Level I 1,837 1,791 97.4% 46

(NBAA)
THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS

TANZANIA
EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT
84TH EXAMINATION SESSION – NOVEMBER 2016
NBAA, Telephones: (022) 2211890-9

Mhasibu House, Mobile: 0737 218031/0713 320423
Bibi Titi Mohamed Street, Fax: (022) 2151746
P.O. Box 5128, Email: info@nbaa.go.tz
Dar es Salaam, Website: www.nbaa.go.tz
Tanzania.
22ND DECEMBER 2016

TABLE OF CONTENTS
PAGE
Foreword & Acknowledgement ……………………………………… (i)
Executive Summary of 84th Examination session …………………... (v)
CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 84th Examination Session 1
CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………..................... 4

· Accounting Technician Examination Level I ……….................. 4
· Accounting Technician Examination Level II …………………. 18
· Foundation Level ………………………………… 32
· Intermediate Level …………………….................. 51
· Final Level ……………………………………….. 82
CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………... 105
CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………... 114
CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to November 2016 125
CHAPTER VI The NBAA Special Awards Programme for Candidates with 130
Meritorious Examination Achievements …………….........................
FOREWORD AND ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
________________
The current examination scheme has been tested for the fifth time in November 2016. The
first time was in November 2014. Unlike the phased out examination scheme the current
examination scheme is basically designed to test competencies rather than understanding of
knowledge. To realise this goal there is a need to streamline the whole process from teaching
of the students, setting of examination questions as well as marking of the examinations.
Here it means that the trainers, learners, examiners as well as examination markers need to
speak the same language. If there is any mismatch between these stakeholders the aim of
competence based examination scheme cannot be realised. Lecturers are required to change
their teaching orientation to match with competence approach. They are required to guide
learners to acquire competencies rather than knowledge. Learners as well as are supposed to
change their learning style from rote learning to active learning that will enable them to learn
the required competencies rather than creaming of information. Those who are setting
examination questions should also consider the fact that they are testing understanding of
skills and competencies rather than understanding of information. How to orient all these
stakeholders to have the same orientation has remained a challenge in implementing the
competence based examination scheme. But as we move forward the situation is changing
into better through trainings and acquisition of experiences.
The current examination scheme has eight subjects in the Accounting Technician Levels I and II
as shown below:
Code Name
Accounting Technician Level I
T01 Book keeping and Accounts
T02 Elements of Business Maths and Statistics
T03 Introduction to Information and Communication Technology
T.04 Business Communication Skills
Accounting Technician Level II

T.05 Principles of Accounting and Auditing
T.06 Elements of Cost Accounting and Procurement
T.07 Elements of Commercial Knowledge and Taxation
T.08 Accounting for Public Sector and Cooperatives
i
The Professional Examination Scheme has three level structures as follows:
(i) Foundation (Knowledge and Skills) Level, having five subjects,
(ii) Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context) Level, having six subjects, and
(iii) Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation) Level, having four subjects.
In total the Professional Examination Scheme has 15 subjects as shown hereunder:

Foundation (Knowledge and Skills Level)
Exam Subject Name
Code
A1 Quantitative Techniques
A2 Business and Management
A3 Accounting
A4 Business Information
A5 Business Laws
Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
B1 Financial Management
B2 Financial Accounting
B3 Auditing Principles and Practice
B4 Public Finance and Taxation I
B5 Performance Management
B6 Management, Governance and Ethics
Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)

Exam Subject Name
Code
C1 Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
C3 Business and Corporate Finance
C4 Public Finance and Taxation II
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER
Since the inception of the Accounting Technician examinations the Board has been able to
produce 13,901 Accounting Technicians. This category of Accounting Technicians covers 3,696
Accounting Technicians Certificate (ATEC) graduates, 2,971 Basic Book-keeping Certificate
(BBC) graduates, 5,746 National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE) graduates and 1,537
National Accountancy Diploma (NAD) graduates.
The Board has also been able to produce 7,597 CPA (T) graduates since it started conducting
these examinations in May, 1975. In total, the Board has been able to produce 21,547 accounting
personnel (manpower) of different levels and categories serving both in public and private sectors
inside and outside Tanzania.
ii
EXAMINATION CENTRES
During the 84th examination session, examinations were held in 11 examination centres located in
Tanzania Mainland and Zanzibar. These centres accommodated 6,282 candidates sitting at
different levels of the Board’s examinations. The examination centres were as shown here below:
Dar es Salaam Centres

1. Diamond Jubilee Hall
2. PTA – Karume Hall
Upcountry centres
1. Arusha – Institute of Accountancy Arusha (IAA)
2. Dodoma – College of Business Education (CBE)
3. Kilimanjaro –Young Men Christian Association (YMCA) Moshi
4. Mbeya – Mkapa Conference Centre
5. Morogoro – CCT Women’s Training Centre
6. Mwanza –St. Dominic Pastoral Centre
7. Tabora - VETA RVTSC (new centre from November 2016)
8. Tanga – St. Joseph’s Commercial School (SJCS)
9. Zanzibar – State University of Zanzibar (SUZA)
OBJECTIVES OF THE REPORT

The Report is intended to avail to trainers and candidates, the examinations’ overall general
performance, specific areas of weaknesses and suggestions for improvement. It is an important
guide to candidates as well as trainers, setters, markers and moderators of the Board’s future
examinations.
Analysis of the examination performance is presented in Table 5 of this report while a detailed
analysis indicating the performance of candidates registered by the recognized Tuition Providers
is shown in Tables 15.1 to 15.5 of the report. Comments and observations in the Examiners' and
Performance Report are supported by relevant statistical analysis of the candidates' performance
in each examination layer.
The last chapter of the Report comprises a list of prizes offered by NBAA and other award donor
institutions. These prizes will be awarded to candidates who have excelled in their examinations
during the graduation ceremony to be held in October 2017.
iii
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
On behalf of the Board and on my own behalf, I wish to convey my very sincere appreciation to
all persons who willingly supported the Board in this demanding professional task. I am indeed
particularly thankful to all Tuition Providers who devoted their energy and time to guide the
candidates and preparing them for the examinations. I am also delighted to acknowledge the
contribution of Board’s Examiners, Markers, Invigilators, and the Board’s Secretariat, the
Education and Publications Committee and the Governing Board for their much appreciated co-
operation during the whole process of the NBAA’s 84th examination session. Last but not least, I
congratulate all examination candidates who studied hard and sat for the 84th examinations of the
Board.
Once again, I would like to reiterate that the Examiners' Report is prepared to help trainers and
the Board’s candidates to improve on their future performance by learning from previous
mistakes. I, therefore, call upon readers of this Report to come up with constructive suggestions
on how to improve further the examination process and reports arising therein.
Yours sincerely,
CPA Pius A. Maneno

EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR
iv
EXECUTIVE SUMMARY TO THE 84THEXAMINATION SESSION – NOVEMBER 2016
1.0 PREAMBLE:
The Board conducts its examinations twice in a year during the months of May and
November. This session is the 84th examination session in which the examinations were
conducted from Tuesday 1st to Friday 4th November 2016
There were 6,917candidates who applied for the examinations, out of whom 635 (9.2%)
were absent, 6,282 sat for the examinations at different levels. The candidature
distribution this session is as shown below:
Table 1: Candidature distribution
EXAMINATION CANDIDATES CANDIDATES % CANDIDATES %
LEVELS APPLIED ABSENT SAT
TECHNICIAN LEVELS
92 8 8.7 84 91.3
ATEC I:
ATEC II: 170 12 7.1 158 92.9
PROFESSIONAL LEVELS
Foundation 454 49 10.8 405 89.2
Intermediate 3925 403 10.3 3522 89.7
Final 2,276 163 7.2 2113 92.8
TOTALS 6,917 635 9.2 6,282 90.8
v
2.0 TREND OF THE EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE
2.1 Candidature Exam Sitting
Candidature enrolment this session has slightly increased by 603 candidates
(9.6%) compared with the November 2015 examination session. There were
6,282 candidates who sat for the November 2016 examinations against 5,679
candidates who sat for the November 2015 examinations.
Table 2 and Graph 1 show candidature trend (candidates who sat for the
examinations) for the eight examination sessions: May 2013 to November 2016.
Table 2
EXAMINATION CANDIDATURE TREND FOR THE PRECEDING EIGHT EXAMINATION
SESSIONS MAY 2013 TO NOVEMBER 2016
ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL

EXAMINATION I II TOTAL
A B C D E F
77th Session May, 2013 125 142 61 93 168 108 2,048 1,297 4,042
78th Session November, 2013 111 162 59 125 168 83 2,556 1,487 4,751
79th Session May, 2014 83 161 68 85 174 90 2,109 1625 4,395
80th Session November, 2014 159 125 372 3,109 2,021 5,786
81st Session May, 2015 159 119 365 3,163 2,011 5,817
82nd Session November, 2015 111 134 364 3,114 1956 5,679
83rd Session May 2016 110 160 445 3,495 2,289 6,499
84th Session November 2016 84 158 405 3522 2,113 6,282
vi
Graph 1
GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION

CANDIDATURE FOR THE PRECEDING EIGHT (8) EXAMINATION SESSIONS
(MAY 2013 TO NOVEMBER 2016)
7,000 6,499
6,282
5,786 5,817 5,679
6,000
4,751
5,000 4,395
No. of Candidates
4,042
4,000
3,000
2,000
1,000
0
May-13 Nov-13 May-14 Nov-14 May-15 Nov-15 May-16 Nov-16
Examination Sessions
vii
2.2 Candidature Distribution – November 2016
Candidature distribution for the November 2016 examination session shows that majority
of the candidates who sat for these examinations were in the Intermediate level
examinations.
The Chart below shows the candidature distribution
Candidature in Intermediate level is highest as most of the candidates who enrol at this
level are those who have completed a three years’ bachelor degree programme or its
equivalent in accounting and enjoy exemptions to sit for the Intermediate Level
examinations. Currently, the Board has recognized 19 accountancy training institutions
whose programmes enjoy such exemption. A tertiary institution which offers bachelor
degree courses related to accountancy courses has to apply to NBAA for its graduands to
be given exemption in the Board’s examinations.
Furthermore, majority of the candidates at this level were those who sat for B5-
Performance Management subject who were referred in P19 Management Accounting in
the previous syllabus. Out of 3,522 candidates who sat for the Intermediate Level
examinations 2,518 (71.5%) sat for Performance Management subject.
Chart 1
Candidature Distribution – November 2016
158
84
405
2,113
ATEC I - 84
ATEC II - 158
FOUNDATION - 405
3,522 INTERMEDIATE - 3,522
FINAL - 2,113
viii
3.0 EXAMINATION PERFORMANCE
3.1 Pass rates for examination levels tested in November 2016
Table 3 shows pass rates in November 2016 examination session

EXAMINATION LEVEL NUMBER OF PASSES PERCENTAGE
ATEC I
Passed 24 28.6
Part passed 23 27.4
ATEC II
Passed 49 31.0
Part passed 69 43.7
FOUNDATION
Passed 209 51.6
Part passed 151 37.3
INTERMEDIATE
Passed 647 18.4
FINAL
Passed 335 15.9
TOTAL PASSES
Passed 1,264 20.1
Part passed 2,120 33.7
NOTE:
Among the candidates who passed Intermediate and Final Levels there were two (02)
candidates with foreign qualifications.
Table 4 shows number of candidates with foreign CPA equivalent qualification who
sat and cleared the subjects with local contents
Subjects Number of entries
A5: Business Law 00
B4: Public Finance and Taxation I only 02
C4: Public Finance and Taxation II only 05
Both B4 & C4: Public Finance and Taxation I 12
and II
Total 19
These candidates are eligible for the award of letters of success and certificates to enable
them register as NBAA members.
ix
3.2 Examination Performance by Gender:
Examination performance by gender in the five examination levels is as indicated on Table 5:

Table 5: Examination performance by gender
Passes Partial Passes Failures Total
Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total Male Female Total
No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. % No. %
ATEC
18 75.0 06 25.0 24 100 15 65.2 08 34.8 23 100 20 50.1 17 45.9 37 100 53 63.1 31 36.9 84 100
Level I
ATEC
28 57.1 21 42.9 49 100 39 71.0 20 29.0 69 100 20 50.0 20 50.0 40 100 97 61.4 61 38.6 158 100
Level II
Foundatio
137 65.9 71 34.1 208 100 91 59.9 61 40.1 152 100 23 51.1 22 48.9 45 100 251 62.0 154 38.0 405 100
n Level
Intermedi
414 64.0 233 36.0 647 100 769 62.0 471 38.0 1,240 100 1,002 61.3 633 38.7 1,635 100 2,185 62.0 1,337 38.0 3,522 100
ate Level
Final
218 65.1 117 34.9 335 100 400 62.8 237 37.2 637 100 716 62.8 425 37.2 1,141 100 1,334 63.1 779 36.9 2,113 100
Level
TOTAL 815 64.5 448 35.5 1,263 20.1 1,324 62.4 797 12.7 2,121 100 1,781 61.5 1,117 38.5 2,898 46.1 3,920 62.4 2,362 37.6 6,282 100
x
CHAPTER I
ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE

During the 84th examination session 6,917 candidates were registered for the Board’s
examinations held in November, 2016, out of whom 635 (9.2%) candidates were absent from the
examinations, 6,282 candidates sat for the examinations. Of the 6,282 candidates who sat for the
examinations, 1,265 (20.1%) candidates passed while 2,119 (33.8%) candidates part passed and a
total of 2,898 (46.1%) candidates failed the examinations. (See Table 5 on page 3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I

The November 2016 examination session was the 5th session since the review of the examinations
structure and syllabi of ATEC. 92 candidates registered themselves for the examination. 8 (8.7%)
candidates were absent. 84 candidates sat for the examination, out of whom 24 (28.6%) passed
hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 23 (27.4%) candidates
have part passed while a total of 37 (44.0%) candidates failed the examination. (See Table 5 on
page3).
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II
The Accounting Technician examinations consist of four subjects. These subjects were tested for
the fifth time this session following the review of the examination structure and syllabi.
In this examination, 170 candidates registered themselves for the examination out of whom 12
(7.1%) candidates were absent. Of the 158 candidates who wrote the examination, 49 (31.0%)
candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 69
(43.7%) candidates have part passed while a total of 40 (25.3%) candidates failed the
examination. (See Table 5 on page3).
FOUNDATION LEVEL
The Foundation Level examinations consist of five subjects. These subjects were tested for the
fifth time this session following the review of the examination structure and syllabi.
In this examination, 454 candidates registered themselves for the examination out of whom 49
(10.8%) candidates were absent. Of the 405 candidates who wrote the examination, 208 (51.4%)
candidates passed hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 152
(37.5%) candidates have part passed while a total of 45 (11.1%) candidates failed the
examination. (See Table 5 on page3).
1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
The Intermediate Level examinations consist of six subjects. As with the Foundation Level
examinations, these subjects were tested for the fifth time this session following the review of the
examination structure.
In this examination, 3,925 candidates registered themselves out of whom 403 (10.3%) candidates
were absent. Of the 3,522 candidates who wrote the examination, 647 (18.4 %) candidates passed
hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at this level. 1240 (35.2%)
candidates have part passed while a total of 1635 (46.4%) candidates failed the examination. (See
Table 5 on page3).
FINAL LEVEL
The Final Level examinations consist of four subjects. These examinations were tested for the
fifth time following review of the examination structure.
In this examination, 2,276 candidates registered themselves for Final Level examinations, out of
whom 163 (7.2%) candidates were absent. Of the 2,113 candidates who wrote the examination,
337 (15.9%) candidates passed, hence becoming eligible for a STATEMENT OF SUCCESS at
this Level. 635 (30.1%) candidates have part passed while a total of 1,141 (54.0%) candidates
failed the examination. (See Table 5 on page3).
CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION
In this examination session, 49 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the ATEC
programme, comprising 21 (42.9%) female candidates and 28 (57.1%) male candidates.
The breakdown of the 49 candidates qualifying for the Accounting Technician Certificate:
· 01 (2.0%) have passed subjects that were remained in ATEC I
· 46 (93.9%) have passed ATEC II
· 02 (4.1%) have passed both ATEC II and remained subjects in ATEC I
On the other hand 420 candidates qualify for the certificate of completion of the CPA programme,
comprising 145 (34.5%) female candidates and 275 (65.5%) male candidates.
The breakdown of the 421 candidates qualifying for the CPA (T):
· 136 (32.4%) passed both Intermediate and Final Level examinations
· 214 (51.0%) have passed Intermediate Level who had already passed Final Level
· 70 (16.6%) passed Final Level examinations this session
2
TABLE 6
GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSIS OF EXAMINATION RESULTS

EXAMINATION ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL
NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %
ENTRIES 92 100 170 100 454 100 3925 100 2276 100 6917 100
ABSENTEES 8 8.7 12 7.1 49 10.8 403 10.3 163 7.2 635 9.2
CANDIDATES WHO 84 91.3 158 92.9 405 89.2 3522 89.7 2113 92.8 6282 90.8
SAT
PASSED 24 28.6 49 31.0 208 51.4 647 18.4 337 15.9 1265 20.1
PART PASSED 23 27.4 69 43.7 152 37.5 1240 35.2 635 30.1 2119 33.7
FAILURES 37 44.0 40 25.3 45 11.1 1635 46.4 1141 54.0 2898 46.1
TOTAL 84 100 158 100 405 100 3522 100 2113 100 6282 100
3
CHAPTER II
PERFORMANCE EVALUATION SUBJECT-WISE
INTRODUCTION
This chapter provides a detailed analysis of performance of candidates in each subject
at each level of the Board’s examinations. General evaluation and assessment of
candidates’ performance at each level and specific assessment of candidates in each
topic examined is analyzed. The Board hopes that this report will provide necessary
guidance to trainers and students for the better results in the Board’s future
examinations.
The November 2016 examination is the fifth examination session under the revised
examination scheme and syllabi. The scheme has a two tier system of five different
levels: two at the Accounting Technician level and three at the Professional level.
A total of 23 examination papers were attempted this session as detailed hereunder:
(a) Accounting Technician Level I with four papers;

(b) Accounting Technician Level II with four papers;
(c) The Foundation Level with five papers;
(d) The Intermediate Level with six papers;
(e) The Final Level with four papers.
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
84 candidates sat for the ATEC I examinations. The performance indicates that 24
(28.6%) candidates passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF
SUCCESS FOR ATEC I. 23 (27.4%) candidates have passed some of the subjects in
this level while 37 (44%) candidates failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown in Table 6.1 below:
TABLE 7.1
ATEC I SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Performance
Paper Subject November 2015 May 2016 November 2016
Code
Entries Pass % Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
T.01 Bookkeeping and Accounts 55 40 72.7 55 37 67.2 39 26 66.7

Elements of Business Maths and
T.02 70 12 17.1 80 31 38.8 65 20 30.8
Statistics
Introduction to Information and
T.03 Communication Technology 96 53 55.2 90 45 50.0 60 33 55.0
T.04
Business Communication Skills 60 41 68.3 61 30 49.2 50 27 54.0
4
GENERAL COMMENTS
T.01 - BOOK-KEEPING AND ACCOUNTS
I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to apply
knowledge of Book keeping and Accounts for recording, posting business
transactions in the book of accounts and preparation of accounting statements in
private and public sector accounts.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER
The paper comprised of three questions whereby candidates were required to
answer all questions. Question one was an objective and carried 60%.
III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS - MULTIPLE CHOICES
Candidates were required to:-
(a) Choose the correct answers among the given four alternatives.
(b) Write whether the given statements were true or wrong.
(c) Match the given set of phrases.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 39
candidates who answered the question, 19 (48.7%) candidates passed
while the remaining 20 (51.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 18 (46.2%) and 01 (2.5%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks respectively. There were no distinction in this question.
Those who failed relied on guessing the answers.
QUESTION 2: A. RECORD AND POST ACCOUNTING TRANSACTIONS
B. PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given information to:
(a) Prepare the journal entries necessary to record the financial
transactions.
(b) Define drawings.
(c) Outline circumstances under which the capital of a business may
change.
(d) Use the capital formula to determine the final capital.
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 39
candidates who answered the question only 16 (41.0%) candidates
passed while the remaining 23 (59.0%) candidates failed. Out of those
who passed 07 (18.0%), 04 (10.2%) and 05 (12.8%) candidates scored
pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most candidates failed to use the given information to answer the
question appropriately.
5
QUESTION 3: A. BANK RECONCILIATION
B. PREPARATION OF CASH BOOK AND PETTY CASH
Candidates were required to use the provided information to:-
(a) Explain four reasons for a cheque to be dishonoured by a bank
(b) Make any necessary entries in the cash book
(c) Prepare a statement of reconciliation.
who passed 06 (15.4%) and 01 (2.5%) candidates scored pass and credit
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
question.
Majority of the candidates failed to identify the reasons for dishonoured
cheque and some failed to prepare the bank reconciliation statement.
IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

(a) Assessment of the paper
The panel of examiners observed that questions were clear and fair. Also
they commented that the Paper was of the standard and rigour required and
could be answered within the allocated time.
(b) Candidates’ overall performance
Candidates’ performance in this paper was satisfactory. Out of 39
candidates who answered the examination, 26 (66.7%) candidates passed
while the remaining 13 (33.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
14 (35.9%), 11 (28.2%) and 01 (2.6%) candidates scored pass, credit and
distinction marks respectively.
The over-all candidates’ performance in the subject is as shown in table 6.1.1
below:
TABLE 7.1.1
T01 – CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
No. of Candidates (Frequency) 13 14 11 01 39
Percentage 33.3 35.9 28.2 2.6 100
TABLE 7.1.2
T.01.COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS
November 2015 November 2016 % decrease
No. of candidates passed % No of candidates passed %
42 72.7 26 66.7 6.0
6
T.02 - ELEMENTS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS
The principal learning outcome of this paper is to build basic skills in the
collection, processing, presentation and interpretation of simple numerical and
statistical knowledge and skills as a tool of learning and understanding related
subjects at higher levels.
The paper comprised of four questions whereby candidates were required to
III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’PERFORMANCE
Candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: MULTIPLECHOICE – VARIOUS TOPICS
Candidates were required to choose the correct answers from the given
alternatives.
passed 27 (41.5%), 02 (3.1%) and 04 (6.2%) candidates scored pass,
credit and distinction marks respectively.
Most candidates failed those questions that needed them to compute
before writing the correct answer.
QUESTION 2: A. BASIC PROBABILITY THEORY
B. MATHEMATICS OF FINANCE
C. MATRICES

(a) Find the probability that a resident is selected at random.
(b) Mention ways to choose a chairperson, vice-chairperson and a
secretary, assuming that one person cannot hold more than one
position.
(c) Solve matrix by determinant rule.
(d) Calculate money that should be deposited at the given ended year.

candidates who answered the question only 18 (27.7%) candidates passed
credit and distinction marks respectively
Most candidates could not apply Venn diagram or rule of addition to
determine say Pr(AUB) for the stated events and fail to apply
combination formula.
7
QUESTION 3: A. METRIC WEIGHTS AND MEASURES
B. MATHEMATICS OF FINANCE
C. MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY
Candidates were required to:

(a) Construct a table to show the book value of the stapler machine and
depreciation charges for the given years.
(b) Calculate balance at the end of the given year.
(c) Find the amount necessary to pay the invoice in full on a given date.
(d) Find the correct value of the arithmetic mean of the marks obtained.

