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Q1. Which TCP/IP transport layer protocol is faster?
(a) ICMP-because it is connection-oriented
(b) TCP-because it is connected-oriented
(c) UDP-because it is connection-less
(d) IP-because it is connection-less
(e) None of these

Q2. In OSI Model which layer is responsible for Encryption & Decryption of data?
(a) Physical
(b) Data Link
(c) Presentation
(d) Session
(e) Application

Q3. IP address 172.16.0.2 is belongs to which class?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q4. Which of the following is a single communication channel that is shared by all the users on the
network?
(a) Point-to-Point
(b) Broadcast Network
(c) Protocol
(d) PAN
(e) None of these

Q5. Which type of network consists set of switches connected by physical links?
(a) Circuit Switched Network
(b) Datagram Network
(c) Virtual Circuit Network
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

Q6. What are the three types of addresses in IPV6?

(a) Class A, Class B, Class C
(b) Unicast, anycast, multicast
(c) Unicast, datacast, multicast
(d) Unicast, dualcast, multicast
(e) None of these

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Q7. Which of the following is commonly used between hosts on the Internet to exchange routing
information?
(a) HTTP
(b) EGP
(c) UDP
(d) SMTP
(e) IGP

Q8. Which of the following layer is Network Support layer?

(a) Session layer
(b) Presentation layer
(c) Application layer
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) Data Link Layer

Q9. Which of the following service is responsible for changing the source IP address of a packet to
the IP address of the public interface on the router.
(a) NAT
(b) SMTP
(c) DHCP
(d) HTTP
(e) UDP

Q10. Which of the following protocol uses both TCP and UDP?
(a) HTTP
(b) SMTP
(c) TELNET
(d) DNS
(e) FTP

Q11. In which protocol, the sender sends one frame and then waits for an acknowledgement before
proceeding?
(a) Sliding window
(b) Stop and wait
(c) Frame buffer
(d) IP
(e) Routing Protocol

Q12. What is true about the MAC address?

(a) Used to identify networks
(b) Defined at the Network layer
(c) Unique for every networked device in the world
(d) Identical to the IP address
(e) All are true

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Q13. Which of the following protocol is used for securing
connections between network application clients and servers
over an insecure network?
(a) SSL
(b) BGP
(c) UDP
(d) HTTP
(e) IGP

Q14. Which protocol is used to sending mail?

(a) HTTP
(b) IMAP
(c) SMTP
(d) IP
(e) ICMP

Q15. An accountant office has four employees. They have four

computers and two printers. What kind of network would you suggest they install?
(a) Client server network
(b) Peer-to peer network
(c) Intranet
(d) MAN
(e) None of the above

Q16. In which clause tuple variables are define in SQL?

(a) Like clause
(b) Group BY clause
(c) Where clause
(d) From clause
(e) All of the above

Q17. Which of the following allows you to specify multiple values in a WHERE clause?
(a) Between
(b) In
(c) Like
(d) Joins
(e) Insert

Q18. Which transaction property ensure that multiple transactions can occur concurrently without
leading to inconsistency of database state?
(a) Consistency
(b) Isolation
(c) Durability
(d) Atomicity
(e) Not any property ensures the transaction independency

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Q19. Which of the following allows to create complex entities from existing entities and
relationships?
(a) Specialization
(b) Generalization
(c) Aggregation
(d) Inheritance
(e) Encapsulation

Q20. which of the following is a view of the database that appears to an application program?
(a) Tuple
(b) Instance
(c) Subschema
(d) Relation
(e) Virtual Table

Q21. 'REVOKE' command is used in which category of SQL statement?

(a) DCL
(b) TCL
(c) DML
(d) DDL
(e) None of these

Q22. Which clause is used to specify condition while retrieving data from table in SQL?
(a) WHERE
(b) LIKE
(c) HAVING
(d) Group By
(e) Select

Q23. Derived attribute in E-R Diagram represented by:

(a) Rectangle
(b) Diamond
(c) Ellipse
(d) Double Ellipse
(e) Dashed Ellipse

Q24. Which of the following type of anomalies are not found in relational database?
(a) Insertion Anomalies
(b) Deletion Anomalies
(c) Update Anomalies
(d) Create Anomalies
(e) None of these

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Q25. Which normal form is considered suitable for design a normal relational database?
(a) 1 NF
(b) 2 NF
(c) 3 NF
(d) 4 NF
(e) 5 NF

Q26. How can you return all the records from a table named "Student" sorted descending by
"FirstName", in SQL?
(a) SELECT * FROM Student ORDER BY FirstName DESC
(b) SELECT * FROM Student SORT BY 'FirstName'DESC
(c) SELECT * FROM Student ORDER FirstName DESC
(d) SELECT * FROM Student SORT 'FirstName'DESC
(e) SELECT ALL FROM Student ORDER FirstName DESC

Q27. The ability to modify the internal schema without causing any change to the external schema:
(a) Physical data independence
(b) Logical data independence
(c) External data independence
(d) Both Physical and External data independence
(e) None of these

Q28. Which key is representing relationship between tables?

