Set 1

1. There are ________ tuples in finite state machine.

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) unlimited
Reason: States, input symbols,initial state,accepting state and transition
function.[/learn_more]

2. Transition function maps.

a) Σ * Q -> Σ
b) Q * Q -> Σ
c) Σ * Σ -> Q
d) Q * Σ -> Q
Reason: Inputs are state and input string output is states.[/learn_more]

3. Number of states require to accept string ends with 10.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) can’t be represented.
Reason: This is minimal finite automata.[/learn_more]

4. Extended transition function is .

a) Q * Σ* -> Q
b) Q * Σ -> Q
c) Q* * Σ* -> Σ
d) Q * Σ -> Σ
Reason: This takes single state and string of input to produce a state.[/learn_more]

5. δ*(q,ya) is equivalent to .
a) δ((q,y),a)
b) δ(δ*(q,y),a)
c) δ(q,ya)
d) independent from δ notation
Reason: First it parse y string after that it parse a.[/learn_more]

6. String X is accepted by finite automata if .

a) δ*(q,x) E A
b) δ(q,x) E A
c) δ*(Q0,x) E A
d) δ(Q0,x) E A
Reason: If automata starts with starting state and after finite moves if reaches to final
step then it called accepted.[/learn_more]

7. Languages of a automata is
a) If it is accepted by automata
b) If it halts
c) If automata touch final state in its life time
d) All language are language of automata
Reason: If a string accepted by automata it is called language of
automata.[/learn_more]

8. Language of finite automata is.

a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3
Reason: According to Chomsky classification.[/learn_more]

9. Finite automata requires minimum _______ number of stacks.

a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Finite automata doesn’t require any stack operation .[/learn_more]

10. Number of final state require to accept Φ in minimal finite automata.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: No final state requires.[/learn_more]

11. Regular expression for all strings starts with ab and ends with bba is.
a) aba*b*bba
b) ab(ab)*bba
c) ab(a+b)*bba
d) All of the mentioned
Reason: Starts with ab then any number of a or b and ends with bba.[/learn_more]
12. How many DFA’s exits with two states over input alphabet {0,1} ?
a) 16
b) 26
c) 32
d) 64
Reason: Number of DFA’s = 2n * n(2*n).[/learn_more]

13. The basic limitation of finite automata is that

a) It can’t remember arbitrary large amount of information.
b) It sometimes recognize grammar that are not regular.
c) It sometimes fails to recognize regular grammar.
d) All of the mentioned

14. Number of states require to simulate a computer with memory capable of storing
‘3’ words each of length ‘8’.
a) 3 * 28
b) 2(3*8)
c) 2(3+8)
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: 2(m*n) states requires .[/learn_more]

15. FSM with output capability can be used to add two given integer in binary
representation. This is
a) True
b) False
c) May be true
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Use them as a flip flop output .[/learn_more]

Set 2
1. How many strings of length less than 4 contains the language described by the
regular expression (x+y)*y(a+ab)*?
a) 7
b) 10
c) 12
d) 11
Explanation : string of length 0 = 1
string of length 1 = 4
string of length 2 = 3
string of length 3 = 3[/learn_more]
2. Which of the following is true?
a) (01)*0 = 0(10)*
b) (0+1)*0(0+1)*1(0+1) = (0+1)*01(0+1)*
c) (0+1)*01(0+1)*+1*0* = (0+1)*
d) All of the mentioned
Explaination : None.[/learn_more]

3. A language is regular if and only if

a) accepted by DFA
b) accepted by PDA
c) accepted by LBA
d) accepted by Turing machine
Explanation : All of above machine can accept regular language but all string
accepted by machine is regular only for DFA.[/learn_more]

4. Regular grammar is
a) context free grammar
b) non context free grammar
c) english grammar
d) none of the mentioned
Explanation : Regular grammar is subset of context free grammar.[/learn_more]

5. Let the class of language accepted by finite state machine be L1 and the class of
languages represented by regular expressions be L2 then
a) L1<L2
b) L1>=L2
c) L1 U L2 = .*
d) L1=L2
Explanation : Finite state machine and regular expression have same power to express
a language.[/learn_more]

6. Which of the following is not a regular expression?

a) [(a+b)*-(aa+bb)]*
b) [(0+1)-(0b+a1)*(a+b)]*
c) (01+11+10)*
d) (1+2+0)*(1+2)*
Explanation : Except b all are regular expression*.[/learn_more]

7. Regular expression are

a) Type 0 language
b) Type 1 language
c) Type 2 language
d) Type 3 language
Explanation : According to Chomsky hierarchy .[/learn_more]

8. Which of the following is true?

a) Every subset of a regular set is regular
b) Every finite subset of non-regular set is regular
c) The union of two non regular set is not regular
d) Infinite union of finite set is regular
Explanation : None.[/learn_more]

9. L and ~L are recursive enumerable then L is

a) Regular
b) Context free
c) Context sensitive
d) Recursive
Explanation :If L is recursive enumerable and its complement too if and only if L is
recursive.[/learn_more]

10. Regular expressions are closed under

a) Union
b) Intersection
c) Kleen star
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation : According to definition of regular expression.[/learn_more]

Set 3
1. Regular sets are closed under union,concatenation and kleene closure.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends on regular set
d) Can’t say
Reason: Regular sets are closed under these three operation.[/learn_more]

2. Complement of a DFA can be obtained by

a) making starting state as final state.
b) no trival method.
c) making final states non-final and non-final to final.
d) make final as a starting state.
Reason: String accepted in previous DFA will not be accepted and non accepting
string will be accepted .[/learn_more]
3. Complement of regular sets are _________
a) Regular
b) CFG
c) CSG
d) RE
Reason: Regular sets are closed under complement operation.[/learn_more]

4. If L1 and L2 are regular sets then intersection of these two will be

a) Regular
b) Non Regular
c) Recursive
d) Non Recursive
Reason: Regular expression are also colsed under intersection.[/learn_more]

5. If L1 is regular L2 is unknown but L1-L2 is regular ,then L2 must be

a) Empty set
b) CFG
c) Decidable
d) Regular
Reason: Regular is closed under difference.[/learn_more]

6. Reverse of a DFA can be formed by

a) using PDA
b) making final state as non-final
c) making final as starting state and starting state as final state
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: By making final state as starting state string starting from end will be
accepted.[/learn_more]

7. Reverse of (0+1)* will be

a) Phi
b) Null
c) (0+1)*
d) (0+1)
Reason: There is only one state which is start and final state of DFA so interchanging
starting start and final state doesn’t change DFA.[/learn_more]

8. A ___________ is a substitution such that h(a) contains a string for each a.

a) Closure
b) Interchange
c) Homomorphism
d) Inverse Homomorphism
Reason: This operation replace using a function .[/learn_more]

9. Homomorphism of a regular set is _______

a) Universal set
b) Null set
c) Regular set
d) Non regular set
Reason: Regular set are closed under homomorphism.[/learn_more]

10. (a ^ 5b ^ 5)* is example of ________

a) Type 0 language
b) Type 1 language
c) Type 2 language
d) Type 3 language
Reason: It is a regular expression.[/learn_more]

11. Which of the following is type 3 language ?

a) Strings of 0’s whose length is perfect square
b) Palindromes string
c) Strings of 0’s having length prime number
d) String of odd number of 0’s
Reason: Only d is regular language.[/learn_more]

12. a ^ nb ^ n where (n+m) is even .

a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3
Reason: It is a regular expression.[/learn_more]

13. Complement of a ^ nb ^ m where n >= 4 and m <= 3 is example of

a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3
Reason: It is a regular expression.[/learn_more]

14. a ^ nb ^ m where n >= 1, m >= 1, nm >= 3 is example of

a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3
Reason: It is a regular expression.[/learn_more]

15. Complement of (a + b)* will be

a) phi
b) null
c) a
d) b
Reason: Given expression accept all string so complement will accept
nothing.[/learn_more]

Set 4
1. A reaction has reactants 1 moles of H2O and 1 mole of NaCl, and products NaOH
and HCl, what are the total moles of products?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Reason: In the product there is one mole of NaOH and one mole of HCl is
produced.[/learn_more]

2. 5 moles of O2 is added to 5 moles of H2, how many moles of H2O will it produce?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
Reason: Per mole of Oxygen & Hydrogen there is two moles of water.[/learn_more]

3. In a process, 5 Kgs of water is added to a container and after some interval 3 Kgs of
water is taken out. If finally there is 7 Kgs of water then how much water was there in
the very beginning?
a) 5 Kg
b) 10 Kg
c) 15 Kg
d) 20 Kg
Reason: Final condition = Initial condition + sum of inputs – sum of
outputs.[/learn_more]

4. A bucket of water is filled with oil. What kind of system is this?

a) Open
b) Closed
c) Transient
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Oil is neither entering nor leaving.[/learn_more]

5. The human body is _________

a) Closed System
b) Open System
c) Isolated System
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Since air, water and food is going in and out of a human body, it’s an open
system.[/learn_more]

6. A fluid enters system at the rate of 10 liters/s and leaves in two pathways one with
7 liters/s and other with 3 liters/s, then what type of flow it is?
a) Steady-state
b) Unsteady-state
c) Cannot say
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Since the flow in rate and flow out rate of the fluid are equal, the system is in
steady-state.[/learn_more]