Most candidates were unable to apply reducing balance method, using
formula and calculate cost of items after trade and cash discounts.
QUESTION 4: A. CLASSIFICATION AND PRESENTATION OF DATA
B. MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY
(a) Calculate the median of the given frequency distribution.
(b) (i) Explain the meaning of the statistical term “bar chart”.
(ii) Name two types of bar charts.
(iii) Calculate tax revenue collected by a certain government
department.
(c) Represent information on a bar chart.
Most of the candidates failed to calculate the median and draw bar chart,
instead majority were drawing a histogram.
8
The panel of examiners in assessing the questions was of the opinion that
the question paper was having a mixture of both easy and difficult questions
which demanded the skills and knowledge of the candidate. The question
paper was fair in terms of marks awarded, time allocated and length of
questions, level of candidates and within prescribed syllabus.
Marks distribution was done evenly to each question.
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not satisfactory.
Out of 65 candidates who answered the examination only 20 (30.8%)
candidates passed while the remaining 45 (69.2%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 17 (26.2%) and 03 (4.6%) candidates scored pass and
credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
question.
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table
7.1.3 below:
TABLE 7.1.3
T.02 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

No of Candidates(Frequency) 45 17 03 00 65
69.2 26.2 4.6 0.0 100

Percentage
TABLE 7.1.4
T.02. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015
EXAMINATIONS
November 2015 November 2016 %

No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed % increase
12 17.1 20 30.8 13.7
9
T.03 – INTRODUCTION TO INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION
TECHNOLOGY
The principal learning outcome of the paper is enable candidates to apply
knowledge and skills in information technology to solve problems in the business
environment.

The paper comprised of three questions whereby candidates were required to
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

Candidates were required to;
(a) Choose the best answer from the four given alternatives (A, B, C
or D).
(b) State whether the given statements were true or false.
(c) Match each phrase from the two given lists of phrases.
question.
Most candidates relied on guess work.
QUESTION 2: A. HARDWARE
B. COMPUTER SOFTWARE
C. DATA COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
D. COMMONLY USED APPLICATION PACKAGES
(a) Define Database Management System (DBMS) and give examples.
(b) Mention advantages of using DBMS.
(c) List advantages of having a local area network in an organization.
(d) Describe four types of computers based on their size and
processing speed.
(e) Describe types of computer software and explain their functions in
computer operations.
10
Most candidates could not give examples of Data Base Management
System (DBMS).
QUESTION 3: A. HARDWARE
B. INTERNET AND E-COMMERCE
C. COMPUTER SOFTWARE
D. COMMONLY USED APPLICATION PACKAGES
Candidates were required to use the provided information to:
(a) Describe four major functions of operating system.
(b) Differentiate between the following terms as applied in information
technology:
(i) RAM and ROM.
(ii) Cold boot and warm boot.
(iii) Command Line Interface (CLI) and Graphical User Interface
(GUI).
(c) Elaborate four main components of an integrated accounting
system.
(d) Discuss two key methods of promoting an E-Commerce site, in
terms of Web Marketing.
question.
Majority of candidates could not understand RAM, ROM, cold boot,
warm boot, command line interface and the graphical user interface.
Most of them failed to mention and elaborate key components of an
integrated accounting system.
11

The panel of examiners in assessing the paper were of the opinion that the
paper was fair and the questions tested covered a wide range of the
syllabus. The mixture of the questions was adequate and the distribution of
marks was fair in relation to the time allocated.
(b) Candidates overall performance

Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out
of 60 candidates who answered the examination, 33 (55.0%) candidates
who passed 32 (53.3%), 00 (0.0%) and 01 (1.7%) candidates scored pass,
7.1.5 below:
TABLE 7.1.5
No. of Candidates(Frequency) 27 32 00 01 60
Percentage 45.0 53.3 0.0 1.7 100
TABLE 7.1.6
T.03 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015
EXAMINATIONS

No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed % decrease
53 55.2 33 55.0 0.2
12
T.04 – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION SKILLS

Principal learning outcome of this paper is to enable candidates to master Basic
English language skills and be able to use them for communicating effectively in
business environment.
This paper consisted of six compulsory questions.
Candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: A. WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES

B. DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH
LANGUAGE
The question was in two parts and candidates were required to:
(a) Read a passage and
(i) Suggest the title for the passage.
(ii) Summarize the passage in not more than 150 words.
(b) Punctuate the given paragraph.
candidates who answered the question 24 (48.0%) candidates passed
Some candidates were unable to write summary using own words. They
used words from the passage. Most of them had poor grammar and poor
constructed sentences.
QUESTION 2: DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Candidates were required to use the given information to:-
(a) Re-write the sentences in the correct form.
(b) Choose the correct pronoun from the brackets and fill in the blank
space.
(c) Change the given sentences into simple past tense.
(d) Re-write the sentences according to given instructions.
question.
13
Most candidates were unable to use subordinating words correctly
and/or lack sentence formation knowledge and skills.
QUESTION 3: WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES

(a) Define a ‘business letter’.
(b) State the style and tone of a business letter.
(c) Explain the characteristics of a business letter.
Most candidates listed the characteristics of business letter which usually
are the contents of the style of a business letter.
QUESTION 4: A. DEMONSTRATE LISTENING SKILLS
B. DEMONSTRATE A MASTERY USE OF ENGLISH
LANGUAGE
C. DEMONSTRATE READING SKILLS
(a) Explain the following concepts that are used in business
communication:
(i) Decoding
(ii) Sendee
(iii) Communication barrier
(b) Distinguish between “intensive reading” and “extensive reading”.
(c) Help the seminar members to differentiate between poor and good
listening.

Some candidates were unable to retrieve information learnt, express
themselves and failed to understand contents required by the question.
14
QUESTION 5: A. WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES
B. DEMONSTRATE VISUAL AND ORAL COMMUNICATION
SKILLS
Candidates were required to use the given information to;
(a) Explain general steps that you will be considered while preparing
oral presentation.
(b) Read and re-write the given memo correctly.
Most candidates were unable to write a memo and its components. With
no doubt, poor language skills made most candidates fail to list eight steps
of the oral presentation.
QUESTION 6: A. VARIOUS TOPICS – MULTIPLE CHOICES
(a) Choose the most correct answer from the given alternatives.
(b) Write whether the given statements were true or false.
candidates, 43 (86.0%) candidates passed while the remaining 07
(14.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 26 (52.0%), 12
(24.0%) and 05 (10.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
No any major weakness was noted. The question had good distribution
of items from knowledge testing to the highest order items like
synthesis, evaluation and analysis.
15
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, clear and well
spread within the syllabus. They found the questions to be within reach of
well-prepared candidates. The questions were also fair in relation to the
time allocated.
examination paper.
7.1.7 below:
TABLE 7.4.1
No. of Candidates(Frequency) 23 26 01 00 50
Percentage 46.0 52.0 2.0 0.0 100
TABLE 7.1.8
T.04 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS

No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed %
41 63.8 27 54.0 9.8
16
ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN EXAMINATION LEVEL II
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this level, 158 candidates sat for the examinations, out of whom 49 (30.0%) passed, 69
(43.7%) candidates passed various subjects in this level while 40 (25.3%) failed the
examination. The 49 candidates who passed are eligible for the Board's award of the
STATEMENT OF SUCCESS FOR ATEC II. The general performance subject-wise is
as shown on table 7.2 below:
TABLE 7.2
ATEC II SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS

Paper Subject Performance
Code No. November 2015 May 2016 November 2016
T.05 Principles of
Accounting and 115 54 46.9 126 50 39.7 123 78 63.4
Auditing
T.06 Principles of Cost
Accounting and 80 25 31.3 113 48 42.5 111 28 25.2
Procurement
T.07 Elements of
Commercial
Knowledge, 73 53 72.6 92 53 57.6
Management 88 71 80.7
Practices and
Taxation
T.08 Accounting for
Public Sector and 98 44 44.9 116 54 46.6 104 57 54.8
Cooperatives
T.05 - PRINCIPLES OF ACCOUNTING AND AUDITING

The principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates on application of
basic concepts and principles of accounting in preparing and interpreting
accounting statements and reports on a practical context as per IAS 1 and apply
audit knowledge in appraising data and assisting audit staff during audit
undertakings.
The paper consisted of four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
question which carried 40%.
In this paper, candidates were tested on the following topics:
17
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
Candidates were required to choose the most correct answer among the
four given alternatives.
QUESTION 2: INTEPRETATON OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

(a) Candidates were required to list and describe five ratios which
should be assessed when looking at the short term liquidity of a firm.
(b) Candidates were required to calculate the following ratios for each
business:
(i) Gross profit as percentage of sales
(ii) Net profit as percentage of sales
(iii) Expenses as percentage of sales
(iv) Stock turnover
(v) Current ratio
(vi) Acid test ratio
(vii) Debtor/sales ratio
The major weakness noted in this question was that it seemed the stock
turnover was not well understood by most of the candidates.
QUESTION 3: STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWS
(a) Prepare a Statement of cash flows for the year and the note
reconciling profit before tax with cash generated from operations
(Using indirect method).
(b) Write a memorandum to a director summarizing the major benefits
a user receives from a published statement of cash flows
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of
123 candidates who answered the question, only 02 (1.6%) candidates
passed while the remaining 121 (98.4%) candidates failed. Those
2(1.6%) who passed scored pass marks, there were neither credit nor
distinction marks.
18
Major weaknesses noted to this question include; failure of most
candidates to respond to the requirements of the question, and lack of
basic knowledge on cash flows.
QUESTION 4: INTRODUCTION TO AUDITING
(a) (i) Explain the criteria employed by the external auditor to assess
the likely effectiveness and relevance of the internal audit functions.
(ii) Outline the differences between the internal and external audit.
(b) Explain briefly the benefits of audit planning
The noted weakness was that candidates who performed poorly in this
question failed to provide the difference between internal audit and
external audit.
19
(a) Assessment of the Examination
The panel of examiners was of the opinion that the examination was fair,
clearly worded and appropriately spread within the syllabus.
passed while the remaining 51(41.4%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 64 (52.0%) and 14 (11.4%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. There was no distinction mark.
7.2.2 below:
TABLE 7.2.1
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES (FREQUENCY) 45 64 14 00 123
PERCENTAGE 36.6 52.0 11.4 0.0 100
TABLE 7.2.2
November 2015 November 2016 % increase
54 46.9 78 63.4 16.5
20
T.06 - PRINCIPLES OF COST ACCOUNTING AND PROCUREMENT
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates on application of
terminologies, methods, techniques and principles of Cost Accounting and
Procurement for providing management with information for decision making,
planning and controlling business operations.
The paper comprised of four questions. Question one was an objective type which
carried 40%.
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICES
(a) Choose the most correct answers from the given alternative
statements.
(b) Write short notes for each of the given concepts.
(c) Match the phrases given in column B with items in column A.
111 candidates who answered the question, Only 25 (22.5%) candidates
who passed 24 (21.6%), 2 and 01 (0.9%) candidates scored pass and
credit marks respectively.
QUESTION 2: NATURE, MEANING, IMPORTANCE AND SCOPE OF COST
ACCOUNTING, COST CLASSIFICATION AND CODING
(a) Describe four possible users of the cost accounting information.
(b) Use the high-low method, estimate the liner relationship.
(c) Describe the type of information (financial and non-financial) which
are likely to be useful to the directors in assessing the pros and cons
of the relocation proposal.
candidates who answered the question, only 28 (25.3%) candidates
passed while 83 (74.7%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 25
(22.5%), 02 (1.8%) and 01 (1.0%) candidates scored pass, credit and
Most candidates showed weakness in the high-low method of estimating
cost activity linear relationship.
21
QUESTION 3: ACCOUNTING FOR MATERIALS, LABOUR AND OVERHEAD
COSTS
Candidates were required to show the total overheads chargeable to the

two production departments by using repeated distribution method.
111 candidates who answered the question, only1 (0.9%) candidate
passed while the remaining 110 (99%) candidates failed. Only 1 (0.9 %)
candidate who passed scored a pass mark. There were neither credit nor
distinction marks in this question.
The major weakness noted in this question was that candidates failed to
allocate overhead charges to service department.
QUESTION4: INTRODUCTION TO PROCUREMENT
(a) Explain the term ‘public procurement.
(b) Differentiate between ‘value chain’ and ‘supply chain’
(c) Identify and describe five importance of inventory classification.

candidates, 56 (50.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 55 (49.5%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 34 (30.6%), 15 (13.5%) and
07 (6.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
Most of candidates who failed the question were very brief in attempting
this question, hence gave insufficient required information about the
question. This led to scoring low marks.
22
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, clearly worded
and within the prescribed syllabus. The examination questions were well
mixed, containing computational as well theoretical questions and could
have easily been answered by an average prepared candidate within the
allocated time of three hours.
(b) Candidates Overall Performance
Candidates’ performance in this question paper was not satisfactory. Out
of 111 candidates who answered the examination, only 28 (25.2%)
candidates passed while the remaining 83 (74.8%) candidates failed. No
candidate scored credit nor distinction marks in this paper

7.2.3 below:
TABLE 7.2.3
CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 83 28 00 00 111
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 74.8 25.2 0.0 0.0 100
TABLE 7.2.4
T.06. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS
NOVEMBER 2015 NOVEMBER 2016 % decrease
25 31.3 28 25.2 6.1
23
T.07 - ELEMENTS OF COMMERCIAL KNOWLEDGE, MANAGEMENT
PRACTICES AND TAXATION
Principal learning outcome for this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge of commerce, commercial laws, management and taxation in
managing business functions.
The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an
objective type which carried 40%.

(a) Choose the most correct answer from the four given alternatives.
(b) Match the items in list A with those in list B to produce complete and
meaningful sentences.
while the remaining 09 (10%) candidates failed. Out of those who
credit mark and distinction marks respectively.
No major weakness was noted in this question
QUESTION 2: LAW OF NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS

(a) State the types of bill of exchange and their main characteristics.
(b) Write brief notes on the following insurance principles:
(i) Principle of indemnity
(ii) Principle of good faith
(iii) Principle of contribution
(iv) Principle of subrogation
(v) Principle of insurable interest
24
Majority of candidates failed to distinguish the type of bill of exchange,
though they managed to show their main characteristics.
QUESTION 3: ADVERTISEMENT
(a) Name and explain five advantages and five disadvantages of
advertisement
(b) Name and explain five procurement methods recognized by law in
Tanzania
Most of candidates failed to list and explain the advantages,
disadvantages of advertisement and procurement methods recognised by
law in Tanzania.
QUESTION 4: (i) TAX ADMINISTRATION
(ii) OFFICE RECORDS MANAGEMENT

(a) Analyse various sources of non-tax revenue.
(b) Provide four examples of tax evasion in Tanzania.
(c) Mention the advantages and disadvantages of alphabetical
classification in the office records management.
while the remaining 29(33.0%) candidates failed. Out of those who
Most of candidates who failed were not conversant in the question
concerning tax administration.
25
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair in relation to the
level of candidate examined, with mixture of easy and difficult questions
and could be answered within the allocated time of three hours by an
average prepared candidate.
(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance
who passed 52 (59.1%) and 19 (21.6%) candidates scored pass and
The candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on table 7.2.6
below:
TABLE 7.2.6
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
PERCENTAGE 19.3 59.1 21.6 0.0 100
TABLE 7.2.7
53 72.6 71 80.7 8.1
26
T.08 ACCOUNTING FOR PUBLIC SECTOR AND COOPERATIVES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to apply
public sector and cooperative accounting knowledge and skills to manage
government and cooperative funds economically, efficiently and effectively in
accordance with the constitution, laws, rules and regulations in one or more
specialised fields.
The paper comprised of four compulsory questions. Question one was an
objective type which carried 40%.
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLECHOICES
(a) Choose the most correct answer among the given alternatives.
(b) To match the terms in group B with their respective statements in
group A
(c) To write whether the given statement is true or false.

while 57(54.8%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 46
(44.2%) and 01 (1.0%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. There were no distinction marks.
Most of candidates were not competent in various topics tested in this
question.
QUESTION 2: a) NON-VOTE ACCOUNTS AND PUBLIC STORES
b) LOSSES OF GOVERNMENT MONEY AND PROPERTY
c) ACCOUNTING FOR GOVERNMENT REVENUE AND
EXPENDITURE
(a) Candidates were required to prepare a statement of Vote Account
(b) Candidates were required to use the given statement to:
(i) Explain conditions upon which the Accounting Officer may
authorize the write off of stores.
(ii) Explain the procedure to be followed by Public Officers in
reporting of loss and actions taken by officers on occurrence of
loss.
(c) Candidates were required to explain the classification of government
revenue.
27
104 candidates who answered the question, only 01 (0.9%) candidate
passed while the remaining 103 (99.0%) candidates failed.
The major weakness noted in this question was that almost all
candidates did not understand the requirements of the question hence
confused with the appropriation statement format.
QUESTION 3: a) PRACTICAL ISSUES ON ADOPTION OF IPSAS IN

TANZANIA
b) LOCAL GOVERNMENT BUDGETING PROCESS.
c) TERMINAL BENEFITS AND PENSION CALCULATIONS.
Candidates were required to use the given statement to:
(a) Explain the challenges and the way forward for adoption of accrual
based IPSASs in Tanzania.
(b) Explain on the steps followed in local government planning circle
and the roles for VEO, WEO and FC.
(c) Use the information provided to work out on the following:
(i) Annual Pension
(ii) Commuted Pension
(iii) Reduced annual pension
104 candidates, only 12 (11.5%) candidates passed while the remaining
92 (88.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 07 (6.7%), 03
(2.9%) and 02 (1.9%) scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
The major weakness noted in this question is a failure of most of
candidates to recall the formula for computation of annual commuted
and reduced pension. Also candidates confused with planning cycle
with planning levels.
QUESTION 4: CONCEPTS AND EMERGENCE OF COOPERATIVES
(a) Give five advantages of cooperative enterprises.
(b) Explain factors contribute to the establishment of cooperative
societies.
(c) Explain common features of a cooperative society.
(d) Explain factors necessary for success of consumer co-operatives.
104 candidates, 39 (37.5%) candidates passed while the remaining
65(62.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 32 (30.8%), 06
28
(5.8%) and 01 (0.9%) scored pass, credit and distinction marks
respectively.
Most of candidates who failed in this question were lacking basic
competency and understanding of cooperative societies.

The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced
containing a mixture of computational as well as theoretical questions. It
was further found to be within the syllabus and that it could have been done
within the time allocated of three hours.
(b) Candidates’ Overall Performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of
104 candidates who answered the examination 57 (54.8%) candidates
passed while the remaining 47 (45.2%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 56 (53.8%) and 01 (1.0) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this paper.
below:
TABLE 7.2.8
0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL
PERCENTAGE 45.2 53.8 1.0 0 100
TABLE 7.2.9
T.08. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS
44 44.9 57 54.8 9.9
29
INTRA-LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE – ATEC I
AND ATEC II LEVELS
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabus, the Board does not allow its
candidates to attempt both levels. However, it allowed those who were caught in
transition from the phased out syllabus to the new syllabus during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 40 candidates who sat examination papers
in the ATEC I and II Levels.
Their performance is as indicated hereunder:
ATEC I & II
S/No. COMBINATION
Number Percent
1 Pass Both 2 05.0
2 Pass ATEC I, Partial Pass ATEC II 5 12.5
3 Pass ATEC I, Fail ATEC II 1 02.5
4 Partial Pass ATEC I, Pass ATEC II 0 00.0
5 Partial Pass Both 3 07.5
6 Partial Pass ATEC I, Fail ATEC II 1 02.5
7 Fail ATEC I, Pass ATEC II 11 27.5
8 Fail ATEC I, Partial Pass ATEC II 9 22.5
9 Fail Both 8 20.0
Total 40 100.0
30
PROFESSIONAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
FOUNDATION LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
This is the first level of the Board’s three tier professional examination scheme which
leads to the Certified Public Accountant [CPA (T)] award.
The Foundation level examinations comprise of five subjects as indicated hereunder:
A1 Quantitative Techniques
A2 Business and Management
A3 Accounting
A4 Business Information
A5 Business Laws
The examinations draw candidates from two main sources, namely:-
(a) Those candidates who have successfully completed the Board’s Accounting
Technician Level examinations.
(b) Those candidates who have acquired non-accounting first degree (or its equivalent)
qualifications awarded by institutions of higher learning in the country recognized
by the Board.
During the November 2016 examination session, a total of 364 candidates sat for
Foundation Level examinations.
The figure indicated above includes 128 candidates who sat for both Foundation and
Intermediate level examinations, whose performance analysis is shown at the end of
Intermediate Level Report.
GENERAL OBSERVATIONS
In this examination 405 candidates sat for the examination out of whom 209 (51.6%)
passed and therefore become eligible for the STATEMENT OF SUCCESS for the
Foundation Level. 152 (37.5%) have passed some of the subjects while 45 (11,1%)
candidates failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 7.3 below:
TABLE 7.3
SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Paper Performance
Code Subject November 2015 May 2016 November 2016
No. Entries Pass % Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
A1 Quantitative 151 76 50.3 182 128 70.3 168 123 73.2
Techniques
A2 Business and 135 107 79.3 160 150 93.8 150 141 94.0
Management
A3 Accounting 206 112 54.4 303 221 72.9 301 221 73.4
A4 Business Information 246 163 66.2 321 254 79.1 288 171 59.4
A5 Business Law 155 103 66.5 180 127 70.6 168 140 83.3
31
QUESTION -WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
A1 – QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to apply
knowledge and skills of mathematical and quantitative techniques, concepts and
tools in the day to day accounting and business functions and decision making.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER
The paper consisted of three compulsory questions. Question one was an
objective question which carried 60%.
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE
For each of the statements provided candidates were required to use the
given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer:-
There were no major weakness noted in this question. However there

were guess work among the candidates.
QUESTION 2: INVENTORY PLANNING AND CONTROL, QUEUING
MODELS AND SIMULATION
The candidates were required to use the data provided to:
(a) Simulate the demand for the given period and to find out the
average demand per day.
(b) Use the given statement to determine the:-
(i) Average number of customers in the queue
(ii) Average time in the queue
(iii) Probability that an arriving customer has to wait for the
service.
(c) Use the given case to determine:-
(i) The quantity that must be ordered routinely in order to
minimize total cost.
(ii) The minimum total inventory cost.

