Grade 8 Science - Test Items

Subject Area: Science
Grade Level: Grade 8

Quarter: I
Competency: Investigate the relationship between the amount of
force applied and the mass of the object to the amount
of change in the object’s motion (S8FE-Ia-15).
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. A box is pushed at a constant speed across a floor as shown in the

figure below.
Which of the following arrow represents the reaction force?

A.
B.
C.
D.
2. A carabao is pulling a karomata. Which of the following is

applied by the carabao?
A. 1st law of motion
B. 2nd law of motion
C. 3rd law of motion
D. the law of conservation of energy
1
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3. The coconut falls into the ground. Which of the following is the
reason for the movement of the coconut?
A. balanced force
B. magnetic force
C. gravitational force
D. unbalanced force
4. The carabao pulls a barsahan, then the barsahan moves along

with the carabao. Which of the following law/principle is applied
to the situation?
A. 1st law of motion
B. 2nd law of motion
C. 3rd law of motion
D. the law of conservation of energy

5. Which of the following diagram represents a balancing force?
A. 1.2 N
1.2 N 1.2N
1N
B.
0N
1.2 N 1.2N
1N
C.
0N
12 N 12N
0N
D.
8N
5N 8N
5N

Table Completion
Directions: Using the equation Fnet=ma, complete the table below.
Second Law of Motion
net force mass acceleration
(N) (kg) (m/s2)
10 80
20 50
50 50
30 20
40 20
Matching Type
Directions: Match the description to the quantity. Write the letter of the
correct answer.
Description Quantity
_____1. It is equal to the product of mass and a. force
acceleration.
_____2. Considering the second law of motion; it is b. work
the quantity that is inversely proportional to
the net force acting on it. c. mass
_____3. It is opposite to the direction of the applied
force on the body. d. friction
_____4. It is the result of the applied force on the
object. e. acceleration
_____5. It is the product of force and displacement
on the object.

Quarter: I
Competency: Infer that when a body exerts a force on another, an
equal amount of force is exerted back on it (S8FE-Ia-16).
Multiple Choice
1. If two people are pulling against each other with forces of 200
newtons and 250 newtons, there is a/an
A. balanced force.
B. unbalanced force.
C. universal gravitation.
D. frictional forces on both bodies.
2. If you push on a wall with a force of 30 newtons, how much force is
acting on you?
A. 0 newton
B. 10 newtons
C. 30 newtons
D. 60 newtons
3. A 20N force is applied on the ground. How much return force will the
ground exert?
A. 20N
B. 25N
C. 30N
D. 40N

4. What is the downward force acting on a stationary physics book on
a table?
A. normal force
B. unbalance force
C. gravitational force
D. universal gravitational force
5. What is the force exerted by the ground on a 30 kg person?
A. 300N
B. 298N
C. 294N
D. 300N
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve what is asked.
1. How much force is needed to transfer a 30 kg balikbayan box to
a height of 10 meters?
2. Determine the force applied on a 20 kg object that moves at a
rate of 0.5 m/s2.
3. A bullet is fired and hits on a 25 kg block of wood and moves into
2.0m/s2. How much force is applied to the wood?
4. A student drops a 2.0g ice water on the floor of the science
building. How much force will be exerted on the ice water upon
impact on the ground?
5. A 300 kg boat floats on the water. How much upward force will
the water apply to the boat?

True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is wrong.
Write the answer before the number.
______1. Forces always come in pairs.
______2. Friction always causes a reaction force.
______3. Walking is possible on the frictionless surface.
______4. The team who wins in a tug-of-war is the team who exerts a
greater force on the ground.
______5. The force gravity acting on a person is the person's weight.

Quarter: I
Competency: Demonstrate that when a body exerts a force on
another, an equal amount of force is exerted back on it
(S8FE-Ib-17).
Short Answer Test

Directions: Supply what is asked.
1. A ball is thrown on the wall and bounces back to the hands of
the thrower. If the magnitude of the force applied to the ball is
equal to 2 Newtons, how much force will the wall exert on the
ball upon impact?
2. Illustrate the forces acting on the book stationary on a table
using a free body diagram.
3. Illustrate and discuss the forces acting on the ball thrown
upward.
4. Describe the forces acting on a picture frame hanging on the
wall.
5. Discuss the movement of the passenger on a bus when it
suddenly stops.

Fill in the Blank
Directions: Supply the missing word to complete the sentence in the
paragraph. Choose your answer from the box below.
unpaired pushes magnitude forces

equal acceleration upward
Action Reaction Force
There is no such thing as a/an ___1__ force in the universe. The desk
rests on the floor just as the book is based on it, and the floor __2__ up on
the desk with force equal in ___3__ to that with which the desk presses
down on the floor.
These sets of ____4__ exist universally. When you stroll, you move
forward by pushing backward on the ground with force ___5___ to your
mass multiplied by your amount of downward gravitational ____6____.
(This force, in other words, is the same as weight.) At the same time, the
ground pushes back with equal force. You do not perceive the fact that
Earth is pushing you ____7_, simply because its enormous mass makes this
motion negligible but it does.

True or False

___1. Seatbelt in the car is a safety precaution from the sudden

stop of the car.
___2. The headrest on the seat is a precaution from accident when

the car is hit from behind.
___3. The tendency of the passenger is to move forward when the

car is hit behind.
___4. During the sudden stop, the injury of the passenger is most
likely on the neck.
___ 5. During the collision of two objects, the energy is always

conserved.
10

Quarter: I
Competency: Relate the laws of motion to bodies in uniform circular
motion (S8FE-Ib-18).
Short Answer Test
Directions: Give what is asked in each

statement below.
1. The diagram shows an object moving in counter clockwise

circular motion. Draw the correct diagram of the force and
velocity of the figure above.
2. Identify and discuss the forces needed to keep the body in

circular motion.
3. You are whirling a ball in a string around in

circles as shown in the picture, then the
string suddenly snaps. What direction
does the ball fly? Explain your answer
using the laws of motion. c
a
b
4. Illustrate the relationship of force, acceleration, and mass in a
circular motion using a free body diagram.
11

5. A communication satellite is in a circular orbit around Earth.
Describe the force acting on the satellite if the speed of the
satellite is constant.
True or False
___1. The acceleration in circular motion is centripetal because it is
always directed to the center of the path.
___2. Newton’s second law requires the presence of unbalanced
force to produce acceleration.
___3. The force producing centripetal acceleration is called
centripetal
force.
___4. Centrifugal force is the same magnitude of centripetal force in
the opposite direction.
___5. For a truck to make a turn, a centrifugal force is needed.
Short Answer Test
Directions: Answer the following questions correctly.
1. Differentiate rotational motion from circular motion.
2. Discuss how second law of motion is applied in a circular motion.
3. Differentiate centripetal from centrifugal force.
4. Explain why it takes more time to stop the large blade of a fan
than that of a shorter blade.
5. How do you determine a raw egg from a boiled egg by spinning
each on the table?
12

Quarter: I
Competency: Infer that circular motion requires the application of
constant force directed toward the center of the circle
(S8FE-Ib-19).
Multiple Choice
1. Consider a ball connected to a string and whirled in a circular

motion as shown in the figure below. What will happen to the
ball if the string is quickly cut?
A. The ball will continue to move on circular motion.
B. The ball will move towards the center of the
circular path.
C. The movement of the ball will be tangent to its
circular path.
D. The movement of the ball will be opposite to the
applied force.
2. Consider a toy car moving in a circular path. Which of the

following is correct about the centripetal force?
A. It is always directed to the center.
B. It is directed parallel to the motion.
C. It is the reaction force acted by the object.
D. It comes after the force applied to the object.
13

3. Which of the following will likely happen if the gravitational force
between the moon and the earth gets lost?
A. The moon will spin towards the earth.
B. The moon will move towards the earth.
C. The moon will move tangent to its orbit.
D. The movement of the moon will not be affected.
4. Which of the following quantities in a circular motion is always

directed to the center of the path?
A. centripetal force
B. centrifugal force
C. centripetal acceleration
D. centrifugal acceleration
5. In a circular motion, which is the correct description of the

velocity of the object?
A. changing
B. constant
C. increasing
D. decreasing
14

Short Answer Test
Directions: Give the correct answers to the questions below.
1. What kind of force is always directed towards the center?

2. What force is needed so that acceleration becomes possible?
3. What force is needed for a moving object to turn or change
direction?
4. What quantities are always conserved?
5. What force is present on a swing if a boy is on it?
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Supply the missing words to complete the thought of the
paragraph.
accelerated body centripetal force

center magnitude
When an object is moving in a circular path at a constant speed, it is

said to be uniform ___1___ motion. It is a movement of a/an ____2_____
along a circle. ___3____ force is the force that tends to pull the object
towards ____4____ of the circular path. The __5_____ of the acceleration
of the circular motion is the square of its speed over the radius.
15

Quarter: I
Competency: Identify situations in which work is done and in which no
work is done (S8FE-Ic-20).
Alternative Response Test

Directions: Write NW if the situation implies no work done, and W if the
situation shows work done. Write your answer before the
number.
______1.A woman carries a child on her shoulder while watching a
Buyogan Festival dance.
______2.A laborer pushes the wall.
______3. An athlete runs around the oval.
______4. An elevator is going to the upper floor.
______5. A ball is falling from the highest peak.
Problem Solving
Directions: Answer the following questions correctly.
1. A student pushes a 40 kg teacher’s cabinet at a distance of 2
meters with a force equal to 300 newtons. How much work was
done?
2. A carabao pulled a 400kg karomata at a distance of 1 km. The
carabao exerts a force equal to 500 N. How much work was
performed?
3. An 800 J of work was done on the object to move it 5.5 meters
away from its initial position. How much force was exerted to the
object?
16

4. A man is carrying one sack of rice that has a mass of 50 kg while
walking 10 meters towards his house. How much work was done
by the man?
5. A 30 kg box was pulled by the carabao to a distance of 10 m.
How much work was done by the carabao?
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Complete the paragraph below by supplying the missing
terms.
product applied movement

work used velocity
Work is defined as the ____1____ of the force ___2___ to a body and

the ____3_____ in the direction of the force applied. The amount of
___4___ done is equal to the amount of energy ____5___. The unit of work
is joule which is the same as the unit of energy.
17

Quarter: I
Competency: Describe how work is related to power and energy.
(S8FE-Ic-21).
Multiple Choice
1. A force of 50N is applied to a 50kg object that doesn’t move. How

much work was done?
A. 0 J
B. 50 J
C. 300 J
D. 3000 J
2. A 300kg car is traveling at 10 m/s. How much work is needed to
change the speed of the car to 5 m/s?
A. 15,500J
B. 10,500J
C. 7,500J
D. 5,500J
18

3. A 50kg balikbayan box is lifted to the 3rd floor, the total
displacement of the balikbayan box is 15m. How much work was
applied on the Balikbayan box?
A. 7,350 J
B. 7,300J
C. 7,250 J
D. 7,200J
4. A carabao pulled a 150 kg karomata to a distance of 500 meters at
a rate of 5 m/s. How much work was done?
A. 1,875J
B. 1,900J
C. 1,925J
D. 1,950J
5. A carabao is pulling a plow on the field. If the force applied is equal
to 30N, how much work is done if the plow is pulled to a distance of
300m? (Ignore other forces.)
A. 9,000 J
B. 6,000J
C. 3,000J
D. 1,500J
19

True or False
Directions. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is wrong.
___1. The change in kinetic energy in the object is equivalent to work
done in the object.
___2. The change in potential energy of the object is equivalent to
the work done on the object.
___3. Consider an object thrown upward. The kinetic energy of the
object is converted to potential energy in going up.
___4. When the object goes down, the potential energy of the
object reduces, and the kinetic energy of the object increases.
___5. The conservation of energy is clearly demonstrated using a
pendulum.
Matching Type
Directions. Match the description with the quantity.
Quantity
Description
1. It is equivalent to the change in potential a. Gravity
energy. b. Work
2. It is a constant downward acceleration.
c. Acceleration
3. It is the quantity that is directed to the center of
the path in a circular motion. d. Power
4. It is the amount of work done per time. e. Joule

5. It is the unit of power.
f. Watts
20

Quarter: I
Competency: Differentiate potential and kinetic energy (S8FE-Id-22).
True of False
Write the answer on the space before the number.
___1. Kinetic energy is an energy in motion.
___2. Potential energy is an energy at rest.
___3. The change in potential energy is equal to the work done
on the object.
___4. The unit of potential energy, kinetic energy, and work are
the same.
___5. Pendulum demonstrates the transformation of mechanical
energy.
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve for what is asked.
1. Calculate the change in potential energy of 20 kg crate that is

transferred from the 1st floor to the 3rd floor of the building; it has a
total displacement of 35 meters.
2. What is the kinetic energy of a 20kg runner that runs at a rate of 4
m/s?
3. What is the potential energy of a 0.3 kg coconut fruit at the
height of 20 meters?
21

4. The carabao pulled a karomata and applied a force of 200N to
transfer the karomata 300 meters away to its initial position. How
much work was done on the karomata?
5. A man carried a 50kg sack of rice. How much force did the man
apply on the sack of rice?
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Complete the paragraph by supplying the missing terms on
the blanks.
energy Joule potential energy

kinetic energy work power
The ____1____ is defined as the ability to do work and the standard

unit of ____2_____. Moreover the _____3________ is energy at rest and
_____4________ is energy in motion. ______5____ done on a body
changes its state of motion. The change in kinetic energy or potential
energy is also attributed to work done on the object.
22

Quarter: I
Competency: Relate speed and position of the object to the amount
of energy possessed by a body. (S8FE-Id-23).
Problem Solving
Directions. Solve for what is asked.
1. What is the potential energy of the 30kg object at the height of

30 meters?
2. Calculate the kinetic energy of a 400kg race car traveling at 15

m/s.
3. How much energy does a 2.0 g bullet have if the speed is 25

m/s?
4. A woman pushed a 1.0 kg grocery cart horizontally with a force

of 300N. The cart moved horizontally and was displaced 3 meters
from its initial position. How much work was done on the cart?
5. A 2000-kg van has 900 J of kinetic energy. Compute the

magnitude of the velocity of the van.
23

True or False
Directions. Write T if the statement is correct and F if it is wrong.
_____1. Potential energy is the energy possessed by the body on its

position.
_____2. The general unit of energy is Joule.
_____3. Energy in the body can also be measured by identifying the
work done on the body.
_____4. The kinetic energy of a body is its ability to do work because
of its motion.
_____5. The sum of kinetic and potential energy is called total
mechanical energy.
Table Completion
Directions. Complete the table below. Write the correct answer on the
space provided (answers expressed in whole numbers).
Mass Acceleration Height Work Power Time Energy

(m/s²) (m) (J) (J/s) (s) (J)
1. 10kg 3 4m 3
2. 30kg 10 10 m 4
3. 60kg 10 20 m 5
4. 90kg 2 5m 6
5. 120kg 5 10 m 7
24

Quarter: I
Competency: Infer how the movement of particles of an object affects
the speed of sound through it (S8FE-Ie-24).
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct, FALSE if it is wrong.
___1. Sound travels fastest in solid than in gas and liquid.
___2. The sound is a longitudinal wave that is affected by the

temperature.
___3. The sound is audible at night because the direction of wave

fronts is towards the ground.
___4. The sound is affected by the movement of a particle in a

medium.
___5. The speed of sound is fast when the temperature in the

environment is high compared when its low.
25

Short Answer Test
Directions. Give the correct terms/quantities asked in the items below.
_______1. What quantities that refers to the highness and lowness

of a sound?
_______2. What is the name of the energy delivered to a unit
area of a surface per unit time?
_______3. What is the other terms used in the reverberation of
sound?
_______4. What will happen if there is an apparent change in
pitch due to the relative motion of the source of the
sound and the observer?
________5. What will occur when sounds with slightly different
frequencies combine?
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve for what is asked.
1. What is the speed of sound at 20°C?

