Latest Cables Interview Questions and Answers List

5. The thickness of the layer of insulation

1. The insulating material for a cable on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
should have (a) Reactive power
(a) low cost (b) Power factor
(b) high dielectric strength (c) Voltage
(c) high mechanical strength (d) Current carrying capacity
(d) all of the above Ans: C
Ans: D
6. The bedding on a cable consists of
2. Which of the following protects a (a) Hessian cloth
cable against mechanical injury? (b) Jute
(a) Bedding (c) Any of the above
(b) Sheath (d) None of the above
(c) Armouring Ans: C
(d) None of the above
Ans: C 7. The insulating material for cables
should
3. Which of the following insulation (a) be acid proof
is used in cables? (b) be non-inflammable
(a) Varnished cambric (c) be non-hygroscopic
(b) Rubber (d) have all above properties
(c) Paper Ans: D
(d) Any of the above
Ans: D 8. In a cable immediately above
metallic sheath _____ is provided.
(a) Earthing connection
4. Empire tape is
(b) Bedding
(a) varnished cambric
(c) Armouring
(b) vulcanized rubber
(d) None of the above
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: B
(d) none of the above
Ans: A
9. The current carrying capacity of
cables in D.C. is more that in A.C. mainly (c) conductor surface
due to (d) lead sheath
(a) absence of harmonics Ans: d
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss 14. In single core cables armouring is
(d) absence of ripples not done to
(e) none of the above (a) avoid excessive sheath losses
Ans: c (b) make it flexible
(c) either of the above
10. In case of three core flexible cable (d) none of the above
the colour of the neutral is Ans: a
(a) blue
(b) black 15. Dielectric strength of rubber is
(c) brown around
(d) none of the above (a) 5 kV/mm
Ans: a (b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
11 cables are used for 132 kV lines. (d) 200 kV/mm
(a) High tension Ans: c
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension 16. Low tension cables are generally
(d) Extra super voltage used up to
Ans: d (a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
12. Conduit pipes are normally used to (c) 700 V
protect _____ cables. (d) 1000 V
(a) unsheathed cables Ans: d
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables 17. In a cable, the maximum stress
(d) all of the above under operating conditions is at
Ans: a (a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
13. The minimum dielectric stress in a (c) armour
cable is at (d) conductor surface
(a) armour Ans: d
(b) bedding
18. High tension cables are generally (c) homogeneous
used up to (d) hygroscopic
(a) 11kV Ans: a
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV 23. Pressure cables are generally not
(d) 132 kV used beyond
Ans: a (a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
19. The surge resistance of cable is (c) 66 kV
(a) 5 ohms (d) 132 kV
(b) 20 ohms Ans: c
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms 24. The material for armouring on
Ans: c cable is usually
(a) steel tape
20. PVC stands for (b) galvanised steel wire
(a) polyvinyl chloride (c) any of the above
(b) post varnish conductor (d) none of the above
(c) pressed and varnished cloth Ans: c
(d) positive voltage conductor
(e) none of the above 25. Cables, generally used beyond 66
Ans: a kV are
(a) oil filled
In the cables, the location of fault (b) S.L. type
is usually found out by comparing (c) belted
(a) the resistance of the conductor (d) armoured
(b) the inductance of conductors Ans: a
(c) the capacitances of insulated
conductors 26. The relative permittivity of
(d) all above parameters rubber is
Ans: c (a) between 2 and 3
(b) between 5 and 6
22. In capacitance grading of cables (c) between 8 and 10
we use a ______ dielectric. (d) between 12 and 14
(a) composite Ans: a
(b) porous
27. Solid type cables are considered Ans: a
unreliable beyond 66 kV because
(a) insulation may melt due to higher 31. If a cable of homogeneous
temperature insulation has a maximum stress of 10
(b) skin effect dominates on the kV/mm, then the dielectric strength of
conductor insulation should be
(c) of corona loss between conductor (a) 5 kV/mm
and sheath material (b) 10 kV/mm
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of (a) 15 kV/mm
insulation due to the presence of voids (d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: d Ans: b

28. If the length of a cable is doubled, 32. In the cables, sheaths are used to
its capacitance (a) prevent the moisture from entering
(a) becomes one-fourth the cable
(b) becomes one-half (b) provide enough strength
(c) becomes double (e) provide proper insulation
(d) remains unchanged (d) none of the above
Ans: c Ans: a

29. In cables the charging current 33. The intersheaths in the cables are
(a) lags the voltage by 90° used to
(b) leads the voltage by 90° (a) minimize the stress
(c) lags the voltage by 180° (b) avoid the requirement of good
(d) leads the voltage by 180° insulation
Ans: b (c) provide proper stress distribution
(d) none of the above
30. A certain cable has an insulation of Ans: c
relative permittivity 4. If the insulation
is replaced by one of relative permittivity 34. The electrostatic stress in
2, the capacitance of the cable will underground cables is
become (a) same at the conductor and the
(a) one half sheath
(6) double (b) minimum at the conductor and
(c) four times maximum at the sheath
(d) none of the above (c) maximum at the conductor and
minimum at the sheath 38. In a cable the voltage stress is
(d) zero at the conductor as well as on maximum at
the sheath (a) sheath
(e) none of the above (6) insulator
Ans: c (e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
35. The breakdown of insulation of the Ans: d
cable can be avoided economically by the
use of 39. Capacitance grading of cable
(a) inter-sheaths implies
(b) insulating materials with different (a) use of dielectrics of different
dielectric constants permeabilities
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) grading according to capacitance
(d) none of the above of cables per km length
Ans: c (c) cables using single dielectric in
different concentrations
36. The insulation of the cable (d) capacitance required to be
decreases with introduced at different lengths to
(a) the increase in length of the counter the effect of inductance
insulation (e) none of the above
(b) the decrease in the length of the Ans: a
insulation
(c) either (a) or (b) 40. Underground cables are laid at
(d) none of the above sufficient depth
Ans: a (a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due
37. A cable carrying alternating to removal of soil
current has (c) to minimise the effect of shocks
(a) hysteresis losses only and vibrations due to gassing vehicles,
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only etc.
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper (d) for all of the above reasons
losses only Ans: c
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and
friction losses 41. The advantage of cables over
Ans: b overhead transmission lines is
(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost to avoid interference, should be
(c) can be used in congested areas (a) 2 cm
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits (b) 10 cm
Ans: c (c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
42. The thickness of metallic shielding Ans: c
on cables is usually
(a) 0.04 mm 46. Copper as conductor for cables is
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm used as
(e) 3 to 5 mm (a) annealed
(d) 40 to 60 mm (b) hardened and tempered
Ans: a (c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
43. Cables for 220 kV lines are Ans: a
invariably
(a) mica insulated 47. The insulating material should have
(b) paper insulated (a) low permittivity
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas (b) high resistivity
insulated (c) high dielectric strength
(d) rubber insulated (d) all of the above
(e) none of the above Ans: d
Ans: c
48. The advantage of oil filled cables
44. Is a cable is to be designed for is
use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you (a) more perfect impregnation
prefer ? (b) smaller overall size
(a) Polyvinyle chloride (c) no ionisation, oxidation and
(b) Vulcanised rubber formation of voids
(c) Impregnated paper (d) all of the above
(d) Compressed SFe gas Ans: d
(e) none of the above
Ans: d 49. The disadvantage with paper as
insulating material is
45. If a power cable and a (a) it is hygroscopic
communication cable are to run parallel (6) it has high capacitance
the minimum distance between the two, (c) it is an organic material
(d) none of the above Ans: a
Ans: a
54. Rubber is most commonly used
50. The breakdown voltage of a cable insulation in cables.
depends on (a) Yes
(a) presence of moisture (b) No
(b) working temperature Ans: a
(c) time of application of the voltage
(d) all of the above 55. Polyethylene has very poor
Ans: d dielectric and ageing properties.
(a) Yes
51. It is difficult to maintain oil filled (b) No
cables. Ans: b
(a) Yes
(b) No 56. The metallic sheath may be made of
Ans: a lead or lead alloy or of aluminium.
(a) Yes
51. In capacitance grading a (b) No
homogeneous dielectric is used. Ans: b
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b

52. In congested areas where

excavation is expensive and inconvenient
'draw in system' of laying of underground
cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a

53. Natural rubber is obtained from

milky sap of tropical trees.
(a) Yes
(b) No
 (c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c

5. If variable part of annual cost on

Latest Transmission and Distribution account of interest and depreciation on
Questions and Answers List the capital outlay is equal to the annual
cost of electrical energy wasted in the
1. By which of the following systems conductors, the total annual cost will be
electric power may be transmitted ? minimum and the corresponding size of
(a) Overhead system conductor will be most economical. This
(b) Underground system statement is known as
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) Kelvin's law
(d) None of the above (b) Ohm's law
Ans: c (c) Kirchhoffs law
(d) Faraday's law
2 are the conductors, which connect (e) none of the above
the consumer's terminals to the Ans: a
distribution
(a) Distributors 6. The wooden poles well impregnated
(b) Service mains with creosite oil or any preservative
(c) Feeders compound have life
(d) None of the above (a) from 2 to 5 years
Ans: b (b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
3. The underground system cannot be (d) 60 to 70 years
operated above Ans: c
(a) 440 V
(b) 11 kV 7. Which of the following materials is
(c) 33 kV not used for transmission and distribution
(d) 66 kV of electrical power ?
Ans: d (a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
4. Overhead system can be designed (c) Steel
for operation up to (d) Tungsten
(a) 11 kV Ans: d
(b) 33 kV
 (c) a short line
8. Galvanised steel wire is generally (d) any of the above
used as Ans: a
(a) stay wire
(b) earth wire 13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage
(c) structural components at the receiving end of the open-circuited
(d) all of the above or lightly loaded line is called the
Ans: d (a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles (c) Raman effect
are (d) none of the above
(a) 40—50 meters Ans: b
(b) 60—100 meters
(c) 80—100 meters 14. The square root of the ratio of
(d) 300—500 meters line impedance and shunt admittance is
Ans: c called the
(a) surge impedance of the line
10. The corona is considerably (b) conductance of the line
affected by which of the following ? (c) regulation of the line
(a) Size of the conductor (d) none of the above
(b) Shape of the conductor Ans: a
(c) Surface condition of the conductor
(d) All of the above 15. Which of the following is the
Ans: d demerit of a 'constant voltage
transmission system' ?
11. Which of the following are the (a) Increase of short-circuit current
constants of the transmission lines ? of the system
(a) Resistance (b) Availability of steady voltage at all
(b) Inductance loads at the line terminals
(c) Capacitance (c) Possibility of better protection
(d) All of the above for the line due to possible use of higher
Ans: d terminal reactants
(d) Improvement of power factor at
12. 310 km line is considered as times of moderate and heavy loads
(a) a long line (e) Possibility of carrying increased
(b) a medium line power for a given conductor size in case
of long-distance heavy power
transmission 20. Which of the following methods is
Ans: a used for laying of underground cables ?
(a) Direct laying
16. Low voltage cables are meant for (b) Draw-in-system
use up to (c) Solid system
(a)l.lkV (d) All of the above
(b)3.3kV Ans: d
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV 21. Which of the following is the
Ans: e source of heat generation in the cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
17. The operating voltage of high (b) losses in the conductor
voltage cables is up to (c) Losses in the metallic sheathings
(a)l.lkV and armourings
(b)3.3kV (d) All of the above
(c)6.6kV Ans:
(d)llkV
Ans: d 22. Due to which of the following
reasons the cables should not be
18. The operating voltage of operated too hot ?
supertension cables is up to (a) The oil may loose its viscosity and
(a) 3.3 kV it may start drawing off from higher
(b) 6.6 kV levels
(c) 11 kV (b) Expansion of the oil may cause the
(d) 33 kV sheath to burst
Ans: d (c) Unequal expansion may create voids
in the insulation which will lead to
19. The operating voltage of extra ionization
high tension cables is upto (d) The thermal instability may rise
(a) 6.6 kV due to the rapid increase of dielectric
(b) 11 kV losses with temperature
(c) 33 kV (e) All of the above
(d) 66 kV Ans: e
(e) 132 kV
Ans: d 23. Which of the following D.C.
distribution system is the simplest and sheath of a cable is
lowest in first cost ? (a) crystallisation of the lead through
(a) Radial system vibration
(b) Ring system (b) chemical action on the lead when
(c) Inter-connected system buried in the earth
(d) None of the above (c) mechanical damage
Ans: a (d) all of the above
Ans:
24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator 28. The voltage of the single phase
(b) shunt wound generator supply to residential consumers is
(c) synchronous generator (a) 110 V
(d) none of the above (b) 210 V
Ans: a (c) 230 V
(d) 400 V
25. Besides a method of trial and Ans: c
error, which of the following methods is
employed for solution of network 29. Most of the high voltage
problems in interconnected system ? transmission lines in India are
(a) Circulating current method (a) underground
(b) Thevenin's theorem (b) overhead
(c) Superposition of currents (c) either of the above
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs (d) none of the above
laws Ans: b
(e) All of the above
Ans: e 30. The distributors for residential
areas are
26. Which of the following faults is (a) single phase
most likely to occur in cables ? (b) three-phase three wire
(a) Cross or short-circuit fault (c) three-phase four wire
(b) Open circuit fault (d) none of the above
(c) Breakdown of cable insulation Ans: c
(d) All of the above
Ans: 31. The conductors of the overhead
lines are
27. The cause of damage to the lead (a) solid
(b) stranded 36. The loads on distributors systems
(c) both solid and stranded are generally
(d) none of the above (a) balanced
Ans: (b) unbalanced
(c) either of the above
32. High voltage transmission lines use (d) none of the above
(a) suspension insulators Ans: b
(b) pin insulators
(c) both (a) and (b) 37. The power factor of industrial
(d) none of the above loads is generally
Ans: a (a) unity
(b) lagging
33. Multicore cables generally use (c) leading
(a) square conductors (d) zero
(b) circular conductors Ans: b
(c) rectangular conductors
(d) sector-shaped conductors 38. Overhead lines generally use
(e) none of the above (a) copper conductors
Ans: d (b) all aluminium conductors
(c) A.C.S.R. conductors
34. Distribution lines in India (d) none of these
generally use Ans: c
(a) wooden poles
(b) R.C.C. poles 39. In transmission lines the cross-
(c) steel towers arms are made of
(d) none of the above (a) copper
Ans: b (b) wood
(c) R.C.C.
35. The material commonly used for (d) steel
insulation in high voltage cables is Ans: d
(a) lead
(b) paper 40. The material generally used for
(c) rubber armour of high voltage cables is
(d) none of the above (a) aluminium
Ans: b (b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper 45. Large industrial consumers are
Ans: b supplied electrical energy at
(a) 400 V
41. Transmission line insulators are (b) 11 kV
made of (c) 66 kV
(a) glass (d) 400 kV
(b) porcelain Ans: c
(c) iron
(d) P.V.C. 46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution
Ans: system, balancer fields are cross-
connected in order to
42. The material commonly used for (a) boost the generated voltage
sheaths of underground cables is (b) balance loads on both sides of the
(a) lead neutral
(b) rubber (c) make both machine^ run as
(c) copper unloaded motors
(d) iron (d) equalize voltages on the positive
Ans: a and negative outers
Ans:
43. The minimum clearance between
the ground and a 220 kV line is about 47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using
(a) 4.3 m balancers and having unequal loads on the
(b) 5.5 m two sides
(c) 7.0 m (a) both balancers run as generators
(d) 10.5 m (b) both balancers run as motors
Ans: c (c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded
side runs as a motor
44. The spacing between phase (d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded
conductors of a 220 kV line is side runs as a motor
approximately equal to Ans:
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m 48. Transmitted power remaining the
(c) 6 m same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire
(d) 8.5 m feeder is increased 100 percent, saving in
Ans: c copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent (a) 20-30 ohms
(c) 75 percent (b) 70—80 ohms
(d) 100 percent (c) 100—200 ohms
Ans: b (d) 500—1000 ohms
(e) none of the above
49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. Ans: c
distributor is fed at both ends with equal
voltages. As compared to a similar 53. The presence of ozone due to
distributor fed at one end only, the drop corona is harmful because it
at the middle point is (a) reduces power factor
(a) one-fourth (b) corrodes the material
(b) one-third (c) gives odour
(c) one-half (d) transfer energy to the ground
(d) twice (e) none of the above
(e) none of the above Ans: b
Ans: a
54. A feeder, in a transmission
50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. system, feeds power to
distributor, a 3-wire distributor with (a) distributors
same maximum voltage to earth uses only (b) generating stations
(a) 31.25 percent of copper (c) service mains
(b) 33.3 percent of copper (d) all of the above
(c) 66.7 percent of copper Ans: a
(d) 125 percent of copper
Ans: a 55. The power transmitted will be
maximum when
51. Which of the following is usually (a) corona losses are minimum
not the generating voltage ? (b) reactance is high
(a) 6.6 kV (c) sending end voltage is more
(b) 8.8 kV (d) receiving end voltage is more
(c) 11 kV Ans: c
(d) 13.2 kV
Ans: b 56. A 3-phase 4 wire system is
commonly used on
52. For an overhead line, the surge (a) primary transmission
impedance is taken as (b) secondary transmission
(c) primary distribution Ans: b
(d) secondary distribution
Ans: d 61. The steel used in steel cored
conductors is usually
57. Which of the following materials is (a) alloy steel
used for overhead transmission lines ? (b) stainless steel
(a) Steel cored aluminium (c) mild steel
(b) Galvanised steel (d) high speed steel
(c) Cadmium copper (e) all of the above
(d) Any of the above Ans: c
Ans: d
62. Which of the following
58. Which of the following is not a distribution systems is more reliable ?
constituent for making porcelain (a) Radial system
insulators ? (b) Tree system
(a) Quartz (c) Ring main system
(b) Kaolin (d) All are equally reliable
(c) Felspar Ans: c
(d) Silica
Ans: d 63. Which of the following
characteristics should the line supports
59. There is a greater possibility of for transmission lines possess ?
occurence of corona during (a) Low cost
(a) dry weather (b) High mechanical strength
(b) winter (c) Longer life
(c) summer heat (d) All of the above
(d) humid weather Ans: d
(e) none of the above
Ans: d 64. Transmission voltage of ll kV is
normally used for distances upto
60. Which of the following relays is (a) 20—25 km
used on long transmission lines ? (b) 40—50 km
(a) Impedance relay (c) 60—70 km
(b) Mho's relay (d) 80—100 km
(c) Reactance relay Ans: a
(d) None of the above
65. Which of the following regulations (b) Single bus-bar scheme
is considered best? (c) Breaker and a half scheme
(a) 50% (d) Main and transfer scheme
(b) 20% Ans: b
(c) 10%
(d) 2% 70. Owing to skin effect
Ans: d (a) current flows through the half cross-
section of the conductor
66. Skin effect is proportional to (b) portion of the conductor near the
(a) (conductor diameter) surface carries more current and core of
(b) (conductor diameter) the conductor carries less current
(c) (conductor diameter) (c) portion of the conductor near the
(d) (conductor diameter) surface carries less current and core of
(e) none of the above the conductor carries more cur¬rent
Ans: c (d) any of the above
(e) none of the above
67. A conductor, due to sag between Ans: b
two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle 71. By which of the following
(b) triangle methods string efficiency can be
(c) ellipse improved ?
(d) catenary (a) Using a guard ring
Ans: d (b) Grading the insulator
(c) Using long cross arm
68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the (d) Any of the above
insulation between aluminium and steel (e) None of the above
conductors is Ans: d
(a) insulin
(b) bitumen 72. In aluminium conductors, steel
(c) varnish core is provided to
(d) no insulation is required (a) compensate for skin effect
Ans: d (b) neutralise proximity effect
(c) reduce line inductance
69. Which of the following bus-bar (d) increase the tensile strength
schemes has the lowest cost ? Ans: d
(a) Ring bus-bar scheme
73. By which of the following a bus- electrostatic stress in air around the
bar is rated ? conductor exceeds
(a) Current only (a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) Current and voltage (b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) Current, voltage and frequency (c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) Current, voltage, frequency and (d) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
short time current Ans: d
Ans: d
78. The voltage drop, for constant
74. A circuit is disconnected by voltage transmission is compensated by
isolators when installing
(a) line is energized (a) inductors
(b) there is no current in the line (b) capacitors
(c) line is on full load (c) synchronous motors
(d) circuit breaker is not open (d) all of above
Ans: b (e) none of the above
Ans: c
75. For which of the following
equipment current rating is not necessary 79. The use of strain type insulators is
? made where the conductors are
(a) Circuit breakers (a) dead ended
(b) Isolators (b) at intermediate anchor towers
(c) Load break switch (c) any of the above
(d) Circuit breakers and load break (d) none of the above
switches Ans: c
Ans: b
80. The current drawn by the line due
76. In a substation the following to corona losses is
equipment is not installed (a) non-sinusoidal
(a) exciters (b) sinusoidal
(b) series capacitors (c) triangular
(c) shunt reactors (d) square
(d) voltatre transformers Ans: a
Ans: a
81. Pin type insulators are generally
77. jCorona usually occurs when the not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV (b) Synchronous condenser
(b) 11 kV (c) Tap changing transformer
(c) 22 kV (d) Booster transformer
(d) 33 kV Ans: d
Ans: d
86. In a tap changing transformer, the
82. Aluminium has a specific gravity of tappings are provided on
(a) 1.5 (a) primary winding
(b) 2.7 (b) secondary winding
(c) 4.2 (c) high voltage winding
(d) 7.8 (d) any of the above
Ans: b Ans: b

