Test I

1. It deals only with the motion of

bodies without reference to the 7. If the velocity of mass is the same all
forces that cause them. the time during which motion takes
place is called:
a) Kinetics
b) Motion a) Deceleration
c) Kinematics b) Uniform motion
d) Acceleration c) Acceleration
d) None of these
2. Progressive change in position of a
body is called: 8. Statement that a given body is in
static equilibrium means that the
a) Acceleration body cannot
b) Motion
c) Force a) have any type of motion
d) Momentum b) be acted upon by more than
one force
3. Cam in general maybe divided into c) undergo any displacement
two classes; uniform motion and d) have any type of
_________motion cam. acceleration

a) Reverse 9. It is a science of motion that can be

b) gravity solved in terms of scalar or vector
c) decelerated algebra.
d) accelerated
a) Kinematics
4. Product of mass and linear velocity is b) Curvilinear translation
known as: c) Projectile
d) Acceleration
a) Impulse
b) Linear momentum 10. An object thrown upward will return
c) Angular momentum to earth the magnitude of the
d) Impact terminal velocity equal to

5. It is the motion of an object a) zero

diminished/decreased speed. b) one-half the initial velocity
c) twice the initial velocity
a) Deceleration d) initial velocity
b) Retarded motion
c) Negative impulse 11. The follower reciprocates or
d) All of these oscillates in a plane perpendicular to
the axis of rotation of the cam.
6. It is a property of matter, which
causes it to resist any change in its a) Radial cam
motion or state of rest. b) Cylindrical cam
c) Cam curves
a) Brake d) Tangential cam
b) Friction
c) Inertia
d) Impulse
12. The follower reciprocates or
oscillates in a plane parallel to the 18. A cam where the follower
axis of rotation. reciprocates or oscillates in a plane
parallel to the axis of the cam is
a) cam curves called:
b) cylindrical cam
c) tangential cam a) circular cam
d) Radial cam b) cylindrical cam
c) reciprocating cam
13. A cone formed by elements, which d) tangential cam
are perpendicular to the elements of
the pitch cone at the large end. 19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a
link in a four bar mechanism lies on
a) cone distance
b) back cone a) a point obtained by
c) root cone intersection of extending
d) cone center adjoining links
b) left side pivot of this link
14. The ability of moving body to c) right side pivot of this link
perform work is called: d) any of the choices above

a) Internal energy 20. A vector quantity that describes

b) potential energy both how fast it is moving and the
c) kinetic energy direction in which it is heated.
d) flow work
a) Acceleration
15. A slider crank chain is made up of b) Displacement
c) Motion
a) one turning and one sliding d) Velocity
pair
b) one turning and two sliding 21. Which of the following is the rate at
pairs which the velocity is changing?
c) two turning and one sliding
pair a) Acceleration
d) three turning and one sliding b) Linear
pair c) Motion
d) Vertical
16. A scott-Russell mechanism is made
up of 22. The direction of the ________ is
toward the center of the circle in
a) rotating pair only which, the study moves.
b) sliding and turning pairs
c) turning and rotary pairs a) Centripetal acc.
d) turning pair only b) Centrifugal acc.
c) Radial cam
17. Ackerman steering gear is made up d) Tangential
of
23. It is a device that changes the
a) rolling and sliding pairs magnitude, direction or mode of
b) rolling pairs application of a torque or force
c) sliding and rotary pairs while transmitting it for a particular
d) turning pairs purpose.
 a) Frame c) displacement of various parts
b) Machine d) velocity of various parts
c) Mechanism
d) Structure 30. Klein’s construction can be used
when
24. The process of obtaining the
resultant of any number of vectors. a) crank has a uniform angular
acceleration
a) Scalar quantity b) crank has a uniform angular
b) Vector composition velocity
c) Vector quantity c) crank has a non uniform
d) Vector resolution angular velocity
d) b and c above
25. It has magnitude, direction and
sense. 31. The cam angle is

a) scalar quantity a) the angle subtended by live

b) absolute quantity portion of cam at the cam’s
c) vector quantity center
d) relative velocity b) the angle of rotation of the cam
for a definite displacement of
26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a the follower
surface of contact so designed as to c) the angle subtended at the
caused or modify the motion of the cam’s center by the portion of
piece. cam during which the follower
moves
a) Cam d) the angle subtended by the
b) Disc cam at the cam center when
c) Gear the follower dwells
d) Pulley
32. The pitch point on a cam refers to
27. When acceleration is zero, the
a) any point on pitch curve
a) velocity is constant b) a point at a distance equal to
b) velocity is negative pitch circle radius from the
c) velocity is variable center
d) velocity is zero c) the point of cam pitch circle
that has the maximum pressure
28. When the velocity is changing, the angle
acceleration is d) none of the above