7. A fluid enters system at the rate of 10 liters/s and leaves in two pathways one with
7 liters/s, then what type of flow it is?
a) Steady-state
b) Unsteady-state
c) Cannot say
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Since the flow in rate and flow out rate of the fluid are not equal, the system
is in Unsteady-state.[/learn_more]

8. A semi-batch process differ from an open process in ________

a) Input
b) Output
c) Generation
d) Consumption
Reason: A semi-batch process does not have output, while an open system has
output.[/learn_more]

9. Wine pouring in a glass is an example of

a) Batch
b) Semi-batch
c) Neither of them
d) Both of them
Reason: Wine enters but doesn`t leave, it`s a semi-batch.[/learn_more]

10. Water boiling in a container is an example of Batch process.

The above given statement is
a) True
b) False
c) Neither true nor false
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Steam is leaving the container, it is neither a batch process nor a semi-batch
process.[/learn_more]

Set 5
1. Of the following, _________ has the maximum frequency.
a) UV Rays
b) Gamma Rays
c) Microwaves
d) Radio Waves
Reason: Gamma Rays come first in the electromagnetic spectrum sorted in the
decreasing order of frequency.[/learn_more]

2. In the Visible spectrum the ______ colour has the maximum wavelength.
a) Violet
b) Blue
c) Red
d) Yellow
Reason: Red is towards the right in the electromagnetic spectrum sorted in the
increasing order of wavelength.[/learn_more]

3. Wavelength and frequency are related as : (c = speed of light)

a) c = wavelength / frequency
b) frequency = wavelength / c
c) wavelength = c * frequency
d) c = wavelength * frequency
Reason: It is usually written as wavelength = c / frequency.[/learn_more]

4. Electromagnetic waves can be visualised as a

a) sine wave
b) cosine wave
c) tangential wave
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Electromagnetic waves are visualised as sinusoidal wave.[/learn_more]

5. How is radiance measured?

a) lumens
b) watts
c) armstrong
d) hertz
Reason: Radiance is the total amount of energy that flows from the light source and is
measured in Watts.[/learn_more]

6. Which of the following is used for chest and dental scans?

a) Hard X-Rays
b) Soft X-Rays
c) Radio waves
d) Infrared Rays
Reason: Soft X-Rays (low energy) are used for dental and chest scans.[/learn_more]

7. Which of the following is impractical to measure?

a) Frequency
b) Radiance
c) Luminance
d) Brightness
Reason: Brightness is subjective descriptor of light perception that is impossible to
measure.[/learn_more]

8. Massless particle containing a certain amount of energy is called

a) Photon
b) Shell
c) Electron
d) None of the mentioned
Reason: Each bundle of massless energy is called a Photon.[/learn_more]

9. What do you mean by achromatic light?

a) Chromatic light
b) Monochromatic light
c) Infrared light
d) Invisible light
Reason: Achromatic light is also called monochromatic light.(Light void of
color)[/learn_more]
10. Which of the following embodies the achromatic notion of intensity?
a) Luminance
b) Brightness
c) Frequency
d) Radiance
Reason: Brightness embodies the achromatic notion of intensity and is a key factor in
describing color sensation.[/learn_more]

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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1
1. Which of the following two windings produces/induces the working flux and working EMF
respectively?
a) field winding and armature winding
b) armature winding and field winding
c) both are produced in field winding
d) both are produced in armature winding

2. Armature winding carries which of the following current?

a) magnetizing current only
b) load current only
c) both magnetizing current and load current
d) none of the mentioned

3. Field winding carries which of the following current?

a) exciting current only
b) load current only
c) both exciting current and load current
d) none of the mentioned

4. Which of the following statements are correct regarding exciting current?

(i) exciting current varies with the load
(ii) exciting current doesn’t vary with load
(iii) exciting current produces only a working magnetic flux
(iv) exciting current is not responsible for the production of working magnetic flux
a) (i),(iv)
b) (ii),(iii)
c) (i),(iii)
d) (ii),(iv)
5. Current in the field winding is ___________
a) AC always
b) DC always
c) Both AC and DC
d) Either AC or DC

6. The rating of the armature winding is ___________

a) 1/2 to 2% of the rated power of the machine
b) less than the power rating of the machine
c) greater than the power rating of the machine
d) equal to the power rating of the machine

7. The power rating of the field winding is ___________

a) equal to the power rating of the machine
b) 1/2 to 2% of the rated power of the machine
c) greater than the power rating of the machine
d) less than the power rating of the machine

8. What is the reason behind armature structure for both DC and AC machines being laminated?
a) reduce i2R losses
b) reduce the leakage flux
c) reduce the eddy current losses
d) for better operating power factor

9. Armature winding is one in which working ___________

a) flux is produced by field current
b) flux is produced by the working emf
c) emf is produced by the working flux
d) emf is produced by the leakage flux

10. Why is the air gap between stator and rotor should be kept as small as mechanically possible
in induction motor?
a) to reduce the leakage flux between stator and rotor
b) as it leads to better operating power factor of the induction motor
c) reduce the eddy current losses
d) both, to reduce leakage flux between stator and rotor, and also for better operating power
factor

Set 2
1. Which type of slots are used in the construction of large size and small size induction motors
respectively?
a) open slots and semiclosed slots
b) semiclosed slots and open slots
c) open slots and open slots
d) semiclosed slots and semiclosed slots
2. In which of the following applications, wound rotor type of induction motor is used?
a) where the driven load requires speed control
b) where high starting torque is required
c) when external resistance is to be inserted
d) any of the mentioned

3. For an induction motor,

(i) squirrel cage type is simpler and more economical in construction
(ii) wound rotor type requires less maintenance
(iii) squirrel cage type is more rugged and requires less maintenance
(iv) no external resistance can be inserted in the rotor circuit of squirrel cage induction motor
(v) no external resistance can be inserted in the rotor circuit of a wound rotor induction motor
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (ii),(v),(iii)
b) (ii),(iii),(v)
c) (i),(iii),(iv)
d) (i),(ii),(iv)

4. What are the advantages of providing the field winding on rotor and armature winding on the
stator?
a) more economical
b) more efficient
c) efficient cooling
d) all of the mentioned

5. The stator frame and end covers in synchronous and induction machines are designed to
___________
a) carry the magnetic flux
b) to serve as a mechanical support
c) to provide cooling or to carry induced EMF
d) any of the mentioned

6. What is the advantage of connecting two coils in parallel?

a) reduce the amount of copper required
b) increase the current per parallel path to double the value
c) increase the voltage capacity
d) all of the mentioned

7. In a synchronous machine, salient pole construction has been found to suit best for
___________
a) low speed prime movers
b) high speed prime movers
c) medium speed prime movers
d) any of the mentioned
8. What is the equation for frequency of generated EMF?
a) f = PN/120 Hz
b) f = 120/PN Hz
c) f = P/120 Hz
d) f = N/120 Hz

9. How many poles should the alternators driven by the oil engines and hydraulic turbine prime
movers must have, for better operation?
a) fewer number of poles
b) larger number of poles
c) medium number of poles
d) any of the mentioned

10. Large synchronous machines are constructed with armature winding on the stator because
stationary armature winding
(i) can be insulated satisfactorily for higher voltages
(ii) can be cooled more efficiently
(iii) would lead to reduced slip ring losses
(iv) would have no slot harmonics
(v) would have reduced armature reactance
Which of the above statements are correct ?
a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
b) (i),(ii),(iii),(v)
c) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(v)
d) (i),(ii),(iv),(v)

Set 3
1. How many poles should the alternators, driven by the steam and gas turbines prime movers
must have, for better operation?
a) fewer number of poles
b) large number of poles
c) medium number of poles
d) any of the mentioned

2. In a synchronous machine, cylindrical pole construction has been found to suit best for
___________
a) low speed prime movers
b) high speed prime movers
c) medium speed prime movers
d) any of the mentioned

3. Commercially, which of the following generators is called turbo-alternators or turbo-

generators?
a) salient pole rotor synchronous generators
b) cylindrical pole rotor induction generators
c) salient pole rotor induction generators
d) cylindrical rotor synchronous generators

4. For relatively large sizes of synchronous machines, which of the following are used for
providing closed circuit cooling?
a) air
b) water
c) hydrogen/helium
d) any of the mentioned

5. In a synchronous generator, the frequency of the generated EMF depends on

a) rotational speed
b) poles
c) both rotational speed and poles
d) none of the mentioned

6. A synchronous machine can be connected to an energy system only when ___________

a) frequency/rotational speed matches
b) voltage matches
c) current matches
d) power matches

7. In larger DC machines, the reason behind using fabricated steel instead of cast iron in the
manufacture of yoke is ?
a) economical considerations
b) permeability considerations
c) mechanical considerations
d) insulation considerations

8. In a DC machine, the pole core is usually of smaller cross section than the pole shoe because
___________
(i) smaller cross section requires less copper
(ii) larger pole shoe increases the air gap reluctance
(iii) larger pole shoe increases the flux per pole entering the armature
(iv) larger pole shoe reduces the mechanical strength
(v) larger pole shoe supports the field winding
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (i),(ii),(v)
b) (ii),(iii),(v)
c) (i),(iii),(v)
d) (ii),(iv),(v)

9. In a DC generator, the commutator serves as a _________

a) mechanical rectifier for alternating EMF to direct EMF
b) mechanical inverter to invert the direct applied voltage to alternating voltage
c) any of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

10. In a DC motor, the commutator serves as a ___________

a) mechanical rectifier for alternating EMF to direct EMF
b) mechanical inverter to invert the direct applied voltage to alternating voltage
c) any of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned