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MEAT SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

ABATTOIR PRACTICE & ANIMAL BY-PRODUCTS TECHNOLOGY (MEAT SCIENCE AND


TECHNOLOGY
_________________ system of dressing of carcasses is followed in modern abattoirs.
1
a Line b Cross c Break d Joint

2 Muslim method of slaughter is called __________________

a Haram b Halal c Kosher d Jhatkha

3 In Jewish slaughter, the butcher is called as _______________________

a Shochet b shomer c Mulla d Kosher

4 Removal of blood vessels of Carcasses in Jewish slaughter is called _______________

a Searching b gorging c Porging d portioning

5 Pork pigs yield ____________ kg. of blood while bleeding.

a 1.2 b 2.2 2 3.2 d 4.2

6 Bacon pigs yield _______ kg. of blood while bleeding

a 1.0 b 2.0 c 3.0 d 4.0

7 Boars and sows yield ________ kg. of blood while bleeding.

a 2.5 b 3.6 c 1.8 d 4.5

8 One livestock unit is ____________________

a 1 adult bovine : b 1 adult bovine : 3 c 1 adult bovine : d 1 adult bovine :


2 pigs : 3 pigs : 5 calves : 3 pigs : 3 2 pigs : 3
calves : 5 sheep 10 sheep calves : 5 sheep calves : 6 sheep
9 Bleeding time for pig is ______ minutes.

a 5 b 6 c 7 d 8

10 Casings prepared from small intestine of sheep are called_____________

a weasand b middles c bungs d Rounds

11 Average protein content of carcass meal________________

a 50% b 30% c 70% d 40%

12 The average yield of blood obtained in cattle slaughter is __________ kg.

a 13.6 b 14.8 c 10.6 d 11.1

214
13 The bleeding time for cattle is ____________ minutes.

a 5 b 6 c 7 d 8

14 Bleeding time for sheep is __________________ minutes.

a 5 b 6 c 7 d 8

15 Aspiration of blood into thoracic cavity by inserting knife too far towards the chest or
oversticking causes _____________________.
a Poor bleeding b Back bleeding c Rush bleeding d Stick bleeding

16 When meat is frozen slowly the largest crystals are formed ______________

a inside muscle b between muscles c out side muscle d between epi and
fiber fiber perimysium
17 The maximum required electric current for sheep in Head-only stunning is ________.

a 1.0 A b 1.3 A C 1.5 A d 1.7 A

18 The maximum required electric current for lambs in Head–only stunning is __________.

a 0.6 A b 0.8 A C 1.0 A d 1.2 A

19 The maximum required electric current for Pigs in Head -only stunning is _________.

a 0.6 A b 0.8 A c 1.0 A d 1.2 A

20 Freezing point of meat lies between _____________

a - 1 to –1.5 oC b - 2 to – 0 oC c 0 to – 3 oC d - 1 to 0 oC

21 Scalding temperature in pigs is about________________

a 50 - 55 oC b 62 - 64 oC c 70 - 85 oC d 90 oC

22 Animals should be bled within ________seconds after electrical stunning to avoid muscle
splashing.
a 60 sec b 30 sec c 90 sec d 10 sec

23 The end product of ATP break down responsible for flavour is _________

a hypoxanthine b furfural c creatinine d furfural

24 The maximum required electric current for cattle in head –only stunning is ______.

a 1.0 A B 1.2 A c 1.5 A d 1.7 A

25 Brucellosis is also known as ____________________

a BVD b bangs diseased c black disease d mucosal disease

26 Britain is facing a severe crisis in beef production due to out break of ___________

215
a FMD b RP c BSE d Anthrax

27 Slaughter of dead animals is called as ______________________

a Plain slaughter b Cold slaughter c Dead slaughter


d Condemned
slaughter
28 Animals with less fat cover over the body and ready for slaughter are called as
_____________________
a Mild stock b Good stock c Clean stock d Lean stock

29 A male bovine castrated late in life is called as ________________

a Bullock b Steer c Stag d bull

30 Case on systems of dressing is used in___________

a cattle b buffalo c sheep d pig

31 The uncastrated male sheep is called as _______________

a Tup b Hogg c Gilt d wether

32 A female sheep which has not yet borne a lamb is called as ________________

a Wether b Ram c Gimmer d Hogg

33 ___________ is the female pig intended for breeding after puberty and before farrowing.

a Gimmer b Tup c Stag d Gilt

34 The indicator of fecal contamination is _______

a E.coli b Salmonella c S.faecalis d S. bovis

35 Iodine number in horse fat is____________.

a 70 - 85 B 35 – 46 c 50 – 70 d 30 - 50

36 Dressed chicken can be stored in a refrigerator at 2oC for __________.


a 7 days b 2 days c 10 days d 15 days

37 Young poultry which are 23-28 days old with an average live weight of 0.5kg are called as
________________
a Gilt b Weaner c Stag d Poussins

38 Eating of dog flesh is called as ________________________

a Canophagia b Hippophagia c Kinophagia d Caninephagia

39 During ageing the lysosomal enzymes act at the pH__________

216
a below pH 6 b 7–9 c 10 d 12

40 The optimum concentration of CO2 gas in stunning of pigs is _________

a 70% b 20% c 50% d 90%

41 Eating of horse flesh is called as _______________________

a Hippophagia b Caprophagia c Kinophagia d Biophagia

42 The voltage during electrical stunning of sheep is usually_________

a 40 V b 75 – 80 V c 90 V d 120 V

43 Speed of freezing of meat is the time taken to pass from_________

a 0 to -5 0 C b +2 to -2 0 C c +1 to -1 0 C d +5 to -2 0 C

44 Deer meat is called as __________________

a Fryer b Deer mutton c Venison d Menison

45 Buffalo meat is also called as ______________________

a Cara beef b Buff c Buffen d All of them

46 Goat meat is called as ____________________

a Mutton b Beef c Venison d Chevon

47 Area size for a medium meat plant (50,000+ units /year) is __________________

a 1-2 acres b 2-3 acres c 3-4 acres d 2-4 acres

48 The creatures which may cause contamination in the slaughterhouse /abattoir are called as
__________________
a Fermins b Kermins c Dermins d Vermins

49 Ultimate pH of meat is___________________

a 4.5 b 5.5 c 5 d 4

50 The recommended water requirement for a pig in a slaughter house/abattoir is


___________ litres / day.
a 454 b 576 c 421 d 476

51 Recommended light intensity at work rooms in an abattoir is ________ lux.

a 540 b 220 c 110 d 140

52 Pen size for housing of cattle (loose) in lairage of a slaughter house is _____________ m².

a 2.3-2.8 b 2.1-2.4 c 3.1-3.3 d 3.3-3.5

217
53 Recommended lairage floor gradient in a slaughter house should be at least ___________

a 1:20 b 1:30 c 1:40 d 1:50

54 The slaughter rate in continuous powered dressing system is ____________


cattle / hour
a 10-75 b 40-75 c 40-120 d 50-150

55 Recovery of fat from the dead carcasses is called as ____________________

a rendering b simmering c braising d pasteurization

56 Humidity in carcass chilling room should be about _______________

a 90% b 40% c 50% d 60%

57 Pork is stored at below ___________°C.

a -20 b -16 c -15 d -5

58 Offals from food animals for edible purposes must be held at a temperature not exceeding
____________°C.
a 3 b 4 c 5 d 6