a) constant 33. For a kinematics chain to be

b) not constant considered as mechanism,
c) variable
d) zero a) none of the links should be fixed
b) one link should be fixed
29. Klein’s construction is used to c) there is no such criterion
determine the d) two links should be fixed

a) acceleration of various parts

b) angular acceleration of various
parts
34. Hart mechanism has how many 40. In elliptical trammels,
links?
a) all four pairs are turning
a) 4 b) one pair turning and three
b) 6 pairs sliding
c) 8 c) three pairs turning and one
d) 12 pair sliding
d) two pairs and two pairs sliding
35. Peaucellier mechanism has how
many links? 41. The Klein’s method of construction
for reciprocating engine mechanism
a) 4
b) 5 a) enables determined of coriolis
c) 6 component
d) 8 b) is a simplified form of
instantaneous center method
36. A cam with a roller follower would c) is based on acceleration
constitute which type of pair? diagram
d) utilizes a quadrilateral similar
a) close pair to the diagram of mechanism
b) higher pair for reciprocating engine
c) lower pair
d) open pair 42. If a particle of a link has a velocity
that changes both in magnitude
37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that and direction at any instant, then
have
a) it must have only
a) elements of pairs not held unidirectional acceleration
together mechanically b) it must have two components
b) point or line contact between of acceleration e.g.,
the elements when in motion centripetal and tangential
c) surface contact between the c) it must have three
two elements when in motion components of acceleration
d) two elements that allow e.g., centripetal, centrifugal
relative motion and tangential
d) it must have three
38. A Pantograph is a mechanism components of acceleration
having e.g., centripetal, centrifugal
and gravitational
a) higher pairs
b) lower pairs 43. Select the one that is the highest
c) rolling pairs pair.
d) spherical pairs
a) Crosby indicator mechanism
39. The number of links in a pantograph b) Hart’s straight line
is equal to mechanism
c) Thomson indicator
a) 3 mechanism
b) 4 d) Both gearing mechanism
c) 5
d) 6
44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a 50. It is one that is not appreciably
deformed by the action of any
a) Cylindrical pair external force or load.
b) higher pair
c) lower pair a) rigid body
d) sliding pair b) structure
c) Frame
45. The total number of instantaneous d) Mechanism
center for a mechanism of N links is
equal to

a) 2N
b) (N-1)(N+1)
c) 2N(N-1)
d) N(N-1)/2

46. A kinematics chain needs a

minimum of

a) 2 links and 2 turning pairs

b) 3 links and 3 turning pairs
c) 3 links and 2 turning pairs
d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs

47. For kinematics chains formed by

lower pair the relation between the
number of joint J is given by
a) L = 2/3(J+2)
b) L = 3/2(J+2)
c) L = 2/3(L+2)
d) L = 3/2(L+2)

48. In case of an elliptical trammel,

a) one pair turns and two pairs

slide
b) two pairs and two pairs slide
c) three pairs turn and one pair
slides
d) all four pairs turn

49. Coriolis component of acceleration

is found in

a) four bar mechanism

b) mechanism of steam engine
c) higher pair
d) whitworth-quick-return
mechanism
 TEST 2
7. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist
1. At a given section of an I beam the the action of outside force is called:
maximum bending stress occurs at the
a) Shearing stress
a) max. shear stress area b) tensile stress
b) neutral axis c) ultimate stress
c) web joint near the flange d) compressive stress
d) outermost
8. Alloy steel axle under repeated
2. The resultant of two or more forces is a load/stress will eventually fail if the
load/stress is above the endurance for the
a) couple of forces steel under consideration. The endurance
b) concurrent of forces limit of the steel is therefore
c) momentum
d) resolution of forces a) equal to the allowable stress of the
module of elasticity
3. Two or more forces acting together, could b) equal to half of the ultimate strength
be replaced by a single force with same c) equal to module of elasticity
effect in a mass called: d) equal to 80% of the elastic limit

a) couple of forces 9. Moment of inertia is also called:

b) resolution of forces
c) resultant a) Modulus of elasticity
d) concurrent of forces b) Weep strength
c) Radius of gyration
4. The frictional forces depends on d) None of these
coefficient of friction and
10. Defection of a beam is
a) torque
b) weights of object a) proportional to the modulus of
c) normal of force elasticity and moment of inertia
d) moment b) proportional to the load imposed
and inversely to the length squared
5. Shear modulus is also known as: c) inversely proportional to the modulus
of elasticity and moment of inertia
a) Shear elasticity d) inversely proportional to the weight
b) poisson’s ratio imposed times the length
c) modulus of elasticity
d) modulus of rigidity 11. Continuous stretching under load even if
the stress is less than the yield point is called:
6. The maximum stress induced in a material
when subjected to intermittent or repeated a) Plasticity
load without causing failure is called: b) Elasticity
c) Creep
a) Ultimate stress d) Ductility
b) Endurance limit
c) Ultimate strength 12. It is opposite direction of parallel force.
d) Elastic limit
a) concurrent
b) coplanar
 c) couple a) stress
d) non coplanar b) strain
c) poisson’s ratio
13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the d) endurance limit
cross - section of the beam to the section
modulus is 19. The single force which produces the
same effect upon a body as two or more
a) equal to the radius of gyration forces acting together is called:
b) equal to the area of the cross-
section a) Resultant force
c) measure of a distance b) co-planar force
d) dependent on modulus of elasticity c) couple
of beam measure d) non-coplanar force