168 candidates who answered the question only 53 (31.5%) candidates
32
Majority of the candidates who failed could not apply simulation

techniques and appropriate EOQ models and others could not manage to
apply appropriate formulas for computing operating characteristics for
using line models.
QUESTION 3: I. CALCULUS AND THEORY OF THE FIRM,
II. LINEAR REGRESSION AND CORRELATION ANALYSIS
AND RANDOM VARIABLE,
III. PROBABILITY DISTRIBUTION AND ELEMENTS OF
DECISION ANALYSIS
(a) From the given data, candidates were required to:
(i) Calculate the equation of the least squares regression line
of the given variables in the form of y = a + bx.
(ii) Plot the data on a scatter diagram.
(b) Candidates were again given equations of the price and cost of
production for a particular commodity, and they were required to
determine.
(i) Marginal cost at the given level of production
(ii) Marginal revenue at the given level of sales
(iii) Marginal cost at that given level of revenue.
(c) From a given probability distribution function of the given
variable, candidates were required to:-
(i) Show that it is a probability distribution function.
(ii) Find mean.
Despite of the fact that the question was clear and within the scope of the
candidates’ level, majority plotted a line graph instead of scatter diagram,
some could not interpret the given cost function where others failed to
find mean.
33
(a) Assessment of the Paper
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set, well balanced with
a good mixture of theoretical and computational questions. Time allocated
to the questions was adequate to enable an average candidate to fully
complete the examination.
(b) Candidates’ performance
examination paper.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.3.1
below:
TABLE 7.3.1
A1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
PERCENTAGE 26.8 52.4 20.8 00 100
TABLE 7.3.2
A.1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS
76 50.3 123 73.2 22.9
34
A2 – BUSINESS AND MANAGEMENT
Principal learning outcome of this subject is to test candidates’ ability to apply
concepts and principles of business and management in business environment.
The paper consisted of three questions which were compulsory. Question one was
an objective question which comprised of 60%.
In this examination session, candidates were tested on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS:
given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer.

Although the performance was satisfactory, some candidates did not
know the answers they were simply guessing.
QUESTION 2: BUSINESS AND ORGANISATION CULTURE
(a) (i) Define the concept of organizational culture.
(ii) Critically examine the significance of organizational
culture to a manager’s performance in a firm.
(b) (i) Explain four attributes of a healthy organizational culture.

(ii) Explain how the Administrative Manager ensures his/her
department serves the organization as a purely support
function for smooth day to day operations.
No major weakness was found in this question.
35
QUESTION 3: TYPES OF BUSINESS ENTITIES; ORGANISATIONAL
STRUCTURES; ORGANISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
(a) List and explain five disadvantages of partnership form of
organization.
(b) Identify and explain three disadvantages of matrix structure.
(c) Discuss four factors affecting organizational behaviour.
(d) Discuss how they would manage the factors which affect
organizational behaviour that are identified in (c) above.

candidates who answered the question, 29 (19.3%) candidates scored pass
marks while the remaining 121 (80.7%) candidates failed. There was
neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.
Bad performance in this question was earmarked from the fact that
candidates were not well prepared for the examined topic.
36
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fairly set and well spread
within the syllabus which resulted to the candidates’ good performance.
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of
150 candidates who answered the examination, 141 (94%) candidates
passed while the remaining 9 (6%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 111 (74%) and 30 (20%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this examination
paper.
Candidates’ over-all performance in the subject is as shown on Table 7.3.3
below:
TABLE 7.3.3
CLASSIFICATION OF MARKS 0-39 40-59 60- 80-100 TOTAL
79
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 6 74 20 00 100
TABLE 7.3.4
A2 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015
EXAMINATIONS
107 79.3 141 94 14.7
37
A3 – ACCOUNTING

Principal learning outcome off this paper is to examine candidates’ ability to
apply knowledge and skills in recording financial transactions and preparing
financial statements for an entity including not for profit entities in accordance
with the IFRSs and IPSASs,
The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
The A3 – Accounting subject this session tested candidates on the following
topics:

given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer: -
Despite of the good performance in this question, some candidates
appeared to be unfamiliar with accounting treatment of some items. This
is an indication that they did not grasp well the knowledge in class before
doing the examinations.
QUESTION 2: PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS FOR NOT
FOR PROFIT ENTITIES
From the given information of a not for profit entity, candidates were
required to:-
(a) Calculate profit on café operations and profit on sale of sports
equipment.
(b) Prepare statement of subscription income for the given period.
(c) Prepare statement of Income and Expenditure for the year ended
(d) Prepare Statement of Financial Position as at the year end.
301 candidates who answered the question, 05 (1.7%) candidates scored
pass marks while the remaining 296 (98.3%) candidates failed. There
was neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.
38
Bad performance in this question suggests that candidates were not well
prepared in tackling questions related to this topic.
QUESTION 3: PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS IN

ACCORDANCE WITH INTERNATIONAL FINANCIAL
REPORTING STANDARDS
From the given information candidates were required to prepare:
(a) Statement of profit or loss for the year ended.
(b) Statement of Financial Position as at the end of the year.
passed 103 (34.2%), 106 (35.2%) and 19 (6.3%) candidates scored
pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Some candidates failed to calculate year end debtors and tax liability
balances others treated bank overdraft as current assets instead of
current liability.
QUESTION 4: ADJUSTMENTS TO ACCOUNT BALANCES AND

FINANCIAL STATEMENT
Candidates were required:

(a) Differentiate between ‘error of omission’ and ‘error of
commission.
(b) From the errors detected as a result of trial balance disagreement,
candidates were required to:
(i) To show journal entries to correct those errors.
(ii) Prepare a statement to show correction of the profit figure.
candidates who answered the question, 228 (75.75%) candidates
passed while the remaining 73 (24.25%) candidates failed. Out of
those who passed 103 (34.2%), 106 (35.2%) and 19 (6.3%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Majority of the candidates did well in this question to the extent that
no major weakness was found.
39
The panel of examiners found the paper to be fair with adequate coverage
of the syllabus. The panel also observed that candidates could manage to
complete the examination within the allocated time.
(b) Candidates’ Performance
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory. Out of 301
candidates who answered the examination, 221 (73.4%) candidates passed while
the remaining 80 (26.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 149
(49.5%), 68 (22.6%) and 04 (1.3%) candidates scored pass, credit and distinction
marks respectively.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on Table
8.1.5 below:
TABLE 7.3.5

CLASSIFICATION OF 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
MARKS
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 26.6 49.5 22.6 1.3 100
TABLE 7.3.6
A3 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS
112 54.4 221 73.4 19
40
A4 – BUSINESS INFORMATION

knowledge of cost analysis and awareness of information technology to produce
accurate and useful information to support management in decision-making and
its application in performance management.

The paper comprised four compulsory questions. Question one was an objective
In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS: MULTIPLE CHOICE

given four alternatives to choose the most correct answer:-
question.
No common weakness was observed.
QUESTION 2: DECISION-MAKING
(a)Calculate payback period
(b) Calculate the Net Present Value of the proposed investment and
comment on the results
who answered the question 192 (66.7%) candidates passed, while the
remaining 96 (33.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 86
(29.9%), 73 (25.3%) and 33 (11.5%) candidates scored pass, credit
and distinction marks respectively
Most candidates failed to understand the requirement “ignore taxation
and capital allowances”. Consequently, they included depreciation
charges and/or fixed cost in the analysis.
41
QUESTION 3: FORECASTING AND BUDGETING
(a) Candidates were required to prepare and present profit statements
using:-
(i) Conventional absorption costing.
(ii) Activity based costing.
(b) Comment on why activity based costing is considered to present a
fair valuation of the product cost per unit.
Out of 288 candidates who answered the question only, 66 (23.0%)
candidates passed while the remaining 222 (77.0%) candidates failed.
Out of those who passed 42 (15.0%), 13(4.5%) and 11 (3.5%) candidates
Candidates demonstrated poor computation skills
QUESTION 4: COSTING
Candidates were required to use the given information and data to:-
(a) Calculate the expected output for each of the product at the split off
point
(b) Explain what products should be processed further
(c) Calculate the treatment of joint costs in deciding products to process
further
candidates who answered the question only, 12 (4.2%) candidates passed
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Candidates demonstrated poor computation skills.
42
VI: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced
containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that more comprehensive questions with knowledge based
and case study be provided.
(b) Overall Candidates performance
marks respectively.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown on table
7.3.8 Below.
TABLE 7.8.8.
PERCENTAGE 40.6 49.0 10.4 0.0 100
TABLE 7.3.9
A4 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015
EXAMINATIONS
NOVEMBER 2015 November 2016 % decrease
163 66.2 171 59.4 6.8
43
A5 – BUSINESS LAWS
theories, practices and laws governing business in providing accounting services
and protecting business against unnecessary litigations.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTION PAPER:
The paper comprised seven questions. Candidates were required to answer five
Questions.
In this examination session, candidates were examined on the following topics:
QUESTION 1: SOURCE OF LAW AND LEGAL SYSTEM
Candidates were required to use the given statement to:
(a) State and explain ‘private law’. Provide any two examples
(b) Briefly state and explain the following:-
(i) Residence Magistrate Court
(ii) Primary Court
(c) (i) identify the people who are legally entitled to initiate
proceedings in the case given
(ii) Identify the culprit in the case to be implicated
(iii) Show the nature of remedy likely to be given
(iv) Explain the appropriate branches of law to be used in each of
the identified case.
No major common weakness was observed.
QUESTION 2: NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS
Candidates were required to explain:-
(a) Meaning and features of ‘Negotiable Instruments’
(b) The laws regulating negotiable instruments
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out

of 113 candidates who answered the question only 43 (38.1%)
Out of those who passed 27 (23.9%), 14 (12.4%) and 2 (1.8%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
A number of candidates failed to answer part “B” of the question.
44
QUESTION 3: TORTS AND PRODUCT LIABILITY
Candidates were required to write brief notes on the following:
(a) Duty of care
(b) Professional negligence
(c) Vicarious liability
(d) Tortuous liability
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of
120 candidates who answered the question, 91 (75.8%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Explaining what professional negligence was seemed to be difficulty
to most candidates.
QUESTION 4: LABOUR DISPUTE RESOLUTIONS
In the context of the law relating to employment and labour
relations, candidates were required to:-
(a) Explain the meaning of a ‘strike’
(b) Mention and explain the conditions to be fulfilled before
employees can engage in lawful strike.
(c) Mention and explain the institutions responsible for labour
disputes resolutions in Tanzania.
100 candidates who answered this question 80 (80.0%) candidates
scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively.
Some candidates failed to mention the institutions that deals with
employment disputes
QUESTION 5: COMPANY LAW AND INSOLVENCY
(a) In the context of the law relating to companies in Tanzania
candidates were required to:
(i) Define a “liquidator”
(ii) Mention and explain at least four powers of a liquidator in
winding up of a company by court
(b) Use the given information to decide whether the charge created
over the book debts of the company given is a fixed charge or a
floating charge
45
Some candidates failed to distinguish between fixed charge and floating

charge.
QUESTION 6: COMPANY LAW AND INSOLVENCY
(a)
Use the given information advise on the following situations from
the given scenario.
(i) The consequences for John and Hemed of continuing to
trade through the company in its present state
(ii) The suitability of company voluntary arrangement or
administration and the steps to be taken
(iii) The last-minute possibility of a winding up, preferably
without the involvement of the court. Explain procedure
(iv) Explain to the given persons what steps the the given bank
could take
(v) Explain the steps that unsecured creditors can take
(b) Define “debenture”

(c) Explain what would be the consequences of a breach of duty by a
creditor
Some candidates failed to raise and defend the issues accordingly
46
QUESTION 7: COMPANIES AND OTHER FORMS OF BUSINESS ORGANISATIONS
(a) With reference to the Law of Contract Act, Cap 345 candidates were
required to:
(i) Mention and explain the general duties of partners
(ii) Mention and explain any three (3) circumstances in which acts
of a partner would not bind the firm and the other partners
(b) With reasons to show whether the given partner in the case had any
liability to repay the TZS 3,000,000/- to the other given partner.
No major common weakness was noted.
47
The panel of examiners found the examination to be fair, well balanced
containing both easy and moderate questions which were relevant to the
candidates’ level and was well within the prescribed syllabus. It was
examiners view that trainer should make efforts of making sure that during
training, candidates are emphasised to make relevant citations from
relevant authorities.
(b) Overall Candidates performance
pass, credit and distinction marks.
The candidates’ overall performance in the subject is as shown in table
7.3.10 Below:
TABLE 7.3.10
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 16.7 39.9 39.3 4.2 100
TABLE 7.3.11
A5. COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015
EXAMINATIONS
No. of candidates % No. of candidates passed %
passed
103 66.5 140 83.3 16.8
48
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Intermediate level examinations are the second level of the Board’s professional
examinations under the current examination scheme and syllabus. This examination level
consists of six subjects as shown hereunder:-
B1 Financial Management
B2 Financial Accounting
B3 Auditing Principles and Practices
B4 Public Finance and Taxation I
B5 Performance Management
B6 Management, Governance and Ethics
Under this examination scheme and syllabus, a candidate is required to complete
Foundation Level before moving to Intermediate Level. However, candidates who were
caught in the transition from the phased out syllabus to the current syllabus were allowed
to cross the levels.
During the November 2016 examination session, a total of 3,522 candidates sat for
Intermediate Level examinations.
The figure indicated above includes 1,267 candidate who sat for both Intermediate and
Final level examinations, whose performance analysis is shown at the end of these levels’
report.
The examination draws candidates from the following sources:
(a) Candidates who have been referred previously in the respective corresponding
subjects.
(b) Candidates who have majored in accounting in their bachelor degree programmes from
recognized institutions.
49
GENERAL PERFORMANCE
In this session 3,522 candidates sat for the Intermediate Level Examinations out of
whom 647 (18.4%) have passed this level and therefore become eligible for the
STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 1,240 (35.2%) have passed some of the subjects while
1,635 (46.4%) candidates have failed the examination.
The general performance subject-wise is as shown on Table 7.4 below:
TABLE 7.4.1
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL SUBJECT-WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Paper Performance
Code Subject May 2015 November 2015 November 2016
No. Entries Pass % Entries Pass % Entries Pass %
B1 Financial Management 754 205 27.2 1077 253 23.5 1279 416 32.5
B2 Financial Accounting 745 318 42.7 941 352 37.4 1172 386 32.9
B3 Auditing Principles and 662 355 53.6 948 665 69.1 1106 500 45.2
Practices
B4 Public Finance & Taxation 701 556 79.3 879 246 28.0 1180 556 47.1
I
B5 Performance Management 2,567 754 29.4 2,371 537 22.6 2518 816 32.4
B6 Management, Governance 560 526 93.9 794 730 91.9 914 649 71.0
& Ethics
50
B1 FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Principal learning outcome of this examination paper is to test candidates’ ability
to apply financial management knowledge and skills in valuing various assets as
well as businesses, in evaluating investment opportunities, in forecasting and
planning financial needs of a firm, in deciding on the level of debt financing to
use relative to equity capital, in determining the level of working capital to carry
in a business and in deciding on the share of the earnings after tax between
retained earnings and shareholders.

The paper had two sections A and B, with seven questions carrying 20 marks
each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any
other four out of six questions in Section B.

The following topics were tested in this paper:-
QUESTION 1: INVESTMENT DECISION:

FINANCING DECISIONS
Candidates were required to use the given information of a given
company to:
(a) Examine both models and recommend to given company which of
the two models they should go ahead with
(b) (i) Explain how the Capital Asset Pricing Model can be used to
calculate a project-specific discount rate.
(ii)Discuss the limitations of using the Capital Asset Pricing Model
in investment appraisal.
(c) Explain why it is important to know the cost of capital.
1279 candidates who answered the question only 570 (44.6%)
candidates scored pass, credit and distinction marks respectively
Most candidates demonstrated poor computational skills and they
explained meaning of the cost of capital instead of its importance
51
QUESTION 2: INVESTMENT DECISION IN SECURITIES AND PORTIFOLIO
THEORY
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information related to a
company which produces and sells detergent products to:-
(i) Briefly discuss its significance to a financial manager.
(ii) Explain the differences between the semi-strong form and the
strong form of market efficiency and how each can be tested.
(b) (i) For each stock calculate the expected returns and total risk
(variance and standard deviation).
(ii) Calculate the covariance of the returns of the two stocks.

(iii) Use the given scenario to compute the expected returns and
risk of each portfolio and explain the risk-return characteristic
of each portfolio
Out of those who passed 95 (9.3%) and 24 (2.3%) candidates scored
pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction
marks in this question.
Most candidates failed to calculate risk and return on projects
QUESTION 3: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT; COMPLEX
INVESTMENT APPRAISAL
Candidates were required to use the provided information to compute
and state whether:
(a) Should the discount policy be implemented? Justify with
computations and interpreted the answer.
(b) Use the given information related to company’s by :-
(i) Using the Miller-Orr Model, determine the optimal cash
balance, the upper and lower limit of cash needed and average
cash balance (Assume a year has 360 days).
(ii) Briefly explain what the firm will do when each of the limits is
reached and/or breached.
(c) Discuss the key factors which determine the level of investment in
current assets.
52
Most candidates failed to use Miller- Orr Model to determine effect of
the discount policy
QUESTION 4: DIVIDEND POLICY

Candidates were required to use the given company’s information to
draw conclusion using MM theory and other related dividends theories:
(a) According to Modigliani and Miller (M & M) theory, dividend
policy is irrelevant in a world of frictionless capital market. How
did Miller and Modigliani arrive to this conclusion?
(b) Discuss, using appropriate theories, any three determinants of
dividend policy and decisions in real world.
(c) With supporting computations, explain how given company value
will be affected.
(i) If it does not pay any dividend
(ii) If it pays the TZS.15 dividend
Most candidates failed to provide arguments in favour of M&M
Dividends Theory and its effect to business valuation using appropriate
computations
QUESTION 5: INVESTMENT DECISIONS
Candidates were required to use the given company’s information to:
(a) Calculate and comment on the sensitivity of the investment in the new
machine to a change in the following variables:
(i) Sales revenue
(ii) Sales volume
(iii) Variable costs
(iv) Fixed costs
(v) Economic life
(b) Use the given information of the concerning company to:
(i) Discuss the nature and causes of capital rationing in the context of
investment appraisal.
(ii) Explain how this problem can be overcome in reaching an

optimum investment decision for a company.
53
1080 candidates, only 123(11.4%) candidates passed while the
remaining 957 (88.6%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed
91(08.4%), 30 (02.8%) and 02(0.2%) candidates scored pass, credit and
distinction marks respectively
Most of candidate failed to compute and interpreted the sensitivity of
investment due to change in stated variables
QUESTION 6: FINANCING DECISIONS;

(a) Evaluate whether given company should use leasing or borrowing
as a source of finance, explaining the evaluation method used in the
calculations
(b) Critically discuss the reasons behind the differences in the yields to
maturity of the two bonds
Most Candidates failed to compute present value of both cost of leasing
and cost of borrowing
QUESTION 7: WORKING CAPITAL MANAGEMENT; INVESTMENT
DECISION
Candidates were required to use the given information to state:
(a) If the current bad debt loss is 1 percent of sales and the required rate
of return in investment is 20 percent, which credit policy should be
undertaken? Ignore taxation, and assume a year with 360 days.
(b) Critically evaluate the internal rate of return as a capital investment
appraisal technique.
Out of 475 candidates who answered the question only 05 (1.1%)
candidates scored pass marks while the remaining 470 (98.9%)
candidates failed. There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this
questions.
Most candidates failed to compute relevant cash flows that are pertinent
in making decision to accept or reject the proposed credit policy and they
failed to make critical analysis of IRR as an investment appraisal
technique.
54
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of
the questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eighty
percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of
theoretical and computational questions.
Out of 1279 candidates, only 416 (32.5%) candidates passed while the
remaining 863 (67.5%) candidates failed. Out of those who passed 396
(31.0%) and 20 (1.5%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this paper.
7.4.2 below:
TABLE 7.4.2
B1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
CLASSIFICATION OF
MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 863 396 20 00 1279
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 67.5 31 1.5 0.0 100
TABLE 7.4.3
B1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015
EXAMINATIONS
253 23.5 416 32.5 9.0
55
B2 FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING
to apply knowledge and skills in preparation of financial statements for a separate
entity and a group in accordance with the IFRSs and IPSASs and analyse
financial statements to examine the suitability of the business entity.
each. Candidates were required to answer question one in section A and any other
four out of six questions in Section B.
QUESTION 1: PREPARING CONSOLIDATED FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

Candidates were required to use the given draft statements of financial
positions for the given period and statement of profit and loss for the
given period for two entities to prepare:
(a) Consolidated statement of profit or loss for the company for the
given year.
(b) Consolidated statement of financial position for given company as
at the given period
1172 candidates who answered this question only 107 (9.1%)
Most candidates failed to prepare consolidated financial statements
QUESTION 2: PREPARING SINGLE ENTRY AND SINGLE COMPANY
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given draft statements of financial
positions for the given period and statement of profit and loss for the
given period to prepare the Statement of Cash Flows for given company
for the given year end in accordance with IAS 7.

