Académique Documents
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a 5 b 6 c 7 d 8
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13 The bleeding time for cattle is ____________ minutes.
a 5 b 6 c 7 d 8
a 5 b 6 c 7 d 8
15 Aspiration of blood into thoracic cavity by inserting knife too far towards the chest or
oversticking causes _____________________.
a Poor bleeding b Back bleeding c Rush bleeding d Stick bleeding
16 When meat is frozen slowly the largest crystals are formed ______________
a inside muscle b between muscles c out side muscle d between epi and
fiber fiber perimysium
17 The maximum required electric current for sheep in Head-only stunning is ________.
18 The maximum required electric current for lambs in Head–only stunning is __________.
19 The maximum required electric current for Pigs in Head -only stunning is _________.
a - 1 to –1.5 oC b - 2 to – 0 oC c 0 to – 3 oC d - 1 to 0 oC
a 50 - 55 oC b 62 - 64 oC c 70 - 85 oC d 90 oC
22 Animals should be bled within ________seconds after electrical stunning to avoid muscle
splashing.
a 60 sec b 30 sec c 90 sec d 10 sec
23 The end product of ATP break down responsible for flavour is _________
24 The maximum required electric current for cattle in head –only stunning is ______.
26 Britain is facing a severe crisis in beef production due to out break of ___________
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a FMD b RP c BSE d Anthrax
32 A female sheep which has not yet borne a lamb is called as ________________
33 ___________ is the female pig intended for breeding after puberty and before farrowing.
a 70 - 85 B 35 – 46 c 50 – 70 d 30 - 50
37 Young poultry which are 23-28 days old with an average live weight of 0.5kg are called as
________________
a Gilt b Weaner c Stag d Poussins
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a below pH 6 b 7–9 c 10 d 12
a 40 V b 75 – 80 V c 90 V d 120 V
a 0 to -5 0 C b +2 to -2 0 C c +1 to -1 0 C d +5 to -2 0 C
47 Area size for a medium meat plant (50,000+ units /year) is __________________
48 The creatures which may cause contamination in the slaughterhouse /abattoir are called as
__________________
a Fermins b Kermins c Dermins d Vermins
a 4.5 b 5.5 c 5 d 4
52 Pen size for housing of cattle (loose) in lairage of a slaughter house is _____________ m².
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53 Recommended lairage floor gradient in a slaughter house should be at least ___________
58 Offals from food animals for edible purposes must be held at a temperature not exceeding
____________°C.
a 3 b 4 c 5 d 6
60 The process of tanning sheep skin with fish oil is popularly known as _________
218
a Lard b Tallow c Caulfat d Grease
73 Sole leather is obtained from the ________________ area of the hide of an animal
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81 High pressure rinse systems in an abattoir function at ____________ bar pressure
82 EU regulation for water temperature required for knife sterilization in a meat plant is
______________°C.
a 72 B 82 c 92 d 102
83 The best ramp angle for loading and unloading of pigs from trucks is _________°.
a 20 b 30 c 40 d 50
87 Meat fit for human consumption by Jewish law is known as ___________ meat.
89 Five rules of ________________ slaughter required for killing animal for food are killing the
animal without pause,pressure,slanting,stabbing and tearing
a Jewish b Muslim c Sikh d Jhatkha
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a 60o C for 60 sec b 53 o C for 120 sec c 60o C for 120 sec d 93 o C for 5 sec
a B1 b B2 c B6 d B12
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17 b 42. b 67. c 92. d
18 a 43. a 68. d 93. a
19 c 44. c 69. a 94. d
20 a 45. d 70. b 95. a
21 a 46. d 71. d 96. c
22 b 47. d 72. c 97. a
23 a 48. d 73. a 98. b
24 c 49. b 74. a 99. d
25 b 50. a 75. a 100. b
2 Most commonly used barrier bag for vacuum packaging are ____________________
a globular b fibrous c
globular and d none of the
fibrous above
6 Bloom is referred as the property of ____________________
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a 1 adult bovine : b 1 adult bovine : 3 c 1 adult bovine : d 1 adult bovine :
2 pigs : 3 pigs : 5 calves : 3 pigs : 3 2 pigs : 3
calves : 5 sheep 10 sheep calves : 5 sheep calves : 6 sheep
9 The colour of the pigment nitrosohemochromogen is ____________________
a 70 oC b 90 oC c 60 oC d 85 oC
16 When meat is frozen slowly the largest crystals are formed ______________
a inside muscle b between muscles c out side muscle d between epi and
fiber fiber perimysium
17 The temperature of the retort during canning of meat chunks is _____________
a - 1 to –1.5 oC b - 2 to – 0 oC c 0 to – 3 oC d - 1 to 0 oC
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21 Scalding temperature in pigs is about________________
a 50 - 55 oC b 62 - 64 oC c 70 - 85 oC d 90 oC
22 Animals should be bled within ________seconds after electrical stunning to avoid muscle
splashing.
23 The end product of ATP break down responsible for flavour is _________
26 Since Jan 2001 Britain is facing a severe crisis in beef production due to out break of
___________
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a lag phase b log phase c phase of + ve d stationary phase
acceleration
34 The indicator of fecal contamination is _______
a 70 - 85 B 35 – 46 c 50 – 70 d 30 - 50
a 0.2 % b 10 % c 15 % d 20 %
a below pH 6 b 7–9 c 10 d 12
41 Parasites in meat such as Cysticercus bovis and Trichenella spiralis are killed
by__________
a 0.01 – 0.1 M rad b 0.5 – 1 M rad c 1 – 2 M rad d 10 M rad
a 40 V b 75 – 80 V c 90 V d 120 V
a 0 to -5 0 C b +2 to -2 0 C c +1 to -1 0 C d +5 to -2 0 C
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47 A minimum of ______________ nitrite is necessary to ensure normal colour and flavour in
cured meats.
a 20 – 40 ppm b 100 ppm c 200 ppm d 10 ppm
48 Bound water forms about ___________ % of the total water content in meat
a 10 % b 5% c 20 % d 25 %
a 4.5 b 5.4 c 5 d 4
51 W.B. Shear force meter measure the strength required in _____________ of meat.
a Na b K c Ca d SO4
57 Cabbage odour due to methanediol in sliced vacuum packed bacon is due to ____
60 The process of tanning sheep skin with fish oil is popularly known as _________
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a shammoying b dying c bating d desliming
227
a citric acid b KMnO4 C Sodium hypochlorite d benzylpyrines
84 The quality standards for foods all over the world are monitored as per____
228
88 Anthrax is also known as __________
89 Clenbutarol is an ________________
a 60o C for 60 sec b 53 o C for 120 sec c 60o C for 120 sec d 93 o C for 5 sec
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ANSWER KEY - LIVESTOCK PRODUCTS TECHNOLOGY
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a) sheep b) Goat c) Deerd) Poultry
6. Spleen of sheep is _____________ shaped.
a) circular b) oyster c) triangular d) elliptical
7. Pig liver has ____________ lobes
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
8. Gut sweet bread is ___________
a) pancreas b) spleen c) thymus d) liver
9. Marbling is the ____________ deposition of fat
a) intra muscular b) inter muscular c) subcutaneous d) around kidney
10. Thoracic cavity in horse has ___________ pairs of ribs
a) 15 b) 13 c) 14 d) 18
11. Flesh of few days old calves is
a) dark red b) white and firm c) pale watery d) dark red with bluish
12. Average dressing percentage in Indian goats is about __________
a) 35 – 50 b) 55 c) 70 d) 60
13. Capybara is a _______
a) bird b) rodent c) bovine d) none of a,b,c
14. A female sheep which has not yet borne a lamb is _________
a) cast ewe b) gimmer c) steer d) wether
15. Clenbutarol is a __________
a) anthelmentic b) antibiotic c) growth promoter d) none of these
16. Castrated male sheep is referred as __________
a) Hog b) Stag c) Tup d) none of these
17. Meat inspection must be carried out by a trained vet working as meat inspector and in guidance
with the procedures laid in the law _____________
a) MFPO (1973) b) MFPO (2005) c) PFA d) ICMSF
18. There are about ______sheep breeds in India
a) 20 b) 42 c) 8 d) 60
19. Buffalo meat contributes to about __% of total meat produced in India
a) 10 b) 25 c) 50 d) 40
20. In goats about ___________% of its population are slaughtered every year for chevon production
a) 10 b) 80 c) 60 d) 40
Answer key - Aim, objectives and role of veterinary public health in modern society and food
animals -
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D
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3. While transportation of pigs stocking density of ______ m 2 /100 kg is desirable.
