembling the project team in a meeting
includes ________.
A. impressing everyone with the project manager's power
B. providing an opportunity for individuals to discuss personal grievances
C. presenting project information and making a decision on project direction
D. giving the team a chance to talk about its experience
E. forcing a decision out of the team because any outcome is going to be unfavorable

PMgroup Planning
125 Que # 125
Que The project manager has three primary interests who need information and are
involved in the project's success. These are the ________.
A. customer, project team, and project sponsor/boss
B. customer, client, and project team
C. client, financial department, and functional departments
D. project team, project matrix workers, and subcontractors
E. vendors, subcontractors, and prime contractors

PMgroup Planning
126 Que # 126
Que The project manager must maintain an effective communication link with the
customer to ensure the customer's satisfaction with the progress of the project.
The project manager maintains this link through ________.
A. subordinates, project team members, and the project sponsor
B. the telephone, facsimile, and data transmission
C. periodic project reports, periodic visits to the customer, and telephonic exchanges
D. one-time reports, weekly reports, and monthly reports
E. cost data, schedule data, and performance data

PMgroup Controlling
127 Que # 127
 Que The project manager schedules a quarterly technical review with the customer
to assure him/her that the project is progressing as planned. The project
manager plans a series of briefings on the cost, schedule, and technical
aspects of the project that should be presented by ________.
A. the project manager himself/herself
B. team members knowledgeable of the areas
C. the customer
D. the functional departments
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
128 Que # 128
Que Suppose the project manager is appointed to manage a new project that has
just been given approval to start the planning requirements. The project
manager is new to the organization and has inherited a project team previously
selected by top management. The best method of initiating the communication
process with the team and to establish the expectations of the project team is to
________.

A. send a formal memorandum to each team member to outline the objectives,

therequirements of the team, and the time frame for work
B. personally talk to each team member to determine what he/she would like to do on
the project and how that can be accommodated
C. call a briefing session to set objectives of the management and direct how these
objectives will be met
D. call a kickoff meeting to present the objectives and open the floor for discussion on
how the objectives will be achieved
E. prepare a work assignment list and send a copy to each individual tasked with
accomplishing a planning task

PMgroup Planning
129 Que # 129
Que In the project environment, it is helpful to publish a formal document showing
the chain of communications. This document's greatest contribution to the
project is to ________.
A. limit the authority of staff members on matters that are the prerogative of the project
manager
B. define who can talk to whom within the project so effective communications can be
conducted
C. prevent senior management from "legally" asking questions of the lower-level staff
members
D. define the project manager's communication authority and responsibilities
E. protect staff members from extraneous requests and directions

PMgroup Executing
130 Que # 130
Que The project environment is always in need of effective communication for
individuals to exchange and understand information. When everyone is
permitted to talk to anyone, essential communication ________.
A. can take the shortest route from the sender to the person needing the information
B. is lost in many informal discussions and most often is never delivered to the intended
receiver
 C. takes as much as three times longer than when formal communication channels are
followed
D. changes the context in which complex issues are delivered as compared to formal
written communications
E. becomes nonessential communication because of the lack of emphasis given to the
verbal message

PMgroup Planning
131 Que # 131
Que The customer-project manager relations are perhaps the most important
aspect to the successful implementation of the project work because ________.

A. the customer is always right in defining the contract

B. the customer doesn't understand project management and must be continually
tutored in the practices
C. the words in the contract often do not convey the precise meaning of the
requirements
D. the project manager's performance evaluation is based on the relationship with the
customer
E. none of the above

PMgroup Executing
132 Que # 132
Que The project manager must communicate with several different people in the
course of managing the project. His/her sole purpose for sending a message is
to ________.
A. impress upon the receiver the importance of the project manager
B. convey words that have a motivating impact on the receiver
C. convey information or an action
D. convey an image of positive progress for the project
E. convey a desire or want for the project

PMgroup Executing
133 Que # 133
Que Project managers must write correspondence to many individual parties who
are project stakeholders. The most important aspect of the project manager's
correspondence is to ensure ________.
A. the grammar is correct
B. the format is correct for the message
C. the message is clearly conveyed
D. the delivery of the message is made within 24 hours
E. the completeness of the sentences

PMgroup Executing
134 Que # 134
Que The most difficult and costly type of communication performed by the project
manager is ________.
A. the formal letter to the customer
B. the meeting or conference
C. the technical specification update
D. the contract modification
E. the one-on-one counseling
 PMgroup Planning
135 Que # 135
Que Meetings may be held for a number of different purposes and may involve
different parties. The types of meetings may be classified as information
sharing, problem solving, decision making, planning, and evaluation. The
definition of a problem solving meeting might be ________.
A. organized exchange of data and information
B. selection of a course of action from options and alternatives
C. future options and alternatives
D. options and alternatives reviewed
E. results achieved reviewed

PMgroup Executing
136 Que # 136
Que Suppose the project manager is called to an information meeting with the
customer and a problem is raised. This problem has major implications for the
project manager's company, but the customer wants to pursue a solution at the
meeting. The project manager should ________.
A. give the customer a range of solutions that might be acceptable to his/her company
B. give the customer an interim solution that must be approved by his/her boss
C. collect as much information on the problem without committing his/her company to a
solution
D. tell the customer that he/she will not address any problems because this is only an
information exchange meeting
E. tell the customer that the problem is not sufficiently defined to determine the
appropriate action

PMgroup Planning
137 Que # 137
Que Customers often attempt to resolve issues in meetings with the project
manager. The project manager should anticipate the raising of issues and be
________.
A. ready and willing to give an immediate response
B. sensitive to all the nuances of the issues but have a well-considered answer before
responding to the customer
C. ready to deflect the issues through persuasion and argument
D. ready to put up a good argument before giving in
E. sensitive to the customer's issues but refuse to respond unless each is codified and
formally endorsed to him/her

PMgroup Executing
138 Que # 138
Que Project communications are vital to the success of the project meeting's
objectives. Documentation is a form of this communication and is often not
recognized as a part of the project. Of the following, the one that is not a form of
project communications is ________.
A. correspondence
B. photographs
C. handwritten memos to file
D. professional magazines
E. telephone logs
 PMgroup Planning
139 Que # 139
Que The project manager's time is limited, and the opportunity to discuss the
project elements with the team is also limited if the project is to be properly
managed. Therefore, the project manager must balance his/her time for
communications by ________.
A. being reasonably available to key team members without having an unrestricted
open-door policy
B. showing his/her interest and concern for work progress through random discussions
with groups at their work sites
C. causing relevant documents to be prepared and issued following any meetings
D. maintaining a written record of all pertinent project information and description for
use by the team
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
140 Que # 140
Que Effective communications between elements of a large project improves the
probability of success for the project through better information exchanges. In
addition to the communication skills required for effective communication,
communication planning focuses primarily on ________.
A. the project team and the functional departments
B. the vendors, subcontractors, and other suppliers of goods
C. the interrelationships within the project team
D. the lines of communication and interfaces
E. the project manager's role and responsibility to promote information exchange

PMgroup Planning
141 Que # 141
Que Communicating requirements to project participants is the key to establishing
the basis for building a product to "conform to the requirements." Poor
communication is often the cause of imprecise specifications that a vendor,
subcontractor, or implementation team will be working on. The most critical
point at which the communications have the chance for being misinterpreted is
________.

A. during the planning phase when little is fully understood about the project's
requirements
B. the interface between the project team and suppliers of services or products
C. during close-out when all parties are attempting to terminate operations and move all
assets
D. at meetings and conferences when the agenda limits the subjects to be discussed
E. all of the above

PMgroup Controlling
142 Que # 142
Que The documentation of a project is a form of communication even when the
document is completed and placed in a file for future reference. This latent form
of communication serves a purpose by recording the facts for future use. Latent
communication is often used to ________.
A. record data for post-project evaluations
B. state a position that is a "minority opinion"
 C. record actions of project participants to establish a trail of actions
D. collect bits of information that will subsequently be aggregated for decision making
E. all of the above

PMgroup Closing
143 Que # 143
Que Closing out a project's contract is both an intellectual (cognitive) issue and an
emotional (affective) issue dealing with details and attitude, respectively. The
communication needed to effectively complete the contract must deal with both
issues. Therefore, the project manager's job is to communicate with the
customer to confirm the deliverables, meet the specification or negotiate a
settlement, and obtain certifications while managing the customer's emotional
side in ________.

A. attitude changes toward the project

B. loss of interest in the project implementation
C. assigning new people to the project
D. having key people unavailable for consultation
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
410 Que # 410
Que The major processes of project communications management are
A. Communications requirements, information distribution, performance reporting, and
administrative procedures
B. Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting,
andadministrative closure
C. Communications planning, information distribution, progress reporting, andresponse
planning
D. Communications planning, information distribution, schedule reportring,
andstakeholder analysis
E. Communications planning, change reporting, project records, and acceptance

PMgroup Planning
411 Que # 411
Que The three major types of communication are
A. Written, oral, and graphic
B. Written, oral, and visual
C. Verbal, written, and electronic
D. Verbal, formal documentation, and informal documentation
E. Verbal, project records, and computerized

PMgroup Executing
412 Que # 412
Que Communication barriers are a more frequent source of conflict in matrix and
projectized environments than functional organizations for all the following
reasons EXCEPT
A. Communication is the prime focus of an expediter type of project manager
B. Team members are often physically separated in a matrix or project environment
C. There are increased numbers of levels of authority in a matrix or projectized
environment
D. Team members are often separated in teh timing of their contributions to a matrix or
project environment
 E. Team members with differing skills and backgrounds can be asked to contribute to
proejct results

PMgroup Planning
413 Que # 413
Que A communication plan details all of the following EXCEPT
A. To whom information will flow, and what methods will be used to distribute various
typesof information
B. What information will be gathered, how it will be gathered, and how often it will
begathered
C. Methods for accessing information between scheduled communcations
D. All memos, correspondence, reports, and documents related to the project from all
personnel
E. Production schedules showing when each type of communication will be produced

PMgroup Controlling
414 Que # 414
Que The three principal reasons for maintaining good document control are
A. Timely communcation, collection of performance appraisal data, and assuringproper
disposal of sensitive documents
B. Timely communication, maintaining proper approvals, and communication cost
control
C. Effective communication, ability to reconstruct why decisions were made, and
historicalvalue
D. Security, change management, andd procedureal documentation
E. Security, maintaining propoer approvals, and optimizing paperwork flow

PMgroup Executing
415 Que # 415
Que Ways to improve listening ability include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Focusing on concepts and ideas
B. Listening to feedback
C. providing feedback
D. Performing other activiteis while the speaker is talking
E. Allowing the speaker to complete the entire message

PMgroup Executing
416 Que # 416
Que Communication barriers between the sender and receiver can include all of the
following EXCEPT
A. Cultural differences
B. Differences in motivation
C. Unclear expectations
D. Shared assumptions
E. Environment circumstances

PMgroup Executing
417 Que # 417
Que Statements such as "It's never been done before" or "It will cost a fortune" are
examples of
A. Feedback
B. Communication blockers
 C. Conflict generators
D. Forcing
E. Facilitation

PMgroup Executing
418 Que # 418
Que The communicaiton "expediter" of a project team is
A. The MIS subject matter expert
B. A project manager
C. A database manager
D. A project secretary
E. The project client

PMgroup Executing
419 Que # 419
Que All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT
A. Avoiding conflict
B. Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other
C. Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging
D. Avoiding self-oriented behavior
E. Seeking facts

PMgroup Planning
420 Que # 420
Que Inputs to communication planning include
A. Communications requirements, communication technology, constraints, and
assumptions
B. Stakeholder requirements, project logistics, and project schedule
C. Stakeholder analysis, communication barriers, and organization structure
D. Communication requirements, project organization chart, and communication
technology
E. Stakeholder survey, RAM, WBS, and adminstrative procedures

PMgroup Planning
421 Que # 421
Que All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT
A. Memos
B. Videos
C. Body Language
D. Inputting data into a spreadsheet
E. Verbal circulation of a rumor

PMgroup Executing
422 Que # 422
Que Manual filing systems, electronic text databases, and project management
software are examples of
A. Information distribution systems
B. Communications technology
C. Internal communications systems
D. Information retrieval systems
E. Project records
 PMgroup Executing
423 Que # 423
Que Most project managers spend about ___________ of their work time engaged
in some form of communications
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
E. 90%

PMgroup Executing
424 Que # 424
Que All of the following are important if the project manager is to effectively
manage communications within the project team EXCEPT
A. Formalizing and controlling communication between team members
B. Promoting harmony and trust between team members
C. Ensuring that feedback occurs in both directions
D. Recognizing the importance of the interpersonal cmomunication network
E. Understanding that communication involves both sending and receiving messages

PMgroup Planning
425 Que # 425
Que A "tight matrix" is an organizational option
A. In which all team members are brought together in one location
B. Between a weak matrix and a strong matrix
C. In which functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to
boththeir own departments and to the project manager
D. In which project partidcipants act as a coordinated team
E. In which a functional level of management exists

PMgroup Executing
426 Que # 426
Que Communication is the PRIME responsibilty of a Project
A. Expediter
B. Coordinator
C. Manager in a weak matrix environment
D. Manager in a strong matrix environment
E. Manager in a projectized environment

PMgroup Executing
427 Que # 427
Que Communications technology factors include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Expected staffing levels
B. Project length
C. Executive requirements
D. Availability of technology
E. Immediacy of the need for information

PMgroup Executing
428 Que # 428
Que The best overall effective method of resolving conflict in a project environment
is
 A. Smoothing
B. Withdrawal
C. Problem solving
D. Compromise
E. Confrontation

PMgroup Controlling
429 Que # 429
Que Tools and techniques for performance reporting include all of the following
EXCEPT
A. Trend analysis
B. Decision tree analysis
C. Earned value analysis
D. Performance reviews
E. Information distribution tools and techniques

PMgroup Executing
430 Que # 430
Que The sender is responsible for
A. Scheduling communication exchange
B. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message
C. Confirming message is understood
D. Presenting the message in the most favorable manner
E. Interpreting the message correctly

PMgroup Executing
431 Que # 431
Que Information required to determine project communications requirements
typically includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships
B. Logistics of how many individuals will be involved with the project and at which
locations
C. External information needs, disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the
project
D. The availability of technology in place at the project location
E. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationship

PMgroup Controlling
432 Que # 432
Que Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the product of the proejct
should be prepared and distributed ______________.
A. As part of Administrative Closure
B. Following the plan as outlined in Quality Management
C. As requested by uppoer management
D. As part of contract close-out
E. As the last step in project management

PMgroup Planning
501 Que # 501
Que The four key stakeholders on every project are
A. Senior managers, customer, sponsor, and functional managers
B. Project manager, project team, senior managers, and customer
 C. Project manager, customer, performing organizatoin and sponsor
D. Project manager, functional managers, senior managers, and customer
E. Suppliers, contractors, customers, and sponsors

PMgroup Executing
502 Que # 502
Que Miscommunication, disparities in information, and unequal access to
information are significant trust inhibitors on teams that are not collocated. A
project manager in this situation should
A. Be extremely clear when communicating with team members
B. Develop a communication plan to ensure that team members are kept informed of
team issues
C. Keep communication flowing to conteract the isolation of individuals on distributed
teams
D. Facilitate clear communication by encouraging the technique of having one person
repeat what was heard to ensure understanding
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
503 Que # 503
Que To determine project communication requirements, typically all the following
information is needed except
A. Stakeholders' responsibilities and relationships with the project organization
B. Disciplines, departments, and specialities involved in the project
C. The number of individuals involved in the project and their locations
D. External communication requirements
E. Project audit requirements

PMgroup Planning
504 Que # 504
Que The first step in preparing a presentation is to
A. Define the audience
B. Determine the objective
C. Decide on the general form of the presentation
D. Plan a presentation strategy
E. Assess the environment in which the presentation will be delivered

PMgroup Planning
505 Que # 505
Que The three project situations that require the most negotiation skills are
A. working with functional managers to ensure that resources are available to support
the project, providing performance appraisals to project team members, and
developing the WBS
B. Developing the WBS, determining the master schedule, and managing project
changes
C. Developing the project team, WBS, and scope statement
D. Using subcontractors, developing the project scope statement, and managing
changes after the project is underway
E. Securing uppoer management support for the project, working with functional
managers, and building the project team

PMgroup Planning
506 Que # 506
Que The purpose of the communication management plan is to provide
A. Detailed information on the methods that will be used to gather and store informatoin
B. A description of the information to be distributed, including its format, content, and
level of detail and the conventions and definitions to be used
C. A procedure to update the communication management plan as the project
progresses
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

PMgroup Planning
507 Que # 507
Que Of the following qualifications, which one is the most important for a project
manager?
A. Has supervisory experience
B. Is a qualified negotiator
C. Is profit oriented
D. Is educated in a technical field
E. Works well with others

PMgroup Planning
508 Que # 508
Que All the following are objectives of the kickoff meeting except
A. Establishing working relationships and lines of communication
B. Setting team goals and objectives
C. Reviewing project plans
D. Establishing individual and group responsibilities and accountabilities
E. Discussing specific legal issues regarding the contract

PMgroup Planning
509 Que # 509
Que When communicating with a process-oriented person, a project manager
should
A. Remain patient when the other person digresses on arcane topics
B. Emphasize the practicality of his or her ideas
C. Present ideas in a logical, step-by-step manner
D. Allow for small talk, focusing on procedural details
E. Reference his or her recomendations to TQM practices

PMgroup Controlling
510 Que # 510
Que Of the five tools and techniques for performance reporting, which one
integrates cost and schedule information as a key element of its approach?
A. Performance reviews
B. Variance analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. Earned value analysis
E. Information distribution tools and techniques

PMgroup Controlling
511 Que # 511
Que The 50-50 rule of progress reporting is used to
 A. Calculate the exact BCWP
B. Provide a good statistical approximation of BCWP
C. Determine schedule variance
D. Determine schedule variance in monetary terms
E. Control very large projects

PMgroup Controlling
512 Que # 512
Que The SPI, which is used to forecast project completion date, is calculated by
using which formula?
A. BCQP/ACWP
B. BCWS/BCWP
C. ACWS/BCWS
D. BCWP/BCWS
E. BCWP - BCWS

PMgroup Controlling
513 Que # 513
Que The performance measurement baseline is the
A. BCWS
B. BCWP
C. ACWP
D. ACWS
E. ETC

PMgroup Executing
Que All the following are barriers to communication except
A. Liquiated damages provisions in fixed-price contracts
B. Difficulties with technical language
C. Detrimental attitudes associated with low compensation
D. Distracting environmental factors
E. Lack of clear communication channels
514 Que # 514

PMgroup Closing
Que During the project closeout phase, most conflict arises from
515 Que # 515
A. Schedule problems
B. Cost overruns
C. Technical problems
D. Working interfaces
E. Personality conflicts

PMgroup Executing
Que In general, disagreements among stakeholders should be resolved in favor of
the
A. Sponsor
B. Customer
C. Performing organization
D. Senior management
E. None of the above
516 Que # 516
 PMgroup Executing
Que When the project team is not collocated, establishing a way to help team
members communicate quickly and frequently is essential. One practical
approach is to
A. Bring everyone together frequently for meetings
B. Conduct informal audioconference meetings regularly
C. Hold a project kickoff meeting
D. Set up an electronic yearbook that lists each team member's accomplishments and
background
E. All of the above
517 Que # 517

PMgroup Planning
Que A project manager who wants to create a receptive atmosphere for
communicating should
A. Ensure that all communication is clear and understood
B. Speak or write as he/she would like to be spoken or written to
C. Have the project team prepare a project communication plan
D. Ensure that team members have the information needed to do their work
E. Ensure that team membes have the tools available to facilitate communication
518 Que # 518

PMgroup Planning
Que The tool or technique used for communication planning is
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Communication skills
C. Information retrieval systems
D. Information distribution systems
E. None of the above
519 Que # 519

PMgroup Executing
Que Which of the following terms describes the strong pressures within a group to
conform to group norms at the expense of critical and innovative thinking?
A. Group oppression
B. Groupspeak
C. Groupthink
D. Groupthought
E. Groupgrope
520 Que # 520

PMgroup Executing
Que Empathetic listening entails understanding another person's frame of
reference. To exhibit empathetic listening skills, a project manager should
A. Mimic the content of the message
B. Probe, then evaluate the content
C. Evaluate the cotent, then advise
D. Rephrase the content and reflect the feeling
E. None of the above
521 Que # 521
 PMgroup Executing
Que The presence of communication barriers is most likely to lead to
A. Reduced productivity
B. Increased hostility
C. Low morale
D. Increased conflict
E. Increased stress
522 Que # 522

PMgroup Closing
Que As a project communication management process, administrative closeout
consists of verifying and documenting project results to formalize acceptance
of the project product by the customer. The output generated from
administrative closeout activities consists of
523 Que # 523
A. Project archives, formal acceptance, and lessons learned
B. Change requests, project records, and lessons learned
C. Lessons learned, performance reports, and change requests
D. Communication management plans, change requests, and project archives
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
Que When communicating with an action-oriented person, a project manager
should
A. Be as brief as possible and emphasize the practicality of his or her ideas
B. Provide options, including the pros and cons
C. Stress the relationships between his/her proposals and the people concerned
D. Remain patient if the other person goes off on tangents
E. Speak as quickly as possible to ensure that all the information is conveyed
524 Que # 524

PMgroup Planning
Que The project manager can enhance project communication and team building
by doing all the following except
A. Having a war room
B. Using a tight matrix
C. Being a good communication blocker
D. Being a communication expeditor
E. Holding effective meetings
525 Que # 525

PMgroup Planning
Que Of the following factors, which one has the greatest effect on the project's
communication requirements?
A. Stakeholder responsibility relationships
B. External information needs
C. Availability of technology
D. The project's organizational structure
E. Expected project staffing
526 Que # 526

PMgroup Controlling
 Que Paraphrasing can be achieved by restatement
A. In different terms
B. From general to specific terms
C. From specific to general terms
D. In opposite terms
E. All of the above
527 Que # 527

PMgroup Executing
Que The most common communication problem that occurs during negotiation is
that
A. Each side may misinterpret what theother side has said
B. Each side may give up on the other side
C. One side may try to confuse the other side
D. One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said
E. Either side may not be paying attention
528 Que # 528

PMgroup Executing
Que Which of the following is true regarding communication within a project
environment?
A. The project manager must assume the primary burden of responsibility to ensure
that messages sent have been received
B. Effective meetings, a war room, and a tight matrix promote effective communication
C. If a project consists of 12 people, 48 potential channels of communication exist
D. Most project managers spend 30% of their working hours engaged in communication

E. All of the above

529 Que # 529

PMgroup Controlling
Que Performance reports are used to provide information to stakeholders on
project scope, schedule, cost, and quality. Which statement most accurately
describes this process?
A. The configuration control board receives performance reports and generates change
requests to modify aspects of the project
B. Performance reporting includes status reports, which detail where the project is now;
progress reports, which describe accomplishments; and forecasts, which predit future
status and progress
C. Performance reporting focuses on examining earned value analysis to determine
whether cost overruns will require budget revisions
D. Performance reporting includes histograms flow charts, and bar charts to show
network dependencies and relationships
E. Performance reporting provides variance analysis information, which helps the
project team adhere to the zero variance principle
530 Que # 530

PMgroup Executing
Que The project manager who adopts the shareholder manager leadership style
A. Solicits little or no information from his or her team and makes decisions alone
B. Solicits input fro the team and makes decisions alone
C. Invites team members to share in project decision deliberations
 D. Delegates decision making to the team without much information exchange
E. Lets the project team assume as much leadership responsibility as it will accept
531 Que # 531

PMgroup Controlling
Que All the following are examples of informal written communication except
A. Entineers' notes
B. e-Mail messages
C. The management plan
D. Memos to team members
E. Post-it notes messages
532 Que # 532

PMgroup Planning
Que Communication planning is a process for dtermining the information and
communmication needs of the
A. Stakeholders
B. Planners
C. Contractors
D. Customer
E. Team members
533 Que # 533

PMgroup Controlling
Que The LOB technique is best suited as a performance reporting technique to
A. Display a future job to facilitate analysis of the work involved
B. Show the customer how various activities relate to one another in the production or
development process
C. Determine which work sequences wil take the longest to complete the project
D. Assure the customer that the articles it is buying will be available when needed
E. Determine which sequences of the effort have been positive and which have been
negative to focus attention on areas for improvement
534 Que # 534

PMgroup Executing
Que In person-to-person communication, messages are sent on verbal levels and
nonverbal levels simultaneously. If nonverbal cues and the spoken message
are incongruous, the flow of comnication is hindered. Nonverbal
communication can involve the use of
A. Physical attributes
B. Aesthetic attributes
C. Signs
D. Symbols
E. All of the above
535 Que # 535

PMgroup Executing
Que Which of the following tools or techniques are used in the information
distribution process?
A. Communication management plan, project plan, and information distribution system
B. Information distribution system, information retrieval system, and performance
reports
 C. Communication skills, information retrieval system, and information distribution
system`
D. Communication skills, work results, and status reports
E. Performance reviews, peformance reports, and poejct plan
536 Que # 536

PMgroup Controlling
Que In dealing with the customer, the project manager should
A. Disclose information only at regular intervals to maintain consistency
B. Stirve to develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship
C. Be hones to the extent that th eproject organization is protected from litigation
D. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep
E. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business
537 Que # 537

PMgroup Controlling
Que When communicating with a people-oriented person, a project manager should

A. Stress the uniqueness of the idea or topic at hand

B. Stress the relationships between his/her proposals and the people concerned
C. Be precise about the value of teh ideas to overall organizational goals
D. Focus on personnel performance issues first
E. Describe the ideas using anecdotal evidence to support recommendations
538 Que # 538

PMgroup Planning
Que The communication process consists of the following components
A. Communicator
B. Message
C. Function
D. Recipient
E. Medium
539 Que # 539

PMgroup Executing
Que The process of conferring with others to come to terms or reach an agreement
is called
A. Win-win
B. Getting to yes
C. Negotiation
D. Arbitration
E. Confrontation
540 Que # 540

600 Que # 600

PMgroup Executing
Que The project manager has changed the scope without communicating the
change to the rest of the project team. The project is now over budget. What
action would prevent this from happening in the future?
A. Adjust the resource allocation
B. Improve budget estimating
C. Follow the communication plan
 D. Hold more meetings
E.

601 Que # 601

PMgroup Executing
Que The project manager has changed the scope without communicating the
change to the rest of the project team. The project is now over budget. What
should the project manager do now?
A. Call the customer immediately
B. Analyze the impact and request more budget
C. Analyze impact to cost and schedule, review and implement contingency plans
D. Call a team meeting, apologize and get a quick agreement on a solution
E.

ANSWERS

100 A
101 D
102 E
103 B
104 D
105 B
106 C
107 D
108 E
109 B
110 E
111 E
112 B
113 D
114 B
115 D
116 E
117 C
118 B
119 D
120 E
121 D
122 A
123 D
124 C
125 A
126 C
127 B
128 D
129 E
130 A
131 C
132 C
133 C
134 B
135 D
136 C
137 B
138 D
139 E
140 B
141 B
142 E
143 E
410 B
411 C
412 A
413 D
414 C
415 D
416 D
417 B
418 B
419 A
420 A
421 D
422 D
423 E
424 A
425 A
426 A
427 C
428 C
429 B
430 C
431 D
432 A
501 C
502 E
503 E
504 B
505 D
506 E
507 E
508 E
509 C
510 D
511 B
512 D
513 A
514 A
515 A
516 B
517 B
518 B
519 A
520 C
521 D
522 D
523 A
524 A
525 C
526 D
527 E
528 A
529 B
530 B
531 D
532 C
533 A
534 D
535 E
536 C
537 B
538 B
539 C
540 C
600 C
601 C
 PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

PMgroup Executing
100 Que # 100
Que Formal reporting and reviews violate the basic principles of project
management because they
A. are customer based and not project based
B. do not appear on the project schedule
C. do not occur frequently enough to avoid surprises
D. must be reviewed by a central project authority before being forwarded to the
customer and top management
E. none of the above
PMgroup Planning
101 Que # 101
Que If more than several departments must be involved in a decision, use of a task
force
A. should be considered
B. will undermine the authority and power of the project manager
C. can work as long as those on the task force are experts on the issue
D. all of the above
E.
PMgroup Planning
102 Que # 102
Que MBO usually involves
A. measurable and verifiable objectives
B. objectives set by the employee
C. self-appraisals by the employee
D. implementation throughout the organization
E. all of the above
PMgroup Planning
103 Que # 103
Que Priorities in a matrix organization are ultimately set by
A. the project manager
B. the functional manger
C. upper management
D. a super project manager
E. c or d
PMgroup Executing
104 Que # 104
Que Project management is an effective and powerful strategy and should be
implemented in every organization.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
E.
PMgroup Planning
105 Que # 105
Que In a matrix organization, the project manager is likely to experience
A. conflict and difficult team building
B. a sharing of accountability
C. good customer relations
 D. difficulty in getting the best workers assigned to the project
E. a, c and d
PMgroup Planning
106 Que # 106
Que Which of the following should not be considered as an effective and viable
alternative to project management?
A. establishment of a lead division
B. direct control by top management
C. very clear definition of responsibility and authority
D. project coordinator
E. budgeting cost control
PMgroup Executing
107 Que # 107
Que The key to achieving and maintaining success in the role of a project manager
is the use of
A. formal and legitimate power
B. expert and referent power
C. legimate and coercive power
D. reward and expert power
E. legimate and reward power
PMgroup Planning
109 Que # 109
Que You have just been assigned as the project manager of a 15 year 200 trillion
dollar project to marry the first couple on Mars. In addition to buying a wedding
present, you will probably want to describe which type of project organization
in your management plan?
A. Functional
B. Expeditor
C. Matrix
D. Catering
E. Projectized
PMgroup Planning
110 Que # 110
Que The difference between a strong and weak matrix is best described as
A. the effectiveness of the project manager in making his project successful
B. the project vs. functional influence in decision making
C. the project vs. functional balance in power and authority
D. b and c
E. all of the above
PMgroup Executing
111 Que # 111
Que Which of the following roles is not appropriate for the project manager?
A. integrator
B. communicator
C. team leader
D. technical consultant
E. climate creator
PMgroup Executing
112 Que # 112
Que Which of the following are appropriate motivation factors or reward systems?

