Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest.
6. A. extinction B. animal C. classify D. primary
7. A. biologist B. seriously C. commercial D. identify
8. A. habitat B. different C. industry D. introduce
9. A. medicine B. endanger C. pollution D. survival
10. A. derive B. provide C. modern D. enact
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
11. Dinosaurs became extinct millions of years ago because of the earth’s climate changed drastically.
A B C D
12. The purpose of UNICEF is help provide a better life for children and their mothers
A B C D
13. Water covers two-three the area of the world.
A B C D
14. There must have been anyone in my room, I thought I heard a noise and saw a shadow
A B C D
15. The town was a four – days journey from our hotel, so we took the train instead of the bus.
A B C D
Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
37. The Bali Tiger was declared extinct in 1937 due to hunting and habitat loss.
A. reserve B. generation C. natural environment D. diversity
38. It is found that endangered species are often concentrated in areas that are poor and densely
populated, such as much of Asia and Africa.
A. disappeared B. increased C. threatened D. reduced
39. Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for
agriculture.
A. destruction B. contamination C. fertilizer D. variety
Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
40. She is carrying out a health project for disadvantaged in inner cities and rural areas.
A. mountainous B. suburban C. coast D. urban
Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers.
Wild animals (and wild plants) and the wild places where they live are seriously threatened
almost everywhere. One species has become extinct in each year of this century. But many hundreds
are now in danger. Lack of attention would lead to the rapid advance of the process of extinction.
Already many kinds of wild animals have been so reduced in number that their role in the
ecosystem is forgotten. Animals like the great apes, the whales, seals etc. thought to be in danger of
extinction.
But even more important, perhaps than individual kinds of animals and plants, whole habitats
are in danger of vanishing: marshes are being drained, and the world forests, especially tropical forests
are being cut down to satisfy man’s needs of timber and paper.
What would our world be like if all the wild animals and wild plants vanished? Would our life still
exist then?
41. What would happen to the human beings if the wild life vanished?
A. Many species would quickly become extinct.
B. Species would go on dying out.
Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage.
Many environmental experts are pessimistic about the future of our (46) ______. They say that
in the next few years harmful chemicals will further damage the (47) ______ layer, there will be more
losses of irreplaceable tropical rainforests, and serious air pollution will cause the climate itself to
change. They also warn us that developing countries will continue to suffer ecological disasters, while
the (48) ______ countries consume the vast majority of the world’s fuels. Animals are also at (49)
______. It is feared that some endangered species may soon die out, as their natural (50) ______ are
destroyed.
46. A. country B. planet C. society D. life
47. A. oxygen B. dioxide C. carbon D. ozone
48. A. poor B. developing C. European D. rich
49. A. risk B. danger C. accidents D. unfortunate
50. A. environment B. habitats C. resources D. disasters
Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is different from the rest.
6. A. temperature B. serious C. awareness D. chemical
7. A. ability B. agriculture C. development D. contaminate
8. A. government B. agency C. benefit D. diversity
9. A. disappearance B. vulnerable C. conservation D. generation
10. A. current B. global C. crisis D. mankind
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
11. Eaten too many sweets may cause a stomachache
A B C D
12. Pam has a broken wrist so she can’t play the tennis for two months
A B C D
13. Last night I heard car breaks screech in the street
A B C D
14. My little daughter is going to being taken to day care center
A B C D
15. While they were away at the beach, they allowed their neighbors use their barbeque grill.
A B C D
Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
37. Hunting for meat and burning forests for soil cause destruction to wildlife.
A. pollution B. contamination C. protection D. damage
Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
38. In 1989, a ban was given on all international trade in ivory.
A. action B. contamination C. destruction D. prohibition
39. The air is naturally contaminated by a foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust.
A. polluted B. occupied C. filled D. concentrated
40. Life on Earth is disappearing fast and will continue to do so unless urgent action is taken.
A. vanishing B. damaging C. polluting D. destroying
Read the passage carefully and then choose the correct answers.
Man is a land animal, but he also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has served
the needs of man. The sea has provided man with food and convenient way to travel to many parts of
the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population lives within 80 kilometers of the sea coast.
In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive.
Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many
man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is impressive. Oil
and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. Valuable amounts of minerals exist on
the ocean floor are ready to be mined.
Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish
and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by Oriental people.
Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm
temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents and
waves offer possible use as a source of energy.
Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of
strong, new materials has made this possible. The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve.
Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage.
THE WILD LIFE
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in danger. Many species of animals
are threatened, and could easily become (46) _____ if we do not make an effect to protect them. There
are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their furor for other valuable parts of
their bodies. Some birds, (47) _____as parrots are caught alive and sold as pets. For many animals
and birds, the problem is that their habitat- the place where they live- is disappearing. More (48) _____
is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were.
Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute (49)
_____ environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animal on earth- human beings- will soon
be the only ones left, (50) _____ we can solve this problem.
46. A. extinct B. lost C. empty D. disappeared
47. A. such B. where C. like D. or
48. A. area B. earth C. land D. soil
49. A. the B. that C. an D. a
50. A. because B. however C. if D. unless
Error Identification:
11. In spite of my father is old, he still goes to work.
A B C D
12. The result of that test must be inform before August.
A B C D
13. She has disappeared three days ago, and they are still looking for her now.
A B C D
14. My little daughter is going to being taken to day care center.
A B C D
15. There are also many single mothers and single fathers which are raising children by themselves.
A B C D
Reading:
Football is one of the world’s most popular sports. People have played the game for hundreds of
years and almost every country has a national football team. A football match consists of two teams
with eleven players on each side. Each team is on one half of the pitch at the start of the game. When a
referee blows his whistle, the game begins.
The object of the game is to score goals against the other team. A goal is scored by putting the
ball in the other team’s net, either with your foot or head. Each football match lasts for ninety minutes.
There is a half-time break after forty-five minutes which lasts for about fifteen minutes.
