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CSWIP 3.

1 (SET-2) EXAM - 2
GENERAL & TECHNOLOGY – 90 (MCQ’s)
(Please Don’t Mark your Answers on this Sheet)
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1. Constant current
a. Current never varies
b. Is used for self-adjusting arc process
c. Only varies by small amperage
d. Requires AC output
2. A STRA test
a. Can give an indication of a material elongation and ductility
b. Is used to measure a material ultimate tensile strength
c. Is a measure of material proof stress
d. Shows a material compressive and tensile properties
3. The preheat temperature is
a. The temperature above which welding cannot be done
b. The temperature below welding can be done
c. The minimum temperature above which welding can be done
d. None of the above
4. During welding you observe that the welder is weaving excessively high. Which Property
most likely to deteriorate because of this;
a. Percentage of elongation
b. Impact properties
c. Chemical composition
d. All the above
5. In which position would weaving need to be done
a. PA
b. PB
c. PF
d. PG
6. Flat characteristic, works on the basis that
a. A large change in voltage equals a small change in amperage
b. if voltage is changed, amperage will automatically changes
c. A large change in amperage equals a small change in voltage
d. if amperage is changed, voltage will dramatically change.
7. Re is a term
a. used to express maximum elastic point
b. used to express maximum plastic point
c. used to express ultimate tensile point
d. used to express the elongation value
8. Preheating
a. Is always used to carried out around 200˚C
b. Not greater than 50°C
c. It is generally Maximum & required for medium carbon steel
d. Delays the cooling rate and improves fusion

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9. Bend test
a. Requires complex testing equipment
b. May be used for the purpose of welder approval
c. May be used for the purpose of welding procedure approval
d. Both b and c
10. Essential variable
a. It changed from the approved WPS may require a new procedure to be approved
b. Has no effect on the WPS consumable
c. Has no effect on the essential welding parameter on the approved WPS
d. None of the above
11. Tack Welds
a. Are always welded with E6012 electrodes
b. Preheat isn’t generally required as they will be removed
c. Preheat should be applied if in accordance with WPS
d. None of the above
12. In NDT
a. Radiographic requires access from both sides
b. Ultrasonic inspection require access both sides
c. Ultrasonic would be preferred over radiography when temperature record is required
d. Both A & b are correct
13. E7018 M Electrode
a. Is classified under BS EN 2650 and is a Basic low hydrogen Electrode
b. Is classified under AWS A5.5 and Basic low hydrogen electrode depositing metal with a
Yield strength of 70,000 psi.
c. Is classified under AWS A5.5 and is suitable for welding in only PA & PB position
d. None of the above
14. Interpass temperature
a. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature may cause reduction in toughness
b. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature may cause increases in toughness
c. Interpass temperature has no effect on toughness
d. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature may result in excessive hardness
15. Weld decay
a. Is caused by excessive amounts of ‘Fe’ in the material
b. Can be minimized by specifying steel with lower carbon level
c. Can be minimized by specifying steel with lower amount of sulphur
d. Both B & C
16. Tensile test is considered as a
a. Fatigue failure
b. Ductile failure
c. Stress corrosion failure
d. Cyclic load failure
17. Hardness testing
a. Is carried out to assess the likelihood of solidification crack
b. Helps in assessing the susceptibility of HICC
c. Is a quantitative test to help assess equal values of hardness through the weld zone
d. Is carried out during welder qualification tests

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18. Lamellar tearing is most susceptible in
a. Highly restrained full penetration T joints ‘Z’ classified material
b. Highly restrained full penetration double v butt on thick section plates
c. Highly restrained compound joints
d. Both A and C
19. Preheating
a. Increases weld zone yield strength and remove moisture
b. Increases weld zone toughness and remove hydrogen
c. Reduces weld zone UTS Values and remove hydrogen
d. None of the above
20. TIG Welding
a. Zirconium electrodes are generally used for the welding of all materials in AC
b. Zirconium electrodes are generally used for welding of aluminum on AC & DC
c. Zirconium electrodes can be used on all materials except the aluminum alloys
d. Zirconium electrodes can be used for Al materials in AC
21. NDT
a. Prods are associated with MPI method
b. Prods are associated with UT method
c. Prods aren’t associated with any NDT method
d. Prods are commonly used for the inspection of welds
22. Arc strikes
a. Can lead to hard and brittle spots
b. Can cause a reduction in area
c. May result in the entire weld been removed
d. All the above
23. NDT
a. In penetrant test a high level of surface cleaning is required to ensure all surface defects
b. In penetrant test the developer is sometimes applied during the dwell time
c. In penetrant test only surface breaking defects can be detected
d. Both A and C correct
24. During welding you observe excess spatter what can be possible reason
a. Wrong polarity
b. Damp electrodes
c. High current
d. All the above
25. What is the significance of OCV in SMAW
a. No significance
b. It decides the current
c. It decides the depth of penetration
d. Arc Ignition
26. Who decides the necessity of a post weld heat treatment
a. Senior welding inspector
b. Welding inspector
c. Welding engineer
d. Code of construction

