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TEST 15

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.


1. A. endangered B. destroyed C. damaged D. provided
2. A. attitude B. survive C. introduce D. human
3. A. priority B. crisis C. medicine D. primary
4. A. chemical B. which C. change D. each
5. A. protect B. construction C. climate D. commercial

Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest.
6. A. extinction B. animal C. classify D. primary
7. A. biologist B. seriously C. commercial D. identify
8. A. habitat B. different C. industry D. introduce
9. A. medicine B. endanger C. pollution D. survival
10. A. derive B. provide C. modern D. enact

Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
11. Dinosaurs became extinct millions of years ago because of the earth’s climate changed drastically.
A B C D
12. The purpose of UNICEF is help provide a better life for children and their mothers
A B C D
13. Water covers two-three the area of the world.
A B C D
14. There must have been anyone in my room, I thought I heard a noise and saw a shadow
A B C D
15. The town was a four – days journey from our hotel, so we took the train instead of the bus.
A B C D

Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentence.


16. _____ is the natural environment in which plants or animals live
A. habitat B. habitant C. extinction D. biodiversity
17. Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the _____ of
extinction.
A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge
18. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat is _____.
A. exhausting B. departing C. escaping D. disappearing
19. The society was set up to _____ endangered species from extinction.
A. prevent B. distinguish C. preserve D. survive
20. _____ is the protection of environment and natural resources.
A. Survival B. Commerce C. Conservation D. Extinction
21. It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species' declines and habitat _____ and
degradation are the leading threats.
A. destroy B. destructive C. destructor D. destruction
22. Chemical wastes from factories are _____ that cause serious damage to species habitats.
A. pollutes B. pollutants C. pollutions D. polluters
23. Almost half of turtles and tortoises are known to be threatened with _____.
A. extinct B. extinction C. extinctive D. extinctly
24. Some species of rare animals are _____ danger of extinction.
A. at B. out C. in D. with
25. If we do not take steps to protect the world's wild life, many species of birds and animals are likely
to die _____ completely.
A. out B. down C. away D. from
26. We have to apply effective measures to save many plant and animal species _____ extinction.
A. from B. in C. for D. on
27. I can _____ with most things but I cannot stand noisy children.
A. put up B. put on C. put aside D. put off
28. The windows are dirty. They need _____.

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Unit 15
A. be wash B. being washed C. to wash D. washing
29. According to legend, coffee beans _____ in the town of Kaffa.
A. first discovered B. were first discovered
C. discovered first D. have first discovered
30. There was bomb scare in the resort, and _____ tourists stayed away.
A. consequently B. however C. though D. while
31. I’d rather you _____ in here. There’s a room for smokers out there.
A. not smoke B. don’t smoke C. didn’t smoke D. won’t smoke
32. On Saturday evening I _____ go to the cinema _____ stay home watch television.
A. both / and B. neither / and C. either / or D. either / nor
33. I lost my key. I’ll have to _____.
A. have other key made B. have another key made
C. be made a key D. make another key
34. A: “What would you like to drink?”
B: “_____”
A. Thank you B. Tea, please C. Yes, please D. No, I don’t
35. A: “How fast can he run?”
B: “_____”
A. Well, he does B. He can
C. Yes, that’s for sure D. Very. I think so
36. A: “Do you have a minute, professor?”
B: “_____”
A. Well, I am not sure when. B. Good. I am listening.
C. Sure. What is the problem? D. Sorry. I haven’t got it here.

Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
37. The Bali Tiger was declared extinct in 1937 due to hunting and habitat loss.
A. reserve B. generation C. natural environment D. diversity
38. It is found that endangered species are often concentrated in areas that are poor and densely
populated, such as much of Asia and Africa.
A. disappeared B. increased C. threatened D. reduced
39. Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for
agriculture.
A. destruction B. contamination C. fertilizer D. variety

Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
40. She is carrying out a health project for disadvantaged in inner cities and rural areas.
A. mountainous B. suburban C. coast D. urban

Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers.
Wild animals (and wild plants) and the wild places where they live are seriously threatened
almost everywhere. One species has become extinct in each year of this century. But many hundreds
are now in danger. Lack of attention would lead to the rapid advance of the process of extinction.
Already many kinds of wild animals have been so reduced in number that their role in the
ecosystem is forgotten. Animals like the great apes, the whales, seals etc. thought to be in danger of
extinction.
But even more important, perhaps than individual kinds of animals and plants, whole habitats
are in danger of vanishing: marshes are being drained, and the world forests, especially tropical forests
are being cut down to satisfy man’s needs of timber and paper.
What would our world be like if all the wild animals and wild plants vanished? Would our life still
exist then?

41. What would happen to the human beings if the wild life vanished?
A. Many species would quickly become extinct.
B. Species would go on dying out.

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C. The human life would be seriously threatened.
D. Tropical forests would be cut down.
42. What is more important than individual kinds of animals and plants?
A. the vanishing of whole habitats
B. the extinction of many species
C. the rapid advance of the process of extinction
D. man’s need of timber and paper
43. What does the writer caution us against?
A. cutting down the tropical forests
B. hunting wild animals
C. draining marshes
D. destroying our environment
44. What would happen if we cut down forests?
Cutting down forests would cause _____.
A. the changes of temperature
B. the flood
C. both A and B are correct
D. no problem
45. “To threaten” in the passage means _____.
A. to pollute
B. to give fear to
C. to vanish
D. to poison

Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage.
Many environmental experts are pessimistic about the future of our (46) ______. They say that
in the next few years harmful chemicals will further damage the (47) ______ layer, there will be more
losses of irreplaceable tropical rainforests, and serious air pollution will cause the climate itself to
change. They also warn us that developing countries will continue to suffer ecological disasters, while
the (48) ______ countries consume the vast majority of the world’s fuels. Animals are also at (49)
______. It is feared that some endangered species may soon die out, as their natural (50) ______ are
destroyed.
46. A. country B. planet C. society D. life
47. A. oxygen B. dioxide C. carbon D. ozone
48. A. poor B. developing C. European D. rich
49. A. risk B. danger C. accidents D. unfortunate
50. A. environment B. habitats C. resources D. disasters

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Unit 15
TEST 16
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
1. A. prohibit B. exhibit C. habit D. hunting
2. A. hide B. ivory C. decline D. continent
3. A. weapon B. increase C. threat D. spread
4. A. elephants B. decades C. poachers D. actions
5. A. endangered B. threatened C. recovered D. advanced

Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest.
6. A. temperature B. serious C. awareness D. chemical
7. A. ability B. agriculture C. development D. contaminate
8. A. government B. agency C. benefit D. diversity
9. A. disappearance B. vulnerable C. conservation D. generation
10. A. current B. global C. crisis D. mankind

Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
11. Eaten too many sweets may cause a stomachache
A B C D
12. Pam has a broken wrist so she can’t play the tennis for two months
A B C D
13. Last night I heard car breaks screech in the street
A B C D
14. My little daughter is going to being taken to day care center
A B C D
15. While they were away at the beach, they allowed their neighbors use their barbeque grill.
A B C D

Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentence.


16. Nowadays, people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in _____.
A. danger B. threat C. problem D. vanishing
17. Many species of animals are threatened and could easily become _____.
A. disappeared B. vanished C. empty D. extinct
18. Many animals are _____ for their fur and other valuable parts of their bodies
A. hunted B. chased C. run after D. followed
19. The disappearance of one or several species may result in the loss of _____.
A. university B. biology C. biodiversity D. diversity
20. All the countries of the area have _____ to protect their wildlife but they are rarely enforced.
A. efforts B. laws C. results D. reserves
21. Our environment is _____ because of serious pollution and endangerment.
A. threat B. threatened C. threatening D. threaten
22. Nowadays elephants are one of the _____ species in the world. They need protecting.
A. dangerous B. danger C. endangered D. endanger
23. The panda's ______ habitat is the bamboo forest.
A. nature B. natural C. naturalized D. naturally
24. We continue to cut _____ rainforests and increase the dangers of global warming.
A. off B. in C. out D. down
25. In some countries environmental organizations have been set ____ to inform people and gain their
support.
A. in B. up C. out D. off
26. Many modern medicines are derived _____ plants and animals.
A. on B. for C. from D. in
27. Near the park is a famous landmark _____ the Unification Palace.
A. is B. which call C. called D. it is called

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Unit 15
28. We have an exam next week. It is very necessary _____.
A. study hard B. to study hard C. hard study D. to hard study
29. The teacher asked him why he _____ the test.
A. doesn’t finish B. hasn’t finished C. won’t finish D. didn’t finish
30. She _____ in a bank since she _____ school.
A. has worked / has left B. has been working / left
C. worked / has left D. worked / left
31. I’m feeling sick. I _____so much chocolate last night
A. needn’t eat B. didn’t need to eat
C. shouldn’t have eaten D. can’t have eaten
32. I kept them in the_____.
A. metal black small box B. small black metal box
C. black metal small box D. small metal black box
33. Everyone hopes to succeed in life, _____?
A. doesn’t he B. hasn’t he C. haven’t they D. don’t they
34. A: “Why don’t we buy Tim a book as a birthday present?”
B: “_____”
A. I don’t think I will do it B. What a good idea!
C. Do you like it? D. Tim will be fourteen next week?
35. A: “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?”
B: “_____”
A. My God! B. Yes, I would! C. Not at all! D. What a pity!
36. A: “What would you like to drink?”
B: “_____”
A. Thank you B. Tea, please C. Yes, please D. No, I don’t

Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
37. Hunting for meat and burning forests for soil cause destruction to wildlife.
A. pollution B. contamination C. protection D. damage

Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
38. In 1989, a ban was given on all international trade in ivory.
A. action B. contamination C. destruction D. prohibition
39. The air is naturally contaminated by a foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust.
A. polluted B. occupied C. filled D. concentrated
40. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.
A. vanishing B. damaging C. polluting D. destroying

Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers.
Man is a land animal, but he also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has served
the needs of man. The sea has provided man with food and convenient way to travel to many parts of
the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population lives within 80 kilometers of the sea coast.
In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive.
Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many
man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is impressive. Oil
and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. Valuable amounts of minerals exist on
the ocean floor are ready to be mined.
Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish
and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by Oriental people.
Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm
temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents and
waves offer possible use as a source of energy.
Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of
strong, new materials has made this possible. The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve.

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Unit 15
Experts believe that by the year 2000 the problems that prevent us from exploiting fully the food,
minerals, and energy source of the sea will be largely solved.
41. The major things that the sea offers man are ______.
A. fish and oil B. minerals and oil
C. food, energy sources, and minerals D. ocean currents and waves

42. The sea serves the needs of man as ______.


A. it provides man with food B. it offers oil and other valuable sources
C. it provides man with modern technology D. both A and B
43. We can conclude from the passage that ______.
A. the sea resources have largely been used up
B. the sea, in a broad sense, has not yet been developed
C. the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the sea have already been solved
D. by the year 2000, the technology will be good enough to exploit all the sea resources
44. The words “Oriental people” in the third paragraph means ______.
A. people in Asia B. people in Africa C. European people D. American people
45. The best title for this paragraph is ______.
A. Seafood B. Technology for Exploiting the Sea
C. Sea Harvest D. Man and the Sea

Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage.
THE WILD LIFE
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in danger. Many species of animals
are threatened, and could easily become (46) _____ if we do not make an effect to protect them. There
are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their furor for other valuable parts of
their bodies. Some birds, (47) _____as parrots are caught alive and sold as pets. For many animals
and birds, the problem is that their habitat- the place where they live- is disappearing. More (48) _____
is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were.
Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute (49)
_____ environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animal on earth- human beings- will soon
be the only ones left, (50) _____ we can solve this problem.
46. A. extinct B. lost C. empty D. disappeared
47. A. such B. where C. like D. or
48. A. area B. earth C. land D. soil
49. A. the B. that C. an D. a
50. A. because B. however C. if D. unless

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Unit 15
TEST 17
Pronunciation & Stress
1. A. subject B. swallow C. digest D. different
2. A. advice B. possible C. travel D. story
3. A. imagine B. important C. holiday D. belong
4. A. journey B. carefully C. interested D. understand
5. A. describe B. reviewer C. difficult D. forever
6. A. bring B. kind C. difficult D. dip
7. A. good B. book C. too D. look
8. A. story B. swallow C. important D. source
9. A. color B. wonderful C. country D. belong
10. A. actors B. writes C. promises D. standards

Error Identification:
11. In spite of my father is old, he still goes to work.
A B C D
12. The result of that test must be inform before August.
A B C D
13. She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A B C D
14. My little daughter is going to being taken to day care center.
A B C D
15. There are also many single mothers and single fathers which are raising children by themselves.
A B C D

Reading:
Football is one of the world’s most popular sports. People have played the game for hundreds of
years and almost every country has a national football team. A football match consists of two teams
with eleven players on each side. Each team is on one half of the pitch at the start of the game. When a
referee blows his whistle, the game begins.
The object of the game is to score goals against the other team. A goal is scored by putting the
ball in the other team’s net, either with your foot or head. Each football match lasts for ninety minutes.
There is a half-time break after forty-five minutes which lasts for about fifteen minutes.
The team that has scored the most goals by the end of the match is the winner. If no team has
scored a goal, the match is called a draw. The goalkeeper is the person who stands between the
goalposts and tries to stop people scoring goals. He is the only player who can touch the ball with his
hands. The ball is not allowed to go outside the lines of the pitch. If it does, the game stops for a short
time.
16. A football match starts when ______.
A. the referee blows his whistle B. both teams are on the pitch
C. each team is on one half of the pitch D. everybody is ready
17. How long does a football game last?
A. Nineteen minutes B. Fifteen minutes C. Forty-five minutes D. Ninety minutes
18. A match is called a draw if _______.
A. both teams score lots of goals B. no goals have been scored
C. all the players score goals D. one team scored more goals than the other
19. What’s the goalkeeper’s job?
A. He must stand between the goalposts.

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Unit 15
B. He must try to stop goals with his feet.
C. He must try to stop the ball going into the net
D. He must not go outside the goalposts.
20. Which of the following sentence is true?
A. All the players can throw the ball with his hands.
B. The players are not allowed to go outside the lines of the pitch.
C. The game stops for a while when the ball goes outside the line of the pitch.
D. A goal is scored by putting the ball in the other team’s net with only the foot.
Cloze-test:
For many young people in Britain, sports are (21) popular part of school life and being in
one of the school teams and playing in matches is very (22) . If someone is in a team, it means
a lot of extra practice and often spending a Saturday or Sunday away from home, as many matches are
(23) then.
It can also involve travelling to other towns to play against other school teams and then staying
on after the match for a meal or a drink. Sometimes parents, friends and other students will (24)
with the team to support (25) own side.
21. A. a B. some C. an D. the
22. A. importance B. import C. important D. importance
23. A. played B. to plays C. playing D. play
24. A. travel B. travels C. traveling D. traveled
25. A. her B. their C. his D. our

Choose the correct answer:


26. Many of gorillas are danger dying out . They are working to save mountain gorillas
extinction
A for / away / withB in / of / from C on / through / off D at / for / through
27. You should involve your children physical activities and provide them chances to
take part in sport games
A of / for B in / with C on / toward D inside / in
28. Peter reminded me Tom , whom I got acquainted three years ago . I have not met him
again that time
A of / with / since B about / to / during C on / about / from D with / at / in
29. He was listening the announcements broadcast the radio
A about / over B from / through C for / in D to / on
30. She had succeeded persuading Derek the feasibility of the project
A from / for B with / upon C in / of D at / from
31. It rains so we can’t go to school
A. If it rains, I could go to school B. If it didn’t rain, I could go to school
C. If it not rain, I could go to school D. If it rains, I can go to school
32. “Open your book” the reported speech is:
A. I told him to open his book B. I told him open his book
C. I told him opening his book D. I told him to open your book
33. Broken glass often _________injuries.
A. is causing B. has caused C. causes D. is caused by
34. When he ______, he will tell us about the match.
A. arrives B. will arrive C. arrive D. is arrive.
35. The firemen have been examining the ground ________ yesterday.
A. since B. for C. ago D. by
36. The girls and flowers _____he painted were vivid.
A. who B. which C. whose D. that
37. We ________ open the lion’s cage. It is contrary to Zoo regulations.
A. must B. mustn't C. needn't D. should
38. If you want to learn how to knit or work with wood, you should buy a___ book.
A. novel B. comic C. science D. craft
39. Books that give fact about real events, things, or people are called ________ .

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Unit 15
A. novel B. biography C. non-fiction D. romance
40. Books are still a cheap way to get information and __________________
A. entertainment B. entertain C. entertaining D. entertainer
41. Books in the home are a wonderful source of _______________________
A. knowledge B. digestion C. description D. destruction
42. Boy, stop reading. ______________the book down and go to bed
A. Take B. Put C. Set D. Pick
43. Tom: “What are you going to do this weekend?”
A. It’s a good idea B. We plan to go fishing
C. I’m very tired D. I don’t like going out
44. Mary: “I have passed my driving test” _ Robert: “ ____________”
A. Do you? B. It’s nice of you to say so
C. This is a good idea D. Congratulations
45. Kevin: “How far is it from here to the nearest post office ?” Lan: “ _______________”
A. Two kilometers at least B. Turn left and then turn right
C. No, it’s rather far D. Yes, it’s quite near here

Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
46. Books are still a cheap way to get information and entertainment
A. expensive B. high C. low D. long
47. Other books are for reading slowly and carefully
A. low B. quickly C. hard D. easy

Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
48. For example, you might pick up a travel book and read a few pages before going to sleep
A. pattern B. model C. instance D. kind
49. Imagine that you have found a good story, and ,what is even more important, the time to enjoy it
A. significant B. special C. main D. major
50. You might be on holiday, or on a long train journey
A. picnic B. barbecue C. trip D. survey

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Unit 15
TEST 18
Pronunciation & Stress:
1. A. difficult B. slowly C. easy D. example
2. A. television B. information C. entertainment D. picture
3. A. wonderful B. pleasure C. describe D. knowledge
4. A. color B. people C. digest D. tasting
5. A. action B. today C. reading D. picture
6. A. describe B. advice C. digest D. imagine
7. A. entertainment B. information C. imagination D. action
8. A. mean B. please C. pleasure D. bean
9. A. subject B. pleasure C. understand D. enough
10. A. smiled B. worked C. picked D. jumped

Error Identification:
11. In England, young and old people are fond with watching football
A B C D
12. She advised John not trust that man
A B C D
13. The water was not enough warm for children to swim in
A B C D
14. Cycling is a good form of exercise even if it is on a stationary exercising bike
A B C D
15. About two-third of my students wish to get a scholarship to study abroad
A B C D

Cloze-test:
Most sport today is the work of skilled professionals. Football, or (16)_________ is an example of a
professional game. The game of football was first (17)__________ in Britain and then spread to other
countries Now all countries hope to (18)___________ for the World Cup. However, there are still plenty
of amateur football players in Britain. They enjoy (19)_________ the game on Saturday or Sunday
afternoons. Amateur clubs can compete (20)__________ the professional ones in the English Football
Association Cup competition.
16. A. skiing B. golf C. basketball D. soccer
17. A. played B. taken C. seen D. occurred
18. A. lose B. share C. compete D. win
19. A. to play B. playing C. play D. played
20. A. against B. on C. by D. for

Reading:
Disney World was constructed a decade ago on 27,400 acres of partially swamp land in central
Florida. Eight thousand of these acres constitute a wildlife sanctuary not accessible to the 130 million
people from around the world who have been to Disney World since its opening.

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Unit 15
The park opens at 9 a.m. and shuts down at various hours, depending upon the time of year -
six, nine or midnight. On a busy day as many as 90,000 visitors may be in the park, but there are so
many activities available that there is plenty of room for everybody. The Magic Kingdom is the main
section, but there are hotels, restaurants, a lagoon, and a huge lake with four and a half miles of
beaches where visitors swim or paddle around in rented boats. A reasonable estimate of the cost per
person daily is about $60, excluding transportation costs to Orlando.

21. Disney World has many water attractions because


A. it is a profitable business B. visitors like to swim and rent boats
C. it was built on wet land D. the Florida climate is conductive to water sport
22. You can infer that when there are 90,000 people in the park
A. the best thing to do is to rent a boat to get away from the crowds
B. there are not enough restaurants to feed all of them
C. people have to wait in lines to get into the attractions
D. the lake shore is too small to accommodate swimmers
23. What is the main section of the park?
A. hotels B. beaches C. the Magic Kingdom D. swamp land
24. The passage is about
A. a famous and beautiful park in Florida B. a beautiful park in New York
C. a famous park in London D. a famous museum in Florida
25. The park closes , depending on the time of year.
A. 8 p.m. B. at a certain time C. 5 p.m. D. at various hours

Choose the correct answer:


26. Harry comes to work car but I prefer to come foot, although times I am late
work
A on / by / from / at B with / through / on / in C by / on / at / for D in / with / in / on
27. I’m really angry John for his total lack responsibility work
A with / of / for B at / in / to C in / from / of D about / off / in
28. Do you get tired answering the same questions every day?
- No, I am interested my work
A through / about B of / in C from / on D for / to
29. Television is an effective means communication . People , young and old alike, are fond
watching TV their free time
A at / on / through B in / at / upon C of / of / in D for / on / during
30. my opinion , Peter is not really clever solving problems
A To / against B About / in C On / of D In / at
31. All the iron doors _________ by wooden doors.
A. must be replaced B. must replaced C. must replaced D. must to be replaced
32. The bigger the supermarket is, __________.
A. the choice is wide B. the wider the choice is.
C. the more the choice is D. the wider the choice it is.
33. Fish is easy to _____when you are ill.
A. digest B. direct C. cook D. fry
34. Women are usually more________ than men.
A. sympathize B. sympathetic C. sympathy D. sympathetically
35. When he worked here, Simon _______________mistakes
A. was always making B. made always C. was making always D. always made
36. Someone must have taken my bag. I clearly remember __________it by the window and now it has
gone
A. to have left B. leave C. to leave D. leaving
37. The water was very cold, so we couldn’t swim
A. The water was too cold for us to swim
B. We couldn’t swim because the water was very cold
C. The water was very cold but we still went swimming
D. The water was very cold; therefore, we couldn’t swim
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Unit 15
38. _______ books are ones in which the story is told or illustrated with pictures
A. Comic B. Thriller C. Romantic D. Science
39. It is a book on a subject that you are interested in, you will want to “chew and _______it”
A. digest B. swallow C. dip D. taste
40. ________ sometimes describe books as “hard to put down”
A. Reviewers B. Researchers C. Audiences D. Workers
41. Fiction books tell stories from the author’s ________
A. attitude B. view C. idea D. imagination
42. It is a good book. I think it is interesting enough for you to ________________
A. put down B. swallow C. look up D. understand
43. Hung: “ Thank you very much for a lovely party”
Hoa: “_________________”
A. You are welcome B. Thanks C. Cheers D. Have a good day

44. A. “ _____________________” – B. “ twice a week”


A. When do you go to the library? B. Do you often go to the library?
C. How do you go there ? D. How often do you go to the library ?
45. Jane: “ What a nice dress you are wearing , Anne” _ Anne “____________”
A. Say it again . I like to hear your words B. Thanks. That’s a nice compliment
C. Not bad D. I think so. I’m proud of myself

Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
46. Other books are for reading slowly and carefully
A. careful B. carelessly C. careless D. care
47. When you pick up a book for the first time, check that it is not too difficult
A. easy B. hard C. slowly D. fast
48. Books are still a cheap way to get information and entertainment
A. inexpensive B. high C. low D. long

Choose the word that is THE SAME in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
49. You might be on holiday, or on a long train journey
A. picnic B. barbecue C. trip D. vacation
50. When you pick up a book for the first time, check that it is not too difficult
A. easy B. hard C. slowly D. fast

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Unit 15
TEST 19
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. water B. football C. begin D. meter
2. A. personal B. penalty C. defensive D. vertical
3. A. award B. prevent C. visit D. except
4. A. goalie B. advanced C. above D. depend
5. A. overtime B. decision C. period D. penalize

II. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
6. A. interfered B. allowed C. visited D. played
7. A. water B. swimming C. between D. rowing
8. A. lie B. goalie C. achieve D. belief
9. A. punch B. synchronized C. March D. touching
10. A. caps B. meters C. swimmers D. lines

III. Error Identification.


11. Windsurfing, which is a water sport combining elements of surfing and sailing first developed in the
A B C
United States in 1968 and also called boardsailing.
D
12. The windsurfer stands on a board that is propelled and steering by means of a sail attached to a
A B C
mast that is articulated at the foot.
D
13. Since 1984 the sport has included in the Olympic Games as part of the yachting events.
A B C D
14. The sport was became very popular in Europe and by the late 70's there was windsurfing fever in
A B C
Europe with one in every three households having a sailboard.
D
15. The first world championship of windsurfing held in 1973. Windsurfing first became an Olympic
A B C D
sport in 1984 for men and 1992 for women.

IV. Choose A, B, C, or D that best completes each unfinished sentences


16. Minor _______ occur when a player impedes or otherwise prevents the free movement of an
opponent including swimming on the opponent's shoulders, back or legs.
A. penalties B. shots C. fouls D. motions
17. _______is a game played in a swimming pool in which two teams of swimmers try to score goals
with a ball
A. Water polo B. Rowing C. Swimming D. Water skiing

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Unit 15
18. Offensive players may be called for a foul by pushing off a defender to provide space for a _______
or shot.
A. pass B. crossbar C. box D. goal
19. _______ is a sport in which you move along the surface of the sea or a lake on a long narrow board
with a sail on it.
A. Water polo B. Diving C. Windsurfing D. Scuba diving
20. ___ players are not allowed to interfere with the opponent's movements unless the player is holding
the ball.
A. Defense B. Defensive C. Defender D. Defensively
21. _____ the start of each period, both teams line up on their own goal line.
A. In B. For C. From D. At
22. A water polo ball is constructed of waterproof material to allow it to float _______ the water.
A. upon B. over C. above D. on
23. There are six field player positions and a goalkeeper ______ each team.
A. on B. with C. from D. for

24. _______ defense, the players work to regain possession of the ball and prevent a goal
A. About B. Over C. Without D. On
25. Shots usually succeed when the goalie is out _______ position.
A. into B. for C. of D.off
26. Water polo balls _______ with a special texture so it will not slip from the hands of a player.
A. cover B. are covered C. are being covered D. covered
27. The player _______.
A. will reward for his hat-trick B. will be rewarded for his hat-trick
C. will reward his hat-trick D. will be rewarded his hat-trick

V. Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
28. He could escape from hurt because he was wearing protective clothes.
A. Thanks to his protective clothes, he could escape from hurt.
B. His protective clothes made him hurt.
C. Due to his protective clothes, he was hurt.
D. His being hurt made his unable to wear protective clothes.
29. The roads were slippery because it snowed heavily.
A. It snowed too heavily to make the roads slippery.
B. The heavy snow prevented the roads from being slippery.
C. Thanks to the slip of the roads, it snowed heavily.
D. The heavy snow made the roads slippery.
30. The accident happened because she was careless.
A. The accident was prevented due to her carelessness.
B. Her carelessness was responsible for the accident.
C. It was the accident that made her careless.
D. The more careless she was, the less accident happened.
31. “Write to me when you get home”. “________________”
A. I must B. I should C. I will D. I can
32. A: “Would you like some more tea?” – B: “__________.”
A. Yes, please B. Here you are C. It doesn’t matter D. I’m OK
33. "Let's have a pizza." -"__________"
A. Not again B. It doesn't matter C. It’s a good idea D. Not really
34. "I have a headache." -" _________you take an aspirin?"
A. Why don't B. Why should C. What should D. What must
35. "Can I help you?" " _______"
A. At two o'clock. B. I can help you C. No, I don't. D. Yes, please.

VI. Antonyms:
36. Water polo is played in a pool 1.8 metres deep, 30 metres long and 20 metres wide.
A. shallow B. narrow C.thick D. high
37. A free throw is awarded from the spot of the fouls in case the player gets a minor foul.

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Unit 15
A. very big B. very bad C. very good D. very small

VII. Synonyms:
38. Those two teams played so well and the scores were tied at 1-1 at last.
A. drew B. put C. kept D. equaled
39. In water polo, a player is ejected after committing five personal fouls.
A. punished B. criticized C. thrown out D. defeated
40. Suddenly, Julia jumped out of the car and sprinted for the front door.
A. walked hurriedly B. ran very fast C. move slightly D. ran slowly

VIII. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
There is very little documentation about the origins of water polo. It is known, however, that the
sport originated in the rivers and lakes of mid-19th century England as an aquatic version of rugby.
Early games used an inflated rubber ball that came from India known as a "pulu" (the single Indian word
for all "balls"). Pronounced "polo" by the English, both the game and the ball became known as "water
polo." To attract more spectators to swimming exhibitions, the London Swimming Association designed
aset of water polo rules for indoor swimming pools in 1870. At first, players scored by planting the ball
on the end of the pool with both hands. A favorite trick of the players was to place the five-to-nine inch
rubber ball inside their swimming suit and dive under the murky water, they would then appear again as
close to the goal as possible. The introduction of the rules by Scottish players changed the nature of
water polo. It became a game that emphasized swimming, speed and passing. Scottish rules moved
from a rugby variant to a soccer style of play. Goals became a cage of 10x 3 feet and a goal could be
scored by being thrown. Players could only be tackled when they "held" the ball and the ball could no
longer be taken under water. The small rubber ball was replaced by a leather soccer ball. If the player
came up too near the goal, he was promptly jumped on by the goalie, who was permitted to stand on
the pool deck. Games were often nothing more than gang fights in the water as players ignored the ball,
preferring underwater wrestling matches that usually ended with one man floating to the surface
unconscious. Water polo was first played in the USA in 1888. The game featured the old rugby style of
play which resembled American football in the water. "American style" water polo became very popular
and by the late 1890's was played in such venues as Madison Square Garden and Boston's Mechanics
Hall, attracting 14,000 spectators to national championship games.
41. According to the text, _______.
A. the origins of water polo are written thoroughly in a lot of documents
B. water polo is an aquatic version of rugby
C. water polo first appeared somewhere outside England
D. people have played water polo since the early 19th century.
42. The present rules of water polo were invented _______.
A. by Scottish players B. by Indian players
C. the London Swimming Association D. in 1870
43. In water polo, the players score a goal by _______.
A. swimming B. passing C. catching D. throwing
44. The present water polo ball is made of _______.
A. rubber B. leather C. bone D. wood
45. Water polo became popular in America in _______.
A. the middle of the 19th century B. in 1870
C. in 1888 D. by the late 1890's

IX. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Sailing or boating may seem to be very interesting with the high level of technical elements (46)
_____ in the sport. Whether you choose a small (47) _____ or a catamaran, whether you choose lake
or ocean sailing, there are (48) _____ number of things you need to master before you can start
enjoying the pure pleasure of being on the water.Getting the sailing skills which you need to start sailing
your own boat is easy if you just sign up with a sailing school. You can learn to sail (49) _____ any age.
There are no restrictions. The best schools and instructors will teach you all you need to know about
sailing (50)_____ a friendly and pleasant manner. As with all sports, sailing will get you into contact new
friends.
46. A. invented B. consisted C. involved D. contained

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Unit 15
47. A. fleet B. submarine C. ferry D. boat
48. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
49. A. with B. at C. in D. for
50. A. on B. in C. with D. out

TEST 20
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. interfered B. allowed C. visited D. played
2. A. water B. swimming C. between D. rowing
3. A. lie B. goalie C. achieve D. belief
4. A. punch B. synchronized C. March D. touching
5. A. caps B. meters C. swimmers D. lines

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.


