Académique Documents
Professionnel Documents
Culture Documents
Q 18. A Corridor above/below ground level to connect aircraft stands to the passenger building is
a) Pier b) Ramp c) Rampage area d) Airside waiting area
Q 19. The large no. Of aircraft hijacking took place in the year………..at……………?
a) 1969, Canada b) 1973, London c) 1931, Lobonan d) 1969, Cuba
Q20. The area between any pax inspection or screening control point and aircraft in which access is
controlled
a) Airside b) Land side c) Security hold area d) Sterile area
Q33. The section of aircraft act 1934 related to Empowers the COSCA to issue direction for security
of aircraft operation.
a) Section 5 b) Section 5A c) Section 8 d) None of the above
Q34. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Security check of persons boarding aircraft.
a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 24 d) None of the above
Q35. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Entry into public aerodromes
a) Rule 8 b) Rule 90 c) Rule 24 A d) None of the above
Q36. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Duties of pilot in command
a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 141 d) None of the above
Q46. Cancellation, suspension or endorsement of licences and certificates of aircraft comes under
which aircraft Rule.
a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q47. Prohibition of intoxicated persons entering aircraft comes under which rule
a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q48.Carriage of persons suffering from mental disorders comes under which rule
a) 24A b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q53. Which of the following Lights used for safe landing of the aircraft :
a) PAPI b) PAPA AGNIS c) PAPPI d) None of these
Q56. A status of alert, put in place by _________________to activate an intervention plan intended
to counter the possible consequences arising from a communicated threat, anonymous
or otherwise, or arising from the discovery of a suspect device or other suspect item on an aircraft,
at an airport or in any civil aviation facilities.
a) Competent authorities b) Regulated Authority
c) Appropriate Authority d) BCAS
Q60 Which Committee recommended for dummy checks and exempted category list
a) Ramamitran committee b) B N Kirpal committee
c) Pandey committee d) None of these
Q61. Annex -17 came into existence on which of the following dates
a) 22.03.1974 b) 22.03.1975 c) 03.03.1974 d) None of these
Q63. Which of the following are legal back up for Civil Aviation in India
a) Tokyo Convention Act 1975
b) Anti – Hijacking Act 1982 as amended in 1994
c) Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation Act 1982 as amended in 1994
d) All the above
Q65. Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP
a) CASO b) ICAO c) COSCA d) IATA
Q66. Which Convention included offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft
a) Tokyo Convention b) The Hague Convention
c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q68. Which convention has reference to Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation
a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention
c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q71. What is the need of Marking of Plastic Explosives by every contracting state of ICAO
a) For the Purpose of Detection b) For the Purpose of Marketing
c) For the Purpose of Supplying d) For purpose of knowing the make of the explosive.
Q72. Which Convention for the first time defined the act of unlawful seizure of aircraft as an
Offence.
a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention
c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q73. Which Convention mentioned that the Pilot is Law Enforcement Officer in the Flight
a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention
c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q75. In which section of Aircraft Act 1934, COSCA has been empowered to Issue Directions on Civil
Aviation security matters in India
a)Section 5 A of Aircraft Act 1934 b)Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934
c)Section 9 A of Aircraft Act 1934 d) Section 8 A of Aircraft Act 1934
Q81. Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rule 1937.
a) Rule 24 A b) Rule 24 c) Rule 24 B d) Rule 24 C
Q84. Prohibition on slaughtering of animals in the vicinity of Airport is mentioned in which Rule
of Aircraft Rules 1937
a) Rule 156 b) Rule 77 D c) Rule 91 d) Rule 155 A
Q85. Inspection of Aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937
a) Rule 156 b) Rule 161 c) Rule 78 A d) Rule 135 A
Q93. Safety & security of unclaimed baggage is described in which security of Aircraft Act 1934.
a) Sec – 05 b) Sec -6 c) Sec -8(C) d) Sec -9
Q95. In what quantity ammunition with pistol is permitted in hand baggage SPG personnel.
c) 50 rounds b) 60 rounds c) 100 rounds d) 120 rounds
Q105. Combination of measures, human and material resources, intended to safeguard civil aviation
against acts of unlawful interference is
(a) Security (b) Safety (c) Screening (d) Profiling
Q106. Categorizing pax into threatening & non-threatening category by way of systematic
observation is
(a) Screening (b) Security (c) Profiling (d) Safety
Q107. When a pax checks-in and collects the boarding pass but does not board the aircraft is
(a) Gate no show pax (b) Off-loaded pax
(c) Transit pax (d) Transfer pax
Q108. Hijacking is –
(a) Hostage taking on aircraft (b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight
(c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground (d) Hostage taking at airport
Q116. How many Standard and Recommended Practices are in Annexure – 17, at present ?
a) 95 Standard and 25 Recommended Practices
b) 90 Standard and 35 Recommended Practices.
c) 66 Standard and 18 Recommended Practices
d) 85 Standard and 15 Recommended Practices
Q117. Head Quarters of ICAO is located at
a) Geneva, Switzerland b) New Delhi, India
c) Montreal, Canada d) Chicago, USA
Q118. The Anti Hijacking Act came into existence in the year?
a)1982 b)1987 c) 1944 d)1999
Q119. Which Section of Aircraft Act 1934 empowers Central Government to make Rules under this
Act.
a) Section 5 b)Section 5 A c)Section 10 d)Section 18
Q120. Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property
or the ________________________and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the
Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions
a) Passengers b) Aircraft c) Airport d) Environment
Q121. Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft is referred in which Rule
of Aircraft Rules 1937
a)Rule 24 C b)Rule 24 A c)Rule 24 B d)Rule 24
Q123. According to which convention the pilot has been given power of law enforcement officer ?
a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Hauge convention 1970
c) Tokyo convention 1963 d) a & c
Q125. What is the colour of the sticker for cooling off cargo?
a) Red b) Orange c) Purple d) green
Q126. What is the colour of the sticker for X-BIS screening of cargo?
a) Red b) Orange c) Purple d) green
Q135. The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline
a) CISF b) immigration c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI
Q151. Which colour ADP is required to drive the vehicle in all area?
a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) None of these
Q154. While receiving bomb threat call what will be the first action?
a) Asking technical question b) intimating to supervisor
c) Intimating to APD d) intimating to CASO
Q155. Check-in passenger not reported to board means that person is?
A) Cancelled passenger b) Deportee
C) Gate no show d) Transit passenger
Q160. Which colour pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports?
a) orange & orange C b) purple c) green d) blue
Q163. The baggage not carried on the same aircraft the pax travels is called
a) Unclaimed baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Transfer baggage d) Unaccompanied baggage
Q168. How many gates are required for better access control?
a) As less as possible b) More gates are required
c) 10 d) 8
Q180. Airline employees are need not to show their ID card at access control points:
a) whenever they are in uniform B) whenever they are on duty
c) not ever D) on emergency
Q181. Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is
a) one related to ICAO and another is with MCA
b)Both are same
c)One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety
d)Totally different
Q182. No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security
programme is approved by
a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCAQ
183. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices
b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without
passing through security controls.
c) Both the above
d) None of above
Q188. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for _________services such as Agriculture,
construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and escue, and aerial
advertisement
(a) mentioned (b) nominated (c) Specialised (d) concerned
Q189. A parked aircraft which is under _________ sufficient to detect unauthorized access
a) observation b) surveillance c) recommendation d) notice
Q190. A communicated threat, _________or otherwise, which suggests, or infers, whether true or
false that the Safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, or any airport or civil aviation facility or
any person may be in danger from an explosive or other item or device.
a) conveyed b) informed c) intimated d) anonymous
Q191. Food, beverages, other dry stores and associated ___________ used on board an aircraft.
a) instruments b) personnel c) equipments d) items
Q192. The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for _____________ on a particular flight.
a) loading b) acceptance c) boarding d) entry
Q193. A passenger who fails to respect the rules of conduct at an airport or on board an
aircraftor to follow the ___________ of the airport staff or crew members and therebydisturbs the
good order and discipline at an airport or on board the aircraft. Personal property of passengers or
crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator is called
(a) Instructions (b) guidelines (c) issuance (d) statements
Q196. Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft is that of the following
a) airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) airport security screening staff
c) trained airline security and engineering staff. d) Trained Crew members
Q199. Baggage of passengers______ to transfer from the aircraft of one operator to the aircraft of
another operator in the course of the passenger’s journey.