a) 10 b) 5 c) 20 d) 30
7. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than ___________ calves on broad gauge.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 30
8. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than _________adult cattle on meter gauge
railway compartment.
a) 6 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30
9. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than _________ calves on meter gauge.
a) 6 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30
10. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than _________ adult cattle on narrow gauge
railway compartment.
a) 4 b) 10 c) 20 d) 25
11. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than _____calves on narrow gauge railway
compartment.
a) 6 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30
12. While transporting animals the speed of the truck shall not exceed _____km /hr.
a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60
13. For loading sheep the ramp should be at least _____in width
a) 100 b) 20 c) 30 d) 80
15. In a railway wagon (size 21.1 sq. meters) about _____small animals can be transported.
a) 100 b) 20 c) 30 d) 80
16. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than ______ adult sheep/ goats on broad gauge.
a) 100 b) 200 c) 75 d) 30
17. In pigs, for journey, exceeding ________hours, the animals shall preferably be transported by
railway.
a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24
18. For transportation of adult poultry, minimum floor space required is about __ cm 2
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50
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19. Adult cattle, sheep and goats may travel for ____ hours before a minimum rest period of 1 hour,
followed by a further maximum of 14 hours travel.
a) 20 b) 10 c) 14 d) 28
20. Pigs will lose 2.2-5.4 kg of their live weight during 24 hours transport.
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. A
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a) 1:20 b) 1:10 c) 1:50 d) 1:80
15. At least one drain should be provided for each _____floor area
a) 10m2 b) 20m2 c) 30m2 d) 40m2
16. Drainage valleys under the dressing rail where the blood tends to collect, the gradient should be
1:25
a) 1:25 b) 1:15 c) 1:55 d) 1:75
17. For cattle, the bleeding trough should be at least ____ m wide, possess a good gradient
a) 1.5 b) 2 c) 0.9 d) 0.1
18. For cattle the overhead bleeding rail should be about _________ m above the floor of the dry
landing area.
a) 4.9 b) 3.0 c) 2.5 d) 6.9
19. For cattle the overhead dressing' rails should be about ____m high.
a) 4.9 b) 3.4 c) 2.5 d) 6.9
20. The bleeding trough for sheep and pigs should preferably be enclosed on both sides as for cattle
and have a width of _________ m.
a) 2.1- 4.2 b) 1.5 - 3.2 c) 1.1-1.2 d) 6.1-7.2
21. For sheep and pigs the overhead bleeding should preferably ________ m high.
a) 2.7 b) 3.8 c) 1.5 d) 4.7
22. For pigs the overhead dressing rail should preferably _______ m high.
a) 2.7 b) 3.4 c) 1.5 d) 4.7
23. Rate of slaughter in gravity rail system will be about ________cattle /h.
a) 40-120 b) 10-40 c) 10-75 d) 50 -150
24. Rate of slaughter in Canpak system will be about ________cattle /h.
a) 40-120 b) 10-40 c) 10-75 d) 50 -150
25. Rate of slaughter in intermittent power rail system will be about ______cattle /h.
a) 40-120 b) 10-40 c) 10-75 d) 50 -150
26. The eventual waste load should be less than ______kg per 500 kg live weight kill.
a) 7.5 b)8.5 c)9.5 d)10.5
27. The wastewater usage less than _____ liters per 500 kg live weight kill and the BOD in the region
of 1500 mg/liter.