59 Heparin is extracted from _________________

a lung b liver c spleen d adrenals

60 The process of tanning sheep skin with fish oil is popularly known as _________

a shammoying b dying c bating d desliming

61 Animal casings are mainly graded based on their___________

a length b diameter c colour d moisture content

62 Omental fat is otherwise called as _________________

a Caul fat b Suet c Knob d Leaf fat

63 The grade of fat used in animal feeds is generally ______________

a 2-6 b 6-10 c 10-14 d 7-9

64 Pig fat is called as ________________

a Lard b Momo c Caul fat d Tallow

65 Measly beef is caused by ____________

a Cysticercus b Cysticercus bovis c Cysticercus cellusae d Multiceps


tenucollis multiceps

66 Cattle fat is called as ____________

218
a Lard b Tallow c Caulfat d Grease

67 Pig skin is also known as _______________


a Skin b Hide c Rind d Lard

68 _______________ is manufactured from the abomasum of the calf.


a Pepsin b Rennin C Proteus D Rennet

69 Dried blood is rich in amino acid _____________


a Lysine b Leucine c Methionine d Tryptophan

70 Black puddings are the edible by-products obtained from _________________

a Bone marrow b Blood c Brain d Kidneys

71 ______________ is the most tender cut in beef carcass.

a Rump b Short plate c Chuck and blade d Sirloin

72 pig skin yields large quantity of _____________________

a Collagen b Elastin c Gelatin d Reticulin

73 Sole leather is obtained from the ________________ area of the hide of an animal

a butt b Brisket c Back d leg

74 Wetting is a ____________________ reaction of cleaning in a meat plant

a Physical b Chemical C Microbial d Organic

75 Technical fat is used in manufacture of ____________

a soap b fat liquor c lubricant d edible oils

76 Chelating agents are otherwise called as _________________

a Halogens b Amphoterics c Sequestrants d Halophiles

77 Average dressing % in Indian goats is about__________________

a 35-50% b 55% c Above 70% d 60%

78 Air pressure employed in pneumatic stunners is ___________________psi.

a 40-80 b 140-160 c 80-120 d 230-260

79 Quats is a class of ____________ surfactant

a Anionic b Cationic c Nonionic d None of them

80 Ruffle fat is a fat around _________

a kidney b mesentery c thoracic region d rectum

219
81 High pressure rinse systems in an abattoir function at ____________ bar pressure

a 30-60 b 60-120 c 140-170 d 180-200

82 EU regulation for water temperature required for knife sterilization in a meat plant is
______________°C.
a 72 B 82 c 92 d 102

83 The best ramp angle for loading and unloading of pigs from trucks is _________°.

a 20 b 30 c 40 d 50

84 ___________________ reserves of animals are readily depleted during transit and


detention.
a Protein b Fat c Glycogen d All of them

85 ___________________ reagent is used for dating of bruised meat

a Fouchet’s b TBA c Voges-proskauer d Edwards

86 Double muscling in thigh region of Simmental bulls is also called as __________________


effect.
a Symond’s b Doppelender c Roger’s d Gracey’s

87 Meat fit for human consumption by Jewish law is known as ___________ meat.

a Halal b Jhatkha c Sterile d Kosher

88 Emergency slaughter is done in animals having ________________________

a Acute pain b Chronic condition c Anthrax d Black leg

89 Five rules of ________________ slaughter required for killing animal for food are killing the
animal without pause,pressure,slanting,stabbing and tearing
a Jewish b Muslim c Sikh d Jhatkha

90 ______________________ is the father of meat inspection.

a Thornton b Gracey c Ostertag d Collins

91 ___________________ is known as sweetbreads.

a Thymus b Spleen c Pancreas d kidney

92 Trotters are ________________________

a Cattle feet b Sheep feet c Rabbit feet d Pig feet

93 The method of packing dressed broiler chicken is known as ______________

a trussing b wrapping c tetrapacking d Vacuum packing

94 Scalding temperature for turkey is usually __________

220
a 60o C for 60 sec b 53 o C for 120 sec c 60o C for 120 sec d 93 o C for 5 sec

95 Meat bone ratio in dressed broiler is approximately________

a 4:1 b 2:1 c 3:1 d 5:1

96 National Research Center on meat is situated in____________

a Bombay b Calcutta c Hyderabad d Delhi

97 Pork is rich in vitamin _________.

a B1 b B2 c B6 d B12

98 Glue is the crude form of _____________________

a Collagen b Gelatin c Adhesive d Gum

99 Demineralized bone is called as ________________

a Bone ash b Calcined bone c Bone china d Ossein

100 Alpha cells of pancreas yield the __________________ hormone

a Insulin b Glucagon c Parathormone d Epinephrine

ANSWER KEY – ABATTOIR PRACTICE & ANIMAL BY-PRODUCTS TECHNOLOGY

Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer


1 a 26. c 51. b 76. c
2 b 27. b 52. a 77. a
3 a 28. d 53. d 78. c
4 c 29. c 54. c 79. b
5 b 30. c 55. a 80. a
6 c 31. a 56. a 81. b
7 b 32. c 57. a 82. b
8 a 33. d 58. a 83. a
9 b 34. a 59. a 84. c
10 d 35. a 60. a 85. a
11 a 36. a 61. b 86. b
12 a 37. d 62. a 87. d
13 b 38. c 63. a 88. a
14 a 39. a 64. a 89. a
15 b 40. a 65. b 90. c
16 a 41. a 66. b 91. c

221
17 b 42. b 67. c 92. d
18 a 43. a 68. d 93. a
19 c 44. c 69. a 94. d
20 a 45. d 70. b 95. a
21 a 46. d 71. d 96. c
22 b 47. d 72. c 97. a
23 a 48. d 73. a 98. b
24 c 49. b 74. a 99. d
25 b 50. a 75. a 100. b