14. The differential of the shear equation is 20. The ability of metal to resist being
which of the following: crushed is called

a) bending moment of the beam a) shearing strength

b) compressive stress
b) tensile strength of the beam c) torsional strength
c) slope of the elastic curve d) tensile strength
d) load of the beam
21. Finding the resultant of two or more
15. Could be defined as simply push and forces is called:
pull is known as
a) co-planar
a) work b) non-coplanar forces
b) force c) Acceleration
c) inertia d) composition of forces
d) power
22. In general, the design stress and factor
16. The changes in shape or geometry of of safety are related as follows
the body due to action of a force on it is
called deformation or a) design stress = ultimate stress times
factor of safety
a) shearing stress b) design stress = ultimate stress divided
b) stresses by factor of safety
c) compressive stress c) factor of safety = design stress
d) strains divided ultimate stress
d) ultimate stress = factor of safety
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress is divided by design stress
called:
23. Stresses that are independent to loads
a) plasticity are known as:
b) all of these
c) stiffness a) Working stresses
d) toughness b) Operating stresses
c) residual stresses
18. The property of a material that relates d) shear stresses
the lateral strain to longitudinal strain is
called: 24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to
unit longitudinal deformation is called:
 a) poisson’s ratio c) none of these is true
b) willan’s line d) an unbalance of moment exist
c) modulus of elasticity
d) deformation 31. What is the property of a material, which
resists forces acting to pull the material
25. Separate forces, which can be so apart?
combined are called:
a) shear strength
a) non-concurrent b) tensile strength
b) couple c) torsional strength
c) combined forces d) compressive strength
d) concurrent forces
32. What is the metal characteristic to
26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional withstand forces that causes twisting?
to the ultimate strength but not with
a) torsional strength
a) yield strength b) modulus of elasticity
b) design stress c) twisting moment
c) shear stress d) elasticity
d) all of these
33. The unit deformation is called
27. The three moment equation may be
used to analyze a a) torsion
b) strain
a) tapered column c) stress
b) continuous beam d) shear
c) endurance limit
d) tensile stress 34. The total amount of permanent
extension of the gage length measured
28. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of after specimen has fractured and is
expressed as percentage increase of the
a) shear strain to compressive strain original length.
b) elastic limit to compressive strain
c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain a) elongation
d) elastic limit to proportional limit b) strain
c) stress
29. The product of the resultant of all forces d) elastic limit
acting on a body and the time that the
resultant acts. 35. Strength of a material is that of a stress
intensity determined by considering the
a) angular impulse maximum test load to act over the original
b) angular momentum area of the test specimens called
c) Linear impulse
d) linear momentum a) yield point
b) ultimate strength
30. The system of forces and opposite c) break strength
collinear forces are added, which of the d) elastic limit
following if any is true?
36. The maximum stress, which is reached
a) equilibrium is destroyed during a tension test is called
b) equilibrium is maintained
 a) stress 43. The last point at which a material may
b) elasticity be stretched a still return to its underformed
c) strain condition upon release of the stress.
d) tensile strength
a) rupture limit
37. Which of the following is the different of b) elastic limit
the shear equation? c) proportional limit
d) ultimate limit
a) bending moment
b) load on the beam 44. The deformation that results from a stress
c) tensile strength of the beam and is expressed in terms of the amount of
d) slope of the beam deformation per inch.

38. The change in length per unit original a) elongation

length b) strain
c) poisson’s ratio
a) strain d) elasticity
b) stress
c) deformation 45. The internal resistance a material offers
d) elastic modulus to being deformed and is measured in terms
of applied load.
39. The ability of material or metal to resist
being crushed is a) strain
b) elasticity
a) fatigue strength c) stress
b) bending strength d) resilience
c) torsional strength
d) compressive strength 46. The maximum stress induced in a
material when subjected to alternating or
40. The ability of a metal to withstand forces repeated
that causes a member to twist. loading without causing failure.

a) shear strength a) Ultimate strength

b) tensile strength b) yield strength
c) bearing strength c) endurance strength
d) torsional strength d) rupture strength