6. A. vertical B. penalty C. referee D. personal
7. A. compete B. punish C. eject D. commit
8. A. gymnastic B. windsurfing C. opponent D. defensive
9. A. regulator B. adventurous C. participant D. performance
10. A. opponent B. eject C. penalty D. canoeing

Error Identification.
11. This class has cancelled (A) because too few (B) students had registered (C) before (D) registration
closed.
12. The (A) first nation park in(B) the world, calling (C) Yellowstone Park, was established (D) in 1872.
13. A food additive (A) is any (B) chemical that food manufacturers intentional (C) add to (D)their
products.
14. If you had put(A) the plant in a cooler(B) location, the leaves(C) have burned (D).
15. The house was (A) very quiet when(B) I got home because of(C) everyone had gone(D) to bed.

Choose a, b, c, or d that best completes each unfinished sentence:


16. In water polo, a shot is successful if the ball completely passes between the goal posts and
underneath the _______.
A. net B. crossbar C. ball D. goalie
17. A defensive player may only hold, block or pull a / an _______ who is touching or holding the ball.
A. audience B. referee C. goalie D. opponent
18. If a defender _______ a foul within the five meter area that prevents a likely goal, the attacking
team is awarded a penalty throw or shot.
A. commits B. interferes C. punches D. touches
19. The more' goals the players _______, the more exciting the match became
A. marked B. made C. scored D. sprinted
20. The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.
A. advanced B. sprinted C. played D. excluded
21. Water polo was the first team sport added the Olympic program, in 1900.

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Unit 15
A. in B. on C. to D. for
22. Players can move the ball by throwing it _______ a teammate or swimming while pushing the ball in
front of them.
A. for B. into C. to D. from
23. What kind of sport one chooses to play mostly depends _______ his preference and health.
A. with B. for C. in D. on
24. Most referees often wears _______ black.
A. in B. for C. with D. on
25. In water polo game, only the goalie can hold the ball _______ two hands.
A. at B. in C. with D. from

Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one
26. Besides movies and music, it’s sports that most Americans enjoy.
A. Sports are enjoyed by most Americans beside movies and music.
B. It was sports that are enjoyed by most Americans besides movies and music.
C. Besides movies and music, it’s sports that are enjoyed by most Americans.
D. Besides movies and music, sports are that are enjoyed by most Americans.
27. By the end/ 19th century/ water polo/ become popular/ American continent (sentence-building)
A. By the end of 19th century water polo became popular on American continent.
B. By the end of the 19th century water polo became popular on the American continent.
C. By the end of the 19th century water polo has become popular on the American continent.
D. By the end of the 19th century water polo had become popular on the American continent.
28. Europe/ water polo/ appear/ Germany/ 1894 (sentence-building)
A. In Europe water polo appeared in Germany in 1894.
B. Europe water polo was appeared in Germany in 1894.
C. Europe water polo appeared in Germany in 1894.
D. In Europe water polo was appeared in Germany in 1894.
29. Ever since / I / arrive / here / live / dormitory
A. Ever since I arrive here, I have been living in the dormitory
B. Ever since I arrived here, I have been lived in the dormitory
C. Ever since I arrived here, I have been living in the dormitory
D. Ever since I have arrived here, I lived in the dormitory
30. mail / deliver / by the time / I / leave / school / this morning.
A. The mail delivered by the time I left for school this morning.
B. The mail had delivered by the time I left for school this morning.
C. The mail had been delivered by the time I left for school this morning.
D. The mail was delivered by the time I had left for school this morning.
31. _” !” _ “Thank you”.
A. What a nice house B. Thanks for coming C. Please help me with this D. Sorry
32. _ “Is it all right if I use your bike? “ _“ ”
A. Please accept it with my best wishes. B. Sure, go ahead.
C. Sorry, no, I won't do it. D. I don't want to use your bike.
33. _ “Thanks a lot for your help”. _“ ”
A. Your welcome B. You're welcomed C. You’re welcome D. You welcomed
34. “ ”, the workers refused.
A. We feel that we would like to work overtime
B. We're afraid that we really don't want to work overtime
C. We think that we had better work overtime
D. We do say that we are willing to work overtime.
35. Peter: Good morning, Mr. Brown. How are you? Mr. Brown: _______
A. Not bad. You? B. So long
C. Have a good day D. Morning, Peter. And you?

Synonyms:
36. Suddenly, Julia jumped out of the car and sprinted for the front door.
A. walked hurriedly B. ran very fast C. move slightly D. ran slowly
37. The whole audience objected to their foul play during the football match.

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Unit 15
A. clumsy B. dependent C. imperfect D. unfair
38. The player was ejected because he committed a foul.
A. as B. due to C. despite D. provided

Antonyms:
39. A free throw is awarded from the spot of the fouls in case the player gets a minor foul.
A. very big B. very bad C. very good D. very small
40. Water polo is played in a pool 1.8 metres deep, 30 metres long and 20 metres wide.
A. shallow B. narrow C.thick D. high

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.


A water polo team consists (41) seven players - a goalkeeper and six field players. The
goalkeeper must defend the goal without hanging onto the goal or using the side of the pool. Each team also
may have six substitute players. With the exception of the goalkeeper, each player may use only one hand at
a time in handling the ball. Players wear caps of (42) colors for team identification; the official rules
stipulate white for one team, blue for the other, and red caps for the goalies.
Games are divided into four periods of 7 minutes each, with a 2-minute interval between periods.
Play begins when the (43) , with each team spread out along its own goal line, throws the ball into
play at a line halfway between the two teams. The players race toward the ball, and the team that gains (44)
then attempts to advance it toward the opponent’s goal by passing it from teammate to teammate.
Players can also swim with the ball by (45) it along the water surface with their bodies as they
swim.
41. A. of B. with C. on D. about
42. A. different B. the same C. similar D. various
43. A. goal judge B. referee C. timekeeper D. recorder
44. A. having B. property C. possession D. owning
45. A. pulling B. punching C. clutching D. pushing

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answers


Synchronized swimming is a hybrid of swimming, gymnastics, and dance. This sport has an artistic
effect, and really relates to those three sports. It consists of swimmers performing a synchronized
routine of elaborate and dramatic moves in the water, accompanied by music.
Synchronized swimming demands first-rate water skills, and requires strength, endurance, flexibility,
grace, artistry and precise timing, not to mention exceptional breath control while upside down
underwater. Developed in the early 1900s in Canada, it is a sport performed almost exclusively by
women, although there is some participation by men. In its early form it was sometimes known as
“water ballet”.
It is a Summer Olympic Games sport. First demonstrated in 1952, it has been an official event since
1984. Olympic and world Championship competition is not currently open to men, but other
international and national competitions allow male competitors. Both USA Synchro and Synchro
Canada allow men to compete with women.
Competitors point to the strength, flexibility, and aerobic endurance required to perform difficult
routines for the judges, one technical and one free.
46. The world ‘hybrid ‘in the first line could be best replaced by .
A. continuity B. modernization C. mixture D. succession
47. Synchronized swimming is a sport that .
A. relates to swimming, gymnastics, and dance
B. began in Canada in the early of the 20th century
C. is performed almost exclusively by women
D. All are correct
48. It’s untrue to say that .
A. Synchronized swimming has completely influenced by ballet.
B. Synchronized swimming used to be known as “water ballet”
C. The requirements for synchronized swimmers are strength, endurance, flexibility, grace, artistry
and precise timing
D. Men can also take part in synchronized swimming.
49. Which of sentences is TRUE?

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Unit 15
A. Besides demanding strength, endurance, flexibility, grace and artistry, synchronized swimming
requires exceptional breath control.
B. Olympic and World Championship competition allow male synchronized swimmers.
C. Synchronized swimming emerged as an exhibition sport at the Olympic Games in 1984.
D. Competition for both events consists of difficult technical routines.
50. The best title for the passage is .
A. History of Synchronized Swimming
B. Competition Synchronized Swimming
C. The Requirement of Synchronized Swimming
D. Synchronized Swimming

TEST 21

I. PRONUNCIATION
1. A. hosted B. impressed C. finished D. watched
2. A. peace B. great C. increase D. team
3. A. competitor B. medal C. level D. development
4. A. compose B. propose C. purpose D. suppose
5. A. honor B. high C. host D. hold
6. A. spirit B. impress C. event D. perform
7. A. festival B. badminton C. participant D. organize
8. A. development B. cooperation C. surprisingly D. facility
9. A. enthusiast B. successfully C. competitor D. participation
10. A. composed B. countryman C. present D. outstanding

II. Choose the best answer:


11. The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
A. organized B. impressed C. participated D. defended
12. ________ is a person who is very interested in something and spends a lot of time doing it.
A. Enthusiast B. Economist C. Commentator D. Worker
13. The athlete had tried his best to ______ his SEA Games title and records.
A. carry B. perform C. defend D. support
14. Singapore and Vietnam had ________who were awarded the Most Outstanding Athlete titles in the
Swimming and Shooting events.
A. participates B. participations C. participants D. participated
nd
15. The second part of the program in the 22 SEA Games opening ceremony was named "_______
for Peace".
A. Cooperate B. Cooperation C. Cooperative D. Cooperatively
16. The SEA Games ________every two years, with 11 countries in Southeast Asia participating.
A. comes down B. sets up C. takes place D. brings about
17. At his last attempt the athlete was successful _______ passing the bar.
A. in B. for C. with D. on
18. The delegation to the SEA Games was composed _______ top competitors of the country.
A. on B. of C. for D. among
19. Thanks to the encouragement and support, all Vietnamese athletes competed _______ high spirits.
A. for B. of C. on D. in
20. I think it would be a good idea to ________a sport and get some physical exercises.
A. give up B. pick up C. take up D. bring up
21. He spent a year in India and loves spicy food. ___________ the food is, ________ he likes it.
A. The hotter / the more and more B. The hotter / the more
C. The more and more hot/ the more D. The hottest / the most
English 12/ Workbook/ Page 61
Unit 15
22. It gets ___________ to understand what the professor has explained.
A. the more difficult B. more difficult than
C. difficult more and more D. more and more difficult
23. He drives more carelessly than he used to.
A. He doesn’t drive as carefully as he used to.
B. He doesn’t drive carefully than he used to.
C. He doesn’t drive as carefully as he used to.
D. He doesn’t drive as carefully as he does.
24. We didn’t recognize him until he came into the light.
A. It was not until we recognized him that he came into the light.
B. It was not until he came into the light that we recognized him.
C. It was not until we didn’t recognize him that he came into the light.
A. It was not until he came into the light that we didn’t recognized him .
25. If I had enough money, I a good dictionary.
A. will buy B. will have bought C. would buy D. would have bought
26. He performed very well in the interview; , he didn’t get the job.
A. since B. but C. therefore D. however
27. Let’s go to the cinema, ?
A. will we B. should we C. would we D. shall we
28.“What kind of work would you like?”-
A. Is there a good chance of promotion? B. I’m good at computing
C. Any time after next week D. Anything to do with computers
29. “Thank you very much for a lovely party”. –“ ”
A. Have a good day B. You are welcome C. Thanks D. Cheers
30. “That's a very nice dress you're wearing”. – “ ”
A. That's nice B. I'm glad you like it C. That's all right D. I like it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
31. The number of Vietnamese sport officials and referees of international standard taking part in
regional tournaments has increased rapidly.
A. hosting B. participating C. achieving D. succeeding
32. The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the Sea Games took place.
A. organized B. impressed C. participated D. defended
33. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.
A same B adopted C various D respected

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
34. The country’s success has proved that Vietnam can organize sporting events on an international
level.
A. loose B. failure C. program D. impression
35. The story told by the teacher amused children in the class.
A. astonished B. frightened C. jolted D. saddened

Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.


36. The room is such dirty that it needs cleaning immediately.
A B C D
37. My father, that has a special craze for cars, has just bought another sports car.
A B C D
38. A lot of articles about the environment have written by my classmates.
A B C D
39. Unless you don’t give up eating so much meat, you will continue to put on weight.
A B C D
40. You have to study hard so that keep pace with your classmates
A B C D

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Unit 15
Read the passage and choose the correct answer:
The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Ha Noi, Vietnam from the 5th to
th
13 December,2003. The Games were opened by Vietnamese Prime Minister Phan Van Khai in he
newly constructed My Dinh National Stadium in Hanoi. The Games torch was lit by Nguyen Thuy Hien
of Wushu. It was the first time in the Sea Games history that the Games venues were assigned into two
cities namely Hanoi and Ho Chi Minh City.
Painter Nguyen Chi Long inspired by the 22nd Sea Games logo is based on a legendary bird
named “Chim Lac”. The bird decorated the Ngoc Lu bronze drum. A typical antiquity of the ancient
Dong Son Vietnamese culture. The Emblem is composed of harmonious and vigorous curves, creating
a feeling of movement and strength which conforms to the Olympic Spirit. “Faster, Higher and
Stronger”. The colorful whirls represent the tough competitiveness in sports.
The Games’ hymn was “For the World of Tomorrow”, composed by Nguyen Quang Vinh. Painter
Nguyen Thai Hung chose “Trau Vang”, the golden water buffalo as the mascot for the 22 nd Sea Games.
With a gentle and harmonious nature, the clever Buffalo has become synonymous with the water and
rice civilization that is so important in Vietnam as well as in other Southeast Asian countries. To
Vietnamese people, the Golden Buffalo symbolizes a golden harvest, prosperity, happiness, power and
the Vietnamese martial spirit.

41. In which cities in Vietnam were the 22nd Southeast Asian Games held?
A. In Hanoi
B. In Ho Chi Minh City
C. In Hanoi and Ho Chi Minh City
D. In Hue
42. What is the 22nd Sea Games logo based on?
A. A legendary bird named “Chim Lac”
B. The ancient Dong Son Vietnamese culture
C. The Ngoc Lu bronze drum.
D. The Olympic Spirit.
43. What is the effect of harmonious and vigorous curves of the emblem?
A. To create a feeling of self-confidence.
B. To encourage the spirit of fair play.
C. To create a feeling of movement and strength.
D. All are correct.
44. What has the mascot for the 22nd Sea Games been associated with?
A. The prosperity B. The water and rice civilization
C. Vietnamese agriculture. D. Vietnamese farmers.
45. To Vietnamese people, what does the Golden Buffalo symbolize?
A. A golden harvest. B. Prosperity, happiness, and power.
C. The Vietnamese martial spirit. D. All are correct.

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.


The 24th Southeast Asian Games was (46) _____ in Thailand from December 6 to December 16,
2007. The Thai Olympic Committee was (47) _____ the event to coincide with the commemoration of
80th birthday of King Bhumibol Adulyadej. Officials were studying the possibility of doing the events in
multiple venues like what had been done in Vietnam and the Philippines. It was (48) _____ sixth time
Thailand hosted the SEA Games. Thailand hosted the 1959, 1967, 1975, 1985 and 1995 SEA Games.
On 24 February 2006, northeast Thailand's Province authorities met to discuss the 2007 SEA
Games schedule, and progress on the province's under-construction US$65 million sports complex.
The meeting provided an overview of (49) _____, and ended with reassurances that everything would
be ready (50) _____ SEA Games in 2007.
The sports venues included a 5,000-seater indoor stadium and 16 tennis court facilities among
other facilities scheduled to be finished on June 2007.
The 2007 SEA Games featured more than 400 events in 45 sports. The 24 th edition of the games
had the highest number of sporting events in the entire history of the SEA Games, more events than the
Asian Games and the Olympic Games.
46. A. held B. met C. seen D. committed
47. A. winning B. competing C. fighting D. planning

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Unit 15
48. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
49. A. facilities B. tools C. materials D. furniture
50. A. at B. on C. with D. for

TEST 22
Pronunciation
1. A. enthusiasts B. performs C. records D. competitors
2. A. impressed B. composed C. performed D. organized
3. A. reversed B. television C. classmates D. accounts
4. A. careful B. notice C. distance D. succeed
5. A. total B. potential C. absorbent D. intense

Stress
6. A. outstanding B. enthusiast C. countrymen D. precision
7. A. compose B. present C. title D. defend
8. A. athlete B. medal C. surprising D. future
9. A. international B. successfully C. competitor D. energetic
10. A. participant B. facility C. solidarity D. development

Error recognition
11. Writing many letters make her happy.
A B C D
12. The effects of cigarette smoking has been proven to be extremely harmful.
A B C D
13. His pants are in the drawer. Her are under the table.
A B C D
14. Had finished their supper, the boys went out to play.
A B C D
15. I couldn’t help to cry when I watched that film.
A B C D
Preposition
16. The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Vietnam ______ the 5th _____ 13th December,
2003.
17. The Vietnamese athletes competed _____________ high spirits.
18. A plan has been proposed ____________ Vietnam to host the Asia Sports Games at some point
in the future.
19. He was presented ____________ the Most Outstanding Athlete title in the Swimming.
20. The company has carried ____________ a new plan .

Choose the best answer:


21. Athletes performed ______________ and won a lot of gold medals.
A. excellent B. excellence C. excellently D. exact

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Unit 15
22. Vietnam carried out an _______________ programme for its athletes.
A. intensive B. intension C. intensively D. intend
23. In beach volleyball, Indonesia defeated Thailand in straight sets to take men’s gold _____
A. present B. award C. medal D. reward
24. The 22nd Sea Games was the first time when Vietnam finish top of the medal__________
A. standings B. events C .spirits D. programs
25. They told me he had __________a gold medal in wushu.
A. won B. scored C. gained D. got
26. How many _______ took part in the 22nd SEA Games?
A. compete B. competitors C. competition D. competitor
27. There were 32 sports with 439 gold medals in the 22nd Sea Games ______ in Vietnam in 2003.
A. held B. were held C. holding D .that were held
28. Your English is improving considerably. It is getting _______________ .
A. good and well B. better and better C .good and better D. more good and well
29. What’s the name of the man _________ car you borrowed?
A. who B. which C. that D. whose
30. Jane doesn’t speak English as well as Betty.
A. Betty speaks English better than Jane. B. Betty speaks English worse than Jane.
C. Betty speaks English better as Jane. D. Betty speaks English worse as Jane.

31. The boy said to his friends, “Don’t make too much noise!”
A. The boy said to his friends don’t make so much noise.
B. The boy said to his friends not to make so much noise.
C. The boy told his friends not to make so much noise.
D. The boy told his friends don’t make so much noise.
32. I started working for this company a year ago.
A. I’ve been working for this company for a year.
B. I’ve been working for this company a year ago.
C. I’ve been to work for this company for a year.
D. I’ve started to work for this company for a year.
33. Peter: “Your English is better than many Americans, Hanh. I really enjoy your public speaking”
Hanh: “__________”
A. You must be kidding! B. Congratulations!
C. I am sorry to hear that D. Thanks, Peter.
34. “________________________?” => “He’s OK now.”
A. How is he B. What is he C. How tall is he D. What’s he like
35. “Do you think you’ll get the job ? “ –“ ”
A. Yes, that’s right B. I think not. C. I know so. D. Well, I hope so.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
36. He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. impressive B. well- known C. important D. easy- looking
37. The 22nd SEA Game were well prepared and successfully organized although it was the first
time Vietnam hosted.
A. held B. took place C. took part in D. composed
38. Sport and festivals form an integral part of every human society
A. essential B. informative C. invented D. exciting

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
39. These materials are fine, durable and sweet- absorbing, suitable for tropical climate.
A. nonsuitable B. insuitable C. unsuitable D. over-suitable
40. He couldn’t give up smoking.
A. start B. give away C. stop D. continue

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.


English 12/ Workbook/ Page 65
Unit 15
The 23rd Southeast Asian Games were held in the Philippines from November 27 th to December 5th
in 2005. The games were participated by the eleven nations of Southeast Asia. This was the first time
that the opening and closing ceremonies were held in a large open field, despite the fact that Manila
has many stadiums. The organization decided to hold the games at an open space to accommodate
the large number of participants and spectators. As a result, the 2005 SEA Games ranked as having the
largest audience – 200,000 people – during the opening and closing ceremonies. These games were
also noted for having the most number of delegates in the history of the SEA Games. In the end, all
participating countries received medals.
Events in men’s football actually started on November 20 th, prior to the opening ceremony. Water
polo events began on November 21st, women’s football on November 23rd, sailing on November 26th,
and tennis on November 26th;
The first gold medal of the games was awarded to Singapore on November 25 th when their water
polo team came out undefeated during the round-robin tournament round. The Philippine team took the
silver medal in that event, and Malaysia brought home the bronze.
The Games were also considered a valuable opportunity for athletes to gain competition
experience and preparation for the upcoming Asian Games and Olympic Games. It was purposely
created to strengthen friendship, solidarity and understanding among neighboring countries in the
region.
This was the third SEA Games to be hosted by the Philippines. The last two times the Philippines
hosted the games were in 1981, and again in 1991.
There were 1,461 medals awarded, 444 of which were gold, 434 were silver, and 583 were bronze.
41. Up to now, the Philippines has hosted the SEA Games _______ times.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
42. According to the first paragraph, _______.
A. the opening and closing ceremonies were hold in the stadiums of Manila
B. only four of eleven participating countries got medals
C. the 23rd SEA Games had been over by the end of November, 2005
D. the number of audience in the 23rd SEA Games was about 200,000 people
43. Which sport was first competed in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Water polo B. Tennis C. Men’s football D. Sailing
44. Which was not mentioned in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Peace B. Friendship C. Solidarity D. Understanding
45. Which country got the first gold medal in the 23rd SEA Games?
A. Vietnam B. Singapore C. The Philippines D. Malaysia

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.


What is the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and what is its purpose? The
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a multilateral organization which was (46)
to give Southeast Asian states a forum to communicate (47) each other. Since the region had
a long colonial past and a history of endemic warfare, there has never been much peaceful and
constructive interaction between kings, presidents and other officials. A neutral forum was, (48) , a very
useful development for all of those countries.
ASEAN was formed as a result of the Bangkok Declaration of 1967 and initially had five
members: Thailand, Malaysia, Indonesia, (49) Philippines and Singapore. Brunei subsequently
joined in 1984 after it had won independence from Britain. Vietnam became the seventh member of the
group, officially joining in 1995. After several years of negotiation, Myanmar and Laos joined in 1997
and the final member of the ten, Cambodia, joined in 1999. The only (50) state in Southeast
Asia which is not a member of ASEAN is now East Timor. It is still too vulnerable and fragile to be able
to participate for the foreseeable future.
46. A. created B. made C. done D. discovered
47. A. in B. on C. for D. with
48. A. nevertheless B. moreover C. therefore D. however
49. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
50. A. dependent B. independent C. independently D. independence

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Unit 15
TEST 23
PHONETIC:
1. A. agency B. dedication C. medicine D. epidemic
2. A. reduce B. suffer C. human D. uniform
3. A. nation B. nature C. flag D. hesitation
4. A. react B. staff C. lack D. natural
5. A. peace B. treatment C. earthquake D. leader

STRESS:
6. A. international B. organization C. federation D. information
7. A. volunteer B. mission C. struggle D. vulnerable
8. A. survive B. result C. adopt D. symbolize
9. A. soldier B. agency C. victim D. society
10. A. prisoner B. disaster C. protection D. convention

ERROR RECOGNITION:
11. The road used to be narrow in the past but now it has widened.
A B C D
12. Her life was changed completely when she won the lottery.
A B C D
13. In spite of the traffic jam, we managed getting to the airport in time.
A B C D
14. These televisions are all too expensive for we to buy at this time.
A B C D
15. It was not until he had been 32 years old that he got married to a pretty girl.
A B C

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:


16. You look tired. Sit and have a cup of coffee.
A. up B. down C. on D. in
17. I’m looking for yesterday’s newspaper. Did you throw it ?
A. away B. out C. up D. on
18. Turn the music! It’s too loud!

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Unit 15
A. on B. down C. up D. into
19. The initiative for founding the Red Cross came a Swiss man called Jean Henri Dunant.
A. to B. from C. down D. for
20. Appalled by the almost complete lack care for wounded soldiers.
A. of B. for C. from D. off
21. This woman has her whole life to helping others.
A. Dedicated B. appealed C. initiated D. appalled
22. The Red Cross gives medical aid and other help to victim of major such as floods,
earthquakes, epidemics, and famines.
A. disasters B. accidents C. traffic jams D. agency
23. The Red Cross is an humanitarian agency.
A. international B. reduction C. organization D. foundation
24. Police have for witnesses to the accident.
A. initiated B. appealed C. appalled D. dedicated
25. The of International Red Cross was inspired by a Swiss man called Henry Dunant.
A. dedication B. peace C. foundation D. protection
26. The couple broke their engagement after they had a huge argument.
A. up B. over C. off D. away
27. The boy forgot the newspaper for his father on his way home.
A. buy B. buying C. to buy D. bought
28. Practice English anywhere you can is a way to better your speaking skill.
A. to speak B. speak C. speaking D. for speaking
29. She lost her balance when she to reach out for the balloon.
A. had tried B. was trying C. tried D. had been trying
30. Prices in this shop are . That’s why we never want to shop there anymore.
A. reasonable B. reasoning C. reasonably D. unreasonable
31. Old as she look, she is still She behaves in a childish way.
A. mature B. maturely C. immature D. maturity
32. We worked hard everything would be ready by noon.
A. because B. so that C. for fear that D. so as to
33. Could you post these letters for us on the way home?
_“ “
A. No problem B. I hope so C. It’s all right D. Fine
34. _ Your desk-mate failed in the oral test.
_“ “
A. I’m sorry to hear that B. In which respect
B. It’s hard for me to express myself in English D. Oh, I know
35. - “Give your parents my best regards, please.”
- “ ”
A. I will. Thank you B. That’s good C. That’s all right D. Right

SYNONYMS:
36. In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers,
civilians, and prisoners of war.
A. mounted B. excited C. devoted D. interested
37. Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume the duties
and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. take on B. get off C. go about D. put in
38. An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of
Red Cross Societies in 1991.
A. started B. helped C. treated D. dedicated
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Unit 15
OPPOSITES:
39. I am tired because I went to bed late last night.
A. early B. loudly C. beautifully D. quickly
40. They had to delay their trip because of the bad weather
A. get through B. go on C. keep up with D. go over

CLOSE TEST:
The Security Council is the most powerful (41) in the UN. It is responsible for
maintaining international peace, and for(42) peace when conflict arise. Its decisions are binding
on all UN members and have the force of international law. The Security Council has the (43) to
define what is a threat to security, to determine how the UN should respond, and to enforce its decision
by ordering UN members to take certain(44) . For example, the Council may impose (45)
sanctions, such as halting trade with a country it considers an aggressor.
41. A. body B. agency C. office D. A and B
42. A. keeping B. restoring C. maintaining D. making
43. A. authority B. function C. power D. All are correct
44. A. act B. acts C. action D. actions
45. A. economic B. economy C. economical D. economist

READING COMPREHENSION:
The United nation (UN), international organization of countries created to promote world peace
and cooperation. The UN was founded after World War II ended in 1945. Its mission is to maintain
world peace, develop good relations between countries, promote cooperation in solving the world’s
problems, and encourage respect for human rights.
The UN is an organization of countries that agree to cooperate with one another. It brings
together countries that are rich and poor, large and small, and have different social and political
systems. Member nations pledge to settle their disputes peacefully, to refrain from using force or the
threat of force against other counties, and to refuse help to any country that opposes UN actions.
46. The United Nation, international of countries created to promote world peace and
cooperation.
A. organize B. organization C. group D. member
47. What are the missions of the United Nation?
A. To promote cooperation in solving the world’s problems.
B. To encourage respect for human rights.
C. To maintain world peace, and develop good relations between countries.
D. All are correct.
48. The UN brings together countries that are , and have different social and political
systems.
A. poor B. rich C. large and small D. all are correct
49. The word pledge would probably be best replaced by
A. claim B. promise C. keep D. require
50. Which countries does the UN refuse help?
A. rich countries B. poor countries
C. small or large D. any country that opposes UN actions.

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Unit 15
TEST 24
PHONETIC:
1. A. symbol B. emergency C. poverty D. qualify
2. A. appalled B. dedicated C. designed D. injured
3. A. society B. delegate C. president D. protection
4. A. struggle B. survival C. volunteer D. injured
5. A. colleague B. league C. react D. peace

STRESS:
6. A. disaster B. prisoner C. agency D. family
7. A. international B. federation C. society D. dedication
8. A. committee B. reduction C. civilian D. vulnerable
9. A. suffering B president C. protection D. conference
10. A. involve B. propose C. improve D. soldier

ERROR RECOGNITION:
11. Keep walk until you see the bank ahead of you
A B C D
12. No sooner he had arrived in Rome than he was kidnapped.
A B C D
13. Since they have got married , they have moved the house twice.
A B C D

14. Jonny used to be one of the most success athletes in my country.


A B C D
15. You had better learning a foreign language before applying for a job
A B C D

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:


16. The International Red Cross helps people in need without any discrimination based on _______,
race, religion, class or political opinions.