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27. In HICC, which of the following statement is not true
a. It occurs immediately after welding
b. Cellulose electrodes are deal to avoid HICC
c. Pre heating will increase the chances of HICC
d. All the above
28. HICC Occurs
a. After a specified time
b. All of a sudden without notice
c. During welding
d. After post weld heat treatment
29. Radiographic test cannot revel
a. The length of the defect
b. The location of the defect
c. The depth of the defect
d. The type of the defect
30. When will we use double wall single image (DWSI) technique?
a. At all times
b. When pipe diameter are over 100 mm
c. When pipe diameter are less than 100mm
d. None of the above
31. Solidification cracking in carbon steels can be reduced by
a. Reducing the level of carbon in the weld metal
b. Using heavy tack and restraints during welding
c. During a post weld heat treatment
d. None of the above
32. What does sensitization in Austenitic stainless steels
a. Formation of iron carbides
b. Formation of chromium carbides along the grain boundaries
c. Formation of chromium carbides
d. None of the above
33. Stabilization of Austenitic stainless steel means
a. Heat treating the stainless steels at annealing temperature
b. Add titanium to be take care of carbon
c. To increase nickel in the composition
d. None of the above
34. What are the similarities between BSEN 22553 and AWS A2.4 in depicting and Symbols
a. Both have same rule for depicting weld all around
b. Both have the same rule for depicting the other side
c. Both have the same rule for depicting sequence of operation
d. Both have the same method for depicting welding processes
35. In weldability of carbon steels, which of the following statement are true
a. Joint configuration influence weldability
b. Increasing carbon content makes welding easier
c. Thicker plates can be welded easily than thinner plates
d. All of the above

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36. Which of the following elements has the most pronounced effect on weldability?
a. Sulphur
b. Chromium
c. Molybdenum
d. Carbon
37. While making a symbol for a symmetric fillet weld
a. The size need not be mentioned
b. The length can be mentioned to the left of the symbol
c. The finish is assumed as flat
d. The Identification line can be omitted
38. Which of the following is true
a. Plug weld in a T joint
b. Spot weld in a edge joint
c. Fillet weld in a corner joint
d. Edge weld in a lap joint
39. A welding procedure qualified in PA position may not be valid if welding
needs to be done in PF position if
a. The tensile strength of weld metal is more than 600N/mm²
b. No NDT is done
c. Impact requirements are specified
d. No PWHT carried out
40. As the carbon percentage increases in plain carbon steels, which of the following is true
a. Tensile strength decreases
b. Yield strength decreases
c. Toughness decreases
d. Hardness decreases
41. TIG Welding
a. The electrodes using AC current should be ground to a slight rounded tip
b. Should baked as to the manufacturer’s recommendation around 350˚C
c. The electrode using DCEP current should be ground to a vertex angle of around 30˚
d. The electrode using DCEN current should be used straight from the box
generally no grinding is required
42. MAG welding
a. In the EN numerical classification of welding process 131 and 135 represents the
MIG & MAG welding process
b. In the EN numerical classification of welding process 141 represents the MAG
Welding process
c. In the EN numerical classification of welding process 121 represents the MAG
Welding process
d. None of the above
43. ISO 17637 means
a. Minimum recommended illumination is same for the visual inspection and MPI
b. Minimum of 350 lux but recommends 500 lux for VT
c. Minimum of 500 lux
d. Both a & b

