Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 36

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

MM
HLAAC

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005


Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
5. The CODE for this Booklet is MM.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.
9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.

1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

1. Casparian strips occur in 5. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem


(1) Epidermis (2) Cortex are produced by

(3) Pericycle (4) Endodermis (1) Apical meristems

Answer ( 4 ) (2) Phellogen

Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial (3) Vascular cambium


and inner tangential wall. (4) Axillary meristems
• It is suberin rich. Answer ( 3 )
2. Plants having little or no secondary growth Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
are
• Form secondary xylem towards its inside
(1) Grasses
and secondary phloem towards outsides.
(2) Conifers
• 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
(3) Deciduous angiosperms
produced than secondary phloem.
(4) Cycads
6. Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer (1)
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
gymnosperms
do not have secondary growth.
Palm like monocots have anomalous (2) Horsetails are gymnosperms
secondary growth.
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
3. Sweet potato is a modified Salvinia is homosporous

(1) Stem (4) Stems are usually unbranched in both


Cycas and Cedrus
(2) Tap root
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Adventitious root
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule.
(4) Rhizome
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
Answer ( 3 )
7. Select the wrong statement :
S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
for storage of food (1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem and Plantae

• Tap root is primary root directly elongated (2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
from the redicle structures in Sporozoans

4. Pneumatophores occur in (3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes

(1) Halophytes (4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the


(2) Carnivorous plants cell in all kingdoms except Monera

(3) Free-floating hydrophytes Answer ( 2 )


(4) Submerged hydrophytes S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
Answer (1) sarcodines (Amoeboid)

Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have 8. Winged pollen grains are present in
pneumatophores. (1) Mustard (2) Mango
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
(3) Cycas (4) Pinus
having lenticels called pneumathodes to
uptake O2. Answer (4)

2
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It a b c d


is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
form the wings of pollen. It is the
characteristic feature, only in Pinus. (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
not winged shaped.
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
9. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
are produced exogenously in Answer ( 4 )
(1) Neurospora (2) Agaricus Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant
(3) Alternaria (4) Saccharomyces specimen

Answer ( 2 ) • Key – Identification of various


taxa
Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
basidiospores or meiospores are • Museum – Plant and animal
produced exogenously. specimen are preserved

 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes) • Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of


produces ascospores as meiospores but species
endogenously inside the ascus.) 11. Which one is wrongly matched?
 Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes) (1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
does not produce sexual spores. (2) Gemma cups – Marchantia
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular ascomycetes) (3) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
produces ascospores, endogenously.
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
10. Match the items given in Column I with those
Answer ( 1 )
in Column II and select the correct option
given below: Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
where asexual spores and gametes are
Column I Column II non-motile or non-flagellated.
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a • Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
collection of preserved matched
plants and animals 12. Which of the following elements is responsible
for maintaining turgor in cells?
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates
methodically all the (1) Magnesium (2) Potassium
species found in an area (3) Sodium (4) Calcium
with brief description Answer ( 2 )
aiding identification
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried cells.
and pressed plant 13. Which one of the following plants shows a
specimens mounted on very close relationship with a species of moth,
sheets are kept where none of the two can complete its life
cycle without the other?
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
(1) Hydrilla (2) Banana
list of characters and
their alternates which (3) Yucca (4) Viola
are helpful in Answer ( 3 )
identification of various S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
taxa. species of moth i.e. Pronuba.

3
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

14. Pollen grains can be stored for several years S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of ions. (According to NCERT)
(1) –120°C (2) –196°C *Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
(3) –80°C (4) –160°C Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)

Answer ( 2 ) 19. The Golgi complex participates in

S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years (1) Fatty acid breakdown
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C (Cryopreservation) (2) Respiration in bacteria
15. Double fertilization is (3) Formation of secretory vesicles
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen (4) Activation of amino acid
tube with two different eggs Answer ( 3 )
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
(3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
nuclei 20. Which of the following is not a product of light
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion reaction of photosynthesis?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) ATP (2) NADPH
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon (3) NADH (4) Oxygen
that occur in angiosperms only. Answer ( 3 )
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
16. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis reaction, while NADH is a product of
by respiration process.
(1) Green sulphur bacteria 21. Stomatal movement is not affected by
(2) Cycas (1) Temperature
(3) Nostoc (2) O2 concentration
(4) Chara (3) Light
Answer ( 1 ) (4) CO2 concentration
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as Answer ( 2 )
source of proton, therefore they do not evolve S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
O2. affect opening and closing of stomata while
17. What is the role of NAD + in cellular they are not affected by O2 concentration.
respiration? 22. Which among the following is not a
(1) It functions as an enzyme. prokaryote?
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. (1) Saccharomyces (2) Nostoc
(3) It functions as an electron carrier. (3) Mycobacterium (4) Oscillatoria
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for Answer ( 1 )
anaerobic respiration. S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
Answer ( 3 ) (unicellular fungi)
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron Mycobacterium – a bacterium
carrier. Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
18. In which of the following forms is iron 23. The two functional groups characteristic of
absorbed by plants? sugars are
(1) Ferric (1) Hydroxyl and methyl
(2) Free element (2) Carbonyl and phosphate
(3) Ferrous (3) Carbonyl and methyl
(4) Both ferric and ferrous (4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
Answer ( 1 * ) Answer ( 4 )

4
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote 28. In India, the organisation responsible for
carbohydrate. assessing the safety of introducing
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde, genetically modified organisms for public use
ketone or their derivatives, which means they is
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups. (1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
24. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? (2) Research Committee on Genetic
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing Manipulation (RCGM)
cells (3) Council for Scientific and Industrial
(2) It takes part in spindle formation Research (CSIR)
(3) It is a membrane-bound structure (4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (GEAC)
synthesis Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis. Committee) which will make decisions
25. The stage during which separation of the regarding the validity of GM research and
paired homologous chromosomes begins is safety of introducing GM-organism for public
services. (Direct from NCERT).
(1) Pachytene (2) Diakinesis
29. Which of the following is commonly used as a
(3) Diplotene (4) Zygotene vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
Answer ( 3 ) human lymphocytes?
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. (1) Retrovirus (2)  phage
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e. (3) Ti plasmid (4) pBR 322
chiasmata start to shift towards end.
Answer ( 1 )
26. Stomata in grass leaf are
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
(1) Dumb-bell shaped
introducing a DNA fragment in human
(2) Rectangular lymphocyte.
(3) Kidney shaped Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
(4) Barrel shaped patient are grown in culture outside the body,
a functional gene is introduced by using a
Answer ( 1 ) retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell 30. Use of bioresources by multinational
shaped stomata in their leaves. companies and organisations without
27. The correct order of steps in Polymerase authorisation from the concerned country and
Chain Reaction (PCR) is its people is called
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (1) Bio-infringement
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (2) Biodegradation
(3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Biopiracy
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) Bioexploitation
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro. S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
Each cycle has three steps of bioresources by multinational companies
and other organisation without proper
(I) Denaturation
authorisation from the countries and people
(II) Primer annealing concerned with compensatory payment
(III) Extension of primer (definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
5
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

31. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a 5th June - World Environment Day
foreign company, though such varieties have 21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
been present in India for a long time. This is
related to 22nd April - National Earth Day

(1) Co-667 (2) Lerma Rojo 35. Which of the following is a secondary
pollutant?
(3) Sharbati Sonora (4) Basmati
(1) CO (2) SO2
Answer ( 4 )
(3) CO2 (4) O3
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent Answer ( 4 )
and trademark office that was actually been S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties. formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
The diversity of rice in India is one of the CO – Quantitative pollutant
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties CO2 – Primary pollutant
of Basmati are grown in India.
SO2 – Primary pollutant
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
36. Niche is
varieties and claimed as an invention or a
novelty. (1) all the biological factors in the organism's
environment
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
of wheat. (2) the range of temperature that the
organism needs to live
32. Select the correct match
(3) the physical space where an organism
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
lives
(2) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(4) the functional role played by the organism
(3) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross where it lives
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic refers the functional role played by the
acid. organism where it lives.
33. Natality refers to 37. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data?
(1) Death rate
Secondary consumer : 120 g
(2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
Primary consumer : 60 g
(3) Birth rate
Primary producer : 10 g
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
Answer ( 3 )
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
(3) Pyramid of energy
• Death rate – Mortality
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
• Number of individual – Immigration
entering a habitat is Answer ( 1 )

• Number of individual – Emigration Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
leaving the habital pyramid of biomass, usually found in
aquatic ecosystem.
34. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
(1) 5th June (2) 16th September
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
(3) 21st April (4) 22nd April are not possible, as the data depicts
Answer (2) primary producer is less than primary
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th consumer and this is less than secondary
September. consumers.

6
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

38. In stratosphere, which of the following Answer ( 3 )


elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
ozone and release of molecular oxygen? geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
(1) Carbon (2) Fe – Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
(3) Cl (4) Oxygen mode of replication.
Answer ( 3 ) – Transduction was discovered by Zinder
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms, and Laderberg.
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential – Spliceosome formation is part of post-
method converting into oxygen transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to 42. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
ozone layer depletion matched?
39. The experimental proof for semiconservative (1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
replication of DNA was first shown in a (2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
(1) Fungus (2) Plant determination
(3) Bacterium (4) Virus (3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
Answer ( 3 ) (4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first Answer ( 1 )
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl. S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
pleiotropic gene.
40. Select the correct match
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus matched.
pneumoniae
43. Offsets are produced by
(2) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
(1) Meiotic divisions (2) Parthenocarpy
and F. Stahl
(3) Mitotic divisions (4) Parthenogenesis
(3) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
Answer ( 3 )
Martha Chase
S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
(4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon by mitosis.
Jacques Monod
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
Answer ( 4 ) cells.
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed – Parthenogenesis is the formation of
model of gene regulation known as operon embryo from ovum or egg without
model/lac operon. fertilisation.
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting – Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
technique. fertilisation, (generally seedless)
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- 44. Which of the following flowers only once in its
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. life-time?
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – (1) Bamboo species (2) Mango
Proved DNA as genetic material not
(3) Jackfruit (4) Papaya
protein
41. Select the correct statement Answer ( 1 )

(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’ S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
generally only once in its life-time after
(2) Spliceosomes take part in translation 50-100 years.
(3) Punnett square was developed by a British
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
scientist
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman their life-time.
7
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

45. Which of the following has proved helpful in 49. Which of the following structures or regions is
preserving pollen as fossils? incorrectly paired with its functions?
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Oil content (1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
(3) Cellulosic intine (4) Sporopollenin and cardiovascular
reflexes.
Answer ( 4 )
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by releasing hormones
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
and regulation of
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
temperature, hunger
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination. and thirst.
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of (3) Limbic system : consists of fibre
pollen grain known as intine made up tracts that
cellulose & pectin. interconnect
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation. different regions of
brain; controls
46. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
in its place by movement.

(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body (4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris
right cerebral
(3) ligaments attached to the iris hemispheres.
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary Answer ( 3 )
body
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
Answer ( 1 ) all emotions in our body but not movements.
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by 50. Match the items given in Column I with those
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary in Column II and select the correct option
body. given below :
47. Which of the following hormones can play a Column I Column II
significant role in osteoporosis?
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin uric acid in joints
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
(3) Progesterone and Aldosterone salts within the
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin kidney

Answer ( 2 ) c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in


glomeruli
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of nephritis glucose urine
estrogen. Parathormone promotes a b c d
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. (1) iii ii iv i
Excessive activity of parathormone causes
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis. (2) ii iii i iv
(3) i ii iii iv
48. Which of the following is an amino acid
derived hormone? (4) iv i ii iii
(1) Epinephrine (2) Estradiol Answer ( 4 )
(3) Ecdysone (4) Estriol S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
urine. This is observed when blood glucose
Answer ( 1 )
level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino is called renal threshold value for glucose.
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
catecholamine. in the joint.

8
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium 53. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
phosphate produced in the pelvis of the her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
kidney. inherited by
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory (1) Only daughters
condition of glomerulus characterised by
proteinuria and haematuria. (2) Only grandchildren

51. Match the items given in Column I with those (3) Only sons
in Column II and select the correct option (4) Both sons and daughters
given below:
Answer ( 4 )
Column I Column II
Sol. • Woman is a carrier
(Function) (Part of Excretory
• Both son & daughter inherit
system)
X–chromosome
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
• Although only son be the diseased
b. Concentration ii. Ureter
54. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
of urine of evolution is
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder (1) Multiple step mutations
urine
(2) Phenotypic variations
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
(3) Saltation
urine corpuscle
(4) Minor mutations
v. Proximal
Answer ( 3 )
convoluted tubule
S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
a b c d Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
(1) iv v ii iii phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
(2) v iv i ii saltation.
(3) iv i ii iii 55. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
strand of a gene. What will be the
(4) v iv i iii
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
Answer ( 3 ) mRNA?
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine (1) AGGUAUCGCAU
particles having molecular weight less than
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle. (2) ACCUAUGCGAU

Concentration of urine refers to water (3) UGGTUTCGCAT


absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
Answer ( 1 )
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
through ureter.
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of
urine. 56. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
52. All of the following are part of an operon
given below :
except
Column I Column II
(1) an operator (2) an enhancer
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
(3) structural genes (4) a promoter
endometrial
Answer ( 2 )
lining
Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
eukaryotes. b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes. c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
9
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

a b c Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.