a) 5000 b) 2000 c) 3500 d)1000
28 In cattle slaughterhouse the average BOD is in the region of 1500 mg/liter.
a) 5000 b) 2500 c) 500 d) 1500
29 High nitrate concentrations in natural waters encourage algae and other plant growth, thus
blocking watercourses. The maximum permitted level in potable water is ______mg / litre.
a) 0.5 b) 1.5 c) 2.0 d) 3
30 In ETP the primary treatment is capable of reducing up to 90% of the fats, 65% of the solids and
the BOD by ______%.
a) 25 b) 50 c) 35 d) 80
6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C
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26. A 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. C
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20 Bleeding time required in cattle is about _____minutes after sticking.
a) 2 b) 6 c) 10 d) 15
21 Accessory spleen are found in_____________
a) cow b) horse c) poultry d) pig
22 Gut sweet bread is nothing but __________
a) spleen b) liver c) pancreas d) kidney
23 In Jewish method ___________are slaughtered .
a) camel b) male buffalo calf c)she goat d) bullucks
24 __________is not eaten in Muslim community
a) spleen b) blood c) pancreas d) kidney
25 ________are bled by bilateral severance of the carotid arteries and jugular veins by an incision
across the throat region caudal to larynx.
a) sheep b) pig c) cattle d) rabbit
26 In commercial practice pig are generally stunned by using __________
a) co2 gas b) N2 gas c) captive bolt pistol d) twisting of neck
27 In commercial practice poultry are generally stunned by using __________
a) co2 gas b) N2 gas c) electrified water bath d) twisting of neck
28 In electrical stunning of cattle the strength of the current should not be less than ______and
voltage less than 75 V
a) 350 mA b) 450 mA c) 250 mA d) 150 mA
29 The passage of electric current through the brain results in a rapid rise of blood pressure from
normal 120-140 mmHg to _______ mmHg)
a) 250 b) 500 c) 400 d) 600
30 Pelt burn - black coloured charred marks are seen on the back region due to __________
stunning
a) gas b) concussion c) low voltage d) high voltage head to back
Ante-mortem and post- mortem examination of animals and method of slaughter - answer key
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A
11. A 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A
16. B 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. C
26. A 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. D
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8. _______ test is useful in detecting adulteration of different meat even up to 1% level
a) TLC b) PCR c) paper electrophoresis d) DFM
9. __________ test is used for differentiation of jaundice in slaughter house
a) Rose Bengal test b) Mallein test c) Rimington Fowrie d) Casoni’s test
10. Total fat content is higher in ____
a) beef b) pork c) carabeef d) chevon
11. Sheep carcass is ______shaped.
a) narrow elongated b) barrel shaped c) round d) none of the a,b,c
12. Actin / myosin are_________ type of proteins
a) fibrous b) globular c) fibrous/globular d) none of these
13. Rigor mortis occurs in ________phases.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
14. Average connective tissue content of beef is _____________ %.
a) 2. 5 b) 3.5 c) 4. 5 d) 5.5
15. The proteolytic enzymes in muscle cells are ________________
a) cathepsin b) papain c) trypsin d) bromelin
16. DFD meat shows _______________rigor
a) acidic b) alkaline c) normal d) none of these
17. In rigor mortis resolution is followed by ____________
a) putrifaction b) delay phase c) onset phase d) none of these
18. Meat is generally an excellent source of _________vitamin.
a) C b) A c) B-complex d) E
19. Total collagen content of adult is _____young aimals.
a) more b) sufficiently less c) equal d) marginally less
20. Protein efficiency ration of meat ___________
a) 3.2 b) 1.5 c) 4.7 d) 6.9
Meat composition and rigor mortis- Answer key
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
11. b 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. A
16. B 17 A 18 C 19 B 20 A
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a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 2
12. Most Posterior mediastinal lymph node measures up to ________cm in length.
a) 10 b) 5 c)15 d) 20
13. In_________ poplitial lymph nodes are absent in 50 5 cases.
a) sheep b) cattle c) pig d) horse
14. The left kidney is moveable in _________
a) poultry b) cattle c) pig d) horse
15. In _________adrenal glands are bean shaped
a) sheep b) cattle c) pig d) horse
Characterization of meats of different food animals-Answer key
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. C
11. D 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. A
Meat preservation
1. The chief bacteriostatic and bactericidal substance in wood smoke is ________
a) carbonic acid b) PAH c) formaldehyde d) benzene
2. __________ is the main refrigerant used in commercial refrigeration.