2. What is the rate of sound in the air with 16 °C temperature?
3. You were standing at a distance when you saw lightning and
heard thunder 3 seconds after the lightning. How far was the
source of the sound?
4. During daytime, the air temperature near the surface of the land
is about 38°C. As the altitude increases, the air temperature
decreases by 3°C for every 5 meters. What is the speed of sound
near the surface? What is the speed of sound 5 meters above
the surface?
5. What is the speed of sound in the air with 39°C temperature?
26

Quarter: I
Competency: Investigates the effect of temperature to speed of sound
through fair testing (S8FE-Ie-25).
Fill in the Blank
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct terms.
longitudinal medium reflected refracted

diffracted interference resonance
Sound waves are ___1___ waves capable of producing an

auditory sensation. Sound are transmitted through __2____. The
behaviors of sound are ___3_____, _____4____, _____5____, ______6_____,
_______7______. The speed of sounds changes as the air temperature
changes.
27

Matching Type
Directions: Match the descriptions with the properties of sounds. Write

the letter of the correct answer.
Descriptions Sound Properties
1. sound with frequencies lower than 20Hz A. Refraction
2. sounds with frequencies higher than 20,000 Hz B. Infrasound

3. The angle of incidence equal to the angle of
C. Ultrasound
reflection.
4. change in the pitch due to the motion of the D. Reflection
source of the sound and/or the observer E. Doppler

5. bending of sound due to the difference of
F. Intensity
temperature in the medium
28

Short Answer Test
Directions. Supply what is asked.
Figure 1 Figure 2
Photo credits: RTipolo
1. Describe the frequency of sound heard by the observer in figure

1.
2. Compare the frequency of sound heard by the observer in figure
1 and figure 2.
3. What is the effect of speed of the source of sound on the
frequency received by the observer?
4. What will happen if both the source of the sound and the
observer move and approach each other?
5. Describe the sound perceived by the observer if the source of
the sound and the observer move away from each other.
29

Quarter: I
Competency: Demonstrate the existence of the color components of
visible light using a prism or diffraction grating (S8FE-If-
26).
Fill in the Blank
Directions. Fill in the missing parts of the paragraph. Use the terms in the
box.
highest lowest rainbow spectrum violet
When light strikes a transparent curved material, ___1___ of

colors will be seen, the ___2____color is the most refracted colors of
light that carries the ____3___ frequency and ___4____ wavelength. In
our sky, the dispersion of light into different colors is known as
____5_____. The frequency of light will depend on the energy it
possess, the higher the frequency the higher the energy.
30

True or False
___1. White light can be dispersed into different colors.
___2. The arrangement of the visible spectrum of light is the same in all
materials.
___3. The bending of light happens when light enters into another
medium.
___4. The index of refraction is the ratio of the speed of light in a

vacuum and the speed of light in materials.
___5. The visible light is located in between infrared and ultraviolet in

the EM spectrum.
Multiple Choice
1. Light is incident from medium A to medium B then the refracted
light goes toward the normal line. How can we compare the
speed of light in medium B with that in medium A?
A. The speed of light in B is slower than that A.
B. The speed of light in B is the same as that in A.
C. The speed of light in B is faster than that in A.
D. The speed of light in B varries than that in A.
31

2. Which is responsible for the blue sky and the red sunset?
A. diffraction
B. dispersion
C. reflection
D. refraction
3. Which of the following is the phenomenon that occurs when

white light strikes a transparent material?
A. blue sky
B. rainbow
C. red sunset
D. refraction
4. What is the result if the electromagnetic spectrum passes through

transparent materials?
A. white light
B. colorful light
C. infrared will occur
D. ultraviolet will occur
5. What is the index of refraction of the second medium if the

refracted light is towards the normal line?
A. lesser
B. greater
C. cannot be determine
D. equal to the first medium
32

Quarter: I
Competency: Explain the hierarchy of colors in relation to energy
(S8FE-If-27).
Short Answer Test
1. Arrange the colors of the visible light from highest to lowest

according to their frequency.
2. What color of light has the greatest energy level?
3. What is the position of the red color in the visible spectrum?
4. Among the visible light, which has the greatest refractive index?
5. Among the visible light, which has the least refractive index?
Essay
Directions: Answer the following correctly.
1. Discuss the relationship between the index of refraction and the

position of the color in the visible spectrum.
2. Explain the arrangement of colors in visible spectrum using
frequencies and wavelengths.
3. Why light is refracted as it moves from air to glass?
4. Why is water able to separate white light into different colors?
5. What is the relationship between the speed of light and index of
refraction?
33

Short Answer Test
Directions: Give what is asked.
_______1. What is the ratio between the speed of light in the vacuum
and speed of light in materials?
_______2. What do you call the invisible line perpendicular to the
boundary of the two media?
_______3. What color bends most during refraction?
_______4. What color has the highest energy?
_______5. What color has the longest wavelength?
34

Quarter: I
Competency: Explain that red is the least bent and violet the most
bent according to their wavelengths or frequencies
(S8FE-If-28).
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following color is bent most throughout the

dispersion of light?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
2. Which of the following color is least bent throughout the
dispersion of light?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
3. Which of the following color has the highest frequency?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
35

4. Which of the following colors of light has the lowest energy?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
5. Which of the following colors of light is nearest to the normal line
during dispersion?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
Short Answer Test
___________1. In the primary colors of light, which of them has the

highest frequency but shortest wavelength?
___________2. In the EM spectrum, what color has the lowest frequency
and longest wavelength?
___________3. What is the relationship between the frequency and
wavelength of the EM spectrum?
___________4. What do you call the bending of light due to the change
in speed of light as it passes in a different medium?
___________5. What do you call an imaginary line perpendicular to the
boundary of the medium?
36

Fill in the Blank
Directions. Complete the paragraph below using the terms inside the
word bank (not all terms will be used).
refraction phenomenon speed

colors reflection indices
Dispersion is a special kind of ____1_______ which gives us different

____2___ of light. The different____3_____ of the diverse colors of light
show that light of different colors travels at different ____4_____ which
accounts for the different amounts of bending. Thus, blue light with
greater refractive index ___5____ more and appears at the bottom of
the red light.
37

Quarter: I
Competency: Differentiate between heat and temperature at the
molecular level (S8FE-Ig-29).
Short Answer Test

_________1. What kind of energy that is in transit or transfer?
_________2. What is the measure of hotness and coldness of the body?
_________3. What is the process of transferring energy without any
medium?
________ 4. What process of heat transfer requires touching or direct
contact?
_________5. What is the amount of energy needed to increase the
temperature of water by one degree?
Matching type
Directions. Match the descriptions with the correct terms. Write the
letter of the correct answer.
Description Terms
1. amount of heat needed to increase the a. specific heat

temperature of water by one degree
b. heat capacity
2. measure of hotness and coldness
3. The energy in transit c. heat
4. heat transfer through direct contact d. temperature

5. A transfer of energy that requires no
e. conduction
medium for the energy to travel
f. radiation
38

Problem Solving
Directions: Solve the following problems correctly. (5 pts each)
1. How much heat is needed to raise 10 grams of water by 5°C?

2. How much heat is absorbed by 20g of water with an increase of
30°C temperature?
3. A 10 mL water has an initial temperature of 25°C and it increased
to 30°C. Compute for the change in temperature of the water.
4. How much energy is needed to boil a 5 g of water that has an
initial temperature of 25°C?
5. Convert the temperature of 30°C to Kelvin?
39

Quarter: I
Competency: Infer the relationship between current and charge
(S8FE-Ih-30).
Short Answer Test
_________1. What do you call the flow of electrons in the circuit?
_________2. What term describes the measurement of the amount of

flow of charge per unit time?
_________3. What is the standard unit of the energy carried by the

charge?
_________4. What device measures the electric voltage in the circuit?
_________5. What devise measures the amount of current in the

circuit?
Table Completion
Directions. Complete the table below by computing the correct values

using Ohm’s law.
Voltage (V) Current (A) Resistance (Ω)

3 .0 5.0
5.0 3.O
3.0 3.0
2.0 1.0
5.0 2.0
40

Matching type
Directions. Match the description with the correct terms. Write the letter
of the correct answer.
Terms
Descriptions
a. current
1. It is the device that measures voltage.
2. It is the device that measures current. b. voltage
3. It is the product of current and c. resistance

resistance.
d. ohmmeter
4. It is inversely proportional to the current
in the circuit. e. ammeter
5. It is the measurement of the number of f. voltmeter

electrons that flows in the circuit.
41

Quarter: I
Competency: Explain the advantages and disadvantages of series
and parallel connections in homes (S8FE-Ii-31).
Multiple choice
1. Which characterize current in a series circuit?

A. It is different in all loads.
B. It is the same in all loads.
C. It increases within the loads.
D. It diminishes along the loads.
2. What is the characteristic of current in the parallel circuit?

A. It is different in all loads.
B. It is the same in all loads.
C. It increases along the load.
D. It diminishes along the load.
42

3. Which of the following refers to the potential difference between
two points?
A. current
B. power
C. resistance
D. voltage
4. Three pieces of 3.0-Ω bulbs are connected in series to a 3-V
battery. How much voltage does each bulb gets from the
battery?
A. 1.0 V
B. 2.0 V
C. 3.0 V
D. 4.0 V
5. Two pieces of 3.0-Ω bulbs connected in parallel to a 12-V
battery. How much voltage does each bulb get?
A. 3.0 V
B. 6.0 V
C. 9.0 V
D. 12.0 V
43

Short Answer Test
______1. What is the potential difference between two points in the

battery?
______2. What type of connection is made when voltage is the same in

all throughout the electrical load?
______3. What is the standard unit of current?
______4. What connection used in fuses and in other circuit protector?
______5. What amount of voltage is required by appliances in the

Philippines?
Problem Solving
Directions. Read carefully and answer the items correctly.
1. Solve for the total resistance of two 2.0 Ω resistors connected in

series.
2. If the two 2.0 Ω resistors are connected in parallel, what is the
total resistance of the circuit?
3. Which connection type (parallel/series) gives more voltage in
each electrical load? Explain your answer.
4. Which connection type (parallel/series) provides protection in
the circuit? Explain your answer.
5. Discuss which connection type (parallel/series) is used in-house
wiring.
44

Quarter: I
Competency: Differentiate electrical power and electrical energy
(S8FE-Ii-32).
Short Answer Test
_____1. What is the product of voltage and current in a circuit?
_____2. What is the term used to describe the amount of electron

that passes through a wire in a circuit?
_____3. What is the other term for the potential difference between
two points in the battery?
_____4. What quantity is inversely proportional to the current in the

circuit?
_____5. What is the product between the power rating of the

appliance and the time of its usage?
45

True or False
___ 1. The electron will flow to the wire that has less resistance.
___ 2. An electrical load such as bulb gives resistance in the circuit.
___ 3. Electrons can move in an open circuit.
___ 4. The direction of the electron in the circuit is always from

negative to positive.
___ 5. Electrons transfer energy from the positive to negative terminal

of the battery.
Problem Solving
Directions. Read carefully and solve the following problems correctly.
1. A light bulb connected to 220-V source draws 2.0 A of current.