LIVESTOCK PRODUCTS TECHNOLOGY-II


1 Natural casings are prepared from____________________

a Mucosa b submucosa c muscular layer d serosa

2 Most commonly used barrier bag for vacuum packaging are ____________________

a polyethylene b poly vinylidene c polypropylene d polyester

3 Frankfuter is a typical example of ________________

a uncooked b cooked c Cooked smoked d Uncooked


sausage unsmoked sausage smoked
sausage sausage
4 Cold shortening of muscle occurs when pre-rigor muscle is exposed to a temperature
between ____________________

a -5 to –10 oC b 0 to 15 oC c -1.5 to –3 oC d -20 to –30 oC

5 Myofibrillar proteins are____________________

a globular b fibrous c
globular and d none of the
fibrous above
6 Bloom is referred as the property of ____________________

a fresh carcass b frozen carcass c cooked meat d smoked meat

7 ________________ is referred as inspectors lymph node

a bronchial b mediastinal c supra scapular d poplitial

8 Livestock unit is ____________________

222
a 1 adult bovine : b 1 adult bovine : 3 c 1 adult bovine : d 1 adult bovine :
2 pigs : 3 pigs : 5 calves : 3 pigs : 3 2 pigs : 3
calves : 5 sheep 10 sheep calves : 5 sheep calves : 6 sheep
9 The colour of the pigment nitrosohemochromogen is ____________________

a brown b pink c red d bright red

10 Casings prepared from small intestine of sheep are called_____________

a weasand b middles c bungs d rounds

11 Average protein content of carcass meal________________

a 50% b 30% c 70% d 40%

12 Cytoplasm of muscle fiber is called as_______________

a protoplasm b sarcoplasm c sarcomere d


ground
substance
13 Bacterial spoilage in chilled meat is due to bacteria of ________________group

a psychrophilic b mesophilic c thermophilic d microaerophilic

14 Meat pattice are cooked in an oven to an internal temperature of ____________________

a 70 oC b 90 oC c 60 oC d 85 oC

15 Glycogen content of normal bovine muscle ranges from ____________________

a 0.5-1.3% b 0.1-1% c 2 – 3.5 % d 1- 3 %

16 When meat is frozen slowly the largest crystals are formed ______________

a inside muscle b between muscles c out side muscle d between epi and
fiber fiber perimysium
17 The temperature of the retort during canning of meat chunks is _____________

a 100 oC b 120 oC c 150 oC d 200 oC

18 The radiation dose of _______ is sufficient to kill the pathogenic bacteria.

a 0.1 M rad b 1 M rad C 1.5 M rad d 2 M rad

19 Water activity in intermediate moisture foods is maintained between_______

a 0.6 – 0.85% b 0.3 – 0.4 % c 0.8 – 1 % d 0.2 – 0.5 %

20 Freezing point of meat lies between _____________

a - 1 to –1.5 oC b - 2 to – 0 oC c 0 to – 3 oC d - 1 to 0 oC

223
21 Scalding temperature in pigs is about________________

a 50 - 55 oC b 62 - 64 oC c 70 - 85 oC d 90 oC

22 Animals should be bled within ________seconds after electrical stunning to avoid muscle
splashing.

a 60 sec b 30 sec c 90 sec d 10 sec

23 The end product of ATP break down responsible for flavour is _________

a hypoxanthine b furfural c creatinine d furfural

24 The characteristic yellow colour of egg yolk is due to _____________

a carotene b vitamin- a c biotin d xanthophyll

25 Brucellosis is also known as ____________________

a BVD b bangs diseased c black disease d mucosal disease

26 Since Jan 2001 Britain is facing a severe crisis in beef production due to out break of
___________

a FMD b RP c Mad cow disease d Brucellosis

27 Strength of pickle solution is measured by_______

a Barometer b Torry meter c Gyrometer d Salinometer

28 Emulsion is prepared in ________

a Tumbler b Homogenizer c Flaker d Bowl chopper

29 The carcinogenic compounds in smoke are______________

a benzyl pyrenes b carbonyls c aldehydes d PAH

30 Case on systems of dressing is used in___________

a cattle b buffalo c sheep d pig

31 Each muscle fiber is covered by __________

a perimycium b epimysium c endomysium d fascia

32 Bacon is prepared from __________

a boston butt b leg portion c picnic shoulder d bellies

33 Multiplication of bacteria is highest during ____________phase of growth.

224
a lag phase b log phase c phase of + ve d stationary phase
acceleration
34 The indicator of fecal contamination is _______

a E.coil b Salmonella c S.faecalis d S. bovis

35 Iodine no. in horse fat is____________.

a 70 - 85 B 35 – 46 c 50 – 70 d 30 - 50

36 Dressed chicken can be stored in a refrigerator at 2oC for __________.

a 7 days b 2 days c 10 days d 15 days

37 The fat content of chicken egg albumen is ____________

a 0.2 % b 10 % c 15 % d 20 %

38 Green rot in egg is caused by ________________

a Pseudomonas b Staphylococcus c Serratia d Cladosporium

39 During ageing the lysosomal enzymes act at the pH__________

a below pH 6 b 7–9 c 10 d 12

40 The optimum concentration of CO2 gas in stunning of pigs is _________

a 70% b 20% c 50% d 90%

41 Parasites in meat such as Cysticercus bovis and Trichenella spiralis are killed
by__________
a 0.01 – 0.1 M rad b 0.5 – 1 M rad c 1 – 2 M rad d 10 M rad

42 The voltage during electrical stunning of sheep is usually_________

a 40 V b 75 – 80 V c 90 V d 120 V

43 Speed of freezing of meat is the time taken to pass from_________

a 0 to -5 0 C b +2 to -2 0 C c +1 to -1 0 C d +5 to -2 0 C

44 Antibacterial action of cloves is due to_________

a eugenol b isothiocyanate c carbonic acid d phenol

45 Wet dog flavour is typical of _______________

a AFD meat b Irradiated meat c chilled meat d cooked meat

46 The product corned beef, the corn refers to________________

a Corn flavour b granulated salt c Na – Nitrite d polyphosphate

225
47 A minimum of ______________ nitrite is necessary to ensure normal colour and flavour in
cured meats.
a 20 – 40 ppm b 100 ppm c 200 ppm d 10 ppm

48 Bound water forms about ___________ % of the total water content in meat

a 10 % b 5% c 20 % d 25 %

49 Ultimate pH of meat protein is___________________

a 4.5 b 5.4 c 5 d 4

50 The moisture content of AFD meat is __________________

a 2% b 10% c 15% d 20%

51 W.B. Shear force meter measure the strength required in _____________ of meat.

a biting b tearing c chewing d cutting

52 Thaw rigor is caused by the activity of _______________ enzyme

a lysozyme b protease c ATPase d lipase

53 For preparing fermented sausages the ______________ culture is used.

a Lactobacillus b Leuconostock c Achromobactor d Psedomonas

54 ___________________ ions are responsible for muscle contraction

a Na b K c Ca d SO4

55 Recovery of fat from the dead carcasses is called as ____________________

a rendering b simmering c braising d pasteurization

56 Humidity in carcass chilling room should be about _______________

a 90% b 40% c 50% d 60%

57 Cabbage odour due to methanediol in sliced vacuum packed bacon is due to ____

a Pseudomonas b Proteus c Pediococcus d Micrococcus


inconstans
58 The black colouration in bone taints is due to production of _____________

a H2S gas b NH3 c CO2 d mercaptans

59 Heparin is extracted from _________________

a lung b liver c spleen d adrenals

60 The process of tanning sheep skin with fish oil is popularly known as _________

226
a shammoying b dying c bating d desliming

61 Animal casings are mainly graded based on their___________

a length b diameter c colour d moisture content

62 Whiskers on meat surface are caused by_______________

a penicillin b tamnidium c aspergillus d achromobactor

63 In meat product preparation maida is used for__________________

a flavour b colour c water binding d fat binding

64 The famous traditional meat products in Jammu and Kashmir is______________

a Rapka b Momo c Rista d Kola urandi

65 Measly beef is an another name for ____________

a Cysticercus b Cysticercus bovis c Cysticercus cellusae d Multiceps


tenucollis multiceps

66 Tyrosine value estimates the extent of ___________ breakdown in meat.


a fatty acids b protein c carbohydrate d vtiamin

67 Average generation time for bacteria is _________________


a 20 min b 10 min c 30 min d 40 min

68 Carter’s agar is used for cultivation of ________________


a E.coli b Fungus C Proteus D Stapohylococcus

69 ______________ gives acid fast reaction on Ziehl Neelsen’s staining.


