Name : __________________________ CT group : ________________

VICTORIA JUNIOR COLLEGE

2009 JC2 PRELIMINARY EXAMINATIONS

PHYSICS 9745/01
Higher 2

Paper 1 Multiple Choice

25 Sep 2009 2.30 pm – 3.45 pm

FRIDAY (1 Hour 15 min)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there
are four possible answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and shade the ovals on the Optical Answer Sheet
correctly.

Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.

Write your name, CT group and NRIC number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces
provided.

Each correct answer will score one mark. No marks will be deducted for wrong
answers.

Any rough working should be done in this booklet.

This question set consists of a total of 18 printed pages.

1
Data

speed of light in free space, c = 3.00 x 108 m s-1

permeability of free space, µo = 4π x 10-7 H m-1

permittivity of free space, ε o = 8.85 x 10-12 F m-1

(1/(36π )) x 10-9 F m-1

elementary charge, e = 1.60 x 10-19 C

the Planck constant, h = 6.63 x 10-34 J s

unified atomic mass constant, u = 1.66 x 10-27 kg

rest mass of electron, me = 9.11 x 10-31 kg

rest mass of proton, mp = 1.67 x 10-27 kg

molar gas constant, R = 8.31 J mol-1 K-1

the Avogadro constant, NA = 6.02 x 1023 mol-1

the Boltzmann constant, k = 1.38 x 10-23 J K-1

gravitational constant, G = 6.67 x 10-11 N m2 kg-2

acceleration of free fall, g = 9.81 m s-2

2
Formulae

uniformly accelerated motion, s = ut + (½) at2

v2 = u2 + 2as

work done on/by a gas, W = p∆ V

hydrostatic pressure, p = hρ g

gravitational potential, GM
φ =−
r

displacement of particle in s.h.m., x = xo sin ω t

velocity of particle in s.h.m., v = vo cos ωt

= ±ω ( x o2 − x 2 )

resistors in series, R = R1 + R2 + …

resistors in parallel, 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2+ …

electric potential, V = Q/4π ε or

alternating current/voltage, x = xo sin ω t

transmission coefficient, T = exp(-2kd)

8π 2 m(U − E )
where k =
h2

radioactive decay, x = xoexp(-λ t)

decay constant, 0.693

λ=
t1
2

3
Instructions: Answer all questions on the Answer Sheet provided.

1. When a spherical body is falling through air, the friction force acting on it varies
directly as the square of the object’s speed. What are the units of the constant of
proportionality relating friction force and speed?

A. kg m-1 B. kg m-1 s-1 C. kg m s-1 D. kg m2 s-3

2. The magnitude of the force on a conductor of length L, carrying current I, in a

magnetic field B perpendicular to the conductor, is given by the expression
F = BIL. The unit of magnetic field strength is the tesla. Which of the following is
equal to a tesla?

A. kg C-1 s-1 B. kg s C-1 m-1 C. kg C m2 s-3 D. kg m2 C-1

3. A cylinder of length L has a circular cross-section of radius R as shown below.

The volume V and length L of the cylinder are measured with fractional
uncertainties of x and y respectively. If the radius R is calculated from V and L, its
fractional uncertainty is at most

1 1
A. x+ y B. 2x + 2y
2 2
1 1
C. x− y C. x–y
2 2

4. Four students each made a series of measurements of the acceleration of free fall g.
The table shows the results obtained.
Which student obtained a set of results that could be described as precise but not
accurate?

student results, g / m s-2

A. 9.81 9.79 9.84 9.83
B. 9.81 10.12 9.89 8.94
C. 9.45 9.21 8.99 8.76
D. 8.45 8.46 8.50 8.41

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5. A steel ball is released from rest a distance above a rigid horizontal surface and is
allowed to bounce. Which graph best represents the variation with time t of the
acceleration a?
a a

0 0
t t

A. B.

a a

0 0
t t

C. D.

6. You throw your pen straight up in your physics classroom. Ignore air resistance.
Which statement concerning the net force acting on the pen at the top of its path is
true?

A. The net force is instantaneously equal to zero.

B. The direction of the net force changes from up to down.
C. The net force is greater than the weight of the pen.
D. The net force is equal to the weight of the pen.

7. The diagram below shows a heavy flagpole PQ hinged at a vertical wall at end P
and held by a wire connected between end Q and a point R on the wall. The weight
of the flagpole is W and the tension in the wire is T.

R
T
S
Q

X
P
W

What is the direction of the force exerted by the wall on the flagpole?

A. From P to Q B. From P to S C. From P to X D. From Q to P

5
8. Figure 1 shows two parallel forces F acting on a bar of length l pivoted at P. The
forces give rise to a couple of torque 5.0 N m.
In Figure 2, the lines of action of the forces are moved a distance 0.25l to the left.

0.25 l 0.25 l F
F
P

P
F F
l
Figure 1 Figure 2
What is now the torque of the couple?

A. 0
B. 2.5 N m
C. 5.0 N m
D. 10 N m

9. Two iceboats hold a race on a frictionless, horizontal frozen lake. The two iceboats
have masses m and 2m, respectively. Each iceboat has an identical sail, so the wind
exerts the same constant force on each iceboat. The two iceboats start from rest and
cross the finish line a distance s away.
Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The two iceboats have the same kinetic energy at the finish line.
B. The heavier iceboat attains a greater kinetic energy at the finish line.
C. The lighter iceboat attains a greater kinetic energy at the finish line.
D. The kinetic energy of the two iceboats is the same initially. However, the
kinetic energy differs as the two iceboats reach the finish line.

10. A 200 g block is pressed against a spring of force constant 1.40 kN m-1 until the
block compresses the spring by 10.0 cm. The spring rests at the bottom of a ramp
inclined at 60.0° to the horizontal. If there is a friction of 1.2 N between the block
and the ramp, how far up the incline will the block move before it stops?

fixed support
60°

A 2.41 m
B 3.21 m
C 4.12 m
D 7.14 m

6
11. Suppose that a hole were drilled to the centre of a uniform solid spherical planet.
A stone is dropped into the hole. When the stone is at the planet’s centre,
compared with its values at the surface, you might expect that the stone’s

A. mass and weight are both unchanged.

B. mass and weight are both zero.
C. mass is zero and its weight is unchanged.
D. mass is unchanged and its weight is zero

12. A mass m, attached to one end of an inextensible string of length 5.0 m, is made to
move in a horizontal circle as the central axle is rotated. In a particular circular
motion, the string makes an angle of 30.0o with the vertical as shown below.
Calculate the period of the mass’s motion about the central axle.

3.0 m
5.0 m

Central 30.0o
axle m

EMBED Word.Picture.8
A. 1.0 s
B. 3.5 s
C. 4.8 s
D. 6.2 s

13. A body oscillates with simple harmonic oscillation freely in a horizontal straight
line. The total mechanical energy of the oscillator is E. What is the total
mechanical energy of the body if it now performs horizontal simple harmonic
motion with its amplitude halved and frequency doubled?

A. E/2
B. E
C. 2E
D. 4E

14. When a particle performs simple harmonic motion the acceleration is out of phase
with the displacement by

A. π/4 rad
B. π/2 rad
C. 3π/4 rad
D. π rad

7
15. A fixed mass of an ideal gas absorbs q J of heat and gains u J of internal energy.
What is the work done by the gas in terms of q and u?

A. u −q
B. −u −q
C. u+q
D. −u + q

16. An ideal gas is enclosed in a cylinder by a gas-tight, frictionless piston. The gas
then undergoes a series of changes as shown in the figure below.
EMBED Word.Picture.8
Pressure / 105 Pa
A
4

B
3

1
Volume / 10-2 m3

2 4 6 8
Which of the following statements is correct when the gas changes states from A
to B?

A. There is no change in the internal energy of the gas.

B. Work is done on the gas.
C. The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is the same at both states
A and B.
D. Heat is gained by the gas.

17. In a progressive wave, two points, M and N, are separated by a distance x

measured along the wave’s direction of motion. M and N have a phase difference
in their relative motions of 0.75π , with the motion of M lagging that of N. Given
that the wavelength of the wave is 12.0 cm, determine the value of x and the
direction of wave propagation.

x / cm Direction of wave propagation

A. 4.5 From M to N
B. 4.5 From N to M
C. 9.0 From M to N

8
 D. 9.0 From N to M

18. A radio antenna is used to receive vertically polarised radio waves. The antenna is
rotated about an axis parallel to the direction of propagation of the radio waves.
As the angle between the antenna and the vertical is increased from θ 1 to θ 2 ,
the intensity of the received signal is decreased by half. Which of the following
pairs of values of θ 1 and θ 2 will satisfy the above condition?
radio antenna
(metal rod)

θ 1

vertically polarised
radio wave θ 2

θ 1 θ 2
A. 20o 40o
B. 30o 45o
C. 45o 60o
D. 60o 90o

19. Two sources of waves, S1 and S2, are situated as shown in figure below.
Individually, each source emits waves of intensity I.

S1

3m
P
D

S2 Q
4m
1 P
Equidistant from S1 and S2, a detector at P registers a steady minimum wave
intensity. The same detector registers the next steady minimum intensity when it
moves to point Q. Which of the following statements is false about the two
sources of waves?

A. The two sources of waves are coherent.

B. The two sources of waves have a similar wavelength of 2 m.

9
 C. The two sources of waves have a phase difference of π radians.
D. The two sources of waves have the same amplitude.

20. Wire PQ shown below has a total length L and a uniform cross sectional area. It is
made of three different metals of equal lengths joined in series. Their resistivities
are ρ 1, ρ 2, ρ 3 ,with ρ 1 > ρ 2 > ρ 3.

EMBED Word.Picture.8
P Q
ρ1 ρ2 ρ3

Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation of resistance R along
the length of the wire, starting from P?

A. R

Length
0
L/3 2L/3 L

B. R

Length
0
L/3 2L/3 L

C. R

Length
0
L/3 2L/3 L

10
 D. R

Length
0
L/3 2L/3 L

21. A generator, with output power P and output voltage V, is connected to a factory
by cables of total resistance R. What is the power dissipated in the cables?
2
V2 P V2
A. P B. C.   R D. P −
R V  R

22. A potentiometer has a wire XY of length l and resistance R. It is powered by a

battery of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r in series with a resistor of resistance r.
With a cell in the branch circuit, the null point is found to be l/3 from X, as
shown in the diagram below.

E, r r

l
X Y
l/3
IG = 0

EMBED Word.Picture.8 cell

The e.m.f. of the cell is

E ER Er
A. B. C. D.
3 3( R + r ) 3( R + 2r )
ER
3( R + 2r )

11
23.
+
e-
+

+ x

P Q
EMBED Word.Picture.8
An electron is located midway inside the space between two vertical metal plates P
and Q. P is positively charged while Q is earthed. Which one of the following graphs
best represents how the electric force F acting on the electron varies with the distance
x measured from plate P?

A. F B. F

x
x
F F
C. D.

x x

12
24. If 1.0 J of work is required to move 1.0 C of charge between two points in an
electric field, the potential difference between the two points is

A. 1.0 V B. 6.3 × 1018 V

−19
C. 9.0 × 109 V D. 1.6 × 10 V

25. Which one of the following graphs most correctly represents the graph of
magnetic field strength, B, versus the current I, as you increase the current
through the wires wound around the nail?

To variable power supply

A. B B. B

I I
C. B D.
B

I I

13
26. A straight conductor rests in the space between two arms of a ferromagnetic core
(presently unmagnetized). After the switch has been closed for a while, in what
direction is the magnetic force acting on the conductor?

A. up B. down C. right D. left

27. A metal plate as shown below is moved from left to right in a region of uniform
magnetic field. The field is pointing perpendicularly into the page. Which of the
following statements is correct? P, Q and R are points located on the plate as
shown below.

R Q

A. Points R and Q are at different potentials. Induced current is zero in the

plate.
B. Points P and Q are at the same potential. Induced current is zero in the
plate.
C. Points P and Q are at different potentials. Induced current is clockwise in
the plate.
D. Points P and Q are at different potentials. Induced current is zero in the
plate.

28. A metal rod is placed in a region of uniform magnetic field as shown below. It is
rotated in a clockwise direction in the plane of the paper. The axis of rotation P is
nearer to R. The magnetic field is pointing perpendicularly into the plane of the
page. Which of the following statements is correct?

14
 Q

P
R

A. Q has a higher potential than R.

B. R has a higher potential than Q.
C. P has a higher potential than Q.
D. Q and R has the same potential.

29. Electrical energy gets from the generating station to Ah Beng’s house by passing
through eight transformers which change its voltage. If each transformer is only
95% efficient, what is the total energy loss due to these transformers?

A. 5.0% B. 14% C. 34% D. 38%

30. The equation V = V0 sin ( ω t ) represents an alternating potential difference.
Which one of the following equations represents an alternating potential
difference with twice the frequency and one-third the amplitude?

A. 2V = V0 sin ( 2 ω t ) B. 3V = V0 sin ( 2 ω t )
ω t 
C. V = 3V0 sin ( 2 ω t ) D. 3V = V0 sin  
 2 
31.
e.m.f. / V

6.0
4.0
2.0
0 time / s
0
2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0
−2.0
−4.0
−6.0

The graph above represents a sinusoidal alternating e.m.f.. The root-mean-square

value of this alternating e.m.f. is

15
 A. 0 B. 2.1 V C. 4.2 V D. 8.5 V

32. Light of frequency f falls on a metal surface of work function energy φ and ejects
electrons of maximum kinetic energy K by the photoelectric effect. If the
frequency and the intensity of this light is doubled, what will be the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted electrons?

A. K/2 + φ
B. 2K
C. 2K + φ
D. 4K

33. In a typical diagnostic chest X-ray imaging process, the electron beam is typically
accelerated by a potential difference of 70 kV. In a special investigation which
requires a higher resolution of the internal organs of a patient, the shortest
wavelength produced by the same X-ray machine must be halved. What value
should the potential difference be set to achieve this shorter wavelength?
70
A. 35 kV B. 70 2 kV C. kV D. 140 kV
2
34. When a parallel beam of white light passes through a metal vapour, dark lines
appear in the spectrum of the emergent light. This is principally because energy
is absorbed and

A. is re-radiated as infra-red.
B. is re-radiated as ultra-violet.
C. is re-radiated uniformly in all directions.
D. is re-radiated gradually over a long period of time.

35. The muon is a subatomic particle which has an average lifespan of 2.2 µ s. What
is the minimum uncertainty in the mass of this particle?

A. 1.7 × 10-27 kg
B. 2.7 × 10-46 kg
C. 7.2 × 10-103 kg
D. 3.6 × 10-877 kg

36. The diagram below shows the wave function of a particle tunnelling through a
potential energy barrier from the left. It is observed that the amplitude of the
wave function decreases upon passing through the barrier, but that the
wavelength λ remains constant. What deductions can be made from these two
observations?

16
 Potential potential barrier
energy

Amplitude of the wave function Wavelength λ remains constant

decreases
A. Mass of the particle reduces upon
passing through barrier.
B. Intensity of the particle reduces
upon passing through barrier.
C. Mass of the particle increases
upon passing through barrier.
D. Reduced probability of finding
the particle after the barrier.
Momentum of the particle remains
unchanged after passing through the barrier.
Energy of the particle remains unchanged
after passing through the barrier.
Momentum of the particle remains
unchanged after passing through the barrier.
Energy of the particle remains unchanged
after passing through the barrier.

37.
EMBED Word.Picture.8
Electron energy

E6

conduction band
E5
E4

E3
E2 valence band

E1

The energy level diagram above shows the energy bands in a semiconductor
material. The shaded areas represent filled energy levels, while the unshaded
areas represent empty energy levels not occupied by electrons. Which of the
following statements is true?

A. The minimum energy which an electron in the valence band must absorb
before it can reach the conduction band is E4 − E3.

17
 B. The minimum energy which an electron in the valence band must absorb
before it can reach the conduction band is E5 − E3.
C. The minimum energy which an electron in the valence band must absorb
before it can reach the conduction band is E5 − E2.
D. The material is at a temperature of 0 K.

38. Which of the following statements about a p-n junction (diode) is incorrect?

A. The p-side of the junction is at a higher electrical potential compared to the n-

side.
B. The electrical potential energy of the electrons is lower on the n-side.
C. When the p-n junction is forward-biased, the current flows from the p-side to
the n-side.
D. When not connected to anything else, there is an electrical voltage of around
0.6 V across the p-n junction.

39. Helium nuclei may result from the bombardment of lithium nuclei with protons.
The reaction can be represented by the following nuclear equation:
7
3 Li + p →2
1
1
4
2 He + energy

The speed of light is c, and the masses of the particles are:

lithium mL
helium mH
proton mp

What is the net energy released during such a reaction?

A. [2mH – (mL + mp)]c2 B. [(mL + mp) – 2mH]c2

C. (2mH + mL + mp)c2 D. (mL + mp – 2mH)/c2

40. The graph below shows the number of particles N emitted per second by a
radioactive source as a function of time t.

18
 ln N

1
0 20 40 60 t/ s
EMBED Word.Picture.8

What is the half life of the source in seconds?

A. 0.050 s
B. 0.072 s
C. 14 s
D. 30 s

End of Paper

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