The team that has scored the most goals by the end of the match is the winner. If no team has
scored a goal, the match is called a draw. The goalkeeper is the person who stands between the
goalposts and tries to stop people scoring goals. He is the only player who can touch the ball with his
hands. The ball is not allowed to go outside the lines of the pitch. If it does, the game stops for a short
time.
16. A football match starts when ______.
A. the referee blows his whistle B. both teams are on the pitch
C. each team is on one half of the pitch D. everybody is ready
17. How long does a football game last?
A. Nineteen minutes B. Fifteen minutes C. Forty-five minutes D. Ninety minutes
18. A match is called a draw if _______.
A. both teams score lots of goals B. no goals have been scored
C. all the players score goals D. one team scored more goals than the other
19. What’s the goalkeeper’s job?
A. He must stand between the goalposts.
Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
46. Books are still a cheap way to get information and entertainment
A. expensive B. high C. low D. long
47. Other books are for reading slowly and carefully
A. low B. quickly C. hard D. easy
Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
48. For example, you might pick up a travel book and read a few pages before going to sleep
A. pattern B. model C. instance D. kind
49. Imagine that you have found a good story, and ,what is even more important, the time to enjoy it
A. significant B. special C. main D. major
50. You might be on holiday, or on a long train journey
A. picnic B. barbecue C. trip D. survey
Error Identification:
11. In England, young and old people are fond with watching football
A B C D
12. She advised John not trust that man
A B C D
13. The water was not enough warm for children to swim in
A B C D
14. Cycling is a good form of exercise even if it is on a stationary exercising bike
A B C D
15. About two-third of my students wish to get a scholarship to study abroad
A B C D
Cloze-test:
Most sport today is the work of skilled professionals. Football, or (16)_________ is an example of a
professional game. The game of football was first (17)__________ in Britain and then spread to other
countries Now all countries hope to (18)___________ for the World Cup. However, there are still plenty
of amateur football players in Britain. They enjoy (19)_________ the game on Saturday or Sunday
afternoons. Amateur clubs can compete (20)__________ the professional ones in the English Football
Association Cup competition.
16. A. skiing B. golf C. basketball D. soccer
17. A. played B. taken C. seen D. occurred
18. A. lose B. share C. compete D. win
19. A. to play B. playing C. play D. played
20. A. against B. on C. by D. for
Reading:
Disney World was constructed a decade ago on 27,400 acres of partially swamp land in central
Florida. Eight thousand of these acres constitute a wildlife sanctuary not accessible to the 130 million
people from around the world who have been to Disney World since its opening.
Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
46. Other books are for reading slowly and carefully
A. careful B. carelessly C. careless D. care
47. When you pick up a book for the first time, check that it is not too difficult
A. easy B. hard C. slowly D. fast
48. Books are still a cheap way to get information and entertainment
A. inexpensive B. high C. low D. long
Choose the word that is THE SAME in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions
49. You might be on holiday, or on a long train journey
A. picnic B. barbecue C. trip D. vacation
50. When you pick up a book for the first time, check that it is not too difficult
A. easy B. hard C. slowly D. fast
II. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
6. A. interfered B. allowed C. visited D. played
7. A. water B. swimming C. between D. rowing
8. A. lie B. goalie C. achieve D. belief
9. A. punch B. synchronized C. March D. touching
10. A. caps B. meters C. swimmers D. lines
24. _______ defense, the players work to regain possession of the ball and prevent a goal
A. About B. Over C. Without D. On
25. Shots usually succeed when the goalie is out _______ position.
A. into B. for C. of D.off
26. Water polo balls _______ with a special texture so it will not slip from the hands of a player.
A. cover B. are covered C. are being covered D. covered
27. The player _______.
A. will reward for his hat-trick B. will be rewarded for his hat-trick
C. will reward his hat-trick D. will be rewarded his hat-trick
V. Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
28. He could escape from hurt because he was wearing protective clothes.
A. Thanks to his protective clothes, he could escape from hurt.
B. His protective clothes made him hurt.
C. Due to his protective clothes, he was hurt.
D. His being hurt made his unable to wear protective clothes.
29. The roads were slippery because it snowed heavily.
A. It snowed too heavily to make the roads slippery.
B. The heavy snow prevented the roads from being slippery.
C. Thanks to the slip of the roads, it snowed heavily.
D. The heavy snow made the roads slippery.
30. The accident happened because she was careless.
A. The accident was prevented due to her carelessness.
B. Her carelessness was responsible for the accident.
C. It was the accident that made her careless.
D. The more careless she was, the less accident happened.
31. “Write to me when you get home”. “________________”
A. I must B. I should C. I will D. I can
32. A: “Would you like some more tea?” – B: “__________.”
A. Yes, please B. Here you are C. It doesn’t matter D. I’m OK
33. "Let's have a pizza." -"__________"
A. Not again B. It doesn't matter C. It’s a good idea D. Not really
34. "I have a headache." -" _________you take an aspirin?"
A. Why don't B. Why should C. What should D. What must
35. "Can I help you?" " _______"
A. At two o'clock. B. I can help you C. No, I don't. D. Yes, please.
VI. Antonyms:
36. Water polo is played in a pool 1.8 metres deep, 30 metres long and 20 metres wide.
A. shallow B. narrow C.thick D. high
37. A free throw is awarded from the spot of the fouls in case the player gets a minor foul.
VII. Synonyms:
38. Those two teams played so well and the scores were tied at 1-1 at last.
A. drew B. put C. kept D. equaled
39. In water polo, a player is ejected after committing five personal fouls.
A. punished B. criticized C. thrown out D. defeated
40. Suddenly, Julia jumped out of the car and sprinted for the front door.
A. walked hurriedly B. ran very fast C. move slightly D. ran slowly
VIII. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
There is very little documentation about the origins of water polo. It is known, however, that the
sport originated in the rivers and lakes of mid-19th century England as an aquatic version of rugby.