a Closrtidium b Salmonella c Campylobactor d Tuberculosis

70 Example of spirochets is____________

a Leptospira b Vibrio c Mycoplasma d Klebsiella

71 ______________ is the most tender cut in beef carcass.

a Rump b Short plate c Chuck and blade d Sirloin

72 Colour of rabbit meat is ____________

a pale brown b red c cherry red d pink

73 Main objective of adding salt during meat emulsion preparation is____________

a to extract b antioxidant c antimicrobial d flavour


myofibrillar
proteins
74 ______________ is the GRAS chemical additive

227
a citric acid b KMnO4 C Sodium hypochlorite d benzylpyrines

75 Technical fat is used in manufacture of ____________

a soap b fat liquor c lubricant d edible oils

76 Fatty acid composition of oils can be estimated by _____________

a TLC b GLC c Refractometer d AAS

77 Average dressing % in Indian goats is about__________________

a 35-50% b 55% c Above 70% d 60%

78 __________ instrument is used to measure the smoke density in smoke houses.

a Electric eye b Plannimeter c Ameter d Densitometeric scan

79 Alarm water content in fat free dehydrated meats is __________

a 15% b 30% c 40% d 50%

80 Ruffle fat is a fat around _________

a kidney b mesentery c thoracic region d rectum

81 Haugh index is used to determine the internal quality of_____________

a milk b meat c paneer d egg

82 ___________ initiated the concept of canning of foods.

a B.Franklin B R.A.Lawrie c N.Appert d R.Hamm

83 The food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus is referred as __________

a infection b infestation c intoxication d ingestion

84 The quality standards for foods all over the world are monitored as per____

a ISO b APEDA c OIE d FAO

85 Yellow fever is an example of _____________zoonoses

a direct zoonoses b meta zoonoses c cyclo zoonoses d sapro zoonoses

86 An association between two organism in which both are benefited is ___________

a symbiosis b synnenecrotic c antagonism d mutualistic

87 Mycobacterium piscium causes T.B.in_________

a cattle b sheep c frog d birds

228
88 Anthrax is also known as __________

a Charbon b Struck c Weil’s disease d Undulant fever

89 Clenbutarol is an ________________

a growth promoter b antiseptic c antibiotic d lipolytic agent

90 _____________ are the principal host for Leptospirosis

a cattle b man c lizard d rodent

91 All organophosphorous compounds produce _____________residue in tissues.

a little or no b moderate c high d heavy

92 ______________ is taken for toxic residue analysis.

a liver b heart c spleen d intestine

93 The method of packing dressed broiler chicken is known as ______________

a trussing b wrapping c tetrapacking d none of the a,b,c

94 Scalding temperature for turkey is usually __________-

a 60o C for 60 sec b 53 o C for 120 sec c 60o C for 120 sec d 93 o C for 5 sec

95 Meat bone ratio in dressed broiler is approximately________

a 4:1 b 2:1 c 3:1 d 5:1

96 National Research Center on meat is situated in____________

a Bombay b Calcutta c Hyderabad d Delhi

97 In India, processed meat products from chicken are manufactured by_______

a Lipton b Venkys c Hindustan liver d Griffon

98 Meat analogues are prepared from________

a pork b vegetable c beef d mutton


proteins
99 The enzyme present in chalyza of chicken gee which has antibacterial effect is
___________
a lysozyme b amylase c protease d pectinase

100 Meat containing sarcocyst is________

a rejected on b rejected due to c passed d passed with


aesthetic ground zoonoses caution of
cooking

229
ANSWER KEY - LIVESTOCK PRODUCTS TECHNOLOGY

Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer Sr no. Answer

1 b 26. a 51. D 76. b


2 b 27. d 52. C 77. a
3 b 28. d 53. A 78. a
4 b 29. d 54. C 79. a
5 c 30. c 55. A 80. a
6 a 31. c 56. A 81. d
7 a 32. d 57. B 82. c
8 a 33. b 58. A 83. a
9 a 34. a 59. A 84. a
10 d 35. a 60. A 85. b
11 a 36. a 61. B 86. d
12 b 37. a 62. C 87. c
13 a 38. a 63. C 88. a
14 d 39. a 64. C 89. a
15 a 40. a 65. B 90. d
16 a 41. a 66. B 91. a
17 b 42. b 67. A 92. a
18 a 43. a 68. D 93. a
19 a 44. a 69. D 94. d
20 a 45. b 70. A 95. a
21 a 46. b 71. D 96. c
22 b 47. a 72. A 97. b
23 a 48. b 73. A 98. b
24 a 49. b 74. A 99. a
25 b 50. a 75. A 100. a
MEAT HYGIENE AND PUBLIC HEALTH
Aim, objectives and role of veterinary public health in modern society and food animals
1. Beef cattle are slaughtered generally __________ of age
a) 15-24 months b) 6 month c) 3 years d) 8 months
2. Bobby calves are slaughtered within ____________of birth
a) few days b) few hours c) 6 months d) 1 year
3. A male bovine castrated late in life is
a) stag b) capon c) steer d) bullock
4. Average dressing percentage in pig is
a) above 80% b) 50% c) 60% d) 70%
5. ______________ meat is referred as venison meat

230
a) sheep b) Goat c) Deerd) Poultry
6. Spleen of sheep is _____________ shaped.
a) circular b) oyster c) triangular d) elliptical
7. Pig liver has ____________ lobes
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
8. Gut sweet bread is ___________
a) pancreas b) spleen c) thymus d) liver
9. Marbling is the ____________ deposition of fat
a) intra muscular b) inter muscular c) subcutaneous d) around kidney
10. Thoracic cavity in horse has ___________ pairs of ribs
a) 15 b) 13 c) 14 d) 18
11. Flesh of few days old calves is
a) dark red b) white and firm c) pale watery d) dark red with bluish
12. Average dressing percentage in Indian goats is about __________
a) 35 – 50 b) 55 c) 70 d) 60
13. Capybara is a _______
a) bird b) rodent c) bovine d) none of a,b,c
14. A female sheep which has not yet borne a lamb is _________
a) cast ewe b) gimmer c) steer d) wether
15. Clenbutarol is a __________
a) anthelmentic b) antibiotic c) growth promoter d) none of these
16. Castrated male sheep is referred as __________
a) Hog b) Stag c) Tup d) none of these
17. Meat inspection must be carried out by a trained vet working as meat inspector and in guidance
with the procedures laid in the law _____________
a) MFPO (1973) b) MFPO (2005) c) PFA d) ICMSF
18. There are about ______sheep breeds in India
a) 20 b) 42 c) 8 d) 60
19. Buffalo meat contributes to about __% of total meat produced in India
a) 10 b) 25 c) 50 d) 40
20. In goats about ___________% of its population are slaughtered every year for chevon production
a) 10 b) 80 c) 60 d) 40
Answer key - Aim, objectives and role of veterinary public health in modern society and food

animals -
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. C

6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D

11. D 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. C

16. A 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. C

Transportation of food animals, pre-slaughter stress


1. The pig a ramp is normally sloped at an angle of ____________°

a) 20-24° b) 10° c) 40° d) 50°


2. For cattle a ramp slope of __________ is recommended.

a) 20° b) 10° c) 40° d) 50°

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3. While transportation of pigs stocking density of ______ m 2 /100 kg is desirable.

