COPY FOR: Yolindo S Ypon Salfc Board Examination For Criminologist Reviewer

COPY FOR: Yolindo S Ypon
SALFC BOARD EXAMINATION FOR CRIMINOLOGIST REVIEWER
1. May be defined as a study and investigation of crime and criminals and

concerned with application of knowledge regarding crime to social programs of
crime prevention and control.
a. Etiology
b. Criminology
c. Criminalist
d. Criminal Process
1. The process which explain human behavior, the experiences which help
determine the nature of a person’s as a mechanism that factors or experiences
in connection thereto impinges differentially upon different personalities
producing conflict which is the aspect of crime.
a. Criminogenic process
b. Etiology of crime
c. Criminal Psychodynamics
d. Critenism
2. The study of mental processes of criminal in action; the study of the genesis,
development and motivation of human behavior that conflicts with accepted
norms and standards of society, this study concentrates on the study of
individuals as opposed to general studies of mass populations with respect to
their general criminal behavior.
a. Criminal Psychodynamics
b. Criminogenic Process
c. Cultural Conflict
d. Cretinism
3. A disease associated with prenatal thyroid deficiency and subsequent thyroid

inactivity, marked by physical deformities, arrested development goiter, and
various forms of mental retardation, including imbecility.
a. Cretinism
b. criminogenic process
c. cultural conflict
d. crime statistics
4. A reported instance of a crime recorded in a systematic classification.
a. crime statistics
b. crime index
c. cultural conflict
d. contumacy
5. A clash between societies because of contrary, beliefs or substantial variances

in their respecting customs. Language, institutions, habits, learning, traditions,
etc.
a. cultural conflict
b. crime index
c. contumacy
d. custom
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6. A collective term of mental disorders that begin at or shortly after puberty and
usually lead to general failure of the mental facilities, with the corresponding
physiological impairment.
a. delirium
b. dementia praecox
c. demophobia
d. delusion
7. In medical jurisprudence, a false belief about the self, caused by morbidity,

present in paranoia and dementia praecox.
a. dementia praecox
b. delusion
c. delirium
d. episodic criminal
8. A noncriminal person who commits a crime when under extreme emotional

stress; a person who breaks down and commits a crime as a single incident
during the regular course of natural and normal events.
a. delusion
b. episodic criminal
c. erotomania
d. euthanasia
9. a morbid propensity to love or make love; incontrollable sexual desire, or

excessive sexual craving by members of either sex.
a. euthanasia
b. erotomania
c. episodic criminal
d. exhibitionist
10. as reposed to introvert, a person highly adapted to living in and deriving

satisfaction from external world; he is interested in people and things than
ideas, values and theories. He likes people being around them and being liked
by them.
a. self-centered individual
b. extrovert
c. exhibitionist
d. euthanasia
11. It signifies the release from life given a sufferer from an incurable and painful
disease.
a. euthanasia
b. extrovert
c. suicide
d. self-destruction
12. In medical jurisprudence; an apparent perception without any corresponding

external object especially in psychiatry, any of the numerous sensations,
auditory visual or tactile, experienced without external stimulus, and cause by
mental derangement, intoxication or fever, hence maybe a sign of approaching
insanity.
a. delusion
b. hallucination
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c. delirium
d. dementia praecox
13. It may be a transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits; tendency to

disease, etc. from parents to offspring. In genetics, the tendency manifested by
an organism to develop in the likeness of an progenitor due to the transmission
of genes on the reproductive process.
a. heredity
b. inheritance
c. environment
d. hallucination
14. Have been believed to share about equally in determining disposition, that is
whether a person is cheerful or gloomy, his temperament, and his nervous
stability.
a. heredity
b. heredity and environment
c. environment
d. introvert
15. an individual with strongly self-centered patterns of emotion fantasy, and

thought.
a. extrovert
b. hallucination
c. introvert
d. delusion
16. An uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal, or pathological stealing. The

symptoms of this disease usually consist of peculiar motives for stealing and
hoarding.
a. kleptomania
b. phobic
c. legal insanity
d. manila a potu
17. A morbid mainly characterized by a deep and morbid sense of religious feeling.
a. mana
b. delusion
c. manila fanatics
d. legal insanity
18. A condition of sexual perversion in which a person derives pleasure from being
cruelly treated.
a. sadism
b. masochism
c. megalomania
d. melancholia
19. a mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and depression of

spirits. Typical manic-depressive psychosis, accompanied with delusions and
hallucinations.
a. melancholia
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b. megalomania
c. masochism
d. methomonia
20. a mental disorder in which the subject thinks himself great or exalted.
a. melancholia
b. megalomania
c. masochism
d. methomonia
21. morbid craving, usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies. It is also a form of
perversion where sexual gratification is achieved either through sexual
intercourse with or mutilation of dead body.
a. sex maniac
b. neurophism
c. masochism
d. oikei mania
22. this is a term applied to a specialist in a study of mental disorders; sometimes

interchangeably used with psychiatrist.
a. anthropology
b. alienist
c. autophobia
d. biometry
23. It is a science devoted to the study of mankind and its development in

relationship to its physical, mental and culture history.
a. anthropology
b. alienist
c. autophobia
d. biometry
24. it is a morbid fear of one’s self or of being alone.
a. autophobia (monophobia)
b. biometry
c. anthropology
d. biosocial behavior
25. In criminology, a measuring or calculating of the probable duration of human

life; the attempt to correlate the frequency of crime between parents and
children or brothers and sisters (siblings).
a. biosocial behavior
b. biometry
c. Charles Goring
d. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
26. A person’s biological heritage, plus his environment and social heritage,
influence his social activity. It is through the reciprocal actions of his biological
and social heritage that a person’s personality is developed.
a. biosocial behavior
b. biometry
c. Charles Goring
d. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
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27. An English statistician, who studies the case histories of 2,000 convicts. He
found that heredity is more influential as a determiner of criminal behavior than
environment.
a. Charles Darwin
b. Charles Goring
c. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
d. Alphonse Bertillon
28. A person who originated the system of classifying criminals according to bodily
measurements. Because human skeleton is unchangeable after the twentieth
year and because no two individuals are alike in all dimensions; this method of
identification received prominence in 1880’s.
a. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Dr. Cesare Lombroso
c. Charles Darwin
d. Charles Goring
29. The world’s famous criminologists who advocated the Positivist Theory, that
crime is essentially a social and moral phenomenon and it cannot be treated
and checked by the imposition of punishment. Hence, a criminal is just any
other person who is sick, that should be treated in hospital for his possible
rehabilitation and reformation.
a. Dr. Cesare Lombroso

b. Charles Darwin
c. Alphonse Bertillon
d. Dr. Mark Angel
30. A sexual desire of an adult for children. This adult may obtain sexual
gratification from various forms of sexual intimacies and with the young.
a. sex maniac
b. pedophilia
c. masochism
d. homosexual
31. it has been considered as the “cradle of human personality” for in it the child
forms the fundamental attitudes and habits that endure throughout his life.
a. school
b. home
c. religion
d. police agency
32. It is a strategic position to prevent crime and delinquency. It receives hum when
he is young, observes, supervise and teaches him for many hours each week
during some of his most impressionable years.
a. discriminalization
b. abolish legislative body
c. logomachy
d. all of the above
33. A statement that we would have no crime if we had no criminal laws and that
we could eliminate all crime merely by abolishing all criminal law.
a. discriminalization
5
b. abolish legislative body
c. logomachy
d. all of the above
34. any record of crimes, such as crimes known to the police, arrests, convictions,
or commitments to prison.
a. crime statistics
b. crime index
c. police blotter
d. police record
35. Place and period between and when the classical school of criminology and of
criminal law development, based on hedonistic psychology.
a. England, during the last half of the 19th century

b. USA, during the last half of the 19th century
c. Italy, during the last half of the 19th century
d. China, during the last half of the 19th century
36. An American authority in Criminology who in his book of principles of

Criminology, considers criminology present as not a science, but it has hopes of
becoming a science.
a. William Mckorkle
b. Edwin H Sutherland
c. Cesare Baccaru
d. George L. Wilker
37. A Criminologist, who in his book “The Scienctific Adequaty of Criminology

Concept” argued that criminology cannot possibly become a science.
Accordingly, general propositions of universal validity are the essence of
science; such proposition can be made only regarding stable and homogenous
unit but varies from one time to another; therefore universal proposition cannot
be made regarding crime, and scientific studies of criminal behavior are
impossible.
a. Edwin H. Sutherland
b. George L. Wilker
c. William Mckorkle
d. Cesare Baccaru
38. Who, in his book “An Essay of Crimes and Punishments”, (Lonton Almond,
1967), advocated and applied the doctrine of penology; that is to make
punishment less arbitrary and severe than it had been; that all persons who
violated a specific law should receive identical punishment regardless of age,
sanity, wealth, positions, or circumstances.
a. William Mckorkle
b. Edwin H. Sutherland
c. Cesare Baccaria
d. R. Garofalo
39. Another Italian Criminologist who developed a concept of the natural crime and
defined it as a violation of the prevalent sentiments of pity and probity.
a. W.A Bonger
b. R. Garofalo
c. Cesar Baccaru
d. Dr Cesare Lombroso
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40. Another international criminologist who classified crimes by the motives of the
offenders as economic crimes, sexual crimes, political crimes, and
miscellaneous crimes-with vengeance as the principal motive.
a. W.A Bonger
b. R. Garofalo
c. Cesare Baccaru
d. Dr Cesare Lombroso
41. A law of a foreign country which prohibited mothers and nurses from talking
children under two years of age into their beds.
a. Prussian Law of 1784

b. Russian Law of 1784
c. Chinese Law of 1784
d. Italian Law of 1784
42. An author in criminology, who advocated the theory that “feeblemindedness

inherited as Mendelian unit, cause crime for the reason that feebleminded
person is unable to appreciate the meaning of law.
a. Walter Bromberg
b. H.H Godard
c. Richard Dugdale
d. W.F Ogburn
43. One school of criminology based on writings of Marx and Angels, began in 1850
and emphasized economic determinism, that crime is only a by product;
variations in crime rates in association with variations in economic conditions.
a. Socialist School of Criminology

b. Sociological School
c. Social Psychological School
d. All of them
44. School of criminology which interpreted crime as function of social environment

emphasizing importance of “imitation” in crime causation.
a. Socialist School of Criminology

b. Sociological School
c. Social Psychological School
d. “M Naghten Rule”
46. Generaly “insanity” is used to describe legally harmful behavior perpetrated under
circumstances in
which the actor did not know the nature or quality of his act or did not know right from wrong.
This
explanation was formulated in England in 1843.
__A) Social psychological

__B) Sociological school
__C) “M Naghten rule”
__D) Socialist school of criminology
47. It is perhaps the most significant social condition accompanying the industrial and democratic
revolu-
tions; because of this, condition of anonymity was created and the agencies by which control
had been
secured in almost all earlier societies were greatly weakened.
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__A) Migrants __C) Culture conflict
__B) Mobility __D) Economic and political individualism
48. Family trees have been used extensively by certain scholars in the effort to prove that
criminality is in-
herited. Perhaps the most famous of these family trees is the study by Dugdale and
Estabrook,who re-
ported that of about 1,200 members of this family, 140 were criminals; seven were convicted of
mur-
der 60 of theft, and 50 of prostitution.
__A) Kalikak’s family __C) Zeros family

__B) Jukes family __D) Jonathan Edwards family
49. One family tree that contradicted the theory that criminality is inherited; a famous preacher in
the colo-
nial period; none of his descendants were found to be criminals, while many were presidents of
the
United States, governor of states members of the supreme court and of other high courts, an
famous
writers, preachers and teachers. That his ancestors did have criminal records, his maternal
grandmother
was divorced on the ground of adultery, his grand uncle murdered his own sister.
__A) Jonathan Edwards family __C) Jukes family

__B) Zeros family __D) Kalikaks family
50. One school of criminology advocated by John Dewey, George Mead, Charles Cooley, and W.I
thomas.
That the development of criminal behavior is considered as involving the same learning
process as
does the development of the behavior of a banker, doctor, that the content of learning, not the
process
itself, is considered as the significant element determining whether one becomes a criminal or
non-cri
minal.
__A) Social psychological

__B) Socialist
__C) Sociological
__D) Physical & Environment
51. Crime rates not only vary from one relation to another but also generally among the several
sections of
each nation. Such that the rate of convictions for homicides per million population varies widely
in dif-
ferent regions in the whole of the Philppines.
__A) Cultural conflict __C) Rural-Urban distribution

__B) Regionalism __D) Neighborhood
52. According to Marshall B. Olinard, this kind of criminality is explained by the person’s
identification
with delinquents and his conception of himself as reckless and mobile, an explanation which is
consis-
tent with differential association.
__A) Gang __C) Rural criminality

__B)Cultural conflict __D) Neighborhood
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53. It is means of disseminating techniques of delinquencies, of training in delinquency, of
protecting its
members engaged in delinquency, and of maintaining continuity in delinquency.

__B) Family __D) Neighborhood
54. It is the first agency to affect the direction which a particular child will take, and that no child is
so con-
stituted at birth that it must inevitably become a delinquent or that it must inevitably be law-
abiding.

__B) Family __D) Broken home
55. One of the most obvious elements in the delinquency of some children is the criminalistic
behavior of
other members of the child’s family.

__B) Family __D) Broken home
56. The modification of home conditions by death, divorce or desertion has generally been believed
to be
an important reason for delinquency of the children.
__A) Broken home __C) Home discipline

__B) Criminality in the home __D) Gang
57. It is considered as four times as important as poverty in the home in relation to delinquency;
that it falls
most frequently because of indifference and neglect.
__A) Criminality in the home __C) Broken home

__B) Home discipline __D) Government
58. It is the organized authority than can influence social control through its branches, particularly
in the
making of laws.
__A) Church __C) Government

__B) Police agency __D) All of them
59. It includes assessment of those forces resulting from man’s collective survival effort with
emphasis
upon his institutions, economic, financial, educational, political, religion as we as recreational.
__A) Economic approach

__B) Ecological
__C) Sociological and cultural approach
__D) All of them
60. The unjust utilization of economic resources sometimes create resentment among individuals
which
often lead them to frustration and develop a feeling of hatred and provocated criminal conduct
will
result.
__A) Economic approach
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__B) Ecological
__C) Sociological and cultural approach
__D) All of them
61. It emphasizes of morals and life’s highest spiritual values, the work and dignity of an individual,
and
respect for the person and property of others, general powerful forces.
__A) The school __C) The government

__B) Religion __D) The police agency
62. The general explanation of one topic in relation to criminal behavior is that causes of crime lie
prima-
rily in the area of personal interaction, and that personal interaction is confined almost entirely
to local
communities and neighborhood.
__A) Social institutions and crime

__B) Culture areas and crime
__C) Crime and social process
__D) The home and family in relation to crime
63. A process which appears in the life history of persisting criminals. This process describes the
develop
ment of criminality, with reference first to the general attitudes toward criminality, and second,
to the
techniques used in criminal behavior.
__A) Segregation
__B) Maturation
__C) Progressive conflict
__D) Competitive development of techniques of crime and protection against crime
64. This may be observed in the interaction between criminals and the public. Thus, a person with
criminal
record may ostracized in one community but may become a political leader in other
communities.
__A)Segregation
__B) Maturation
65. This process begins with arrest, which is interpreted as defining a person as enemy of society,
and
which calls forth hostile reactions from representative of society prior to and regardless of proof
of guilt
that each side tends to drive the other side to greater violence unless it becomes stabilized, on
a recog
nized level.
__A) Segregation
__B) Maturation
66. Both sides may appropriate the inventions of modern science so far as they useful to them.
When the
10
police develop and invention for the detection or identification of criminals, the criminals utilize
a
device to protect themselves.
__A) Competitive development of techniques of crime and of the protection

__B) Progressive conflict
__C) Maturation
__D) Segregation
67. certain types of crimes have disappeared almost entirely, thus the general situation may
change and
cause the disappearance of crime. Now in Metro Manila, armored bank robbery by a group of
heavily
armed men seems to become the craze century.
__A) Organizations of criminals __D) Gang

_C) Professionalization
B) Fashions in crime
68. This may be developed thru the interaction of criminals. This may be formal association with
recogni-
zed leadership, understanding, agreements, and division of labor, or it may be a formal
similarity and
reprocity of interest and attitudes.
__A) Organizations of criminals __C) Professionalization

__B) Fashions in crime __D) Gang
69. When applied to a criminal refers to the following things: the pursuit of crime as a regular day-
by-day
occupation, the development of skilled techniques and careful planning in the occupation, and
status
among criminals.
__A) Organizations of criminals __C) Professionalization

__B) Fashions in crime __D) Underground world
70. Progress in the explanation of disease is being made principally by the studies of specific
diseases,
similarly, it is desirable to concentrate research work in criminology on specific crimes and on
specific
“sociological units” within the broad area of crime and within the legal definition of specific types
of
of crime such kidnapping and robbery.
__A) Behavior systems in crime __C) Professional crimes

__B) Under world __D) Organization of criminals
71. The behavior system in crime may be described by its three principal characteristic, except..
__A) it is an integrated unit or essence of spirit de corp.

__B) The behavior which occurs in a behavior system is not unique to any particular individual.
__C) While commons and joint participation in the system is the essential characteristic of a
behavior system, it can frequently be defined by the feeling of identification of those who
participate if
__D) It is not merely an aggregation of individuals criminal acts
72. An American authority in police, matters who, in his book “The Big Con(Indianapolis: Bobbs-
Merril,
11
1940) once said, “ The dominant culture could control the predatory cultures without difficulty
and
what is more, it could exterminate them, for no criminal subculture can operate continuously
and pro-
fessionaly without the connivance of the law.”
__A) David W. Maurer __C) John Edgar Hoover

__B) Orlando Wilson __D) August Vollmer
73. This school of Penology, which Beccaria made of the first significant contributions and to which
Roesseau, Montsequieu, and Voltaire belonged, maintained the doctrine of psychological
hedonism,
that the individual calculates pressures and pains in advance of action and regulates his
conduct by the
results of his calculations. That since punishment must be one that can be calculated, it must
be same
for all individuals, regardless of age, mentality, social status, or other conditions.
__A) Classical school __C) Positive school

__B) Neo-classical school __D) Punitive reaction to crime
74. This school arose at the time of the French Revolution and the period Immediately following,
main-
tained that while the classical school was correct in general, it should be modified in certain
details;
since children and lunatics cannot calculate pleasures and pains, they should not be regarded
as cri-
minals or to be punished.
__A) Classical school __C) Positive school

__B) Neo-classical school __D) Punitive reaction to crime
75. This school denied individual responsibility and reflected and essentially non-punitive reaction
to crime
and criminality. The adherents of this school maintained that a crime, as any other act, is a
natural phe-
nomenon, just like a tornado, a flood, typhoon, or a stroke of lightning.
__A) Classical
__B) Neo-classical
__C) Positive
__D) Justifying or exemping circumstances
76. During the history of mankind four principal methods of implementing the punitive policy have
been
used. One of the following, however, was not of the four methods, and that is..
__A) By becoming a slave of the offended party

__B) Removal from the group by death; by exile, or by imprisonment
__C) Physical torture
__D) Social degradation
__E) Financial loss
77. In the matter of death penalty, two techniques of death penalty were practiced in Switzerland
until
about 1400, and death by drowning until about 1600. These two techniques of inflicting death in
Switzerland were…
__A) Burning and boiling in oil

__B) Impaling and immuring
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__C) Breaking at the wheel & iron coffin
__D) Drowning and choking
78. The country where the last burning at the stake was made until 1786.
__A) Prussia __C) China

__B) Berlin __D) Italy
79. One of the World Leaders, who, as late as 1817, tried in vain to substitute simple hanging for
treason
in place of the existing penalty of hanging, cutting down alive, disemboweling, cutting off the
head,
and quartering the body.
__A) Romily __C) Hitler

__B) Alexander the Great __D) Montagu
80. In 1786, after the Americans gain their independence from England, the prisoners of England
were
transported to another colony until1867. What is the name of this country today, then a colony
of
England?
__A) Romily __C) Argentina

__B) Australia __D) Brazil
81.What nation who pioneered banishment as a form of punishment?
__A) Ancient Rome __C) England

__B) China __D) Spain
82. What nation who pioneered the modern legalization of transportation in 1597, and concerned
‘rogues,
vagabonds, and study beggars?”
__A) Ancient Rome __C) England

__B) China __D) Spain
83. It is a kind of early form of punishment where prisoners are shipped or moved from one place to
another for the purpose of cheap labor.
__A) Transportation __C) Penal colony

__B) Scary __D) Banishment
84. In 1241, same Jews were convicted of what crime and were ordered either to pay twenty
thousand mark
or else be kept perpetual prisoners?
__A) Killing a Christian child

__B) crammcising a Christian child
__C) Marrying a Christian women
__D) Killing a sheep
85. in what pennon when the First House of Correction appeared in England, on the petition of
Bishop Rid-
ley of London for help in dealing with the sturdy vagabonds in the city, of the lewd and idle, and
a
place for the employment of the unemployed and the training of children?
__A) Middle of the 16th century
13
__B) First half of the 16th century
__C) First half of the 15th century
__D) Middle of the 17 century
86. a private person who, in 1669, established a workhouse in Hamburg at his own expenses
because he
had observed that thieves and prostitutes were made worse instead of better by the pillory, and
he
hoped that they might be imperviously by work and religious instruction in the work house.
__A) August Vollmer __B) Peter Rentzel

__C) Bishop Riddley __D) Garofalo
87. The great prison reformer, who wrote “The State of Prisons in England” in 1777, after personal
investigation of practically all the prison in England.
__A) John Howard __B) Peter Rentzel

__C) August Vollmer __D) Garofalo, seconded by ferri and
florreti
88. The foremost advocate of reparation and restitution methods that if the offender is solvent his
property
should be attached crime proceedings are stated, so that he can be compelled by ordered the
court to
make restitution.
__A) Bonneville de Marsangy __C) john howard

__B) Garofalo, seconded by ferri and fioretti __D) Orlando Wilson
89. A code after a name of a person who firstly adopted the principle “an eye for an eye and a
tooth” in the
imposition of punishment, in about 1875 B.C.
__A) Code of Kalantiao __C) Hammarabi’s Code

__B) Code of Maragtas __D) Dewey Code
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

REPUBLIC ACT NO. 8551
(56 Questions)
An Act Providing For the Reform and Reorganization of the Philippine National Police and for
Other
Purpose, Amending Certain Provisions of RA No. 6975, Entitled “ An Act Establishing the PNP
under
A Reorganize Department of the Interior and Local Government, and for Other Purposes, dated
February 25, 1998
90. It is hereby declared the policy of the state to establish a highly efficient and competent police
force
which is national in scope and civilian in character administered and controlled by a national
police
commission.
__A) R.A No. 6975 __C) R.A No. 4864

__B) R.A No. 8551 __D) R.A No. 7160
14
91. It is hereby declared the policy of the state to promote peace and order, ensure public safety
and further
strengthen local government capability aimed towards the effective delivery of basic services to
the
citizenry through the establishment of a highly efficient and competent police force that is
national in
scope and civilian in character. Towards this end, the state shall bolster a system of
coordination and
cooperation among the citizenry, local executives and the integrated law enforcement and
public safety
agencies created under the Act.
__A) R.A No. 6975 __C) R.A No. 4864

__B) R.A No. 8551 __D) R.A No. 7160
92. It is hereby declared the policy and purpose of this Act to achieve and attain a higher degree of
efficiency in the organization, administration and operation of local police agencies with the end in
view that peace and order may be maintained more effectively and the laws enforced with more
impartiality. It is
also the object of this Act to place the local police service on a professional level.
__A) RA No. 6975 __C) RA No. 4864

__B) RA No. 8551 __D) RA No. 7160
93. It shall be a community and service oriented agency responsible for the maintenance of peace
and order
and public safety. As such it shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in
police
exercise of discretion as well as to achieve efficiency and effectiveness of its numbers and units
in the
performance of their functions.
__A) PNP __C) All Law Enforcement Agencies

__B) NBI __D) All Bureau of Fire Protection and
Jail Management and penology
94. As a civilian in character, it is a non-military organization, nor any position the roof shall be
occupied
by any active member of the armed forces of the Philippines, whose administration is governed
by the
Department of the inspector and Local Government through the Office of the NAPOLCOM, and
its
Personel qualification and security of tenure is governed by the Civil Service Law.
__A) PNP __C) Personnel of the NAPOLCOM

__B) NBI __D) Government Employees
95. It is law which governs the Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for officials and employees
of the
Government-National or Local.
__A) R.A No. 6713 __C) R.A No. 6975

__B) R.A No. 7160 __D) R.A No.8551
96. The role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and other serious
threats to
national security.
__A) After twenty-four(24) months from the effectivity of it’s Act, the PNP of DILG shall
automatically
15
take over from the AFP the primary role of preserving internal security-suppression of
insurgency.
__B) The DILG or PNP is already relieved of the primary responsibility on matters involving the
suppression of insurgency and other serious threats to national security.
__C) All of the Above
__D) None of the first Two Above mentioned.
97. It is an agency attached to the DILG for policy and program coordination. It is composed of a
Chairperson, four(4) Regular Commissioners and the chief of the PNP as ex Officeo member.
Three(3)
Of the Regular Commissioner shall come from the civilian sector who are neither active nor
former
members of the Police or Military, one(1) of whom shall be designated as Vice Chairperson by
the
President. The fourth regular commissioner shall come from the law enforcement sector either
active
or retired. That an active member of a law enforcement agency shall be considered resigned
from said
agency once appointed to the commission provided, further, that at least one(1) of the
Commission
shall be woman. The secretary of the department shall be the ex officio Chairperson of the
commission,
while the Vice Chairperson shall act as the Executive Officer of the Commission.
__A) NAPOLCOM
__B) Commission on Human Rights (CMR)
__C) Commission of Adult (COA)
__D) Sandigang Bayan
98. As the inherent Powers of the government, it may be defined as the power vested in the
legislative by
the constitution to make, ordain and establish all manner of wholesome and reasonable laws,
statutes
and ordinances, either with penalties or without, not repugnant to the commission,as they shall
sudge
to be for the good and welfare of the state and the subjects of the same.
__A) Statutory Police Power

__B) Police Power
__C) Power of Eminent Domain
__D) Power of Taxation
__E) All of the Above
99. It is that power vested in the police by the legislative Body of the land to enforce the laws of the
land in
order to maintain peace and order, protect lives and properties, effect arrest of criminal
offenders, bring
to justice and assist the public prosecutors in the prosecution of criminal offenders.
__A) Statutory Police Power

__B) Police Power
__C) Power of Eminent Domain
__D) Power of Taxation
100. A law otherwise known as an Act Defining Certain Rights of Persons Arrested, Detained or
Under
16
Custodial Investigation as well as the duties of the arresting detaining and investigating
officers, and
Providing penalties for violations thereof.
__A) R.A No.7160 __C) R.A No. 8505

__B) R.A No. 7438 __D) R.A No. 6713
101. The first of the thirty(30) enumerated duties a policeman on day.
__A) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the lawful orders of his
superior
officers or higher authority.
__B) He shall enforce all pertinent traffic laws ordinances or regulations and shall take
appropriate
action on any violations of law that may come to his attention.
__C) He shall operate the patrol car at a moderate rate of speed and in such a manner as will
enable
him to observe any condition or occurrence in his patrol beat which may require police
attention. He shall adhere to the method prescribed for foot patrolmen, except as may
otherwise
directed.
__D) All of the Above
102. The first of the nine(9) enumerated duties a policeman assigned to traffic on duty.
__A) He shall be enforce all pertinent traffic laws ordinances or regulations and shall take
appropriate
__B) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the lawful orders of his
superior
enable
otherwise
directed.
103. The first of the six(6) enumerated duties of a policeman assigned to a police car for patrol
duty.
__A) He shall be enforce all pertinent traffic laws ordinances or regulations and shall take
appropriate
__B) He shall be ready at all times to perform his duties and obey the lawful orders of his
superior
enable
otherwise
directed.
104. On the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with..
__A) A police-to-population ratio of One(1) Policeman for every Five Hundred (500) persons.
17
__B) The authorized ratio of ranks in a police force
__C) The maximum police-to-population ratio shall not be more than one(1) Policeman for
every
One Thousand (1,000) Persons.
105. As the term relatively applied to paragraph (g) Section 14 of RA No. 8551, amending Section
30 of
RA No. 6975, it may mean an act of baseness, vileness or morally evil oftentimes offensive to
senses
Of sensibility or highly disagreeable sins where one is convicted by final judgment of the
offense or
Crime committed is deprived of his parental authority, guardianship over the ward, marital
authority,
And the right to manage his property and to dispose of the same by an “act interviews(during
his life
Time).
__A) Moral Turpitude

__B) Violation of Anti-Graft and corrupt practices
__C) Morality
106. Of the four(4) general qualifications for appointment to police service where a waiver may be
made,
one of the following is not included:
__A) Age __C) Weight E) Related talent
__B) Height __D) Educational requirements
107. A policeman’s nature of appointment under a Waiver Program.
__A) Conditional appointment

__B) Temporary appointment
__C) Permanent appointment
108. This is one requirement for Permanent Appointment to the PNP.
__A) To undergo a field training Program for 12 months involving actual experience and
assignment
in Patrol, Traffic and investigation
__B) A holder of relevant Master’s degree in Criminology, Law Enforcement, National Security
or
Law
__C) A member of any Cultural Minority
109. Under section 21 of RA No. 8551, amending section 32 of RA No. 6975 one of the following
has now
the authority to conduct examinations for Policemen.
__A) Civil Service Commission

__B) National Police Commission
__C) Professional Regulation Commission
__D) DILG
110. Any civilian who is either a member of the bar with at least 5 years of law practice, Licensed
Crimi-
nologist or graduate of the PNPA and who possesses the general qualifications for initial
appointment
18
to the PNP shall be qualified for appointment chief of a city of Municipal the staion, provided
that in
both cases, the appointees has the required Field Training Program and has complied with
other
requirements as may be established by the NAPOLCOM.
__A) True __C) Somewhat true

__B) False __D) Somewhat False __E) None of the Above
111. In the police service, it may mean the loss in the personnel of its organization in the normal
course of
events due to attainment of maximum tenure in position, relief for just cause, demotion in
position or
rank, non-promotion or separation from the service or retirement.
__A) Attrition __C) Absent Without Official Leave (AWOL)

__B) Banishment __D) Missing in Action(MIA) __E) All of the
Above
112. A kind of attrition of PNP Members holding key position in the PNP.
__A) Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure in Position

__B) Attrition by Relief
__C) Attrition by Non-promotion
__D) Attrition on the bases of retirement and separation
113. An Attrition of any PNP Uniformed personnel for just caused and has not been given an
assignment
within in two (2) years after, shall be retired o separated.