a) required b) subject c) mentioned d)permitted
Q204. Who has Authority to access departure & arrival Hall of the terminal by ID card issued by
Parliament secretariat
a) Employees of the parliament b) Honourable Member of parliament
c) Security staff of the parliament d) Embassy personnel
Q205. Temporary pass (paper pass) without photograph issued for the period of
a) Not more than a month b) For one day
c) Not more than three days d) For three Month
Q210. As per latest circular of BCAS contractors’ labour can have access at airport with the Authority
of
a) Metal Token only b) Bar coded Labour photo pass.
c) Entry ticket only. D) Paper pass only
Q211. Vehicle permits for operational/emergency/Maintenance purposes is normally issued by
a) DGCA b) BCAS
c) Airport operator d) None of these
Q215. Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is
a)one related to ICAO and another is with MCA
b)Both are same
c)One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety
d) None of the above
Q216. As per the national civil aviation policy the functions of all civil airports ATC’s under
the jurisdiction of
a) BCAS b) Airline operator
c) Airport authority of India d) Indian Air force
Q217. No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security
programme is approved by
a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCAQ
Q219. AEP’s for Airport employees are issued for the purposes of
a) whenever they wants to visit b) for official duty
c) none of above d) Both a & b
Q221. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices
b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without
passing through security controls.
c) Both the above
d) None of the above
Q225. Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the
operator
a) Baggage b) Airside c) Apron d) taxiway
230. All the ground space and facilities provided for aircraft maintenance is known as:
a) AMA (Aircraft Maintenance Area) b) Aircraft Stand
c) Both a & b d) None of these
Q232. Baggage which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same aircraft
with the person to whom it belongs.
a) Transfer baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Unclaimed baggage d) unaccompanied baggage
Q240. Which of the following is an appropriate answer for access control points
a) Manned during day light time only b) Manned only at night
b) Manned all the time d) None of these
Q241. For operational reasons who can move from landside to airside without security check
a) APD b) COSCA c) Local Police d) None of these
Q242. What are the points which should be maintained in access control point log
a) Status of the equipment b) Records of the incident
c) Both a and b d) Contact number of other agencies
Q243. An aircraft approaching the airport is or is suspected to in such trouble that there is danger of
an accident is known as
a) Aircraft accident b) Full emergency
c) Local stand by d) VVIP stand by
Q244. A white colour AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport
a) Only at SHA b) Only in operational area
c) All area of a particular airport d) None of these
Q245. Blue colour AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport
a) In operational area only b) All area of mentioned airport except SHA
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q247. What are the important points that need to be checked when a catering hi-lift vehicle is
entering airside
a) Seals and tags should be intact b) Escorted by airline security
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q248. The main function of localizer is
a)To give mid path of the runway to the aircraft landing
b)To give guidelines to the pilot
c)Both a and b
d)None of these
Q252. What is the punishment for hijacking as per the Anti hijacking Act 1982
a) Life imprisonment and fine b) Death sentence
c) Only fine d) Both a and b
Q254. Who is responsible to check whether checklist of aeroplane search procedure is followed
a) Airport operator b) Security agency
c) Airline operator d) All the above
Q255. All civil aviation operations other than scheduled air services and non-scheduled air transport
is known as
a) Military aviation b) General aviation
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q258. Activity where systematic observation is done for categorization of passenger into threatening
and non-threatening category is
a) Personating b) Profiling c) Counselling d) None of these
Q259. Measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against act of unlawful
interference is
a) Security b) Security Audit
c) Safety Control procedures d) Safety Management system
Q265. What are the additional security measures adopted by airline security after registered
baggage has been X-Ray screened:
a) Sealing b) Safeguarding
c) Escorting up to Aircraft d) All the above
Q267. BCAS is a
a) Regulatory authority for Security b) Competent authority of safety
c) Administrative authority d) None of these
Q275. When moving airside in a vehicle, it is necessary to use the hazards warning lights
a) Only at poor visibility b) When crossing runway
c) Only at night d) At all the times
Q276. Name the documents on basis of which a person is allowed to access in terminal Building
a) PIC b) Visitor ticket c) Valid travel documents d) All of the above.
Q284. It is necessary to check Pass of all the staff entering terminal building
a)Sometime b)All the time c)When not on duty d)None of these
Q285. A person has to go to security hold area, which type of pass is permitted
a) Navy blue b)Purple c)Brown d)white
Q293. Hijacking is –
(a) Hostage taking on aircraft (b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight
(c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground (d) Hostage taking at airport
Q309. Which of the following AVSEC function is not performed by Airlines security
a) Catering security b)Escorting of security cleared cargo baggage
c) Pre-embarkation security check d)Screening of hold baggage
Q325. “Principles which apply to equipment design, certification, training and operations and which
seek optimum interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration
to human performance” are called
a) Human Factor Principles b) Equipments Design Principles
c) Security Training Principles d) Human Performance principles
Q345. The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline
a) CISF b) immigration c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI
Q353. What will be the course of action when you get an unattended baggage?
a) Deposit it to APM b) don't touch
c) Lift and Screen it d) Open and look inside for dangerous articles
Q355. What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening?
a) Ask the passenger, why he carrying that
b) Allow passenger to board
c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor
d) Remove the article and leave the passenger
Q366. A passenger can carry any liquid item not more than
a) 10 Mltrs b) 100 Mltrs
c) 1000 Mltrs d) 10000 mltrs
Q385. Articles which can be used to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize the target but it is not
primarily design to do so, known as:
a) Weapon b) Dangerous articles
c) Dangerous substances d) None of these
Q386 An article looking like a knife but it is made of wood, what will be the course of action when
you detect such item:
a) Will be removed b) Local police should be informed
c) Supervisor should be informed d) Both a & c
Q392. Which among the following is the principle on which the explosive detectors function
a) Specificity b) Sensitivity c) Selectivity d) All the above
Q394. How much time EVD will take for analysis of a sample
a) 3 sec b) 2 sec c) 2.5 sec d) 5 sec
Q395. To detect the explosive through ETD, the sample collection will be made from
a) Surface wipe for trace particle b) Box of explosives
c) A piece of explosive d) None of the above
Q397. A pax is trying to carry weapons in hand baggage by making it in small parts-the method is
known as
a) Disguised b) Dismantled c) Camouflaged d) improvised
Q408. An item is controlled by clapping it comes under which kind of the mechanism
a) Remote control c) Delay Mechanism
b) Ambient condition d) Anti handling
Q427. Chamber which creates equal pressure and real journey situation of the flight?
a) Personnel chamber b) Sterile chamber
c) Simulation chamber d) a & b
Q449. Enumerate the principles on which the protection system at airports is based
a) Controlling movement of people and vehicles
b) Dividing airport into non-restricted and restricted areas
c) Protecting airport with physical barriers
d) All the above
Q451. Which one of the following is one of the objective of security guarding at the airports
a) Protect vulnerable areas/vital airport facilities
b) Security of Registered Baggage
c) Second ladder point checks
d) Pre-flight, Anti – sabotage check of the aircraft
Q452. What security measures must be taken for guarding unattended aircraft in flight
a) Aircraft parked in a well – lit area
b) All external doors are locked
c) Stairs and steps in the vicinity of aircraft are moved away and immobilized
d) All the above
Q453. To provide extra protection to a building, doors have to be locked. Name two other parts of a
building above ground that need to be locked or fixed in a closed position
a) Windows b) Roof sky lights
c) Ventilation openings d) All of the above
Q456. Which among the following procedures is/are for parked aircraft for normal conditions
a) Security person guarding the aircraft ensure only authorized people, are allowed onboard
b) Intercept unauthorized people attempting to board aircraft or in the vicinity
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Q457. The operation and protection of an aircraft is generally accepted responsibility to be which of
the following agencies?
a) The airline operating the aircraft b) The airport security unit
c) The local police and military unit d) None of the above
Q458. Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft entrusted to which of the following
agencies ?
a) Airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) Airport security screening staff
c) Trained airline security and engineering staff d) All the above
Q459. Which among the following precautions should be taken by airline personnel to protect
parked and unattended aircraft
a) Ensure that aircraft are parked in a well lit area of the airport
b) Stairs and loading bridges are removed
c) All external doors are locked
d) All the above
Q460. Which among the following tasks a security guard should undertake, when guarding an
aircraft?
A) Ensure means of access removed
b) Challenge unauthorized persons approaching the aircraft
c) Conduct periodical random visual checks of the aircraft
d) All the above
Q461. Which among the exterior locations of an aircraft that airport security personnel should
visually examine when they are guarding an aircraft
a) Under carriage wells and wheel assembly b) Fuel intake panels
c) Engine access panels d) All the above
Q463. While guarding a parked aircraft if unauthorized access is detected, what course of action
should be done
a) Do not allow the person enter into the aircraft
b) Immediately notify supervisor
c) Notify airline representative
d) All the above
Q473. BCAS is a
a) Regulatory authority for Security b) Competent authority of safety
c) Administrative authority d) None of these
Q476. Items which are primarily designed to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize are –
a)Dangerous substances c) Dangerous article
b)Weapon d) explosive
Q480. Which one of the following poses basic difficulty in protecting an airport
a).Large size of the airport and boundary
b).Large number of workers/agencies at an airport
c).24 hour operations
d).All the above
Q486. What are the measures taken to secure the airport premises
a) Round the clock patrolling c) Effective access control
b) Effective lighting d) All the above
Q503. Which of the following committee is not empowered to deal with hijacking situation
a) AC b) CC c) COSAH d) BTAC
Q505. DG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
a) COSAH b) CMG c) CC d) None of these
Q50 ADG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
a) COSAH b) CMG c) CC d) None of these
Q508. The executive authority responsible for dealing with the contingency of hijacking
a) CC b) CCS c) AC d) BTAC
Q509. According to AVSEC Order 9/2001 which of the following procedures can be taken to
immobilize the aircraft
a) Positioning vehicles/fire tenders on the run way
b) Deflating of tires by personnel coming from the rear end
c) Putting off the lights of the runway/taxi way during night
d) All the above
Q511. A warning that can be regulated to one or more targets but there is doubt about its credibility
or about the effectiveness of existing counter measures
a) Specific call c) Hoax Caller
b) Non specific call d) None of the above
Q512. What actions should be taken by a recipient of the Bomb Threat Call?
a) Interrupt in between the communication when the caller is saying something
b) Listen carefully and note down the important information
c) Do gossip with him and kill time, so that he is engaged for more time
d) None of these
Q513. Which of the following is not an essential component of BTAC at domestic airports
a) APD b) CASO c) Customs and Immigration d) All the above
Q514. Which of the following is not a fact relating to control time in case of fire emergency of the
aircraft.
a) Time between initial attack on fire and reduce the intensity of fire below 90%
b) This time should not exceed more than one minute in the practical critical area
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Q515. Which one is not the course of action during forcible seizure of aircraft on ground
a) Aircraft to be cordoned b) Negotiation team should be formed
c) All action to be under one commander d) No need to form negotiation team
Q518. Who circulates the draft Bomb Threat Contingency Plan on the basis of which each airport
prepares its own Contingency Plan
a) AAI b) ASG c) BCAS d) None of these
Q519. In case of “Specific” Bomb Threat Call what will be the course of action
a) The aircraft to be moved to IPB
b) ASG will be cordoning the area
c) All registered baggage will be off loaded and kept 100 meter away from aircraft
d) All the above
Q521 What are the dimensions of hand baggage allowed at Srinagar Airport
a) 115 cms b) 100 cms c) Both a and b d) No hand baggage
Q522. Sky Marshals can carry arms and ammunition in the Aircraft, concealed on their person, only
by authorization of
a)COSCA b) DG/CISF c)DG/NSG d)DGCA
Q532. The chairman of aerodrome committee at the airports located in the state capitals
a) Commissioner of police/DGP c) APD
c) Home secretary of state d) CASO
Q537. What are the committees to deal unlawful interference with civil aviation
c)AC c) COSAH d)CC d) All the above
Q538. Who will train/designate and certify trainers and examiners authorized to conduct security
training in India
a) BCAS c) COSCA b) DGCA d) CASO
Q539. Which one of the following indicates the role of BCAS in Civil Aviation Security?
A) Advice Government of India on Civil Aviation Security matters
b) To monitor implementation of Civil Aviation Security policy/programme
c)To impart training to all agencies of Civil Aviation
d)All the above
Q540. As per ICAO guidelines what is the recommended height of the perimeter wall
a) 8 feet with 1 and half feet over hang b) 10 feet with 2 feet over hang
c) 9 feet with 3 feet over hang d) 12 feet with 2 and half feet over hang
Q541. In case of specific bomb threat calls who will search the aircraft along with airline engineers
and airline security:
a)ASG Personnel c) BCAS b)BDDS d) All of the above
Q542. The chairperson of group “A” and group “B” Central Committee is
a) DGCA c) APD b )COSCA d) All the above
Q543. What is the response time of fire fighting services in case of any fire emergency of the aircraft
a) 2-3 minutes c) Can take their own time
b)10 minutes d) None of the above
Q544. Accident which has occurred on or in the vicinity of the airport is known as
a) Aircraft accident c) Full emergency
b) Airport accident d) None of these
Q549. The chairman of Aerodrome Committee at airports located in the district headquarters
a)CP/DM/dc b) APD
c) SP/DCP d) CASO
Q553. Which one is not an immediate action when you receive a Bomb Threat Call
a) Notify supervisor b) Questioning
c) Filling appendix “A” d) None of these
Q556. Which action is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as specific involving an aircraft
a)Fresh boarding cards to be issued
b)The aircraft is shifted to the isolation bay
c)Check-in and boarding process is to be stopped
d)The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay
Q557. Which actions is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as non-specific involving an
aircraft
a) The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay
b) Boarded pax to be off-loaded and brought back to the check-in counter.
c) Search of the aircraft to be done by airlines security & Airline engineers
d)Fresh boarding cards to be issued
Q562. Airport staff members who can show that they need to pass the screening point in
performance of their duties:
a) Need not submit to a physical search.
b) Need not pass through the walkthrough metal detector.
c) Have to submit to the same procedure as passengers.
d) Not required
Q 571. Which one of the following passenger screening concepts / plans is implemented in India
a) Boarding Gate Plan b) Hold Area Plan
c) Concourse Plan d) Both b & c
Q572. Which one of the following is not an advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) More time available
b) To be staffed only during screening
c) Large number of screening staff/ equipments required
d) None of the above
Q573. Which one of the following is the advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) To be staffed only during screening b) More time available
c) Less pressure to examine passenger d) All of the above
Q575. What are the different methods of screening of passenger in Sterile Hold Area
a) Physical search of passenger b)X-Ray examination of baggage
c) Physical search of baggage d)All the above
Q576. A sterile holding area located at a boarding gate must be searched at the following times
a) At least 60 minutes before the passengers board the aircraft
b) At the time the passengers start to board the aircraft
c) Immediately before passengers are screened and allowed into the holding area
D) All the above
Q577. The search of a holding area is conducted for the following reasons
a) In response to an airport bomb threat
b) As a routine precaution to detect prohibited items
c) Whenever a high level of threat exists
d) None of the above
Q578. One of the recommended levels of search to be used for conducting a search of a holding area
is as follows
a) Search from floor to waist level b) Search from floor to head level
c) Search from waist to ceiling level d) Search from floor to ceiling level
Q579 Which among the following are the don’ts for noticing any suspicious device at terminal
building
a) Don’t handle it b) Don’t touch it
c) Don’t attempt to open the item d) All the above
Q583. The security plan in which screening plan needs to be staffed only during screening is
a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse area plan
c) Holding area plan d) None of the above
Q586. What action to be taken on finding suspicious items during of search of a building
a) Not to touch b) Marking and informing to supervisor.
c) Both (a) & (b) above. d) Try to open & bring to control room
Q594. Screener should not monitor the screen at a stretch more than
a) 18min b) 30 min c) 20 min d) 40 min
Q600. At rush hour what will be the course of action when X-BIS does not pass its one of CTP tests?
a) Stop the machine b) Avoid it & work
c) stop the machine & notify supervisor d) none of these
Q607. In Thin metal imaging test the thickness of steel should be visible
a) .05mm b) .1mm c) 1 mm d) .01mm
Q612. What are the items which create difficulties during screening
a) Children toys b) Wrapped gifts
c) Urns of human remains d) All of the above
Q624. In single wire resolution test which SWG wire should be seen on the Perspex sheet
a) 26 SWG b) 30 SWG c) 40 SWG d) 42 SWG
Q625. In useful penetration test which SWG wire should be seen on the second step wedge
of aluminium
a) 26 SWG b) 30 SWG c) 40 SWG d) 42 SWG
Q627. Which strip should be seen beneath of 26 mm steel in simple penetration test
a) Pb b) Tn c) Fe d) mg
Q628. In Spatial resolution test the 8 horizontal and 8 vertical gratings should be seen on which plate
a) copper b) Iron c) Nickel d) None of the above
Q635. Detection of all kinds of industrial, military and homemade explosives is a quality, which
comes under which of the following
a) One of the requirements of X-BIS b) One of the properties of X-BIS
c) One of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS d) None of the above
Q639. Through the use of which one of the following, explosives in the X-Ray baggage inspection
System are detected
a) Camera and Mirror System b) Multi Energy System
c) Single Energy System d) Trace Detector system
Q640. As per minimum technical specifications prescribed by BCAS for X-Ray machine, the speed of
conveyor belt should be?
a) 0.18 to 0.30 mtrs/sec b) 0.18 to 0.30 cm/sec
c) 0.20 to 0.35 mtrs/sec d) 0.15 to 0.25 mtrs/hr
Q642. In X-Ray Baggage Inspection System, screened item will be identified with
a) The colour and shape of the image b) The photo of the item
c) Colour of the item d) After the physical examination
Q643. If a bag is categorized as doubtful after X-Ray screening, what does it signify?
a) Image is not clear and needs to be physically checked b) The bag is clear
c) The bag has a confirmed threat object d) None of the above
Q644. Name of the test of CTP, in which a lead strip placed between a 26 mm steel is visible
a) Single wire resolution b) Simple penetration
c) Useful penetration d) Spatial resolution
Q645. Colour of the images displayed in X-Ray machine, depends upon the
a) Atomic number of the item b) Density of the item
c) Colour of the item d) Shape of the item
Q652. Which of the following items may present difficulty during screening
a) Books b) Clothes in bag c) Religious objects d) Water in bag
Q672. Which among the following items are banned for carriage in passenger- cabin?
a) Mace c) Marshal art device b) Replica of weapon d) All the above
Q680. Which among the following may present difficulty to an X-Ray screener while screening
a) Urns containing human remains c) Sword
b) Hockey stick d) Cricket bat
Q693. When installing a DFMD, what points must be borne in mind so as to have optimum efficiency
a) At least 10cms away from fixed metallic objects
b) At least 0.5 m to 2 m away from moving metallic objects
c) At least 0.5 m to 4 m from source of electrical interference
d) All the above
Q701. When installing a DFMD the distance between two side by side DFMD should be
a) 30 cms c) 35 cms b) 90 cms d) 100 cms
Q706. The HHMD should be kept ……. Away from Pax body while carrying out frisking
a) 3.5 cms b) 4 cms c) 2.5 cms d) 5 cms
Q708. What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) Union Council of ministers b) Sky Marshals
c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees d) PSOS of President
Q710. What is the prescribed speed limit of vehicle in Tarmac area(near the aircraft)
(a)30 km/hr (b)20 km/hr (c)15 km/hr (d)5 km/hr
Q711. Arms & ammunition of Advance Liaison Team of SPG personnel is permitted into aircraft
(a)In hand baggage (b)In registered baggage
(c)In both (a) & (b) (d)None of the above
Q721. According to threat perception of airports in India, the categories of airport are ?
a) Normal b) Sensitive
c) Hyper Sensitive d) All the above
Q722. What are the points to be kept in mind while physical search of baggage of a passenger
a) Always remember that searching is with consent of passenger
b) Be courteous and tactful but also cautious
c) Thank the passenger for their cooperation
d) All of the above
Q723. Under what circumstances the physical inspection of a baggage is carried out
a) When X- Ray examination has not been able to accurately determine the contents
of baggage
b) When higher level of threat exists either locally or internationally
c) In the event of the breakdown of X-Ray equipment
d) All the above
Q724. At screening points how radios and electrical items will be checked
a) Ask passengers to operate the item
b) Ask passengers to open the battery compartment
c) Check tightness of seal to see if any screws are removed or paint chipped off
d) All the above
Q725. Which among the following is recommended technique for physically searching a baggage
a) If possible, search the clothing without removing the items from the bag
b) If baggage has more than one compartment, search each compartment completely before
moving on to the next one.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Q726. Which among the following is not a duty of the member of a screening team
a) Physically inspect items requiring attention
b) Supervise a busy screening point
c) Issuing the boarding card
d) None of the above
Q727. Before commencing search of pax baggage
(a)His/her consent to be taken
(b)No need to take consent as it is duty of security staff to check the bag
(c)Consent can be obtained depending upon the status of pax
(d)Consent should be taken only when the pax in female
Q738. Which among the following category of people, are permitted along with vehicles up to the
tarmac at civil airports in the country
a) Protocol grounds b) Medical grounds
c) Security grounds d) All the above
Q739. What are the categories of the persons authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) PSOS of President b) PSOS of Vice President
c) Sky Marshals on duty d) All the above
Q740. What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) Union Council of ministers b) Sky Marshals
c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees d) PSOS of president
Q741. What are the additional security measures necessary to protect registered baggage after it
has been screened
a) Sealed b) Safeguarded c) Escorted d) All the above
Q744. While escorting the consignments the involving agency should ensure that
a) The movement is planned in advance
b) The consignment and escort proceed along a pre-determined route
c) The route is varied from consignment to consignment
d) All the above
Q749. Write down of person who is having access upto aircraft in their own vehicle
a) All pax c) M. P
b) President of India d) Cabinet minister of state
Q751. For a prisoner to be carried on board aircraft, prior permission if required from
a) ASG c) DGCA b) BCAS d) Concerned airlines
Q752. MLA of state legislature have free access upto which area of airport
a) Aircraft c) All area
b) Upto T.B. d) Not permitted in the airport without valid AEP
Q754. Employees of aircraft operator is not required to check the following documents in respect
carriage of dead
a)Body onboard an aircraft is
b)Embalming certificate by hospital
c)Death certificate from competent Medical authority
d) All the belongings of the deceased
Q756. Following category of people is not authorize to carry arms ammunition in hold baggage
a) On duty police personnel c) Passenger with arms license
b) Authorized sports personnel d) On duty Airline security
Q761. A pax is permitted for carry more the prescribed number of ammunition in the hold baggage
with the permission
a) Airline operator c) DGCA b)COSCA d) CASO
Q763. Who among the following is not exempted for pre-embarkation security checks
a) Member of parliament c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b) President of India d) Cabinet ministers
Q764. A passenger is found to be carrying an unsealed bottle of gin. What would be your action?
a) Take no special action
b) Notify the supervisor if the liquid in the bottle is dangerous
c) Unscrew the container and smell the contents
d) None of the above
Q765. Which among the following items are permitted with hand baggage to carry on board on
aircraft
a) A gift item purchased at duty free shops b) Lady’s hand bag
c) Umbrella and walking stick d) All the above.
Q766. What is the size of Kirpan allowed to be carried by Sikh domestic passengers in Aircrafts
flying in domestic sector?
a) A length of max 9 inches with the blades not exceeding 6 inches
b) A length of max 6 inches with the blades not exceeding 3 inches
c) A length of max 9 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm
d) A length of max 6 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm
Q767. What type of typical response action is required if a prohibited item is detected while
screening a baggage through X-BIS
a) Remain calm and polite – do not alarm passenger
b) Notify supervisor immediately by pr arrange signal
c) Notify police if silent alarm system exists
d) All the above
Q768. The detection of any suspicious item located during a search of the holding area must result
in:
a) Marking the area of location
b) Immediately bringing it to the notice of the supervisory officer
c) Clearing the immediate area of vicinity
d) All the above
Q769. The primary responsibility for movement of patient on a wheel chair is with
a)ASG b)Air Operator
c)Airport Operator d)Relatives or Dependents of the pax
Q772. After IC 814 incident what action were taken by the Govt. of India
a) Deployment of Sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF as ASG at selected Airports
c) Secondary Ladder Point Checking d) All the above
Q773. Course of action to be taken when unauthorized person is detected near an aircraft is to
a) Ask the identity of the person b) Ask the reason for being near the aircraft
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q774. Security control of carriage of dead bodies into aircraft is the reasonability of
a) ASG c) Airport Operator b)Airline Security d) BCAS
Q776. The security measure for perishable cargo and life saving drugs are done by
a) X-ray examination and physical search b) Cooling off methods
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above.
Q781. Who amongst the following can go up to the aircraft in their own vehicle but without escort
a) Prime Minister c) SPG Protectees
b)President d) Chief justice of India
Q785 While screening through X-BIS, items that needs special attention should be paid to
a) Wrapped gifts and presents b) Bottles containing liquids
c) Cameras, radios and electrical items d) All the above
Q 18. A Corridor above/below ground level to connect aircraft stands to the passenger building is
a) Pier b) Ramp c) Rampage area d) Airside waiting area
Q 19. The large no. Of aircraft hijacking took place in the year………..at……………?
a) 1969, Canada b) 1973, London c) 1931, Lobonan d) 1969, Cuba
Q20. The area between any pax inspection or screening control point and aircraft in which access is
controlled
a) Airside b) Land side c) Security hold area d) Sterile area
Q33. The section of aircraft act 1934 related to Empowers the COSCA to issue direction for security
of aircraft operation.
a) Section 5 b) Section 5A c) Section 8 d) None of the above
Q34. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Security check of persons boarding aircraft.
a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 24 d) None of the above
Q35. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Entry into public aerodromes
a) Rule 8 b) Rule 90 c) Rule 24 A d) None of the above
Q36. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Duties of pilot in command
a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 141 d) None of the above
Q46. Cancellation, suspension or endorsement of licences and certificates of aircraft comes under
which aircraft Rule.
a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q47. Prohibition of intoxicated persons entering aircraft comes under which rule
a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q48.Carriage of persons suffering from mental disorders comes under which rule
a) 24A b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q53. Which of the following Lights used for safe landing of the aircraft :
a) PAPI b) PAPA AGNIS c) PAPPI d) None of these
Q56. A status of alert, put in place by _________________to activate an intervention plan intended
to counter the possible consequences arising from a communicated threat, anonymous
or otherwise, or arising from the discovery of a suspect device or other suspect item on an aircraft,
at an airport or in any civil aviation facilities.
a) Competent authorities b) Regulated Authority
c) Appropriate Authority d) BCAS
Q60 Which Committee recommended for dummy checks and exempted category list
a) Ramamitran committee b) B N Kirpal committee
c) Pandey committee d) None of these
Q61. Annex -17 came into existence on which of the following dates
a) 22.03.1974 b) 22.03.1975 c) 03.03.1974 d) None of these
Q63. Which of the following are legal back up for Civil Aviation in India
a) Tokyo Convention Act 1975
b) Anti – Hijacking Act 1982 as amended in 1994
c) Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation Act 1982 as amended in 1994
d) All the above
Q65. Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP
a) CASO b) ICAO c) COSCA d) IATA
Q66. Which Convention included offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft
a) Tokyo Convention b) The Hague Convention
c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q68. Which convention has reference to Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation
a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention
c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q71. What is the need of Marking of Plastic Explosives by every contracting state of ICAO
a) For the Purpose of Detection b) For the Purpose of Marketing
c) For the Purpose of Supplying d) For purpose of knowing the make of the explosive.
Q72. Which Convention for the first time defined the act of unlawful seizure of aircraft as an
Offence.
a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention
c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q73. Which Convention mentioned that the Pilot is Law Enforcement Officer in the Flight
a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention
c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q75. In which section of Aircraft Act 1934, COSCA has been empowered to Issue Directions on Civil
Aviation security matters in India
a)Section 5 A of Aircraft Act 1934 b)Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934
c)Section 9 A of Aircraft Act 1934 d) Section 8 A of Aircraft Act 1934
Q81. Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rule 1937.
a) Rule 24 A b) Rule 24 c) Rule 24 B d) Rule 24 C
Q84. Prohibition on slaughtering of animals in the vicinity of Airport is mentioned in which Rule
of Aircraft Rules 1937
a) Rule 156 b) Rule 77 D c) Rule 91 d) Rule 155 A
Q85. Inspection of Aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937
a) Rule 156 b) Rule 161 c) Rule 78 A d) Rule 135 A
Q93. Safety & security of unclaimed baggage is described in which security of Aircraft Act 1934.
a) Sec – 05 b) Sec -6 c) Sec -8(C) d) Sec -9
Q95. In what quantity ammunition with pistol is permitted in hand baggage SPG personnel.
c) 50 rounds b) 60 rounds c) 100 rounds d) 120 rounds
Q105. Combination of measures, human and material resources, intended to safeguard civil aviation
against acts of unlawful interference is
(a) Security (b) Safety (c) Screening (d) Profiling
Q106. Categorizing pax into threatening & non-threatening category by way of systematic
observation is
(a) Screening (b) Security (c) Profiling (d) Safety
Q107. When a pax checks-in and collects the boarding pass but does not board the aircraft is
(a) Gate no show pax (b) Off-loaded pax
(c) Transit pax (d) Transfer pax
Q108. Hijacking is –
(a) Hostage taking on aircraft (b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight
(c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground (d) Hostage taking at airport
Q116. How many Standard and Recommended Practices are in Annexure – 17, at present ?
a) 95 Standard and 25 Recommended Practices
b) 90 Standard and 35 Recommended Practices.
c) 66 Standard and 18 Recommended Practices
d) 85 Standard and 15 Recommended Practices
Q117. Head Quarters of ICAO is located at
a) Geneva, Switzerland b) New Delhi, India
c) Montreal, Canada d) Chicago, USA
Q118. The Anti Hijacking Act came into existence in the year?
a)1982 b)1987 c) 1944 d)1999
Q119. Which Section of Aircraft Act 1934 empowers Central Government to make Rules under this
Act.
a) Section 5 b)Section 5 A c)Section 10 d)Section 18
Q120. Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property
or the ________________________and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the
Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions
a) Passengers b) Aircraft c) Airport d) Environment
Q121. Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft is referred in which Rule
of Aircraft Rules 1937
a)Rule 24 C b)Rule 24 A c)Rule 24 B d)Rule 24
Q123. According to which convention the pilot has been given power of law enforcement officer ?
a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Hauge convention 1970
c) Tokyo convention 1963 d) a & c
Q125. What is the colour of the sticker for cooling off cargo?
a) Red b) Orange c) Purple d) green
Q126. What is the colour of the sticker for X-BIS screening of cargo?
a) Red b) Orange c) Purple d) green
Q135. The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline
a) CISF b) immigration c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI
Q151. Which colour ADP is required to drive the vehicle in all area?
a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) None of these
Q154. While receiving bomb threat call what will be the first action?
a) Asking technical question b) intimating to supervisor
c) Intimating to APD d) intimating to CASO
Q155. Check-in passenger not reported to board means that person is?
A) Cancelled passenger b) Deportee
C) Gate no show d) Transit passenger
Q160. Which colour pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports?
a) orange & orange C b) purple c) green d) blue
Q163. The baggage not carried on the same aircraft the pax travels is called
a) Unclaimed baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Transfer baggage d) Unaccompanied baggage
Q168. How many gates are required for better access control?
a) As less as possible b) More gates are required
c) 10 d) 8
Q180. Airline employees are need not to show their ID card at access control points:
a) whenever they are in uniform B) whenever they are on duty
c) not ever D) on emergency
Q181. Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is
a) one related to ICAO and another is with MCA
b)Both are same
c)One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety
d)Totally different
Q182. No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security
programme is approved by
a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCAQ
183. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices
b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without
passing through security controls.
c) Both the above
d) None of above
Q188. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for _________services such as Agriculture,
construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and escue, and aerial
advertisement
(a) mentioned (b) nominated (c) Specialised (d) concerned
Q189. A parked aircraft which is under _________ sufficient to detect unauthorized access
a) observation b) surveillance c) recommendation d) notice
Q190. A communicated threat, _________or otherwise, which suggests, or infers, whether true or
false that the Safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, or any airport or civil aviation facility or
any person may be in danger from an explosive or other item or device.
a) conveyed b) informed c) intimated d) anonymous
Q191. Food, beverages, other dry stores and associated ___________ used on board an aircraft.
a) instruments b) personnel c) equipments d) items
Q192. The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for _____________ on a particular flight.
a) loading b) acceptance c) boarding d) entry
Q193. A passenger who fails to respect the rules of conduct at an airport or on board an
aircraftor to follow the ___________ of the airport staff or crew members and therebydisturbs the
good order and discipline at an airport or on board the aircraft. Personal property of passengers or
crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator is called
(a) Instructions (b) guidelines (c) issuance (d) statements
Q196. Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft is that of the following
a) airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) airport security screening staff
c) trained airline security and engineering staff. d) Trained Crew members
Q199. Baggage of passengers______ to transfer from the aircraft of one operator to the aircraft of
another operator in the course of the passenger’s journey.
a) required b) subject c) mentioned d)permitted
Q204. Who has Authority to access departure & arrival Hall of the terminal by ID card issued by
Parliament secretariat
a) Employees of the parliament b) Honourable Member of parliament
c) Security staff of the parliament d) Embassy personnel
Q205. Temporary pass (paper pass) without photograph issued for the period of
a) Not more than a month b) For one day
c) Not more than three days d) For three Month
Q210. As per latest circular of BCAS contractors’ labour can have access at airport with the Authority
of
a) Metal Token only b) Bar coded Labour photo pass.
c) Entry ticket only. D) Paper pass only
Q211. Vehicle permits for operational/emergency/Maintenance purposes is normally issued by
a) DGCA b) BCAS
c) Airport operator d) None of these
Q215. Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is
a)one related to ICAO and another is with MCA
b)Both are same
c)One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety
d) None of the above
Q216. As per the national civil aviation policy the functions of all civil airports ATC’s under
the jurisdiction of
a) BCAS b) Airline operator
c) Airport authority of India d) Indian Air force
Q217. No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security
programme is approved by
a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCAQ
Q219. AEP’s for Airport employees are issued for the purposes of
a) whenever they wants to visit b) for official duty
c) none of above d) Both a & b
Q221. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices
b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without
passing through security controls.
c) Both the above
d) None of the above
Q225. Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the
operator
a) Baggage b) Airside c) Apron d) taxiway
230. All the ground space and facilities provided for aircraft maintenance is known as:
a) AMA (Aircraft Maintenance Area) b) Aircraft Stand
c) Both a & b d) None of these
Q232. Baggage which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same aircraft
with the person to whom it belongs.
a) Transfer baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Unclaimed baggage d) unaccompanied baggage
Q240. Which of the following is an appropriate answer for access control points
a) Manned during day light time only b) Manned only at night
b) Manned all the time d) None of these
Q241. For operational reasons who can move from landside to airside without security check
a) APD b) COSCA c) Local Police d) None of these
Q242. What are the points which should be maintained in access control point log
a) Status of the equipment b) Records of the incident
c) Both a and b d) Contact number of other agencies
Q243. An aircraft approaching the airport is or is suspected to in such trouble that there is danger of
an accident is known as
a) Aircraft accident b) Full emergency
c) Local stand by d) VVIP stand by
Q244. A white colour AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport
a) Only at SHA b) Only in operational area
c) All area of a particular airport d) None of these
Q245. Blue colour AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport
a) In operational area only b) All area of mentioned airport except SHA
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q247. What are the important points that need to be checked when a catering hi-lift vehicle is
entering airside
a) Seals and tags should be intact b) Escorted by airline security
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q248. The main function of localizer is
a)To give mid path of the runway to the aircraft landing
b)To give guidelines to the pilot
c)Both a and b
d)None of these
Q252. What is the punishment for hijacking as per the Anti hijacking Act 1982
a) Life imprisonment and fine b) Death sentence
c) Only fine d) Both a and b
Q254. Who is responsible to check whether checklist of aeroplane search procedure is followed
a) Airport operator b) Security agency
c) Airline operator d) All the above
Q255. All civil aviation operations other than scheduled air services and non-scheduled air transport
is known as
a) Military aviation b) General aviation
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q258. Activity where systematic observation is done for categorization of passenger into threatening
and non-threatening category is
a) Personating b) Profiling c) Counselling d) None of these
Q259. Measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against act of unlawful
interference is
a) Security b) Security Audit
c) Safety Control procedures d) Safety Management system
Q265. What are the additional security measures adopted by airline security after registered
baggage has been X-Ray screened:
a) Sealing b) Safeguarding
c) Escorting up to Aircraft d) All the above
Q267. BCAS is a
a) Regulatory authority for Security b) Competent authority of safety
c) Administrative authority d) None of these
Q275. When moving airside in a vehicle, it is necessary to use the hazards warning lights
a) Only at poor visibility b) When crossing runway
c) Only at night d) At all the times
Q276. Name the documents on basis of which a person is allowed to access in terminal Building
a) PIC b) Visitor ticket c) Valid travel documents d) All of the above.
Q284. It is necessary to check Pass of all the staff entering terminal building
a)Sometime b)All the time c)When not on duty d)None of these
Q285. A person has to go to security hold area, which type of pass is permitted
a) Navy blue b)Purple c)Brown d)white
Q293. Hijacking is –
(a) Hostage taking on aircraft (b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight
(c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground (d) Hostage taking at airport
Q309. Which of the following AVSEC function is not performed by Airlines security
a) Catering security b)Escorting of security cleared cargo baggage
c) Pre-embarkation security check d)Screening of hold baggage
Q325. “Principles which apply to equipment design, certification, training and operations and which
seek optimum interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration
to human performance” are called
a) Human Factor Principles b) Equipments Design Principles
c) Security Training Principles d) Human Performance principles
Q345. The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline
a) CISF b) immigration c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI
Q353. What will be the course of action when you get an unattended baggage?
a) Deposit it to APM b) don't touch
c) Lift and Screen it d) Open and look inside for dangerous articles
Q355. What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening?
a) Ask the passenger, why he carrying that
b) Allow passenger to board
c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor
d) Remove the article and leave the passenger
Q366. A passenger can carry any liquid item not more than
a) 10 Mltrs b) 100 Mltrs
c) 1000 Mltrs d) 10000 mltrs
Q385. Articles which can be used to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize the target but it is not
primarily design to do so, known as:
a) Weapon b) Dangerous articles
c) Dangerous substances d) None of these
Q386 An article looking like a knife but it is made of wood, what will be the course of action when
you detect such item:
a) Will be removed b) Local police should be informed
c) Supervisor should be informed d) Both a & c
Q392. Which among the following is the principle on which the explosive detectors function
a) Specificity b) Sensitivity c) Selectivity d) All the above
Q394. How much time EVD will take for analysis of a sample
a) 3 sec b) 2 sec c) 2.5 sec d) 5 sec
Q395. To detect the explosive through ETD, the sample collection will be made from
a) Surface wipe for trace particle b) Box of explosives
c) A piece of explosive d) None of the above
Q397. A pax is trying to carry weapons in hand baggage by making it in small parts-the method is
known as
a) Disguised b) Dismantled c) Camouflaged d) improvised
Q408. An item is controlled by clapping it comes under which kind of the mechanism
a) Remote control c) Delay Mechanism
b) Ambient condition d) Anti handling
Q427. Chamber which creates equal pressure and real journey situation of the flight?
a) Personnel chamber b) Sterile chamber
c) Simulation chamber d) a & b
Q449. Enumerate the principles on which the protection system at airports is based
a) Controlling movement of people and vehicles
b) Dividing airport into non-restricted and restricted areas
c) Protecting airport with physical barriers
d) All the above
Q451. Which one of the following is one of the objective of security guarding at the airports
a) Protect vulnerable areas/vital airport facilities
b) Security of Registered Baggage
c) Second ladder point checks
d) Pre-flight, Anti – sabotage check of the aircraft
Q452. What security measures must be taken for guarding unattended aircraft in flight
a) Aircraft parked in a well – lit area
b) All external doors are locked
c) Stairs and steps in the vicinity of aircraft are moved away and immobilized
d) All the above
Q453. To provide extra protection to a building, doors have to be locked. Name two other parts of a
building above ground that need to be locked or fixed in a closed position
a) Windows b) Roof sky lights
c) Ventilation openings d) All of the above
Q456. Which among the following procedures is/are for parked aircraft for normal conditions
a) Security person guarding the aircraft ensure only authorized people, are allowed onboard
b) Intercept unauthorized people attempting to board aircraft or in the vicinity
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Q457. The operation and protection of an aircraft is generally accepted responsibility to be which of
the following agencies?
a) The airline operating the aircraft b) The airport security unit
c) The local police and military unit d) None of the above
Q458. Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft entrusted to which of the following
agencies ?
a) Airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) Airport security screening staff
c) Trained airline security and engineering staff d) All the above
Q459. Which among the following precautions should be taken by airline personnel to protect
parked and unattended aircraft
a) Ensure that aircraft are parked in a well lit area of the airport
b) Stairs and loading bridges are removed
c) All external doors are locked
d) All the above
Q460. Which among the following tasks a security guard should undertake, when guarding an
aircraft?