What is the power rating of the light bulb?
2. A LED TV has a power rating of 60 watts. If it is connected to the
power source of 220V, how much current will be drawn by the
LED TV?
3. A 750 W aircon was used for five hours. How much energy was
used by the appliance?
4. An electric fan has a power output of 60 W. How much work is
done if it is used for 2 minutes?
5. An appliance drew 2.0 A current and is connected to 220 V
source. What is the resistance of the appliance?
46

Quarter: I
Competency: Explain the functions of circuit breakers, fuses, earthing,
double insulation, and other safety devices in the home
(S8FE-Ii-33).
Identification
Directions. Give what is asked.
_______1. What will occur when an excess of load is connected to the

circuit?
_______2. What happens when electrons rush in wires due to sudden

resistance drop in the circuit?
_______3. What kind of circuit protection removes excess voltage in the

circuit?
_______4. What device in the circuit provides constant voltage output to

protection to appliances from a power surge?
_______5. What circuit connection is used by the circuit protectors?
47

True or False
___1. The concepts of series and parallel connections are combined in

the house wiring.
___2. In AC circuit, the direction of current is only one.
___3. The connection of the appliances should be in series-parallel way

to optimize the efficiency of the appliances.
___4. Switch is connected in series to the electrical load.
___5. In case of heating of the wire due to the movement of electrons

in the circuit, the fuse breaks the circuit as a protection from fire.
Short Answer Test
Directions. Give what is asked in every item below. Write the correct
answer.
1. List down helpful tips in preventing electrical accidents at home

using Ohms Law.
2. How do the length and the cross-sectional area affect the
resistance of the wire?
3. Differentiate series and parallel circuits in terms of voltage,
current, and resistance.
4. Why is connecting many appliances into the same outlet is
discouraged?
5. Discuss the similarities of fuse, circuit breakers, and switch on the
basis of connection and its effect(s) to the circuit.
48

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Using models or illustrations, explain how movements
along faults generate an earthquake. (S8ES-IIa-14)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the terminologies related to earthquake to its
descriptions.
Descriptions Terminologies
_______1. A study of earthquakes and A. earthquake
the waves they create.
_______2. Block of crust that is located B. fault
above the fault plane.
_______3. Block of crust that lies C. footwall
beneath the fault plane
_______4. . A fracture in the Earth`s crust D. hanging wall
where one side moves
relative to the other. E. seismology
________5. A sudden shaking of the ground
caused by the underground F. stress
rock masses that shift position.
49

Identification
Directions: Tell the SPECIFIC type of fault illustrated. Write your answers
on the space provided.
50

Fill in the blank
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct term that would complete
the thought of the paragraph. Choose from the options inside
the parenthesis.
Earthquakes occur repeatedly along ___________ (faults, cliff)

which are zones of weakness in the crust. These are formed when the
forces that move in different directions go beyond the elastic limit of the
rock masses. Shift in position results when ___________ (two, three) blocks
slip or move against one another. Tremendous amounts of ___________
(friction, stress) as plates grind each other in different directions leads to
jerky movements or violent earthquakes. A ___________ (dip-slip, strike-
slip) movement occurs when the hanging wall moved predominantly up
or down relative to the footwall leading to a normal or reverse fault. A
___________ (dip-slip, strike-slip) movement, on the other hand, happens
when the hanging wall moves horizontally thereby producing left lateral
or right lateral fault. When the hanging wall motion is neither dominantly
vertical nor horizontal, the motion is called oblique-slip.
51

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Differentiate the
 Epicenter of an earthquake from its focus
 Intensity of an earthquake from its magnitude
 Active and inactive faults. (S8ES-IIa-15)

Directions: Write F if the statement refers to a focus of an earthquake
and E if it describes an earthquake`s epicenter.
_______ 1. It is also known as the hypocenter of an earthquake.
_______ 2. A point within the earth where an earthquake originates.
_______ 3. It is the weakest part of the crust where slippage of rocks

occurs.
_______ 4. The area on earth`s surface directly above the earthquake`s

starting point.
_______ 5. It is where the most violent shaking of the ground is felt and
most damages are recorded.
52

Completion Type
Directions: Compare earthquake`s intensity from its magnitude by
completing the Venn diagram. Use the terms given inside
the box below.
Intensity Strength of Magnitude

an
Earthquake
seismograph Mercalli Scale Richter Scale
strength of shock waves damage caused by an earthquake
seismograph
53

Table Completion
Directions: Differentiate active from inactive fault by filling in the table
below with the data required.
Basis of Comparison Active Fault Inactive Fault

No. of earthquakes
produced
Records of Activity
(specify time element)
Location where it
tends to occur
54

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Demonstrate how underwater earthquakes generate
tsunamis. (S8ES-IIb-16)

Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if
it’s not.
_______1. Tsunami is a Japanese term for “harbor wave”.
_______2. Tsunamis are “wave trains” consisting of multiple waves.
_______3. Tsunamis consist of series of ocean waves with very long

wavelengths.
_______4. As tsunami travels it diminishes its height while increasing

its speed.
_______5. Tsunamis can be caused by many circumstances

underwater such as earthquakes, landslides, and
volcanic eruptions.
55

Sequencing Events
Directions: The following are statements that will explain how tsunamis
are generated by underwater earthquakes. Show the order
of the development of events in the generation of tsunami
by writing numbers (1-5) on the box provided.
Energy is released and transferred to the water.
Two oceanic plates meet and collide with one another,

storing energy between them.
The displaced water forms into a wave and it travels into

shallower water in coastal area.
The two colliding plates move, the denser plate sub ducts
and the lighter plate up thrusts.
The wave`s speed as it travels diminishes but its height

increases drastically which causes destruction of life and
property.
56

Picture Analysis
Directions: Answer the following questions using the image below.
http://geology.com/articles/tsunami-geology.shtml
Describe the type of earthquakes that lead to the occurrence of

tsunami?
Epicenter location (3 pts) ____________________
Depth (2 pts) ____________________
57

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how earthquake waves provide information
about the interior of the earth. (S8ES-IIc-17)
Completion Test
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct term to complete the
sentences
below.
seismogram seismograph body waves

primary waves surface waves secondary waves
1. A body wave that travels in all types of media is called __________.

2. A wave that travels through the earth`s interior is classified as
__________.
3. During earthquakes, seismographs record data known as
__________.
4. Seismic waves are detected, measured and recorded by the
instrument __________.
6. Destructive ground movements that are last recorded by
seismographs are caused by __________.
58

True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement given about earthquake and
seismic wave is correct and FALSE if it is not.
_________ 1. Primary wave is an example of a seismic wave.

_________ 2. Earthquake’s strength can be detected and recorded by a
seismograph.
_________ 3. Seismic waves behaves differently as they encounter
materials in different states.
_________ 4. Earthquakes occur frequently in the area called Pacific Ring
of Fire.
_________ 5. Seismic waves exhibit the same speed and effect on rock
masses where they pass through.
Fill in the blank

Directions: Using the terms inside the box, fill in the blanks with the correct
answer to complete the thought of the paragraph.
densities liquid pressure seismic waves solid temperature
The deepest exploration made by man did not reach the

mantle layer. As the depth increases, _______________and pressure
likewise increase which served as obstacles for geologists to go further.
Though studies cannot be conducted directly, a lot of information has
been said about the earth. These came from analyzing the behavior of
_______________. The seismic waves continually being refracted along a
curved path as they travel through the earth`s interior leads to the idea
that the earth`s interior is composed of materials of varying -
_______________. Velocities of P and S waves that increased abruptly as
59

they pass through the mantle show that mantle is composed of materials
that have been elastic due to extreme _______________. The idea of outer
core in ________________ form considers the velocity of S wave that had
gone to zero when it reached the outer core. Seismic waves play an
important role in providing scientists information about the nature and
composition of the earth interior.
60

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how typhoons develop. (S8ES-IId-18)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Name the parts of the typhoon. Write your answer on the
space provided after the number.
Photo Credits: https://integsci8rshscar.weebly.com/uploads/5/6/7/8/56780415/667331814.gi
61

Multiple Choice Test
1. Which of the following is characterized by counter clockwise

rotating air mass around a central part called eye that has a low
pressure?
A. hurricane
B. storm
C. tropical cyclone
D. typhoon
2. What do you call the tropical cyclone that occurs in the Northwest
Pacific Ocean?
A. hurricane
B. storm
C. tropical depression
D. typhoon
3. Which of the following conditions is NOT necessary for a tropical

cyclone to form?
A. displacement of 5⁰ Latitude from equator

B. enhanced mid-troposphere relative humidity
C. stable winds conditions at the genesis site.
D. sufficient ocean thermal energy of more than 26.5⁰C.
62

4. What category of tropical cyclone has a maximum wind speed of
118 km/h?
A. Tropical Depression
B. Tropical Storm
C. Typhoon
D. Super Typhoon
5. Once a typhoon has developed, what factor is very much

needed to supply the abundance of water needed for its
development?
A. cold air
B. high humidity
C. low humidity
D. warm water
63

Fill in the blank
Directions: Using the words inside the box, fill in the blanks to complete
the thought of the paragraph.
cold water warm water

ocean water high humidity
optimal location Coriolis Effect
There are six main requirements for a typhoon to form and

develop. It needs an abundance of _______(1)_________. The
_______(2)_________ must have a temperature of 26.5⁰C spanning from
the surface up to a depth of at least 50 meters (160 ft.) or more. Another
requirement is to have too much water vapor present in air known as
_______(3)_________. The low vertical wind shear also contributes to the
formation of typhoon. It also needs an _______(4)_________ for typhoon
development which is 500 km (300 mi) from the Equator. The
_______(5)_________ causes the powerful wind to spin at this particular
region. If any one of these requirements were below average or
minimum, a tropical cyclone would not form.
64

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Infer why the Philippines is prone to typhoons.
(S8ES-IId-19)
Multiple Choice Item
1. What is meant by PAR?

A. Philippine Area of Responsibility
B. Philippine Altitude and Responsibility
C. Philippine Atmospheric and Responsibility
D. Philippine Astronomical and Responsibility
2. What weather bureau monitors the typhoon once it enters the
Philippines?
A. DENR
B. PAGASA
C. NASA
D. NDRRMC
65

3. In which part of the earth is Philippines located that makes it prone
to typhoons?
A. near the equator
B. away from the equator
C. near the tropic of cancer
D. near the tropic of Capricorn
4. What is the body of water surrounding the Philippines which
developed 60% of the world`s typhoons?
A. Atlantic Ocean
B. Arctic Ocean
C. Indian Ocean
D. Pacific Ocean
5. When PAGASA quotes a wind speed, in what part of the typhoon
are they referring to?
A. eye
B. eye wall
C. inner rain bands
D. outer rain bands
66

True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it’s wrong.
________ 1. The Philippines is considered as one of the typhoon-prone

areas in the world.
________ 2. The Philippines is prone to typhoon because of its optimal
location in the Earth near the Equator.
________ 3. Typhoons develop over large bodies of water and move by
steering winds in the troposphere.
________ 4. The Philippines is situated in the Pacific Ring of Fire which
makes the country vulnerable to natural calamities like
typhoons.
________ 5. One source of tropical cyclone formation is the Intertropical
Convergence Zone (ITCZ) located away from the tropic of
cancer.
67

Fill in the blank
Directions: Using the words inside the box, fill in the blanks to complete
the thought of the paragraph.
developing storm optimal location

geographic area Pacific Ocean
geographic location tropical cyclone
The Philippines lies at the western rim of the _____ (1)________,

north of the equator. The country is located within the _____ (2)________
called tropics. It is an archipelago surrounded by warm waters from the
Pacific Ocean that powers the low-pressure formation that leads to
typhoon. Likewise, its distance from the Equator is a/an _____ (3)________
for the Coriolis effect, which causes powerful winds to spin in the _____
(4)________. Thus, it is all about the countries _____ (5)________ that
makes it vulnerable to typhoon formation.
68

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how landmasses and bodies of water affect
typhoons. (S8ES-IIe-20)
Multiple Choice Item
1. Which body of water along the Pacific Ring of Fire is the Philippines
located?
A. Eastern part of the Pacific Ocean
B. Western part of the Pacific Ocean
C. Northern part of the Pacific Ocean
D. Southern part of the Pacific Ocean
2. What conditions affect the formation of typhoons on the large

bodies of water?
A. cold water and low humidity
B. cold water and high humidity
C. warm water and low humidity
D. warm water and high humidity
3. How does the landmasses of the Philippines affect typhoons

during its landfall?
A. it weakens the typhoon
B. it stabilizes the typhoon
C. it builds up the typhoon
D. it strengthens the typhoon
69

4. In which body of water are typhoons usually formed?
A. Arctic Ocean
B. Indian Ocean
C. Pacific Ocean
D. Antarctic Ocean
5. What happens to a typhoon when it is on the large bodies of water

while making its way to the land?
A. bigger
B. stable
C. stronger
D. weaker
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it’s wrong,
____________ 1. A typhoon will weaken if the water is not warm enough.
____________ 2. If a typhoon landed, it increases its sustained wind and
heavy rains.
____________ 3. In the Philippines, most typhoons develop in the
large bodies of Indian Ocean.
____________ 4. Typhoons gain their energy from moisture that
evaporates from warm ocean water.
____________ 5. Even with warm water, a typhoon can encounter dry air
masses, which can enter into a typhoon and weaken it or
prevent it from strengthening.
70

Fill in the blank
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct term to complete the thought
of the paragraph.
The landmasses and ______(1)________ (bodies of water,

geologic features) that surrounds a country, greatly affects the
formation and strength of typhoons. They affect typhoon based on what
or how strong the ______(2)________ (energy, gustiness) is released by the
landforms and bodies of water. Typhoons gain energy from warm ocean
water and lose energy over ______(3)________ (cold, lukewarm) water.
Interaction with land will ______(4)________ (strengthen, weaken) a
typhoon. While the typhoon is still in the vast bodies of ocean it becomes
stronger because of the presence of the warm water, ______(5)________
(high humidity, low humidity) and low vertical wind shear. On the land,
since there is an absence of warm water and other requirements it
makes the typhoon weak and lesser energy gained.
71

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Trace the path of typhoons that enter the Philippine
Area of Responsibility (PAR) using a map and tracking
data. (S8ES-IIf-21)
Alternative Response Type

Directions: Study the map of the Philippine Area of Responsibility
carefully. Given the following coordinates, identify if the
typhoon is located inside the PAR. Answer with YES or NO.
Photo credit: https://www.slideshare.net/science-grade-8-teachers-manual
1. 13⁰ N, 137⁰ E
2. 15⁰ N, 128⁰ E
3. 17⁰ N, 130⁰ E
4. 23⁰ N, 110⁰ E
5. 24⁰ N, 122⁰ E
72

Multiple Choice Test
Use the picture below of track of Typhoon LUIS to answer item no 1-3.
https://nesinfo.inquirer.net/files/2014/09/Track-ofTyphoon-Luis.jpg
1. When did Typhoon Luis enter the PAR?