114. An attrition of any PNP Uniformed personnel who has been nailed or has never been moved
from one
rank or position to another for a continuous period of ten(10) years, shall be retired or
separated.

115. On the basis of promotion for PNP uniformed personnel, one of the following is not included;
__A) Merits
__B) Availability of vacant positions in the PNP staffing
__C) Clearance from the PLEB and the office of the Ombudsman of any complaint preferred
against
him or her, if any
__D) Approval by the commission on Appointment
116. It is an act or instance of elevating a personnel from a lower rank to higher rank or position,
either by
regular or special process.
__A) Promotion
__B) Performance Evaluation
19
__C) Lateral Promotion
__D) All of them
117. It shall be administered in such way as to foster the improvement of individual efficiency and
behavioral discipline as well as the promotions of organizational effectiveness and respect for
the
constitutional and human rights of citizens, democratic principles and ideals and the
supremacy of
civilian authority over the military.
__A) Promotion
__B) Performance Evaluation
__C) Lateral Promotion
__D) Monthly Retirement Benefits
118. It shall be paid by 50% of the above pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of 20
years of
active service, increasing by 21/2% for every year of active service rendered beyond 20 years
to a
maximum of 90% for 36 years of active service and over. Provided, That, the Uniformed
personnel
shall have the option to receive in advance and in jump sum his retirement ray for the first 5
years,
which shall be made within 6 months from the effectivity date of retirement and/or completion,
and
that the retirement pay of the officers/non-officers of the PNP shall be subject to adjustments
based on
the prevailing scale of base pay of police personnel in the active service.
__A) Monthly Requirement Benefits

__B) Monthly Salary
__C) Increase Monthly Salary
__D) Permanent Physical disability
119. A kind of benefit when an officer or non-officer who is permanently and totally disabled as a
results of
injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the performance of his duty as duly certified by the
National Police Commission, upon find log and certification by the appropriate medical officer,
that
the extent of the disability or sickness renders such member unit or unable to further perform
the
duties of his position, shall be entitled to one year’s salary and the lifetime pension equivalent
to 80%
of his last salary, in addition to other benefits as provided under existing laws.
__A) Monthly Requirement Benefits

__B) Early Retirement Program
__C) Increase Monthly Salary
__D) Permanent Physical disability
120. However, should such member who has been retired under permanent total disability under
section 35
of RA No. 8551 due within 5 years from his retirement, his surviving legal spouse or there be
none,
the surviving dependent legitimate children shall be entitled to the pension for….
__A) the remainder of the 5 years guaranteed period

__B) Lifetime pension benefit of the surviving biers
__C) the remainder of the 10 years guaranteed
20
121. It is a kind of retirement, where an officer or non-officer shall be upon attainment of age 56,
provided
in case of any officer with the rank of chief superintendent, director or deputy director general,
the
Commission may allow his attention in the service for an un extendible period of 1 year.
__A) Optional Retirement

__B) Compulsory Retirement
__C) Permanent Total Disability
__D) Separation
122. It is a kind of retirement which may be availed of upon accumulation of at least 20 years of
satisfactory active service, an officer or non-officer, at his own request and with the approval of
the
commission, shall be retired from the service and entitled to receive benefits provide for by
law.
__A) Optional Retirement

__B) Compulsory Retirement
__C) Permanent Total Disability
__D) Separation
123. It is an office which is independent of the PNP, which is composed of the National, Regional
and
Provincial offices, headed by Inspector General, Directors and Superintendents, respectively.
It head is
Civilian who shall meet the qualification requirements provided therein.
__A) CIDG
__B) Internal Affairs Service(IAS)
__C) People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
__D) Ombudsman
__E) Sandigang Bayan
124. As the term used in Disciplinary Machinery, Minor Offense shall refer to any act or commission
not
involving moral turpitude, but affecting the internal discipline of the PNP, and shall include, but
not
limited to the following with the exception of one, that is..
__A) Simple misconduct or negligence; insubordination

__B) Frequent absences and tardiness
__C) Habitual Drunkenness and Gambling prohibited by law
__D) Homosexual or Lesbian
125. It may mean wrongful, improper, or unlawful conduct, motivated by premeditated, obstinate, or
intentional purpose. It usually refers to transgression of some established and definite rule of
action,
where no direction is left except what necessity may demand. It does not necessarily imply
corruption
or criminal intention but implies wrongful intention and not more error of judgment.
__A) Simple Misconduct on Malfeasance

__B) Neglect of Duty or Negligence or Non-feasance
__C) Insurbordination
126. It may mean a filing of a complaint, either criminal or administrative involving the same cause
of
21
action filed in two or more different courts of law or quasi-judicial bodies.
__A) Venue and Jurisdiction

__B) Forum Shopping or Multiple Filing of a Complaint
__C) Disciplinary Machinery
__D) Peoples Law Enforcement Board(PLEB)
127. Is that power of the NAPOLCOM, Chief of the PNP and PNP regional Directors, who after due
notice
and summary hearings, may immediately remove or dismiss any respondent PNP member in
any of
the cases enumerated under RA No. 6975, as amended.
__A) Summary Dismissal Powers

__B) Authority
__C) Statutory Police Power
128. The required number of days when a PNP or officer may be considered as Absent Without
Leave(AWOL), and who shall be dismissed immediately from the service.
__A) Continuous period of 15 days or more

__B) Continuous period of 30 days or more
__C) Continuous period of 45 days or more
129. An instance or instances when the court order a PNP Member or officer to be suspended or
be put
under preventive suspension.
__A) Upon the filing of a complaint or information sufficient in form and substance against a
member
of the PNP for grave felonies where the penalty imposed by law is 6 years and 1 day or
more,
whose suspension period shall not exceed 90 days from arraignment.
__B) If it can be shown by evidence that the accused is harassing the complainant and/or
witnesses,
the court may order for preventive suspension of the accused PNP member even if the
change
is punishable by a penalty lower than 6 years and 1 days. Such preventive suspension
shall not
exceed more than 90 days except if the delay in the disposition of the case is due to
fault,
negligence or positions of the respondent.
__C) Letter A only
__D) Letter B only
130. When such order of suspension or preventive suspension may sooner be lifted by the court.
__A) In the exigency of the service and upon the recommendation of the PNP Director
General. In
such a case, it shall be subject to continuous trial and shall be terminated within 90
days from
arraignment of the accused.
__B) When the complainant executed an Affidavit of desistance

__C) When said PNP accused member is transferred to another PNP Office or Station
22
131. When may a PNP member be entitled to legal assistance by the Government?
__A) When said PNP member is indigent litigant
__B) When said PNP members is facing before a prosecutor’s office the court of competent
body, a
charge or charges arising from any incident which is related to the performance of his
official
duty.
__C) When said PNP member is permanently totally disabled
132. It is an office in every police station throughout the country that is to administer and attend to
cases
involving crimes against chastity, sexual harassment, abuses committed against women and
children
and other similar offenses.
__A) Women’s Desk

__B) Unisex Desk
__C) Women’s Lib Office
133. Which means to include but not limited to the establishment of equal opportunities for women
in the
PNP, the prevention of sexual harassment in the workplace, and the prohibition of
discrimination on
The basis of gender of sexual orientation.
__A) Bill Rights of women in the PNP

__B) Gender sensitivity Program for policewomen
__C) PNP Womens League
134. The effect or legal consequence of the established rules and regulations regarding Gender
Sensitivity
and Gender Equality is violated.
__A) The offender or violation will be suspended without pay for not less than 30 days and
shall
undergo Gender Sensitivity Seminar
__B) The offender or violation will be transferred to Autonomous Region of Muslim
Mindanao(ARMM)
__C) The offender or violation is demoted
135. They are deputized as representative of the NAPOLCOM in their respective Territorial
jurisdictions.
__A) Governor and Mayors

__B) Governor and Congressman
__C) Mayors and Barangay Chairman
136. When the operational supervision and control of the Mayors over their Police Station and its
members
may be suspended.
__A) During the 30 day period immediately preceding and the 30 days following any
national,local or
barangay elections.
__B) During the period of suspension of the Mayor
23
__C) During the election period where the incumbent Mayor files his candidacy for re-election
and/or
other elective office
__D) During the period when the Mayor is in vacation
137. It shall mean the power to direct, superintendent, an oversee the day-to-day functions police
investigation in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the NAPOLCOM.
__A) Employment
__B) Operational supervision and control
__C) Deployment
138. The term refers to the utilization of units or element is of the PNP for purpose of protection of
lives
and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes,
arrest of
criminal offenders and bring the offenders to justice, and ensuring public safety, particularly in
the
suppression of disorders, riots, lawlessness, violence, rebellions, and seditions conspiracy,
insurgen-
cy, subversion or other related activities.
__A) Employment
__C) Deployment
139. It shall mean the orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP
within the
province, city or municipality for purpose of employment.
__A) Employment
__C) Deployment
140. One of the following is not within the other powers or authority of the city or municipal mayors
over
the PNP units in their respective jurisdiction.
__A) The authority to choose the chief of police from a list of 5 eligibles recommended by the
Provincial Police Directors.
__B) The authority to recommend to the Provincial Police Director the transfer, reassignment
or
detail of PNP members outside of their respective city or town residence.
__C) The authority to recommend from a list of eligibles previously screened by the Peace
and Order
Council the appointment of new members to be assigned to their respective cities or
municipalities without which no such appointments shall be attested.
__D) To choose his own close-in body guard any where he goes.
141. Who are the local Government Officials to be officially Deputized Representative of the
NAPOLCOM?
__A) Governors and congressmen, upon having been elected and having qualified as such.
As a
Deputized agent of the NAPOLCOM, he or she can inspect police force an unit,
conduct audit
and exercise other function as may be authorized by the NAPOLCOM.
24
__B) Governors and congressmen, upon having been elected and having qualified as such.
As a
Deputized agent of the NAPOLCOM, local Government Executives can inspect police
forces
And units, conduct audit and exercise other function as may be authorized by the
NAPOLCOM.
__C) Mayors and Barangay Chairmen only upon having been elected and having qualified as
such.
As Deputized agent of the NAPOLCOM said Mayors and Barangay Chairmen can
inspect
police force and units, conduct audit and exercise other function as may be authorized
by the
NAPOLCOM.
142. Of the 4 grounds when the deputation be suspended in withdrawn, one of the following is not
included:
__A) Gambler an or having a mistress or another man other than her own husband
__B) Frequent unauthorized absences
__C) A base of authority
__D) Providing material supports to criminal elements, or
__E) Engaging in acts inimical to national security or which negate the effectiveness of the
peace and order campaign
143. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the officers and ,members
of the PNP.
__A) Peoples Law Enforcement Board(PLEB)

__B) Internal Affairs Service(IAS)
__C) National Police Commission
__D) Ombudsman
144. A kind of liability of any Police Superior Officer who fails to act on any request for suspension
of any PNP Member without any valid grounds.
__A) Severally and jointly criminally liable

__B) Administratively liable for serious neglect of duty
__C) Criminally Liable
__D) Civilly Liable
145. Of the following instances when the PLEB may request for preventive suspensions against a
subordinate police officer, one of them is not included, and that is..
__A) When the PLEB has receive a report that the respondent subordinate PNP member is
or has an
illicit relation with any relatives of the PLEB members
__B) When the respondent refuses to heed the PLEB’s summon or subpoena
__C) When the PNP members has been charged with offences involving bodily ham or grave
threats
__D) When the respondents in a position to tamper with the evidence
__E) When the respondent is in a position to unduly influence the witness
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
(58 QUESTIONS)
25
146. No officer of any correction institution shall, in his relation to the inmates use force except in..
__A) Self-defense
__B) In case of attempted escape to hold prisoners
__C) Active or passive physical resistance to a lawful order
__D) All of them
147. All members of the custodial force of any correctional institution shall bear in mind about
prisoners,
that the purpose of confinement is not much for restriction but for reformation and
rehabilitation.
__A) Prisoners are sick people and need treatment

__B) Prisoners are enemies of society
__C) Prisoners are human being too.
__D) All of them
148. The only one instance when a prisoner may be given passes or leaves from jails or places of
confinement, as may be allowed by law or regulation, upon approval of the appropriate
authority, or
the court, if already committed by court order and upon the recommendation of the warden.
__A) When he puts bail for his temporary liberty

__B) Very meritorious cases
__C) On recognizance
149. A prisoner/inmate may be taken out of jail only upon…
__A) Bail for his temporary liberty

__B) Very meritorious cases
__C) Orders of competent court or authority and provided with armed escorts
__D) All of them
150. As far as practicability is concerned, only those police personnel who can be assigned to duty
in city
or municipal jails are the ones..
__A) Who have the aptitude for custodial and security work or hose who have undergone the
appropriate jail training
__B) Police officers assigned to jail duty as a form of punishment or disciplinary action
__C) Transferred police officers
__D) All of them
151. Corporal punishment, confinement in a dark cell or sweat boxes, or any cruel, unusual,
inhuman or
degrading punishment is…
__A) Somewhat prohibited __C) Fairly prohibited

__B) Absolutely prohibited __D) All of them
152. They may perform such other labor as may be necessary for hygienic and sanitary reasons.
__A) Women prisoners

__B) Prisoners over 60 years of age
__C) Detention prisoners
__D) All of them
153. May be excused from hard work and place on less strenuous details or works.
26
__A) Prisoners over 60 years of age __C) Detention prisoners
__B) Women prisoners __D) All of them
154. The general rule is that, “no prisoner shall be allowed to exercise authority over another,” Who
are
prisoners who may assist in the vocation and general instructions of prisoners?
__A) Detention prisoners

__B) Technically skilled prisoners
__C) Trustee prisoners
__D) All of them
155. Such above-named prisoners may assist in the vocation and general instruction of other
prisoners,
provided that this relationship shall not carry with it..
__A) A salary and other kinds of compensation

__B) Delegated Authority
__C) Disciplinary Authority
156. Prisoner work-groups shall perform essential community services charge of quarters, kitchen
maintenance of equipment and facilities, library administration, or personal services, normally
in rotation basis.
157. One of the important phases of jail management is…
__A) Punishment __C) Imprisonment

__ B) Custody and control of prisoners __D) All of the Above
158. Which of the following is the ultimate goal of imprisonment and can be attained if the
necessary
structure, personnel, and methods which provide for security are present.
__A) Punishment __C) Rehabilitation

__B) Control __D) All of the Above
159. In prison, it is commonly thought of as a procedure to prevent escapes, riots and disorders,
and the
punishment of those involved.
__A) Control __C) Punishment

__B) Discipline __D) Morale
160. Is that kind of prisoners discipline applied after an offense has been committed, in the since
that may
cases, punishment does not deter.
__A) Positive discipline __C) Strict discipline

__B) Negative discipline __D) Leniency
161. It is one which will relieve inmates feeling of insecurity about his situation; it is likewise
essential in
effecting new changes which affect the masses on inmate population.
__A) Food and reaction __C) Good communication

__B) Conjugal Leave __D) Religion
162. Involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and orderly movement to and from the
27
dormitories, place of work, church, hospitals recreational facilities, etc…..
__A) Discipline __C) Control

__B) Security __D) All of them
163. A well-founded correctional program having for its aim the rehabilitation of prisoner must be
correlated with and into the system of…
__A) Custody __C) Control

__B) Security __D) All of them
164. Prisoner discipline should not only be applied after a beach of laws, rule or regulations having
been
committed; more effective perhaps in the application of discipline at is….
__A) Preventive stage __C) Non-punitive measure

__B) Punitive stage __D) Punishment
165. is a form of executive clemency which is exercised by the Chief Executive; it is an act of grace
and the
recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.
__A) Pardon __C) Communication

__B) Amnesty __D) Reprieve
166. It is in the nature of contact, so that it must first be accepted by the recipient before it takes
effect; that
the guarantee is under obligation to comply strictly with the conditions imposed therein.
__A) Absolute pardon __C) Amnesty

__B) Conditional pardon __D) Reprieve
167. It is one which if granted wipes away the guilt of the guarantee without any condition attach to
it.
__A) Absolute pardon __C) Commutation

__B) Conditional pardon __D) Amnesty
168. It is a general pardon extended to a group of persons and generally exercised by executive
clemency
with the concurrence of the congress.
__A) Communication __C) Retrieve

__B) Amnesty __D) Good-Conduct-Time allowance
169. It is an act of clemency by which an executive act changes sentence to a lesser or less
serious
one, or a long term to a shorter term.
__A) Amnesty __C) Communication

__B) Reprieve __D) Good-Conduct-Time allowance
170. It is a temporary stay of the execution of the sentence.
__A) Reprieve __C) Good-Conduct-Time allowance

__B) Communication __D) Probation
171. It is the statutory shortening of the maximum sentence the prisoner serves because good
behavior
while in prison.
28
__A) Deduction for loyalty __C) Probation
__B) Good-Conduct-Time allowance __D) Parole
172. It is a disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence, is released subject
to
conditions imposed by the court and the supervision of an appropriate authority.
__A) Good-Conduct-time allowance __C) Parole

__B) Probation __D) PD 603
173. It is a procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis of individual
response and progress within the correctional institutions and a service by which they are provided
with necessary controls and guidance as they serve the remainder of their sentence within the free
community.
__A) Parole __C) PD 603

__B) Probation __D) Indeterminate sentence law
174. Popularly known as probation for young offender, who is committed to the custody or care of
the
Department of Social Welfare, or to any training institution operated by the Government.
__A) PD. 968 __C) Indeterminate sentence law

__B) PD. 603 __D) Revised Family Code
175. Its purpose is to uplift and redeem valuable human material and prevent unnecessary and
excessive deprivation of personal liberty and economic usefulness.
__A) PD 603 __C) PD 968

__B) Indeterminate sentence law __D) Revised Family Code
176. More than any other imperialistic countries in Europe, this country made extensive use of
transportation of her prisoners. It first began in 1718, by sending her convicted prisoners to the
American colonies until the American Revolution.
__A) England
__B) Spain
__C) Portugal
__D) Italy
177. The year that the first Fleet transported 564 male and 162 female prisoners on the eight-
month voyage to the present site of Sydney, Australia.
__A) 1561 __C) 1800

__B) 1787 __D) 1900
178. In the pre-Spanish Philippines, the penal system of his country was jurisdictionally local and
tribal. It is consisted mostly of native mores and customs administered by Regional Chieftains. The
most extensive among the Code was..
__A) Maragtas Code of Dam Sumakwel

__B) Code OF Sikatuna
__C) Code of Kalantiao
__D) Hammurabi’s Code
179. A code ( of about 2300 BC) after a name of a person who firstly adopted the principle: “ As
Eye, and a Tooth” in the imposition of punishment.
29
__A) Code of Kalantiao
__B) Hammurabi’s Code
__C) Maragtas Code
__D) Code of Sikatuna
180. Under the development of penology in line with the modern approach, the term “correction” or
the institution of penology is often used today to indicate the chief concerned is..
__A) To punish criminals

__B) To pay for the crime committed
__C) To correct anti-social behavior
181. It is the main goal of the protection program in correctional administration.
__A) Rehabilitation the prisoner mainly by changing his attitude

__B) To protect the society from convicted offenders
__C) To protect the convicted offenders from the society
182. As one of the principal theories of punishment, it affords the society or individual who was
wronged the opportunity of imposing upon the offender such suitable punishment as might be
enforced.
__A) Retribution
__B) Expiation
__C) Deterrence
__D) Reformation
__E) Protection of the society
183. As one of the principal theories of punishment, it rests on the belief that a wrong done must be
atoned for by a punishment which compensates for the crime committed, that is balancing the skill
of justice to the degree of severity of the crime.
__A) Retribution
__B) Expiation
__C) Deterrence
__D) Reformation
184. It is based on the principle that the punishment received by convicted offenders prevent others
form performing similar actions for fear that they will receive similar punishment.
__A) Retribution
__B) Expiration
__C) Deterrence
__D) Reformation
185. That the essential purpose of punishment is to bring about the moral transformation of the
wrong doers that once release from the prison walls he will become once again a law abiding
citizen and useful member of the society.
__A) Retribution
__B) Expiration
__C) Deterrence
__D) Reformation
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186. The theory that the basic purpose of punishment is to isolate the convicted offenders from
doing more or another harm against the society.
__A) Retribution
__B) Expiration
__C) Deterrence
__D) Reformation
187. It is written order of the court or any other competent authority consigning an offender to a jail
or prison for confinement.
__A) Commitment Order

__B) Warrant of arrest
__C) Writ of execution
__D) Mittimus
__E) All of them
188. A warrant issued by a court bearing is seal and the signature of the judge, directing the jail or
prison authorities to receive inmates for custody or service of sentence imposed therein.

__B) Warrant of arrest
__C) Writ of execution
__D) Mittimus
__E) All of them
189. A person who is convicted by final judgment, and classified either as insular, provincial, city or
municipal inmate.
__A) Prisoner
__B) Detention Inmate
__C) Under custody
__D) Rehabilitation
190. It is a device, contrivance, tool or instrument used to hold back, keep in, check or control an
inmate.
__A) Contraband
__B) Instrument of Restraint
__C) Lock up
__D) Jail van
191. It is temporary custody of a person of his own protection, safety or care and/or his security
from harm, injury or danger fort he liability he has committed.