(1) iii ii i  It has enriched presence of vitamins
(2) ii iii i specially Vit-B12.

(3) i iii ii 60. The similarity of bone structure in the


forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
(4) iii i ii
of
Answer ( 2 ) (1) Homology
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start (2) Convergent evolution
developing, hence, called follicular phase.
(3) Analogy
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
(4) Adaptive radiation
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens Answer ( 1 )
the endometrium maintained by S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
progesterone. are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
Menstruation occurs due to decline in different way as per their adaptation, hence
progesterone level and involves breakdown of example of homology.
overgrown endometrial lining. 61. Which of the following characteristics
57. In which disease does mosquito transmitted represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of humans?
lymphatic vessels? a. Dominance
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ringworm disease b. Co-dominance
(3) Ascariasis (4) Amoebiasis c. Multiple allele
Answer ( 1 ) d. Incomplete dominance
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, e. Polygenic inheritance
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by (1) b, c and e (2) b, d and e
Culex mosquito.
(3) a, b and c (4) a, c and e
58. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
Answer ( 3 )
disease?
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
(1) Psoriasis
relationship
(2) Alzheimer's disease
 IAIB - Codominance
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
(4) Vitiligo
forms of a gene
Answer ( 2 ) (multiple allelism)
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune 62. Among the following sets of examples for
disorder in which antibodies are produced divergent evolution, select the incorrect
against the synovial membrane and cartilage. option :
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
(2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
(3) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is (4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter Answer ( 4 )
acetylcholine. S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
59. Conversion of milk to curd improves its structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
nutritional value by increasing the amount of vertebrates which have developed along
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin B12 different directions due to adaptation to
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
(3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin E
and man are examples of analogous organs
Answer ( 2 ) showing convergent evolution.
10
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

63. Match the items given in Column I with those  It has no effect on Penicillium or the
in Column II and select the correct option organism which produces it.
given below : 66. In a growing population of a country,
Column-I Column-II (1) pre-reproductive individuals are more
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation than the reproductive individuals.
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation (2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient individuals are equal in number.
enrichment (3) reproductive individuals are less than the
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal post-reproductive individuals.

a b c d (4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than


the reproductive individuals.
(1) ii i iii iv
Answer ( 1 )
(2) iii iv i ii
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
(3) i iii iv ii
the younger population size is larger than the
(4) i ii iv iii reproductive group, the population will be an
Answer ( 2 ) increasing population.
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient 67. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
enrichment the drug “Smack”?

b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal (1) Flowers

c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation (2) Roots

d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation (3) Latex

64. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ (4) Leaves


conservation’ except Answer ( 3 )
(1) Wildlife safari parks S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
(2) Botanical gardens formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
(3) Sacred groves
Poppy plant.
(4) Seed banks
68. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
Answer ( 3 ) maintain pregnancy are
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation. (1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
 Represent pristine forest patch as (2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
protected by Tribal groups. (3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
65. Which one of the following population (4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
interactions is widely used in medical science glucocorticoids
for the production of antibiotics?
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Commensalism
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
(2) Parasitism gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
(3) Mutualism stimulates the Corpus luteum during
(4) Amensalism pregnancy to release estrogen and
progesterone and also rescues corpus
Answer ( 4 )
luteum from regression. Human placental
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –) lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
 Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
harm other microbes (eg : increasing uterine threshold to contractile
Staphylococcus) stimuli.
11
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

69. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and


(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
preventing eggs from getting implanted. membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
endoderm in inner side.
(2) is an IUD.
72. Which of the following terms describe human
(3) increases the concentration of estrogen dentition?
and prevents ovulation in females.
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
pill. It contains centchroman and its (4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen Answer ( 3 )
Receptor modulation. S o l . In humans, dentition is
70. The difference between spermiogenesis and
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
spermiation is
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
formed.
replaced by a set of permanent or adult
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from teeth.
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
of different types of teeth namely incisors,
spermatozoa are formed.
canine, premolars and molars.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
73. Which of these statements is incorrect?
formed, while in spermiation spermatids
are formed. (1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa (2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
are released from sertoli cells into the supplied with NAD that can pick up
cavity of seminiferous tubules. hydrogen atoms

Answer ( 4 ) (3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol


(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas outer mitochondrial membrane
spermiation is the release of the sperms from Answer ( 4 )
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
tubule. mitochondrial membrane.
71. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived 74. Select the incorrect match :
from
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm
chromosomes
(2) mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) Submetacentric – L-shaped
(3) endoderm and mesoderm chromosomes chromosomes
(4) ectoderm and endoderm (3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Polytene – Oocytes of
S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are chromosomes amphibians
amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac. Answer ( 4 )
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
side and ectoderm on inner side. glands of insects of order Diptera.
12
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

75. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
macronucleus & micronucleus.
(1) Proteins and lipids
79. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
(2) Nucleic acids and SER
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(3) DNA and RNA digestive system
(4) Free ribosomes and RER (1) Amphibia
Answer ( 4 ) (2) Aves
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and (3) Reptilia
even extend into the dendrite but absent in
(4) Osteichthyes
axon and rest of the neuron.
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free Answer ( 2 )
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
protein synthesis. chambers in their digestive system as crop
76. Which of the following events does not occur and Gizzard.
in rough endoplasmic reticulum? Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
(1) Protein folding Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
(2) Cleavage of signal peptide crush food grain.
(3) Protein glycosylation 80. Which one of these animals is not a
(4) Phospholipid synthesis homeotherm?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) Macropus
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in (2) Camelus
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
(3) Chelone
involved in lipid synthesis.
77. Many ribosomes may associate with a single (4) Psittacula
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide Answer ( 3 )
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
termed as
constant body temperature, irrespective of
(1) Polysome surrounding temperature.
(2) Plastidome Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
(3) Polyhedral bodies
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
(4) Nucleosome which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
Answer ( 1 ) 81. Which of the following features is used to
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many identify a male cockroach from a female
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to cockroach?
formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or (1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
ergasomes.
9th abdominal segment
78. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(2) Forewings with darker tegmina
(1) using flagella for locomotion
(3) Presence of caudal styles
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(4) Presence of anal cerci
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing
excess water Answer ( 3 )
(4) having two types of nuclei S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
Answer ( 4 ) styles which are absent in females.