a) 0.45 b) 0.85 c) 0.25 d) 1.5


4. For the journey involving more than ____animals are transported by road or rail.

a) 6 hours b) 20 hours c) 10 hours d) 2 hours


5. During railway transport the average space provided per cattle in railway wagon or vehicle shall
not be less than _______________ square meters.
a) 10 b) 5 c) 2 d) 8
6. An ordinary board gauge goods wagon shall carry not more than ______ adult cattle.

a) 10 b) 5 c) 20 d) 30
7. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than ___________ calves on broad gauge.

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 30
8. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than _________adult cattle on meter gauge
railway compartment.
a) 6 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30
9. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than _________ calves on meter gauge.

a) 6 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30
10. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than _________ adult cattle on narrow gauge
railway compartment.
a) 4 b) 10 c) 20 d) 25
11. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than _____calves on narrow gauge railway
compartment.
a) 6 b) 10 c) 20 d) 30
12. While transporting animals the speed of the truck shall not exceed _____km /hr.

a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60
13. For loading sheep the ramp should be at least _____in width

a) 0.75 m b) 0.25 m c) 0.55 m d) 0.95 m


14. In a truck about ________ sheep/ goats can be transported.

a) 100 b) 20 c) 30 d) 80
15. In a railway wagon (size 21.1 sq. meters) about _____small animals can be transported.

a) 100 b) 20 c) 30 d) 80
16. An ordinary goods wagon shall carry not more than ______ adult sheep/ goats on broad gauge.

a) 100 b) 200 c) 75 d) 30
17. In pigs, for journey, exceeding ________hours, the animals shall preferably be transported by
railway.
a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24
18. For transportation of adult poultry, minimum floor space required is about __ cm 2

a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50

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19. Adult cattle, sheep and goats may travel for ____ hours before a minimum rest period of 1 hour,
followed by a further maximum of 14 hours travel.
a) 20 b) 10 c) 14 d) 28
20. Pigs will lose 2.2-5.4 kg of their live weight during 24 hours transport.

a) 4.2-6.4 kg b) 2.2-5.4 kg c) 0.2- 0.4 kg d) 8.2- 12.4 kg

Transportation of food animals, pre-slaughter stress - answer key


1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. C

6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. A

11. A 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. A

16. A 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. B

Different components and management aspect of abattoir


1. Water must be distributed to all parts of the plant under adequate pressure_________
a. a) 20 p.s.i. b) 30 p.s.i. c) 40 p.s.i. d) 50 p.s.i.
2. The recommended water requirement is _____ liters / day / pig, plus 25% extra
a. a) 272 b) 454 c) 45 d) 100
3. The recommended water requirement is _____liters / day / bovine, plus 25% extra
a. a) 272 b) 454 c) 45 d) 100
4. The recommended water requirement is ______liters / day /sheep, plus 25% extra
a. a) 272 b) 454 c) 45 d) 100
5. Generally, a small abattoir (up to 30000 units / year) will occupy _____.
a. a) 1-2 acres b) 2-4 acres c) 4-6 acres d) 10 acres
6. Generally, a medium plant (50000 + units / year) will occupy ________
a. a) 1-2 acres b) 2-4 acres c) 4-6 acres d) 10 acres
7. Generally, a large meat plant handling over 100000 units annually will occupy about _____
a. a) 1-2 acres b) 2-4 acres c) 4-6 acres d) 10 acres
8. It is generally recommended that the overall intensity should not be less than_____ at all
inspection points.
a. a) 220 lux b) 540 lux c) 110 lux d) 340 lux.
9. It is generally recommended that the overall intensity should not be less than_______ in
workrooms.
a. a) 220 lux b) 540 lux c) 110 lux d) 340 lux.
10. It is generally recommended that the overall intensity should not be less than_______ in other
areas
a. a) 220 lux b) 540 lux c) 110 lux d) 340 lux.
11. The intensities of light in slaughter house are usually taken at levels of ________ meter from the
floor, except in inspection areas where the height is 1.5 meter
a. a) 1.5 b) 2 c) 0.9 d) 0.1
12. The intensities of light in slaughter house are usually taken at levels of 0.9 meter from the floor,
except in inspection areas where the height is _______ meter
13. a) 1.5 b) 2 c) 0.9 d) 0.1
14. Floor slope towards drains should be ____

233
a) 1:20 b) 1:10 c) 1:50 d) 1:80
15. At least one drain should be provided for each _____floor area
a) 10m2 b) 20m2 c) 30m2 d) 40m2
16. Drainage valleys under the dressing rail where the blood tends to collect, the gradient should be
1:25
a) 1:25 b) 1:15 c) 1:55 d) 1:75
17. For cattle, the bleeding trough should be at least ____ m wide, possess a good gradient
a) 1.5 b) 2 c) 0.9 d) 0.1
18. For cattle the overhead bleeding rail should be about _________ m above the floor of the dry
landing area.
a) 4.9 b) 3.0 c) 2.5 d) 6.9
19. For cattle the overhead dressing' rails should be about ____m high.
a) 4.9 b) 3.4 c) 2.5 d) 6.9
20. The bleeding trough for sheep and pigs should preferably be enclosed on both sides as for cattle
and have a width of _________ m.
a) 2.1- 4.2 b) 1.5 - 3.2 c) 1.1-1.2 d) 6.1-7.2
21. For sheep and pigs the overhead bleeding should preferably ________ m high.
a) 2.7 b) 3.8 c) 1.5 d) 4.7
22. For pigs the overhead dressing rail should preferably _______ m high.
a) 2.7 b) 3.4 c) 1.5 d) 4.7
23. Rate of slaughter in gravity rail system will be about ________cattle /h.
a) 40-120 b) 10-40 c) 10-75 d) 50 -150
24. Rate of slaughter in Canpak system will be about ________cattle /h.
a) 40-120 b) 10-40 c) 10-75 d) 50 -150
25. Rate of slaughter in intermittent power rail system will be about ______cattle /h.
a) 40-120 b) 10-40 c) 10-75 d) 50 -150
26. The eventual waste load should be less than ______kg per 500 kg live weight kill.
a) 7.5 b)8.5 c)9.5 d)10.5
27. The wastewater usage less than _____ liters per 500 kg live weight kill and the BOD in the region
of 1500 mg/liter.
a) 5000 b) 2000 c) 3500 d)1000
28 In cattle slaughterhouse the average BOD is in the region of 1500 mg/liter.
a) 5000 b) 2500 c) 500 d) 1500
29 High nitrate concentrations in natural waters encourage algae and other plant growth, thus
blocking watercourses. The maximum permitted level in potable water is ______mg / litre.
a) 0.5 b) 1.5 c) 2.0 d) 3
30 In ETP the primary treatment is capable of reducing up to 90% of the fats, 65% of the solids and
the BOD by ______%.
a) 25 b) 50 c) 35 d) 80