41. The ratio of stress to strain within the 47. The maximum stress to which a material
elastic limit is called may be subjected before failure occurs is
called:
a) creep
b) modulus of rigidity a) Rupture strength
c) modulus of elasticity b) ultimate strength
d) poisson’s ratio c) Yield strength
d) proportional limit
42. The ability of metal to withstand loads
without breaking down is termed as
48. The total deformation measured in the
a) strain direction of the line of stress.
b) stress
c) elasticity a) strain
d) strength b) elasticity
 c) elongation
d) contraction

49. The total resistance that a material offers

to an applied load is called

a) friction torque
b) stress
c) rigidity
d) compressive force

50. The ability of metal to withstand forces

thus following a number of twist.

a) shear strength
b) bearing strength
c) endurance limit
d) deformation
 TEST 3
1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the a) depends on the materials and the
allowable stress. finish condition of the surface
b) depends only on the finish condition
a) proportionality constant pf the surface
b) strain c) does not depend on the materials
c) Modulus d) depends on the composition of the
d) Factor of safety materials only

2. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated 7. The maximum stress to which a material

load at the free end, the moment is may be subjected before failure occurs.

a) constant along the beam a) rupture stress

b) yield stress
b) maximum at the wall c) ultimate stress
c) ¼ maximum half way out on the d) allowable stress
beam
d) maximum at the free end 8. The total resistance that a material offers
to an applied load.
3. The greatest unit pressure the soil can
continuously withstand. a) flexure
b) stress
a) yield point c) elasticity
b) bearing strength d) rigidity
c) ultimate strength
d) point of rupture 9. If the areas of cross-sections of square
and circular beams are the same and both
4. A specimen is subjected to a load. When are put to equal bending moment then the
the load is removed the strain disappears. correct statement is
From this information, which of the following
can be deducted about this material? a) both the beams are equally
economical
a) It is elastic. b) both the beams are equally strong
b) It has a modulus of elasticity. c) the circular beam is more
c) it is plastic economical
d) it is ductile. d) the square beam is more
economical
5. A cantilever beam having a uniformly
increasing load toward the fixed end 10. Ties are load carrying members that
carry
a) has uniform shear
b) has a reaction equal to the load a) axial compressive loads
c) will have maximum bending
moment midway to the beam b) axial tension loads
d) has a reaction is not equal to the c) prestressing thick cylinders
load e) d)relieving thick cylinders

6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces 11. Auto frottage is the method of
 a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders 17. The tensile stress of a material is given by
b) increasing life of thick cylinders
c) prestressing thick cylinders a) average load during the test /
d) relieving thick cylinders average at the time of fracture
b) average load during the test /
12. Mohr’s circle can be used to determine original cross-sectional area
_________ on inclined surface. c) maximum load during test / area at
the time of fracture
a) principal stress d) maximum load during test / original
b) normal stress cross-sectional area
c) tangential stress
d) all of the above 18. When a part is constrained to move and
heated, it develops what kind of stress?
13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the
ratio of a) compressive stress
b) principal stress
a) linear stress to longitudinal strain c) shear stress
b) shear stress to shear strain d) tensile stress
c) shear to strain
d) shear stress to volumetric strain 19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as
compared to in tension is nearly
14. The total strain energy stored in a body is
called a) one-half
b) one-third
a) resilience c) one-fourth
b) proof resilience d) the same
c) modulus of resilience
d) toughness 20. The intensity of stress that causes unit
strain is known as
15. The elongation of a conical bar under its
own weight is equal to a) bulk modulus
b) modulus of elasticity
a) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of c) modulus of rigidity
the same length d) unit stress
b) one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the
same length 21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel, as
c) one third that of a prismatic bar of the compared to its ultimate compressive stress
same length will be
d) that of a prismatic bar of the same
length a) less
16. Which one is the incorrect statement b) more
about true stress-strain method? c) more or less depending on the
factors
e) it is more sensitive to changes in d) same
mechanical conditions.
f) There is no such phenomenon like 22. The relation between modulus of
true stress or true strain. elasticity E and modulus of elasticity in shear
g) This method can be used for G, bulk modulus of elasticity K and Poisson’s
compression tests as well. ratio is given by
h) True stress is load per unit area and
similarly true strain is determined under a) E = Gu
actual conditions. b) E = G (u + 1)
 c) E = 2g(u+1) c) proportional to the displacement of
d) E = 4G (1+2u) the material acted upon by the force
d) inversely proportional to the strain
23. When shear force is zero along a section,
the bending moment at that section will be 29. The slenderness ratio of a column is
generally defined as the ratio of its
a) maximum
b) minimum a) length to its minimum width
c) minimum or maximum b) unsupported length to its maximum
d) zero radius of gyration
c) length to its moment of inertia
24. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod d) unsupported length to its least radius
during tensile test is of gyration

a) an irregular 30. The linear portion of the stress-strain

b) a parabola diagram of steel is known as
c) a sudden break
d) a straight line a) modulus of elongation
b) plastic range
25. The ratio of average shear stress to c) irreversible range
maximum shear stress for a circular section is d) elastic range
equal to
31. Principal stresses occur on those planes
a) 2
b) 2/3 a) where the shearing stress is zero
c) 3/2 b) which are 45 degrees apart
d) ¾ c) where the shearing stress is a
maximum
26. The ratio of bulk modulus for Poisson’s d) which are subjected only to tension
ratio of 0.25 will be equal to
32. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the
a) 3/2 cross-section of a beam to the section
b) 5/16 modulus is
c) 1
d) 2 a) equal to the radius of gyration
b) equal to the area of the cross
27. The compression members tend to section
buckle in the direction of c) a measure of distance
d) multiplied by the bending moment
a) axis of load to determine the stress
b) perpendicular to the axis of load
c) minimum cross-section 33. Structural steel elements subjected to
torsion develop what kind of stress?
d) least radius of gyration
a) bending stress
28. The stress in an elastic material is b) compressive stress
c) shearing stress
a) inversely proportional to the d) tensile stress
material’s yield strength
b) inversely proportional to the force 34. The bending moment at a section of a
acting beam is derived from the
 a) sum of the moments of all external
forces on one side of the section
b) difference between the moments on
one side of the section and the
opposite side
c) sum of the moments of all external
forces on both sides of the section
d) sum of the moments of all external
forces between supports
35. The stress concentration factor
a) is a ratio of the average stress on a
section to the allowable stress
b) can not be evaluated for brittle
materials
c) is the ratio of areas involved in a
sudden change of cross-section
d) is the ratio of the maximum stress
produced in a cross section to the
average stress over the section
36. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the
a) unit lateral deformation to the unit
longitudinal deformation
b) unit stress to unit strain
c) elastic limit to proportional limit
d) shear strain to compressive strain
37. Hooke’s law for an isotropic
homogeneous medium experiencing one
dimensional stress is known as
a) Stress = E (strain)
b) Strain = E (stress)
c) (Force)(Area) = E (change in
length/length)
d) strain energy = E (internal energy)
38. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member
is
a) a function of the length and depth
b) defined as the unit shear stress
divided by the unit shear deformation
c) equal to the modulus of elasticity
divided by one plus Poisson’s ratio
d) defined as the length divided by the
moment of inertia
39. The maximum bending moment of a
beam simply supported at both ends and
subject to a total load  uniformly
distributed over its length L is expressed by
the formula
a)  L/8
b)  L2/8
c)  L/2
d)  L2/2
40. In a column (slenderness ratio > 160),
which of the following has the greatest
influence on its tendency to buckle under a
compressive load?
a) the modulus of elasticity of the
material
b) the compressive strength of the
material
c) the radius of gyration of the column
d) the length of the column
41. The area of the shear diagram of a beam
between any two points on the beam is
equal to the
a) change in shear between the two
points
b) total shear beyond the two points
c) average moment between the two
points
d) change in moment between the two
points
42. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in
a) the determination of capability of
material for being shaped
b) the determination of capacity of a
material for plastic deformation with
fracture
c) stress-strain relationships where
stresses are applied in more than one
direction
d) the determination of the endurance
limit
43. Modulus of resilience is
 a) the same as the modulus of elasticity From this information, which of the following
b) a measure of a materials ability to can be deduced about this material?
store strain energy
c) the reciprocal of the modulus of a) It is elastic.
elasticity b) It is plastic.
d) a measure of the deflection of c) It is has a high modulus of elasticity.
member d) It is ductile.

44. Which of the following best describes the 49. Which of the following may be the
0.2% offset yield stress? Poisson ratio of a material?

a) it is elastic limit after which a a) 0.45

measurable plastic strain has b) 0.5
occurred. c) 0.55
b) it is the stress at which the material d) 0.60
plastically strains 0.2%.
c) it is the stress at which the material 50. In pure torsion, the minimum torsional
elastically strains 0.2% stress occurs at the
d) it is 0.2% below the fracture point of
the material. a) center
b) long side
45. Under very low deformation and at high c) medium side
temperature it is possible to have some d) short side
plastic flow in a crystal at a shear stress lower
than the critical shear stress. What is this
phenomenon called?

a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Creep
d) Shearing

46. In a stress-strain diagram what is the

correct term for the stress level at e = 0.20%
offset?

a) Elastic limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Offset rupture stress
d) Offset yield stress

47. Under which type of loading does

fatigue occur?

