MAT Sample Paper PDF

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Sample Paper
MAT – Mock Test : 2013

Maximum Marks: 800 Time: 150 minutes
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Instructions
1. Do not open the seal of this booklet. Wait for the signal to start.
2. This booklet contains 32 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the booklet,
verify that all the pages are printed properly.
3. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. Do not keep with you books,
rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pager, palmtops,
cellular phones, or any other device. These should be left outside the room.
4. The Test Paper contains 200 questions. Each question is worth 4 marks.
5. The marks scored in Social and Environmental Awareness do not add to the final score.
6. Directions for answering the questions are given in the test booklet before each group of questions
to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the
appropriate ovals.
7. Wrong answers carry negative marks, to the tune of – 1 for each incorrect answer. Unattempted
questions will not invite any negative marking. There is only one correct answer for each question.
8. Do the rough work on the test booklet only and not on the answer sheet or any other paper.
9. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
10. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may
leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets and
answer sheets from everyone in the room.
ANY CANDIDATE GIVING / SEEKING / RECEIVING ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING WILL

BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.
Name:______________________________ Enrollment ID: ________________________
Centre:_____________________________ Batch: _______________________________
Time:_______________________________ Date: ________________________________
Best of Luck ! Best of Luck !

Section I - Intelligence & Critical Reasoning

1. A man while talking to another said, “The mother-in-law of your wife is also the only daughter of my
father’s father-in-law”. How is the latter related to the former man?
(a) Brother (b) Father (c) Son (d) Grandfather
2. A man while looking at the photograph of a woman said, “She is the paternal grandmother of children
of my wife’s brother”. How is the man related to the woman?
(a) Brother-in-law (b) Son (c) Father (d) Son-in-law
3. The letters of the word MACHINE may be coded as NDHOORG; if you follow the same code, what
will happen to PLANETS?
(a) QOFULXU (b) QOFVKXU (c) QOFUKXU (d) OMGSIWS
4. Each of the following three figures shows three adjacent faces of a particular die.
How many dots are present on the face of the die, which is opposite the face containing 6 dots?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 3
5. Rahim’s house is in the East of his office, which is in the North of Pushpak’s office. If Pushpak’s
office is in the South of his house, then in which direction of Rahim’s house, is Pushpak’s house?
(a) South (b) East (c) West (d) None of these
Directions for questions 6 to 10: Complete the series given below.
6. 3, 8, 17, 32, 57, ?

(a) 90 (b) 105 (c) 96 (d) 100
7. 15, 35, 77, 143, ?

(a) 221 (b) 227 (c) 231 (d) 247
8. 2, 3, 7, 17, 36, ?, 113

(a) 61 (b) 63 (c) 67 (d) 69
9. 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, ?

(a) 286 (b) 294 (c) 300 (d) 324
10. 4, 6, 9, 14, 22, 34, 51, ?

(a) 74 (b) 72 (c) 76 (d) 70
MAT – Mock Test Page 1

Directions for questions 11 to 15: The following questions consist of two statements; one labeled as the
'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and
decide if '(A)' and '(R)' are individually true, and if so, whether '(R)' is the correct explanation of '(A)'. The
options for you to choose from are:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) A is true but (R) is false
(d) A is false but (R) is true
11. A: India celebrates its Republic Day on 26th January every year.
R: On 26 January1950, the Constitution of India came into full force replacing the Government of
India Act 1935 as the governing document of India.
12. A: Ice floats on the surface of water.

R: Water expands as it freezes so ice is less dense than the liquid water.
13. A: India is a Democracy.

R: India was colonized by Britain.
14. A: Milk is rich in calcium.

R: Calcium keeps bones strong and helps prevent osteoporosis (bone loss).
15. A: Sunlight contains Vitamin D.

R: Our body synthesizes Vitamin D.
16. "Minister Patil says that we should not fund the attack submarine program. I disagree entirely. I
can't understand why he wants to leave us defenseless like that."
What is the assumption made by the author in the above argument?
(a) Not funding the attack submarine program will leave the country defenseless.
(b) Funding the attack submarine program is necessary for defense of the country.
(c) Attack submarine program is very expensive.
(d) India should fund the attack submarine program.
17. "Your Score in MOCK Tests is not good. You should read more."
Which one of the following is not an assumption taken by the author in the above argument?
(a) Reading more will help in increasing MOCK Test score.
(b) Reading more is possible.
(c) A better score in MOCK Tests is desirable.
(d) Reading is essential in order to appear for MOCK Tests.
Page 2 MAT – Mock Test

18. Aman: "Juhi says that she is a feminist, but that can't be true. Over the summer, I saw feminists
appear on several talk shows and news shows and I read about them in the papers. The women
were really bitter and said that women were victims of men and needed to be given special
compensation. Juhi is always talking about equal rights and forging her own place in the world. So,
she can't be a feminist."
What is the flaw in Aman's argument?

(a) He assumes that there is only one category of feminists.
(b) Juhi is lying about being a feminist.
(c) Television shows are not good sources of information.
(d) Demand for equal rights is very different from being a feminist.
19. "The U.S.A shouldn't get involved militarily in other countries. Once the government sends in a few
troops, it will then send in a thousand more to die."
What is the flaw in the above argument?

(a) Author has assumed the sequence of events that will lead to the result mentioned in the argument.
(b) Premise and Conclusion are inter-convertible.
(c) Author's conclusion undercuts an assumption in the argument.
(d) Author fails to mention that the U.S.A is already involved militarily in Korea and Vietnam.
Directions for questions 20 to 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the given information.
Seven objects – A, B, C, D, E, F and G – were distributed among three boxes such that the number of
objects in each box was found to be different. No two among A, B and C are in the same box. E and G are
in the same box. Exactly one between C and D is in the same box as F.
20. What is the maximum possible value of the difference between the numbers of objects in any two
boxes?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these
21. If both B and D are in the same box, then which pair among the following is not in the same box?
(a) A and F (b) C and F (c) F and G (d) C and E
22. If both F and C are in the same box then which object is placed alone in one of the boxes?
(a) A (b) B (c) D (d) Either A or B

There are five friends – Amit, Binay, Chetan, Dheeru, and Emran – who live in different cities among –
Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Pune and Bangalore, in no particular order. Age of no two friends among the five is
the same. It is also know that:
(i) Both Amit and Chetan are older than the friend who lives in Bangalore.
(ii) The friend who lives in Mumbai is the oldest and the one who lives in Kolkata is the youngest among
the five friends.
(iii) Binay is older than Chetan.
(iv) Chetan is younger than the friend who lives in Pune.
(v) Dheeru is not the youngest among the five friends.
(vi) Sum of the ages of Emran and Binay is the same as the sum of the ages of Chetan and Amit.
23. Who among the five friends is the oldest?

(a) Dheeru (b) Binay (c) Amit (d) Chetan
24. How many friends are younger than the one who lives in Pune?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
25. Who among the five friends lives in Delhi?

(a) Amit (b) Chetan (c) Binay (d) dheeru
Each of the six people – Ram, Mohan, Jatin, Vijay, Kripal and Santosh – has a different surname among –
Singh, Vats, Rehman, Joshi, Kohli and Tyagi, not necessarily in the same order. These six people are
standing in a row such that each of them is facing East. It is also known that:
(i) There are exactly two people standing between Kirpal and Ram.
(ii) Tyagi is the only person standing between Jatin and Rehman.
(iii) Singh is standing to the right of Joshi.
(iv) Ram is standing to the right of Vijay who is standing to the immediate left of Vats.
(v) Kirpal’s surname is neither Joshi nor Rehman.
(vi) Mohan is standing to the immediate left of Santosh, who is standing at one of the ends of the row.
26. What is the surname of Kirpal?

(a) Kohli (b) Tyagi (c) Singh (d) Vats
27. How many people are standing between Ram and Santosh?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) More than 2
28. What is the surname of the person who is standing to the immediate right of Ram?
(a) Rehman (b) Joshi (c) Vats (d) Kohli

Eight people – Salim, Sanjay, Sajid, Hasan , Shilpa, Reeta, Sujata and Sunil are sitting at a circular table.
Among these eight people Shilpa, Reeta and Sujata are females and remaining five are males. No two
females are sitting next to each other. Sanjay is sitting to the immediate left of Sajid. Hasan is sitting
opposite Reeta. Sunil is sitting next to Shilpa. Sujata is sitting opposite Salim. The person sitting opposite
Shilpa is not Sanjay. Sunil is not sitting next to Hasan.
29. Who is sitting opposite Sunil?

(a) Shilpa (b) Sanjay (c) Sujata (d) Sajid
30. Who among the following is sitting next to Shilpa?

(a) Salim (b) Sajid (c) Sanjay (d) Hasan
31. Who is sitting opposite Sajid?

(a) Shilpa (b) Sanjay (c) Sujata (d) Sunil
There are four buses – A, B, C and D – each of which starts in the morning from a different station among
– P, Q, R and S, not necessarily in the same order. In the evening, each bus reaches its destination, which
is also one among – P, Q, R and S (in no particular order) and is not the same as the station from which it
left in the morning. No two buses reached the same station in the evening. It is also known that:
(i) A did not come across station P in the whole day.
(ii) B started from station Q while the destination of C was station R.
(iii) The destination of D was station S.
(iv) D started from the station which was B’s destination.
32. C started from which station?

(a) P (b) Q (c) S (d) Cannot be determined
33. Which station was the destination for B?

(a) P (b) Q (c) S (d) Cannot be determined
34. A started from which station?

(a) Q (b) R (c) S (d) Cannot be determined

Directions for question 35 to 39: In each of the questions below are given two statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow from the given statements.
Select:
(a) If only conclusion I follows
(b) If only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
35. Statements: All apples are oranges. Some oranges are mangoes.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are Mangoes.
II. No apple is a Mango.
36. Statements: All trees are not big. All pines are big.
Conclusions:
I. Some pines are tree.
II. No pine is tree.
37. Statements: All students write MAT. All students are intelligent.
Conclusions:
I. Some students who write MAT are intelligent.
II. Some students who are intelligent write MAT.
38. Statements: Some dolls are pretty. Some pretty are cute.
Conclusions:
I. Some dolls are cute.
II. Some dolls are not cute.
39. Statements: Some books are good. No good is bad.

Conclusions:
I. Some books are bad.
II. Some books are not bad.
40. Five people – Aman, Baman, Chaman, Daman and Elan – are standing in a row such that each of
them is facing North. Aman is to the right of Baman and Daman. Elan is to the left of Chaman.
Daman is to the right of Chaman. Who among the five is standing at the rightmost end of the row?
(a) Aman (b) Baman (c) Daman (d) Elan

Section II - Mathematical Skills
41. Darsh is 6 years older than Esha and Esha’s age is now twice the age of Charu. If the present age
of Charu is 12 years, then what was the Darsh’s age 8 years ago?
(a) 18 years (b) 20 years (c) 22 years (d) 24 years
42. Inside a rectangular park of dimension 35 m × 25 m, there is a linear path along the perimeter of the
park. If the width of the path is uniform and is equal to 2.5 m, then find the area of the path.
(a) 175 m2 (b) 275 m2 (c) 265 m2 (d) 295 m2
43. A, B and C alone can complete a piece of work in 15 days, 20 days and 30 days respectively. They
worked together for 4 days, after which the remaining work was completed by A and C working alone
on alternate days with C working on the 5th day. In how many days the work was completed?
(a) 8 days (b) 12 days (c) 16 days (d) 20 days
44. In a bag, the ratio of 2 rupees coins, 1 rupee coins and 50 paise coins is 3 : 5 : 8 respectively. If the
total value of the coins in the bag is Rs.675, then the number of 2 rupees, 1 rupee and 50 paise
coins in the bag are:
(a) 135, 225 and 370 (b) 140, 230 and 360 (c) 125, 235 and 340 (d) 135, 225 and 360
45. A shopkeeper buys 16 kg of sugar at Rs.384 and mixes it with another quality of sugar in the ratio
of 3 : 4. The price of the resulting mixture is Rs.32 per kg. What is the price (in Rs. per kg) of this
other quality of sugar?
(a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 36 (d) 38
46. A basket contains 5 blue, 4 red and 3 yellow balls. Three balls are picked out of it simultaneously.
What is the probability that all the three balls are of the same colour?
2 3 7
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
11 44 110
47. The length of the side of a square field is 8 m. Poles are required to be fixed all along the perimeter
of the square field at a distance 2 m apart. The number of poles required will be:
(a) 18 (b) 17 (c) 16 (d) 15
48. Two inlet pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 18 minutes respectively and a outlet pipe
R can empty the tank in 30 minutes. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened
simultaneously then after how much time the tank will be filled?
1 1
(a) 12 minutes (b) 12 minutes (c) 11 minutes (d) 11 minutes
4 4
49. A sphere whose diameter is 8 cm, is melted and converted into a cylinder of height 16 cm. The
diameter of the base of the cylinder is:
4 8 32
(a) 8 3 cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) cm
3 3 3