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Unit 15
A. national B. nationally C. nationality D. native
17. The International Red Cross has about 97 million volunteers whose main _______ is to protect
human life and health.
A. mission B. experience C. organization D. rule
18. The Red .Cross is an international organization that helps people who are suffering from the
results of war, diseases or _______.
A. victims B. disasters C. opportunities D. conditions
19. _______ is a situation in which large numbers of people have little or no food, and many of them
die.
A. Disaster B. Famine C. Poverty D. Flood.
20. The International Red Cross helps to ensure respect for the human being, and to prevent and
relieve human _______.
A. protection B. enjoyment C. wealthy D. sufferings
21. She got _______ her car to pick _______ some wild flowers.
A. from / on B. in / at C. off / up D. out / for
22. The customer had tried ____ some blouses but none of them suited her.
A. at B. with C. in D. on
23. She is not really friendly. She does not get on well ____ her classmates.
A. from B. with C. for D. to
24. Go _______ this book because it has the information you need.
A. over B. by C. off D. on
25. I do not use those things any more. You can throw them
A. into B. of C. away D. out
26. - “You speak excellent English”
-“ .”
A. But my English is poor B. You don’t understand me
C. That’s of your business D. Thank you, but I’m just learning
27. - “How nice to see you.”
-“ .”
A. It’s so kind of you B. Nice to see you, too
C. So do I D. Thanks.
28. - “Have a nice weekend!”
-“ .”
A. You are the same B. The same to you
C. So do I D. Will you?
29. My country borders on Pacific Ocean.
A. a B.an C. the D. no article
30. This is a useful rule, difficult to remember.
A. so B. but C. and D. or
31. They got lost they forgot to take the map with them.
A. because B. because of C. although D. In spite of
32. Listen! Someone at the door. I it.
A. knocks/ answer B. has knocked/ will be answering
C. was knocking/ answered D. is knocking/ will answer
33. We TV when it to rain.
A. are watching / will start B. have watched/ will be starting
C. had watched/ was starting D. were watching/ started
34. By this time next summer, you your studies and a job.
A. will be completing / will find B. had completed / would find
C. have completed / find D. will have completed / found

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Unit 15
35. When you have small children in your house, you leave small objects lying around.
A. may not B. should not C. needn’t D. ought to

SYNONYMS:
36. The organization was established in 1950 in the USA
A. come around B. set up C. made out D. put on
37. 37. Jean Henri Dunant was appalled by the almost complete lack of care for wounded soldiers
A. dedicated B. shocked C. interested D. excited
38. The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately no one hurt
A. put on B. went off C. got out D. kept up

ANTONYMS:
39. According to World Bank figures, 41 per cent of Brazilians live in absolute poverty
A. health B. happiness C. millionaire D. richness
40. 40. Children will work hard if the lessons are interesting.
A. boring B. funny C. attractive D. expressing

CLOZE TEST:
The United Nations Children's Fund, or UNICEF, was (41) _____ by the United Nations General
Assembly on December 11, 1946, to provide emergency Food and (42) _____ to children in 'countries
that had been devastated by World War II. In 1953, UNICEF became a permanent part of the United
Nations System and its name was shortened from the (43) _____ United Nations International
Children's Emergency Fund but it has continued to be known by the popular acronym based on this old
name. (44) _____ in New York City, UNICEF provides long-term humanitarian and developmental
assistance to children and mother in developing countries.
UNICEF was (45) _____ the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 and Prince of Asturias Award of Concord
in 2006. UNICEF is present in 190 countries and territories around the world.
41. A .taken off B. set up C. paid on D. pushed back
42. A. instrument B. projects C. work D. healthcare
43. A. original B. ancestor C. old D. relatives
44. A. Managed B. Led C. Headquartered D. Committed
45. A. complimented B. awarded C. won D. taken

READING COMPREHENSION:
In 1945 leaders from 51 countries met in San Francisco, California, and organized the
United Nations (often called the UN). World War II had) just ended. Millions of people had died,
and there was destruction everywhere. People hoped they could build a future of world peace
through this new organization.
The main United Nations organization is in New York City, but the UN has a "family" of
other related organizations all over the world. These organizations try to provide a better life for
everyone. One example is UNICEF, an organization that provides food, medical care, and many
other services to poor children wherever they live. Another example is the World Health
Organization, which develops medical programs all over the world.
There are thousands of UN workers in developing countries. They work as planners to
increase production in farming and industry. They provide medical services, improve education
programs, and spread scientific information.' They develop programs that provide jobs and
better living conditions. They help countries control their population growth.
The United Nations also hold large international conferences, where people meet to
discuss important world issues. One conference was about the uses and ownership of oceans.
Another was about women. There are also International Years. In these special years, people
work together to improve situations and solve problems. One year is the International Year of

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Unit 15
the Child.
46. Leaders from 51 countries met in San Francisco and decided to organize the UN in order
to
A. help the countries that had been damaged in the War.
B. build a future of world peace for all countries
C. pay for the damage caused by World War II
D. exchange commercial goods
47. What is the main purpose of the World Health Organization?
A. To provide food and clothing for children all over the world.
B. To supply teaching aid and educational programs.
C. To develop medical programs in different countries.
D. To bring peace to the countries at war.
48. Which of the following fields is the UN NOT involved in?
A. Farming and industry B. Medical services
C. Education D. Armament
49. In International Years held by the United Nations, people
A. discuss the uses of the oceans B. provide jobs and better living conditions
C. work together to improve situations D. exchange scientific information
50. The word "spread" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. “circulate” B. “collect” C. “save” D. “announce”

TEST 25
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. involvement B. employment C. social D. important
2. A. position B. family C. century D. politics
3. A. philosopher B. discriminate C. individual D. significant
4. A. ability B. equality C. enlightenment D. naturally
5. A. status B. argue C. basis D. against

Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
6. A. women B. men C. led D. intellectual
7. A. throughout B. although C. right D. enough
8. A. history B. significant C. philosophy D. pioneer
9. A. power B. wife C. allow D. known
10. A. believed B. considered C. advocated D. controlled

Choose A, B, C, or D that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined
part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
11. To preserve that ________, it was necessary to preserve the people that had created it.
A. civil B. civilize C. civility D. civilization
12. The Prime Minister is to consider changes to sexually ________ laws to enforce equal
opportunities.
A. discriminate B. discrimination C. discriminatory D. discriminated
13. In former days, women were considered not to be suitable for becoming a ________.
A. politics B. political C. politically D. politician
14. At any competition, everyone is ________.
A. the same B. equal C. common D. significant
15. If you have the ________ in an election, you have the legal right to indicate your choice.
A. status B. individual C. vote D. equality
English 12/ Workbook/ Page 73
Unit 15
16. Not all women can do two jobs well at the same time: rearing children and working at office.
A. educating B. taking care of C. homemaking D. giving a birth
17. There have been significant changes in women's lives since the women's liberation movement.
A. controlled B. economic C. important D. natural
18. Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role.
A. Giving birth to a baby B. Having no child
C. Bring up a child D. Educating a child
19. The forces behind the women's liberation movement vary from culture to culture, from individual to
individual.
A. advocate B. equalize C. power D. change
20. Before we had kids, I used to do more housework than my husband did, but he was working
thirteen hour days at the office compared ________ my eight-hour ones.
A. with B. about C. for D. on
21. Thomas has often boasted ________ his son's golfing ability.
A. on B. to C. about D. over
22. Although I did not totally agree ________ feminist's policies, I certainly admired their audacity,
dedication and courage.
A. for B. with C. along D. up
23.A woman's role in society was defined by the Feminists on whether they were contributors ________
society or not.
A. upon B. to C. off D. away
24. It took women a long time to struggle ________ the right to vote.
A. for B. with C. against D. upon
25. - How do you do? I’m so glad to meet you.
- . I’m glad to meet you, too.
A. How do you do? B. I’m fine. C. I’m eighteen years old D. Goodbye
26. - May I speak to Mr. Chan?
-
A. Hearing B. Listening C. Speaking D. Talking
27. - May I borrow your eraser?
-
A. This is an eraser. B. Ok. Thank you C. I don’t borrow you D. Here you are
28. The more we learn, .
A. we become wise B. we become wiser
C. wiser we become D. the wiser we become
29.When Henry home after a hard day of work, his children .
A arrived / left B arrived / were sleeping
C was arriving / slept D had arrived / were sleeping
30. Before last night, I Dane for years.
A didn’t see B haven’t seen C hadn’t seen D wasn’t seen
31. They will ask you a lot of questions at the interview.
A. You will be asked a lot of questions at the interview.
B. You will be asked a lot of questions at the interview by them.
C A lot of questions will be asked you at the interview.
D. A lot of questions will be asked at the interview.
32. Facial ______ show one's feelings when he is communicating.
A. expressions B. expresses C. expressive D. expressively
33. He was so _______ that he could not even say a word.
A. nerve B. nerves C. nervous D. nervously
34.If you do not understand the word "superstitious," look it up in the dictionary.
A. find its meaning B. write it C. draw it D. note it
35. John speak three languages.
A. will B. can C. has to D. must

Mistake Identification
36. I haven’t visited Mr. Ba when he moved to his new house.
A B C D

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Unit 15
37. A new department store was building in our town last month.
A B C D
38. My brother didn’t wear that uniform since he left school.
A B C D
39. I’d like to go with you, so I don’t feel like eating out tonight.
A B C D
40. Sarah wore dark glasses so to that no one would recognize her.
A B C D
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
It has been thought that women are the second class in citizen, and men are the first. There is not
a real equality of opportunity for men and women. Years ago, people were living in a man-dominated
society. Women had to obey their husbands and fathers absolutely. Women's place was in the kitchen
and women's work was housework. In many places, women were not even' allowed to go to school.
Women had no rights, even the right to choose husband for themselves. Men usually occupied high
positions in society so they thought they were more intelligent than women. Men often considered
women as their property. Sometimes, they were mistreated by their husbands and suffered the problem
as a fate. Many parents did not even want to daughters.
Despite the progress, there remain outdated beliefs about women's roles, traditionally passed
down from generation to generation. Men are commonly seen as the strong bodies, bread-winners in
the family and key leaders in society, while women are restricted to being housewives and child bearing
and care, and housework such as washing and cooking.
According to social surveys, many women in the 21st century still have to work over 12 hours a day
including working in offices and doing countless household chores without any help from their
husbands. In some regions, the labor of women is not recognized despite the hardships they endure to
support the whole family. Moreover, women are the direct victims of family violence, especially in rural
areas.
Thanks to the women's liberation movement, nowadays women have proved that they are equal to
men in every aspect. An average woman has weaker muscles than an average man but she may be as
intelligent as he is. Women can do everything that men can, and women can do one thing that no man
can: they produce children.
41. Which is not women's role in the former days?
A. Working in authority B. Doing housework
C. Doing cooking D. Bearing and rearing children
42. Years ago, women are pot allowed ________.
A. to work in the kitchen B. to go to school
C. to do housework D. to stay at home with their parents
43. What did women have to suffer?
A. Good schooling B. Choosing a husband themselves
C. Enjoy their housework D. Illiteracy
44. The outdated 'beliefs about women's roles ________.
A. have been eradicated completely
B. disappeared soon after the women's liberation movement
C. still exist at present.
D. was forced to change after the women's liberation movement
45. According to the text, women in the 21st century ________.
A. do not have to do housework any more
B. are still the victims of family violence in some rural areas
C. get help from their husbands with all housework
D. spend less than 12 hours working outside the home and doing housework

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.


Years ago, in their private family role, women quite often dominate the male members of the
household. Women were quite (46) _____ to their families. However, the public role of women has
changed (47) _____ since the beginning of World War II.
During the war, men were away from home to the battle. As a (48) ____, women were in complete
control of the home. They found themselves doing double and sometimes triple (49) _____. They
began to take over the work of their absent husbands and to work outside. They accounted for 73% of

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Unit 15
the industrial labor force. Women were forced by economic realities to work in the factories. The women
who worked there were (50) _____ low wages, lived in crowded and small dormitories.
46.A. fascinated B. worried C. dedicated D. interested
47.A. unfortunately B. approximately C. nearly D. dramatically
48.A. change B. result C. success D. opportunity
49.A. duty B. job C. requirement D. career
50.A. made B. paid C. created D. delivered

TEST 26
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. deny B. legal C. women D. limit
2. A. human B. mother C. struggle D. belief
3. A. opportunity B. economic C. society D. intellectual
4. A. history B. natural C. pioneer D. business
5. A. advocate B. consider C. cultural D. period

Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
6. A. events B. spirit C. Asian D. silver
7. A. gold B. region C. organize D. game.
8. A. trained B. proved C. impressed D. performed
9. A. competitor B. medal C. level D. development
10. A. honor B. high C. host D. hold

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.


Throughout history, women have always aimed for a recognized place in (11) Guided by
their own field of knowledge and expertise, women like Marie Curie in science, Mary Wollstonecraft in
literary writing, Simone de Beauvois in philosophical existentialist debate, and Marie Stopes, in
medicine, to name a few, have brought about (12) awareness of the role of women in any
walks of life. These women have helped redefine and consolidate the nature of women's place in
society. Today the (13) of global women's organizations and the impact of women's
contributions on society show that progress has been made and the progress in furthering the role of
women in society has been some benefit to the (14) woman. It is true to say that not all women
have the same need. The need of the woman who stays at home and raises children will differ widely

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Unit 15
from the woman who works outside. Nonetheless, in the extensive field of equal opportunities, it would
be good to know that access is given to both with equal measure according to the true value of
respective abilities. It also would be good to know that the woman at home is recognized as a valued
(15) of society just as much as the one who deals on business outside the home.
11. A. society B. social C. socialize D. socialist
12. A. a B. an C. the D. no article
13. A. right B. belief C. limit D. spread
14. A. own B. private C. individual D. personal
15. A. party B. competitor C. partner D. member

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.


Today, more and more women are actively participating in social activities both in urban and rural
areas. Specifically, they have shined brightly in even many fields commonly regarded as the man's
areas such as business, scientific research and social management. In some areas, women even show
more overwhelming power than men. The image of contemporary Vietnamese women with
creativeness, dynamism, success has become popular in Vietnam's society. The fact reveals that the
gender gap has been remarkably narrowed and women enjoy many more opportunities to pursue their
social careers and obtain success, contributing to national socio-economic development. According to
Ms, Le Thi Quy, Director of the Gender/and Development Research Centre under the University of
Social Sciences and Humanities, Hanoi National University, gender equity in Vietnam has reached a
high level over the past decade. The rate of Vietnamese women becoming National Assembly members
from the 9th term to the 11th term increased 8.7%, bringing the proportion of Vietnamese women in
authority to 27.3%, the highest rate in Southeast Asia. There is no big gap in the level of literacy and
schooling between men and women. Women account for about 37% of university and college
graduates, 19.9% of doctoral degree holders and 6.7% of professors and associate professors.
The legitimate rights of women and children are ensured more than ever before with more
complete legal documents including laws, conventions and national action plans, among which the laws
on "gender equity" mark a turning-point in the empowerment of women.
Mass media also highlights the continued success of women in every field and honors their great
importance in modern society, helping to do away with outdated perceptions about traditional women's
duties. Many projects on reproductive health care, children protection, and family income improvement
jointly conducted by various mass organizations, state agencies and non-governmental organizations
have created favorable conditions for women to become involved.
16. The text is about
A. the changes in the status of Vietnamese women
B. the Vietnamese women's liberation
C. the Vietnamese sex discrimination
D. the discrimination that Vietnamese women have to face
17. Which adjective is not used to describe Vietnamese women?
A. successful B. creative C. narrow D. dynamic
18. According to the data in the text,
A. Vietnamese women do not take part in authority
B. the level of literacy and schooling between men and women in Vietnam is the same
C. there are more women in authority in Vietnam than those in any other countries in Southeast Asia.
D. there are no female professors in Vietnam
19. Vietnamese women
A. have few opportunities to develop their intellectual ability
B. have only shined brightly in doing housework
C. cannot do any scientific research
D. are ensured their rights with laws, conventions and national action plans
20. Which is not mentioned in the text as a project to create condition for Vietnamese women?
A. Traditional women's duties. B. Reproductive health care.
C. Children protection. D. Family income improvement.