Early games used an inflated rubber ball that came from India known as a "pulu" (the single Indian word
for all "balls"). Pronounced "polo" by the English, both the game and the ball became known as "water
polo." To attract more spectators to swimming exhibitions, the London Swimming Association designed
aset of water polo rules for indoor swimming pools in 1870. At first, players scored by planting the ball
on the end of the pool with both hands. A favorite trick of the players was to place the five-to-nine inch
rubber ball inside their swimming suit and dive under the murky water, they would then appear again as
close to the goal as possible. The introduction of the rules by Scottish players changed the nature of
water polo. It became a game that emphasized swimming, speed and passing. Scottish rules moved
from a rugby variant to a soccer style of play. Goals became a cage of 10x 3 feet and a goal could be
scored by being thrown. Players could only be tackled when they "held" the ball and the ball could no
longer be taken under water. The small rubber ball was replaced by a leather soccer ball. If the player
came up too near the goal, he was promptly jumped on by the goalie, who was permitted to stand on
the pool deck. Games were often nothing more than gang fights in the water as players ignored the ball,
preferring underwater wrestling matches that usually ended with one man floating to the surface
unconscious. Water polo was first played in the USA in 1888. The game featured the old rugby style of
play which resembled American football in the water. "American style" water polo became very popular
and by the late 1890's was played in such venues as Madison Square Garden and Boston's Mechanics
Hall, attracting 14,000 spectators to national championship games.
41. According to the text, _______.
A. the origins of water polo are written thoroughly in a lot of documents
B. water polo is an aquatic version of rugby
C. water polo first appeared somewhere outside England
D. people have played water polo since the early 19th century.
42. The present rules of water polo were invented _______.
A. by Scottish players B. by Indian players
C. the London Swimming Association D. in 1870
43. In water polo, the players score a goal by _______.
A. swimming B. passing C. catching D. throwing
44. The present water polo ball is made of _______.
A. rubber B. leather C. bone D. wood
45. Water polo became popular in America in _______.
A. the middle of the 19th century B. in 1870
C. in 1888 D. by the late 1890's
IX. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.
Sailing or boating may seem to be very interesting with the high level of technical elements (46)
_____ in the sport. Whether you choose a small (47) _____ or a catamaran, whether you choose lake
or ocean sailing, there are (48) _____ number of things you need to master before you can start
enjoying the pure pleasure of being on the water.Getting the sailing skills which you need to start sailing
your own boat is easy if you just sign up with a sailing school. You can learn to sail (49) _____ any age.
There are no restrictions. The best schools and instructors will teach you all you need to know about
sailing (50)_____ a friendly and pleasant manner. As with all sports, sailing will get you into contact new
friends.
46. A. invented B. consisted C. involved D. contained
TEST 20
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
1. A. interfered B. allowed C. visited D. played
2. A. water B. swimming C. between D. rowing
3. A. lie B. goalie C. achieve D. belief
4. A. punch B. synchronized C. March D. touching
5. A. caps B. meters C. swimmers D. lines
Error Identification.
11. This class has cancelled (A) because too few (B) students had registered (C) before (D) registration
closed.
12. The (A) first nation park in(B) the world, calling (C) Yellowstone Park, was established (D) in 1872.
13. A food additive (A) is any (B) chemical that food manufacturers intentional (C) add to (D)their
products.
14. If you had put(A) the plant in a cooler(B) location, the leaves(C) have burned (D).
15. The house was (A) very quiet when(B) I got home because of(C) everyone had gone(D) to bed.
Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one
26. Besides movies and music, it’s sports that most Americans enjoy.
A. Sports are enjoyed by most Americans beside movies and music.
B. It was sports that are enjoyed by most Americans besides movies and music.
C. Besides movies and music, it’s sports that are enjoyed by most Americans.
D. Besides movies and music, sports are that are enjoyed by most Americans.
27. By the end/ 19th century/ water polo/ become popular/ American continent (sentence-building)
A. By the end of 19th century water polo became popular on American continent.
B. By the end of the 19th century water polo became popular on the American continent.
C. By the end of the 19th century water polo has become popular on the American continent.
D. By the end of the 19th century water polo had become popular on the American continent.
28. Europe/ water polo/ appear/ Germany/ 1894 (sentence-building)
A. In Europe water polo appeared in Germany in 1894.
B. Europe water polo was appeared in Germany in 1894.
C. Europe water polo appeared in Germany in 1894.
D. In Europe water polo was appeared in Germany in 1894.
29. Ever since / I / arrive / here / live / dormitory
A. Ever since I arrive here, I have been living in the dormitory
B. Ever since I arrived here, I have been lived in the dormitory
C. Ever since I arrived here, I have been living in the dormitory
D. Ever since I have arrived here, I lived in the dormitory
30. mail / deliver / by the time / I / leave / school / this morning.
A. The mail delivered by the time I left for school this morning.
B. The mail had delivered by the time I left for school this morning.
C. The mail had been delivered by the time I left for school this morning.
D. The mail was delivered by the time I had left for school this morning.
31. _” !” _ “Thank you”.
A. What a nice house B. Thanks for coming C. Please help me with this D. Sorry
32. _ “Is it all right if I use your bike? “ _“ ”
A. Please accept it with my best wishes. B. Sure, go ahead.
C. Sorry, no, I won't do it. D. I don't want to use your bike.
33. _ “Thanks a lot for your help”. _“ ”
A. Your welcome B. You're welcomed C. You’re welcome D. You welcomed
34. “ ”, the workers refused.
A. We feel that we would like to work overtime
B. We're afraid that we really don't want to work overtime
C. We think that we had better work overtime
D. We do say that we are willing to work overtime.
35. Peter: Good morning, Mr. Brown. How are you? Mr. Brown: _______
A. Not bad. You? B. So long
C. Have a good day D. Morning, Peter. And you?
Synonyms:
36. Suddenly, Julia jumped out of the car and sprinted for the front door.
A. walked hurriedly B. ran very fast C. move slightly D. ran slowly
37. The whole audience objected to their foul play during the football match.
Antonyms:
39. A free throw is awarded from the spot of the fouls in case the player gets a minor foul.
A. very big B. very bad C. very good D. very small
40. Water polo is played in a pool 1.8 metres deep, 30 metres long and 20 metres wide.
A. shallow B. narrow C.thick D. high
TEST 21
I. PRONUNCIATION
1. A. hosted B. impressed C. finished D. watched
2. A. peace B. great C. increase D. team
3. A. competitor B. medal C. level D. development
4. A. compose B. propose C. purpose D. suppose
5. A. honor B. high C. host D. hold
6. A. spirit B. impress C. event D. perform
7. A. festival B. badminton C. participant D. organize
8. A. development B. cooperation C. surprisingly D. facility
9. A. enthusiast B. successfully C. competitor D. participation
10. A. composed B. countryman C. present D. outstanding
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
31. The number of Vietnamese sport officials and referees of international standard taking part in
regional tournaments has increased rapidly.
A. hosting B. participating C. achieving D. succeeding
32. The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the Sea Games took place.
A. organized B. impressed C. participated D. defended
33. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.
A same B adopted C various D respected
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
34. The country’s success has proved that Vietnam can organize sporting events on an international
level.
A. loose B. failure C. program D. impression
35. The story told by the teacher amused children in the class.
A. astonished B. frightened C. jolted D. saddened
41. In which cities in Vietnam were the 22nd Southeast Asian Games held?
A. In Hanoi
B. In Ho Chi Minh City
C. In Hanoi and Ho Chi Minh City
D. In Hue
42. What is the 22nd Sea Games logo based on?
A. A legendary bird named “Chim Lac”
B. The ancient Dong Son Vietnamese culture
C. The Ngoc Lu bronze drum.
D. The Olympic Spirit.
43. What is the effect of harmonious and vigorous curves of the emblem?
A. To create a feeling of self-confidence.
B. To encourage the spirit of fair play.
C. To create a feeling of movement and strength.
D. All are correct.
44. What has the mascot for the 22nd Sea Games been associated with?
A. The prosperity B. The water and rice civilization
C. Vietnamese agriculture. D. Vietnamese farmers.
45. To Vietnamese people, what does the Golden Buffalo symbolize?
A. A golden harvest. B. Prosperity, happiness, and power.
C. The Vietnamese martial spirit. D. All are correct.
TEST 22
Pronunciation
1. A. enthusiasts B. performs C. records D. competitors
2. A. impressed B. composed C. performed D. organized
3. A. reversed B. television C. classmates D. accounts
4. A. careful B. notice C. distance D. succeed
5. A. total B. potential C. absorbent D. intense
Stress
6. A. outstanding B. enthusiast C. countrymen D. precision
7. A. compose B. present C. title D. defend
8. A. athlete B. medal C. surprising D. future
9. A. international B. successfully C. competitor D. energetic
10. A. participant B. facility C. solidarity D. development
Error recognition
11. Writing many letters make her happy.
A B C D
12. The effects of cigarette smoking has been proven to be extremely harmful.
A B C D
13. His pants are in the drawer. Her are under the table.
A B C D
14. Had finished their supper, the boys went out to play.
A B C D
15. I couldn’t help to cry when I watched that film.
A B C D
Preposition
16. The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Vietnam ______ the 5th _____ 13th December,
2003.
17. The Vietnamese athletes competed _____________ high spirits.
18. A plan has been proposed ____________ Vietnam to host the Asia Sports Games at some point
in the future.
19. He was presented ____________ the Most Outstanding Athlete title in the Swimming.
20. The company has carried ____________ a new plan .
31. The boy said to his friends, “Don’t make too much noise!”
A. The boy said to his friends don’t make so much noise.
B. The boy said to his friends not to make so much noise.
C. The boy told his friends not to make so much noise.
D. The boy told his friends don’t make so much noise.
32. I started working for this company a year ago.
A. I’ve been working for this company for a year.
B. I’ve been working for this company a year ago.
C. I’ve been to work for this company for a year.
D. I’ve started to work for this company for a year.
33. Peter: “Your English is better than many Americans, Hanh. I really enjoy your public speaking”
Hanh: “__________”
A. You must be kidding! B. Congratulations!
C. I am sorry to hear that D. Thanks, Peter.
34. “________________________?” => “He’s OK now.”
A. How is he B. What is he C. How tall is he D. What’s he like
35. “Do you think you’ll get the job ? “ –“ ”
A. Yes, that’s right B. I think not. C. I know so. D. Well, I hope so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
36. He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live show last night.
A. impressive B. well- known C. important D. easy- looking
37. The 22nd SEA Game were well prepared and successfully organized although it was the first
time Vietnam hosted.
A. held B. took place C. took part in D. composed
38. Sport and festivals form an integral part of every human society
A. essential B. informative C. invented D. exciting
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
39. These materials are fine, durable and sweet- absorbing, suitable for tropical climate.
A. nonsuitable B. insuitable C. unsuitable D. over-suitable
40. He couldn’t give up smoking.
A. start B. give away C. stop D. continue
STRESS:
6. A. international B. organization C. federation D. information
7. A. volunteer B. mission C. struggle D. vulnerable
8. A. survive B. result C. adopt D. symbolize
9. A. soldier B. agency C. victim D. society
10. A. prisoner B. disaster C. protection D. convention
ERROR RECOGNITION:
11. The road used to be narrow in the past but now it has widened.
A B C D
12. Her life was changed completely when she won the lottery.
A B C D
13. In spite of the traffic jam, we managed getting to the airport in time.
A B C D
14. These televisions are all too expensive for we to buy at this time.
A B C D
15. It was not until he had been 32 years old that he got married to a pretty girl.
A B C
SYNONYMS:
36. In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers,
civilians, and prisoners of war.