50. The ratio in which 25% alcohol solution should be mixed with 40% alcohol solution to get a
30% alcohol solution, is:
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) None of these
51. The ratio of the number of men to the number of women in a village of 728 persons is 7 : 6. If the
number of men increases by 8, then what must be the increase in the number of women to make the
new ratio of men to women equals to 20 : 17?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 12
52. If 24 men can dig a tank of dimension 30 m × 6 m × 3 m in 10 days working 9 hours a day, then how
many men, working 6 hours a day will dig a tank of dimension 20 m × 4 m × 1.5 m in 8 days?
53. Find the total number of 4-digit numbers that can be formed using the digits 0 to 6 without repetition,
such that the number is divisible by 9.
(a) 54 (b) 60 (c) 78 (d) 102
54. Twelve men and eighteen women can sow a field of 6 hectares in time x. How many hectares will
14 men and 6 women can sow in the time x, given 2 men can sow as much as 3 women do?
(a) 4.5 hectares (b) 5 hectares (c) 5.5 hectares (d) 6.5 hectares
55. If Rs.3,367 is divided among X, Y and Z such that one third of X’s part, one fourth of Y’s part and one
sixth of Z’s part are equal, then what is Z’s part?
(a) Rs.1,554 (b) Rs.1,036 (c) Rs.777 (d) Rs.1,664
56. Out of first ten natural numbers, two numbers are chosen at random. The probability that their sum
is a prime number, is:
11 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
45 9 5
57. A tap T1 can fill a tank in 20 minutes and tap T2 can empty the tank in 12 minutes. If the tank is
already full and both the taps are opened simultaneously, then the tank will be half empty in:
(a) 12 minutes (b) 15 minutes (c) 18 minutes (d) 30 minutes
58. A solution contains milk and water in the ratio 8 : 5. If 6 litre of water is added to the solution, the
ratio of milk and water becomes 3 : 2, then find the quantity of milk in the solution.
(a) 126 litres (b) 90 litres (c) 144 litres (d) None of these
59. Monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio 4 : 3 and their monthly expenditures are in the ratio
3 : 2. If each one of them saves Rs.600 per month, then their respective monthly incomes are:
(a) Rs. 2,450, Rs. 1,850 (b) Rs. 2,400, Rs. 1,800
(c) Rs. 2,600, Rs. 2,000 (d) None of these
60. The ratio of the length to breadth of a rectangular playground is 4 : 3. If the cost of laveling the
playground came to be Rs.3,456 at Rs.8 per m2, then length and breadth are:
(a) 28 m, 21 m (b) 24 m, 18 m (c) 20 m, 15 m (d) None of these

61. Yogesh and Manoj entered into a partnership with Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 60,000 respectively. After
4 months Yogesh invested Rs. 15,000 more while Manoj withdraws Rs. 10,000. Find the share
(in Rs.) of Yogesh in the annual profit of Rs. 3,10,000.
(a) 1,50,000 (b) 1,70,000 (c) 1,80,000 (d) None of these
62. In a 400 m race, A can give B a head start of 25 m and C a head start of 50 m. What head start can
B give to C in the same race?
(a) 32 m (b) 36 m (c) 26.67 m (d) 55 m
63. Two pillars of equal height are on either side of the roadway which are separated by a distance of
150 m. Form a point on the ground, the angle of elevations to the top of the pillars are 60 degree and
30 degree. Find the height (in metres) of the pillars.
75 3 85 3
(a) (b) 35 (c) (d) None of these
2 2
2
64. A businessman travels 1200 km by air, which forms th of his trip. One-third of his whole trip is by
5
car and the rest by train. The distance (in km) traveled by him by train is:
(a) 500 (b) 700 (c) 800 (d) 600
65. When a student weighing 48 kg left a class, the average weight of the remaining 49 students is
increased by 0.4 kg. What is the average weight of the remaining 49 students?
(a) 68 kg (b) 60 kg (c) 52 kg (d) 58 kg
66. 40% of 80 is x% more than 30% of 70. Find the value of x.

(a) 33.33 (b) 40 (c) 25 (d) 52.38
67. A thief is stopped by a policeman from a distance of 400 m. When the policeman starts the chase,
the thief also starts running. The speed of the thief is 10 km/hr and speed of the policeman is
15 km/hr. How far the policeman will have to run in order to catch the thief?
(a) 400 m (b) 800 m (c) 1200 m (d) 600 m
68. A vessel contains 40 litres mixture of alcohol and water comprising 70% of alcohol. If ‘x’ litres of
alcohol is added to the mixture, the new mixture comprises of 80% alcohol. What is the value of ‘x’?
(a) 20 litres (b) 50 litres (c) 30 litres (d) 48 litres
69. A vendor sells 40 percent of oranges he had and throws away 10 percent of the remainder. Next day
he sells 50 percent of the remainder and throws away the rest. What percent of the oranges were
sold by the vendor?
(a) 52% (b) 63% (c) 67% (d) 55%
70. A super fast train leaves the station 2 hrs. after a passenger train left the same station. The passenger
train is traveling at speed 40 km/hr slower than that of super fast train. Find the speed (in km/hr) of
each train, if the super fast train overtakes the passenger train in 3 hrs.
(a) 100, 60 (b) 80, 40 (c) 60, 20 (d) 120, 80

71. Vipul and Dheeraj entered into a partnership with capitals in the ratio 4 : 5 resepcetively. After
1 1
4 months Vipul withdrew th of his capital and Dheeraj withdrew th of his capital. If the profit at
4 5
the end of a year was Rs. 46,000, then what was Dheeraj’s share from the profit?
(a) Rs. 28,000 (b) Rs. 30,000 (c) Rs. 26,000 (d) Rs. 24,000
72. In a class, 60% of the students are boys and 18% of the students play football. If 15% of boys play
football, then what percentage of the football players are boys?
(a) 40% (b) 50% (c) 55% (d) 60%
1
73. A man can row three quarters of a km against the current in 11 minutes and can return at the
4
1
same point in 7 minutes. Find the speed (in km/hr) of the man in still water.
2
74. A straight tree breaks due to a heavy storm and the broken part of the tree bends in such a way that
it touches the ground making an angle of 30° with the ground. The distance from the foot of the tree
to the point where the top touches the ground is 10 m. The original height of the tree (in metre) is:
10
(a) (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) None of these
3
75. If a discount of 20% is given on the retail price, the profit obtained is 60%. Find the profit percentage
when the discount is increased by 5 percentage points on the retail price.
(a) 50% (b) 40% (c) 25% (d) 45%
76. Rajat, Sharad and Appurv start at the same time from the same point, in the same direction to walk
around a circular track of length 12 km. They walk at the rate of 3 km/hr, 7 km/hr and 13 km/hr
respectively. In what time (in hours) will they meet together again for the first time?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
77. If a shopkeeper offers a discount of 40% on the marked price of a dishwasher, then he makes a profit
of 20%. What is the profit/loss percentage, if he sells at a discount of 45% on the marked price?
(a) 9% (b) 20% (c) 10% (d) 25%
78. A sum of money compounded annually becomes Rs. 765 in 2 years and Rs. 815 in 3 years. The
approximate rate of interest per annum is:
(a) 3.2% (b) 5.6% (c) 6.5% (d) 4.5%
79. The speed of a motorboat of length 20 m in still water is 40 km/hr. If the motor boat sailing against
the river current of 4 km/hr crosses a temple on the bank in 10 sec, find the length of the temple on
the bank of the river.
(a) 50 m (b) 80 m (c) 70 m (d) 60 m
80. Three partners P, Q and R shared the profit in a business in the ratio 3 : 5 : 6. If they had partnered
for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively, then what is the ratio of their investment?
(a) 12 : 35 : 48 (b) 35 : 12 : 48 (c) 12 : 31 : 45 (d) 21 : 35 : 40

Section III - Data Analysis & Sufficiency
Directions for questions 81 to 85: Study the information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
In a vote bank consisting of 3200 voters, the ratio of male voters to female voters is 5 : 3. All the voters have
voted for different political parties viz. BJP, Congress, BSP, SP. Thirty percent of the female voters voted for
BSP. The number of male voters who voted for BJP is two-third the number of female voters voting for the
same party. One-third of the female voters voted for SP. The total number of voters voting for SP is 900.
One-sixth of the female voters voted for Congress and the remaining female voters voted for BJP. The male
voters voting for Congress is thrice the number of female voters voting for the same party. The remaining
male voters voted for BSP.
81. What is the respective ratio of male voters voting for SP to that of those voting for Congress?
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 5 : 6 (d) 3 : 4
82. The number of male voters voting for BJP is what percent of the total number of voters?
(a) 2% (b) 5% (c) 4% (d) 6%
83. The number of female voters voting for BSP is what percent of the total number of voters?
(a) 11.25% (b) 11.75% (c) 10.75% (d) 10.25%
84. What is the total number of voters voting for BJP?

(a) 425 (b) 400 (c) 410 (d) 475
85. What is the number of male voters voting for BSP?

(a) 720 (b) 700 (c) 640 (d) 740
Directions for questions 86 to 90: In the following questions, a question is followed by two statements.
Mark your answer as:
(a) if only one of the two statement is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) if either of the two statements is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if both the statements are required to answer the question.
(d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
86. What is the value of ‘a’, if ’a’ and ‘b’ are positive integers?
I. 2a + 3b = 15
II. a2 – b2 = 35
87. Who runs the fastest among Savita, Kavita and Lalita?
I. Savita runs slower than Kavita but walks faster than Lalita.
II. Lalita runs faster than Kavita but walks the slowest among the three.

88. The total marks scored by Himanshu, Tushar and Apurv was 255. What were their individual marks?
I. Himanshu and Tushar together scored 170 marks which were two third of the total marks scored
by all three of them.
II. Himanshu scored 13 marks more than Apurv and Tushar scored 26 marks less than
Himanshu.
89. How many people, out of a total of 550 people, have citizenship of both India and U.S.A?
I. 300 have citizenship of India, 325 have citizenship of U.S.A and 70 do not have citizenship of any
of the two countries.
II. 300 have citizenship of India, 325 have citizenship of U.S.A and 70 have citizenship of both U.S.A
and U.K. Also, each person has citizenship of at least one of these countries.
90. An equilateral triangle is inscribed in a circle. What is the area of the circle?
I. The side of the triangle is 4 cm.
II. The altitude of the triangle is 6 cm.
Directions for questions 91 to 95: Study the given instructions carefully to answer the following questions.
Each question consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in column B. Compare the quantities
given in the two columns.
Mark your answer as:

(a) if the quantity in Column B is greater than quantity in Column A.
(b) if the quantity in Column A is greater than quantity in Column B.
(c) if the two quantities in Column A and Column B are equal.
(d) if the relationship cannot be determined from the given information.
Column – A Column – B
2a + 3b 3a + 5b
91. If a : b = 3:4, value of If a : b = 2:3, value of
3a + 4b 4a + 6b
92. Total increase if 60 is increased by Total increase if 60 is increased by

25% and then by 33.33%. 33.33% and then by 25%
93. Number of factors of 256. Number of factors of 289
94. Efficiency of a person if 4 persons Efficiency of a person if 3 persons

working 5 hrs a day complete a work working 7 hrs a day complete a work
x in 6 days x in 5 days
95. Common difference if the first term Common difference if the first term
of a series is 5 and the sum of first 101 of a series is 6 and the sum of first 91
terms is 15655 terms is 16926.