83. For transmission of power over a 87. Constant voltage transmission

distance of 200 km, the transmission entails the following disadvantage
voltage should be (a) large conductor area is required
(a) 132 kV for same power transmission
(b) 66 kV (b) short-circuit current of the
(c) 33 kV system is increased
(d) 11 kV (c) either of the above
Ans: a (d) none of the above
Ans: b
84. For aluminium, as compared to
copper, all the following factors have 88. On which of the following factors
higher values except skin effect depends ?
(a) specific volume (a) Frequency of the current
(6) electrical conductivity (b) Size of the conductor
(c) co-efficient of linear expansion (c) Resistivity of the conductor
(d) resistance per unit length for same material
cross-section (d) All of the above
Ans: b Ans: d

85. Which of the following equipment, 89. The effect of corona can be
for regulating the voltage in distribution detected by
feeder, will be most economical ? (a) presence of ozone detected by
(a) Static condenser odour
(b) hissing sound 93. The frequency of voltage generated,
(c) faint luminous glow of bluish colour in case of generators, can be increased
(d) all of the above by
Ans: d (a) using reactors
(b) increasing the load
90. For transmission of power over a (c) adjusting the governor
distance of 500 km, the transmission (d) reducing the terminal voltage
voltage should be in the range (e) none of the above
(a) 150 to 220 kV Ans: c
(b) 100 to 120 kV
(c) 60 to 100 kV 94. When an alternator connected to
(d) 20 to 50 kV the bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar
Ans: a voltage will
(a) fall
91. In the analysis of which of the (b) rise
following lines shunt capacitance is (c) remain unchanged
neglected ? (d) none of the above
(a) Short transmission lines Ans: c
(b) Medium transmission lines
(c) Long transmission lines 95. The angular displacement between
(d) Medium as well as long two interconnected stations is mainly due
transmission lines to
Ans: a (a) armature reactance of both
alternators
92. When the interconnector between (b) reactance of the interconnector
two stations has large reactance (c) synchronous reactance of both the
(a) the transfer of power will take place alternators
with voltage fluctuation and noise (d) all of the above
(b) the transfer of power will take place Ans: a
with least loss
(c) the stations will fall out of step 96. Electro-mechanical voltage
be¬cause of large angular displacement regulators are generally used in
between the stations (a) reactors
(d) none of the above (b) generators
Ans: c (c) transformers
(d) all of the above
Ans: b Ans: a

97. Series capacitors on transmission 101. The skin effect of a conductor will
lines are of little use when the load VAR reduce as the
requirement is (a) resistivity of conductor material
(a) large increases
(b) small (b) permeability of conductor material
(b) fluctuating increases
(d) any of the above (c) diameter increases
Ans: b (d) frequency increases
Ans: a
98. The voltage regulation in magnetic
amplifier type voltage regulator is 102. When a live conductor of public
effected by electric supply breaks down and touches
(a) electromagnetic induction the earth which of the following will
(b) varying the resistance happen ?
(c) varying the reactance (a) Current will flow to earth
(d) variable transformer (b) Supply voltage will drop
Ans: c (c) Supply voltage will increase
(d) No current will flow in the
99. When a conductor carries more conductor
current on the surface as compared to (e) None of the above
core, it is due to Ans: a
(a) permeability variation
(b) corona
(c) skin effect
(d) unsymmetrical fault
(e) none of the above
Ans: c

100. The following system is not

generally used
Latest Transformers Interview
(a) 1-phase 3 wire
Questions and Answers List
(b) 1-phase 4 wire
(c) 3-phase 3 wire
1. Which of the following does not
(d) 3-phase 4 wire
change in a transformer ?
(a) Current (d) 20 to 30 per cent
(b) Voltage Ans: b
(c) Frequency
(d) All of the above 6. The path of a magnetic flux in a
Ans: c transformer should have
(a) high resistance
2. In a transformer the energy is (b) high reluctance
conveyed from primary to secondary (c) low resistance
(a) through cooling coil (d) low reluctance
(b) through air Ans: d
(c) by the flux
(d) none of the above 7. No-load on a transformer is carried out
Ans: c to determine
(a) copper loss
3. A transformer core is laminated to (b) magnetising current
(a) reduce hysteresis loss (c) magnetising current and loss
(b) reduce eddy current losses (d) efficiency of the transformer
(c) reduce copper losses Ans: c
(d) reduce all above losses
Ans: b 8. The dielectric strength of transformer
oil is expected to be
4. The degree of mechanical vibrations (a) lkV
produced by the laminations of a (b) 33 kV
transformer depends on (c) 100 kV
(a) tightness of clamping (d) 330 kV
(b) gauge of laminations Ans: b
(c) size of laminations
(d) all of the above 9. Sumpner's test is conducted on
Ans: d trans-formers to determine
(a) temperature
5. The no-load current drawn by (b) stray losses
transformer is usually what per cent of (c) all-day efficiency
the full-load current ? (d) none of the above
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent Ans: a
(b) 2 to 5 per cent
(c) 12 to 15 per cent 10. The permissible flux density in case
of cold rolled grain oriented steel is (b) Breather
around (c) Buchholz relay
(a) 1.7 Wb/m2 (d) Exciter
(b) 2.7 Wb/m2 Ans: d
(c) 3.7 Wb/m2
(d) 4.7 Wb/m2 15. While conducting short-circuit test on
Ans: a a transformer the following side is short
circuited
11. The efficiency of a transformer will (a) High voltage side
be maximum when (b) Low voltage side
(a) copper losses = hysteresis losses (c) Primary side
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current (d) Secondary side
losses Ans: b
(c) eddy current losses = copper losses
(d) copper losses = iron losses 16. In the transformer following
Ans: d winding has got more cross-sectional area
(a) Low voltage winding
12. No-load current in a transformer (b) High voltage winding
(a) lags behind the voltage by about 75° (c) Primary winding
(b) leads the voltage by about 75° (d) Secondary winding
(c) lags behind the voltage by about 15° Ans: a
(d) leads the voltage by about 15°
Ans: a 17. A transformer transforms
(a) voltage
13. The purpose of providing an iron core (b) current
in a transformer is to (c) power
(a) provide support to windings (d) frequency
(b) reduce hysteresis loss Ans: c
(c) decrease the reluctance of the
magnetic path 18. A transformer cannot raise or lower
(d) reduce eddy current losses the voltage of a D.C. supply because
Ans: c (a) there is no need to change the D.C.
voltage
14. Which of the following is not a part of (b) a D.C. circuit has more losses
transformer installation ? (c) Faraday's laws of electromagnetic
(a) Conservator induction are not valid since the rate of
change of flux is zero
(d) none of the above 23. A common method of cooling a power
Ans: c transformer is
(a) natural air cooling
19. Primary winding of a transformer (b) air blast cooling
(a) is always a low voltage winding (c) oil cooling
(b) is always a high voltage winding (d) any of the above
(c) could either be a low voltage or high Ans: c
voltage winding
(d) none of the above 24. The no load current in a transformer
Ans: c lags behind the applied voltage by an
angle of about
20. Which winding in a transformer has (a) 180°
more number of turns ? (b) 120"
(a) Low voltage winding (c) 90°
(b) High voltage winding (d) 75°
(c) Primary winding Ans: d
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: b 25. In a transformer routine efficiency
depends upon
21. Efficiency of a power transformer is (a) supply frequency
of the order of (b) load current
(a) 100 per cent (c) power factor of load
(b) 98 per cent (d) both (b) and (c)
(c) 50 per cent Ans: d
(d) 25 per cent
Ans: b 26. In the transformer the function of a
conservator is to
22. In a given transformer for given (a) provide fresh air for cooling the
applied voltage, losses which remain transformer
constant irrespective of load changes are (b) supply cooling oil to transformer in
(a) friction and windage losses time of need
(b) copper losses (c) protect the transformer from damage
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses when oil expends due to heating
(d) none of the above (d) none of the above
Ans: c Ans: c
 factor
27. Natural oil cooling is used for (c) has small magnitude and high power
transformers up to a rating of factor
(a) 3000 kVA (d) has small magnitude and low power
(b) 1000 kVA factor
(c) 500 kVA Ans: d
(d) 250 kVA
Ans: a 32. Spacers are provided between
adjacent coils
28. Power transformers are designed to (a) to provide free passage to the
have maximum efficiency at cooling oil
(a) nearly full load (b) to insulate the coils from each
(b) 70% full load other
(c) 50% full load (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) no load (d) none of the above
Ans: a Ans: a