A. mounted B. excited C. devoted D. interested
37. Within their home country, National Red Cross and Red Crescent societies assume the duties
and responsibilities of a national relief society.
A. take on B. get off C. go about D. put in
38. An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of
Red Cross Societies in 1991.
A. started B. helped C. treated D. dedicated
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Unit 15
OPPOSITES:
39. I am tired because I went to bed late last night.
A. early B. loudly C. beautifully D. quickly
40. They had to delay their trip because of the bad weather
A. get through B. go on C. keep up with D. go over
CLOSE TEST:
The Security Council is the most powerful (41) in the UN. It is responsible for
maintaining international peace, and for(42) peace when conflict arise. Its decisions are binding
on all UN members and have the force of international law. The Security Council has the (43) to
define what is a threat to security, to determine how the UN should respond, and to enforce its decision
by ordering UN members to take certain(44) . For example, the Council may impose (45)
sanctions, such as halting trade with a country it considers an aggressor.
41. A. body B. agency C. office D. A and B
42. A. keeping B. restoring C. maintaining D. making
43. A. authority B. function C. power D. All are correct
44. A. act B. acts C. action D. actions
45. A. economic B. economy C. economical D. economist
READING COMPREHENSION:
The United nation (UN), international organization of countries created to promote world peace
and cooperation. The UN was founded after World War II ended in 1945. Its mission is to maintain
world peace, develop good relations between countries, promote cooperation in solving the world’s
problems, and encourage respect for human rights.
The UN is an organization of countries that agree to cooperate with one another. It brings
together countries that are rich and poor, large and small, and have different social and political
systems. Member nations pledge to settle their disputes peacefully, to refrain from using force or the
threat of force against other counties, and to refuse help to any country that opposes UN actions.
46. The United Nation, international of countries created to promote world peace and
cooperation.
A. organize B. organization C. group D. member
47. What are the missions of the United Nation?
A. To promote cooperation in solving the world’s problems.
B. To encourage respect for human rights.
C. To maintain world peace, and develop good relations between countries.
D. All are correct.
48. The UN brings together countries that are , and have different social and political
systems.
A. poor B. rich C. large and small D. all are correct
49. The word pledge would probably be best replaced by
A. claim B. promise C. keep D. require
50. Which countries does the UN refuse help?
A. rich countries B. poor countries
C. small or large D. any country that opposes UN actions.
STRESS:
6. A. disaster B. prisoner C. agency D. family
7. A. international B. federation C. society D. dedication
8. A. committee B. reduction C. civilian D. vulnerable
9. A. suffering B president C. protection D. conference
10. A. involve B. propose C. improve D. soldier
ERROR RECOGNITION:
11. Keep walk until you see the bank ahead of you
A B C D
12. No sooner he had arrived in Rome than he was kidnapped.
A B C D
13. Since they have got married , they have moved the house twice.
A B C D
SYNONYMS:
36. The organization was established in 1950 in the USA
A. come around B. set up C. made out D. put on
37. 37. Jean Henri Dunant was appalled by the almost complete lack of care for wounded soldiers
A. dedicated B. shocked C. interested D. excited
38. The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately no one hurt
A. put on B. went off C. got out D. kept up
ANTONYMS:
39. According to World Bank figures, 41 per cent of Brazilians live in absolute poverty
A. health B. happiness C. millionaire D. richness
40. 40. Children will work hard if the lessons are interesting.
A. boring B. funny C. attractive D. expressing
CLOZE TEST:
The United Nations Children's Fund, or UNICEF, was (41) _____ by the United Nations General
Assembly on December 11, 1946, to provide emergency Food and (42) _____ to children in 'countries
that had been devastated by World War II. In 1953, UNICEF became a permanent part of the United
Nations System and its name was shortened from the (43) _____ United Nations International
Children's Emergency Fund but it has continued to be known by the popular acronym based on this old
name. (44) _____ in New York City, UNICEF provides long-term humanitarian and developmental
assistance to children and mother in developing countries.
UNICEF was (45) _____ the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 and Prince of Asturias Award of Concord
in 2006. UNICEF is present in 190 countries and territories around the world.
41. A .taken off B. set up C. paid on D. pushed back
42. A. instrument B. projects C. work D. healthcare
43. A. original B. ancestor C. old D. relatives
44. A. Managed B. Led C. Headquartered D. Committed
45. A. complimented B. awarded C. won D. taken
READING COMPREHENSION:
In 1945 leaders from 51 countries met in San Francisco, California, and organized the
United Nations (often called the UN). World War II had) just ended. Millions of people had died,
and there was destruction everywhere. People hoped they could build a future of world peace
through this new organization.
The main United Nations organization is in New York City, but the UN has a "family" of
other related organizations all over the world. These organizations try to provide a better life for
everyone. One example is UNICEF, an organization that provides food, medical care, and many
other services to poor children wherever they live. Another example is the World Health
Organization, which develops medical programs all over the world.
There are thousands of UN workers in developing countries. They work as planners to
increase production in farming and industry. They provide medical services, improve education
programs, and spread scientific information.' They develop programs that provide jobs and
better living conditions. They help countries control their population growth.
The United Nations also hold large international conferences, where people meet to
discuss important world issues. One conference was about the uses and ownership of oceans.
Another was about women. There are also International Years. In these special years, people
work together to improve situations and solve problems. One year is the International Year of
TEST 25
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. involvement B. employment C. social D. important
2. A. position B. family C. century D. politics
3. A. philosopher B. discriminate C. individual D. significant
4. A. ability B. equality C. enlightenment D. naturally
5. A. status B. argue C. basis D. against
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
6. A. women B. men C. led D. intellectual
7. A. throughout B. although C. right D. enough
8. A. history B. significant C. philosophy D. pioneer
9. A. power B. wife C. allow D. known
10. A. believed B. considered C. advocated D. controlled
Choose A, B, C, or D that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined
part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
11. To preserve that ________, it was necessary to preserve the people that had created it.
A. civil B. civilize C. civility D. civilization
12. The Prime Minister is to consider changes to sexually ________ laws to enforce equal
opportunities.