S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
having two types of nuclei. segment in male cockroach.

13
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

82. Which of the following animals does not 85. Match the items given in Column I with those
undergo metamorphosis? in Column II and select the correct option
given below :
(1) Earthworm
Column I Column II
(2) Moth a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
(3) Tunicate and left ventricle
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
(4) Starfish
ventricle and
Answer ( 1 ) pulmonary artery
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
larva into adult. atrium and right
ventricle
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
a b c
to have indirect development.
(1) iii i ii
In earthworm development is direct which
(2) i ii iii
means no larval stage and hence no
metamorphosis. (3) i iii ii

83. Which of the following organisms are known (4) ii i iii

as chief producers in the oceans? Answer ( 1 )

(1) Dinoflagellates S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present


between right atrium and right ventricle.
(2) Cyanobacteria Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
(3) Diatoms left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
are present at the openings of aortic and
(4) Euglenoids pulmonary aorta.
Answer ( 3 ) 86. Match the items given in Column I with those
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean. in Column II and select the correct option
given below:
84. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and Column I Column II
emphysema, respectively?
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
respiratory surface
volume
(2) Increased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL

(3) Increased number of bronchioles; volume


Increased respiratory surface d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(4) Decreased respiratory surface;
a b c d
Inflammation of bronchioles
(1) iii ii i iv
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing (2) i iv ii iii

wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and (3) iii i iv ii


bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
(4) iv iii ii i
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
which respiratory surface is decreased. Answer ( 3 )

14
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or 89. Match the items given in Column I with those
expired during normal respiration. It is in Column II and select the correct option
approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve given below :
volume is additional volume of air a person Column I Column II
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
volume is additional volume of air a person b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
c. Albumin (iii) Defence
averages 1000 – 1100 mL. mechanism
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in a b c
lungs even after forceful expiration. This
(1) (iii) (ii) (i)
averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
(2) (i) (iii) (ii)
87. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
help in erythropoiesis? (3) (i) (ii) (iii)

(1) Chief cells (2) Goblet cells (4) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) Mucous cells (4) Parietal cells Answer ( 4 )

Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during


coagulation. These strands forms a network
S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and and the meshes of which are occupied by
intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
be absorbed easily and used during Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
erythropoiesis. of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms.
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
pernicious anaemia. responsible for BCOP.

88. Which of the following is an occupational 90. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
respiratory disorder? contraction because it
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
(1) Anthracis
of active sites on actin for myosin.
(2) Botulism
(2) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
(3) Silicosis filament.
(4) Emphysema (3) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
it.
Answer ( 3 )
(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
filament.
breaking industries.
Answer ( 1 )
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
lung damage. many folds in the sarcoplasm.
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused  Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects (troponin "C") which is masking the active
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a site on actin filament and displaces the
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are sub-unit of troponin.
damaged due to which respiratory surface is  Once the active site is exposed, head of
decreased. the myosin attaches and initiate
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused contraction by sliding the actin over
by Clostridium botulinum. myosin.

15
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
91. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 94. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
slide down by flowing a current through it galvanometer is
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
(1) 40  (2) 250 
acting on it in the vertical direction. The
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary (3) 25  (4) 500 
is
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 7.14 A (2) 14.76 A
S o l . Current sensitivity
(3) 5.98 A (4) 11.32 A
NBA
Answer ( 4 ) IS 
C
S o l . For equilibrium, °
B 30 Voltage sensitivity
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co NBA
mg llB VS 
I tan30 ° 30° llB CRG
lB 30
n
si So, resistance of galvanometer
0.5  9.8 g
  11.32 A m 30°
0.25  3 IS 51 5000
RG     250 
92. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a VS 20  103 20
resistor 50  are connected in series across
95. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power

loss in the circuit is
V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field
(1) 0.79 W (2) 2.74 W

(3) 0.43 W (4) 1.13 W E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
Answer ( 1 ) de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-
2 Broglie wavelength at time t is
V 
S o l . Pav   RMS  R
 Z  0
(1) (2) 0t
 eE0 
 1 
2
1 t
Z  R2   L   56   mV0 
 C 
 eE0 
2 (3) 0  1  t (4) 0
  mV0 
10  
 Pav    50  0.79 W
  
 2 56 
 Answer ( 1 )
93. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
the current in the electromagnet is switched h
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out 0  ...(i)
mV0
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
E0
work required to do this comes from
V0
(1) The current source F
(2) The lattice structure of the material of the
rod Acceleration of electron
(3) The magnetic field eE0
a
(4) The induced electric field due to the m
changing magnetic field
Velocity after time ‘t’
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted  eE0 
V   V0  t
into potential energy of the rod.  m 

16
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

h h 1
So,    4h0  mv22 …(ii)
mV  eE  2
m  V0  0 t
 m  Divide (i) by (ii),

h 0 1 v12
  …(ii) 
 eE0   eE0  4 v22
mV0 1  t 1  t
 mV0   mV0  v1 1

Divide (ii) by (i), v2 2
0 98. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
 of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
 eE0 
1  t atom, is
 mV0 
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : –1
96. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
(3) 1 : –1 (4) 1 : –2
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the Answer ( 3 )
disintegration of 450 nuclei is S o l . KE = –(total energy)
(1) 20 (2) 30 So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
(3) 10 (4) 15 99. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
Answer ( 1 ) frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150 diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
n
N  1

N0  2 
h B
t
150  1  t 1/2

600  2  A
t 3 7
 1
2
 1  t 1/2 (1) D (2) D
2 5
2  2
   
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10 5
(3) D (4) D
= 20 minute 4

97. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is Answer ( 4 )


threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
Sol.
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the h
B
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
vL
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1 A
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1 As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
energy will remain constant
Answer ( 1 )
T.M.EI =T.M.EF
1 2
S o l . E  W0  mv 1
2 0  mgh  mvL2  0
2
1
h(20 )  h0  mv12 vL2
2 h
2g
1
h 0  mv12 …(i) For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
2
1 5gR 5 5
h(50 )  h0  mv22 h  R D
2 2g 2 4