Out of those who passed 168(16.8%), 32 (3.2%) and 04 (0.4%)
Most of candidates failed to prepare the Statement of Cash Flows as per
IAS 7.
56
QUESTION 3: ACCOUNTING AND REPORTING CONCEPTS,
FRAMEWORKS AND PRACTICES IAS 2: INVENTORIES
Candidates were required to use the given information define and
provide accounting treatments for different provided to company
scenarios relating to IAS 2.
(a) IAS 2: Inventories requires inventories of raw materials and
finished goods to be valued in financial statements at the lower of
cost and net realizable value.
(b) (i) Explain the rationale of the “lower of cost
and net realizable value”principle.
(ii) Describe three methods of arriving at cost of inventories
which are acceptable under IAS 2 and explain how they are
regarded as acceptable.
(c) Candidates were required to use the given information under FIFO
inventory valuation method to compute the value of the inventory
as at given year-end by using weighted average cost method.
738 candidates who answered the question 218 (29.5%) candidates
Most candidates failed to identify appropriate treatments of proper
adjustments towards preparation of financial statements
QUESTION 4: PREPARING SINGLE ENTRY AND SINGLE COMPANY

FINANCIAL STATEMENTS
Candidates were required to use the given information to prepare the
disclosures under IAS 16 in relation to non-current assets in the notes to
the published accounts for the given year end.

570 candidates who answered the question, 42 (7.4%) candidates passed
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question
Most candidates failed to show clearly movement of non-current assets
as required in IAS 16.
57
QUESTION 5: FINANCIAL STATEMENTS ANALYSIS AND EVALUATION
Candidates were required to use the given information concerning the
given draft statements of financial positions for the given period and
statement of profit and loss for the given period to compute and provide
interpretation on each financial ratios
(a) Compute the following ratios for each company (use 365 days a
year):
(i) Current ratio
(ii) Acid Test ratio
(iii) Inventory Turnover period
(iv) Receivable collection period
(v) Return on capital employed
(b) Explain, with reasons, which one of these companies is first

specified character given company and which one is second
specified character of a given company.
No major weakness was observed
QUESTION 6: ACCOUNTING AND REPORTING CONCEPTS,
FRAMEWORKS AND PRACTICES IAS 10: EVENTS AFTER
THE REPORTING PERIOD
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to define and
provide accounting treatments for different provided company
scenarios In relation to IAS 10: Events after the Reporting Period
(i) Explain the term ‘Events after the Reporting Period’, defining
clearly the Period within which IAS 10 requires events to
occur in order to be considered as such.
(ii) Distinguish clearly between “adjusting” and “non-adjusting”
events, and explain the accounting treatment and disclosers
required in each case. .
(b) Explain the accounting treatment and/or disclosures required as a
result of the event after the reporting date for the provided scenarios.
927candidates who answered the question, 569(61.4%) candidates
passed while the remaining 358(38.6%) candidates failed. Out of those
who passed 194 (20.9%), 286 (30.9 %) and 89(9.6%) candidates scored
58
Some candidates seemed to fail to adhere to the requirements of the
question and they were not aware with the tested accounting standard
IAS 10: Events after the Reporting Period.
QUESTION 7: ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS, FRAMEWORKS AND PRACTICES

IAS 37 PROVISION, CONTINGENT LIABILITIES AND
CONTINGENT ASSETS
Candidates were required to use the given information define to and
provide accounting treatments for different provided company scenarios
In relation to IAS 37 Provision, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent
Assets to:
(a) Define a provision and discuss in details the three conditions that
must be satisfied in order for a provision to be recognized under IAS
37.
(b) Discuss briefly how each of the above transactions and events should
be recorded/reported as per IAS 37. Show journal entries where
relevant, and state the reason (s) for the proposed treatment.
334 candidates who answered the question, 97 (29.0%) candidates
who passed 52 (15.6%), 31 (9.3 %) and 14 (4.1%) candidates scored
Most candidates seemed to fail to adhere to the requirements of the
question and they are not aware with the tested accounting standard IAS
37 Provision, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets.
59
The panel of examiners found the paper to be quite adequate in terms of the
questions examined and time allocated for each question. The panel of
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering over seventy
five percent of the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of
theoretical and computational questions.
candidates passed while the remaining 786 (67.1%) candidates failed. Out
of those who passed 347 (29.6%), 37 (3.2%) and 02 (0.1%) candidates
7.4.4 below:
TABLE 7.4.4
00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 786 347 37 02 1172
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 67.1 29.6 3.2 0.1 100
TABLE 7.4.5
EXAMINATIONS
352 37.4 386 32.9 4.5
60
B3 AUDITING PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE

to apply auditing principles and standards in executing external audit assignments
(carrying out audit procedures) and coming up with appropriate reports, as well as
implementing entity’s internal control policies in carrying out internal audits.

QUESTION 1: OBJECTIVES, PROCESS AND NEED OF EXTERNAL AUDIT
AND ASSURANCE; INTERNAL AUDIT OF ENTITIES
Candidates were required to use the given information regarding to
objectives of review junior audit work by senior auditor and address
ethical issues raised during audit process for given audit firm and her
client as stipulated in the provided scenarios:-
(a) Identify given Senior Auditor objectives in respect of the review of
given Junior Auditor work as requested by the audit partner.
(b) Identify any issues that you would expect given Junior Auditor to
have addressed as part of the audit work on trade receivables.
(c) Explain the effect of the amount owed by given company on the audit
report on the financial statements of given company for the given year
ended
(d) (i) Identify any ethical issues arising in respect of the audit of given
company.
(ii) Explain the actions that given Senior Auditor should take.
(iii)Explain any actions or matters to be considered by her firm.
1106 candidates who answered the question, 28 (2.5%) candidates passed
passed 24(2.2%) and 04 (0.3%) candidates scored pass and credit marks
respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Most of candidates’ failed to state objectives of audit work review, failed
to identify specific issues to be addressed during trade receivable auditing
and they failed to connect the ethical threat within the case study in steady
they mention threats in general.
61
QUESTION 2: PUBLIC SECTOR EXTERNAL AUDITING

(a) Explain the purpose of a Value for Money audit (VFM-audit),
stressing its usefulness in the public sector.
(b) Use the given information regarding to operating environment of
public hospital to address issues relating to VFM Audit as stipulated
in the scenarios to :-
(i) Identify and explain any four strengths within given public
hospital operating environment.
(ii) For each strength identified in part (i) above, describe how the
company might make further improvements to provide the best
value for money.
(iii) Describe substantive procedures which the external auditor of
the company should adopt to verify each of the following
assertions in relation to the hospital’s property, plant and
equipment:
a) Valuation;
b) Completeness;
c) Rights and obligations
No major weakness was observed.
QUESTION 3: THE NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION
OF SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information relating to
how to analyse the risks associated with the client during audit
planning by:
(i) Explaining the meaning and providing examples of the
terms ‘sampling risk’ and ‘non-sampling’ risk.
(ii) Briefly explaining how sampling and non-sampling risk can

be controlled by an audit firm.
(b) Briefly explain each of the sample selection methods suggested by
the audit manager, audit senior and audit junior, and discuss
whether or not they are appropriate for obtaining a representative
sample of sales invoices.
62
passed 71 (19.1%), 33 (8.9%) and 06 (1.6%) candidates scored pass, credit
Most candidates failed to even define the sampling risk and non-sampling
risk terms and failed to link the given scenarios with the appropriate
auditing standard requirements
QUESTION 4: PROFESSIONAL ETHICS: PUBLIC INTEREST FUNDAMENTAL
OBJECTIVES, THREAT AND SAFEGUARDS TO
INDEPENDENCE
Candidates were required to use the given scenario of fundamental
principles of ethics as based upon the code of ethics published by the
International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) of the
International Federation of Accountants (IFAC) and stipulated in the
NBAA code of ethics to:
(a) Illustrate the fundamental principles of ethics, as stipulated in the
NBAA code of ethics which is based upon the code of ethics
published by the International Ethics Standard Board for
Accountants (IESBA) of the International Federation of Accountants
(IFAC).Use the given information concerning about a company
which has specialised in the audit of retailers to explain the
safeguards that a firm should implement to ensure that this conflict
of interest is properly managed
(b) Use the given information in respect of each of the four professional
ethics threat situations, (i) to (iv) outlined, and identify any ethical
issues involved and assess whether or not there has been a violation
of ethical conduct. (Support the answers by making reference to the
relevant professional standards).
question.
Most of the candidates failed to relate case study with the code of ethics
and threats thereon.
63
QUESTION 5: BASICS OF ASSURANCE REPORTS
(a) Candidates were required to use the given auditor’s opinion
paragraph to:-
(i) Identify the errors and deficiencies in the auditor opinion
paragraph drafted by given junior auditor.
(ii) Explain the audit process stage that precedes the audit
reporting stage and follows the financial statements testing
stage.
(b) List any six (6) basic elements of an auditor’s report and explain
why each element is included in the report.
Candidates’ performance in this question satisfactory. Out of 932
candidates who answered the question only 674(72.3%) candidates
passed while the remaining 258(27.7%) candidates failed. Out of those
No major weakness was observed.
QUESTION 6: THE NATURE OF AUDIT EVIDENCE AND THE SELECTION
OF SUFFICIENT APPROPRIATE EVIDENCE
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to related to
ISA 505: External confirmations to obtain audit evidence in relation
to accounts receivables from a given company to:-
(i) Explain the differences between a positive and a negative
confirmation.
(ii) Explain advantages and disadvantages of positive confirmations.
(b) Describe principal risks associated with financial statement

assertions relating to receivables.
(c) Describe procedures that you should perform as an auditor to obtain
understanding of the entity and its environment including its internal
controls.
Most candidates failed to clearly distinguish positive and negative
confirmations; differentiate risk associate with receivable assertions and
financial risk and they are not adequately aware with procedure and
requirements’ of ISA 315
64
QUESTION 7: THE NATURE AND USE OF INTERNAL CONTROLS;
Candidates were required to use a risk analysis approach, to assess the
quality of a client’s control environment and internal control system in
order to determine the level of detailed testing required and also to target
that testing to the high risk areas that have been identified then to:.
(a) Describe different categories of control procedures.
(b) Explain limitations of controls in an organization.
Some candidates failed to describe categories of internal control instead
they explain control environment
65
markers also found the paper to be well balanced, covering almost eight
five percent of the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of questions.
Candidates’ overall performance

of 1106 candidates who answered the examination only 500 (45.2%)
candidates scored pass marks while the remaining 606 (54.8%) candidates
failed. There were neither credit nor distinction marks in this paper.
7.4.6 below:
TABLE 7.4.6
CLASSIFICATION
OF MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 606 500 00 00 1106
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 54.8 45.2 00 00 100
TABLE 7.4.7
EXAMINATIONS
No. of candidates % No. of candidates %
passed passed
665 69.1 500 45.2 23.9
66
B4 PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION I

to apply knowledge of public finance, tax laws and principles in the computation
of tax liabilities, preparation and filing of tax returns; and in administering
compliance with the tax laws; both in the public sector and in the private sector.

four out of six questions in Section B

The following topics were tested in this paper: -
QUESTION 1: TAXATION: DETERMINATION OF TOTAL INCOME
Candidates were required to: -

(a) Explain if there is a possibility for an employee to have more than
one employer
(b) Use the given information to calculate: -
(i) Total taxable income.
(ii) Total tax paid.
of 1180 candidates who answered the examination, 726 (61.5%)
pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction
marks in this examination paper.
Most candidates failed to distinguish between primary and secondary
employment.
QUESTION 2: TAXATION: INCLUSIONS, EXCLUSIONS AND DEDUCTIONS
IN CALCULATING TAXABLE INCOME.
(a) Define the term ‘depreciable assets’
(b) Clearly provide conditions to be fulfilled by a person before being
granted depreciation allowance.
(c) Calculate depreciation allowance.
67
Most candidates were unable to identify lease, and do not have a good
understanding of depreciation of assets as they compared to business
assets.
QUESTION 3: VAT AND OTHER INDIRECT TAXES
(a) Discuss the relevance of the given principle.
(b) Determine the deductible input tax.
question.
Most candidates demonstrated poor understanding of the methods for
computing deductible input tax as required.
QUESTION 4: CUSTOMS AND EXCISE DUTY.
From the given information candidates were required to:-
(a) Explain customs procedures.
(b) Explain the distinctions and similarities between ‘identical goods’
and ‘similar goods’.
(c) Discuss about the deductive value method for customs valuation.
question.
Candidates showed poor understanding of the topic that had been
examined.
QUESTION 5: INCOME TAX LAW

Candidates were required to use the given information to: -
(a) Determine the tax liability.
(b) (i) Distinguish between ‘non-resident’ versus ‘not-resident’ for tax
Purposes.
(ii) Determine the residential status from the given case.
(iii) Discuss the implication of the given provision.
68
Most candidates failed to distinguish between ‘non-resident’ versus ‘not-
resident’ for tax purposes.
QUESTION 6: PUBLIC FINANCE
(a) Explain the role of public finance in the development of an
economy.
(b) Identify tools that can be used by a government to achieve efficient
public expenditure management.
Candidates’ performance in this question was fairly satisfactory. Out of
1,099 candidates who answered the question only 445 (40.5%)
Most candidates failed to identify tools that can be used by a
government to achieve efficient public expenditure management.
QUESTION 7: INCLUSIONS, EXCLUSIONS AND DEDUCTIONS IN
CALCULATING TAXABLE INCOME.
Candidates were required to use the given information to compute: -
(a) Depreciation allowance.
(b) Investment income.
(c) Total income.
(d) Tax payable.

question.
Those who failed were unable to indicate correct depreciable rates in the
respective depreciable classes.
69

markers also found the paper to be well balanced with excellent spread of
the topics in the syllabus. The paper had a good mixture of theoretical and
computational questions.
Out of 1,180 candidates who answered the examination only 556 (47.1%)
of those who passed 538 (45.6%) and 18 (1.5%) candidates scored pass
and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in
this paper.
7.4.8 below:
TABLE 7.4.8
CLASSIFICATION OF
MARKS 00-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 TOTAL
NO. OF CANDIDATES 624 538 18 0 1,180
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 52.9 45.6 1.5 0.0 100%
TABLE 7.4.9
B4 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS

246 28.0 556 47.1 19.1
70
B5 PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT

to apply knowledge and skills of financial and non-financial data analysis in
providing information and decision support to management for decision-making,
performance evaluation, and control.
four out of six questions in Section B
The following topics were tested in this paper: -
QUESTION 1: VARIANCE ANALYSIS

(a) Calculate the selling price operational variance and the selling price
planning variance.
(b) Calculate the total sales mix variance and the total sales quantity
variance.
(c) Briefly discuss the performance of the business.
2,518 candidates who answered the question only 186 (7.4%) candidates
passed while the remaining 2,332 (92.6%) candidates failed. Out of those
Most candidates failed to compute sales variances as well as sales mix and
quantity variances.
QUESTION 2: COST ACCOUNTING TECHNIQUES
(a) Describe the target costing process.
(b) Explain the benefits of adopting a target costing.
(c) Outline steps that should be taken to reduce cost gape.
(d) Calculate cost per unit and identify cost gap.
1,676 candidates who answered the question only 812 (48.4%)
71
Most candidates failed to calculate cost per unit under target costing.
This indicates that most of them did not adequately cover the topic.
QUESTION 3: DECISIONS-MAKING TECHNIQUES

(a) Make decisions to eliminate or retain loss making products.
(b) Find minimum number of products to breakeven.
Most candidates failed to separate total costs into its elements. Others
failed to use relevant information to make decisions.
QUESTION 4: PERFOMANCE MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL

(a) Explain perspectives of the Balance Scorecard (BSC) model.
(b) Identify the goals with a corresponding performance measure and
the reason of choosing goals and measures in relation to the given
case.
Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 1,613
Most candidates failed to develop goals and measurement tools for the
balance scorecard perspectives to given case study.
QUESTION 5: DECISIONS-MAKING TECHNIQUES
(a) Compute the Break-even point in units.
(b) Compute the Break-even point in units.
(c) Compute the expected operating profit when new machine is
leased and compare it with the old machine. Assuming the total
sales remain constant.
(d) Advise the company on whether the new machine should be
leased or not.
(e) Advise the company on any decisions that can potentially benefit
from employing CVP analysis.
72
candidates who answered the question, 1,324 (55.7%) candidates passed
while the remaining 1,054 (44.3%) candidates failed. Out of those who
passed 1,001 (42.1%), 318 (13.4%) and 05 (0.2%) candidates scored pass,
Most candidates who failed were unable to provide different decisions.
They discussed CVP assumptions instead of identify the specific
decisions which can be made by employing CVP analysis.
QUESTION 6: PERFOMANCE MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL
Candidates were required to use the given information about a company
which produce and sale different food products to: -
(a) Using, residual income approach, compare the performance of the
two managers.
(b) Using Economic Value Added, compare the performance of the
two managers.
(c) Advise the management on which one among residual income and
economic value added is more appropriate to use in evaluating the
departmental performance.
marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this question.
Most candidates failed because they were not prepared themselves enough
for the topic.
QUESTION 7: COST ACCONTING TECHNIQUES
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to list and
discuss levels of cost hierarchy.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information about a
company which produces and sells four different products to: -
(i) Calculate the machine-hour rate.
(ii) Calculate the total cost per unit.
(iii)Calculate the cost per unit using an ABC approach.
(iv) Explain the strength of ABC approach.
Most candidates provide cost classification and not cost hierarchy as
required.
73
markers also found the paper to be well balanced. The paper had a good
mixture of theoretical and computational questions.
candidates passed while the remaining 1,702 (67.6%) candidates failed.
pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks
in this paper.

7.4.10 below:
TABLE 7.4.10
NO. OF CANDIDATES 1,702 768 48 00 2,518
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 67.6 30.5 1.9 00 100
TABLE 7.4.11
EXAMINATIONS
537 22.6 816 32.4 9.8
74
B6 MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS
to apply principles of strategic management, good governance and business ethics
management and administrative functions of an organisation.
each. Candidates were required to answer question one in Section A and any other
QUESTION 1: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
(a) Candidates where required to use given information to examine the
ethical positions that a company may adopt while selecting a
strategy.
(b) Candidates were required to discuss about shifting of Modern
corporate governance from the “managed corporation paradigm” to
the governed corporation paradigm”
(c) From the given statement, candidates were required to discuss
leadership competencies that seem pivotal in initiating and
developing CSR programmes.
(d) Candidates were required to explain whether there is any
relationship between teleological ethics and the profit making
objective of the business, in the context of a business.
No major weakness was noted in this question, those who failed were
not able to discuss and to explain the given cases as required.
QUESTION 2: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT AND CORPORATE
GOVERNANCE
Candidates where required to use the given information to:
(a) Identify examples of barriers to enter into a business.
(b) Explain about two main traditional approaches to the study of
corporate governance.
(c) Mention two characteristics of organizational culture and show
how they influence the ethical behaviour of an individual
employee in an organization.
75
passed 238 (30.7), 335 (43.3%) and 06 (0.8%) candidates scored pass,
No major weakness was noted in this question.
QUESTION 3: RISK MANAGEMENT, GOVERNANCE AND ETHICS
(a) Explain ways in which the management may embed risks into the
organization’s systems and procedures.
(b) Explain briefly the concept of whistle blowing and indicate whether
whistle blowing has advantages to an organization or not.
(c) From the given statement about Kant’s view, Outline any two
criticisms against Kant’s ethics
Candidates were not well prepared for the topic that had been examined.
QUESTION 4: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerned to
investment company thought of venturing into a new product line
to:-
(i) Enumerate the types of questions that the firm’s management
needed to be asking in the exercise.
(ii) Explain the process likely to adopt when using the PESTLE
technique.
(b) From the given information about Bank Plc which candidate were
required as a consultant to advise the management on the;
(i) Legal framework requirements for mandatory disclosures.
(ii) Voluntary disclosures to be made by the company.
(c) Candidates were required to use the given information as a
consultant, to advise the firm on how they should conduct their
business.
There was no major weakness noted in this question.
76
QUESTION 5: RISK MANAGEMENT; AUDIT COMMITTEE; ETHICAL
THEORIES
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information to:-
(i) Explain roles played by a risk committee to an organization.
(ii) Evaluate any five benefits of external risk auditing.
(b) Also candidates were required to use the given statement to:
(i) Enumerate the functions of the audit committee.
(ii) Name and explain the characteristics of members of the audit
committee.
(c) Candidates were required critically show the weaknesses of the
Principle or Theory of Utilitarianism in business.
No major common weakness was noted in this question
QUESTION 6:ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE; TYPES OF BOARD OF
DIRECTORS; PROBITY
Candidates were required to use the given statements to:-
(a) List down the main ways in which, managers can choose to structure
their organizations or business entities.
(b) Explain how multi-tier board structure normally operates.
(c) Analyse the importance of probity in a growing business.
Candidates’ performance in this question was fairly satisfactory. Out of

377 candidates who answered the question 155 (41.1%) candidates
Most candidates were not adequately prepared in this topic.
QUESTION 7: ETHICS
(a) Describe various importance of Research and Development
department to a business company.
(b) Analyse examples of intimidation threats to an auditor.
(c) Provide an analysis to show how business ethics can promote
business success.
77
Many candidates failed to provide an analysis to show how business
ethics can promote business success and failed to describe various
importance of Research and Development department to a business
company.
the questions examined and time allocated for each question, with a wider
spread of topics within the syllabus.
examination paper.
7.4.12 below:
TABLE 7.4.12
(FREQUENCY)
PERCENTAGE 29.0 62.1 8.9 0.0 100
TABLE 7.4.13
EXAMINATIONS
NOVEMBER 2015 November 2015 % decrease
730 91.9 649 71.0 20.9
78
INTRA LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE –
FOUNDATION AND INTERMEDIATE
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabi, the Board does not allow its
candidates to sit both levels. However, it allowed those who were referred to sit for a
referral paper and a full level, during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 129 candidates who sat for examination
papers in both Foundation and Intermediate levels.
The performance is as indicated hereunder:
FOUNDATION AND INTERMEDIATE