A. discriminate B. discrimination C. discriminatory D. discriminated
13. In former days, women were considered not to be suitable for becoming a ________.
A. politics B. political C. politically D. politician
14. At any competition, everyone is ________.
A. the same B. equal C. common D. significant
15. If you have the ________ in an election, you have the legal right to indicate your choice.
A. status B. individual C. vote D. equality
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Unit 15
16. Not all women can do two jobs well at the same time: rearing children and working at office.
A. educating B. taking care of C. homemaking D. giving a birth
17. There have been significant changes in women's lives since the women's liberation movement.
A. controlled B. economic C. important D. natural
18. Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role.
A. Giving birth to a baby B. Having no child
C. Bring up a child D. Educating a child
19. The forces behind the women's liberation movement vary from culture to culture, from individual to
individual.
A. advocate B. equalize C. power D. change
20. Before we had kids, I used to do more housework than my husband did, but he was working
thirteen hour days at the office compared ________ my eight-hour ones.
A. with B. about C. for D. on
21. Thomas has often boasted ________ his son's golfing ability.
A. on B. to C. about D. over
22. Although I did not totally agree ________ feminist's policies, I certainly admired their audacity,
dedication and courage.
A. for B. with C. along D. up
23.A woman's role in society was defined by the Feminists on whether they were contributors ________
society or not.
A. upon B. to C. off D. away
24. It took women a long time to struggle ________ the right to vote.
A. for B. with C. against D. upon
25. - How do you do? I’m so glad to meet you.
- . I’m glad to meet you, too.
A. How do you do? B. I’m fine. C. I’m eighteen years old D. Goodbye
26. - May I speak to Mr. Chan?
-
A. Hearing B. Listening C. Speaking D. Talking
27. - May I borrow your eraser?
-
A. This is an eraser. B. Ok. Thank you C. I don’t borrow you D. Here you are
28. The more we learn, .
A. we become wise B. we become wiser
C. wiser we become D. the wiser we become
29.When Henry home after a hard day of work, his children .
A arrived / left B arrived / were sleeping
C was arriving / slept D had arrived / were sleeping
30. Before last night, I Dane for years.
A didn’t see B haven’t seen C hadn’t seen D wasn’t seen
31. They will ask you a lot of questions at the interview.
A. You will be asked a lot of questions at the interview.
B. You will be asked a lot of questions at the interview by them.
C A lot of questions will be asked you at the interview.
D. A lot of questions will be asked at the interview.
32. Facial ______ show one's feelings when he is communicating.
A. expressions B. expresses C. expressive D. expressively
33. He was so _______ that he could not even say a word.
A. nerve B. nerves C. nervous D. nervously
34.If you do not understand the word "superstitious," look it up in the dictionary.
A. find its meaning B. write it C. draw it D. note it
35. John speak three languages.
A. will B. can C. has to D. must
Mistake Identification
36. I haven’t visited Mr. Ba when he moved to his new house.
A B C D
TEST 26
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. deny B. legal C. women D. limit
2. A. human B. mother C. struggle D. belief
3. A. opportunity B. economic C. society D. intellectual
4. A. history B. natural C. pioneer D. business
5. A. advocate B. consider C. cultural D. period
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.
6. A. events B. spirit C. Asian D. silver
7. A. gold B. region C. organize D. game.
8. A. trained B. proved C. impressed D. performed
9. A. competitor B. medal C. level D. development
10. A. honor B. high C. host D. hold
Choose A, B, C, or D that best completes each unfinished sentence, substitutes the underlined
part, or has a close meaning to the original one.
21. Laura: “What a lovely house you have!” Maria: “ ”
MISTAKE IDENTIFICATION
46. The harder you study for these exam, the best you will do.
A B C D
47. The sears Tower is the most tallest building in Chicago.
A B C D
48. It is getting coldest when the winter is coming.
A B C D
49. How many competitions took part in the 22nd Sea Games?
A B C D
50. French is a most difficult language to learn than English is.
A B C D
TEST 27
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answers:
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations or ASEAN was established on 8 August 1967 in
Bangkok by the five original Member Countries, namely, Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore,
and Thailand. Brunei joined on 8 January 1984, Vietnam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar on
23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999. The ASEAN Declaration states that the aims and
purposes of the Association are: to accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural
development in the region and to promote regional peace and stability through abiding respect for
justice and the rule of law in the relationship among countries in the region and adherence to the
principles of the United Nations Charter.
In 2003, the ASEAN Leaders resolved that an ASEAN Community shall be established
comprising three pillars, namely, ASEAN Security Community, ASEAN Economic Community and
ASEAN Socio-Cultural Community.
The ASEAN Vision 2020, adopted by the ASEAN Leaders on the 30th Anniversary of ASEAN,
agreed on a shared vision of ASEAN as a concert of Southeast Asian nations, outward looking, living in
peace, stability and prosperity, bonded together in partnership in dynamic development and in a
community of caring societies.
ASEAN Member Countries have adopted the following fundamental principles in their relations with
one another, as contained in the Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia (TAC):
mutual respect for the independence, sovereignty, equality, territorial integrity, and national
identity of all nations;
the right of every State to lead its national existence free from external interference, subversion or
coercion;
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Unit 15
non-interference in the internal affairs of one another; settlement of differences or disputes by
peaceful manner;
renunciation of the threat or use of force; and
effective cooperation among themselves.
1. According to the text, which nation is the last member to join The Association of Southeast Asian
Nations up to now.