17
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
100. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 102. A moving block having mass m, collides with
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each another stationary block having mass 4m. The
have the same mass M and radius R. They all lighter block comes to rest after collision.
spin with the same angular speed  about When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
(e) will be
satisfy the relation
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.8
(1) WC > WB > WA
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.4
(2) WB > WA > WC
Answer ( 3 )
(3) WA > WB > WC
S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
(4) WA > WC > WB momentum,

Answer ( 1 ) mv  4m  0  4mv  0
v
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest v 
4
W = KE
v
Relative velocity of separation 4
1 2 e 
W  I Relative velocity of approach v
2
1
e  0.25
W  I for same  4
103. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies
2 1 with its temperature (T), as shown in the
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2
5 2 graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a
change from state A to state B, is
2 1
= : :1
5 2

= 4 : 5 : 10

 WC > WB > WA

101. Which one of the following statements is


incorrect? 2 1
(1) (2)
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding 5 3
friction.
2 2
(2) Frictional force opposes the relative (3) (4)
3 7
motion.
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction. S o l . Given process is isobaric

(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has dQ  n Cp dT


dimensions of length.

Answer ( 4 ) 5 
dQ  n  R  dT
2 
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no
dimension. dW  P dV = n RdT
f = sN
dW nRdT 2
Required ratio   
f dQ  5  5
 s  n  R  dT
N 2 

18
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

104. The fundamental frequency in an open organ 106. At what temperature will the rms speed of
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ (Given :
pipe is
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
(1) 13.2 cm
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(2) 12.5 cm (1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 5.016 × 104 K
(3) 8 cm (3) 8.360 × 104 K (4) 1.254 × 104 K
(4) 16 cm Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
3v 3kB T
 So,  11200 m/s
4l mO2
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency
On solving,
v

2l  T = 8.360 × 104 K
Given, 107. A toy car with charge q moves on a
3v v frictionless horizontal plane surface under
 
4 l 2l  the influence of a uniform electric field E .

4l 2l Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
 l  
32 3 from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
that instant the direction of the field is
2  20 reversed. The car continues to move for two
  13.33 cm
3 more seconds under the influence of this field.
105. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
between the freezing point and boiling point of
respectively
water, is
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
(1) 26.8%
(3) 1 m/s, 3 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
(2) 6.25%
Answer ( 3 )
(3) 20%
Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
(4) 12.5% t=2
A –1 B
Answer ( 1 ) v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
C –a
t=3
 T 
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1  2 
–1
v = –6 ms
 T1 
60
T2 : Sink temperature Acceleration a   6 ms2
1
T1 : Source temperature
For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
 T 
%   1  2   100 1
 T1  S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2
 273 
  1   100 For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
 373 
 100  1
   100  26.8% S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
 373  2

19
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

For t = 2 s to t = 3 s, 109. A student measured the diameter of a small


steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
1 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
2 zero of circular scale division coincides with
25 divisions above the reference level. If
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
the correct diameter of the ball is
3
Average velocity   1 ms 1
3 (1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.053 cm

Total distance travelled = 9 m (3) 0.525 cm (4) 0.529 cm


Answer ( 4 )
9
Average speed   3 ms 1
3 S o l . Diameter of the ball
108. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
in the figure. The wedge is given an
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
relation between a and  for the block to
remain stationary on the wedge is = 0.529 cm
A 
110. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
m
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
by
a
 (1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ
C B

g (2) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ


(1) a 
cosec 
(3) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
(2) a = g cos 

g (4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ


(3) a 
sin  Answer ( 4 )
(4) a = g tan 
Sol. Y
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. N cos
F
N
A r  r0
P

ma N sin r0
r
(pseudo) 

O X
mg 
a    
  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
In non-inertial frame,
  ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
N sin  = ma ...(i)
N cos  = mg ...(ii)  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ

a ˆi ˆj kˆ
tan  
g 
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
a = g tan  4 5 6

20
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

111. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a



plane surface of a material of refractive index S o l . Angular width 
d
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the 
0.20  …(i)
following options is correct for this situation? 2 mm

(1) Reflected light is polarised with its


electric vector parallel to the plane of 
0.21  …(ii)
incidence d

 1
(2) i  sin1   0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm


(3) Reflected light is polarised with its  d = 1.9 mm


electric vector perpendicular to the plane
of incidence 113. An astronomical refracting telescope will
have large angular magnification and high
angular resolution, when it has an objective
 1
(4) i  tan1   lens of

(1) Small focal length and large diameter
Answer ( 3 ) (2) Large focal length and large diameter
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays (3) Large focal length and small diameter
are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
with electric field vector perpendicular to the (4) Small focal length and small diameter
plane of incidence.
Answer ( 2 )

f0
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE
i

So, focal length of objective lens should be


large.

D
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
So, objective should have large focal length
112. In Young's double slit experiment the (f0) and large diameter D.
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and 114. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be
distance D between the screen and slits is marked with rings of different colours for its
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of identification. The colour code sequence will
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe be
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the (1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
separation between the slits needs to be
changed to (2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

(1) 1.8 mm (3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

(2) 2.1 mm (4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold

(3) 1.9 mm Answer ( 3 )

(4) 1.7 mm S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%

Answer ( 3 )  Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

21
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
115. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
n 
are connected in series to a battery of emf Sol. I  
'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current nr r
drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are
connected in parallel to the same battery. So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
Then the current drawn from battery becomes
10 I. The value of 'n' is  I
(1) 10

(2) 20

(3) 11
O
n
(4) 9

Answer ( 1 ) 117. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its


symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
E
Sol. I  ...(i) sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
nR  R Which of the following physical quantities
E would remain constant for the sphere?
10 I  ...(ii)
R (1) Angular velocity
R
n
(2) Rotational kinetic energy
Dividing (ii) by (i),
(3) Moment of inertia
(n  1)R
10  (4) Angular momentum
1 
 n  1 R
  Answer ( 4 )

After solving the equation, n = 10 S o l . ex = 0

116. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of dL


So, 0
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' dt
each) which are connected in series. The
i.e. L = constant
terminals of the battery are short-circuited
and the current I is measured. Which of the So angular momentum remains constant.
graphs shows the correct relationship
between I and n? 118. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
following is not correct?
I I
(1) Raindrops will fall faster
(1) (2) (2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Earth would decrease
O O
n n
(3) Walking on the ground would become
more difficult

(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change


I I Answer ( 4 )

(3) (4) S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes


ten times, then G = 10 G
O O
n n
So, acceleration due to gravity increases.