(a) Primary Key
(b) Secondary Key
(c) Foreign Key
(d) None of these
(e) All of these

Q29. Which level of database architecture representing total view of database?

(a) Conceptual view
(b) Internal view
(c) External view
(d) Physical view
(e) None of these

Q30. Which operator is used to select values within a range?

(a) BETWEEN
(b) RANGE
(c) WITHIN
(d) JOINS
(e) UNION

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Q31. Which of the following is used to transfer data intended for a peripheral device into a disk so
that it can be transmitted to the peripheral device at a more suitable time or in bulk?
(a) Virtual programming
(b) Multi programming
(c) Caching
(d) Multitasking
(e) Spooling

Q32. What are the ways of dealing with deadlock?

(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock recovery
(c) Deadlock detection
(d) All of the above
(e) Deadlock breakup.

Q33. What is Multiprogramming system?

(a) it is easier to develop than single programming systems
(b) it executes each job faster
(c) it executes more jobs in the same time
(d) it is used only on large main frame computers
(e) None of these

Q34. A direct Memory Access (DMA) transfer implies:

(a) Direct transfer of data between memory and accumulator
(b) Direct transfer of data between memory and I/O devise without the use of microprocessor
(c) Transfer of data exclusively within microprocessor registers
(d) A fast transfer of data between microprocessor and I/O devices
(e) None of these

Q35. What is use of "touch" command in Linux?

(a) create a file
(b) remove a file
(c) Show the manual page
(d) Show home directory
(e) Copy files

Q36. Which of the following is the time interval between the submission and completion of job?
(a) Waiting time
(b) Turnaround time
(c) Throughput
(d) Response time
(e) Seek time

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Q37. What is Optimal Page Replacement algorithm?
(a) Replace the page that will not be used for a long time
(b) Replace the page that has been used for a long time
(c) Replace the Page that has not been used for a long time
(d) Replace Page not in memory
(e) Used to extract page in main memory

Q38. What is effect of thrashing in CPU utilization?

(a) Increase CPU utilization
(b) Decrease CPU utilization
(c) Keeps constant
(d) NO effect on CPU
(e) None of these

Q39. Which of the following is true about compaction in operating system?

(a) It is a technique for overcoming fatal error
(b) It is a page management technique
(c) It helps to solve the problem of fragmentation
(d) Allocate the address of physical memory
(e) None of these

Q40. Banker's Algorithm is used for:

(a) Deadlock Detection
(b) Deadlock Prevention
(c) Deadlock Avoidance
(d) Page Scheduling
(e) CPU Scheduling

Q41. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept
on a list called:
(a) job queue
(b) ready queue
(c) execution queue
(d) process queue
(e) priority queue

Q42. Which of the following is the time between a command request and the beginning of a
response?
(a) Throughput
(b) Waiting time
(c) Response time
(d) Turnaround time
(e) Beginning time

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Q43. Which of the following is the condition of mutual exclusion occurrence?
(a) It occurs between two disjoint processes that do not interact
(b) among processes that share resources
(c) among processes that do not use the same resource
(d) process holding a resource.
(e) None of these

Q44. What is Dirty Bit in operating system?

(a) page with corrupted data
(b) wrong page in the memory
(c) page that is modified after being loaded into cache memory
(d) page that is less frequently accessed
(e) None of these

Q45. Which of the following UNIX command is used to remove or delete files?
(a) rm
(b) mv
(c) cp
(d) lpr
(e) man

Q46. Which of the following is not an antivirus?