A. Vietnam B. The Philippines C. Brunei D. Cambodia
2. The ASEAN Declaration is about _______.
A. the cultures of all the members of the organization
B. the development of all countries all over the world
C. the aims and purposes of the organization
D. the laws of the members of the organization
3. The third paragraph is about _______.
A. living in peace, stability and prosperity B. the 30th Anniversary of ASEAN
C. The ASEAN Vision 2020 D. the ASEAN Leaders
4. The Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia _______.
A. is not accepted by ASEAN Member Countries
B. consists of fundamental principles in the relations of ASEAN Member Countries
C. is disapproved by ASEAN Member Countries
D. has two principles
5. Which principle does not belong to the Treaty of Amity and Cooperation in Southeast Asia?
A. interference in the internal affairs of member countries
B. effective cooperation
C. mutual respect
D. peaceful manner
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
6. A. member B. progress C. culture D. diverse
7. A. associate B. stability C. original D. electronic
8. A. development B. agriculture C. communicate D. economy
9. A. enterprise B. domestic C. tourism D. industry
10. A. justice B. respect C. adopt D. improve
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.
11. A. goal B. language C. region D. energy
12. A. social B. country C. culture D. record
13. A. finance B. service C. statistic D. include
14. A. adopted B. founded C. improved D. admitted
15. A. nations B. accounts C. laws D. series
Read the passage and choose the best option to complete each blank.
Singapore has a highly developed market-based economy (41) _______ historically revolves
around extended trade. Along with Hong Kong, South Korea and Taiwan Singapore is one (42)_______
the Four Asian Tigers. The economy depends heavily on export, refining, imported goods, especially in
manufacturing. Manufacturing constituted twenty six (43) ________ of Singapore’s GDP in 2005. The
manufacturing industry is well –diversified into electronic petroleum refining chemicals, (44) _______
engineering and biomedical sciences manufacturing. In 2006, Singapore produced about 10 percent of
the world foundry water output. Singapore’s the busiest port in the world in terms of tonnage shipped.
Singapore is The world’s fourth largest foreign exchange trading centre after London, New York City
(45) _______ Tokyo.
41. A. who B. whom C. why D. which
42. A. of B. in C. for D. at
43. A. percentage B. persuasion C. perception D. percent
44. A. mechanical B. mechanically C. methane D. Mechanic
45. A. and B. but C. or D. so
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
46. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
47. The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects B. symptoms C. hints D. demonstrations
48. Strategic alliances are being forged with major European companies.
A. forced B. formulated C. forbidden D. move forward
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
49. One of the main goals of the Association is to accelerate economic growth
A. slow down B. make faster C. speed up D. advance
50. The ASEAN Vision 2020 is aimed at forging closer economic integration within the region
A. combination B. union C. cooperation D. separation
TEST 28
Read the passage and choose the best answers.
Brunei is one of the smallest countries in the world. Its population is only 25,000 and most of
them live in Bandar Seri Begawan (the capital city with the longest name in the world!) It is also the
richest country in Asia and may be the richest country in the world because it has a lot of oil and natural
gas which it exports to Japan. Every week huge tankers carry oil and gas from the oil-fields of Brunei to
Japan.
The head of the state in Brunei is Sultan Haji Hassanal Bolkiah. He is the richest man in the
world. He has two wives and each lives in their own beautiful palace. The first wife lives in the biggest
palace in the world which has 200 rooms. The Sultan has more than 200 cars and he also has
hundreds of horses.