A. achievement
 B. responsibility
C. salary
D. personal aspirations
E. recognition
PMgroup Executing
113 Que # 113
Que An employee evaluation appears on your desk that includes the following
descriptions skilled, specialty focused, strong technical background, filtered
listener, limited experience in interfacing, avoids conflict, good at developing
techniques and operates well in the management hierarchy. Your first thought
is to consider this person for a position as a

A. Project Coordinator
B. Project Manager
C. Task Force Leader
D. Project Specialist
E. Technical Consultant
PMgroup Planning
114 Que # 114
Que For an effective matrix organization, the level of the project manager should be
at
A. least equal to the highest level of functional manager to be dealt with
B. the same level as a functional manager
C. the very top of the organization
D. the level of a super project manager
E. the level of a functional manager in a weak matrix, and a level above that in a strong
matrix
PMgroup Executing
115 Que # 115
Que As for any manager, the project manager's responsibilities, consist of the four
basic functions of ________.
A. thinking, acting, directing, and reviewing
B. thinking, planning, controlling, and monitoring
C. planning, controlling, tracking, and acting
D. planning, doing, briefing, and reviewing
E. planning, organizing, leading, and controlling
PMgroup Planning
116 Que # 116
Que The project manager should be assigned to a project in its early stages. This
permits the project manager to participate in the ________ conducted by the
________.
A. planning; functional staff
B. planning; project team
C. feasibility study; project team
D. implementation; subcontractors
E. implementation; functional staff
PMgroup Planning
117 Que # 117
Que The project manager leads a project team that is comprised of many different
skills and disciplines. S/he must use an exceptional number of negotiating
skills because s/he ________.
A. is expected to discuss all facts of the technical parameters of the project
B. will be leading individuals without having direct control over them
 C. will encounter the shoptalk of each unique discipline
D. will be using these skills to keep from accepting additional work
E. is the chief contract negotiator for all project subcontracts
PMgroup Executing
118 Que # 118
Que Most project managers are promoted to from the ________ without having
prior education and training in managerial functions.
A. administrative offices
B. financial offices
C. technical fields
D. functional areas
E. labor pool
PMgroup Planning
119 Que # 119
Que The project manager is responsible for the project's interface management.
The three types of interfaces to be managed are ________.
A. mechanical, electrical, and material
B. human, machine, and fluid
C. personal, organizational, and system
D. software, hardware, and human
E. documented, undocumented, and other
PMgroup Planning
120 Que # 120
Que Once established, the project integration process must be maintained through
continuous, effective ________ across interfaces.
A. communication links
B. monitoring activities
C. report flow
D. bonding
E. conflict resolution
PMgroup Planning
121 Que # 121
Que When appointed, a project manager has the inherent forms of legitimate power
conveyed to him/her. The three forms of legitimate power are ________.
A. absolute, direct, and indirect
B. direction, coordination, and liaison
C. formal, informal, and persuasive
D. formal, reward, and direct
E. formal, reward, and penalty
PMgroup Planning
122 Que # 122
Que To further the objectives of the project, the project manager may possess two
forms of power that are obtained through other than a formal appointment
(legitimate power). These two forms of power are ________.
A. physical and mental
B. spiritual and emotional
C. expert and assumed
D. expert and referent
E. mental and emotional
PMgroup Planning
123 Que # 123
 Que The project manager is the primary interface with the customer for all projects
and must be an effective communicator to convey the project's status. In this
regard, the project manager should keep the customer informed of the status of
the project's ________ progress.
A. construction, rebuild, and rework
B. timing, schedule, and deliver
C. cost, schedule, and quality/performance
D. quality/performance, control, and assurance
E. testing, performance, and delivery
PMgroup Executing
124 Que # 124
Que The project usually has a high degree of conflict during its life cycle, and the
project manager must be an effective manager of that conflict. The most
common areas in which conflict will be realized are ________.
A. project office, functional divisions, field sites, and corporate offices
B. project priorities, personnel resources, technical issues, and scheduling issues
C. planning phase, implementation phase, execution phase, and close-out phase
D. team building, team integration, functional coordination, and customer coordination
E. individual, team, vendor, and subcontractor management
PMgroup Executing
125 Que # 125
Que The five types of conflict resolution are listed below and represent, in the
general order of importance, the methods a project manager should use to
manage conflict. The one used most often by project managers to resolve
conflict is ________.
A. confrontation
B. compromise
C. smoothing
D. forcing
E. withdrawal
PMgroup Executing
126 Que # 126
Que Although the desirable traits and characteristics for a project manager may
vary slightly between industries, a few common ones are universal, but one that
is not universally desirable is ________.
A. works well with others
B. experienced in his/her technical field
C. a good negotiator
D. well-liked by project team
E. some supervisory experience
PMgroup Executing
127 Que # 127
Que The process of getting a group of diverse individuals to work effectively
together as a team is the definition of ________.
A. leadership
B. project management
C. the project manager's responsibilities
D. implementation
E. team building
PMgroup Executing
128 Que # 128
 Que Team building focuses on getting all members to contribute toward common
goals to achieve synergism. Of the following characteristics, the one that is not
compatible with team building is ________.
A. must pursue individual interests
B. must be interdependent
C. must have a reason to work together
D. must be committed to working together
E. must have a moderate level of competition and conflict
PMgroup Executing
129 Que # 129
Que A team is often a collection of individuals vying with others for power,
prestige, recognition, and personal autonomy, but never unity of purpose. The
collection of people who are not a team is frequently characterized by ________.

A. team member frustration

B. excessive conflict and individual competition
C. unproductive meetings
D. lack of trust/confidence in the project manager
E. all of the above
PMgroup Executing
130 Que # 130
Que In addition to improving the success rate for goal achievements, team building
has many benefits for individuals, but one characteristic that is not a benefit of
team building is ________.
A. clear organizational structure
B. improved monetary rewards
C. clear aims/goals
D. improved individual creativity
E. fewer people-problems
PMgroup Executing
131 Que # 131
Que Team building, with all of its success orientation, may have some limitations
under certain identified conditions. Two such conditions are ________.
A. poor project tools and lack of project planning
B. lack of top management support and too much supervision by top management
C. lack of top management support and an inept project manager
D. unproductive people on the project team and an inept project manager
E. shortage of funds for bonuses and overly trained personnel on project team
PMgroup Planning
132 Que # 132
Que The role of the project manager has several different elements, implying that
s/he is responsible for many activities, but one role that is not considered one
of the responsibilities of a project manager is ________.
A. leader
B. project's technical director
C. system integrator
D. project advisor
E. project planner
PMgroup Executing
133 Que # 133
 Que A kickoff meeting is one of the best methods to get the project team started on
the right path toward becoming an integrated group. Objectives of the kickoff
meeting include ________.
A. introducing team members to one another
B. establishing working relationships within the team
C. setting goals and objectives for the team
D. identifying project problem areas
E. all of the above
PMgroup Executing
134 Que # 134
Que In building team confidence in himself/herself, a project manager should
________ with team members and avoid ________.
A. set limited times and opportunities for discussions; social contacts
B. encourage open conversations; politics
C. practice what s/he preaches; social contacts
D. encourage frank discussions; making promises
E. keep promises; being too open
PMgroup Executing
135 Que # 135
Que Conflict within a project team can be avoided with prior planning and by
maintaining effective communications between the project manager and the
team. The most important information for the project manager to convey to the
team is ________.
A. the schedule of paydays and holidays to permit planning for rest and relaxation
B. the system of rewards that permits recognition of team members through monetary
or nonmonetary awards
C. clear, unambiguous goals as to where the project is headed
D. that top management will not be interfering with this project as it usually does with
other projects
E. that key decisions have been made and how the key decisions impact the team
PMgroup Executing
136 Que # 136
Que The project manager is the leader of the project team and needs to be forward-
reaching in obtaining a consensus on an issue. However, it would be
counterproductive to an attempted resolution of an issue if the project manager
said, "________."
A. Let's do this . . .
B. Do we have some better information?
C. I believe we are saying . . .
D. I have another subject to address if this is too difficult to solve now
E. I feel we can now come to agreement on this issue
PMgroup Executing
137 Que # 137
Que Project managers often work 10 or more hours per day to fit the many
activities into their professional schedule. There is a general agreement that all
the professional time is not used as efficiently as possible. The major consumer
of time, nearly two hours per day, is ________.
A. talking to top management
B. visiting the customer
C. attending project meetings
D. writing reports
E. visiting site locations
 PMgroup Planning
138 Que # 138
Que According to a 1981 survey, there are three categories (with average
percentages) of a projects manager's use of professional time self-determined
use (46.4%), others determine how to use (25.9%), and system determines how
to use (27.7%). Project managers indicated a strong tendency to allocate time
by self-determination, but they also indicated that their most serious cause of
time conflicts was ________.

A. failing to organize sufficiently

B. poor planning
C. difficulty in saying no to people
D. spending too much time delegating and following up
E. the requirement to supervise inept project team members
PMgroup Planning
139 Que # 139
Que Delegation of work to subordinates in a project gives the project manager
more time to accomplish other tasks and plan the work for the future. To avoid
delegating work, many project managers use the excuse ________.
A. "I already delegate enough work"
B. "Subjects are too confidential to involve others"
C. "My subordinates aren't sufficiently qualified"
D. "I can do it better"
E. all of the above
PMgroup Planning
140 Que # 140
Que Theories of motivation and leadership give project managers a conceptual
framework in which to operate, but practical skills are important in applying this
knowledge. Skills most easily learned through group assignments and practical
exercises include ________.
A. delegating and coordinating group activities
B. reaching a group decision
C. resolving conflict
D. conducting a meeting
E. all of the above
PMgroup Planning
141 Que # 141
Que Project management organizations are designed to perform specific functions
in the most efficient manner. The six major factors that should influence the
development of a project management organization are type of structure, type
of staffing, attitude toward risk, communications channels, ________.
A. type of industry, and type of project
B. project manager's desires, and client's wishes
C. people available, and top management's desires
D. project manager-client relations, and expectations of stakeholders
E. project manager's expectations, and top management's expectations
PMgroup Planning
142 Que # 142
Que The project is often implemented by a matrix organization because the
required specialists cannot be justified on a full-time basis. The use of a matrix
organization ________ the apparent capabilities for marketing purposes and
________ the overall manpower fluctuations as the project progresses.
A. changes; reduces
 B. reduces; maximizes
C. enhances; minimizes
D. minimizes; stabilizes
E. none of the above
PMgroup Planning
143 Que # 143
Que The matrix organization reduces the part-time (functional) employee's anxiety
about job security, but it has the adverse effect of giving the employee
________.
A. conflicting skill requirements
B. unstable tasking at the functional area
C. additional work hours commuting between jobs
D. two supervisors with possible conflicting requirements
E. additional work without the resources to accomplish it
PMgroup Planning
144 Que # 144
Que The independent project organization is useful in having a dedicated staff
reporting to the project manager and performing all functions for the project.
The adverse side of this dedicated staff is that the project manager must
________.
A. make "busy" work for the staff during idle time
B. make use of the full-time staff for efficiency and productivity
C. loan the individuals to the functional organization during slack periods
D. frequently hire and fire people to maintain the correct skill balance for the required
work
E. train the individuals in new skill areas to ensure that work is accomplished
PMgroup Planning
145 Que # 145
Que The independent project organization provides stability for the staff during
execution of the project. From a personal viewpoint, the major concern of the
staff is ________.
A. performing their assigned jobs well and improving individual skills
B. keeping the functional staff out of the project to preclude interference with the
progress
C. minimizing the amount of work accomplished so the project will be extended
D. ensuring the budget is spent so the project will not have any residue of funds for re-
allocation
E. having anxieties regarding their next assignment after the project is completed
PMgroup Planning
146 Que # 146
Que A project organization may be highly structured to achieve benefits of
efficiency. Two major contributors to the definition of a highly structured
project organization are ________.
A. the organization chart is detailed, and individual names are assigned to the chart
B. the project manager is experienced, and full-time staff are assigned to the project
C. individuals know what is expected of them, and standards are well defined and
understood
D. the project manager is dictatorial, and the staff works to only well-defined
specifications
E. communications are handled only by the supervisory chain, and the liaison with
thirdparties is conducted by formal correspondence
PMgroup Planning
147 Que # 147
Que The open or loosely structured project organization does not rely on well-
defined standards and procedures for guiding the work efforts. Therefore, this
organization should be used for ________.
A. innovative or creative work and with high-level professionals
B. routine work and with a new staff
C. production operations and with the construction industry
D. planning operations and with the functional staff
E. none of the above
PMgroup Executing
148 Que # 148
Que The level of the reporting superior for the project manager is viewed as critical
because it also implies the amount of interest and emphasis that the
corporation places on the project. From a practical standpoint, when a project
manager reports to a senior officer of the company, the project manager then
has access to an individual with the ________ to resolve interproject conflicts.

A. ability and resources

B. power and authority
C. will and desire
D. seniority and maturity
E. need and desire
PMgroup Planning
149 Que # 149
Que Changes to the project staff are necessary because of personal desires and
the re-allocation of resources to more critical projects. Planning for staff
changes can ease the turbulence, and the project manager should look for
replacement people who ________.
A. are new to a project environment and need to learn
B. are eager to please management and easy to please
C. will stay with the project until completion, regardless of their qualifications
D. better match the skill requirements than those being replaced
E. are more mature in the industry and understand the need to complete projects
PMgroup Planning
150 Que # 150
Que Project planning is best accomplished by the project manager because s/he
can be held completely responsible for executing the work. When the project
manager is not involved in the planning, it is most likely that s/he will ________.

A. need time to adjust the plan to fit his/her concept of the project
B. quickly grasp and agree with the planning if top management directs the
immediateimplementation
C. not like the plan under any circumstance because it is the project manager's
prerogative to develop the budget and schedule
D. not care whether the planning is flawed because s/he always has an excuse for
anyfailure
E. have problems with the technical approach, schedule, or budget in the plan
PMgroup Executing
151 Que # 151
Que There is a long-term need to develop individuals within a company to assume
positions of leadership and greater responsibility. Comparing the functional and
project organization, the opportunity for personnel development ________.
 A. is greater in the project organization
B. is greater in the functional organization
C. cannot be determined between the two organizations
D. is greater in the project organization during the planning phase only
E. is greater in the functional organization when the individuals are allowed to matrix to
a project
PMgroup Executing
152 Que # 152
Que The title of project manager is universally used to identify the single person
responsible for the accomplishment of work to meet a company's objectives for
a defined area of work. Throughout the industries, the project manager's
responsibilities ________.
A. are similar but are met through different practices
B. are similar and are met through similar practices
C. are similar for major responsibilities but different for the detailed practices to meet
the responsibilities
D. are considerably different and follow the practices of the industry for meeting the
responsibilities
E. are somewhat different but generally follow the same practices for meeting the
responsibilities
PMgroup Executing
153 Que # 153
Que The role of the project manager will differ depending upon whether s/he works
for the owner (buyer), performing contractor, or supplier. The attributes and
characteristics, however, are similar and include having ________.

A. recognized leadership skills with organizational ability

B. breadth of experience in related projects
C. ability to communicate and work with others
D. ability to obtain maximum input from team members
E. all of the above
PMgroup Planning
154 Que # 154
Que The project manager's authority should be commensurate with the degree of
assigned responsibility. Senior management should define the project
manager's authorities and publicly announce them in either ________.
A. an informal meeting or the project kickoff meeting
B. the organization's communication organ or the local newspaper
C. the letter of appointment or the project charter
D. the project policy manual or the project execution manual
E. a special letter to the project manager or the letter of appointment
PMgroup Planning
394 Que # 394
Que The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the
corresponding developmental level of the proejct team and should move
through successive steps in the following order
A. Disciplinary, autocratic, and aprticipative
B. Projectized, matrix, and functional
C. Team building, team development, and responsibility assignment
D. Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating
E. Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring
PMgroup Planning
395 Que # 395
Que In selecting from the pool for team assignments, all of the following
characteristics should be evaluated EXCEPT
A. Availability
B. Personal interest
C. Personal characteristics
D. Political philosophy
E. Previous experience
PMgroup Planning
396 Que # 396
Que Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of the
A. Project Management Team
B. Human Resources Department
C. Executive Manager
D. Line Managers
E. Project Manager
PMgroup Planning
397 Que # 397
Que A project coordinator may typically be found in a ____________ environment
A. Projectized
B. Stron matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Balance matrix
E. Phase I
PMgroup Planning
398 Que # 398
Que It is important that the staffing plan address how personnel will be released
when no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A. To reduce costs
B. To improve morale
C. To aid in staffing teh next project
D. To control material resources needed
E. To reduce uncertainty
PMgroup Executing
399 Que # 399
Que Motivation factors can be divided into two classes staisfiers and dissatisfiers.
Examples of satisfiers are
A. Vacation time, assignment of a personal staff assistant
B. Work satisfaction, fringe benefits
C. Plush office space, performance-based slaray raise
D. A sense of personal achievement, work satisfaction
E. A bonus for completion on time, major recognition events
PMgroup Executing
400 Que # 400
Que A mandatory prerequisite for team building is
A. Commitment from top level management
B. Collocation of team members
C. Open discussion of poor individual performance
D. Funding for staff development activities
E. Shared work ethics among members of teh team
PMgroup Executing
401 Que # 401
 Que Collocation can mean that I. All team members are moved to a
central physical location for the life of the project II. Most team
members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the project.
III. A "war room" is established where team membesr can meet periodically
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III
PMgroup Planning
402 Que # 402
Que For a large, complex project ____________ is best for handling cross-
functional project needs
A. A strong matrix organization
B. A project coordinator
C. A project expediter
D. A functional organization
E. Direct executive involvement
PMgroup Planning
403 Que # 403
Que Project Human Resource Management is divided into
A. Organizational planning, staff acquisition, and performance appraisal
B. Leadershiop, t4eam building, and negotiation
C. Recruitment, labor relations, and personnel administration
D. Team building, communication, and labor relations
E. Organizational planning, staff acquisition, and team development
PMgroup Planning
404 Que # 404
Que Aids in staff acquisition include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Staffing management plan
B. Procurement
C. Team directory
D. Training
E. Negotiation
PMgroup Planning
405 Que # 405
Que All of the following are outputs of Organizational Planning EXCEPT
A. Project organization charg
B. Staffing management plan
C. Project template
D. Supporting detail
E. Project interfaces
PMgroup Executing
406 Que # 406
Que A key barrier to team development is
A. A strong matrix management structure
B. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets
C. When teaam members are accountable to both functional and project managers
D. When formal training plans cannot be implemented
E. When members cannot be collocated
PMgroup Planning
407 Que # 407
 Que All of the following statements about the level of authority of the project
manager are true EXCEPT
A. It varies considerably from company to company
B. It is dependent on corporate policies
C. It is determined by senior management
D. It is weak in a strong matrix organization
E. It depends on the project manager's philosophy or style
PMgroup Planning
408 Que # 408
Que The project manager has the highest level of direct authority in a
_____________ environment.
A. Strong matrix
B. Weak matrix
C. Projectized
D. Functional
E. Departmentalized
PMgroup Planning
409 Que # 409
Que In a typical matrix organization, functional managers are responsible for
I. General administrative philosophy II. Assignment of personnel
III. Developing standards IV. Monitoring performance
A. I only
B. II and IV only
C. I, III, and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV
PMgroup Executing
501 Que # 501
Que All of the following are examples of team-building techniques except
A. Off-site activities to improve interpersonal relationships among team members
B. Reward and recognition systems
C. Location of the team in one work area
D. The kickoff meeting
E. Smoothing over of team conflicts by the project manager
PMgroup Planning
502 Que # 502
Que Output per person per hour of input describes
A. Economies of scale
B. Value marginal product
C. Producivity
D. The learning curve
E. Say's law
PMgroup Executing
503 Que # 503
Que According to the expectancy theory of motivation
A. Poor performance is the natural outcome of poor training
B. Managers should not expect too much of workers
C. Motivation to act is linked to an outcome that is expected to have value
D. Downsizing companies can expect to have motivation problems
E. Managers should expect that employees who are paid more will work harder
PMgroup Executing
504 Que # 504
 Que According to McGregor, a manager who uses Theory X sees workers as
A. Highly motivated, willing to take responsibility, and reliable
B. Highly untrustworthy, needing to be watched and closely managed at all times
C. Very productive when first given an assignment
D. Unproductive at first, followed by periods of high productivity
E. Two basic types "dragons" and "drones"
PMgroup Planning
505 Que # 505
Que A chart that shows the level of all project resources by time period is known as
a
A. Resource Gantt chart
B. PERT diagram
C. Time-line analysis matrix
D. Resource spreadsheet
E. Leveling chart
PMgroup Planning
506 Que # 506
Que In the strong and weak matrix structures, the balance of power may be shifted
to either the project manager or functional manager by changing the
A. Levels at which the project and the participating functional managers report
B. Support provided to the project and functional managers from top management
C. Physical distances between the people involved in the project
D. Amount of time spent on the project by the respective managers
E. All of the above
PMgroup Executing
507 Que # 507
Que Which of the following is considered an advantage of empowerment for project
teams?
A. It encourages team members to find better ways of doing things to meet project
objectives
B. Team members know they are accountable for achieving project deliverables
C. Synergy will likely result from team interaction
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
PMgroup Executing
508 Que # 508
Que Which of the following factors affects team building the least?
A. A faulty project concept
B. Unsupportive top management
C. A project in trouble
D. Unproductive members
E. Compensation of project team members
PMgroup Executing
509 Que # 509
Que Project team members who work in different locations tend not to see
themselves as a team or unified group. To rectify such a situation, a project
manager should
A. Ensure that eery member of the project team uses e-mail as a form of
communication
B. Recognize that this is a lose-lose situation because people at distant sites are more
drawn to staff and events at the local level
 C. Mandate that the team follow the vision and mission statement of his or her
organization
D. Create symbols and structures that solidify the unity of the dispersed work group
E. Provide team members with the latest in communication technology
PMgroup Executing
510 Que # 510
Que Which of the following is an appropriate management style to use when the
project manager wants to encourage the staff to pool its knowledge to make the
best decision possible?
A. Laissez-faire
B. Democratic
C. Autocratic
D. Directive
E. Antipodal
PMgroup Planning
511 Que # 511
Que All the following are disadvantages of the matrix form of project organization
except
A. Project personnel must report to more than one boss
B. Matrix structure is complex to monitor and control
C. Tendency toward duplication of effort is great
D. Project personnel experience conflicting priorities in work assignments
E. Experience gained in the matrix organiztaion can be readily applied to other forms of
project organization
PMgroup Planning
512 Que # 512
Que In which form of project organization would the project manager be likely to
exercise themost control over project resources?
A. Strong matrix
B. Projectized
C. Project coordinator
D. Project expeditor
E. Weak matrix
PMgroup Executing
513 Que # 513
Que All the following are symptoms of bad teamwork in the project team except
A. Frustration
B. Excessive meetings
C. Lack of trust or confidence in the projrect mamager
D. Unhealthy competition
E. Unproductive meetings
PMgroup Executing
514 Que # 514
Que The primary method of reducing conflict in projects is to
A. Hold periodic group meetings
B. Use group facilitators
C. Perform careful project planning
D. Enforce strict rules about arguing
E. Limit communications among team members
PMgroup Planning
515 Que # 515
 Que Adjusting the timing of tasks so that resources are not over committed is
called
A. Resource infringement
B. Schedule juggling
C. Pairwise trade-off
D. The Multiattribute Utility Theory
E. Resource leveling
PMgroup Executing
516 Que # 516
Que One alternative to dedicating office space for project team members to call
"home" is to assign responsibility for the project to the functional unit that has
the most interest in ensuring its success or can be the most helpful in
implementing it. All the following are advantages of this alternative except
A. There is flexibility in the use of staff
B. Specialists in the functional unit can be used by different projects and can share
knowledge and expertise
C. The functional unit serves as a base for technological continuity when people choose
to leave the project
D. The customer is the focus of activity and concern
E. The functional unit contains the normal career path for advancement for individuals
whose expertise is in the functional area
PMgroup Planning
517 Que # 517
Que The input to organizatoinal planning consists of
A. Project interfaces, staffing requirements, and constraints
B. Organizational interfaces, technical interfaces, and interpersonal interfaces
C. Organizational structure of teh performing organization, constraints, and
assumptions
D. Overall resource requirements, expected staff assignments, and preferences of the
project management team
E. Human resource practices of the performing organization, collective bargaining
agreements, and staffing requirements
PMgroup Executing
518 Que # 518
Que When members of a project team are not collocated they have limited
interaction and limited knowledge of each other. A project manager in this
situation should
A. Establish ways for team members to learn more about each other professionally and
personally
B. Conduct periodic face-to-face team meetings
C. Assign pairs of people to work together on parts of the project
D. Solicit and promote team member ideas
E. All of the above
PMgroup Planning
519 Que # 519
Que A responsibility assignment matrix is used to
A. Show who is responsible for what
B. Show critical interfaces between units that may require special managerial
coordination
C. Help the project manager keep track of who must approve what
D. Help the project manager keep track of who must report to whom
E. All of the above
 PMgroup Planning
520 Que # 520
Que Major dificulties arise when multiple projects need to be managed in the
functional organizational structure because of
A. The level of authority of the project manager
B. Conflicts over the relative priorities of different projects in competition for limited
resources
C. Project team members who are focused on their functional specialty rather than on
the project
D. The grouping of people by specialty area rather than as a team to support the project

E. The need for the project manager to use interpersonal skills to resolve conflicts
informally
PMgroup Planning
521 Que # 521
Que A project manager who has a low concern for personal goals and a high
concern for relationships is practicing which style of conflict resolution?
A. Win-lose
B. Yield-lose
C. Lose-leave
D. Compromise
E. Integrative

PMgroup Planning
522 Que # 522
Que A key component of concurrent engineering is
A. Placing all work under the control of a functional manager
B. Creating teams that have representatives from different project phases
C. Involving the implementors of a project in the design phase
D. Reducing the workload of matrixed employees
E. Eliminating the need for tesing personnel

PMgroup Planning
523 Que # 523
Que A chart that shows who is assigned to do a task without regard to when it will
be done is called
A. A resource matrix
B. A Branson diagram
C. A responsibility index
D. An analytical engine
E. A resource Gantt chart

PMgroup Planning
524 Que # 524
Que The three types of power available to the project manager based solely on his
or her position in the organization include
A. Formal, reward, penalty
B. Reward, referent, formal
C. Expert, referent, formal
D. Individual, group, formal
E. Reward, expert, referent
 PMgroup Planning
525 Que # 525
Que In both the weak and strong matrix organizatoinal structures, the primary
condition leading to conflict is
A. Communication barriers
B. Conflicting interests
C. Ambiguous jurisdictions
D. Need for consensus
E. Dependence on one party

PMgroup Planning
526 Que # 526
Que The chances for succesful completion of a multidisciplinary project are
increased if project team members are
A. Problem oriented
B. Discipline oriented
C. Politically sensitive to top management's needs
D. Focused on individual project activities
E. All of the above

PMgroup Executing
527 Que # 527
Que All of the following have been found to be major barriers to building effective
project teams except
A. Differing priorities, interests, and judgements of team mambers
B. Role conflicts
C. Lack of team member commitment
D. Amount of physical office space allotted to each team member
E. Communication problems

PMgroup Executing
528 Que # 528
Que The primary result of effective team development is
A. Improved project performance
B. Input to peformance appraisals
C. An effective, smoothly running team
D. An understanding by project team members that the porject manager is ultimately
responsible for project performance
E. Enhancement of the ability of stakeholders to contribute as individuals and team
mebers

PMgroup Executing
529 Que # 529
Que The method most often used by project managers to solve conflict is
A. Confrontation
B. Compromise
C. Smoothing
D. Forcing
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
530 Que # 530
 Que The terms strong matrix and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure
in project organization refer to the
A. Ability of the organization to achieve its goals
B. Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project
manager
C. Degree of authority the project manage has over team resources
D. Degree to which team members bond together
E. Size of the project team

PMgroup Executing
531 Que # 531
Que A manager who makes decisions without considering the information provided
by project team members is using which management style?
A. Laissez-faire
B. Autocratic
C. Bureaucratic
D. Megalomaniacal
E. Judicious

PMgroup Planning
532 Que # 532
Que In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which
statement is true regarding conflict in projects?
A. A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to
ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers

B. Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract

administrative procedures, and type of contract
C. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possible
D. By the closeout phase, conflicts regarding schedules and human resources are
resolved, but new conflicts arise, such as project priorities and cost
E. Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they
can dictate their needs to functional managers

PMgroup Executing
533 Que # 533
Que Each of the following is a destructive role on a project team except
A. Withdrawer
B. Recognition seeker
C. Topic jumper
D. Gate keeper
E. Dominator

PMgroup Executing
534 Que # 534
Que The key way for a project manager to promote optimum team performance in
project teams whose members are not collocated is to
A. Build trust
B. Exercise his/her power and authority
C. Establish a reward and recognition system
D. Obtain the support of the functional managers in the other locations
E. Exercise his/her right to control all aspects of the project
 PMgroup Executing
535 Que # 535
Que A management style characterized by little or no information flowing up or
down between the project manager and project team is called
A. Egocentric
B. Don't ask, don't tell
C. Laissez-faire
D. Participative
E. Democratic

PMgroup Executing
536 Que # 536
Que Conflicts in which of the following three areas represent over 50% of all project
conflicts?
A. Personalities, cost objectives, and schedules
B. Schedules, technical opinions, and project priorities
C. Cost objectives, administrative procedures, and schedules
D. Schedules, project priorities, and personnel resources
E. Personalities, project priorities, and cost objectives

PMgroup Planning
537 Que # 537
Que A constraining factor that may affect the organization of the project team is
A. The organizational structure of the performing organizatoin
B. Collective bargaining agreements
C. Preferences of the project team
D. Expected team assignments
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
538 Que # 538
Que According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene Theory of Motivation, if
achievement, recognition, responsibility, advancement or promotion, and
positive supervisor attitude are not present, employees will
A. Become alienated with the organization and leave
B. Lack motivation but will not be dissatisfied with their work
C. Lack motivation and become dissatisfied with their work
D. Become dissatisfied only if they do not receive salary increases
E. Use the workplace as a means to fulfill social needs more than professional ones

PMgroup Planning
539 Que # 539
Que What are Maslow's three highest levels of human needs?
A. Physiological, safety, and social
B. Recognition, responsibility, and reward
C. Self-actualization, esteem, and social
D. Happiness, health, and prosperity
E. Life, love, and laughter

PMgroup Planning
540 Que # 540
Que The major difference between the project coordinator and project expeditor
forms of organization is that
A. Strong commitment to the project usually does not exist in the project expeditor form
of organization
B. The project coordinator cannot personally make or enforce decisions
C. The project coordinator reports to a higher level manager in the organization
D. The project expeditor acts only as an intermediary between management and the
project team
E. The project expeditor form of organization is used only on less costly projects

ANSWERS

100 E
101 A
102 E
103 E
104 B
105 E
106 E
107 D
109 E
110 D
111 D
112 E
113 D
114 A
115 E
116 B
117 B
118 C
119 C
120 A
121 E
122 D
123 C
124 B
125 A
126 D
127 E
128 A
129 E
130 B
131 D
132 D
133 E
134 B
135 C
136 D
137 C
138 C
139 E
140 E
141 D
142 C
143 D
144 B
145 E
146 C
147 A
148 B
149 D
150 E
151 A
152 D
153 E
154 C
394 D
395 D
396 B
397 C
398 D
399 D
400 A
401 E
402 A
403 E
404 D
405 E
406 C
407 D
408 C
409 D
501 E
502 C
503 C
504 B
505 D
506 E
507 E
508 E
509 D
510 B
511 E
512 B
513 B
514 C
515 E
516 D
517 A
518 E
519 E
520 B
521 B
522 C
523 A
524 A
525 C
526 A
527 D
528 A
529 A
530 C
531 B
532 A
533 D
534 A
535 C
536 D
537 E
538 C
539 C
540 C
 PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT

PMgroup Executing
100 Que # 100
Que All of the following statements about acceptance sampling plans are true except
A. Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspection is high and the
resulting loss of passing nonconforming units is not great
B. Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are required
C. Acceptance sampling plans are never as effective at rejecting nonconforming units as
100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious
D. Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots; they
instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality
E. Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custom-
made products
PMgroup Executing
101 Que # 101
Que A quality control (QC) manager for a manufacturing firm is calculating the
expected standard deviation (s) for the length of hex bolts being produced on the
assembly line. There are two sources of variation in the length of the hex bolts
production variation and measurement error. The QC manager knows that the
standard deviations from these two sources is 0.24 inch and 0.43 inch,
respectively. Assuming that there are no other significant sources of error, what
answer should the QC manager calculate for the total standard deviation of the
length of the hex bolts?