29. The maximum efficiency of a 33. Greater the secondary leakage flux
distribution transformer is (a) less will be the secondary induced
(a) at no load e.m.f.
(b) at 50% full load (b) less will be the primary induced e.m.f.
(c) at 80% full load (c) less will be the primary terminal
(d) at full load voltage
Ans: b (d) none of the above
Ans: a
30. Transformer breaths in when
(a) load on it increases 34. The purpose of providing iron core in
(b) load on it decreases a step-up transformer is
(c) load remains constant (a) to provide coupling between primary
(d) none of the above and secondary
Ans: b (b) to increase the magnitude of mutual
flux
31. No-load current of a transformer has (c) to decrease the magnitude of mag-
(a) has high magnitude and low power netizing current
factor (d) to provide all above features
(b) has high magnitude and high power Ans: c
 (c) The transformers will not share load
35. The power transformer is a constant in proportion to their kVA ratings
(a) voltage device (d) none of the above
(b) current device Ans: b
(c) power device
(d) main flux device 39. If the percentage impedances of the
Ans: d two transformers working in parallel are
different, then
36. Two transformers operating in (a) transformers will be overheated
parallel will share the load depending upon (b) power factors of both the
their transformers will be same
(a) leakage reactance (c) parallel operation will be not possible
(b) per unit impedance (d) parallel operation will still be
(c) efficiencies possible, but the power factors at which
(d) ratings the two transformers operate will be
Ans: b different from the power factor of the
common load
37. If R2 is the resistance of secondary Ans: d
winding of the transformer and K is the
transformation ratio then the equivalent 40. In a transformer the tappings are
secondary resistance referred to primary generally provided on
will be (a) primary side
(a) R2/VK (b) secondary side
(b) R2IK2 (c) low voltage side
(c) R22!K2 (d) high voltage side
(d) R22/K Ans: c
Ans: b
41. The use of higher flux density in the
38. What will happen if the transformers transformer design
working in parallel are not connected with (a) reduces weight per kVA
regard to polarity ? (6) reduces iron losses
(a) The power factor of the two trans- (c) reduces copper losses
formers will be different from the power (d) increases part load efficiency
factor of common load Ans: a
(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead
short circuit 42. The chemical used in breather for
transformer should have the quality of Ans: c
(a) ionizing air
(b) absorbing moisture 47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer
(c) cleansing the transformer oil varies as CBmax = maximum flux density)
(d) cooling the transformer oil. (a) Bmax
Ans: b (b) Bmax1-6
(C) Bmax1-83
43. The chemical used in breather is (d) B max
(a) asbestos fiber Ans: b
(b) silica sand
(c) sodium chloride 48. Material used for construction of
(d) silica gel transformer core is usually
Ans: d (a) wood
(b) copper
44. An ideal transformer has infinite (c) aluminium
values of primary and secondary (d) silicon steel
inductances. The statement is Ans: d
(a) true
(b) false 49. The thickness of laminations used in a
Ans: b transformer is usually
(a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm
45. The transformer ratings are usually (b) 4 mm to 5 mm
expressed in terms of (c) 14 mm to 15 mm
(a) volts (d) 25 mm to 40 mm
(b) amperes Ans: a
(c) kW
(d) kVA 50. The function of conservator in a
Ans: d transformer is
(a) to project against'internal fault
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of (b) to reduce copper as well as core
laminations set by magnetic forces, is losses
termed as (c) to cool the transformer oil
(a) magnetostrication (d) to take care of the expansion and
(b) boo contraction of transformer oil due to
(c) hum variation of temperature of sur-roundings
(d) zoom Ans: d
 (c) 100°C
51. The highest voltage for transmitting (d) 150°C
electrical power in India is Ans: d
(a) 33 kV.
(6) 66 kV 56. The main reason for generation of
(c) 132 kV harmonics in a transformer could be
(d) 400 kV (a) fluctuating load
Ans: d (b) poor insulation
(c) mechanical vibrations
52. In a transformer the resistance (d) saturation of core
between its primary and secondary is Ans: d
(a) zero
(b) 1 ohm 57. Distribution transformers are
(c) 1000 ohms generally designed for maximum
(d) infinite efficiency around
Ans: d (a) 90% load
(b) zero load
53. A transformer oil must be free from (c) 25% load
(a) sludge (d) 50% load
(b) odour Ans: d
(c) gases
(d) moisture 58. Which of the following property is
Ans: d not necessarily desirable in the material
for transformer core ?
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on (a) Mechanical strength
(a) auto-transformers (6) Low hysteresis loss
(b) air-cooled transformers (c) High thermal conductivity
(c) welding transformers (d) High permeability
(d) oil cooled transformers Ans: c
Ans: d
59. Star/star transformers work
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to satisfactorily when
dissociation of transformer oil unless the (a) load is unbalanced only
oil temperature exceeds (b) load is balanced only
(a) 50°C (c) on balanced as well as unbalanced
(b) 80°C loads
(d) none of the above (d) Any of the above
Ans: b Ans: a

60. Delta/star transformer works 64. Which of the following properties is

satisfactorily when not necessarily desirable for the material
(a) load is balanced only for transformer core ?
(b) load is unbalanced only (a) Low hysteresis loss
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced (b) High permeability
loads (c) High thermal conductivity
(d) none of the above (d) Adequate mechanical strength
Ans: c Ans: c

61. Buchholz's relay gives warning and 65. The leakage flux in a transformer
protection against depends upon
(a) electrical fault inside the (a) load current
transformer itself (b) load current and voltage
(b) electrical fault outside the (c) load current, voltage and frequency
transformer in outgoing feeder (d) load current, voltage, frequency and
(c) for both outside and inside faults power factor
(d) none of the above Ans: a
Ans: a
66. The path of the magnetic flux in
62. The magnetising current of a transformer should have
transformer is usually small because it (a) high reluctance
has (b) low reactance
(a) small air gap (c) high resistance
(b) large leakage flux (d) low resistance
(c) laminated silicon steel core Ans: b
(d) fewer rotating parts
Ans: a 67. Noise level test in a transformer is a
(a) special test
63. Which of the following does not (b) routine test
change in an ordinary transformer ? (c) type test
(a) Frequency (d) none of the above
(b) Voltage Ans: c
(c) Current
68. Which of the following is not a (a) copper core
routine test on transformers ? (b) cost iron core
(a) Core insulation voltage test (c) air core
(b) Impedance test (d) mild steel core
(c) Radio interference test Ans: c
(d) Polarity test
Ans: c 73. The full-load copper loss of a
trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load,
69. A transformer can have zero voltage the copper loss will be
regulation at (a) 6400 W
(a) leading power factor (b) 1600 W
(b) lagging power factor (c) 800 W
(c) unity power factor (d) 400 W
(d) zero power factor Ans: d
Ans: a
1.74. The value of flux involved m the
70. Helical coils can be used on e.m.f. equation of a transformer is
(a) low voltage side of high kVA (a) average value
transformers (b) r.m.s. value
(b) high frequency transformers (c) maximum value
(c) high voltage side of small capacity (d) instantaneous value
transformers Ans: c
(d) high voltage side of high kVA rating
transformers L.75. Silicon steel used in laminations
Ans: a mainly reduces
(a) hysteresis loss
71. Harmonics in transformer result in (b) eddy current losses
(a) increased core losses (c) copper losses
(b) increased I2R losses (d) all of the above
(c) magnetic interference with Ans: a
communication circuits
(d) all of the above 76. Which winding of the transformer
Ans: d has less cross-sectional area ?
(a) Primary winding
72. The core used in high frequency (b) Secondary winding
transformer is usually (c) Low voltage winding
(d) High voltage winding
Ans: d
77. Power transformers are generally
designed to have maximum efficiency
around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload
Ans: c
.78. Which of the following is the main
advantage of an auto-transformer over a
two winding transformer ?
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(b) Saving in winding material
(c) Copper losses are negligible
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
Ans: b
79. During short circuit test iron losses
are negligible because
(a) the current on secondary side is
negligible
(b) the voltage on secondary side does
not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is
low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the
transformer
Ans: c
80. Two transformers are connected in
parallel. These transformers do not have
equal percentage impedance. This is likely
to result in
(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries
(b) power factor of one of the
transformers is leading while that of the
other lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper
losses will have negligible core losses
(d) loading of the transformers not in
proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer
cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric
temperature during day and
night is taken care of by which part of
transformer
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
(d) Buchholz relay
Ans: a
82. An ideal transformer is one which has
(a) no losses and magnetic leakage
(b) interleaved primary and secondary
windings
(c) a common core for its primary and
secondary windings
(d) core of stainless steel and winding of
pure copper metal
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
83. When a given transformer is run at
its rated voltage but reduced frequency,
its
(a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) iron losses are reduced
(c) core flux density is reduced
(d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss
remains practically constant from noload
to fullload because
(a) value of transformation ratio
remains constant
(b) permeability of transformer core
remains constant
(c) core flux remains practically constant
(d) primary voltage remains constant
(c) secondary voltage remains constant
Ans: c
85. An ideal transformer will have
maximum efficiency at a load such that
(a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) copper loss > iron loss
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
indicative that the load is
(a) capacitive only
(b) inductive only
(c) inductive or resistive
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
88. Iron loss of a transformer can be
measured by
(a) low power factor wattmeter
(b) unity power factor wattmeter
(c) frequency meter
(d) any type of wattmeter
Ans: a
89. When secondary of a current
transformer is open-circuited its iron
core will be
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses
taking place in it due to high flux density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy
current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a

86. If the supply frequency to the 90. The transformer laminations are
transformer is increased,"the iron loss insulated from each other by
will (a) mica strip
(a) not change (6) thin coat of varnish
(b) decrease (c) paper
(c) increase (d) any of the above
(d) any of the above Ans: b
Ans: c
91. Which type of winding is used in
87. Negative voltage regulation is 3phase shell-type transformer ?
(a) Circular type (c) same kVA rating
(b) Sandwich type (d) same number of turns on the
(c) Cylindrical type secondary side.
(d) Rectangular type Ans: b
Ans: b
96. The transformer oil should have
92. During open circuit test of a _____ volatility and _____ viscosity.
transformer (a) low,low
(a) primary is supplied rated voltage (b) high,high
(b) primary is supplied full-load current (c) low,high
(c) primary is supplied current at reduced (d) high,low
voltage Ans: a
(d) primary is supplied rated kVA
Ans: a 97. The function of breather in a
transformer is
93. Open circuit test on transformers is (a) to provide oxygen inside the tank
conducted to determine (b) to cool the coils during reduced load
(a) hysteresis losses (c) to cool the transformer oil
(b) copper losses (d) to arrest flow of moisture when
(c) core losses outside air enters the transformer
(d) eddy current losses Ans: d
Ans: c
98. The secondary winding of which of
94. Short circuit test on transformers is the following transformers is always kept
conducted to determine closed ?
(a) hysteresis losses (a) Step-up transformer
(b) copper losses (b) Step-down transformer
(c) core losses (c) Potential transformer
(d) eddy current losses (d) Current transformer
Ans: b Ans: d

95. For the parallel operation of single 99. The size of a transformer core will
phase transformers it is necessary that depend on
they should have (a) frequency
(a) same efficiency (b) area of the core
(b) same polarity (c) flux density of the core material
(d) (a) and (b) both (a) llkV
Ans: d (b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
100. N atural air coo ling is generally (d) 122 kV
restricted for transformers up to Ans: d
(a) 1.5 MVA
(b) 5 MVA 105. Reduction in core losses and increase
(c) 15 MVA in permeability are obtained with
(d) 50 MVA transformer employing
Ans: a (a) core built-up of laminations of cold
rolled grain oriented steel
101. A shell-type transformer has (b) core built-up of laminations of hot
(a) high eddy current losses rolled sheet
(b) reduced magnetic leakage (c) either of the above
(c) negligibly hysteresis losses (d) none of the above
(d) none of the above Ans: a
Ans: b
106. In a power or distribution
102. A transformer can have regulation transformer about 10 per cent end turns
closer to zero are heavily insulated
(a) on full-load (a) to withstand the high voltage drop due
(b) on overload to line surge produced by the shunting
(c) on leading power factor capacitance of the end turns
(d) on zero power factor (b) to absorb the line surge voltage and
Ans: c save the winding of transformer from
damage
103. A transformer transforms (c) to reflect the line surge and save
(a) voltage the winding of a transformer from
(b) current damage
(c) current and voltage (d) none of the above
(d) power Ans: a
Ans: d
107. For given applied voltage, with the
104. Which of the following is not the increase in frequency of the applied
standard voltage for power supply in voltage
India ? (a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain
unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating
electric machines and do not occur in
trans formers are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
Ans: a
109. In a given transformer for a given
applied voltage, losses which remain
constant irrespective of load changes are
(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(b) friction and windage losses
(c) copper losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
110. Which of the following statements
regarding an idel single-phase
transformer having a turn ratio of 1 : 2
and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V
A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
(c) Its rating is 2 kVA
(d) Its secondary current is 20 A
(e) It is a step-up transformer
Ans: d
111. The secondary of a current
transformer is always short-circuited
under operating conditions because it
(a) avoids core saturation and high
voltage induction
(b) is safe to human beings
(c) protects the primary circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
112. In a transformer the resistance
between its primary and secondary should
be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Ans: d
113. A good voltage regulation of a
transformer means
(a) output voltage fluctuation from no
load to full load is least
(b) output voltage fluctuation with power
factor is least
(c) difference between primary and
secondary voltage is least
(d) difference between primary and
secondary voltage is maximum
Ans: a
114. For a transformer, operating at
constant load current, maximum
efficiency will occur at
(a) 0.8 leading power factor
(b) 0.8 lagging power factor (b) Asbestos
(c) zero power factor (c) Mica
(d) unity power factor (d) Glass fibre
Ans: d Ans: c

115. Which of the following protection is 119. Which of the following parts of a
normally not provided on small transformer is visible from outside ?
distribution transformers ? (a) Bushings
(a) Overfluxing protection (b) Core
(b) Buchholz relay (c) Primary winding
(c) Overcurrent protection (d) Secondary winding
(d) All of the above Ans: a
Ans: b
120. The noise produced by a transformer
116. Which of the following acts as a is termed as
protection against high voltage surges (a) zoom
due to lightning and switching ? (b) hum
(a) Horn gaps (c) ringing
(b) Thermal overload relays (d) buzz
(c) Breather Ans: b
(d) Conservator
Ans: a 121. Which of the following loss in a
transformer is zero even at full load ?
117. The efficiency of two identical (a) Core loss
transformers under load conditions can (b) Friction loss
be determined by (c) Eddy current loss
(a) short-circuit test (d) Hysteresis loss
(b) back-to-back test Ans: b
(c) open circuit test
(d) any of the above 122. Which of the following is the most
Ans: b likely source of harmonics in a
transformer ?
118. Which of the following insulating (a) poor insulation
materials can withstand the highest (b) Overload
temperature safely ? (c) loose connections
(a) Cellulose (d) Core saturation
Ans: d compared to primary input
Ans: a
123. If a transformer is continuously
operated the maximum temperature rise 127. An open-circuit test on a
will occur in transformer is conducted primarily to
(a) core measure
(b) windings (a) insulation resistance
(c) tank (b) copper loss
(d) any of the above (c) core loss
Ans: b (d) total loss
(e) efficiency
124. The hum in a transformer is mainly (f) none of the above
attributed to Ans: c
(a) load changes
(b) oil in the transformer 128. A no-load test is performed on a
(c) magnetostriction transformer to determine
(d) mechanical vibrations (a) core loss
Ans: c (b) copper loss
(c) efficiency
125. The maximum load that a power (d) magnetising current
transformer can carry is limited by its (e) magnetising current and loss
(a) temperature rise Ans: e
(b) dielectric strength of oil
(c) voltage ratio 129. The voltage transformation ratio of
(d) copper loss a transformer is equal to the ratio of
Ans: c (a) primary turns to secondary turns
(b) secondary current to primary current
126. The efficiency of a transformer, (c) secondary induced e.m.f. to primary
under heavy loads, is comparatively low induced e.m.f.
because (d) secondary terminal voltage to primary
(a) copper loss becomes high in applied voltage
proportion to the output Ans: c
(b) iron loss is increased considerably
(c) voltage drop both in primary and 130. Part of the transformer which is
secondary becomes large most subject to damage from overheating
(d) secondary output is much less as is
(a) iron core (a) less than 15 A
(b) copper winding (b) more than 15 A
(c) winding insulation (c) 15 A
(d) frame or case (d) none of the above
(e) transformer tank Ans: a
Ans: c
135. The efficiencies of transformers
131. If a transformer is switched on to a compared with that of electric motors of
voltage more than the rated voltage the same power are
(a) its power factor will deteriorate (a) about the same
(b) its power factor will increase (6) much smaller
(c) its power factor will remain (c) much higher
unaffected (d) somewhat smaller
(d) its power factor will be zero (e) none of the above
Ans: a Ans: c

132. Auto-transformer makes effective

saving on copper and copper losses, when
its transformation ratio is
(a) approximately equal to one Latest Switchgear Protections

(b) less than one Questions and Answers List

(c) great than one

(d) none of the above 1. The main function of a fuse is to

Ans: a (a) protect the line

(b) open the circuit

133. Minimum voltage regulation occurs (c) protect the appliance

when the power factor of the load is (d) prevent excessive currents

(a) unity (e) none of the above

(b) lagging Ans: d

(c) leading
(d) zero 2. On which of the following routine

Ans: c tests are conducted ?