1. Brunei is_____________________.
A. among the smallest country in the world B. a country with a dense population
C. the smallest countries in the world D. is a capital city
2. The population of Brunei is______________ people.
A. over 25,000 B. 25,000 C. about 25,000 D. less than 25,000
3. According to the passage, Sultan, the head of the state in Brunei ______________.
A. is the richest man in the world
B. has two wives, each of whom lives in their own beautiful palace
C. has more than 200 cars
1. I have been looking this book for months, and at last, I have found it.
A. over B. up C. for D. at
2. It took me a long time to the shock of her death.
A. go off B. look up C. get over D. turn on
3. Tom got trouble because he didn’t on time for the interview.
A. try out B. turned round C. take after D. turn up
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Unit 15
4. The family looked to their vacation abroad.
A. for B. from C. toward D. forward
5. Human beings are ____ for the changes in the environment.
A. account B. faulty C. blame D. responsible
6. They gave me a form and told me to _________
A. fill in B. fill at C. pay up D. down to
7. As it was getting late, the boys decided to _____ the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags
A. put up B. put off C. put out D. put on
8. The bomb ________ in a crowded street.
A. went out B. went off C. came off D. came out
9. He was punished because he went out without asking________ permission
A. about B. for C. to D. with
10. Both men and women are good ________ building houses.
A. on B. at C. of D. in
11. You should ________ more attention to what your teacher explains.
A. make B. pay C. set D. get
12. As the eldest in the family, Julie makes it her duty to ________ her brothers and sisters.
A. take after B. care of C. look after D. look up
th
13. The 15 Asian Games ________ in Doha, the capital of Quatar.
A. took place B. took after C. took over D. took up
14. Many people say James ________ his father, but don’t think they are very similar
A. looks after B. takes after C. likes D. looks alike
15. It is very kind ____your sister to give me a lift to the airport.
A. from B. with C. for D. of
16. I think it would be a good idea to ________a sport and get some physical exercises.
A. give up B. pick up C. take up D. bring up
17. The Governments of ASEAN have paid special attention ________ trade.
A. to B. on C. for D. with
18. New York City was founded by the Dutch in 1642.
A. put up B. taken up C. set up D. looked up
19. They had to delay their trip because of the bad weather.
A. put off B. go over C. put on D. fill in
20. Be careful! The tree is going to fall.
A. Look out B. Look up C. Look on D. Look after
21. The organization was established in 1950 in the USA.
A. come around B. set up C. made out D. put on
22. He did not particularly want to play any competitive sport.
A. use up B. do with C. take up D. go on
23. I am tired because I went to bed late last night.
A. stayed up late B. kept off C. put out D. brought up
24. How are you _______ on with your work? - It is OK.
A. calling B. getting C. laying D. looking
25. What may happen if John will not arrive in time?
A. go along B. count on C. keep away D. turn up
26. Go over your work before you hand in it.
A. Prepare B. Repeat C. Carry out D. check carefully
27. My father still hasn’t really got _________the death of my mother.
A. on B. up C. about D. over
28. The bomb went ____ with a loud bang which could be heard all over the town.
A. in B. out C. off D. away
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Unit 15
29. Boys! Put your toys ____. It is time to go to bed. Don’t stay ____ late.
A. off / on B. away / up C. down / off D. around / for
30. She intended to quit her job to stay____ home and look ____ her sick mother.
A.in /at B. at / after C. for / over D. up /on
31. He is very worried ____ his new job because he is not quite prepared ____ working.
A. on /over B. to / off C. about / for D. in /at
32. Instead ____ Petrol, cars will only run ____ solar energy and electricity.
A. of /on B. for / by C. in / over D. from /upon
33. Will you take care ____. My little dog when I am ____ business?
A. through/ away B. about /at C. for /over D. of /on
34. They arrived ____ That train station late because their taxi had broken ____
A.at /down B. for /off C. on/ over D. on /up
35. Those workers are in difficulty because wage increases cannot keep up ____ inflation.
A. with B. for C. over D. on
36. Williams is working . ____ an export company. He intends to apply ____ another job because he
is not satisfied ____ the salary.
A. in/on /at B. for/ for/ with C. at/ out/ into D. from/ on /for
37. I like to get up ___ time to have a big breakfast before going to work.
A. on B. to C. in D. for
38. Why are you never _____ time? You always keep everybody waiting.
A. in B. on C. for D. at
39. Her grandfather died _______ lung cancer.
A. of B. in C. on D. up
40. Please turn ________ the light, it’s getting dark here.
A. on B. off C. over D. into
21. _____ you learn English well, you can find a good job in future.
A. Supposing B. Because C. Although D. For the fact that
22. _____.he will leave the company is kept secret.
A. That B. When C. That D. What
23. _____ he was in Phong Nha cave, he bought some grapefruits.
A. Until B. After C. Once D. While
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Unit 15
24. A lot of tourists have come to Hue _____ it is known for the royal palaces and old tombs.
A. as B. because C. since D. all are correct
25. She sings _____ a lark does.
A. as well so B. well than C. as well as D. as well than
26. _____ the flagpole was strong, the wind blew it down.
A. However B. Since C. In case D. In spite of the fact that
27. She will move _____ her father works.
A. whom B. where C. which D. that
28. It was _____ cold _____ some old people died.
A. such…that B. very…than C. so…that D. so…as
29. He will be sacked _____ he works hard.
A. as long as B. whatever C. unless D. as
30. John said the same words _____ his father did.
A. which B. as C. as if D. as though
31. _____ deep the ocean is, modern machines can measure its depth.
A. No matter what B. Whatever C. Even though D. No matter how
32. _____ the play was very boring, some of the audience fell asleep during the performance.
A. Seeing that B. In order that C. In that D. so that
33. Uncle Ho mausoleum, which is located in the center of Hanoi, attracts _____ domestic _____
foreign visitors.
A. as…as B. so…that C. both …and D. either…or
34. Please come to visit me _____ you have spare time.
A. as soon as B. when C. once D. by the time
35. They are _____ generous _____ hospitable.
A. either…nor B. neither…or C. both…but D. not only …but also
36. He is lazy _____ dirty.
A. as well as B. but C. except D. yet
37. The Vietnamese are _____ heroic _____ industrious.
A. either…or B. both …and C. neither…nor D. whether…or
38. Uncle Ho is a great leader; _____ he is a great poet.
A. however B. while C. therefore D. moreover
39. Bac Lieu is known for its longan orchard. _____, it owns a fantastic bird sanctuary.
A. besides B. whereas C. otherwise D. thus
40. Mary buys some meat. _____, she gets some fish.
A. hence B. nevertheless C. in addition D. as a result
41. Tam is very kind. _____, she works very hard.
A. Consequently B. Only C. Also D. On the other hand
42. Luc Van Tien is studious. _____, Trinh Ham and Bui Kiem are lazy.
A. Besides B. so C. On the contrary D. Thus
43. You must keep silent, _____ go out
A. but B. unless C. as if D. or else
44. You should learn hard, _____ you will not be able to earn your living.
A. If B. unless C. otherwise D. on condition that
TỰ CHỌN 9: SO/ SUCH/ TOO/ ENOUGH
Error recognition:
1. Linda has such many things to do that she has no time to go out.
A B C D
2. He had smoked so a lot of cigarettes that he died of cancer.
A B C D
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Unit 15
3. Never before has so many people paid attention to pollution.
A B C D
4. All the students in the class are enough good to pass the final exam.
A B C D
5. Faraday’s father was not rich enough to sending him to school.
A B C D
6. The prices of accommodation are as high that many people cannot afford to buy a house.
A B C D
7. The film is such interesting that I have ever seen it for three times .
A B C D
8. He was too exhausted that he couldn’t even stand on his feet.
A B C D
ANSWER KEYS
TEST 15:
01. D 02. B 03. C 04. A 05. D 06. A 07. B 08. D 09. A 10. C
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Unit 15
11. B 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. A
31. C 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. D
41. C 42. A 43. D 44. C 45. B 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. A 50. B
TEST 16:
01. B 02. D 03. B 04. A 05. D 06. C 07. B 08. D 09. B 10. D
11. A 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. C 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. B
31. C 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. A 40. A
41. C 42. D 43. B 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. D
TEST 17:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 18:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 19:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 20:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 21:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
English 12/ Workbook/ Page 101
Unit 15
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 22:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 23:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 24:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 25:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 26:
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
31 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
TEST 27:
TEST 28:
01. A 02. B 03. D 04. D 05. A 06. B 07. C 08. B 09. D 10. C
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. C 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. A
31. B 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D
41. A 42. B 43. A 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. B 50. C