__B) Mittimus
__C) Safekeeping
__D) Inmate
192. It is a program of activity directed to restore an inmate’s self-respect there by making him a
law-abiding citizen after serving his sentence.
__A) Safekeeping
__B) Protection of the society
__C) Penology
__D) Rehabilitation
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193. It refers to assigning or grouping of inmates according to their sentence, gender, age,
nationality, health, criminal records etc..
__A) Classification of prisoners

__B) Control of prisoners
__C) Discipline of prisoners
__D) Rehabilitation of prisoners
194. Which one of the following does not or is not included in the classification of detainees?
__A) Undergoing Investigation

__B) Awaiting or undergoing trial
__C) Awaiting final judgment
__D) Safekeeping
195. Which one of the following does not or is not included in the classification or inmates?
__A) Political prisoner

__B) Insular prisoner
__C) Provincial prisoner
__D) City prisoner
__E) Municipal prisoner
196. The year when the first Bilibid Prison was constructed and because the central place of
confinement for Filipino prisoners by venue of the Royal Decree of the Spanish Crown.
__A) 1521 __C) 1847

__B)1900 __D) 1900
197. The very place where the first bilibid prison was constructed.
__A) Muntinlupa __C) For Santiago

__B) May Haligue Estate __D) For Bonifacio
198. It was restablished in Zamboaga for the confinement of political prisoners and was named
after its founder of the Spanish Royal Amy.
__A) San Ramon Prison and Penal farm

__B) Iwahig Penal colony
__C) May Haligue
__D) Fort Del Pilar
199. A penal colony which was envisioned by Governor Forbes was and still is the renown World
over as the first Open Penal Institution, where the colonist have their families with them with an
assigned piece of Land, and are encouraged to cultivate, raise poultry and livestock for their
personal use. The products are sold to the Colony Post Exchange.
__A) San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm

__B) Iwahig Penal colony
__C) Davao penal colony
__D) Sabayan Penal Colony and Farm
200. This was established in 1931 on an 18-hectare piece of land in Mandaluyong by authority of
Act No.3579, which was passed on November 27, 1929.
__A) The Correctional Institution for Women

__B) Sablayan Penal Colony
__C) Davao Penal Colony
__D) Sampaguita Correctional Institution
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201. The first ever-Philippine Probation Law.
__A) Presidential Decree No. 968, as amended

__ B) Act No. 4221
__C) Act No. 1
__D) Act No. 623
202. A shoemaker in Boston, USA where the first probation was originated, who interceded with the
courts to suspend the sentence of his charge.
__A) John Augustus

__B) Father Cook
__C) John Peterson
__D) John Phillip Law
203. A Philippine Jurisprudence or a case decided by the Philippine Supreme Court when the first
Probation of 1936 was declared unconstitutional because it was considered a class legislation.
__A) People vs. William

__B) People vs. Vera 37 OG 164
__C) People vs. Calalang
__D) US vs. Miranda
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
(37 Question)
204. It is defined as an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides
evidence of his guilt through criminal proceedings.
__A) Criminal investigation

__B) Interview and interrogation
__C) Confession and Admission
__D) Criminal Action
205. Criminal investigation is not a science; it is not governed by rigid rules or laws, but most often,
it is governed by…
__A) Institution
__B) Felicity of inspiration
__C) To a minor extent by chance
__D) All of them
206. As an initial step on criminal investigation whereby the investigator should strictly observe one
of the nine (9) golden rules upon arrival at the crime scene.
__A) Arrest the suspect and prosecute him

__B) Do not touch or move any object
__C) Save the life of the victim, and at the same time be able to identify the suspect, if any
__D) Apply immediately the mechanics of search and cordon the crime scene
207. Articles and materials which are found in connection with investigation and which aides in
establishing the identify of the penetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
__A) Corpus delicti

__B) Fruits of the crime
__C) Physical evidence
__D) Chain of custody of physical evidence
33
208. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect of the crime scene or offense. Examples;
Fingerprints and shoe impression.
__A) Associate evidence __C) Tracing evidence

__B) Physical evidence __D) Chain of custody
209. It involves a number of persons who might have handle evidence between the time of
commission of the alleged offense and the ultimate disposition of the case, should be kept to a
minimum. Each transfer of evidence should be receipted.
__A) Chain of custody __C) Interview

__B) Tracing evidence __D) Interrogation
210. May be used to mean the simple questioning of a person who is cooperating with the
investigation.
__A) Interrogation
__B) Interview
__C) Circumstantial evidence
__D) Information, interrogation and instrumentation
211. It may be used to describe the vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge
information.
__A) ) Interrogation
__B) Interview
__C) Use of 3rd degree
__D) Information, interrogation and instrumentation
212. The following are the 3 tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in
proportion on their necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal action.
__A) Criminalistics, confession & admission

__B) Information, interrogation, & instrumentation
__C) Movie, intent and circumstantial evidence
__D) Investigation, criminalistic, & prosecution
213. Its identification establish indirectly proving other facts or circumstances from which, either
alone or in connection with other facts, the identity of the offender can be inferred.
__A) Sufficient, strong and convincing evidence

__B) Physical evidence
__D) Testimony of a witness
214. It may be defined as that body of the crime or fact of a specific loss or injury sustained.
__A) Corpus delicti __C) Intent

__B) Motive __D) Modus operandi
215. It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be shown in order to obtain conviction.
__A) Motive __C) Modus operandi

__B) Intent __D) Background interview
216. It is the accomplishment of the act, and which must be proved where it is an element of the
offense charged.
__A) Motive __C) Modus operandi

__B) Intent __D) Background interview
34
217. Means the method of operations; it will enable the investigator to recognize a pattern of
criminal behavior; to associate a group crimes with a single perpetrator, to enable them to predict
approximately the next target of the criminal and to assist complains; eyewitness and investigators
to recognize the perpetrators by means of the recorded information concerning the characteristics
of his or their criminal activities.
__A) Modus operandi

__B) Background interview
__C) Reconstruction of the crime
__D) Admission
218. It may be the simpliest type of interview which concerns with the gathering of information
regarding the personal circumstances of a person who is the subject of investigation.
__A) Reconstruction of the crime

__C) Admission
__D) Confessions
219. After the completion of the search, effort must be made to determine from the appearance of
the place and objects what actually occurred and what the circumstances of the crime are.
__A) Reconstruction of the crime

__C) Admission
__D) Confessions
220. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledge of guilt.
__A) Admission __C) Disposition

__B) Confession __D) Infornmant
221. It may be a direct acknowledgment of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential
part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
__A) Admission __C) Disposition

__B) Confession __D) Infornmant
222. It may be defined as the testimony of a witness reduced to writing under oath or affirmation,
before a person empowered to administer an oath in answer to interrogation and cross
interrogations submitted by the party desiring it.
__A) Tracing __C) Sources of information

__B) Deposition __D) Informant
223. he may be one who gives the necessary information to the investigator, he may give the
information openly and even offer to be a witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously
and request to remain anonymous.
__A) Informant __C) Sources of information

__B) Tracing __D) Surveillance
224. It is the application of all procedures for the search missing persons.
__A) Rogues gallery __C) Information

__B) Tracing __D) Sources of information
225. It is designated or secret observation of places, persons and Vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining information concerning the identities of activities of the object.
35
__A) Information __C) Shadowing or tailing
__B) Surveillance __D) Surveillance of place
226. The crimes which require this type or surveillance are : gambling, prostitutions, illegal sales of
drugs, alcohol, dishonesty among employees or infedelry of a spouse.
__A) Survaillance of place __C) One-man shadow

__B) Shadowing or tailing __D) Two-man shadow
227. it is a kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being followed:
__A) One-man shadow __C) Convoy

__B) Shadowing or tailing __D) Two-man shadow
228. From among the kinds of surveillance, one is the most common because it involves the use of
the least number of manpower.
__A) One-man shadow __C) Convoy

__B) Two-man shadow __D) Undercover assignment
229. In the process of surveillance, sometimes the subject or suspect is being guarded against and
he usually stays at the rear of the subject.
__A) Two-man shadow __C) Convoy

__B) Convoy __D) To protect life
230. It is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes a different and unofficial identity
in order to obtain information.
__A) Convoy __C) Undercover assignment

__B) One-man shadow __D) Disguise
231. Of the following 3 constitutional rights accorded to every arrested person under custodial
investigation, one of them is not included.
__A) Right to bail bond

__B) Right to remain silent
__C) Right to have a legal counsel
__D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
232. Sweating, color change, dry mouth, pulse and breathing if found to be abnormal to a
subject/suspect, may mean…
__A) Sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt

__B) Physiological symptoms of guilt
__C) Circumstantial evidence of guilt
__D) All of them
233. Voluntariness of a confession may be shown by one of the following except.
__A) Presence of the physiological symptoms of guilt

__B) The statement obtained by urging or request was a spontaneous or self-
induced utterance of the accused
__C) The statement was obtained during the official investigation after the
accused was informed of the cause and nature of the offense charged,
of the fact the evidence can be used against him at the trial.
234. Of the five (5) good friends of a criminal investigator, one is not included.
36
__A) HOW it was committed
__B) HOW much is involved
__C) by WHOM it was committed
__D) WHY was it committed
235. A mechanic of search where the searcher (A, B & C) proceed slowly at the same pace along
the path parallel to one side of the rectangle. At the end of rectangle at the end of the rectangle, the
researcher turns the proceed back along new lanes but parallel to the first movement.
__A) Spiral method __C) Zone method

__B) Step method __D) Wheel method
236. The searchers follow each owner in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and
circling around a central point.
__A) Strip method __C) Zone method

__B) Spiral method __D) Wheel method
237. The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one
quadrant.
__A) Strip method __C) Zone method

__B) Spiral method __D) Wheel method
238. This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along radius or spokes.
__A) Wheel method __C) Zone method

__B) Spiral method __D) Strip method
239. Criminals may be identified by..
__A) Confession
__B) Eyewitness testimony
__D) Associative evidence
__E) All of them
240. Of the following different techniques in the interrogation, one is not of them.
__A) Financial assistance

__B)Emotional appeal
__C) Sympathetic approach
__D) Friendliness
FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

(54 QUESTION)
241. In essence, it is chemical reaction in which a substance combines with oxygen, heat is
released and the form of substance is destroyed.
__A) Fire __C) Oxygen

__B) Fuel __D) Ignition
242. Of the three things essential before a fire can occur which one of the following is not included.
__A) Fuel __C) Oxygen

__B) Wind __D) Initial source of heat
243. In fire statistic, the initial source of heat is generally termed as..
37
__A) Determinant __C) Primer
__B) Convection __D) Ignition
244. the term describes the transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to cooler parts.
__A) Conduction __C) Radiation

__B) Convection __D) Fire
245. The term describes a mass movement in a fluid (i.e,a liquid or a gas ) where fluid at one
temperature and density moves under the influence of through surrounding fluid at a different
temperature and density, mixing with it and gradually exchanging heat with it until it is all the same
temperature.

246. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to light.

247. It is a measurement use in fire of the rate at which heat produced.
__A) “intensity” of combustion __C) Velocity

__B) Density __D) Temperature
248. It is a term of the start of combustion. Its detailed process of a solid is very complicated, since
the proportions of different flammable vapours evolved vary from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion begin.
__A) Combustion __C) Propellant

__B) Ignition __D) Starter
249. Wood, and its products, such as hardboard and fireboard, are the principal combustible
materials present in the construction of a building.
__A) Combustible Contents __C) Solids

__B) Combustible structure __D) Dusts
250. Articles inside a building will normally include many combustible materials which may be
present in considerable quantity and represent a total caloric value many times greater than that of
the combustible materials used in the construction of the building.

251. This will burn very readily if the surface area is large in proportion to the weight of materials.

252. They are a special case of combustible solids when they are present in a building, and the
capable of spreading fire very rapidly, for instance along roof beams or lodges.

38
253. This is a term used to describe a transition which occur in the development of a fire when, for
example, most of all of the combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their ignition
temperature at the same time.
__A) Ignition __C) Starter

__B) Flash-over __D) Intensity
254. It is a term used when taking into account possible causes of fire and relating them to the local
hazard of the construction and contents of a building.
__A) Risks __C) Intentional

__B) Negligence __D) Peril
255. This term is used to describe the fire-resisting property of structural element and may be used
to described the behavior of a building material in a fire; it is used to predict how long it will resist
the effects of a fire before it fuls.
__A) Fire proof __C) Building resistance

__B) Fire resistance __D) Fire duration
256. It consist of small carbonaceous particles, suspended in the atmosphere, which may of such
color, size and quality that they can obscure the pamage of light, thus preventing exists and exit
signs from being seen. It may also contribute to panic because of its effects on eyes, nose and
throat.
__A) Smoke __C) Carbonmonoxide

__B) Fire __D) Toxic
257. It is poisonous and is a normal product of combustion, especially when the air supply to the
fire is restricted.
__A) Carbon dioxide __C) Smoke

__B) Carbon monoxide __D) Gas
258. It is the main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not poisonous but is an asphyxiant
which lowers the proportions of oxygen available for breathing.
__A) Carbon dioxide __C) Smoke

__B) Carbon monoxide __D) Gas
259. The first action after discovery of a fire.
__A) Run for you life

__B) To raise the alarm
__C) Pack up personal belongings
__D) Call an ambulance
260. Considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling fire, which will discharge
water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling.
__A) Automatic Sprinkler System

__B) Fire Hydrant
__C) Water soaked blanket
__D) Extinguishers
261. It is used to include not only architects responsible for the design and erection of a complete
building but also the various specialists engineers who may be concerned with the structure, the
electrical installation, the heating and ventilation system and so on.
__A) Building Contractors
39
__B) Designers
__C) Office of Building Permit
__D) Building Planners
262. The primary purpose of status requirements for fire protection is…
__A) To see to it that buildings are insured

__B) To safeguard life
__C) To see to it that buildings are fire hazard free
__D) To generate income for the government
263. The most important reason for providing good access for the fire brigade is..
__A) To enable firemen to rescue people who may be trapped or injured by fire
__B) To enable firemen to rescue goods of commercial value
__C) To minimize fire damage
__D) To avoid traffic accident during the outbreak of fire
264. Are contacts between the insured and the insurer under which insurer undertakes to indemnify
the insured against loss incurred by clearly defined events in respect of clearly defined buildings
and contents under specified conditions.
__A) Business contracts

__B) Insurance Policies
__C) Building Permit Contracts
__D) Life Insurance Policies
265. It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information determine the origin and cause of
fire.
__A) Interviewing witness

__B) Surveillance
__C) Undercover work assignment
__D) To invest gate the insurance company and the owner of insurance policy
266. What do you think is the significant data for an arson investigator to gather from the fire
scene?
__A) Odor
__B) Color of smokes & color of flames
__C) Rapidly of fire
__D) All of them
267. It is a thing which will help an arson investigator solve the fire mystery. The fact that fire
founds on combustible while propagating itself, this thing will indicate generally be deepest from
where the fire originated.
__A) Charring __C) Smoke

__B) Allegator Pattern __D) Flame
268. It is in this area that physical evidence of criminal designed most likely so be observed, by
following the path of the burning to its source, will trace a path according to the intensity of the fire.
__A) Charring __C) Smoke

__B) Allegator Pattern __D) Flame
269. The fire and arson investigators success depends on his ability to determine correctly..
__A) The exact cause of the fire

__B) The point of origin of fire
40
__C) The insurable interest of the owner
__D) The modus operandi
270. Whether it be liquid, solid or gas, is the minimum temperature that the substance must be
heated in order to sustain combustion.
__A) Temperature __C) Flash point

__B) Ignition Temperature __D) Burning point
271. It is a term used for any preparation to set a fire. It is designed to feed the fire as rapidly as
possible when ignition device is lighted.
__A) Plant __C) Intention

__C) Setting on Fire __D) Arson
272. It probably enjoys the most widespread usage of any type of Molotov Cocktail manufactured.
__A) Rag Cocktail __C) Improvised Cocktail

__B) Soap cocktail __D) All of them
273. It enjoys widespread use throughout combat troops in the world. Here, the breakable
container is employed.
__A) Rag Cocktail __C) Improvised Cocktail

__B) Soap cocktail __D) All of them
274. Arsonist may be classified into..
__A) Arson for profit firesetters __C) Group firesetters

__B) Solitary firesetters __D) All of them
275. It is probably the most rapidly increasing from fire-setting. This is a rational act and therefore,
the elimination of the potential profit should prevent and attempt.
__A) Arson for profit __C) Group firesetters

__B) Solitary firesetters __D) None of the above
276. Most malicious fires are set by individuals in secret; its either set for revenge or spite, self-
aggrandizing; or set by pyromaniacs, or set by psychotic firesetter, or set by sexual deviate for
sexual gratification.

277. This kind of firesetter may be classified either vandalism fires, riot fires and political fires.
Nevertheless, the presence of peers encourages this particular behavior in contrast to most
circumstances where the presence of others inhibits the fire setting.

278. In planning the arson investigation two principal points should be considered into by fire and
arson investigator. Of these two principal points one of the following is not included, and that is.
__A) Establish the fire incendiary origin and a willful act burning
__B) Identify the suspect, or suspects and connect them with the willful origin of the fire
beyond
reasonable doubt the degree of proof required by law
__C) Establish the cause of the fire and reason for setting the fire
__D) None of the above
41
279. The first and most necessary step before making any attempt to put in motion any plans for
investigation, is..
__A) To view the “situs” of the crime involved

__B) To Prepared and gather assistance available
__C) To interview the witness
__D) All of them
280. It means to keep the site of the fire or crime in the same physical condition as it was left by the
perpetrator.
__A) To view the “situs” of the crime involved

__B) Preserving the fire or crime scene
__D) Do not touch or move any object
281. The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire or crime scene is to…
__A) To protect and prevent the removal and destruction evidence present at the scene of fire
or
crime
__B) To view the “citus” of the crime involved
__D) Identify and locate the suspect
282. After the fire or crime scene has been firmly secured, the next step for the fire/arson
investigator to do
is….
__A) Call an ambulance

__B) Search for physical evidence
__C) Photograph the fire scene
__D) Identify the perpetrator and owner of the building or property on fire
283. What factors are taken into consideration in the determination of the liability of the perso found
guilty of arson?
__A) The kind of building or property that was burned

__B) The location of the building
__C) The extent of the damage due to fire
__D) whether the building is inhibited or not
__E) All of the above
284. Burning one’s house is punishable with the penalty of arresto mayor in its maximum period to
prison correctional in its maximum period, if the arson was committed for any of the following
except..
__A) If the burning was used only for the purpose of destroying his own property and without
prejudice to another
__B) To defraud or cause damage to another
__C) In the absence of such fraud or damage to another, damaged actually resulted, burned
is an inhabited place
__D) All of them
285. Corpus delicti is established in arson by proving two elements, except…
__A) Burning of the house or other things

__B) Criminal agency in causing it
__C) The value of the insurable property being burned
42
__D) None of them
286. In which of the following are elements of arson of property of small value?
__A) Burning of any uninhabited hut, storehouse, barn, sheet, or any other property
__B) Under circumstances clearly excluding all danger of fire spreading
__C) Value of the property dies not exceed P25.00
__D) All of the above
288. It is an important activity of any installation, and this consists of the elimination of fire hazards,
the provision of fire-safety education, and the training of fireguards, fire watchers and fire brigade
fighters.
__A) Fire Prevention Program

__B) Fire Fighting Course
__C) Fire Technology and Investigation
289. One of the most effective means of fire protection in a building is the..
__A) Stand Pipes

__B) Automatic Sprinkling System
__C) Fire Hydrants
__D) Portable Hand Extinguishers
290. Located inside a building from the lowest to the top floor with water under pressure for use in
case of fire.
__A) Fire Hydrants

__B) Automatic Sprinkling System
__C) Stand pipes
__D) Portable Hand Extinguishers
291. This type of the results from burning of wood, paper, textiles, and other carbonaceous
materials. Extinguishment of this type is by quenching and cooling.
__A) Class “A” Fire

__B) Class “B” Fire
__C) Class “C” Fire
__D) Class “D” Fire
292. Fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, benzene, oil products,
alcohol and other hydrocarbon derivations.

293. Those which start in live electrical waves, equipment, motors, electrical appliances and
telephone switchboards.

294. This fire is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms-magnesium,
potassium, zinc,etc.
43
POLICE ORGANIZATION
(95 Questions)
295. All except one of the following is basic police activities. The exception is…
__A) Prevention of criminality

__B) Repression of Crime
__C) Apprehension of Offenders
__D) Recovery of Stolen Property
__E) Prosecution of Criminals
296. In the pre-spanish Philippines, the function of what is new properly known as the police was
devolved on the…
__A) Agurang __D) Headman

__B) Guardrilleros __E) Guardia civil
__C) Sultan
297. This was a body of rural police organized in each town and established by the Royal decree
on January 8, 1836.
__A) Katipunan __D) Policia

__B) Guardia civil __E) Barangay police
__C) Guardilleros
298. An ACT providing for the Organization and Government of Insular Constabulary.
__A) RA 4864, Sept. 8 1966 __D) RA 5487, Jun 13, 1969

__B) ACT 255 of Oct 3, 1901 __E) PD 765, Aug. 8 1975
__C) RA 6975, Dec. 13, 1990
299. This was created by a Royal Decree issued by the Crown on Feb. 12, 1852, to partially relieve
the Spanish Peninsular Troops of their work in policing towns.
__A) Katipunan __D) Policia

__B) Guardia civil __E) Barangay police
__C) Guardilleros
300. One of the police activities; that a constructive approach to the crime problem must get to its
very roots-to the factors of the community life which create criminal tendencies and lead the
individual to indulge is anti-social behavior.
__A) Prevention of Criminality

301. Adequate patrol plus continuous effort toward eliminating or reducing hazards is stressed as a
means of reducing the opportunities for criminal activity.
__A) Prevention of Criminality

44
310. The unit which does most to coordinate and bird together all other functional divisions of a
police department…
__A) Record Division __C) Criminalistics Division

__B) Traffic Division __D) Warrant Division
__E) Finance Division
311. The combined use of inspection, periodic reports of activities, follow up procedures, etc…
__A) Coordination __C) Discipline

__B) Control __D) Deployment
__E) Command
312. Is that power that is vested on those who are in the authority to enforce and chomped the
observance of laws, rules, regulations and ordinances, with or without invoking criminal processes.
__A) Police Power

__B) Statutory Power of the Police
__C) Arrest
__D) Law enforcement
313. The principle that each individual in an organization should be under the immediate control of
only one person is known as..
__A) Unit of Command

__B) Span of Control
__C) Command Responsibility
__D) Functional Organization
__E) All of them
314. In the opinion of many authorities, the foremost task of management is…
__A) The technique of Executive Control

__B) The management of Men
__C) Planning for the future of the organization
__D) The Management Of Fiscal Affairs
315. The synchronization of all line and staff activity.
__A) Coordination
__B) Command
__C) Control
__D) Planning
__E) Unity of Command
316. In which of the following types of police work is routine and fairly frequent rotations or transfer
of personnel considered most desirable.
__A) Patrol Division

__B) Criminalistics
__C) Records
__D) Vice
__E) Juvenile
317. A supervisor’s span of control is usually in terms of the number of…
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__A) Subordinates reporting directly to him
__B) Superiors from whom he takes orders
__C) Superiors to whom he reports
__D) Functions for which he has final responsibility
318. Under which of the following broad management function is “ fusion” most properly classified.
__A) Planning __D) Coordinating

__B) Controlling __E) Directing
__C) Organizing
319. The significant weakness of the simple organization pyramid as used in organization for police
work is that…
__A) It is too simple to provide for the complex organization
__B) Systematize the number of points at which interrogation is necessary
__C) Minimize the number of points at which interrogation is necessary
__D) Eliminate latitude in the performance to assigned duties
__E) Give maximum scope to each individual’s efforts
320. The basic purpose of organization is to channel the efforts of its members in such manner as
to..
__A) Facilitate the attainment of objectives

__B) Systematize the number of points at which interrogation is necessary
__C) Minimize the number of points at which interrogation is necessary
__D) Eliminate latitude in the performance to assigned duties
__E) Give maximum scope to each individual’s efforts
321. Those tools of the administrator’s by which he can be assured that his direction of the
department is effective are known as…
__A) Planning Devices __D) Organization Devices

__B) Coordinating Devices __E) Discipline
__C) Control Devices
322. To say that control is implemented by inspection is to imply that the main function of inspector
is to..
__A) Acquire information __D) Audit Supervision

__B) Maintain Discipline __E) None of the Above
__C) Insure Uniformity
323. Territorial decentralization is most likely to be appropriate in connection with of the following
police functions?
__A) Patrol __D) Criminalistic

__B) Traffic __E) None of the Above
__C) Records
324. The one of the following situations which best illustrate unity of command in a police
organization is that…
__A) Only one subordinate is directly commanded or supervised by each superior

__B) Only one superior officer is in complete commandos each situation
__C) Only one superior officer is responsible for the job performance of subordinate officers
__D) All of them
325. Means having authority, in the interest of employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, layoff, recall,
promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline, other employees, or responsibility to direct them,
46
or to adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend such action with the foregoing exercise
of such authority is not merely routine or clerical nature but requires the use on independent
judgment.
__A) Supervisor __D) Administrator

__B) Leader __E) Manager
__C) Executive
326. As unit head you are reassigned to head a different organization unit, and you find your ideas
of organizational methods and procedures differ radically from those of the previous unit head.
Under the best practice, first you should.
__A) Sit tight and see if some of the subordinates also recognized a need for change
__B) Immediately start the machinery necessary to initial your propose changes
__C) Look for reasons for the existing practice
__D) Conduct a suggestion contest
__E) Assume existing practice is best and do nothing about it
327. Which of the following methods of approach has least value to the officer change with
responsibility for police activities?
__A) Experimental control

__B) Statistical approach
__C) Historical approach
__D) Clinical study
__E) Case history method
328. Ordinarily the best approach to the problem of simplification of procedures is to…
__A) Prepare and analyze a functional organization chart

__B) Prepare and analyze a work flow chart
__C) Analyze the job classification scheme
__D) Do a job analysis by point rating methods
__E) Prepare and analyze a work progress chart
329. With respect to the allocation of authority in a public agency, integration means nearly…
__A) Delegating the responsibility for each integral department to a department head
__B) Placing responsibility for final decision in the hands of an advisory council
__C) Appoint an advisory committee to integrate activities
__D) Gathering into the hands of an administrator for all the administrative authority for the
agency
__E) Providing for the administrator to refer all decisions to the chief executive for approval
330. The effectiveness of each unit or division of a police department is best measure in..
__A) Terms of the accomplishment of its primary purpose

__B) Its interrelationship with other closely related units of the department
__C) Its interrelationship with all units of the department
__D) Its Interrelationship with the community
__E) All of them
331. Of the following, the one which is the chief barrier to the development of professionalization
for police officers and members throughout the country.
__A) Relatively how salaries paid law enforcement officers despite the hazards that confront
them.
__B) Relatively low entrance requirements for entry into the police field
__C) Failure by police administrators make effective use of the probationary period to
eliminate the unfit
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__D) The desire of the police to receive general public support even if it involves the failure to
enforce unpopular laws
332. Planning must be continuous at every level and in every unit of the police department even
though the general planning job may be the primary concern of one person or bureau. The one of
the following which is not implied by this statement is that sum planning.
__A) Is necessary when there is a lack of attention to it at the higher echelons of the
department.
__B) Should permeate the entire organization even though it is the first responsibility of the
planning officer
__C) Should consider the possibility of intral-derpartmental conflicts arising and the need to
eliminate them at lower levels before they develop
__D) May stimulate the acceptance of responsibility for effective job performance at all levels
in the organization
333. Objective indexes of police performance, such as crime and accident rates, provide a most
exact comparison when comparing…
__A) Variations in efficiency resulting from changes of procedure within a given police
department when the comparison is between two successive years and the accurary of the basic
data has been learly established
__B) Variations in efficiency resulting from changes of procedure within a given police
department when the change is made in only one procedure and the influence of other factors
remains nearly constant
__C) Different police agencies which have similar administrative structures and problems
__D) Different police agencies which operate in communities which have similar crime
problems and are in the same population group
334. Preparing functional chart is likely to be least valuable in discovering
__A) Failure to place definite responsibility for satisfactory performance of certain activities on
any one person or group of persons
__B) Failure to develop efficient methods and procedure
__C) Failure to delegate authority sufficiently
__D) Overlapping authority
335. Which of the following steps performed by a supervisor in setting up his work should
immediately precede the assignment of the particular tasks and the authority to perform the task?
__A) Make plans so the desired goals may be attained

__B) Make remedial plans if necessary
__C) Know what is going on (supervision in progress)
__D) Picture the entire project
336. Command is synonymous with initiative and self-reliance in meeting and accepting
responsibility. It follows from the statement that on attaining officer rant, a man will be expected to
consider that he should…
__A) Perform his duties without relying on his subordinates at all

__B) Stand on his own fact and assume full responsibility for his conduct
__C) Know what is going on (supervision in progress)
__D) Picture the entire project
337. The one of the following basis of organizational division work which is least often used in
police department is…
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__A) Clientele __D) time
__B) Purpose __E) Process
__C) Area
338. A specialist or expert rather than an “ all around “ man is placed in changed I which one of the
following types of organization?
__A) Line __d) Geographic

__B) Functional __e) staff
__Life staff
339. While it is desirable in one sense to minimize the police executive’s span of control, this
reduction may tend to block the vertical flow of information which is vital to the exercise of proper
executive control. One answer to this problem is for the police executive to retain control of certain
key activities. In this context “ key activities” includes all of the following except….
__A) General patrol __D) Public Relations

__B) Internal discipline __E) Planning and research
__C) Vice control
340. Staff is ___________________ of the Commander.
__A) Alter ego __D) Administrative Bodyguard

__B) Extension __E) Check and Balances
__C) Reserve force
341. The most important distinction between the operating and service functions of an
administration organization is that….
__A) Service activities involve public relations to a greater extent than operating activities
__B) Service activities are functional while operating activities are often termed
“housekeeping”
__C) Operating activities are an end in themselves; service activities are a means to an end
__D) Operating activities may be thought of as institutional, while service activities are of
primary importance
342. A functional basis or assumption in the justification of an independent police administrative

vice squad, reporting directly to the Chief of Police, is that…
__A) Vice control is one of the most trouble some of police functions
__B) Vice activities are always controlled by a central element
__C) Personal loyalty to a superior is one of the strongest of human motives
__D) In the case of District Commanders, aertness decrease as geographic or administrative
distance increase
__E) Until professional salaries are paid police officers, some amount of graft is inevitable
343. Probably the most effective way in which a police chief can eliminate friction or
misunderstanding due to the problems arising from functional supervision by staff officers is to…
__A) Hold regular staff meetings to discuss the problems of supervisors and plan future work
__B) Designate either the line or staff organization the final authority
__C) Draw up organization charts showing line-staff relationships
__D) Set a heavy penalty on the supervisors who get into conflict
__E) Transfer personnel among the several discussion until those are found who can
cooperate in the jobs.
344. The existence of specialized operating units in a police organization is most justified when
such a unit.
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__A) Assist the patrol force by its use of specialized knowledge and methods
__B) Assumes complete and sole responsibility for police performance in a specialized area
of gravity
__C) Devotes an equal amount of time and effort to the duties and responsibilities of the
unspecialized patrol force
__D) In relived of any responsibility for the regular duties of the unspecialized patrol force
__E) All of them
345. A good executive is least likely to delegate responsibility for assignment or review of work, his
own work will be increasingly likely to….
__A) Become simplified and less demanding