(a) Oil circuit breakers

134. In a step-down transformer, there is (b) Air blast circuit breakers

a change of 15 A in the load current. This (c) Minimum oil circuit breakers

results in change of supply current of (d) All of the above

Ans: d
 7. Fault diverters are basically
3. SF6 gas (a) fuses
(a) is yellow in colour (b) relays
(b) is lighter than air (c) fast switches
(c) is nontoxic (d) circuit breakers
(d) has pungent small Ans: c
(e) none of the above
Ans: c 8. A thermal protection switch can
protect against
4. The arcing contacts in a circuit (a) short-circuit
breaker are made of (b) temperature
(a) copper tungsten alloy (c) overload
(b) porcelain (d) over voltage
(c) electrolytic copper Ans: c
(d) aluminium alloy
Ans: a 9. Arc in a circuit behaves as
(a) a capackive reactance
5. Which of the following medium is (b) an inductive reactance
employed for extinction of arc in air (c) a resistance increasing with
circuit breaker ? voltage rise across the arc
(a) Water (d) a resistance decreasing with
(b) Oil voltage rise across the arc
(c) Air Ans: d
(d) SF6
Ans: c 10. Thermal circuit breaker has
(a) delayed trip action
6. With which of the following, a circuit (b) instantaneous trip action
breaker must be equipped for remote (c) both of the above
operation ? (d) none of the above
(a) Inverse time trip Ans: a
(b) Time-delay trip
(c) Shunt trip 11. Relays can be designed to respond
(d) None of the above to changes in
(e) All of the above (a) resistance, reactance or impedance
Ans: c (b) voltage and current
(c) light intensity
(d) temperature 16. The relay operating speed depends
(e) all above upon
Ans: e (a) the spring tension
(b) the rate of flux built up
12. Overload relays are of...... type. (c) armature core air gap
(a) induction (d) all of the above
(b) solid state Ans: d
(c) thermal
(d) electromagnetic 17. In order that current should flow
(e) all above without causing excessive heating or
Ans: e voltage drop, the relay contacts should
(a) have low contact resistance
13. Thermal overload relays are used (b) be clean and smooth
to protect the motor against over current (c) be of sufficient size and proper shape
due to (d) have all above properties
(a) short-circuits Ans: d
(b) heavy loads
(c) grounds 18. Circuit breakers usually operate
(d) all of the above under
Ans: b (a) transient state of short-circuit
current
14. Magnetic circuit breaker has (b) sub-transient state of short-circuit
______ trip action. current
(a) delayed (c) steady state of short-circuit
(b) instantaneous current
(c) both of the above (d) after D.C. component has ceased
(d) none of the above Ans: a
Ans: b
19. Circuit breakers are essentially
15. D.C. shunt relays are made of (a) current carrying contacts called
(a) few turns of thin wire electrodes
(b) few turns of thick wire (b) arc extinguishers
(c) many turns of thin wire (c) circuits to break the system
(d) many turns of thick wire (d) transformers to isolate the two
Ans: c systems
(e) any of the above
Ans: a
24. Directional relays are based on
The current zero interruption, in flow of
oil and air blast circuit breakers, is (a) power
achieved by (b) current
(a) lengthening of the gap (c) voltage wave
(b) cooling and blast effect (d) all of the above
(c) both (a) and (b) Ans: a
(d) deionizing the oil with forced air
(e) none of the above 25. A differential relay measures the
Ans: c vector difference between
(a) two currents
21. Air blast circuit breaker is used (b) two voltages
for (c) two or more similar electrical
(a) over currents quantities
(b) short duty (d) none of the above
(c) intermittant duty Ans: c
(d) repeated duty
Ans: d 26. A transmission line is protected by
(a) inrush protection
22. An efficient and a well designed (b) distance protection
protective relaying should have (c) time graded and current graded
(a) good selectivity and reliability over current protection
(b) economy and simplicity (d) both (b) and (c)
(c) high speed and selectivity (e) none of the above
(d) all of the above Ans: d
Ans: d
27. Large internal faults are
23. Burden of a protective relay is the protected by
power (a) merz price percentage differential
(a) required to operate the circuit protection
breaker (b) mho and ohm relays
(b) absorbed by the circuit of relay (c) horn gaps and temperature relays
(c) developed by the relay circuit (d) earth fault and positive sequence
(d) none of the above relays
Ans: b Ans: a
 (d) all of the above
28. When a transmission line is Ans: d
energized, the wave that propagates on it
is 32. In a circuit breaker the basic
(a) current wave only problem is to
(b) voltage wave only (a) maintain the arc
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) extinguish the arc
(d) power factor wave only (c) transmit large power
Ans: c (d) emit the ionizing electrons
Ans: c
29. Protective relays are devices that
detect abnormal conditions in electrical 33. Overheating of relay contacts or
circuits by measuring contact born out is due to
(a) current during abnormal condition (a) slow making and breaking of load
(b) voltage during abnormal condition circuit contacts
(c) constantly the electrical quantities (b) foreign matter on the contact
which differ during normal and abnormal surface
conditions (c) too low contact pressure
(d) none of the above (d) all of the above
Ans: c Ans: d

30. The voltage appearing across the 34. Interruption of large currents by
contacts after opening of the circuit relay requires
breaker is called______voltage. (a) arc suppressing blow out coils
(a) recovery (b) wide separation of the opened
(b) surge contacts
(c) operating (c) high speed opening of contacts
(d) arc (d) all of the above
(e) none of the above Ans: d
Ans: a
35. Shunt capacitance is neglected
31. Ionization in circuit breaker is while considering
facilitated by (a) short transmission line
(a) high temperature (b) medium transmission line
(b) increase of mean free path (c) long transmission line
(c) increasing field strength (d) medium and long transmission lines
Ans: a smaller than No ______ copper.
(a) 2
36. The arc voltage produced in A.C. (b) 4
circuit breaker is always (c) 6
(a) in phase with the arc current (d) 10
(b) lagging the arc current by 90" Ans: d
(c) leading the arc current by 90°
(d) none of the above 41. The delay fuses are used for the
Ans: a protection of ________ .
(a) motors
37. The time of closing the cycle, in (b) power outlet circuits
modern circuit breakers is (c) fluorescent lamps
(a) 0.003 sec (d) light circuits
(b) 0.001 sec Ans: a
(c) 0.01 sec
(d) 0.10 sec 42. Which of the following is the least
(e) none of the above expensive protection for overcurrent is
Ans: a low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
38. Insulation resistance of high (b) Isolator
voltage circuit breakers is more than (c) Oil circuit breaker
(a) 1 mega ohms (d) Air break circuit breaker
(b) 10 mega ohms (e) None of the above
(c) 100 mega ohms Ans: a
(d) 500 mega ohms
Ans: c 43. Resistance grounding is used for
voltage between
39. H.R.C. fuses provide best (a) 33kVto66kV
protection against (b) HkVto33kV
(a) overload (c) 3.3kVandllkV
(b) reverse current (d) none of the above
(c) open-circuits Ans: c
(d) short-circuits
Ans: d 44. The contacts of high voltage
switches used in power system are
40. The ground wire should not be submerged in oil. The main purpose of the
oil is to system
(a) lubricate the contacts (a) insulation being overstressed due to
(b) insulate the contacts from switch over voltages
body (b) insulation overstress may lead to
(c) extinguish the arc failure and subsequent phase to phase
(d) all of the above faults
(e) none of the above (c) being inadequately protected
Ans: c against ground fault
(d) all of the above
45. In Railway applications ______ Ans: d
circuit breaker is used.
(a) SFe 49. The reflection co-efficient at the
(b) bulk oil open circuited end of a transmission line.
(c) minimum oil (a) zero
(d) air break (b) infinity
Ans: (c) unity
(d) none of the above
46. To protect most of the electrical Ans: c
equipment handling low power, the types
of relays used are 50. For the protection of power
(a) thermocouple station buildings against direct strokes
(b) electronic and bimetallic the requirements are
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) interception
(d) none of the above (b) interception and conduction
Ans: c (c) interception, conduction and
dissipation
47. Wave trap is used to trap waves of (d) interception, conduction,
(a) power frequencies dissipation and reflection
(b) higher frequencies entering (e) none of the above
generator or transformer units Ans: c
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above 51. The line insulation is the insulation
Ans: b level of the station equipment.
(a) less than
48. Ungrounded neutral transmission (b) same as
system is not recommended because of (c) more than
(d) proportional to operation of 1 to 2 cycles
(e) not directly related with Ans: a
Ans: e
55. Discrimination between main and
52. The interaction between a back up protection is provided by the use
transmission line and communication line of relays which are
is minimized by (a) fact
(a) transposing transmission as well as (b) sensitive
communication lines (c) slow
(b) increasing the height of the trans- (d) none of the above
mission line tower Ans: c
(c) increasing the distance between
the two lines 56. Induction cup relay is operated
(d) all of the above due to changes in
Ans: d (a) current
(b) voltage
53. When a wave propagates on a (c) impedance
transmission line, it suffers reflection (d) all of the above
several times at Ans: d
(a) tapping
(b) load end 57. A.C. network analyser is used to
(c) sending end solve problems of
(d) sending and other end (a) load flow
(e) all of the above (b) load flow and short-circuit
Ans: d (c) load flow and stability
(d) load flow, short-circuit and stability
54. Which of the following statements (e) none of the above
is incorrect? Ans: d
(a) Station batteries are used to
operate relay only 58. Which of the following statements
(b) The lightning arresters are is incorrect ?
basically surge diverters (a) Lightning arrestors are used
(c) An impedance relay has maximum before the switchgear
fault current when fault occurs near the (b) Shunt reactors are used as
relay compensation reactors
(d) A high speed relay has an (c) The peak short current is (1.8
xV2) times the A.C. component (d) 110kV
(d) The MVA at fault is equal to base Ans: b
MVA divided by per unit equivalent fault
reactance 63. The short circuit in any winding of
Ans: a the transformer is the result of
(a) mechanical vibration
59. Short-circuit currents are due to (b) insulation failure
(a) single phase to ground faults (c) loose connection
(b) phase to phase faults (d) impulse voltage
(c) two phase to ground faults Ans: d
(d) three phase faults
(e) any of these 64 relays are used for phase faults on
Ans: e long line.
(a) Impedance
60. To reduce short circuit fault (b) Reactance
currents are used. (c) Either of the above
(a) reactors (d) None of the above
(b) resistors Ans: a
(c) capacitors
(d) none of the above 65. For which of the following
Ans: a protection from negative sequence
currents is provided ?
61. Bus coupler is very essential in (a) Generators
arrangement (b) Motors
(a) single bus (c) Transmission line
(b) double bus, double breaker (d) Transformers
(c) main and transfer bus Ans: a
(d) all of the above
Ans: c 66 relay is preferred for phase fault
on short transmission line.
62. For cost and safety, the outdoor (a) Induction type
substations are installed for voltages (b) Reactance
above (c) Impedance
(a) 11 kV (d) None of the above
(b) 33 kV Ans: b
(c) 60kV
67. Distance relays are generally (a) 1.5 sec
(a) split-phase relays (b) 5 to 10 sec
(b) reactance relays (c) 5 to 20 sec
(c) impedance relays (d) 20 to 30 sec
(d) none of the above (e) none of the above
Ans: d Ans: b

68. For which of the following ratings 72. The single phasing relays are used
of the transformer differential for the protection of
protection is recommended ? (a) single phase motors only
(a) above 30 kVA. (b) two phase motors only
(b) equal to and above 5 MVA (c) two single phase motors running in
(c) equal to and above 25 MVA parallel
(d) none of the above (d) three phase motors
Ans: b Ans: d

69. A _______ is used to measure the 73. Which of the following devices will
stator % winding temperature of the receive voltage surge first travelling on
generator. the transmission line ?
(a) thermocouple (a) Lightning arresters
(b) pyrometer (b) Relays
(c) resistance thermometer (c) Step-down transformer
(d) thermometer (d) Switchgear
Ans: c Ans: a

70. The under voltage relay can be 74. Which of the following parameter
used for can be neglected for a short line ?
(a) generators (a) Inductance
(b) busbars (b) Capacitance
(c) transformers (c) Resistance
(d) motors (d) Reactance
(e) all of the above Ans: b
Ans: e
75. Series reactors should have
71. The relay with inverse time (a) low resistance
characteristic will operate within (b) high resistance
(c) low impedance (d) None of the above
(d) high impedance Ans: a
Ans: a
80. The inverse definite mean time
76. Which of the following circuit relays are used for over current and
breakers has high reliability and minimum earth fault protection of transformer
maintenance ? against
(a) Air blast circuit breakers (a) heavy loads
(b) Circuit breaker with SF6 gas (b) internal short-circuits
(c) Vacuum circuit breakers (c) external short-circuits
(d) Oil circuit breakers (d) all of the above
Ans: b Ans: b

77. Arc in a circuit breaker is 81. Over voltage protection is

interrupted at recommended for
(a) zero current (a) hydro-electric generators
(b) maximum current (b) steam turbine generators
(c) minimum voltage (c) gas turbine generators
(d) maximum voltage (d) all of the above
Ans: a (e) none of the above
Ans: d
78 transmission line has reflection
coefficient as one. 82. Air blast circuit breakers for 400
(a) Open circuit kV power system are designed to operate
(b) Short-circuit in
(e) Long (a) 100 microsecond
(d) None of the above (b) 50 millisecond
Ans: a (c) 0.5 sec
(d) 0.1 sec
79. What will be the reflection co- Ans: b
efficient of the wave of load connected
to transmission line if surge impedance of 83. Overfluxing protection is
the line is equal to load ? recommended for
(a) Zero (a) distribution transformer
(b) Unity (b) generator transformer of the power
(c) Infinity plant
(c) auto-transformer of the power plant (a) constant for all distances
(d) station transformer of the power (b) lower than that of if fault occurs
plant away from the relay
Ans: b (c) higher than that of if fault occurs
away from the relay
84. Series capacitors are used to (d) none of the above
(a) compensate for line inductive Ans: b
reactance
(b) compensate for line capacitive 88. The torque produced in induction
reactance type relay (shaded pole structure) is
(c) improve line voltage (a) inversely proportional to the
(d) none of the above current
Ans: a (b) inversely proportional to the square
of the current
85. Admittance relay is _______ (c) proportional to the current
relay. (d) proportional to square of the
(a) impedance current
(b) directional Ans: b
(c) non-directional
(d) none of the above 89. The steady state stability of the
Ans: b power system can be increased by
(a) connecting lines in parallel
86. The material used for fuse must (b) connecting lines in series
have (e) using machines of high impedance
(a) low melting point and high specific (d) reducing the excitation of
resistance machines
(b) low melting point and -low specific (e) none of the above
resistance Ans: a
(c) high melting point and low specific
resistance 90. The inductive interference
(d) low melting point and any specific between power and communication line
resistance can be minimized by
Ans: a (a) transposition of the power line
(b) transposition of the communication
87. If the fault occurs near the line
impedance relay, the VII ratio will be (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) increasing the distance between the 95. The fuse blows off by
conductors (a) burning
Ans: c (b) arcing
(c) melting
91. The power loss is an important (d) none of the above
factor for the design of Ans: c
(a) transmission line
(b) motor 96. On which of the following effects
(c) generator of electric current a fuse operates ?
(d) feeder (a) Photoelectric effect
Ans: a (b) Electrostatic effect
(c) Heating effect
92. A fuse is connected (d) Magnetic effect
(a) in series with circuit Ans: c
(b) in parallel with circuit
(c) either in series or in parallel with 97. An isolator is installed
circuit (a) to operate the relay of circuit
(d) none of the above breaker
Ans: a (b) as a substitute for circuit breaker
(c) always independent of the position
93. H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a of circuit breaker
rewirable fuse, has (d) generally on both sides of a circuit
(a) no ageing effect breaker
(b) high speed of operation Ans: d
(c) high rupturing capacity
(d) all of the above 98. A fuse in a motor circuit provides
Ans: d protection against
(a) overload
94. The fuse rating is expressed in (b) short-circuit and overload
terms of (c) open circuit, short-circuit and
(a) current overload
(b) voltage (d) none of the above
(c) VAR Ans: b
(d) kVA
Ans: a 99. Protection by fuses is generally
not used beyond
(a) 20 A (c) both (a) and (b)
(b) 50 A (d) either (a) or (b)
(c) 100 A Ans: c
(d) 200 A
Ans: c 104. By which of the following methods
major portion of the heat generated in a
100. A fuse is never inserted in H.R.C. fuse is dissipated ?
(a) neutral wire (a) Radiation
(b) negative of D.C. circuit (b) Convection
(c) positive of D.C. circuit (c) Conduction
(d) phase dine (d) All of the above
Ans: a Ans: c

101. Oil switches are employed for 105. A short-circuit is identified by

(a) low currents circuits (a) no current flow
(b) low voltages circuits (b) heavy current flow
(c) high voltages and large currents (c) voltage drop
circuits (d) voltage rise
(d) all circuits Ans: b
Ans: c
106. The information to the circuit
102. A switchgear is device used for breaker under fault conditions is
(a) interrupting an electrical circuit provided by
(b) switching an electrical circuit (a) relay
111. (b) rewirable fuse
(c) switching and controlling an (c) H.R.C. only
electrical circuit (d) all of the above
(d) switching, controlling and Ans: a
protecting the electrical circuit and
equipment 107. To limit short-circuit current in a
Ans: d power system are used.
(a) earth wires
103. The fuse wire, in D.C. circuits, is (b) isolators
inserted in (c) H.R.C. fuses
(a) negative circuit only (d) reactors
(b) positive circuit only Ans: d
108. A balanced 3-phase system 3. The substances which have a large
consists of number of free electrons and offer a low
(a) zero sequence currents only resistance are called
(b) positive sequence currents only (a) insulators
(c) negative and zero sequence (b) inductors
currents (c) semi-conductors
(d) zero, negative and positive (d) conductors
sequence currents Ans: d
Ans: b
4. Out of the following which is not a poor
109. In a single bus-bar system there conductor ?
will be complete shut down when (a) Cast iron
(a) fault occurs on the bus itself (b) Copper
(b) fault occurs on neutral line (c) Carbon
(c) two or more faults occur (d) Tungsten
simultaneously Ans: b
(d) fault occurs with respect to
earthing 5. Out of the following which is an
Ans: a insulating material ?
(a) Copper
Latest Current Electricity Questions
(b) Gold
and Answers List
(c) Silver
(d) Paper
1. The S.I. unit of power is
Ans: d
(a) Henry
(b) coulomb
6. The property of a conductor due to
(c) watt
which it passes current is called
(d) watt-hour
(a) resistance
Ans: c
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
2. Electric pressure is also called
(d) inductance
(a) resistance
Ans: c
(b) power
(c) voltage
7. Conductance is reciprocal of
(d) energy
(a) resistance
Ans: c
(b) inductance Ans: c
(c) reluctance
(d) capacitance 12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15
Ans: a ohms and 30 ohms are connected in
parallel.
8. The resistance of a conductor varies The total resistance of the combination is
inversely as (a) 5 ohms
(a) length (b) 10 ohms
(6) area of cross-section (c) 15 ohms
(c) temperature (d) 55 ohms
(d) resistivity Ans:
Ans: b
13. An instrument which detects electric
9. With rise in temperature the current is known as
resistance of pure metals (a) voltmeter
(a) increases (b) rheostat
(b) decreases (c) wattmeter
(c) first increases and then decreases (d) galvanometer
(d) remains constant Ans: d
Ans: a
14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a
10. With rise in temperature the current of 2 A. The voltage across the
resistance of semi-conductors resistor is
(a) decreases (a) 33 V
(b) increases (b) 66 v
(c) first increases and then decreases (c) 80 V
(d) remains constant (d) 132 V
Ans: a Ans: b

11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m 15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the
long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter) is voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance
0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around of the light bulb is
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m (a) 400 Q
(b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m (b) 600 Q
(c) 1.6 x 10""8 Q-m (c) 800 Q
(d) 1.8 x 10"8 Q-m (d) 1000 Q
Ans: c conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of
16. The resistance of a parallel circuit electric energy
consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If (b) independent of current strength
the resistance of one branch is 18 ohms, (c) of the order of a few ^.s/m
what is the resistance of the other ? (d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
(a) 18 Q Ans: c
(b) 36 Q
(c) 48 Q 20. Which of the following material has
(d) 64 Q nearly zero temperature co-efficient of
Ans: b resistance?
(a) Manganin
17. Four wires of same material, the same (b) Porcelain
cross-sectional area and the same length (c) Carbon
when connected in parallel give a (d) Copper
resistance of 0.25 Q. If the same four Ans: a
wires are connected is series the
effective resistance will be 21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in
(a) 1 Q radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but
(b) 2 Q have several 1000 Q ones which you would
(c) 3 Q connect
(d) 4 Q (a) two in parallel
Ans: d (b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
18. A current of 16 amperes divides (d) three in series
between two branches in parallel of Ans: b
resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms
respectively. The current in each branch 22. Two resistors are said to be
is connected in series when
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A (a) same current passes in turn through
(b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A both
(c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A (b) both carry the same value of current
(d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A (c) total current equals the sum of branch
Ans: b currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied
19. Current velocity through a copper e.m.f.
Ans: a second' could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance
23. Which of the following statement is (b) Charge
true both for a series and a parallel D.C. (c) Power
circuit? (d) Energy
(a) Elements have individual currents Ans: b
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive 28. All of the following are equivalent to
(d) Power are additive watt except
Ans: d (a) (amperes) ohm
(b) joules/sec.
24. Which of the following materials has (c) amperes x volts
a negative temperature co-efficient of (d) amperes/volt
resistance? Ans: d
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminum 29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10
(c) Carbon W is likely to be a
(d) Brass (a) metallic resistor
Ans: c (b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
25. Ohm's law is not applicable to (d) variable resistor
(a) vacuum tubes Ans: c
(b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits 30. Which one of the following does not
(d) circuits with low current densities have negative temperature co-efficient ?
Ans: a (a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
26. Which is the best conductor of (c) Rubber
electricity ? (d) Mica
(a) Iron Ans: a
(b) Silver
(c) Copper 31. Varistors are
(d) Carbon (a) insulators
Ans: b (6) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
27. For which of the following 'ampere (d) resistors with zero temperature
coefficient current
Ans: b (d) the highest resistance has the
highest voltage drop
32. Insulating materials have the function Ans: d
of
(a) preventing a short circuit between 36. The filament of an electric bulb is
conducting wires made of
(b) preventing an open circuit between (a) carbon
the voltage source and the load (b) aluminium
(c) conducting very large currents (c) tungsten
(d) storing very high currents (d) nickel
Ans: b Ans: c

33. The rating of a fuse wire is always 37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will
expressed in dissipate the power of
(a) ampere-hours (a) 2 watts
(b) ampere-volts (b) 4 watts
(c) kWh (c) 6 watts
(d) amperes (d) 8 watts
Ans: d Ans: c

34. The minimum charge on an ion is
(a) equal to the atomic number of the
atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of
electrons in an atom (#) zero
Ans: b
35. In a series circuit with unequal
resistances
(a) the highest resistance has the most
of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest
voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest
38. Which of the following statement is
true?
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in
parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance
in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in
series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high
resistance in series is an ammeter
Ans: c
39. The resistance of a few meters of
wire conductor in closed electrical circuit
is
(a) practically zero across them, which of the following
(b) low statement is true ?
(c) high (a) The current through each bulb in same
(d) very high (b) The voltage across each bulb is not
Ans: a same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is
40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the not same
main line, the current (d) None of the above
(a) increases in the branch of the lowest Ans: a
resistance
(b) increases in each branch 44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are
(c) is zero in all branches connected in series across the voltage
(d) is zero in the highest resistive branch source where Rl>Ri. The largest drop will
Ans: c be across
(a) Rl
41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm (b) Ri
resistance is doubled in length, its (c) either Rl or Ri
resistance becomes (d) none of them
(a) 0.4 ohm Ans: a
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm 45. What will be energy used by the
(d) 1.0 ohm battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x
Ans: a 1018 electrons with potential difference
of 20 V across the terminal ?
42. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel (a) 5 joules
across the 60 V power line. If one bulb (b) 10 joules
burns open (c) 15 joules
(a) there will be heavy current in the main (d) 20 joules
line Ans:
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light 46. A closed switch has a resistance of
(d) the other two bulbs will light (a) zero
Ans: d (b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are (d) infinity
connected in series swift a battery Ans: a
47. The hot resistance of the bulb's 51. Which of the following quantities
filament is higher than its cold resistance remain the same in all parts of a series
because the temperature co-efficient of circuit ?
the filament is (a) Voltage
(a) zero (b) Current
(b) negative (c) Power
(c) positive (d) Resistance
(d) about 2 ohms per degree Ans: b
Ans: c
52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series
48. Heat in a conductor is produced on with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is
the passage of electric current due to replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater
(a) reactance output will
(b) capacitance (a) decrease
(c) impedance (b) increase
(d) resistance (c) remain same
Ans: (d) heater will burn out
Ans: b
49. The insulation on a current carrying
conductor is provided 53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10
(a) to prevent leakage of current m minutes. It is required to boil the
(b) to prevent shock boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply
(c) both of above factors mains
(d) none of above factors (a) length of heating element should be
Ans: c decreased
(b) length of heating element should be
50. The thickness of insulation provided increased
on the conductor depends on (c) length of heating element has no
(a) the magnitude of voltage on the effect on heating if water
conductor (d) none of the above
(b) the magnitude of current flowing Ans: a
through it
(c) both (a) and (b) 54. An electric filament bulb can be
(d) none of the above worked from
Ans: a (a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only (b) Losses
(c) Battery supply only (c) True component of power
(d) All above (d) kWh consumed
Ans: d (e) Ratio of output to input
Ans: b
55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as
applied voltage increases 59. When electric current passes through
(a) decreases a metallic conductor, its temperature
(b) increases rises. This is due to
(c) remains same (a) collisions between conduction
(d) none of the above electrons and atoms
Ans: b (b) the release of conduction electrons
from parent atoms
56. Electric current passing through the (c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
circuit produces (d) mutual collisions between conducting
(a) magnetic effect electrons
(b) luminous effect Ans: a
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect 60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated
(e) all above effects at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
Ans: c (a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
57. Resistance of a material always (c) 2 : 5
decreases if (d) 5 : 2
(a) temperature of material is Ans: c
decreased
(6) temperature of material is 61. A glass rod when rubbed with silk
increased cloth is charged because
(c) number of free electrons available (a) it takes in proton
become more (b) its atoms are removed
(d) none of the above is correct (c) it gives away electrons
Ans: c (d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
58. If the efficiency of a machine is to
be high, what should be low ? 62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C.
(a) Input power one, following is most effective in
reducing the magnitude of the current. (a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(a) Reactor (b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) Capacitor (c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(c) Inductor (d) 40 W lamp will fuse
(d) Resistor Ans: b
Ans: d
67. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will
63. It becomes more difficult to remove be
(a) any electron from the orbit (a) 4.84 Q
(6) first electron from the orbit (b) 48.4 Q
(c) second electron from the orbit (c) 484 ft
(d) third electron from the orbit (d) 4840 Q
Ans: d Ans: c

64. When one leg of parallel circuit is 68. In the case of direct current
opened out the total current will (a) magnitude and direction of current
(a) reduce remains constant
(b) increase (b) magnitude and direction of current
(c) decrease changes with time
(d) become zero (c) magnitude of current changes with
Ans: c time
(d) magnitude of current remains
65. In a lamp load when more than one constant
lamp are switched on the total resistance Ans: a
of the load
(a) increases 69. When electric current passes through
(b) decreases a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is
(c) remains same observed. This suggests that the type of
(d) none of the above supply is
Ans: b (a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are (c) any of above two
connected in series across 230 V (d) none of the above
(alternating). Ans: b
Which of the following statement is
correct ? 70. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as
the applied voltage increases. (b) inductance
(a) increases (c) capacitance
(b) decreases (d) impedance
(c) remains same Ans: b
(d) none of the above
Ans: b 75. Copper wire of certain length and
resistance is drawn out to three times its
71. Bulbs in street lighting are all length without change in volume, the new
connected in resistance of wire becomes
(a) parallel (a) 1/9 times
(b) series (b) 3 times
(c) series-parallel (e) 9 times
(d) end-to-end (d) unchanged
Ans: a Ans: c

72. For testing appliances, the wattage of 76. When resistance element of a heater
test lamp should be fuses and then we reconnect it after
(a) very low removing a portion of it, the power of the
(b) low heater will
(c) high (a) decrease
(d) any value (b) increase
Ans: c (c) remain constant
(d) none of the above
73. Switching of a lamp in house produces Ans: b
noise in the radio. This is because
switching operation produces 77. A field of force can exist only
(a) arcs across separating contacts between
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity (a) two molecules
(c) both mechanical noise and arc (b) two ions
between contacts (c) two atoms
(d) none of the above (d) two metal particles
Ans: a Ans: b

74. Sparking occurs when a load is 78. A substance whose molecules consist
switched off because the circuit has high of dissimilar atoms is called
(a) resistance (a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto (c) 4 Q
(c) compound (d) 8/3 Q
(d) insulator Ans: c
Ans: c
93. Ohm's law is not applicable to
79. International ohm is defined in terms (a) semi-conductors
of the resistance of (b) D.C. circuits
(a) a column of mercury (c) small resistors
(b) a cube of carbon (d) high currents
(c) a cube of copper Ans: a
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a 94. Two copper conductors have equal
length. The cross-sectional area of one
80. Three identical resistors are first conductor is four times that of the other.
connected in parallel and then in series. If the conductor having smaller cross-
The resultant resistance of the first sectional area has a resistance of 40
combination to the second will be ohms the resistance of other conductor
(a) 9 times will be
(b) 1/9 times (a) 160 ohms
(c) 1/3 times (b) 80 ohms
(d) 3 times (c) 20 ohms
Ans: b (d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
91. Which method can be used for
absolute measurement of resistances ? 95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil
(a) Lorentz method has the resistance of 2 £2/m. For a
(b) Releigh method heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of
(c) Ohm's law method wire required will be
(d) Wheatstone bridge method (a) 80 m
Ans: d (b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected (d) 20 m
to form a triangle. What is the resistance Ans: a
between any two corners ?
(a) 3/2 Q 96. Temperature co-efficient of
(b 6 Q resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/°C Ans: a
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C 100. Which of the following statement is
(d) mhos/°C correct ?
Ans: c (a) A semi-conductor is a material whose
conductivity is same as between that of a
97. Which of the following materials has conductor and an insulator
the least resistivity ? (b) A semi-conductor is a material which
(a) Zinc has conductivity having average value of
(b) Lead conductivity of metal and insulator
(c) Mercury (c) A semi-conductor is one which
(d) Copper con¬ducts only half of the applied voltage
Ans: (d) A semi-conductor is a material
made of alternate layers of conducting
98. When current flows through heater material and insulator
coil it glows but supply wiring does not Ans: a
glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at 101. A rheostat differs from
slower speed potentiometer in the respect that it
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation (a) has lower wattage rating
layer (b) has higher wattage rating
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than (c) has large number of turns
the supply wires (d) offers large number of tapping
(d) supply wires are made of superior Ans: b
material
Ans: c 102. The weight of an aluminium
conductor as compared to a copper
99. The condition for the validity under conductor of identical cross-section, for
Ohm's law is that the same electrical resistance, is
(a) resistance must be uniform (a) 50%
(b) current should be proportional to the (b) 60%
size of the resistance (c) 100%
(c) resistance must be wire wound type (d) 150%
(d) temperature at positive end should be Ans: a
more than the temperature at negative
end 103. An open resistor, when checked with
an ohm-meter reads (c) as heating elements
(a) zero (d) as current stabilizers
(b) infinite Ans: b
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero 108. The ratio of mass of proton to that
Ans: b of electron is nearly
(a) 1840
104. are the materials having electrical (b) 1840
conductivity much less than most of the (c) 30
metals but much greater than that of (d) 4
typical insulators. Ans: a
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor 109. The number of electrons in the outer
(c) Semi-conductors most orbit of carbon atom is
(d) Variable resistors (a) 3
Ans: c (b) 4
(c) 6
105. All good conductors have high (d) 7
(a) conductance Ans: b
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance 110. With three resistances connected in
(d) thermal conductivity parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total
Ans: a power supplied by the voltage source
equals
106. Voltage dependent resistors are (a) 10 W
usually made from (b) 20 W
(a) charcoal (c) 40 W
(b) silicon carbide (d) 60 W
(c) nichrome Ans: d
(d) graphite
Ans: c 111. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
107. Voltage dependent resistors are (b) negative temperature coefficient
used (c) zero temperature coefficient
(a) for inductive circuits (d) variable temperature coefficient
(6) to supress surges Ans: c
 116. Conductance : mho ::
112. If/, R and t are the current, (a) resistance : ohm
resistance and time respectively, then (b) capacitance : henry
according to Joule's law heat produced (c) inductance : farad
will be proportional to (d) lumen : steradian
(a) I2Rt Ans: a
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t 117. 1 angstrom is equal to
(d) I2R2t* (a) 10-8 mm
Ans: a (6) 10"6 cm
(c) 10"10 m
113. Nichrome wire is an alloy of (d) 10~14 m
(a) lead and zinc Ans: c
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium 118. One newton meter is same as
(d) copper and silver (a) one watt
Ans: c (b) one joule
(c) five joules
114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, (d) one joule second
a circuit allows one micro ampere current Ans: b
to flow through it. The conductance of
the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho 1. Tesla is a unit of

(d) none of the above (a) field strength

Ans: a (b) inductance

(c) flux density

115. Which of the following can have (d) flux

negative temperature coefficient ? Ans: c

(a) Compounds of silver

(6) Liquid metals 2. A permeable substance is one

(c) Metallic alloys (a) which is a good conductor

(d) Electrolytes (6) which is a bad conductor

Ans: d (c) which is a strong magnet

(d) through which the magnetic lines of
force can pass very easily
Ans: d (c) from one end of the magnet to
another
3. The materials having low retentivity (d) none of the above
are suitable for making Ans: b
(a) weak magnets
(b) temporary magnets 8. Which of the following is a vector
(c) permanent magnets quantity ?
(d) none of the above (a) Relative permeability
Ans: b (b) Magnetic field intensity
(c) Flux density
4. A magnetic field exists around (d) Magnetic potential
(a) iron Ans: b
(b) copper
(c) aluminium 9. The two conductors of a transmission
(d) moving charges line carry equal current I in opposite
Ans: d directions. The force on each conductor
is
5. Ferrites are materials. (a) proportional to 7
(a) paramagnetic (b) proportional to X
(b) diamagnetic (c) proportional to distance between the
(c) ferromagnetic conductors
(d) none of the above (d) inversely proportional to I
Ans: c Ans: b

6. Air gap has_______eluctance as 10. A material which is slightly repelled

compared to iron or steel path by a magnetic field is known as
(a) little (a) ferromagnetic material
(b) lower (b) diamagnetic material
(c) higher (c) paramagnetic material
(d) zero (d) conducting material
Ans: b Ans: b

7. The direction of magnetic lines of 11. When an iron piece is placed in a

force is magnetic field
(a) from south pole to north pole (a) the magnetic lines of force will
(b) from north pole to south pole bend away from their usual paths in order
to go away from the piece
(b) the magnetic lines of force will
bend away from their usual paths in order
to pass through the piece
(c) the magnetic field will not be
affected
(d) the iron piece will break
Ans: b
12. Fleming's left hand rule is used to
find
(a) direction of magnetic field due to
current carrying conductor
(b) direction of flux in a solenoid
(c) direction of force on a current
carrying conductor in a magnetic field
(d) polarity of a magnetic pole
Ans: c
13. The ratio of intensity of
magnetisation to the magnetisation force
is known as
(a) flux density
(b) susceptibility
(c) relative permeability
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
14. Magnetising steel is normals difficult
because
(a) it corrodes easily
(6) it has high permeability
(c) it has high specific gravity
(d) it has low permeability
Ans: d
15. The left hand rule correlates to
(a) current, induced e.m.f. and direction
of force on a conductor
(b) magnetic field, electric field and
direction of force on a conductor
(c) self induction, mutual induction and
direction of force on a conductor
(d) current, magnetic field and direction
of force on a conductor
Ans: d
16. The unit of relative permeability is
(a) henry/metre
(b) henry
(c) henry/sq. m
(d) it is dimensionless
Ans: d
17. A conductor of length L has current I
passing through it, when it is placed
parallel to a magnetic field. The force
experienced by the conductor will be
(a) zero
(b) BLI
(c) B2LI
(d) BLI2
Ans: a
18. The force between two long parallel
conductors is inversely proportional to
(a) radius of conductors
(b) current in one conductor
(c) product of current in two conductors
(d) distance between the conductors
Ans: d
19. Materials subjected to rapid reversal (b) equal to unity
of magnetism should have (c) slightly more than unity
(a) large area oiB-H loop (d) equal to that ferromagnetic mate rials
(b) high permeability and low hysteresis Ans: c
loss
(c) high co-ercivity and high retentivity 24. Degaussing is the process of
(d) high co-ercivity and low density (a) removal of magnetic impurities
Ans: b (b) removing gases from the materials
(c) remagnetising metallic parts
20. Indicate which of the following (d) demagnetising metallic parts
material does not retain magnetism Ans:
permanently.
(a) Soft iron 25. Substances which have permeability
(b) Stainless steel less than the permeability of free space
(e) Hardened steel are known as
(d) None of the above (a) ferromagnetic
Ans: a (b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
21. The main constituent of permalloy is (d) bipolar
(a) cobalt Ans: c
(b) chromium
(c) nickel 26. Two infinitely long parallel conductors
(d) tungsten in vacuum any separated 1 metre between
Ans: c centers >then a current of 1 ampere flows
the. uk each conductor, produce on each
22. The use of permanent magnets is. not other a force of
made in (a) 2 x 1(T2 N/m)
(a) magnetoes (b) 2 x KT3 N/m
(6) energy meters (c) 2 x 10"5 N/m
(c) transformers (d) 2x 1(T7 N/m)
(d) loud-speakers Ans: d
Ans: c
27. In the left hand rule, forefinger
23. Paramagnetic materials have relative always represents
permeability (a) voltage
(a) slightly less than unity (b) current
(c) magnetic field Ans: b
(d) direction of force on the conductor
Ans: c 32. Reciprocal of permeability is
(a) reluctivity
28. Which of the following is a (b) susceptibility
ferromagnetic material ? (c) permittivity
(a) Tungsten (d) conductance
(b) Aluminium Ans: a
(c) Copper
(d) Nickel 33. The relative permeability is less than
Ans: d unity is case of
(a) ferromagnetic materials
29. Ferrites are a sub-group of (b) ferrites
(a) non-magnetic materials (c) non-ferrous materials
(6) ferro-magnetic materials (d) diamagnetic materials
(c) paramagnetic materials Ans: d
(d) ferri-magnetic materials
Ans: d 34. Which of the following is the unit of
magnetic flux density ?
30. Gilbert is a unit of (a) weber
(a) electromotive force (b) lumens
(6) magnetomotive force (c) tesla
(c) conductance (d) none of the above
(d) permittivity Ans: c
Ans: b
35. The magnetism left in the iron after
31. The working of a meter is based on exciting field has been removed is known
the use of a permanent magnet. In order as
to protect the meter functioning from (a) permeance
stray magnetic fields (b) residual magnetism
(a) meter is surrounded by strong (c) susceptance
magnetic fields (d) reluctance
(b) a soft iron shielding is used Ans: b
(c) a plastic shielding is provided
(d) a shielding of anon-magnetic material 36. Which of the following is not a unit of
is used flux?
(a) Maxwell Ans: b
(b) Telsa
(c) Weber 40. When a magnet is in motion relative
(d) All of the above to a coil the induced e.m.f. does not
Ans: b depend upon
(a) resistance of the coil
37. Which of the following is expected to (b) motion of the magnet
have the maximum permeability ? (c) number of turns of the coil
(a) Brass (d) pole strength of the magnet
(b) Copper Ans: a
(c) Zinc
(d) Ebonite 41. One maxwell is equal to
Ans: d (a) 10 webers
(b) 10 webers
38. One telsa is equal to (c) 10 webers
(a) 1 Wb/mm2 (d) 10 webers
(b) 1 Wb/m Ans: d
(c) 1 Wb/m2
(d) 1 mWb/m2 42. When two ends of a circular uniform
Ans: c wire are joined to the terminals of a
battery, the field at the center of the
39. Out of the following statements, circle
concerning an electric field, which (a) will be zero
statement is not true ? (b) will be infinite
(a) The electric intensity is a vector (c) will depend on the amount of e.m.f.
quantity applied
(b) The electric field intensity at a (d) will depend on the radius of the circle
point is numerically equal to the force Ans: d
exerted upon a charge placed at that
point 43. Susceptibility is positive for
(c) An electric field is defined as a point (a) non-magnetic substances
in space at which an electric charge would (b) diamagnetic substances
experience a force (c) ferromagnetic substances
(d) Unit field intensity in the exertion (d) none of the above
of a force of one newton on a charge of Ans: c
one coulomb
44. Two long parallel conductors carry the length of the magnet circuit is 200
100 A. If the conductors are separated mm, what is the magnetic field strength ?
by 20 mm, the force per meter of length (a) 2500 AT/m
of each conductor will be (b) 250 AT/m
(a) 100 N (c) 25 AT/m
(b) 10 N (d) 2.5 AT/m
(c) 1 N Ans: b
(d) 0.1 N
Ans: d 48. What is the magnitude and the
direction of force per 1.1m length of a
45. A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a pair of conductors of a direct current
current of 10 A and is situated at right linecarrying 10 amperes and spaced 100
angles to a magnetic field having a flux mm apart ?
density of 0.8 T ; the force on the (a) 22 x 10"8 N
conductor will be (b) 22 x 10"7 N
(a) 240 N (c) 22 x 10-6 N
(6) 24 N (d) 22 x 10"5 N
(c) 2.4 N Ans: d
(d) 0.24 N
Ans: c 49. A square cross-sectional magnet has a
pole strength of 1 x 10 Wb and cross
46. A 200 turn coil having an axial length sectional area of 20 mm x 20 mm. What
of 30 mm and a radius of 10 mm is is the strength at a distance of 100 mm
pivoted in a magnetic field having a flux from the unit pole in air ?
density of 0.8 T. If the coil carries a (a) 63.38 N/Wb
current of 0.5 A, the torque acting on the (b) 633.8 N/Wb
coil will be (c) 6338 N/Wb
(a) 8 N-m (d) 63380 N/Wb
(b) 0.48 N-m Ans: c
(e) 0.048 N-m
(d) 0.0048 N-m 50. The unit of flux is the same as that
[Hint. Torque = 2BIlNr N-m] of
Ans: c (a) reluctance
(b) resistance
47. The electromagnet has 50 turns and a (c) permeance
current of 1A flows through the coil. If (d) pole strength
Ans: d below a freely suspended magnetic
needle, the magnetic needle shall start
51. Unit for quantity of electricity is rotating with a velocity
(a) ampere-hour (a) less than that of disc but in
(b) watt opposite direction
(c) joule (b) equal to that of disc and in the
(d) coulomb same direction
Ans: d (c) equal to that of disc and in the
opposite direction
52. The Biot-savart's law is a general (d) less than that of disc and in the same
modification of direction
(a) Kirchhoffs law Ans: d
(b) Lenz's law
(c) Ampere's law 56. A permanent magnet
(d) Faraday's laws (a) attracts some substances and repels
Ans: c others
(b) attracts all paramagnetic substances
53. The most effective and quickest and repels others
may of making a magnet from soft iron is (c) attracts only ferromagnetic
by substances
(a) placing it inside a coil carrying (d) attracts ferromagnetic substances
current and repels all others
(b) induction Ans: a
(c) the use of permanent magnet
(d) rubbing with another magnet 57. The retentivity (a property) of
Ans: a material is useful for the construction of
(a) permanent magnets
54. The commonly used material for (b) transformers
shielding or screening magnetism is (c) non-magnetic substances
(a) copper (d) electromagnets
(b) aluminium Ans: a
(c) soft iron
(d) brass 58. The relative permeability of materials
Ans: c is not constant.
(a) diamagnetic
55. If a copper disc is rotated rapidly (b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic (d) provide a closed path for flux
(d) insulating Ans: d
Ans: c
63. Magnetic moment is a
59. The materials are a bit inferior (a) pole strength
conductors of magnetic flux than air. (6) universal constant
(a) ferromagnetic (c) scalar quantity
(b) paramagnetic (d) vector quantity
(c) diamagnetic Ans: d
(d) dielectric
Ans: c 64. The change of cross-sectional area of
conductor in magnetic field will affect
60. Hysteresis loop in case of (a) reluctance of conductor
magnetically hard materials is more in (b) resistance of conductor
shape as compared to magnetically soft (c) (a) and (b) both in the same way
materials. (d) none of the above
(a) circular Ans: c
(b) triangular
(c) rectangular 65. The uniform magnetic field is
(d) none of the above (a) the field of a set of parallel
Ans: c conductors
(b) the field of a single conductor
61. A rectangular magnet of magnetic (c) the field in which all lines of magnetic
moment M is cut into two piece of same flux are parallel and equidistant
length, the magnetic moment of each (d) none of the above
piece will be Ans: c
(a) M
(6) M/2 66. The magneto-motive force is
(c) 2 M (a) the voltage across the two ends of
(d) M/4 exciting coil
Ans: b (b) the flow of an electric current
(c) the sum of all currents embraced by
62. A keeper is used to one line of magnetic field
(a) change the direction of magnetic lines (d) the passage of magnetic field through
(b) amplify flux an exciting coil
(c) restore lost flux Ans: c
 core is threaded into coil without
67. What will be the current passing dimensional change of coil ?
through the ring shaped air cored coil (a) Decreases
when number of turns is 800 and ampere (b) Increases
turns are 3200 ? (c) Remains same
(a) 2 (d) First increases and then decreases
(b) 4 depending on the depth of iron in¬sertion
(c) 6 Ans: b
(d) 8
Ans: b 71. The magnetic reluctance of a material
(a) decreases with increasing cross
68. What will be the magnetic potential sectional area of material
difference across the air gap of 2 cm (6) increases with increasing cross-
length in magnetic field of 200 AT/m ? sec-tional area of material
(a) 2 AT (c) does not vary with increasing cross-
(b) 4 AT sectional area of material
(c) 6 AT (d) any of the above
(d) 10 AT Ans: a
Ans: b
72. The initial permeability of an iron rod
69. Which of the following statements is is
correct ? (a) the highest permeability of the iron
(a) The magnetic flux inside an exciting rod
coil is lower than its outside surface (b) the lowest permeability of the iron
(6) The magnetic flux inside an exciting rod
coil is zero (c) the permeability at the end of the
(e) The magnetic flux inside the exciting iron rod
coil is greater than its outside surface (d) the permeability almost in non-
(d) The magnetic flux inside the exciting magnetised state
coil is same as on its outside surface Ans: d
Ans: d
73. How does the magnetic compass
70. A certain amount of current flows needle behave in a magnetic field ?
through a ring-shaped coil with fixed (a) It assures a position right angle to
number of turns. How does the magnetic magnetic field
induction B varies inside the coil if an iron (b) It starts rotating
(c) It assures a position which follows a (a) Silver
line of magnetic flux (b) Copper
(d) None of the above (c) Silver and copper
Ans: c (d) Iron
Ans: c
74. In a simple magnetic field the
strength of magnet flux 78. Which of the following type of
(a) is constant and has same value in materials are not very important for
energy part of the magnetic field engineering applications ?
(6) increases continuously from initial (a) Ferromagnetic
value to final value (b) Paramagnetic
(c) decreases continuously from initial (c) Diamagnetic
value to final value (d) None of the above
(d) first increases and then decreases till Ans: c
it becomes zero
Ans: d 79. The susceptibility of paramagnetic
materials generally lies between
75. The stray line of magnetic flux is (a) KT3 and 1CT6
defined as (b) 1CT3 and 1CT7
(a) a line vertical to the flux lines (c) KT4 and KT8
(b) the mean length of a ring shaped coil (d) 10"2 and KT5
(c) a line of magnetic flux in a non- Ans: a
uniform field
(d) a line of magnetic flux which does not 80. For which of the following materials
follow the designed path the saturation value is the highest ?
Ans: d (a) Ferromagnetic materials
(6) Paramagnetic materials
76. The bar magnet has (c) Diamagnetic materials
(a) the dipole moment (d) Ferrites
(b) monopole moment Ans: d
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) none of the above 81. The magnetic materials exhibit the
Ans: a property of magnetisation because of
(a) orbital motion of electrons
77. Which of the following materials are (b) spin of electrons
diamagnetic ? (c) spin of nucleus
(d) either of these (c) motors
(e) all of the above (d) all of the above
Ans: c Ans: d

82. For which of the following materials 86. Main causes of noisy solenoid are
the net magnetic moment should be (a) strong tendency of fan out of
zero ? laminations at the end caused by
(a) Diamagnetic materials repulsion among magnetic lines of force
(b) Ferrimagnetic materials (b) uneven bearing surface, caused by
(c) Antiferromagnetic materials dirt or uneven wear between moving and
(d) Antiferrimagnetic materials stationary parts
Ans: c (c) both of above
(d) none of the above
83. The attraction capacity of Ans: c
electromagnet will increase if the
(a) core length increases i 87. Strength of an electromagnet can be
(b) core area increases increased by
(c) flux density decreases (a) increasing the cross-sectional area
(d) flux density increases (b) increasing the number of turns
Ans: d (c) increasing current supply
(d) all above methods
84. Which of the following statements is Ans:
correct ?
(a) The conductivity of ferrites is 88. Core of an electromagnet should have
better than ferromagnetic materials (a) low coercivity
(b) The conductivity of ferromagnetic (6) high susceptibility
materials is better than ferrites (c) both of the above
(c) The conductivity of ferrites is very (d) none of the above
high Ans: c
(d) The conductivity of ferrites is same
as that of ferromagnetic materials 89. Magnetism of a magnet can be
Ans: a destroyed by
(a) heating
85. Temporary magnets are used in (b) hammering
(a) loud-speakers (c) by inductive action of another magnet
(b) generators
(d) by all above methods
Ans: d
48 TOP Electromagnetic Induction -
Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice
Questions and Answers
Latest Electromagnetic Induction
Questions and Answers List
1. The property of coil by which a counter
e.m.f. is induced in it when the current
through the coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
2. As per Faraday's laws of
electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is
induced in a conductor whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the
magnetic field
Ans: c
3. Which of the following circuit element
stores energy in the electromagnetic
field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Ans: a
4. The inductance of a coil will increase
under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same
number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil
increase
(c) when more area for each turn is
provided
(d) when permeability of the core
increases
Ans: a
5. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,
(a) lesser its weber-turns
(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
(c) greater the flux produced by it
(d) longer the delay in establishing steady
current through it
Ans: d
6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is
removed so that the coil becomes an air
cored coil. The inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Ans: b
7. An open coil has
(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero
inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal
inductance (c) both (a) and (b)
(d) zero resistance and high inductance (d) none of the above
Ans: b Ans: c

8. Both the number of turns and the core 12. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in
length of an inductive coil are doubled. a conductor depends on the
Its self-inductance will be (a) flux density of the magnetic field
(a) unaffected (b) amount of flux cut
(b) doubled (c) amount of flux linkages
(c) halved (d) rate of change of flux-linkages
(d) quadrupled Ans: d
Ans: b
13. Mutually inductance between two
9. If current in a conductor increases magnetically-coupled coils depends on
then according to Lenz's law self-induced (a) permeability of the core
voltage will (b) the number of their turns
(a) aid the increasing current (c) cross-sectional area of their common
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur- core
rent (d) all of the above
(c) produce current opposite to the in- Ans: d
creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage 14. A laminated iron core has reduced
Ans: c eddy-current losses because
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C.
10. The direction of induced e.m.f. can be resistance in coil
found by (b) the laminations are insulated from
(a) Laplace's law each other
(b) Lenz's law (c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in
(c) Fleming's right hand rule the air gap of the core
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law (d) the laminations are stacked vertfcally
Ans: b Ans: b

11. Air-core coils are practically free 15. The law that the induced e.m.f. and
from current always oppose the cause
(a) hysteresis losses producing them is due to
(b) eddy current losses (a) Faraday
(b) Lenz circuit will not be charged
(c) Newton Ans: c
(d) Coulomb
Ans: b 20. Which of the following is unit of
inductance ?
16. Which of the following is not a unit of (a) Ohm
inductance ? (b) Henry
(a) Henry (c) Ampere turns
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere (d) Webers/metre
(c) Volt second per ampere Ans: b
(d) All of the above
Ans: b 21. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a
coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change
17. In case of an inductance, current is of current must be
proportional to (a) 64 A/s
(a) voltage across the inductance (b) 32 A/s
(b) magnetic field (c) 16 A/s
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) 4 A/s
(d) neither (a) nor (b) Ans: d
Ans: b
22. The core of a coil has a length of 200
18. Which of the following circuit mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If
elements will oppose the change in circuit the core length is doubled, all other
current ? quantities, remaining the same, the
(a) Capacitance inductance will be
(b) Inductance (a) 3 mH
(c) Resistance (b) 12 mH
(d) All of the above (c) 24mH
Ans: b (d)48mH
Ans: a
19. For a purely inductive circuit which of
the following is true ? 23. The self inductances of two coils are
(a) Apparent power is zero 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of
(b) Relative power is.zero coupling is 0.5, the mutual inductance of
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero the coils is
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the (a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH 27. In case all the flux from the current
(c) 6 mH in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient
(d) 12 mH of coupling will be
Ans: c (a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
24. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH (c) 0.5
and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling (d) zero
of 0.5. If the two coils are connected in Ans: b
series aiding, the total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH 28. A coil with negligible resistance has
(b) 38 mH 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive
(c) 40 mH reactance is
(d) 48 mH (a) 50 ohms
Ans: b (b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
25. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of (d) 5000 ohms
12 mH. If the number of turns is Ans: d
increased to 400 turns, all other
quantities (area, length etc.) remaining 29. A conductor 2 meters long moves at
the same, the inductance will be right angles to a magnetic field of flux
(a) 6 mH density 1 tesla with a velocity of 12.5
(b) 14 mH m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor
(c) 24 mH will be
(d) 48 mH (a) 10 V
Ans: d (6) 15 V
(c) 25V
26. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 (d) 50V
H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being Ans: c
zero. If the two coils are connected in
series, the total inductance will be 30. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law
(a) 6 H of conservation of
(b) 8 H (a) induced current
(c) 12 H (b) charge
(d) 24 H (c) energy
Ans: c (d) induced e.m.f.
Ans: c
 (a) 20 Wb
31. A conductor carries 125 amperes of (b) 2 Wb
current under 60° to a magnetic field of (c) 0.2 Wb
1.1 tesla. The force on the conductor will (d) 0.02 Wb
be Ans: d
nearly
(a) 50 N 35. A 500 turns solenoid develops an
(b) 120 N average induced voltage of 60 V. Over
(c) 240 N what time interval must a flux change of
(d) 480 N 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a
Ans: b voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
32. Find the force acting on a conductor (b) 0.1 s
3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes (c) 0.5 s
at right angles to a magnetic field having (d) 5 s
a flux density of 0.67 tesla. Ans: c
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N 36. Which of the fpllowing inductor will
(c) 600 N have the least eddy current losses ?
(d) 1000 N (a) Air core
Ans: a (b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
33. The co-efficient of coupling between (d) Powdered iron core
two air core coils depends on Ans: a
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils 37. A coil induces 350 mV when the
only current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance value of inductance is
of two coils (a) 3500 mH
(d) none of the above (b) 350 mH
Ans: c (c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
34. An average voltage of 10 V is induced Ans: b
in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a
change in flux which occurs in 0.5 second. 38. Two 300 uH coils in series without
The total flux change is mutual coupling have a total inductance of
(a) 300 uH (c) change of number of turns of coil
(b) 600 uH (d) the resistance of magnetic path
(c) 150 uH Ans: b
(d) 75 uH
Ans: b 43. A moving magnetic field will produce
the same effect as a conductor that is
39. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in moving.
one second induced 20 volts in a coil. (a) Yes
The value of inductance is (b) No
(a) 5 mH Ans:
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H 44. The polarity of the induced voltage
(d) 10 H can be determined by using the left-hand
Ans: c generator rule.
(a) Yes
40. Which circuit element(s) will oppose (b) No
the change in circuit current ? Ans: a
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only 45. Increasing the field or increasing the
(c) Capacitance only current will decrease the force on the
(d) Inductance and capacitance conductor.
Ans: b (a) Yes
(b) No
41. A crack in the magnetic path of an Ans: b
inductor will result in
(a) unchanged inductance 46. Reversing the field or the current will
(b) increased inductance reverse the force on the conductor.
(c) zero inductance (a) Yes
(d) reduced inductance (b) No
Ans: d Ans: a

42. A coil is wound on iron core which
carries current I. The self-induced
voltage in the coil is not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
47. When a conductor moves in the field,
so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines
of flux, the force F is given as : F = Bl
sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
48. The self-inductance of the coil may
be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced
in volts when the current in the circuit
changes at the rate of unit Weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
120 TOP Electrolysis and Storage of
Batteries - Electrical Engineering
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
3. During the charging of a lead-acid cell
(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate
brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
4. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does
not depend on its
(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b

Latest Electrolysis and Storage of 5. During charging the specific gravity of

Batteries Questions and Answers List the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
1. "The mass of an ion liberated at an (b) decreases
electrode is directly proportional to the (c) remains the same
quantity of electricity". (d) becomes zero
The above statement is associated with Ans: a
(a) Newton's law
(b) Faraday's law of electromagnetic 6. The active materials on the positive
(c) Faraday's law of electrolysis and negative plates of a fully charged
(d) Gauss's law lead-acid battery are
Ans: c (a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
2. The charge required to liberate one (c) lead peroxide and lead
gram equivalent of any substance is known (d) none of the above
as ______ constant Ans: c
(a) time
(b) Faraday's 7. When a lead-acid battery is in fully
(c) Boltzman charged condition, the colour of its
Ans: b positive plate is
(a) dark grey Ans: c
(b) brown
(c) dark brown 12. The output voltage of a charger is
(d) none of above (a) less than the battery voltage
Ans: c (b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
8. The active materials of a nickel-iron (d) none of the above
battery are Ans: b
(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide 13. Cells are connected in series in order
(c) 21% solution of KOH to
(d) all of the above (a) increase the voltage rating
Ans: d (6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
9. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to (d) none of the above
watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is Ans: a
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one 14. Five 2 V cells are connected in
(c) always less than one parallel.
(d) none of the above. The output voltage is
Ans: b (a) 1 V
(6) 1.5 V
10. The best indication about the state of (c) 1.75 V
charge on a lead-acid battery is given by (d) 2 V
(a) output voltage Ans: d
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte 15. The capacity of a battery is
(d) none of the above expressed in terms of
Ans: c (a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
11. The storage battery generally used in (e) ampere-hour rating
electric power station is (d) none of the above
(a) nickel-cadmium battery Ans: c
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery 16. Duringthe charging and discharging of
(d) none of the above a nickel-iron cell
(a) corrosive fumes are produced (b) increase its reserve capacity
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed (c) prevent sulphation
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit (d) keep it fresh and fully charged
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant Ans: d
Ans: b
21. Those substances of the cell which
17. As compared to constant-current take active part in chemical combination
system, the constant-voltage system of and hence produce electricity during
charging a lead acid cell has the charging or discharging are known
advantage of as______materials.
(a) reducing time of charging (a) passive
(b) increasing cell capacity (b) active
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) redundant
(d) avoiding excessive gassing (d) inert
Ans: c Ans: b

18. A dead storage battery can be revived 22. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric
by acid (electrolyte) approximately
(a) adding distilled water comprises the following
(6) adding so-called battery restorer (a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(c) a dose of H2SO4 (b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(d) none of the above (c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
Ans: d (d) all H2S04
Ans: c
19. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the
efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due 23. It is noticed that durum charging
to its (a) there is a rise in voltage
(a) compactness (6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(b) lower e.m.f. (c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used increased
(d) higher internal resistance (d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in
Ans: d colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey
metallic lead (Pb)
20. Trickle charging of a storage battery (e) all of the above
helps to Ans: e
(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
24. It is noticed that during discharging (a) rate of discharge
the following does not happen (b) temperature
(a) both anode and cathode become (c) density of electrolyte
PbS04 (d) quantity of active materials
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 (e) all above
decreases Ans: e
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy 29. When the lead-acid cell is fully
Ans: d charged, the electrolyte assumes _____
appearance
25. The ampere-hour efficiency of a (a) dull
leadacid cell is normally between (b) reddish
(a) 20 to 30% (c) bright
(b) 40 to 50% (d) milky
(c) 60 to 70% Ans: d
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d 30. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when
fully charged, is nearly
26. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead- (a) 1.4 V
acid cell varies between (b) 1 V
(a) 25 to 35% (c) 0.9 V
(b) 40 to 60% (d) 0.8 V
(c) 70 to 80% Ans: a
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: c 31. The internal resistance of an alkali
cell is nearly _____ times that of the
27. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is lead-acid cell.
measured in (a) two
(a) amperes (b) three
(b) ampere-hours (c) four
(c) watts (d) five
(d) watt-hours Ans: d
Ans: b
32. The average charging voltage for
28. The capacity of a lead-acid cell alkali cell is about
depends on (a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V 37. The internal resistance of a lead-acid
(c) 1.7 V cell is that of Edison cell
(d) 2.1 V (a) less than
Ans: c (b) more than
(c) equal to
33. On the average the ampere-hour (d) none of the above
efficiency of an Edison cell is about Ans: a
(a) 40%
(b) 60% 38. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
(c) 70% (a) NaOH
(d) 80% (b) KOH
Ans: d (c) HC1
(d) HN03
34. The active material of the positive Ans: b
plates of silver-zinc batteries is
(a) silver oxide 39. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
(b) lead oxide (a) NaOH
(c) lead (b) onlyH2S04
(d) zinc powder (c) only water
Ans: a (d) dilute H2SO4
Ans: d
35. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly
charges and discharges 40. Negative plate of an Edison cell is
(a) 500 made of
(b) 700 (a) copper
(c) 1000 (b) lead
(d) 1250 (c) iron
Ans: d (d) silver oxide
Ans: c
36. Life of the Edison cell is at least
(a) five years 41. The open circuit voltage of any
(b) seven years storage cell depends wholly upon
(c) eight years (a) its chemical constituents
(d) ten years (b) on the strength of its electrolyte
Ans: a (c) its temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d 46. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the
42. The specific gravity of electrolyte is electrolyte
measured by (b) increases specific gravity of the
(a) manometer electrolyte
(6) a mechanical gauge (c) produces excessive gassing
(c) hydrometer (d) increases the temperature
(d) psychrometer Ans: a
Ans: c
47. Internal short circuits are caused by
43. When the specific gravity of the (a) breakdown of one or more
electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced separators
to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in (b) excess accumulation of sediment at
(a) charged state the bottom of the cell
(b) discharged state (c) both (a) and (b)
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
(d) active state Ans: c
Ans: b
48. The effect of sulphation is that the
44. In ______ system the charging internal resistance
current is intermittently controlled at (a) increases
either a maximum or minimum value (b) decreases
(a) two rate charge control (c) remains same
(b) trickle charge (d) none of the above
(c) floating charge Ans: a
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a 49. Excessive formation of lead sulphate
on the surface of the plates happens
45. Over charging because of
(a) produces excessive gassing (a) allowing a battery to stand in
(b) loosens the active material discharged condition for a long time
(e) increases the temperature resulting in (b) topping up with electrolyte
buckling of plates (c) persistent undercharging
(d) all above (d) low level of electrolyte
Ans: d (e) all above
Ans: e
 54. Each cell has a vent cap
50. The substances which combine (a) to allow gases out when the cell is
together to store electrical energy on charge
during the charge are called ______ (b) to add water to the cell if needed
materials (c) to check the level of electrolyte
(a) active (d) to do all above functions
(b) passive Ans: d
(c) inert
(d) dielectric 55. Following will occur if level of
Ans: a electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
51. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as (b) life of the cell is reduced
(a) positive active material (c) open plates are converted to lead
(b) negative active material sulphate
(c) passive material (d) all above
(d) none of the above Ans: d
Ans: b
56. In constant voltage charging method,
52. The lead-acid cell should never be the charging current from discharged to
discharged beyond fully charged condition
(a) 1.8 V (a) decreases
(b) 1.9 V (b) increases
(c) 2 V (c) remains constant
(d) 2.1 V (d) none of the above
Ans: a Ans: a

53. On overcharging a battery 57. 48 ampere-hour capacity would

(a) it will bring about chemical change deliver a current of
in active materials (a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) it will increase the capacity of the (b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
battery (c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the (d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
electrolyte Ans: d
(d) none of the above will occur
Ans: d 58. In constant-current charging method,
the supply voltage from discharged to
fully charged condition (d) all above
(a) decreases Ans: d
(b) increases
(c) remains constant 63. Internal resistance of a cell is
(d) none of the above reduced by
Ans: b (a) using vent plug to permit gas formed
during discharge
59. Battery charging equipment is (b) increasing the plate area
generally installed (c) putting plates very close together
(a) in well ventilated location (d) all above methods
(b) in clean and dry place Ans: d
(c) as near as practical to the battery
being charged 64. Capacity of dry cells is
(d) in location having all above features (a) more when it is supplying current for
Ans: d intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for
60. Following will happen if the specific continuous periods
gravity of electrolyte becomes more than (c) unaffected by the type of discharge
1.23. (d) none of the above
(a) Loss of capacity Ans: a
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate 65. Battery container should be acid
(d) All above resistance, therefore it is made up of
Ans: d (a) glass
(b) plastic
61. Batteries are charged by (c) wood
(a) rectifiers (d) all above
(b) engine generator sets Ans: d
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods 66. Sulphated cells are indicated by
Ans: d (a) the loss of capacity of the cell
(6) the decrease of the specific
62. Cell short circuit results in gravity
(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte (c) the low voltage of the cell on
(b) abnormal high temperature discharge
(c) reduced gassing on charge (d) all above conditions
Ans: d
67. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific
gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will
require following ratio of acid to water to
get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
68. Local action in a battery is indicated
by
(a) excessive gassing under load
conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity
of electrolyte even when the cell is on
open circuit
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: d
69. Following will happen if battery
charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will
occur
(d) all above will occur
Ans: d
70. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between
electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
71. If a battery is wrongly connected on
charge following will happen
(a) current delivered by the battery will
be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Ans: d
72. In order that a hydrometer may float
vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
Ans: a
73. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below
1.8 V the following will happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
74. Life of the batteries is in the
following ascending order.
(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel
cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell,
Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-
acid cell Ans: a
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-
acid cell 79. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be
Ans: a _____ the level of plates
(a) below
75. Persons preparing electrolyte should (b) equal to
wear (c) above
(a) goggles or other face shield (d) none of the above
(b) rubber Ans: c
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices 80. During discharge, the active material
Ans: d of both the positive and negative plates is
changed to
76. Excessive charging a battery tends to (a) Pb
(a) produce gassing (b) Pb02
(b) increase the internal resistance of (c) PbO
the battery (d) PbS04
(c) to corrode the positive plates into Ans: d
lead peroxide thereby weakening them
physically 81 _____ of electrolyte indicates the
(d) bring about all above changes state of charge of the battery
Ans: d (a) colour
(b) mass
77. Shelf life of a small dry cell is (c) viscosity
(a) equal to that of large dry cell (d) specific gravity
(6) less than that of large dry cell Ans: d
(c) more than that of large dry cell
(d) none of the above 82. The following indicate that battery on
Ans: b charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
78. The current flow through electrolyte (b) gassing
is due to the movement of (c) specific gravity
(a) ions (d) all above
(b) holes Ans: d
(c) electrons
(d) none of the above 83. Dry cell is modification of
(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell 88. The body of Edison cell is made of
(e) Lead-acid cell (a) bakelite
(d) Edison cell (b) rubber
Ans: b (c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
84. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in Ans: c
(a) Ah
(b) Vh 89. Specific gravity of electrolyte in
(c) Wh Edison cell is
(d) kWh (a) 0.8
Ans: a (b) 0.95
(c) 1.1
85. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is (d) 1.21
(a) dilute sulphuric acid Ans: d
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
(c) NaOH 90. All the electrical connections between
(d) KOH the battery and vehicle should be by
Ans: d (a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
86. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is _____ (c) rigid cables
Edison cell. (d) flexible cables
(a) equal to Ans: d
(b) less than
(c) more than 91. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop
(d) much more than of _____ volts from fully charged state
Ans: b to fully discharged state.
(a) 1.0
87. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial (b) 1.5
battery is based on ____ hours discharge (c) 2.4
rate. (d) 2.9
(a) 8 Ans: c
(b) 12
(c) 16 92. During the idle period of the battery,
(d) 24 strong electrolyte tends to change the
Ans: a active material of the cell into
(a) Pb02 (d) all above factors
(6) PbSC-4 Ans: d
(c) PbO
(d) Pb 97. Mercury cell has which of the
Ans: b following characteristics ?
(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
93. Chargmg of sulphated battery (6) High power to weight ratio
produces ____ heat. (c) Comparatively longer shelf life under
(a) no adverse conditions of high temperature
(b) very little and humidity
(c) less (d) All of the above
(d) more Ans: d
Ans: d
98. Charging a sulphated battery at high
94. Hydrogen evolved during charging rate results in
produces explosive mixture when it is (a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
more than (b) warping of plates
(a) 2% (c) damage to separators, cell caps covers
(b) 4% and battery case due to excessive
(c) 6% temperature
(d) 8% (d) all above
Ans: d Ans: d

95. Weston standard cell at 20°C has
voltage of ____ volts.
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
96. Extent of corrosion in the
underground metal work depends upon
(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
99. Short circuiting of a cell may be
caused
(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between
positive and negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
100. In a battery cover is placed over the
element and sealed to the top of the
battery container. This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water (d) Mercury
from electrolyte Ans: c
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter
from the electrolyte 104. While preparing electrolyte for a
(c) to discharge both of the above lead-acid battery
functions (a) water is poured into acid
(d) to discharge none of the above (b) acid is poured into water
functions (c) anyone of the two can be added to
Ans: c other chemical
Ans: b
101. For a cell to work, which of the
following condition(s) become necessary ? 105. Which of the following battery is
(a) Two electrodes of different meta's used for air-craft ?
should be inserted in the electrolyte, not (a) Lead-acid battery
touching each other (b) Nickel-iron battery
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react (c) Dry cell battery
with one of the electrodes (d) Silver oxide battery
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be Ans: b
conducting
(d) All above three conditions are 106. Which of the following cell has a.
necessary reversible chemical reaction ?
Ans: d (a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
102. Which of the following primary cells (c) Carbon-zinc
has the lowest voltage ? (d) Silver-oxide
(a) Lithium Ans: a
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury 107. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(d) Carbon-zinc (a) A storage cell has a reversible
Ans: c chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
103. Which of the following primary cells (c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf
has the highest voltage ? life
(a) Manganese-alkaline (d) A primary cell has an irreversible
(6) Carbon-zinc chemical reaction
(c) Lithium Ans: c
 (b) prevent short-circuiting
108. Which of the following has lower sp. (c) reduce path resistance
gravity V (d) prevent corrosion
(a) Dilute H2S04 Ans: d
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water 113. When the load resistance equals the
(d) Any of the above generator resistance which of the
Ans: c following will be maximum ?
(a) Current
109. Under normal charging rate, the (b) Efficiency of the circuit
charging current should be (c) Power in the load resistance
(a) 10% of capacity (d) Voltage across the load resistance
(b) 20% of capacity Ans: c
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity 114. The common impurity in the
Ans: a electrolyte of lead-acid battery is
(a) chlorine
110. When two batteries are connected in (b) dust particles
parallel, it should be ensured that (c) lead crystals
(a) they have same e.m.f. (d) iron
(b) they have same make Ans: d
(c) they have same ampere-hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance 115. In a lead-acid battery the energy is
Ans: a stored in the form of
(a) charged ions
111. A typical output of a solar cell is (b) chemical energy
(a) 0.1V (c) electrostatic energy
(b) 0.26 V (d) electromagnetic energy
(c) 1.1 V Ans: b
(d) 2 V
Ans: b 116. Which among the following
constitutes the major load for an
112. Petroleum jelly is applied to the automobile battery ?
electrical connections to the lead-acid (a) Brake light
battery (b) Self starter
(a) prevent local heating (c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs (d) high internal resistance
Ans: b Ans: c

117. Which of the following factors 120. Satellite power requirement is

adversely affects the capacity of the provided through
leadacid battery ? (a) solar cells
(a) Temperature of surroundings (b) dry cells
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte (c) nickel-cadmium cells
(c) Rate of discharge (d) lead-acid batteries
(d) All of the above Ans: a
Ans: d

118. Cells are connected in parallel to

(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance
Ans: b

119. A constant-voltage generator has

(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance