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FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Ans. d
2. Which one of the following represents the best estimate for a firm's pre-tax cost of debt?
a) the current yield-to-maturity on the firm's existing debt
b) the firm's historical cost of capital
c) twice the rate of return currently offered on risk-free securities
d) the current coupon on the firm's existing debt
Ans. a
3. An increase in the market value of a preferred stock will _____ the cost of preferred stock.
a) increase
b) either increase or decrease
c) either not affect or increase
d) decrease
Ans. e
4. Capital structure weights are based on the:
Ans. a
5. Which one of the following is a correct statement regarding a firm's weighted average cost
of capital (WACC)?
a) An increase in the market risk premium will tend to decrease a firm's WACC.
b) A reduction in the risk level of a firm will tend to increase the firm's WACC.
c) A 5 percent increase in a firm's debt-equity ratio will tend to increase the firm's WACC.
d) The WACC can be used as the required return for all new projects with similar risk to
that of the existing firm.
Ans. d
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6. The rate of return on its existing assets that a firm must earn to maintain the current value
of the firm's stock is called the:
a) return on equity.
b) internal rate of return.
c) weighted average cost of capital.
d) weighted average cost of equity.
Ans.c
7. During planning period, a marginal cost for raising a new debt is classified as
a) debt cost
b) relevant cost
c) borrowing cost
d) embedded cost
Ans. b
8. In weighted average cost of capital, a company can affect its capital cost through
a) policy of capital structure
b) policy of dividends
c) policy of investment
d) all of above
Ans. d
9. A risk associated with project and way considered by well diversified stockholder is
classified as
a) expected risk
b) beta risk
c) industry risk
d) returning risk
Ans. b
10. Variability for expected returns for projects is classified as
a) expected risk
b) stand-alone risk
c) variable risk
d) returning risk
Ans. b
11. Cost of common stock is 16% and bond yield is 9% then bond risk premium would be
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a) 7%
b) $7
c) 1.78%
d) 25%
Ans. a
12. Cost of capital is equal to required return rate on equity in case if investors are only
a) valuation manager
b) common stockholders
c) asset seller
d) equity dealer
Ans. b
13. Retention ratio is 0.60 and return on equity is 15.5% then growth retention model would be
a) 14.90%
b) 25.84%
c) 16.10%
d) 9.30%
Ans. d
14. Method uses for an estimation of cost of equity is classified as
a) market cash flow
b) future cash flow method
c) discounted cash flow method
d) present cash flow method
Ans. c
15. Method in which company finds other companies considered in same line of business to
evaluate divisions is classified as
a) pure play method
b) same play method
c) division line method
d) single product method
Ans. a
16. Stock selling price is $45, an expected dividend is $10 and an expected growth rate is 8%
then cost of common stock would be
a) $55
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b) $58
c) $53
d) 30.22%
Ans. d
17. A type of beta which incorporates about company such as changes in capital structure is
classified as
a) industry beta
b) market beta
c) subtracted beta
d) fundamental beta
Ans. d
18. Dividend per share is $18 and sell it for $122 and floatation cost is $4 then component cost
of preferred stock will be
a) 15.25%
b) 0.1525 times
c) $15.25
d) 0.15%
Ans. a
19. In weighted average capital, capital structure weights estimation does not rely on value of
a) investor's equity
b) market value of equity
c) book value of equity
d) stock equity
Ans. c
20. In retention growth model, percent of net income firms usually pay out as shareholders
dividends is classified as
a) payout ratio
b) payback ratio
c) growth retention ratio
d) present value of ratio
Ans. a
Ans. a
22. Forecast by analysts, retention growth model and historical growth rates are methods used
for an
a) estimate future growth
b) estimate option future value
c) estimate option present value
d) estimate growth ratio
Ans. a
23. Premium which is considered as difference of expected return on common stock and
current yield on Treasury bonds is called
a) current risk premium
b) past risk premium
c) beta premium
d) expected premium
Ans. a
24. An interest rate which is paid by firm as soon as it issues debt is classified as pre-tax
a) term structure
b) market premium
c) risk premium
d) cost of debt
Ans. d
25. Special situation in which large projects are financed by with and securities claims on
project's cash flow is classified as
a) claimed securities
b) project financing
c) stock financing
d) interest cost
Ans. b
26. Historical growth rates, analysis forecasts and retention growth model are approaches to
estimate
a) present value of gain
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b) growth rate
c) growth gain
d) discounted gain
Ans. b
27. In weighted average cost of capital, cost of capital which is risk adjusted and developed for
each category of
a) long-term projects
b) industry [industrial] projects
c) divisional projects
d) short-term projects
Ans. b
28. Cost of equity which is raised by reinvesting earnings internally must be higher than the
a) cost of initial offering
b) cost of new common equity
c) cost of preferred equity
d) cost of floatation
Ans. b
29. Capital budgeting decisions are analysed with help of weighted average and for this
purpose
a) component cost is used
b) common stock value is used
c) cost of capital is used
d) asset valuation is used
Ans. c
30. Risk free rate is subtracted from expected market return is considered as
a) country risk
b) diversifiable risk
c) equity risk premium
d) market risk premium
Ans. c
31. A firm's optimal capital structure:
a) is the debt-equity ratio that results in the lowest possible weighted average cost of
capital.
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Ans. a
32. The term "capital structure" refers to:
Ans. a
33. A critical assumption of the net operating income (NOI) approach to valuation is:
Ans. c
34. The traditional approach towards the valuation of a company assumes:
a) that the overall capitalization rate holds constant with changes in financial leverage.
b) that there is an optimum capital structure.
c) that total risk is not altered by changes in the capital structure.
d) that markets are perfect.
Ans. b
35. Two firms that are virtually identical except for their capital structure are selling in the market
at different values. According to M&M
Ans. d
e) bankruptcy cost.
f) transaction cost.
g) agency cost.
h) institutional cost.
Ans. g
37. The cost of capital for a firm -- when we allow for taxes, bankruptcy, and agency costs –
Ans. b
38. Which one of the following statements concerning financial leverage is correct?
a) If a firm employs financial leverage, the shareholders will be exposed to greater risk.
b) A firm employing leverage will always have a higher earnings per share than a firm
which does not employ leverage.
c) Financial leverage is always beneficial to a firm when the interest rate on the debt is
less than 10 percent.
d) The benefits of leverage are unaffected by changes in a firm's earnings before interest
and taxes.
Ans. a
39. Less Debt, Inc., just revised its capital structure such that the firm's debt-equity ratio
decreased from .80 to .40. Those individual investors who prefer the old capital structure:
a) can replicate that structure by reducing their debt and doubling their investment in the
firm.
b) should sell half of their equity holdings and invest in cash.
c) should loan out funds equivalent to the amount invested in Less Debt.
d) can replicate that structure by increasing their use of homemade leverage.
Ans. d
40. M&M Proposition I, without taxes, states that:
a) firms should borrow to the point where the tax benefit from debt is equal to the cost of
the increased probability of financial distress.
b) financial risk is determined by the debt-equity ratio.
c) it is completely irrelevant how a firm arranges its finances.
d) the weighted average cost of capital is constant.
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Ans. c
41. Which of the following statements regarding the net operating income approach is incorrect?
Ans. c
42. The use of personal borrowing to change the overall amount of financial leverage to which
an individual is exposed is called:
a) homemade leverage.
b) restructured leverage.
c) the weighted average cost of capital.
d) personal offset.
Ans. a
43. The proposition that the value of a firm is independent of the firm's capital structure is called:
Ans. b
44. The proposition that a firm's cost of equity capital is a positive linear function of the firm's
capital structure is called:
Ans. c
45. The equity risk derived from the nature of a firm's operating activities is called _____ risk.
a) Systematic
b) Market
c) Business
d) Financial
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Ans. c
46. The unlevered cost of capital is:
a) the cost of capital for a firm with no equity in its capital structure.
b) the cost of capital for a firm that has no debt obligations.
c) equal to the interest tax shield multiplied by the pre-tax net income.
d) equal to the cost of preferred stock for a firm with no debt.