A. 2 a.m. of September 12, 2014
B. 2 a.m. of September 14, 2014
C. 2 a.m. of September 15, 2014
D. 2 a.m. of September 16, 2014
2. In what direction did Typhoon Luis move?

A. Northeast
B. Northwest
C. Southeast
D. Southwest
73

3. Which part of the Philippines was hit by Typhoon Luis?
A. Eastern Visayas
B. Northern Luzon
C. Southern Luzon
D. Western Visayas
Use the picture of track on Typhoon Yolanda to answer item no. 4 and 5.
Picture credits: https://static.rappler.com/images//track-yolanda-20131107-8am..gif
4. When did Typhoon Yolanda leave the PAR?

A. 8 p.m. of November 06, 2013
B. 8 a.m. of November 07, 2013
C. 8 a.m. of November 08, 2013
D. 8 a.m. of November 10, 2013
5. Which part of the Philippines was first hit by the typhoon?
A. Bohol
B. Cebu
C. Davao
D. Leyte
74

Tropical Cyclone Tracking
Directions: Using the map of the Philippine Area of Responsibility (PAR)
and the given data, trace the path of the typhoon that enters
the PAR by plotting the coordinates.
https://www.slideshare.net/science-grade-8-teachers-manual
Data on the path taken by the typhoon:
Time Date Coordinates

1. 5 p.m. December 04, 2016 8°N, 131°E
2. 7 p.m. December 04, 2016 10°N, 128°E
3. 9 a.m. December 05, 2016 12°N, 125°E
4. 6 p.m. December 05, 2016 14°N, 121°E
5. 8 a.m. December 06, 2016 16°N, 118°E
75

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Compare and contrast comets, meteors, and
asteroids. (S8ES-IIg-22)
Completion Type
Directions: Compare and contrast the characteristics of comets and
asteroids by completing the table with the missing details.
Characteristics Comets Asteroids
Origin Kuiper Belt and Oort (1)

Cloud
Shape (2) Varied/ irregular
Ice (frozen water); frozen

gases (ammonia,
Chemical Composition methane, and carbon
(3)
dioxide); other organic
compounds ( carbon-
containing compounds)
Orbit (4) More rounded
Orbital period (years) 75 to 100,000++ (5)
76

Directions: Put a check mark (/) before the number if the following
phrases describes a meteor and mark X if not.
_____ 1. a light phenomenon
_____ 2. bright streak of light darting the night sky
_____ 3. moves and appears in the sky for a longer time
_____ 4. stray pieces of stony or metallic rocks that reach the
earth surface
_____ 5. come from two sources: from the asteroid belt and from
tails of comets
Fill in the blank

Directions: Fill in the blanks with the word or words that will complete the
thought of the paragraph. Choose the correct answer inside
the box.
light meteor shower

meteorite shooting star
meteoroid star
Meteor is another member of the solar system. A meteor is a

______ phenomenon. It is also called as ______. It occurs when a ______
burns up when it enters the Earth’s atmosphere. Meteors that are able
to land ons the surface of the Earth are called ______. When Earth orbits
the sun and passes through the orbit of a comet where these comet
fragments are found, we observe a celestial event in which a number of
meteors radiate from one point in the sky. This phenomenon is called
______. Both meteor and meteor shower are not stars.
77

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Predict the appearance of comets based on recorded
data of previous appearances. (S8ES-IIh-23)
Directions: Predict the appearances of the comet based on the

information given by completing the timeline below.
Halley’s Comet appears every 76 years.

Edmund Halley predicted its reappearance in 1910.
The last time it reappeared was in 1986. When do you
think will be the next five (5) appearances of comet
Halley?
1910 __(1)__ __(3)__ __(5)__
1986 __(2)__ __(4)__
Multiple Choice
Direction: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
1. What is the most commonly observed comet of the 21st century
and reflected as one of the brightest for many decades?
A. Encke
B. Hale-Bopp
C. Halley
D. Lovejoy
78

2. Which of the following comets is designated 2P in the list of
recognized periodic comets after the only one exceeding it in
fame, 1P Halley?
A. Encke
B. Hale-Bopp
C. Swift-Tuttle
D. Lovejoy
3. When is the closest approach of the comet Hale-Bopp to the Sun?
A. July 23, 1995
B. April 1, 1997
C. April 19, 2007
D. March 10, 2017
4. Reports recorded that a comet approached Earth in 1531, 1607
and 1682. What could be the periodic pattern of the appearance
of this comet?
A. 67
B. 70
C. 76
D. 80
5. Comet Halley is the most well-known comet. It returns to Earth’s
vicinity periodically. The last time it appeared in the sky was in 1986
and previous to it was in 1910. When could be the next possible
appearance of comet Halley on earth?
A. 2031
B. 2042
C. 2062
D. 2076
79

Fill in the blank
Directions: Read the paragraph. Complete every sentence by choosing
the correct answer inside the parenthesis.
Comets appear in the sky from time to time. The most popular one
is Comet ______ (Encke, Halley). This comet returns to Earth’s vicinity
periodically and is classified as ______ (long-period, short-period) comet.
It is seen in the sky every ______ (76, 85) years. The last time it reappeared
was in 1986 and is predicted to come again in ______ (2062, 2071).
This comet was named after ______ (Edmund Halley, Franz Encke),
an English astronomer, who studied the reports of a comet approaching
Earth. Halley didn't live to see the comet's return, but his discovery led to
the comet being named after him.
80

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain the regular occurrence of meteor showers.
(S8ES-IIi-j-24)
Short Answer Test

Directions: Read and answer the questions correctly.
A meteor shower is a celestial event in which the number of meteors is

observed to radiate, or originate, from one point in the night sky. These
meteors are caused by streams of cosmic debris called meteoroids
entering earth`s atmosphere at extremely high speeds in parallel
trajectory.
1. What is a meteor shower?
2. Where do meteor showers originate?
3. When does a meteor shower occur?
4. Why do meteors seem to originate in only one point in the sky?
5. Where does meteor shower get its name?
81

Sequencing Events
Directions: Arrange the following statements based on how the events
happen. Use numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 to indicate the arrangement of how
meteor showers occur.
_____ Comets orbit the sun and leave fragments along their orbit.
_____ These fragments continue to orbit the Sun just like their
parent comets.
_____ The meteor shower is named after the constellation where
they seem to originate from.
_____ During a meteor shower, meteors seem to originate from
only one point in the sky because the meteoroids are
travelling in parallel paths with the same velocity.
_____ When Earth orbits the Sun and passes through the orbit of a
comet where these comet fragments are found, many
streaks of light are seen from Earth which is called meteor
shower.
82

Completion Test
Directions: Make a flowchart explaining how a meteor shower occurs.
Use the guide questions on the side in filling the chart.
1. What do comets/asteroids leave along their orbit

as it revolves around the sun?
2. What happen to those materials left by comets/

asteroids?
3. What happen when Earth orbits the sun and

passes through the orbit of a comet where
fragments are found?
4. Why do meteors seem to originate in only

one point in the sky during meteor shower?
5. Where does a meteor shower get its name
83

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain the properties of solids, liquids, and gases
based on the particle nature of matter
(S8MT-IIIa-b-8)
Table Completion
Directions: Differentiate the properties of the states of matter by
completing the table below.
Properties
States of Matter Volume and
Compressibility Viscosity
Shape
Solid Fixed volume (1) Does not flow
and shape easily
Liquid (2) (3) Flow easily
Gas (4) Highly (5)

Compressible
84

True or False
___________ 1. Liquids are difficult to compress.
___________ 2. Molecules of solid are not close to one another.
___________ 3. Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space.
___________ 4. Molecules of gases are well separated with no regular
arrangement.
___________ 5. In general, as the temperature rises, matter moves to a
more steady state.
Essay
Directions: Answer the question below comprehensively.
Why do gas molecules move rapidly while solids do not?
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________.
85

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain physical changes in terms of the
arrangement and motion of atoms and molecules
(S8MT-IIIc-d-9)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the situation with the corresponding phase change.
Write the letter only.
Situation Phase Change

1. ice cube placed in a glass of water A. condensation
2. drying laundry under the sun B. deposition
3. making of popsicle C. evaporation
4. turning dry ice into fog D. freezing
5. formation of dew on the leaves E. melting
F. sublimation
86

Short Answer Test
Directions: Answer the questions with reference to the diagram below:
Phase Diagram
http://www.kentchemistry.com/links/Matter/PhaseChanges.html
1. When do sublimation and deposition occur?

2. What is the difference between condensation and vaporization?
3. Describe what happens to the temperature and pressure during
melting and freezing.
Multiple Choice
1. What happens to the water particles when ice melts?
A. It gains energy and begins to move.
B. It loses energy and begins to move.
C. It moves very far apart and gains energy.
D. It comes close together and loses energy.
87

2. What is produced when water changes from liquid to gas at
room temperature?
A. fog
B. ice
C. steam
D. water vapor
3. What change in the state of matter occurs when solid particles
begin to move away from each other?
A. boiling
B. condensation
C. melting http://sciencequiz.net/jcscience/jcchemistry/states_of_matter/matter_mcq.htm
D. sublimation
4. Which states of matter is the term "fluid" can be described?
A. gas and liquid
B. liquid and solid
C. solid and gas
D. solid, liquid and gas
5. This diagram shows how particles of a gas occupy space, move
randomly at high speeds in three dimensions and collide with
each other with the container. The arrows represent the
velocities of the gas particles. What property best explains the
illustration?
A. It does not flow.
B. It has definite shape.
C. It can be compressed. http://sciencequiz.net/jcscience/jcchemistry/states_of_matter/matter_mcq.htm
D. It moves randomly at all direction.
88

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and
electrons in a particular atom (S8MT-IIIe-f-10)
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct word from the box to
complete the thought of the paragraph.
atom electrons element ion neutron proton
What is an Atom?
All substances are made up of matter and the fundamental unit
of matter is the (1)______. The atom constitutes the smallest particle of
a/an (2)______. The atom is made of a central nucleus containing
(3)______ (positively-charged) and (4)______ (with no charge). The
(5)______ (negatively-charged with negligible mass) revolve/s around
the nucleus in different imaginary paths called orbitals or shells.
89

Multiple Choice
1. Who first developed the concept of atom as the smallest

indivisible piece of matter?
A. Arnold Sommerfeld
B. Democritus
C. Joseph J. Thomson
D. Niels Bohr
2. Which of the following statement is TRUE?

A. The number of protons is equal to the mass number.
B. Atomic weight is approximately equal to atomic mass.
C. Mass number is approximately equal to atomic number.
D. Isotopes are elements having the same atomic masses but
different atomic numbers.
3. Who discovered the electron?

A. Ernest Rutherford
B. Erwin Schrödinger
C. John Dalton
D. Joseph J. Thomson
90

4. What atomic model did Joseph J. Thomson propose?
A. Nuclear Model
B. Planetary Model
C. Plum Pudding Model
D. Quantum Mechanical Model
5. Which of these does NOT conclude Rutherford’s alpha particle

scattering experiment?
A. The atom is mostly an empty space.
B. The electrons move around in the space outside the nucleus.
C. Massive, negatively-charged particles are scattered within
the atom.
D. There is a small and heavy mass with positive charge at the
center of the atom known as the nucleus.
Table Completion
Directions: Complete the chart below. Use your periodic table for the
symbol of the element.
Atomic Mass Symbol of Number of Number of

Number Number the Element Protons Neutrons
23 12
19 K
27
91

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Trace the development of the periodic table from
observations based on similarities in properties of
elements. (S8MT-IIIg-h-11)
Sequencing Event
Directions: Arrange in chronological order the development of the
periodic table. Write letters from A to E on the space
provided.
___ 1. John Newland (Great Britain) arranged the elements in order of
their increasing atomic weights into sets of eight elements called
Law of Octaves.
___ 2. Antoine Lavoisier (France) arranged the elements into groups of

simple substances that do not decompose by any means.
___ 3. Dmetri Mendeleev (Russia) arranged the elements in order of

increasing atomic weights in a graphical method; but in
addition, he left gaps for still undiscovered elements.
___ 4. Johann W. Dobereiner (Sweden) arranged the elements in triads.
___ 5. Lothar Meyer (Germany) arranged elements in order of

increasing atomic weights in graphical method made by
plotting atomic volume against the relative atomic mass
explaining the anomalies in Newland’s Table.
92

Fill in the Blank
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct word/s from the box to
complete the thought of the paragraph.
atomic number elements increasing modern periodic table

periodic law periodically regularly
The organization of the (1) __________ in the periodic table are all
related to their electronic structures. The (2) __________ states that
properties of the elements vary periodically with the atomic numbers. It
is because the elements vary in a regular way with increasing (3)
__________. This becomes the basis for the arrangement of the elements
in the (4) __________. Each horizontal row of the periodic table is called
a (5) __________ while each vertical column is called a (6) __________ or
family.
True or False
in the periodic table,

___________ 1. each horizontal row is called a period.
___________ 2. each vertical column is called a group or family.
___________ 3. transition elements are the elements in groups 1-2 and
13-18.
___________ 4. group 16 elements are called noble gases.
___________ 5. the metals are found on the left of the metalloids
(except hydrogen), and the nonmetals on the right side.
93

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Use the periodic table to predict the chemical
behavior of an element (S8MT-IIIi-j-12)
Short Answer Test

Directions: Arrange the following elements according to the property
and trend given.
1. increasing atomic radius K Na Rb

2. increasing ionization energy S Se O
3. decreasing electron affinity Br F Cl
4. decreasing metallic property Al Mg Na
5. increasing reactivity K Rb Cs
True or False
Write the answer on your paper.
________ 1. Metallic properties decrease within a period.
________ 2. Metals have the tendency to lose electrons and become
cations.
________ 3. Atomic size within the same group decreases from top to
bottom.
________ 4. Elements with high ionization energies tend to have very
metallic properties.
________ 5. Electronegativity decreases from top to bottom within the
same group of elements.
94

Sentence Completion
Directions: Read the following items and fill in the blanks with the
correct word/s from the box below.
electron configuration electronegativity energy levels

valence electrons valence shell reactivity
1. The ease and speed with which metal reacts with another
substance is called ___________.
2. The highest energy level that an electron occupies is referred to
as ___________.
3. Electrons that are involved in the chemical reactions are called
___________.
4. Electron shells are also called ____________ because each of
them correspond to a particular energy.
5. The way electrons of an atom are distributed in various energy
levels or electron shells is called ____________.
95

Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following atoms has the smallest atomic radius?
A. Aluminum (Al)
B. Boron (B)
C. Gallium (Ga)
D. Indium (In)
2. The following elements belong to period 3, which of these is the

most electronegative?
A. Chromium (Cr)
B. Magnesium (Mg)
C. Manganese (Mn)
D. Titanium (Ti)
3. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?

A. Antimony (Sb)
B. Germanium (Ge)
C. Iodine (I)
D. Silicon (Si)
4. Which of the following atoms has the least tendency to give up

electrons?
A. Cobalt (Co)
B. Fluorine (F)
C. Lithium (Li)
D. Phosphorus (P)
96

5. Which of these statements is TRUE?
A. Metals are good reducing agents.
B. Metals have high ionization energies.
C. There are more non-metallic elements than metallic elements.
D. Electronegativity and electron affinity are both measures of
how an atom gives off electrons.
97

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain ingestion, absorption, assimilation, and excretion.
(S8LT-IVa-13)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Identify the parts and functions of the digestive system. Write
your answers in the table below.
The Digestive System’s Parts and Functions
98

Matching Type
Directions: Match the parts of the digestive system with their

appropriate descriptions.
Descriptions Parts of the Digestive System
1. first peristaltic action takes place A. Large intestine

here
2. food is masticated here so its surface B. Stomach

area will increase
3. muscular churning takes place here C. Mouth
4. undigested particles move in this D. Anus

part
5. this part is where undigested particles E. Rectum

are excreted
F. Esophagus
99

Short Answer Test (Sequencing Events)
Directions: From numbers 1 to 5, give the correct sequence of the

chemical digestion of food, absorption and assimilation of
nutrients. Write the number on the space provided.
___ A. Digested food particles are absorbed through villi and

microvilli structures in the small intestine out of diffusion and
other cell transport mechanisms.
___ B. Digestion of fats, (emulsification using bile and digestion

through lipase), carbohydrates (through amylases from
pancreas) and protein (through pancreatic and intestinal
enzymes) takes place in the small intestine.
___ C. Liver process food nutrients in blood to become compounds

vital for living. Cells then make use of various nutrients
processed in the liver.
___D. Hydrochloric acid and other stomach juices mix with food to
break down fats and proteins into smaller molecules.
___E. Salivary amylase starts to digest carbohydrates breaking it

into smaller compounds.
100

Essay
Directions: Discuss how food absorption and assimilation of nutrients

takes place in the digestive system. Mention briefly the
interactions of Digestive System to other organ systems.
Chemical Digestion: Absoption and Assimilation of Food Nutrients
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________.
101

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain how diseases of the digestive system are
prevented, detected, and treated. (S8LT-IVb-14)
Multiple Choice
1. What is the disease of the digestive system that is characterized by
extreme diarrhea with rapid and severe depletion of body fluids and
salts caused by a bacteria infecting the small intestine?
A. cholecystitis
B. cholera
C. inflammatory bowel disease
D. jaundice
2. What is the digestive system disorder characterized by delayed

passage of waste through the lower portion of the large intestine
and discharge of hardened and dry feces?
A. constipation
B. diarrhea
C. hepatitis
D. hernia
102

3. What disease of the digestive system is characterized by the
inflammation of the liver that results from a variety of causes either
infectious or non-infectious agents?
A. cirrhosis
B. gastritis
C. hepatitis
D. ulcerative colitis
4. What is the disease of the digestive system having symptoms which

includes the abnormal and swift passage of waste material through the
large intestine, with consequent discharge of loose feces from the anus?
A. celiac disease
B. Crohn disease
C. diarrhea
D. irritable bowel syndrome
5. What is the disease of the digestive system whose symptoms

includes
Heart burn with burning sensation in the chest and upper
abdomen?
A. appendicitis
B. Celiac Disease
C. esophageal cancer
D. gastro esophageal reflux disease
103

True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it’s not.
1. Eating at the right time, the right kind and the right amount of
food is the best way of keeping our digestive system healthy.
2. One must be mindful to eat food that is rich in fiber to avoid

loose bowel movement and other diseases in the digestive
system.
3. One must take at least 5 glasses of water a day for proper

digestion and elimination of wastes.
4. Vitamins and minerals deficiency can be avoided if one

carefully plans his menu.
5. An ideal food plate should contain ¾ full of vegetables and

fruits.
104

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Identify healthful practices that affect the digestive
system. (S8LT-IVc-15)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Based on the pictures below, identify the digestive disease a

person is suffering from. Mention at least one common cause of such
disease.
1.
Photo credits http://www.caretricks.com/health/appendicitis-causes-symptoms-diagnosis-treatment/
Disease:_________________________________________________
Cause: _________________________________________________
105

2.
Photo credits: https://www.fascrs.org/patients/disease-condition/colon-cancer-expanded-version
Disease:_________________________________________________
Cause: _________________________________________________
3.
Photo credits: https://www.drugs.com/health-guide/gastroesophageal-reflux-disease-gerd.html
Disease:_________________________________________________
Cause: _________________________________________________
106

4.
Photo credits: http://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/cirrhosis/home/ovc-20187218
Disease:________________________________________________
Cause: ________________________________________________
5.
Photo credits: https://hepcassoc.org/Whatishepatitisc.html
Disease:________________________________________________
Cause: ________________________________________________
107

Short Answer Test (Checklist)
Directions: Read the following statements below and place a check

mark on the agree column if the statement shows a good
practice of keeping the digestive system healthy and place
a check mark on the disagree column if it’s not a good
practice and fill in the reason in the column provided.
Statements Agree Disagree Reason for

disagreeing
1. Careful planning of meal can

help maintain a healthy
digestive system.
2. Regular excretion of wastes
like feces promotes healthy
intestines.
3. Eating junk food improves the
process of digestion.
4. Nutrient deficiency can be
minimized by taking the right
kind and the right amount of
food.
5. Regular excersice can help in
improving peristaltic movement
and digestion.
108

True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement below describes a practice that
keeps the digestive sytem healthy and FALSE if it’s not.
1. Food rich in fats and oil should be taken moderately.

2. Exercise and healthy lifestyle can help in maintaining a
healthy digestive system.
3. People having problems with regulating their sugar
intake should eliminate food rich in carbohydrates.
4. To avoid peptic ulcers, one must always eat on time.
5. Eating fibrous food will help eliminate wastes easily.
6. Fatty liver can be avoided by drinking alcohol.
7. Drinking softdrinks with an empty stomach can help
digest food.
8. Proper diet can reduce the risk of having gallstones.
9. Stress should be managed to avoid problems like
indigestion and loose bowel movement.
10. One good way to avoid cholera is to make sure that
the water is safe to use.
109

Test IV Essay
Directions: Discuss how a person can keep his digestive system

healthy?
Mention practices that promotes a healthy digestive system.
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
______________________________________.
110

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Compare mitosis and meiosis, and their role in the cell-
division cycle. (S8LT-IVd-16)
Multiple Choice
1. What is the longest part of the cell cycle?
A. S phase
B. G2 phase
C. Interphase
D. Mitotic phase
2. What do you call the protein where the DNA coils around to form a
chromatin?
A. histone
B. keratin
C. lactase
D. transcriptase
111

3. Cells that mature leave the cell cycle and are arrested at _____
phase.
A. G 0
B. G 1
C. G 2
D. S
4. Sister chromatids are attached in a point called _______________.
A. centromere
B. kinetochore
C. p arms
D. q arms
5. The specific phase of the cell cycle that ensures the replication of
the DNA is _______.
A. G0
B. G1
C. G 2
D. S
112

6. What is the role of mitosis?
A. growth and repair of tissues
B. preservation of species
C. formation of gametes
D. variation of species
7. What’s the role meiosis in the living world?
A. growth and repair of tissues
B. preservation of species
C. control of deformities
D. repair of genes
8. How many daughter cells are produced after mitosis?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
113

9. If an organism has 8 chromosomes, how many
chromosomes will be produced in each daughter cell after meiosis?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
10. How would you describe the nature of daughter cells produced in
mitosis?
A. completely different from the parent cell.
B. partly the same to that of the parent cell.
C. almost alike to that of the parent cell
D. exactly alike from the parent cell.
114

Picture Analysis
Directions: Using the picture below, arrange the stages of mitosis and
describe each stage.
Picture Credits:
http://www.town.hull.ma.us/Public_Documents/HullMA_HighSchClass/Blair/mitosis%20questions
(w/ modification)
No. Stage Name

First Stage : ___ ____________
Description: _________________________________________
Second Stage : ___ ________

Description: _________________________________________
Third Stage : ___ ________

Description: _________________________________________
Fourth Stage : ___ ________

Description: _________________________________________
115

Matching Type
Directions: Match the stages of meiosis with their corresponding

descriptions.
Descriptions Stages of Meiosis

1. Nucleus starts to re-appear, cytoplasm is A. Prophase 1
finally divided, chromosomes uncoil.
2. Homologous chromosomes break apart and B. Telophase 2
moves towards the opposite poles.
3. Sister chromatids start to re-appear. C. Prophase 2
4. Centromeres break as spindle fibers D. Anaphase 1
contract, pulling the sister chromatids toward
the opposite poles.
5. Homologous chromosomes align themselves E. Telophase 1
side by side at the center.
6. Sister chromatids align themselves at the F. Metaphase 1
center.
7. Nucleus starts to reappear, sister chromatids G. Anaphase 2
uncoil and become less visible.
8. Homologous chromosomes become visible. H. Metaphase 2
I. Interphase 1
116

Table Completion
Directions: Given the basis below, compare mitosis from meiosis.
Comparison between Mitosis and Meiosis
Criterion Mitosis Meiosis
Importance
No. of daughter cells

produced
No. of stages involved
Daughter cells
compared to the parent
cell (in genetic content).
No./set of chromosomes
(haploid/diploid)
117

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain the significance of meiosis in maintaining the
chromosome number. (S8LT-IVe-17)
Multiple Choice
1. How many sperm cells are produced in every cell that undergoes
spermatogenesis?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
2. How many oocyte(s) is/are produced in every cell that completes

oogenesis?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
118

3. How many nuclear division(s) is/are taking place in meiosis?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
4. In what stage of meiosis does the actual reduction of chromosome

number occur?
A. Anaphase 1
B. Anaphase 2
C. Telophase 1
D. Telophase 2
5. In what stage of meiosis does crossing over takes place?
A. Metaphase 1
B. Metaphase 2
C. Prophase 1
D. Prophase 2
119

Matching Type
Directions: Match the chromosomal aberration with its description.
Description Chromosomal aberration

1. Presence of 3 copies of A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
chromosome 21
2. Part of chromosome 5 is lost B. Edward’s syndrome
during cell division
3. XXY chromosome condition in C. Down Syndrome
chromosome 23
4. Only one pair of sex D. Turner’s Syndrome
chromosome is seen (X, 0)
5. Presence of an extra 18th E. Cri du chat syndrome
chromosome
F. Patau syndrome
Fill in the blank
Directions: Fill in the blank with the correct word to complete the idea
of each sentence in the paragraph below.
Meiosis and the Preservation of Species
Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that reduces

the (1)________ (chromosome, chromatin) number by half, creating
four (2)________ (haploid, diploid) cells which are genetically distinct
from the parent cell. This process occurs in all __ (3)________ (asexually,
sexually) reproducing single-celled and multicellular eukaryotes,
including animals, plants, and fungi. Errors in meiosis resulting
120

in (4)_______ (aneuploidy, polyploidy) usually causes miscarriage
and developmental disabilities.
Meiosis is important for the preservation of species and for

(5)_______ (variation, growth). It ensures that the gamete it produces are
different from each other at some extent to create variation among
species. This is made possible by the process called (6)_____ (tetrad
formation, crossing-over) happening in prophase 1 where genetic
material is exchanged between homologues. Meiosis ensures that only
species of the same kind will be able to ___(7)_______ (self-pollinate
, interbreed) as it produces haploid cells containing only __ (8) _
(half, a quarter) of the number of chromosomes that it contained at the
start of the process. Once the sperm meets its egg counterpart in the
process of_____ (9)________ (fertilization, gastrulation) , the cell attains a
complete set of chromosome. Meiosis therefore conserves the number
of (10)________ (gametes, chromosomes) among species as it ensures
that only the sperm and the egg of the same kind will be able to restore
the diploid number of chromosomes among the organisms involved.
121

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Predict phenotypic expressions of traits following simple
patterns of inheritance. (S8LT-IVf-18)
Multiple Choice
1. During gamete formation, the pair of genes separate from each

other. This is stated in what Mendelian law?
A. co-dominance
B. dominance
C. independent assortment
D. segregation
2. What does the law of dominance says?
A. A trait is expressed more when present in heterozygous form

than in homozygous form.
B. Dominant traits are not expressed not until it is combined with

an allele of the same kind.
C. Recessive traits are expressed over dominant traits.
D. Dominant traits are expressed whenever it is present.
122