S/No. COMBINATION Number Percent
1 Pass Both 1 0.8
2 Pass FOUND, Partial Pass INTER 57 44.2
3 Pass FOUND, Fail INTER 40 31.0
4 Partial Pass FOUND, Pass INTER 0 00.0
6 Partial Pass FOUND, Fail INTER 11 08.5
7 Fail FOUND, Pass INTER 0 00.0
8 Fail FOUND, Partial Pass INTER 7 05.4
9 Fail Both 0 00.0
Total 129 100%
79
FINAL LEVEL EXAMINATIONS
The Final Level examinations are the last level of the three-tier professional examination
system of the Board.
The final level examinations consist of four subjects as mentioned hereunder:-
C1 Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and Assurance
C3 Business and Corporate Finance
C4 Public Finance and Taxation II
These examination papers have been tested for the fifth time in this examination session.
The examination draws candidates from:-
(a) Candidates who were referring P15 Financial Reporting II and P20 Contemporary
Issues in Accounting in the phased out syllabus where these candidates sat for C1
Corporate Reporting in the current syllabus
(b) Candidates who were referring P18 Auditing and Assurance Services in the phased
out syllabus where these candidates sat for C2 Auditing and Assurance Services
(c) Candidates who were referring P16 International Finance in the phased out syllabus
where these candidates sat for C3 Business and Corporate Finance in the current
syllabus and
(d) Candidates who were referring P17 Public Finance and Taxation in the phased out
syllabus where these candidates sat for C4 Public Finance and Taxation II in the
current syllabus
The performance of the candidates who sat for both modules is shown at the end of the
levels’ report.
80
During the November 2016 examination session, 2,113 candidates sat for Final Level
examinations out of whom 335 (15.9%) have passed this level and therefore eligible
for the award of STATEMENT OF SUCCESS, 637 (30.1%) have passed some of the
subjects while 1,141 (54.0%) have failed the examinations.
The general performance subject-wise for the Final level examination in this session is as
shown on Table 7.5 below:
TABLE 7.5
MODULE E SUBJECT -WISE PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Performance
Code Subject November 2015 May 2016 November 2016
C1 1,060 228 21.5 1,296 376 29.0 1,076 350 32.5

Corporate Reporting
C2 Auditing and 1,048 433 41.3 1,095 399 36.4 930 334 35.9
Assurance
C3 Business and 776 88 11.3 1,050 291 27.7 967 351 36.3
Corporate Finance
C4 Public Finance and 710 290 40.8 880 465 52.8 705 316 44.9
Taxation II
81
C1 CORPORATE REPORTING
Principal learning outcome of this paper is to test candidates’ ability to financial
reporting standards and corporate law in preparing, analysing and evaluating
corporate reports by entities, both in the private and public sectors.
This examination paper comprised two sections with six questions. Candidates
were required to answer four questions. Question one which carried 40 % was
compulsory
In this paper, topics examined and candidates’ performances were as follows:
QUESTION 1: GROUP STATEMENT OF CASHFLOW
Candidates were required to use the given information to about group
financial statements to:
(a) Prepare a consolidated statement of cash flow using indirect
method for the given company for the given year end in
accordance with the requirements of IAS 7: statements of Cash
flow
(b) Use the give statement about the use of IFRS for SMEs to:-
(i) Explain under what circumstances make an entity publicly
accountable under the scope of IFRS for SME’s
(ii) Describe the key differences in accounting for goodwill
under IFRS for SME’s and that of Full IFRS (IFRS 3).
Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. All

1060 candidates who answered the question failed.
Major weakness in this question was that candidates demonstrated
poor knowledge on Group Cash Flow Statements.
QUESTION 2: IAS 17: LEASES
Candidates were required to use given information about the release
of IFRS 16 by International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) to:-
(a) Explain why was it necessary for IASB to change the previous
lease standard IAS 17 to IFRS 16, Leases
(b) Discuss what has changed in the new lease, IFRS 16 in comparison
to the previous IAS 17 – lease standard.
(c) Use the given information about a company that had rented some
space in the warehouse for storing his goods to:-
82
(i) Explain how would someone could account for this
contract under IAS 17 and IFRS 16 for the given year end
by the given company
(ii) With computations, show that both models (IFRS 16 and
IAS 17) have the same profit or loss impact over total
lease terms in the books of the given company

those who passed 21 (5.1%) and 09 (2.2%) candidates scored pass
and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks
in this question.
Most candidates failed to discuss changes in the new Lease IFRS 16
and could not distinguish how to account for Lease under IAS 17 as
compared to IFRS 16 guidelines.
QUESTION 3: FINANCIAL AND BUSINESS ANALYSIS
Candidates were required to use the given information to related to
one company which was incorporated in the given year to make
special design furniture using mninga timber to use the given ratios
and information given to prepare a Statement of Comprehensive
Income for the year ended 31st December 2014 and a statement of
Financial position as at the date of that given company as much details
as possible.
question.
Some candidates failed to use simple profitability ratios to determine
cost of sale and the gross profit. Some failed on presentation of
financials e.g. inclusion of share capital in statement of
comprehensive income inclusion/presentation of operating expenses
before cost of sales in an attempt to calculate profit for a period.
QUESTION 4: IAS 24: RELATED PARTY DISCLOSURE & IAS 8 CHANGES IN
ACCOUNTING POLICIES, ESTIMATES AND ERRORS
(a) Candidates were required to use given paragraph on related part to
answer the following questions: -
(i) Justify why the disclosure of related party relationships and
transactions is an important issue in corporate reporting.
83
(ii) Discuss the view that small companies should be exempted
from the disclosure of related party relationships and
transactions on the ground of size.
(b) Use the given information about a company that was preparing its
financial statements for the given year to:
(i) Calculate the effect of the error on the profits of the given
company for the given year end
(ii) Prepare (with comparatives) the amended statement of profit
or loss and statement of other comprehensive income for the
given company for the given year end and any related
disclosure.
passed 44 (7.5%), 12 (2.0%) and 01 (0.2%) candidates scored pass, credit
Most candidates failed to make reasoning as to why IAS 24 requires
disclosure of related party transactions and relationships. Also most of
them failed to correct errors discovered in the financial statements
concerned with sales not included or overstated/understated.
QUESTION 5: PREPARING AND REPORTING INFORMATION FOR
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND NOTES (IAS 10)
Candidates were required to use the given information relates to an audit
manager in a one firm who was approached by the financial accountant
who was having difficulty understanding on how to account for several
matters to prepare notes for the financial accountant - setting out and
explaining how each of the given matters should be accounted for and
disclosed in the financial statements of the given company for the given
year end.
Most candidates were writing down irrelevant information.
84
QUESTION 6: CREATIVE ACCOUNTING, LEASES IAS 17 AND EARNING
PER SHARE IAS 33
(a) Candidates were required to use the given paragraph about
creative accounting to describe the methods of engaging in creative
accounting and the ways to curb creative accounting.
(b) Use the given information about one company which owned
plant and equipment carrying the given amount of TZS. To show
how the given transactions and events should be treated in the
financial statements of that company at the given period
(c) Distinguish between Basic EPS and Diluted EPS.
(d) Use the given information related to profit after tax for the given
company under the given period to calculate the Basic EPS figure
for the given company (including comparatives) and the diluted
EPS (comparatives not required) that would be disclosed for the
year ended 30th September, 2015.
question.
The majority of candidates showed poor knowledge on the topic.
85
The panel of examiners found that the question had an appropriate mixture
of questions, the distribution of marks and the time allocated was
adequate. The paper had easy and difficult questions which were all within
the prescribed syllabus.
(b) Candidates’ overall performance of the paper
Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not
satisfactory. Out of 1076 candidates who sat for this paper 350
(32.5%) candidates passed while the remaining 726 (67.5%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 347 (32.2%) and 03
(0.3%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.
below:
TABLE 7.5.3
C1 CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE ANALYSIS
Classification of Marks 0-39 40-59 60-79 80-100 Total
Percentage 67.5 32.2 0.3 0.0 100
TABLE 7.5.4
C1 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS
No. of candidates passed % No. of candidates passed % increase
228 21.5 350 32.5 11.0
86
C2 AUDITING AND ASSURANCE SERVICES

auditing and assurance standards and relevant laws in undertaking and managing
auditing and assurance engagements in complex auditing and reporting situations.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% was
compulsory
QUESTION 1: I. ASSESMENT OF RISKS, INTERNAL CONTROLS,
II. INVENTORY COUNT
III. AUDIT PLAN
(a) Candidates were required to use given information to concerning
one company which was a fast growing chain of retail shops with
several branches to:
(i) Identify and explain the business risks and other risks in
that given company.
(ii) Recommend appropriate internal controls in that given
company
(b) Use the given information concerning the assumption that
financial statements are prepared on a going concern basis to
recommend the audit opinion that should be issued basing on each
of the above scenarios.
(c) Use the given information that was contained in the draft financial
statements availed to one audit senior during the planning of the
audit work to use analytical procedures, to state the observations
one could draw from the given extract of draft financial statements
and show how they may affect the audit of receivables.
(d) Use the given information about one company which was one of
the audit clients to:
(i) Suggest suitable inventory count instructions that should be
used in the stock count of the given company
(ii) State the duties of the auditors when attending inventory
count of the given company.
(e) Use the given information about one company which is a medium
size firm of auditors to describe and explain the audit procedures
and processes that should be performed during an interim and final
audits of a client.
(f) Give two (02) examples of items which are contained in the overall
audit strategy and two (02) examples of items contained in the
audit plan.
87
those who passed 28 (3.0%) and 03 (0.3%) candidates scored pass and
question.
Most candidates failed to draw an observation after having carried out
computations of ratios while performing analytical procedures. Some
failed to differentiate the audit procedures and processes of carrying
out interim and final audit.
QUESTION 2: I: LEGAL, REGULATORY AND ETHICAL ISSUES
II: ASSESSMENT OF RISKS, INTERNAL CONTROLS,
INTERNAL FINANCIAL CONTROLS
Candidates were required to use the given information in relation to a
company that has recently responded to a tender for the provision of
audit services to another given company, to:
(a) Describe the professional and ethical matters that your audit firm
should consider in making the decision whether or not to accept
appointment as auditors of the given company
(b) Identify and explain the risk of material misstatement that may
occur as a result of the given company not complying with the
environmental regulations.
(c) Identify and explain the business risk that the given company faces.

Most candidates mixed up the requirements of part(b) to those of part(c).
QUESTION 3: EVALUATION OF ACCOUNTING TREATMENT
(a) Candidates were required to use given figures that were extracted
from the draft financial statements of one given company to discuss
the audit issues relating to the above matters and recommend action
that management of the given company should take in line with IAS
10: Event after the period end.
88
(b) State audit procedures for development costs as the requirement of
IAS 38 Intangible Assets.
(c) Use the given statement in relation to ISRE 2400: Engagements to
review financial statements to discuss the nature of review and due
diligence engagements.
290 candidates who answered the question only, 13 (1.5%) candidates
scored pass marks while the remaining 277 (95.5%) candidates failed.
There was neither credit nor distinction marks in this questions.
Most candidates failed to state audit procedures for development costs.
Others failed to explain nature of review and due diligence
engagements.
QUESTION 4: I. EXCEPTIONS TO THE DUTY OF CONFIDENTIALITY
II. AUDIT RISKS AND PROCEDURES
(a) Candidates were required to explain the exceptions to the duty of
confidentiality by the accountants as compliance with the
fundamental ethical principles of the code of ethics.
(b) Candidates were required to use the given information in relation to
carrying out a review of work performed by an audit team when
auditing a company to use each of the given scenario to state the
audit risk that could arise and describe the audit procedures one
expect to have been carried out by the audit team members.

Those who failed were unable to explain the exceptions of the duty of
the confidentiality by the accountants. They failed to link the case study
with the theoretical aspects.
QUESTION 5: EXTERNAL AUDIT IN THE PUBLIC SECTOR
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information related to a
person who was facilitating an induction course to the newly
recruited auditors to: -
(i) Explain the meaning of ‘Public Sector Entity’.
(ii) Elaborate on the scope of the ‘Public Sector Audit’.
(b) Use the given information about someone who has been approached
as a mentor to explain three areas where the given person, as a new
public sector auditor, is likely to face challenges in his new
occupation.
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(c) Use the given statement regarding value for money as a term that is
said to be more complex and its difficulty in applicability to briefly
discuss the deficiencies of values for money audit.
Most candidates failed to distinguish a ‘public sector entity’ from ‘public
company’.
QUESTION 6: I. GOVENANCE AND RISK MANAGEMENT

II. AUDIT EVEIDENCE
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information related to
one person who has been appointed the new chief internal auditor
in the local government authority to discuss the importance of
Governance in organization and the role of Internal Auditors in
governance and risk management.
(b) Use the given statement about the disclosure of cash flows from
operating activities to explain how the auditor uses the cash flows
in gathering evidence and how the statement of cash flows is
audited.
Some candidates who answered this question failed to explain how the
statement of cash flow is audited, instead many went on explaining parts
of the cash flows.
90
of those who passed 329 (35.4%) and 05 (0.5%) scored pass and credit
marks respectively. No candidates scored distinction marks in this
examination paper.
7.5.5 below:
TABLE 7.5.5
Percentage 64.1 35.4 0.5 0.0 100
TABLE 7.5.6
C2 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015
EXAMINATIONS
433 41.3 334 35.9 3.4
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C3 BUSINESS AND CORPORATE FINANCE

business and financial theories, concepts and analytical frameworks in evaluating
and assessing business strategy, business and financing options as well as
financial engineering products and provide advice based on such assessments.
II: STRUCTURE OF THE QUESTIONPAPER
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% was
compulsory
QUESTION 1: I: STRATEGIC ANALYSIS
II: MANAGING RISKS
(a) Use given information to about the accountants who have
opened a consulting firm to:
(i) Explain why the given company should undertake
competitor’s analysis.
(ii) Discuss why it is important for the given company to
understand the concepts of high/low market growth and
market share when undertaking competitor analysis.
(iii) Discuss how gap analysis can be applied to a
product/market situation.
(b) Use the given information about one large listed company which
produces pharmaceutical products exported around the world to:
-
(i) Discuss the key risks and issues that the given company
should consider when setting up a subsidiary company
and suggest how these can be mitigated.
(ii) Explain what dark pool trading system is and how the given
company proposed Initial Public Offering (IPO) may be
affected by this system.
Out of those who passed 144 (14.9%) and 28 (2.9%) candidates
scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate scored
distinction marks in this question.
Part B of the question was most challenging to the candidates as they
failed to give appropriate responses.
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QUESTION 2: DIVIDEND POLICY AND BOND ANALYSIS
(a) Candidates were required to use given information about one
company that has recently become a listed company to prepare
briefing notes for the next board meeting that set out the key
considerations for a company’s position when formulating a
dividend policy. Address the specific points made by the two
directors and show how the given company might address the fact
that different groups of investors may have different preferences in
respect of dividends.
(b) Use the given information about someone who was working as a
financial and investment analysis to:
(i) Estimate the Macaulay duration and the market price of the
given company’s bonds.
(ii) Estimate the new bond price and the capital gain or loss upon
selling the bond one year later if the market interest rate
decreases from 10% to 8% using the Duration Rule.
(iii) Comment on the relationship between ‘bond price’ and ‘market
interest rates’.

question.
Candidates were weak in both describing the key considerations for a
company to consider when formulating dividend policy as well as in the
computations.
QUESTION 3: FINANCIAL ANALYSIS

Candidates were required to use the given information about one listed
company operating in the haulage and shipping industry to estimate and
discuss the impact of each of the three proposals on the forecast
Statement of Financial Position, the earnings and earnings per share,
and gearing of the given company.
All candidates who answered this question failed.
Candidates lack critical analysis skills.
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QUESTION 4: MANAGING RISKS
Candidates were required to use given information about a hired
financial analyst by a given company based in Tanzania to:-
(a) Evaluate whether a forward market hedge or a money market
hedge should be used to hedge the interest payment of
US$10,000 in six months’ time.
(b) Write a brief report to the directors of the given company
describing:
(i) The general theoretical arguments for and against a firm
hedging its foreign exchange exposure.
(ii) The relationships between:
· Exchange rates and interest rates.
· Exchange rates and inflation rates.
Candidates failed to argue for and against hedging.
QUESTION 5: MANAGING RISKS: FORWARD CONTRACTS AND OPTIONS
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information about one
seasoned exporter of roasted coffee beans to Europe and Asia to:
(i) Explain to the Managing Director and the Marketing Manager
on how the put option will benefit OPEL as compared to the
forward contract.
(ii) Show them under what condition OPEL would exercise the put
option and when they would break even. Assume the spot rate
when the £ 40,000 is received range from TZS.2,000 to
TZS.2,800 in intervals of TZS.100.
(iii) Compute the net realizable answers with the put option and
compare them with the realization under forward contract.
(iv) Explain to the Managing Director any two (2) factors affecting
the option value.
(b) Required to briefly explain the main features of a just-in-time

inventory system. Explain any two (2) factors that would limit its
application in Tanzania.
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The computation of the ‘breakeven’ value seemed to be a problem to
majority of candidates. Others were just writing just what they know
about the topic.
QUESTION 6: PARITY THEORIES, PPP AND IRP, OPTIONS, CALL AND

PUT, CAPAM AND WACC
(a) (i) Calculate the exchange rate be at the end of the year if the
purchasing power parity holds
(ii) Calculate the one year forward rate if the market obeys the
interest rate parity theory
(iii) Explain the way of combining the given options to form a
portfolio
(b) Use the given information to: -
(i) Use the CAPM approach to calculate weighted average
required Returns On Investment one would recommend for
give two divisions
(ii) Discuss any two limitations of using this approach to
estimate divisions cost of capital.

Most candidates failed to determine the pay-off options at expiration.
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Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was not
satisfactory. Out of 967 candidates who answered the paper only 351
(36.3%) candidates passed while the remaining 616 (67.3%)
candidates failed. Out of those who passed 341 (35.3%) and 10
(1.0%) candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No
candidate scored distinction marks in this examination paper.
7.7.7 below:
TABLE 7.5.7
Percentage 67.3 35.3 1.0 0.0 100
TABLE 7.5.8
C3 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015
EXAMINATIONS
No. of candidates % No. of candidates %
passed passed
88 11.3 351 36.3 +25.0
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C4 PUBLIC FINANCE AND TAXATION II
knowledge of public finance, tax laws and Financial Reporting Standards and
Corporate Law in preparing, analysing and evaluating corporate reports by
entities, both in the private and public sectors.
were required to answer four questions. Question one carried 40% which was
compulsory
QUESTION 1: I. PUBLIC FINANCE: PUBLIC EXPENDITURE POLICY AND
GOVERNMENT BUDGET
II: TAXATION OF SPECIALISED INDUSTRIES; INSURANCE
CORPORATIONS
(a) Candidates were required to use given information concerning the
competitive of the Tanzania Tax system to: -
(b) (i) Discuss three competitive advantages of the
Tanzania tax system, outlining their attractiveness for
foreign direct investors and the type of investor that each is
likely to attract.
(i) Give an account of the main threats that these advantages
face, and any policy responses or other developments that
could mitigate the impact of these threats.
(c) Use the given information about one resident corporation dealing
with general life insurance business to: -
(i) Briefly explain the meaning of life insurance as applicable
under the Income Tax Act, Cap 332.
(ii) Calculate the net taxable income of the Phonics Insurance

Corporation as per the Income Tax Act, Cap 332.

candidates passed while the remaining 654 (92.8%) candidates
failed. Out of those who passed 48 (6.8%) and 03 (0.4%)
candidates scored pass and credit marks respectively. No candidate
scored distinction marks in this question
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Most of candidates failed to identify the main threats facing the
competitive advantage of the Tanzania tax system and their policy
response.
QUESTION 2: I. INTRODUCTION TO PUBLIC FINANCE - THE ROLE OF
PUBLIC SECTOR
II: EMPLOYMENT INCOME
Candidates were required to do the following: -
(a) With the aid of concrete examples, explain the reasons for
Government’s continued ownership of enterprises in Tanzania.
(b) Use the given statement about payments by the employer to the
employee on termination to explain under what circumstances are
such termination payments tax exempt?
question.
Most candidates had opinion that government owns enterprises only for
the sake of raising revenue and creating employment for the people.
QUESTION 3: BASIC PROVISIONS OF THE INCOME TAX ACT, TAXATION
OF NON-RESINTS, INVESTMENT AND HOLDING
COMPANIES, TAXATION OF SPECIALISED INDUSTRIES
Candidates were required to use given information to do the following:
-
(a) Explain the tax implications where an asset is disposed off to a
non-arm’s length transaction.
(b) Use the given information relates to the acquisition and disposal of
assets to compute the total income arising from the above
transactions on filing its tax returns for the tax year 2016. Give
brief reasons for your treatment of each item.
(c) Use the given statement about the calculation of income from
business to:
(i) Explain the treatment of unrelieved losses for tax purposes.
(ii) Explain the rationale for the treatment of unrelieved losses
you dealt with above.
(iii) State the exception to the treatment you explained in (i)
above and its rationale.
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question.
Most candidates were not aware about Act amendment concerning
unrelieved losses. Most of them reported that exception to the treatment
of unrelieved losses for corporation is three consecutive years instead of
four years.
QUESTION 4: DOUBLE TAXATION TREATIES

Candidates were required to: -
(a) Evaluate how Tanzania benefits from a double taxation treaty
with a country like Finland.
(b) Elucidate the statement that ‘According to Vogel (1986),
‘International juridical double taxation’ is the imposition of
comparable taxes in two (or more) states on the same taxpayer in
respect of the same subject matter and for identical periods’
(c) Use the given information relates to a company which has trading
profit to calculate the given person’s corporate tax liability for the
year of income ended March 2015.
Some candidates failed to differentiate between double taxation and
juridical double taxation. Others failed to calculate corporate tax
liability.
QUESTION 5: SETTELEMT OF TAX DISPUTES
(a) Candidates were required to use the given information concerning
taxpayers and the taxpayer authority that may disagree on the
amount of tax assessed: -
(i) Critically discuss reasons that may lead to objection of the
tax liability by the tax payer.
(ii) Evaluate the procedures of handling tax objection in
Tanzania.
(iii) Analyse factors that will determine finality of an assessment.
(b) Use the given statement about Income Tax Act, Cap 332 to
describe the circumstances as provided for under section 136 of the
Income Tax Act, Cap 332.
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Most candidates failed to raise concrete reasons as they did only the
calculations.
QUESTION 6: RECENT REFORMS IN THE TANZANIAN TAXATION

SYSTEM
(a) Candidates were required to use the given phrase about the
comments of a taxpayer to discuss: -
(i) The objectives of tax reforms in Tanzania.
(ii) Reforms on tax implications that were made by the Finance
Act, 2015 in the Tanzania Investment Act with tax
implications.
(b) Use the given information to evaluate the given amendment.
(c) Outline the tax reforms that were made in the Business Licensing
Act, Cap 208.

