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A
Serial No.
TEST BOOKLE T
MECHANIC AL ENGINEER ING
m
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INSTRUC TIONS
e.
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and f'lll in the Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
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Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as pP.r inl"ltructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
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1. A section of a dam made of concrete, 3. Consider the following statements
p = 2 · 6, total height = 35 m, with top pertaining to stability of floating bodies :
walkway width of 6 m, is shown. The
upstream bottommost point is called 1. A floating body will be stable when
the Heel of the dam. The sloped part the centre of gravity is above the
on downstream side is 3 vertical on centre of buoyancy.
2 horizontal. Water stands till 2 m short 2. The positions of ュセエNaイョウ@
of the top of the dam section. The net corresponding to different axes of
resultant force acting on the base level rotation are generally different for
of the darn is nearly the same floating object.
.J_ セVュ@ _1
m
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric
2mT T height varies with loading.
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Wotccon
upstream
2
T
30 m
Which of the above statements are
correct?
e.
side
ャセ@
H = Heel rr Base width セ@ is (a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1433 k kgf 4. Water is coming out from a tap and falls
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2. A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in
Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant
diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller
pressure atmosphere everywhere, and
drops of equal size. The surface tension
neglecting curvature and surface
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(a) 0 · 96 x 10- 6 J
(a) 11· 7 rnm
MKA-S-MEN /65-A 2
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5. Consider the following statements Which of the above statements is/are
regard ing Bernoulli's equation : correct?
1. It is assumed t hat no energy has (a) 1 only
b een supplied.
(b) 2 only
2. The velocity of a steady stream of
fluid flow wi11 depend on the (c) Both 1 and 2
cross-sectional area of the stream. (d) Neilhc r 1 nor 2
J. Co t'l sid C1' i wo ァ」、ャッョセ@
1 t:u tu :..!
a long a flow stream. In this reac h , 8. In a steady laminar flow of a given
if q is work done by a pump, w disc harge through a circ ula r pipe of
is work a bsorbed by turbine, diameter D, t he head loss is
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p ゥ セ@ dcn:Jity of wulcr u11Ll y io IJI U JJU1 LiUl Lal lu
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acceleration of gravity, with p , v
and z carrying standard meanings, (a) D -·1 (b) D 2
e.
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p 9. A two-dime nsional flow field is defined as
M セ@ セ@ M セ@
V =i x - jy. The equation of the stream-
Whi c h of the above statements are
correc t?
(a) a nd 2 only
is line passing through the point (1 , 2} is
(a) xy + 2 =0
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(b) x 2 y +2 =0
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 a nd 3 only (c) xy - 2 =0
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12. A cylinder contains 10m 3 of an ideal 16. The thermal efficiency of the h ypothetical
gas at a pressure of 2 bar. This gas is cycle shown is
compressed in a reversible isothermal
T (K)
process till its pressure increases to
1 S hn.r. What quantum of work will be
required for this process? (You can use 700
the table given herewith.)
Number 2 2·5 3 5 7
loglO 0 ·301 0·397 0·475 0·698 0 ·845
300
(a) 4500 kJ (b) 4030 kJ
m
(c) 450 kJ (d) 403 kJ
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13.. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes 1 3 5 S (kJ/K)
a process in which its specific
(a) 0· 6 (b) 0· 5
entropy increases from 0 · 3 kJ /kg K to
e.
0 ·4 kJjkg K. At the same time, the (c) 0-4 (d) 0 ·3
entropy of the surroundings decreases
from 80 kJjkg K to 75 kJjkg K. The
process is
(a) reversible and isothermal
is
17. A heat engine working on the Carnot
cycle receives heat at the rate of 50 kW
from a source at 1300 K and rejects it to
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(b) irreversible a sink at 400 K. The heat rejected is
(c) reversible only
(a) 20·3 kW
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between temperature limits of Tmax and that Rgas = 0 · 287 kJ /kg K and the
Tmin, the power contribution of the reference temperature T0 is 300 K?
Brayton cycle will be
(a) zero (a) 42·62 kW
(b) maximum (b) 40·26 kW
(c) minimum (c) 38·14 kW
(d) 50% of the Carnot cycle (d) 35 · 13kW
MKA S=MEN/65-A 4
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19. A furnace is provided with an insulating 22. Air at 1 atmospheric pressure and 27 oc
refractory lining. The overall thermal blows across a 12 mm diameter sphere
conductivity of the material is at a free stream velocity of 4 ml s.
0 · 03 W 1m K. The thickness of the lining A small heater inside the sphere
is 100 mm. The inner and outer maintains the surface temperature at
temperatures are 250 oc and 50 °C, 77 °C. With k = 0 · 026 W lm (kelvin) and
respectively. The heat loss to the with (Nu) = 31· 4, the heat loss by the
surroundings will be sphere woulrl hP.
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(c) 60 Jls 23. The view factors FI 2 and F 21 , for the
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(d) 30 Jls sphere of diameter d and a cubical box
of length l = d as shown in the figure,
e.
respectively, are
20. A wall of 0 · 6 m thickness has normal
area of 1· 5m 2 and is made up of T
material of thermal conductivity
0 · 4 WI m K. If the temperatures on the
two sides of the wall are 800 oc and
is l=d
1
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1000 °C, the thermal resistance of the 7t
(a} 1 and (b) 7t and 1
wall is 3 3
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(a} 1· 8 KIW 7t
(c) 1 and
6 (''d) 6 and 1
7t
(b) 1· 8 W IK
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ambient air at 30 oc. If the Nusselt 4. using a fuel of long straight chain
number is 25 and the thermal conduc- structure
tivity of the air is 0 · 03 W lm K, then the
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heat transfer coefficient will be Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a} 7·5 Wlm 2 K
(a} 1 and 4
(b) 15 Wlm 2 K
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2
25 Wlm K (c) 2 and 3
(d) 35 Wlm 2 K (d) 2 and 4
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25. A 4-cylinder diesel engine running at 2. A refrigerating cycle operating
1200 r.p.m. developed 18 · 6 kW. The reversibly between two heat
average torque when one cylinder was reservoirs has the highest
cut out was 105 N m. If the calorific coefficient of performance.
value of the fuel was 42000 kJ /kg 3. The lower the refrigeration required
and the engine used 0 · 34 kg of and the higher t he temperature of
dieseljkW hr, the indicated thermal
h eat rejection to the surroundings,
cffkicncy was nearly
the larger the power con s umption .
(a) 29% (b) 26%
Which of the above statements are
(c) 31% (d) 23% correct?
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(a) 1 and 2 only
26. In a Morse test on a 2 -cylinder, 2-stroke
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(b) 1 and 3 only
SJ engine, the brake power is 9 kW and
the BIJP of individual cylinders with (c) 2 and 3 only
spark cutoff are 4 · 25 kW and 3 · 75 kW,
e.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
respectively. The mechanical efficiency
of the engine is
29. In a refrigerator, the evaporator and
(a)
(c)
90%
52· 5%
(b)
(d)
80%
45· 5%
is condenser coil tern peratures are - 33 oc
and 27 °C, respectively. Assuming that
t h e maximum COP is realized, the
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required power input for a refrigerating
27. The ordinates and abscissae of the effect of 4 kW is
diagram gjven for the vapour-compres-
sion refrigeration cycle represent (a) 8 kW (b) 4 kW
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(c) 2 kW (d) 1 kW
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::\1 , r.nmdrlAr 1·h r. following Rtatements : 3. The value of the coefficient of
performance is nearly th e same
The presence of a ir inside condensers in both vapo u r-absorption and
1. remains as a non-condensable gas vapour-compression refrigeration
plants.
2. reduces the condensing coefficient
Which of the above statements a r e
3. tends lo cling to t h e surface
correct?
4. in trodu ces large thermal resistance
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the a bove statements are
(b) 1 and 2 only
correct?
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(c) 1 o.nd 3 only
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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(d) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 a nd 4 only 34. Air at 30 oc and 1 bar has a specific
e.