Answer ( 1 ) i.e. (4) is wrong option.


22
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
119. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling 121. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
motion a body possesses translational kinetic voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic values of IB, IC and  are given by
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio 20 V
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
(1) 7 : 10 RC 4 k
C
(2) 10 : 7 RB
Vi
(3) 5 : 7 500 k B
E
(4) 2 : 5

Answer ( 3 )
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
1 2
S o l . K t  mv (2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
2
(3) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
1 1 1 1 2  v 
2 (4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2  
2 2 2 25  r  Answer ( 4 )
S o l . VBE = 0
7
 mv2 VCE = 0
10
Vb = 0
Kt 5 20 V
So, 
Kt  Kr 7
IC RC = 4 k
120. The kinetic energies of a planet in an RB
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B Vi Vb
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is Ib 500 k
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
figure. Then
B (20  0)
IC 
4  103
A C
S IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
Vi = VBE + IBRB
(1) KA < KB < KC Vi = 0 + IBRB
(2) KB < KA < KC 20 = IB × 500 × 103
20
(3) KA > KB > KC IB   40 A
500  103
(4) KB > KA > KC
IC 25  103
   125
Answer ( 3 ) Ib 40  106
Sol. B 122. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
VC
perihelion due to heating
A C (1) Affects only reverse resistance
S
aphelion
VA (2) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction

Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion. (3) Affects only forward resistance


(4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
So, VA > VB > VC p-n junction
So, KA > KB > KC Answer ( 4 )
23
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs 125. Two wires are made of the same material and
will increase, so overall resistance of diode have the same volume. The first wire has
will change. cross-sectional area A and the second wire
Due to which forward biasing and reversed has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
biasing both are changed. the first wire is increased by l on applying a
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
123. In the combination of the following gates the the socond wire by the same amount?
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
and B as (1) 9 F

A (2) 4 F
(3) 6 F
B
Y (4) F
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Wire 1 :
(1) A  B (2) A  B  A  B
F
A, 3l
(3) A  B  A  B (4) A  B
Wire 2 :
Answer ( 3 )
F
A 3A, l
Sol. A AB
For wire 1,
B
B Y  F 
A l    3l …(i)
 AY 
AB
B For wire 2,

Y  (A  B  A  B) F l
Y
124. The power radiated by a black body is P and 3A l
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
If the temperature of the black body is now  F 
 l   l …(ii)
changed so that it radiates maximum energy  3AY 
3 From equation (i) & (ii),
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4
becomes nP. The value of n is  F   F 
l    3l   l
 AY   3AY 
3 256
(1) (2)
4 81  F  9F

4 81 126. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and


(3) (4) normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
3 256
54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
Answer ( 2 ) 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
S o l . We know, 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
sample, is
max T  constant (Wien's law)
(1) 104.3 J
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
(2) 42.2 J
3 0 (3) 208.7 J
 0 T  T
4 (4) 84.5 J
4 Answer ( 3 )
 T  T
3 S o l . Q = U + W
4 4
P2  T   4 256  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
So,     
P1  T  3 81  U = 208.7 J

24
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
127. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced normally incident on silvered face.
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
velocity, is proportional to 30°

(1) r3 M 60°
i 30°
(2) r5
(3) r2
(4) r4  2
Answer ( 2 )
Applying Snell's law at M,
2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
sin i 2

VT  r 2 sin30 1

 Power  r 5 1
 sin i  2 
2
128. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
 1
a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous sin i  i.e. i = 45°
2
oscillating electric field of this em wave is
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating 130. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
magnetic field of the em wave will be along certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
(1) –z direction (2) –y direction inductance
(3) +z direction (4) –x direction (1) 0.138 H (2) 1.389 H
Answer ( 3 ) (3) 138.88 H (4) 13.89 H
   Answer ( 4 )
Sol. E  B  V
S o l . Energy stored in inductor
 1 2
ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej) U Ll
2
1
 25  10–3   L  (60  10 –3 )2
So, B  Bkˆ 2
Direction of propagation is along +z direction. 25  2  106  10–3
L
3600
129. The refractive index of the material of a
500
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. 
One of the two refracting surfaces of the 36
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver = 13.89 H
coating. A beam of monochromatic light 131. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
entering the prism from the other face will from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
retrace its path (after reflection from the If the object is displaced through a distance
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
the prism is displacement of the image will be
(1) 60° (1) 30 cm away from the mirror
(2) 30° (2) 30 cm towards the mirror
(3) 45° (3) 36 cm away from the mirror
(4) Zero (4) 36 cm towards the mirror
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )

25
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

Sol. 133. The electrostatic force between the metal


f = 15 cm plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
C having a charge Q and area A, is
O 40 cm
(1) Independent of the distance between the
plates
(2) Proportional to the square root of the
distance between the plates
1 1 1 (3) Linearly proportional to the distance
  between the plates
f v1 u
(4) Inversely proportional to the distance
1 1 1
–  – between the plates
15 v1 40 Answer ( 1 )
1 1 1 S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
  
v1 –15 40 Q2
Fplate 
v1 = –24 cm 2A0
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards F is Independent of the distance between
mirror. plates.
134. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
Now, sufficiently high building and is moving freely
u2 = –20 to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
1 1 1 is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
 
f v2 u2 position. The time period of oscillation is
(1) 2 s (2) 2 s
1 1 1
 – (3)  s (4) 1 s
–15 v2 20
Answer ( 3 )
1 1 1 S o l . |a| = 2y
 –
v2 20 15  20 = 2(5)
v2 = –60 cm   = 2 rad/s
So, image shifts away from mirror by 2 2
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm. T  s
 2
132. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in 135. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
a glass tube. The length of the air column in distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. directed electric field E. The direction of
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive electric field is now reversed, keeping its
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
of column length. If the frequency of the fall from rest in it through the same vertical
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
air at 27ºC is comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(1) 330 m/s (1) Smaller (2) 10 times greater
(2) 350 m/s (3) 5 times greater (4) Equal
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 339 m/s
1 eE 2
(4) 300 m/s Sol. h  t
2 m
Answer ( 3 ) 2hm
 t
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1] eE
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2  t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
proton.
= 339.2 ms–1
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
= 339 m/s smaller time.
26
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

136. Match the metal ions given in Column I with 138. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given [CoCl2(en)2] is
in Column II and assign the correct code :
(1) Geometrical isomerism
Column I Column II
(2) Ionization isomerism
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM (3) Coordination isomerism

b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM (4) Linkage isomerism


Answer ( 1 )
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM is 6 and this compound has octahedral
geometry.
v. 15 BM
a b c d
(1) iv v ii i
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) iii v i ii • As per given option, type of isomerism is
Answer ( 1 ) geometrical isomerism.

S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4 139. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well?
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
(1) CrO42–
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3 (2) MnO4–

Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM (3) Cr2O72–

Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5 (4) MnO42–


Answer ( 4 )
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM
S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) =2
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
137. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
(1) Tetranuclear (2) Trinuclear MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
(3) Mononuclear (4) Dinuclear Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
Answer ( 3 ) MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
present in a complex, they are classified
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and 140. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
so on. complex [Ni(CO)4] are

eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear (1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear (2) Square planar geometry and


paramagnetic
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
Hence, option (3) should be the right
answer. (4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

27
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

Answer ( 3 ) 142. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in


nature?
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
(1) MgO (2) BaO
∵ CO is a strong field ligand
(3) BeO (4) CaO
Configuration would be :
Answer ( 3 )
3
sp -hybridisation S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO

×× ×× ×× ××
Basic character increases.
CO CO CO CO
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
sp 3 and thus the complex would be oxides are basic.
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry. 143. The difference between amylose and
amylopectin is
CO
(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1 6 -linkage

Ni (2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and


CO 1  6 -linkage
OC
(3) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
CO -linkage
(4) Amylose is made up of glucose and
141. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
galactose
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH Answer ( 1 )
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
at STP will be D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.8 linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
(3) 3.0 (4) 4.4 and 1  6 -linkages.
Answer ( 2 ) So option (1) should be the correct option.

Conc.H2 SO4
144. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l) which of the following statements is
 1  1
2.3 g or  mol  mol incorrect?
 20  20
(1) They contain covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains.
Conc.H2SO4
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l) (2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
1 1
mol mol
COOH 20 20
(3) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
 1  monomers.
4.5 g or  mol 
 20 
(4) They contain strong covalents bonds in
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when their polymer chains.
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is Answer ( 4 )
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
is and contain strong covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
2 melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
 28  2.8 g
20 cross-linking.

So, the correct option is (2) So option (4) should be the correct option.

28
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

145. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium 147. When initial concentration of the reactant is
also gives m-nitroaniline because doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
goes to only m-position. (1) Is halved (2) Is tripled

(2) In absence of substituents nitro group (3) Is doubled (4) Remains unchanged
always goes to m-position. Answer ( 3 )
(3) In electrophilic substitution reactions S o l . Half life of zero order
amino group is meta directive.
[A0 ]
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is t 1/2 
2K
present as anilinium ion.
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
Answer ( 4 )
concentration.
148. For the redox reaction
NH2 NH3
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
H
Sol.
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
Anilinium ion the balanced equation are

MnO4 C2 O24 H+
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is (1) 16 5 2
also formed in significant yield. (2) 2 16 5
146. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and (3) 2 5 16
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the (4) 5 16 2
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be Answer ( 3 )

(1) 200 kJ mol–1 Reduction


+7 +3 +4
(2) 800 kJ mol–1 S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
(3) 100 kJ mol–1 Oxidation
(4) 400 kJ mol–1

n-factor of MnO4  5
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY) n-factor of C2 O24  2

1 1 
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
2 2 So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5

X  The balanced equation is


Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2 2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
respectively
149. Which one of the following conditions will
X X favour maximum formation of the product in
 H      X  200 the reaction,
2 4

On solving, we get  X2 (g) r H   X kJ?


A2 (g)  B2 (g) 

(1) Low temperature and high pressure


X X
    200 (2) High temperature and high pressure
2 4
(3) Low temperature and low pressure
 X = 800 kJ/mole (4) High temperature and low pressure
29
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
Answer ( 1 ) 152. Consider the following species :
 X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g)  CN+, CN–, NO and CN

On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a Which one of these will have the highest bond
direction where pressure decreases i.e. order?
forward direction. (1) NO
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts (2) CN+
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
(3) CN–
So, high pressure and low temperature
favours maximum formation of product. (4) CN

150. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas Answer ( 3 )


equation corresponds to S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 ,
(1) Density of the gas molecules (2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
(2) Electric field present between the gas 10  5
molecules BO =  2.5
2
(3) Volume of the gas molecules
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas
molecules = (2py)2,(2pz)2
Answer ( 4 ) 10  4
2  BO = 3
 2
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT
 V2 
 CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies = (2py)2,(2pz)1
intermolecular forces of attraction.
151. Which one is a wrong statement? 9 4
BO =  2.5
2
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
(2) The electronic configuration of N atom is = (2py)2
1 1 1
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
8 4
BO = 2
2
Hence, option (3) should be the right answer.
(3) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is 153. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
designated by four quantum numbers an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
(4) The value of m for dz2 is zero
the simplest formula for this compound is
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Mg2X3
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum
multiplicity, the correct electronic (2) Mg2X
configuration of N-atom is (3) MgX2
(4) Mg3X2
Answer ( 4 )
1s2 2s2 2p3
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
OR 1s2 2s2 2p3
So, valency of X will be 3.
Valency of Mg is 2.
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
 Option (2) violates Hund's Rule. be Mg3X2.

30
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

154. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room 156. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at 3.59, which one of the following gases is most
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming easily liquefied?
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains (1) NH3 (2) O2
constant with temperature) is
(3) H2 (4) CO2
3 3 3 Answer ( 1 )
(1) (2)
2 4 2 Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction.
4 3 1 • Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be
(3) (4)
3 2 2 the liquefaction of gas.
157. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
Answer ( 2 )
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
4r different concentrations :
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
3 M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
 ZM 
 N a3  M M
d25C  A  BCC
c. 75 mL
5
HCl + 25 mL
5
NaOH
 
d900C  ZM 
 N a3  M M
 A  d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
FCC 10 10
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
3 (1) b (2) d
2  2 2 r 3 3
 
4  4r   4 2  (3) a (4) c
 
 3  Answer ( 4 )

155. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 1


Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product 5
(Ksp) will be
1
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) 5
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2 • Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
(2) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
(3) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2 10 1
= 
(4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 100 10

Answer ( 1 )  1
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
 10 
2.42  103 158. On which of the following properties does the
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233 coagulating power of an ion depend?

= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1) (1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone
 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s)  (2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
s s the ion
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2 (3) Size of the ion alone
= (1.04 × 10–5)2 (4) The sign of charge on the ion alone

= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2 Answer ( 2 )

31
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using


0.00224
an electrolyte depends on the charge (2) Moles of water = = 10–4
22.4
present (positive or negative) on colloidal
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
particles as well as on its size.
0.18
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte (3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
depends on the magnitude of charge = 10–2 NA
present on effective ion of electrolyte.
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
159. Consider the change in oxidation state of
161. The correct difference between first and
Bromine corresponding to different emf values
second order reactions is that
as shown in the diagram below :
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V depend on reactant concentrations; the
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO rate of a second-order reaction does
– depend on reactant concentrations
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V (2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a
second-order reaction cannot be
Then the species undergoing catalyzed
disproportionation is
(3) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
(1) BrO3 (2) Br2
second-order reaction does depend on
[A]0
(3) BrO4 (4) HBrO
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does
Answer ( 4 ) depend on reactant concentrations; the
rate of a second-order reaction does not
1 0 depend on reactant concentrations
o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V Answer ( 3 )
2

0.693
1 5 Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V k
BrO3 /HBrO which is independent of initial
concentration of reactant.
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
o o
k[A0 ]
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO which depends on initial concentration of
reactant.
= 1.595 – 1.5
162. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
= 0.095 V = + ve character is
Hence, option (4) is correct answer. (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
160. In which case is number of molecules of (2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
water maximum? (3) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(1) 18 mL of water (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(2) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and Answer ( 1 )
273 K S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
group metallic character of metals increases
(3) 0.18 g of water
so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
(4) 10–3 mol of water Hence the option (1) should be correct option.
Answer ( 1 ) 163. In the structure of ClF 3, the number of lone
S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
18 (1) One (2) Four
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18 (3) Two (4) Three
= NA Answer ( 3 )

32
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC

S o l . The structure of ClF3 is 5 2 0 –3


  S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4

 

 
F
Hence, the correct option is (1).
 
168. Which of the following statements is not true
 
F Cl
  for halogens?
  (1) All form monobasic oxyacids

 
F (2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
 
states
The number of lone pair of electrons on
central Cl is 2. (3) All are oxidizing agents
164. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the (4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
following metals can be used to reduce enthalpy
alumina? Answer ( 2 )
(1) Fe (2) Mg S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
(3) Zn (4) Cu Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
Answer ( 2 ) HOF.
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' 169. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the reactions:
correct option. 3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
165. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is The product 'C' is
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (1) m-bromotoluene

(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene


(3) o-bromotoluene
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) p-bromotoluene
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. CH3 CCl3 CCl3
Elements B Ga Al In Tl 3Cl 2 Br2
Sol. 
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170 Fe
Br
166. Which one of the following elements is unable (C7H8) (A) (B)
to form MF63– ion? Zn HCl
(1) Ga (2) B
CH3
(3) Al (4) In
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence Br
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond (C)
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e. So, the correct option is (1)
BF63(–).
170. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
Hence, the correct option is (2). B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
167. The correct order of N-compounds in its together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
decreasing order of oxidation states is in the order
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
(3) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (3) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 (4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 4 )

33
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
Answer ( 2 )
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
(A) (B) with increase in distance. In option (2)
positive charge present on C-atom at
PCl5 maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
is minimum and stability is maximum.
C2H5Cl
(C) 174. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
C2H5OC2 H5 left to right atoms?
(B) (C)
(1) HC  C – C  CH
(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
So the correct option is (4)
(3) CH2 = CH – C  CH
171. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
Answer ( 3 )
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is sp2 sp2 sp sp
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
(1) CH  CH (2) CH3 – CH3
(3) CH2  CH2 (4) CH4 Number of orbital require in hybridization
Answer ( 4 ) = Number of -bonds around each carbon
atom.
Br2/h
S o l . CH4 CH3Br 175. Which of the following is correct with respect
(A) to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
Na/dry ether
Wurtz reaction (1) – NH2 < – OR < – F

CH3 — CH3 (2) – NH2 > – OR > – F


(3) – NR2 < – OR < – F
Hence the correct option is (4)
(4) – NR2 > – OR > – F
172. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both Answer ( 1 * )
due to natural and human activity? S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
(1) N2O5 (2) N2O electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
(3) NO2 (4) NO
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
Answer ( 1 ) however option (3) may also be correct answer.
S o l . Fact 176. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
173. Which of the following carbocations is than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
expected to be most stable? comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
NO2
NO2 (2) More extensive association of carboxylic
acid via van der Waals force of attraction

(1) (2) H (3) Formation of carboxylate ion



Y (4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
Y H 
Answer ( 4 )
NO2 S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
NO2 in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
 H boiling point increases and become more
 than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
(3) (4) Y and alcohols of comparable molecular
masses.
Y H
34
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
177. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with Answer ( 4 )
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
smell.
the following reaction
A and Y are respectively
.–.
CHCl3  OH– 
 CCl3  H2 O
(1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
.–.
 : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
Electrophile

CH – CH3 and I2
(2) 179. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
OH following sequence of reactions:

Anhydrous
(3) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2 AlCl3
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl

CH3 (i) O2
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
(4) CH3 OH and I2
P Q R

Answer ( 2 ) CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO


S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on
(1) , , CH3CH2 – OH
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
CH(CH3)2 OH
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
(2)

CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
OH O
Acetophenone
(A) (3) , ,
I2
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
Iodoform
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt) OH
CH(CH3)2
178. In the reaction (4) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
OH O–Na+

Answer ( 4 )
CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH
Cl
The electrophile involved is S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al
3 2 2

(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  


 Cl Cl

  + 1, 2–H + –

Shift
(2) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2 CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(Incipient carbocation)

(3) Formyl cation CHO  


 Cl
–
(4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2  AlCl3

35
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-MM) HLAAC
Now, 180. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitterion?
CH3
(1) Aniline
CH – CH3 (2) Benzoic acid
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2 (3) Acetanilide
(4) Glycine
(P)
Answer ( 4 )
CH3
 
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO

OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
O (Zwitterion form)
+
H /H2O
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement
(R) (Q) H2N – CH2 – COO–

‰ ‰ ‰

36