Directions for questions 96 to 100: Study the following graph and pie chart carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Following bar graph represents monthly distribution of sales of cars of Naruti Fuzuki in the year 2006 and
the pie chart represents the overall percentage break up of sales of the different models of its cars in the
whole year.
7000
6000
6000 5200
5000
5000
Sales in units
4000
4000 3300 3500
3000 2600 2700
2400
2000 1800
2000 1500
1000
0
Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May Jun. Jul. Aug. Sept. Oct. Nov. Dec.
Month
Cruise
Z-star 7% Spark
19% 3%
Drift
23%
Omni
14%
Zolto Kitz
21% 13%
96. If the profit earned by the company on the sale of one Naruti Fuzuki Kitz is Rs.50,000. What is the
total profit earned by the company from the sale of Naruti Fuzuki Kitz in the year 2006?
(a) Rs.26 lakhs (b) Rs.26 crores (c) Rs.24 crores (d) Rs.24 lakhs
97. If the total sales of Naruti Fuzuki Zolto is equally divided across the twelve months in the year 2006,
what is the percentage sales of Zolto in the month of December over the total cars sold in December?
(a) 25% (b) 22% (c) 20% (d) 16.66%

98. In which month, the company experienced the maximum percentage increase in sales over the
previous month?
(a) March (b) May (c) November (d) October
99. If the manufacturing cost of a Naruti Fuzuki Cruise car is two times that of a Spark, then what will be
the approximate percentage change in the total manufacturing cost of the two models if the percentage
contribution of the sales of the two models are interchanged?
(a) 25% (b) 24.54% (c) 23.53% (d) 25.62%
100. If the sales of Naruti Fuzuki Drift was distributed equally across the four quarters of the year 2006,
then what is the difference between the sales (in units) of the other six models in the fourth and the
first quarter of the year?
(a) 6300 (b) 4300 (c) 6100 (d) 8400
Directions for questions 101 to 105: Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given
below it.
The line graph given below shows the percentage change in the number of candidates appeared for TAT
from 2004 to 2010. The table given below shows the ratio of the number of female candidates to the number
of male candidate who appeared for TAT from 2004 to 2010. The number of candidates appeared for TAT in
2003 is 1,20,000.
Percentage change in the Number of candidates
40 33.33
30
25
20 16.67
10 10
0
0
-10 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
-20
-30
-40 -40 -28.57
-50
Year

Year Females : Males

2004 3:8
2005 2:3
2006 5:6
2007 5:7
2008 2:5
2009 5:9
2010 4:7
101. Number of candidates appeared in 2008 and 2009 together is what percentage more/less than the
number of candidates appeared in 2005 and 2006 together?
(a) 16.67% (b) 20% (c) 33.33% (d) 40%
102. In both 2005 and 2010, 20% of the candidates were called for interview such that the number of male
candidates called is equal to the number of female candidates called. What is the difference between
the number of male candidates not called for interview in 2005 and 2010?
(a) 13,500 (b) 18,000 (c) 23,500 (d) 26,000
103. Number of female candidates appeared in 2005 and 2008 together is what percentage more/less
than the number of males candidates appeared in 2009?
(a) 9.09% (b) 10% (c) 11.11% (d) 12%
104. Increase in the number of male candidates from 2005 to 2008 is the same as that from 2010 to 2011.
What is the ratio of the number of male candidates appeared in 2011 to those appeared in 2004?
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 32 : 33 (c) 11 : 10 (d) 27 : 32
105. For how many of the given years is the number of female candidates appeared more than 50,000?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

Directions for questions 106 to 110: Study the following pie charts carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
The first two pie charts show the percentage breakup of the amount spent by two companies – Trifolla and
Unileader – in manufacturing different products under the Manufacturing Sector. The third pie chart shows
the percentage break up of the combined amount spent by the two companies in different sectors.
Food products
Other Items 18%
20% Other Item s Food Products
14% 15%
Electronic
Electronic
Products
Products
8%
15% Fashion
Consumer Products
Goods 26%
6%
Autom obile
Automobile Fashion Consum er Products
Products Products Goods 12%
15% 33% 18%
II - Unileader
I - Trifolla
Entertainment
Sector
8%
Consultation
Sector
15%
Manufacturing
Education Sector
Sector 48%
9%
Telecommunication
Sector
20%
III
106. If both the companies spent Rs. 12,00,000 each on Fashion Products, then what is the ratio of the
total amount spent by Trifolla to that of Unileader in the given sectors?
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:3 (c) 1:3 (d) Cannot be determined

107. If the amount spent by both the companies on Consumer goods is equal, then the combined
amount spent in Education Sector is what percentage more than the amount spent by Trifolla on
Automobile Products?
(a) 33.33% (b) 50% (c) 66.67% (d) 75%
108. If Trifolla spent an equal amount in each sector and its total expenses in the given sectors are equal
to the amount spent by Unileader in Manufacturing Sector, then find the respective ratio of the
amount spent on Food Products by Trifolla and Unileader?
(a) 6 : 25 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 2 : 9
109. If the total amount spent by the two companies on Other Items is the same as the combined
amount spent in Entertainment Sector, then find the respective ratio of the amount spent by Trifolla
and Unileader in Manufacturing Sector.
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2
110. If the total amount spent by the two companies in the given sectors is the same, then for which of
the following products are the expenses of Trifolla more than that of Unileader?
(a) Electronics Products (b) food Products
(c) Automobile Products (d) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 111 to 115: Study the following line chart carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
The line chart given below shows the number of units (in lakhs) of three different products – A, B and
C – produced by company XYZ ltd. from January to July in the year 2010. The company produces only
these three types of products.
90
80 80
Number of units(in lakhs)
70 70
65
60 60 60
55 55 55 Products A
50
45 45 Products B
40 40 40 40 40
Products C
30 30
25
20 20 20 20
10 12.5
0
Jan Feb March April May June July
Month

111. In which of the following months is the average number of units produced per product is the same
as the average number of units of product ‘A’ produced during the given months?
(a) March (b) April (c) May (d) June
112. In which of the following months is the percentage change in the number of units produced over the
previous month the same for atleast two products?
(a) February (b) March (c) January and June (d) February and June
113. What is the maximum percentage change in the total number of units of the three products produced
in any month over the previous month?
(a) 35% (b) 40% (c) 45% (d) 50%
114. During the given period, in which of the following months is the percentage change in the number of
units of any product produced in a month over the previous month the maximum?
(a) February (b) March (c) April (d) May
115. In which of the following months is the number of units of product ‘C’ produced the same as the
average number of units of the three products produced in that month?
(a) March (b) April (c) May (d) June
Directions for questions 116 to 120: Study the following Bar graph carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
The bar graph given below shows the population (in lakhs) of two countries – Somania and Urgania – for six
years from 1991 to 1996.
900 844
800 740 720
675
700 632
Population (in lakhs)
592
600 550525
500 Somania
400420
400 341359 Urgania
300
200
100
0
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996
Year

116. For which of the following two years is the percentage increase in the population of Urgania over the
previous year the same?
(a) 1993 and 1995 (b) 1994 and 1996 (c) 1992 and 1994 (d) None of these
117. What is the difference between the average populations of the two countries over the given period?
(a) 25 lakhs (b) 270 lakhs (c) 250 lakhs (d) 27 lakhs
118. For which of the following years is the percentage increase in the total population of the two countries
over the previous year the maximum?
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1994 (d) 1995
119. If the percentage increase in the respective populations of the two countries in 1997 over 1996 is the
same as that in 1993 over 1992, then what is the total population of the two countries in 1997?
(a) 2050 lakhs (b) 2040 lakhs (c) 2045 lakhs (d) None of these
120. For which of the following years is the percentage change in the absolute difference in the populations
of the two countries over the previous year the minimum?
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1994 (d) 1995

Section IV - General Awareness

121. Who among the following is the Chairman of SAIL?
(a) P K Sabbarwal (b) S P Sinha (c) V K Mishra (d) C S Verma
122. Ministry of Women and Child Development came into existence in which of the following year?
(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2009
123. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of Planning Commission?
(a) Finance Minister (b) Home Minister (c) Prime Minister (d) Planning Minister
124. Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) came into existence in which of the following year?
(a) 1947 (b) 1956 (c) 1967 (d) 1976
125. Which Indian Institute of Technology was first to be established?

(a) Kharagpur (b) Mumbai (c) Chennai (d) Kanpur
126. Sudirman cup is given for which of the following sports?

(a) Table Tennis (b) Badminton (c) Hockey (d) Football
127. Which of the following amendment included the Ninth Schedule in Indian constitution?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment (c) 1st Amendment (d) 9th Amendment
128. University of Wolverhampton conferred an Honorary Degree of Doctor of Social Sciences on who
among the following personality?
(a) N. Ram (b) Ratan Tata (c) Anil Ambani (d) Medha Patekar
129. Which among the following committee(s) was/were established to assess the situation of the
socially and educationally backward class in India?
(a) Kalelkar (b) Mandal (c) (a) and (b) Both (d) None
130. Which among the following countries wants to shut all nuclear reactors by 2022 in a rush after the
Fukushima disaster in Japan?
(a) France (b) Germany (c) U.K (d) South Korea
131. Which among the following state government recently has decided to raise the minimum age for
consumption of hard liquor from 21 to 25 years?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
132. Which bank did recently celebrate its 106th anniversary?

(a) Punjab National Bank (b) Bank of India
(c) Corporation Bank (d) Oriental Bank of Commerce
133. G. K. Industrial Park recently has become operational at which of the following place?
(a) Amritsar (b) Bhubaneswar (c) Chennai (d) Mangalore
134. Petronet LNG is in the process of building an LNG Terminal at which of the following places?
(a) Kochi (b) Mangalore
(c) Middle Andaman Island (d) Kavaratti

135. The GAAR report was submitted on 1 September 2012 to the finance minister of India by:
(a) Shome Committee (b) Dharmadhikari Committee
(c) Phukan Committee (d) B K Chaturvedi Committee
136. Suzlon Energy is a global wind power company. It is based in which of the following country?
(a) France (b) Spain (c) Japan (d) India
137. Who among the following was/were the Judge of Supreme Court of India?
(a) Ruma Pal (b) Fathima Beevi (c) Sujata Manohar (d) All of the above
138. What is the range of Agni V missile of India?

(a) 500 km (b) 1000 km (c) 5000 km (d) 1500 km
139. According to a latest World Health Organisation (WHO) report, highlighting that mobile phone users
may be at increased risk from which of the following disease?
(a) Skin Cancer (b) Brain cancer (c) Brain Tumor (d) Cardiac troubles
140. Who among the following has recently been appointed as Chairman of Rubber board of India?
(a) Anthony Fernanadis (b) Sheela Thomas
(c) Anil George (d) Biswas Kamal
141. Capital of Libya is-

(a) Sana (b) Mascot (c) Tripoli (d) Al jijyah
142. ETISALAT, a telecom giant, is based in which of the following country?

(a) Italy (b) Japan (c) France (d) UAE
143. Which of the following company was liable for Dubai Crisis?
(a) Nakheel (b) Merrill Lynch (c) Lehman Brothers (d) Stanley Morgan
144. Union government had appointed a Committee on black money to seek comments from public
under the Chairmanship of –
(a) Suresh Chandra (b) Prakash Chandra (c) Anil Rastogi (d) Dileep Kapoor
145. Tobin Tax is imposed on-

(a) Currency trade (b) Foreign currency trade
(c) Inter-bank transaction (d) Agriculture revenue
146. British setup their first factory at Surat with the approval of-
(a) Akbar (b) Babur (c) Jahangir (d) Shahjahan
147. If panchayat is dissolved ,elections are to be held within-

(a) 1 month (b) 2 month (c) 6 month (d) 1 year
148. Recently, Supreme Court refused to Review the petitions challenging Right to Education Act, 2009.
The right to education is included:
(a) to the right to honour in Article 19 (b) to the right to dignity in Article 21
(c) to the right to life in Article 21 (d) to the right to knowledge in Article 20

149. Condensation in the atmosphere occurs when the –

(a) relative humidity exceeds 75%
(b) absolute humidity is high
(c) temperature drops below the freezing point
(d) temperature reaches dewpoint
150. “The individual develops through the head, the heart, and the hand”, this was the educational
philosophy of:
(a) Herbart (b) Comenius (c) Pestalozzi (d) Froebel
151. Which of the following state/UTs has more than 50% tribal population of the total population?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Daman and Diu
152. ULIPs are a product of which financial institution?

(a) Stock Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(b) Insurance Regulation and Development Authority (IRDA)
(c) State Bank of India (SBI)
(d) Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
153. The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on:

(a) Parliamentary commissioner of UK (b) Ombudsman in Scandinavia
(c) Procurator General of Russia (d) Council of state in France
154. ‘Queensbery rules is the name given to the rules in -

(a) Cricket (b) Boxing (c) Tennis (d) Hockey
155. Napthoquinone is the name of which Vitamin?

(a) Vitamin B10 (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin E
156. Which of the following car manufacturing company has set up its unit for first time in Gujarat?
(a) Maruti Suzuki (b) Hyundai (c) Ford (d) Renault Nissan
157. In Drought Prone Area Programme, what is the ratio of contribution of Union and States?
(a) 90 : 10 (b) 80 : 20 (c) 70 : 30 (d) 75 : 25
158. Centralized Planning for the first time was adopted in which of the following country?
(a) France (b) India
(c) Former Soviet Union (d) China
159. Silent Valley is located in which of the following state?

(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
160. Who among the following personalities from India has been appointed as a director of Bank of
America?
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Anand Mahindra (c) Parmeshwar Godrej (d) Mukesh Ambani.