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only humidity of 0 · 016 kg/kg of dry air. By
considering the saturation pressure of
water vapour at 3 0 oc as 4 · 246 kPa, the
32. The refriger a tion system of an ice plant
workin g b etween temperatures of- 5 oc
and 25 oc produces 20 kg of ice per
isrelative humidity of the air will b e
(a) 66· 1%
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minute from wat er at 20 oc. The specific (b) 60·2%
heat of water is 4 · 2 kJ / k g a nd latent
h eat of ice is 335 kJ / k g. The refrigera- (c) 58·8%
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36. For a steady process, the conditions at 3. The function of guide vanes in
stage 1 and stage 2 are, respectively, reaction turbines is to minimize
hl = 300 kJ /kg, h2 = 150 kJ /kg, shock at entry of the fluid onto the
セ@ = 1·25 kJ/kg K and S2 = o. B kJf runner blades.
kg K. The 'availability' at the ambjenl
temperature 300 K will be Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 15 kJ (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 20 kJ
(c) 1 and 2 only
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(c) 25 kJ (d) 1 and 3 only
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(d) 35 kJ
39. A centrifugal pump lifts 0· 0125 m 3 js of
e.
water from a well with a static lift of
30 m. If the brake power of the driving
37. If the maximum pressure in both air- electric motor is 5 kW, what is the
standard Otto and Diesel cycles is
the same, then the r elations for
compression ratio r and the efficiency T)
is overall efficiency of the pump-set?
(a) 57·6%
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between the two cycles are (b) 63 · 9%
(c) 65·3%
(a) ruicsel > rotto and TlDiesel > 'l'lotto
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(d) 73·6%
(bJ rOtto > rDiesel and 'l1 Diesel > 'l1 Otto
40. Two rods, one of length I and the other of
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(d) rOtto > rDiesel and 'l1 Otto > 'l1 Diesel 100 °C. One end of the shorter rod is
maintained at 100 oc while the other
end is insulated. Both rods are exposed
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38. Which of the following statements are to the same environment at 40 oc. The
correct? temperature at the insulated end is
measured to be 55 °C. The temperature
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1. The specific speed of a turbine is at the midpoint of the longer rod would
the speed at which a homologous be
turbine develops 1 mhp under unit
(a) 45 oc
head at its maximum efficiency.
(b) 50 oc
2. The specific speed is a dimension-
less parameter used for the
(c) 55 oc
selection of turbines. (d) 60 oc
MKA 8=-MEN.t6S-A
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41. Consider the following statements in 43. In the working of a vapour-compression
respect of ideal and practical gas refrigeration planl, uオセ@ following
turbine cycles : enthalpies are recorded at salient points
in the cycle :
1. In the ideal cycle case, the cycle
efficiency depends on the pressure 1. Enthalpy at inlet to compressor
ratio only. (saturated vapour), h 1 = 300 kJ /kg
2. In the practical cycle case (with 2. Enthalpy at outlet of compressor
irreversibthbes m the cot:rtpression (aflc::1 ャセ・。イッーゥ」@ compression),
and expansion processes), the cycle h2 = 330 kJ /kg
efficiency depends on the 3. Enthalpy at exit of condenser
maximum temperature as well as (saturated liquid), h:-i = 150 kJ /kg
m
on the pressure ratio.
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What is the COP of the plant?
3. In the practical cycle case, at a
given maximum temperature, the
maximum efficiency and the
(a) 3
e.
maximum work done occur at a (b) 4
same pressure ratio.
(c) 5
Which of the above statements are
correct? is (d) 6
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(a) 1 and 2 only 44. Consider the following statements for
single-stage reciprocating compressors:
(b) 1 and 3 only
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correct?
coefficient of velocity?
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45. Consider the following statements in 47. Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas
respect of regenerative Rankine cycle : gave C0 2 15%, 0 2 5% and rest as N 2 .
1. Regeneration increases the The gas was at a temperature of 200 oc
cffkiency of the cycle. and a pressure of 5 bar. The partial
pressure of N 2 in the flue gas is
2. The boiler capacity is increased for
a given output.
{a) 250 kN jm 2
3. The- capacity of the condenser is
reduced. {b) 300 kNjm 2
m
{d) 400 kN jm 2
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{a) 1, 2 and 3
e.
{c) 1 and 3 only 48. Consider the following statements :
tube.
1. Temperature of the medium being
cooled must be below that of the 3. The difference between the
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of intermittent operation.
correct?
Which of the above statements are
correct?
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49. The total power developed by a three- 3. Wind turbine operates with variable
stage velocity compounded impulse load over a narrow range between
steam turbine is 900 kW . The power cut-in and cut-out velocities.
magnitudes developed in the first and 4. Vertical wind machine operates in
the second stages are, respectively all wind directions, but it needs
(a) 500 l<W and 300 l<W yaw adjustment.
(b) 100 l<W and 300 kW Which of the above statements are
correct?
(c) 500 kW and 100 kW
(d) 100 l<W and 100 kW (a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
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50. Consider the iollowmg statements m (c) 3 and 4
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respect of natural-draft cooling towers :
(d) 2 and 3
1. Theoretically the water can be
cooled to even below the dry-bulb
e.
temperature of the induced air 52. Which fuel cell is suitable for spacecraft
flow. applications?
2. Natural -draft cooling towers are (a) Direct methanol fuel cell
3.
100 m or more in height.
The inner a nd outer surfaces are
is(b) Proton exchange membrane fuel
cell
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surfaces of revolution of a segment
(c) Alkaline fuel cell
of a hyperbola a bout the vertical
axis- affording improved strength (d) Phosphoric acid fuel cell
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(a,J
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 50 (d) 20
(c) 1 and 3 only
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55. A bullet of mass 0 · 03 kg moving with a 59. In the design of beams for a given
speed of 400 mj s penetrat es 12 em into strength , consider that the conditio ns of
a flxed block of wood. The average force economy of use of the material would
exerted by the wood on the bullet will be avail as follows :
(u) 30 kN 1. Rectang ular cross-se ction is more
(b) 20 kN economi cal than square section of
the same cross-se ctional area of
(c) 15 kN エィセ@ beam.
(d) 10 kN 2. Circular section is more economi cal
than square section.
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56. A ball of weight 100 N is tied to a smooth 3. !-section is more economi cal than a
wall by a cord making an angle of 30° to
co
rectangu lar section of the same
the wall. The tension in the cord is depth.
(a) 200 N
e.
Which of the above are correct?
(b) 200 N
.J3
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c)
(d)
100 N
50-/3 N
is (b) 1 and 2 only
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(c) 2 and 3 only
57. The modulus of rigidity of an elastic
material is found to be 38 · 5% of the (d) 1 and 3 only
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- - -- - - -
61. A beam of rectangular section (12 em 64. A boy walks up a stalled escalator in
wide x 20 em tleev) is lSil111JlY l:iUJJ.l:JUllcLl 90 「セ」ッョ、N@ When the same escalator
over a span of 12m. It is acted upon by moves, he is carried up in 60 seconds.
a concentrated load of 80 kN at the mid- How much time would it take him to
span. The maximum bending stress walk up the moving escalator?
induced is
(a) 48 seconds
(a) 400 MPa
(b) 36 seconds
(b) 300 MPa
(c) 30 seconds
(c) 200 MPa (d) 24 seconds
m
(d) 100 MPa
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65. A 10 mm diameter bar of mild steel
of elastic modulus 200 x 10 9 Pa is
62. A uniform bar, simply supported at the
subjected to a tensile load of 50000 N,
e.
ends, carries a concentrated load P
taking it just beyond its yield point. The
at mid-span. If the same load be,
elastic recovery of strain that would
alternatively, uniformly distributed over
occur upon removal of tensile load will
the full length of the bar, the maximum
deflection of the bar will decrease by is be
(a) 1· 38 X 1Q- 3
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(a) 25· 5%
fbJ 2. 68 x 1o-3
(b) 31 · 5%
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(c) 3·18x1o- 3
(c) 37 · 5%
(d) 4·62x1o- 3
(d) 50· 0 %
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67. Which one of the following statements is 70. Which of the following properties will be
correct? the meaningful indicator1indicators of
(a) Iron-carbon and TTT diagrams are uniform rate of elongation of a test piece
both equilibrium diagrams. of a structural material before necking
happens in エィセ@ エセ@ ーゥセイNャB_@
(b) iron-carbon and 'JT J' diagr ams are
both non-equilibrium diagrams. 1. Ductility
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{d) Iron-carbon diagr am is a non-
equilibrium diagram but TI'T (a) 1 only
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diagram is an equilibrium diagram. (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
e.
6 8 . The correct order of increasing resistivity
among the following materials is (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) nickel, doped silicon, sodium
(b)
silicate, pure silica
doped silicon, n ickel, pure silica,
sodium silicate
is
7 1. Which one of th e following a lloying
elements increases
resistance of steel?
the corrosion
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(c) nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate, (a) Vanadium
doped silicon (b) Chromium
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2. Door-closing mechanism
3. minimizes the free energy
3. Slider-crank mechanism
4. avoids breaking
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73. A planer mechanism has 10 links and 75. The number of instantaneous centres of
12 rotary jointo. Uoing Grubler'e rotation in a slider-crank quick-rettun
criterion, the number of degrees of mechanism is
freedom of the mechanism is
(a) 10
(a) 1
(b) 3 (uJ B
(c) 2
(t) 6
(d) 4
(d) 4
74. The displacement and velocity diagrams
m
nf A rAm Ann ヲョャ キ セイ@ ュセイNィZゥ[@ Fin:
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shown:
81 76. A simple spring-mass vibrating system
lli<placem• nl 1£./
__ MNQセ
-L!
has a natural frequency of N. If the
spring stiffness is halved and the mass
e.
I doubled, then the natural frequency will
.A B C D EiI
be
I
Velocity 1------.,
I
is (a)
(b)
0· 5N
N
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(c) 2N
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Angular displacement
(d) 4N
Which of the following statements isfare
correct?
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3. During period DE, the motion of the What is the period of execution of two
follower is retarding. complete vibrations?
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MKA- S- MEN/65-A 15 [ PT 0
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78. Consider the following statements : 80. Consider the following statements :
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to prevent or r educe the transmis- Which of the above statements are
sion of forces
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correct?
3. moving the foundation so as to
have only one degree of freedom (a) 1, 2 and 4
e.
towards reducing the transmission
(b) 1, 2 and 3
of forces
(c) 1, 3 and 4
Which of the above statements are
correct?
is (d) 2, 3 and 4
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(a) 1 and 2 only 81. A rigid bar ACO as shown is hinged at 0
and is held in a horizontal position by
(b) 1 and 3 only
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AB and CD are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Steel wire
Steel wire
fi
20 kN
(a) 12000 r.p.m.
(a) 15 · 2 kN and 7 · 1 kN
(b) 9360 r.p.m.
(b) 11· 8 kN and 7 · 1 kN
(c) 8465 r.p.m. (c) 15 · 2 kN and 5 · 0 kN
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82. An epicyclic gear train has 3 shafts A, B Which of the above statements are
and C. A is the input shaft running at correct?
100 r.p.m. clockwise. B is the output
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
shaft running at 250 r. p.m. clockwise.
The torque on A is 50 kN m (clockwise), (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
C is a fixed shaft. The torque needed to (c) 3 and 4 only
ftx Cis
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 20 kN m (antiaclockwiso)
(b) 20 kN m (clockwise) 85. A body of mass 10 kg with its CG
200 mm from the axis of rotation is to
(c) 30 kN m (anti-clockwise)
be completely balanced by another
m
(d) 30 kN m (clockwise) mass B of 5 kg placed in the same
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plane. The radius at which the CG of
mass B should be is
83. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is meshed
with a smaller gear having 50 teeth. The (a) 500 mm
e.
two gears are connected by an arm. The (b) 400 mm
number of turns made by the smaller
gear for one revolution of the arm about (c) 300 mm
the centre of the bigger gear is
(a) 1
I
is (d) 200 mm
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86. Consider the following statements
(b) 2
1. In stationary constant speed
(c) 3 engines, the spring-loaded governor
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87. An aircraft cruising at 360 kmph takes a 89. Consider t he following statements :
right turn on an arc of 100 m radius.
The turbines .and propellers have a total For a component made of ductile
mass of 500 kg with radius of gyration material, the fai lure criterion will be
of 25 e m . The engine rotates at
2000 r.p.m. The magnitude of the
1. endurance limit, if the external
gyroscopic couple generated is force is flu ctuating
m
static
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(c) 9 · 81 kN m Which of the above statements are
correct?
e.
(d) 13 ·1 kN m
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c)
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
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position along the beam length (shown
in the figure) is equal to (d) 1, 2 and 3
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2000 kgf
T 90. A machine component is subjected to
I. ャュ M セQ@
a flexural stress, which fluctuates
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200mm
between 300 MN fm 2 and - 150 MN fm 2 .
(a) 1100 MN / m 2
(b) 4 0 kgfjcm 2
(b) 1075 MN /m 2
(c) 50 kgfjcm 2
(c) 1050 MN/m 2
MKA-8-MEN I 65-A 18
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91. In a Hartnell governor, the mass of 93. Two shafts, one solid and the other
each ball is 4 kg. The maximum and hollow, made of the same material, will
minimum centrifugal forces on the balls have the same strength and stiffness, if
are 1800 N and 100 N at radii 25 em both are of the same
and 20 em, respectively. The lengths of
vertical and horizontal arms of the (a) length as well as weight
bell-crank levers are the same. What is (b) length as well as polar modulus
the spring stiffness?
(c) we1ght as well as polar modulus
{a) 780 Njcm
(d) length, weight as well as polar
{b) 740 Njcm modulus
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{c) 720 Njcm 94. A solid shaft is to transmit 20 kW at ·
200 r.p.m. The ultimate shear stress for
{d) 680 Njcm
the shaft material is 360 MPa and the
e.
factor of safety is 8. The diameter of the
solid shaft shall be
92. Consider the following statements
regarding the ends of the pressure
vessels flanged by pre- tensioned bolts :
1. Pre-tensioning helps to seal the
is (a)
(b)
42 mm
45 mm
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(c) 48 mm
pressure vessel.
(d) 51 mm
2. Pre-tensioning reduces the
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R
deleterious effect of pressure
pulsations in the pressure vessel.
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96. The rim of a flywheel is subjected to Which of the above parameters will
influence the axial feed rate in centre-
(a) direct tensile stress and bending less grinding?
stress
(a) 2 and 4
(b) torsional shear stress and bending
stress (b) 2 and 3
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angle 60° is inspected for its pitch
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diameter using the 3-wire method. The
· 97. A stockist has to supply 400 units of a
indicated diameter of the wire will be
product every Monday to his customers.
nearly
He gets the product at セ@ 50 per unit
e.
from the manufacturer. The cost of (a) 0· 85 mm
ordering and transportation from the
(b) 1· OS mm
manufacturer to the stockist's premises
is セ@ 75 per order. The cost of carrying
inventory is 7 · 5% per year of the cost of
the product. What are the economic
is(c)
(d)
1·15 mm
2· 05 mm
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lot size and the total optimal cost
(including capital cost) for the stockist? 100. Consider the following statements with
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reference to N C machines :
(a) 989 units/order and
セ@ 20,065 · 80/week 1. Both closed-loop and open-loop
systems are used.
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101. Consider the following benefits of CIM 104. An organization's sales during a finanr.il'll
1. Less direct labour year is セ@ 6,00,000 with 90% of it on
credit. At the end of the year, the
2. Less scrap and rework
receivables tumover was found to be 5.
3. Higher machine use Considering 365 days to a year, the
average collection period and
Which of the above are correct? receivables are, respectively
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(c) 1 o.nd 3 only
(d) 73 days and セ@ 1,20,000
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(d) 2 and 3 only
105. A particular item has a demand of
e.
102. A firm's inventory tumover ッヲセ@ 8,00,000 9000 unitsjyear. The cost of one
is 5 times the cost of goods sold. If the procurement is セ@ 108 and the holding
inventory turnover is improved to 8 with cost per unit is セ@ 2 · 40/year. The
the cost of goods sold remaining the
same, a substantial amount of fund is
either released from, or gets additionally
is replacement is instantaneous and no
shortages are allowed. What is the
optimum number of ordersjyear?
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invested in, inventory. Which one of the (a} 7 orders/year
following statements is correct?
(b) 8 orders/year
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standard time per unit produced will be (VLSI) chip that contains program-
mable electronic components that
(a} 1· 823 minutes perform control functions
(b) 1· 714 minutes (c) Digital circuits for data handling
and computation
(c) 1· 645 minutes
(cl} The primary computation and
(d) 1· 286 minutes system control operations
MKA-S-MEN/65-A 21 [P.T.O.
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107. Which one of the following statements is 110. Consider the following statements
correct? regarding a stepper motor :
1. The rotation angle of the motor is
Seismic transducer working in the proportional to the input pulse.
displacement mode should have
2. The motor has full torque at
standstill.
(a) weak sp;rings and heavy mass
3. Speed and electric control signal of
(b) stiff springs and light mass the motor vary mutually linearly.
(c) weak springs and light mass Which of the above statements are
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correct?
(d) stiff springs and heavy mass
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(a) 1 and 2 only
e.
movement for a single-acting hydraulic (c) 2 and 3 only
actuator, when the fluid pressure is
100 bar, the diameter of the piston (d) 1, 2 and 3
is 50 mm and the flow rate is
0 ·3 m 3 jmin?
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111. The following table lists the tasks in a
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project and the time duration for each
(a) 2-41 m/s
task :
(b) 2·55m/s Normal duration
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Preceding
Task
task (in weeks)
(c) 2 · 67 m/s
A - 16
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(d) 2·84m/s B - 20
c A 8
D 10
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112. Consider the following statements with 114. The number of degrees of freedom in a
re!erence to ::>CAAA Robot : 3D Robot of TRL : R type configuration
1. It has four degrees of freedom. is
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(a) 1 and 2 only
115. Which of the following are the basic
(b) 1 and 3 only differences between vibration signature
e.
and noise signature?
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. Vibration signature is essentially in
the frequency range zero to 100 cps
(d) 1, 2 and 3
is whereas noise signature is in the
range 20 cps to 300Q cps.
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113. Consider the following statements 2. Vibration signature has well-
regarding the laws of Robotics : defined peaks whereas the noise
1. A Robot shall not injure a human signal is smeared.
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(a) 1 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only
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116. Consider the following features relating 119. Two air streams with mass flow rates
to Robot kinematics with reference to of 36 kg/min .and 14 kg/min with
SCARA Robot : respective enthalpies of 36 kJ jkg da
and 50 kJjkg da are mixed. The
1. Shoulder and elbow rotational axes
enthalpy of the mi.xture is nearly
are vertical.
2. The Robot could perform insertion
tasks along the vertical direction. (a) 64 kJ /kg da
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Which of the above features are correct?
(c) 46 kJjkg da
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(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 40 kJjkg da
(b) 1 and 3 only
e.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
120. Consider the following statements in
(b) 450 kJ
3. The intercooling is' perfect.
(c) 900 kJ
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(b) 0 ·25
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 0 · 30
MKA S- MEN/65-A 24
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Dimctions : 123. 8tateHJ.e::ul (I)
Each of the following thirty (30) items The specific heat at constant pressure
consists of two statements, one labelled as for an ideal gas is always greater than
'Statement (I}' and the other as 'Statement (II)'. the specific heat at constant volume.
Examine these two statements carefully and
select the answers to these items using the code Statement (II) :
given below : hセfエ@ adde d Cl.t constant volumr. ゥヲセ@ nnt
Code: utilized for doing any extemal work.
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State me nt (TT) are individually true 124. Slatement (I) :
and Statement (II) is the correct
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ex planation of Statement (I) A homogeneous mixture of gases that
do not react within themselves can be
(b) Both Statement (I) and treated as a pure substance.
e.
Statement (II) are individually true
but Statement (II) is not the correct Statement (II) :
explanation of Statement (I) Flue gases can be treated as a
(c) Statement (I) is
Statement (II) is false
true but is homogeneous mixture of gases.
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(d) Statement (I) is false but
Statement (II) is true 125. Statement (I) :
Air-blast injection in diesel engines
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Centre of area of the immersed body injection valve remaining open for
lies below the centre of pressure. whatever reason.
w.
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127. Statement (I) : 131. Statement (I) :
Sub-cooling of a refrigerant liquid The volume of air taken into the
increases the coefficient of cylinder of a reciprocating air
performance of a refrigeration cycle. compressor is less than the stroke
volume of the cylinder.
Statement (II) :
Statement (II) :
Sub-cooling reduces the work
requirement of the refrigeration cycle. Air that has been compressed to
clearance volume expands to larger
volumes during the suction stroke.
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128. Statement (I) :
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132. Statement (I) :
In vapour-absorpti on system, larger
solution Providing reheat in a Rankine cycle
the value of specific
would increase the efficiency of the
e.
circulation, more the pump work.
cycle.
Statement (II) :
Statement (II) :
Higher solution circulation rates of
poor as well as rich solutions need
larger pressure drops in the system.
is Reheat in Rankine cycle
specific steam consumption.
reduces
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133. Statement (I) :
Heat carried away by hot gases in
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135. Statement (T) : 139. State:me:nt (T) ·
Proximate analysis of coal is done to The ideal material for shafts
determine its calorific value. transmitting power is CJ.
Sta temen t (II) :
Statement (II) :
CI resists compression welL
In proximate analysis of coal, the
percen tages of moisture, volatile 140. Statement (I) :
matter, fixed carbon and ash are
Hardenability curves are developed
determined.
based on tl).e fact that any given steel
item always develops the same
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136. ::->tatcm e n l (1) :
cooling rate.
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Water entering into a condenser from
Statement (II) :
the cooling tower has much dissolved
impurities. Industry employs Jominy
e.
hardenability test to measure
Statement (II) hardenabili ty.
In a closed cooling system, the water is
continuously aer ated , therefore, there
is abu ndant dissolved oxygen in this
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141. Statement (I) :
Cams used in h igh -speed a pplication
should have displacement, velocity
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water.
and acceleration curves of the follower
in continuity.
137. Statement (I) :
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S tatement (II) :
Pyranometer is used to measure Abrupt ch anges m these cu rves will
diffuse solar radiat.ion by blocking the cause high contact stresses at the
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143. Statement (I) : 147. Statement (I) :
All worm drives (worm and worm In sugarcane crushing rollers, the fit
wheel) are reversible. between the cast roll and the forged
steel shaft is of interference type.
Statement (11) :
Statement (II) :
The worm and worm wheel are made of
different materials. This helps in removing the roll from
the shaft whenever not needed.
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144. Statement (I) :
148. Statement (I) :
There is no balancing methodology in
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Thicker sections of casting take longer
the case of reciprocating engines.
to solidify than thinner sections.
Statement (II)
e.
Statement (II) :
Balancing of dynamic forces is
Thicker sections of casting carry
achieved mostly by resorting to
residual stresses.
multi-cylinder engine concept.
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149. Statement (I)
145. Statement (I) :
Sand with grains of uniform round
Two circular discs of equal ma33CG and shape is preferred for preparing
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The speed of a governed water turbine Bar chart plots in the time dimension
will remain constant irrespective of the planned performance of various
load. activities of a project.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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***
mkaMsenOVU ]セM@ 32 7BS- 101500
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