__B) Emphasize coordinating activities
__C) Become more complex and detailed
__D) Diminish in scope
__E) Require closer contact with actual work in process
346. A high degree of specialization, or division of work, is most likely to create problem of…
__A) Coordinating __D) Directing

__B) Controlling __E) Planning
__C) Staffing
347. As a supervisor delegates to others his responsibility for assignment or review of work, his
own work will be increasingly likely to…
__A) Become simplified and less demanding
__B) Emphasize coordinating activities
__C) Become more complex and detailed
__D) Diminish in scope
__E) Require closer contact with actual work in process
348. How often should personnel be transferred into new assignments? Is the public interest best
served by long term familiarity with one task or district, or by a work perspective born of varied
police experience? Front the police administrator’s standpoint, this problem is best solved by…
__A) Frequent transfer of newer officers, letting them fit into places as they gain experience
__B) Frequent transfer among desirable assignment but long term assignments to undesirable
posts
349. The one of the following factors which is the most important determinant of the degree to
which the patrolman resists the ever-present temptation to corruption is the…
__A) Amount of participation in the activities of national professional police organization

__B) Quality of leadership exerted by superior officers, especially those in the immediate
contact with the patrolman
__C) Thoroughness of training in department procedures given to new members of the
department
__D) Salary, hours of work, promotion opportunities, and types of crime involved
350. A police officer is doing very satisfactory work on a rather simple and repetitive assignement.
Test show him to be above average in intelligence. A position to which he could properly be
assigned, requiring exercise of some judgment and initiative, is vacant. When told of the vacancy,
he shows no particularly desire or enthusiasm for the change. In the interest of good management,
it would be best to…
__A) Give him a trial on the vacancy

__B) Look for someone else to fill the vacancy
__C) Give him some instruction and see how he responds
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__D) Talk to his wife or family
__E) Recognize the work so no vacancy exists
351. Good personnel practice indicates that large public or organizations should have some sort of
a program for systematically dealing with suggestions made by employees. Such program is
usually of most value to an organization in terms of…
__A) Giving an objective basis for employees evaluation and rating

__B) Fostering a sense of participation in individual employees
__C) Keeping lower level of supervision on their toes
__D) Developing a competitive spirit between employees and employee groups
__E) Effecting long range monetary savings to the organization
352. The supervisor of division B. who receives work from division A and passes it on to division C,
decides that the total flow of work could be speeded up by the addition of a “cover sheet’’ indicating
status of the item of work at all times.Whenever practicable, the best first step for supervisor B to
take would be to…
__A) Discuss the change informally with supervision A and C

__B) Discuss the change thoroughly with the staff of his division
__C) Examine the operations of division A and C in detail to determine how the change will
affect them
__D) Develop a description of the revised procedures and forward it to his superior indicating
the savings that will result if it is adopted
__E) Report his idea to the planning or coordinating official with a draft of the suggested form
353. Incoming telephone calls at police headquarters should be…
__A) Channeled in order of importance

__B) Given immediate importance
__C) Given low priority
__D) Answered only after regular business is completed
354. The development and use of an effective communications system theoretically gives greatest
impetus to which of the following organizational principles?
__A) Span of control __D) Delegation of authority

__B) Line of command __E) All of the above
__C) Unity of command
355. For good administrator, matters requiring a supervisor’s written approval before final action
may be taken should…
__A) Be reduced to a minimum

__B) Include practically all matters of more than momentary importance
__C) Not be definitely specified
356. Authorities in the field recommend locating the communications outer in the records division
under the or not of the records officer primarily because….
__A) The training for records and communications is similar

__B) Control of the line division heads concerned with prompt dispatch and motilization of
men is more effective
__C) The communications center usually prepares the original records of complaints received
__D) Communications control should like in an operating division
__E) The records officer usually has more rank than the communication officer
357. Police radio primarily is important because it increases the speed of police action and
observed it…
51
__A) Provides a sense of security to patrolling officer
__B) Attracts better men to the police service
__C) Makes possible more effective use of the patrol force
__D) Aids the department in containing public acceptance of its crime
358. Effective communication within an organization the interchange of thoughts, ideas and
opinions requires that the lines of communication be essentially…
__A) Upward, downward and across

__B) Upward
__C) Downward
__D) Across
__E) Upward and downward with communication across the organization actively
discouraged
359. On special occasion, members of the Police Department may be directed to report directly to
their place of assignment in uniform. The most likely reason for this special arrangement is to…
__A) Eliminate the roll call

__B) Save traveling time
__C) Insure complete coverage
__D) Make it easier for the men to get there
360. What unit of the Police Department is best suited and primarily responsible for taking direct
action when a crime has been committed?
__A) Patrol
__B) Criminalistics Division
__C) Inspection
__D) Criminal investigation
__E) Medico-legal officer
361. In establishing shift hours, the greatest degree of efficiency is provided when there is the…
__A) Largest load fluctuation between shifts

__B) Largest load fluctuation within a given shift
__C) Smallest load fluctuation between shifts
__D) Smallest load fluctuation within a given shift
362. The most important consideration in locating a police station is…
__A) Near working center of police activities

__B) Center of civilization
__C) Zonning restricting
__D) Convenience to public
363. In a division in which straight eight-hour shifts are used, which of the following provides the
best basis for determining the breaking point for the watches?
__A) Watchers should be so broken that maximum manpower is available at the time of
greatest need
__B) Watches should be so broken that the need for patrol services tends to be equal for all
watches
__C) Watches should be so broken that the need for patrol services is at a minimum at the
breaking times
__D) Watches should be so broken that in each watch the load is greater in the first half of the
watch than in the second half of the watch
52
364. The division of a given area into patrol district can be most validly made in such a way that
requirements of each district tend to be equal. These requirements are best determined
considering…
__A) The area to be covered in each district

__B) Both the area and the number of occurrences
__C) The number of people residing and working in the area at any given time in each district
__D) The number of occurrences in each district which require police attention
__E) Both the population density and the frequency of occurrences, that is crimes per capita
per unit area
365. Deployment of patrol forces is ordinarily made according to some measure of the nedd for
police service. Which of the following is the least valid factor which might be used as, or included in
a measure of such need.
__A) Property loss in pesos

__B) Number of complaints
__C) Amount of inspection and routine patrol required
__D) Number of arrest
__E) Number of crimes committed
366. In deployment as well as in other matters. It is frequently said that the patrol force is the
backbone of the police department. The best reason for this is that…
__A) The patrol function is largely preventive in nature

__B) The patrol function is very wide in scope
__C) Community welfare is more directly served by patrol than by the more specialized
services
__D) Patrol is the only service which carries out the basic police function; other divisions are
basically regulatory or administrative
__E) The patrol force is of service to a greater number of people that are the specialized
services
367. The need for patrol services may be defined in terms of the man-hours required for the
various duties which a patrolman performs or may be called open to perform. The main
disadvantage of using such man-hour requirements as a basis for assignment and deployment of a
patrol force is that..
__A) Time standards cannot be actually established for many patrol duties
__B) A few non-standard or irregular occurrences can unbalance the entire deployment
program
__C) While time standards can be determined with reasonable accuracy, the man-hour
requirement for any one watch cannot
__D) The morale of the patrol division will be reduced because the patrolmen will infer a
“speed-up” from such standards
__E) With the exception of very large patrol divisions, application of such standards results in
split shifts and variable reporting times.
368. The concept of performance budgeting is generally contrasted with budgeting by…
__A) Source of Revenue __D) Economy

__B) Object of Expenditure __E) All of the Above
__C) Time and/or distance
369. Closed specification for the purchase of equipment are considered to be conirary to good
public policy specifically in that they are likely to result
__A) Collusion between suppliers and public officials
53
__B) Equipment with inferior materials and/or workmanship
__C) Equipment with far exceeds public service requirements
__D) Difficulty in securing replacement parts
370. Of the following, the chief advantage of central purchasing is the saving that is made possible
through..
__A) A better balance of supplies and more prompt delivery services

__B) Lower unit costs and better discount terms on larger quantities
__C) The improvement of uniforms standards and specifications
__D) The lessened expense of buying and maintaining supplies
__E) A more efficient routine for processing purchases
371. In order to make sure that necessary supplies will be on hand when wanted, the supply officer
should…
__A) Take inventory once a month to see what supplies need to be reordered
__B) Decide on reserve minimum for each kind of supplies and reorder when that minimum is
reached
__C) When a new supply of an article comes in decide how long it should last and order more
immediately
__D) Secure an estimate of needed supplies from those people who use the article.
__E) Order the year’s supply on the record of last year’s consumption
372. Budgeting in a police department is primarily a phase of…
__A) Planning __D) Staffing

__B) Commanding __E) All of the above
__C) Coordinating
373. It is the sum total of the police with the people it serves and whose good will and cooperation
it craves for the greatest possible efficiency in public service.
__A) Public Relations

__B) Police Community Relations
__C) Police Public Relations
__D) Human Relations
__E) Rapport
374. The fact of bringing about better understanding, confidence and acceptance for an individual
or an organization.
__A) Public Relations

__B) Police Community Relations
375. The continuing process by which endeavors are made to obtain the good will and cooperation
of the public for the effective enforcement of the law and the accomplishment of the police purpose.
__A) Police Community Relations

__B) Police Public Relations
__C) Public relations
376. Consists of those fundamental precepts, both moral and legal, which govern the relationship
of man in all aspects of life.
54
__A) Human Relations
__B) Public relations
__D) Police Community Relations
377. The best public relations between the police and the public exist when the public attitude is
one of…
__A) Confidence, respect and approval

__B) Tacit Acceptance
__C) Indifference
__D) Resignation to exercised authority
378. Favorable public opinions are desirable today because…
__A) It will make possible great expansion of the organization

__B) Our living patterns are interwoven with those of our neighbors
__C) It will cut competition to a minimum
__D) Of the extreme rapidity and ease which they can change, reversed or started on an
entirely new approach
379. The best measured of public opinion of the police department may be obtained by…
__A) Degree to which the community voluntarily cooperates with the police department in the
performance of their duties
__B) Noting the opinion expressed in an adequate sample of news-paper articles
__C) Keeping a check on the number of complaints and commendations of police which
come in
__D) The daily contacts of uniform police officers with the public
380. In determining public attitudes between the police and the public the most important medium
is the…
__A) Print Mass Media

__B) Radio and Television
__C) Individual Policeman
__D) P.R.O
381. While the wise police administrator does not attempt to conceal polite news from the press, he
may occasionally find it necessary to designate a case or activity as being “Off’the Record.” If the
above statement is applicable to field of a police functions more than to any other, that field would
most probably be…
__A) Vice __D) Investigation

__B) Intelligence __E) All of the above
__C) Internal discipline
382. From a police officer’s viewpoint, public relations is primarily…
__A) A method of winning the confidence of the public

__B) A means of improving contacts with the public
__C) Something which effects them but for which they have very personal concern
__D) His attitude toward the public while on duty
383. The best criterion of a patrolman’s performance of his duties is..
__A) The fact that he is never absent
55
__B) The public’s attitude toward him
__C) The number of summonses he issues daily
__D) His record and seniority rating
384. A newspaper reporter learns of a case in which a police office alleged in have been implicated
in a criminal complaint. He tells the said police officer that he wants to expand his information to a
feature story. The police officer should…
__A) Supply all necessary details so that article will be accurate

__B) Refer him to his division head even thought the division head is not familiar with the
details
__C) Give the details on the conduct at he represent the department in a sympathetic light
__D) Given him the details on the that he allow him to read the copy before printing
__E) None of the Above
385. Individual policemen are the most important factor in determining public attitudes toward the
police. It concluded that efforts policemen to improve public attitudes should be largely directed
toward…
__A) The creation of as many favors public contacts is possible

__B) Tolerant enforcement of minor reculatory statutes and ordinances
__C) Insuring that the policeman in exemplary cozen
386. Immediately after a newsworthy arrest has been made an accredited newspaper reporter
enters the police headquarters ad raidest certain information about the arrest which he desk officer
is should not be divulged because the ends of justice defeated of the following the best answer the
desk officer should give the reporter in this situation is…
__A) “ I an sorry but you must know that I am unable to give you the information you seek.’’
__B) “ I am sorry but the police department rules and regulations prevent me from giving you
the information
__C) “Such information involves in that matters which cannot be disclosed.”
__D) “ Please wait until the story is released by the proper police authorities through the
department channels.”
387. Of the following steps in the planning of a “ Community Relations Program.” One of the
following should be undertaken first is to…
__A) Study the public with which the police department deals
__B) Contact editors of local news
__C) Develop procedures for dealing with the public
__D) Establish civilian complaint procedures
__E) Train personnel in public contacts
388. In his contact with the public a patrolman should pay most attention to the…
__A) Character of the police he talks to

__B) Time when the contacts are made
__C) Impression he creates
__D) Attitude of the public toward time
389. Of the following, the best argument for publicizing both the plans involved in an efficient road
blockade and the police activity involved in actually applying them is that….
__A) The public, being forewarned, could not validly complain of any inconvenience to which
it might be subjected
56
__B) All plans which affect the public should be given full publicity
__C) Publicity would probably be instrumental in reducing the number of criminals who
escape such blockade
__D) Adequate publicity would insure constructive criticism
__E) The potential criminal would hesitate to break the law, hence his activities would be
hampered
CODE OF ETHICHS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT

(57 QUESTION)
390. Is that branch of moral science which treats of the duties which a police officer owes to the
public and community.
__A) Police Ethics __D) Loyalty

__B) Police Profession __E) All of the above
__C) Courtesy
391. The Basic idea of government in the Philippines is that of a _______. The officers being mere
against and not rulers of the people, one where no one man or set of men has propriety or
contractual right to an office, but where every officer accepts office pursuant to the provisions of law
and holds the office as a trust for the people whom he represents. The word or phrase which the
best fills the blank in the above paragraph is…
__A) Representative Government

__B) A public office is a public trust
__C) Democratic Ideal
__D) Autocratic
392. It is the essence of good manners; it is a manifestation of sportsmanship and an exposition of

gentility and culture.
__A) Morale __D) Loyalty
__B) Discipline __E) All of the above
393. Is everyone’s duty and obligation, regardless of his intelligence, degree of instruction,
education social standing, religion, sect, or color, and etc…
__A) Faithful allegiance to the government and constitution

__B) Loyalty and Love of Country
__C) Public office is a Public trust
__D) Code of Ethics
394. Public officers and employees shall serve with the highest degree of responsibility, integrity,
loyalty and efficiency and shall remain accountable to the people.
__A) Faithful allegiance to the government and constitution

__B) Loyalty and Love of Country
__C) Public office is a Public trust
__D) Code of Ethics
395. A police officer on the witness stand is not called upon to express his view about the case, nor
to tell what he heard others say about it, nor to make a speech. Of the following the most accurate
statement of his situation is that…
__A) Be courteous __C) Nothing but the truth

__B) Do not volunteer __D) All of the Above
396. To tell the facts as they are in the sole function of a police officer on the witness stand…
57
__A) Be courteous __C) Nothing but the truth
__B) Do not volunteer __D) All of the Above
397. Police officer shall treat official business as such, and shall not impart the same to anyone
except those for whom it is intended, or as directed by his superior officer, or as required by law.
__A) Criminal Investigation __C) Confession

__B) Confidential Information __D) All of the above
398. A person making a complaint to an officer which seems unreasonable and of little importance.
Of the following the best action for the officer to take is…
__A) Listen to the person making the complaint and tell him that the matter will be investigated
__B) Criticize the person making the complaint for taking up valuable time
__C) Tell the person that any one responsible for his grievance will be prosecuted
__D) Tell the person to make a formal written complaint and make it broadcast over radio
station
399. The importance of public support in law enforcement cannot be over-emphasized. This is true
primarily because…
__A) Substantial public support increases the morals of police

__B) The police cannot be adequately perform their functions unless reinforced by the
cooperation of the public
__C) The public is the sole determinant of the quality of police performance
__D) The public is the best source of moonlighting
400. It is an accepted fact that a police officer has no private life as long as he remains in the police
department, whether on or off duty. Such that he is subject to unrelenting scrutiny and critical
analysis of the public he serves. Of the following, the most supportable deduction for a police
officer to make from this statement is that…
__A) PNP members should recognize it, accept it and govern their activities, on or off duty,
accordingly
__B) It indicates the need for more rigid self-regulation by the PNP members than now exists.
__C) It is unfair, since it establishes a higher code of conduct for one type of public
employment
__D) PNP rules should be liberally interpreted in favor of police personnel to offset the higher
standard demanded
__E) PNP members are expected to be “robocops”
401. Means more than reporting to work on time it involves as well every detail of the policeman’s
daily activity.
__A) Protection of the underdog.

__B) Punctuality to all calls, requirements of duty,etc
__C) Maltreatment of prisoners
__D) Due process of law
402. In all contractual property or other relations, when the parties is at a disadvantage on account
of his moral dependence, ignorance, mental, weakness, tender age or other handicap, the police
must be vigilant for the protection of his party.
__A) Protection of the underdog.

__B) Punctuality to all calls, requirements of duty,etc
__C) Maltreatment of prisoners
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__D) Due process of law
403. May be committed by a police officer who shall overdo himself if in the correction or handling
of a prisoner or detention prisoner under his charged, by the imposition of punishment not
authorized by the regulation, or by inflicting such punishment in a cruel and humiliating manner.
__A) Maltreatment of prisoner

__B) Due process
__C) Protection of the underdog
404. If a statute is unpopular, it is the police office who must bear the brunt of public resentment
when it is enforced. In view of this situation, the one of the following policies most likely to assist in
the over all attainment of law enforcement objective is..
__A) Selective enforcement procedures should be used

__B) Specific public relations techniques should be used
__C) Specially trained groups should enforce such laws in an attempt to allay popular
resentment
__D) The police should not make a sincere enforcement effort despite the unpopularity of the
law
__E) None of the above
405. During the period immediately following his appointment, the assignment of a new appointee
may be charged from one type of work to another every few weeks. The chief advantage of rotation
of new appointee in this manner is that it…
__A) Gives the new appointee an understanding of his department as a whole

__B) Allows the new appointee to devote all of his time to a single type of work
__C) Keeps the new appointee continually under the same supervising officer
__D) Eliminates the need for additional training
406. A proper thing to do for police officer who leaves the police service, either by retirement,
resignation, suspension or dismissal from the service thereof, losses/terminates himself from being
a member of the PNP.
__A) Usurpation of authority

__B) Surrender of Property
__C) Illegal use of Uniform or insignia
407. it is just as much the duty of a policeman to ascertain or see that a person suspected of any
criminal offenses are not deprived of their statutory or constitutional rights as it is to convict them of
crimes of which they may be suspected.
__A) Civil liberties

__B) Due process
__C) Under custodial investigation
__D) Democratic ideal
408. As a rule, police officer is not allowed permitted to engage any other business or calling.
__A) Moonlighting
__B) Bribery
__C) Immorality
__D) On or Off duty
59
409. Is the omission or refuraly without sufficient excuse, to be form in act or duty, which it is the
on legal obligation to perform.
__A) Bribery
__B) Neglect of duty or non-feasance
__C) Misconduct of malfeasance
__D) Incompetence
410. doing either through ignorance, instruction or , of that which the police officer had no legal
right to at all as where he acts without authority whatsoever or exceeds, ignores or abuses his
powers.
__A) Misconduct or malfeasance

__B) Neglect of duty of non-feasance
__C) Incompetence
__D) Dishonesty
411. In the manifest lack of adequate ability and fitness for the satisfactory performance of official
duties by reason of the officer’s vice or hours duties.
__A) Neglect of duty of non-feasance

__B) Incompetence
__C) Dishonesty
__D) Disloyalty
412. Is the concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fart relevant to one’s office, or connected
with the performance of his duties.
__A) Incompetence __C) Disloyalty

__B) Dishonesty __D) All of the above
413. Consist of abandonment or renunciation of one’s loyalty in the government of the Philippines,
or advocating the overthrow of the government.
__A) Dishonesty __C) Treason

__B) Disloyalty __D) All of the above
414. A police officer is forbidden to engage in idle conversation while on duty. Specifically this
prohibition refers to…
__A) Gossip and Idle Talk

__B) Vexing of humiliating another
__C) Communication outside organization
415. Failure of a police officer to discover a condition requiring police attention, within a reasonable
time after arriving on his post. In affect a police officer must be
__A) Attitude toward profession

__B) Constantly on alert in any eventuality
__C) Malingering
416. A police officer in uniform is prohibited from carrying any package or bundle unless it is
needed in the performance of his duty. The likelihood the said officer will be misinterpreted to…
__A) Have accepted favors

__B) A trim appearance while in uniform is important
__C) Be a “comprador” for his wife
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417. When a police officer arrives at his assigned post, the first thing he should do is…
__A) Answer the call of nature

__B) Secure a folding bed and sleep
__C) Inspect the post
__D) Call and inform his wife of his whereabouts
418. A police officer must wear his uniform securely buttoned at all times because….
__A) A complete uniform attracts “chicks”

__B) A neat appearance command’s respect
__C) Loose clothing is likely to catch obstruction
419. The main responsibility of a supervising police officer is to…
__A) See that required work is done properly

__B) Insure an atmosphere of mutual trust between his men and himself
__C) Make certain that all his men are treated equally as to assigned duties
__D) Create a receptive attitude toward the objective of the department
420. The police supervisors should realize that the performance of unpleasant duties is generally…
__A) Unavoidable; it is a part of his responsibility as a leader

__B) Undesirable; they should be avoided whenever possible
__C) Predictable; mistakes follow an established pattern
421. In order to assure effective supervision, which one of the following is the most important for a
newly supervisor to know when he begins his job?
__A) History and progress of the department

__B) Progress of other department doing related work
__C) Nature and scope of authority in each field in which he functions
__D) The public relations activities of the department
422. In the motivation of employees, financial incentives are best regarded as
__A) Necessary but not alone sufficient

__B) The essence
__C) Desirable, but of now fundamental importance
__D) Unrelated to the problem of motivation
__E) Completely unnecessary if supervisors is adequate
423. Intelligent supervision on the part of superior officers will..
__A) Eliminate personal animosity among subordinates

__B) Improve the efficiency of the force as a whole
__C) Ease his promotion to the next higher rank
424. All of the following, except one are factors of successful supervision.
__A) Set a good example by the proper use of the command function
__B) Feel that people are individual and consider their experience, training and personality
__C) Remember that a command will get employees to produce more work than with a
suggestion or request
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__D) Recognize the continued importance of personal contacts with members of his
command
433. Minor offense, if repeatedly committed may eventually constitute
__A) Serious offense of habitual dereliction

__B) Summary dismissal from the service
__C) Discipline
__D) Punitive Punishment
434. The citizen’s complaints may be brought before, where the offence is punishable by
withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits, suspension or forfiture of salary, or any
combination thereof, for a period not exceeding fifteen (15) days.
__A) City or Municipal Mayor

__B) Chief of Police
435. Where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction to specified limits,
suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof, for a period of not less than sixteen
(16) days but not exceeding thirty(30) days, the citizen’s complaints shall be brought before.
__A) City or Municipal Mayor

__D) Lupong Tagapayapa
436. Where the offense is punishable by withholding or privileges, restriction to specified limits,
suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof for a period exceeding thirty (30)
days; dismissal.
__A) People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)

__C) City or Municipal Mayor
__D) Lupong Tagapayapa
437. Discipline must be strict but not devoid of personal sympathy or understanding. In effect, this
statement is best illustrated by the superior officer who.
__A) Treats his subordinates equally regardless of personal sympathy

__B) Manifest command that are clear and understanding
__C) Investigates the reason of a subordinate’s infractions or violations
438. A superior officer who encourages or permits his subordinates to come directly to him with any
question or grievance.
__A) Creates an intolerable situation for his unit commanders

__B) Is a man of principle
__C) Is self disciplinarian
__D) Is serving to better integrate his organization
439. Usually the most important controlling factor in disciplining or reprimanding a subordinate by a
superior police officer should be to.
62
__A) Maintain discipline
__B) Improve the effectives and morale of the men
__C) Uphold department rules and regulations
__D) Conduct outright investigation
440. From among the many procedures, the first obligation of a supervisor in any matter requiring
disciplinary action is to….
__A) Learn all the facts of the matter

__B) Transfer the subordinates concerned to other work
__C) Said him out on
__D) him to avail tick leave
441. A subordinate police supervisor was called avory from an assignment he was . He left
his subordinate in charge. When he returned he found that the assignment was not properly
completed. Upon being reprimarided by his Superior Officer for the mistake the subordinate
supervisor shoul.
__A) his subordinate left in charge

__B) responsibility for error
__C) the entire working on the assignment
__D) and pass a “memo” to his superior officer among other things that he is
not surprises to be blames is all.
442. What disciplinary measure to you think will most likely to produced discontentment and
grievance.
__A) Unusual strictness

__B) sistent administration
__C) Severity of punishment
__D) Impersonal attitude
__E) Standardized punishment
443. As a to of effective supervisor, discipline is regarded as a from of.
__A) Control __C) Authority

__B) Punishment __D) Training
444. The general rule is that a member of the PNP draw his except for.
__A) Necessary apprehension of criminals

__B) Necessary inspector or lawful use
__C) Necessary target practice
445. A member of the PNP while on duty, whether in uniform or not should avoid unpleasant habits
which affect not only himself as An individual member, but also the whole organization where he
belongs.
__A) Sleeping and Loafing on duty

__B) Intoxication and use of prohibited drugs
__C) Partisan political activities
__D) Absolute morality
CANON OF ETHICS FOR REGISTERED CRIMINOLOGIST

(9 QUESTION)
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447. This statement that : “Every person admitted to the practiced of criminology as a Registered
Criminologist shall accept as a sacred obligation and responsibility as citizen to support the
Constitution of the Philippines and as Registered Criminologist to defend the principles of liberty as
defined the constitution and law.” Refers to what primary responsibility of a responsibility of a
Registered Criminologist?
__A) Be loyal to his profession

__B) To bear allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
__C) Conduct towards the public
__D) Private conduct
448. A Registered Criminologist shall strive to improve his effectiveness by diligent study and
sincere attention to improvement and welcome the opportunity and
useful information relating to matters according in the benefit of public safety and welfare. This
statement refers to…
__A) Be loyal to his profession

__B) To bear allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
__C) Conduct towards the public
__D) Private conduct
449. Which one of the following does not or is not included from among the first duty of a
criminologist as upholder of the law?
__A) to know its upon him

__B) Be aware of and prescription
__C) To recognize the system of government that gives to no man, group or institution
absolute power
__D) He must ensure that he is a prime defender of that system and as such must Pervert its
character
__E) He must not refuse a consultancy profession to anyone, including the bad elements of
the society
450. That a Registered Criminologist shall recognize the limitation of his authority and at use
the power of his profession for personal advantage. As such , in the performance of his duty
be
__A) Just
__B) Imperial and reasonable
__C) Never according anyone more preferential treatment than another
451. That in the private conduct a Registered Criminologist must.
__A) Be mindful of his special identification by the public as an upholder of the law
__B) Never be tax in the conduct or manner in private life, express disrespect for the law, nor
weak to gain special privilege that would be reflective upon the profession
__C) So conduct his private life that the public will regard his as an example of stability, fidelity
and morality
452. That in the Private Conduct, a registered Criminologist must..

__A) Strive to elevate the standing of the profession in the public mind
__B) Strengthen public confidence in law enforcement
__C) Develop and maintain comp lose support and cooperation of public
__D) Insure the effectiveness by encouraging complete cooperation of members of their
mutual benefit
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453. This one Canon of Ethics for Registered Criminologist necessarily requires a criminologist to
remind at times that dignity, fairness and genuine willingness top help are essential to his public
image and his ability to do a good job; to me mindful of his responsibility to the whole community,
deal with individuals of the community in a manner calculated to instill respect for its law and his
profession; shall be habitually courteous and accept his responsibility by being punctual and
expeditions in his engagement and duties; and shall regard his profession as a public trust and in
the discharge of his duty, bear constantly in mind is obligations to serve the public efficiency and
effectively.
__A) Conduct towards the public

__B) Private conduct
__C) Attitude towards profession
__D) Limitation of authority
454. Which on of the following does not or is not included in the Criminologist’s Attitude towards
Profession?
__A) Shall strive to make this best application of science to the solution of crime. By diligent
study and sincere attention to self-improvement, and in the fields of human relationships, some for
effective leadership and public influence in matters affecting public
__B) Shall the importance and responsibility of his profession as an honorable are
rendering valuable service to his community and country. Shall strive to attain certain technical and
professional conclusions capable of the most examination particularly from
criminologist and
__C) Shall avoid influence from over and over clients and his findings shall be
based absolutely and entirely on logical and scientific deduction derived from him and impartial
examination personally performed by him
__D) To improve his/her financial and social standing in what ever means and source after
three(3) years from the date he/she secured his/her license as Criminologist
456. When we speak of attitude towards fellow criminologist refer to…
__A) The criminologist shall strive constantly to improve professional standing of criminology
through association with others in the profession and abreast with the fast moving world of
science and technology through consist research and development
__B) He shall cooperate fully with fellow criminologist regardless of personal prejudices. He
should however, be assumed that which action is proper and in accordance with law and
the use of his office or person, knowingly or unknowingly in any improper or illegal action. He must
always bear in mind at all times that it not sufficient to be proficient in one’s work. Be also have
a high sense of justice, a belief in dignity and work of all men and a proper motivation and attitude.
He must posses a sense of dedication to his profession and a sense of duty and obligation to his
fellowmen.
__C) He shall cooperate with fellow criminologist and public officials to the end that safety and
general welfare of the public will be assured, never permitting jealousies or personal indifference to
influence their professional duties and obligations
POLICE SUPERVISION
(24 question)
456. A superior officer can best obtain good supervisory relationship with his subordinates by.
__A) Being lenient at all times

__B) Being mildly friendly with them
__C) Extending financial loan to them
__D) Acting distant and aloof
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457. A patrolman assigned to your division does better than average work but constantly complains
about his work to other man, thereby adversely affecting their morale. What do you think is the
most advisable for you to do as a superior officers?
__A) Have a confidential talk with him and try to secure his cooperation but otherwise refuse
to show him any special consideration.
__B) Request his transfer since your primary obligation is to faster the morale of your
command as a whole
__C) Give him additional work to do so he will have less time to complain
458. From among the following what do you think is the best justification for a newly appointed
superiors officer to learn as much as possible about the men under his new supervision from their
previous supervisor?
__A) Best results in handling men are usually obtained by treating them equally without
favor
__B) Effective handling of men is often based upon knowledge of individual personality
differences
__C) Some subordinates often function more effectively under one supervisor than under
another supervisor
__D) Confidence of the men in their supervisor is increased when they know he is
interested in impartial and fair supervision
459. Let us assume that you have two (2) subordinate officers under your command. One is
constantly referring problems to your decision. While the other seems to never have problems
requiring referral. Of the first subordinate officer, what appropriate situation can you say of him?
__A) Has not been delegated sufficient authority

__B) Has not fully assumed authority given him
__C) Has more difficult problems than the other subordinate officer
__D) Enjoys better relations with you personally than the other subordinate officer
460. If your subordinate officer seems to crave your command’s approval for everything that he
does it would be most logical for you to conclude that subordinate officer is…
__A) Trying to impress you with his desire to please

__B) Lacking in self-confidence
__C) Trying to cover up for some deficiency
__D) Lacking in ability to do the work
461. A member of the PNP comes to his supervisor asking for ten (10) minutes of his time to
discuss personal problem. According to most writers on supervision, usually in a situation like this
the supervisor should.
__A) Try to help said PNP member think through the problem an arrive at his own solution
without direct advise for supervisor
__B) Listen sympathetically and given whatever advice he can
__C) Refer the PNP member to the personnel officer of Department
__D) Decline to discuss such matters during working hours but that said PNP member meet
with the supervisor after work discuss his problem
462. Which of the following is generally regarded by authorities on supervisor at the most frequent
cause of employee dissatisfaction?
__A) Failure to reprimand while matter is still “hot”

__B) Failure to prepare the employees for changes in policies and procedures
__C) and literal interpretation and application of office rules and regulations
__D) Failure to introduce more up-to-date methods as rapidly and possible
66
463. A police officer informs his supervisor that he believes that a certain police sergeant is to strict
in supervising all his subordinates, especially when compared with the supervision carried out by
other sergeant in the same command. What do you think is the best advice said supervisor can
give?
__A) Tell the police officer that you will conduct your own investigation of the situation
__B) Tell the police officer that acceptance of the supervision is part of his job
__C) Remind the police officer that his supervisor is often subject to severe supervision
__D) Tell the police officer to request for his transfer to some other unit
464. A good attitude for police supervisor to obtain the confidence of his is to.
__A) Fraternize with all his subordinates

__B) Be a friendly-like attitude
__C) Make no promises unless they can be fulfilled
465. One of the of interest in the job on the part of subordinates is that fact that they ask
question. Such question are of value chiefly because they.
__A) Indicates the efficiency of the men involved

__B) Can be utilized as part of the training process
__C) Provide an excellent guide to the reassignment of subordinates
__D) Serve to entrance the status of the supervisor when he answers him
466. In cases involving infraction of rules and regulations by newly recruited policemen, the
superior officer should.
__A) Temper discipline with understanding

__B) Tolerate infraction for a short time
__C) Be particularly strict to impress them with a sense of duty
__D) Treat every infraction alike regardless of the violation
467. If a subordinate police officer is emotionally upset when he comes to the supervisor with a
problem, the supervisor should in all likelihood.
__A) Help the subordinate police officer to become calm before attempting to discuss the
problem
__B) Allow the employee to take his day off
__C) Give an immediate decision satisfactory to the employee
__D) Inquire into the subordinate policeman’s personal problems for the cause of the
emotional disturbance
468. The main purpose of letting the employee know about the personnel policy of an organization
is an…
__A) Get them to accept the policies

__B) Maintain morale and efficiency
__C) Work hard for promotion
__D) Induce loyalty
469. Which of the following is the best way to handle a patrolman’s grievance request which you
know cannot be granted?
__A) Explain why his request cannot be granted

__B) Show him so unreasonable his request is
__C) Deny the request without explanation
__D) Tell him to take it or leave it
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470. In dealing with a new policemen, a good supervisor.
__A) Praises work which is above standard and constructively criticizes work below standard
__B) Praises the new policeman even if he does not come up to what he should
__C) Asks an older policeman to tell the new policeman the supervisor thinks his work is
satisfactory
__D) Comments nothing
471. One of the maxims of supervisory leadership is “ Know your men.” If a newly appointed
supervisor, with no previous knowledge of the group he is to take charge of, was to undertake to do
this, what would ordinarily be the best thing to do first?
__A) Conduct a short, informal interview with each man

__B) Get personnel records including personal background
__C) Get informal, unwritten opinions of several previous supervisors of each man
__D) Organized a program, and let them introduce to you individually
472. Which one of the following is the best way of beginning a constructive criticism of the report
your subordinate had prepared for you?
__A) You will never learn how to write better if you keep this up
__B) You know you can do better work than this
__C) This is the pretty food, but I’ll tell you how you can make it better
__D) This is partly right, now take it back and fix it up
__E) It is not the way I would have written it myself, but I’ll sign if anyway
473. In his individual relationship the best of the following ways for a officer to secure
cooperation from his subordinates and to increase their work output is.
__A) Ask for their suggestions and act on good ones

__B) Lead them around by the hand, so to speak
__C) Agree enthusiastically with them in all manners
__D) Utilize the tricks of the trade to get around them and get them to do what you want
them to
474. A kind of supervisor who promptly conducts a complete and formal hearing as soon as a
despite among his subordinates comes to his attention.
__A) Misguided __D) democratic

__B) Paternalistic __E) One-fried
__C) Tyrannical
475. From among the following, what do you think is the most thing to do when your superior
officer complains to you concerning serious error on the part of your subordinates?
__A) Tell your superior that you sincerely hope that not happen again
__B) Assure him that you will check on it to present a similar mistake the future
__C) Accept the complaint and report the subordinate for disciplinary action
__D) Hate that you cannot do more than the work of our subordinates
__E) Advice him that such mistakes are when emergencies and men are under
pressure
476. A certain subordinate always goes by the book and justifies his every action by reference to
the police manual. Your best course of action is.
__A) Ignore the matter as hopeless

__B) Hold the subordinates responsible for an intelligent observance of the police Manual
__C) Advice the subordinate to use his own judgment regardless of the Manual
__D) Assign and transfer him to research division
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477. From among the following which one is the important justification for a periodic rotation of the
subordinate members of the PNP from one assignment to another?
__A) Encourage alertness on their part?

__B) Discourage requests for transfers from one type of assignment to another
__C) Make each member equally efficient in all phases of the work
__D) Develop traits initiative and independence
478. Which of the following duties and responsibilities of a superior officers may best be delegated
to one of his subordinates under his supervision?
__A) Keeping records and making reports

__B) Cooperation with other supervision and units
__C) Planning and scheduling
__D) Assignment of personnel
479. Which of the following responsibilities that a superior officer should never delegates to any of
his subordinates under his supervision?
__A) Representation of management to the men and the men to the management
__B) Write-up of necessary reports
__C) Supervision over a function for which he is responsible
__D) Development of now procedures which will affect all the men in his command
CRISIS MANAGEMENT AND DECISION MAKING

(21 question )
480. While relating traffic at an intersection, you saw a boy fall from a truck just half a block away.
The boy is apparently injured. Now, what should you do?
__A) Remain on your traffic post but request a passerby to call an ambulance
__B) Call an ambulance, administer first aid if necessary and make a report.
__C) Call your office, requesting that an ambulance be called and a patrolman sent to take
charge and make a report
__D) Arrest immediately the driver of the truck and order said driver to bring the boy to the
nearest hospital for immediate medical attention
481. While regulating the traffic at a school crossing during school lunch hour, you are notified of a
homicide about a block away. What do you think is the most appropriate action for you to do?
__A) Go to the scene of the crime after notifying the principal of the school and your office of
your absence
__B) Advise your informant to call the police department and remain on your post
__C) Notify the nearest police precinct and return to the traffic post immediately
__D) Call an ambulance and request that the police department send an officer to take charge
and report
482. Assume a dead body has been discovered on the street and being the only police officer
around, you have been called upon by a passerby to proceed in the scene. Upon arriving at the
scene, several onlookers are gathered. As a rule, it is essential that a police officer should refrain
from expressing his opinion as to the probable cause of death because.
__A) The killer may overhear your conclusion

__B) You do not know the cause of death
__C) No useful purpose will be served
__D) Your opinion may influence the investigator assigned to the case
483. A person rushes excitedly up to you and stammers that there is a dead man on the street.
What would be your first action assuming you were the police officer concerned?
69
__A) Verify the statement
__B) Ask another police officer to notify the police department
__C) Obtain the informer’s name and address
__D) Keep on lookers back and see that nothing is disturbed
484. If a police officer hears a gasping cry of “murder” coming from a residence in which there has
been no unusual disturbance, he should take which one of the following actions?
__A) Summon other police officers and when they arrive rush in with them in a body
__B) Go at once himself to the building, enter it cautiously and investigate
__C) Report what he has heard to headquarters
__D) Summon men from the streets and adjoining buildings and with them rush in a body
485. A police officer stops a physician, who is hurrying to treat an emergency case, for a
misdemeanor traffic violation. He believes that the physician should be prosecuted but not
arrested. The police officer should.
__A) Take the physician’s and the patients names and addresses and let the physician
continue
__B) Complete a citation by normal procedure, then the physician continue
__C) Forget the citation as it should not be given under the circumstances
__D) Follow the physician to the scene of the emergency case and issue the situation here
__E) Call the persons who summoned the physician and the tell him there will be a delay
486. A mentally dangerous man has barricaded himself in a house with a number of small children
inside. Which one of the following methods of approach by the officers outside the house would be
best under the circumstances?
__A) To be cases and agreeable in talking to the man in order to calm him
__B) To rush the house with weapons ready in order to surprise the man
__C) To throw near gas grenades into the house in order to drive cut the man
__D) To anger the man with insults so that he will get things of his chest
__E) To reason with the man and tell him how wrong he is
487. The police officer reported that he discovered the fire at 2 a.m or the second floor of a four-
story building. The in the stairway was very , so he procedure immediately to the and
opened the sky light over the stairway. The police officer’s action this situation was.
__A) Wise chiefly because hot gases and smoke were allowed to escape from the burning
before they could do additional damage
__B) Wise chiefly because fresh oxygen flowing through the skyline probably
subsequent use of the stairway for rescue operation
__C) Unwise chiefly because the fresh oxygen might have caused the flames to mushroom
quickly through apartment doors
__D) Unwise chiefly because the police officer should have confined his action to rescue
work prior to the arrival of the firemen
488. It general, a member of the PNP will render most efficient service if he.
__A) Observe unusual things

__B) Stands in places
__C) Is neatly attired
__D) Makes detailed entries in his memorandum notebook
489. The administrator should know that in managing his division he should avoid.
__A) Delegating necessary authority wherever responsibility has been assigned

__B) Making subordinate responsible to more than one supervisor
__C) Assigning definite responsibilities to his immediate subordinates
__D) Keeping his employees currently informed about actions taken; now development, and
other matters affecting their works
70
490. If a superior officer of the police department cannot readily check all the work done in his
office he should.
__A) Delegate part of his work to a qualified subordinate

__B) Refuse to take additional work
__C) Work overtime until he can personally finish it all
__D) Ask his wife to do some work for him
491. One of the following tasks of superior officer which can be most successfully delegated is..
__A) Handling discipline

__B) Checking completed work
__C) Reporting to the division chief
__D) Responsibility for accomplishing the visions mission
492. The delegation of responsibility and authority to subordinate by their superior generally does
not.
__A) Involve a transfer of ultimate responsibility from superior to subordinate

__B) Facilitate a division of labor or the development of specialization
__C) Permit the superior to carry out programs of work that exceed his immediate personal
limit of physical energy and knowledge
__D) Result in a downward transfer of work both mental and manual
493. As division chief you find that one of your new unit heads is constantly legged down with detail
work. This was not the case with his predecessors. The work load of the unit has remained the
same. Of the following the most likely reason that this new unit head is so overloaded with his work
is that.
__A) Your division has too many will supervisors

__B) He has failed to delegate some of the work to other members of his command
__C) This unit has too much detail work assigned to it
__D) He assigns to much important work to his subordinates
494. In a police administration functional allocation involves
__A) The distribution of a number of subsidiary responsibilities among all levels of the police
department
__B) Decentralization of administrative responsibilities
__C) Integration and the assignment of administrative power
__D) The assignment of a single power to a single administrative power
495. Of the following what do you think is the most helpful action which may be taken immediately
to eliminate frictions between your two subordinates officials who are in constant conflict in respect
to the authority of one of the unit head to consult certain records in the office of the other?
__A) Call both concerned parties into a conference and explain the necessity for cooperation
__B) Define the authority of each unit head
__C) Reprimand both unit heads
__D) Transfer one of them to another office
496. Of the following a recognized procedure for avoiding conflicts in the delegation of authority is
to.
__A) Use the linear method of assignment

__B) Assign all related work to the same control
__C) Provide a workable span of control
__D) Review all assignments periodically
71
497. A principle which must be recognized by officers of superior rank is that the most constructive
aspect of leadership are those which are exercised “face-to-face.” The superior officer who
recognizes this principle will.
__A) Place major responsibility for the execution of duties on immediate superior of the men
involved
__B) Make certain that members in his command realize that orders are made upon his
authorization
__C) Avoid situations which require direct control of the actions of subordinates several ranks
below him
__D) Insist that communications from his office to members in his command be as short and
direct as possible
498. A recently developed practice in administration favors reducing the number of levels of
authority in an organization, increasing the authority delegated to the subordinates. This practice
would most likely result in.
__A) An increase in detailed information that flows to a superior from each subordinates
__B) An increase in the span of control exercised by superiors
__C) A decrease in the number of functions performed by the organization
__D) A decrease in the responsibility exercised by the subordinates
499. To delegate work is one of the main functions of the superior. In delegating work, the superior
should remember that even though and assignment is delegated to a subordinate, the superior
ultimately is reasonable for seeing that the work is done. The most valid implication of the mutation
for a superior is that he should.
__A) Check the progress of delegated assignment periodically to make certain that the work
is being done properly
__B) Delegate as few difficult tasks as possible so as to minimize the consequence of
inadequate performance by his subordinates
__C) Delegate to his subordinates those tasks which be considers difficult or time consuming
__D) Assign work to a subordinate without holding him directly accountable for carrying it out
POLICE ADMINISTRATION
(48 Question)
500. A personal conference is generally a more desirable procedure for a reprimanding a policeman that a
public reprimand, chiefly because a.
__A) Public reprimand may impair the moral of the individual

__B) Public reprimand is more suitable for a group of two or three than for a single individual.
__C) Private reprimand makes a better impression on the individual
__D) Private reprimand can be accomplished more quickly and saves of time both the officer and his
subordinates
501. The justification for encouraging a police officer to ask a questions about the paper performance of his
duties is that
__A) Learning by doing is an effective training principle

__B) Confusion on even minor points may have serious consequences
__C) The question and answer method is especially efficient when a large number of policemen must be
trained
__D) The policeman who asks questions demonstrate a lack of general orientation to the job
502. Assume that, as an officer, you are giving a subordinate under your supervision instructions to perform a
rather complex assignment. Of the following, the best procedure to following in order to insure that he
understands the instructions adequately is to.
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__A) Question him briefly concerning the chiefs aspects of the assignments
__B) Have repeat the instructions word for word
__C) Invite him to ask questions if he has any doubt
__D) Be certain to check his performance as soon as he has completed the job
503. Which one of the following trait or ability most essential to a police officer
__A) Very high intelligence

__B) A high standard of personal honesty
__C) Physical stamina and bearing
__D) Absence of physical fear
504. Suppose that, as an officer, you observe that a newly appointed policeman under your supervision
appears to be performing a specific assignment improperly. Which one of the following is the best reason for
asking him to repeat the instruction he received?
__A) It is often easier to review instructions that to repeat them

__B) Instructions are sometimes misunderstood even by competent subordinates
__C) Inefficiency on the part of the uniformed force may have serious consequences
__D) The policeman obviously deserves a reprimand
505. Of the following which one is the most desirable procedure for a police officer to follow in order to keep
policeman on their toes.
__A) Test their knowledge and alertness frequently

__B) Encourage initiative by delegating responsibility to the best policeman
__C) Apply disciplinary measures for the violation of department rules and regulation impartially
__D) To employ your “ private eye and ear.”
506. A competent officer will be friendly with the man under his supervision that will avoid close familiarity.
Of the following the best justification for this statement is that
__A) Familiarity with the man may reveal lack of competence on the part of the officer
__B) Familiarity between an officer and a policeman creates an appearance of special privilege
__C) An officer can deal more competently with his man when he is not aware of their personal
problems
__D) A friendly attitude on the part of the officer towards his man is likely to create suspension on the
part of the other subordinates
507.) From among the following, one is the chief justification why the competent superior officer will
attempt to develop respect from, rather than fear on the part of the man under his supervision.
__A) Man who respect a supervisor are likely to give more than the minimum required performance
__B) Respect is base on the individual and fear is base on the organization as a whole
__C) Respect of superiors is a general incentives whereas fear is a specific incentive
__D) Experience has demonstrated that negative incentives are more effective than positive incentives
508. Suppose that your subordinate disagrees with the procedure we have prepared in outline for him to
follow is carrying act a certain assignment. Of the following, what is the most desirable for you to tell this
subordinate?
__ A) That in police organization, like in military, orders must b\e carried out or discipline will be
impaired
__B) You will evaluate his objections to the procedure you have prepared and outlined
__C) Said outlined has been used successfully for many years in the past
__D) You merely carrying out the orders of your own superior
509. One of the following would probably contribute most to obtaining the maximum cooperation of
subordinates in carrying out a change in a long established procedure
73
__A) Hold staff conference to explain and discuss the changed procedure prior to its adoption
__B) Make provision for abandoning the new procedure if it is not accepted by the majority of the staff
__C) Give several weeks advance notice of the proposed change in procedure
__D) Refrain from enforcing absolute compliance with the new procedure at the very beginning
510. When Subordinates never make complaints to their superior officer, this means that the letter is probably
not.
__A) Devoting sufficient time to checking up to the men

__B) Fault finder
__C) Sufficiently approachable by the men
__D) Pushing the men sufficiently to achieve maximum work output
511. Your superior officer, discussing regulation with his subordinates, commented that, ought to recognize
that our enters are mutual and that by working together, we can achieve our common objectives. This
approach is.
__A) Good; it recognized the status of the individual and avoid favoritism
__B) Good; this attitude will promote cooperation between members in officer
__C) Poor; on a feeling this way to men, the officer is inviting to much familiarity
__D) Poor; such an approach invites excessive criticism and bickering
512. Based on experience, an officer who demonstrate most serious lack of leadership is the one who
__A) Rarely delegates authority to his subordinates

__B) Rarely as others to do what he himself is unwilling to do
__C) Frequently praises subordinate in the presence of others
__D) Consciously cries to set an example for the men
__E) Allow the men to hold group meetings to discuss their work
513. One of the following is the best justification for having the limits of authority and responsibility in an
organization like the police department.
__A) Responsibility is the most properly mutual and interrelated

__B) Overlapping authority will probably lead to conflicts
__C) Some officers maybe more competent than others
__D) Every organization will probably benefit by exchange of view points at parallel levels of authority
514. From among the following procedures, one is the most likely to lead to accomplishing aim for a superior
officer to make certain that all required work is completed on time
__A) Schedule the work in keep track of its progress

__B) Required every subordinate to submit a daily work report
__C) Hold each subordinate responsible for the work assigned to him
__D) Impress your subordinates with the importance of getting work than on time
515. As an officer what is important for you to do regard to your relations with the men in your command?
__A) Delegate your responsibility to them who will ultimately perform the work
__B) Recognize that you have your own likes and dislikes and to compensate for them, that is, you must
not allow your likes and dislikes to influence your actions
__C) Avoid having likes and dislikes
__D) Restrict your relations with the men to official business
516. As a senior officer who wants to have an effective leader of those men in your command, you must.
__A) Delegate to each personal under u and equal amount of responsibility

__B) Outline repeatedly and ingrate detail the work to be perform by each member of the command
__C) Develop the asset of your man and encourage them to work for the good of the organization as a
whole.
74
__D) Utilize whatever motives for work you are able to discern in the men working under your
command
517. Command responsibility means.
__A) Each subordinates is held responsible for his own act

__B) The chief executive alone his not responsible for all the act of his subordinate
__C) Each superior officer is held responsible for the act of his subordinate
__D) Discretionary authority should not be
518. Primary aim of discipline is to.
__A) Prevent the occurrence of more serious offence

__B) Help train the men involve
__C) Punish the offender
__D) Carry out the rules of the department
519. Responsibility for developing plans for specific areas should in general be left to the local officers in the
area who will be called upon to in the emergency in the event it occurs rather than the officers in the central
office. In effect such planning policy is.
__A) Less effective; plans developed will not benefit from the experience of the whole department
__B) More effective; there will be fewer misinterpretations execution and there will be a greater will to
succeed
__C) More effective; the officer in the local area are better equipped technically to setup valid plans
then any central agency
__D) Less effective; a central office can obtain the outstanding men in the department to plan each
operation
520. Data and events relating to the detailed operations to the different units in the Police Department should
be collated and periodically summarized and analyzed. The primary reason for this from the view point of the
Department Chief. Is to.
__A) Locate those operations which are unusually efficient or inefficient

__B) Determine how much work the Department as a whole is doing
__C) Compare the amount of word done by different kinds of units
__D) Point out which men are most efficient
521. The morale of policemen is probably most closely dependent on the.
__A) Situation existing at emergencies

__B) Day-to-day working conditions and personal relations
__C) Abilities of the superior officers
__D) Tightness of discipline in the Department
522. A police officer may find that it is sometimes more efficiency to warm a subordinate than to institute
action for more severe punishment. The most valid reason for this is that.
__A) The warning may procedure a more cooperative attitude

__B) The punishment is often inappropriate
__C) Warnings always create a greater impression than punishment
__D) Punishment is never a deterrent
523. Although human relations have large significance in the job of the police officer in the Police
Department, it is not necessarily true that the.
__A) Officer is part of the management of the Police Department

__B) Ability to get along is the sole stock in trade of the Officer
__C) Officer must be a leader in order to do his job well
__D) Officer must be able to tell his men how to do their jobs in the right way
75
524. Subordinates do not object to strict regulations if they.
__A) Are enforced without basis and favor

__B) Apply only to minor phases of the work
__C) Result in improved department procedures
__D) Believe the officer approves the regulation
525. A person attempts to conceal his inadequacies in certain activities by over indulging in some other
activity because
__A) He is compensating for his inadequacies

__B) He has a delusion that he is inadequate in some activities
__C) He is projecting the pleasure he finds in the former activities to the latter
__D) He is trying to develop skills in the former activities by indulging in the latter
526. Assume that you are the Police Officer who learns that one of your best men wishes to transfer to
another kind of work. Of the following what is the most appropriate action for you to take.
__A) Discuss with the man the advantages of the kind of work he interested in
__B) Find out if any personal problems have arisen that make a transfer desirable
__C) Help the man locate another job with another unit of the Department
__D) Ask the other man in your unit if anything is wrong with the present working conditions
527. These tasks of management which are directed towards the effective accomplishment of both the
operations or primary functions, and the auxiliary or service functions. Otherwise stated, it is the policy
making body of any organization.
__A) Management __C) Auxiliary Services

__B) Administration __D) Chain of Command
528. It is otherwise the implementing are of the administration of any organization.