a) carbon dioxide b) sulphur dioxide c) ammonia d) freon
3. Frozen storage of beef must be at a temperature of ____ 0C in commercial practice.
a) -180C b) –50C c) -500C d) -10C
4. In commercial canning operation the heat should be sufficient to reduce the population of
_____________ by a factor of 1012
a) Clostridium botulinum cells b) Clostridium botulinum spores
c) Clostridium perfringens d) Clostridium putrefacians
5. Test for water holding capacity of meat was developed by _________.
a) Nicholas Appert b) R. Hamm c) R.A. Lawrie d) Luis Pasture
6. A can with a normal appearance but one end flips out when the can is struck against solid object
but snaps back to normal under light pressure is referred as________
a) flipper b) springer c) leaker d) overfilled can
7. Temperature of liquid nitrogen is __________
a) –700C b) –1960C c) –1000C d) –250C
8. ________ instrument is used in measuring strength of brine solution.
a) salinometer b) thermometer c) hygrometer d) lactometer
9. Cold shortening in muscles occur when pre-rigor muscle is exposed to a temperature between
a) –5 to 100C b) 0 to 150C c) –1.5 to –30C d) –20 to –300C
10. The desirable colour of cured meat pigment nitroso-hemochromogen is ___________
a) brown b) pink c) red d) green
11. Bacterial spoilage in chilled meat is due to ________ group of bacteria
a) psychrophilic b) mesophilic c) thermophilic d) thermoduric
12. Green rot in egg is caused by ___________
a) Pseudomonas b) Staphylococcus c) Serratia d) Cladosporium
13. Parasitic cyst in meat such as Cysticercus boyis and Trichinella spiralis are killed by ________
Kgy dose of gamma radiation
a) 0.1 to 0.2 b) 1- 5 c) 10 d) 25
14. Thaw rigor is caused by the activity of __________ enzyme.
a) lysozome b) protease c) ATP ase d) lipase
15. Average generation time for bacteria is _________
a) 20 min b) 10 min c) 30 min d) 40 min
16. Eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar is used for cultivation of ____________ organism
a) Staphylococcus b) Salmonella c) Candid d) E. coli
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17. Haugh index is used to determine the internal quality of __________
a) milk b) egg c) meat d) fish
18. _________ is used to measure air velocity in mechanical refrigeration of meat
a) hygrometer b) anemometer c) thermo hygrograph d) psychrometer
19. Practical storage life of pork at freezing temperature of –18 0C is ______month
a) 6 b) 12 c) 15 d) 18
20. Humidity in carcass chilling room should be about ________%
a) 48 b) 90 c) 50 d) 60
21. _______is a GRAS chemical additive used in food products.
a) citric acid b) Kmno4 c) sodium hypochlorite d) benzylpyrene
22. Erythromysin should not be used within ______ hours of slaughter.
a) 72 b) 24 c) 48 d) 12
23. Level of sodium nitrite in curing brine should be _________
a) 2-4 % b) 500-1000 PPM c) 0-2 to 10% d) 15-30 %
24. Desired level of polyphosphates in curing brine is _______
a) 2-4 % b) 10% c) 0.2 to 1% d) 15-30%
25. In preparing _________ in South America, beef is cut into strips and dried rapidly in air
a) biltong b) jerked beef c) pemmican d) charque
26. Condensations of water vapor on meat brought out firm cold store into ordinary room
temperature is called _________
a) drip b) weepc) sweating d) shrinkage
27. The method of packing dressed chicken is known as __________
a) wrapping b) trussing c) tetrapacking d) none of the a,b,c
28. _______rays are commonly used for surface irradiation.
a) alpha b) beta c) UV rays d) gamma
29. ________ is a commonly used antioxidant in foods.