Choose A, B, C, or D that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined
part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
21. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!” Maria: “ ”

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Unit 15
A. Of course not, it’s not costly B. Thank you. Hope will drop in
C. I think so D. No problem
22. Helen: “Congratulations!” Jane: “ ”
A. What a pity! B. Thank you C. I’m sorry D. You are welcome
23. “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” _ “___________”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid B. You are telling a lie
C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don't like your sayings
24. Western women are more ________ than Asian women.
A. depend B. dependent C. independent D. independently
25. In some communities a husband's ________ over his wife is absolute.
A. power B. powerful C. powerfully D. powered
26. I think that up to now there has not been a real ________ between men and women.
A. equal B. equally C. equality D. equalize
27. Yesterday I ran into Sam at the grocery store. I had not seen him for years.
A. met B. visited C. said goodbye to D. made friends with
28. Let's go over that report again before we submit it.
A. dictate B. print C. read carefully D. type
29. I will not stand for your bad attitude any longer.
A. like B. tolerate C. mean D. care
30. My husband spends far more time helping our three kids ________ homework and studying for
tests than I do.
A. on B. to C. with D. in
31. My husband and I take turns cleaning ________ the kitchen depending ________ who gets
home from work earlier.
A. away / to B. from / in C. up / on D. with / for
32. The efforts for the advancement of women have resulted ________ several respectively
achievement in women's life and work.
A. at B. with C. for D. in
33. The women's movement has affirmed women's rights to non-discrimination ________
education, employment and economic and social activities.
A. in B. of C. from D. about
34. I think women are suited ________ many important things, besides childbearing and
homemaking.
A. of B. on C. for D. about
35. A ________ problem, feeling, or belief is difficult to change because its causes have been there
for a long time.
A. deep-seated B. significant C. dependent D. intellectual
36. In our modern time, the _______ of women has shifted from homemaker to outside worker.
A. role B. period C. right D. pay
37. Cultural ________ are the commonly held norms and moral standards of a culture, the
standards of right and wrong that set expectations for behavior.
A. facts B. changes C. diversities D. beliefs
38. Girls must all be sent to school because ________ will provide better opportunities.
A. education B. beliefs C. rights D. politics
39. Women not well-treated in former days.
A. is B. are C. were D. was
40. She encouraged as hard as I could.
A. me pulling B. pulling C. me to pull D. B&C are correct
41. It is believed that red is the symbol of luck.
A. Red is believed to be the symbol of luck. B. Red is believed that is the symbol of luck.
C. Red is believed is the symbol of luck. D. Red is believed being the symbol of luck.
42. The children, ___________ parents work late, are taken home by bus.
A. whose B. their C. whom D. that
43. How __________ languages can she speak?
A. much B. many C. long D. far
44. She works in a bank, ?
A. does she B. doesn't she C. did she D. didn’t she

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Unit 15
45. I often feel tired I get up in the morning
A. while B. when C. although D. so long as

MISTAKE IDENTIFICATION
46. The harder you study for these exam, the best you will do.
A B C D
47. The sears Tower is the most tallest building in Chicago.
A B C D
48. It is getting coldest when the winter is coming.
A B C D
49. How many competitions took part in the 22nd Sea Games?
A B C D
50. French is a most difficult language to learn than English is.
A B C D

TEST 27
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answers:
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations or ASEAN was established on 8 August 1967 in
Bangkok by the five original Member Countries, namely, Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore,
and Thailand. Brunei joined on 8 January 1984, Vietnam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar on
23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999. The ASEAN Declaration states that the aims and
purposes of the Association are: to accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural
development in the region and to promote regional peace and stability through abiding respect for
justice and the rule of law in the relationship among countries in the region and adherence to the
principles of the United Nations Charter.
In 2003, the ASEAN Leaders resolved that an ASEAN Community shall be established
comprising three pillars, namely, ASEAN Security Community, ASEAN Economic Community and
ASEAN Socio-Cultural Community.
The ASEAN Vision 2020, adopted by the ASEAN Leaders on the 30th Anniversary of ASEAN,
agreed on a shared vision of ASEAN as a concert of Southeast Asian nations, outward looking, living in
peace, stability and prosperity, bonded together in partnership in dynamic development and in a
community of caring societies.
ASEAN Member Countries have adopted the following fundamental principles in their relations with
one another, as contained in the Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia (TAC):
 mutual respect for the independence, sovereignty, equality, territorial integrity, and national
identity of all nations;
 the right of every State to lead its national existence free from external interference, subversion or
coercion;
English 12/ Workbook/ Page 79
Unit 15
 non-interference in the internal affairs of one another; settlement of differences or disputes by
peaceful manner;
 renunciation of the threat or use of force; and
 effective cooperation among themselves.
1. According to the text, which nation is the last member to join The Association of Southeast Asian
Nations up to now.
A. Vietnam B. The Philippines C. Brunei D. Cambodia
2. The ASEAN Declaration is about _______.
A. the cultures of all the members of the organization
B. the development of all countries all over the world
C. the aims and purposes of the organization
D. the laws of the members of the organization
3. The third paragraph is about _______.
A. living in peace, stability and prosperity B. the 30th Anniversary of ASEAN
C. The ASEAN Vision 2020 D. the ASEAN Leaders
4. The Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia _______.
A. is not accepted by ASEAN Member Countries
B. consists of fundamental principles in the relations of ASEAN Member Countries
C. is disapproved by ASEAN Member Countries
D. has two principles
5. Which principle does not belong to the Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia?
A. interference in the internal affairs of member countries
B. effective cooperation
C. mutual respect
D. peaceful manner

Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
6. A. member B. progress C. culture D. diverse
7. A. associate B. stability C. original D. electronic
8. A. development B. agriculture C. communicate D. economy
9. A. enterprise B. domestic C. tourism D. industry
10. A. justice B. respect C. adopt D. improve

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
11. A. goal B. language C. region D. energy
12. A. social B. country C. culture D. record
13. A. finance B. service C. statistic D. include
14. A. adopted B. founded C. improved D. admitted
15. A. nations B. accounts C. laws D. series

Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.


16. The better you are at English, the most chance you have to get a job with international
A B C D
organizations
17. The price of petrol has raised so rapidly that we decide to use the bus.
A B C D
18. The examination will test your ability to understand spoken English, to read non-technical
A B
language, and writing correctly.
C D
19. We are relying with you to find a solution to this problem
A B C D
English 12/ Workbook/ Page 80
Unit 15
20. I don’t want to invite too much people because it’s quite a small flat
A B C D

Choose the best option to complete each sentence:


21. We are trying to control the ________ of the dollar on the world’s money markets.
A. stable B. stabilize C. stability D. stabilizer
22. All ASEAN countries are received equal rights and________.
A. justification B. justifiable C. justified D. Justify
23. The major goal of ASEAN is to ____economic growth, social progress and cultural development.
A. cooperate B. accelerate C. communicate D. operate
24. The ASIAN was ________ on August 8th, 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand.
A. established B. begun C. seen D. proved
25. We are _________ to produce unemployment by 50%.
A. aiming B. finding C. approving D. accepting
26. We need to concentrate ______ our target audience, namely women aged between 20 and 30.
A. on B. at C. in D. about
27. What did that man die ________? –A heart attack.
A. in B. for C. of D. about
28. The goal the ASEAN Vision 2020 aims _______ creating a stable, prosperous and highly
competitive ASEAN economic region.
A. for B. on C. at D. up
29. Laos and Myanmar were admitted _______ ASEAN in 1997.
A. for B. of C. to D. in
30. ASEAN also try to solve the problems of ethnic tensions which might lead _______ civil war.
A. into B. away C. off D. to
31. Jack: "He's in a bad mood today." ~ Anna: “_______"
A. You can say that again! B. Yes, I do, too. C. You're welcome! D. No, thanks.
32. I have known a very nice girl _________ older sister is a famous actress.
A. what B. who C. whose D. whom
33. Tom ________ travel a lot. These days he doesn’t go away very often.
A. is used to B. used to C. is used for D. used
34. _________ you finish typing that report, make five copies of it and give it to the officers.
A. While B. When C. But D. Although
35. As he grows older, he becomes increasingly intelligent.
A. The older he grows, the more intelligent he becomes.
B. The older he grew, the more intelligent he becomes.
C. The oldest he grows, the more intelligent he becomes.
D. The older he grows, more intelligent he becomes.
36. The doctor spent 10 minutes examining the patient.
A. It took the doctor 10 minutes examining the patient.
B. It took the doctor 10 minutes to examine the patient.
C. It took the doctor 10 minutes examine the patient.
D. It took the doctor 10 minutes to examining the patient.
37. Jim: "We are getting married!" ~ Alice: "________"
A. That's right. B. Congratulations! C. Why not? D. Let's do it.
38. Mr. Watson wants the report ________ soon.
A. rewrites B. rewriting C. rewritten D. rewrote
39. If I ________ you, I would take the job and then ask for more money.
A. had been B. a C. will be D. were
40. _________ he had a suggestion he didn’t raise his hand.
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Unit 15
A. because B. Although C. However D. Therefore

Read the passage and choose the best option to complete each blank.
Singapore has a highly developed market-based economy (41) _______ historically revolves
around extended trade. Along with Hong Kong, South Korea and Taiwan Singapore is one (42)_______
the Four Asian Tigers. The economy depends heavily on export, refining, imported goods, especially in
manufacturing. Manufacturing constituted twenty six (43) ________ of Singapore’s GDP in 2005. The
manufacturing industry is well –diversified into electronic petroleum refining chemicals, (44) _______
engineering and biomedical sciences manufacturing. In 2006, Singapore produced about 10 percent of
the world foundry water output. Singapore’s the busiest port in the world in terms of tonnage shipped.
Singapore is The world’s fourth largest foreign exchange trading centre after London, New York City
(45) _______ Tokyo.
41. A. who B. whom C. why D. which
42. A. of B. in C. for D. at
43. A. percentage B. persuasion C. perception D. percent
44. A. mechanical B. mechanically C. methane D. Mechanic
45. A. and B. but C. or D. so
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
46. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
47. The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstrations
48. Strategic alliances are being forged with major European companies.
A. forced B. formulated C. forbidden D. move forward
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
49. One of the main goals of the Association is to accelerate economic growth
A. slow down B. make faster C. speed up D. advance
50. The ASEAN Vision 2020 is aimed at forging closer economic integration within the region
A. combination B. union C. cooperation D. separation
TEST 28
Read the passage and choose the best answers.
Brunei is one of the smallest countries in the world. Its population is only 25,000 and most of
them live in Bandar Seri Begawan (the capital city with the longest name in the world!) It is also the
richest country in Asia and may be the richest country in the world because it has a lot of oil and natural
gas which it exports to Japan. Every week huge tankers carry oil and gas from the oil-fields of Brunei to
Japan.
The head of the state in Brunei is Sultan Haji Hassanal Bolkiah. He is the richest man in the
world. He has two wives and each lives in their own beautiful palace. The first wife lives in the biggest
palace in the world which has 200 rooms. The Sultan has more than 200 cars and he also has
hundreds of horses.
1. Brunei is_____________________.
A. among the smallest country in the world B. a country with a dense population
C. the smallest countries in the world D. is a capital city
2. The population of Brunei is______________ people.
A. over 25,000 B. 25,000 C. about 25,000 D. less than 25,000
3. According to the passage, Sultan, the head of the state in Brunei ______________.
A. is the richest man in the world
B. has two wives, each of whom lives in their own beautiful palace
C. has more than 200 cars

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Unit 15
D. All are correct.
4. Brunei is rich in______________.
A. only oil B. only natural gas C. exports of every kind D. oil and natural gas
5. Which of the following is NOT true about Brunei?
A. It exports oil and natural gas to its regional neighbours.
B. Sultan Haji Hassanal Bolkiah is the head of state in Brunei.
C. It may be the richest country in the world.
D. Its capital city is Bandar Seri Begawan.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
6. ASEA has actively worked to improve the socio – economic situations among its member
countries
A. prevent B. enrich C. stop D. slow down
7. In 2006, the ASEAN region had a total trade of $1405 billion
A. employment B. jobs C. business D. companies
8. Our main aim is to increase sales in Europe.
A. advantage B. purpose C. creation D. entertainment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
9. The ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) is an agreement by the member nations of ASEAN
concerning local manufacturing in all ASEAN countries.
A. progressing B. producing C. combining D. rejection
10. Our major concern here is combatting poverty.
A. main B. important C. minor D. big
Choose the best option
11. If you have time at the end of the exam, check your answers.
A. few B. a little C. many D. a few
12. We Emma since she went to work in New York a year ago.
A. didn't see B. haven't seen C. hadn't seen D. don't see
13. You take your umbrella along with you today. It rain later on this afternoon.
A. ought to / mustn't B. needn't / will C. will / must D. should / might
14. As the winter is coming so soon in this region, it will get , especially at night.
A. cold and cold B. the coldest and coldest
C. colder and colder D. more and more cold
15. ! There's a car coming!
A. Look after B. Watch out C. Try out D. Take after
16. you pick up a book for the first time, check that it is not too difficult.
A. Unless B. Because C. Although D. When
17. Every participant came to the conference earlier than Peter.
A. Peter came to the conference as early as other participants.
B. Peter came to the conference as late as other participants.
C. Peter was the last participant to come to the conference.
D. Peter was the first participant to come to the conference.
18. Although he is rich, he feels unhappy.
A. He feels unhappy because of his richness. B. He feels unhappy, so he is rich.
C. In spite of being rich, he feels unhappy. D. He feels unhappy because he is rich.
19. I like my work because I have the ________ to make my own decisions.
A. freed B. freely C. freedom D. free
20. Where’s_______ report I left on the table next to the TV in the living room.
A. an B. a C. the D. Φ

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Unit 15
21. ASEAN has _______ a community of Southeast' Asian nations at peace with one another and at
peace with the world.
A. joined B. estimated C. established D. solved
22. ASEAN helps to _______ regional cooperation in Southeast Asia in the spirit of equality and
partnership
A. invest B. promote C. admit D. invest
23. Rice is the _______ exported product of Vietnam.
A. main B. free C. average D. rural
24. Throughout the 1970s, ASEAN embarked on a program of economic _______.
A. cooperate B. cooperation C. cooperative D. cooperatively
25. 2007 was the 40th anniversary of the _______ of ASEAN.
A. found B. founder C. foundation D. founding
26. They will campaign for the return of traditional lands and respect _____ national rights and
customs.
A. to B. with C. on D. for
27. Our country is trying its best to accelerate the rate ___ economic growth.
A. of B. at C. for D. from
28. Regional development activities have been carried _______ under ASEAN cooperation
A. out B. for C. into D. off
29. The population of ASEAN accounts _______ about 8.7% of the world's population.
A. of B. for C. in D. from
30. The government is aiming _______ a 50% reduction in unemployment.
A. out B. for C. into D. at
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.
31. The headmaster of our school have been very busy since he returned from Hanoi.
A B C D
32. In many ways, riding a bicycle is similar with driving a car.
A B C D
33. A friend of mine used to smoking a lot when he was young.
A B C D
34. Time goes down quickly when we are busy working.
A B C D
35. Peter didn’t buy that computer because he had few money.
A B C D
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
36. A. diverse B. admit C. science D. enterprise
37. A. growth B. although C. within D. southern
38. A. stable B. average C. population D. rate
39. A. combined B. planned C. recorded D. aimed
40. A. justice B. service C. practice D. advice
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
41. A. association B. original C. stability D. accelerate
42. A. domestic B. estimate C. statistics D. relation
43. A. language B. diverse C. promote D. combine
44. A. economic B. integration C. development D. transportation
45. A. service B. rural C. region D. include

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.


What is the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and what is its (46) _____? The
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a multilateral organization which was (47) _____ to
give Southeast Asian states a forum to communicate (48) _____ each other. Since the region had a
long colonial past and a history of endemic warfare, there has never been much peaceful and
English 12/ Workbook/ Page 84
Unit 15
constructive (49) _____ between kings, presidents and other officials. A neutral forum was, (50) _____,
a very useful development for all of those countries.
46. A. challenge B. purpose C. action D. struggle
47. A. created B. made C. done D. discovered
48. A. in B. on C. for D. with
49. A. interflow B. interaction C. interference D. intercommunity
50. A. nevertheless B. moreover C. therefore D. however

TỰ CHỌN 01: SO, THEREFORE, BUT, HOWEVER


1. He is rich; _____, he is not happy.
A. however B. besides C. and D. so
2. Tom works hard, _____ he can not buy a house.
A. on the contrary B. therefore C. but D. in addition
3. The door is very old; _____, it is very strong.
A. nevertheless B. as well as C. what is more D. however
4. Luc Van Tien’s mother died, _____ he had to quit the examination.
A. since B. because C. so D. All are correct
5. He was lazy; _____, he failed the examination.
A. as a result B. therefore C. thus D. All are correct
6. The mouse died in the corner two days ago. _____, it smells rotten.
A. otherwise B. on the contrary C. yet D. therefore
7. I want to work as an interpreter in the future, ________ I am studying Russian at university.
A. but B. so C. however D. therefore
8. I am going shopping for food this evening, ________ I do not have to go at the weekend.

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A. so B. but C. however D. moreover
9. We live in the same building, ________ we have hardly seen each other
A. and B. therefore C. but D. so
10. I went to buy a Rolling Stones CD, ________ the shop didn't have it.
A. and B. but C. therefore D. so
11. Anna needed some money, ________, she took a part-time job.
A. furthermore B. moreover C. however D. therefore
12. Julie has a guitar, ________ she plays it badly.
A. and B. so C. but D. therefore
13. My fingers were injured ,________ my sister had to write the note for me.
A. and B. however C. so D. but
14. The concert was cancelled, ________ we went to a nightclub instead.
A. so B. however C. so on D. but
15. He is only sixteen, and ________, he is not eligible to drive a car.
A. nevertheless B. but C. therefore D. however
16. Maria tried to read a novel in French ,________ the book was too difficult for her to understand.
A. so that B. therefore C. but D. and
17. To get from Vancouver to Victoria, you can fly, __ you can ride the ferry.
A. or B. but C. so D. however
18. I bought a bottle of wine ,________ we drank it together.
A. therefore B. so C. and D. but
19. The waiter was not very nice. ________, the food was delicious.
A. However B. but C. so D. and so
20. ___ hard he worked, he could earn enough money to support the family.
A. But B. However C. Therefore D. Whatever

TỰ CHỌN 02: MODAL VERBS


1. John speak three languages.
A. will B. can C. has to D. must
2. you play the piano?
A. Can B. Must C. Should D. Need
3. The machine be turned on by pressing this button.
A. might B. ought to C. should D. can
4. you hold your breath for more than a minutes ? – Of course not.
A. Needn’t B. Would C. Might D. Can
5. When I was five years old, I read and write.
A. can B. could C. may D. should
6. It is hot here. you open the window a bit, please?
A. Could B. Must C. should D. Might
7. Let’s go for a drink. – I love to.
A. will B. would C. must D. should

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8. You translate that. I understand what you say.
A. wouldn’t B. needn’t C. mustn’t D. couldn’t
9. You be right but I am not sure so I am going back to check anyway.
A. can B. must C. should D. might
10. Mary decided not to join us for dinner. She stay at work to finish the marketing report.
A. had to B. must C. can D. may
11. You book the tickets for the play in advance because they sell out quickly.
A. could B. mustn’t C. have to D. may
12. What do you have in mind? – I prefer a long dress.
A. will B. would C. can D. must
13. She a lot after her husband’s accident. That why her eyes were so red and swollen.
A. must be crying B. can have cried C. must have cried D. will have cried
14. She that is a good idea. It is crazy.
A. can’t think B. must think C. may have thought D. could think.
15. I use your car? – Of course. Here the key.
A. May B. Must C. Need D. Should
16. I know what you mean. You explain further.
A. won’t B. mightn’t C. needn’t D. mustn’t
17. She be able to come on holiday if her parents give her permission.
A. will B. can C. could D. mustn’t
18. We forget our identity card when we are travelling.
A. need B. mustn’t C. could not D. have to
19. Look! She is laughing. She something funny or happy.
A. must have B. must have had C. could have had D. can’t have had
20. Our teacher is so strict. We forget to do our homework.
A. must B. mustn’t C. needn’t D. may
21. you mind if I brought a colleague with me ?
A. Can B. Must C. Would D. Might
22. When you have a small child in the house, you leave small objects lying around.
A. may not B. should not C. needn’t D. ought to
23. John drive when he was eighteen.
A. cannot B. could not C. would rather not D. might not
24. Frank’s wallet is lying on the coffee table. He there last night.
A. had to leave B. will have left C. must leave D. must have left

TỰ CHỌN 03: MODAL VERBS IN PASSIVE

1. The computer does not work. It during transportation.


A. must have been damaged B. should have been damaged
C. can be damaging D. will damage
2. Your diving equipment regularly if you want to keep it in good condition.
A. may be cleaned B. can’t be cleaned C. can clean D. must be cleaned
3. This test in fifteen minutes.
A. must be finished B. could be finished C. has finished D. can finish
4. The hotel is very old. It before Tet.
A. could be repaired B. can be repaired C. should be repaired D. repaired
5. Your coat is dirty. It washed.
A. need to be B. need be C. needn’t be D. needn’t to
6. The soup stirred continuously to prevent burning.

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A. have to be B. has to be C. should be D. may be
7. Ten questions answered by all candidates.
A. can be B. could be C. must be D. should be
8. Are you joking? A new car bought by David last week. I am sure that he does not have money.
A. must have been B. may have been C. would be D. can’t have been
9. My bag in the shop. I can’t find it anywhere.
A. might have been left B. can have been left
C. have to be left D. will have been left
10. I have lost one of my gloves. It somewhere.
A. can have been dropped B. must have been dropped
C. can be dropped D. would have dropped
11. We couldn’t repair the car ourselves. It taken to a garage.
A. has to B. has to be C. had to be D. have to be
12. In Britain uniform when the children go to school.
A. have to be worn B. has to be worn C. must wear D. can be worn
13. You must keep it a secret. It told anyone.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. mustn’t be D. must be
14. It’s a really interesting film. It by million people all over the world.
A. must be seen B. must see C. could see D. could be seen
15. This new drug in the fight against cancer.
A. should use B. should be used C. could use D. could be used
16. Your computer very well.
A. could be used B. can be used C. should use D. can use
17. My repaired. It was broken down.
A. can’t B. can’t be C. needn’t D. won’t be
18. Little boys made climb the chimneys to clean them.
A. used to B. used to be C. can be D. could be
19. The exercise tomorrow by the teacher.
A. will correct B. must correct
C. can correct D. won’t be corrected
20. The machine be turned on by pressing this bottom.
A. might B. ought to C. should D. can

TỰ CHỌN 04: COMPARISONS

1. At school, David was _____ anyone else in his class.


A. as clever as B. as clever than C. cleverer D. cleverest
2. Jane is the _____ of the two sisters.
A. elder B. oldest C. eldest D. more old
3. The examination was _____ than we expected.
A. more easy B. easier C. most easy D. easily
4. Mary is _____ of the four girls in the family
A. the nicest B. the nicer C. nicer than D. as nice
5. Tom looks _____ than he really is.
A. older B. eldest C. much older D. as old
6. What was _____ holiday you’ve ever had?

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A. more B. the most C. the best D. better
7. Today, it is _____ as it was yesterday.
A. as warm B. so warm C. as warmer D. the warmest
8. I’ll give you the _____ steak; I’m not very hungry.
A. big B. bigger C. biggest D. most biggest
9. It’s too noisy here. Can we go somewhere _____?
A. quietest B. more quiet C. quieter D. most quiet
10. I know him _____ than you do.
A. more well B. better C. the better D. best
11. She is one of _____ people I know.
A. the most nicer B. the most nice C. more nice D. the nicest
12. She sang _____ than I expected.
A. most beautiful B. less beautiful C. less beautifully D. more beautiful
13. John drove _____ I did
A. faster than B. more fastly than C. more fast than D. fastly than
14. Yesterday was _____ of the year.
A. hotter day B. the hotter day C. the hottest day D. hottest day
15. I like Betty and Maud, but I think Betty is the _____ of the two.
A. more intelligent B. more intelligent from
C. most intelligent D. as intelligent
16. The problem was _____ we thought at first
A. much serious than B. much more serious than
C. much seriously than D. seriouser than
17. Most of Ann’s friends work less hard than her
A. Ann works more hard than most of her friends do
B. Ann works more hardly than most of her friends do
C. Ann works harder than most of her friends do
D. Ann works as hard as most of her friends do
18. Susan is more attractive than her sister
A. Susan’s sister looks attractive
B. Susan’s sister is not as attractive as her
C. Susan is not so attractive as her sister
D. Susan looks more attractively than her sister
19. Not everyone realizes that the most largest organ of the human body is the skin.
A B C D
20. He has less friends in his classes now than he had last year.
A B C D
TỰ CHỌN 05: COMPARISONS

1. The older he gets, _____ he is.


A. the more weak B. the weakest C. the weaker D. weaker
2. The more beautiful she is, the _____ miserable her parents _____.
A. more/are B. most/is C. more/is D. most/are
3. The more we get together, the _____ we’ll be.
A. happiest B. happy C. happier D. more happy
4. The heavier the coin was, the _____ it was worth.
A. more worthy B. more worthier C. more D. most worthy
5. The sooner you start, the _____ you’ll be finished.
A. more quick B. quicker C. more quickly D. most quickly
6. I’m getting _____.

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A. fatter and fatter B. more and more fat C. fat and fat D. fat and fatter
7. The more social you are, _____ it is for you to make friends.
A. easier B. the easiest C. the more easy D. the easier
8. Thanks to the development of science and technology, our lives are becoming _____.
A. better and better B. as good as C. worse and worse D. more better
9. She felt herself becoming _____ nervous.
A. more and more B. the most and most C. the more D. as and as
10. The harder you try, _____.
A. the most you achieve B. you achieve the more
C. the more you achieve D. the better achieve you have
11. The bigger the supermarket is, _____.
A. the choice is wide B. the wider the choice will be
C. the more the choice is D. the wider the choice it is
12. Vietnam becomes _____ to foreign tourists.
A. more and more attractive B. most and most attractive
C. the more attractive D. much and more attractive
13. My problems are getting _____.
A. more and more bad B. bader and bader C. worse and worse D. the worse and worse
14. The problem seems to be _____.
A. most serious B. more serious than C. more serious D. more and more serious
15. I feel happy as my birthday is coming _____.
A. closer and closer B. close and closer C. closer and closest D. closest and closest
16. The earlier she leaves, _____.
A. the sooner she will arrive B. the soonest she will arrive
C. she will soon arrive D. she will arrive sooner
17. The book interested me more than the film.
A. I thought the book was more interesting than the film.
B. I thought the book was more interested than the film.
C. I thought the book was as interesting as the film.
D. I thought the book was not as interesting as the film.
18. If you eat more fruits and vegetables, you will be healthier.
A. The more fruits and vegetables you eat, the more you will be healthier.
B. The more you eat fruits and vegetables, the more you will be healthier.
C. The more fruits and vegetables you eat, the healthier you will be.
D. The more you eat fruits and vegetables, the healthier you will be.

19. The early we leave, the sooner we will arrive.


A B C D
20. The harder he tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A B C D

TỰ CHỌN 06: PREPOSITIONS

1. Mary doesn’t mind living_______ her own.


A. with B. by C. on D. at
2. It is of great importance to create a good impression _______ your interviewer.
A. on B. about C. for D. at
3. When are you leaving_________ Hanoi?
A. toward B. forward C. for D. to
4. The children are excited________ going to the circus.
A. for B. about C. with D. of
5. While studying, he was financially dependent________ his parents.

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A. to B. of C. on D. from
6. This town is famous_________ its hand-woven carpets.
A. for B. with C. at D. on
7. He may be quick ________understanding, but he is not capable _____remembering anything.
A. at/for B. of/ for C. at/ of D. in/ of
8. He is_______ a lot of study pressure to win a place at university.
A. for B. under C. in D. with
9. The flood was responsible_______ damaging the crop.
A. of B. with C. about D. for
10. You should concentrate _______ what the interviewer is saying and make a real effort to answer
all the questions the interviewer asks.
A. on B. in C. at D. for
11. _______Christmas Eve, people often have parties late at midnight.
A. in B. at C. on D. from
12. Are you aware ________the time?
A. with B. of C. at D. about
13. Are you getting __________well at college?
A. in B. over C. off D. on
14.My home town is not especially interesting. It’s not famous ___ anything.
A. for B. with C. at D. on
15. Yesterday, I was talking ______my doctor ______a mysterious epidemics near here.
A. with/ on B. to/ about C. to/ out of D. with/ over
16. He was happy because his poems had been translated ________several languages.
A. into B. for C. over D. about
17. Damage to the building resulted________ a usually high wind.
A. from B. in C. about D. for
18. Plant and animal extinction leads _________ loss of biodiversity.
A. on B. in C. into D. to
19. Endangered species are plant and animal species which are ________ danger of extinction.
A. on B. in C. at D. by
20. Toxic chemicals in the air and land have also driven many species ______ the verge of
extinction.
A. of B. about C. at D. to
21. Maintaining biodiversity is important _______ us in many ways.
A. in B. for C. from D. by
22. We benefit greatly _________ the medicines and other products that biodiversity provides.
A. from B. without C. for D. at
23. Governments have enacted laws to protect wildlife ________ commercial trade and over
hunting.
A. from B. without C. for D. at

24. It’s enough to dip__________ this book.


A. for B. at C. into D. about
25. Not all books belong _________this class.
A. in B. to C. for D. at
26. When you pick _________a book for the first time, check that it is not too difficult.
A. in B. since C. on D. up
27. A game is divided _______ quarters.
A. from B. into C. at D. of

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28. Vietnam carried _______ an intensive program for its athletics, which included training in
facilities, both home and abroad.
A. for B. at C. out D. of
29. They considered women to be better suited ________ childbearing and homemaking.
A. of B. on C. to D. for
30. Do you know anyone who might be interested _________ buying an old car?
A. on B. in C. with D. about
31. Mozart died ________ Vienna in 1791 _________ the age of 35.
A. in / on B. in / at C. at / in D. of / for
32. The initiative for founding the Red Cross came _____ a Swiss man called Jean Henri Dunant.
A. from B. with C. through D. to
1. Don’t go too fast. I can’t keep _____ you.
A. on to B. on with C. up to D. up with
34. Don’t point that knife _____ me. It’s dangerous.
A. at B. to C. into D. onto
35. Police are searching _______ the man who escaped from prison.
A. at B. in C. for D. by
36. Sally and Kevin had an argument and now they’re not speaking _______ one another.
A. about B. to C. for D. at
37. What’s the difference ______ a boat and a ship?
A. between B. from C. under D. with
38. Linda is married ____ an American.
A. with B. to C. in D. for
39. When I realized that I was wrong, I apologized _____ my mistake.
A. to B. at C. on D. for
40. These days everybody is aware _____ the dangers of smoking.
A. on B. of C. with D. about