3. What does the law of independent assortment says about gamete
formation and genes? They __________.
A. separate from each other freely
B. are linked to each other
C. blend with each other
D. join with each other
4. What is a gene? It is a/an __________.
A. DNA segment that codes for a certain protein/trait
B. trait that is based on a protein
C. RNA that codes for a protein
D. protein that leads to a trait
5. What is an allele? It is a __________.
A. point that connects two sister chromatids
B. segment of a given chromosome
C. variant form of a given gene
D. locus in a gene
123

Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the illustrations below and give the possible

genotypes of the gametes. Apply the Mendelian law of
segregation and independent assortment. Write your
answer inside each sex cell.
124

Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the Punnett square by crossing the Pea Plants with the
given traits. Supply the phenotypic and genotypic ratios in
each cross.
A. Monohybrid Cross
Heterozygous Tall Pea Plant that will undergo self-pollination
Male
Female
(Note: Tall is dominant over short)
Phenotypic Ratio: _______________
Genotypic Ratio: ________________
125

B. Dihybrid Cross
Heterozygous yellow seed color homozygous axial flower position

crossed with homozygous yellow seed color terminal flower position.
(Note: Yellow seed color is dominant over green, axial flower

position is dominant over terminal)
Male
Female
Phenotypic Ratio: _______________
Genotypic Ratio: ________________
126

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain the concept of a species. (S8LT-IVg-19)
Fill in the Blank
Directions: Supply what is asked. Write your answer on the space

provided.
1. A group of individuals that interbreed in nature is called

____________.
2. The diversity of animals and plants present in a community is called

____________.
3. The one who devised the binomial system of naming organisms is

____________
4. The lowest among the taxonomic ranks is ____________.
5. Scientific name have two important parts, the _____________ name

and the species name.
True of False
Directions: Write True if the statement about species and biodiversity is

TRUE and FALSE if it’s not.
1. Species diversity refers to the level of biological diversity that

describes as to how many kinds of species are there in a particular
place.
127

2. If two species interbreed and they always produce an offspring that
is sterile, the offspring produced is not a species.
3. The richness of interactions present in a particular place between

organisms and the place they live is what genetic diversity is all about.
4. All organisms in the world are already classified and had been given
scientific names.
5. Gene pool variation is measured through the genetic diversity of

species living in a place.
Essay
Directions: Discuss the concept of species and biodiversity through an

essay. Write your answer on the space provided.
My Understanding of Biodiversity and Species
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
___________________________________.
128

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Classify organisms using the hierarchical taxonomic
system. (S8LT-IVh-20)
Multiple Choice
1. What domain represents organisms whose cell wall composition is

different from the usual and is considered to be ancient?
A. archaea
B. eubacteria
C. eukarya
D. protista
2. What kingdom is characterized of organisms whose cell walls have

peptidoglycans and carbohydrates?
A. archaea
B. eubacteria
C. eukarya
D. protista
129

3. What do you call plants that bear fruits and flowers?
A. angiosperms
B. bryophytes
C. ferns
D. gymnosperms
4. What do you call plants that have no tissues for food and water
transport?
A. flowering
B. non flowering
C. non vascular
D. vascular
5. Which of the following presents the correct hierarchy of classification

of organisms?
A. kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species
B. kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus, species
C. kingdom, phylum, family, order, class, genus, species
D. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
130

Matching Type
Directions: Match the representative species with the phyla where they
belong in.
Phyla Representative Species
1. Nematoda A. Snake
2. Chordata B. Tape worm
3. Molusca C. Star fish
4. Platyhelminthes D. Ascaris
5. Arthopoda E. Sponges
6. Annelida F. Centipede
7. Echinodermata G. Earthworm
8. Cnidaria H. Corals
9. Porifera I. Mussels
J. Dragon
131

Concept Mapping
Fill in the boxes with the appropriate term.
132

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain the advantage of high biodiversity in maintaining
the stability of an ecosystem. (S8LT-IVh-21)
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement describes the endangered

species and FALSE if it’s not.
1. An endangered species is a type of organism that is threatened

to become extinct.
2. Species become endangered for two main reasons: loss
of habitat and loss of genetic variation.
3. High genetic variation is a factor that can lead species to be

extinct.
4. High consumption of shark fins soup affects the population of

sharks seriously.
5. Conversion of forests into industrial and residential lands improves
animals’ habitat.
133

Situation Analysis
Directions: Read each situation carefully. Answer the questions given

and identify possible solution to the given problem.
Situations Questions Possible solutions

1. A place has lots of What is the effect of the
coconuts in one genetic said virus to the entire
variation. A virus suddenly coconut industry in the said
affected the said coconut area?
variety causing it to bear
less fruits thereby affecting
the farmers’ income. Many
of the coconuts eventually
died after a year of
infection.
2. Continued housing What is the effect of the
projects of the government housing projects to the
caused the conversion of habitat of the tarsiers?
forests into residential lots.
Many tasiers are living in
the said forest. This caused
stress to these animals
whose population is
already critical.
3. Pawikan eggs are sold by What is the effect of this
the natives into the market. activity to the population of
Some of the pawikans are pawikan?
slaughtered for economic
reasons.
134

Essay
Directions: Discuss how genetic diversity and population level of

species affect ecological stability.
The Effect of Genetic Diversity and Population Levels of Species to

Ecological Stability.
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________.
135

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Describe the transfer of energy through the trophic
levels. (S8LT-IVi-22)
Multiple Choice
1. What is the original source of energy in the biosphere?
A. decomposers
B. moon
C. producers
D. sun
2. What do you call the organisms capable of photosynthesis?
A. consumers
B. decomposers
C. plants
D. producers
136

3. What do you call the organisms that obtain energy by eating other
organisms?
A. consumers
B. decomposers
C. plants
D. producers
4. When you eat something, how much of the energy is approximately

transferred to you?
A.10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
5. What form of energy is released to the biosphere when one eat

something?
A. chemical energy
B. heat
C. light
D. mechanical energy
137

Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the picture carefully. Answer the questions below.
Picture credits: http://k8schoollessons.com/food-chains-food-webs/
1. What organisms served as producers?
___________________________________________________________________
2. In what order consumer do rabbit, grasshopper and rat belong?
__________________________________________________________________
3. Between the python and the eagle (food chain 3), who gets most of
the energy from the producer?
__________________________________________________________________
4. In what order of consumer do fox, owl and frog belong?
__________________________________________________________________
5. As one consumes another organism, what form of energy is

released?
__________________________________________________________________
138

True or False
Directions: Write true if the statement about the energy pyramid is

correct and false if it’s not.
Picture credits: http://kids.britannica.com/elementary/art-215105/An-energy-pyramid-is-a-model-that-shows-the-
1. Much of the energy from the producer to tertiary consumer is lost in

the form of heat.
2. Grasses and plants capture energy from the sun through

photosynthesis.
3. Snakes belong to third order consumer.
4. Rabbits received lesser amount of energy compared to the eagles.
5. Eagle belongs to the 3rd order consumer.
139

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Analyze the roles of organisms in the cycling of materials.
(S8LT-IVi-23)
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully. Encircle the letter of the correct
answer.
1. In the carbon-oxygen cycle, what is the process responsible for

the production of oxygen made by plants?
A. oxygenation
B. photosynthesis
C. respiration
D. transpiration
2. Nitrogen in air is converted into nitrates through the process of

nitrification carried by what kind of organism?
A. animals
B. bacteria
C. flowering plants
D. leguminous plants
140

3. When organisms die, their remains are decomposed by
bacteria who returns the nitrogen back to the air in what
form?
A. liquefied nitrogen
B. nitrogen gas
C. nitrates
D. protein
4. Water cycle cannot take place in the absence of what

element?
A. human
B. moon
C. sun
D. trees
5. What do you call the conversion of liquid water in plant

leaves into water vapor?
A. condensation
B. evaporation
C. precipitation
D. transpiration
141

Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table with the organisms involved in the processes
being described.
Events in Biogeochemical Cycles Organism Involved

NITROGEN CYCLE
Denitrification out of remains of living 1.
things
Ammonification of N2 in air 2.
CARBON-OXYGEN CYCLE
Releasing of Carbon dioxide through 3.
respiration
Absorption of carbon dioxide 4.
Release of oxygen in air 5.
WATER CYCLE
Release of water vapor in air through 6.
transpiration
142

True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement describes the biogeochemical

cycle and FALSE if it’s not.
1. The hotter the day the faster is the rate of transpiration.
2. Humans can readily consume nitrogen in air for its biological
needs.
3. Cellular respiration takes place both in plants and animals to
utilize oxygen and release CO2.
4. Industrial plants can minimize nitrogen concentration in air.
5. Denitrifying bacteria use remains of living things to produce N2
released in air.
143

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain how materials cycle in an ecosystem.
(S8LT-IVi-24)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Identify the processes in water cycle as seen in the picture

below.
1. ______________________________
2. ______________________________
3. ______________________________
4. ______________________________
5. ______________________________
144

Diagram Making
Directions: Arrange the boxes below to show how carbon and oxygen
are cycled in the environment. Use arrows to link one to
another.
Fill in the blank
Directions: Read the selection below and choose the appropriate term
for each blank to complete the idea presented.
Nitrogen Cycle
Nitrogen is a vital element to sustain life. Nitrogen is important

to life because it is a key part of amino acids and ___1._____ (nucleic
acids, sugars). Also, it is an important part of ATP, which is the basic
energy molecule for living things. It comprises about ___2._____(78%,
79%) of air.
Neither plants nor animals can obtain nitrogen directly from the
atmosphere. Instead, they depend on a process known as ____3_____
(nitrogen fixation, denitrification). Key players in this process are legumes
and the symbiotic___4._____ (fungi, bacteria) which are associated with
145

the legume's root nodules. These organisms convert nitrogen in the soil
to ___5._____ (ammonia, proteins) which can then be taken up by plants.
This process also occurs in aquatic ecosystems, where cyanobacteria
participate.
After nitrogen has been fixed, other bacteria convert it ___6._____

(nitrate, proteins), in a process known as nitrification. Series of
conversions takes place till it takes into a form that can be assimilated
by the plants which later is consumed by animals who in turn gets the
nitrogen containing compounds.
When plants and animals die, they are decomposed and the
decomposers perform the process called ___7._____ (ammonification,
denitrification) releasing the nitrogen back into the air.
146

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Suggest ways to minimize human impact on the
environment. (S8LT-IVj-25)
Multiple Choice
1. Monoculture disrupts ecological balance as it

___________________.
A. displaces other organisms who plays a role in sustaining
the
ecosystem balance of the place.
B. causes the release of harmful gases to the environment.
C. affects how water is cycled in an ecosystem.
D. disrupts cycling of phosphorous.
147

2. Why is it NOT advisable to use herbicides and insecticides for a
long period of time?
I. It can lessen harvest.
II. It requires skilled personnel to manage.
III. It can lead to biological magnification of the chemical.
IV. It can wipe out population of certain insects which is a
food to other organisms.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. IV and I
3. Some chemical fertilizers that reach the water in rivers can cause
___________.
I. enhancement of water quality.
II. eutrophication.
III. death of many life forms in the river.
IV. improved crop yield and growth.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. IV and I
148

4. Continued release of CFCs in air can cause______________.
A. lesser incidence of asthma attacks.
B. decreased oxygen level in seas.
C. improvement of air quality.
D. global warming
5. The following are the harmful effects of herbicides and insecticides

EXCEPT________.
A. accumulation of the said chemicals in the food pyramid
B. death of all insects including those which are beneficial
C. death of all crops in the vicinity.
D. resistance to pesticides
Directions: Place a check mark if the given practice minimizes negative

impact of humans to the environment and x if it does not.
Human Activities / or x
1. Hunting Butandings (Whale Shark)
2. Monoculture
3. Organic Farming
4. Land conversions
5. Use of Solar Energy
149

Table Completion
Directions: Suggest ways/activities that may be done to address issues

that disrupt balance in nature. Write down the expected
benefits it will give the environment. Write your answers in the
table provided.
Environmental Suggested Human Activities Anticipated Positive Effects to the

Issues/Problems Minimizing Impacts to Environment
Ecological Balance
1. Pollution
2. Animal Extinction
3. Loss of habitat
4. Global Warming
5. Depletion of
Resources
150

Answers Key: Physics – Quarter I
Code: S8FE-Ia-15 (page 1)
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. C
Table Completion
net force mass acceleration

(N) (kg) (m/s2)
10 80 0.125
1000 20 50
2500 50 50
30 20 1.5
40 20 2
Matching Type
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. B
151

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ia-16 (page 5)
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. A
Problem Solving
1. 294N
2. 10N
3. 50N
4. 19.6N
5. 2940N
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
152

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ib-17 (page 8)
Short Answer
1. 2 N
2. balanced force, Force of gravity downward and normal force
3. The force going up (makes the ball climb at a certain height), while
acceleration going down (makes the ball slow in climbing and
eventually stop and go back to earth).
4. Force is balance
5. Passenger moves forward due to Inertia
Fill in the Blank

True or False
1.Unpaired
1.True
2. Pushes
2. True
3. Magnitude
3. False
4. Forces
4. False
5. equal
5. True
6. Forces
7. Upward
153

Answers Key
Short Answer
Short Answer Test
1. see answer #4
1. Rotation is the motion of a body
2. centripetal force and centrifugal turning about an axis, While circular
force. motion is a body.
3. b 2. An unbalance torque about an axis

F
produces an angular acceleration
4.
about an axis that is directly
a proportional to the torque and
5. the force is directed to the center inversely proportional to the moment
(earth). of inertia of the body.
3. Centripetal force is a force directed to

the center, While centrifugal is a force
True or False
directed away from the center.
1.True
4. Because large blade have large
2. True moment of inertia.
3. True 5. Boiled egg will spin with greater speed
4. True than the unboiled one.
5. True
154