a) BHA b) PAH c) sugar d) sodium hypochlorite
30. During freezing of beef cut at about ______0 C 94% of the water is converted into ice.
a) - 10 b) –2 c) –5 d) – 15
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8. Most common serotype of Leptospira affecting human being is _____
a) L.pomana b) L. grippotyphosa c) L. hardjo d) L. interrogans
9. The bladder worm stage of sheep measles is _______
a) Cysticercus tenucolis b) Cyst. Bovis c) hydatid cyst d) Sarcocyst
Meat spoilage
1. Fungus Cladosporium produces ____________ spots an meat surface
a) pink b) red c) black d) yellow
2. Growth of Rhizopus on meat surface produces __________
a) whiskers b) black spots c) green patches d) white spot
3. Tyrosine value is an indicator of extent of ___________ break down in meat
a) fat b) protein c) carbohydrate d) none of the above
4. In recovered cases of leptospirosis the carcass is passed after rejecting ________
a) kidney b) brain c) spleen d) intestine
5. _____ is used to measure the extent of meat spoilage based on the dielectric properties.
a) pH meter b) torry meter c) thermometer d) hygrometer
6. Taint in ham is referred as________
a) putrefaction b) souring c) phosphorescence d) greening
7. ________is a chemical spoilage of canned meat products.
a) hydrogen swell b) flat sour c) leaker d) springer
8. Flat sours is canned meat is caused by growth of _____________ organism
a) Bacillus stearothermophilus b) Pseudomonas c) Proteus d) Clostridium
9. ___________ radiation are commonly used in food irradiation
a) infrared rays b) gamma c) uv rays d) none of these
10. Warner-Bratzler shear force meter measures the force-required in____ of meat.
a) biting b) tearing c) chewing d) cutting
11. Red rot in eggs is caused by ______________
a) Pseudomonas fluoresces b) Serratia species c) Sporotrichum d) Proteus species
12. In fresh poultry egg the air cell dept is about ___________ or less
a) 4 mm b) 6 mm c) 8mm d) 10mm
13. The most troublesome affection of imported meat is caused by _________
a) cladosporium b) thamnidium c) achromobactor d) penicillin
14. Taint in ham is known as _____________
a) visceral taint b) souring c) tibial sours d) none of these
15. In _________trade green struck condition is observed.
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a) beef b) poultry c) rabbit d) pork
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a) 1400C b) 800C c) 900C d) 2000C
Slaughter house, meat plant sanitation and disposal of unsound meat- Answer key
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. A
16. A 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C
General
1. Deonar abattoir situated at _______
a) Mumbai b) Chennai c) Delhi d) Kolkata
2. In India the working of slaughter is governed under the law _________
a) MFPO 1973 b) PFA c) AGMARK d) ISO
3. There are about ________ registered slaughter houses in India
a) 3600 b) 5000 c) 6300 d) 1000
4. There are about ____________ bacon factories in India
a) 5 b) 6 c) 8 d) 2
5. The ____________ forms the largest volume of meat exported form India
a) beef b) pork c) chevon d) mutton
6. Consistency of pork is _____________
a) Very firm b) firm c) firm and dense d) soft and greasy.
7. The food quality standards all over the world are maintained as per the guidelines of ___
a) APEDA b) OIE c) ISO d) BIS
8. National Research Centre on Meat is situated in _______
a) Mumbai b) Calcutta c) Hyderabad d) Delhi
9. Total meat production in India ( including poultry ) is ______million tons
a) 4 b) 4.7 c) 2 d) 6
10. Buffalo contribute about ______% of total meat production in India
a) 50 b) 60 c) 35 d) 45
11. Per capita consumption of egg in India is _____
a) 100 b) 40 c) 20 d) 60
12. Per capita meat consumption in India is ____kg.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 10
13. Cattle population in India is ___ million heads
a) 300 b) 410 c) 215 d) 109
14. Buffalo population in India is ___ million heads
a) 90 b) 54 c) 92 d) 67
15. There are about ____ million goats in India
a) 50 b) 78 c) 123 d) 95
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