TỰ CHỌN 07 : PHRASAL VERBS

1. I have been looking this book for months, and at last, I have found it.
A. over B. up C. for D. at
2. It took me a long time to the shock of her death.
A. go off B. look up C. get over D. turn on
3. Tom got trouble because he didn’t on time for the interview.
A. try out B. turned round C. take after D. turn up
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4. The family looked to their vacation abroad.
A. for B. from C. toward D. forward
5. Human beings are ____ for the changes in the environment.
A. account B. faulty C. blame D. responsible
6. They gave me a form and told me to _________
A. fill in B. fill at C. pay up D. down to
7. As it was getting late, the boys decided to _____ the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags
A. put up B. put off C. put out D. put on
8. The bomb ________ in a crowded street.
A. went out B. went off C. came off D. came out
9. He was punished because he went out without asking________ permission
A. about B. for C. to D. with
10. Both men and women are good ________ building houses.
A. on B. at C. of D. in
11. You should ________ more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make B. pay C. set D. get
12. As the eldest in the family, Julie makes it her duty to ________ her brothers and sisters.
A. take after B. care of C. look after D. look up
th
13. The 15 Asian Games ________ in Doha, the capital of Quatar.
A. took place B. took after C. took over D. took up
14. Many people say James ________ his father, but don’t think they are very similar
A. looks after B. takes after C. likes D. looks alike
15. It is very kind ____your sister to give me a lift to the airport.
A. from B. with C. for D. of
16. I think it would be a good idea to ________a sport and get some physical exercises.
A. give up B. pick up C. take up D. bring up
17. The Governments of ASEAN have paid special attention ________ trade.
A. to B. on C. for D. with
18. New York City was founded by the Dutch in 1642.
A. put up B. taken up C. set up D. looked up
19. They had to delay their trip because of the bad weather.
A. put off B. go over C. put on D. fill in
20. Be careful! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look out B. Look up C. Look on D. Look after
21. The organization was established in 1950 in the USA.
A. come around B. set up C. made out D. put on
22. He did not particularly want to play any competitive sport.
A. use up B. do with C. take up D. go on
23. I am tired because I went to bed late last night.
A. stayed up late B. kept off C. put out D. brought up
24. How are you _______ on with your work? - It is OK.
A. calling B. getting C. laying D. looking
25. What may happen if John will not arrive in time?
A. go along B. count on C. keep away D. turn up
26. Go over your work before you hand in it.
A. Prepare B. Repeat C. Carry out D. check carefully
27. My father still hasn’t really got _________the death of my mother.
A. on B. up C. about D. over
28. The bomb went ____ with a loud bang which could be heard all over the town.
A. in B. out C. off D. away
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29. Boys! Put your toys ____. It is time to go to bed. Don’t stay ____ late.
A. off / on B. away / up C. down / off D. around / for
30. She intended to quit her job to stay____ home and look ____ her sick mother.
A.in /at B. at / after C. for / over D. up /on
31. He is very worried ____ his new job because he is not quite prepared ____ working.
A. on /over B. to / off C. about / for D. in /at
32. Instead ____ Petrol, cars will only run ____ solar energy and electricity.
A. of /on B. for / by C. in / over D. from /upon
33. Will you take care ____. My little dog when I am ____ business?
A. through/ away B. about /at C. for /over D. of /on
34. They arrived ____ That train station late because their taxi had broken ____
A.at /down B. for /off C. on/ over D. on /up
35. Those workers are in difficulty because wage increases cannot keep up ____ inflation.
A. with B. for C. over D. on
36. Williams is working . ____ an export company. He intends to apply ____ another job because he
is not satisfied ____ the salary.
A. in/on /at B. for/ for/ with C. at/ out/ into D. from/ on /for
37. I like to get up ___ time to have a big breakfast before going to work.
A. on B. to C. in D. for
38. Why are you never _____ time? You always keep everybody waiting.
A. in B. on C. for D. at
39. Her grandfather died _______ lung cancer.
A. of B. in C. on D. up
40. Please turn ________ the light, it’s getting dark here.
A. on B. off C. over D. into

TỰ CHỌN 08: CONJUNCTIONS

21. _____ you learn English well, you can find a good job in future.
A. Supposing B. Because C. Although D. For the fact that
22. _____.he will leave the company is kept secret.
A. That B. When C. That D. What
23. _____ he was in Phong Nha cave, he bought some grapefruits.
A. Until B. After C. Once D. While
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24. A lot of tourists have come to Hue _____ it is known for the royal palaces and old tombs.
A. as B. because C. since D. all are correct
25. She sings _____ a lark does.
A. as well so B. well than C. as well as D. as well than
26. _____ the flagpole was strong, the wind blew it down.
A. However B. Since C. In case D. In spite of the fact that
27. She will move _____ her father works.
A. whom B. where C. which D. that
28. It was _____ cold _____ some old people died.
A. such…that B. very…than C. so…that D. so…as
29. He will be sacked _____ he works hard.
A. as long as B. whatever C. unless D. as
30. John said the same words _____ his father did.
A. which B. as C. as if D. as though
31. _____ deep the ocean is, modern machines can measure its depth.
A. No matter what B. Whatever C. Even though D. No matter how
32. _____ the play was very boring, some of the audience fell asleep during the performance.
A. Seeing that B. In order that C. In that D. so that
33. Uncle Ho mausoleum, which is located in the center of Hanoi, attracts _____ domestic _____
foreign visitors.
A. as…as B. so…that C. both …and D. either…or
34. Please come to visit me _____ you have spare time.
A. as soon as B. when C. once D. by the time
35. They are _____ generous _____ hospitable.
A. either…nor B. neither…or C. both…but D. not only …but also
36. He is lazy _____ dirty.
A. as well as B. but C. except D. yet
37. The Vietnamese are _____ heroic _____ industrious.
A. either…or B. both …and C. neither…nor D. whether…or
38. Uncle Ho is a great leader; _____ he is a great poet.
A. however B. while C. therefore D. moreover
39. Bac Lieu is known for its longan orchard. _____, it owns a fantastic bird sanctuary.
A. besides B. whereas C. otherwise D. thus
40. Mary buys some meat. _____, she gets some fish.
A. hence B. nevertheless C. in addition D. as a result
41. Tam is very kind. _____, she works very hard.
A. Consequently B. Only C. Also D. On the other hand
42. Luc Van Tien is studious. _____, Trinh Ham and Bui Kiem are lazy.
A. Besides B. so C. On the contrary D. Thus
43. You must keep silent, _____ go out
A. but B. unless C. as if D. or else
44. You should learn hard, _____ you will not be able to earn your living.
A. If B. unless C. otherwise D. on condition that
TỰ CHỌN 9: SO/ SUCH/ TOO/ ENOUGH

Error recognition:
1. Linda has such many things to do that she has no time to go out.
A B C D
2. He had smoked so a lot of cigarettes that he died of cancer.
A B C D
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3. Never before has so many people paid attention to pollution.
A B C D
4. All the students in the class are enough good to pass the final exam.
A B C D
5. Faraday’s father was not rich enough to sending him to school.
A B C D
6. The prices of accommodation are as high that many people cannot afford to buy a house.
A B C D
7. The film is such interesting that I have ever seen it for three times .
A B C D
8. He was too exhausted that he couldn’t even stand on his feet.
A B C D

Choose the best answer:


9. It was that we spent the whole day at the beach.
A. such nice weather B. so a nice weather C. such nice a weather D. so nice a weather
10. the football match was so interesting
A. for us to stay up late to watch. B. that we stayed up late to watch it .
C. that we didn’t watch it. D. that to stay up late to watch it.
11. we have not had as this for many years.
A. a such cold day B. so cold a day C. such a cold day D. a and b are correct
12. a seventeen-year-old person is not to vote in an election .
A. as old enough B. enough old as C. old enough D. enough old
13. I am to call the doctor. I just need to get some rest.
A. too sick B. not sick enough C. sick enough D. so sick that
14. Can you keep the noise down , please ? It ‘s that I cannot hear myself think .
A. so noisy B. so much noisy C. such noise D. too noisy
15. alone in dark, deserted street is risky.
A. Walk / so B. Walking / so C. Walking / such a D. Walked / such
16. You have to pay extra if you take too with you.
A. much luggages B. much luggage C. many luggages D. many luggage
17. He is to lift this weight .
A. strong not enough B. not enough strong C. enough strong D. not strong enough
18. The shirt in the window was expensive for me to buy.
A. enough B. too C. so D. such
19. She had worked she made herself ill.
A. such hard that B. such hardly that C. so hardly that D. so hard that
20. She was she could not say anything .
A. so surprised at the news that B. such surprised at the news that
C. so surprised of the news that D. so that surprised for the news

TỰ CHỌN 10: SO/ SUCH/ TOO/ ENOUGH

1. He is such interesting man that everybody likes him.


A. a B. an C. the D. no article
2. It to go swimming.
A. was so cold for us not B. was too cold for us C. was for us too cold D. was such cold for us

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Unit 15
3. He drank wine last night and gets sick now.
A. too many B. few of C. large number of D. too much
4. “That man was too weak to carry that heavy suitcase. “ means: “That man was carry
that heavy suitcase.”
A. not strong enough to B. so weak that he could
C. such a weak man that D. all are right
5. My mouth is burning! This is spicy food that I don’t think I can finish it.
A. such B. so C. very D. too
6. If you keep on eating chocolate, you may become obese.
A. a lot B. too much C. too many D. very much
7. The foreigner spoke for us to understand.
A. so quickly B. too quick C. quickly enough D. quick enough
8. Peter didn’t arrive in time to see her.
A. Peter wasn’t early enough to see her. B. Peter wasn’t enough early to see her.
C. Peter wasn’t too early to see her. D. Peter was so late that I can’t see her.
9. Mary is sick .She cannot go to work.
A. Mary is sick so that she cannot go to work. B. Mary is sick enough to go to work.
C. Mary is such sick that she cannot go to work. D. Mary is too sick to go to work.
10. I tried to eat the cake, but it was too sweet.
A. It was such a sweet cake that I couldn’t eat it. B. It was so sweet cake that I couldn’t eat it.
C. The cake was too sweet that I couldn’t eat it. D. The cake was very sweet that I couldn’t eat it
11. This office is too small for four people.
A. This office is very small for four people. B. This office isn’t big enough for four people.
C. This office is so small to have four people. D. This office isn’t enough big for four people.
12. We couldn’t go out because the weather was so bad.
A. It was so bad a weather that we couldn’t go out.
B. It was such a bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
C. It was so bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
D. It was such bad weather that we couldn’t go out.
13. He could not afford to buy the car.
A. The car was too expensive that he couldn’t buy it
B. The car was too expensive for him not to buy it
C. The car was too expensive for him to buy it.
D. The car was so expensive that he couldn’t buy it .
14. The garden is too small to play football in.
A. The garden is so small not to play football in.
B. The garden is small enough to play football in.
C. The garden isn’t big enough to play football in.
D. The garden is such small that they can’t play football in.
15. He was too tired to go to the party.
A. He was too tired that he couldn’t go to the party.
B. He was tired so that he couldn’t go to the party.
C. He was such tired boy that he couldn’t go to the party.
D. He was so tired that he couldn’t go to the party.
16. The house was so expensive that I couldn’t afford to buy it.
A. The house was too expensive for me to buy it.
B. The house was too expensive for me to buy.
C. The house was too expensive so I won’t buy it.
D. The house was too expensive so that it won’t be bought by me.
17. The test is so long that I won’t finish it in time.
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Unit 15
A. It‘s such a long test that I won’t finish it in time.
B. The test is too long for me not to finish it in time
C. This is a long test so that I can’t finish it in time
D. The test is a long one that I can’t finish it in time.
18. “His stomach cancer was too serious to have an operation.” means
A. His stomach cancer was so serious that the doctor could not operation on him.
B. His stomachache was so serious to have an operation.
C. His stomachache was too serious so that the doctor could operate him.
D. His stomachache was serious so that to have an operation.
19. “It was so cold. We could not go out.” means
A. It was so cold that we could not go out.
B. It was too cold for us to go out.
C. It was such cold that we could not go out.
D. A and B are correct.
20. The woman is too old to have any more children.
A. The woman is old enough not to have any more children.
B. The woman can’t have any more children because of her age.
C. The woman is so old that she can have any more children.
D. The woman is very old so that she can have some more children .

TỰ CHỌN 11: TENSES

1. I you yesterday. You outside a café


A. saw / have been sitting B. was seeing / were sitting
C. saw / were sitting D. was seeing / sat
2. He me his name after he
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Unit 15
A. had told / left B. was telling / left C. had told / had left D. told / had left
3. He asked Mary when
A. was the next train B. the next train is C. the next train was D. is the next train
4. The population of the world very fast
A. rises B. is rising C. will be rising D. had risen
5. The earth round the sun
A. is going B. goes C. went D. will go
6. You will recognise her when you see her. She a yellow hat
A. is wearing B. will be wearing C. wears D. will have worn
7. I about a thousand pounds this month
A. am saving B. have been saving C. save D. have saved
8. My father there since 1999
A. is working B. worked C. works D. has been working
9. Bacon and egg my favourite breakfast dish
A. is B. were C. are D. being
10. The manager, as well as his assistants, gone to Paris
A. is B. are C. has D. have
11. Each boy and each girl to work in dependently
A. is B. are C. A and B are correctD. A or B isn’t correct
12. Five pounds ------------------ buy as much as it used to
A. doesn’t B. don’t C. are going to D. is going to
13. I don’t suppose anyone will volunteer, ?
A. do I B. will they C. will someone D. won’t they
14. Let me read it for you, ?
A. do I B. don’t I C. will you D. None is correct
15. He a newspaper reporter before he a teacher
A. had been / became B. was / has become C. was being / became D. was / would be
16. It all day. I wonder when it
A. has been snowing / will stop B. has snowed / stopped
C. is snowing / will stop D. snows / stops
17. What since you here?
A. did you learn / came B. have you learned / came
C. have you learned / come D. have you learned / have come
18. He in Quang Ngai for 10 years, but now he in HCM City
A. has lived / is living B. lived / is living
C. was living / lives D. has lived / has been living
19. Peter all of his work before he
A. will finish / leaves B. is going to finish / leaves
C. will finish / will leave D. A and B are correct
20. Come and see tomorrow, ?
A. do I B. will you C. won’t you D. are you
21. He usually coffee but today he tea
A. drinks / drinks B. drinks / is drinking
C. is drinking / drinks D. is drinking / is drinking
22. When I arrived the lecture and the professor on the overhead projector
A. already started / was writing B. had already started / wrote
C. had already started / was writing D. was already started / wrote
23. He in Hue for two years and then to Hanoi
A. has lived / went B. was living / went C. lived / was living D. lived / went
24. John or his brothers help her
A. are going to B. is going to C. is D. are

TỰ CHỌN 12: INFINITIVES / BARE INFINITIVES / GERUNDS


1. I don’t feel like out right now
A. go B. went C. going D. to go
2. Would you mind the pepper, please?

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Unit 15
A. passing B. pass C. past D. passed
3. The teacher made me English every day
A. speaking B. speak C. spoken D. to speak
4. I’ve never heard her such a beautiful song
A. sings B. sung C. to sing D. sing
5. We want our work early
A. finishing B. to finish C. finish D. finished
6. We’d better early
A. start B. starting C. to start D. started
6. My brother began last year
A. works B. to work C. working D. B and C are correct
7. My sister advised me at once
A. to apply B. apply C. applying D. applied
8. The grass needs
A. cutting B. cut C. to cut D. to be cutting
9. She told them on her bed
A. don’t sit B. not sit C. not to sit D. not sitting
10. My daughter spends two hours English every day
A. study B. to study C. studied D. studying
11. Women are used to their own money
A. earning B. earn C. earned D. be earning
12. The Englishman enjoyed Vietnamese songs
A. sing B. sung C. sang D. singing
17. He hasn’t got anything
A. to wear B. wear C. wearing D. wore
18. I often avoid to parties
A. go B. going C. to go D. gone
19. Can somebody help me this table?
A. move B. to move C. A and B are correct D. moving
20. Who taught you ?
A. drive B. to drive C. how to drive D. B and C are correct
22. But nobody complained, ?
A. did they B. didn’t they C. did somebody D. did anybody
23. It never works very well, -?
A. does it B. is it C. doesn’t it D. isn’t it
24. I must remember the letter
A. post B. posting C. to post D. A and B are correct
25. I went on about his accident
A. talk B. to talk C. talking D. A and B are correct

ANSWER KEYS
TEST 15:

01. D 02. B 03. C 04. A 05. D 06. A 07. B 08. D 09. A 10. C
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Unit 15
11. B 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. A
31. C 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. D
41. C 42. A 43. D 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. B

TEST 16:

01. B 02. D 03. B 04. A 05. D 06. C 07. B 08. D 09. B 10. D
11. A 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. C 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. B
31. C 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. A 40. A
41. C 42. D 43. B 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. D

TEST 17:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 18:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 19:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 20:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 21:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
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Unit 15
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 22:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 23:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 24:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 25:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 26:

01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

TEST 27:

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Unit 15
01. D 02. C 03. C 04. B 05. A 06. D 07. D 08. B 09. B 10. A
11. A 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. A 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. D
31. B 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. B 38. C 39. D 40. B
41. D 42. A 43. D 44. A 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. D

TEST 28:

01. A 02. B 03. D 04. D 05. A 06. B 07. C 08. B 09. D 10. C
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. C 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. A
31. B 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D
41. A 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. C

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Unit 15

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