a) Static load
b) Plane
c) High load
d) Repeated load

48. A specimen is subjected to a load. When

the load is removed, the strain disappears.
 TEST 4
1. In a specification schedule is used when 7. When tested in compression, ductile
the pipe specified as “schedule 80”, the materials usually exhibit
pipe corresponds to the ________characteristics up to the yield
strength as they do when tested in tension
a) “ extra standard “ weight
b) allowable stress a) the same
c) internal pressure b) less than
d) “ old standard “ weight c) more than
d) approximately the same
2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel
usually falls between ________ million pounds 8. It has been said that 80% of the failures of
per square inch. machine parts have been due to

a) 26 to 28 a) compression
b) 28 to 31 b) fatigue failures
c) 20 to 45 c) negligence
d) 50 to 30 d) torsion

3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of 9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing
Sn/Su ratios, often called endurance ratio,
a) accuracy from
b) quality
c) stiffness a) 0.23 to 0.65
d) rigidity b) 0.34 to 0.45
c) 0.34 to 0.87
4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in d) 0.63 to 0.93
compression is usually taken as that in
10. The discontinuity or change of section,
a) tension such as scratches, holes, bends, or grooves
b) bearing is a
c) torsion
d) yield a) stress raiser
b) stress functioning
5. The ratio of moment and stress is called: c) stress raiser
d) stress relieving
a) Contraction
b) Proportional constant 11. The degree of stress concentration is
c) Section modulus usually indicated by the
d) Strain
a) power factor
6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the b) stress concentration factor
flexural stress is _______ when the c) service factor
vertical shear is maximum. d) stress factor

a) infinity 12. In a part at uniform temperature and not

b) maximum acted upon by an external load, any
c) minimum internal stress that exists is called:
d) zero
a) Control stress
b) Form stress
 c) Residual stress 19. If all the principal stresses have finite
d) Superposed stress values, the system is

13. The stress or load induced by the a) biaxial

tightening operation. b) monoaxial
c) triaxial
a) Initial stress d) uniaxial
b) Initial tension
c) Residual stress 20. Under theories of failure for static loading
d) None of these of ductile material, the design stress is the

14. A type of failure due to instability is a) endurance strength / factor of safety

known as b) factor of safety / yield stress
c) yield stress / factor of safety
a) Slenderness ratio d) ultimate stress / factor of safety
b) Buckingham
c) Buckling 21. Under theories of failure, the value of
d) Stability shear stress is ______ that of tensile stress.

15. The ratio of the length of the column and a) equal

the radius of gyration of the cross-sectional b) double
area about a centroidal axis is called c) half
d) three times
a) contact ratio
b) constant ratio 22. The theory of mechanics of materials
c) power factor shows that the results from the octahedral
d) slenderness ratio shear stress theory and those from the
maximum distortion energy theory are
16. Formula that applies to a very slender ________.
column is called
a) more than
a) Column formula b) less than
b) Euler’s formula c) relevant
c) Moment formula d) the same
d) Slender formula
23. A kind of stress that is caused by forces
17. If two principal stresses are zero, the acting along or parallel to the area is called
state stress is
a) Bearing stress
a) biaxial b) Shearing stress
b) monoaxial c) Tangential stress
c) triaxial d) tensile stess
d) uniaxial
24. Obtained by dividing the differential
18. If one principal stress is zero, the state load dF by the dA over which it acts.
stress is
a) Elasticity
a) biaxial b) Elongation
b) monoaxial c) Strain
c) triaxial d) Stress
d) uniaxial
25. The highest ordinate in the stress – strain a) shear is half, the maximum moment
diagram or curve is called b) shear is maximum
c) shear is negative
a) elastic limit d) shear is zero
b) rapture strength
c) ultimate strength 32. The built-in or fixed support is capable of
d) yield point supporting

26. A pair of forces equal in magnitude a) an axial load

opposite in direction, and not in the same b) a traverse force
line is called c) a bending moment
d) all of these
a) couple
b) momentum 33. The modulus of elasticity in shear is
c) parallel forces commonly called
d) torque
a) Bulk modulus
27. Framework composed of members b) deformation
joined at their ends to form a rigid structure c) Modulus of rigidity
is known as : d) Young modulus

a) Joists 34. The stress beyond which the material will

b) Machine not return to its original shape when
c) Purlins unloaded, but will retain a permanent
d) Truss deformation is termed as

28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile a) elastic limit
strain is called b) proportional limit
c) yield point
a) Bulk modulus d) yield strength
b) Hooke’s law
c) Shear modulus 35. Refers to the actual stress the material
d) Young modulus has when under load.

29. The ratio of the volume stress to the a) Allowable stress

volume strain is called the coefficient of b) Factor of safety
volume elasticity or c) Ultimate strength
d) Working stress
a) bulk modulus
b) Hooke’s law 36. The safe soil bearing pressure of diesel
c) shear modulus engine is about
d) Young modulus
a) 2000 kg per sq. cm
30. The action of a force is characterized by b) 4600 kg per sq. cm
c) 4890 kg per sq. cm
a) its magnitude d) 5633 kg per sq. cm
b) direction of its action
c) point of application 37. The machine foundation must have a
d) all of the above factor of safety of

31. At highest or lowest point on the a) 3

moment diagram b) 4
 c) 5 c) ratio factor
d) 6 d) demand factor

38. The load acts over a smaller area, and 44. The condition, which causes actual
the ________ continues to increase unit stresses in machine members to be higher
failure. than nominal values predicted by the
elementary direct and combined stress
a) actual stress equations.
b) allowable stress
c) compressive stress a) Stress concentration factor
d) tensile stress b) Stress factor
c) Design factor
39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is d) Load factor
a large increase in strain with little or no
increase in stress is called 45. The stress value, which is used, in the
mathematical determination of the required
a) Endurance strength size of the machine member.
b) Ultimate strength
c) Rapture strength a) Endurance stress
d) Yield strength b) Design stress
c) Maximum stress
40. A ________ member that carries loads d) Normal stress
transverse to its axis.
46. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of cast
a) structure iron is in the range of
b) column
c) beam a) 0.30 to 0.33
d) frame b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) 0.25 to 0.27
41. Which type of load that is applied slowly d) 0.35 to 0.45
and is never removed?
47. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of steel is
a) Uniform load in the range of
b) Static load
c) Equilibrium load a) 0.30 to 0.33
d) Impact load b) 0.27 to 0.30
c) 0.25 to 0.27
42. When varying loads are applied that are d) 0.35 to 0.45
not regular in their amplitude, the loading is
called 48. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of
aluminum and titanium is in the range of
a) Repeated loading
b) Random loading a) 0.25 to 0.27
c) Reversed loading b) 0.27 to 0.30
d) Fluctuating loading c) 0.30 to 0.33
d) 0.35 to 0.45
43. A measure of the relative safety of a
load-carrying component is termed as 49. The angle of inclination of the planes on
which the principal stresses act is called
a) design factor
b) load factor a) normal plane
b) principal plane
 c) tangential plane
d) traverse plane

50. _________ provides a very accurate

prediction of failure of ductile materials
under static loads or completely reversed
normal, shear or combined stresses.

a) Shear stress theory

b) Normal stress theory
c) Distortion energy theory
d) Soderberg line theory
 TEST 5
1. Torsional deflection is a significant c) Main shaft
consideration in the design of shaft and the d) Head shaft
limit should be in the range of ________
degrees/foot of length. 7. Which of the following shaft intermediate
between a line shaft and a driven shaft?
a) 0.004 to 0.006
b) 0.08 to 1 a) Counter shaft
c) 0.006 to 0.008 b) Jack shaft
d) 0.008 to 1 c) Head Shaft
d) All of the above
2. For a universal joint shaft angle should be
_________ degrees maximum and much less 8. Short shafts on machines are called
if in high rotational speed.
a) Core shafts
a) 12 b) Head shafts
b) 16 c) Medium shafts
c) 15 d) Spindles
d) 14
9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a
3. It is a good design practice for steel line maximum at the neutral plane where the
shafting to consider a limit to the linear normal stress is
deflection of ________ inch/foot length
maximum. a) constant
b) maximum
a) 0.050 c) minimum
b) 0.010 d) zero
c) 0.020
d) 0.060 10. Criteria for the limiting torsional
deflection vary from 0.08 per foot of length
4. It is a rotating machine member that for machinery shafts to _______ per foot.
transmits power.
a) 1
a) Cam b) 2
b) Plate c) 3
c) Shaft d) 4
d) Flywheel
11. For transmission shafts the allowable
5. A stationary member carrying pulleys, deflection is one degree in a length of
wheels and etc. that transmit power is _________ diameters.
called:
a) 10
a) Axle b) 15
b) Propeller shaft c) 20
c) Turbine shaft d) 25
d) Machine shaft
12. An old rule of thumb for transmission
6. A line shaft is also known as shafting is that the deflection should not
exceed ____________ of length between
a) Counter shaft supports.
b) Jack shaft
 a) 0.01 in. per foot c) the length is less than 8 times the
b) 0.02 in. per foot diameter
c) 0.03 in. per foot d) the slenderness ratio is more than 32
d) 0.04 in. per foot
18. For a circular shaft subjected to torque
13. In general for machinery shafts, the the value of shear stress
permissible deflection may be closer to
a) is uniform throughout
a) 0.02 in/ft b) has maximum value at the axis
b) 0.01 in/ft c) has maximum value at the surface
c) 0.002 in/ft d) is zero at the axis and linearly
d) 0.030 in/ft increases to a maximum value at the
surface of the shaft
14. The speed at which the center of mass
will equal the deflecting forces on the shaft 19. The compression members tend to
with its attached bodies will then vibrate buckle in the direction of
violently, since the centrifugal force
changes its direction as the shaft turns. a) axis of load
b) perpendicular to the axis of load
a) Critical speed c) minimum cross-section
b) Geometrical speed d) least radius of gyration
c) Mean speed
d) Unit speed 20. A reinforced concrete beam is
considered to be made up of
15. For shaft, the minimum value of
numerical combined shock and fatigue a) clad material
factor to be applied in every case to the b) composite material
computed bending moment is c) homogeneous material
d) heterogeneous material
a) 1.0
b) 1.3 21. The column splice is used for increasing
c) 1.5
d) 1.8 a) strength of the column
b) cross-sectional area of the column
16. It is suggested that the design factor on c) length of the column
the yield strength be about 1.5 for the d) all of the above
smooth load, about 2 to 2.25 for minor shock
loads, and _________ when the loading 22. A simply supported beam has a
reverse during operation. uniformly distributed load on it, the bending
moment is
a) 3.0
b) 4.0 a) triangle
c) 3.5 b) parabola
d) 4.5 c) semi-circle
d) rectangle
17. A column is called short column when
23. The power obtained by piston reaches
a) the length is more than 30 times the flywheel through the
diameter
b) slenderness ratio is more than 120 a. countershaft
b. crank shaft
 c. transmission shaft c) 3 
d. line shaft d) 4 