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44. CEV
a. Is normally around 0.36 for fabrication C-Mn steels
b. Is always above 0.48 for fabricated C-Mn steels, this value is required to ensure
adequate strength
c. Never exceeds 0.048% for fabrication C-Mn Steels
d. CEV is only applicable for Austenitic stainless steel grades
45. What happens to the material as the operating temperature goes up
a. Less hardness
b. Yield strength reduce
c. Tendency to get oxidized increases
d. All of the above
46. Which of the following is true
a. Run out length reduces heat input decreases
b. Run out length increases heat input increase
c. Reduced weaving heat input increases
d. None of the above
47. Preheat
a. Is always carried out on C-Mn steels and 316L stainless steels
b. Is always carried out on C-Mn steels
c. Is generally required if a PWHT is to follow
d. Is generally carried out on C-Mn steels with a CE value >0.48
48. Preheat
a. Removes all surface contamination prior to welding
b. Reduce the risk of weld decay and hydrogen cracking
c. Makes the joint easier to weld
d. None of the above
49. Which of the following is odd one
a. Cold shortness
b. Cold cracking
c. Hot Shortness
d. Hot cracking
50. Distortion
a. A single-V butt weld made from one side highly restrained will have distortion
and low residual stress
b. A Double-V butt weld made from both sides with balanced welding will have distortion
and low residual stresses
c. A single-V butt weld made from one side with no restraint will have distortion
and low residual stresses
d. A single-V butt weld made from one side highly restrained will have distortion
weld high residual stresses
51. In tensile test maximum load recorded was 134KN and the width of the specimen
was 25mm & the thickness was 10mm. what would be the UTS and % Elongation
a. 536 N/mm² and 20% elongation
b. 536 N/mm² and elongation cannot be calculated
c. 536 KN/mm² and elongation cannot be calculated
d. 5.36 KN/mm² and elongation cannot be calculated

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52. A Ø80mm & 12mm thickness C-Mn steel pipe, what would be correct Technique in RT
a. DWDI using iridium 192
b. SWSI using cobalt 60
c. DWDI using cobalt 60
d. SWSI using iridium 192
53. Fracture testing
a. Is frequently used in stop/start areas
b. Is frequently used anywhere in the weld
c. Is used where there are no defects
d. Is only used where defects are already present
54. MAG welding
a. If the CTWD is extended the voltage will increases
b. If the CTWD is reduced the voltage will reduce
c. If the CTWD is extended the amperage will increases
d. If the CTWD is extended the amperage will reduce
55. Weldability
a. Easy to weld
b. Difficult to weld
c. It decides by welding engineer
d. None of the above
56. Highest Hydrogen levels would be
a. Less than 25ml/100 gm. of deposition
b. More than 25ml/100 gm. of deposition
c. Less than 15ml/100gm. of deposition
d. All the above
57. Which type of current is used to avoid ArcBlow
a. AC
b. DC
c. It depends on Voltage
d. All the above
58. In GTAW, stick-out length is more than specified
a. More Deposition
b. Less Deposition
c. Weld pool contamination
d. None of the above
59. Cast & Helix is to check the
a. Quality of flux powder in SAW
b. Quality of Gases
c. Quality of Solid wires in MIG/MAG
d. Quality of Tungsten electrodes

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60. What is the Difference between Heat input & Arc Energy
a. Heat input will be same for all welding process
b. Arc energy > Heat input for all welding process
c. Arc energy < Heat input for all welding process
d. Arc energy is will be same for all welding process
61. When heat is induced in the metals, what will be happened
a. Yield strength increases
b. Hardness increases
c. Toughness decreases
d. Chemical composition will alter
62. What is the purpose of a Bend test
a. Qualify the welder
b. Qualify the WPS to give ductility & soundness of weld
c. To write WPQR
d. Bend test is quantitative
63. Maximum preheat is required for
a. Butt joint of 25mm
b. Corner joint of 25mm
c. T-Joint of 25mm
d. Spot weld of 25mm
64. Initial 50mm; after 56.5
a. 6.5%
b. 11.5%
c. 13%
d. 20%
65. Marco testing….
a. Not to be done if tensile test & Impact test has done
b. Done before micro
c. To check internal microstructure in service
d. Lack of sidewall fusion
66. As per BS EN 2560, E 35 0 Z ….’0’ indicates
a. Tensile strength (N/mm²)
b. Yield strength (N/mm²)
c. Toughness (PSI)
d. Toughness (Joules)
67. During welding you noticed that the width of the weld is more then it shows
a. More HAZ Hardness
b. More HAZ Toughness
c. Less HAZ Hardness
d. Less HAZ Toughness

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68. Which of the following is correct
a. If ROL increases toughness increases
b. If ROL increases hardness decreases
c. ROL will not effect any Mechanical property
d. None of the above
69. PWHT is decided by whom?
a. Welding inspector & WPS
b. Senior welding inspector & WPS
c. Welding Engineer & Code of practice
d. Client Inspector & WPS
70. Which is ODD one
a. Weld profile
b. Weld cap
c. Crown
d. Reinforcement
71. Which flame is used in Oxy-fuel cutting of steels
a. Neutral
b. Oxidizing
c. It is oxidizing process flame is not specified
d. Carburizing
72. Fracture testing will show
a. Hardness
b. Ductility
c. Toughness
d. Soundness
73. Which process cannot be used for Aluminum welding
a. SAW
b. SMAW
c. FCAW
d. MAG
74. Which material can be cut by using plasma arc cutting
a. Aluminum
b. Stainless steel
c. Carbon steel
d. All
75. Open Corner joint requires which type of weld
a. Fillet
b. butt
c. spot
d. plug

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76. Weaving technique is used in which position
a. PF
b. PG
c. PE
d. PD
77. What are the reasons for Spatter
a. Damp electrodes
b. High current
c. Wrong polarity
d. All
78. Necking will start
a. After Elastic stage
b. Before the failure
c. At UTS
d. After UTS
79. A pipe Ø80mm, 12mm thickness the RT to be
a. DWDI with Iridium 192
b. DWDI with Cobalt 60
c. DWSI with Iridium 192
d. DWSI with Cobalt 60
80. A new contractor has approved WPS from different company, then what you will do?
a. Proceed for welding
b. Insist the contractor to make new WPS by copying
c. Ask for entirely new WPS
d. Inform higher authority
81. When DWSI is used
a. Pipe Ø over 100mm
b. Pipe Ø over 300mm
c. Pipe Ø less than 100mm
d. It decided by RT technician
82. Arc voltage is measured
a. Near to the return clamp
b. As close to the welder
c. As practical as near to the arc
d. Measuring current will also give Voltage
83. Joules is
a. To measure arc energy
b. Units of Impact toughness in Charpy-V notch
c. Units of Energy
d. Both B & C

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84. Prod is used in
a. MPT
b. DPT
c. RT
d. UT
85. Bend test is used to
a. Qualify the Welder
b. Qualify the WPS
c. To check the ductility and Soundness of Weld
d. All of the above
86. Reason for Weld-Decay in A.S.S is
a. Chromium carbides
b. Chromium carbides at grain boundaries
c. Iron carbides at grain boundaries
d. Sulphur & Phosphorous
87. Inductance is used in which of the following
a. Spray in MIG
b. DIP in MAG
c. DIP in MIG
d. Pulse in MAG
88. As per BS EN 2560, E 35 0……what it indicates
a. 35 N @ 20°C
b. 350 N/mm² @ 0°C
c. 35 PSI @ -20°C
d. 35MPa @ -35°C
89. High Hydrogen level is in
a. 6011
b. 8013
c. 7018
d. 9017
90. In Impact testing, specimen surface has a
a. Rough surface after testing
b. Rough & Torn surface after testing
c. Smooth surface after testing
d. None of the above

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KEY for EXAM – 2

1. C 41. A 81. A
2. A 42. A 82. C
3. C 43. D 83. D
4. B 44. A 84. A
5. C 45. D 85. D
6. C 46. D 86. B
7. A 47. D 87. B
8. D 48. C 88. B
9. D 49. B 89. A
10. A 50. C 90. D
11. C 51. B 91. -
12. A 52. A 92. -
13. D 53. A 93. -
14. A 54. D 94. -
15. B 55. A 95. -
16. B 56. B
17. B 57. A
18. C 58. C
19. C 59. C
20. D 60. D
21. A 61. C
22. D 62. B
23. D 63. C
24. D 64. C
25. D 65. D
26. D 66. D
27. D 67. D
28. A 68. D
29. C 69. C
30. B 70. A
31. A 71. A
32. B 72. D
33. D 73. D
34. A 74. D
35. A 75. A
36. D 76. A
37. D 77. D
38. C 78. C
39. C 79. A
40. C 80. C

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