Section V - Language Comprehension

Directions for questions 161 to165: Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form
a logical paragraph.
161. A. We must be worked up by steam, as it were.

B. We are all creatures of sudden impulse.
C. Fifteen or twenty years ago I had an experience I shall never forget.
D. I got into a church, which was crowded by a sweltering and panting multitude.
E. Get your friends to write their wills now, or it may be too late by-and-by.
(a) BAECD (b) BCDAE (c) ABCED (d) BAEDC
162. A. It would be equally reasonable to put in pepper or salt.

B. Tea is meant to be bitter, just as beer is meant to be bitter.
C. Lastly, tea–unless one is drinking it in the Russian style–should be drunk without sugar.
D. But still, how can you call yourself a true tea-lover if you destroy the flavor of your tea by putting
sugar in it?
E. I know very well that I am in a minority here.
(a) ABCDE (b) CEDAB (c) CDEBA (d) CDEAB
163. A. It is brief and concise and makes no attempt at eloquence, which is extremely fortunate.
B. Under these circumstances we strongly recommend Dinners and Dishes to every one.
C. For even on ortolans who could endure oratory?
D. The subject of a work of art has, of course, nothing to do with its beauty, but still there is always
something depressing about the colored lithograph of a leg of mutton.
E. It also has the advantage of not being illustrated.
(a) ABCDE (b) ABCED (c) BACED (d) CEDAB
164. A. To tell people what to read is, as a rule, either useless or harmful.
B. I venture to recommend it as a mission to the University Extension Scheme.
C. The appreciation of literature is a question of temperament not of teaching.
D. But to tell people what not to read is a very different matter.
E. Indeed, it is one that is eminently needed in this age of ours, an age that reads so much, that it
has no time to admire.
(a) ABCDE (b) CADBE (c) ADCBE (d) ACDBE
165. A. When Roland Barthes died in 1980 at the age of 65, he was a professor at the Collège de
France.
B. He had become famous for incisive and irreverent analyses of French culture but was now
himself a cultural institution.
C. It was the highest position in the French academic system.
D. His reflections on aspects of daily life were featured in newspapers.
E. His lectures attracted huge, diverse crowds, from foreign tourists and retired school teachers to
eminent academics.
(a) ACBED (b) ABCDE (c) AEDCB (d) AECBD

Directions for questions 166 to 168: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been divided into
four parts . Pick the part of the sentence which is grammatically incorrect.
166. In reality there is (a) / no kind of evidence or argument (b) / which one can show that Shakespeare,
(c) / or any other writer, is ‘good’. (d)
167. Miss Ogden married (a) / a Hungarian diplomat, (b) / Count Zattiany, and (c) / never been heard of
since. (d)
168. As a democracy, (a) / America came in being (b) / at the same time as the(c ) / rise of the novel. (d)
Directions for questions 169 to 171: In each of the following questions, mark the antonym of the given
word.
169. Equanimous
(a) Jittery (b) Morose (c) Rough (d) Frivolous
170. Abstemious
(a) Holy (b) Selfish (c) Austere (d) Indulgent
171. Magnanimity
(a) Selfishness (b) Generous (c) Jovial (d) Happy
Directions for questions 172 to 174: In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is underlined.
Among the given options choose the one that explains the meaning of the underlined portion of the sentence
most appropriately.
172. As he is transferred to another city for his new project, he wants somewhere to hang up his hat.
(a) Wants to make friends and acquaintances
(b) Wants a place to live
(c) Wants to settle well in the new city
(d) Wants to contact his acquaintances in the new city
173. Instead of coming for the football practice regularly, he comes only on Sundays. We expect him
to drop the other shoe and quit the practice altogether any day now.
(a) To do the deed that completes something.
(b) To come up with a formal notice.
(c) To start an activity.
(d) To resume a habit.
174. This is a fine kettle of fish. I have lost my wallet on the railway station in this alien city and I cant
even make a call as the battery of my mobile phone has completely discharged.
(a) A kettle of very bad quality.
(b) A troublesome situation.
(c) A kettle of good quality.
(d) An interesting situation.

Directions for questions 175 to 177: Identify the best way of writing the sentence in the context of the
correct usage of standard written English .
175. (a) The Greek poetry of Homer was at first transmitted orally, stored in the memory, as were the
Vedas, the Sanskrit hymns of the ancient Hindus, which were unwritten for centuries.
(b) The Greek poetry of Homer were at first transmitted orally, stored in the memory, as were the
(c) The Greek poetry of Homer was first transmitted orally, stored in the memory, as were the
(d) The Greek poetry of Homer was at first transmitted orally, stored in memory, as were the Vedas,
the Sanskrit hymns of the ancient Hindus, that were unwritten for centuries.
176. (a) Even as this goes to press, number of lives lost to the Asian tsunami and its aftermath appears
literally countless.
(b) Even as this goes to press, the number of lives lost to the Asian tsunami and its aftermath
appears literally countless.
(c ) Even as this goes to press, the number of lives lost to the Asian tsunami and it’s aftermath
appears literally countless.
(d) Even as this goes to press, the number of lives lost to the Asian tsunami and its aftermath
appears countless literally.
177. (a) Under this tightly oligarchic constitution two consuls – most powerful officials in the state – were
elected each year.
(b) Under this tightly oligarchic constitution two consuls – the most powerful officials in the state –
was elected each year.
(c ) Under this tightly oligarchic constitution two consuls – the most powerful officials in the state –
were elected each year.
(d) Under this tightly oligarchic constitution two consuls – the most powerful officials in the state –
were each year elected.
Directions for questions 178 to 180: Choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks .
178. A cut of that magnitude would _____ major reductions in spending that are likely to spur protests
across many fronts, and Republican leaders have refused to ________any major targets before
Election Day.
(a) cause, set (b) impact, establish
(c) necessitate, specify (d) allow, regulate
179. The current round of reforms, which allow pension funds to invest more in equities, will help _______
market growth, as will the continued __________of state-owned enterprises.
(a) abet , protection (b) stimulate, polarization
(c) encourage, disinvestment (d) spur, privatization
180. Customized products that _______ on data and better risk analysis could provide new _______ for
growth-boosting innovations.
(a) postulate, conduits (b) gamble, routes
(c) rely, avenues. (d) lean, expectations

Directions for questions 181 to 184: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Little does the subject interest me! Can we not do without the society of our gossips a little while under
these circumstances – have our own thoughts to cheer us? Confucius says truly, “Virtue does not remain
as an abandoned orphan; it must of necessity have neighbors.”
Regarding thinking, we may be beside ourselves in a sane sense. By conscious effort of the mind, we can
stand aloof from actions and their consequences; and all things, good and bad, go by us like a torrent. We
are not wholly involved in Nature. I may be affected by a theatrical exhibition; on the other hand, I may not
be affected by an actual event, which appears to concern me much more. I only know myself as a human
entity; the scene, so to speak, of thoughts and affections; and am sensible of a certain doubleness by
which I can stand as remote from myself as from another. However intense my experience, I am conscious
of the presence and criticism of a part of me, which, as it were, is not a part of me, but spectator, sharing
no experience, but taking note of it, and that is no more I than it is you. When the play, it may be the
tragedy, of life is over, the spectator goes his way. It was a kind of fiction, a work of the imagination only, so
far as he was concerned. This double ness may easily make us poor neighbors and friends sometimes.
For the greater part of the time, I find it wholesome to be alone. To be in company, even with the best, is
soon wearisome and dissipating. I never found the companion that was so companionable as solitude. A
man thinking or working is always alone; let him be where he will. Solitude is not measured by the miles of
space that intervene between a man and his fellows. The really diligent student in one of the crowded hives
of Cambridge College is as solitary as a dervish in the desert. The farmer can work alone in the field or the
woods all day, hoeing or chopping, and not feel lonesome, because he is employed; but when he comes
home at night, he cannot sit down in a room alone, at the mercy of his thoughts, but must be where he can
“see the folks” and recreate and, as he thinks, remunerate himself for his day’s solitude.
Society is commonly too cheap. We meet at very short intervals, not having had time to acquire any new
value for each other. We have had to agree on a certain set of rules, called etiquette and politeness, to
make this frequent meeting tolerable and that we need not come to open war. We meet at the post office
and about the fireside every night; we live thick and are in each other’s way and stumble over one another,
and I think that we thus lose some respect for one another. Certainly less frequency would suffice for all
important and hearty communications. It would be better if there were but one inhabitant to a square mile,
as where I live. The value of a man is not in his skin, that we should touch him!
I have a great deal of company in my house; especially in the morning, when nobody calls. Let me suggest
a few comparisons, that someone may convey an idea of my situation. What company has that lonely
lake, I pray? And yet it has not the blue devils, but the blue angels in it, in the azure tint of its waters. The
sun is alone, except in thick weather, when there sometimes appear to be two, but one is a mock sun. God
is alone – but the devil, he is far from being alone; he sees a great deal of company; he is legion. I am no
lonelier than a single mullein or dandelion in a pasture, or a bean leaf, or sorrel, or a horse-fly, or a
bumblebee. I am no lonelier than the Mill Brook, or a weathercock, or the North Star, or the south wind, or
an April shower, or a January thaw, or the first spider in a new house.
181. As per the author’s perception, people interact the way they do because they
(a) tend to harbor a belief that no man is an island.
(b) try to adhere to the accepted societal do’s and don’ts.
(c) do not want to become cheap in the eyes of their acquaintances.
(d) usually meet one another only for a short time.

182. As understood from the passage, the author’s company is

(a) nature
(b) any other living entity
(c) loneliness
(d) solitude
183. According to the author, what makes us ‘poor neighbors and friends’ sometimes?
(a) Our thought that we have as much right to criticize as to participate.
(b) We split ourselves, psychologically, into a doer and a spectator.
(c) Our partial detachment to the things we are given to behold.
(d) Our lack of willingness to participate in the activities of life.
184. How does the author justify his choice of solitude?

(a) The author says that his mind is always thinking.
(b) He says that having less frequent interactions with others will improve communication with
them
(c) He can effortlessly bifurcate his consciousness into a spectator and a doer, in other words,
his ‘double ness’.
(d) He says that he finds it tiresome to put up a show of enjoying company.
Directions for questions 185 to 188: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions.
As the world’s ‘youngest’ country, as a land of entrepreneurship with the largest number of the self-
employed, India has an unmatched talent for creativity in the face of adversity. It offers space for ingenuity
across diverse and large markets, the diversity allowing room for a range of products and services. In the
context of the global financial and economic turmoil, this trait holds the promise that India can successfully
emerge from this crisis.
India enjoys in-built protection against the global meltdown to a greater degree than most economies,
thanks to its domestic market, conservative banking system, savings rate and young workforce. Indian
businesses have focused more on the domestic than the export market, stepping up marketing beyond the
metro cities in recent years.
Rural India is seeing a new revolution in infrastructure building, from an expanding road network to more
agriculture produce collection centres. But telecom connectivity has probably been the single most revolu-
tionary infrastructure development after the railways network set up almost a century ago. Mobile services
have brought technology to farmers’ doorsteps, providing information on market prices, transport and
marketing opportunities. Connectivity has helped improve governance, empowering rural households to
access education, healthcare and civic and other facilities.
India’s basic potential as a market and manufacturing hub remains but there are caveats. The attraction of
its large workforce is affected by the fact of low skill levels. Low-cost manufacture is offset by poor,
unreliable infrastructure facilities. India’s large market potential is tempered as much by poor transport
infrastructure as by poverty and unemployment levels that restrain qualitative growth. Finally, the manufac-
turing sector still faces infrastructure and cost deficiencies.

India’s Vision 2020 with its physical and social infrastructure development goals presents the way out of
the conundrum. Education for all, increased employment, financial inclusion are some key goals. But
implementation of the vision is itself a challenge, primarily in terms of capital investment at a time when
credit availability worldwide has shrunk. Several infrastructure projects have already fallen behind schedule
because of paucity of credit and 2008 saw a net outflow of capital by foreign institutional investors.
But India has vast requisite capital. It has one of the highest rates of savings at more than 34 per cent.
Funds from corporate sources are also available but lie unutilised. In the telecom sector, for example,
infrastructure growth especially in rural areas is lagging, partly for lack of funds. Significant amounts
remain unused with the Universal Service Obligation Fund, funds contributed by industry for telecom
infrastructure development.
India needs to release its wealth of entrepreneurial talent. Around 52 per cent of Indians are self-employed,
about 55 per cent in rural communities and 41 per cent in urban areas. Many of these (about 20 per cent,
according to the International Labour Organisation) are at the bottom of the pyramid, alternating between
wage labour, self-employment by selling skills and engaging in minor business such as vegetable vending.
About 15 per cent of self-employed are believed to be entirely dependent on such activities. Boosting such
entrepreneurship would grow employment, lift income levels, strengthen the domestic market and reduce
dependence on exports. It would encourage innovation and productive services.
185. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

(a) India’s protective measures in entrepreneurship and youthful dynamism have, ultimately, allowed
for sustained inclusive growth in the process of tiding over the slowdown.
(b) India’s creativity in entrepreneurship and youthful dynamism would, ultimately, allow for sustained
inclusive growth in the process of tiding over the slowdown.
(c) enhancing India’s position within the global economy and attracting much higher domestic and
international investments for multiplier growth.
(d) India should emphasize more on enhancing entrepreneurial talent to lead to sustained economic
growth.
186. According to the passage which of the following has been mentioned as factors that protect the
Indian economy
1. Rural market potential
2. Conservative banking system
3. Large numbers of unskilled labour
4. High savings rate
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
187. According to the passage, how has the telecom revolution helped the Indian economy?
(a) The resultant connectivity has helped improve governance and led to the empowerment of the
farmer and the rural household.
(b) It has brought technology to farmer’s doorsteps, providing information on market prices, trans-
port and marketing opportunities.
(c) It has enhanced infrastructure development in the country by empowering the rural households
(d) It has opened up space for the growth of entrepreneurial talent.

188. According to the author, what is the challenge presented to Vision 2020?
(a) Implementation is a challenge particularly with regard to the vast infrastructure requirements of
Vision 2020.
(b) Implementation is a challenge and several infrastructure projects have already fallen behind
schedule.
(c) Implementation is a challenge particularly in terms of credit investment requirements of the
Vision.
(d) Implementation is a challenge particularly in terms of the credit requirements of the Vision.
Directions for questions 189 to 194: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions.
It is a matter of life or death: that’s a concept that gets our attention, whether chuckling over it in a B-grade
film, or engrossed by it in an A-grade medical book such as this year’s Pulitzer Prize winner for nonfiction,
The Emperor of All Maladies: A Biography of Cancer by Siddhartha Mukherjee.
It isn’t hyperbole to call Emperor a literary masterpiece. The Pulitzer citation describes it as, “an elegant
inquiry, at once clinical and personal, into the long history of an insidious disease that, despite treatment
breakthroughs, still bedevils medical science.”
“Elegant” is an apposite description of the New York-based oncologist’s prose, whether he is rephrasing
Tolstoy: “Normal cells are identically normal; malignant cells become unhappily malignant in unique ways”;
or explaining the book’s provocative title: “This book is a ‘biography’ in the truest sense of the word – an
attempt to enter the mind of this immortal illness, to understand its personality, to demystify its behaviour”;
or extrapolating, from cancer’s ability to mutate, into the realm of philosophy: “If we, as a species, are the
ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too, is this incredible disease that lurks inside us.”
Mukherjee weaves together multiple stories about medical advances, doctors and scientists, and the
patients who teach us something in the living or dying. Emperor is a historical account of cancer; we
understand how cancer rose to prominence as a leading cause of death – as a direct result of human
beings living longer now, and more likely to develop cancer. A greater understanding of the disease however
comes with the caveat, the more you know, the more aware you are of how much you don’t know.
Tales related to surgery, with its inherent drama, has the edge on our medical reading lists. Some medical
books fall into the Self Help category — one of the most successful genres in the publishing world today.
While the genre can attract those looking to make a quick buck by peddling to people’s insecurities, there
are some useful tomes too. Author Tim Parks in Teach Us to Sit Still shares how reading a famous self-help
book, A Headache in the Pelvis helped with his chronic pelvic pain syndrome.
Medical books deal with a subject close to our hearts — us, we, ourselves. Perhaps the ones we are most
drawn to – thrillers aside – are those that give us a deeper insight into how the mind-body machine works,
why we are sick, how we can get better — and, unhappily, sometimes, why we can’t.
189. According to the author, medical books catch our attention because
(a) they have a biographical aspect to them.
(b) they are written in elegant prose.
(c) they deal with matters of life and death.
(d) they teach us how to take care of our own diseases.

190. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) Books related to surgery are less popular than self-help books in medical reading lists.
(b) There is a large demand for self-help books today.
(c) Self-help books are never useful.
(d) All self-help books play with people’s insecurities.
191. What is the “biographical” aspect of Mukherjee’s book?

(a) It provides a moving account of Siddhartha’s personal struggle with the dreaded disease.
(b) The book uses several real-life case studies of people who have fought against cancer
(c) The book tries to look at cancer from within, to understand the behaviour of the disease and
to demystify it.
(d) The book provides a comprehensive historical account of the disease.
192. Which of the following statements follows from the passage?

(a) Understanding cancer better amounts to surmounting it.
(b) Cancer is a product of natural selection.
(c) The Emperor of All Maladies is more personal than clinical.
(d) Mukherjee’s book is a success because of its inherent drama.
193. In his book, Tim Parks

(a) teaches his readers how to deal with chronic pelvic pain syndrome.
(b) recounts how a self-help book helped him.
(c) provides insight into how we deal with pain.
(d) traces the evolution of chronic pelvic pain syndrome.
194. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
(a) Medical books gives us greater insight into ourselves.
(b) The concept of “life and death” catches our attention regardless of the quality of the book or
film.
(c) Cancer has always been the leading cause of death.
(d) The title of Siddhartha’s book is provocative.
Directions for questions 195 to 200: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions.
‘One of the most urgent conceptual, normative and political tasks of our day is to think anew about how
polities that aspire to be democracies can accommodate great sociocultural, even multinational, diversity
within one state.’ The old wisdom holds that the territorial boundaries of a state must coincide with the
perceived cultural boundaries of a nation. More starkly stated, the assertion is that every state must
contain within itself one and not more than one culturally homogeneous nation, that every state should be
a nation, and that every nation should be a state.
Unlike what such a proposition might suggest, not only do most states incorporate a large degree of
diversity – cultural, religious, linguistic – but that most states have not been created by a coherent nation
actualizing itself. Rather, they are the result of rulers successfully imposing themselves, often by wars or
international settlements following wars. A nation-state without a prior state helping construct it, is today
inconceivable. The authors of this dense, and often provocative, monograph instead suggest an alternative
category of state-nation as an overarching umbrella concept to more successfully manage diversities.

While the promotion of the category is in itself not new (Rammanohar Lohia too, for instance, preferred it
over nation-state; similarly, historian Ravinder Kumar advanced the notion of a civilization-state), what is far
more valuable are their policy suggestions which are supportive of the crafting of state-nations – policies,
they argue, which better fit and help manage the complexities of culturally diverse modern democracies.
Of course, both nation-states and state-nations have to be working states. Also, to be a viable state-nation,
even if the state recognizes and supports different languages, cultures, even nations within its policy, the
citizens should have a high degree of identification with the state, be comfortable with multiple but compli-
mentary political identities, show a high level of trust in the state’s institutions, and demonstrate a high
degree of positive support for democracy among the diverse groups of citizens in the country. Interestingly,
a comparison between countries closer to the state-nation and the nation-state pole (Switzerland, India,
Canada, Belgium, Spain as examples of state-nations and Germany, Austria, the U.S., Australia, Argen-
tina and Brazil as examples of nation-states) shows that countries closer to the state-nation pole actually
score higher on the degree of trust in six key political institutions of the state. In short, they argue that
multiple but complimentary identities and democratic state-nation loyalties are possible to craft even in a
polity with robust multinational dimensions and a plethora of intense linguistic and religious differences.
India is a case in point because in addition to cultural diversity, it also has territorially based linguistic/
cultural cleavages which need to be creatively managed if the country is to hold together.
Clearly context matters. Crafting a nation-state (unitary or federal) is easier if only one significant, territo-
rially concentrated, politically activated sociocultural identity exists, as in France or Japan. If the society is
characterized by more than one significant mobilized socio-cultural identity, as in India, crafting a nation-
state will be far more conflictual than a state-nation. And, if we have a situation of unbounded plurality, a
pure multinational context, as in the erstwhile USSR or Yugoslavia, then crafting a democratic, federal
polity in one territory becomes extremely difficult. Such states are usually held together by force and are
likely to fall apart when the context changes. States can be multinational societies but not multinational
states.
195. Which of the following is true as per the traditional view?

(a) Not more than one nation can have the same culture.
(b) Every nation should have only one culture.
(c) Certain nations of a particular geographical belt should have only one culture.
(d) A nation that has more than one culture cannot make a state.
196. What is ‘a state’ as per the passage?

(a) A Nation
(b) A culture
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
197. The fourth sentence of the second paragraph states “… promotion of the category…” Which category
is being referred to here?
(a) Nation-states
(b) State-nations
(c) Civilization-states
(d) None of these

198. Which of the following situations in a country will best facilitate the creation of a state-nation?
(a) Multiple political identities exist within the state.
(b) The citizens completely trust state institutions.
(c) The states are held together by force.
(d) There are several socio-cultural identities at work within the country.
199. According to the passage, Ravinder Kumar put forward the concept of
(a) A state nation
(b) A nation state
(c) A civilization state
(d) None of the above
200. The tone of the author in the passage is

(a) Argumentative
(b) Biased
(c) Analytical
(d) Impassioned


1 a 2 d 3 c 4 c 5 d 6 d 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 a
11 a 12 a 13 b 14 b 15 d 16 b 17 d 18 a 19 a 20 b
21 a 22 d 23 b 24 c 25 b 26 a 27 b 28 a 29 b 30 d
31 a 32 c 33 a 34 b 35 d 36 b 37 c 38 d 39 b 40 a
41 c 42 b 43 b 44 d 45 d 46 b 47 c 48 d 49 c 50 b
51 a 52 b 53 c 54 a 55 a 56 d 57 b 58 c 59 b 60 b
61 a 62 c 63 a 64 c 65 a 66 d 67 c 68 a 69 c 70 a
71 c 72 b 73 d 74 d 75 a 76 b 77 c 78 c 79 b 80 a
81 c 82 b 83 a 84 b 85 d 86 c 87 c 88 a 89 b 90 b
91 a 92 c 93 b 94 a 95 a 96 b 97 c 98 d 99 c 100 a
101 a 102 c 103 c 104 d 105 d 106 d 107 c 108 a 109 a 110 d
111 b 112 a 113 b 114 d 115 c 116 a 117 d 118 b 119 c 120 a
121 d 122 a 123 c 124 b 125 a 126 b 127 c 128 a 129 c 130 b
131 c 132 c 133 c 134 a 135 a 136 d 137 d 138 c 139 b 140 b
141 c 142 d 143 a 144 b 145 b 146 c 147 c 148 c 149 d 150 c
151 c 152 b 153 b 154 b 155 c 156 a 157 d 158 c 159 c 160 d
161 a 162 b 163 c 164 d 165 a 166 c 167 d 168 b 169 a 170 d
171 a 172 b 173 a 174 b 175 a 176 b 177 c 178 c 179 d 180 c
181 b 182 d 183 c 184 b 185 b 186 c 187 a 188 d 189 c 190 b
191 c 192 b 193 b 194 c 195 b 196 d 197 b 198 b 199 c 200 c

1. a “Mother-in-law of your wife” is your mother. “Only 8. c 2 3 7 17 36 ? (67 ) 11 3

daughter of my father’s father-in-law” must be my 1 4 10 19 31 46
mother. Since the mother of the two persons is same, 3 6 9 12 15
they must be brothers.
9. b 4 = 1 × 22
2. d “Paternal grandmother of children of my wife’s brother” 18 = 2 × 32
is my wife’s mother only. My wife’s mother is my 48 = 3 × 42
mother-in-law. Hence the man is the son-in-law of the 100 = 4 × 52
woman. 180 = 5 × 62
? = 6 × 72 = 294
3. c M+1=N
A+3=D
10. a
C+5=H
H+7=O
I+6=O
N+4=R
E+2=G 11. a Assertion and reason both are true. The reason
Hence MACHINE = NDHOORG. explains why republic day is celebrated on 26th
Similarly, January 2011. Hence, the correct answer choice is
PLANETS = QOFUKXU option (a).
4. c It is clear from the first two figures that the four faces 12. a Assertion and reason both are true. Reason explains
adjacent to the face containing 1 dot contain 2, 3, 5 why ice floats on the surface of water. Hence, the
and 4 dots respectively. The face of the die, which is correct answer choice is option (a).
opposite the face containing 6 dots must contain
1 dot. 13. b Both Assertion and reason are individually true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of the given Assertion.
5. d Let,
RH = Rahim’s house and PH = Pushpak’s House 14. b Both Assertion and reason are individually true but (R)
RO = Rahim’s office and PO = Pushpak’s office is not the correct explanation of the given Assertion.
15. d Sunlight does not contain Vitamin D. Sunlight is required

by our bodies in order to synthesize Vitamin D.
N RO RH
16. b The argument assumes that the only way the country's
E
defence can remain intact is by funding the attack
S o uth-W e st submarine program. Hence, the argument assumes
PH that funding this program is essential for the defence.
Option (a) is stated in the argument and hence cannot
be an assumption. Option (c) and (d) are irrelevant.
PO
17. d Reading is not essential for giving MOCK Tests. Reading
has been suggested as one way of scoring more in
For questions 6 to 10: MOCK Tests but it is not a necessary condition to
appear for them.
6. d 3 = 12 + 21
8 = 22 + 22 18. a Aman states that Juhi is not a feminist because her
17 = 32 + 23 actions do not match the actions of other feminists
32 = 42 + 24 that he has seen. He assumes that the feminist that he
57 = 52 + 25 has seen on television depict all the possible features
? = 62 + 26 = 100 of feminism.
7. a 15 = 3×5 19. a Argument does not explain why/how sending a few

35 = 5×7 troops will lead to sending of thousands more.
77 = 7×11
143 = 11 × 13
? = 13 × 17 = 221

For questions 20 to 22: For questions 29 to 31:

Number of objects in the three boxes must be 1, 2 and 4
respectively. H a sa n
If F and D are in the same box then exactly one among A, B and S h ilpa
S u ja ta
C must also be in that box. Similarly, exactly one among A, B
and C must also be in the same box as E and G. Hence, if F and
D are in the same box then we’ll have two boxes containing
more than 2 objects each. This is not possible. Hence F and D S a njay S u nil
are in different boxes and F and C are in the same box.
Following four cases of distribution are possible:
S a jid S a lim
Box 1 Box 2 Box 3
R e eta
CASE 1 A B, D C, E, F, G
CASE 2 B A, D C, E, F, G
29. b
CASE 3 A F, C B, E, D, G
CASE 4 B F, C A, E, D, G 30. d
20. b 31. a
21. a CASE 1 will apply in such a situation. For questions 32 to 34:
22. d Both CASE 3 and CASE 4 are applicable in such a A B C D

situation. Start station R Q S P
For questions 23 to 25: Destination Q P R S
Increasing order of age (left to right)

32. c
Kolkata Bangalore Delhi Pune Mumbai
Emran Dheeru Chetan Amit Binay 33. a
23. b 34. b
24. c
35. d O
25. b
For questions 26 to 28:

A M1
left to right
NAME Kirpal Vijay Jatin Ram Mohan Santosh M2
SURNAME Kohli Joshi Vats Tyagi Rehman Singh
26. a Hence answer is (d).
27. b
36. b B
28. a T P
Hence answer is (b).

43. b Let the total work be (LCM of 15, 20 and 30) = 60 units.
37. c Work done by A in a day = 4 units
M AT Work done by B in a day = 3 units
Work done by C in a day = 2 units
S I Work done by A, B and C together in a day = 4 + 3 + 2
= 9 units
Work done by them in 4 days = 9 × 4 = 36 units
Remaining work = 60 – 36 = 24 units
Work done by A and C in two days = 4 + 2 = 6 units
Hence answer is (c). So, 24 units of work will be complete in 4 × 2
i.e. 8 days
Hence, the total time = 4 + 8 = 12 days.
38. d
P
D C1 44. d Let 3x, 5x and 8x be the number of coins of 2 rupees,
1 rupee and 50 paise respectively.
C2 8x
Then, 3x × 2 + 5x + = 675
2
⇒ 15x = 675 ⇒ x = 45
Hence answer is (d). Hence, the number of coins are 135, 225 and 360.
39. b 384
45. d Price per kg of sugar = = Rs.24
G oo d 16
B o oks
B a d2 Let Rs.x per kg be the price of the other quality of
sugar.
B a d1 Using Alligation:
24 x
Hence answer is (b). 32
40. a Daman is to the right of Chaman who is to the right of x – 32 : 8

Elan. Also Aman is to the right of Baman and Daman
(and hence Chaman and Elan as well). Thus the person x – 32 3
∴ = ⇒ x = Rs.38 per kg.
at the rightmost end of the row is Aman 8 4
41. c Charu’s present age = 12 years, Esha’s present age 46. b Total number of balls = 5(Blue) + 4(Red) + 3(Yellow)
= 2 × 12 = 24 years and Darsh’s present age = 24 + 6 = 12
= 30 years
5
Hence, Darsh’s age 8 years ago = 30 – 8 = 22 years. C 3 + 4 C3 + 3 C 3
The required probability = 12
C3
42. b D C
10 + 4 + 1 15 3
H 2 .5 m G = = i.e. .
220 220 44
2.5 m
47. c Perimeter of the square field = 4 × 8 = 32 m

25 m
32
Number of poles required = = 16.
2
E P a th F
48. d The part of the tank filled in one minute
A B
35 m
1 1 1 6+5–3 8
= + – = =
Let ABCD be the rectangular park. 15 18 30 90 90
EF = 35 – 2 × 2.5 = 30 m and FG = 25 – 2 × 2.5 = 20 m Hence, total time taken to fill the tank
Area of path = Area of rectangle ABCD – Area of
90 1
rectangle EFGH = minutes or 11 minutes.
= 35 × 25 – 30 × 20 = 875 – 600 = 275 m2. 8 4

49. c Let r be the base radius of the cylinder.

X Y Z
Volume of sphere = Volume of cylinder 55. a Let = = =k
3 4 6
3
4 8 ⇒ X = 3k, Y = 4k and Z = 6k
⇒ × π ×   = π × r 2 × 16
3 2 So X : Y : Z = 3k : 4k : 6k i.e. 3 : 4 : 6
6
42 Hence, Z’s part = Rs.3,367 × = Rs.1,554.
⇒ = r2 13
3
4 56. d Total number of ways of choosing 2 numbers out of

⇒ r= cm
3 10 = 10C2
Hence, the diameter of the base of the cylinder Number of ways for sum of two numbers will be a
prime number:
8 (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (1, 10), (2, 3), (2, 5), (2, 9), (3, 4),
= cm.
3 (3, 8), (3, 10), (4, 7), (4, 9), (5, 6), (5, 8), (6, 7), (7, 10),
(8, 9) and (9, 10).
50. b Using Alligation: 18 18 2
The required probability = 10
= = .
2 5% 4 0% C2 45 5
30
57. b Let total quantity of the tank be (LCM of 12 and 20)
10 : 5 = 60 units.
Tap T1 fills in one minute = 3 units
Tap T2 empties in one minute = 5 units
Hence, the required ratio = 10 : 5 i.e. 2 : 1.
2 units are emptied in one minute
30
7 30 units(i.e. half tank) emptied in = 15 minutes.
51. a Number of men = 728 × = 392 and number of 2
13
women = 728 – 392 = 336
58. c Let 8x and 5x be the quantity (in liters) of milk and
Let x be the increase in the number of women increase.
water in the solution. Then,
Then,
8x 3
392 + 8 20 = ⇒ x = 18
= ⇒ x = 4. 5x+ 6 2
336 + x 17
Hence, the quantity of milk in the solution = 8 × 18
= 144 litre.
52. b Let n be the required number of men. Then,
24 × 10 × 9 n×8×6 59. b Let 4x and 3x be the incomes and 3y and 2y be the
= expenditures of A and B respectively.
30 × 6 × 3 20 × 4 × 1.5
Then, 4x – 3y = 600 and 3x – 2y = 600
⇒ n = 10. From two equations, we get x = y = 600.
Hence, incomes of A and B are Rs.2,400 and Rs.1,800
53. c Digits are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively.
The digits to be used so that the number is divisible by
9 are 60. b Area of the playground
(0, 1, 2, 6), (0, 1, 3, 5), (0, 2, 3, 4) and (3, 4, 5, 6)
Number of ways = 3 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 3 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 3 × 3 Total cost 3456
= 2
= = 432 m2
×2×1+4×3×2×1 Cost per m 8
= 18 + 18 + 18 + 24 = 78. Let 4x and 3x be the length and breadth of the
rectangular playground.
54. a 2 men = 3 women
So, 18 women = 12 men and 6 women = 4 men Then, 4x × 3x = 432 ⇒ x 2 = 36 ⇒ x = 6
12 men + 18 women = 24 men Hence, length = 4 × 6 = 24 m and breadth = 3 × 6 = 18
14 men + 6 women = 18 men m.
Now 24 men sow 6 hectares
6
⇒ 18 men sow × 18 = 4.5 hectares.
24

61. a Yogesh’s annual investment

= (40,000 × 4 + 55,000 × 8) = Rs. 6,00,000 75 3
Therefore, the height of each pillar is m.
Manoj’s annual investment 2
= (60,000 × 4 + 50,000 × 8) = Rs. 6,40,000
Therefore, ratio of their investment will be 15:16. 64. c Let the total distance traveled by business = x km.
Annual profit earned = Rs. 3,10,000
2
Therefore, Yogesh’s share in the profit He traveled 1200 km by air, which was th part of his
5
15 whole trip.
= × 3,10,000 = Rs. 1,50,000.
31
2
i.e. × x = 1200 ⇒ x = 3000 km.
62. c When A runs 400 m, B runs 375 m. 5
When A runs 400 m, C runs 350 m.
1
From the above situation we can say that, when Now, rd of his trip was by car, which means,
B runs 375 m, C runs 350 m. 3
350 × 400 1
Therefore, when B runs 400 m, C will run = distance traveled by car = × 3000 = 1000 km.
375 3
= 373.33 m. Distance traveled by air and car = 1200 + 1000
Thus, B can give C a head start of 26.67 m. = 2200 km.
Therefore, distance traveled by train = 3000 – 2200
63. a = 800 km.
A 65. a Let the average weight of the 49 students be x.

C Therefore, the total weight of the 49 students will be
49x.
If the weight of the student who left is added, the total
weight of the class = 49x + 48.
h When this student is included, the average weight
h decreased by 0.4 kg.
49x + 48
Therefore, = x – 0.4
6 0° 50
3 0°
⇒ 49x + 48 = 50x – 20
B
x O 1 50 – x D ⇒ x = 68.
Let AB and CD be the two pillars and O be the point on 66. d 40% of 80 = 32.
the roadway between the two pillars such that BO 30% of 70 = 21.
= x metre and OD = (150 – x) metre. Difference between the two values i.e. 32 – 21 = 11
In ∆ABO , Therefore, percentage by which 32 is greater than 21
h 11
tan60° = is × 100 = 52.38%
x 21
Hence, the value of x is 52.38%.
⇒h=x 3 …(i)
In ∆CDO , 25
67. c Relative speed = 15 – 10 = 5 km/hr = m/sec
h 18
tan30° =
150 − x Time taken to catch the thief =
150 − x Dis tance 400 ×18

⇒h= = = 288 sec.
…(ii) Relative speed 25
3
Solving equations (i) and (ii) for x, we get 15 × 5
Distance traveled by policeman = × 288
75 18
x= m. i.e. 1200 m.
2
Now substituting the value of x in equation (i), we get
75 3
h=
2

68. a Out of 40 litre, 70 % is alcohol i.e. 28 litre is alcohol and 72. b Percentage of boys who play football in the class
remaining 12 litre is water.
60 15
When ‘x’ litre of alcohol is added to the mixture, we get = × ×100 = 9%
(28 + x) litre of alcohol in the mixture and (40 + x) litre 100 100
of the new mixture. Since, 18% of students are football players, percentage
As, (28 + x) litres of alcohol accounts for 80% of
(40 + x) litres of the mixture. 9
of football players who are boys = 100 × 100 = 50% .
80 18
Therefore, 28 + x = (40 + x)
100 100
Solving for x, we get
x = 20 litres. 73. d Let the speed of the man in still water be x km/hr, and
the speed of the current be y km/hr.
69. c Let the number of oranges be 100. Time taken to row against the current
On the first day he sells 40% of the oranges i.e. 40 .
Remaining oranges = 60 1 45 3
= 11 min = min = hr.
He throws 10% of the remaining oranges 4 4 16
10 Time taken to row with the current
i.e. × 60 = 6.
100 1 15 1
= 7 min = min = hr.
Remaining oranges 60 – 6 = 54. 2 2 8
The next day he sells 50% of the remaining oranges
3 3 3
50 Distance traveled = km ⇒ = (x – y) × …(i)
i.e. × 54 = 27. 4 4 16
100
Therefore, percentage of oranges sold 3 1
⇒ = (x + y) × …(ii)
= 40 + 27 = 67%. 4 8
Solving equations (i) and (ii) for x, we get
70. a Let the speed of super fast train be x km/hr. x=5
And the speed of passenger train be y km/hr. Therefore, speed of the man in still water = 5 km/hr.
From the given condition, we get
y = x – 40 …(i) 74. d
From the station till the point where super fast train O
overtakes the passenger train, the distance covered
by both the trains is the same.
Time taken by the super fast train = 3 hrs.
Since, the passenger train had a 2 hrs head start, that
x
means the total time taken by the passenger train
= 5 hrs.
Since, the distance is same for both the trains, we get
3x = 5(x – 40) A
⇒ x = 100.
Substituting the value of x in equation (i), we get
⇒ y = 60. x h
Therefore, the speed of the super fast train
= 100 km/hr and the speed of the passenger train
= 60 km/hr.
3 0°
71. c Let the amount invested by Vipul and Dheeraj be C
B 10 m
4x and 5x respectively.
Ratio of investment of Vipul and Dheeraj
In the figure above O represents the top of the tree
= ( 4x × 4 + 3x × 8 ) : (5x × 4 + 4x × 8 ) and C represents the base of the tree.
Let the length of the part of the tree broken be x
= (16x + 24x ): (20x + 32x ) metres and the original height of the tree be (h + x)
= 40x : 52x metres.
= 10 : 13 In ∆ABC ,
13 h 10
Therefore, Dheeraj’s share = × 46000 tan30° = ⇒h =
23 …(i)
10 3
= Rs. 26,000.

Total distance traveled by the motorboat while crossing

10 20
cos30° = ⇒x = …(ii) the temple = Resultant speed × Time taken to cross
x 3 the temple = 10 × 10 = 100 m.
From equations (i) and (ii), we get Since, the length of the motorboat is 20 m, the length
10 20 30 of the temple will be = 100 – 20 = 80 m.
h+x = + = = 10 3 m.
3 3 3
80. a Let the investment of P be Rs. x for 14 months,
Therefore, the original height of the tree is 10 3 m. Investment of Q be Rs. y for 8 months and
Investment for R be Rs. z for 7 months.
75. a Let us assume the retail price to be Rs. 100. Then, 14x : 8y : 7z = 3 : 5 : 6
After discount of 20%, the selling price would be Rs.
14x 3 35x
80. But it includes 60% profit, therefore cost price is Now, = ⇒y=
8y 5 12
80
×100 i.e. Rs. 50.
160 7z 6
When discount is increased by 5%, the overall discount And = ⇒ z = 4x
14x 3
will be 25%.
After a discount of 25% on the retail price the selling Therefore, their investment will be in ratio x : y : z i.e.
price will be Rs. 75. 35x
75 − 50 x: : 4x ⇒ 12 : 35 : 48.
×100 = 50%. 12
Therefore, profit percentage =
50
For questions 81 to 85:
76. b In the first hour relative speed of Rajat and Sharad will
be 4 km/hr. Time taken by them to come together at the Political Parties Male voters Female voters
12 Total 2000 1200
same point = = 3 hrs. BJP 160 240
4
Similarly, Sharad and Appurv will come together at the Congress 600 200
same point in every 2 hrs. BSP 740 360
Therefore, all of them will be together at the same SP 500 400
point after every 6 hrs (L.C.M of 2 and 3). 81. c Required ratio = 500 : 600 = 5 : 6.
77. c Let the cost price of the dishwasher be Rs. 100
160
40 82. b Required percentage = × 100 = 5%.
And list price be x. Then, x − x × = 120 3200
100
⇒ 0.6x = 120 ⇒ x = Rs. 200.
360
When the shopkeeper gives a discount of 45%, then 83. a Required percentage = × 100 = 11.25%.
3200
45
selling price = 200 − 200 × = 200 − 90 = Rs. 110
100 84. b Number of voters voting for BJP = 160 + 240 = 400.
Hence, there will be a profit of 10%.
85. d. Number of male voters voting for BSP
78. c For the difference of 1 year, CI can be computed as SI. = 2000 – (160 + 500 + 600) = 740.
Hence, from the 2nd year to the 3rd year, interest earned
= (815 – 765) = Rs. 50 For questions 86 to 90:
Rs. 50 is the interest earned on Rs. 765.
86. c From statement (I): 2a + 3b = 15,
50 From statement (II): a2 – b2 = 35 or (a + b) (a – b) = 35
Hence, the rate of interest = × 100 = 6.5%.
765 Thus, combining both statements (I) and (II),
we get a = 6.
5 100
79. b Speed of the motorboat = 40 km/hr = 40 × = 87. c Statement (I) gives that Savita runs slower than Kavita
18 9 does, but this alone is not sufficient to get the answer.
m/sec. Statement (II) gives that Lalita runs faster than Kavita
does, but this alone is also not sufficient to answer
5 10
Speed of the current = 4 km/hr = 4 × = m/sec. the question.
18 9 On combining both the statements, we can get the
100 10 result that Lalita runs the fastest among the three.
Resultant speed of the boat = − = 10 m/sec.
9 9

88. a From statement (I), we get the individual marks of Since value of column B is greater than column A
So, answer is option 'a'.
2
Apurv as 255 – × 255 = 85 , but cannot get the
3
individual marks of Himanshu and Tushar. 5 4
92. c Value of column A = 60 ×   ×   – 60 = 40.
From statement (II), we get the individual marks of 4 3
Himanshu, Apurv and Tushar as (x + (x – 13) +
(x – 26)) i.e. 98, 85 and 72 respectively, where x is the 4 5
Value of column B = 60 ×   ×   – 60 = 40.
marks received by Himanshu. 3 4
Thus, statement (II) alone is sufficient. Value of column A = Value of column B
So, answer is option 'c'.
89. b From statement (I) alone, we get that the number of
People who have citizenship of India or U.S.A is 93. b 256 = 16 × 16 = 28
550 – 70 = 480, and number of people who have Value of column A = Number of factors of 256 = 9.
citizenship of India and U.S.A are 300 and 325 289 = 17 × 17 = 172
respectively. Value of column B = Number of factors of 289 = 3.
So we can find the number of people who have Value of A > Value of B
citizenship of both India and U.S.A by using formula So, answer is option 'b'.
n(A ∩ B) = 300 + 325 - 480 = 145.
94. a Man hours required by 4 persons working 5 hrs a day
From statement (II) alone, we get that the number of to complete work x in 6 days = 4 × 5 × 6 = 120.
People who have citizenship of U.S.A and U.K = 70, Man hours required by 3 persons working 7 hrs a day
thus they are included in 325 people who have to complete work x in 5 days = 3 × 7 × 5 = 105.
citizenship of U.S.A. Number of people who have Since man hours required and the number of persons
citizenship of India are 300. in the data of column B is less, efficiency of a person
So we can find the number of people who have will be more.
citizenship of both India and U.S.A by using formula Value of B > Volume of A
n(A ∩ B) = 300 + 325 – 550 = 75. So, answer is option 'a'.
90. b From statement (I) alone, the altitude of the triangle is 95. a Value of column A:
Let the common difference be d
( )
1/ 2
of length 42 − 22 = 2 3 cm .
n
Since the center divides the altitude of the equilateral
Using the formula Sn = (2a + (n – 1) × d) where Sn
2
triangle in the ratio 2:1, the radius of the circle is is the sum of the first n terms, a is the first number of
2 4 the series, value of d = 3.
2 3× = cm . Hence, the area of the circle can Similarly Value of column B = 4.
3 3
Value of B > Value of A
be calculated using statement I alone. So, answer is option 'a'.
From statement (II) alone, the altitude is of the length For questions 96 to 100:
2
6 cm. Therefore the radius of the circle is 6 × 96. b Total profit earned from the sale of Kitz
3
= 4 cm. Hence, the area of the circle can be calculated 13 × 40,000
= × 50,000 = Rs.26 crores.
using statement (II) alone. 100
For questions 91 to 95: 97. c Number of Zolto sold in the year 2006
21 × 40,000
3 = = 8400.
2× +3 100
4 18
91. a Value of column A = = . Number of Zolto sold in the month of December
3 25
3× +4
4 8400
= = 700.
12
2 Percentage sales of Zolto over all the cars sold in
+53×
3 21
Value of column B = = . 700 × 100
2 26 December = = 20%
4× +6 3500
3

98. d The maximum percentage increase in sales over the Number of males not called for interview in 2005
previous month was experienced in the month of = 99,000 – 16,500 = 82,500
Number of males not called for interview in 2010
6000 – 1800
October which was = 233.33% = 70,000 – 11,000 = 59,000
1800 Required difference = 23,500.
99. c Let the manufacturing cost of one Naruti Fuzuki Spark 103. c Number of females appeared in 2005 and 2008
be Rs. x = 66,000 + 44,000 = 1,10,000
Total manufacturing cost of Spark = Rs.1200x Number of males appeared in 2009
Total manufacturing cost of Cruise = Rs.5600x = 99,000
When percentages are interchanged: Required percentage
Total manufacturing cost of Spark = Rs.2800x
Total manufacturing cost of Cruise = Rs.2400x 1,10,000 − 99,000
= × 100 = 11.11% .
Percentage change in the total manufacturing cost 99,000
6800x – 5200x
= ×100 = 23.53%. 104. d Number of males appeared in 2005 = 99,000
6800x Number of males appeared in 2008 = 1,10,000
∴Increase in number of male candidates = 11,000
100. a Total sale of Naruti Fuzuki Drift = 9200 Number of males appeared in 2010 = 70,000
Sale in each quarter = 2300 ∴Number of males appeared in 2011
Hence the required difference is = 70,000 + 11,000 = 81,000
(6000 + 5200 + 3500 – 2300) – (2000 + 2400 + 4000 – Number of males appeared in 2004 = 96,000
2300) = 6300 units. Required ratio = 81,000:96,000 = 27 : 32.
For questions 101 to 105: 105. d Only in 2005, 2007 and 2009 the number of females
The table given below shows the number of students appeared candidates appeared is more than 50,000.
for TAT in different years.
106. d With the help of the given information respective
Number of Number of amounts spent by Trifolla and Unileader in
Number of
Year female male Manufacturing Sector can be determined but the ratio
candidates
candidates candidates of their total expenses in the given sectors cannot be
2004 1,32,000 36,000 96,000 determined.
2005 1,65,000 66,000 99,000
2006 99,000 45,000 54,000 107. c Let the amount spent (in Rs.) by Trifolla and Unileader
2007 1,32,000 55,000 77,000 in Manufacturing Sector be 100x and 100y
2008 1,54,000 44,000 1,10,000 respectively.
2009 1,54,000 55,000 99,000 Amount spent on Consumer Goods by Trifolla = 6x
2010 1,10,000 40,000 70,000 and Unileader = 18y.
⇒ 6x = 18y and x : y = 3 : 1.
101. a Number of candidates appeared in 2005 and 2006 Let the combined amount (in Rs.) spent by the two
= 1,65,000 + 99,000 = 2,64,000 companies in the given sectors be 100z.
Number of candidates appeared in 2008 and 2009 Amount spent by Trifolla in Manufacturing Sector
= 1,54,000 + 1,54,000 = 3,08,000 3
= × 48z = 36z
3,08,000 − 2,64,000 4
Required percentage = × 100
2,64,000 Amount spent by Trifolla on Automobile Products
15
44 = × 36z = 5.4z
= × 100 = 16.67%. 100
264
Combined amount spent in Education Sector = 9z
102. c Number of candidates called for interview in 2005 9z − 5.4z
Required percentage = × 100 = 66.67%.
20 5.4z
= × 1,65,000 = 33,000
100
Number of candidates called for interview in 2010
20
= × 1,10,000 = 22,000
100

108. a Let the combined amount spent (in Rs.) by the two
148
companies in the given sectors be 100z and the amount 1995 = × 100 = 25%.
spent (in Rs.) by Trifolla in each sector be x. 592
⇒ 5x = 48z – x and x = 8z
Thus, the ratio of the amount spent by Trifolla and 117. d Average population (in lakhs) of Urgania
Unileader in Manufacturing Sector is 1 : 5.
3480
18 15 = = 580
Required ratio = x: × 5x = 6 : 25. 6
100 100
Average population (in lakhs) of Somania
109. a Let the amount spent (in Rs.) by Trifolla and Unileader 3318
in Manufacturing Sector be 100x and 100y = = 553
6
respectively. Let the combined amount (in Rs.) spent
Required difference = 27 lakhs.
by the two companies in the given sectors be 100z.
100x + 100y = 48z …(i)
118. b Percentage increase in the total population of the two
20x + 14y = 8z …(ii)
countries over the previous year is the maximum in
From (i) and (ii), we get
x 4 255
= i.e. 4 : 5. 1993 and is equal to × 100 ≈ 31.09%.
y 5 820
110. d As the break up of the amount spent by the two 119. c Percentage increase in population of:
companies in the Manufacturing Sector is not given,
150
the answer cannot be determined. Somania = × 100 = 37.5%
400
111. b Total number of units (in lakhs) of product ‘A’ produced
105
= 350 Urgania = × 100 = 25%
Average number of units (in lakhs) of product ‘A’ 420
Population (in lakhs) of Somania in 1997
350
produced = = 50 137.5
7 = 720 × = 990
Total number of units (in lakhs) of the three products 100
produced in April = 150 Population (in lakhs) of Urgania in 1997
Average number of units (in lakhs) of the three 125
= 844 × = 1055
150 100
products produced in April = = 50.
3 Total population (in lakhs) of the two countries in 1997
= 2045.
112. a Percentage change in the number of units of products
B and C produced is the same in February. 120. a Percentage change in the difference in the populations
of the two countries in 1992 over 1991 is the minimum
113. b Percentage change in the total number of units of the 20 − 18
three products produced in any month over the and is equal to × 100 = 11.11%.
18
previous month is the maximum in July and is equal to
50 121. d 122. a 123. c 124. b 125. a
× 100 = 40%.
125
126. b 127. c 128. a 129. c 130.b
114. d Percentage change in the number of units of product
‘C’ produced from April to May is the maximum and is 131. c 132. c 133. c 134. a 135. a
equal to 175%.
136. d 137. d 138. c 139. b 140. b
115. c Average number of units (in lakhs) of the three
141. c 142. d 143. a 144. b 145. b
165
products produced in May = = 55 and number of
3 146. c 147. c 148. c 149. d 150. c
units (in lakhs) of product C produced in May = 55.
151. c 152. b 153. b 154. b 155. c
116. a Percentage increase in population of Urgania in:
105 156. a 157. d 158. c 159. c 160. d
1993 = × 100 = 25%
420

161. a BA and CD are mandatory pairs. B states that we are 171. a Magnanimity means the quality of being generous in
creatures of sudden impulse. A follows B by stating forgiving an insult or injury; nobleness; generosity.
that it’s almost as if we are worked up by steam. E
should come after A as it provides a reason for writing 172. b The idiom ‘somewhere to hang up one’s hat’ means a
the wills now. D follows C by talking about the place to live or a place to call one’s home. In the given
experience mentioned in C. sentence, as the person has been transferred to
another city he is looking for a dwelling.
162. b The paragraph talks about how tea should be drunk
without sugar. E follows by saying that the stance in C 173. a The idiom ‘to drop the other shoe’ figuratively means to
is uncommon. D follows E with a ‘However’ and do the deed that completes something or to do the
expresses the opinion that the statement in C is correct expected remaining part of something.
in spite of the fact stated in E. CED forms a mandatory
sequence. B concludes by stating that tea should be 174. b The idiom ‘a fine kettle of fish’ figuratively refers to a
bitter. troublesome situation; a vexing problem. It usually
appears in the expression, ‘This is a fine kettle of
163. c “It” in A refers to Dinners and Dishes in B. Hence A fish!’.
should come after B. A describes Dinners and Dishes
as making no attempt at eloquence. Oratory in C links 175. a ‘at first’ is the correct expression. ‘The Greek poetry
back to eloquence in A. AC is therefore a mandatory of Homer was’ is the correct expression according to
pair. E states that Dinners and Dishes also has the the subject verb agreement rule. ‘which’ is correct in
advantage of not being illustrated. D explains why this this case.
is so. ED is thus another mandatory pair.
176. b There must be a definite article (the) before number.
164. d ACD is a mandatory sequence. C follows A by it’s is a contraction of it is. its is correct in this case.
explaining why it is useless or harmful to tell people literally countless is correct.
what to read. D follows by stating that telling people
what not to read is a very different matter. 177. c ‘were elected each year’ is correct according to the
subject verb agreement rule.
165. a AC is a mandatory pair. The professorship mentioned
in A is described as the highest position in C. 178. c Necessitate means to make necessary or unavoidable.
The sentence indicates a budget cut and so the context
166. c In reality there is no kind of evidence or argument by would be a forced reduction. Option c fits in best in
which one can show that Shakespeare, or any other this context.
writer, is ‘good’.
179. d Abet means “to encourage or support usually in
167. d Miss Ogden married a Hungarian diplomat, Count wrongdoing.” Spur and stimulate both mean “ to urge
Zattiany, and has never been heard of since. to action or achievement”. Polarization means “ to
divide into sharply opposing factions”. Disinvestment
168. b As a democracy, America came into being at the same is “ the withdrawal of invested fund” and privatization
time as the rise of the novel. is “ to transfer from the public sector of an economy
into private ownership”. The reforms mentioned at the
169. a Equanimous means showing calmness of mind or beginning of the sentence indicate a positive move
temper; composure. Jittery means extremely tense and so privatization fits in best in the context of the
and nervous. Frivolous means characterized by a sentence. The answer is (d).
lack of seriousness or sense. Morose means gloomily
or sullenly ill-humored, as a person or mood. 180. c Postulate means “to demand or claim, even to assert”.
Gamble on is “to take a risk”. Conduits are “a pipe or
170. d Abstemious means marked by restraint especially in tube for conveying water or other fluid”. Avenues are
the consumption of food or alcohol. Austere means a means of access or attainment and this fits the
giving little or no scope for pleasure e.g. austere diet. second blank best. The answer is (c).
Indulgent means characterized by extravagance.

181. b The answer is (b). In the 4th paragraph, the author 187. a The last sentence of the third paragraph sheds most
talks of ‘etiquette and politeness’. light on how the telecom revolution has helped the
Indian economy. The previous line also states how the
182. d The answer is (d). It can be inferred from paragraph farmer has benefited. It is clear that connectivity and
3. He enjoys his own company. So it is ‘solitude’ and its impact are a major contribution of this sector.
not ‘loneliness’. Options (c) and (d) can be clearly ruled out based on
this. Option (b) does indirectly discuss connectivity
183. c The answer is (c). Refer to paragraph 2, sentence 5 but it is incomplete with reference to option (a).
(…which, as it were, is not a part of me, but specta-
tor, sharing no experience, but taking note of it…), 188. d The fifth paragraph presents the answer to this
sentence 6 (When the play, …, of life is over, the question. The author mentions that implementation
spectator goes his way.) and the entire sentence 7 itself is a challenge to Vision 2020. However, he
point to this. particularly mentions the challenge is “primarily in terms
Option (b) is not the answer because, it states the of capital investment at a time when credit availability
process of splitting ourselves into the doer and the worldwide has shrunk.” This can be restated as the
spectator. The problem doesn’t lie with the ‘process’. It credit requirements of the Vision. Options (a) and (b)
is the effect on our surroundings of our adaptation to are incorrect as they present challenges that the
the role of a spectator, which makes us ‘poor neigh- author has not mentioned. Option (c) cannot be
bors and friends’. considered as it incorrectly discusses credit
investment requirements of the Vision.
184. b The answer is (b). It can be inferred from paragraph
4, sentence 2 (….to make this frequent meetings tol- 189. c It follows from the passage that medical books engage
erable and that we need not come to open war.) and our attention primarily because they deal with matters
sentence 3 (…we thus lose some respect for one of life and death which we can associate with.
another.). Option (d) might be true, as per the author,
but it certainly isn’t justification for his choice of soli- 190. b Option (b) follows directly from the passage-”the Self
tude. Help category — one of the most successful genres
in the publishing world today.”
185. b The author starts by discussing the creativity India
has in the face of adversity. He also discusses the 191. c Option (c) follows from: “This book is a ‘biography’ in
in-built protection the country has against the global the truest sense of the word – an attempt to enter the
meltdown. In the 4th paragraph the author discusses mind of this immortal illness, to understand its
the low skill levels of India’s large workforce and in personality, to demystify its behaviour.”
the 6th and 7th paragraph he again discuses the large
capital and the wealth of entrepreneurial talent 192. b Option (b) follows from ““If we, as a species, are the
awaiting. Option (b) fits in best. Option (a) is incorrect ultimate product of Darwinian selection, then so, too,
as India’s protective measures (Vision 2020) are still is this incredible disease that lurks inside us.”
being implemented and there is no mention of its result/
impact. Option (c) goes beyond the author’s focus 193. b Option (b) follows from the passage. In his book Tim
area. Option (d) does not bring in two important factors Parks writes how the famous self-help book, A
– entrepreneurial talent and tiding over the slowdown. Headache in the Pelvis, helped him manage his own
chronic pelvic pain syndrome.
186. c Paragraph two lists all the factors that protect the
Indian economy. Option (1) is incorrect as the author 194. c According to the passage, cancer has only recently
mentions the domestic market as a factor not only the become the leading cause of death-“we understand
rural market. Option (2) is mentioned in the passage. how cancer rose to prominence as a leading cause of
Option (3) is also incorrect as the author does not death – as a direct result of human beings living longer
discuss this factor and instead mentions the low skill now, and more likely to develop cancer.”
levels of India’s large workforce as a negative factor.
Option (4) has been mentioned in the passage and in
the 6th paragraph we are told that the savings rate is
high. Option (c) is thus the answer.

195. b The passage clearly states ‘every state must contain 199. c It is clearly stated in the second paragraph ‘…historian
within itself one and not more than one culturally ho- Ravinder Kumar advanced the notion of a civilization-
mogeneous nation, that every state should be a na- state.’
tion, and that every nation should be a state.’
200. c The tone of the author is analytical. The passage
196. d It follows from the passage that a state can contain examines the best how best to accommodate greater
within itself several nations and cultures. This follows diversity within a country. To this end, it discusses
from ‘Also, to be a viable state-nation, even if the state several formulations of polity and analyses what
recognizes and supports different languages, cultures, backgrounds are suitable for them to flourish. While
even nations within its policy…’ the passage starts with a quote ‘‘One of the most
urgent conceptual, normative and political tasks of our
197. b This follows directly from ‘The authors …suggest an day is to think anew about how polities that aspire to
alternative category of state-nation as an overarching be…’ the tone of the author is not impassioned
umbrella concept to more successfully manage (characterized by intense emotion) in any way but
diversities.’ employs a thoroughly analytical approach throughout.
198. b Only the situation described in option (b) facilitates the

creation of a state-nation. ‘show a high level of trust in
the state’s institutions’

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Section I - Intelligence & Critical Reasoning

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Complete the series given below.

6. 3, 8, 17, 32, 57, ?

7. 15, 35, 77, 143, ?

8. 2, 3, 7, 17, 36, ?, 113

9. 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, ?

10. 4, 6, 9, 14, 22, 34, 51, ?

MAT – Mock Test Page 1

12. A: Ice floats on the surface of water.

13. A: India is a Democracy.

14. A: Milk is rich in calcium.

15. A: Sunlight contains Vitamin D.

Page 2 MAT – Mock Test

What is the flaw in Aman's argument?

What is the flaw in the above argument?

MAT – Mock Test Page 3

23. Who among the five friends is the oldest?

25. Who among the five friends lives in Delhi?

26. What is the surname of Kirpal?

Page 4 MAT – Mock Test

29. Who is sitting opposite Sunil?

30. Who among the following is sitting next to Shilpa?

31. Who is sitting opposite Sajid?

32. C started from which station?

33. Which station was the destination for B?

34. A started from which station?

MAT – Mock Test Page 5

39. Statements: Some books are good. No good is bad.

Page 6 MAT – Mock Test

Section II - Mathematical Skills

MAT – Mock Test Page 7

Page 8 MAT – Mock Test

66. 40% of 80 is x% more than 30% of 70. Find the value of x.

MAT – Mock Test Page 9

Page 10 MAT – Mock Test

Section III - Data Analysis & Sufficiency

84. What is the total number of voters voting for BJP?

85. What is the number of male voters voting for BSP?

MAT – Mock Test Page 11

Mark your answer as:

92. Total increase if 60 is increased by Total increase if 60 is increased by

93. Number of factors of 256. Number of factors of 289

94. Efficiency of a person if 4 persons Efficiency of a person if 3 persons

Page 12 MAT – Mock Test

MAT – Mock Test Page 13

Percentage change in the Number of candidates

Page 14 MAT – Mock Test

Year Females : Males

MAT – Mock Test Page 15

Page 16 MAT – Mock Test

MAT – Mock Test Page 17

Page 18 MAT – Mock Test

MAT – Mock Test Page 19

Section IV - General Awareness

125. Which Indian Institute of Technology was first to be established?

126. Sudirman cup is given for which of the following sports?

Name:______ Enrollment ID:

Centre:_ Batch: ___

Time:_ Date: __