A. 0.10 inch
B. 0.19 inch
C. 0.34 inch
D. 0.49 inch
E. 0.67 inch
PMgroup Controlling
102 Que # 102
Que The rule of seven is used by quality control engineers to determine whether a
process is out of control. If a run of seven or more samples lays on one side of the
process mean, the process is said to be out of control. What is the probability that
a run of seven on either side of the Process mean is due to random variation?

A. 14.30%
B. 3.12%
C. 2.73%
D. 1.56%
E. 0.78%
PMgroup Controlling
103 Que # 103
Que Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in
quality. Variations in quality may be produced by assignable causes. All of the
following are examples of assignable causes except
A. Differences among machines
B. Differences among workers
C. Differences among materials
D. Differences in each of these factors over time
E. None of the above (all are examples)
PMgroup Controlling
104 Que # 104
Que The same quality control manager decides to increase his daily sample size from
three to six. The size of the control band will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain unchanged
D. Not determinable from given data
E. None of the above
PMgroup Controlling
105 Que # 105
Que All of the following statements about control charts are true except
A. Control charts can be used to establish as well as maintain process control
B. Control charts are used to determine acceptance limits when no limits are stipulated by
the product specification; otherwise, one should use the limits dictated by the
specification.
C. All data points outside the control chart limits are variations explained by
D. a and B
E. b and C
PMgroup Controlling
106 Que # 106
Que Japanese quality control has improved dramatically in the last 30 years for all of
the following reasons except
A. The use of quality control circles
B. Small, continuous improvements in quality control
C. The use of worker suggestion systems
D. The use of quality control charts
E. Focusing quality control efforts on production output
PMgroup Planning
107 Que # 107
Que Quality management deals with all of the following topics except
A. Conformance to requirements/specifications
B. Satisfying the needs of the customer
C. Making Products more desirable and luxurious
D. A and C
E. B and C
PMgroup Executing
108 Que # 108
Que Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?
A. The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and
specifications
B. The costs of quality are mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are
manufacturing the product
C. Quality control programs should only be implemented when the costs of quality are
excessive
D. a and B
E. a and C
PMgroup Controlling
109 Que # 109
Que The zero defects concept
A. Is a performance standard for management
B. Is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time".
 C. Is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should do
things right the first time.
D. A and C
E. B and C
PMgroup Executing
110 Que # 110
Que Quality assurance
A. Refers to the prevention of product defects
B. Is an auditing function that provides feedback to the project team and Client about the
quality of output being produced
C. Is the technical process that includes the construction of control charts which specify
acceptability limits for conforming output
D. A and B
E. b and C
PMgroup Planning
111 Que # 111
Que Financial compensation is the primary motivational tool for which of the following
management theories or programs?
A. Zero Defects program
B. Theory X management
C. Theory Y management
D. Quality Control Circles
E. A and C
PMgroup Controlling
112 Que # 112
Que In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality
control is
A. The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time' to avoid quality
problems
B. The company's quality control manager who must work with the project members to
ensure the quality control program is effective
C. The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control
responsibility for all the company's projects
D. The project manager who has ultimately responsibility for the entire project
E. The customer who must ensure that he is receiving a quality product from the vendor
PMgroup Controlling
113 Que # 113
Que An acceptance control chart has limits that are based on the specification limits
for the product rather than limits which differentiate between random and
assignable causes. Under which of the following circumstance should a QC
manager consider using an acceptance control chart?
A. When the engineering tolerance on a dimension greatly exceeds the natural dispersion
of the manufacturing process
B. When the number of samples outside the current control chart limits become too costly
and Cumbersome to investigate
C. When a process is subject to constant but stable tool wear
D. A and B
E. A and C
PMgroup Executing
114 Que # 114
Que The majority of product defects could be prevented in most processes if
manufacturers would do the following
 A. Increase the use of acceptance control charts instead of standard three-sigma control
charts
B. Make a concerted effort to eliminate the potential for product defects in the design
stage
C. Create a quality control department
D. A and B
E. A and C
PMgroup Planning
115 Que # 115
Que Quality attributes
A. Are used to determine how effectively the organization accomplishes its goals
B. Can be objective or subjective in nature
C. Are specific quality characteristics for which a product is designed, built, and tested
D. A and B
E. B and C
PMgroup Planning
116 Que # 116
Que Most quality problems
A. Originate in the quality department where the ultimate responsibility for quality rests
B. Originate on the shop floor because of waste and product rework
C. Are the result of management inattention to potential quality improvement ideas
D. Could be eliminated if shop supervisors monitored their workers more closely
E. A and B
PMgroup Executing
117 Que # 117
Que The Pareto Principle is a technique used by quality managers to determine which
quality control problems concerning a particular service or manufacturing process
should be corrected. Which of the following statements best represents the
philosophy employed by this principle?
A. In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems, all problems which
have a measurable cost associated with them should be corrected.
B. The majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable problems.
Improvement efforts should be reserved for these few vital problems.
C. In order to achieve zero defects, all quality control problems, including those which do
not have a direct financial cost, should be corrected.
D. Generally, 80% of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via cost-
benefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially worthy of improvement efforts.
E. A and d
PMgroup Executing
118 Que # 118
Que The Japanese Quality Control (QC) Circle movement motivated its participants in
many ways. Which of the following represents the most important motivation for
the QC circle participant
A. Improving the performance of the company
B. Self-improvement
C. Financial incentives
D. Recognition among co-workers
E. Strengthening of relationships between co-workers.
PMgroup Controlling
119 Que # 119
Que In order to achieve long-term quality improvements, management must do the
following
 A. Motivate the employees with seminars, contests, and institution of programs such as
"Quality Improvement" day
B. Create a quality control department and give the head of the department ultimate
responsibility for quality improvement
C. Implement of a formal quality control program with worker and management
involvement
D. Establish financial incentive packages for workers
E. A and D
PMgroup Executing
120 Que # 120
Que Quality assurance is
A. top management's intention regarding quality
B. functions determining implementation of the quality policy
C. actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements
D. responsibilities and processes which implement quality management
E. all of the above
PMgroup Initiating
121 Que # 121
Que Quality is
A. zero defects
B. a problem
C. a specification
D. a cost
E. a, c and d
PMgroup Controlling
122 Que # 122
Que Which are the best two charts to show trends in a process?
A. Pareto and Control
B. Control and Run
C. Histogram and Run
D. Gantt and Pert
E. Gantt and CPM
PMgroup Executing
123 Que # 123
Que If the acceptance sampling attribute for a lot is 30%, this means that
A. 30% of all lots must be tested
B. 30% of all lots must pass the test
C. any given lot must have 30% or fewer defects
D. a sample of a given lot must have 30% or fewer defects to pass the entire lot
E. c and d
PMgroup Planning
124 Que # 124
Que The pillar(s) of quality is (are)
A. Quality is free
B. Doing it right the first time
C. Zero defects
D. Process improvement
E. B and C
PMgroup Planning
125 Que # 125
Que When a product or service completely meets a customer's requirements
A. quality is achieved.
 B. cost of quality is high.
C. cost of quality is low.
D. the customer pays the minimum price.
E. a and b.
PMgroup Executing
126 Que # 126
Que Using Pareto's Rule, and given the data in the following table, where should
corrective action focus? Origin of problem % of problems Design
80 Development 2 Prototype 9 Testing
6 Fabrication 3
A. Design
B. Design, development, and prototype
C. Design and prototype
D. Development, prototype, and fabrication
E. None of the above
PMgroup Planning
127 Que # 127
Que Cost of quality is a concept that includes
A. the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements.
B. the life cycle cost of the project.
C. all research and development costs related to the project.
D. only the cost of the quality control function
E. a and b.
PMgroup Controlling
128 Que # 128
Que The process of determining that technical processes and procedures are being
performed in conformance with scope requirements and quality plans is called
quality
A. management.
B. assurance.
C. process review.
D. control.
E. checks.
PMgroup Controlling
129 Que # 129
Que Quality control is
A. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to
satisfy them.
B. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality
standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance.
C. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the
project will satisfy the relevant quality) standards.
D. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide
added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer.
E. assuring the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury.
PMgroup Planning
130 Que # 130
Que Quality planning is
A. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to
satisfy them.
B. monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality
standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance.
 C. evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the
project will satisfy the relevant quality standards
D. taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide
added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer.
E. assuring the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury.
PMgroup Executing
131 Que # 131
Que Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve
a qualitative goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in
A. a project completed in the shortest possible time.
B. a product or service that conforms to the requirement specification.
C. an award-winning product that brings public recognition to the project.
D. an innovative project that establishes the qualifications of the project team.
E. B and C.
PMgroup Executing
132 Que # 132
Que According to current quality management thinking, which of the following
approaches to quality improvement is least likely to produce positive results ?
A. increased inspection
B. Continuous improvement
C. Quality circles
D. Statistical quality control
E. Use of worker suggestion systems
PMgroup Executing
133 Que # 133
Que The concept that states "the optimal quality level is reached at the point where
the incremental revenue from product improvement equals the incremental cost to
secure it" comes from
A. quality control analysis.
B. marginal analysis.
C. standard quality analysis.
D. conformance analysis.
E. systems analysis.
PMgroup Executing
134 Que # 134
Que Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality*?
A. increased productivity, increased cost-effectiveness, and decreased cost risk.
B. Reduced productivity and no change to cost-effectiveness or cost risk.
C. Reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost.
D. increased productivity and cost-effectiveness.
E. increased productivity, decreased cost-effectiveness and increased cost risk.
PMgroup Executing
135 Que # 135
Que Which of the following statements regarding quality is false?
A. Quality improvement depends upon better definition and increased awareness of the
requirements specifications.
B. Future gains in quality will often rely on advanced technology.
C. Recognition of key actions required of each team member is necessary to meet quality
objectives.
D. Computer-aided design systems can improve quality, but only at the expense of an
increase in the cost of design.
E. A and C.
 PMgroup Executing
136 Que # 136
Que You are sampling items from a batch and plotting the results on a control chart.
How will an increase in the number of items in the sample affect the value of the
standard deviation used to set the control limit?
A. increase it.
B. Decrease it.
C. No effect on it.
D. First increase it, then decrease it.
E. First decrease it, then increase it.
PMgroup Executing
137 Que # 137
Que If the level of conformance directly increases as a result of new processes.
different resources, or changed methods. the required cost of monitoring is likely
to
A. increase as well.
B. remain the same.
C. decrease.
D. decrease initially then increase slightly.
E. increase then tend to level off
PMgroup Executing
138 Que # 138
Que The primary driver(s) behind the demand for continual quality improvement is/are

A. an increase in the number of projects being worked.

B. the government cost improvement reports that have created widespread public interest
in quality.
C. the prevalence of media reports on quality!- circles and other quality improvement
techniques
D. the need to both reduce costs and ensure consistency in the performance of products
and services.
E. b and d.
PMgroup Planning
139 Que # 139
Que The concept of quality is based on
A. meeting luxury goods standards.
B. producing excellent products that are superior to other similar items.
C. conforming to the requirements specifications
D. maintaining uniformity of design
E. a and c.
PMgroup Executing
140 Que # 140
Que An assignable variance tells us
A. our equipment is becoming obsolete.
B. top management should initiate increased worker training.
C. there is an identifiable problem that must he fixed.
D. schedule variances will be reduced.
E. ours use of quality circles is inadequate.
PMgroup Planning
141 Que # 141
Que From a high level perspective, quality
A. is ensured by having inspectors.
 B. cannot be quantitatively measured.
C. and productivity are inconsistent objectives.
D. is primarily (85-95%) a management problem.
E. problems are usually caused by unmotivated employees.
PMgroup Controlling
142 Que # 142
Que Which is not a commonly used quality management tool?
A. Fishbone diagram
B. CSSR report
C. Pareto chart
D. Control chart
E. None of the above (all are commonly used)
PMgroup Executing
143 Que # 143
Que Quality is often influenced by all of the following except
A. fabrication processes and methods.
B. supervision.
C. inspection
D. cost of materials.
E. design.
PMgroup Planning
144 Que # 144
Que The___ of a product or service most affects its reliability and maintenance
characteristics.
A. design
B. concept
C. fabrication
D. performance
E. cost
PMgroup Controlling
145 Que # 145
Que Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation. can be
directly reduced by
A. improving the overall system of production
B. increasing the number of quality inspectors.
C. making use of run charts.
D. making better use of Pareto charts.
E. identifying patterns of variance using control charts.
PMgroup Controlling
146 Que # 146
Que A project manager notices that all the measurements recorded on a control chart
lie within the control band range. However, most of the measurements are below
the midpoint (negative variance). Quality management practice offers us what
guidance in dealing with this situation?
A. The project manager should apply the "rule of seven."
B. There is no problem as long as the variances lie within the control band.
C. Negative variance indicates a problem which should be remedied.
D. These variances are most likely caused by random factors.
E. increased worker ownership should be encouraged.
PMgroup Executing
147 Que # 147
Que The project management team's for quality should
 A. extend beyond the completion of the project.
B. stop at the point of delivery. .
C. be significantly reduced by a good warranty..
D. be ignored by the project manager.
E. a and c.
PMgroup Planning
148 Que # 148
Que On a project, quality should generally be of
A. equal priority with cost and schedule.
B. lower priority than cost and schedule.
C. equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule.
D. equal priority with schedule. but higher priority than cost.
E. higher priority than cost and schedule.
PMgroup Executing
149 Que # 149
Que 100% inspection for defects may be neither possible nor desirable. When is
sampling for defects likely to be most useful?
A. When destructive testing is required
B. When the cost of 100% inspection is high.
C. When we believe there are not many defects.
D. a, b, and c.
E. a and b.
PMgroup Planning
150 Que # 150
Que A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most
likely to be achieved
A. by planning it into the project.
B. by developing careful mechanisms to inspect for quality
C. by developing prestigious products and processes.
D. by striving to do the best job possible.
E. by conducting quality circle activities.
PMgroup Planning
151 Que # 151
Que Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ________________
costs.
A. manufacturing/building
B. advertising
C. overhead
D. post-completion support
E. a and d
PMgroup Planning
152 Que # 152
Que From the project perspective, quality attributes
A. are used to determine how effectively the performing organization supports the project
B. can be objective or subjective in nature.
C. are specific characteristics for which a product is designed, built. and tested
D. b and c.
E. a and b.
PMgroup Executing
153 Que # 153
Que From the project manager's viewpoint, quality assurance involves
A. conducting studies to determine if design methods will support quality requirements.
 B. identifying applicable laws, ordinances and regulations that the project must comply
with.
C. monitoring inspection activities to ensure that the work is performed as specified.
D. a, b, and c.
E. a and c.
PMgroup Executing
154 Que # 154
Que Just-in-time (JIT) is the concept of reducing inventories to
A. 25% of former stock.
B. Less than half of former stock.
C. 75% of peak stock.
D. zero stock.
E. 15% of the cost of the product for a planned stock.
PMgroup Executing
155 Que # 155
Que Of the following statements, which one(s) is/are true?
A. Quality is the usual result when skilled designers and skilled implementors work on the
project.
B. Quality is 10% skill and 90% luck.
C. Quality can be achieved with the proper combination of personnel, materials, methods
and time to do the work.
D. None of the above.
E. a and c.
PMgroup Controlling
156 Que # 156
Que Some organizations today are using "six sigma", to set the upper and lower limits
on control charts rather than the traditional sigmas, which are?
A. two
B. threes
C. four
D. five
E. twelve
PMgroup Controlling
157 Que # 157
Que The quality management tool that can be described as "a diagram that ranks and
displays defects in order of frequency of occurrence (from left to right)" is a
A. control control
B. vertical bar chart.
C. histograms.
D. Pareto chant.
E. run chant.
PMgroup Executing
158 Que # 158
Que From the project manager's perspective, quality management is ______________
limited to assessing the attributes of the tools provided to do the work.
A. always
B. usually
C. not
D. seldom
E. intermittently
PMgroup Planning
159 Que # 159
 Que The primary responsibility for establishing design and test specifications should
rest with
A. senior management.
B. procurement or purchasing.
C. engineering.
D. manufacturing.
E. quality control.
PMgroup Planning
160 Que # 160
Que Which of the following is least likely to contribute to developing an effective
project team supportive of quality?
A. Commitment to the project
B. Team member flexibility
C. Frequent turnover of personnel
D. Team interest in workmanship
E. Clearly defined goals
PMgroup Planning
161 Que # 161
Que Primary responsibility for quality management in the project rests with the
A. project engineer.
B. purchasing agent.
C. quality manager.
D. project manager.
E. company president.
PMgroup Planning
162 Que # 162
Que The ISO 9000 series is
A. a set of instructions for preparing control charts.
B. a set of guidelines for quality.!
C. a set of forms and procedures to ensure quality. .
D. an international standard that describes a recommended quality system.
E. intended to be applied only to manufactured products.
PMgroup Initiating
163 Que # 163
Que Unless evidence indicates otherwise, a process is assumed to be
A. in control.
B. out of control.
C. working at full capacity.
D. working at less than full capacity.
E. operating within required engineering tolerances.
PMgroup Executing
164 Que # 164
Que Which of the following statements best characterizes the quality management
practice called benchmarking?
A. The ISO term for progress measurement
B. Comparing planned project practices to those of other projects.
C. A technique used to test certain types of electronic equipment.
D. The difference between grade'' and quality.
E. The measurement of customer satisfaction.
PMgroup Planning
Que Quality management is defined as the process of ensuring that a project meets
the ________ of the project's clients, participants, and shareholders.
165 Que # 165
A. specifications and statements of work
B. legal and financial obligations
C. expectations and desires
D. needs and expectations
E. legal and moral requirements
PMgroup Initiating
166 Que # 166
Que The primary components of quality management are quality ________.
A. inspections, certifications, and validations
B. philosophy, assurance, and control
C. form, fit, and function
D. reliability, maintainability, and availability
E. insurance, assurance, and warranty
PMgroup Executing
167 Que # 167
Que Quality assurance is defined as the managerial process that determines
________ that provide the customers with performance standards and feedback on
the performance.
A. time, scope, cost, and resources
B. human resources, dollars, materials, and duration
C. time, location, duration, and completion
D. organization, design, objectives, and resources
E. management, staff, workers, and contractors
PMgroup Controlling
168 Que # 168
Que Quality control is the technical processes that ________ the project's progress
against the performance standards.
A. inspect, certify, and verify
B. examine, analyze, and report
C. inspect, examine, and determine
D. identify, measure, and report
E. reveal, establish, and record
PMgroup Executing
169 Que # 169
Que Responsibility within the project for quality must be defined and promulgated to
everyone contributing to the end product. First and foremost, the ________ has the
ultimate responsibility for conformance to requirements when provided with the
tools, skills, knowledge, and opportunities.
A. corporate president
B. director of project management
C. quality assurance manager
D. project manager
E. individual
PMgroup Executing
170 Que # 170
Que Self-inspection by the individual performing the work is used to achieve quality in
a product. The advantages of self-inspection include ________.
A. immediate feedback to permit adjustments to the process
B. early identification of errors prior to further integration
C. minimization of end product repairs and material waste
D. reduction in the number of end product inspections and tests
 E. all of the above
PMgroup Controlling
171 Que # 171
Que Zero Defects is an element of the quality management philosophy that is a
________ for all workers to be achieved ________.
A. slogan; whenever possible
B. slogan; most of the time
C. standard; at all times
D. standard; whenever possible
E. standard; during critical operations
PMgroup Controlling
172 Que # 172
Que Statistical Process Control is used in quality programs to determine whether
repetitive operations meet predictable standards. The process uses ________ to
permit accurate monitoring of the operation.
A. 100 percent inspection and random rejection
B. acceptance sampling and automatic rejection
C. continuous sampling and error detection methods
D. random sampling and corrective procedures
E. statistical sampling and control procedures
PMgroup Controlling
173 Que # 173
Que Statistical Decision Making includes Pareto Analysis as a means of reducing
errors in the total project process. Pareto Analysis ________.
A. is a method of rejecting errors or variances from standards following self-inspection
B. is a procedure for ranking the errors to identify those contributing the most to failures
[PMBOK p. B-2]
C. counts errors or failures to determine the added cost of all operations that do not meet
the requirements
D. compares the error rate with the pass rate to determine the allowable number of errors
per 1,000
E. compares the error rate of individuals to determine the compensation for bonuses
PMgroup Executing
174 Que # 174
Que Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirement for
some element or product of a project. The advantage of statistical sampling is that
it ________.
A. does not require an expenditure of resources
B. is accurate enough with a sampling of less than one percent
C. does not require 100 percent sampling of the elements to achieve a satisfactory
inference of the population
D. needs to be conducted only when there is a problem discovered with the end product or
when the customer has some rejects
E. is a good tool to gain customer confidence during a period of high rejects
PMgroup Controlling
175 Que # 175
Que Statistical Process Control uses diagrams called "Control Charts." These charts
depict horizontal, parallel lines to represent ________ standard deviations.
A. six
B. five
C. four
D. three
 E. two
PMgroup Controlling
176 Que # 176
Que When data is plotted on the control charts, the data is of two types R and X-bar.
The R data represent points of a ________ while the X-bar data represent points of
a(n) ________.
A. random sample; cross-matrix sample
B. real sample; simulated sample
C. 100 percent sampling; 10 percent sampling
D. sampling run; average of several runs
E. random sampling; continuous sampling
PMgroup Executing
177 Que # 177
Que The cost of quality has been argued as being primarily driven by the workers.
When items were produced that did not meet the customers' expectations, the
workers were "found" to be at fault. Current thinking is that management has at
least ________ percent of the responsibility for the cost of quality.
A. 85
B. 75
C. 65
D. 55
E. 50
PMgroup Executing
178 Que # 178
Que Statistical sampling methods are valid for most projects, regardless of the lack of
repetitive processes, because ________.
A. projects rely on external vendors for products that must meet contractual specifications
to conform to the requirements
B. purchased materials will never meet the requirements of the project
C. services are amenable to statistical sampling even for small lots
D. it looks good to the customer when there is a mathematical approach to quality
E. statistics provide a basis for customer acceptance of the projects
PMgroup Planning
179 Que # 179
Que A quality program within a project should be based on ________ of errors to
improve productivity along with quality levels.
A. early detection
B. early correction
C. late detection
D. late correction
E. prevention
PMgroup Planning
180 Que # 180
Que The cost of quality is needed to identify opportunities for improvement. The cost
of quality is, therefore, defined as the dollar value associated with ________.
A. producing a product that meets the requirement
B. nonconformance to the requiremenT
C. any cost for quality personnel and tools
D. any extra cost to hire a quality consultant
E. all extra efforts to implement a quality program
PMgroup Planning
181 Que # 181
 Que In a project, the common parameters are cost, schedule, and quality. In
relationship to the others, quality should be ranked ________.
A. first as the prime driver for a project
B. second behind cost but ahead of schedule
C. second behind schedule but ahead of cost
D. equal to cost and schedule
E. third behind cost and schedule
PMgroup Executing
182 Que # 182
Que When errors that affect quality are discovered, the procedure to improve the
situation should be to ________.
A. identify the specific error
B. correct the specific error
C. determine the root cause of the error
D. correct the root cause of the error
E. all of the above
PMgroup Controlling
183 Que # 183
Que A quality audit is a powerful tool in any quality improvement program. For a
project that is starting a quality improvement program, the initial audit is used to
________.
A. identify all the faulty work that has been completed
B. identify all the work that has been correctly accomplished
C. determine the single most urgent area for improvement
D. determine the quality baseline from which improvements will be made
E. evaluate the quality audit's effectiveness in identifying errors
PMgroup Executing
184 Que # 184
Que Customers are the driving force in any project and determine the requirements to
be met. In dealing with customers' complaints, it is important to ________.
A. avoid commitment to correction on an "out of warranty" item
B. talk to them until they see the reason the complaints are trivial
C. give them something more than they contracted to receive to suppress any feelings of
dissatisfaction
D. provide them with the full scope of the contracted product or service
E. realize that customers ask for too much and to change their perceptions about the
product or service requirements
PMgroup Planning
185 Que # 185
Que In computing the cost of producing a quality product, the major areas of costs
contribute to the sale price of the product. The ratio of the ________ costs
determine whether an effective quality program is fully implemented.
A. direct, indirect, and overhead
B. one-time, recurring, and variable
C. variable, fixed, and semi-fixed
D. prevention, appraisal, and failure
E. build, repair, and test
PMgroup Planning
186 Que # 186
Que The 14-step process to quality improvement is a progressive approach to total
involvement of everyone in a company toward the production of quality products
and services. The 14-steps do not include ________.
 A. management commitment
B. quality improvement team
C. quality measurement
D. goal achievement measures
E. supervisor training
PMgroup Controlling
187 Que # 187
Que Trend charts reflect the relative status of a program. Trend charts are effective
means of ________.
A. visibly reinforcing the growth of quality improvements to the workers
B. reflecting the precise status of quality failures
C. identifying to customers the failure rates of products
D. setting standards and goals for acceptable levels of quality
E. showing that all goals have been achieved
PMgroup Planning
188 Que # 188
Que In many projects, the end product is a "service" that does not have physical
characteristics and attributes to be measured to ensure conformance to the
requirement. When service is the end product of a project, measurements
________.
A. do not apply to the service, but the criterion is pass or fail
B. are always artificial and present only false indications of progress
C. can be established based on customer expectations and the responsibility assigned to
individuals
D. are not applicable if the service is to an internal function of the project
E. relate only to the actual expenditures of funds or receipt or revenues
PMgroup Executing
189 Que # 189
Que Recognition of personnel achievements is an important building block to the
attainment of a superior quality program. The form of recognition should be
________.
A. an annual bonus increase paid at the end of the year
B. an immediate cash award that is commensurate with the deed
C. a nonmonetary award presented in a public forum as soon as the deed is identified
D. a nonmonetary award presented in private
E. a combination of monetary and nonmonetary award presented in private
PMgroup Planning
190 Que # 190
Que Quality in a project's product is essential for the enhancement of the project
manager and the selling organization. To ensure that the customer perceives a
quality product, the project manager must inform the customer of the ________ to
be used so the customer will not have a perception of ________.
A. materials; inferior fabrication
B. standards; gold plating
C. practices; poor workmanship
D. pricing; gouging
E. warranty; poor service after product sale
PMgroup Planning
191 Que # 191
Que As one of its goals the project organization has quality to specified performance
measures. When compared with the functional organization, the project
organization ________.
 A. achieves higher levels of quality
B. is always tailored to meet the specific quality goals
C. is less disciplined in the implementation of quality
D. is more disciplined in the implementation of quality
E. none of the above
PMgroup Controlling
192 Que # 192
Que The technical performance of the project is derived from the quality program
instituted by the project manager. Quality control is one part of the quality
program that ________.
A. defines requirements and performance standards
B. measures results of operations
C. compares measured results to performance standards
D. initiates corrective actions for variances
E. all of the above
PMgroup Controlling
193 Que # 193
Que Quality control includes inspection to ensure that standards of performance are
being met. Inspection includes ________ examination of ________.
A. visual and nonvisual; processes and components
B. visual and aural; processes and materials
C. visual and technical; materials and end products
D. aural and tactile; materials and end products
E. aural and tactile; processes and procedures
PMgroup Controlling
194 Que # 194
Que Quality control methods extend beyond the external characteristics of the
product or components of the product. The types of testing of the product or
components include ________.
A. operator, maintainer, and environmental
B. stress, destructive, and operating
C. in-house, public, and private
D. laboratory, destructive, and nondestructive
E. laboratory, fabrication, and product
PMgroup Planning
195 Que # 195
Que Each project needs a quality program plan to define the parameters of the overall
approach to meeting quality requirements. As a minimum, the quality program
plan addresses ________.
A. the required processes and procedures
B. the inspection plan
C. the types of test to be conducted
D. the documentation requirements for actions (testing, inspections, etc.)
E. all of the above
PMgroup Executing
196 Que # 196
Que In a quality management information system, there is a need to collect data and
format such data into an information output that is useful to the project manager.
In developing such an information system, it is good to remember that an optimum
system doesn't supply all the information because ________.
A. there is never enough information collected
B. the system is incapable of processing all the required information
 C. some information costs more to collect than it is worth
D. some information is not available for collection and input
E. most information relies on related data to generate thE proper output
PMgroup Executing
197 Que # 197
Que Quality is one part of the three major parameters of a project. When the quality in
a project exceeds the specifications, that is called ________.
A. excellence
B. superior quality
C. deviation plus quality
D. gold plating
E. silver plating
PMgroup Planning
198 Que # 198
Que In the quality area, process control is becoming an important element of the
manufacturing to rigorous specifications to provide a consistently uniform output.
The control of a process is divided into controlling temperatures, pressures, flows,
________ , and levels in terms of rates and time.
A. directions, elasticities
B. volumes, distances
C. speeds (velocities), volumes
D. distances, speeds (velocities)
E. lengths, widths
PMgroup Controlling
199 Que # 199
Que Process control is distinct and separate from the data gathering function in a
quality program. While process control regulates the functions, data gathering is
used to ________.
A. collect information on the relative performance standards of the process so the output
can be enhanced through continuous adjustments to the input functions
B. validate the controlling function as performing correctly and provide information on
equipment servicing intervals
C. provide the historical records for production lots as to the specifications and actual
measurements of a product
D. generate the control charts to determine the variances in the product and the number of
nonconforming products
E. ensure the products are within tolerances and to identify those products that require
reworking or scrapping
PMgroup Executing
200 Que # 200
Que In the area of quality, project managers are struggling with the training and
indoctrination of individuals in the need to do the work right the first time to
conform to the requirement. Occasionally, the project manager will discover an
individual, either in the planning or actual work, doing more than is called for in
the specification. These individuals need training to reduce the level of "over
building" because ________.

A. the extra value given to the customer is not recognized or needed to complete the
project
B. the increases to the system specifications place that portion out of balance with the
other system components
C. it leads to increased customer requirements for other parts of the system
 D. exceeding the specified requirement is wasting time and money at no value added to
the project
E. the project must be reworked in other areas to increase the level of "goodness" to the
same as the "over build"
PMgroup Executing
201 Que # 201
Que The use of CAD (computer-aided design) is emerging as a new technology with
the goal of reducing the time and money spent to produce and update design
drawings. In some cases, the CAD is being used to control other computers and
machines to manufacture basic components of equipment. Because the CAD
software has the capability to perform checks of the design and make changes to
designs as they are approved, there has been ________.

A. a significant reduction in engineering errors

B. less rework required because of design errors
C. improved updating of designs over the former manual methods
D. more timely posting of changes to designs
E. all of the above
PMgroup Executing
202 Que # 202
Que The key to quality is to design and build to the requirements and avoid attempts
to inspect quality into the product. There is a need, however, to conduct
inspections at critical junctures in the assembly process to ensure defective items
are identified prior to making a costly interface or concealing a physical attribute
that cannot be inspected at a later time. An inspection plan will identify the points
at which examinations of processes, materials, or assemblies are required.
However, inspection plans normally do not include ________.

A. examining the vendor's quality procedures

B. examining surfaces
C. testing personnel skills
D. checking dimensions
E. witnessing destructive and nondestructive tests
PMgroup Executing
203 Que # 203
Que The inspection of the project throughout the implementation phase is critical to
ensure that quality standards are being met. The use of vendors is most often
required to obtain critical materials, components, or subassemblies. To determine
a vendor's capabilities to produce a product to the specifications, a "shop survey"
or audit of the vendor may be required. The areas for the audit should include
________.

A. facilities and shop space

B. experience and capability with similar work
C. quality assurance and control procedures
D. organization and quality of work in process
E. all of the above
PMgroup Executing
204 Que # 204
Que The quality program may include the requirement for "witnessed inspections" of
critical items for the project. When a subcontractor or vendor is to conduct a
destructive test, the project manager must ensure the test is validated (witnessed)
by a qualified member of his/her team. The purchase order or contract should
contain a statement that requires the subcontractor or vendor performing the test
to ________.
 A. give a 30-day notice of when the test will be conducted and to provide a certificate of
completion within seven days following the test
B. notify the project manager, in writing, of the date and time for witnessing the test
C. retain the residue of the item destroyed for a period of one year following completion of
the project
D. have present at the test at least three independent sources (individuals) who are
qualified in destructive testing procedures
E. report the results of the testing to an independent laboratory for confirmation and
validation of the procedures
PMgroup Controlling
Que Inputs to quality control are all of the following EXCEPT
378 Que # 378
A. Work results
B. Quality management plan
C. Operational definition
D. Checklists
E. Process adjustments
PMgroup Planning
Que One of the fundamental tenets of quality management is that quality
379 Que # 379
A. Exceeds client expectations
B. Does not cost
C. Is planned in, not inspected in
D. Is assured through careful planning
E. Requires constant monitoring
PMgroup Executing
Que Standards for products and services are critical to the process of satisfying
380 Que # 380
A. Customer requirements
B. The scope statement
C. Upper management
D. Functional requirements
E. Specifications
PMgroup Executing
Que All of the following are primary benefit(s) of meeting quality requirements
EXCEPT
381 Que # 381
A. Less rework
B. higher productivity
C. Lower costs
D. Stakeholder staisfaction
E. Fewer change orders
PMgroup Planning
Que In the quality management discipline, benefits ____________ costs.
382 Que # 382
A. Equal
B. Outweigh
C. Are less than
D. Cannot be evaluated in relation to
E. Are substantiated by
PMgroup Planning
Que "Design of experiements" is an analytical technique that helps
383 Que # 383
A. Determine how various elements of a system interrelate
B. Anticipate what and where quality problems might occur
C. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome
D. Establish a standard by which to measure performance
E. Compare actual or planned project practices to those of other projects
PMgroup Planning
Que The quality management plan provides input to ___________ and addresses
quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement.
384 Que # 384
A. The overall project plan
B. The WBS
C. The project scope
D. External stakeholdersr
E. Standards and Guidelines
PMgroup Executing
Que Project quality assurance
385 Que # 385
A. Includes policing the conformance of thr project team to specifications
B. Provides the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which the project
performance is measured
C. Is a managerial process that defines the organization, design, resources, and
objectives of quality management
D. Provides confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards
E. Reduces the probability of project completion on schedule
PMgroup Executing
Que What does "cost of quality" mean?
386 Que # 386
A. The sacrifice of unessential project objectives to meet essential quality standards
B. The life-cycle cost of the project
C. The cost of ensuring conformance to requirements
D. The cost of meeting project objectives
E. The budgeted allowance for Quality Management Activities
PMgroup Controlling
Que The diagram that ranks defects in teh order of frequency of occurrence using a
Histogram to depict 100% of the defects is called a
387 Que # 387
A. Pareto diagram
B. Bar chart
C. Network diagram
D. Critical path
E. Pie chart
PMgroup Planning
Que Quality standards and criteria should be defined in the ____________ phase.
388 Que # 388
A. Conceptual
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Risk identification
E. Communication planning
PMgroup Planning
Que Major cost categories of quality include all of the following EXCEPT
389 Que # 389
A. Appraisal
B. Prevention
C. External failure
D. Measurement and test equipment
E. Computer operations
PMgroup Planning
Que Investment in defect prevention and appraisal (product quality improvement)
must often be borne by
390 Que # 390
A. The performing organization
B. The project management team
C. Executive management
D. The project
E. Overhead costs
PMgroup Controlling
Que Staistical quality control tools include all of the following EXCEPT
391 Que # 391
A. Flowcharting
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Contol charts
D. Estimates of control tendency
E. Trend analysis
PMgroup Executing
Que The use of quality management tools is essential to provide the greatest degree
of
392 Que # 392
A. Satisfaction
B. Capability
C. Improvement
D. Performance
E. All of the above
PMgroup Executing
Que Quality ______________ is evaluating overall project performance on a regular
basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality
standards.
393 Que # 393
A. Planning
B. Control
C. Assurance
D. Improvement
E. Benchmarking
PMgroup Initiating
501 Que # 501
Que The primary purpose of ISO 9000 is to
A. Establish a basic set of quality system standards
B. Identify the quality standards that are relevant to a project and determine how to meet
them
C. Provide a basis for the quality policy of an organization
D. Plan and implement activities to ensure that a project will satisfy relevant quality
standards
E. Provide for leading-edge quality
 PMgroup Initiating
Que Traditional thinking (before Crosby, Juran, Deming, and others) on quality
performance standards held that error is
502 Que # 502
A. Beneficial because we all learn from our mistakes
B. Inevitable
C. More a result of management than of the person performing the job
D. Unlikely if a sufficitne number of inspectors is used in the process
E. More costly than the sophisticated design owrk required to prevent it
PMgroup Executing
Que Rework is
503 Que # 503
A. An input to the quality control process
B. An output of the quality assurance process
C. Action taken to bring a nonconforming item into compliance
D. An adjustment made that is based on quality control measurements
E. All of the above
PMgroup Executing
Que The quality function deployment process is used to
504 Que # 504
A. Provide better product definition and product development
B. Help products succeed in the marketplace
C. Establish a customer complaint and feedback system
D. Help identify processes underway in other organizations that should be emulated
E. Support production planning and the just-in-time approach
PMgroup Executing
Que Kaoru Ishikawa led the Japanese Union of Scientists and Engineers in its efforts
to introduce methods for quality control. In simplifying techniques so workers
could understand and apply them, he concentrated on seven tools. Which item is
NOT one of the seven tools he popularized?
505 Que # 505
A. Pareto chart
B. Cause-and-effect diagram
C. Control chart
D. PERT chart
E. Scatter diagram
PMgroup Planning
Que The principal objective of project quality management is
506 Que # 506
A. Quality assurance using quality circles
B. Quality control through design inspections
C. Meeting the requirements of ISO 9000
D. Satisfying the needs of the project
E. Educating employees about the importance of quality
PMgroup Executing
Que The purpose of the Taguchi method is to
507 Que # 507
A. Manage the flow of material for better visibility and control
B. Manage resources, requirements, and production so that the right material arrives at
the rightplace at the right time, ready for use
C. Use statistical techniques to compute a "loss function" to determine the cost of
producing products that fail to achieve a target value
 D. Design, group, and manage production operations as self-contained flexible cells
capable ofstart-to-finish processing of a family of items
E. Regulate coordination and communication among process stages
PMgroup Executing
Que Which term describes a type of quality audit?
508 Que # 508
A. Internal
B. External
C. Baseline
D. System
E. All of the above
PMgroup Executing
Que Commonly used root-cuase analysis techniques in quality management are
509 Que # 509
A. Cause-and-effect diagrams
B. Fishbone diagrams
C. Ishikawa diagrams
D. System or proecess flowcharts
E. All of the above
PMgroup Executing
Que The two components of product availability are
510 Que # 510
A. Usability and maintainability
B. Producibility and maintainability
C. Usability and reliability
D. Reliability and maintainability
E. Operability and usability
PMgroup Executing
Que Constancy of purpose is a core concept for contuous improvement. An
organization displaying consistency of purpose must have all the following
elements except
511 Que # 511
A. Documented and well-disseminated statements of purpose and vision
B. A set of goals and objectives linked to the purpose and vision
C. A set of strategic and tactical plans
D. An awareness by all members of the organization of the purpose, vision, goals, and
objectives and their roles in achieving them
E. A quality assurance and control department reporting to senior management
PMgroup Planning
Que Quality and grade are
512 Que # 512
A. Similar concepts showing the characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy
stated or implied needs
B. Different concepts because grade pertains to entities with the same functional use but
different quality requirements
C. Concepts signifying similar characeristics, such as low quality and low grade
D. Concepts used as part of a total quality management program
E. Not applicable to project quality management because they are oriented toward the
manufacturing environment
PMgroup Executing
Que Opportunities for improvement are identified by measuring quality, which is
defined as the monetary value associated with
513 Que # 513
A. Producing a product that meets the requirements
B. Nonconformance to the requirement
C. Any cost for quality personnel and tools
D. Any extra cost to hire quality assurance personnel
E. All extra efforts to implement a quality program
PMgroup Planning
Que The difference between the quality plan and the quality system is that the quality
514 Que # 514
A. Plan is prepared for individual products, project, services, or contracts
B. System is prepared for individual products, projects, services, or contracts
C. System describes quality assurance project-by-project
D. System is used by a single organizational entity, generally the quality assurance
department
E. Plan is not part of the management information system of the organization
PMgroup Executing
Que In terms of statistical process control, the project team should know the
differences between
515 Que # 515
A. Standard deviation and variance
B. Special causes and random causes
C. Tolerances and control limits
D. Attribute sampling and variable sampliing
E. All of the above
PMgroup Executing
Que The primary purpose of benchmarking is to
516 Que # 516
A. Conduct industrial espionage
B. Perform marketing research to forecast how well a particular product will sell
C. Measure products, services, and processes against those of other organizations
D. Understand and collect data on customer requirements to focus attention on meeting
customer needs
E. Determine performance targets
PMgroup Planning
Que Project quality management was once thought to include only inspection or
quality control. In recent years, the concept of project quality management has
broadened. Which statement is not representative of the new definition of quality
management?
517 Que # 517
A. Quality is designed into the product or services, not inspected into it.
B. Quality is the concern of middle management and the quality superivisor
C. Customers require a documented and, in some cases, registered quality assurance
system
D. National and international standards and guidelines for quality assurance systems are
available
E. Audits of quality assurance systems have been developed
PMgroup Planning
Que Which of the following is the primary objective of establishing a quality
assurance process?
518 Que # 518
A. Completed checklists
B. Process adjustments
 C. Quality improvement
D. The Quality Management Plan
E. Quality control measurements
PMgroup Planning
Que Three important parameters of a project are cost, schedule, and quality. In
relationship to the others, quality should be ranked
519 Que # 519
A. First, as the prime driver for a project
B. Second, behind cost but ahead of schedule
C. Second, behind schedule but ahead of cost
D. Equal to cost and schedule
E. Third, behind cost and schedule
PMgroup Planning
Que Long-term contracting is an important aspect of project quality management
because it
520 Que # 520
A. Provides incentives to vendors to make quality commitments
B. Provides incentives to vendors to reduce prices
C. Permits better planning
D. Reduces buyer-related costs
E. All of the above
PMgroup Executing
Que The primary feature of a quality audit is that it
521 Que # 521
A. Helps an organization attain formal certification of its quality management program
B. Provides objective evidence about quality system performance
C. Provides opportunities to identify needed personnel improvements
D. Provides objective evidence about nonconformance
E. Helps to meet regulatory requirements
PMgroup Planning
Que In quality planning, who should inform stakeholders of the quality policy?
522 Que # 522
A. Head of the organization
B. Project manager
C. Project team
D. Functional managers
E. Project contol officer
PMgroup Executing
Que The project manager should conduct reviews and audits to monitor and direct the
quality level of the work. Key reviews and audits that help support the
development of a quality project team are
523 Que # 523
A. Management reviews
B. Peer reviews
C. Competency center reviews
D. Fitness reviews and audits
E. All of the above
PMgroup Planning
Que The increasing emphasis on project quality management can be attributed to the

524 Que # 524

 A. Formation of quality circles by employees dissatisfied with their company's quality
practices
B. Importance and prestige of obtaining ISO 9000 certification
C. Power of top management as a stakeholder in the process
D. Power of customers as stakeholders in the process
E. Need to meet government requirements placed on organizations
PMgroup Executing
Que The continuous improvement process provides a way for an organization to
create and sustain a culture of continuous improvement. As such, it should be
directed by
525 Que # 525
A. The project manager
B. Top management
C. Employees participating in quality circles
D. Stakeholders
E. Customers
PMgroup Executing
Que The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the
following project participants plays the most important role in the quality
function?
526 Que # 526
A. Customer
B. Project manager
C. Senior management
D. Vendors and suppliers
E. Project team
PMgroup Executing
Que Quality assurance consists of the
527 Que # 527
A. Acivities in the quality system designed to provide confidence that the project will satisfy
relevant quality standards
B. Actions taken to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project to provide
added benefits to the project stakeholders
C. Methods to monitor project results to determine whether they comply with relevant
quality standards
D. Identification of the quality standards that are relevant to the project and determination
of ways to satisfy them
E. Processes needed to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was
undertaken
PMgroup Planning
Que A failure-mode effects and criticality analysis is used to
528 Que # 528
A. Analyze the product development cycle after product release to determine strengths
and weakenesses
B. Evaluate failure modes and causes associated with the design and manufacture of an
existing product
C. Detect and analyze failure-mode problems in manufacturing
D. Evaluate failure modes and causes associated with the design and manufacture of an
new product
E. Help management set priorities in its existing manufacturing processes to avoid failures
PMgroup Planning
Que Design of experiements is a technique used in quality planning to
529 Que # 529
A. Identify which variables have the most influence on overall outcomes
B. Provide a comparison between project quality management practices
C. Show how variious elements of a system relate
D. Identify where less rework will be required
E. All of the above
PMgroup Executing
Que The Kanban technique is an approach that supports the
530 Que # 530
A. Taguchi method
B. Just-in-time concept
C. Use of control charts
D. Development of Pareto diagrams
E. Development of Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams
PMgroup Executing
Que In attribute sampling the
531 Que # 531
A. Result does or does not conform
B. Reesult is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity
C. Emphasis is on normal process variation
D. Emphasis is on determining whether a result falls within specific control limits
E. Emphasis is on unusual or special causes
PMgroup Planning
Que The ISO 9000 standards provide
532 Que # 532
A. A description of how products should be produced
B. Specifics for the implementation of quality systems
C. A framework for quality systems
D. The maximum process requirements necessary to ensure customers a good product
E. A list of all the activities that must be performed during the production of a product
PMgroup Executing
Que Kaizen is an approach to continuous improvement that emphasizes
533 Que # 533
A. Customer satisfaction over cost
B. Major advances
C. Zero defects
D. Incremental inmprovement
E. Use of quality circles
PMgroup Planning
Que The quality management plan describes all the following except the
534 Que # 534
A. Organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, processes, and resources
needed to implement project quality management
B. Method for implementing the quality policy
C. Project quality system
D. Quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement plans for the project
E. Procedures used to conduct trade-off analyses among cost, schedule, and quality
PMgroup Planning
Que ISO 9000 registration is granted to
535 Que # 535
A. Specific products produced by an organization
B. Specific projects underway in an organization
 C. An organization as a whole
D. Services provided by an organization
E. Specific procedures in an organization
PMgroup Controlling
Que A Pareto diagram is used to
536 Que # 536
A. Show how many results were generated, by type or category of identified cause
B. Forecast future outcomes based on historical results
C. Show the trade-offs between benefits and costs
D. Show which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome
E. Show how various causes and subcauses combine to create potential problems or
effects
PMgroup Controlling
Que The "rule of seven" as applied to statistical process control charts means that
537 Que # 537
A. Seven rejects typically occur per thousand inspections
B. Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the same
C. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees
D. The quality control group should measure the process at least seven times to validate it
E. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the lower
and upper control limits
PMgroup Executing
Que Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirements
for some element or product of a project. Its greatest advantage is that it
538 Que # 538
A. Does not require an expenditure of resources
B. Is accurate enough with a sampling of less than 1%
C. Does not require 100% inspection of the elements to achieve a satisfactory inference of
the population
D. Needs to be conducted only when a problem is discovered with the end-product or
when the customer has some rejects.
E. Is a good tool to gain customer confidence during a period of high rejects
PMgroup Controlling
Que The statistical control chart is a tool used primarily to help
539 Que # 539
A. Monitor process variation over time
B. Measure the degree of conformity
C. Determine whether results conform
D. Analyze how problems occur
E. Determine whether results conform to requirements
PMgroup Planning
Que Modern quality management and modern project management are aligned with
regard to
540 Que # 540
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Prevention over inspection
C. Management responsibility
D. Processes within phases
E. All of the above
603 Que # 603
PMgroup Controlling
 Que A poured concrete footing has been tested to determine the compliance with
applicable requirements. This is an example of
A. Quality control
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality planning
D. Quality Audit
E.
605 Que # 605
PMgroup Executing
Que The number of defects has become unacceptable. What process should the
project manager use to identify the cause?
A. PERT analysis
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Pareto diagram
D. Flowcharting
E.

ANSWERS

100 C
101 D
102 D
103 E
104 B
105 E
106 E
107 C
108 A
109 D
110 B
111 B
112 D
113 E
114 B
115 E
116 C
117 B
118 A
119 C
120 C
121 C
122 B
123 D
124 E
125 A
126 A
127 A
128 D
129 B
130 A
131 B
132 A
133 B
134 A
135 B
136 B
137 C
138 E
139 C
140 C
141 D
142 E
143 C
144 A
145 E
146 A
147 A
148 A
149 E
150 A
151 E
152 D
153 E
154 D
155 E
156 B
157 D
158 C
159 E
160 C
161 D
162 D
163 A
164 B
165 D
166 B
167 D
168 B
169 E
170 E
171 C
172 E
173 B
174 C
175 D
176 D
177 A
178 A
179 E
180 B
181 D
182 E
183 D
184 D
185 D
186 D
187 A
188 C
189 C
190 B
191 C
192 E
193 C
194 D
195 E
196 C
197 D
198 D
199 B
200 D
201 E
202 C
203 E
204 B
378 E
379 C
380 A
381 E
382 B
383 C
384 A
385 D
386 C
387 A
388 B
389 E
390 A
391 D
392 A
393 C
501 A
502 B
503 C
504 A
505 D
506 D
507 C
508 E
509 E
510 D
511 E
512 B
513 B
514 A
515 E
516 C
517 B
518 C
519 D
520 E
521 D
522 C
523 E
524 D
525 B
526 A
527 A
528 D
529 A
530 B
531 A
532 C
533 D
534 E
535 C
536 A
537 B
538 C
539 A
540 E
603 A
605 D
 PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT

PMgroup Planning
100 Que # 100
Que The relationship between the budgeted actual cost, actual work completed
and work planned will determine the
A. Schedule estimate at completion
B. Cost estimate at completion
C. Cost Performance Index
D. Schedule Performance Index
E. both a and b

PMgroup Planning
101 Que # 101
Que All work packages are complete
A. at EAC time
B. when BAC is equal to EAC
C. when BCWP intersects BCWS
D. when schedule variance is zero
E. c and d

PMgroup Planning
102 Que # 102
Que Earned value is
A. the base line plan
B. completed work value
C. cost/cost variance
D. percent over or under budget
E. a and b

PMgroup Planning
103 Que # 103
Que You could tell Diane was worried about her project. Her folks had been
working on the project since Independence Day. Here it was already
Halloween and they were just finishing up work that was supposed to have
been completed by Labor Day. "Oh dear", she confided to her friend,
"Instead of completing by Christmas, at this rate I expect we won't be done
until

A. New Year's Day

B. St. Patrick's Day
C. Easter
D. Mother's Day
E. the 4th of July

PMgroup Planning
104 Que # 104
Que Diane was so concerned about her project that she woke up dreaming
about it. She thought to herself, "Well, our BCWP is 2, our ACWP is 4 and
our BCWS is 6, so that means
A. our productivity was less than planned
B. our cost estimate at completion is 6
C. our CPI and SPI are both positive
D. our cost variance is negative
 E. a, c and d

PMgroup Planning
105 Que # 105
Que The measurement which best shows the difference between actual work
and actual costs is
A. Cost variance
B. Percent over or under
C. Schedule variance
D. CPI
E. this is not a valid measurement

PMgroup Planning
106 Que # 106
Que Rework costs ____ times budgeted costs.
A. +75, -25
B. +25, -10
C. 85
D. 10 to 15
E. 25 to 50

PMgroup Planning
107 Que # 107
Que If part of a project's costs will be paid in future years, the best way to
determine the value of those costs in today's dollars is
A. estimated project payout
B. return on investment
C. net present value
D. discounted cash flow
E. internal rate of return

PMgroup Planning
108 Que # 108
Que If the ACWP exceeds the BCWP, the cost estimate at completion will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. depend on the BCWS
D. exceed the schedule estimate at completion
E. a and d

PMgroup Planning
109 Que # 109
Que If the BCWS = $1,000,000, the BAC = $2,000,000, the ACWP = $1,500,000,
the BCWP = $500,000 and you're halfway through the project after two
years, what is the cost estimate at completion?
A. $2,000,000
B. $4,000,000
C. $6,000,000
D. $8,000,000
E. Cannot be determined without the EAC

PMgroup Controlling
110 Que # 110
 Que Cost management requires a critical look at future expenditures and the
controls exercised over those expenditures. The three types of cost
estimates through which project expenditures are made are ________.
A. rough order of magnitude, guestimate, and actual
B. traditional, classical, and contemporary
C. order of magnitude, budget, and definitive
D. concept, budget, and design
E. engineering, quoted, and definitive

PMgroup Planning
111 Que # 111
Que The cost estimate with the most precise estimate (i.e., the smallest range
of error) is the ________ estimate.
A. engineering
B. budget
C. concept
D. definitive
E. contingency

PMgroup Planning
112 Que # 112
Que The cost estimate that has a range for error of minus 10 percent to plus 25
percent is the ________ estimate.
A. budget
B. definitive
C. parametric
D. analogy
E. contingency

PMgroup Controlling
113 Que # 113
Que There are usually two types of reserves in a project's budget. The
________ reserve is for cost variances from the plan because of inaccurate
estimates or pricing and costs overruns, while the ________ is to
accommodate costs for project work that were not included in the plan
through error or oversight.

A. project; budget overrun allowance

B. engineering; management allowance
C. management; contingency allowance
D. management; mismanagement allowance
E. planned; unplanned work allowance

PMgroup Planning
114 Que # 114
Que Feasibility studies are evaluations of both the technical and economic
aspects of a potential project. In the economic area, one would look at such
items as interest rates, present worth factors, capitalization costs, and
________.
A. human resource skills
B. depreciation costs
C. prospective projects managers
D. implementation of cost controls
E. availability of cost accounting methods
 PMgroup Planning
115 Que # 115
Que Project financing can be extremely complex and can come from a variety
of sources. However, ________ is not a potential source of financing for a
project.
A. borrowing money from a bank
B. selling stocks in the project or corporation
C. selling bonds on the project
D. selling lottery tickets on the project
E. leasing or renting existing property to another

PMgroup Planning
116 Que # 116
Que Life cycle costing is a concept whereby all costs for a system are
computed to determine the total cost of ownership. Life cycle cost
categories include ________.
A. purchase, repair, and operation
B. development, procurement, and operation/maintenance
C. procurement, lease, and disposal
D. procurement, operation, and disposal
E. operation, maintenance, and storage

PMgroup Planning
117 Que # 117
Que The integration of cost and schedule to provide measures of the project's
performance is the earned value system, or contract performance
measurement. The baseline for the earned value system is depicted as a
slight "S" curve because ________.
A. there are fewer costs at project initiation until the work force is fully staffed
B. there are workers who have not been paid, so the expense is not shown on the
chart
C. there are more expenses to get a project started than are required on a normal
operating basis
D. this is just a traditional method of plotting the costs and has no relationship to the
actual expenditures
E. this approximation has proven to be nearly correct when all costs and
expenditures have been accounted for at project completion

PMgroup Planning
118 Que # 118
Que The pricing of a project can be extremely complex in the development of
valid cost estimates and price quotes from vendors. The tool that facilitates
the pricing of a project by a structured decomposition of the total into
individual elements of labor, material, and equipment is the ________.

A. project management plan

B. budget
C. responsibility matrix
D. configuration management plan
E. work breakdown structure

PMgroup Planning
119 Que # 119
Que In estimating the cost of work, the best source of cost information can be
obtained from the ________.
A. customer
B. historical records
C. senior engineers
D. top management
E. independent consultants

PMgroup Controlling
120 Que # 120
Que Setting up a cost control system requires matching the work packages to
the cost accounting system. The direct mapping of the work packages to
the accounting is accomplished by establishing a ________.
A. work package cost/price
B. work breakdown structure element
C. cost correlation matrix
D. computer coded bar chart
E. code of accounts

PMgroup Controlling
121 Que # 121
Que Cost overruns on a project have major impacts on the profitability of
operations, but ________ do(es) not necessarily contribute to cost overruns
of a project budget.
A. a change in contract scope
B. delays in schedule
C. lack of work force experience
D. integration uncertainty for project elements
E. contractor claims for out-of-scope work

PMgroup Controlling
122 Que # 122
Que Suppose the contingency allowance established to cover unforeseen
activities of a project has been set at eight percent of the total project cost.
The total dollars in the contingency allowance should be ________ as the
project nears completion.
A. retained at the remaining dollar level
B. increased to meet unidentified surprises
C. decreased to reduce the accounting work
D. spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budget
E. reduced to a percentage of the remaining work

PMgroup Controlling
123 Que # 123
Que Suppose a contract has been in force for six months and the work is
progressing, and then the buyer requests some changes in the design. The
changes do not affect completed work but add some new items and subtract
some existing items. The cost to the buyer to accomplish these changes is
________.

A. increased by the amount of added work

B. unchanged because the contract is in place
C. decreased because the work has not been started
 D. unchanged because the buyer (customer) is always right
E. unknown because the cost of the changed work is not specified

PMgroup Planning
124 Que # 124
Que In the earned values system, the focus is on "cost of work," which is
divided into "scheduled" and "performed" work. This is further defined as
"budgeted" and "actual" work. The formula "BCWP - BCWS" provides the
________.
A. cost difference
B. schedule variance
C. overrun conditions
D. schedule difference
E. cost variance

PMgroup Planning
125 Que # 125
Que Indices can provide an indication of the status of a project. In the earned
values system, there are two indices
Cost Performance Index (CPI) and Schedule Performance Index (SPI). The
formula for CPI is ________.
A. ACWP/BCWS
B. ACWP/BCWP
C. BCWP/ACWP
D. BCWS/ACWP
E. BCWS/BCWP

PMgroup Planning
126 Que # 126
Que Suppose that in the earned value system, the status of the project is
reported as BCWS = 100, ACWP = 110, BCWP = 95. The project is now
________.
A. underspent and behind schedule
B. overspent and ahead of schedule
C. underspent and ahead of schedule
D. overspent and behind schedule
E. cannot be determined from available data

PMgroup Controlling
127 Que # 127
Que Projects have direct and indirect costs that the project manager must track
to ensure the budget is not exceeded. The project manager has the most
control over direct costs such as ________.
A. bonuses, fees, and awards
B. labor, materials, and equipment
C. labor, supervision, and fees
D. overhead, G&A, and fees
E. G&A, facilities, and transportation

PMgroup Planning
129 Que # 129
 Que A project is being advertised to solicit bidders. The buyer has asked for
two types of price first, if payment is made in total upon completion of the
project; second, if payment is made 50 percent at the midpoint of
completion and 50 percent upon total completion. This is a two-year project
that is being priced at $10,000,000 when the cost of money is not included.
Assume money is borrowed in two equal increments-at the start of year 1
and year 2. If the interest rate over the two years is eight percent, the total
bid under each option (i.e., payment at the end; payment at midpoint) is
________.

A. $11,844,000; $11,412,000
B. $10,400,000; $10,040,000
C. $10,800,000; $10,400,000
D. $11,232,000; $10,832,000
E. $12,484,000; $11,244,000

PMgroup Planning
130 Que # 130
Que The cost of money and cash flow can adversely affect the financial status
of the project. One method of encouraging early payment of invoices is to
offer a discount for payment within a few days. If an invoice for $10,000 was
paid within (x) days (see each possible answer for value of x), the method
"two 10, net 30" would provide a savings of ________.

A. $100 (x = 30)
B. $200 (x = 30)
C. $300 (x = 10)
D. $200 (x = 10)
E. cannot be determined from available data

PMgroup Controlling
131 Que # 131
Que Project financial audits are used to determine the current status of the
financial health of a project, but ________ is/are not an area for financial
audit.
A. a project budget system
B. a project computer system
C. a project change control
D. a project status reporting
E. cash-flow projections

PMgroup Controlling
132 Que # 132
Que A project audit is often a three-step process using different skills to assess
the condition of the health of the project. The first audit, or first audit
opportunity, is at the ________ phase.
A. start of the planning
B. start of the implementation
C. end of the planning
D. end of the implementation
E. middle of the implementation

PMgroup Planning
133 Que # 133
 Que The budget for a project is the baseline from which future expenditures are
measured. Of the following, ________ do(es) not cause change to the
budget baseline during project implementation.
A. change orders to the contract
B. expenditures to buy materials
C. revised cost estimates made in-house
D. changes to subcontractor's scope of work
E. correction to the work breakdown structure to eliminate some tasks

PMgroup Planning
134 Que # 134
Que In the earned value system for determining project status, there are several
methods of accepting credit for the completion of work. In the most
common method, full credit is allowed after the work package is complete. A
second method is to allow full credit when 50 percent of the work package
is complete to permit the performing contractor (seller) to receive credit for
work-in-process. From the seller's point of view, ________.

A. either method is acceptable under an incremental payment schedule contract

B. the credit at 100 percent completion is better for either a lump-sum or
incremental payment contract because the accounting is more accurate
C. the credit at 100 percent completion is better because the accounting lags the
work-in-process by 30 days in any type of payment schedule
D. the credit at 50 percent completion is better because it improves the cash flow
under an incremental payment schedule
E. the credit at 50 percent completion is better because it reduces the billing cycle

PMgroup Planning
135 Que # 135
Que Because of the investment or risk associated with a project, the decision
may be to ensure a high profitability. When this is the case, senior
management should agree on profit ________ of the project.
A. capability at the beginning
B. margin (rate) at the midpoint
C. margin (rate) at the end
D. goals at the beginning
E. goals at the end

PMgroup Planning
136 Que # 136
Que Estimating costs for a project is difficult because of the lack of historical
cost records, the uncertainty regarding the future state of the economy, and
the lack of understanding as to the full scope of work. Successive
estimating is one method of accounting for the uncertainty of cost
estimating by ________.

A. making three estimates and taking the average

B. continually making estimates as the project progresses
C. also including the range of potential error for an estimated item
D. using two or more cost estimating techniques to arrive at an average cost
E. delaying estimates until all information is acquired

PMgroup Planning
137 Que # 137
 Que The degree of uncertainty (lack of information) in a project affects the
ability of cost estimators to make precise estimates to determine the total
cost. One method to resolve the uncertainty is influence diagramming,
which is used to evaluate ________.
A. price, net worth, and net present value
B. alternative outcomes, risk factors, and given quantities
C. risk factors, price, and alternatives
D. price, quantities, and time of purchase
E. risk factors, contract type, and project duration

PMgroup Planning
138 Que # 138
Que The most accurate estimates (and the most expensive to produce) are
_______.
A. analogous estimates
B. parametric estimates
C. top-down estimates
D. bottom-up estimates
E. function point estimates

PMgroup Planning
139 Que # 139
Que The ________ identifies the project elements that costs will be allocated to.

A. work breakdown structure

B. PERT estimates
C. earned value
D. order of magnitude estimate
E. BCWR

PMgroup Controlling
140 Que # 140
Que The EAC is a forecasting technique based on past project performance. It
can be calculated using the formula ________.
A. cumulative actuals + (ETC X CPI)
B. cumulative actuals + new estimate for cost of work remaining
C. cumulative actuals + remaining budget
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

PMgroup Controlling
141 Que # 141
Que The best way to manage the costs of change requests is to ________.
A. accept them orally
B. allow them to happen in ad hoc fashion
C. impose change unilaterally
D. document and authorize all changes
E. use the earned value system

PMgroup Planning
142 Que # 142
 Que Materials management is crucial to the success of the project when
resources are needed at a specified time and place to ensure continued
progress. An assessment of the materials costs should consider not only
the cost of purchase but also ________.
A. transportation, deterioration, and storage
B. storage, damage, and deterioration
C. transportation, storage, and shortage
D. transportation, storage, and loss
E. quantities, storage, and damage

PMgroup Planning
143 Que # 143
Que Project financing is critical to large projects where neither the owner
(buyer) or contractor (seller) has sufficient funds available to cover the
costs incurred during project implementation. In such cases, a third party
must provide the necessary capital. The third party evaluates the feasibility
of financing the project based on ________.

A. the participants' business reasons for the project

B. the share of ownership to be retained
C. the level of risk the participants are to share
D. the project's anticipated cash flow and tax benefits, if any
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
144 Que # 144
Que The financing plan for a project should detail the methods of obtaining and
dispensing the capital over the full duration of the project. In preparing the
plan and considering risk and reward, management should ensure that
participants' credit standing is preserved, maximum leverage is used, tax
benefits are optimized, flexibility is incorporated into ownership, and
________.

A. additional tax relief is pursued

B. lines of credit are opened
C. accesses to sources of new capital are maintained
D. maximum financing is used
E. late receipt of funds is avoided

PMgroup Planning
145 Que # 145
Que Investors are often used to obtain the necessary financing for major
projects, which can transfer the ownership to the investors. The system is
then leased back for operation and use. The major advantage for the
investors is ________ , and the major advantage for the user of the system
is ________.

A. control of a business; low risk for operation and maintenance

B. high internal rate of return; favorable tax write-off
C. favorable tax write-off; new source of funds
D. ownership without risk of operation; favorable tax write-off
E. reduced quality (performance) risk; reduced cost risk

PMgroup Planning
146 Que # 146
 Que Lending institutions are eager to finance projects that have an excellent
potential for being successful and repaying the loans. Timely repayment of
the debt depends largely on ________.
A. the willingness of the owners to make payments
B. future cash flows to be generated by the entity
C. the debt-to-liquidity ratio
D. the entity's internal rate of return on operations
E. future ownership and operating cycles

PMgroup Planning
147 Que # 147
Que The success of a project is usually considered its ability to meet the
objectives established prior to the start of the project. In a more global view,
to become a functioning entity the project must have working capital, which
consists of ________.
A. cash, inventories, sales, and receivables
B. cash, sales, receipts, and receivables
C. receipts, savings, receivables, and inventories
D. cash, receivables, inventories, and payables
E. sales, receipts, inventories, and stock

PMgroup Controlling
148 Que # 148
Que Under any type of contract, the owner (buyer) is always concerned with the
cost of a project and the contractor's (seller's) expenditure rates. Although
the fixed price contract transfers much of the risk to the contractor, the
owner has a lot at risk in terms of meeting his/her objectives. One of the
best methods of controlling contractor expenditure rates under any type of
contract is to ________.

A. hold back a portion of the payment until all work is completed to the satisfaction
of the technical inspectors
B. ensure that only fixed price contracts are awarded and that payment is only upon
satisfactory completion of the project
C. have an "owner's representative" monitor and track all expenditures and have
power to disapprove any expenditure that is not justified to him/her
D. track and pay the costs of the contract by phases or stages and evaluate the
costs at each review/decision point
E. set up a duplicate project accounting system, track all costs, and validate the
costs as being the best value for the owner

PMgroup Planning
149 Que # 149
Que The budget for a major project lasting several years is usually prepared to
reflect expenditures on an annual basis. The budget is, therefore, compared
to expenditures at the end of each accounting cycle (i.e., each year). This
poses a potential problem because _________ .
A. the budget will always be greater than the rate of expenditure when delays are
encountered in paying the billings
B. the expenditure rate will be viewed optimistically (underspent) and the project
manager will attempt to increase expenditures
C. the budget is not representative of the expenditure rate when there is an
increase to the scope of work
 D. the budget changes too frequently to permit a valid comparison of the plan
versus the actual expenditures
E. schedule delays or restructuring of the workload will affect costs during the
accounting periods and give false indications of expenditure rates

PMgroup Planning
356 Que # 356
Que Project Cost Management includes all of the following functions EXCEPT
A. Resource planning
B. Resource leveling
C. Cost estimating
D. Cost budgeting
E. Cost control

PMgroup Planning
357 Que # 357
Que Which of the following choices indicates that your project was 10% under
budget?
A. BCWS = 100, BCWP = 110
B. ACWP = 100, BCWP = 110
C. BCWS = 100, ACWP = 110
D. ACWP = 110, BCWP = 100
E. BCWP = 100, BCWS = 110

PMgroup Planning
358 Que # 358
Que Earned value can best be defined as
A. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the data date
B. The sum of the labor costs, which have been incurred on the project ot date
C. A method of measuring project performance
D. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date
E. The Actual Cost of Work Performed minus the Budgeted Cost of Work
Performed

PMgroup Planning
359 Que # 359
Que The output from resource planning includes
A. Job descriptions
B. Salary schedules
C. The types of resources required
D. Analogous estimating
E. Historical informaiton

PMgroup Planning
360 Que # 360
Que Cost estimates may be expressed in I. Units of currency
II. Staff hours III. Staff days
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III
 PMgroup Controlling
361 Que # 361
Que All of the following are functions of cost control EXCEPT
A. Informing the appropriate project stakeholders of authorized changes in the cost
baseline
B. Monitoring cost performance to detect variances from the cost baseline
C. Ensuring that all appropriate changes are recorded accurately in the cost
baseline
D. Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages in order to
establisha cost baseline
E. Preventing incorrect, inappropriate, or unauthorized changes from being
included in the cost baseline

PMgroup Planning
362 Que # 362
Que During the sixth monthly update on a ten month $30K project, the analysis
shows that the BCWS is $20K, and the ACWP is $10K. The BCWP is also
determined to be $15K. What can be ascertained from these figures?
I. Less has been accomplished that was planned II. Less has
been spent than planned III. To complete the project on schedule,
costs will exceed budget IV. The project will probably complete
behind schedule, but under budget

A. II only
B. Ii and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

PMgroup Planning
363 Que # 363
Que Cost estimates include all of the following resource categories EXCEPT
A. Labor
B. Materials
C. Supplies
D. Inflation allowances
E. Time allocations

PMgroup Planning
364 Que # 364
Que Parametric cost estimating involves
A. Using the WBS as the basis for estimating
B. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle
C. Caldculating individual cost estimates for each work package
D. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs
E. Using the actual cost of a similar project to extimate total proejct costs

PMgroup Planning
365 Que # 365
Que All of the following choices represent inputs to the resource planning
process EXCEPT
A. The policies of the particular organization (e.g. use of contracting or
internalstaffing, or lease or purchase major equipment)
B. The WBS
 C. Descriptions of the available resources
D. The actual final cost of the last project
E. The scope statement

PMgroup Controlling
366 Que # 366
Que Cost control is concerned with I. Influencing the factors that
create change to the cost base line II. Determining that the cost
baseline has changed III. Managing cost changes when they occur

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III only

PMgroup Planning
367 Que # 367
Que Historical results used in cost estimating may include I. Project
team knowledge II. Project files III. Commerial cost
estimating databases IV. Actual time to complete similar projects

A. I, II, and III only

B. I, II, and IV only
C. I, III, and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

PMgroup Planning
368 Que # 368
Que In the earned value system, cost variance is computed as
A. BCWP - BCWS
B. BCWP - ACWP
C. ACWP - BCWP
D. ACWP - BCWS
E. BCWS - BCWP

PMgroup Planning
369 Que # 369
Que Earned value includes I. Percent complete II. Actual cost
of work performed III. Comleted work value IV. Budgeted
cost of work performed
A. III only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

PMgroup Planning
370 Que # 370
Que Analogous estimating
A. Uses bottom-estimating techniques
B. Uses the actual costs from a previous, similar project
 C. Is used most frequently in the later stages of a project
D. Uses project characteristics in a mathematical model
E. Summarizes estimates for individual work items

PMgroup Planning
371 Que # 371
Que Inputs to resource planning include all of the following EXCEPT
A. The WBS
B. The Scope statement
C. A resource pool description
D. Organization policies
E. Resource requirements

PMgroup Controlling
372 Que # 372
Que Of the following four major processes contained in Project Cost
Mangement, which are concerned with the Cost Baseline?
A. Resource Planning and Cost Estimating
B. Cost Estimating and Cost Budgeting
C. Cost Budgeting and Cost Control
D. Resource Planning and Cost Control
E. Resource Planning, Cost Estimating, and Cost Control

PMgroup Controlling
373 Que # 373
Que In order to determine the project's Estimate at Completion, which of the
following information is needed?
A. BCWP and ACWP
B. BCWP and CV
C. CPI and CV
D. ACWP and CPI
E. ACWP and ETC

PMgroup Planning
374 Que # 374
Que If BCWS = 100, BCWP = 98, adn ACWP = 104, the project is
A. Ahead of schedule
B. Headed for a cost overrun
C. Operating at project cost projections
D. Likely to come in under budget at completion
E. Behind schedule

PMgroup Controlling
375 Que # 375
Que Which is an acceptable cause for "re-baselining" a $10M project
A. The monthly Consumer Price Index on some commodities essential to the
project has gone up by 1.6%, an increase of 46% over the 1.1% that had been
budgeted
B. The client has authorized a $10K addition to the scope of the project
C. The contractor's company has instituted a Quality Program in which it has
pledged to spend $1M during the next year
D. The productivity in the Dratfting Department is lower than anticipated which has
resulted in 1,000 additional hours, a 78% increase over what was budgeted
 E. The engineering dpartment has converted to a new $200K CAD system

PMgroup Planning
376 Que # 376
Que Which item is most over budget?
Item BCWS ACWP BCWP
1 10,000 11,000 10,000
2 9,000 8,000 7,000
3 8,000 8,000 8,000
4 7,000 7,000 5,000
5 6,000 9,000 6,000

A. Item 1
B. Item 2
C. Item 3
D. Item 4
E. Item 5

PMgroup Planning
377 Que # 377
Que Which item has the lowest SPI?Item BCWS
ACWP BCWP 1 10,000 11,000
10,000 2 9,000 8,000
7,000 3 8,000 8,000 8,000 4
7,000 7,000 5,000 5
6,000 9,000 6,000

A. Item 1
B. Item 2
C. Item 3
D. Item 4
E. Item 5

PMgroup Planning
501 Que # 501
Que According to earned value analysis, the SV of the project described below
is
A. +$300 and the project is behind schedule
B. -$300 and the project is ahead of schedule
C. +$8K and the project is on schedule
D. +$200 and the project is ahead of schedule
E. -$200 and the project is behind schedule

PMgroup Planning
502 Que # 502
Que What is the CPI for this project, and what does it tell us about cost
performance thus far?BCWS = $2.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2.5KBAC = $10K

A. 0.20; actual costs are exactly as planned

B. 0.80; actual costs have exceeded planned costs
C. 0.80; actual costs are less than planned costs
D. 1.25; actual costs have exceeded planned costs
E. 1.25; actual costs are less than planned costs
 PMgroup Planning
503 Que # 503
Que The CV is BCWS = $2.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2.5KBAC = $10K
A. $300
B. ($300)
C. $500
D. ($500)
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
504 Que # 504
Que What is the EAC for this project, and what does it represent?BCWS =
$2.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2.5KBAC = $10K
A. $10K; the original project budget
B. $10K; the revised estimate for total project cost (based on performance thus far)

C. $12,500; the original project budget

D. $12,500; the revised estimate for total project cost (based on performance thus
far)
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
505 Que # 505
Que Life-cyle cost estimates consider the
A. Costs of the project for the concept, planning, implementation, and closeout
phases
B. Expected profits, measured by subtracting total costs from estimated gross
revenues
C. Cost of ownership, including the costs of operations and disposal
D. Project cost at the time of customer acceptance
E. Acquisition costs only

PMgroup Planning
506 Que # 506
Que Accelerated depreciation allows a company to write capital expenses off
its taxes more quickly. Which of the following is a recognized method of
accelerated depreciation?
A. Straight-line
B. Double-declining balance
C. Rapid capital deduction
D. A and B
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
507 Que # 507
Que Experts contend that sunk costs should not be considered in making
financial decisions about the future of a project. Sunk costs are
A. The initial outlay to get a project started
B. Costs that have been expended already
C. The average cost per unit
D. The marginal cost
E. Total indirect and direct costs
 PMgroup Planning
508 Que # 508
Que All the following statements about analogous estimating are true except
that it
A. Supports top-down estimating
B. Is a form of expert judgement
C. Is used to estimate total project costs when a limited amount of detailed
projectinformation is available
D. Involves using the cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for
estimatingthe cost of teh current project
E. Has an accuracy rate of +/- 10% of actual costs

PMgroup Planning
509 Que # 509
Que Which of the following estimates would most closely predict the actual
cost of a project?
A. Order-of-magnitude
B. Budget
C. Definitive
D. Initial
E. Detailes

PMgroup Controlling
510 Que # 510
Que If a project is running behind schedule and the project manager decides to
crash the network to catch up, which of the following rules should he/she
follow?
A. Use early start times for noncritical tasks
B. use resource leveling to optimize the productivity of project resources
C. Crash the tasks that have the longest duration
D. Crash critical tasks for which cost of crashing is lowest
E. Use late start times for noncritical tasks

PMgroup Planning
511 Que # 511
Que According to learning curve theory, when many items are produced
repetitively
A. Production equipment that requires less operator training lowers unit costs
B. Unit costs decrease as production rates increase
C. Unit costs decrease in a regular pattern as more units are produced
D. Costs of training increase as the level of automation increases
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
512 Que # 512
Que Which of the following is NOT an example of a direct cost?
A. Salary of the project manager
B. Subcontractor expenses
C. Materials used by the project
D. Electricity
E. B and D

PMgroup Planning
513 Que # 513
Que As the fourth month on the Acme project, cumulative planned expenditures
were $100K. Actual expenditures totaled $120K. How is the Acme project
doing?
A. The project is ahead of schedule
B. The project is in trouble because of a cost overrun
C. Project costs are within a normal range
D. The project will finish within the original budget
E. Sufficient information is not available

PMgroup Planning
514 Que # 514
Que In bottom-up cost estimating, accuracy is enhanced
A. With smaller work items
B. By using accurate historical information
C. If previous projects are similar in fact, not just in appearance
D. If the individuals or groups preparing the estimates are fully qualified
E. Through the use of computerized toos

PMgroup Planning
515 Que # 515
Que Working capital consists of
A. Current assets minus current liabilities
B. Funds reserved for bid and proposal costs
C. Funds set aside for unforeseen problems
D. Current liabilities plus current assets
E. Current liabilities minus current assets

PMgroup Planning
516 Que # 516
Que According to the law of dimishing returns
A. Using more resources will result in proportionately more output
B. Using fewer resources will result in greater profit
C. Using more resources will result in proportionately less output
D. Using more resources will result in the projrect's taking less time
E. Smaller production runs will increase unit costs, thereby reducing profit

PMgroup Controlling
517 Que # 517
Que Which of the following is a tool for analyzing a design, determining its
functions, and assessing how to provide those functions cost-effectively?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Kanban
C. Configuration management
D. Value analysis
E. Management by objectives

PMgroup Planning
518 Que # 518
Que The cost management plan
A. Describes how CVs will be managed
B. Establishes the cost baseline
C. Measures and monitors cost performance on the project
 D. A and C
E. A, B, and C

PMgroup Planning
519 Que # 519
Que Cost accounts
A. Are charge accounts for personnel time management
B. Summarize project costs at level 2 of the WBS
C. Identify and track management reserves
D. Represent the basic level at which project performance is measured and
reported
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
520 Que # 520
Que The internal rate of return is a measure of a project's expected profitability
that can be thought of as the
A. After-tax profit reported to the government
B. Average rate of return for the project
C. EAC minus BAC
D. CV percentage
E. Ratio of discounted revenues over discounted costs

PMgroup Controlling
521 Que # 521
Que A resource-limited project is one in which
A. The project must be finished as soon as possible but without exceeding a
specific level of resource usage
B. Functional managers do not allocate the required number of resources at the
time required by the project manager
C. Th eproject must be finished by a certain time using a few resources as possible

D. The project manager is rewarded if only a few of the allocated resources are
used
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
522 Que # 522
Que Considering the project schedule during the cost budgeting process
A. Identifies the project elements so that costs can be allocated
B. Allows costs to be assigned to the time period when they will be incurred
C. Provides another way to help measure and monitor cost performance
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

PMgroup Planning
523 Que # 523
Que Resource leveling is an important tool for the project manager because
A. Less management attention is required if the use of a given resource is nearly
constant over time
B. A just-in-time inventory policy may be used without worrying that the quantity
delivered will be incorect
C. Morale on the project may be increased
 D. Stable labor levels will result in fewer problems with regard to administration of
personnel and payroll
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
524 Que # 524
Que The purpose of resource planning is to
A. Determine the physical resources needed to perform project activities
B. Approximate the costs of resources needed to complete project activities
C. Provide quantitative assessments of the costs of resources required to complete
project activities
D. Determine the resources that are potentially available
E. Assess the organizational policies concerning resources for use on the project

PMgroup Planning
525 Que # 525
Que The cost of investing in a particular project and, therefore, forgoing the
potential benefits of other projects is known as
A. Variable cost
B. Total cost
C. Fixed cost
D. Indirect cost
E. Opportunity cost

PMgroup Planning
526 Que # 526
Que Which of the following techniques for cost estimating is considered the
least accurate?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Parametric modeling
C. Analogous estimating
D. Computerized tools
E. Range estimating

PMgroup Planning
527 Que # 527
Que Net present value is the
A. After-tax value of working capital
B. Value today of future cash flow
C. Total budget as of today
D. Total budget as of today plus management reserve
E. Future value of present cash flow

PMgroup Planning
528 Que # 528
Que Supporting detail for cost estimates should include
A. A description of the scope of work
B. Documentation of the basis of teh estimate
C. Documentation of any assumptions made
D. An indication of teh range of results
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
529 Que # 529
Que Financial analysis of payback period identifies the
A. Ratio of discounted revenues over discounted costs
B. Future value of money invested today
C. Project that is expected to become profitable most quickly
D. Point in time where costs exceed profit
E. Margin that has been earned

PMgroup Planning
530 Que # 530
Que The purpose of cost budgeting is to
A. Determine the cost of the resources needed to complete project activities and
allocate them to the proper chart of accounts for the organization
B. Provide a quantitative assessment of the likely costs of the resources required to
completeproject activities
C. Monitor cost performance to detect variances from the plan
D. Allocate cost estimates to individual work items to establish a cost baseline
againstwhich project performance can be measured
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
531 Que # 531
Que Resource loading describes
A. A method to minimize the period-by-period variations in resources by shifting
tasks withintheir slace allowances
B. The number of people assigned to each task
C. The amount of materials needed for each task
D. The amount of individual resources that an existing schedule requires during
specific time periods
E. The need to finish a project as soon as possible without exceeding a specified
level of resource usate

PMgroup Controlling
532 Que # 532
Que Anticipating the actios and resources required to satisfy customers is an
investment in the future. Therefore, the project manager should consider
the cost of quality in determining the project's budget. The cost of quality
includes the
A. Cost of conformance (doing it right the first time)
B. Cost of nonconformance
C. Cost of materials
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

PMgroup Planning
533 Que # 533
Que To determine EAC, the project manager can
A. Take actuals to date plus the remaining project budget modified by a
performance factor
B. Take actuals to date plus a new estimate for all remaining work
C. Take actuals to date plus the remaining budget
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
 PMgroup Planning
534 Que # 534
Que The undistributed budget is part of the
A. Management reserve
B. Performance measurement baseline
C. Level-of-effort cost accounts
D. Indirect pool of accounts
E. General and administrative accounts

PMgroup Planning
535 Que # 535
Que Contingencies should be justified
A. Explicitly, in advance of committing to the budget
B. Implicitly, to allow for a management reserve
C. As needed during the project
D. `At the time the budget is prepared
E. At the time the price is determined

PMgroup Controlling
536 Que # 536
Que The process of cost control includes all the following actions except
A. Monitoring cost performance to detect variancesa from the plan and determining
the reasonsfor both positive and negative variances
B. Ensuring that all appropriate changes are recorded accurately in the cost
baseline
C. Selecting projects using IRR, present value, or other techniques to ensure
profitability
D. Informing appropriate stakeholders of authorized changes
E. Preventing incorect, inappropriate, or unauthorized changes from being
includedin the cost baseline

PMgroup Planning
537 Que # 537
Que A rolling-wave budget provides
A. Maximum assurance that management's oals are reasonable and attainable
because supporting details are included
B. A full-period projection that uses a top-down, unsupported budget along with a
fully supported, bottom-up budget for the njearest 6-month segment of the project
C. A qualitative basis for measuring and rewarding individual and departmental
performance
D. A basis for monitoring results according to the plan
E. A way to examine individual components of a budget so that management
knows the project'sstatus at all times

PMgroup Planning
538 Que # 538
Que The method of calculating the EAC by adding the remaining project budget
(modified by a performance factor) to the actuals to date is used most often
when the
A. Current variances are viewed as typical of future variances
B. Project management team believes that similar variances will not occur in the
future
 C. Original estimating assumptions are no longer reliable because conditions have
changed
D. Current variances are viewed as atypical ones
E. Original estimating assumptions are considered to be fundamentally flawed

PMgroup Planning
539 Que # 539
Que The cumulative cost curve for planned and actual expenditures
A. Shows the cumulative expenditures for the project
B. Is also knows as a S-curve
C. Helps to monitor project performance at a glance
D. Shows the difference beeetween planned and actual expenditures
E. All of the above

PMgroup Controlling
540 Que # 540
Que Rebaselining may be an output of cost control when
A. CVs are severe, and a relaistic measure of performance is needed
B. Revised cost estimates are prepared and distributed to stakeholders
C. Corrective action must be taken to bring expected future performance in linewith
the project plan
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C

ANSWERS
502 B.
100 A.
105 A.
108 A.
112 A.
121 A.
139 A.
367 A.
514 A.
515 A.
518 A.
521 A.
524 A.
535 A.
538 A.
540 A.
101 B.
102 B.
114 B.
116 B.
119 B.
124 B.
127 B.
131 B.
133 B.
137 B.
146 B.
356 B.
357 B.
368 B.
370 B.
374 B.
375 B.
506 B.
507 B.
520 B.
522 B.
527 B.
534 B.
537 B.
109 C.
110 C.
113 C.
117 C.
125 C.
132 C.
136 C.
142 C.
144 C.
145 C.
358 C.
359 C.
372 C.
505 C.
509 C.
511 C.
516 C.
526 C.
529 C.
536 C.
107 D.
111 D.
115 D.
126 D.
129 D.
130 D.
134 D.
135 D.
138 D.
140 D.
141 D.
147 D.
148 D.
361 D.
362 D.
364 D.
365 D.
369 D.
377 D.
503 D.
504 D.
510 D.
512 D.
517 D.
519 D.
530 D.
531 D.
532 D.
103 E.
104 E.
106 E.
118 E.
120 E.
122 E.
123 E.
143 E.
149 E.
360 E.
363 E.
366 E.
371 E.
373 E.
376 E.
501 E.
508 E.
513 E.
523 E.
525 E.
528 E.
533 E.
539 E.
 PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT

PMgroup Executing
100 Que # 100
Que Middle (functional) managers have the greatest influence in the direction of
the project in which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Strong matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Project coordinator
E. Project expediter

PMgroup Planning
101 Que # 101
Que A clear definition of the users' needs serves as the direct basis for the ...
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Functional requirement
C. Project cost estimate
D. Selection of personnel
E. Termination decision

PMgroup Planning
102 Que # 102
Que A technical requirement has which of these characteristics?
A. Easy to understand
B. A communication tool between the user and the design team
C. Written in non-technical language
D. Developed in cooperation with the user
E. Typically describe physical dimensions and performance requirements

PMgroup Planning
103 Que # 103
Que A Gantt chart is useful in determining ...
A. The level of effort for a task
B. When a task starts and stops
C. How task are related to each other
D. Who is assigned to do a task
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
104 Que # 104
Que A work breakdown structure is most useful for ...
A. Identifying individual tasks for a project
B. Scheduling the start of tasks
C. Developing a cost estimate
D. Determining potential delays
E. A and C

PMgroup Executing
105 Que # 105
Que Scope Management
A. Entails managing the project's work content
 B. Is a subset of configuration management and as such is performed by CM
specialists
C. Is concerned with naming all activities performed, the end products which result,
and theresources consumed
D. Is not a concern of the project manager
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
106 Que # 106
Que The scope statement provides
A. A basis for future decisions about the project
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes
D. All of the above
E. b and C only

PMgroup Planning
107 Que # 107
Que Utilization of a Work Breakdown Structure
A. Assures all work is identified
B. Subdivides the project into manageable segments
C. Provides the project sponsor with a time-phase task summary
D. A and B
E. All of the above

PMgroup Executing
110 Que # 110
Que The use of progress reports
A. Are not necessary on small projects
B. Provides a means whereby various levels of authority can judge project
performance
C. Provides insight into project problem areas and the effectiveness of the controls
systems
D. All the above
E. B and C

PMgroup Planning
111 Que # 111
Que Customer influence in the project planning process is
A. Meddlesome and will slow down progress
B. Essential in accurately documenting the goals and objectives of the project
C. A minor consideration because the customer has difficulty in stating what he wants

D. Best handled by the sales department

E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
113 Que # 113
Que The WBS is
A. An organization oriented family tree of the project
B. A task oriented family tree of the project
C. A cost center structure of the project
 D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work
packages are difficult to construct
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
114 Que # 114
Que Creation of project objectives
A. Allows for data collection and analysis and progress reporting against which
standards of performance can be measured
B. Is accomplished by selection of measurable variables against which performance
can be judged
C. Is required before funding of the project by the project sponsor
D. All of the above
E. A and B only

PMgroup Planning
115 Que # 115
Que The Project Charter
A. Expresses upper management commitment to the project
B. Provides the authority by which the project may proceed
C. Establishes the organizational structure within which the project will operate
D. Specifies the overall objectives and timeframes of the project
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
117 Que # 117
Que The Project Charter is developed by
A. Senior management
B. The customer
C. The project manager
D. Both A and C
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
120 Que # 120
Que The design phase refers to the
A. Concept phase
B. Development phase
C. Implementation phase
D. Acquisition phase
E. A and/or B

PMgroup Initiating
121 Que # 121
Que Reliability of a product is most directly affected by
A. activities in the Concept phase
B. how well it is built
C. the reputation of the manufacturer
D. the project manager
E. the company's commitment to quality

PMgroup Planning
122 Que # 122
 Que The Development phase is the phase that includes
A. appropriations, allocations, assigning and acquisition
B. feasibility, contracts, allocation and acquisition
C. budgets, project plan, appropriations and allocation
D. a and c
E. a and b

PMgroup Executing
123 Que # 123
Que Scope Management
A. involves controlling the project in terms of its goals
B. involves naming all activities to be performed
C. prepares the project for progress reporting
D. b and c
E. all of the above

PMgroup Executing
125 Que # 125
Que Earned person-hours refers to
A. percent complete x budgeted hours
B. percent complete x budgeted days
C. earned cost
D. BCWP
E. actual value

PMgroup Executing
126 Que # 126
Que The greatest potential cost savings in a project are found in
A. the project organization
B. good contract negotiations
C. workers' quality suggestions during implementation
D. the concept phase and management plan
E. all of the above

PMgroup Executing
127 Que # 127
Que Your vice-president of projects wants a budget estimate on his desk by 7 am.
tomorrow morning. As you work all night adding up elements in your WBS,
you realize it must be accurate within
A. +75%, -25%
B. +25%, -10%
C. +10%, -5%
D. impossible to determine from this information
E. the risk tolerance of the project

PMgroup Planning
129 Que # 129
Que Diane was thrilled to get her first assignment as project manager. However,
she knew the organization style would be a strong matrix organization and
this meant the greatest challenge would be
A. implementing Management by Objective
B. difficult team building
 C. organizing her kickoff meeting
D. some of the functional managers preferred a hierarchical organization
E. the project workers would report to her as well as to a functional manager

PMgroup Planning
130 Que # 130
Que Which of the following would you expect to see in a work package?
A. duration
B. cost
C. resource
D. quality objectives
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
131 Que # 131
Que The WBS is best described as a
A. schedule
B. method
C. organization
D. task-oriented family tree of activities
E. process

PMgroup Executing
133 Que # 133
Que As we deal with increasingly larger projects, we can anticipate that the
amount of project documentation and communication
A. will grow linearly
B. will remain constant
C. will grow more rapidly than linearly
D. will decrease
E. will be unaffected by project size

PMgroup Planning
134 Que # 134
Que In general, product specifications are best developed by
A. the technical staff
B. the project manager
C. upper management
D. the logistics department
E. the contracts department

PMgroup Executing
135 Que # 135
Que A key attribute of scope verification is
A. improved cost estimates
B. improved schedule estimates
C. the central role played by the accounting department
D. the central role played by the purchasing department
E. customer acceptance of project efforts

PMgroup Planning
136 Que # 136
Que Detailed descriptions of work packages are commonly contained in
 A. the project charter
B. competitive analyses
C. requests for tenders
D. WBS dictionaries
E. statements of work

PMgroup Controlling
137 Que # 137
Que Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change?
A. a change of government regulations
B. failure to include a required feature in the design of telecommunication system
C. a desire to incorporate a newly emerged technology into the project effort
D. a need to engage in bottom-up cost estimating
E. customers who change their minds about the desired nature of the deliverable

PMgroup Planning
138 Que # 138
Que The subdivision of major project deliverables (as identified in the scope
statement) into smaller, more manageable components is called
A. parametric estimation
B. scope definition
C. feasability analysis
D. market research
E. benefit-cost analysis

PMgroup Planning
139 Que # 139
Que Increasingly, in order to increase the quality of project deliverables, scope
definition efforts
A. are carried out by teams of developers working with customers
B. employ quality control charts to establish better scope statements
C. are carried out by the organization's leading technical staff
D. are written in symbolic notation in order to reduce ambiguity
E. are closely supervised by upper management

PMgroup Executing
140 Que # 140
Que A fundamental role of progress measurement on projects should be
A. to identify poor performers, in order to punish them
B. to determine whether the project is basically on target
C. to identify whether problems exist so that corrective action can be undertaken
D. to assist in the development of a scope statement
E. b and c

PMgroup Planning
141 Que # 141
Que In what phase are the project's scope and objectives determined?
A. conceptual
B. development
C. implementation
D. close-out
E. operations and maintenance
 PMgroup Executing
142 Que # 142
Que The Delphi technique can be used for information forecasting. The chief
characteristic of this technique is that it employs
A. simulation models
B. extrapolation from historical data
C. intuitive expert opinion
D. Linear programming algorithms
E. the analytical hierarchy process

PMgroup Executing
143 Que # 143
Que Allocating human resources is most straightforward in what type of
organization?
A. functional
B. matrix
C. projectized
D. decentralized
E. hybridized

PMgroup Controlling
144 Que # 144
Que As technology increases in complexity for a project, the level of uncertainty
in the work definition
A. decreases
B. remains the same
C. increases
D. is unimportant
E. decreases, then increases

PMgroup Executing
145 Que # 145
Que In general, if a division's activities are focused on the achievement of a
single major project, what is the best way for it to structure its operations?
A. matrix structure
B. functional structure
C. projectized structure
D. ego less structure
E. self-directed team stucture

PMgroup Planning
148 Que # 148
Que By whom are project plans generally developed?
A. the project General Manager
B. the Director of Projects
C. the project team
D. the marketing department
E. the engineering department

PMgroup Planning
151 Que # 151
Que Which is not an important function of the kickoff meeting?
A. to identify project goals
 B. to introduce the players
C. to present the project charter
D. to present the detailed plan
E. to get team buy-in

PMgroup Planning
152 Que # 152
Que An objective is clear if
A. top management proposes it
B. project workers formulate it.
C. it employs numbers.
D. it is developed by the planning team.
E. different people reading it hold a single view of its meaning.

PMgroup Planning
153 Que # 153
Que A WBS numbering system should allow project staff to
A. identify the level at which individual WBS elements are found.
B. estimate project completion dates.
C. identify configuration management milestones.
D. estimate the costs of WBS elements.
E. a and b

PMgroup Planning
155 Que # 155
Que A general description of a project's objectives, coupled with a statement of
management authorization, is called
A. A WBS.
B. An ERB.
C. a sanity check.
D. PPBS.
E. a project charter

PMgroup Executing
156 Que # 156
Que A periodic document (e.g., biweekly, monthly) detailing time, cost, and
resource performance is called
A. an engineering change proposal (ECP).
B. a status report.
C. a work authorization.
D. the project charter.
E. an RFP.

PMgroup Executing
158 Que # 158
Que "A precise description of a physical item, procedure, service, or result for the
purpose of purchase and/or implementation of an item or service" is called

A. a specification.
B. a baseline.
C. a work package.
D. traceability.
E. a WBS element.
 PMgroup Planning
161 Que # 161
Que Which of the following is not a common project selection mechanism?
A. benefit-cost analysis
B. scoring sheets
C. engineering review boards (ERBs).
D. peer review.
E. murder boards.

PMgroup Executing
162 Que # 162
Que The following actions characterize which phase of the project life-cycle
motivate team, procure goods and services, execute work packages, resolve
problems?
A. concept
B. development
C. implementation
D. termination
E. B and C

PMgroup Executing
Que Project control depends heavily on the utilization of an effective status
reporting system. Which of the following are the most common categories of
project reports?
A. Status, trend, variance, and exception.
B. Profitability, status, and exception.
C. Status, variance, and stock price.
D. Balance sheet, status, and trend.
E. Status, exception, and financial audit.
165 Que # 165

PMgroup Planning
Que Project mangement specialists frequently distinguish between weak and
strong matrix structures. The chief characteristic of a weak matrix is
A. team members are not fully trained to do the job.
B. the functional manager has relatively more influence in making decisions than the
project manager.
C. management reserve is rapidly being depleted.
D. rebaselining occurs frequently.
E. project objectives are poorly defined.
166 Que # 166

PMgroup Executing
Que Project management can be employed in a wide Variety of situations. The
circumstance in which it is least necessary is
A. when cross functional solutions are needed to produce a deliverable.
B. when a deliverable must be produced according to a defined deadline.
C. when work is unique.
D. when a team is producing a one-of-a-kind deliverable.
E. when work is routine and repetitively performed by the organization.
167 Que # 167
 PMgroup Controlling
Que Which of the following functions do contemporary project management
software packages (e.g., ABT Project Workbench, Microsoft Project) carry
out?
A. schedule tracking with network diagrams and Gantt charts.
B. Budget tracking.
C. Export data to spreadsheet and database formats.
D. All of the above.
E. a and b only.
168 Que # 168

PMgroup Planning
Que Constrained optimization methods of project selection include
A. multi-objective programming algorithms.
B. benefit-cost ratios.
C. scoring models.
D. subjective analyses.
E. checklist comparisons of the alternatives.
170 Que # 170

PMgroup Executing
Que In typical project situations, who among the following has the smallest role
to play in selecting projects?
A. Subject matter experts (e.g., engineers).
B. Marketing/sales personnel.
C. Purchasing experts.
D. Operations experts.
E. Cost Estimators
171 Que # 171

PMgroup Initiating
Que Projects are phased to provide controls over the work and to permit the
measurement of progress. The four phases of a project are conceptual,
________ , and close-out/termination.
A. execution, pre-close-out
B. development, implementation
C. implementation, execution
D. study, execution
E. study, build
172 Que # 172

PMgroup Planning
Que Project objectives provide the broad direction to the project. The project
objectives are first documented in the project's ________.
A. charter
B. budget
C. appointment letter for the project manager
D. execution plan/manual
E. master schedule
173 Que # 173

PMgroup Planning
 Que Project objectives are used to describe the scope of a project and are
expressed in terms of ________.
A. manpower, materials, and money
B. cost, time, and resources
C. budget, schedule, and resources
D. outputs, required resources, and timing
E. needs, desires, and goals
174 Que # 174

PMgroup Planning
Que There are usually several alternatives available to perform tasks. The
purpose of alternative analysis in the project planning is to ________.
A. determine the most cost-effective method
B. determine the easiest method
C. determine the least risk method
D. determine the safest method
E. all or parts of A through D
175 Que # 175

PMgroup Initiating
Que Suppose a corporation executive directs that a feasibility study be
conducted. This study would be conducted during the ________ phase of the
project.
A. conceptual
B. planning
C. implementation
D. close-out
E. any of the above
176 Que # 176

PMgroup Planning
Que The project ________ prescribes the guidelines within which a project is
organized, administered, and managed for the timely accomplishment of
project objectives.
A. charter
B. master schedule
C. budget plan
D. management plan
E. directive system
177 Que # 177

PMgroup Planning
Que The work breakdown structure is a task-oriented "family tree" of activities
that provides the basis for developing the ________.
A. scope volume, cost of financing, and schedule durations
B. scope definition, cost control system, and detail schedule
C. project objectives, project plan, and project charter
D. project staff, labor rates, and skill requirements
E. changes to the scope, cost of financing, and labor rates
178 Que # 178

PMgroup Executing
 Que Planning and implementing a status reporting system for a project is
important to effectively manage the rate of progress. Types of project reports
include ________.
A. status, variance, trend, and exception
B. cost, trend, schedule, and performance
C. cost, schedule, quality, and exception
D. analysis, cost, performance, and schedule
E. price, time, materials, and budget
180 Que # 180

PMgroup Executing
Que The matrix organization is often used for a project because it offers
advantages over a pure project organization for certain types of projects. The
criterion/criteria for selecting a matrix organization is/are ________.
A. large, complex projects
B. technically complex work
C. the need for diverse skills on a short-term basis
D. limited resources to implement the project
E. all of the above
182 Que # 182

PMgroup Planning
Que The matrix organization has two forms the weak matrix and the strong
matrix. The primary difference between these two forms is that ________.
A. the number of permanent people assigned to the project
B. the number of functional staff assigned to the project
C. the organization always starts a weak and builds to strong
D. a weak matrix is used only to plan the project
E. relative influence is exercised in the decision-making
183 Que # 183

PMgroup Planning
Que Suppose there is a great deal of uncertainty associated with a project
because the work has not been defined because of the lack of information to
develop structured plans. The best organizational structure to use in this
situation is the ________ form.
A. weak matrix
B. strong matrix
C. project
D. functional
E. line and staff
184 Que # 184

PMgroup Planning
Que The responsibility chart (or matrix) is a useful tool for defining ________
areas of management.
A. project and functional
B. jurisdictional
C. shared
D. consulting
E. all of the above
185 Que # 185
 PMgroup Executing
Que The specification and the statement of work are key elements of the contract
for a project. The differences between the two documents are primarily that
the specification tells ________ and the statement of work tells ________.

A. what is to be built; when it is to be built

B. characteristics/attributes; how the work is to be accomplished
C. what skills are to be used; who is to perform the work
D. how many items are to be built; the physical attributes
E. when the delivery is to be accomplished; why the project is to be implemented
187 Que # 187

PMgroup Executing
Que There is a need to illustrate the sequence of activities for the project's
feasibility study to permit a macro evaluation of the major tasks. The tool that
best meets this requirement is the ________.
A. PERT chart
B. linear program chart
C. bar chart
D. flow chart
E. tabular chart
188 Que # 188

PMgroup Planning
Que The work breakdown structure comprises several levels of decomposition of
the total project. The lowest level of definition is always the ________.
A. build cycle
B. planning element
C. working interface
D. work package
E. price element
189 Que # 189

PMgroup Planning
Que In planning for the accomplishment of work, the type of work that cannot be
quantified as to the amount of time needed to produce an end product is
________.
A. design engineering
B. assembly operations
C. planning operations
D. level of effort tasks
E. interrupted work operations
191 Que # 191

PMgroup Planning
Que In planning for the monitoring and tracking of cost and schedule as an
integrated effort, you initiate the earned value system. The output of this
system will provide ________.
A. accurate cost-schedule status on a daily basis
B. accurate cost-schedule status on a weekly basis
C. cost-schedule trends on a monthly basis
D. baseline variances on a monthly basis
E. baseline variances on a one-time basis
192 Que # 192

PMgroup Planning
Que The planning of the project must include all work to be performed to
complete the project, but the planning would not normally include ________.
A. project termination
B. contract changes
C. earned value baseline changes
D. project staffing level changes
E. project material requirements
193 Que # 193

PMgroup Closing
Que Project close-out requires several actions to ensure the logical termination of
the ongoing work and compliance with the terms of the contract.
Documentation, for example, must be ________ to reflect the ________
condition for the customer.
A. counted; quality
B. revised; as-built
C. reviewed; working
D. used; spacing
E. used; excellent
194 Que # 194

PMgroup Planning
Que The retention of project historical records must be planned during the early
phases of the project, which includes the collection, preservation, and
recording of information during the implementation. The historical records
can be used to ________ for future projects of a similar nature.
A. predict trends and highlight problems
B. analyze problems and establish contingency costs
C. determine personnel shortfalls and planning problems
D. determine successes and shortfalls
E. identify and assign responsibilities
195 Que # 195

PMgroup Closing
Que The financial close-out of the project requires that a time be established
when no further ________.
A. project accounting will be accomplished
B. charges will be made against the project
C. invoices will be processed
D. bills will be paid
E. labor charges will be paid
196 Que # 196

PMgroup Executing
Que Project management was born out of the need for a more efficient and
effective means to accomplish goals for work of a defined time duration. The
criteria for using a project management approach to perform work does not
include ________.
A. an ad hoc undertaking concerned with a single definable end product
 B. an undertaking that is routine and frequently performed by the present organization

C. an undertaking that is of greater complexity of scope than normal

D. an undertaking requiring quick response to change and value of time
E. an undertaking with a high degree of interdependence among the tasks
197 Que # 197

PMgroup Executing
Que Project management has long been recognized in the U.S. government as the
most effective method of managing the acquisition of large systems. This
effectiveness is enhanced by the project manager providing ________
throughout the life of the project.
A. effective direction and change control
B. guidance to the team and new project objectives
C. a single point of responsibility and decision making
D. planning for the budget and schedule
E. new project controls and new baselines
198 Que # 198

PMgroup Executing
Que Various project management structures are used in industries. The degree to
which project management techniques are utilized depends mainly on the
project's ________.
A. budget and schedule
B. quality requirements and schedule
C. size and type of industry
D. nature and size
E. manager and team
199 Que # 199

PMgroup Planning
Que Traditionally, the planning (design, budgeting, scheduling) has been
accomplished by a loose conglomeration of independent parties. As the
complexity and size of the projects have increased, organizations have
formally appointed a ________ to plan, control, and coordinate the resources.

A. project manager
B. project expediter
C. functional manager
D. logistic specialist
E. planning engineer
200 Que # 200

PMgroup Executing
Que The owner (buyer) of the project may desire to monitor the progress of a
company building the project (the seller). When the expertise is not resident
in-house for the owner, s/he may ________ to perform these monitoring
functions.
A. require the seller to provide a bonded person
B. delegate to the seller the responsibility
C. hire a project management services representative
D. become a project management expert
E. hire an audit agency to provide trained auditors
201 Que # 201

PMgroup Executing
Que Project management's use ranges from mature industries to research and
development (R&D) activities exploring new technologies. The difficulties in
managing R&D work include all but ________.
A. planning and scheduling of work
B. budget expenditures
C. motivation of team members
D. performance evaluation
E. setting priorities and assigning resources
202 Que # 202

PMgroup Executing
Que Management information systems have grown over the past decade because
of the need to provide project managers and others with more ________
information to support the decision-making process.
A. volume, detailed, and rapid
B. accurate, detailed, and formatted
C. accurate, timely, and relevant
D. engineering, design, and as-built
E. cost, schedule, and quality
203 Que # 203

PMgroup Planning
Que The project's ultimate goal is customer satisfaction while the subgoals for
cost, schedule, and quality may be treated equally. This implied or stated
equal treatment of the subgoals ________.
A. is precisely the effect desired to meet the project's ultimate goal
B. ensures the project will be completed as planned and will meet the customer's
needs
C. ensures the project will be successful in meeting both the ultimate and subgoals
D. may conflict with the customer's needs and does not provide guidance for tradeoffs

E. has no impact on the project because the project manager will decide what is
important
204 Que # 204

PMgroup Planning
Que The degree of definition and the size of the project's scope affect the
relationship between the project manager and the customer. The less defined
the scope, the more the need for customer-project manager ________.
A. improved contract administration
B. conflict reward systems
C. cooperation and communication
D. contract negotiations and changes
E. dispute escalation procedures
205 Que # 205

PMgroup Controlling
 Que Many projects do not complete the full life cycle under a single contractor
because the design work is accomplished by a third party. The project
manager is, therefore, given designs over which s/he had no control or
direction. The disadvantages of having a separate design contractor from the
implementation contractor do not include ________.

A. the designer not having the incentive to ensure the designs are the most cost
effective
B. the designs being incomplete for implementation of the project
C. the designs being prepared on a cost-plus basis-i.e., the more the project costs,
the more the designer is paid
D. the project manager blaming poor performance on the design and the designer
blaming the project manager for lack of competency
E. the project manager's organization suing the design organization for lack of
sufficient detail in the design drawings
206 Que # 206

PMgroup Executing
Que From a top management perspective, the progress of the project is measured
in completion of blocks of work over time. The project manager plans to
report the progress using the ________ as the basis for the budget, schedule,
resource allocation, and scope definition.
A. precedence diagramming method
B. PERT or CPM
C. project charter
D. work breakdown schedule
E. project management plan
208 Que # 208

PMgroup Executing
Que Each project should have a project procedures manual (also called a project
execution manual) to set the standard practices to be used during all phases
of the project. The project procedures manual is ________.
A. an independent document that covers cost, schedule, quality, and regulatory
factors
B. a brief statement of the overall project policy that covers policy statements of do's
and don'ts for the project
C. a procedures document that covers procedures that are new and unique to the
project
D. an extension of corporate procedures that covers scope of work, project
organization, and systems/procedures to be used
E. a supplement to corporate procedures that covers roles and responsibilities of
functional and project personnel
209 Que # 209

PMgroup Executing
Que During the planning and implementation phases, there is often a need to
conduct tradeoffs between several alternatives. Unlike selection of competing
alternatives, the tradeoffs are usually made between ________.
A. risk, cost, and schedule
B. technologies, design, and engineering
C. cost, schedule, and quality
D. conceptual, planning, and implementation phases
E. direct cost, indirect cost, and escalation
210 Que # 210

PMgroup Controlling
313 Que # 313
Que A scope change is defined as a
A. Change in technical specifications as defined in the WBS.
B. Change in project authorization.
C. Change in project personnel.
D. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS.
E. Modification to the budget as agreed upon for the project.

PMgroup Planning
314 Que # 314
Que The Scope management plan includes
I. How changes will be integrated into the project. II. An
assessment of the stability of the project scope. III. A clear
description of how scope changes will be identified and classified.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III
E.

PMgroup Controlling
315 Que # 315
Que The Scope Change Control System should include
I. Paperwork II. Tracking system III.
Approval levels IV. Evaluation process
A. II and III only
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
E. II, III, and IV only

PMgroup Executing
316 Que # 316
Que Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include
I. Comparative approaches II. Economic models
III. Linear programming methods IV. Integer programming
models
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. III and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

PMgroup Planning
317 Que # 317
Que Poor scope definition may cause all of the following EXCEPT
A. Higher project costs.
B. Rework
C. Material failure
D. Low morale
 E. Schedule delays

PMgroup Controlling
318 Que # 318
Que Scope change control is the process concerned with I.
Influencing factors which create scope change II. Determining
that a scope change has occurred III. Managing actual changes
when they occur
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

PMgroup Planning
319 Que # 319
Que Scope definition is necessary to I. Evaluate the project at its
completion II. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource
estimates III. Define a baseline for progress measurement and
control IV. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments
A. II only
B. III only
C. I and III only
D. II, III, and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

PMgroup Planning
320 Que # 320
Que A code of accounts
A. Uniquely identifies each element of the WBS
B. Includes work packages, used to track phase completion
C. Is an organizational scheme to keep track of contracts
D. Charts elements of the WBS against the timeline
E. None of the above

PMgroup Executing
321 Que # 321
Que Scope verification
A. Is the formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholders
B. Refers to the final project report describing the project at completion
C. Is not necessary if the project completes on time and on budget
D. Occurs only when revisions or change orders are made to the project
E. Details how the cost estimate matches the element of the projects

PMgroup Controlling
322 Que # 322
Que The change control process should include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Scope change control
B. Resource leveling
C. Contract administration
D. Quality control
E. Risk change control
 PMgroup Planning
323 Que # 323
Que The scope baseline is the original
A. Project schedule and budget
B. Description in the project charter
C. Plan plus or minus approved changes
D. Performance measure
E. Starting point for contract negotiations

PMgroup Planning
324 Que # 324
Que The project charter is used for all of the following purposes EXCEPT
A. To recognize the existence of the project
B. To refer to the business need
C. To describe the project
D. To request bids for different phases of a project
E. To give the project manager authority to apply resources to a project

PMgroup Initiating
326 Que # 326
Que Scope initiation is the process which formally I. Recognizes
that a new project exists II. Appoints the project manager
III. Recognizes that an existing project should continue into the next
phase IV. Establishes and describes the need for a project
A. I only
B. IV only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. III and IV only

PMgroup Planning
327 Que # 327
Que The project plan should include all of the following except
A. The project charter
B. The project management approach
C. Cost estimates
D. A detailed change management process
E. Organizational policy

PMgroup Planning
328 Que # 328
Que Scope planning for a project is fully described as
A. The project specification that includes design principles and project objectives
B. A three-level project work brewakdown structure
C. A written scope statement that includes project justification, major deliverables and
the project objectives
D. The project charter
E. The record showing that all project deliverables are completed satisfactorily

PMgroup Planning
329 Que # 329
Que Scope definition is
A. The responsibility of the client to limit the possibility of change orders
 B. Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller more manageable
components
C. Determining the responses needed to perform project activities
D. Analysis of activity sequence, duration, and resource requirements
E. A written statement identifying the quality standards relevant to the project

PMgroup Planning
330 Que # 330
Que Which of the following statements is true of the WBS?
A. The WBS is deliverable-oriented
B. Eah level represents an increasing level of detail
C. The WBS is an unstructured list of activities in chart form
D. The WBS is the same as the Organizational Breakdown Structure
E. The WBS referes to the Bill of Material (BOM)

PMgroup Planning
332 Que # 332
Que Input(s) to scope definition are
A. The need for a work-around
B. The type of contract
C. The scope statement
D. Work breakdown structure templates
E. Decomposition

PMgroup Planning
334 Que # 334
Que All of the following are characteristics of a "work package" except
A. It is a task at the lowest level of any branch of the WBS
B. It is a summary task at the top level of the WBS
C. It consists of manageable units of work that can be planned, budgeted, scheduled,
and controlled
D. It usually contains no more than eighty work hours (effort) to complete
E. It may be broken into steps as Activity Definition

PMgroup Planning
335 Que # 335
Que What is the WBS typically used for?
A. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
B. To define the project schedule
C. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor
D. To define the level of reporting the seller provides to the buyer
E. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals

PMgroup Planning
502 Que # 502
Que All the following statments about a WBS are true EXCEPT that it
A. Provides a framework for organizing and ordering a project's activities
B. Can be similar in appearance to an organizational chart
C. Breaks down a project into successively greater detail by level
D. Is a scheduling method
E. Is a planning tool

PMgroup Planning
503 Que # 503
Que The document that describes the objectives, work content, deliverables, and
end-product of a project is the
A. Project charter
B. Product description
C. Decomposition document
D. Scope statement
E. WBS

PMgroup Planning
504 Que # 504
Que When an organization chooses a project selection model, the most important
criterion is
A. Flexibility
B. Capability
C. Realism
D. Ease of use
E. Cost

PMgroup Controlling
505 Que # 505
Que Maintenance is crucially important to projects and should
A. Be included as an activity to be performed during the closeout phase
B. Have a separate phase in the lifecycle in information systems projects because 60-
70% of live-cycle costs of computer systems are generally devoted to maintenance

C. Not be viewed as part of the project life cycle

D. Be specified in terms of the forms it can take, such as debugging and making
enhancements
E. Always be viewed as a separate project

PMgroup Planning
508 Que # 508
Que Each project phase is marked by completion of one or more deliverables.
The deliverable for the concept phase of a project is the
A. Project plan
B. Contract terms and conditions
C. Statement of work
D. Project charter
E. Resource spreadsheet

PMgroup Executing
509 Que # 509
Que All of the following are examples of benefit measurement methods of project
selection EXCEPT
A. Benefit-cost ratio
B. Payback period
C. Economic value added
D. Peer review
E. Multiobjective programming

PMgroup Planning
511 Que # 511
 Que A clear, concise scope definition serves several purposes. Which of the
following is NOT an objective of scope definition?
A. Improving the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimates
B. Defining the baseline for performance measurement and control
C. Developing the scope management plan
D. Facilitating clear assignment of responsibility
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
514 Que # 514
Que A work package is
A. A deliverable at the lowest level of the WBS
B. A task with a unique identifier
C. A description of work procedures
D. A required level of reporting
E. An item that cannot be broken down further

PMgroup Planning
515 Que # 515
Que At a minimum, the project charter should
A. Describe the responsibilities and authority of the project manager and functional
managers
B. Discuss the risks and constraints of the project
C. Designate the organizatoinal structure of the project
D. State the business goals of the performing organization
E. Detail the project deliverables

PMgroup Closing
516 Que # 516
Que The review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a
project phase is called a
A. Phase-end review
B. Phase exit
C. Stage gate
D. Kill point
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
518 Que # 518
Que When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first
step is to
A. Develop the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure
B. Develop an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for
each task
C. Refer to the project charter developed by top management
D. Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the
functional areas to perform each task
E. Fit the structure to the contract task for greater cost control

PMgroup Planning
519 Que # 519
Que During decomposition, the project manager should
A. Identify the major elements of the project
 B. Decide whether adequate cost and duration estimates can be developed at the
level of detail for each element
C. Identify constituent elements of the deliverable
D. Verify the correctness of the decomposition
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
520 Que # 520
Que The 80-hour rule states that
A. The activity durations of tasks should not be more than 80 hours
B. Each task should be broken down into work packages that require no more than
80 hours of work to complete
C. No one should be assigned to the project unless able to work on it for at least 80
hours
D. A budget should be established for any task of 80 hours or more
E. Performance should be measured on all tasks of at least 80 hours or more

PMgroup Planning
521 Que # 521
Que The scope statement
A. Does not include project objectives such as cost, schedule, or quality measures
B. Includes a description of project assumptions and constraints
C. Provides a documented basis for preparing the PERT/CPM network
D. Is developed by functional managers during the concept phase of the project
E. Is the basis for the contract between the buyer and seller

PMgroup Planning
522 Que # 522
Que The project charter should be issued by
A. The project manager
B. The head of the performing organization
C. A manager external to the project
D. Functional managers and the project manager
E. The head of business development

PMgroup Planning
523 Que # 523
Que To relate the functional organizations to the WBS elements, the project
manager should use a
A. WBS matrix
B. WBS index
C. Project WBS
D. Cost account matrix
E. Work package assignment index

PMgroup Executing
524 Que # 524
Que Completion of project scope activities is measured against the
A. Requirements
B. Project plan
C. Scope statement
D. Customer's expectations
E. Goals and objectives of the project
 PMgroup Executing
527 Que # 527
Que The practice of overlapping project activities is known as
A. Concurrent engineering
B. Fast-tracking
C. Leveling
D. Smoothing
E. Crashing

PMgroup Initiating
528 Que # 528
Que The greatest degree of uncertainty is encountered during which phase of the
project life cycle?
A. Concept
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Closeout
E. All phases involve uncertainty to the same degree

PMgroup Executing
529 Que # 529
Que Scope verification
A. Improves cost and schedule accuracy, particularly on projects using innovative
techniques or technology
B. Is the last activity performed on a project before handoff to the customer
C. Documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was
undertaken to create
D. Differs from quality control in that scope verification is concerned with the
acceptance - not the correctness - of the work results
E. Verifies that the WBS was prepared in accordance with the organization's project
management methodology

PMgroup Planning
530 Que # 530
Que Specifying the technical requirements is an important step because they
A. Describe the characteristics of the deliverable in ordinary language
B. Are used by the project staff to target efforts
C. Are useful to both the project staff and the customers
D. Are designed to ensure that customers know what they are getting from a project
E. All of the above

PMgroup Controlling
532 Que # 532
Que Written change orders should be required on
A. All projects, large and small
B. Large projects
C. Projects with a formal configuration management system in place
D. Projects with a configuration change board
E. Projects for which the cost of a change control system can be justified

PMgroup Controlling
534 Que # 534
 Que The principal sources of project failure are
A. Lack of a projectized or strong matrix structure, poor scope definition, and lack of a
project plan
B. Lack of commitment or support by top management, disharmony on the project
team, and lack of leadership by the project manager
C. `Poorly identified customer needs, a geographically dispersed project team, and
little communication with the customer until the project is delivered
D. Organizational factors, poorly identified customer needs, inadequately specified
project requirements, and poor planning and control
E. None of the above

PMgroup Executing
537 Que # 537
Que Project A is being administered using a matrix form of organization. The
project manager reports to a senior vice president who provides visible
support to the project. In this scenario, which of the following statements
best describes the relative power of the project manager?
A. In this strong matrix the balance of power is shifted to the functional line managers
B. In this tight matrix, the balance of power is shifted to the project manager
C. In this strong matrix, the balance of power is shifted to the project manager
D. The project manager will probably not be reassigned in times of crisis
E. The project manager will probably not be challenged by project stakeholders

PMgroup Executing
539 Que # 539
Que In all projects, needs must be tempered by schedule, cost, and resource
constraints. Project success depends primarily on
A. The quality of the schedule and cost control analysis
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Customer compromise in defining its needs
D. A and B
E. B and C

PMgroup Planning
540 Que # 540
Que A WBS is a product-oriented "family tree" of project components. Each item
in the WBS is generally assigned a unique identifier; these identifiers are
known collectively as
A. The chart of accounts
B. The code of accounts
C. Work packages
D. WBS ID numbers
E. The WBS dictionary

PMgroup Planning
541 Que # 541
Que Which statement about customer expectations is NOT true?
A. The product or service should be usable as intended.
B. Contractual provisions, including schedule and performance standards, should be
met
C. Changes should be made immediately, and all customer wants should be satisfied
without bureaucratic hassle
 D. The seller should assume the responsibility of understanding customer needs and
wants and addressing them effectively
E. The seller should serve the customer competently and graciosly

604 Que # 604

PMgroup Executing
Que Senior management has found the solution to a problem with a new product.
They authorize funding for a new project to resolve it. After six months the
new 2-year project is over budget and behind schedule. What should the
project manager do?
A. Cry to upper management about the short budget
B. Rebaseline the project
C. Revise the project charter
D. Revise the WBS
E.