Answers Key
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. A
Short Answer Test
1.Centripetal
2. Unbalance
3. Centripetal
4. Energy
5. Centripetal and Centrifugal force
Fill in the Blank
1.Accelerated
2. Body
3. Centripetal force
4. Center
5. Magnitude
155

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ic-20 (page 16)

1. NW
2. NW
3. W
4. NW
5. W
Problem Solving
1. 600 J
2. 500,000 J
3. 145.45 N
4. 0 J
5. A pushing cart
Fill in the Blank
1. Product
2. Applied
3. Movement
4. Work
5. Used
156

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ic-21 (page 18)
Multiple Choice Matching Type
1. A 1. B
2. A
2. D
3. C
3. A
4. D
4. A 5. F
5. A
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
157

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Id-22 (page 21)
True or False
1.True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
Problem Solving
1.6,860 J
2. 160 J
3. 58.8 J
4. 60,000 J
5. 490 N
Fill in the Blank
1. Energy
2. Joule
3. Potential energy
4. Kinetic energy
5. Work
158

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Id-23 (page 23)
Problem Solving
1.8,820 J
2. 45,000 J
3. 0.625 J
4. 400 J
5. 0.95 m/s
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. T
4. T
5. T
Table Completion
Work ( J ) Power ( J/S ) Energy ( J )

1.120 40 120
2. 3,000 750 3,000
3. 12,000 2,400 12,000
4. 900 180 900
5. 6,000 857 6,000
159

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ie-24 (page 25)
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
Short Answer Test
1. Pitch
2. Intensity
3. Resonance
4. Doppler’s effect
5. Beat
Problem Solving
1. 343m/s
2. 340.6 m/s
3. approximately 993 m away
4. 353.8 near the surface 352.20 Above
5. 354.4 m/s
160

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ie-25 (page 27)
Fill in the Blank

1. Longitudinal
2. Medium
Short Answer Test
(Answers from number 3 to 7 1. Sound changes its pitch
can be interchanged) 2. F1 increasing pitch F2 decreasing pitch
3. Reflected 3. Changes the pitch or frequency
4. Same observation in F1
4. Refracted
5. Same observation in F2
5. Diffracted
6. Interference
7. Resonance
Matching Type
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. A
161

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-If-26 (page 30)
Fill in the blank
I. Spectrum
Multiple Choice
2. Violet
1. A
3. Lowest
2. B
4. Highest 3. B
5. Rainbow 4. A
5. B
True or False
1.T
2.T
3. T
4. T
5. T
162

Answers Key
Short Answer Test
I. ROYGBIV (colors)
2. violet
3. above other colors (or first among the visible colors)
4. violet
5. red
Essay (Key ideas to look for in the answer)
1. The greater the n, the more it is bend.
2. Colors in spectrum are arranged in terms of higher to lower
frequency and longest to shortest wavelength.
3. The speed of light decreases in the glass.
4. Light changes it speed when it enters into another medium, thus
this will separate the different colors of light because each color
has different speed. When light enters into another medium, it will
bend in different direction.
5. Inversely proportional, as the index of refraction increases, the
speed of light decreases.
Short Answer Test
1.inversely proportional
2. normal line
3. violet
4. violet
5. red
163

Answers Key
Multiple Choice Fill in the blank
1. D 1. phenomenon
2. C 2. colors
3. indices
3. D
4. speed
4. C 5. refraction
5. D
Short Answer Test
1. violet
2. red
3. inversely proportional
4. refraction
5. normal line
164

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ig-29 (page 38)
Short Answer Test
1. Heat
2. Temperature
3. Radiation
4. Conduction
5. Specific Heat
Matching Type
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. E
5. F
Problem Solving
1. 50 cal
2. 600 cal
3. 5°C
4. 25 cal
5. 303 K
165

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ih-30 (page 40)
Short Answer Test
1. Current
2. Current
3. Coulomb
4. Voltmeter
5. Ammeter
Table Completion
Voltage (V) Current (A) Resistance (Ω)

3 .0 5.0 0.6
5.0 1.67 3.0
9.0 3.0 3.0
2.0 1.0 2.0
5.0 2.0 2.5
Matching type
1. f (Voltmeter)
2. e (Ammeter)
3. b (Voltage)
4. c (Resistance)
5. a (Current)
166

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ii-31 (page 42)
Multiple Choice Short Answer

1. 4 Ω
1. B
2. 1 Ω
2. A
3. Parallel connection, because it gives equal
3. D voltage to all loads
4. Series connection, because if one load is
4. A
damage the circuits opens avoiding other parts of
5. D the circuit to be damage
Short Answer Test 5. Parallel connection is used in in-house wiring in

order to provide sufficient required voltage to
1. Voltage
home appliances.
2. Parallel Connection
3. Ampere
4. Series
5. 220-V
167

Answers Key
Identification
1. power
2. current
3. voltage
4. resistance
5. energy consumption
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. F (Close)
4. T
5. F (negative to positive)
Problem Solving
1. 440 watts
2. 0.27 A
3. 3.75 kwh
4. 7200 J
5. 110 Ω
168

Answers Key
Short Answer Test Problem Solving
1. overloading
1. Answer may vary
occurs 2. The longer the wire the higher the
resistance, the smaller the cross-
2. Heating sectional area the higher the resistance.
3. In Series circuit, voltage is divided,
occurs current is the same. While in parallel,
voltage is the same and current is
3.Grounding divided. (see formula)
4. To much current will be drawn from the
4. AVR wire, thus friction between electron is
higher that cause heating on wire.
5. series 5. All of them are circuit protectors that is
connected in series. It will cut-off the
current when it is turned off or busted.
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. T
4. T
5. T
169

Answers Key: Earth Science – Quarter II
Code: S8ES-IIa-14 (page 49)
Matching Type
1. E
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. A
Identification
1. Dip-Slip Normal fault
2. Dip-Slip Reverse fault
3. Strike-slip Left-lateral
4. Strike-slip Right -lateral
5. Oblique-slip
Fill in the blank

Earthquakes occur repeatedly along faults which are zones of
weakness in the crust.These are formed when the forces that move in
different directions go beyond the elastic limit of the rock masses. Shift in
position results when two blocks slip or move against one another. A
tremendous amount of friction as plates grind each other in different
directions leads to jerky movements or violent earthquakes. A dip-slip
movement occurs when the hanging wall moved predominantly up or
down relative to the footwall leading to a normal or reverse fault. A
strike-slip movement, on the other hand, happens when the hanging
wall moves horizontally thereby producing left lateral or right lateral fault.
When the hanging wall motion is neither dominantly vertical nor
horizontal, the motion is called oblique-slip.
170

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIa-15 (page 52)
1. F
2. F
3. F
4. E
5. E
Completion Type
Magnitude
Intensity
Strength of
-Strength of
-Damage caused by an Magnitude
shock waves
an earthquake Earthquake
-Richter Scale
-Mercalli Scale -Seismograph
Table Completion
Basis of Comparison Active Fault Inactive Fault
No. of earthquakes 1 or more O or none
produced
Records of Activity With seismic activities Without any seismic
(specify time element) during the last 10,000 activity for millions of
years years
Location where it tends In tectonic plate In the crust, mostly
to occur boundaries confined in the lower
sediments only.
171

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIb-16 (page 55)
1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
Sequencing Events
3 Energy is released and is transferred to the water.
Two oceanic plates meet and collide with one another, storing energy between
1
them.
The displaced water forms into a wave and it travels into shallower water in
4 coastal area.
The two colliding plates move, the denser plate subducts and the lighter plate is
2
up thrusted.
5 The wave`s speed as it travels diminish but its heights increase drastically causes
destruction of life and property.
Picture Analysis
Epicenter location: Submarine, undersea or
on oceanic plates
Depth: Shallow Earthquakes
172

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIc-17 (page 58)
Sentence Completion
1. Primary waves
2. Body waves
3. Seismogram
4. Seismograph
5. Secondary waves
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False
Fill in the blank
The deepest exploration made by man did not reach the mantle layer.
As the depth increases, temperature and pressure likewise increase which
served as obstacles for geologists to go further. Though studies cannot be
conducted directly a lot of information has been said about the earth. These
came from analyzing the behavior of seismic waves. The seismic waves
continually being refracted along a curved path as they travel through the
earth`s interior leads to the idea that the earth`s interior is composed of
materials of varying densities. Velocities of P and S waves that increased
abruptly as they pass through the mantle show that mantle is composed of
materials that have been elastic due to extreme pressure. The idea of outer
core is in solid form considers the velocity of S wave that had gone to zero
when it reached the outer core. Seismic waves play an important role in
providing scientists information about the nature and composition of the earth
interior.
173

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IId-18 (page 61)
Identification
1. eye
2. eye wall
3. inner ring bands
4. outer ring bands
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. B
Fill in the blank
1. warm water
2. ocean water
3. high humidity
4. optimal location
5. Coriolis effect
174

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IId-19 (page 65)
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. B
True or False
1. TRUE
2. TRUE
3. FALSE
4. TRUE
5. FALSE
Fill in the blank
1. Pacific Ocean 4. developing storm

2. geographic area 5. geographic location
3. optimal location
175

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIe-20 (page 69)
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. C
True or False
1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. FALSE
4. TRUE
5. TRUE
Fill in the blank
1. bodies of water
2. energy
3. cold
4. weaken
5. high humidity
176

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIf-21 (page 72)
Picture Analysis
1. No
2. No
3. Yes
4. Yes
5. Yes
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. D
Tropical Cyclone Tracking:
177

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIg-22 (page 76)
Completion Test
1. main asteroid belt
2. varied/ irregular
3. silicates, iron, nickel
4. highly elliptical
5. 1 – 100

1. /
2. /
3. x
4. x
5. /
Fill in the blank
Another member of the solar system is the meteor. A

meteor is a light phenomenon. It is also called as shooting star. It occurs
when a meteoroid burns up when it enters the Earth’s atmosphere.
Meteors that are able to land on the surface of the Earth are called
meteorite. When Earth orbits the sun and passes through the orbit of a
comet where these comet fragments are found, we observe a celestial
event in which a number of meteors radiate from one point in the sky.
This phenomenon is called meteor shower. Both meteor and meteor
shower are not stars.
178

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIh-23 (page 78)
Completion Test
1910 1) 2062 3) 2214 5) 2366
1986 2) 2138 4) 2290
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
Fill in the blank

Comets appear in the sky from time to time. The most popular one
is Comet ______ (Encke, Halley). This comet returns to Earth’s vicinity
periodically and is classified as ______ (long-period, short-period) comet.
It is seen in the sky every ______ (76, 85) years. The last time it reappeared
was in 1986 and is predicted to come again in ______ (2062, 2071).
This comet was named after ______ (Edmund Halley, Franz Encke),
an English astronomer, who studied the reports of a comet approaching
Earth. He didn't live to see the comet's return, but his discovery led to the
comet being named after him.
179

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIi-j-24 (page 81)
Short Answer Test
1. Meteor shower is a celestial event in which a number of meteors
are observed to radiate from one point in the sky.
2. Meteor shower originates from fragments of comets.
3. Meteor shower occurs when Earth orbits the sun and passes
through the orbit of a comet where fragments of comets are
found
4. Meteors seem to originate in only one point in the sky during
meteor shower because meteoroids travel in parallel paths with
the same velocity.
5. A meteor shower is named after the constellation where they
seem to come from.
Sequencing Events
1 _____ Comets orbit the sun and leave fragments along their
orbit.
2 _____ These fragments continue to orbit the Sun just like their
parent comets.
5 _____ The meteor shower is named after the constellation where
they seem to originate from.
4 _____ During a meteor shower, meteors seem to originate from
only one point in the sky because the meteoroids are
travelling in parallel paths with the same velocity.
3 _____ When Earth orbits the Sun and passes through the orbit of
a comet where these comet fragments are found, many
streaks of light are seen from Earth which is called meteor
shower.
180

Completion Test
Comets/ asteroids leave fragments along their orbit

as it revolves around the sun.
These fragments continue to orbit the sun just like their parents.
When Earth orbits the sun and passes through the orbit of a comet where
fragments are found, streaks of light are observed from earth.
Meteors seem to originate in only one point in the sky during meteor shower
because the meteoroids are travelling in parallel paths with the same velocity.
A meteor shower is named after the constellation where they seem to come from.
181

Answers Key: Chemistry – Quarter III
Code: S8MT-IIIa-b-8 (page 84)
Table Completion
1. Very slightly compressible
2. Has definite volume; assumes the shape of its container

3. Slightly compressible
4. No definite volume and shape
5. Flow easily
True or False
1. True
2. Close together/tightly packed
3. True
4. True
5. Active
Essay
Answers may vary. Please refer to the attached Rubrics for
scoring.
Rubric for Scoring Students’ Responses
Description Raw Score Points Earned

Organization of Ideas 5pts.
Scientific Content 3pts.
Number of words 2pts.
TOTAL 10pts.
182

Answers Key
Code: S8MT-IIIc-d-9 (page 86)
Matching Type
1. E
2. C
3. D
4. F
5. A
Short Answer Test
1. Sublimation occurs when a solid substance is heated and it

directly turned into gaseous state. Deposition occurs when the
temperature of a gas decreases for it to solidify without passing
liquid state.
2. As temperature and pressure increases, liquid substances turn to
gaseous state through vaporization. As temperature and
pressure decreases, gaseous substance turns to liquid through
the process of condensation.
3. As temperature and pressure decreases, it causes liquid
substance to become solid. As temperature and pressure
increases, solid substance undergo melting and become liquid.
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. D
183

Answers Key
Code: S8MT-IIIe-f-10 (page 89)
Fill in the blank

1. Atom
2. Element
3. Protons
4. Neutrons
5. Electrons
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. C
Table Completion
Atomic Mass Symbol of Number of Number of

Number Number the Element Protons Neutrons
11 23 Na 11 12
19 39 K 19 20
27 59 Co 27 32
184