question.
Most candidates failed to answer the question by producing tax reforms
of 2015 instead they produced tax reforms and implications of 2016.
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Candidates’ performance in this examination paper was satisfactory.
Out of 705 candidates who answered the paper 316 (44.8%)
Out of those who passed 312 (44.3%), 04 (0.6%) candidates scored
pass marks respectively. No candidate scored distinction marks in this
examination paper
7.5.9 below:
TABLE 7.5.9
Percentage 55.1 44.3 0.6 0.0 100
TABLE 7.5.10
C4 COMPARISON OF PASS RATE WITH NOVEMBER 2015 EXAMINATIONS
290 40.8 316 44.9 +4.1
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INTRA-LEVELS ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE –
INTERMEDIATE AND FINAL LEVELS
Under the revised examination scheme and syllabus, the Board does not allow its
candidates to attempt both levels. However, it allowed those who were caught in
transition from the phased out syllabus to the new syllabus during the transitional period.
The analysis below shows performance of the 1,267 candidates who sat examination
papers in the Intermediate and Final Levels respectively.
Their performance is as indicated hereunder:
INTERMEDIATE & FINAL

S/No. COMBINATION
Number Percent
1 Pass Both 67 05.3
2 Pass INTER, Partial Pass FINAL 163 12.9
3 Pass INTER, Fail FINAL 133 10.5
4 Partial Pass INTER, Pass FINAL 0 00.0
7 Partial Pass INTER, Fail FINAL 61 04.8
8 Fail INTER, Pass FINAL 32 02.5
9 Fail INTER, Partial Pass FINAL 179 14.1
10 Fail Both 572 45.1
Total 1267 100%
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CHAPTER III
EXAMINERS’ RECOMMENDATIONS TO THE TUTORS AND STUDENTS

In each examination session, the panel of examiners come up with suggestions to both
Tutors and Students which are aimed at improving future candidates’ performance.
These recommendations arise from shortcomings observed in the course of marking the
candidates’ scripts.
RECOMMENDATIONS TO TUTORS
Guidance to the candidates
1. Tutors should encourage their students to put more efforts in their studies while
preparing for the examinations. They should ensure that only those students who
have performed well in the class tests and mock examinations are allowed to sit
for the Board’s examinations.
2. Tutors should expose their students to examination techniques including how to

tackle a question in on examination room.
3. Tutors should encourage their students to read extensively and do a lot of

exercises. They should discourage students from cramming the questions and
their solutions as this will not assist them during the examinations.
4. Tutors should encourage their students to create a habit of reading current issues
and keeping themselves abreast with the issues taking place within and globally.
This will assist them in answering the questions that are of general nature and at
the same time improve their vocabulary.
5. Tutors should encourage students to devote more time in their studies and help
them to obtain relevant materials and reference books for the particular subjects.
Teaching and learning materials

6. Tutors should prepare and update their teaching notes (competence based) that
can be made available to their students.
7. Tutors should devote their time to prepare appropriate case study questions and
orient students especially those at higher levels on how to tackle case study
questions.
8. Tutors should introduce an ‘examination technique’ topic during the course of

training. The examination techniques in one of the crucial areas that play a vital
role to students when it comes to answering examination questions.
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9. Tutors should make sure that they concentrate on teaching using NBAA Learning
Materials and other supplementary relevant learning materials to cover the
syllabus adequately. It is important that the tutors should prepare work-plans that
guide them in covering the entire syllabus of the subjects they teach.
10. Tutors should devote their time to attend NBAA seminars, workshops and
Training of Trainers workshops in order to be aware of current emerging
professional issues.
Evaluating the candidates

11. Tutors should at a certain point of time, prepare mock examinations that would
test the students understanding and segregate weak from strong students whom
should be given more exercises and attention before they can be allowed to
register for the examinations. The mock examinations should cover typical
examination questions in an examination atmosphere thereby familiarizing the
students to similar conditions that they would encounter when taking their
examinations.
Effective teaching
12. Tutors should prepare scheme of works/lesson plans that will guide them during
the teaching process. Teaching plans have to be provided to enable the students
be aware of what has to be covered and at what time.
13. Tutors should ensure that they are using relevant and up-to-date teaching
materials in order to avoid misleading the students.
14. Tutors should ensure that they attend short courses regarding teaching
methodologies in order to improve their teaching styles and acquire modern
teaching methodologies.
15. Tutors should take time to read comments prepared by markers which have been
summarized in the Examiners’ and Performance Report. By so doing they will
understand their shortfalls and improve in the respective areas mentioned by the
markers.
16. For the subjects which need practical orientation like auditing, it would be much
better for the trainers to invite practicing auditors to teach some of the topics.
17. Tutors should avoid spoon feeding the students, instead they have to apply
various participatory teaching methods in order to bring about effective learning
among the students.
18. Tutors should in as much as possible try to observe the weaknesses of their
students and address them by equipping them with different skills on the subject
matter especially on new statutes.
104
19. Tutors should at all times be up-to-date with emerging teaching techniques and
should apply them. Tutors should also apply the techniques that make the learner
think more rather than cramming.
20. Tutors should ensure that they equip themselves with knowledge and skills that
are required to teach effectively the students under competence based syllabi
21. Tutors should assist students on how to use the learning materials for effectively
learning
RECOMMENDATIONS TO STUDENTS
Applying appropriate learning styles
22. Students should develop study schedules that will guide them during the
preparations for the examinations and ensure that they have covered each and
every topic in the syllabus.
23. Changes taking place in the accounting, auditing, tax, law regimes are vast and
hence students should keep up-to-date with those changes. For example
definitions and terminologies in accounting and auditing have been modified
since the adoption of the International Accounting/Auditing Standards. Students
need to know these changes in order to be able to apply them in their course of
study and in their work places.
24. Students should develop a culture of reading NBAA Learning materials, various
textbooks and journals in order to get an in depth knowledge and understanding of
the subject matter.
25. Students should put more effort on Public Sector Accounting/Auditing as it seems
they do not give special attention on the area.
26. Students should work hard, think critically and do more practice to enhance their
competence and confidence.
27. Students should make sure that they respond to the requirements of the question
asked rather than answering what has not been asked. They should not formulate
their own questions and provide their own answers.
28. Students are required to do comprehensive preparations. They should not base
their preparations on occurrence of topics on past examinations.
105
Self motivation towards learning
29. Students need to take personal initiative to improve their mastery of English
Language. This can be achieved in many ways – through reading daily
newspapers, magazines, books and through speaking the language. Language
limitations has affected majority of candidates as they fail to express themselves
properly let alone giving them flexibility in answering the questions.
30. Students should take an initiative of improving their case study analysis. Should
seek assistance from their trainers on how to analyze a case study questions.
31. Students should develop their own learning strategies; they should not depend
entirely on their trainers.
Assurance of knowledge mastery

32. Students should work hard and not rush to sit for the examinations before they
have assured themselves that they are ready for the examinations. They should
not take chances and play a game of chance (doing examination is not gambling),
hoping that they will find the examinations questions they are familiar with. They
need to ensure that they get value for the money they have used as tuition and
examination fees.
33. Students to take seriously initiative and effort to cover the whole syllabus
requirement material through reading various books, journals and published
articles not to concentrate mostly in teaching questions and answers of past
examinations.
34. Students should avoid attempting the examination unless they have covered a
major part of the respective syllabus; also devote more time in private and group
discussions study rather than considering the examination as “going concern”.
35. Students should make a good use of the learning materials in order to improve
their learning
36. Students should ensure that they avoid learning through memorisation, instead
they have to study and understand subject matters in details
Appropriate preparation for examinations and examination techniques

37. When attempting the examinations, students/candidates are urged to first read the
instructions, and then read the questions properly before they start attempting the
question. Make a viable choice in case there are optional questions or even the
choice of questions they should start attempting.
38. Students should learn how to organize their answers during the examination
attempts. This can be achieved through practice.
106
39. Students should have extensive course contents coverage and attempt many
questions in the preparation of their examination in the form of self exercise to
build their ability to tackle questions properly and to be able to understand
different term used in examinations.
40. Students should ensure that they attend review classes without giving any excuses
for not enrolling to these reviews.
41. Students should take time to read about examination techniques that are published
regularly in the NBAA Students’ Newsletters and other publications in order to
acquire rightful techniques in dealing and answering examination questions.
42. Students should make use of the syllabus outlines during their preparations in
order to countercheck that they have adequately covered the syllabus.
43. Students should make use of group discussions in order to enhance their
understanding through such discussion.
44. Students should orient themselves with different type of questions, theoretical and
computational type of questions and do thorough preparations during the study
sessions. They should also equip themselves with analytical skills, especially as
at the higher levels in order to be tackle questions that require such skills.
45. Students should change their reading behaviour of memorizing various questions
and answers by devoting their time in reading various books and get an insight of
the subject matters.
46. Students should make thorough preparation for the examination by reading
extensively the recommendations text books to supplement what they are getting
from the review classes.
47. Students are advised to apply the following techniques among others in order to
pass their examinations.
47.1 Ensuring that the syllabus is well covered

Candidates are required to use the syllabus as their base of determining whether
they are ready to sit for the examinations or not. The problem of most candidates
is total dependence on the trainers. It is not funny to find a candidate attending a
review class without having a syllabus. It is difficult for such a candidate to
know what has been covered by the trainer and what has been left out. Some
candidates instead of ensuring that they have covered the syllabus adequately
they rely on Question and Answers (Qs and As) booklets. Questions and
Answers of previous examinations are good but they are not supplements of the
syllabus. By reading Question and Answer booklets students cannot get
sufficient knowledge about the subject matter. The best way of making use of Qs
and as is after the completion of the syllabus to see how examination questions
are set and the best ways to approach them.
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47.2 Active participation in the classroom sessions
The education system of most countries including Tanzania does not prepare
students/candidates to take active role in the classroom. The predominant
teaching method used i.e. lecturing is characterized by various shortcomings
including: subject experts are not always good teachers, students are passive,
learning is difficult to gauge and communication is one way i.e. students are just
listening to lectures and do not participate actively. If a student goes to the class
waiting for a trainer to come and dish information to be grasped, automatically
learning becomes impaired. An effective learning to take place requires the
learners to take effective role in the learning process. Experience shows that
students who ask questions and pose challenges during the learning process they
do well in their examinations. Asking a question or posing a challenge to a
trainer does not come from nowhere, it come only if a student is interested to
what he is learning. An interested student in the learning process is the one who
takes trouble to read what is going to be taught before entering the class.
Therefore trainers are required to prepare course outlines derived from the
prescribe syllabus so as to enable students to follow. Students can make use of
the course outline to prepare on their own before they go to the classroom. The
lesson becomes enjoyable when both students and the trainers are prepared
before entering the classroom. In short, student’s active role in the class is
fundamental factor in the effective learning process.
47.3 Review class attendance

Review classes are quite different from formal schooling. In the formal
schooling context trainers exercise authority of controlling students’ attendance.
They can penalize students who miss classes without genuine reasons. This does
not happen in the review classes because those who are attending review classes
are heterogeneous. Some are employees, some are self employed, and others are
fresh graduates from colleges while others are occupied with various social
responsibilities. It becomes difficult for the trainers to control attendance of such
categories of learners. But we should bear in mind that at higher level education,
classroom attendance is not a responsibility of the trainer. If there is any
candidate who misses classes just because there is no one to question about it,
such a student must have some problems. No one is expecting to see a student
missing a class without having genuine reasons at this level of education. But,
generally there is lack of seriousness among most candidates especially in the
case of classroom attendance. Candidates are therefore reminded that attending
classroom sessions appropriately should be self motivated.
108
There is a good number of candidates who never attend review classes with
confidence that they know each and every thing. They register themselves for
examinations as private candidates. Experience shows that candidates who are
attending review classes have a far better chance to pass their examinations than
those who do not attend. Some of the candidates attend review classes only
when they sit for the examinations on the first time but when they are required to
refer or re-seat the examinations they neglect to register for review classes. They
claim to have adequate and sufficient materials and therefore they can study on
their own. This is not always a good decision. Human brain is characterized by
the nature of forgetting. A famous study on forgetting textbook materials
compared the percentage of material remembered after different intervals of
time. The results were as follows:
After 1 day 54% was remembered.

After 7 days 35% was remembered.
Remembering what you have heard in lectures is even more difficult to recall
because you are not able to slow down, pause, reflect, or to reread unless you
take excellent notes! In a study on recall after listening to a lecture, students
forgot more than 90% of the points from the lecture after 14 days! (Engle,
Susan: Context is everything: The nature of memory. W.H. Freeman & Co,
1999). If that is the case then there is no way a candidate may decide not to
attend review classes.
47.4 Group discussions

By not sharing ones knowledge of understanding about a particular subject matter
a candidate may think that he knows much about the subject but when it comes
into examination, such a candidate fails! It is very easy for someone to cheat
himself that he knows much about a particular subject matter due to lack of
sharing knowledge with others. Going to the library daily or doing daily self-
study is not a direct ticket to pass examinations. There is a belief that when you
are taught something by your fellow student who understands the subject matter,
the knowledge sticks into your mind than being taught by a trainer. Group
discussions are said to be a good source of learning and sharing of knowledge and
experiences due to its nature of open interaction. Although most candidates who
are preparing for the professional examinations are facing limited time to organize
group discussions, they should not ignore it at all. They should be aware that
sometimes it is far better to discuss a subject/topic in a group than going to the
library for self study. Group discussion is a potential source of learning but it is
ignored by most candidates. Candidates are therefore obliged to form group
discussions to discuss various topics especially those which are most difficult or
complicated.
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47.5 Practise learning of materials in deep
One of the major factors that lead to poor performance in the examinations is
learning things in shallow. Most candidates have ample time to study but they do
not do it until the ‘late hours’. They keep on saying ‘there is enough time to
study’. But since time does not on the favour of anyone in this universe they find
themselves running shortage of time. What follows after this is to make ‘ad hoc’
preparations. In this case therefore they practise what the psychologists call ‘rote
learning’. By definition rote learning is a learning technique which avoids
understanding the inner complexities and inferences of the subject that is being
learned and instead focuses on memorizing the materials so that it can be recalled
by the learner exactly the way it was read or heard. In other words, it is learning
"just for the test".
The major practice involved in rote learning techniques is learning by repetition,

based on the idea that one will be able to recall the meaning of the material the
more they repeat it. However, in many fields, especially mathematics and related
disciplines, this can often produce poor results.
Rote learning is not the best way of studying. Students are required to study a
subject matter in deep. This will make them to own what they have learnt and
express it in their own words. In rote learning a student tries to reproduce what he
has read as it was read. ‘If a student reads something with the aim of reproducing
it as it is, that is not understanding. This method limits a student to learn many
things because memory capacity for human beings is also limited. Students should
also be aware that rote learning does not develop interest to learn. As you
memorize new materials the old ones fade out.
47.6 Conclusion
Candidates should take trouble to read various techniques for passing
examinations rather than concentrating only on studying topics that will appear in
the examinations. Those who have been able to make use of various study
techniques have found themselves enjoying learning and finally pass their
examinations. Studying for the examinations should be enjoyable rather than
becoming cumbersome to the candidates. This is possible if the candidates apply
appropriate techniques in their studies.
110
CHAPTER IV
CANDIDATURE DISTRIBUTION
The Board’s examination candidature comes from various training institutions (Tuition
Providers) in the country. The November 2016 examination session drew candidates
from the following institutions as per Table 8 below:
TABLE 8
NO. OF CANDIDATES
S/N NAME OF INSTITUTION ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL
I II LEVEL LEVEL LEVEL
1 PRIVATE 20 34 75 594 380 1103
2 PT BRIGHT
5 10 78 37 130
MOROGORO
3 PT CCA 12 10 5 3 30
4 PT ATC ARUSHA 1 1 2
5 PT CORNERSTONE 10 39 58 143 79 329
6 PT COVENANT FC 10 32 146 1196 600 1984
7 PT EVIN 4 8 6 482 391 891
8 PT FANI 2 10 12
9 PT KAS 17 23 25 30 11 106
10 PT PAC- ARUSHA 9 14 25 127 72 247
11 PT PTC MWANZA 2 1 2 16 10 31
12 PT VICTORY MWANZA 5 2 7
13 PT EXCEL MOSHI 1 12 92 42 147
14 PT SJCS 5 2 7
15 PT IDIANA CONSUL
4 45 8 57
MBEYA
16 PT MU DSM 1 9 2 12
17 PT FTC 1 1
18 PT PYTHAGORAS F.C 7 9 6 22
19 PT INSPIRE 4 1 5
20 PT MMK DODOMA 1 3 58 34 96
21 PT NAO 1 26 20 47
22 PT WAME MWANZA 2 5 1 8
23 PT APT 3 2 5
24 PT TCCG 5 78 53 133
25 PT FILADEFIA F.C.
14 82 44 140
DODOMA
26 PT ZIBCO 1 15 8 24
27 PT EMINENT 6 125 62 193
28 PT UPTAKE 1 1 5 77 31 115
29 PT AFC 27 409 258 694
30 PT ACG 1 2 3
31 PT ZENJI 1 21 10 32
32 PT REHOBOTH
2 2 4
CONSULT
33 PT GC TABORA 3 15 2 20
34 PT ATTIUDE 1 140 88 229
35 WADE ARUSHA 1 1 27 19 48
TOTAL APPLIED 92 170 454 3925 2276 6917
ABSENTEEISM 8 12 49 403 163 635
TOTAL SAT 84 158 405 3522 2113 6282
111
KEY:
1 PRIVATE
2 PT BRIGHT - MOROGORO - Part-time Review Classes conducted by Bright of Morogoro
3 PT CCA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Commercial College of Arusha
4 PT ATC ARUSHA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Arusha Technical College - Arusha
5 PT CORNERSTONE - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Cornerstone Financial Consultants
6 PT COVENANT- FC - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Covenant Financial Consultants
7 PT EVIN - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Evin School of Management
8 PT FANI - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Fani Business Consultants
- Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by KAS Institute of Professionals (T) Ltd.
9 PT KAS
– DSM.
10 PT PAC- ARUSHA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by PAC Consultants of Arusha
11 PT PTC - MWANZA - Professional Training Centre - Mwanza
- Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Victory Accountants, Auditors and
12 PT VICTORY - MWANZA
Business Consultants
- Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Excel Financial & Tax Solutions of
13 PT EXCEL- MOSHI
Moshi
14 PT SJCS - St. Joseph’s Commercial School – Tanga
15 PT IDIANA CONSULTANCY - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Idiana Consultancy and CPA (T)
16 PT MU DSM - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Mzumbe University DSM Campus
17 PT FTC - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Financial Training Centre
18 PT Pythagoras F.C - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Pythagoras Financial Consultancy
19 PT INSPIRE - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Inspire Consultants Ltd
20 PT MMK DODOMA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by MMK - Dodoma
21 PT NAO - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by National Audit Office – DSM
22 PT WAME - MWANZA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by WAME Investment - Mwanza
23 PT APT - APT Financial Consultants – DSM
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Tanzania Centre for Corporate
24 PT TCCG
Governance
PT FILADEFIA Financial - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Filadefia Financial Consultancy
25
Consultancy DODOMA DODOMA
- Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Zanzibar Intellectual and Business
26 PT ZIBCO
Consultants
27 PT EMINENT - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by EMINENT
28 PT UPTAKE - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by UPTAKE Business Resources (T) Ltd
- Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Accountants and Financial Consultants
29 PT AFC
Ltd
30 PT ACG - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Accountant General’s Office
31 PT ZENJI - Zenji Review and Consultancy - Zanzibar
32 PT REHOBOTH CONSULT - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Rehoboth Consultancy - DSM
33 PT GC TABORA - Part-Time Review Classes Conducted by Tabora General Consultants
34 PT ATTITUDE - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by Attitude Financial Consultants
35 PT WADE ARUSHA - Part-Time Review Classes conducted by WADE Through Financial Consultants
112
INSTITUTIONAL PERFORMANCE
The assessment of institutional performance is done using two approaches:
1. Best Candidate Approach:

The best institution under this approach is the one which produces the “NBAA Best
Level Candidate”, a candidate who obtained the highest marks in aggregate, at a
single examination attempt. Using this approach, the best candidate for each of the
Board’s examination levels is as follows:
Examination Best Candidates came from

ATEC Level I PT KAS
ATEC Level II No candidate qualified for the award
FOUNDATION LEVEL: PT CORNERSTONE
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL: PT UP-TAKE
FINAL LEVEL: No candidate qualified for the award
1. Performance Approach:
Under this approach, the best institution is that which obtains the highest Grade Point
Average (GPA) in relation to the total number of A ,B, C, F grades obtained by
candidates in comparison with total number of papers sat by candidates in that level.
The following formula is applied
Subject GPA =
Where Na = Total Number of Candidates who have scored A in an institution at that level
Nb = Total Number of Candidates who have scored B in an institution at that level
Nc = Total Number of Candidates who have scored C in an institution at that level
Nf = Total Number of Candidates who have scored F in an institution at that level
Pa = The weight of Grade A = 3
Pb = The weight of Grade B = 2
Pc = The weight of Grade C = 1
Pf = The weight of Grade F = 0
113
Arising from the above, the best three institutions under this approach for each
examination level are as indicated hereunder: (See tables 15.1 to 15.5(b) on pages 145 to
154 of this report).
Examination Level Best Institution
ATEC I:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT SJCS
2nd - PT EVIN & PTC MWANZA
Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT KAS
2nd - PT COVENANT F.C
3rd - PT CONERSTONE
ATEC II:
Category A: 1-5 Candidates 1st - PT UP-TAKE
2nd - PT WADE ARUSHA
3rd - PT BRIGHT MOROGORO
Category B: Above 5 Candidates 1st - PT CORNERSTONE & PAC
ARUSHA
3rd - PT KAS
FOUNDATION LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT FTC
2nd - PT SJCS
3rd - PT TCCG
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT CORNERSTONE

2nd - PT AFC
3rd - PT COVENANT F.C
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT MU DSM
2nd - PT INSPIRE
3rd - PT APT
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT CONERSTONE
2nd - PT ATTITUDE
3rd - PT EXCEL MOSHI
FINAL LEVEL:
Category A: 1-20 Candidates 1st - PT ATC ARUSHA, INSPIRE &
WAME MWANZA
Category B: Above 20 Candidates 1st - PT COVENANT F.C