Answers

100 C
101 B
102 E
103 B
104 E
105 C
106 D
107 D
110 E
111 B
113 B
114 E
115 E
117 D
120 B
121 A
122 C
123 A
125 A
126 D
127 B
129 E
130 E
131 D
133 C
134 A
135 E
136 D
137 D
138 B
139 A
140 E
141 A
142 C
143 A
144 C
145 B
148 C
151 D
152 E
153 A
155 E
156 B
158 A
161 C
162 C
165 A
166 A
167 E
168 D
170 A
171 C
172 B
173 A
174 D
175 E
176 A
177 D
178 B
180 A
182 E
183 E
184 C
185 E
187 B
188 D
189 D
191 D
192 C
193 C
194 B
195 A
196 B
197 B
198 C
199 D
200 A
201 C
202 B
203 C
204 D
205 C
206 E
208 D
209 D
210 C
313 D
314 D
315 B
316 E
317 C
318 E
319 D
320 A
321 A
322 B
323 C
324 D
326 D
327 E
328 C
329 B
330 A
332 C
334 B
335 A
502 D
503 D
504 C
505 C
508 D
509 E
511 C
514 A
515 A
516 E
518 B
519 E
520 B
521 B
522 C
523 D
524 B
527 B
528 A
529 D
530 B
532 A
534 D
537 C
539 B
540 B
541 C
604 B
 PROJECT TIME MANAGEMENT

PMgroup Planning
100 Que # 100
Que Fast-tracking is also known as
A. overtime and contracting
B. utilizing additional resources
C. crashing
D. concurrent engineering
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
101 Que # 101
Que In the network diagram for a completely unrealistic schedule, you would likely
find
A. no slack available for critical tasks
B. late start dates earlier than early start dates
C. negative total float
D. b and c
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
102 Que # 102
Que Time-limited scheduling is best used when
A. there is negative total float
B. resources can be better utilized by taking advantage of existing free float
C. a finish-to-start relationship exists
D. fast-tracking
E. b and c

PMgroup Planning
103 Que # 103
Que The major difference(s) between time-limited scheduling and resource leveling
is (are)
A. Time-limited scheduling reschedules based on late start dates, while resource leveling
reschedules based on late finish dates
B. Time-limited scheduling considers total float but resource leveling does not
C. Time-limited scheduling reschedules activities according to resource availability while
resource leveling attempts to smooth out resource requirements by rescheduling
D. a and c
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
104 Que # 104
Que Which relationship dependency is indicative of concurrency?
A. Start-to-start
B. Start-to-finish
C. Finish-to-start
D. Finish-to-finish
E. a and d

PMgroup Planning
105 Que # 105
Que Susie has just told Diane, the project manager, that she hasn't started working
on her planned activity that was supposed to start a week ago. Which factors will
influence Diane's decision whether to escalate to Susie's manager?
 A. If the delay is within the amount of free float
B. If the activity has negative float
C. If time-limited scheduling was used
D. If Susie has a reputation for being undependable
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
106 Que # 106
Que Susie's delays are getting worse and worse. All available slack time for her task
has been used. Any additional delays would
A. affect the slack available for subsequent tasks
B. require a determination of the late finish date
C. require crashing or fast-tracking
D. a and b
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
107 Que # 107
Que Which of the following is true about the critical path in a network diagram?
A. The critical path represents the shortest single path through the network
B. Activities on the critical path hold the greatest risk for the project
C. Activities on the critical path have their early start date equal to their late start date if
the shortest possible duration of the project is to be achieved
D. Activities on the critical path have their early start date equal to their late finish date if
the earliest end date of the project is to be achieved
E. Activities on the critical path can never have float

PMgroup Planning
108 Que # 108
Que The affect of additional resources on the critical path
A. is likely to reduce the project end date by creating parallel tasks
B. is likely to require that a revised network diagram be created
C. is negligible
D. has the same effect as crashing this path
E. a, b and d

PMgroup Planning
109 Que # 109
Que If the Early Start Date = October 10th, the Late Start Date = October 12th, the
Early Finish Date = October 12th and the Late Finish Date = October 14th, and all
days that week are working days available to the project, compute the number of
slack days for this task.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

PMgroup Planning
111 Que # 111
Que If free float on a task is exceeded, it
A. should be of concern to the project manager
B. will impact the early start of the succeeding task
C. could impact the late start of the succeeding task
D. could jeopardize the success of the project
E. all of the above
 PMgroup Planning
112 Que # 112
Que The purpose of performing a backward pass is to
A. determine the critical path
B. determine where there is slack
C. determine where there is float
D. determine the late finish
E. B, C and D

PMgroup Planning
113 Que # 113
Que A concurrent relationship is shown on a network diagram as
A. an arrow going from the start of one task to the start of another
B. an arrow going from the start of one task to the finish of another
C. an arrow going to the start of two or more tasks
D. a and c
E. b and c

PMgroup Planning
114 Que # 114
Que The effective management of the use of time in a project is usually critical to the
successful accomplishment of the project's objectives. There are several types
of time management tools (called scheduling systems or project management
systems) that fall into three categories referred to by the abbreviations CPM,
PERT, and PDM. Respectively, these three abbreviations stand for ________.

A. critical path means, program evaluation and repetitive technology, probabilistic

decision method
B. critical path method, program evolution and review timing, probability design method
C. critical planning method, program evaluation and review technique, program detail
method
D. critical path method, program evaluation and review technique, precedence
diagramming method
E. critical plotting method, program evaluation review technique, precedence
diagramming method

PMgroup Planning
115 Que # 115
Que Scheduling networks are all similar in their functions and general approach to
building a schedule. The major difference between PERT and CPM network input
information requirements is ________.
A. PERT will only accept whole units of time whereas CPM will accept fractions/decimals
of units of time (e.g., 2 hours vs. 2.1 hours)
B. CPM requires that all time estimates are in hours whereas PERT will accept any unit
of time (e.g., hours, days, weeks)
C. PERT requires three time estimates to compute an average whereas CPM requires
one point estimate
D. PERT is primarily a time scheduling system whereas CPM also addresses cost and
resources
E. PERT requires less time to load the input information than does CPM

PMgroup Planning
116 Que # 116
Que PDM differs from PERT and CPM primarily in its use of ________.
A. dummy activities to constrain events
 B. lag time connections to slow the project's progress
C. arrows to represent work
D. nodes/boxes to represent work
E. nodes/boxes to represent slack time

PMgroup Planning
117 Que # 117
Que PDM uses four different relationships between its nodes to reflect connectivity
and lag time, but it does not include ________.
A. start-to-finish
B. finish-to-start
C. finish-to-finish
D. end-to-end
E. start-to-start

PMgroup Planning
118 Que # 118
Que The four distinct phases that are used to control the work during the project's
life cycle are ________.
A. planning, positioning, implementation, and close-out
B. concept, planning, implementation, and close-out
C. feasibility, concept, implementation, and execution
D. concept, feasibility, planning, and implementation
E. planning, execution, close-out, and post-project

PMgroup Planning
119 Que # 119
Que The work breakdown structure is a critical tool for the project and the planning
of the project. The lowest level of the work breakdown structure represents the
________ for the schedule network.
A. time duration
B. sequencing of work (or logic)
C. responsibility for work execution
D. task activity
E. task timing by the calendar

PMgroup Planning
120 Que # 120
Que The schedule duration of a project is dependent upon the available time until
delivery of the system/product. In addition to time, a major contributor to the
duration of a project is the ________.
A. skill of the scheduler
B. cost of labor for planners
C. type of automated scheduling system used
D. frequency of updates to the schedule
E. availability of resources for the project

PMgroup Planning
121 Que # 121
Que The division of the work breakdown structure into smaller tasks is continued
until the lowest level that represents a work package is no more than ________.
A. a cost of $900 for each day of work
B. 80 hours of calendar duration
C. 80 hours of total resource (labor) time
D. what can be accomplished by one person in one week
E. what can be accomplished by one team in three weeks
 PMgroup Planning
122 Que # 122
Que Suppose the summary network for a major project has 500 activities. For a
briefing requirement for senior management, the best method of displaying the
progress on the project (schedule vs. calendar) is by using a ________.
A. bar chart of all activities on the summary schedule
B. network of all activities on the summary schedule
C. narrative description of the active tasks
D. combination of the full (detail) network and the summary network
E. histogram to show percent of work on the project that has been completed

PMgroup Planning
123 Que # 123
Que The bar chart does not explicitly show the ________ between the activities,
which makes it difficult to impute the effects of a delay on one activity.
A. completed work
B. unfinished work
C. duration
D. timing
E. dependency relationships

PMgroup Planning
124 Que # 124
Que In the preparation of a network (schedule), factors that must be considered to
ensure that the end product meets the needs of the project manager do not
include ________.
A. project budget
B. project objectives
C. responsibility of achieving project objectives
D. organization of resources available/required
E. information requirements of management

PMgroup Planning
125 Que # 125
Que The rules of network logic state that, except for an independent or time phased
start, an activity may not begin before ________.
A. all preceding activities are started
B. most preceding activities are complete
C. all preceding activities are complete
D. resources are ordered
E. resources are identified

PMgroup Planning
126 Que # 126
Que As originally developed and employed, CPM and PERT could have only
________ start point(s) and ________ end point(s), but the current networks can
have ________ start and end points.
A. two; one; up to six
B. one; two; up to six
C. one; one; four
D. one; one; several
E. one; one; two

PMgroup Planning
127 Que # 127
 Que In an "activity-on-the-arrow" (i-j) network, the nodes represent ________ and
may also be ________.
A. a stopping point; transition points
B. zero time usage; milestones
C. a use of one unit of time; decision points
D. connector points for events; duplicates of other nodes
E. activities of importance; major consumers of time

PMgroup Planning
128 Que # 128
Que In preparing the time estimates for a project, the general rule is to use the
________ to estimate each activity.
A. engineers who will be working on the project
B. planners who are preparing the schedule
C. knowledgeable supervisory personnel
D. customer's representative
E. experience of an independent contractor

PMgroup Planning
129 Que # 129
Que Often the detailed network contains so many activities that it is difficult to
follow the logic and track progress over relatively long periods of time. A
summary network is used for this purpose. To develop a summary network from
a detailed network, ________.
A. develop a new logic network with fewer activities
B. delete activities until the logic is no longer overwhelming
C. eliminate the connecting nodes or lines to let the logic flow together
D. group like activities in a series to a higher level of work
E. group like events in a series to obtain summary events

PMgroup Planning
130 Que # 130
Que The computation of the duration of the network after all logic is completed and
all time estimates are included in the schedule requires a forward and backward
pass (computation). These two functions result in ________.
A. compressing any activities that exceed a specified duration
B. sorting all activities into a forward group and a backward group
C. generating new logic for the schedule if it exceeds the desired time duration
D. generating the float (slack) on each activity and identifying the critical path
E. separating the critical path from the noncritical path activities in the network

PMgroup Planning
131 Que # 131
Que The critical path, by definition, is considered the longest track through the
network. The computation of the critical path will determine that the network has
________ longest (time) path(s).
A. only one
B. one or more
C. always more than one
D. always more than two
E. never more than two

PMgroup Planning
132 Que # 132
 Que A network can have minus float on the critical path but never positive float
(under optimum scheduling). Some common causes of negative float are that
________.
A. a fixed end date for the project prohibits the schedule from moving beyond a set date
B. fixed milestones in the schedule prohibit sliding of dates beyond a set date
C. work may have been added on the critical path
D. changes may have been made to either the fixed end date or a fixed milestone
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
133 Que # 133
Que Suppose a negative slack/float condition has been discovered in the schedule
because of poor logic in the initial network. The logic is corrected, but the
schedule is now in a negative five-day condition. The method(s) to remove the
negative slack is/are to ________.
A. change the schedule logic to conduct parallel activities to condense the longest path
B. add resources on the critical path until some activities are reduced a total of five days

C. use a combination of added resources and change to network logic

D. obtain authority to extend the schedule by five days
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
134 Que # 134
Que In a precedence diagram (PDM), the notation "SS6" on one of the connecting
lines means ________.
A. start soonest after completion of activity six
B. subtract six units of time from the path
C. scheduled start on the sixth day of the month
D. start-to-start slack of six units of time
E. start-to-start with a delay of six units of time

PMgroup Planning
135 Que # 135
Que PERT uses three time estimates to arrive at a single "best" estimate for each
activity. This is assumed to better account for uncertainty in the estimating
process. The formula for computing the "PERT estimate" is ________. (Note a =
optimistic, m = most likely, b = pessimistic)
A. (a+m+b)/4 = mean
B. (a+4m+b)/4 = mean
C. (a+4m+b)/6 = mean
D. (a+5m+b)/6 = mean
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
136 Que # 136
Que For purposes of computing the mean and standard deviation, it is assumed that
the PERT distribution is similar to a normal curve. Therefore, PERT estimates are
assumed to have ________ standard deviations and that ________ percent of the
estimates are within this distribution.
A. two; 95
B. three; 95
C. four; 99.7
D. five; 99.99
E. three; 99.7
 PMgroup Planning
137 Que # 137
Que Suppose a network (activity-on-the-arrow, i-j) is analyzed and that it is noted
that one node has six input arrows, including two dummy activities, and two
output arrows. This is a violation of ________.
A. the rule stating that no more than three inputs or outputs can be used on one node
B. the rule that limits the output to one activity (i.e., that event triggers one activity)
C. no rule-the node is not limited to a given number of inputs or outputs
D. the rule that dummy activities are limited to one per node of either input or output
E. the logic for preparing i-j networks, which can compute only a total of six inputs and
outputs combined

PMgroup Planning
138 Que # 138
Que In a precedence diagram (PDM), the nodes are the activities and each
represents a discrete activity. The placement of the connecting lines to other
activities are significant because the lines show ________.
A. one of the four relationships of connectivity
B. a dashed connectivity for dummy activities
C. the duration of delay between the finish of one activity and the start of another
D. the amount of work being accomplished when converted to a bar chart
E. resources needed to complete the next activity

PMgroup Planning
139 Que # 139
Que Fast-tracking requires more sophisticated schedule and control methods
because it is a practice that ________ the schedule to place the system in
operation at ________.
A. increases; a later date
B. stabilizes; an earlier date
C. increases; minimum cost
D. moderates; the first opportunity
E. compresses; an earlier date

PMgroup Planning
140 Que # 140
Que The trend in computerized scheduling systems is toward the use of the
precedence diagramming method (activity on the node) as compared to the early
systems (PERT and CPM) with activity on the arrow. In teaching new project
personnel the scheduling system, it is helpful to teach both methods because
________.

A. some of the activity on the arrow systems may need to be converted to activity on the
node
B. it provides a better basis for understanding networking techniques
C. some activity on the node systems may need to be converted to activity on the arrow
D. some systems use a mixture of both techniques in an individual network
E. there is often a need to schedule in both methods for one project

PMgroup Planning
141 Que # 141
Que The success of a project is often unknown until completion because there was
little or no planned evaluation of the realistic progress and trends for the future.
Determining whether a project will finish on time is best accomplished by
________.
A. comparing the baseline schedule with the current status
B. comparing the current status with the expenditure rate
 C. running several iterations of the network to conduct a "what if" exercise
D. analyzing the work completed versus the work scheduled
E. obtaining the opinions of several members of the project team

PMgroup Planning
142 Que # 142
Que Suppose you are the project manager for a major project that has 14
subcontractors. Managing the schedule is considered critical to the successful
completion and activation of the system. To ensure the best control, you direct
the project control section leader to develop a schedule that ________.
A. includes interface points for subcontractors, and you let the subcontractors develop
their detail schedules for individual management of time
B. includes the detailed activities of the subcontractors as well as the details of your work

C. excludes any subcontractor schedule because the subcontractors are paid to manage
to meet the critical interface dates
D. includes only the subcontractors' schedules and their vendors' or subcontractors'
detail schedules
E. compresses all (yours and subcontractors') activity durations by 10 percent, which will
be used as a reserve

PMgroup Planning
143 Que # 143
Que Suppose a subcontractor informs the project manager that there is a slippage
on the schedule of his/her work by at least two weeks. This work is on the critical
path and will negatively impact the project by two weeks if nothing is done. The
project manager should ________.
A. review the contract to determine the subcontractor's obligation to meet the current
schedule
B. review the subcontractor's schedule to determine whether there is an actual two-week
delay
C. review the situation to determine why the subcontractor believes s/he is going to
betwo-weeks late
D. review the project master schedule to determine if there is going to be a two-week
impact on the project if the subcontractor delays his/her schedule
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
144 Que # 144
Que The project manager identifies a potential problem with the schedule in that
many of the supervisors are not starting work on schedule, but are waiting until
all the float (slack) is consumed on an activity before starting. In a few cases, this
practice is "pushing" following activities out and absorbing the float
downstream. The project manager directs that this practice stop and to ensure
compliance ________.

A. "freezes" the start of all activities to identify when supervisors initiate late starts
B. "freezes" the end point of all activities to identify when the supervisors initiate late
starts
C. converts the schedule to a "fixed" activity network so the supervisors have only a
given time frame to complete activities
D. informs the supervisors that any delays in the scheduled activities will result in
dismissal of the responsible supervisor
E. dismisses the most frequent abuser of the scheduling system as an example of the
action that will be taken against supervisors for irregular practices

PMgroup Planning
145 Que # 145
Que During a review of the Gantt (bar) chart, the project manager identifies some
tasks that have not been started and are more than two weeks late. All of these
activities are the responsibility of one supervisor. The project manager should
________.
A. determine whether the Gantt chart has the most current information
B. determine whether the supervisor is accurately reporting progress
C. review the system of information inputs to determine the accuracy of the system
D. discuss the late activities with the supervisor to determine why there are delays in the
schedule
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
146 Que # 146
Que When properly managed and used, float (slack) in a schedule provides some
flexibility in a schedule. The ownership of float on a major contract may be
questioned by the owner (buyer), prime contractor, and subcontractors.
Therefore, it is best to include the float ownership in ________.
A. the project management plan
B. the contract(s)
C. the project charter
D. a separate agreement
E. the master schedule

PMgroup Planning
147 Que # 147
Que There is a belief that all task durations can be altered by increasing or reducing
the work force. Following this belief, one could compress the schedule to one-
half by doubling the work force. The fallacy with this procedure is that ________.

A. the skills may not be available to double the work force

B. the process may not facilitate the additional personnel (such as a sequential assembly
operation)
C. there may not be sufficient physical space to accommodate the larger work force
D. the compression of work into fewer hours by more people may be inefficient
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
148 Que # 148
Que A project is scheduled to be completed in a set number of days, weeks, or
months. The schedule can often be impacted to the extent that work activity must
be accelerated by the increase of people and equipment. The most frequent
reason for acceleration is that ________.
A. an increase or change in the scope of work must be completed within the original time
frame
B. the progress of work activities has been poor in the beginning of the project
C. the project was started late and the schedule end date must be met
D. an opportunity to place a system in service at an early date forces the owner to
impose a new completion date
E. the project manager believes that the original schedule was not valid and that
acceleration is needed to meet the planned end date

PMgroup Planning
149 Que # 149
 Que The project schedule is more than a document that lays out the activities over
time to represent the time dimension of the project; it is a management tool to be
used for decision making. As such, the schedule is used by the project
management team to ________.
A. measure, delay, record, distribute, analyze, and direct
B. emphasize, visualize, analyze, conceptualize, report, and record
C. promote, highlight, monitor, control, forecast, and report
D. plan, schedule, monitor, control, report, and forecast
E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
150 Que # 150
Que The project schedule is a dynamic document that is maintained in computer
systems and that initially reflects the baseline plan. As the schedule is updated
to correct errors, change the scope, or reflect actual duration, the baseline
schedule ________.
A. becomes the current schedule with all changes
B. is maintained as the original baseline for post-project evaluations
C. is deleted as being unusable and unneeded to manage the project
D. is amended to remove any errors but maintained for post-project evaluations
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
151 Que # 151
Que The schedule is an important document to plan and control the use of time and
to reflect progress on the project. As such, it should be developed during the
________ phase and updated during the ________ phase.
A. conceptual; planning
B. implementation; execution
C. planning; implementation
D. execution; close-out
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
152 Que # 152
Que In scheduling, efficiency demands that the least sophisticated scheduling
system be used to save on resources and maintenance time. In a small, simple
project with few interdependencies, the most efficient means of graphically
portraying the schedule would be by means of a ________. A complex project
with many interdependencies would require a ________ system that would
facilitate ease of planning and updating as well as reporting progress.

A. Gantt chart; computerized scheduling

B. histogram; automated bar chart
C. Pareto diagram; computerized CPM
D. CPM network; computerized scheduling
E. none of the above

PMgroup Planning
153 Que # 153
Que The project schedule is the key to tracking progress in the project. Schedule
reports should be easily understood, practical, pertinent, and current because of
their intended use by ________.
A. engineers
B. planners
C. managers
D. the scheduling team
 E. all of the above

PMgroup Planning
336 Que # 336
Que The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the CPM of
scheduling is the
A. placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
B. ADM is a deterministic method whereas the PDM is a probabilistic method
C. PDM is a deterministic method whereas the ADM is a probabilistic method
D. PDM is a more accurate method
E. ADM is a more accurate method

PMgroup Planning
337 Que # 337
Que The overall duration of the project schedule is influenced by all of the following
except
A. Using mandatory dependencies as constraints
B. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints
C. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work
D. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work
E. Using the ADM insteady of the PDM of scheduling

PMgroup Planning
338 Que # 338
Que The Program Evaluation and Review Technique method of schedule differs from
the CPM because the PERT method uses
A. Weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project duration
B. "Dummy" activities to represent logic ties
C. "Free float" instead of "Total float" in the schedule calculations
D. Bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the schedule
E. Segmented network logic

PMgroup Planning
339 Que # 339
Que The "fast-tracking" method of schedule compression involves
A. The use of industrial engineering technques to improve productivity; thereby finishing
the project earlier than originally planned
B. Work package execution thereby increasing risk
C. Going on a "mandatory overtime schedule" in order to compelte the project earlier
D. Calculating the percentage of potential schedule overrun, and reducing each
activity'sduration by that percentage in order to enable the project to complete on
schedule
E. Assigning "dedicated teams" to the critical path activities

PMgroup Planning
340 Que # 340
Que The project schedule is useful in the generation of many important documents
during the life span of the project. All of the following documents may be
generated by a project schedule except
A. Resource Utilization Histograms
B. Cash Flow Forecasts
C. WBS
D. Performance Measurement Baseline
E. Purchase Order Curves

PMgroup Planning
341 Que # 341
Que As of the data date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP,
however, is 110. This tells you that your project is currently 10%
A. Behind schedule
B. Ahead of schedule
C. Over budget
D. Under budget
E. Ahead of schedule and over budget

PMgroup Planning
342 Que # 342
Que In what way does free float differ from total float?
A. Free float is the amount of Total float that does not affect the end date, whereas total
float is the accumulated amount of Free float.
B. There is no difference - the two terms are functionally equivalent
C. Free float affects only the early start of any immediately following activities
D. Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time", wehereas total float is
commonlyreferred to as "float time".
E. An activity's Free Float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's
Total Float.

PMgroup Planning
343 Que # 343
Que An example of a "soft logic" dependency, as opposed to a "hard logic"
depencency is
A. Project A, the company's participatin in a Pump Industry Trade show, depends on the
successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype punp that is going to
be displayed
B. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family
dwelling.
C. To schedule all unloading of equipment weighing in excess of fifty tons becausethe
daily rent on the crane with that lifiting capability is $10,000.
D. For the shrink-wrapping on the finished box of software to depend on enclosing the
manual and software first.
E. To schedule the final testing activity of a computer to start seventy-two hours after the
mandatory seventy-two hour "burn-in" period.

PMgroup Planning
344 Que # 344
Que One way that the Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique differs from the
Program Evaluation adn Review Techniques is that it
A. Allows the relationships in the logic diagram to contain loops
B. Represents the Project Baseline Chart in a superimposed fashion over both the
logicdiagram and teh Gantt Charts
C. Uses Object Oriented Programming techniques to allow resource histograms thatare
attached to the project' sGantt Charts
D. Represents the duration of the project activities in a probabilistic fashion
E. Represents the duration of the proejct activities in a deterministic fashion

PMgroup Planning
345 Que # 345
Que Your schedule analysis has shown that your project has a high likelihood of
experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much
A. Higher than the ACWP
B. Lower than the ACWP
C. Higher than the BCWS
 D. Lower than the BCWS
E. Higher than the CPI

PMgroup Planning
346 Que # 346
Que The schedule shoud be "re-baselined" when
A. A sequence of activities has taken longer than originally planned
B. The scope has been increased by the client, with an associated approval of the
increase
C. The productivity within a certain discipline has been higher than originally planned
D. A high-duration activity has been accomplished "out-of-sequence"
E. Problem experience dictates, in order to justify changes to the client

PMgroup Planning
347 Que # 347
Que The key inputs into activity definition are
A. Work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network diagram
B. Project schedule, progress reports, and change requests
C. Project network diagram, constraints, and durations
D. Work breakdown structure, scope statement, and historical information that supports
the applicable activity
E. Scope statement, work breakdown structure, and changes required

PMgroup Planning
348 Que # 348
Que To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is called
A. Duration compresesion
B. Crashing
C. PERT
D. ADM or PDM forward and backward pass to determine the critical path
E. Fast Tracking

PMgroup Planning
349 Que # 349
Que A Gantt chart is useful in determining
A. The level of effort of a task
B. When a task starts and stops
C. How tasks are related to each other
D. Who is assigned to do a task
E. Relative priority of tasks

PMgroup Planning
350 Que # 350
Que A network analysis technique that allows for conditional and probabilistic
treatment of logical relationships is known as
A. The WBS
B. The Gantt Chart
C. Time scaled network diagramming
D. GERT
E. CPM

PMgroup Planning
351 Que # 351
Que PERT is used for
A. Developing teh WBS
B. Developing cost histograms
 C. Estimating project duration when there is a high degree of uncertainty with the
individualactivity duration estimates
D. Presenting project summary status to upper management
E. Determining project duration when it is necessary to factor in the conditional
probabilistictreatment of logical relationships

PMgroup Planning
352 Que # 352
Que The PDM provides project managers with knowledgte of
A. All levels of the WBS
B. Tasks likely to be involved in the project integration and resource allocation functions
C. A graphical representation of the task interdependencies
D. What the project completion date is
E. Project duration analysis of which sequence of activities has the least flexibility

PMgroup Planning
353 Que # 353
Que Analogous estimating is also called
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Top-down estimating
C. Multiple dureation estimating
D. Deductive estimating
E. Inductions estimating

PMgroup Planning
354 Que # 354
Que The critical path is calculated by establishing the following dates
A. Start to start, start to finish, finish to finish, finish to start
B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish
C. Predecessor to successor, predecessor to predecessor, successor to successor
D. Primary to secondary, primary to finish, secondary to secondary, finish to finish
E. Planned start, actual start, planned finish, actual finish

PMgroup Planning
355 Que # 355
Que Fast Tracking in time management is
A. Doing some or all activities in parallel rather than in sequence
B. Preparing progress reports on a quick turnaround basis
C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path
D. Reducing the time allowed for each project activity
E. Minimizing float

PMgroup Planning
501 Que # 501
Que The most important element necessary for project control is
A. Upper management commitment
B. Responsibility over resources
C. A labor distribution reporting system
D. Clear requirements
E. Sufficient management reserve

PMgroup Planning
502 Que # 502
Que A precedence diagram and an arrow diagram are both examples of networks.
Which statement describes the primary difference between them?
A. The arror diagram incorporates PERT in the activity duration
 B. The precedence diagram represents activities as nodes
C. The arrow diagram does not indicate critical path
D. The precedence diagram uses float as part of the activity duration
E. None of the above; they are virtually identical

PMgroup Planning
503 Que # 503
Que Which term describes a modification of a logical relationship that delays a
successor task?
A. Lag
B. Lead
C. Float
D. Slack
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
504 Que # 504
Que In the earned value method of progress performance measurement, schedule
variance is a measure of the time deviation between the actual progress and the
planned progress that is measured in
A. Workdays
B. Calendar days
C. Resource units
D. Monetary units
E. Monetary units and time units

PMgroup Planning
505 Que # 505
Que Milestones are not
A. Activities of zero duration
B. Significant events in the project life cycle
C. Measures of achievement for expenditures of money or time
D. Set by project stakeholders
E. Best utilized when denoting start and finish of all activities

PMgroup Planning
506 Que # 506
Que Many resource leveling algorithms are available to project schedulers. Which
of the following is not used as a basis for resource leveling?
A. Slack
B. Early dates
C. Late dates
D. Critical path priority
E. Resource production rate

PMgroup Planning
507 Que # 507
Que The network diagram
A. Illustrates project team member communication
B. Identifies the scheduled start and end dates of key activities and administrative tasks
C. Displays the logical relationships between project activities
D. Provides information on schedule performance
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
508 Que # 508
 Que The goal of resource-constrained scheduling is to
A. Organize time on construction projects
B. Minimize the overall project duration given the available resources
C. Minimize overtime expenses by assigning resources within normal work hours
D. Maximize the efficiency of available resources based on activity sequences
E. Increase productivity through fast-tracking and crashing procedures

PMgroup Planning
509 Que # 509
Que Project time management includes the proceses to ensure timely completion of
the project. The major components of time management are
A. Activity definition, activity sequencing, activity duration estimates, activity cost
estimates, and schedule development
B. Activity definition, activity sequencing, activity duration estimates, schedule
development, and schedule control
C. Activity sequencing, schedule development, risk quantification, and schedule control
D. Schedule development, schedule control, and earned value assessments
E. Activity definition, duration estimates, activity scheduling, and resource control

PMgroup Planning
510 Que # 510
Que Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the
4th. The successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The
finish-to-start relationship has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4
days. Sunday is a nonworkday. What can be determined from these data?
A. The total duration of both activities is 7 days
B. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days
C. The finish date of B is Wednesday the 13th
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

PMgroup Planning
511 Que # 511
Que Schedule control is concerned with
A. Influencing the factors that create schedule changes to ensure that the changes are
beneficial
B. Determining that the schedule has changed
C. Managing the actual changes when and as they occur
D. Working to integrate schedule control with other control processes
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
512 Que # 512
Que "I cannot test the software until I code the software." This expression describes
which of the following dependencies?
A. Discretionary
B. Soft
C. Preferential
D. Mandatory or hard
E. Regulated

PMgroup Planning
513 Que # 513
Que The schedule development technique that provides early and late start and
finish dates for each acivity is
A. SPC analysis
 B. GERT
C. CPM
D. Monte Carlo simulation
E. Expected value

PMgroup Planning
514 Que # 514
Que Float, or slack, is a measure of
A. Free time
B. Scheduling constraint
C. Resource availability
D. Scheduling flexibility
E. Underscheduled resources

PMgroup Planning
515 Que # 515
Que In project time management, fast-tracking means
A. Reducing the duration of critical path activities to shorten project duration
B. Reducing project duration by redefining logical relationships
C. Using only the best resources to accomplish work as quickly as possible
D. Coordinating efforts with other projects to reduce administrative friction
E. Using state-of-the-art software to measure project progress

PMgroup Planning
516 Que # 516
Que Several tools and techniques are available for activity sequencing. The tool or
technique selected can be determined by several factors. If the project manager
decides to include SUBNETS or FRAGNETS as part of his or her scheduling
technique, what would that decision say about the project?
A. The work is unique requiring special network diagrams at various stages
B. The software that manages resources is available over an existing electronic network
C. Several identical or nearly identical series of activities are repeated throughout the
project
D. A and B
E. A and C

PMgroup Planning
517 Que # 517
Que Several types of float are found in project networks. Float that is used by a
particular activity and does not affect the float in later activities is called
A. Extra float
B. Free float
C. Total float
D. Expected float
E. Stacked float

PMgroup Planning
518 Que # 518
Que Decomposition is a technique used for both scope and activity definition.
Which statement best describes the role decomposition plays in activity
definition as compared to scope definition?
A. Final output is described in terms of work packages in the WBS
B. Final output is described as deliverables or tangible items
C. Final output is described as activities or action steps
D. Final output is described in terms of objectives that relate to the scope statement
E. Decomposition is used the same way in scope definition and activity definition
 PMgroup Planning
519 Que # 519
Que Which of the following formulas provides the most accurate result for
computing activity duration?
A. AD = Work quantity divided by Production Rate
B. AD = Work quantity divided by Number of Resources
C. AD = Production rate divided by Work quantity
D. AD = (Production rate times Work quantity) divided by Number of Resources
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
520 Que # 520
Que The three main types of diagramming methods are
A. AOA, PERT, and CPM
B. PERT, CPM and GERT
C. Precedence, arrow, and conditional
D. AON, AOA and PDM
E. ADM, PDM and AON