Different components and management aspect of abattoir – Answer Key


1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. A

6. B 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C

11. A 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. D

16. A 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. C

21. A 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. C

234
26. A 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. C

Ante-mortem and post-mortem examination of animals and method of slaughter


1. Ante-mortem examination is the inspection as of live animals conducted within
_______________of unloading them at slaughterhouse.
a) 2 days b) 24 hours c) 2 hours d) 5 days
2. The lairage space should be adequate enough to accommodate supply of cattle for ________
days
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
3. Mesenteric lymph nodes in pig are
a) black b) black and lobulated c) white and lobulated d) red
4. Haemal lymph nodes are numerous in __________
a) cattleb) horse c) pig d) poultry
5. Popliteal lymphnode is __________ in cattle
a) deep-seated b) superficial c) absent d) present in 50% cases
6. _____________ lymph nodes is known as inspectors lymphnode
a) bronchial b) mediastinal c) portal d) sub scapular
7. _____________ glands are sometimes referred to as the glands of fight and flight or the
emergency glands
a) parathyroid b) thyroid c) adrenal d) pituitary gland
8. To avoid blood splashing in muscles the animal must be bled within ______ of stunning
a) 1 mins b) 2 mins c) 30 seconds d) 10 mins
9. For pre slaughter anesthesia is pigs a concentration of at least ________ % CO 2 in air is most
suitable.
a) 50 b) 60 c) 70 d) 80
10. For satisfactory electrical stunning of animals the strength of the current and voltage should not
be less than _______ and ________ respectively.
a) 250 MA and 75 V b) 100 MA and 70 V c) 250 MA and 50 V d) 500 MA and 30 V
11. Damage to _____________ nerve during pithing cattle may lead to slaughter spleen
a) splanchnic b) medulla oblongata c) peripheral d) spinal
12. The act of killing in Jewish method of slaughter is referenced as
a) shechita b) shochet c) kosher d) terepha
13. Zatka method of slaughter is preferred by _______community in India
a) Muslim b) Sikh c) Jews d) Christian
14. Puntilla is used in ______method of slaughter.
a) halal b) evernazione c) zatka d) jewish
15. In muslim method of slaughter consumption of ______is forbidden.
a) blood b) brain c) pancreas d) kidney
16. Captive bolt pistol is a useful instrument for slaughter rates up to _____cattle / hour.
a) 40 b) 250 c) 150 d) 500
17. During Co2 stunning for higher slaughter rates ( 140 pigs / hr.) _____is used.
a) dip lift b) oval tunnel c) ferris wheel d) none of these
18. The total quantity of electrical charge supplied during pig stunning is expressed in_
a) volt b) ampere c) watts d) ohms
19 A buffalo suffering from a compound fracture of right femur can be slaughtered as_____
a) casualty slaughter b) emergency slaughter c) normal slaughter d) condemned

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20 Bleeding time required in cattle is about _____minutes after sticking.
a) 2 b) 6 c) 10 d) 15
21 Accessory spleen are found in_____________
a) cow b) horse c) poultry d) pig
22 Gut sweet bread is nothing but __________
a) spleen b) liver c) pancreas d) kidney
23 In Jewish method ___________are slaughtered .
a) camel b) male buffalo calf c)she goat d) bullucks
24 __________is not eaten in Muslim community
a) spleen b) blood c) pancreas d) kidney
25 ________are bled by bilateral severance of the carotid arteries and jugular veins by an incision
across the throat region caudal to larynx.
a) sheep b) pig c) cattle d) rabbit
26 In commercial practice pig are generally stunned by using __________
a) co2 gas b) N2 gas c) captive bolt pistol d) twisting of neck
27 In commercial practice poultry are generally stunned by using __________
a) co2 gas b) N2 gas c) electrified water bath d) twisting of neck
28 In electrical stunning of cattle the strength of the current should not be less than ______and
voltage less than 75 V
a) 350 mA b) 450 mA c) 250 mA d) 150 mA
29 The passage of electric current through the brain results in a rapid rise of blood pressure from
normal 120-140 mmHg to _______ mmHg)
a) 250 b) 500 c) 400 d) 600
30 Pelt burn - black coloured charred marks are seen on the back region due to __________
stunning
a) gas b) concussion c) low voltage d) high voltage head to back

Ante-mortem and post- mortem examination of animals and method of slaughter - answer key

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A
11. A 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. A
16. B 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. C
26. A 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. D

Meat composition and rigor mortis


1. The ultimate pH of meat proteins is _____
a) 4.5 b) 5.4 c) 7.2 d) 2
2. Iodine number in horse fat is
a) 35 – 46 b) 50 c) 71-86 d) 55
3. The average protein content of meat is ___________ %
a) 19 b) 10 c) 30 d) 40
4. __________ is the most abundant connective tissue in muscle
a) collagen b) elastin c) reticulin d) connectin
5. Liver is a very good source of vitamin _________
a) A b) C c) D d) E
6. During rigor mortis _________is affected very early, usually with in an hour of slaughter
a) heart b) liver c) cheek muscles d) thigh muscles
7. Stiffness during rigor mortis is due to formation of _____________
a) actomyosin bond b) sarcomyosin bond c) precipitation of sarcoplasmic proteins d)
connective tissue cross links

236
8. _______ test is useful in detecting adulteration of different meat even up to 1% level
a) TLC b) PCR c) paper electrophoresis d) DFM
9. __________ test is used for differentiation of jaundice in slaughter house
a) Rose Bengal test b) Mallein test c) Rimington Fowrie d) Casoni’s test
10. Total fat content is higher in ____
a) beef b) pork c) carabeef d) chevon
11. Sheep carcass is ______shaped.
a) narrow elongated b) barrel shaped c) round d) none of the a,b,c
12. Actin / myosin are_________ type of proteins
a) fibrous b) globular c) fibrous/globular d) none of these
13. Rigor mortis occurs in ________phases.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
14. Average connective tissue content of beef is _____________ %.
a) 2. 5 b) 3.5 c) 4. 5 d) 5.5
15. The proteolytic enzymes in muscle cells are ________________
a) cathepsin b) papain c) trypsin d) bromelin
16. DFD meat shows _______________rigor
a) acidic b) alkaline c) normal d) none of these
17. In rigor mortis resolution is followed by ____________
a) putrifaction b) delay phase c) onset phase d) none of these
18. Meat is generally an excellent source of _________vitamin.
a) C b) A c) B-complex d) E
19. Total collagen content of adult is _____young aimals.
a) more b) sufficiently less c) equal d) marginally less
20. Protein efficiency ration of meat ___________
a) 3.2 b) 1.5 c) 4.7 d) 6.9
Meat composition and rigor mortis- Answer key
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
11. b 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. A
16. B 17 A 18 C 19 B 20 A