2nd - PT ATTITUDE
3rd - PT MMK DODOMA
114
TABLE 8.1
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVEL AND INSTITUTION WISE
1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
No of No of % of No of % of No of No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers A A B B C % of C F % of F GPA Ranking
PT - SJCS 5 0 5 20 0 0.0% 5 25.0% 13 65.0% 2 10.0% 1.15 1
PT - PTC MWANZA 2 0 2 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 80.0% 1 20.0% 0.80 2
PT -EVIN 4 1 3 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 80.0% 1 20.0% 0.80 2
PT -UPTAKE 1 0 1 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 1 33.3% 0.67 4
PT -WADE ARUSHA 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 5
PT - EXCEL MOSHI 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0.00 5
Subtotals 14 1 13 38 0 0.0% 5 13.2% 23 60.5% 10 26.3% 14
RANKING
1ST - PT SJCS
2RD - PT EVIN & PTC MWANZA
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of No of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level.
115
TABLE 8.2
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I
No of No % of No of % of No of % of No of % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers of A A B B C C F F GPA Ranking
PT - KAS 17 0 17 48 0 0.0% 5 10.4% 26 54.2% 17 35.4% 0.75 1
PT - Covenant F. C. 10 1 9 23 0 0.0% 1 4.3% 13 56.5% 9 39.1% 0.65 2
PT - CornerStone 10 0 10 24 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 10 41.7% 14 58.3% 0.42 3
PT - PAC - ARUSHA 9 2 7 16 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 18.8% 13 81.3% 0.19 4
PT - CCA 12 0 12 28 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 10.7% 25 89.3% 0.11 5
Subtotals 58 3 55 139 0 0.0% 6 4.3% 55 39.6% 78 56.1% 58
1ST - PT KAS
2ND - PT COVENANT F. C
3RD - PT CORNERSTONE
Key:
Number of Grades – Is Number of Grades (A-F) scored by that Institution in all papers in that particular level?
116
TABLE 8.3

1-5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
No of No % of No % of No of No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers of A A of B B C % of C F % of F GPA Ranking
PT - UPTAKE 1 0 1 4 0 0.0% 2 50.0% 2 50.0% 0 0.0% 1.50 1
PT - WADE ARUSHA 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 2
PT -BRGHT
5 0 5 15
MOROGORO 0 0.0% 4 26.7% 6 40.0% 5 33.3% 0.93 3
PT- PTC MWANZA 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 4
PT - MMK DODOMA 1 0 1 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 33.3% 2 66.7% 0.33 5
PT - NAO 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 6
Subtotals 10 0 10 26 0 0.0% 6 23.1% 11 42.3% 9 34.6%
1ST - PT UPTAKE
1ST - PT WADE ARUSHA
3RD - PT BRIGHT MOROGORO
Key:
117
TABLE 8.4
ABOVE 5 CANDIDATES - ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL II
No of No of % of No of % of No of % of No of % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers A A B B C C F F GPA Ranking
PT - CornerStone 39 2 37 100 0 0.0% 9 9.0% 50 50.0% 41 41.0% 0.68 1
PT - PAC - ARUSHA 14 3 11 25 0 0.0% 2 8.0% 13 52.0% 10 40.0% 0.68 1
PT - KAS 23 1 22 69 0 0.0% 3 4.3% 35 50.7% 31 44.9% 0.59 3
PT - Covenant F. C. 32 0 32 98 0 0.0% 6 6.1% 41 41.8% 51 52.0% 0.54 4
PT -EVIN 8 1 7 18 0 0.0% 1 5.6% 7 38.9% 10 55.6% 0.50 5
PT - CCA 10 0 10 21 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 10 47.6% 11 52.4% 0.48 6
Subtotals 126 7 119 331 0 0.0% 21 6.3% 156 47.1% 154 46.5%
1ST - PT CONER STONE & PAC-ARUSHA

3RD - PT PAC – KAS
Key:
118
TABLE 8.5
SUMMARY OF RESULTS BY EXAMINATION LEVELS AND INSTITUTIONS
1- 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers No of A % of A No of B % of B No of C % of C No of F % of F GPA Ranking
PT - FTC 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2.00 1
PT- SJCS 2 0 2 6 0 0.0% 3 50.0% 3 50.0% 0 0.0% 1.50 2
PT - TCCG 5 2 3 9 0 0.0% 4 44.4% 5 55.6% 0 0.0% 1.44 3
PT - PTC Mwanza 2 0 2 7 0 0.0% 3 42.9% 4 57.1% 0 0.0% 1.43 4
PT - MMK Dodoma 3 1 2 7 0 0.0% 4 57.1% 1 14.3% 2 28.6% 1.29 5
PT -EXCEL MOSHI 12 1 11 26 0 0.0% 6 23.1% 17 65.4% 3 11.5% 1.12 6
PT - MU DSM 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1.00 7
PT -EMINENT 6 0 6 12 0 0.0% 2 16.7% 8 66.7% 2 16.7% 1.00 7
PT -PYTHAGORAS F.C 7 1 6 25 0 0.0% 3 12.0% 18 72.0% 4 16.0% 0.96 9
PT -BRIGHT MORO 10 0 10 19 1 5.3% 2 10.5% 11 57.9% 5 26.3% 0.95 10
PT - IDIANA CONSULT. 4 0 4 15 0 0.0% 2 13.3% 9 60.0% 4 26.7% 0.87 11
PT-UPTAKE 5 1 4 7 0 0.0% 3 42.9% 0 0.0% 4 57.1% 0.86 12
PT - CCA 5 0 5 14 0 0.0% 1 7.1% 10 71.4% 3 21.4% 0.86 12
PT - FANI 2 0 2 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 80.0% 1 20.0% 0.80 14
PT -FILADEFIA F.C DOM 14 0 14 39 0 0.0% 5 12.8% 21 53.8% 13 33.3% 0.79 15
PT - G.C TABORA 3 0 3 12 0 0.0% 1 8.3% 7 58.3% 4 33.3% 0.75 16
PT - WAME MWANZA 2 0 2 8 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 6 75.0% 2 25.0% 0.75 16
PT -EVIN 6 1 5 11 0 0.0% 1 9.1% 6 54.5% 4 36.4% 0.73 18
PT - ATITTUDE 1 0 1 5 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 60.0% 2 40.0% 0.60 19
PT - ZIBCO 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 20
PT -ZENJI 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1 50.0% 0.50 20
PT - VICTORY MWANZA 5 0 5 17 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 8 47.1% 9 52.9% 0.47 22
Subtotals 98 7 91 251 1 0.4% 42 16.7% 143 57.0% 65 25.9%
ST
1 - PT FTC
2ND - PT SJCS
3RD - PT TCCG
Key:
119
TABLE 8.6

ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FOUNDATION LEVEL
PT - CornerStone 58 7 51 156 4 2.6% 60 38.5% 62 39.7% 30 19.2% 1.24 1
PT - AFC 27 2 25 75 3 4.0% 16 21.3% 36 48.0% 20 26.7% 1.03 2
PT - Covenant F. C. 146 17 129 347 2 0.6% 78 22.5% 181 52.2% 86 24.8% 0.99 3
PT- PAC ARUSHA 25 3 22 57 0 0.0% 8 14.0% 29 50.9% 20 35.1% 0.79 4
PT - KAS 25 1 24 64 0 0.0% 5 7.8% 40 62.5% 19 29.7% 0.78 5
Subtotals 281 30 251 699 9 1.3% 167 23.9% 348 49.8% 175 25.0%
1ST - PT CORNERSTONE
2ND - PT AFC
3RD - PT COVENANT
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
120
TABLE 8.7
1-20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
No of No of % of No of % of No of No of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers A A B B C % of C F % of F GPA Ranking
PT - MU DSM 9 0 9 26 0 0.0% 1 3.8% 16 61.5% 9 34.6% 0.69 1
PT - INSPIRE 4 1 3 9 0 0.0% 1 11.1% 4 44.4% 4 44.4% 0.67 2
PT - APT 3 1 2 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 50.0% 2 50.0% 0.50 3
PT-WAME MWANZA 5 0 5 15 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 7 46.7% 8 53.3% 0.47 4
PT - PTC MWANZA 16 3 13 24 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 9 37.5% 15 62.5% 0.38 5
PT - CCA 3 0 3 8 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 25.0% 6 75.0% 0.25 6
PT - VICTORY
2 0 2 4
MWANZA 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 25.0% 3 75.0% 0.25 6
PT - FANI 10 0 10 37 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 9 24.3% 28 75.7% 0.24 8
PT-ZIBCO 15 2 13 38 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 8 21.1% 30 78.9% 0.21 9
PT - G.C TABORA 15 0 15 44 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 9 20.5% 35 79.5% 0.20 10
PT-PYTHAGORAS F.C 9 1 8 15 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 13.3% 13 86.7% 0.13 11
PT - ATC ARUSHA 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 12
PT - ACG 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0.00 12
PT REHOBOTH 2 0 2 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 12
Subtotals 95 8 87 228 0 0.0% 2 0.9% 69 30.3% 157 68.9%
1ST - PT MU DSM
2ND - PT INSPIRE
3RD - PT APT
Key:
Total No of Papers Attempted – Is calculated as sum of Number of Candidates times Papers Attempted (∑ of Candidates x No of Papers)
121
TABLE 8.8
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
PT- CORNERSTONE 143 17 126 318 0 0.0% 11 3.5% 163 51.3% 144 45.3% 0.58 1
PT - ATTITUDE 140 11 129 335 0 0.0% 14 4.2% 148 44.2% 173 51.6% 0.53 2
PT - EXCEL MOSHI 92 4 88 283 0 0.0% 13 4.6% 122 43.1% 148 52.3% 0.52 3
PT - UPTAKE 77 4 73 188 0 0.0% 9 4.8% 79 42.0% 100 53.2% 0.52 4
PT - COVENANT F.C 1196 68 1128 3139 2 0.1% 102 3.2% 1364 43.5% 1671 53.2% 0.50 5
PT - IDIANA
45 2 43 216
CONSULT 0 0.0% 6 2.8% 87 40.3% 123 56.9% 0.46 6
PT - TCCG 78 7 71 142 0 0.0% 3 2.1% 56 39.4% 83 58.5% 0.44 7
PT - PAC ARUSHA 127 10 117 242 0 0.0% 6 2.5% 85 35.1% 151 62.4% 0.40 8
PT - EVIN 482 71 411 783 0 0.0% 12 1.5% 282 36.0% 489 62.5% 0.39 9
PT - EMINENT 125 12 113 184 0 0.0% 3 1.6% 64 34.8% 117 63.6% 0.38 10
PT - ZENJI 21 4 17 40 0 0.0% 2 5.0% 11 27.5% 27 67.5% 0.38 11
PT - AFC 409 47 362 716 0 0.0% 10 1.4% 228 31.8% 478 66.8% 0.35 12
PT - MMK DODOMA 58 10 48 104 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 34 32.7% 70 67.3% 0.33 13
PT-BRIGHT MORO 78 13 65 127 0 0.0% 4 3.1% 29 22.8% 94 74.0% 0.29 14
PT - KAS 30 3 27 61 0 0.0% 1 1.6% 15 24.6% 45 73.8% 0.28 15
PT - FILADEFIA FC 82 11 71 145 0 0.0% 4 2.8% 31 21.4% 110 75.9% 0.27 16
PT - WADE ARUSHA 27 3 24 50 0 0.0% 2 4.0% 8 16.0% 40 80.0% 0.24 17
PT - NAO 26 10 16 22 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 22.7% 17 77.3% 0.23 18
Subtotals 3236 307 2929 7095 2 0.0% 202 2.8% 2811 39.6% 4080 57.5%
1ST - PT CORNERSTONE.
2ND - PT ATTITUDE
3RD - PT EXCEL - MOSHI
Key:
122
TABLE 8.9
1-20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
No of No % of No % of No No
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers of A A of B B of C % of C of F % of F GPA Ranking
PT - ATC ARUSHA 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 1
PT - INSPIRE 1 0 1 1 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 100.0% 0 0.0% 1.00 1
PT - WAME MWANZA 1 0 1 2 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 0 0.0% 1 50.0% 1.00 1
PT - APT 2 0 2 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 1 33.3% 0.67 4
PT - G.C TABORA 2 0 2 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 66.7% 1 33.3% 0.67 4
PT- ZENJI 10 3 7 12 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 5 41.7% 7 58.3% 0.42 6
PT - WADE ARUSHA 19 2 17 22 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 8 36.4% 14 63.6% 0.36 7
PT - PTC MWANZA 10 1 9 13 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 30.8% 9 69.2% 0.31 8
PT - NAO 20 6 14 23 0 0.0% 1 4.3% 5 21.7% 17 73.9% 0.30 9
PT - ZIBCO 8 1 7 12 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 25.0% 9 75.0% 0.25 10
PT - IDIANA CONSULT. 8 1 7 12 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 16.7% 10 83.3% 0.17 11
PT - KAS 11 0 11 13 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 15.4% 11 84.6% 0.15 12
PT - PYTHAGORAS F.C 6 1 5 7 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 1 14.3% 6 85.7% 0.14 13
PT - MU DSM 2 0 2 3 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 3 100.0% 0.00 14
PT - REHOBOTH CONSUL 2 0 2 4 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 4 100.0% 0.00 14
PT - ACG 2 0 2 2 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 2 100.0% 0.00 14
Subtotals 105 15 90 133 0 0.0% 2 1.5% 36 27.1% 95 71.4%
ST
1 - PT ATC ARUSHA, INSPIRE & WAME MWANZA
Key:
123
TABLE 8.10
ABOVE 20 CANDIDATES - FINAL LEVEL
No of No % of No % of No % of No % of
Institution Entered Absent Sat papers of A A of B B of C C of F F GPA Ranking
PT - COVENANT F.C 600 31 569 1099 0 0.0% 13 1.2% 504 45.9% 582 53.0% 0.48 1
PT - ATTITUDE 88 5 83 143 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 65 45.5% 78 54.5% 0.45 2
PT- MMK DODOMA 34 1 33 65 0 0.0% 1 1.5% 25 38.5% 39 60.0% 0.42 3
PT - CORNERSTONE 79 9 70 127 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 52 40.9% 75 59.1% 0.41 4
PT - UPTAKE 31 3 28 49 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 19 38.8% 30 61.2% 0.39 5
PT-EXCEL MOSHI 42 3 39 68 0 0.0% 1 1.5% 24 35.3% 44 64.7% 0.38 6
PT- PAC ARUSHA 72 6 66 117 0 0.0% 1 0.9% 40 34.2% 76 65.0% 0.36 7
PT - EVIN 391 21 370 643 0 0.0% 3 0.5% 221 34.4% 419 65.2% 0.35 8
PT - AFC 258 20 238 422 0 0.0% 1 0.2% 131 31.0% 290 68.7% 0.32 9
PT - EMINENT 62 8 54 82 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 22 26.8% 60 73.2% 0.27 10
PT - TCCG 53 1 52 99 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 25 25.3% 71 71.7% 0.26 11
PT- FILADEFIA F.C 44 4 40 67 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 15 22.4% 52 77.6% 0.22 12
PT - BRIGHT MORO 37 5 32 58 0 0.0% 0 0.0% 7 12.1% 51 87.9% 0.12 13
Subtotals 1791 117 1674 3039 0 0.0% 20 0.7% 1150 37.8% 1867 61.4%
1ST - PT COVENANT F.C

2ND - PT ATTITUDE
3RD - PT MMK DODOMA
Key:
124
CHAPTER V
ACCOUNTING MANPOWER CREATED BY THE BOARD UP TO NOVEMBER

2016
In an effort to meet the demand of the highly needed accounting personnel in the country,
the Board has been able to create cumulatively 21,535 accounting manpower since its
inception in May 1975.
These qualified accounting personnel created are categorized in the following groups:
(1) Certified Public Accountants (CPA) 7,585

(2) National Accountancy Diploma (NAD)
(Phased out in November 1991) 1,537
(3) National Book-keeping Certificate (NABOCE)
(phased out in May 1991) 5,746
(4) Basic Book-keeping Certificate (BBC)
(phased out in November 1990) 2,971
(5) Accounting Technician Certificate (ATEC) 3,696
Table 9 below shows the statistics of graduates per session and cumulatively since May
1975 to November 2013
NBAA GRADUATES – CUMULATIVE STATISTICAL ANALYSIS

MAY 1975 –NOVEMBER 2015
TABLE 9
EXAMINATION BBC NABOCE ATEC NAD CPA TOTAL
SESSION NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM. NO. CUM.
1ST SESSION - - 04 04 - - 01 01 NE NE 05 05
MAY 1975
2ND SESSION - - 32 36 - - 10 11 NE NE 42 47
NOV. 1975
3RD SESSION - - 158 194 - - 25 36 02 02 185 232
MAY 1976
4TH SESSION - - 73 267 - - 43 79 02 04 118 350
NOV. 1976
5TH SESSION - - 174 441 - - 36 115 08 12 218 568
MAY 1977
6TH SESSION - - 98 539 - - 17 132 03 15 118 686
NOV. 1977
7TH SESSION - - 193 732 - - 57 189 13 28 263 949
MAY 1978
8TH SESSION - - 172 904 - - 56 245 11 39 239 1188
NOV. 1978
9TH SESSION - - 199 1103 - - 46 291 27 66 272 1460
125
MAY 1979
10TH SESSION - - 75 1178 - - 31 322 13 79 119 1579
NOV. 1979
11TH SESSION - - 123 1301 - - 22 344 22 101 167 1746
MAY 1980
12TH SESSION - - 119 1420 - - 24 368 20 121 163 1909
NOV. 1980
13TH SESSION - - 229 1649 - - 53 421 13 134 295 2204
MAY 1981
14TH SESSION - - 124 1772 - - 23 444 21 155 168 2372
NOV. 1981
15TH SESSION - - 172 1945 - - 37 481 19 174 228 2600
MAY 1982
16TH SESSION - - 236 2181 - - 36 517 20 194 292 2892
NOV. 1982
17TH SESSION - - 248 2429 - - 47 564 21 215 316 3208
MAY 1983
18TH SESSION - - 200 2629 - - 28 592 14 220 242 3450
NOV. 1983
19TH SESSION - - 199 2828 - - 36 628 17 246 252 3702
MAY 1984
20TH SESSION - - 215 3043 - - 37 665 12 258 264 3966
NOV. 1984
21ST SESSION 18 18 306 3349 - - 41 706 12 270 377 4343
MAY 1985
22ND SESSION 40 58 194 3543 - - 44 750 09 279 287 4630
NOV. 1985
23RD SESSION 62 120 123 3666 - - 54 804 21 300 260 4890
MAY 1986
24TH SESSION 86 206 168 3834 - - 48 852 11 311 313 5203
NOV. 1986
25TH SESSION 64 270 205 4039 - - 25 877 06 317 300 5503
MAY 1987
26TH SESSION 93 363 129 4168 - - 40 917 14 331 276 5779
NOV. 1987
27TH SESSION 298 661 175 4343 - - 32 949 14 345 519 6298
MAY 1988
28TH SESSION 292 953 179 4522 - - 72 1021 22 367 565 6863
NOV. 1988
29TH SESSION 332 1285 201 4723 - - 40 1061 16 377 589 7452
MAY 1989
30TH SESSION 446 1731 232 4955 - - 78 1139 31 414 787 8239
NOV. 1989
31ST SESSION 482 2213 235 5190 - - 118 1257 17 431 852 9091
MAY 1990
32ND SESSION 758 2971 211 5401 - - 114 1371 40 471 112 10214
NOV. 1990 3
33RD SESSION - 2971 345 5746 - - 111 1482 61 532 517 10731
MAY 1991
34TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 56 56 55 1537 64 596 175 10906
NOV. 1991
35TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 136 192 - 1537 - 596 136 11042
MAY 1992
126
36TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 186 378 - 1537 11 607 197 11,239
NOV. 1992
37TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 119 497 - 1537 12 619 131 11,370
MAY 1993
38TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 104 601 - 1537 12 631 116 11,486
NOV. 1993
39TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 110 711 - 1537 16 647 126 11,612
MAY 1994
40TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 207 918 - 1537 19 666 226 11,838
NOV. 1994
41ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 122 1040 - 1537 28 694 150 11,988
MAY 1995
42ND SESSION - 2971 - 5746 117 1157 - 1537 29 723 146 12,134
NOV. 1995
43RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 87 1244 - 1537 36 759 123 12,257
MAY 1996
44TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 111 1355 - 1537 53 812 164 12,421
NOV. 1996
45TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 109 1464 - 1537 28 840 137 12,558
MAY 1997
46TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 107 1571 - 1537 40 880 147 12,705
NOV. 1997
47TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 124 1695 - 1537 40 920 164 12,869
MAY 1998
48TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 60 1755 - 1537 29 949 89 12,958
NOV. 1998
49TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 80 1835 - 1537 52 1001 132 13,090
MAY 1999
50TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 80 1915 - 1537 47 1048 127 13,217
NOV. 1999
51ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 104 2019 - 1537 42 1090 146 13,363
MAY 2000
52ND SESSION - 2971 - 5746 91 2110 - 1537 71 1161 162 13,525
NOV.2000
53RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 45 2155 - 1537 77 1238 122 13,647
MAY,2001
54TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 64 2219 - 1537 33 1271 97 13,744
NOV. 2001
55TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 41 2260 - 1537 28 1299 69 13,813
MAY 2002
56TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 2302 - 1537 53 1352 95 13,908
Nov. 2002
57TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 55 2357 - 1537 49 1401 104 14,012
MAY 2003
58th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 58 2415 - 1537 55 1456 113 14,125
NOV. 2003
59th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 85 2500 - 1537 165 1621 250 14,375
MAY 2004
60TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 113 2613 - 1537 134 1755 247 14,622
NOV. 2004
61ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 65 2678 - 1537 142 1897 207 14,829
MAY 2005
127
62ND SESSION - 2971 - 5746 75 2753 - 1537 131 2028 206 15,035
NOV. 2005
63RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 62 2815 - 1537 92 2120 154 15,189
MAY 2006
64TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 35 2850 - 1537 83 2203 118 15,307
NOV. 2006
65TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 102 2952 - 1537 97 2300 199 15,506
MAY 2007
66TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 61 3013 - 1537 177 2477 238 15,744
NOV. 2007
67TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 21 3034 - 1537 184 2661 205 15,949
MAY 2008
68TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 49 3083 - 1537 97 2758 146 16,095
NOV. 2008
69TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 45 3128 - 1537 179 2937 224 16,319
MAY 2009
70TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 61 3189 - 1537 146 3083 207 16,525
NOV. 2009
71ST SESSION - 2971 - 5746 32 3221 - 1537 164 3247 196 16,722
MAY 2010
72ND SESSION
NOV. 2010 - 2971 - 5746 33 3254 - 1537 176 3423 209 16,931
73RD SESSION - 2971 - 5746 29 3283 - 1537 185 3608 214 17,145
MAY 2011
74TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 31 3314 - 1537 268 3876 299 17,444
NOV. 2011
75th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 35 3349 - 1537 259 4135 294 17,738
MAY 2012
76th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 23 3372 - 1537 188 4323 211 17,949
NOV. 2012
77th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 26 3398 - 1537 468 4791 494 18,443
MAY 2013
78th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 36 3434 - 1537 377 5,168 413 18,856
NOV. 2013
79th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 46 3480 - 1537 478 5,646 524 19,380
MAY 2014
80th SESSION - 2971 - 5746 43 3523 - 1537 369 6,015 412 19,792
NOV. 2014
81st SESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 3565 - 1537 600 6,615 642 20,434
MAY 2015
1st Mid-SESSION - 2971 - 5746 - 3565 - 1537 03 6,618 03 20,437
AUGUST 2015
84THSESSION - 2971 - 5746 42 3607 - 1537 270 6,888 312 20,749
NOVEMBER
2015
2ND MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3607 - 1537 01 6,889 01 20,750
SESSION
FEBRUARY
2016
83rd SESSION - 2971 - 5746 40 3647 - 1537 282 7,171 322 21,072
MAY 2016
3RD MID- - 2971 - 5746 - 3647 - 1537 06 7,177 06 21,078
SESSION
128
AUGUST 2016
84TH SESSION - 2971 - 5746 49 3,696 - 1537 420 7,597 469 21,547
NOVEMBER
2016
Table 10 below shows the statistics of CPA (T) equivalent graduates per session and
cumulatively since the commencement of these examinations in November 2014 to
November 2016.
TABLE 10: CPA (T) EQUIVALENT CERTIFICATES FROM NOVEMBER 2015