(a) Bitdefender
(b) Kaspersky
(c) Cobian
(d) F-secure
(e) Avira

Q47. Which of the following is the combination of public and private cloud?
(a) Business cloud
(b) Space cloud
(c) Rackspace cloud
(d) Hybrid cloud
(e) Commodity cloud

Q48. In which debugging technique, when an error has occurred, one needs to start tracing the
program backward one step at a time evaluating the values of all variables until the cause of error
is found?
(a) Cause Elimination
(b) Program Slicing
(c) Backtracking
(d) Brute Force Method
(e) None of these

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Q49. Which of the following maintenance strategies involves
performing maintenance before problems occur to avoid
breakdowns and disruptions?
(a) Perfective Maintenance
(b) Corrective Maintenance
(c) Adaptive Maintenance
(d) Preventive Maintenance
(e) Breakdown Maintenance

Q50. Which of the following malicious software that can change

its code and signature patterns with each iteration?
(a) Keylogger
(b) Mutation Engine
(c) Morris worm
(d) Metamorphic Virus
(e) Stealth Virus

Q51. In which type of SQL join returns all the rows from left table combine with the matching rows
of the right table
(a) Inner join
(b) Left outer join
(c) Right outer join
(d) Full join
(e) Self join

Q52. An accountant office has four employees. They have four computers and two printers. What
kind of network would you suggest they install?
(a) Client server network
(b) Peer-to peer network
(c) Intranet
(d) MAN
(e) None of the above

Q53. Which of the following is the process of taking control over an existing session between a client
and a server?
(a) IP spoofing
(b) Replay attack
(c) Session hijacking
(d) WarDriving
(e) Backdoor

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Q54. If different properties and functions of a real-world entity is grouped or embedded into a
single element, what is it called in OOP language?
(a) Inheritance
(b) Polymorphism
(c) Abstraction
(d) Encapsulation
(e) Generalization

Q55. Which keyword is used to define a scope where identifiers like variables, functions, classes,
etc. are declared in C++?
(a) namespace
(b) mutable
(c) long
(d) while
(e) int

Q56. Which among the following is not a necessary condition for constructors?
(a) Its name must be same as that of class
(b) It must not have any return type
(c) It must contain a definition body
(d) It can contain arguments
(e) None of these

Q57. Which feature works with both Microsoft Explorer and Microsoft Edge and monitors websites,
pages, and downloads for known issues?
(a) Agent X
(b) Blocker
(c) Armenia
(d) SmartScreen
(e) None of there

Q58. A free file storage and file sharing service provided by Microsoft when you sign up for a
Microsoft account is:
(a) OneDrive
(b) Google Drive
(c) iCloud
(d) AWS
(e) D-cloud

Q59. What is the correct HTML for inserting an image?

(a) <image src="image.gif" alt="MyImage">
(b) <img href="image.gif" alt="MyImage">
(c) <img src="image.gif" alt="MyImage">
(d) <img alt="MyImage">image.gif</img>
(e) <img sty= “MyImage”>img.gif</img>

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Q60. Which of the following cloud computing service allows user to subscribe to a software
application and execute it online, rather than purchasing it to install on in-house computers?
(a) IaaS
(b) PaaS
(c) CaaS
(d) SaaS
(e) EaaS

Q61. Ethernet use which Topology?

(a) Bus
(b) Star
(c) Ring
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) Mesh

Q62. Default port for HTTP:

(a) 23
(b) 80
(c) 21
(d) 25
(e) 30

Q63. What is the main protocol used to access data on WWW?

(a) FTP
(b) HTML
(c) HTTP
(d) SMTP
(e) TFTP

Q64. What is CIDR (Classless Inter Domain Routing)?

(a) It is used in class C Networks
(b) It is used in class B Networks
(c) It is used in class A Networks
(d) All of the above
(e) only (b) and (c)

Q65. DNS is defining at which layer of TCP/IP model?

(a) Internet layer
(b) Data link layer
(c) Transport layer
(d) Application layer
(e) Both (a) and (c)

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Q66. Three-way hand shake method used in which of the following?
(a) Connection establishment
(b) Connection termination
(c) Connection release
(d) Path finding
(e) packet forwarding

Q67. In which type of switching technique whole message are transmitted at a time from source to
destination?
(a) Packet switching
(b) Circuit switching
(c) Message switching
(d) Data switching
(e) Key switching

Q68. Which of the following protocol is used for remote terminal connection service?
(a) TELNET
(b) FTP
(c) RARP
(d) UDP
(e) SMTP

Q69. Circuit Switching takes place at which layer?

(a) Transport layer
(b) Application layer
(c) Presentation layer
(d) Physical layer
(e) Data link layer

Q70. SIP, DHCP and DNS are which layer protocol of OSI model?
(a) Presentation layer
(b) Transport layer
(c) Application layer
(d) Session layer
(e) Network layer

Q71. Which of the following is protocol data units of layer 2?

(a) Bits
(b) segments
(c) Packets
(d) Frames
(e) Data

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Q72. Which of the following are the two mode of IP security?
(a) Certificate and tunnel
(b) Certificate and transport
(c) Transport and tunnel
(d) Security and phases
(e) Encryption and security

Q73. Which of the following OSI model layer is used for logical addressing?
(a) Transport Layer
(b) Application Layer
(c) Network Layer
(d) Session Layer
(e) Physical Layer

Q74. What is BGP in networking?

(a) Balanced Gateway Protocol
(b) Border Gateway Protocol
(c) Broadband Gateway Protocol
(d) Balanced Goal Protocol
(e) Balanced Gate Protocol

Q75. Default subnet mask of Class C IP address is:

(a) 255.255.0.0
(b) 255.255.255.0
(c) 255.255.255.255
(d) 255.0.255.0
(e) None of these

Q76. Which level of testing is evaluating the software/system compatibly with the business
requirements?
(a) Integration testing
(b) System testing
(c) Acceptance testing
(d) Unit Testing
(e) Evaluation Testing

Q77. What is UML (Uniform Modeling Language)?

(a) Designing technique
(b) Testing technique
(c) Maintenance technique
(d) Delivery Technique
(e) Debugging Technique

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Q78. Which of the following software development model is also referred as Linear Sequential
Model?
(a) Spiral Model
(b) Iterative Model
(c) Waterfall Model
(d) Incremental Model
(e) V-Model

Q79. Which is not a software life cycle model?

(a) Waterfall model
(b) Spiral model
(c) Prototyping model
(d) Capability maturity model
(e) V-model

Q80. Acceptance tests are normally conducted by the:

(a) developer
(b) end users
(c) test team
(d) systems engineers
(e) None of these

Q81. What are the qualities of good software?

(a) Reliability
(b) Correctness
(c) Efficiency
(d) Portability
(e) All of the above

Q82. If user participation is available, which model is to be chosen?

(a) Waterfall
(b) Iterative enhancement model
(c) Spiral model
(d) RAD model
(e) V-model

Q83. In which debugging technique, when an error has occurred, one needs to start tracing the
program backward one step at a time evaluating the values of all variables until the cause of error
is found?
(a) Cause Elimination
(b) Program Slicing
(c) Backtracking
(d) Brute Force Method
(e) None of these

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Q84. Which of the following maintenance strategies involves
performing maintenance before problems occur to avoid
breakdowns and disruptions?
(a) Perfective Maintenance
(b) Corrective Maintenance
(c) Adaptive Maintenance
(d) Preventive Maintenance
(e) Breakdown Maintenance

Q85. Which phase is not available in software life cycle?

(a) Coding
(b) Testing
(c) Maintenance
(d) Abstraction
(e) None of the above

Q86. Which of the following is testing is also known as clear box testing?
(a) White box testing
(b) Black box testing
(c) Grey box testing
(d) Behavioral testing
(e) None of these

Q87. Alpha testing is done by:

(a) Customer
(b) Tester
(c) Developer
(d) All of the above
(e) Only (a) and (b)

Q88. Which one is the most important feature of spiral model?

(a) Quality management
(b) Risk management
(c) Performance management
(d) Efficiency management
(e) Cost management

Q89. Which process is the examination and alteration of a system to reconstitute it in a new form?
(a) Software reengineering
(b) Software reverse engineering
(c) Software forward engineering
(d) Software testing
(e) Software costing

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Q90. Regression testing in primarily related to which type of testing?
(a) Functional testing
(b) Data flow testing
(c) Development testing
(d) Maintenance testing
(e) None of these

Q91. Which of the following is used to obtain information about a professor with name “pankaj”?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)

Q92. How can you change "Tripathi" into "Purohit" in the "LastName" column in the Persons table?
(a) MODIFY Persons SET LastName='Tripathi' INTO LastName='Purohit’
(b) MODIFY Persons SET LastName='Purohit' WHERE LastName='Tripathi'
(c) UPDATE Persons SET LastName='Tripathi' INTO LastName='Purohit'
(d) UPDATE Persons SET LastName='Purohit' WHERE LastName='Tripathi'
(e) CREATE Person SET LastName=’Purohit’ WHERE LastName=’Tripathi’

Q93. In which type of SQL join returns all the rows from left table combine with the matching rows
of the right table?
(a) Inner join
(b) Left outer join
(c) Right outer join
(d) Full join
(e) Self join

Q94. In E-R Diagram, total participation in entities is represented by which of the following shape?
(a) Double Rectangle
(b) Eclipse
(c) Diamond
(d) Double line
(e) Double eclipse

Q95. Which SQL operator allows you to specify multiple values in a WHERE clause?
(a) Between
(b) Select
(c) Joins
(d) In
(e) Like

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Q96. In SQL server, indexes are organized as:
(a) List
(b) Array
(c) Queue
(d) B-tree
(e) Stack

Q97. Which of the following is a condition created within a database or data storage technology in
which the same piece of data is stored in two separate places?
(a) Data Enumeration
(b) Data Iteration
(c) Data Concurrency
(d) Data Redundancy
(e) Data Sufficiency

Q98. What does the SYSDATE function Contain:

(a) Only Current Date
(b) Only Current Time
(c) Both Current Date and Current Time
(d) Only Hours of Time
(e) Only month

Q99. By which of the following statements, we can undo all the updates performed on the
transaction?
(a) Undo
(b) Commit
(c) Rollback
(d) Replace
(e) Reverse

Q100. What is OLTP?

(a) Operating Limit Transaction Processing
(b) Operation Line Transaction Processing
(c) On-line Transaction Processing
(d) Online Termination processing
(e) Operation Line Termination Processing

Q101. Which of the following is not a DDL command?

(a) CREATE
(b) ALTER
(c) DROP
(d) UPDATE
(e) TRUNCATE

Q102. Checkpoints are a part of which of the following measures?

(a) Recovery measure
(b) Security measure
(c) Concurrency measure
(d) Authorized measure
(e) Design measures
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Q103. Which of the following concepts is applicable with respect of 2 NF?
(a) Full functional dependency
(b) Partial dependency
(c) Transitive dependency
(d) None- transitive dependency
(e) None of these

Q104. How to convert weak entity set to strong entity set?

(a) Using aggregation
(b) Adding appropriate attributes
(c) Using generalization
(d) Normalization
(e) None of these

Q105. The ability to modify the internal schema without causing any change to the external scheme:
(a) Physical data independence
(b) Logical data independence
(c) External data independence
(d) Both Physical and External data independence
(e) None of these

Q106. Which feature in Object Oriented Programming allows reusing code?

(a) Polymorphism
(b) Inheritance
(c) Encapsulation
(d) Data hiding
(e) Recursion

Q107. What would be the worst run time complexity of queue and dequeue operations, if queue is
implemented using arrays?
(a) O(n), O(n)
(b) O(n), O(1)
(c) O(1), O(n)
(d) O(1), O(1)
(e) None of these

Q108. What is the work of compiler?

(a) A program that programs into memory and prepares them for execution
(b) A program that automates the translation of assembly language into machine language
(c) Program that accepts a program written in a high-level language and produces an object program
(d) A program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language
(e) A program that translates a high- level program line-by-line to machine language.

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Q109. By which statement you can force immediate termination of a loop, by passing the
conditional expression and any remaining code in the body of the loop.
(a) Break
(b) Continue
(c) Terminate
(d) Loop Close
(e) Return

Q110. Which of the following tag is used to link the URL?

(a) <a>
(b) <style>
(c) <link>
(d) <hyperlink>
(e) <b>

Q111. Which of the following is an online cloud storage service from Microsoft?
(a) MicroDrive
(b) OneDrive
(c) CloudDrive
(d) WindowsDrive
(e) None of these

Q112. Which of the following sorting algorithm is best if a list is already sorted?
(a) Insertion sort
(b) Quick Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Heap sort
(e) Bubble Sort

Q113. Which of the following HTTP error message shows when server is currently unavailable?
(a) 503
(b) 404
(c) 406
(d) 400
(e) 202

Q114. Which of the following phase produce intermediate

representations of the source program in compiler design?
(a) Lexical Analyzer
(b) Syntax Analyzer
(c) Semantic Analyzer
(d) Intermediate code generator
(e) Machine Independent code optimiser

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Q115. Which of the following register holds the address of memory where CPU wants to read or
write data.
(a) I/O address register
(b) Memory buffer register
(c) Memory address register
(d) Program counter
(e) Flag register

Q116. What is FPGA?

(a) Field Programmable Gate Array
(b) Forward Programmable Gate Array
(c) Forward Parallel Gate Array
(d) Field Parallel Gate Array
(e) Field Parallel Game Array

Q117. Which data structure is used to implement priority queue?

(a) Array
(b) List
(c) Heap
(d) All of the mentioned
(e) Only (b) and (c)

Q118. An assembler that runs on one machine but produces machine code for another machine is
called:
(a) Simulator
(b) Emulator
(c) Cross assembler
(d) Boot-strap loader
(e) Native code compiler

Q119. Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing distribution model?
(a) Software as a service
(b) Platform as a service
(c) Infrastructure as a service
(d) Communication as a service
(e) None of these

Q120. Which of the following is java web server?

(a) Apache Tomcat
(b) Jetty
(c) Resin
(d) Oracle iPlanet
(e) All of the above

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