Characterization of meats of different food animals


1. No. ribs in cattle carcass are ________
a) 13 b)14 c)15 d) 16
2. No. ribs in pig carcass are ________
a) 13 b)14 c)15 d) 16
3. In sheep radius is ______times length of metacarpus
a) 1.25 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 3
4. In goat radius is ______times length of metacarpus
a) 1.25 b) 2 c) 2.5 d) 3
5. Pig liver has ___lobes
a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 2
6. Cattle liver has ___lobes
a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 2
7. Oesophagus is included in the pluck of _______
a) sheep b) cattle c) pig d) goat
8. Oyster shaped spleen is seen in _______
a) sheep b) cattle c) pig d) goat
9. ________ spleen is sickle shaped
a) sheep b) cattle c) pig d) horse
10. ________ spleen is elongated
a) sheep b) cattle c) pig d) horse
11. There are _________no. of bronchial lymphnodes.

237
a) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 2
12. Most Posterior mediastinal lymph node measures up to ________cm in length.
a) 10 b) 5 c)15 d) 20
13. In_________ poplitial lymph nodes are absent in 50 5 cases.
a) sheep b) cattle c) pig d) horse
14. The left kidney is moveable in _________
a) poultry b) cattle c) pig d) horse
15. In _________adrenal glands are bean shaped
a) sheep b) cattle c) pig d) horse
Characterization of meats of different food animals-Answer key

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. C
11. D 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. A

Meat preservation
1. The chief bacteriostatic and bactericidal substance in wood smoke is ________
a) carbonic acid b) PAH c) formaldehyde d) benzene
2. __________ is the main refrigerant used in commercial refrigeration.
a) carbon dioxide b) sulphur dioxide c) ammonia d) freon
3. Frozen storage of beef must be at a temperature of ____ 0C in commercial practice.
a) -180C b) –50C c) -500C d) -10C
4. In commercial canning operation the heat should be sufficient to reduce the population of
_____________ by a factor of 1012
a) Clostridium botulinum cells b) Clostridium botulinum spores
c) Clostridium perfringens d) Clostridium putrefacians
5. Test for water holding capacity of meat was developed by _________.
a) Nicholas Appert b) R. Hamm c) R.A. Lawrie d) Luis Pasture
6. A can with a normal appearance but one end flips out when the can is struck against solid object
but snaps back to normal under light pressure is referred as________
a) flipper b) springer c) leaker d) overfilled can
7. Temperature of liquid nitrogen is __________
a) –700C b) –1960C c) –1000C d) –250C
8. ________ instrument is used in measuring strength of brine solution.
a) salinometer b) thermometer c) hygrometer d) lactometer
9. Cold shortening in muscles occur when pre-rigor muscle is exposed to a temperature between
a) –5 to 100C b) 0 to 150C c) –1.5 to –30C d) –20 to –300C
10. The desirable colour of cured meat pigment nitroso-hemochromogen is ___________
a) brown b) pink c) red d) green
11. Bacterial spoilage in chilled meat is due to ________ group of bacteria
a) psychrophilic b) mesophilic c) thermophilic d) thermoduric
12. Green rot in egg is caused by ___________
a) Pseudomonas b) Staphylococcus c) Serratia d) Cladosporium
13. Parasitic cyst in meat such as Cysticercus boyis and Trichinella spiralis are killed by ________
Kgy dose of gamma radiation
a) 0.1 to 0.2 b) 1- 5 c) 10 d) 25
14. Thaw rigor is caused by the activity of __________ enzyme.
a) lysozome b) protease c) ATP ase d) lipase
15. Average generation time for bacteria is _________
a) 20 min b) 10 min c) 30 min d) 40 min
16. Eosin methylene blue (EMB) agar is used for cultivation of ____________ organism
a) Staphylococcus b) Salmonella c) Candid d) E. coli

238
17. Haugh index is used to determine the internal quality of __________
a) milk b) egg c) meat d) fish
18. _________ is used to measure air velocity in mechanical refrigeration of meat
a) hygrometer b) anemometer c) thermo hygrograph d) psychrometer
19. Practical storage life of pork at freezing temperature of –18 0C is ______month
a) 6 b) 12 c) 15 d) 18
20. Humidity in carcass chilling room should be about ________%
a) 48 b) 90 c) 50 d) 60
21. _______is a GRAS chemical additive used in food products.
a) citric acid b) Kmno4 c) sodium hypochlorite d) benzylpyrene
22. Erythromysin should not be used within ______ hours of slaughter.
a) 72 b) 24 c) 48 d) 12
23. Level of sodium nitrite in curing brine should be _________
a) 2-4 % b) 500-1000 PPM c) 0-2 to 10% d) 15-30 %
24. Desired level of polyphosphates in curing brine is _______
a) 2-4 % b) 10% c) 0.2 to 1% d) 15-30%
25. In preparing _________ in South America, beef is cut into strips and dried rapidly in air
a) biltong b) jerked beef c) pemmican d) charque
26. Condensations of water vapor on meat brought out firm cold store into ordinary room
temperature is called _________
a) drip b) weepc) sweating d) shrinkage
27. The method of packing dressed chicken is known as __________
a) wrapping b) trussing c) tetrapacking d) none of the a,b,c
28. _______rays are commonly used for surface irradiation.
a) alpha b) beta c) UV rays d) gamma
29. ________ is a commonly used antioxidant in foods.
a) BHA b) PAH c) sugar d) sodium hypochlorite
30. During freezing of beef cut at about ______0 C 94% of the water is converted into ice.
a) - 10 b) –2 c) –5 d) – 15

Meat preservation- Answer key


1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. B
11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. A
16. D 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. B
26. C 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. A

Meat borne illnesses


1. Anthrax is also referred as ______________
a) Charbon b) Struck c) Weil’s disease d) Undulant fever
2. Swine erysipelas is also referred as ________-
a) Q fever b) diamond skin disease c) parrot fever d) apthus fever
3. Prolonged feeding of pigs on fish meal may lead to
a) brown fat disease b) white-muscle disease c) pipy liver d) non of these
4. Over feeding of silage in sheep may lead to _______disease.
a) Leptospirosis b) Listeriosis c) Blue tongue d) F & MD
5. Tetracyclines are least toxic and susceptible to heat at _____ 0 C.
a) 70 b) 50 c) 40 d) 80
6. Staphylococcus aureus causes food poisoning mostly by _______
a) infection b) intoxication c) inhalation d) none of the a,b,c
7. Infective larval stage of Diphyllobothrium latum is ________
a) pleurocercoidb) cercaria c) sporocyst d) miracidium

239
8. Most common serotype of Leptospira affecting human being is _____
a) L.pomana b) L. grippotyphosa c) L. hardjo d) L. interrogans
9. The bladder worm stage of sheep measles is _______
a) Cysticercus tenucolis b) Cyst. Bovis c) hydatid cyst d) Sarcocyst

10. _______bacteria gives acid fast reaction to Ziehl- Neelsen’s staining


a) Clostridium b) Salmonella c) E.colid) Tuberculosis
11. Example of spirochetes is _____
a) vibriob) leptospira c) mycoplasma d) klebsiella
12. BSE agent affects the _______cattle
a) young b) adult c) aged d) new borne
13. Clostridium tetani toxin is destroyed at __________ 0 C.
a) 100 b) 65 c) 80 d) 40
14. FMD out break caused havoc in _______ year 2000.
a) USA b) Germany c) UK d) Pakistan
15. In Pox lesions ____________stage is involved in spread of virus.
a) macule b) vesicle c) pustule d) papule

Meat borne illnesses- Answer key


1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. D
11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. B

Meat spoilage
1. Fungus Cladosporium produces ____________ spots an meat surface
a) pink b) red c) black d) yellow
2. Growth of Rhizopus on meat surface produces __________
a) whiskers b) black spots c) green patches d) white spot
3. Tyrosine value is an indicator of extent of ___________ break down in meat
a) fat b) protein c) carbohydrate d) none of the above
4. In recovered cases of leptospirosis the carcass is passed after rejecting ________
a) kidney b) brain c) spleen d) intestine
5. _____ is used to measure the extent of meat spoilage based on the dielectric properties.
a) pH meter b) torry meter c) thermometer d) hygrometer
6. Taint in ham is referred as________
a) putrefaction b) souring c) phosphorescence d) greening
7. ________is a chemical spoilage of canned meat products.
a) hydrogen swell b) flat sour c) leaker d) springer
8. Flat sours is canned meat is caused by growth of _____________ organism
a) Bacillus stearothermophilus b) Pseudomonas c) Proteus d) Clostridium
9. ___________ radiation are commonly used in food irradiation
a) infrared rays b) gamma c) uv rays d) none of these
10. Warner-Bratzler shear force meter measures the force-required in____ of meat.
a) biting b) tearing c) chewing d) cutting
11. Red rot in eggs is caused by ______________
a) Pseudomonas fluoresces b) Serratia species c) Sporotrichum d) Proteus species
12. In fresh poultry egg the air cell dept is about ___________ or less
a) 4 mm b) 6 mm c) 8mm d) 10mm
13. The most troublesome affection of imported meat is caused by _________
a) cladosporium b) thamnidium c) achromobactor d) penicillin
14. Taint in ham is known as _____________
a) visceral taint b) souring c) tibial sours d) none of these
15. In _________trade green struck condition is observed.

240
a) beef b) poultry c) rabbit d) pork

Meat spoilage- Answer – key


1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B
6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. A
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. C

Slaughter house, meat plant sanitation and disposal of unsound meat


1. In slaughter hall the walls should be faced with smooth, hard and impervious material up to a
height of about _______ meters from floor.
a) one b) two c) three d) four
2. A temperature of _________ oC is usually used in continuos low temperature rendering.
a) 40 b) 90 c) 70 d) 80
3. In general the effluent from a meat processing plant have a BOD 5 value of ______________ mg /
liter
a) 250 –300 b) 500 c) 1500-2000 d) above 5000
4. Recovery of fat from dead animals is called _________
a) rendering b) simmering c) braising d) pasteurization
5. The strength of chlorine required for plant sanitation is in the range of____
a) 130 – 220 ppm b) 10 –50 ppm c) 800 – 1000 ppm d) 400-600 ppm
6. A solution of sodium hypochlorite containing _________ of chlorine can be effectively used to
disinfect clean equipment.
a) 250 b) 500 c) 50 d) 1000
7. Sodium hypo chlorite is a ___________
a) detergent b) tego compound c) halogen d) inorganic acid
8. Fat should be regarded with suspicion if the FFA content is __________ %.
a) 4 b) 5 c) 2 d) 10
9. CIP system of cleaning is generally used in _____________ industry.
a) dairy b) meat c) fish d) none of these
10. From a 100 kg carcass about _______ kg carcass meal can be obtained.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) 50
11. ___________is a chemical agent which reduces the level of bacterial contamination on the
surface in contact of food to acceptable bacteriological standard.
a) sanitizer b) disinfectant c) germicide d) antiseptic
12. Cresol and phenol are ___________compounds.
a) detergent b) tago compounds c) amphoteric compounds d) none of these
13. __________ are long chain amino acids, surface active and unaffected by hard water.
a) inorganic acids b) detergents c) amphoteric compounds d) none of these
14. Approximate protein content of carcass meal is _____ %.
a) 45 b) 20 c) 70 d) 60
15. Stearin content is more in ___________ fat.
a) mutton b) beef c) pork d) poultry meat
16. Yield of poultry carcass meal is about ___________ .
a) 30% b) 85% c) 45% d) 65%
17. Protein content is blood meal is ___________ .
a) 30% b) 85% c) 45% d) 65%
18. Methods of disposal of unsound meat include ____________
a) Burial b) Rendering c) incineration d) all of them
19. In dry rendering the material is sterilized at _______.
a) 1400C b) 800C c) 2400C d) 1000C
20. Continuous low temperature dry rendering is done at ________

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a) 1400C b) 800C c) 900C d) 2000C

Slaughter house, meat plant sanitation and disposal of unsound meat- Answer key
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. A
16. A 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C

General
1. Deonar abattoir situated at _______
a) Mumbai b) Chennai c) Delhi d) Kolkata
2. In India the working of slaughter is governed under the law _________
a) MFPO 1973 b) PFA c) AGMARK d) ISO
3. There are about ________ registered slaughter houses in India
a) 3600 b) 5000 c) 6300 d) 1000
4. There are about ____________ bacon factories in India
a) 5 b) 6 c) 8 d) 2
5. The ____________ forms the largest volume of meat exported form India
a) beef b) pork c) chevon d) mutton
6. Consistency of pork is _____________
a) Very firm b) firm c) firm and dense d) soft and greasy.
7. The food quality standards all over the world are maintained as per the guidelines of ___
a) APEDA b) OIE c) ISO d) BIS
8. National Research Centre on Meat is situated in _______
a) Mumbai b) Calcutta c) Hyderabad d) Delhi
9. Total meat production in India ( including poultry ) is ______million tons
a) 4 b) 4.7 c) 2 d) 6
10. Buffalo contribute about ______% of total meat production in India
a) 50 b) 60 c) 35 d) 45
11. Per capita consumption of egg in India is _____
a) 100 b) 40 c) 20 d) 60
12. Per capita meat consumption in India is ____kg.
a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 10
13. Cattle population in India is ___ million heads
a) 300 b) 410 c) 215 d) 109
14. Buffalo population in India is ___ million heads
a) 90 b) 54 c) 92 d) 67
15. There are about ____ million goats in India
a) 50 b) 78 c) 123 d) 95

General- Answer key


1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. C

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