A) Ensure means of access removed
b) Challenge unauthorized persons approaching the aircraft
c) Conduct periodical random visual checks of the aircraft
d) All the above
Q461. Which among the exterior locations of an aircraft that airport security personnel should
visually examine when they are guarding an aircraft
a) Under carriage wells and wheel assembly b) Fuel intake panels
c) Engine access panels d) All the above
Q463. While guarding a parked aircraft if unauthorized access is detected, what course of action
should be done
a) Do not allow the person enter into the aircraft
b) Immediately notify supervisor
c) Notify airline representative
d) All the above
Q473. BCAS is a
a) Regulatory authority for Security b) Competent authority of safety
c) Administrative authority d) None of these
Q476. Items which are primarily designed to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize are –
a)Dangerous substances c) Dangerous article
b)Weapon d) explosive
Q480. Which one of the following poses basic difficulty in protecting an airport
a).Large size of the airport and boundary
b).Large number of workers/agencies at an airport
c).24 hour operations
d).All the above
Q486. What are the measures taken to secure the airport premises
a) Round the clock patrolling c) Effective access control
b) Effective lighting d) All the above
Q503. Which of the following committee is not empowered to deal with hijacking situation
a) AC b) CC c) COSAH d) BTAC
Q505. DG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
a) COSAH b) CMG c) CC d) None of these
Q50 ADG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
a) COSAH b) CMG c) CC d) None of these
Q508. The executive authority responsible for dealing with the contingency of hijacking
a) CC b) CCS c) AC d) BTAC
Q509. According to AVSEC Order 9/2001 which of the following procedures can be taken to
immobilize the aircraft
a) Positioning vehicles/fire tenders on the run way
b) Deflating of tires by personnel coming from the rear end
c) Putting off the lights of the runway/taxi way during night
d) All the above
Q511. A warning that can be regulated to one or more targets but there is doubt about its credibility
or about the effectiveness of existing counter measures
a) Specific call c) Hoax Caller
b) Non specific call d) None of the above
Q512. What actions should be taken by a recipient of the Bomb Threat Call?
a) Interrupt in between the communication when the caller is saying something
b) Listen carefully and note down the important information
c) Do gossip with him and kill time, so that he is engaged for more time
d) None of these
Q513. Which of the following is not an essential component of BTAC at domestic airports
a) APD b) CASO c) Customs and Immigration d) All the above
Q514. Which of the following is not a fact relating to control time in case of fire emergency of the
aircraft.
a) Time between initial attack on fire and reduce the intensity of fire below 90%
b) This time should not exceed more than one minute in the practical critical area
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Q515. Which one is not the course of action during forcible seizure of aircraft on ground
a) Aircraft to be cordoned b) Negotiation team should be formed
c) All action to be under one commander d) No need to form negotiation team
Q518. Who circulates the draft Bomb Threat Contingency Plan on the basis of which each airport
prepares its own Contingency Plan
a) AAI b) ASG c) BCAS d) None of these
Q519. In case of “Specific” Bomb Threat Call what will be the course of action
a) The aircraft to be moved to IPB
b) ASG will be cordoning the area
c) All registered baggage will be off loaded and kept 100 meter away from aircraft
d) All the above
Q521 What are the dimensions of hand baggage allowed at Srinagar Airport
a) 115 cms b) 100 cms c) Both a and b d) No hand baggage
Q522. Sky Marshals can carry arms and ammunition in the Aircraft, concealed on their person, only
by authorization of
a)COSCA b) DG/CISF c)DG/NSG d)DGCA
Q532. The chairman of aerodrome committee at the airports located in the state capitals
a) Commissioner of police/DGP c) APD
c) Home secretary of state d) CASO
Q537. What are the committees to deal unlawful interference with civil aviation
c)AC c) COSAH d)CC d) All the above
Q538. Who will train/designate and certify trainers and examiners authorized to conduct security
training in India
a) BCAS c) COSCA b) DGCA d) CASO
Q539. Which one of the following indicates the role of BCAS in Civil Aviation Security?
A) Advice Government of India on Civil Aviation Security matters
b) To monitor implementation of Civil Aviation Security policy/programme
c)To impart training to all agencies of Civil Aviation
d)All the above
Q540. As per ICAO guidelines what is the recommended height of the perimeter wall
a) 8 feet with 1 and half feet over hang b) 10 feet with 2 feet over hang
c) 9 feet with 3 feet over hang d) 12 feet with 2 and half feet over hang
Q541. In case of specific bomb threat calls who will search the aircraft along with airline engineers
and airline security:
a)ASG Personnel c) BCAS b)BDDS d) All of the above
Q542. The chairperson of group “A” and group “B” Central Committee is
a) DGCA c) APD b )COSCA d) All the above
Q543. What is the response time of fire fighting services in case of any fire emergency of the aircraft
a) 2-3 minutes c) Can take their own time
b)10 minutes d) None of the above
Q544. Accident which has occurred on or in the vicinity of the airport is known as
a) Aircraft accident c) Full emergency
b) Airport accident d) None of these
Q549. The chairman of Aerodrome Committee at airports located in the district headquarters
a)CP/DM/dc b) APD
c) SP/DCP d) CASO
Q553. Which one is not an immediate action when you receive a Bomb Threat Call
a) Notify supervisor b) Questioning
c) Filling appendix “A” d) None of these
Q556. Which action is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as specific involving an aircraft
a)Fresh boarding cards to be issued
b)The aircraft is shifted to the isolation bay
c)Check-in and boarding process is to be stopped
d)The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay
Q557. Which actions is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as non-specific involving an
aircraft
a) The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay
b) Boarded pax to be off-loaded and brought back to the check-in counter.
c) Search of the aircraft to be done by airlines security & Airline engineers
d)Fresh boarding cards to be issued
Q562. Airport staff members who can show that they need to pass the screening point in
performance of their duties:
a) Need not submit to a physical search.
b) Need not pass through the walkthrough metal detector.
c) Have to submit to the same procedure as passengers.
d) Not required
Q 571. Which one of the following passenger screening concepts / plans is implemented in India
a) Boarding Gate Plan b) Hold Area Plan
c) Concourse Plan d) Both b & c
Q572. Which one of the following is not an advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) More time available
b) To be staffed only during screening
c) Large number of screening staff/ equipments required
d) None of the above
Q573. Which one of the following is the advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) To be staffed only during screening b) More time available
c) Less pressure to examine passenger d) All of the above
Q575. What are the different methods of screening of passenger in Sterile Hold Area
a) Physical search of passenger b)X-Ray examination of baggage
c) Physical search of baggage d)All the above
Q576. A sterile holding area located at a boarding gate must be searched at the following times
a) At least 60 minutes before the passengers board the aircraft
b) At the time the passengers start to board the aircraft
c) Immediately before passengers are screened and allowed into the holding area
D) All the above
Q577. The search of a holding area is conducted for the following reasons
a) In response to an airport bomb threat
b) As a routine precaution to detect prohibited items
c) Whenever a high level of threat exists
d) None of the above
Q578. One of the recommended levels of search to be used for conducting a search of a holding area
is as follows
a) Search from floor to waist level b) Search from floor to head level
c) Search from waist to ceiling level d) Search from floor to ceiling level
Q579 Which among the following are the don’ts for noticing any suspicious device at terminal
building
a) Don’t handle it b) Don’t touch it
c) Don’t attempt to open the item d) All the above
Q583. The security plan in which screening plan needs to be staffed only during screening is
a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse area plan
c) Holding area plan d) None of the above
Q586. What action to be taken on finding suspicious items during of search of a building
a) Not to touch b) Marking and informing to supervisor.
c) Both (a) & (b) above. d) Try to open & bring to control room
Q594. Screener should not monitor the screen at a stretch more than
a) 18min b) 30 min c) 20 min d) 40 min
Q600. At rush hour what will be the course of action when X-BIS does not pass its one of CTP tests?
a) Stop the machine b) Avoid it & work
c) stop the machine & notify supervisor d) none of these
Q607. In Thin metal imaging test the thickness of steel should be visible
a) .05mm b) .1mm c) 1 mm d) .01mm
Q612. What are the items which create difficulties during screening
a) Children toys b) Wrapped gifts
c) Urns of human remains d) All of the above
Q624. In single wire resolution test which SWG wire should be seen on the Perspex sheet
a) 26 SWG b) 30 SWG c) 40 SWG d) 42 SWG
Q625. In useful penetration test which SWG wire should be seen on the second step wedge
of aluminium
a) 26 SWG b) 30 SWG c) 40 SWG d) 42 SWG
Q627. Which strip should be seen beneath of 26 mm steel in simple penetration test
a) Pb b) Tn c) Fe d) mg
Q628. In Spatial resolution test the 8 horizontal and 8 vertical gratings should be seen on which plate
a) copper b) Iron c) Nickel d) None of the above
Q635. Detection of all kinds of industrial, military and homemade explosives is a quality, which
comes under which of the following
a) One of the requirements of X-BIS b) One of the properties of X-BIS
c) One of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS d) None of the above
Q639. Through the use of which one of the following, explosives in the X-Ray baggage inspection
System are detected
a) Camera and Mirror System b) Multi Energy System
c) Single Energy System d) Trace Detector system
Q640. As per minimum technical specifications prescribed by BCAS for X-Ray machine, the speed of
conveyor belt should be?
a) 0.18 to 0.30 mtrs/sec b) 0.18 to 0.30 cm/sec
c) 0.20 to 0.35 mtrs/sec d) 0.15 to 0.25 mtrs/hr
Q642. In X-Ray Baggage Inspection System, screened item will be identified with
a) The colour and shape of the image b) The photo of the item
c) Colour of the item d) After the physical examination
Q643. If a bag is categorized as doubtful after X-Ray screening, what does it signify?
a) Image is not clear and needs to be physically checked b) The bag is clear
c) The bag has a confirmed threat object d) None of the above
Q644. Name of the test of CTP, in which a lead strip placed between a 26 mm steel is visible
a) Single wire resolution b) Simple penetration
c) Useful penetration d) Spatial resolution
Q645. Colour of the images displayed in X-Ray machine, depends upon the
a) Atomic number of the item b) Density of the item
c) Colour of the item d) Shape of the item
Q652. Which of the following items may present difficulty during screening
a) Books b) Clothes in bag c) Religious objects d) Water in bag
Q671. Which among the following is requirements of a X-BIS as per the BCAS guidelines
a) Low false alarm rate
b) Throughput rate not less than 350 bags per hour
c) Should have high penetration of 37 mm steel
d) All the above
Q672. Which among the following items are banned for carriage in passenger- cabin?
a) Mace c) Marshal art device b) Replica of weapon d) All the above
Q680. Which among the following may present difficulty to an X-Ray screener while screening
a) Urns containing human remains c) Sword
b) Hockey stick d) Cricket bat
Q693. When installing a DFMD, what points must be borne in mind so as to have optimum efficiency
a) At least 10cms away from fixed metallic objects
b) At least 0.5 m to 2 m away from moving metallic objects
c) At least 0.5 m to 4 m from source of electrical interference
d) All the above
Q701. When installing a DFMD the distance between two side by side DFMD should be
a) 30 cms c) 35 cms b) 90 cms d) 100 cms
Q706. The HHMD should be kept ……. Away from Pax body while carrying out frisking
a) 3.5 cms b) 4 cms c) 2.5 cms d) 5 cms
Q708. What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) Union Council of ministers b) Sky Marshals
c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees d) PSOS of President
Q710. What is the prescribed speed limit of vehicle in Tarmac area(near the aircraft)
(a)30 km/hr (b)20 km/hr (c)15 km/hr (d)5 km/hr
Q711. Arms & ammunition of Advance Liaison Team of SPG personnel is permitted into aircraft
(a)In hand baggage (b)In registered baggage
(c)In both (a) & (b) (d)None of the above
Q721. According to threat perception of airports in India, the categories of airport are ?
a) Normal b) Sensitive
c) Hyper Sensitive d) All the above
Q722. What are the points to be kept in mind while physical search of baggage of a passenger
a) Always remember that searching is with consent of passenger
b) Be courteous and tactful but also cautious
c) Thank the passenger for their cooperation
d) All of the above
Q723. Under what circumstances the physical inspection of a baggage is carried out
a) When X- Ray examination has not been able to accurately determine the contents
of baggage
b) When higher level of threat exists either locally or internationally
c) In the event of the breakdown of X-Ray equipment
d) All the above
Q724. At screening points how radios and electrical items will be checked
a) Ask passengers to operate the item
b) Ask passengers to open the battery compartment
c) Check tightness of seal to see if any screws are removed or paint chipped off
d) All the above
Q725. Which among the following is recommended technique for physically searching a baggage
a) If possible, search the clothing without removing the items from the bag
b) If baggage has more than one compartment, search each compartment completely before
moving on to the next one.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Q726. Which among the following is not a duty of the member of a screening team
a) Physically inspect items requiring attention
b) Supervise a busy screening point
c) Issuing the boarding card
d) None of the above
Q738. Which among the following category of people, are permitted along with vehicles up to the
tarmac at civil airports in the country
a) Protocol grounds b) Medical grounds
c) Security grounds d) All the above
Q739. What are the categories of the persons authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) PSOS of President b) PSOS of Vice President
c) Sky Marshals on duty d) All the above
Q740. What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) Union Council of ministers b) Sky Marshals
c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees d) PSOS of president
Q741. What are the additional security measures necessary to protect registered baggage after it
has been screened
a) Sealed b) Safeguarded c) Escorted d) All the above
Q744. While escorting the consignments the involving agency should ensure that
a) The movement is planned in advance
b) The consignment and escort proceed along a pre-determined route
c) The route is varied from consignment to consignment
d) All the above
Q745. What are the primary reasons for escorting people
a) For their own safety when moving in airside
b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for subsequent
attack
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Q749. Write down of person who is having access upto aircraft in their own vehicle
a) All pax c) M. P
b) President of India d) Cabinet minister of state
Q751. For a prisoner to be carried on board aircraft, prior permission if required from
a) ASG c) DGCA b) BCAS d) Concerned airlines
Q752. MLA of state legislature have free access upto which area of airport
a) Aircraft c) All area
b) Upto T.B. d) Not permitted in the airport without valid AEP
Q754. Employees of aircraft operator is not required to check the following documents in respect
carriage of dead
a)Body onboard an aircraft is
b)Embalming certificate by hospital
c)Death certificate from competent Medical authority
d) All the belongings of the deceased
Q756. Following category of people is not authorize to carry arms ammunition in hold baggage
a) On duty police personnel c) Passenger with arms license
b) Authorized sports personnel d) On duty Airline security
Q757. ASG Personnel are authorized to check/frisk
a) Employees while entering the operational area
b) Airport employees while leaving the Tarmac area
c) Employees while entering SHA
d) All of above
Q761. A pax is permitted for carry more the prescribed number of ammunition in the hold baggage
with the permission
a) Airline operator c) DGCA b)COSCA d) CASO
Q763. Who among the following is not exempted for pre-embarkation security checks
a) Member of parliament c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b) President of India d) Cabinet ministers
Q764. A passenger is found to be carrying an unsealed bottle of gin. What would be your action?
a) Take no special action
b) Notify the supervisor if the liquid in the bottle is dangerous
c) Unscrew the container and smell the contents
d) None of the above
Q765. Which among the following items are permitted with hand baggage to carry on board on
aircraft
a) A gift item purchased at duty free shops b) Lady’s hand bag
c) Umbrella and walking stick d) All the above.
Q766. What is the size of Kirpan allowed to be carried by Sikh domestic passengers in Aircrafts
flying in domestic sector?
a) A length of max 9 inches with the blades not exceeding 6 inches
b) A length of max 6 inches with the blades not exceeding 3 inches
c) A length of max 9 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm
d) A length of max 6 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm
Q767. What type of typical response action is required if a prohibited item is detected while
screening a baggage through X-BIS
a) Remain calm and polite – do not alarm passenger
b) Notify supervisor immediately by pr arrange signal
c) Notify police if silent alarm system exists
d) All the above
Q768. The detection of any suspicious item located during a search of the holding area must result
in:
a) Marking the area of location
b) Immediately bringing it to the notice of the supervisory officer
c) Clearing the immediate area of vicinity
d) All the above
Q769. The primary responsibility for movement of patient on a wheel chair is with
a)ASG b)Air Operator
c)Airport Operator d)Relatives or Dependents of the pax
Q772. After IC 814 incident what action were taken by the Govt. of India
a) Deployment of Sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF as ASG at selected Airports
c) Secondary Ladder Point Checking d) All the above
Q773. Course of action to be taken when unauthorized person is detected near an aircraft is to
a) Ask the identity of the person b) Ask the reason for being near the aircraft
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q774. Security control of carriage of dead bodies into aircraft is the reasonability of
a) ASG c) Airport Operator b)Airline Security d) BCAS
Q776. The security measure for perishable cargo and life saving drugs are done by
a) X-ray examination and physical search b) Cooling off methods
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above.
Q781. Who amongst the following can go up to the aircraft in their own vehicle but without escort
a) Prime Minister c) SPG Protectees
b)President d) Chief justice of India
Q785 While screening through X-BIS, items that needs special attention should be paid to
a) Wrapped gifts and presents b) Bottles containing liquids
c) Cameras, radios and electrical items d) All the above