Ans. b
47. The equity risk derived from a firm's capital structure policy is called _____ risk.
a) Market
b) Extrinsic
c) Business
d) Financial
Ans. d
48. A firm should select the capital structure that:
Ans. b
49. The optimal capital structure has been achieved when the:
Ans. d
50. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the relationship between a
levered and an unlevered capital structure? Assume there are no taxes.
a) When a firm is operating at a point where the actual earnings before interest and taxes
(EBIT) exceed the break-even level, then adding debt to the capital structure will
increase the earnings per share (EPS).
b) The earnings per share will equal zero when EBIT is zero for a levered firm.
c) The advantages of leverage are inversely related to the level of EBIT.
d) The use of leverage at any level of EBIT increases the EPS.
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Ans. a
51. The capital structure that maximizes the value of a firm also:
Ans. b
52. The optimal capital structure:
Ans. c
53. Based on M&M Proposition II with taxes, the weighted average cost of capital:
Ans. d
54. M&M Proposition II is the proposition that:
a) supports the argument that the capital structure of a firm is irrelevant to the value of the
firm.
b) the cost of equity depends on the return on debt, the debt-equity ratio, and the tax rate.
c) a firm's cost of equity capital is a positive linear function of the firm's capital structure.
d) the cost of equity is equivalent to the required return on the total assets of a firm.
Ans. c
55. The proposition that the value of a levered firm is equal to the value of an unlevered firm is
known as:
Ans. a
56. Financial leverage impacts the performance of the firm by:
Ans. d
57. The increase in risk to equity holders when financial leverage is introduced is evidenced by:
Ans. b
58. A payment made out of a firm's earnings to its owners in the form of either cash or stock is
called a:
a) dividend.
b) distribution.
c) repurchase.
d) payment-in-kind.
Ans. a
59. A payment made by a firm to its owners from sources other than current or accumulated
retained earnings is called a:
a) dividend.
b) distribution.
c) repurchase.
d) stock split.
Ans. b
60. The declaration date is the date on which the:
Ans. c
61. A cash payment generally paid quarterly by a firm to its owners in the normal course of
business is called a:
a) repurchase.
b) liquidating dividend.
c) regular cash dividend.
d) special dividend.
Ans. c
62. The ex-dividend date is defined as _____ business days before the date of record.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
Ans. b
63. The date by which a shareholder must be recorded as the share owner in order to receive a
declared dividend is called the:
a) ex-rights date.
b) ex-dividend date.
c) date of record.
d) date of payment.
Ans. c
64. The date the dividend payments are mailed is called the:
a) ex-rights date.
b) date of record.
c) date of payment.
d) declaration date.
Ans. c
65. The ability of shareholders to undo a firm's dividend policy and create an alternative dividend
policy by reinvesting dividends or selling shares of stock is called (a):
a) personalization.
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a) merger.
b) liquidation.
c) rights offer.
d) Repurchase
Ans. d
69. A payment made by a firm to its owners in the form of new shares is called a _____ dividend.
a) stock
b) normal
c) special
d) Extra
Ans. a
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70. Which one of the following is an argument in favor of a low dividend policy?
a) retention rate
b) 1 plus the retention rate
c) growth rate
d) dividend payout ratio
Ans. d
73. "Large-percentage stock dividends" are typically __________ percent or higher of previously
outstanding common stock.
a) 25
b) 35
c) 51
d) 70
Ans. a
74. A dividend reinvestment plan (DRIP) is __________.
a) is irrelevant as the value of the firm is based on the earning power of its assets
b) is relevant as the value of the firm is not based just on the earning power of its assets
c) is irrelevant as dividends represent cash leaving the firm to shareholders, who own
the firm anyway
d) is relevant as cash outflow always influences other firm decisions
Ans. a
76. Which of the following examples best represents a passive dividend policy?
a) The firm sets a policy such that the proportion of dividends paid from net income
remains constant.
b) The firm pays dividends with what remains of net income after taking acceptable
investment projects.
c) The firm sets a policy such that the quantity (dollar amount per share) of dividends
paid from net income remains constant.
d) All of the above are examples of various types of passive dividend policies.
Ans. b
77. A firm which adopts a residual dividend policy:
a) tends to produce higher dividend payout ratios for high-growth firms versus low-
growth firms.
b) tends to produce steady, predictable dividend payments.
c) adds great uncertainty to the payment of future dividends.
d) guarantees that a minimal amount will be paid as a dividend on a quarterly basis.
Ans. c
79. The span of time within which the investment made for the project will be recovered by the net
returns of the project is known as
a) Period of return
b) Payback period
c) Span of return
d) None of the above
Ans. b
80. ___________ on capital is called ‘Cost of capital’.
Ans. d
83. Under Net present value criterion, a project is approved if
c) Profitability Index
d) Any of the above
Ans. d
88. A project is accepted when
a) accounting income.
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b) cash flow.
c) earnings.
d) operating profit.
Ans. b
93. The estimated benefits from a project are expressed as cash flows instead of income flows
because:
95. Taxing authorities allow the fully installed cost of an asset to be written off for tax purposes.
This amount is called the asset's
a) cost of capital.
b) initial cash outlay.
c) depreciable basis.
d) sunk cost.
Ans. c
96. In general, if a depreciable asset used in business is sold for more than its depreciated (tax) book
value, any amount realized in excess of book value but less than the asset's depreciable basis is
considered a
c) "capital gain" and is taxed at a rate equal to the firm's ordinary tax rate, or a
maximum of 35 percent.
d) "recapture of depreciation" and is taxed at the firm's ordinary income tax rate.
Ans. d
a) Investment Decision
b) Working Capital Management
c) Marketing Management
d) Capital Structure.
Ans. a
98. Capital Budgeting Decisions are:
a) Reversible
b) Irreversible
c) Unimportant
d) All of the above.
Ans. b
99. Depreciation is incorporated in cash flows because it:
a) Is unavoidable cost
b) Is a cash flow
c) Reduces Tax liability
d) Involves an outflow.
Ans. c
100. Savings in respect of a cost is treated in capital budgeting as:
a) An Inflow
b) An Outflow
c) Nil
d) None of the above.
Ans. a
101. Which of the following is not true with reference capital budgeting?
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a) Operational Profitability
b) Liquidity Position
c) Big-term Solvency
d) Profit for Lenders.
Ans. a
103. DU PONT Analysis deals with:
a) Return on Assets
b) Earnings Per Share
c) Net Profit Ratio
d) Return on Investment.
Ans. b
105. XYZ Ltd. has a Debt Equity Ratio of 1.5 as compared to 1.3 Industry average. It means that the
firm has:
a) Higher Liquidity
b) Higher Financial Risk
c) Higher Profitability
d) Higher Capital Employed.
Ans. b
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106. Ratio Analysis can be used to study liquidity, turnover, profitability, etc. of a firm. What does
Debt-Equity Ratio help to study?
a) Solvency
b) Liquidity
c) Profitability
d) Turnover
Ans. a
107. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Profitability Position
b) Liquidity Position
c) Market Share Position
d) Debt Position.
Ans. b
110. Return on Investment may be improved by:
a) Increasing Turnover
b) Reducing Expenses
c) Increasing Capital Utilization
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a) Borrowing More
b) Issue of Debentures
c) Issue of Equity Shares
d) Redemption of Debt.
Ans. d
114. The following is(are) the type(s) of capital budgeting decision(s)
a) Diversification
b) Replacements
c) Expansion
d) All of the above
Ans. d
115. An increase in marginal cost of capital and capital rationing are two arising complications of
a) Terminal value
b) Existed value
c) Quit value
d) Relative value
Ans. a
117. In large expansion programs, increased riskiness and floatation cost associated with project
can cause
a) Negative
b) Zero
c) Positive
d) Independent
Ans. a
119. Net present value, profitability index, payback and discounted payback are methods to
a) Evaluate cashflow
b) Evaluate projects
c) Evaluate budgets
d) Evaluate equity
Ans. b
120. In capital budgeting, cost of capital is used as discount rate and is based on pre-determines
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a) Cost of inflation
b) Cost of debt and equity
c) Cost of opportunity
d) Cost of transaction
Ans. b
121. Rate of return which is required to satisfy stockholders and debt holders is classified as
125. Dividend policy of a firm affects both the long-time financing and __________ wealth.
a) Owners
b) Creditors
c) Debtor
d) Shareholders
Ans. d
126. The amount of current assets that varies with seasonal requirements is referred to as
__________ working capital.
a) Permanent
b) Net
c) Temporary
d) Gross
Ans. c
127. Excess working capital results in ________.
a) Block of cash
b) Loosing of interests
c) Lack of production
d) Lack of smooth flow of production
Ans. a
128. The market value of the firm is the result of __________.
a) Dividend decision
b) Working capital decision
c) Capital budgeting decision
d) Trade-off between cost and risk
Ans. d
129. Cost of capital is the ______ rate of return expected by the investor.
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Expected
d) Marginal
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Ans. c
130. Insufficient working capital results in __________.
a) Block of cash
b) Loosing of interests
c) Lack of production
d) Lack of smooth flow of production
Ans. d
131. ________ decision relates to the determination of total amount of assets to be held in the
firm.
a) Financing
b) Investment
c) Dividend
d) Controlling
Ans. d
132. Which of the following represents the rate at which a company can grow from internal
sources?
a) Return on assets
b) Sustainable growth rate
c) Adjusted EPS
d) Return on equity
Ans. b
133. Which of the following techniques of project appraisal does not consider the time value of
money?
a) Growth rate
b) Debt proportion
c) Retention ratio
d) All of the above
Ans. d
136. Long -term solvency is indicated by
a) Liquidity ratio
b) Debt-equity ratio
c) Return coverage ratio
d) Both a and b
Ans. b
137. _________ are a way U. S. investors can invest in foreign companies.
a) ADRs
b) IRAs
c) SDRs
d) GNMAs
Ans. a
138. Degree of total leverage can be applied in measuring change in _________.
a) Operating leverage
b) Financial leverage
c) Total leverage
d) Working capital leverage
Ans. a
140. The value of EBIT at which EPS is equal to zero is known as ____________.
a) Miller-Orr
b) Black-Sholes
c) Markowitz
d) Gordon
Ans. c
142. Degree of financial leverage is a measure of relationship between ___________.
a) The firm offers an increasing amount of dividend per share at a given level of price
per share
b) The firm has a finite life
c) The cost of capital of the firm is variable
d) Equal to current assets plus current liabilities including bank borrowings
Ans. d
145. Firms that specialize in helping companies raise capital by selling securities are called
________.
a) Commercial banks
b) Investment banks
c) Savings banks
d) Credit unions
Ans. b
146. Dividend changes are perceived important than the absolute level of dividends because.
Ans. d
149. Which of the following factors influence(s) the capital structure of a business entity?
a) Remains constant upto a degree of leverage and rises sharply thereafter with every
increase in leverage
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a) Return ratios
b) Market value ratios
c) Marginal ratios
d) Equity ratios
Ans. b
162. High price to earning ratio shows company's
163. An annual estimated costs of assets uses up every year are included
a) Compounding
b) Discounting
c) Money value
d) Stock value
Ans. a
165. In calculation of net cash flow, deferred tax payments are classified as
a) Non-cash revenues
b) Non-cash charges
c) Current liabilities
d) Income expenses
Ans. b
166. Rate of return that an investment provides its investor is classified as
a) Inventories
b) Short-term investments
c) Cash equivalents
d) Long-term investments
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Ans. c
168. In a statement of cash flows, a company investing in short-term financial investments and in
fixed assets results in
a) Increased cash
b) Decreased cash
c) Increased liabilities
d) Increased equity
Ans. b
169. Price for debt is called
a) Debt rate
b) Investment return
c) Discount rate
d) Interest rate
Ans. d
170. Capital gain expected by stockholders and dividends are included in
a) Debt rate
b) Investment return
c) Interest rate
d) Cost of equity
Ans. d
a) dividends
b) asset value
c) fundamental value
d) yearly value
Ans. a
172. Ability to trade at net price very quickly is classified as
a) Original trading
b) Liquidity
c) Offline trading
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a) Dividend yield
b) Discount rate
c) Market rate
d) Capital gains yield
Ans. a
175. The ______ is defined as the present value of all cash proceeds to the investor in the stock?
a) Intrinsic value
b) Dividend payout ratio
c) Market capitalization rate
d) Plowback ratio
Ans. a
176. The estimated value of common stock is the:
a) valued relationship
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b) economic relationship
c) direct relationship
d) inverse relationship
Ans. c
178. In cash flow analysis, two projects are compared by using common life is classified as
a) transaction approach
b) replacement chain approach
c) common life approach
d) Both B and C
Ans. d
179. Other factors held constant, but lesser project liquidity is because of
a) PV of hurdle rate
b) FV of hurdle rate
c) PV of terminal value
d) FV of terminal value
Ans. c
182. set of projects or set of investments usually maximize firm value is classified as
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a) preferred equity
b) due equity
c) common perpetuity
d) common equity
Ans. d
185. Rate of return which considers riskiness and an available returns on investments is classified
as
a) constant dividend
b) constant rate
c) maximum rate of return
d) minimum acceptable rate of return
Ans. d
186. In expected rate of return for constant growth, an expected dividend yield must be
a) functional decreasing
b) constant
c) continuously growing
d) functional increasing
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Ans. b
187. In expected rate of return for constant growth, an expected yield on capital must be
a) equal to zero
b) greater than expected growth rate
c) less than expected growth rate
d) equal to expected growth rate
Ans. d
188. In a world with no transaction costs or taxes, assuming managers make logical investment
decisions, the level of dividend in any one year:
Ans. d
191. The clientele effect suggests that:
Ans. b
192. In practice many companies seem to adopt a strategy of steady dividend growth. This is
because:
a) They believe that this sends a positive message to the stock market
b) Nobody would invest in them otherwise
c) It allows shareholders to budget better
d) It makes their financial planning easier
Ans. a
193. In general it is likely that companies will benefit by:
Ans. c
194. An internal rate of return in capital budgeting can be modified to make it representative of
a) relative outflow
b) relative inflow
c) relative cost
d) relative profitability
Ans. d
a) optimal rationing
b) capital rationing
c) marginal rationing
d) transaction rationing
Ans. b
196. If two independent projects having hurdle rate then both projects should
a) be accepted
b) not be accepted
c) have capital acceptance
d) have return rate acceptance
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Ans. a
Ans. c
198. In large expansion programs, increased riskiness and floatation cost associated with
project can cause
a) rise in marginal cost of capital
b) fall in marginal cost of capital
c) rise in transaction cost of capital
d) rise in transaction cost of capital
Ans. a
199. Project whose cash flows are less than capital invested for required rate of return then
net present value will be
a) negative
b) zero
c) positive
d) independent
Ans. a
200. Present value of future cash flows is divided by an initial cost of project to calculate
a) negative index
b) exchange index
c) project index
d) profitability index
Ans. d
201. Cash flows occurring with more than one change in sign of cash flow are classified as
Ans. a
202. Situation in which one project is accepted while rejecting another project in comparison
is classified as
a) present value consent
b) mutually exclusive
c) mutual project
d) mutual consent
Ans. b