Answers Key
Code: S8MT-IIIg-h-11 (page 92)
Sequencing Test
1. C
2. A
3. E
4. B
5. D
Fill in the Blank
1. elements
2. periodic law
3. atomic number
4. modern periodic table
5. period
6. group
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
185

Answers Key
Code: S8MT-IIIi-j-12 (page 94)
Short Answer Test
1. Na, K, Rb
2. O, S, Se
3. F, Cl, Br
4. Na, Mg, Al
5. K, Rb, Cs
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
Sentence Completion
1. reactivity
2. valence shell
3. valence electrons
4. energy levels
5. electron configuration
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
186

Answers Key: Biology – Quarter 4
Code: S8LT-IVa-13 (page 98)
Picture Analysis
1. mouth- entrance of food/ responsible for mastication of

food/breaking it down into pieces.
2. esophagus- passage of food from mouth to stomach
3. stomach- it holds the foods while enzymes are being mixed with it.
4. small intestine- responsible for final chemical digestion and
absorption of nutrients.
5. large intestine- undigested foods are stored here and are processed
for easy removal.
6. anus- controls stool movement outside the body
7. rectum- receives stool from colon.
8. pancreas- releases enzymes for the digestion of proteins,
carbohydrates and fats.
9. liver- manufactures bile for fat digestion, it also process absorbed
nutrients by the small intestine.
Matching Type
Short Answer Test
1. F
4 A. 3 B. 5 C. 2 D. 1 E.
2. C.
3. B.
4. A
5. D
187

Answers Key
Code: S8LT-IVa-13
Essay
Sample Rubric for Short Essay
(Teacher may adopt his/her own rubric)
Features/ 4- Expert 3- 2-Capable 1- Beginner Score

Score Accomplished
Content Comprehensi Adequate Few There was
and Quality ve discussion discussions on discussions an attempt
of Writing was made absorption and were made to discuss
featuring how assimilation on absorption absorption
absorption were made. and and
and Interaction of assimilation. assimilation.
assimilation the digestive Interaction of Interaction
takes place system to the digestive to other
and how this organ system system was organ
cause was made directly system was
interactions mentioned. or implied. not
to diff. organ mentioned.
systems.
Grammar, No spelling, Few spelling, A number of Many
Usage / punctuation punctuations spelling, spelling,
Mechanics or error. Minor punctuations punctuatio
grammatical grammatical and ns and
errors errors. grammatical grammatic
error were al errors
seen. were seen.
TOTAL SCORE
188

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVb-14 (page 102)
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. D
Table Completion
1. Proper diet and seek doctor’s advice
2. Severe abdominal pain especially in the lower right hand side

accompanied by nausea, gas release problem
3. Frequent and urgent bowel movements, pain with diarrhea, blood in

your stool, or abdominal cramps
4. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
5. Severe pain in your upper right abdomen, Pain that radiates from
your right shoulder or back. Tenderness over your abdomen when it's
touched, nausea, vomiting, and fever.
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False
189

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVc-15 (page 105)
Picture Analysis
1. appendicitis- bacterial infection/ delayed waste removal
2. colon cancer- genetic/poor lifestyle
3. GERD- lifestyle- eating food that irritate lower esophageal sphincter
4. liver cirrhosis- unhealthy lifestyle-too much alcohol drinking/poor food

choices
5. hepatitis- infection/ eating contaminated foods
Short Answer Test

Ideal Answers: 1,2,4,5- Agree , 3- Disagree – Junk foods conatin high
amounts of salt and sodium compounds that may cause adverse
effect to normal digestion processes.
Reasons may vary.
Ideal Answers: 1,2,4,5- Agree , 3- Disagree – Junk foods conatin high
amounts of salt and sodium compounds that may cause adverse
effect to normal digestion processes.
Reasons may vary.
True or False
1.True 8.True
2 True
9. True
3. False
4. True 10. True
5. True
6.False
7. False
190

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVc-15
Essay
Features/ 4- Expert 3- 2-Capable 1- Beginner Score

Score Accomplished
Content Comprehensi Adequate Little There was
and Quality ve discussion discussion was discussion an attempt
of Writing was made on made was made on to discuss
how one can mentioning how to keep on how to
keep his several one’s keep the
digestive practices on digestive digestive
system how to keep system system
healthy. ones digestive healthy. healthy. It is
system healthy. not is not
sufficient in
substance.
Grammar, No spelling, Few spelling, A number of Many
Usage and punctuation punctuations spelling, spelling,
Mechanics or error. Minor punctuations punctuatio
grammatical grammatical and ns and
errors errors. grammatical grammatic
error were al errors
seen. were seen.
TOTAL
191

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVd-16 (page 111)
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. D
Picture Analysis
1st Stage: 3 Prophase
Description: Nucleus starts to disappear, chromosomes becomes thick
and condensed. Spindle fibers become visible.
2nd Stage: 2 Metaphase
Description: Nucleus completely disappeared, Spindle fibers moves the
chromosomes to the center.
3rd Stage : 1 Anaphase

Description: Spindle fibers contract thereby pulling the sister chromatids
apart from each other moving towards the opposite poles.
Centromere breaks.
4th Stage: 4 Telophase
Description: Nucleus starts to reappear, chromosomes uncoil and
becomes thin and less visible. Spindle fibers disassemble.
Cytoplasm is cleaved/divided.
192

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVd-16
Matching Type
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. G
5. F
6. H
7. E
8. G
Table Completion
Mitosis Meiosis
Importance repair and growth of preservation of
organisms species and variation
No. of daughter cells 2 4
No. of stages involved 4 8
Daughter cells compared Similar different
to parent cell (in genetic
content)
No. of chromosomes complete/diploid half/ haploid
193

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVe-17 (page 118)
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. C
Matching Type
1. D
2. E
3. A
4. D
5. B
Fill in the blank

1. chromosome 7. interbreed
2. haploid 8. half
3. sexually 9. fertilization
4. aneuploidy 10. chromosomes
5. variation
6. crossing-over
194

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVf-18 (page 122)
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. C
Short Answer Test
1. T , t , t , t
2. TR , tR , tR , tr
195

Table Completion
Male T t
Female
TT Tt
T Tt tt
A. Monohybrid Cross
Phenotypic Ratio: 3:1 (3 tall is to 1 short)
Genotypic Ratio: 1:2:1 (1Homozygous tall, 2 Heterozygous tall, 1 short)
Dihybrid Cross
Male Ya Ya Ya Ya
Female
YA YYAa YYAa YYAa YYAa
YA YYAa YYAa YYAa YYAa
yA YyAa YyAa YyAa YyAa
yA YyAa YyAa YyAa YyAa
Phenotypic Ratio: All Yellow axial
Genotypic Ratio: 1:1 - 1 Homozygous yellow heterozygous axial is to 1

Heterozygous yellow, heterozygous axial
196

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVg-19 (page 127)
Fill in the Blanks

1. species
2. biodiversity
3. Carl Linnaeus/ Carl von Linne
4. species
5. genus
True of False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
Essay
Features/ 4- Expert 3- Accomplished 2-Capable 1- Beginner Score
Score
Content Comprehensiv An adequate Few discussion There was an
and Quality e discussion discussion on was made on attempt to
of Writing was made on concept of concept of discuss
the concepts species/biodivers species/ concept of
of ity was made. biodiversity. species and
species/biodiv biodiversity.
ersity.
Grammar, No spelling, Few spelling, A number of Many spelling,
Usage and punctuation or punctuations spelling, punctuations
Mechanics grammatical error. Minor punctuations and
errors grammatical and grammatical
errors. grammatical errors were
error were seen. seen interfering
the idea
presented.
TOTAL SCORE
197

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVh-20 (page 129)
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. D
Matching Type
1. D
2. A
3. I
4. B
5. F
6. G
7. C
8. H
9. E
Concept Mapping
3. Angiosperms
1. Non Vascular
4. Monocots
2. Vascular
5. Hornworts
198

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVh-21 (page 133)
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False
Situation Analysis
Answers may vary.
Essay
Answers may vary.
Features/ 4- Expert 3- Accomplished 2-Capable 1- Beginner Score
Score
Content Comprehensiv An adequate Few discussions There was an
and e discussion discussion on were made on attempt to
Quality of was made on concepts of concepts of discuss
Writing the concepts genetic diversity, genetic concepts
of genetic pop. levels of diversity, pop. genetic
diversity, pop. species and levels of species diversity, pop.
levels of ecological and ecological levels of
species and diversity was diversity. species and
ecological made. ecological
diversity . diversity.
Grammar No spelling, Few spelling, A number of Many spelling,
, Usage punctuation or punctuations spelling, punctuations
and grammatical errors. Minor punctuations and
Mechani errors grammatical and grammatical
cs errors. grammatical errors were
error were seen. seen interfering
the though
presented.
TOTAL SCORE
199

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVi-22 (page 136)
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. B
Picture Analysis
1. corn, carrot, grass

2. 1st order consumer
3. python
4. 2nd order consumer
5. heat
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
200

Answers Key
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
Table Completion
1. Denitrifying bacteria
2. Ammonifying bacteria
3. plants and animals (others may include certain bacteria, monerans

etc.)
4. plants and other photosynthetic organisms
5. plants and other photosynthetic organisms
6. plants
True or False
1. True 4. False
2. False
5. True
3. True
201

Answers Key
Picture Analysis
1. condensation
2. precipitation
3. transpiration
4. evaporation
5. absorption
Diagram Making
Fill in the blank

1. nucleic acids
2. 78%
3. nitrogen fixation
4. bacteria
5. ammonia
6. nitrate
7. denitrification
202

Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVj-25 (page 147)
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C

1. x
2. x
3. /
4. x
5. /
Table Completion
Answers may vary
203

List of References
Acosta,H.D. (2015) Science 10 Learner’s Material. Pasig City

Philippines:Rex Printing Company Inc.
Acosta,H.D. (2015) Science 10 Teacher’s Guide. Pasig City

Philippines:Rex Printing Company Inc.
Campbel Neil., (1994) Biology 4th Ed. Singapore, Benjamin Cummings Co.
Capco, P.C. et al. (2013) Science 8 Learner’s Module. Pasig City

Philippines: Vibal Publishing House Inc.
Capco, P.C. et al. (2013) Science 8 Teacher’s Guide. Pasig City

Philippines: Vibal Publishing House Inc.
Hewitt, Paul (1989). Conceptual physics (6th Ed.) London: Scoot,

Foresman and Company.
Hewitt, P.G. (2002). Conceptual physics. USA: Prentice-Hall, Inc. Saddle

River, New Jersey
Keeton W.T. et al.,(1983) Elements of Biological Science 3rd Ed. NY: WW

Norton Co., Inc,.
Valdoz MP., et al (2015) Science Links Worktext for Scientific and

Technological Literacy. Manila, Philippines: Rex Printing Company Inc.
______. DepEd Science and Technology IV. SEDP Series. (1992).

Philippines: Book Media Press, Inc.
204

List of Writers, Editors and Division Focal Persons
WRITERS EDITORS
1. Raphi T. Anover 1. Cynthia M. Agner

Granja-Kalinawan National High School Palo National High School
2. Norica A. Barona 2. Myrna M. Borqueta

Dulag National High School Palo I Central School
3. Jason D. Caande 3. Zaira G. Escobedo

Burauen Comprehensive National Palo National High School-
High School Pawing Annex
4. Nimfa R. Liad 4. Maryjean T. Susaya

Mayorga National High School Granja-Kalinawan National
High School
5. Airyn P. Manidlangan
Burauen Comprehensive National High School
6. Roderick L. Tipolo
Balocawehay National High School
DIVISION FOCAL PERSONS:
SOCORRO B. AUSA
Division Science Coordinator
FELICIDAD T. ESPINOSA
Chief- Curriculum Implementation Division
RONELO AL K. FIRMO, Ph.D, CESO-V

SCHOOLS DIVISION SUPERINTENDENT
205


Grade 8 Science - Test Items

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Grade 8 Science - Test Items

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Subject Area: Science

Grade Level: Grade 8

1. A box is pushed at a constant speed across a floor as shown in the

Which of the following arrow represents the reaction force?

2. A carabao is pulling a karomata. Which of the following is

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

4. The carabao pulls a barsahan, then the barsahan moves along

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Short Answer Test

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

unpaired pushes magnitude forces

Action Reaction Force

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is wrong.

___1. Seatbelt in the car is a safety precaution from the sudden

___2. The headrest on the seat is a precaution from accident when

___3. The tendency of the passenger is to move forward when the

___ 5. During the collision of two objects, the energy is always

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Short Answer Test

Directions: Give what is asked in each

1. The diagram shows an object moving in counter clockwise

2. Identify and discuss the forces needed to keep the body in

3. You are whirling a ball in a string around in

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

1. Consider a ball connected to a string and whirled in a circular

2. Consider a toy car moving in a circular path. Which of the

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

4. Which of the following quantities in a circular motion is always

5. In a circular motion, which is the correct description of the

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

1. What kind of force is always directed towards the center?

Fill in the Blank

accelerated body centripetal force

When an object is moving in a circular path at a constant speed, it is

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Alternative Response Test

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Fill in the Blank

product applied movement

Work is defined as the ____1____ of the force ___2___ to a body and

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

1. A force of 50N is applied to a 50kg object that doesn’t move. How

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

4. It is the amount of work done per time. e. Joule

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

1. Calculate the change in potential energy of 20 kg crate that is

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Fill in the Blank

energy Joule potential energy

The ____1____ is defined as the ability to do work and the standard

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

1. What is the potential energy of the 30kg object at the height of

2. Calculate the kinetic energy of a 400kg race car traveling at 15

3. How much energy does a 2.0 g bullet have if the speed is 25

Work is defined as the __1 of the force _2___ to a body and

The 1 is defined as the ability to do work and the standard

Sound waves are _1_ waves capable of producing an

When light strikes a transparent curved material, _1_ of

Dispersion is a special kind of 1___ which gives us different