– NOVEMBER 2016
EXAMINATION TOTAL
SESSION NO. CUM.
TH
80 SESSION NOVEMBER 2014 01 01
81ST SESSION MAY 2015 08 09
1ST MID-SESSION AUGUST 2015 04 13
82ND NOVEMBER 2015 03 16
2ND MID-SESSION FEBRUARY 2016 08 24
83RD SESSION MAY 2016 10 34
3RD MID-SESSION AUGUST 2016 05 39
84TH SESSION NOVEMBER 2016 19 58
129
CHAPTER VI
CANDIDATES WINNING THE SPECIAL PRIZES – NOVEMBER 2016

EXAMINATION SESSION
1.0 PRIZES OFFERED BY NBAA

NBAA offers prizes in the following categories:
1.0.1 Best Level Performance Prize
1.0.2 Single Subject Prize
1.0.3 Best Female Prizes
1.1 Minimum Requirement to Win the Prize

In order to win any of the above prizes offered by NBAA, the minimum
requirement is for a candidate to obtain an overall pass in a level, having
attempted whole set of subjects in that level and passing at a single examination
attempt.
1.2 Amount offered in each Examination level:
1.2.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize
This prize is awarded to the best candidate who completes an examination
level in the first attempt and scores highest marks in aggregate in that
level.
Exam Paper Amounts
Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 50,000
Foundation Level A1 – A5 60,000
Intermediate Level B1 – B6 80,000
Final Level C1 – C4 100,000
1.2.2 Single Subject Prize (Subject to Subject) Performance Prize

The prize is awarded to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by
attaining at least a credit mark – 70% or above in the Accounting
Technician Examination Scheme, 60% or above in the Professional
Examination Scheme.
Exam Paper Amounts

Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Levels I & II T01 – T08 40,000
Final Level C1 – C4 70,000
130
1.2.3 Best Female Prizes
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and
perform better in the Board’s examination, two categories of prizes are
offered to female candidates as follows:
1.2.3.1 Best Level Female Performance Prize:

This prize is offered to a female candidate as long as the score in
aggregate in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60%
and above in professional examinations.
Exam Paper Amounts

Codes Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level I T01 – T04 50,000
Accounting Technician Level II T05 – T08 50,000
Final Stage Level C1 – C4 100,000
1.2.3.2 Best Female Graduate Prize:

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is
offered to the female candidate who scores highest marks in
aggregate among female candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).
Exam Paper Amounts
Codes Tshs.
Best ATEC Female Graduate Prize Award T05 – T08 250,000
Best CPA (T) Female Graduate Prize Award C1 – C4 500,000
1.3 Prizes won by Candidates:

1.3.1 NBAA Best Level Performance Prize:
Code and Subject Name Name Index No. Amount
Tshs.
Accounting Technician Level JOSEPH, EMMANUEL 1027532 50,000
I
Accounting Technician Level No Candidate qualified for 50,000
II the award
Foundation Level RAMADHANI, BAKARI 3027485 60,000
Intermediate Level NYANDORO, CLYDE S. 402859 80,000
Final Level No Candidate qualified for 100,000

the award
131
1.3.2 Subject to Subject Performance Prize
The prize is offered to the best candidate who has excelled in a subject by
attaining at least a credit mark -70% or above in Accounting Technician
Examination Scheme or 60% or above in professional examination
scheme.
The following candidates qualify for the prizes in each examination layer:
Accounting Technician Level I

Tshs.
T.01 - Bookkeeping and JOSEPH, EMMANUEL 1027532 40,000
Accounts
T.02 - Elements of Business JOSEPH, EMMANUEL 1027532 40,000
Maths and Statistics
T.03 - Introduction to JOSEPH, EMMANUEL 1027532 40,000

Information and
Communication
Technology
T.04 - Business Communication JOSEPH, EMMANUEL 1027532 40,000
Skills
Accounting Technician Level II

Tshs.
T.05 - Principles of Accounting MSOFFE, JOHN W. 2027528 40,000
and Auditing
T.06 – Principles of Cost No Candidate qualified for 40,000

Accounting and the award.
Procurement
T.07 – Elements of Commercial CHUNGU, HERIETH 2028258 40,000

Knowledge,
Management
Practices and Taxation
T.08 – Accounting for Public MSOFFE, JOHN W. 2027528 40,000

Sector and Cooperatives
132
FOUNDATION LEVEL
Tshs.
A1 – Quantitative Techniques MWAIHOJO, RAMADHAN 3024633 50,000
A2 - Business and Management RUKOKERWA, DICKSON E. 3026281 50,000
A3 – Accounting RAMADHANI, BAKARI 3027485 50,000
A4 - Business Information RUKOKERWA, DICKSON E. 3026281

50,000
A5 - Business Law RAMADHANI, BAKARI 3027485 50,000
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL
Tshs.
B1 - Financial Management JUMANNE, SELEMANI 4028505 60,000
B2 - Financial Accounting NINA, OMARI A. 4025612 60,000
B3 - Auditing Principles and KISARAGA, FLORA F. 4028787 60,000

Practice
B4 - Public Finance and MSEMO, IDDY S. 4028814 60,000
Taxation I
B5 - Performance Management MSEMO, IDDY S. 4028814 60,000
B6 - Management, Governance NYANGA, VAILETH K. 4028802 60,000

and Ethics
FINAL LEVEL
Tshs.
C1- Corporate Reporting MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 70,000
C2 - Auditing and Assurance SOMBOI, EMMANUEL E. 5027414 70,000
C3- Business and Corporate No Candidate qualified for 70,000

Finance the award.
C4 - Public Finance and No Candidate qualified for 70,000
Taxation II the award.
133
1.3.3 NBAA Best Female Prizes:
In motivating female candidates to work harder in their studies and
perform better in the Board’s examinations, two categories of prizes shall
be offered to female candidates.
1.3.3.1 NBAA Female Prizes:

This prize shall be offered to a female candidate as long as the score in
aggregate in a level is 70% and above in ATEC examinations and 60%
and above in professional examinations.
Code and Subject Name Name Index Amount

No. Tshs.
No Candidate qualified for the
Accounting Technician Level I 50,000
award.
Accounting Technician Level No Candidate qualified for the 50,000
II award.
Foundation Level No Candidate qualified for the 60,000
award.
Intermediate Level No Candidate qualified for the 80,000
award.
Final Level No Candidate qualified for the 100,000
award.
1.3.3.2 NBAA Best Graduate Female Prizes

The second category of prize is the Best Graduate Prize which is to be offered
to the female candidates who scores highest marks in aggregate among female
candidates in ATEC II or CPA (T).
The following female candidates qualify for the award:
Level Name Index No. Amount
Tshs.
ATEC GRADUATE MWASALANGA, 2028485 250,000
MERCY L.
CPA (T) GRADUATE MURO, GLORIA J. 5027700 500,000
134
2.0 PRIZES FROM SPONSORING INSTITUTIONS
In support of the Board’s effort to improve candidates’ examination performance
a number of professional progressive institutions have willingly offered different
prizes for the best performers.
The names of organizations and amounts offered in each examination session are
indicated hereunder:
1 PricewaterhouseCoopers Prizes:
1.1 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.600,000
1.2 PricewaterhouseCoopers: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.1,000,000
1.3 Best Female CPA (T) Graduate Tshs.500,000
2 Tanna Sreekumar Grant Thornton Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Tshs.400,000
Prize
3 STANBIC Tanzania Ltd Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100
4 TAC Associates Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.200,000
5 Khatri & Company Prize: Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.200,000
6 Ernst & Young Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.310,000
7 IPP Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.200,000
8 TaxPlan Associates Prize: Best Public Finance and Taxation II (C4) Tshs.400,000
Prize
9 TIB Development Bank Ltd:International Finance Prizes
1st TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.500,000,
2nd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.350,000
3rd TIB: Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize &
Tshs.200,000
10 Dar es Salaam Stock Exchange Prize:
Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.150,000
11 Deloitte &Touche Prize: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000
12 Capital Markets and Securities Authority Prize: Best Financial Tshs.100,000
Management (B1) Prize
13 KPMG Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize US$ 100
14 Accountant General’s Office Prizes:
14.1 Best CPA (T) Graduate Overall Prize Tshs.800,000
14.2 Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.500,000
14.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize Tshs.500,000
14.4 Best Core Subject Prizes:
14.4.1 Accounting (A3) Prize Tshs.30,000
14.4.2 Business Information (A4) Prize Tshs.30,000
14.4.3 Financial Management (B1) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.4 Financial Accounting (B2) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.5 Auditing Principles and Practice (B3) Prize Tshs.50,000
14.4.6 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize Tshs.100,000
14.4.7 Business and Corporate Finance (C3) Prize Tshs.100,000
14.4.8 Public Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize Tshs.100,000
135
15 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser Prize:
15.1 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Offer of
Performance Management (B5) Prize Employment
15.2 NEXIA SJ Tanzania Accountants & Business Adviser: Best Public Offer of
Finance and Taxation II (C4) Prize Employment
16 Innovex Prizes:
16.1 Innovex Best CPA(T) Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000
16.2 Innovex Best CPA(T) Female Graduate Prize Tshs.150,000
17 CAG Prizes
17.1 CAG: Auditing and Assurance (C2) Prize Tshs.300,000
17.2 CAG: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.100,000
18 Peoples Bank of Zanzibar Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000
19 BM Associates Prizes
19.1 Best CPA(T) Female Graduates Prize Tshs.100,000
19.2 Best ATEC Female Graduates Prize Tshs.50,000
20 TAA Best Candidates’ Prizes
20.1 TAA Best Two ATEC Candidates Prizes Tshs.100,000
20.2 TAA Best Two CPA (T) Candidates Prizes Tshs.200,000
21 RSM Ashvir Prize: Best CPA (T) Graduate Prize Tshs.500,000 &
Employment
22 Cornerstone Financial Consultants Prizes
22.1 Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize Tshs.100,000
22.2 Overall Best Candidate in Foundation Level Prize Tshs.100,000
22.3 Overall Best CPA (T) Candidates Prizes Tshs.100,000
23 Watumishi Housing CompanyPrize
23.1 Overall Best Candidate in ATEC II Level Prize 100,000
23.2 Best Financial Management (B1) Prize 100,000
23.3 Performance Management (B5) Prize 200,000
23.4 Corporate Reporting (C1) Prize 200,000
136
1. PRICEWATERHOUSECOOPERS PRIZES
Name of Prize Name of Winner Index No. Amount
PWC: AUDITING AND SOMBOI, EMMANUEL E. 5027414 600,000
ASSURANCE (C2) PRIZE
PWC BEST CPA (T) MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 1,000,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
BEST FEMALE CPA (T) MURO, GLORIA J. 5027700 500,000
GRADUATE
2. TANNA SREEKUMAR GRANT THORNTON: PRIZES

Tanna Sreekumar Grant MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 400,000
Thornton: BEST CPA (T)
GRADUATE PRIZE
3. STANBIC TANZANIA LIMITED PRIZES

STANBIC TANZANIA MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 US$100
LIMITED BEST CPA [T]
GRADUATE PRIZE
4. TAC ASSOCIATES PRIZES

TAC ASSOCIATES: SOMBOI, EMMANUEL E. 5027414 200,000
AUDITING AND
5. KHATRI AND COMPANY PRIZES

KHATRI AND COMPANY MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 200,000
FINANCIAL: CORPORATE
REPORTING (C1)
6. ERNST & YOUNG PRIZES

ERNST & YOUNG: SOMBOI, EMMANUEL E. 5027414 310,000
AUDITING AND
7. IPP BEST CPA (T) GRADUATE PRIZES

IPP BEST CPA (T) MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 200,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
137
8. TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES PRIZES
TAXPLAN ASSOCIATES: MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 400,000
PUBLIC FINANCE AND
TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE
9. TIB DEVELOPMENT BANK LTD: BANK PRIZES

TIB Development Bank No Candidate qualified for the 500,000
Ltd: BUSINESS AND award.
CORPORATE FINANCE No Candidate qualified for the 350,000
(C3) PRIZE award.
No Candidate qualified for the 200,000
award.
10. DAR ES SALAAM STOCK EXCHANGE PRIZES

DSE: BUSINESS AND No Candidate qualified for the 150,000
CORPORATE FINANCE award.
(C3) PRIZE
11. DELOITTE & TOUCHE PRIZES

DELOITTE & TOUCHE: SOMBOI, EMMANUEL E. 5027414 500,000
AUDITING AND
12. CAPITAL MARKETS AND SECURITIES AUTHORITY PRIZES

CMSA: BEST FINANCIAL JUMANNE, SELEMANI 4028505 100,000
MANAGEMENT (B1)
PRIZE
13. KPMG PRIZES
KPMG: BEST CPA (T) MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 US$100
GRADUATE PRIZE
138
14. ACCOUNTANT GENERAL’S OFFICE PRIZES
The Office of the Accountant General offers special prize awards to candidates
with excellent performance in the Board’s examinations. The awards worth
Tshs.2,440,000 are offered in each examination session.
The conditions of winning the prizes are:

A candidate must obtain an overall pass at a single sitting in the first examination
attempt and must score a credit pass (60%) or above either overall, or in the subject
be awarded a prize in the professional examinations as the case may be.
Candidates winning the prizes for the May 2016 examinations are as shown below:
AG’S: BEST CPA [T] No Candidate qualified for the 800,000
GRADUATE PRIZE award.
AG’S: AUDITING AND SOMBOI, EMMANUEL E. 5027414 500,000
AG’S: BEST MSEMO, IDDY S. 4028814 500,000
PERFORMANCE
MANAGEMENT (B5)
PRIZE
ACGEN’S BEST CORE SUBJECT PERFORMANCE PRIZES
ACCOUNTING (A3) PRIZE RAMADHANI, BAKARI 3027485 30,000
BUSINESS INFORMATION RUKOKERWA, DICKSON E. 3026281 30,000
(A4) PRIZE
FINANCIAL JUMANNE, SELEMANI 4028505 50,000

MANAGEMENT (B1)
PRIZE
FINANCIAL NINA, OMARI A. 4025612 50,000
ACCOUNTING (B2) PRIZE
AUDITING PRINCIPLES KISIRAGA, FLORA F. 4028787 50,000
AND PRACTICE (B3)
PRIZE
CORPORATE REPORTING MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 100,000
(C1) PRIZE
BUSINESS AND No Candidate qualified for the 100,000
CORPORATE FINANCE award.
(C3) PRIZE
PUBLIC FINANCE AND No Candidate qualified for the 100,000
TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE award.
139
15. NEXIA SJ TANZANIA ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS ADVISERS
PRIZES:
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA MSEMO, IDDY S. 4028814 Employment
ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS
ADVISER: BEST
PERFORMANCE
MANAGEMENT (B5) Prize
NEXIA SJ TANZANIA No Candidate qualified for Employment
ACCOUNTANTS & BUSINESS the award.
ADVISER:PUBLIC FINANCE
AND TAXATION II (C4) PRIZE
16. INNOVEX PRIZES

INNOVEX BEST CPA (T) MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 150,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
INNOVEX BEST CPA (T) MURO, GLORIA J. 5027700 150,000

FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE
17. CONTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL PRIZES

CAG: AUDITING AND SOMBOI, EMMANUEL E. 5027414 300,000
CAG: BEST CPA (T) MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 150,000

GRADUATE PRIZE
18. PEOPLE’S BANK OF ZANZIBAR PRIZE

PBZ: BEST CPA (T) MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 500,000
GRADUATE PRIZE
19. BM ASSOCIATES PRIZES

BM ASSOCIATES: BEST CPA MURO, GLORIA J. 5027700 100,000
(T) FEMALE GRADUATE
PRIZE
BM ASSOCIATES: BEST ATEC MWASALANGA, MERCY L. 2028485 50,000
FEMALE GRADUATE PRIZE
140
20. TANZANIA ASSOCIATION OF ACCOUNTANTS PRIZES
TAA: BEST TWO ATEC MSOFFE, JOHN W. 2027528 50,000
CANDIDATE PRIZE
FURAHISHA, RODES G. 2028484 50,000
TAA: BEST TWO CPA (T) MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 100,000
CANDIDATE PRIZE
MURO, GLORIA J. 5027700 100,000
21. RSM ASHVIR PRIZES
RSM ASHVIR: BEST CPA MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 500,000 &
(T) Employment
GRADUATE PRIZE
22. CORNERSTONE FINANCIAL CONSULTANTS PRIZES

CORNERSTONE: OVERALL MSOFFE, JOHN W. 2027528 100,000
BEST CANDIDATE IN ATEC
II LEVEL PRIZE
CORNERSTONE:OVERALL RAMADHANI, BAKARI 3027485 100,000
BEST CANDIDATE IN
FOUNDATION LEVEL
PRIZE
CORNERSTONE :OVERALL MAGOVA, BARIKI 5026828 100,000
BEST CPA (T) CANDIDATES
PRIZES
23. WATUMISHI HOUSING COMPANYPRIZE

WATUMISHI HOUSING CO: MSOFFE, JOHN W. 2027528 100,000
OVERALL BEST CANDIDATE IN
ATEC II LEVEL PRIZE
JUMANNE, SELEMANI 4028505 100,000
WATUMISHI HOUSING CO:
BEST FINANCIAL
MANAGEMENT (B1) PRIZE
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Level I 1,837 1,791 97.4% 46

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(NBAA)

THE NATIONAL BOARD OF ACCOUNTANTS AND AUDITORS

EXAMINERS’ AND PERFORMANCE REPORT

84TH EXAMINATION SESSION – NOVEMBER 2016

NBAA, Telephones: (022) 2211890-9

22ND DECEMBER 2016

Executive Summary of 84th Examination session …………………... (v)

CHAPTER 1 Analysis of Candidates’ Performance in the 84th Examination Session 1

CHAPTER II Performance Evaluation Subject-Wise …………………..................... 4

CHAPTER III Examiners’ Recommendations to Tutors & Students ………………... 105

CHAPTER IV Institutional Performance Evaluation ………………………………... 114

CHAPTER V Accounting Manpower Created by the Board up to November 2016 125

Accounting Technician Level II

In total the Professional Examination Scheme has 15 subjects as shown hereunder:

Intermediate (Skills and Analysis in Context Level)

Final (Professional Analysis, Application and Evaluation Level)

Dar es Salaam Centres

OBJECTIVES OF THE REPORT

CPA Pius A. Maneno

ATEC ATEC FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL

79th Session May, 2014 83 161 68 85 174 90 2,109 1625 4,395

84th Session November 2016 84 158 405 3522 2,113 6,282

GRAPHICAL PRESENTATION OF THE BOARD’S OVERALL EXAMINATION

3,522 INTERMEDIATE - 3,522

Table 3 shows pass rates in November 2016 examination session

Examination performance by gender in the five examination levels is as indicated on Table 5:

ANALYSIS OF CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE IN THE

OVERALL CANDIDATES' PERFORMANCE

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL I

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATE (ATEC) - LEVEL II

CANDIDATES QUALIFYING FOR THE PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE OF COMPLETION

GENERAL STATISTICAL ANALYSIS OF EXAMINATION RESULTS

EXAMINATION ATEC I ATEC II FOUNDATION INTERMEDIATE FINAL TOTAL

NO. % NO. % NO % NO. % NO % NO. %

PERFORMANCE EVALUATION SUBJECT-WISE

A total of 23 examination papers were attempted this session as detailed hereunder:

(a) Accounting Technician Level I with four papers;

ACCOUNTING TECHNICIAN LEVEL I

T.01 Bookkeeping and Accounts 55 40 72.7 55 37 67.2 39 26 66.7

IV: GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

Percentage 33.3 35.9 28.2 2.6 100

Candidates were required to:-

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 65

Candidates were required to:

Candidates’ performance in this question was not satisfactory. Out of 65

Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL

69.2 26.2 4.6 0.0 100

November 2015 November 2016 %

II: STRUCTURE OF THE PAPER

III: TOPICS EXAMINED AND CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

QUESTION 1: VARIOUS TOPICS

(a) Assessment of the paper

(b) Candidates overall performance

Classification of Marks 0-49 50-69 70-79 80-100 TOTAL

Percentage 45.0 53.3 0.0 1.7 100

November 2015 November 2016 %

I: PRINCIPAL LEARNING OUTCOME

QUESTION 1: A. WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES

QUESTION 3: WRITING SKILLS IN BUSINESS CORRESPONDENCES

Candidates’ performance in this question was satisfactory. Out of 50

Percentage 46.0 52.0 2.0 0.0 100

November 2015 November 2016 % decrease