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noumanawan@gawab.com
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Nouman Awan
noumanawan@gawab.com
http://www.bbafellows.forum-motion.net
1. End of Discount
Year Payment Factor (14%) Present Value
1 $ 50 .935 $ 46.75
2 50 .873 43.65
3 50 .816 40.80
4 50 .763 38.15
5 50 .713 35.65
= $4/$20 = 20%
P
h 1 $2.00(1.15)1 = $2.30 x .847 = $ 1.95 a
s 2 2.00(1.15)2 = 2.65 x .718 = 1.90
e
3 2.00(1.15)3 = 3.04 x .609 = 1.85
1
= ($32.69)(.370) = $12.10
Either the present strategy (a) or strategy (c).Both result in the same market price
per share.
We get YTC = 9.64 percent. (If the students work with present-value tables, they
= $45(12.409) + $1,000(.131)
$21(.12 - g) = $1.40(1 + g)
$1.12 = $22.40(g)
(1 + .0402)2 - 1 = .0820
12. Trying a 4 percent semiannual YTM as a starting point for a trial- and-error approach,
we get
P0 = $45(PVIFA4%,20) + $1,000(PVIF4%,20)
= $45(13.590) + $1,000(.456)
P0 = $45(PVIFA3%,20) + $1,000(PVIF3%,20)
= $45(14.877) + $1,000(.554)
13. a) Old Chicago's 15-year bonds should show a greater price change than Red Frog's
bonds. With everything the same except for maturity, the longer the maturity,
the greater the price fluctuation associated with a given change in market
required return. The closer in time that you are to the relatively large
maturity value being realized, the less important are interest payments in
determining the market price, and the less important is a change in market
b) (Red Frog):
P0 = $45(PVIFA4%,10) + $1,000(PVIF4%,10)
= $45(8.111) + $1,000(.676)
(Old Chicago):
P0 = $45(PVIFA4%,30) + $1,000(PVIF4%,30)