PMgroup Planning
521 Que # 521
Que To assess the implications of crashing a project, a project manager should first
compute
A. Cost and time slope for each activity that can be expedited
B. Cost of additional resources to be added to the project
C. Time that will be saved in the overall schedule when tasks are expedited
D. Changes in technology that result from crashing the project
E. Three probabilistic time estimates of PERT

PMgroup Planning
522 Que # 522
Que Conditional diagramming methods such as GERT are used
A. Because PDM and ADM do not allow nonsequential activities, such as loops or
conditional branches
B. For a graphical representation of the network
C. To show the four types of dependencies (finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start,
and start-to-finish)
D. To help expedite the preparattion of a project network diagram
E. To easily display dummy activitites in a network

PMgroup Planning
523 Que # 523
Que Which of the following is NOT an output from activity duration estimating?
A. Activity duration estimates
B. Basis of estimates
C. Activity list updates
D. WBS updates
E. An indication of the range of possible results

PMgroup Planning
524 Que # 524
Que The primary outcome of performing a forward pass on a network diagram is the
determination of the
A. Earliest time each activity in the network can start and finish
B. Amount of resources required to complete the project
 C. Project's total float
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C

PMgroup Planning
525 Que # 525
Que The project schedule may be presented graphically as a
A. Bar chart
B. Project network diagram with date informaton added
C. Milestone chart
D. Time-scaled network diagram
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
526 Que # 526
Que Unlike bar charts, milestone charts show
A. Scheduled start or completion of major deliverables and key events
B. Activity start and end dates
C. Expected durations
D. Dependencies
E. Logical relationships and critical path

PMgroup Planning
527 Que # 527
Que An activity has an early start date of the 10th and a late start date of the 19th.
The activity also has a duration of 4 days. There are no nonworkdays. From the
information given, what can be concluded about the activity?
A. Total float for the activity is 9 days
B. The early finish date of the activity is the end of the day on the 13th
C. The late finish date is the 25th
D. The total calendar time to complete the activity is 4 days
E. A and B

PMgroup Planning
528 Que # 528
Que The basis for measuring and reporting schedule performance is the
A. Schedule baseline
B. Number of change requests
C. Difference between planned and actual events and activities
D. Need for duration compression techniques
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
529 Que # 529
Que Which tool provides a basis to identify the work that must be scheduled?
A. Kanban chart
B. WBS
C. Budget
D. Master schedule
E. Gantt chart

PMgroup Planning
530 Que # 530
Que Although several factors should be considered when developing estimates, the
primary basis for estimating activity time and cost estimates is
A. Productivity rates
 B. Resource usage
C. Resource availability
D. A and B
E. A and C

PMgroup Planning
531 Que # 531
Que Determining activity durations require developing estimates. Typical input to
consider in developing an estimate includes which of the following?
A. Resource requirements
B. Resource capabilities
C. Project team knowledge
D. Past project files
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
532 Que # 532
Que Activity A has a pessimistic (P) estimate of 36 days, a most likely (ML) estimate
of 21 days, and an optimistic (O) estimate of 6 days. What is the probability that
activity A will be completed in 16 to 26 days?
A. 55.70%
B. 68.26%
C. 95.46%
D. 99.73%
E. Cannot be determined

PMgroup Planning
533 Que # 533
Que The major difference between PERT and CPM is that PERT
A. Uses the distribution's mean (expected value) in computing the schedule
B. Uses the most likely estimate to compute float
C. Focuses on calculating float to determine which activities have the least scheduling
flexibility
D. A and C
E. A, B, and C

PMgroup Planning
534 Que # 534
Que Updates to the WBS, which are most likely to occur when the project involves
new or unproven technology, are often called
A. Modifications
B. Enhancements
C. Refinements
D. Alterations
E. Permutations

PMgroup Planning
535 Que # 535
Que A milestone is best described as
A. A combination of related activities and events
B. An intersection of two or more lines or arrows commonly used for depicting an event
or activity
C. An identifiable point in a project that denotes a reporting requirement or completion of
an important activity
D. A specific project task that requires resources and time to complete
E. The last stage leading to project completion
 PMgroup Planning
536 Que # 536
Que In project time management, crashing means
A. Reducing project duration by redefining logical relationships
B. Reducing computer network downtime for schedule risk modeling
C. Applying additional resources to all project activities
D. Randomly applying resources to critical path activities
E. Applying additional resources to critical path activities by priority

PMgroup Planning
537 Que # 537
Que A dummy activity
A. Is used only in activity-on-arrow networks
B. Has zero duration
C. Does not require resources
D. Indicates a precedence relationship
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
538 Que # 538
Que Which term describes a modification of a logical relationship that accelerates a
successor task?
A. Lag
B. Leveling
C. Crashing
D. Lead
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
539 Que # 539
Que PERT is an estimating tool that
A. Incorporates risk as an element of the estimate
B. Can be used only for estimating level of effort
C. Can be used only in PDM
D. Uses only historical estimates to calculate standard deviations
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
540 Que # 540
Que The following activities are in a network diagram
activity Predecessors Duration (days)
A. Excavating none 5
B. Pouring foundation A 2
C. Installing outside plumbing A 6
D. Framing B 8
E. Installing inside plumbing D 2
F. Wiring D 3

In the network outlined above, which statements are true?

I. Installing outside plumbing is on the critical path
II. Installing inside plumbing has a day of slack III. Pouring foundation
is on the critical path

A. I
B. II and III
C. I and II
 D. I and III
E. I, II, and III

606 Que # 606

PMgroup Executing
Que Which of the following would be used to present information to upper
management?
A. Gantt chart
B. Network diagram
C. Fish bone diagram
D. Milestone chart
E.

Answers

100 D
101 E
102 B
103 C
104 A
105 E
106 A
107 C
108 E
109 C
111 E
112 E
113 A
114 D
115 C
116 D
117 D
118 B
119 D
120 E
121 C
122 A
123 E
124 A
125 C
126 D
127 B
128 C
129 D
130 D
131 B
132 E
133 E
134 E
135 C
136 E
137 C
138 A
139 E
140 B
141 A
142 B
143 E
144 A
145 E
146 B
147 E
148 A
149 D
150 B
151 C
152 A
153 A
336 A
337 E
338 A
339 B
340 C
341 B
342 C
343 B
344 A
345 D
346 B
347 D
348 B
349 B
350 D
351 C
352 C
353 B
354 B
355 A
501 D
502 B
503 A
504 D
505 E
506 E
507 C
508 B
509 B
510 D
511 E
512 D
513 C
514 D
515 B
516 C
517 B
518 C
519 A
520 C
521 A
522 A
523 D
524 A
525 E
526 A
527 E
528 A
529 B
530 D
531 E
532 B
533 A
534 C
535 C
536 E
537 E
538 A
539 A
540 B
606 A
 PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT
PMgroup Planning
Que # 108
Que The project life-cycle can be described as
A. Project concept, project planning, project execution, and project close-out
B. Project planning, work authorization, and project reporting
C. Project planning, project control, project definition, WBS development and project
termination
D. Project concept, project execution, and project reporting
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
Que # 109
Que Documented work authorizations provide
A. A means for effective internal coordination of the project's activities
B. An audit trail of all work authorized from project initiation to completion
C. A means for communication of work activity between the project manager and the
performing activities
D. All the above
E. A and B only

PMgroup Planning
Que # 112
Que A project is defined as
A. A coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that
has a finite period of performance
B. A large, complex undertaking with many objectives, multiple sources of funding and
no discernable end point
C. An undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that can be
accomplished in less than one year
D. A group of activities headed by a project manager who has cradle-to-grave life cycle
responsibility for the end product
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
Que # 116
Que A Program is characterized as
A. A grouping of related tasks lasting one year or less
B. A unique undertaking having a definite time period
C. A grouping of similar projects having no definite end that supports the product(s) from
cradle to grave
D. A project with a cost over $1 million
E. None of the above

PMgroup Planning
Que # 118
Que The purpose of configuration management is to ...
A. Insure drawings are updated
B. Control change throughout the project
C. Control change during production only
D. Generate Engineering Change Proposals
E. Inform the project manager of changes
PMgroup Planning
Que # 119
Que Selection criteria for project selection include ...
A. Cost vs benefits
B. Risk
C. Contribution towards organizational goals
D. Rate of return
E. All of the above

PMgroup Planning
Que # 124
Que Configuration or baseline control refers to
A. procedures monitoring work content and products against the original content and
end product
B. control over any effort that has been approved by a higher authority
C. engineering tolerances
D. acceptance control charts and their analysis
E. a and d

PMgroup Planning
Que # 128
Que The nine categories in the PMI exam are skill areas most closely related to
A. corporate vision
B. corporate strategy
C. specifications project design
D. operations
E. product and customer

PMgroup Planning
Que # 132
Que A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is
called
A. the project plan
B. a statement of work
C. an exception report
D. a Pareto analysis
E. a code of accounts

PMgroup Planning
Que # 146
Que The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives measuring their
achievement, and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the
measurement is called
A. strategic planning
B. alternative objectives inventory
C. management by objectives
D. contingency planning
E. goal tending

PMgroup Planning
Que # 147
Que During what phase are project feasibility studies carried out?
 A. conceptual
B. development
C. implementation
D. close-out
E. post-monem

PMgroup Planning
Que # 149
Que Configuration management is
A. a means of monitoring and controlling emerging project scope against the scope
baseline
B. the production of a scope statement
C. the creation of the work breakdown stucture
D. the set of procedures developed to assure that project design criteria are met
E. a mechanism to track budget and schedule variances

PMgroup Executing
Que # 150
Que A review of historical data points (e.g., cost or schedule data) over time is most
usefully used to
A. predict trends
B. summarize current project status
C. compute earned value
D. establish blame for project failures
E. a and b

PMgroup Planning
Que # 154
Que A key component of any configuration management system is
A. estimate at completion (EAC)
B. a change control board (CCB).
C. budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP)
D. benefit-cost ratios.
E. management reserve.

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 157
Que A role of the change control board is to
A. issue change requests.
B. represent top management interests in initiating innovation.
C. review the impact of change requests on project costs, schedule, and specifications.
D. schedule changes into PERT networks.
E. identify new areas of project work.

PMgroup Planning
Que # 159
Que A key rule for achieving customer satisfaction is
A. do not spare expenses in product/service development
B. conduct a needs analysis.
C. always do what the customer suggests.
D. do not contradict the customer.
E. b and c.
PMgroup Executing
Que # 163
Que Evaluations are carried out throughout the life of a project. Sometimes they
entail technical reviews, other times they focus on management audits, and so
on. What is not a common problem of evaluations?
A. They are inherently threatening.
B. They are disruptive.
C. They can be arbitrary.
D. They are resisted by those being evaluated.
E. They are unnecessary.

PMgroup Closing
Que # 164
Que The final steps in the close-out phase generally lead up to
A. a project selection decision.
B. a redefinition of project requirements.
C. customer acceptance.
D. a final review of the deliverable by the engineering review board.
E. a kick-off meeting.

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 169
Que To be effective, post-project evaluations should be used to
A. punish the poor performers.
B. develop historical data to establish baselines for future projects.
C. learn lessons.
D. All of the above.
E. B and C

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 179
Que During the development of the project control system, several areas are
considered for the establishment of mechanisms to guide the project, but the
control system for the project does not include ________.
A. document control
B. procurement/acquisition control
C. personnel hiring control
D. specification control
E. design control

PMgroup Planning
Que # 181
Que Selection of an organization to prosecute a project depends upon three key
items
degree of advanced technology in the project, percentage of project personnel
in the professional category, and the ________ for the project.
A. size of the budget
B. level of uncertainty
C. location of implementation
D. type of scheduling system
E. undefined objectives

PMgroup Planning
Que # 186
Que The planning evolution is often depicted as a wheel where one action leads to
another until the cycle brings a person back to an evaluation of the lower levels
of the plans against the top level objectives. The three stages in this planning
evolution are ________.
A. conceptual, development, and implementation
B. conceptual, action, and operational controlling
C. development, implementation, and operational controlling
D. planning, action, and changes
E. planning, implementing, and measuring

PMgroup Planning
Que # 190
Que A project management plan encompasses several elements that are often
considered separate parts of the project, but the plan does not include a
________.
A. master schedule
B. budget
C. project organization
D. project management system
E. none of the above

PMgroup Initiating
Que # 207
Que The project's life cycle consists of four recognized, distinct phases
conceptual, planning, implementation, and close-out. The primary purpose of
phasing is to ________.
A. control and transition work
B. budget and schedule work
C. divide and initiate work
D. allocate resources and authorize expenditures
E. allocate responsibility and authority

PMgroup Executing
Que # 211
Que Many times throughout the project, the project manager will be asked by his/her
management or the customer to give his/her personal forecast for milestones or
targets. The project manager should ________.
A. never give a personal assessment but defer the question until the official answer can
be obtained
B. give a personal assessment but be certain to include many caveats to show the
uncertainty of the answer
C. give an interim answer that includes the qualifier "I believe" until a better answer can
be obtained
D. tell the asking party that project policy precludes anyone from giving a personal
assessment to avoid misunderstandings
E. be in a position to answer such questions in general at any time, but should take time
to respond to questions requiring precise answers

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 300
Que Tools included in Overall Change Control are
I. Configuration management. II. Performance
measurement. III. Project management information system.
IV. Performance reports. V. Project plan updates.
A. I, II, and III only
B. I, III, and IV only
C. II, III, and IV only
D. II, III, and V only
E. III, IV, and V only

PMgroup Planning
Que # 301
Que The Project plan is used to
A. Finalize budget cost estimates
B. Facilitate communication among stakeholders
C. Provide a variable measurement progress
D. Develop corrective actions
E. Improve management's general skills

PMgroup Planning
Que # 302
Que The project performance measurement baselines
I. Are equivalent to the project plan. II. Are a
management control. III. Generally change only intermittently.
IV. Document relevant standards.
A. I and III only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only
E. III and IV only

PMgroup Planning
Que # 303
Que Performance measurement baselines should
A. Remain the same throughout all phases of the project
B. Change frequently to accommodate current information about the project
C. Change only intermittently and generally only in response to an approved scope
change
D. Change in order to keep the customer happy
E. Change only when higher management directs them to be changed

PMgroup Planning
Que # 304
Que Which process is included in Project Integration Management?
A. Project plan development
B. Scope planning
C. Scope definition
D. Scope verification
E. Procurement planning

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 305
Que Identify the Subsidiary Change Control process listed below
 A. Management systems
B. Risk change control
C. Customer interface control systems
D. Cost estimates
E. Performance reporting

PMgroup Planning
Que # 306
Que Configuration Management is any documented procedure used to apply
technical administrative direction and surveillance to
A. Control cost increases
B. Identify and correct problems arising in functional areas of project implementation
C. Identify and document physical characteristics of an item
D. Test new systems
E. Estimate and control risk

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 307
Que A Change Control Board is
A. A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a
minimal amount of changes occur on the project
B. An informal or formal group of team members responsible for changes to a project
C. An informal group which has oversight of project implementation
D. A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting
changes to the project baselines
E. The project manager and several key tem members working to ensure cost and
schedulecontrol during the life of the project

PMgroup Initiating
Que # 308
Que The five basic groups are
A. Planning, checking, directing, monitoring, and recording
B. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
C. Planning, executing, monitoring, redirecting, and closing
D. Planning, executing, directing, closing, and delivering
E. Initiating, executing, monitoring, evaluating, and closing

PMgroup Initiating
Que # 309
Que The subprocesses of a project are defined by PMI as having an input,
__________, and an output.
A. Resolution and action
B. Formatting and creation
C. Tools and techniques
D. Process integration
E. Action and integration

PMgroup Planning
Que # 310
Que As a function of Project Time Managem;ent, the process of developing a
schedule is made up of
A. Activity definition, activity sequencing, activity execution, and activity duration
B. Activity definition, activity sequencing, and ativity duration
 C. Activity identificaiton, activity execution, and activity resultes
D. Activity identification, activity sequencing, activity connection, and activity duration
E. Activity determination, activity duration, activity implementation, and activity results

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 311
Que A controlling process for a project's schedule typically will focus on activities
A. Starting earlier than scheduled.
B. Starting later than scheduled.
C. That vary from the plan, whether late or early
D. That are only on the critical path
E. That are difficult to carry out

PMgroup Initiating
Que # 325
Que A stakeholder is a(n)
A. Project engineer
B. Vineyard field worker
C. Individual or agency that conrols contingency funds
D. Individual or organization affected by project activities
E. Organization's corporate attorney

PMgroup Planning
Que # 331
Que The following is an example of a process constraint
A. A target completion date
B. A business risk
C. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor
D. Relationship with the seller
E. The method used to measure project performance

PMgroup Planning
Que # 333
Que A program is characterized as a
A. Grouping of related tasks lasting one year or less
B. Unique undertaking having a definite time period
C. A grouping of related projects
D. A project with a cost over $1M
E. Sequence of steps constituting a project

PMgroup INT
Que # 501
Que The purpose of project plan development is to
A. Create a document to guide project execution and control
B. Document project assumptions and constraints
C. Promote communication among stakeholders
D. Define key project reports
E.

PMgroup INT
Que # 502
Que Overall change control is primarily concerned with
 A. Influencing factors that cause change, determining that change has occurred, and
managing actual changes as they occur
B. Maintaining integrity of baselines, integrating product and project scope, and
coordinating change across knowledge areas
C. Integrating deliverables from different functional specialties on the project
D. Establishing a change control board that oversees the overall changes on the project
E.

PMgroup INT
Que # 503
Que The principal objective of project stakeholder management is to
A. Identify all potential users of the project to ensure complete requirements analysis
B. Thwart criticism of the project by developing a list of responses to known stakeholder
concerns
C. Be proactive in curtailing stakeholder activities that might adversely affect the project
D. Build goodwill in the case of schedule and cost overruns
E.

PMgroup INT
Que # 504
Que Most of the project's budget is expended during
A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
C. Overall change control
D. Project initiation
E.

Que # 505
Que Assumptions generally involve some risk because
A. Assumptions are based on lessons learned
B. Historical information may not be available
C. Assumptions are based on constraints
D. Assumptions involve factors that are considered true, real, or certain
E.

Que # 506
Que All approved changes should be reflected in the
A. Performance measurement baseline
B. Change management plan
C. Quality assurance plan
D. Project plan
E.

Que # 507
Que In project plan development, which of the following is not an organizational
policy whose effects on the project must be considered?
A. Continuous improvement targets
B. Status meetings
C. Employee performance reviews
D. Time reporting
E.

Que # 508
Que The output of project plan execution consists of
A. Work results and change requests
B. Project plan updates and corrective action
C. Baseline changes and work authorization
D. Additional planning and deliverables
E.

Que # 509
Que The primary purpose of benchmarking is to
A. Perform marketing research to forecast how well a particular product will sell
B. Measure products, services, and processes against those of other organizations
C. Understand and collect data on customer requirements to focus attention on meeting
customer needs
D. Determine performance targets
E.

Que # 510
Que Change requests occur in all the following forms except
A. Oral or written
B. Legally mandated or optional
C. Formal or informal
D. Externally or internally initiated
E.

Que # 511
Que According to McGregor, a manager who uses Theory X sees workers as
A. Highly motivated, willing to take responsibilityt, and reliable
B. Highly untrustworthy, needing to be watched and closely managed at all times
C. Very productive when first given an assignment
D. Unproductive at first, followed by periods of high productivity
E.

Que # 512
Que Although an output of the various control processes, corrective action is also
an input to project plan execution because it
A. Ensures that project objectives are met
B. Expedites actions to ensure that activities are completed on time
C. Completes the feedback loop needed to ensure effective project management
D. Involves performing a planned response for a specific project risk event
E.

Que # 513
Que A project management information system comprises
A. Any of the project management software used for schedule development
B. All the required reports to be prepared on the project, who receives each one, and the
method of distribution
C. The policies and procedures to follow as the project is performed
D. The tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the output of the
other project management processes
E.

Que # 514
Que A change control board is
 A. Recommended for use on all projects, large or small
B. Used as required to approve or reject change requests
C. Managed by the project manager who serves as its secretary
D. Composed of key members of the project team
E.

Que # 515
Que The project plan should be distributed to
A. All stakeholders in the performing organization
B. All project stakeholders
C. Project team members and the project sponsor
D. Those people defined inf the communication management plan
E.

Que # 516
Que Leadership and management are both necessary on projects. One definition of
managing is that it involves producing key results expected by stakeholders,
whereas leadership involves
A. Establishing direction, aligning people, and motivating and inspiring others
B. Getting things done through other people
C. Using charismatic power to motivate others to be productive
D. Using all types of power, as appropriate, as motivational tools
E.

Que # 517
Que The change control system includes
A. Procedures to define how documents may be changed
B. Specific change requests expected on the project and plans to respond to each one
C. Performance reports that forecast project changes
D. A description of the functional and physical characteristics of an item or system
E.

Que # 518
Que According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene Theory of Motivation, if
achievement, recognition, responsibility, advance or promotion, and positive
supervisor attitude are not present, employees will
A. Become alienated with the organization and leave
B. Lack motivation but will not be dissatisfied with their work
C. Lack motivation and become dissatisfied with their work
D. Become dissatisfied only if they do not receive salary increases
E.

Que # 519
Que Typically, change control systems include automatic approval of certain types
of changes. An example of such a change is one that is
A. Suggested by the project sponsor
B. The result of an emergency
C. Suggested by the customer
D. Made mandatory by a new regulation
E.

Que # 520
Que Problem solving, which is an important activity on projects, consists of
 A. Influencing the organization to get things done
B. Defining problems and making decisions
C. Conferring with others to reach a decision
D. Producing key results expected by stakeholders
E.

Que # 521
Que Rolling wave planning provides information on the work to be done
A. Throughout all phases of the project
B. For successful completion of the current phase of the project
C. For successful completion of the current phase and subsequent phases of the project

D. In the next phase of the project

E.

Que # 522
Que Configuration management describes procedures to apply technical and
administrative direction. Which of the following tasks is not performed in
configuration management?
A. Identifying functional and physical characteristics of an item or system
B. Controlling changes to characteristics
C. Performing an audit to verify conformance to requirements
D. Allowing automatic approval of changes
E.

Que # 523
Que As applied to projects, temporary means that
A. Projects are short in duration
B. Every project has a definite begining and end
C. The undertaking will end at an undetermined time in the future
D. Projects can be canceled at any time
E.

Que # 524
Que All the following are examples of tools and techniques used in integration
management except
A. The work authorization system
B. Organizational procedures
C. Product skills and knowledge
D. Organizational policies
E.

Que # 525
Que Which of the following is an example of a constraint in project plan
development?
A. Records of past performance
B. Financial reports from similar projects
C. A predefined budget
D. Lessons learned from prior projects
E.

Que # 526
Que Performance measurement techniques are useful in overall change control
because they
A. Help show the status of the project
B. Measure overall project progress
C. Summarize information on the project for reporting to stakeholders
D. Help assess whether variances from the plan require corrective action
E.

Que # 527
Que The management-by-objectives technique addresses all the following except
A. Establishing unambiguous and realistic objectives
B. Periodically evaluating whether project objectives have been achieved
C. Promoting participation, team building, and commitment to the project
D. Establishing a specific career path for a project team member
E.

Que # 528
Que A work authorization system is a
A. Work breakdown structure showing individual work elements
B. Formal procedures for sanctioning work so that it is done at the right time and in the
proper sequence
C. Method to ensure that each person on the project team knows the work elements that
are his or her responsibility
D. System to help measure performance in terms of work completed versus work
planned
E.

Que # 529
Que The purpose of a project planning methodology is to
A. Provide a structured approach to guide the project team in project plan development
B. Ensure that all required forms are completed
C. Ensure that organizational policies and procedures are followed during the
development and execution of the project plan
D. Serve as a repository of lessons learned that can be applied to the current project
E.

Que # 530
Que Lessons learned from projects are significant because they
A. Must be collected to meet requirements of organizational policies and procedures
B. Show the causes of variances and the reasons certain corrective actions were
selected
C. Show why certain projects were selected by the organization over others
D. Show why certain people were selected as project manager and team members over
others
E.

Que # 531
Que According to the expectancy theory of motivation
A. Poor performance is the natural outcome of poor training
B. Managers should not expect too much of workers
C. Motivation to act is linked to an outcome that is expected to have value
D. Managers should expect that employees who are paid more will work harder
E.
Que # 532
Que Work results are
A. Outcomes of activities performed to accomplish the project
B. Success criteria for the project to meet
C. Official verification of project acceptance by the customer
D. Official verification of contract completion
E.

Que # 533
Que Which of the following is an example of a "soft" tool that could be part of a
project management methodology?
A. Project management software
B. A continuous improvement target
C. A facilitated kickoff meeting
D. Cost accounting codes
E.

Que # 534
Que Measuring project performance regularly is necessary to identify variances
from the project plan. A variance is considered to be significant if it
A. Is considered a project risk
B. Becomes a lesson learned as a result of the corrective action selected
C. Jeopardizes project objectives
D. Requires corrective action
E.

Que # 535
Que Which of the following is an appropriate management style to use with the
project manager wants to enxcourage the staff to pool its knowledge to make the
best decision possible?
A. Laissez-faire
B. Democratic
C. Autocratic
D. Directive
E.

Que # 536
Que A project management process and a product-oriented management process
A. Overlap and interact throughout the project
B. Are defined by the project life cycle
C. Are concerned with describing and organizing project work
D. Are similar for each applicaiton area
E.

Que # 537
Que Which of the following is not part of the project plan?
A. The project charter
B. The WBS
C. Performance measurement baselines for schedule and cost
D. The project team members' compensation plan
E.
Que # 538
Que Controlling occurs
A. On a continual basis throughout the project
B. At the end of each phase of the project life cycle to assess its success in meeting
project objectives
C. At the end of each planning process
D. On a continual basis throughout the executing process and as needed in the other
processes
E.

Que # 539
Que What are Maslow's three highest levels of human needs?
A. Physiological, safety, and social
B. Recognition, responsibility, and reward
C. Self-actualization, esteem, and social
D. Happiness, health, and prosperity
E.

PMgroup INT
Que # 540
Que Organizational interfaces are primarily
A. Contractual interfaces between more than one organization
B. Management decisions relating to the resolution of conflict
C. Personal interfaces addressing professional development programs
D. Management interfaces dealing with actions, decisions, or approvals
E.

PMgroup Executing
Que # 542
Que A project is an ideal environment in which to use the technique of management
by objectives because
A. Project management involves setting organizational objectives
B. Projects generally are handled through a matrix management environment
C. Project managers' responsibilities are defined in terms of corporate objectives
D. All projects should be strongly oriented toward goals and objectives
E. Top management policy and goals should flow down through the management
hierarchy

PMgroup Planning
Que # 543
Que The principal objective of project stakeholder management is to
A. Identify all potential users of the project to ensure complete requirements analysis
B. Thwart criticism of the project by developing a list of responses to known stakeholder
concerns
C. Be proactive in curtailing stakeholder activities that might adversely affect the project
D. Discredit negative stakeholders so that their arguments and concerns will not have
much credence
E. Build goodwill in the case of schedule and cost overruns

PMgroup Planning
Que # 544
Que As applied to projects, TEMPORARY means that
A. Projects are short in duration
 B. Every project has a definite beginning and end
C. The undertaking will end at an undetermined time in the future
D. Projects can be canceled at any time
E. All of the above

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 545
Que A change control system should include all the following except
A. Procedures to handle changes that may be approved without prior review
B. Procedures for automatic approval of defined categories of change
C. Paperwork, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary for authorizing changes
D. A description of the powers and responsibilities of the change control board
E. Procedures for conducting a midproject control system review

PMgroup Planning
Que # 546
Que The management-by-objectives technique
A. Establishes unambiguous and realistic objectives
B. Periodically evaluates whether project objectives have been achieved
C. Promotes participation and team building on the project
D. Fosters commitment to the project
E. All of the above

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 547
Que The project plan is important in change control because it
A. Provides the baseline against which changes are managed
B. Provides information on project performance
C. Alerts the project team to issues that may cause problems in the future
D. Helps to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to the change
control process
E. Is not expected to change throughout the project

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 548
Que A change request may be
A. Oral or written
B. Direct or indirect
C. Externally or internally initiated
D. Legally mandated or optional
E. All of the above

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 549
Que A configuration control board can be a significant part of a large project. Which
activity is NOT a function of the configuration control board?
A. Reviewing all requested changes to the project and identifying all impacts.
B. Evaluating benefits, costs, and alternatives to requested changes
C. Accepting or rejecting requested changes
D. Documenting all actions and decisions
E. Serving as a communication link for all actions between the project and the customer.
PMgroup Controlling
Que # 550
Que Two fundamental objectives of project control are to
A. Achieve results by altering activities and managing organizational assets
B. Eliminate unexpected technical problems and technical difficulties that require more
resources
C. Ensure that resources are available when needed and that the scope of work does
not increase
D. Ensure that the required input of material, personnel, and equipment is available
when needed and that budgeting is adequate
E. Avoid quality or reliability problems through incorrect task sequencing

PMgroup Executing
Que # 551
Que A project manager's company operates in a high-technology area requiring the
integration and sharing of several functional specialties. The project manager is
considering the appropriate organizational structure for a new project. The likely
choice would be
A. Matrix
B. Tight matrix
C. Functional
D. Projectized
E. None of the above

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 553
Que The three major causes of change on a project are
A. Replacement of the project manager or key project team members, changes in
priorities by senior management, and contractual difficulties
B. Changes in the relative importance of time, resources, or cost; new knowledge about
the deliverable; and technological uncertainty
C. Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the project, new
informatoin about the project deliverable, and a new mandate
D. Introduction of new technology, financial difficulties of the parent organization, and
lack of resources to commit to the project
E. Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers, cost overruns, and
changes in customer requirements

PMgroup Controlling
Que # 554
Que All the following statements are true about interface, EXCEPT
A. Considered to be the most difficult aspect of implementing the project plan
B. The process of coordinating the various elements of the project so that they meet their
joint goals of performance, schedule, and budget
C. The responsibility of the project manager as part of the everyday task of managing the
project
D. Facilitated by use of the responsibility assignment matrix to display the ways people
on the project interact and their duties and responsibilities
E. Primarily concerned with the technical issues associated with linking system
components in a configuration

PMgroup Initiating
Que # 555
Que The input to project initiation consists of
A. The product or service description
B. The company's strategic plan
C. The project selection criteria
D. Historical data
E. All of the above

Answers
108 A
109 D
112 A
116 C
118 B
119 E
124 A
128 C
132 B
146 C
147 A
149 A
150 E
154 B
157 C
159 B
163 E
164 C
169 E
179 C
181 B
186 C
190 E
207 A
211 E
300 A
301 B
302 C
303 C
304 A
305 B
306 C
307 D
308 B
309 C
310 B
311 C
325 D
331 A
333 C
501 A
502 A
503 C
504 B
505 D
506 D
507 B
508 A
509 B
510 C
511 B
512 C
513 D
514 B
515 D
516 A
517 A
518 C
519 B
520 B
521 C
522 D
523 B
524 D
525 C
526 D
527 D
528 B
529 A
530 B
531 C
532 A
533 C
534 C
535 B
536 A
537 D
538 A
539 C
540 D
542 D
543 C
544 B
545 E
546 E
547 A
548 E
549 E
550 A
551 A
553 C
554 E
555 E