529. It aid the operating or line officers in the performance of their duties in any organization.

530. This supports the principle of unity of command and keeps all intermediate superior officers informed,
but it is time consuming, sometimes disastrously so in large organization.
__A) Chain of Command __C) Channel of Control

__B) Auxiliary Services __D) Channel of Contract
531. The channels of authority are established from top to the bottom of the chain. Through this chain,
communications are transmitted, either starting or ending at the top executive.
__A) Channel of Control __C) Chain of Command

__B) Channel of Contract __D) Charts of Accomplishment
532. This is much simpler and quicker to go directly from one channel to another without having to clear
through the top of the pyramid.
__A) Channel of Control __C) Charts of Accomplishment

__B) Chain of Command __D) Chronological Distribution
76
533. It is a graphic picture showing the workings and accomplishments of the department as a whole
organization.
__A) Chronological Distribution

__B) Charts of Accomplishment
__C) Color of authority
__D) Communicating (Basic Methods)
534. A supervisor needs to choose that method which will best accomplish his purposes, best meet the need
of employees and the objectives of the organization. He must be realistic and practical.
__A) Communicating ( Basic Methods)

__B) Communication (Downward)
__C) Color of Authority
__D) Communication (Internal)
535. It is an apparent prima facie right authority. The presumption of authority which justifies the actions of
an officer which derived from a badge, certificate, or writ, which is apparently legal.
__A) Color of Authority __C) Delegated Authority

__B) De Facao Authority __D) Deputized Authority
536. A form of communication keeping employees informed. A man cannot do his work unless he knows
why he is doing it.
__A) Communication (Internal)

__B) Communication (Downward)
__C) Color of Authority
__D) Communication (Upward)
537. It is one whereby all members of a police organization are informed as to the primary police objectives
and the understanding of the day-today problems and accomplishments.
__A) Communication(Internal)
__B) Communication (Upward)
__C) Complaint Desk
__D) Complaint Records
538. The needs of management to drawn up to it ideas, suggestions and knowledge of subordinates through
the organization. And it may be accomplished through personal discussion, conferences, committees,
memoranda, employee suggestions plans, etc.
__A) Communication(Internal)
__B) Communication (Upward)
__C) Control Methods
__D) Complaint Desk
539. The central or local point of a police department as which complaints are stated and recorded.
__A) Complaint Records __C) Complaint Desk

__B) Complaint Sheet __D) Communication (Upward)
540. It is a form with spaces for recording an incident and action taken by the department. It is otherwise, the
basic record of offenses.
__A) Complaint Records __C) Complaint Sheet

__B) Control Methods __D) Crime Index
77
541. It is one where cases reported to the police are classified by the nature of the complaint or case. So long
as the nature of the complaint is recorded, it is relatively easy matter to locate a case even if the name and
date have been their forgotten or misplaced.
__A) Complaint Sheet __C) Crime Index

__B) Police Blotter __D) Crime Statistics
542. A reported insurance of a crime recorded in a systematic classification. The field agent is the patrolman,
detective or investigator or civilian who makes a report of the crime.
__A) Crime Index __C) Crime Statistics

__B) Complaint Sheet __D) Police Blotter
543. Which means the distribution of authority and responsibility from top management to lower
intermediate officer or levels.
__A) Delegation of Authority __C) Decentralization

__B) Desired level of achievement __D) Centralization of Command
544. It is one where there is the appointment of a person to act for another or others. It is done in a form of
downward authority; whereas, the responsibility flows upward,
__A) Delegation of Authority __C) De Facto Authority

__B) Decentralization __D) De jury Authority
545. This most be done is proportion to the frequency and seriousness of the police hazards – incidents or
conditions which are conductive to crime traffic accidents, etc.
__A) Distribution of Patrol Force

__B) Division of Work
__C) Duty Manual
__D) Enforcement Index
546. The work of an organization must be divided in such a way that similar functions will be grouped
together and dissimilar functions separated.
__A) Division of Work

__B) Division of Function
__C) Duty Manual
__D) Enforcement Index
547. An authoritative guide to the department’s organization, which describes produces and duties of officers
assigned to particular tasks.
__A) Division of Work

__B) Division of Function
__C) Enforcement Index
__D) Duty Manual
POLICE INTELLIGENCE
(17 Questions)
548. A Chinese Philosopher who one said: “if you know your enemy and know yourself, you need not fear
the result of a hundred battles. If you know yourself but not the enemy, for every victory, you will suffer a
defeat. If your know neither yourself nor the enemy, you are fool who will meet defeat in every battle.”
__A) Confucius __C) Chiang Kai-shek

__B) Sun Tzu __D) Chu In Lai
78
549. May be defined as the product resulting from the collecting information concerning an actual and
potential situation and condition relating to foreign activities and to foreign or enemy held areas.
__A) Interrogation __C) Information

__B) Intelligence __D) Investigation
550. It is defined as an evaluated and interpreted information concerning organized crime and other major
police problems.
__A) Military Intelligence __C) Military Information

__B) Police Intelligence __D) Police Investigation
551. It is the combination of two or more persons for the purpose of establishing terror or corruption in the
city/community or section of either a monopoly, or virtual monopoly or criminal activity in a field that
provides a continuing financial profit.
__A) Organized Crime __C) Criminal Syndicate

__B) Criminal World __D) Mafia
552. The social organization of criminals, having its own social classes from the hobo to the moneyed
gangster or racketeers.
__A) Criminal World __C) Mafia

__B) Organized Crime __D) Criminal Syndicate
553. It is a stable business with violence applied and directed at unwelcome competitors.
__A) Mafia __C) Criminal World

__B) Criminal Syndicate __D) Organized Crime
554. A form intelligence which concerns with the various types of confidential information that filter into the
possession of the police, and the techniques employed in developing these lines of information.
__A) Counter Intelligence

__B) Undercover Intelligence
__C) Departmental Intelligence
__D) Strategic Intelligence
555. Which a Police Administrator must rely as one of the most indispensable took of management it is
derived from organized information available in the police records division which is concerned with the
nature, size and distribution of the police problems of crime, wise, and traffic.
__A) Strategic Intelligence

__B) Departmental Intelligence
__C) Counter Intelligence
__D) Undercover Intelligence
556. Intelligence which is primarily long-range in nature with little or no immediate practical value.
__A) Departmental Intelligence

__B) Strategic Intelligence
__C) Undercover Intelligence
__D) Counter Intelligence
557. The type of intelligence activity which deals with defending of the organization against its criminal
enemies.
__A) Counter Intelligence __C) Strategic Intelligence

__B) Military Intelligence __D) Military Intelligence
79
558. It is an evaluated and interpreted information concerning an actual or possible enemy or theater of
operations, including weather and terrain together with the conclusions drawn therefrom.
__A) Line Intelligence __B) Strategic Intelligence

__B) Military Intelligence __D) Convert Operation
559. The type of intelligence which is of immediate nature and necessary for more effective police planning
and operations.
__A) Line Intelligence __C) Police Intelligence

__B) Military Intelligence __D) Overt Operation
560. If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of the
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which is it being gathered.
__A) Overt Operation __C) Evaluation

__B) Covert Operation __D) Interpretation
561. If the information is obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom the information of
documents may be used, or if the method of procurement is done not in an open manner.
__A) Overt Operation __C) Evaluation

__B) Covert Operation __D) Interpretation
562. It is a critical appraisal of information as a basis for its subsequent interpretation which includes
determining the pertinence of information. The reliability of the source and agency though which the
information was derived and its accuracy.
__A) Interpretation __C) Tasks

__B) Evaluation __D) Operations
563. Determines the significance of the information with respect to what is already known, and it draws
conclusions as to the probable meaning of the evaluated information; it is the result of critical judgment
involving analysis, integration and forming of conclusions.
__A) Evaluation __C) Tasks

__B) Interpretation __D) Operations
564. Is the proper, economical, and most productive use of personnel, resources and equipment employed
and/or utilized in planning the collection of information, processing of information and dissemination
intelligence.
__A) Cardinal Principle of Intelligence

__B) Economic Intelligence
__C) Assets and Liability Intelligence
__D) Income and Expenditure Intelligence
PLANS AND OPERATIONS

(35 Questions)
565. In a very simple sense, his deciding in advance on what is to be done and how it is to be
accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for action.
__A) Operations __C) Management

__B) Planning __D) Administration
566. Shall be planned to guide members in routine and field operations and in some special operations
in accordance with some procedures.
80
__A) Operational Plans
__B) Standard Operating Procedure
__C) Special Operating Procedures
__D) Characteristics of Plans
567. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is intended to be used in all situations
of all kinds, and shall be outlines as a guide to officers and men in the field.
__A) Headquarters Procedures

__B) Field Procedures
568. Of the following standard operating procedures, one which is decided it these procedures are the
duties and dispatcher, joker, matron and other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the
duty manual.
__A) Headquarters Procedures

__B) Field Procedures
569. Of the following, standard operating procedures, one which is included are the operations of the
special unit charged with the searching and preservation of physical evidence at the crime scenes
and accidents, the control of licenses, dissemination of information about wanted persons, and
like.
__A) Special Operating Procedures

__B) Headquarters Procedures
__C) Field Procedures
__D) Operational Plans
570. Of the following type of plans, one is considers, as plans for the operations of special divisions
like patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile delinquency sum mol.
571. Of he following types of plans, one is as those procedures for coping with specific situations at known
locations, such plans for dealing with an attack against buildings with alarm systems and an attack against
Headquarters of the PNP.
__A) Tactical Plans __C) Management Plans

__B) Extra-Office Plans __D) Operational Plans
572. Of the following types of plans, one which deals with the active participation of individual citizens is so
vital to the success of the Philippine National Police; to continue to motivate, promote and maintain an active
concern in its affairs.
__A) Management Plans __C) Operational Plans

__B) Extra Office Plans __D) Characteristics of Plans
573. Of the following types of plans, one which includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved
in the organization, management of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of
money, etc.
__A) Management Plans __C) Operational Plans

__B) Extra Office Plans __D) Characteristics of Plans
574. Of the following steps in planning, one is based on a careful view of the matters relating to the situation
for which plans are being developed; such as ideas or opinions of persons who may speak witjh authority o0n
81
the subject, and views of the superior office, other government officials, and other professionals shall be
considered.
__A) Frame of Reference

__B) Clarifying the Problems
__C) Collecting all Pertinent Facts
__D) Analyzing the Facts
575. Of the following steps in planning, one calls for identification of the problem, understanding both
records and its possible solution; a situation most exist for which something must and can be done
__A) Collecting all pertinent facts

__B) Clarifying the problems
__C) Analyzing the facts
__D) Developing alternative plans
576. Of the following steps in planning, one which states that no attempts shall be made to develop a plan
until all facts relating to it have being gathered.
__A) Collecting all pertinent facts

__B) Analyzing the facts
__C) Developing alternative plans
__D) Selecting the most appropriate alternative
577. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have been gathered, a careful study and
evaluation shall be made; this provides the basis from which a plan or plans are evolved.
__A) Developing alternative plans

__C) Selecting the most appropriate alternative
__D) Selling the Plan
578. Of the steps in planning, in which the initial phases of plan development, several alternative measures
shall appear to be logically comparable to the needs of a situation.
__A) Developing alternative plans

__C) Selling the most appropriate alternative
579. One of the steps in planning, which a careful consideration of all facts usually leads to the selection of a
best alternative proposals.
__A) Analyzing the facts

__B) Selecting the most appropriate alternative
__C) Selling the Plan
__D) Arranging for the execution of the plan
580. One step in planning, which a plan to be effectively carried out, must be accepted by a persons
concerned at the appropriate level of the plans development.
__A) Selecting the most appropriate alternative

__B) Selling the Plan
__C) Arranging for the execution of the plan
__D) Evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
581. One step in planning, that such that the execution of a plan requires the issuance of orders and directives
to units and personnel concerned, the establishment of a schedule, and the provision of manpower and
equipment for carrying out the plan.
82
__A) Selling the Plan
__B) Arranging for the execution of the plan
__C) Evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
582. One step in planning, that such is necessary in order to know whether a correct alternative was chose,
whether or not the plan is correct, which phase was implemented, and whether additional planning may be
necessary.
__A) Evaluating the effectiveness of the plan

__B) Arranging for the execution of the plan
__C) Selecting the most appropriate alternative
__D) Selling the Plan
583. This activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the Philippine National Police and its
unit subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with other low enforcement agencies of the
government.
__A) Police Executive Training

__B) Coordinates and Cooperation
__C) Business-like Activity
__D) Socialization
584. Shall accomplish the primary, responsibility of safeguarding the community through protection of
persons and property, the suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals, enforcement of
laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and performing necessary services and inspections.
__A) Traffic Division

__B) Patrol Force
__C) Theft and Robbery Division
__D) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
585. In its basis function is to investigate certain designated crimes against property and clear them by
recovery of stolen property and arrest and conviction of the offenders.
__A) Theft and Robbery Division

__B) Patrol Force
__C) Traffic Division
__D) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
586. It shall facilitate the safe and rapid movement of vehicles and pedestrian; to this end, the inconvenience,
dangers and economic losses that arise from this movement, congestion, delays, stopping and parking of
vehicles must be lessened.
__A) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division

__B) Traffic Division
__C) Vice Control Division
__D) Theft and Robbery Division
587. Its operation shall be based on law rather than on moral concepts, constant raids of known vice dens
shall be undertaken, and it shall do to any violation, exert all efforts to eliminate them.
__A) Vice Control Division

__B) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
__D) Traffic Division
588. The nature of its task shall be determined by the field activity given the greatest emphasis, and this
influenced by the needs of the community; effective crime control necessitates preventing the development of
individuals as criminals.
83
__A) Vice Control Division
__B) Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
__D) Traffic Division
589. Police operation is a continuing activity, and therefore, it must be based on valid and practical plans that
are constantly made current. Every operation completed shall be followed by a critique and rendition of an
after-operation report shall be.
__A) Coordinated __C) Analyzed

__B) Properly evaluated __D) Reviewed
590. The police officer must inform the person to be arrested of his authority and the cause of his arrest
except when the.
__A) Officer is in uniform so that he is authorized

__B) Person is arrested in the actual commission of crime
__C) Person arrested is a habitual offender
591. When frisking a suspect it is considered most important that the police officer keep his eyes on the.
__A) Suspect’s head

__B) Suspect’s accomplices
__C) Suspect’s hands
__D) People’s handing nearby
592. It is recommended police procedure that for safest results, a lone police officer should never attempt to
frisk more than.
__A) Four individuals __C) Three individuals

__B) Two individuals __D) One individual
593. You positively recognize a man on a busy street as one wanted for falsification of a public documents.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate for you to take?
__A) Approach, then arrest the man

__B) Follow the man and summon a civilian to assist you in arresting said man
__C) Follow the man until he stops long enough for you so summon assistance from the headquarters
__D) Follow the man until a place is reached where there are few people, then take out his gun, if any,
and arrest him
594. Whenever an arrest is made upon a court want, the arrested person must be immediately.
__A) Inform his three constitutional rights

__B) Bring him to the appropriate court who issued the warrant
__C) Interrogate him for the purpose of gathering information about his criminal associates
__D) Bring him to surety company to secure and file a bond
595. A Police Officer may arrest without warrant if.
__A) A crime is committed in his presence

__B) A woman complains of a crime committed against her chastity
__C) A mans wife complains of womanizing of her husband
__D) A man to be arrested is the Mayor’s political enemy
596. In most cases, a policeman who arrest a female will cause her to be searched by a policewoman. An
exception to this, when the policeman may search the female by himself, is when the arrested.
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__A) Is a prostitute
__B) Is believed to have armed with a weapon
__C) Is a T-bird
__D) Is married
597. If a police officer feels sympathetic toward a violator, it should not deter an arrest because.
__A) Criminal should received no consideration

__B) Arrest goals must be maintained
__C) The police officer must be objective in his work
__D) Police officers are expected to be devoid of personal feeling
598. A policewoman on plainclothes duty in a downtown department store observes a young woman taking
some merchandise and hide it in her underwear garments. Probably the best procedure for the policewoman
to follow would be to.
__A) Arrest the young woman on the spot

__B) Ask other costumer to act as witnesses to the activity
__C) Follow her out of the department store and question her
__D) Call the attention of the house directives
599. When officers of the a two-man Patrol Car stop another vehicle for a route field interrogation, one
officer approached the dinner to talk to him. In other officer should.
__A) Walk slowly about the other can looking for evidence of law violations
__B) Take position at the right rear of he other vehicle
__C) Remain in the Patrol Car to listen for radio calls for his unit
__D) Accompany his partner to the other car, but remain about two feet in the back of him
LAW ENFORCEMENT AND CRIME

(18 QUESTIONS)
600. The must effective method of a crime prevention is believed by authorities in the field generally to be..
__A) Eradication of the cases of crime

__B) More severe punishment of offenders
__C) Decriminalization
__D) People’s moral regeneration
601. Law enforcement and Public Safety Officials attribute the recent high crime rate to…
__A) Laxity in the administration of criminal justice system

__B) Lack of adequately trained policemen
__C) Decline in mortal stamire on a national scale
__D) Existence of “Law of the Jungle”
602. The one of the following characteristics most susceptible to modification by a change of social
environment is..
__A) Intelligence __C) Climatic condition

__B) Taste in music __D) Mental deficiency
603. From the police point of view probably the best argument against the abolition of death penalty is
that….
__A) Police tasks are becoming burdensome

__B) Criminal offenders are encouraged to commit serious offenses
__C) More criminals are being feed by the government
__D) Religious organizations are interfering with the police task
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604. Lumbrosians theory holds that…
__A) All criminals are mentally defective at the commission of crime

__B) Few criminals have a demonstrable abnormality
__C) Criminals constitute a district physical stigmata
__D) None criminals are handsome
605. A person that derives pleasure from self-punishment or torture by a person of the opposite sex is usually
referred to as a…
__A) Masochist __D) Hedonist
__B) Macho __E) Exhibitionist
__C) Sadist
606. In a family of two children, one become delinquent and the other does not. The delinquent child most
likely was the one who..
__A) Was given discipline

__B) Had greater emotional tensions
__C) Had higher intelligence
__D) Was the first born child
607. Girls and women habitually guilty of sexual immorality are most likely to be…
__A) Mentally inferior __C) Mentally Normal

__B) Sexually Attractive __D) Mentally Superior
608. Of the following types of criminal the one most like to work in a gang is…
__A) Vagrant __C) Robber

__B) Pickpocket __D) Swindler
609. From the viewpoint of a crime prevention the must vulnerable children among those exposed to crime
are those…
__A) Whose parents have low standards of living and morality

__B) Whose parents are both working
__C) Who are habitual truants from school
__D) Whose parents are liberally minded
610. From the viewpoint of law enforcement and public safety, the repression of crime is chiefly dependent
upon the continuous and intensive maintenance of…
__A) Socialization with community leaders

__B) Patrols
__C) More arrest
__D) Correctional institutions
611. The most difficulty to solve if the following types of forgery cases is…
__A) Forgery of endorsement on lost or stolen checks

__B) The signing of the name of some living persons with intent to defraud
__C) Forgery of fictitious name on stolen bank blank checks of an established concern
__D) Writing a personal check on bank with the knowledge that no account is there
612. In crime prevention work, the most effective long range method of combating harmful influence in a
community is to..
__A) Educate the public

__B) Police socialization with community leaders
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__C) More police budget
__D) Enlarge the police form
613. Other factors being equal, the best available means at present of determining the general effectiveness of
the police in dealing with crime is..
__A) The accident rate __C) Modus Operandi File

__B) The crime rate __D) Crime statistics
614. The most effective institution for control of juvenile delinquency is…
__A) The church

__B) The Home
__C) Juvenile Delinquency Control of the Police
__D) The Church
615. The relationship between social mires and laws is best expressed by which
623. Within the human element which is a fault in a large majority of vehicular accidents the most important
defect is generally attributed to..
__A) Attitudinal __C) Perceptual

__B) Intellectual __D) Decision
624. The effectiveness of a traffic law enforcement program is best measured by…
__A) A reduction of traffic accidents and delays

__B) An increase in traffic enforcement actions
__C) A decrease in the ration of convictions to enforcement actions
__D) Smooth flow of the traffic
625. An officer has stopped a traffic offender. As an initial remark the officer says, ‘’ Do you know why I
stopped you’’? This remark is undesirable; under these conditions mainly because…
__A) It could be used as evidence in a false arrest action

__B) It invites a denial and subsequent loss of face by the offender
__C) It is a leading question
__D) It is a password for corruption
626. Where two or more emergency vehicles, operating as such, approach the same intersection from
different directions, creating a probability conflict. An officer directing traffic at the intersection must give
preference to one and cause the others to yield the right way. Of then following, the type of vehicle which
should generally be given preference over any of the others is the.
__A) Ambulance __C) Fire Truck

__B) Police car __D) Wrecker
627. A unit is assigned to traffic patrol and is given no special instructions as to manner of patrol. During a
period when traffic is heavy, the unit when not engaged in taking action against a specific violator is expected
to.
__A) Park in a position readily visible to the motorists

__B) Maintain “visible patrol” continuously
__C) Use its own discretion as to what manner of patrol will yield best results under the circumstances
__D) Keep off the most contested routes but in a position where it can observe violations effectively
628. In testing a suspected intoxicating driver, which one of the following tests should be given last?
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__A.) Handwriting ___C.) Pupils of the eyes
__B) Balance __D) Walking and turning
629. Which one of the following approved in issuing a citation to a traffic violator, where the violator
remains seated at the driver’s wheel of his vehicle throughout the entire process?
__A) Stand on the curb alongside the police vehicle when actually writing the citation
__B) Place foot or hand on the vehicles as means of reducing an awkward differential in height between
officer and violator
__C) Ask the violator if he realizes why he was stopped
__D) Immediately after stating the violation, explain the accident hazard involves in it
630. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents than any other in the area. The
police unit assigned to the area should.
__A) Park near the intersection, in play view, and wait for violators
__B) Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the intersection
__C) Park near the intersection, more or less, hidden from view
__D) Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorists
631. A traffic police officer stationed along the route of a parade has been ordered by his superior to allow no
cars to cross the route. While the parade is in progress an ambulance driver on a emergency run attempts to
drive his ambulance across the rout while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police
officer should.
__A) Stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street
__B) Direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add at least ten minutes to run
__C) Hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior’s order
__D) Ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contacts his superior and obtains a decision
632. A general principle of traffic accident investigation is to.
__A) Look for the “ key event” that cause the accident and investigator any two –car collision as if it
were two accidents, each with its own-causes
__B) Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
__C) Consider violations as primary causes and any other factors as secondary causes
__D) Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
633. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is.
__A) Selection of geographic areas for strict enforcement

__B) Direction of enforcement activities to those points of greatest traffic danger
__C) Concentration of enforcement activities as peak traffic hours
__D) A Warning rather than a citation will act as a preventive for future violation
634. It would be most correct to state that a very thorough investigation of traffic accidents, which would
probably include technical measurements and procedures, should be undertaken..
__A) Principally for the purpose of obtaining evidence for court presentation
__B) For all traffic accidents regardless of the extent of personnel of property damage
__C) Only when a person is killed in an accident or dies as a result of injuries received in the accident
635. The responsibility for developing a traffic program rest primarily with.
__A) Headquarters of the Police Department

__B) The top level of Police Traffic Management
__C) City Mayor’s Office
__D) All of the foregoing
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636. The most effective way to reduce to number of traffic accident is to..
__A) Arrest and prosecute traffic violators

__B) Increase the premium of insurance and decrease for car insurance liability to a minimum
__C) Frequent checks on all cars for mechanics defects
637. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officer should be guided foremost by the
consideration that…
__A) The aim is to discourage violations

__B) Violations must be punished
__C) Some traffic violations are caused by negligence
__D) Some traffic violations are intended
638. From among the following measures, one is the most effective in police campaign directed at a new
parking regulations.
__A) Written warning __C) Verbal warning

__B) Spectrograph __D) Electron microscope
657. In comparison with other methods of analysis used in a police laboratory, the unique advantage of the
spectrograph is that…
__A) Minute traces of substances can be analyzed

__B) It is relatively inexpensive to acquire and operate
__C) The sample is not destroyed in the analytical process
__D) It produces a permanent record of the analysis
658. In investigation of a rape case, use of ultra-violet light is a useful method..
__A) Only to establish whether certain stains are semen stains, after they have been located by some
other method
__B) To locate stains, but not to establish whether they are semen stains
__C) Both to locate stains and to establish whether they are semen stains
__D) Neither for finding stains nor for determining their nature
659. A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is elm gated and the splashes are found to
be concentrated around one end of the stain. As a general rule, the splashes and the extension of the drop of
blood indicates…
__A) Direction of movement __C) Fresh blood

__B) Route __D) Dried stain
660. The direction from which a blunt object has broken a piece of glass may be determined by
examination of the fractured mess-sectional surfaces of the glass. In this case, the direction of the
blow is indicated by…
__A) The pattern of curved lines, bevel angle of the fracture, and the position of flaking or
chipping on the cross section
__B) Convexity or concavity of the fractured surface
__C) The position of crystal structure deformations
661. A simple test for distinguishing a blood stain from their substances is the..
__A) Benzedrine Test

__B) Alphanapthylamine Test
__C) Diphenylamine Test
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__D) Hydrochloric Acid Test
662. Is extremely used in reproducing evidence such as footprints and tire marks in dirt or mud…
__A) Moulage __C) Cementing

__B) Casting __D) Pickling
663. Is the technique of reproducing facsimile or physical evidence by the plaster moulds and the
impression of which is made through the successive formation of a negative mould and positive
cast…
__A) Moulage __C) Cementing

__B) Casting __D) Pickling
664. A characteristic post-marten symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a…
__A) Marked protuberance of the eyeballs

__B) Pinkish livicity of all or part of the body
__C) Waxy texture and appearance of the skin
__D) Grotesque or contorted position of the body
665. The most commonly used for determining intoxication of a motor vehicle driver is the…
__A) Blood Test __C) Breath Test

__B) Urine Test __D) Spinal Fluid Test
666. Investigators occasionally encounter amnesia in persons they wish to interview or interrogate.
Retrograde amnesia is a loss of memory that…
__A) Covers a period of time immediately preceding severe shock

__B) Is a form of hysteria in which the memory gradually returns as the victim calms down
__C) Is feigned
__D) Begins to affect the mind only after a considerable lapse of time following a severe shock
667. Identifying marks which are placed on physical evidence of the scene of a crime may
consist of…
__A) Letter of the alphabet only

__B) Any distinctive marks which is difficult to duplicate
__C) Numbers only
__D) Numbers and Letters only
668. The investigator who collects physical evidence should take it to the laboratory by
himself whenever this is possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each
person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This statement is best applicable to..
__A) Chain of Custody of Evidence

__B) Three tools in criminal investigation
__C) Cardinal rules in criminal investigation
__D) To establish the guilt of the accused
669. Evidences which change quickly, such skid marks, the wounds and bruises will heal and
disappear before the case comes to trial. Such evidence can be preserved by…
__A) Pickling method and introduced in court as evidence

__B) Photography and introduced in court as evidence
__C) Casting and mould and introduce in court as evidence
670. The detection and identification of poisons is called…

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__A) Chemistry
__B) Bacteriology
__C) Toxicology
__D) Carbon Monoxide
FINGERPRINTING AND PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION:
671. Are means of personal identification; they aid the investigator in identifying persons in
custody; when found at a crime some they lead the investigator to the perpetrator.
__A) Fingerprints __C) Petrology

__B) Circumstantial evidence __D) Motive and intent
672. The technique of fingerprinting is called…
__A) Dactytoscopy __C) Palmistry

__B) Poroscopy __D) Latent print
673. Practically all fingerprint experts believe that fingerprint patterns are.
__A) Inherited as Mendelian characteristics

__B) Never inherited
__C) Always inherited
__D) Sometimes inherited
674. In taking fingerprints, the subject should be instructed to…
__A) Relax the fingers

__B) Stiffen the fingers
__C) Exert a little pressure on the linking surface
__D) Wash his both hands before taking prints
675. In the development of impressions, the fingerprint powder should be applied as soon as
the ridges become visible…
__A) In the interspaces

__B) In the direction of the ridge trend
__C) Across the ridge
__D) Uniformly cover the center of the print
676. The following are the types of fingerprint registration…
__A) The 10-print or principal registration and the single price registration
__B) Whole print with classification
__C) Impression of the 10 fingers
677. It has long been a rule that is required for minimum identical and characteristic details
must be found to justify the conclusion of identity between two points…
__A) Nine (9) __C) Fifteen (15)

__B) Twelve (12) __D) Eighteen (18)
678. It is a triangular shaped detail of the pattern formed by the bifurcation or forking of a
ridge at the outer portion of the pattern, and it determines the other boundary of the
pattern as it flows around the pattern…
__A) Delta __C) Ridge

__B) Core __D) Latent prints
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679. Are those fingerprints left at the crime scene; and it is either imprints or impressions…
__A) Pattern __C) Loop

__B) Latent print __D) Lunar
680. Is that center of the fingerprint pattern; it may be a ridge resembling loop, a rod, or a
spiral in the very center of the pattern…
__A) Core __C) Ridge

__B) Delta __D) Whorl
681. Is a kind of fingerprint in which one or more ridges enter on either side of the
impression by a recurve, pass cut or terminate on the same side as the ridge or ridges
entered…
__A) Loop __C) Radial loop

__B) Lunar loop __D) Tented Arch
682. Of the following fingerprint patterns, one in which the downward than of the ridge or
ridges is from the thumb toward the little finger or lunar bone…
__A) Loop __C) Radial loop

__B) Lunar loop __D) Tented Arch
683. A fingerprint pattern in which the down ward slant or ridge or ridges from the little finger toward the
thumb or radius bone…
__A) Radial Loop __C) Radial Loop

__C) Loop __D) Tented Arch
684. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to the other without recurving, usually
having a slight upward curve in the center giving the appearance of an arch…
__A) Plain loop __C) Radial Loop

__B) Loop __D) Tented Arch
685. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges flow from one side to the other without recurving but differ
from plain arches, as the ridges rise in the center giving the pattern the appearance of the tent…
__A) Whorl’’ __C) Plain Loop

__B) Tented arch __D) Radial Loop
686. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a series of circles or spirals around the core axes…
__A) Tented Arch

__B) Whorl
__C) Central Pocket Loop
__D) Double Loop
687. Are those patterns in which most of the ridges represent the pattern known as loop, out when one or
more ridges within such loop or those surrounding the core recurve down through its axis, thereby forming
the second delta…
__A) Central Pocket Loop

__B) Whorl
__C) Double Loop
__D) Accidental
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688. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern consisting of two separate loop formation, with two separate and distinct
sets of shoulders and two deltas…
__A) Accidental
__B) Double Loop
__D) Whorl
689. Is a kind of fingerprint pattern in which two of the different types of patterns are represented except the
plain loop…
__A) Double Loop

__B) Accidental
__D) Whorl
690. A German criminologist who had thoroughly studied the history of fingerprints in the Far East and
found that fingerprinting were already commonly used for identification purposes during the Tang Dynasty
from 618 to 906 AD….
__A) Robert Heindle

__B) Henry Faulds
__C) Prof. Johannes James Herschel
__D) Dr. Nehemiah Greu
691. A British Scientist and a cousin of Scientist Charles Darwin, who devoted himself to the study of
fingerprints, and who established his own system in England….
__A) Alphonse Bertillon __C) Samuel Clements

__B) Sir Francis Galton __D) Robert Heindle
692. An American who used his own fingerprint on commissary orders in New Mexico in order to prevent
forgery and was the first authenticated record of official use of fingerprints in the United States.
__A) Mr. Gilbert Thompson __C) Alphonse Bertillon

__B) Samuel Clemens __D) Robert Heindle
693. Known for his anthropometric measurement, and who was the first to propose his system in the year
1879, and was the first Chief of the identification Bureau of the Paris, France, Criminal Police…
__A) Mr. Gilbert Thompson __C) Samuel Clemens

__B) Alphonse Bertillon __D) Sir Francis Galton
694. Known as the “Father of Fingerprint” who was herschel’s successor in India who develop a fingerprint
classification was adopted in Scotland Yard, London…
__A) Alphonse Bertillon

__B) Sir Edward Richard Henry
__C) Juan Vucetich
__D) Dr. Henry P. de Forest
695. The first leading judicial decision in the Philippine Jurisprudence on the science of fingerprinting….
__A) PP vs. Medina, 59 Phil. 22

__B) PP vs. Pacana, 47 Phil 48
__C) US vs. Asensi, 34 Phil 50
__D) PP vs. Fonterada, et a 54 Phil. 68
696. The first Filipino authority of fingerprinting, and who topped the first examination in fingerprints in
1937 which was given by Capt. Thomas Dugon of New York Police Department…
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__A) Col. Jose Lukban __C) Atty. Lorenzo Sunico
__B) Atty. Agustin Patricio __D) Gen. Rafael Crame
697. The easiest way to discover latent impressions is to view the area…
__A) Directly
__B) At a distance of about one-half inch
__C) Obliquely
__D) All of the Foregoing
698. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the thief in an automobile which has been stolen and
abandon is on the…
__A) Steering Wheel __C) Dashboard

__B) Rear view mirror __D) Door handles
699. To aid in identifying the subject when seeking information from the Immigration Commission regarding
an alien, it is must important to provide that agency with data regarding the…
__A) Port of entry of the alien

__B) Residence of the alien
__C) Occupation of the alien
__D) Educational background of the alien
700. In a “wanted” case, the miscellaneous information concerning the suspect which would probably be
most useful to a police on duty would be…
__A) His occupation __C) How he dresses

__B) Where the hangs out __D) His companions
701. In identification of a person by a photograph, it is best form an officer making an investigation to…
__A) Show the witness several photographs inserting that of the suspect and ask him to pick out the
person in question
__B) Use photograph for identification purposes only when the witness is also to give a complete
description of the suspect
__C) Ask the witness for a description of suspect and attempt to make the identification himself
__D) Show witness photograph of the suspect and ask him of the suspect and ask him to pick out the
person in question
702. The first two digits on an individual’s Social Security Number are best taken as indication of…
__A) The region in which the individual originally registered

__B) The month in which the individual originally registered
__C) The income group in which the individual belonged at the time of original registration
__D) The occupation of the individual at the time of his registration
703. Aside from the Central Bank’s warnings and other published warnings, the best means of detecting
counterfeit paper money is by…
__A) The sharpness of the engraving

__B) The spacing of the colored threads in the paper
__C) The quality of the ink and paper used
__D) The odor of the money
704. The body of a man is found in a river. The body is fully clothed but badly mutilated, water clogged and
swollen. The clothing containing in identifying papers. One of the following means of identification of that is
least reliance is…
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__A) Scars of the body
__B) Measurements of the body
__C) Tattoo marks on the body
__D) Fingerprints
705. The biggest disadvantage of “Portrait Parle” as an identification system is its…
__A) Intricacy and Complexity

__B) Impermanence
__C) Lack of communicability
__D) Lack of specificity
706. Which of the following would be the most important to have in undertaking a search for a person who
was been reported as missing?
__A) Personal habits

__B) Physical description
__C) Mental condition and attitude at the time of disappearance
__D) The previous criminal and critical history of the person
707. The most easily used and positive means of personal identification of criminal is…
__A) The Portrait Parle

__B) The fingerprints system
__C) Physical Stigma
__D) Anatomical description
708. The name that is commonly associated with a personal identification system, the basis for which is that
“no two individuals in the world are exactly the same size and that the human skeleton does not change
appreciably after 20th year, is..
__A) Bertillon __C) Galton

__B) Darwin __D) Mendel
QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS;
709. Is concerned with the examination of forged, altered, or suspected papers to see if they are genuine, or if
they have been changed in any way…
__A) Falsification of document

__B) Questioned Document Examination
__C) Forgery
__D) Estafa
710. May be committed in two ways; 1) by giving to a treasury or bank notes or any instrument payable to
bearer or two order, and the appearance of a genuine document; and 2) by erasing, substituting,
counterfeiting, or altering by any means, the figures, letters, words, or signs contained therein.

__B) Forgery
__C) Questioned Document Examination
__D) Estafa
711. May be committed by the following means; 1) counterfeiting or imitating any handwriting, signature or
rubrie; 2) causing it to appear that persons have participated in any act or proceeding when they did not in
fact so participated; 3) etc…nevertheless it applies to documents whether private, public, official or
commercial documents.

__B) Forgery
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__C) Questioned Document Examination
__D) Estafa
712. In addition to its use in developing secret writing, iodine fumes can be used to…
__A) Determine if erasures have been made on a document

__B) Determine the kind of papers used in writing
__C) Determine the kind of ink used in mixing
__D) Determine the personal character of the author
713. Of the following, the most reliable single, criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money is the…
__A) Color of the seal

__B) Quality of the engraving
__C) Wet strength of the paper
__D) Arrangement of the red and blue threads in the paper
714. In connection with the analysis of questioned documents, which of the following is least likely to be
successful?
__A) Establishment of the age of ink

__B) Determination of make and age of typewriter
__C) Restitution of erased or eradicated writing
__D) Identifying the peculiarity of an individual
715. What system of handwriting classification based on the following factors; forms, skill combination,
shading movement, slant, terminals and embellishment; has proved useful to police departments in large
cities…
__A) Sir Edward Richard Henry

__B) Rolando Wilson
__C) Lee and Abbey
__D) Landsteiner and Levine
716. Handwriting samples of the same writer may some what according to the conditions under which the
writing was done. In which of the following classes of writers are such variations in genuine writing likely to
occur?
__A) Men writers

__B) Practiced writers
__C) Women writers
__D) Semi-illiterate or unpracticed writers
717. In which of the following respects is aged handwriting most likely to differ from the genuine writing
which the forgery attempts to imitate?
__A) Over-all flow or running quality

__B) Average height and breadth of letters
__C) Starting finishing tails or extraneous flourishes
__D) Width of pen or pencil lines
718. A conditions of coin when it is made of metal, whether of inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of
the genuine coin and is given the appearance of one of legal tender…
__A) Mutilated Coin

__B) False or Counteract Coint
__C) Priceless Coin
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719. It is the act of diminishing, by ingenicas means, the metal in the coin to take advantage if the metal
abstracted; he appropriates a part of the metal of the coin, hence the coin diminishes in intrinsic value…
__A) Mutilation of coins

__B) Counterfeit or false coin
__C) Priceless coin
__D) None of the foregoing
720. In order to sustain a change for an offense under article 168 of the Revised Penal Code, the possession
of the false treasury and blank notes must be coupled with…
__A) The intention to keep it at home

__B) The intent to use the same
__C) Intent to surrender the same to proper authorities
721. Is any written statement by which a right established or an obligation extinguished, it is a Dee,
instrument or other duty authorized paper by which something is proved, evidenced or set fort…
__A) Document __C) Rubric

__B) Tablet __D) Contract
722. A classification of falsification, that for the act to be punished, it must be shown that some prejudice or
damage to a third party must have been caused or intended to be caused….
__A) Falsification of a private document

__B) Falsification of public document
__C) Falsification of official document
__D) Falsification of commercial document
723. A classification of falsification in which damage is immaterial for what is important is the violation of
public faith and the destruction of the truth, and the change must affect the integrity of the document…
__A) Falsification of commercial document

__B) Falsification of public document
__C) Falsification of official document
__D) Falsification of a private document
724. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public, or
of competent public official, by which some disposition or agreement is proved, evidence or set forth…
__A) Private document __C) Official document

__B) Public document __D) Commercial document
725. A kind of document in which public officials participated….
__A) Public document __C) Private document

__B) Official document __D) Commercial document
726. A kind of document `which is executed by person in authority a by private parties but notaries by
notaries public or by competent officials…
__A) Public document __C) Private document

__B) Official document __D) Commercial document
727. A kind of document which a recognized by the Code of Commerce and other Mercantile Laws.
__A) Private document __C) Public document

__B) Commercial document __D) Official document
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728. Is an exemplar that has been obtained from an official records, personal letter, or any other document
that is known to have been written, suspect when the suspect refuses to write an exemplar, when the suspect
is not available, or when the investigation is conducted without the knowledge of the suspect.
__A) Collected standard document

__B) Questioned document
__C) Simulated document
729. It is an instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a questioned document; its origin is
known and can be proven.
__A) Stimulated document __C) Forged document

__B) Standard document __D) Falsified document
730. This groups includes all papers on which it is alleged that some changes have been made fraudulent by
erasure, addition, or substitution, etc…
__A) Handwriting specimen

__B) comer signed
__C) Document on which the signature is questioned
__D) Document containing alleged fraudulent alteration
731. This group of document includes those papers which the entire writing is in question as spurious, forged
or counterfeit in its entirely fall into.
__A) Wills and testament

__B) Holographic documents questioned or disputed
__C) Stroke of handwriting
__D) None of the foregoing
732. Fraudulent tampering with a document often involves two kinds of erasures, namely;
__A) Mechanical and Chemical Erasures

__B) Electronic and Mechanical Erasures
__C) Electronic and Chemical Erasures
733. A kind of erasure through the use of a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking instrument.
__A) Chemical erasure __C) Electronic erasure

__B) Mechanical erasure __D) All of the foregoing
734. A kind of erasure by using an ink eradicator or blending agent.
__A) Chemical erasure __C) Electronic erasure

__B) Mechanical erasure __D) All of the foregoing
735. May be accomplished by the insertion of a word, phrase or sentence between two lines of the original
writing.
__A) Forgery
__B) Intercalation on a genuine document
__C) Substitution
__D) Insertion
FORENSIC BALLISTICS:
736. May be defined as the scientific examination of firearms shells, bullets allegedly used in the commission
of a crime.
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__A) Forensic Ballistics __C) Exterior Ballistics
__B) Interior Ballistics __D) All of the foregoing
737. May be defined as treats of the motion of projectiles while still in the barrel, namely; studies of
combustion of the powder, pressure developed, velocity, etc.
__A) Interior Ballistics __C) Forensic Ballistics

__B) Exterior Ballistics __D) All of the foregoing
738. Treats of the motion of projectiles after leaving the muzzle of the gun, namely; trajectory, velocity,
energy, range, penetration, etc…
__A) Interior Ballistics __C) Forensic Ballistics

__B) Exterior Ballistics __D) All of the foregoing
739. Their existence in firearms is brought about by the failure of a tool in the normal operation through
wear, abuse, mutilations, corrosion, erosion, and other fortuitous causes…
__A) Individual accidental characteristics

__B) Factory defect
__C) Individual intentional characteristics
__D) Precipitate
740. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to…
__A) Decrease the amount of recoil

__B) Prevent the bullet from turning end ever end in the air
__C) Increase the damage of the object by the bullet
741. Cameleer are valuable in firearms identification because they help the examiner except determine the.
__A) Manufacturer of the bullet

__B) Manufacturer of the weapon
__C) Identify the weapon that fired a particular bullet
__D) Type of gun that fired a particular bullet
742. For all intents and purposes, a barrel of any firearm is considered as.
__A) Part of a weapon __C) Nomenclature

__B) Complete firearm __D) All of the foregoing
743. When a revolver is fired a small portion of burned and unburned gunpowder is forced under great
pressure from the opening between the forward and the rear of the barrel. Such is frequently deposited on the
index finger of the back of the hand in which the gun is fired.
__A) Precipitate __C) Dirt

__B) Residue __D) Powder burn
744. A very accurate test by which an expert can determine the distance from a bullet at which the gun was
fired is called the.
__A) Abhamopthylamine Test

__B) Diphenylamine Test
__C) Photo-micrograph Test
__D) Strangulation process
745. The inch or rate of twist in the rifling of a pistol or rifle barrel is called.
__A) Drive __C) Land

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__B) Lead __D) Groove
746. Of the following, the most accurate statement concerning the identification of unknown firearm by
means of ballistics is that.
__A) Pistols with the same number of lands can be different by the direction of the lead
__B) Most pistols which have left lead have at least eight lands
__C) The width of the groove in a pistol can be determined by the angle of lead
__D) The angle of the lead is the angle which the land forms with the groove
747. A homicide has been committed with a shotgun. All parts of the exploded shell have been recovered by a
police officer who investigated the crime. In order to identify the shell with the gun that fired at the
laboratory should be given.
__A) The wadding

__B) The cap and the pellets
__C) The cap and the wads
__D) The cap, the wads and the pellets
748. The term” Double Action” with reference to a revolver, means most nearly that.
__A) The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell ejection
__B) Pulling the trigger cocks the hammer and presents a fresh cartridges for firing
__C) The shell of a fired shot is ejected and a fresh cartridges is pushed from the magazine at the
same time.
__D) The revolver has both safety and automatic firing action
749. That part of the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws the shell or cartridge is called.
__A) Extractor __C) Striker

__B) Ejector __D) Cylinder
750. A pistol that is to be tested and used in evidence should be picked up by.
__A) Grasping the barrel with a handkerchief

__B) Grasping the handle with a handkerchief
__C) Placing a pencil through the trigger guard
__D) Inserting a pencil in the barrel
751. When booking a fired bullet, it should be identified by a mark on.
__A) Its side __C) Its nose

__B) Its base __D) Its side and base
752. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a criminal.
__A) The shell in most cases will be found at the scene of the crime
__B) The empty shell remains within the chamber
__C) The shell is rarely if ever found at the scene of the crime
__D) The shell is usually disposed of by the criminal
753. The identification of a shell with the recover from which it has been fired may be recognized from the.
__A) Mark of the firing pin hole

__B) Mark of the firing pin hole and mark of the breechblock
__C) All of the a foremen timed
__D) None of the aforementioned
754. Of the following three most important problems that may arise in the investigations of crimes involving
the use of firearms, one is not included, and that is,
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__A) Motive, intent and opportunity
__B) Whether or not a person has fired a gun with his bare hands, within a pertinent period of
time
__C) The means of determining the probable gunshot range, that is the distance the firearm was held
from the body of the victim at the time of discharge.
__D) When the firing of the gun becomes an issue
755. Is A kind of wound that is inflicted when the muzzle of the gum is held against the body of the victim at
the time of discharge..
__A) Contact wound __C) Physical injury

__B) Fatal wound __D) All of the foregoing
756. Is produced when the gun is held from about two inches to a maximum of eight inches.
__A) Tattooing __C) Contact wound

__B) Smudging __D) Fatal wound
757. The area of blackening around the perforation will be found to diminish in size at the muzzle of the gun
is held further and at a distance of eight inches all the blackening around the hole will completely disappear.
__A) Smudging __C) Residue

__B) Power tattooing __D) Fatal wound
758. In the identification of firearms, in most cases it is necessary to supplement the serial number with.
__A) Frame number C) Barrel length

__B) Make and model number __D) Caliber
759. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a shell by the.
__A) Extractor __C) Hammer

__B) Ejector __D) Firing pin
POLYGRAPHY OR LIE DETECTION

760. It is an essential requirement for the administration of criminal justice.
__A) Evidence __C) Proof

__B) Knowledge of the truth __D) Firing Corpus Delicti
761. It is a scientific police method in the detection of crime, therefore, not a part of criminalities, but rather a
kind of instrumentation in the detection of crime.
__A) Photography __C) Chemistry

__B) Polygraph or lie detection __D) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
762. One who is capable of being able to detect deception or verify truth of statement through
instrumentation or the use of mechanical device.
__A) Polygraph examiner __C) Detective

__B) Interrogator __D) Medico-legal officer
763. Which one of the following is not included in the limitations of the Polygraph?
__A) It is admissible evidence in the court of justice

__B) It is an invaluable investigative aid, but never a substitute for an investigation
__C) It is not a lie detector, it is a scientific diagnostic instrument
__D) It does not determine fact, it records responses to that which the subject knows to be true, and
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__E) It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent
764. Of the three (3) devices which second the psycho-physiological response, one of the following is not
included.
__A) Use of polygraph or a lie detector machine

__B) Use of the Word Association Test (WAT)
__C) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluator(PSE)
__D) Use of the Water Therapy
765. Which one of the following is not included in the four(4) phases in the conduct of a Polygraph or lie
detector test?
__A) Psychological threat upon the subject or person to be examined

__B) Initial interview with the investigator or person requesting the examination
__C) Pre-test with the person to be examined
__D) Conduct of the instrumental test with the asking of a prepared list of questions previously
reviewed with subject
__E) Post-test interview with the person examined
766. Which one of the following is not a required qualification and quality expected of a polygraph
examiner?
__A) A graduate of Bachelor of Laws (LL.B). Criminology or Psychology

__B) Technical Know How (TKH)
__C) Moral and honesty
767. It is one where before the actual testing is done, the examiner must first make an informal interview of
the subject which may last form 20 to 30 minutes.
__A) Pre-test interview

__B) Actual interrogation and interview and recording of the proceedings
__C) Post-test interrogation
768. These are questions which have no bearing to the case under investigation.
__A) Control __C) Relevant

__B) Irrelevant __D) Supplementary
769. These are questions per mining to the issue under investigation.

770. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar nature
although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation.

771. A kind of test that may be performed and incorporated as a part of the standard tests described above,
depending upon the result of the standard test in order to draw a better conclusion.

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772. This test may be given if the subject is not yet informed of the details of the offense for which be is
being interrogated by the investigator, or by other persons or from other sources like print media.
__A) Silent answer __C) Guilt complex

__B) Peak-of-tension __D) Narrative
773. This test is applied when the response to relevant and control questions are similar in degree and
consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot determine whether the subject is telling the truth or not.

774. This test is conducted in the same manner as relevant, irrelevant and control questions are asked, but the
subject is instructed to answer the questions silently, to himself, without making any verbal response.

775. In this kind of test a list of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who is instructed to
answer as quickly as possible. The answer to the questions may be “yes” or “no”. this test is not concerned
was the answer. It is “yes” or “no”. the important is the time of response in relation to delay the answer.
__A) Use of the Word Association Test(WAT)

__B) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluation (PSE)
__C) Use of a serum
__D) Use of a Water Therapy
__E) Confession
776. This kind of test detects, measures and graphically displays the voice modulation that we cannot hear.
Such as when a person is relaxed and responding honesty to the questions, those in iodine frequencies are
registered clearly on the instrument. But when a person is under stress as when he is lying these frequencies
tend to disappear.
__A) Use of the Word Association Test(WAT)

__B) Use of the Psychological Stress Evaluation (PSE)
__C) Use of a serum
__D) Use of a Water Therapy
__E) Confession
777. In this kind of test the hyoscire hydrobomite drug is given polemically in repeated doses until a state of
delirium is induced. When the proper point is reached, the questioning begins and the subject feels a
compulsion to answer the questions truthfully.
__A) Hypnotism
__B) Administration of Truth Serum
__C) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis
__D) Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverage
778. In this kind of test psychiatric sodium pentothal is administered to the subject. When the effects appear,
questioning of the mechanism of the brain and the subject induces to talk freely.
__A) Administration of Truth Serum

__B) Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis
__C) Hypnotism
779. This test which has the apparent stimulations, is really the result of the control mechanism of the brain.
The ability of this kind of test to reveal the real person behind the mask which all of us are said to wear
“mask” of sanity, is reflected in the age-old maxim. “in Vino Veltas” which means. “In Wine There is Truth”
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__C) Hypnotism
780. It is the alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject manifests a heightened of
suggestibility while awareness is maintained.

__C) Hypnotism
781. This Chart Interpretation changes the individual norm which may be considered indicative of deception.
__A) Galvanograph Tracing

__B) Pneumograph
__C) Cardiosphygmograph
782. This is normally located at the center portion of the Chart, when properly balanced, it takes the form of
slightly wavering line across the middle portion of the Chart with a minor response to spoken stimulu.

__B) Pneumograph
783. This takes the form of specific responses indicative of deception, such as, increase or decrease of blood
pressure, increase or decrease of pulse beat, etc..

__B) Pneumograph
LEGAL MEDICINE
(116 question)
784. It is a branch of medicine, which deals with the application of medical knowledge to the purpose of law
in the administration of justice.
__A) Legal Medicine __C) Medical Jurisprudence

__B) Forensic Medicine __D) All of the above
785. It concerns with the application of medical science to elucidate legal problems.

786. It denotes knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine.
__A) Legal Medicine _C) Medical Jurisprudence

787. They are synonymous and in common practice are used interchangeably.
104
788. The nature of the study or knowledge of legal medicine means;
__A) The ability to acquire facts

__B) The power to arrange those facts in their logical order
__C) The draw a conclusion from the facts which may be useful in the administration of justice
789. A physician who specified or is involved primarily with medico-legal duties is known as medical Jurist ,
or…
__A) Medical Examiner __C) Medico-Legal Office

__B) Medico-Legal Expert __D) All of the above
790. He was the earliest recorded medico-legal expert, the chief physician, the architect of King Zoser of the
Third Dynasty in Egypt and the builder of the first pyramid.
__A) Imhotep (2980 BC) __C) San Juan De Bautista

__B) Paulus Zacchias (1582-1659) __D) Antistius
791. The first ever known “police surgeon” or forensic pathologist, who performed the autopsy of Julius
Caesar (100-44 BC). Who was murdered and whose body was exposed in the forum. He found out that Julius
Caesar suffered from 23 wounds and only one penetrated the chest cavity through the space between the first
and second ribs.

__B) Paulus Zacchias (1582-1659) __D) Antistius
792. A Papal Physician, who was regarded as the father of forensic medicine. He published a book on
Questions Medico-Legales which death with the legal aspects of wounds and the first two-chapter death with
the detection of secret medicine.

__B) Paulus Zacchias (1582-1659) D) Antistius
793. The first chief of the medico-legal section when Commonwealth Act. No. 181 was enacted on
December 10, 1937, creating the Division of Investigation under the Department of Justice.
__A) Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin __C) Dr. Pedro P. Solis

__B) Dr. Sixto de los Angles __D) Dr. Enrique V. de Los Santos
794. The first chief of the Medico-legal division when republic act no. 157 was enacted, creating the Bureau
of Investigation on June 28,1945.
__A) Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin __C) Dr. Pedro P. Solis

__B) Dr. Sixto de los Angles __D) Dr. Enrique V. de Los Santos
795. Which means that the greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons
compared, the greater is the probability for the conclusion to be correct.
__A) Conclusion Evidence

__C) Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification
__B) Prima Facie
__D) Real Evidence
796. This refers to a verbal, accurate and picturesque description of the person identified, that is, when the
investigator does not have a picture of the wanted or missing person.
105
__A) Rogues Gallery __C) Tracing Evidence
__B) Portrait Parle __D) Identification Card
797. A Presidential Decree of President Ferdinand E. Marcos requiring practitioners of Dentistry to keep
records of their parents as one necessary means or factor in solving crimes and settling disputes over claims
of damages, insurance and inheritance.
__A) Presidential Decree No. 1612, March 1979

__B) Presidential Decree No. 1575, June 11, 1978
__C) Presidential Decree No. 968, August 1975
__D) Presidential Decree No. 1866, June 29,1983
798. A study which resorted to after all the external identification of a dead body, and soft tissues have
already disappeared.
__A) Personal Identification

__B) Study of Bones or Identification of skeleton
__C) Study of Dead Body
799. This test is to determine whether the blood is of human origin or not.
__A) Benzidine Test

__B) Precipitin Test
__C) Luecomalachite Test
800. Differential characteristics of blood from different sources,in effect, Arterial Blood has:
__A) Bright scarlet in color

__B) Leaves the blood vessel with the pressure
__C) High oxygen contents
801. Venous Blood has:
__A) Dark red color __C) Low oxygen content

__B) Does not spill far from the wound __D) All of the above
802. When blood is exposed to the atmosphere or some other influence, its hemoglobin is converted into
meth-hemoglobin or hematin. Thus, the color changes from:
__A) Red to reddish-brown

__B) Red to clay color
__C) Red to chocolate color
803. Menstrual Blood…
__A) Has acidic reaction owing to mixture with vaginal amorous

__B) Does not clot
__C) On microscopic examination there are vaginal epithelial cells
__D) Contains large number of deodorlein’s bacillus
804. This means that the bulb of the hair is irregular in form due to rupture of the health and shows an
undulating surface, together with excrescencies of different shapes and sizes.
__A) That the hair has been extracted forcibly
106
__B) It means that the hair which has a rounded extremity, smooth surface, and most probably show
signs of atrophic or fatty degeneration, especially in an orderly person
__C) Conditions of hair of a dead person
805. A naturally shed bulb hair means…
__A) That the hair has been extracted forcibly

__B) It means that the hair which has a rounded extremity, smooth surface, and most probably
show signs of atrophic or fatty degeneration, especially in an orderly person
__C) Conditions of hair of a dead person
806. Hairs on body surface are…
__A) Very thick

__B) Fine
__C) Tapering gradually to fine point
807. Hairs from the beard, mustache and scalp are.
__A) Very thick __C) Tapering gradually to fine point

__B) Fine __D) All of the above
808. Human’s hair grows…
__A) One (1) inch a month

__B) 0.4 millimeter a day
__C) 2.5 centimeters a month
809. Human’s beard hair grows…
__A) One (1) inch a month

__B) 0.4 millimeter a day
__C) 2.5 centimeters a month
810. It is a complete cessation of all the vital function without the possibility of resuscitation; it is an
irreversible loss of the properties of living matter.
__A) Death
__B) Coma
__C) Suspended animation
811. It could be mistaken for death following administration of excessive doses of modern sedatives and
hypnotic it clinically appears to have eliminated breathing and heart action, chill the body and makes reflexes
wear or totally non-existent.
__A) Death
__B) Coma
812. Previously complete and persistent cessation and respiration (cardio-respiratory) is the standard criteria
in the determination of death.
__A) True
107
__B) Somewhat true
__C) False
__D) Somewhat false
813. A person will be considered medically and legally dead if…
__A) In the opinion of a physician, based on ordinary standards of medical practice, there is the absence
of spontaneous respiratory and cardiac function and, because of the disease or condition which caused,
directly or indirectly, these functions to
814. It is to be announced before artificial means of supporting respiratory and circulatory function are
terminated and before any vital organ is removed for purposes of transplantation.
__A) Coma
__B) Death
815. This condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of
the vital functions of the body on account of diseases, external stimulus or other forms of influence. It may
arise especially in hysteria, uremia, catalepsy and electrical shock.
__A) Coma
__B) Death
__D) Algor Mortis
816. This means that after death, the metabolic process inside the body cases. No more heat is produced but
the body loses slowly its temperature by evaporation or by conduction to the surrounding atmosphere.
__A) Coma
__B) Death
__D) Algor Mortis
817. It is the rise temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or scene
internal changes; it is usually observed in the first two hours after death.
__A) Post-mortem Caloricity

__B) Algor Mortis
__C) Rigor Mortis
__D) Cadaver spasm or instantaneous rigor
818. This is principally due to the fact the last voluntary contraction of muscle during life does not stop after
death but is continuous with the set of such rigidity
__A) Rigor Mortis

__B) Cadaver spasm or instantaneous rigor
__C) Putrefaction
819. In warm countries like the Philippines, rigor mortis sets in how many hours?
__A) 3 to 6 hours
__B) 5 to 8 hours
__C) 6 to 8 hours
__D) Average time is 24 to 48 hours
821. In the Philippine like other tropical countries, decomposition is early and the acerage time is
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__A) 6 to 8 hours after death
__B) 8 to 12 hours after death
__C) 24 to 48 hours after death
__D) All of the above after death
822. Their presence in the cadaver are useful to proximate the time of the death; that the usual time for their
eggs to be hatched into larva is 24 hours, so that by the mere fact that there are maggots in the cadaver, one
can conclude that the death has occurred more than 24 hours.
__A) Butterflies
__B) Files
__C) Earthworms
__D) Bees
823. This comprehensive study of a dead body, performed by a trained physician employing recognized
dissection procedure and techniques.
__A) Embalming
__B) Autopsy
__C) Medical operation
__D) Post mortem examination
824. This refers to an external examination of a dead body fluids may be collected for examination.
__A) Embalming
__B) Autopsy
__C) Medical operation
__D) Post mortem examination
825. This is done on a human body with the consent of the deceased person’s
__A) Medico-legal or Official Autopsy

__B) Hospital or Non-official Autopsy
__C) Embalming
826. The above mentioned kind of autopsy is done for purposes of
__A) Determining the cause of death;

__B) Providing correlation clinical diagnosis and clinical symptoms;
__C) Determining the defectiveness of therapy;
__D) Studying the natural course of disease process; and educating students and Physicians
827. This is an examination performed on a dead body for purposes of determining the cause, manner
(mode), and time of death; recovering identifying, and preserving evidentiary material; providing
interpretation and correlation of facts and circumstances related to death; providing a factual, objective
medical report for law enforcement prosecution and defense agencies; and separating death due to disease
from death due to external cause for protection on the innocent.
__A) Medico-legal or Official Autopsy

__B) Hospital or Non-official Autopsy
__C) Embalming
828. In the injury, disease or the combination of both injury and disease responsible for initiating the trend or
physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which produce the fatal termination.
109
829. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kills quickly that there is no opportunity for squealed or
complications to develop. An example is extensive brain laceration.
__A) Immediate or Primary Cause of death

__B) The proximate or Secondary Cause of Death
__C) The Mechanism of death
__D) Cardio respiratory arrest
__E) Manner of death
830. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently prolonged interval, which permitted the
development of serious squealed, which actually caused the death. An example is the stab wound in the
abdomen late, cause generalized peritonitis.
__A) Immediate or Primary Cause of death

__B) The proximate or Secondary Cause of death
__C) The Mechanism of death
__D) Cardio-respiratory arrest
__E) Manner of death
831. It is the physiologic derangement or bio-chemical disturbance incompatible with life which is initiated
by the cause of death. Examples are hemorrhage shock, metabolic disturbance, etc.
__A) Cardio-respiratory arrest

__B) The Mechanism of death
__C) Manner of death
__D) Use of the term “probably”
__E) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
832. It is a terminal mechanism of most causes of death and can never stand independently as a reasonable
explanation for the fatality. Examples are hemorrhage, skull fracture, etc.
__A) Cardio-respiratory arrest

__B) The Mechanism of death
__C) Manner of death
__D) Use of the term “probably”
__E) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
833. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death came into being or how the cause of death arose.
__A) Manner of death

__B) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
__C) Use of the term “probably”
__D) Medico-Legal Masquerade
__E) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death)
834. It is a term when violent deaths may be accompanied by minimal or no external evidence of injury or
natural death where signs of violence may be present. Such that in case of homicide, the medical findings
may tend to favor suicide or accidental death, and vice versa.
__A) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death)

__B) Medico-Legal Masquerade
__D) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
__E) Euthanasia
835. Such a term must be discouraged as a qualification to a cause of death, in as much as it is not definite.
__B) Medico-Legal Masquerade

110
__D) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death (SUND)
__E) Euthanasia
836. This is the unexpected death or infants, usually under six months of age while in apparently good health.
__A) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (Crib Death)

__B) Sudden Unexplained Nocturnal Death(SUND)
__C) Euthanasia
__D) Automatism
__E) Starvation or inanition
837. It is the dehydration of the whole body, which results in the shivering, and preservation of the body; it is
observed in warm countries where evaporation of body fluid takes place earlier and faster than
decomposition.
__A) Starvation or inanition

__B) Mummification
__C) Euthanasia
__D) Automatism
__E) Within 48 hours after death
838. It is the deprivation of a regular and constant supply of food and water which is necessary to normal
health of a person.
__A) Starvation or inanition

__B) Mummification
__C) Automatism
__D) Within 48 hours after death
__E) Embalming
839. It is the artificial way of preserving the body after death by injecting 6 to 8 quarts of antiseptic solution
or formalin, per chloride of mercury or arsenic, which is carried into the common chloride and the femoral
arteries.
__A) Within 48 hours after death

__B) Within 24 hours after death
__C) Embalming
__D) When the person died of communicable disease
__E) Starvation or inanition
840. Within how many hours under Section 1092, of the Revised Administrative Code, when a dead body of
a person be buried?
__A) Within 48 hours after death

__B) Within 24 hours after death
__C) Within 72 hours after death
__D) Within 3 days after death
__E) Any of the above
841. Exception or exceptions provided for by said law when a dead body may not be buried within the
prescribed hours to be buried.
__A) When it stills a subject matter of legal investigation

__B) When it is specifically authorized by the local health authorities that the body may be buried more
than the hours prescribed
__C) Impliedly when the body is embalmed
__D) Any of the above
842. If the person died of communicable disease, the body must be buried…
111
__A) Within 12 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise
__B) Within 6 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise
__C) Within 3 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise
__D) Within 48 hours unless the local health officer permits otherwise
843. The depth of the grave prescribed under Section 1106. registered administrative Code, as amended by
Presidential Decree No. 856 Section 91. code of sanitation is:
__A) At least 1- ½ meters deep and filled well and firmly

__B) At least 2 meters deep
__C) At least 2-1/2 meters deep filled well and firmly
844. Is the pulverization of the body into ashes by the application of heat.
__A) Cremation
__B) Burning to ground
__C) Pounding
__D) Charred
__E) Exhumation
845. This means that the diseased buried may be missed or disinterred upon the lawful order of the
proper authorities. The order may come from the provincial or city fiscal, from the courts, and
from any entity vested with authority to investigate.
__A) Cremation
__B) Burning to ground
__C) Pounding
__D) Charred
__E) Exhumation
846. It is based on the mass and velocity factors and that the velocity is squared, the velocity
component is the important factor. This explains why an M-16 bullet that has a speed of 3,200 feet
per second will do more damage than a 0.38 Caliber bullet, which is heavier but has a much
slower velocity.
__A) Area of Transfer

__B) Kinetic Energy
__C) Vital reaction
__D) Time
847. This means that the shutter the period of time needed for the transfer of energy, the greater the
likelihood of producing damage. Thus, if a person is hit on the body and the body moves towards
the direction of the force applied, the injury is less as when the body is stationary.
__A) Time
__B) Area of transfer
__C) Kinetic energy
__D) Vital reaction
848. This means that the larger the areas of contact between the force applied on the body, the lesser is
the damage to the body. By applying an equal force, the damage cause by stabbing is greater
compared to a blunt instrument.
__A) Vital reaction

__B) Area of transfer
__C) Kinetic energy
112
__D) Time
849. A wound which is the result of a person’s instinctive reaction of self-protection, or injuries
suffered by a person to avoid or repel potential injury contemplated by the aggression.
__A) Self-inflicted Wound

__B) Defense Wound
__C) Patterned Wound
__D) Mutilation
850. Wound in the nature and shape of an object or instrument and which refers the object or
instrument causing it.

__B) Defense Wound
__D) Mutilation
851. It is a wound produced on oneself, who has no intention to end his life.

__B) Defense Wound
__D) Mutilation
852. A kind of wound when there is no breach continuity of the skin or mucus or membrane.
__A) Open Wound

__B) Close Wound
__C) Confusion
__D) Hematoma
853. This is a circumscribed extravasations of blood in the subcutaneous tissue or underneath the
mucus membrane.
__A) Close Wound

__B) Open Wound
__C) Contusion
__D) Hematoma
854. It is the effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin on account of the rupture of the blood
vessels as a result of the application of blunt force or violence.
__A) Hematoma
__B) Contusion
__C) Abrasion
__D) Incised Wound
855. It is the extravasations or effusion of blood in a newly formed cavity underneath the skin.
__A) Hematoma
__B) Abrasion
__C) Incised wound
__D) Stab wound
856. It is an injury characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin caused by
a rub or friction against a hard rough surface.
__A) Stab Wound

113
__B) Incised wound
__C) Abrasion
__D) Punctured wound
857. This is produced by a sharp-edged or sharp-linear edge of the instrument, a knife, razor, bolo,
edge of oyster shell, metal sheet,glass,etc.
__A) Stab wound

__B) Incised wound
__C) Punctured wound
__D) Laceration wound
858. This wound is produced by the penetration of a sharp-pointed and sharp edge instrument, like
knife, saber, dagger, and scissors.
__A) Laceration wound

__B) Punctured wound
__C) Stab wound
__D) Shock
859. This wound is the result of a thrust of a sharp pointed instrument.
__A) Punctured wound

__B) Shock
__C) Stab wound
__D) Laceration wound
860. This wound is a tear of the skin and the underlying tissues due to forcible contact with a blunt
instrument.
__A) Laceration wound

__B) Stab wound
__C) Shock
__D) Hemorrhage
861. It is the extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation brought about wounds in cardio-
vascular system.
__A) Hemorrhage
__B) Shock
__C) Infection
__D) Embolism
862. It is the disturbance of fluid balance resulting to peripheral deficiency which is manifested by the
decreased volume of blood, reduced volume of flow, hem concentration, and renal deficiency.
__A) Shock
__B) Hemorrhage
__C) Infection
__D) Embolism
863. It is the appearance, growth and development of micro-organism at the of injury.
__A) Infection
__B) Embolism
__C) Hemorrhage
114
864. This a condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream causing block to the
blood from in the finer arthritics and capillaries.
__A) Embolism
__B) Infection
__C) Hemorrhage
865. This kind of explosion occurs when the pressure inside a container exceeds its structurural
strength. Examples are explosion of air pressure, water pressure tacks, kerosene burrier,etc.
__A) Mechanical(hydraulic) explosion

__B) Atomic explosion
__C) Chemical explosion
__D) Electrical explosion
866. This explosion occurs when a chemical reaction producers heat and gas at a rate faster than the
surrounding can dissipate.
__A) Chemical explosion

__B) Mechanical(hydraulic) explosion
__C) Electrical explosion
__D) Nuclear explosion
867. The release of a significant amount of energy by fusion or fission and consequently with a
significant increase of destructiveness.
__A) Nuclear explosion

__B) Mechanical(hydraulic) explosion
__C) Chemical explosion
__D) Electrical explosion
868. In sadistic, the wounding power of a bullet, which, therefore, play a very important role is due to.
__A) Bullet efficiency

__B) Mass (weight)and its velocity
__C) Ballistics coefficient
__D) Flame
869. Which means that the cartridge powder can be burned in approximately 0.0001 second; that the
conversion rate by combustion of the gunpowder to bullet energy is about 30 to 32 percent.
__A) Bullet efficiency

__B) Mass (weight)and its velocity
__C) Ballistics coefficient
__D) Flame
870. This describes the ability of a bullet to maintain its velocity against air resistance.
__A) Flame
__B) Ballistics coefficient
__C) Bullet efficiency
__D) Obscuration
__E) Mass (weight)and its velocity
871. This is the sealing or prevention of gunpowder gas after explosion from escaping so as to
maintain pressure in the firing chamber thereby increasing the propulsive powder on the bullet.
___ A) Mass (weight) and its Velocity

___B) Obturation
115
___C) Bullet Efficiency
___D) Ballistic Coefficient
___E) Flame
116
ANSWER KEY
A. CRIMINOLOGY
1. B 48. A
2. A 49. A
3. A 50. A
4. A 51. B
5. A 52. C
6. A 53. A
7. B 54. B
8. B 55. C
9. B 56. A
10. B 57. B
11. B 58. C
12. A 59. C
13. B 60. A
14. A 61. B
15. B 62. A
16. C 63. B
17. A 64. A
18. C 65. C
19. B 66. A
20. A 67. B
21. B 68. A
22. B 69. C
23. B 70. A
24. A 71. D
25. A 72. A
26. B 73. A
27. A 74. B
28. B 75. C
29. A 76. A
30. A 77. B
31. B 78. B
32. B 79. A
33. A 80. B
34. C 81. A
35. B 82. C
36. A 83. A
37. B 84. B
38. B 85. A
39. C 86. B
40. B 87. A
41. A 88. B
42. A 89. C
43. B
44. A
45. B
46. C
47. B
B. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 6975
117
90. B 139. C
91. A 140. D
92. D 141. B
93. A 142. A
94. A 143. A
95. A 144. B
96. B 145. A
97. A
98. B
99. A
100. B
101. A
102. A
103. C
104. A
105. A
106. E
107. B
108. A
109. B
110. A
111. A
112. A
113. B
114. C
115. D
116. A
117. B
118. A
119. D
120. A
121. B
122. A
123. B
124. D
125. D
126. B
127. A
128. B
129. E
130. A
131. B
132. A
133. B
134. A
135. A
136. A
137. B
138. A
C. CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
148. *
146. * 149. *
147. * 150. *
118
151. * 179. B
152. * 180. C
153. * 181. A
154. * 182. A
155. * 183. B
156. * 184. C
157. * 185. D
158. C 186. E
159. B 187. A
160. B 188. D
161. C 189. A
162. C 190. B
163. D 191. C
164. A 192. D
165. A 193. A
166. B 194. D
167. A 195. A
168. B 196. C
169. C 197. B
170. A 198. A
171. B 199. B
172. B 200. A
173. A 201. B
174. B 202. A
175. B 203. B
176. A
177. B
178. C
D. CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
224. B
204. * 225. B
205. * 226. A
206. * 227. B
207. * 228. A
208. * 229. B
209. * 230. C
210. * 231. A
211. * 232. B
212. B 233. A
213. C 234. B
214. A 235. A
215. A 236. A
216. B 237. C
217. A 238. A
218. B 239. E
219. A 240. A
220. A
221. B
222. B
223. A
E. FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION
243. B
241. A 244. A
242. B 245. B
119
246. C 271. A
247. A 272. B
248. B 273. A
249. B 274. D
250. A 275. A
251. * 276. B
252. D 277. C
253. B 278. C
254. A 279. A
255. B 280. B
256. A 281. A
257. B 282. B
258. A 283. E
259. B 284. A
260. A 285. C
261. B 286. D
262. B 287. D
263. A 288. A
264. B 289. B
265. A 290. C
266. D 291. A
267. A 292. B
268. B 293. C
269. A 294. D
270. B
F. POLICE ORGANIZATION
322. A
295. E 323. A
296. D 324. B
297. C 325. C
298. B 326. C
299. B 327. A
300. A 328. B
301. B 329. D
302. C 330. A
303. B 331. B
304. B 332. A
305. C 333. B
306. C 334. B
307. A 335. A
308. B 336. B
309. B 337. A
310. A 338. B
311. B 339. A
312. B 340. B
313. C 341. C
314. B 342. A
315. A 343. A
316. D 344. A
317. A 345. B
318. D 346. A
319. D 347. B
320. A 348. B
321. C 349. B
120
350. A 372. A
351. B 373. B
352. A 374. A
353. B 375. B
354. C 376. A
355. A 377. A
356. C 378. B
357. C 379. A
358. A 380. C
359. B 381. B
360. A 382. A
361. D 383. B
362. A 384. B
363. C 385. A
364. B 386. B
365. A 387. A
366. B 388. C
367. A 389. A
368. B
369. A
370. B
371. B
G. CODE OF ETHICS AND PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT

419. A
390. A 420. C
391. A 421. C
392. C 422. A
393. B 423. B
394. C 424. C
395. B 425. A
396. C 426. B
397. B 427. A
398. A 428. A
399. B 429. C
400. A 430. C
401. B 431. A
402. B 432. A
403. A 433. A
404. B 434. B
405. A 435. A
406. B 436. A
407. B 437. A
408. A 438. A
409. B 439. A
410. A 440. A
411. A 441. B
412. B 442. B
413. B 443. C
414. A 444. B
415. B 445. A
416. A 446. B
417. C
418. B
121
H. CANON OF ETHICS FOR REGISTERED CRIMINOLOGIST
447. B
448. A
449. E
450. D
451. C
452. B
453. A
454. B
455. D
I. POLICE SUPERVISION
468. B
456. * 469. A
457. * 470. A
458. * 471. B
459. * 472. C
460. * 473. A
461. A 474. B
462. B 475. B
463. A 476. B
464. C 477. A
465. B 478. A
466. A
467. A
J. CRISIS MANAGEMENT AND DECION MAKING

490. A
479. * 491. B
480. * 492. A
481. * 493. B
482. * 494. A
483. * 495. A
484. B 496. B
485. A 497. A
486. A 498. B
487. A 499. A
488. A
489. B
K. POLICE ADMINISTRATION
508. *
509. *
510. C
500. * 511. B
501. * 512. A
502. * 513. B
503. * 514. A
504. * 515. B
505. * 516. C
506. * 517. C
507. * 518. B
122
519. B 535. A
520. A 536. B
521. B 537. A
522. A 538. B
523. B 539. C
524. A 540. C
525. A 541. C
526. B 542. C
527. B 543. D
528. A 544. A
529. D 545. A
530. A 546. A
531. A 547. D
532. A
533. B
534. A
L. POLICE INTELLIGENCE
557. A
548. * 558. B
549. * 559. A
550. * 560. A
551. * 561. B
552. * 562. B
553. * 563. B
554. * 564. A
555. *
556. B
M. PLANS AND OPERATION

583. B
565. B 584. B
566. A 585. A
567. B 586. B
568. A 587. A
569. A 588. B
570. B 589. B
571. A 590. B
572. B 591. A
573. A 592. B
574. B 593. A
575. A 594. C
576. B 595. A
577. A 596. B
578. B 597. C
579. B 598. C
580. B 599. B
581. B
582. A
N. LAW ENFORCEMENT AND CRIME

603. B
600. A 604. C
601. C 605. A
602. B 606. B
123
607. A 613. B
608. B 614. B
609. A 615. B
610. B 616. B
611. A 617. A
612. A
O. TRAFFIC AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION

635. B
618. B 636. A
619. A 637. A
620. B 638. B
621. C 639. C
622. B 640. B
623. A 641. B
624. A 642. C
625. B 643. A
626. C 644. B
627. B 645. B
628. B 646. A
629. A 647. B
630. B 648. B
631. A 649. A
632. A 650. B
633. B
634. A
P. CRIMINALISTICS
a. Forensic Chemistry
651. B 661. A
652. C 662. B
653. B 663. A
654. B 664. B
655. B 665. C
656. B 666. A
657. A 667. *
658. B 668. *
659. A 669. *
660. A 670. *
b. Personal Identification
671. A 677. *
672. B 678. *
673. * 679. *
674. * 680. *
675. * 681. *
676. * 682. *
124
683. * 696. B
684. * 697. C
685. * 698. B
686. * 699. A
687. A 700. B
688. B 701. A
689. B 702. A
690. A 703. A
691. B 704. B
692. A 705. A
693. B 706. B
694. B 707. B
695. A 708. A
c. Questioned Documents
709. B
710. B
711. A
712. A
713. B
714. A
715. C
716. B
717. A
718. B
719. A
720. B
721. A
722. A
723. B
724. A
725. B
726. A
727. B
728. A
729. B
730. C
731. B
732. A
733. B
734. A
735. B
d. Forensic Ballistics
736. A
737. A
738. B
739. A
740. B
741. A
742. B
743. B
744. A
125
745. B
746. A
747. A
748. B
749. A
750. C
751. B
752. A
753. C
754. B
755. A
756. B
757. B
758. B
759. C
760. C
760.
126

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SALFC BOARD EXAMINATION FOR CRIMINOLOGIST REVIEWER

1. May be defined as a study and investigation of crime and criminals and

3. A disease associated with prenatal thyroid deficiency and subsequent thyroid

4. A reported instance of a crime recorded in a systematic classification.

5. A clash between societies because of contrary, beliefs or substantial variances

7. In medical jurisprudence, a false belief about the self, caused by morbidity,

8. A noncriminal person who commits a crime when under extreme emotional

9. a morbid propensity to love or make love; incontrollable sexual desire, or

10. as reposed to introvert, a person highly adapted to living in and deriving

12. In medical jurisprudence; an apparent perception without any corresponding

13. It may be a transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits; tendency to

15. an individual with strongly self-centered patterns of emotion fantasy, and

16. An uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal, or pathological stealing. The

19. a mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and depression of

22. this is a term applied to a specialist in a study of mental disorders; sometimes

23. It is a science devoted to the study of mankind and its development in

24. it is a morbid fear of one’s self or of being alone.

25. In criminology, a measuring or calculating of the probable duration of human

a. Dr. Cesare Lombroso

a. England, during the last half of the 19th century

36. An American authority in Criminology who in his book of principles of

37. A Criminologist, who in his book “The Scienctific Adequaty of Criminology

a. Prussian Law of 1784

42. An author in criminology, who advocated the theory that “feeblemindedness

a. Socialist School of Criminology

44. School of criminology which interpreted crime as function of social environment

a. Socialist School of Criminology

__A) Social psychological

__A) Kalikak’s family __C) Zeros family

__A) Jonathan Edwards family __C) Jukes family

__A) Social psychological

__A) Cultural conflict __C) Rural-Urban distribution

__A) Gang __C) Rural criminality

__A) Gang __C) Rural criminality

__A) Gang __C) Rural criminality

__A) Gang __C) Rural criminality

__A) Broken home __C) Home discipline

__A) Criminality in the home __C) Broken home

__A) Church __C) Government

__A) Economic approach

__A) Economic approach

__A) The school __C) The government

__A) Social institutions and crime

__A) Competitive development of techniques of crime and of the protection

__A) Organizations of criminals __D) Gang

__A) Organizations of criminals __C) Professionalization

__A) Organizations of criminals __C) Professionalization

__A) Behavior systems in crime __C) Professional crimes

__A) it is an integrated unit or essence of spirit de corp.

__A) David W. Maurer __C) John Edgar Hoover

__A) Classical school __C) Positive school

__A) Classical school __C) Positive school

__A) By becoming a slave of the offended party

__A) Burning and boiling in oil

__A) Prussia __C) China

__A) Romily __C) Hitler

__A) Romily __C) Argentina

81.What nation who pioneered banishment as a form of punishment?

__A) Ancient Rome __C) England

__A) Ancient Rome __C) England

__A) Transportation __C) Penal colony

__A) Killing a Christian child

A) Kalikak’s family C) Zeros family

A) Jonathan Edwards family C) Jukes family

A) Cultural conflict C) Rural-Urban distribution

A) Gang C) Rural criminality

A) Gang C) Rural criminality

A) Gang C) Rural criminality

A) Gang C) Rural criminality

A) Broken home C) Home discipline

A) Criminality in the home C) Broken home

A) Church C) Government

A) The school C) The government

A) Organizations of criminals D) Gang

A) Organizations of criminals C) Professionalization

A) Organizations of criminals C) Professionalization

A) Behavior systems in crime C) Professional crimes

A) David W. Maurer C) John Edgar Hoover

A) Classical school C) Positive school

A) Classical school C) Positive school

A) Prussia C) China

A) Romily C) Hitler

A) Romily C) Argentina

A) Ancient Rome C) England

A) Ancient Rome C) England

A) Transportation C) Penal colony

A) August Vollmer B) Peter Rentzel

A) John Howard B) Peter Rentzel

A) Bonneville de Marsangy C) john howard

A) Code of Kalantiao C) Hammarabi’s Code

A) R.A No. 6975 C) R.A No. 4864

A) R.A No. 6975 C) R.A No. 4864

A) RA No. 6975 C) RA No. 4864

A) PNP C) All Law Enforcement Agencies

A) PNP C) Personnel of the NAPOLCOM

A) R.A No. 6713 C) R.A No. 6975

A) R.A No.7160 C) R.A No. 8505

A) True C) Somewhat true

A) Attrition C) Absent Without Official Leave (AWOL)

A) Somewhat prohibited C) Fairly prohibited

A) Punishment C) Imprisonment

A) Punishment C) Rehabilitation

A) Control C) Punishment

A) Positive discipline C) Strict discipline

A) Food and reaction C) Good communication

A) Discipline C) Control

A) Custody C) Control

A) Preventive stage C) Non-punitive measure

A) Pardon C) Communication

A) Absolute pardon C) Amnesty

A) Absolute pardon C) Commutation

A) Communication C) Retrieve

A) Amnesty C) Communication

A) Reprieve C) Good-Conduct-Time allowance

A) Good-Conduct-time allowance C) Parole

A) Parole C) PD 603