24. There are two types of crankshafts, 30. Lateral deflection caused by bending
namely should not exceed

a) single piece and built up a) in. per foot of length

b) forged and turned b) 0.005 in. per foot of length
c) rotary and stationary c) in. per foot of length
d) none of these d) 0.05 in. per foot of length

25. Engine valves get open by means of 31. Front axle should be live and

a) cam shaft a) weak

b) rocker shaft b) dead
c) crank shaft c) strong
d) valve guard d) none of these

26. The value of allowable stresses which are 32. The steering is coupled to the two front
generally used in practice for main wheels by means of a
transmitting shafts is
a) connecting rod
a) 282 kg/cm2 b) tie rod
b) 423 kg/cm2 c) push rod
c) 599 kg/cm2 d) spindle
d) 620 kg/cm2
33. In the overdrive transmission system the
27. The value of allowable stresses which are rotation speed of ________ rest higher than
generally used in practice for line shafts that of engine’s speed.
carrying pulleys is
a) main shaft
a) 150 kg/cm2 b) crank shaft
b) 282 kg/cm2 c) propeller shaft
c) 423 kg/cm2 d) machine shaft
d) 550 kg/cm2
34. A slip joint ________ the length of
28. The value of allowable stresses which are propeller shaft.
generally used in practice for small, short
shafts, countershafts is a) increases
b) decreases
a) 282 kg/cm2 c) keeps appropriate
b) 599 kg/cm2 d) none of these
c) 650 kg/cm2
d) 750 kg/cm2 35. The transmission system incorporates
clutch, gear box, and propeller shaft and
29. Torsional deformation in transmission
shafts should be limited to _______ in 20 a) brake
diameters. b) differential
c) steering
a) 1  d) main shafting
b) 2 
36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary 43. Centrifugal separators that operate at
shaft. speeds ________ also employ these flexible
shafts.
a) equal to
b) more than a) 1000 to 3000 rpm
c) less than b) 5000 to 10000 rpm
d) in the gear ratio c) 15000 to 30000 rpm
d) 20000 to 50000 rpm
37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay
shaft. 44. Which of the following material is used
for shafting?
a) before
b) after a) AISI 3240
c) parallel to b) AISI 3150
d) adjacent to c) AISI 4063
d) AISI 33000
38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of
_________ remain the same 45. The process of redistributing the mass
attached to a rotating body in order to
a) primary and lay shafts reduce
b) main and lay shafts vibrations arising from a centrifugal force.
c) primary and main shafts
d) secondary and main shafts a) Shaft coupling
b) Shaft balancing
39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in c) Shaft hooper
_________ direction. d) stator balancing

a) in the same 46. In many cases the _________ of the shaft

b) different is an import design feature.
c) reverse
d) none of the above a) deflections
b) rigidity
40. It is an integral part of a machine. c) size
d) strength
a) Spindle
b) Axle 47. Commercial shafting is made of
c) Counter shaft
d) Machine shaft a) low carbon steel
b) cast iron
41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through c) brass
d) bronze
a) torsional
b) bending 48. What is the most common material for
c) axial shafting?
d) all of these
a) Wrought iron
42. What is the standard stock length? b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
a) 16 ft d) Aluminum
b) 20 ft
c) 24 ft
d) all of the above
49. Cold drawing produces a ________ shaft
that hot rolling, but with higher residual
stresses.

a) weaker
b) stronger
c) harder
d) none of the above

50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to

________ are common in design of a shaft.

a) 3000 to 5000 psi

b) 4000 to 6000 psi
c) 5000 to 8000 psi
d) 6000 to 10000 psi
 TEST 6
1. A type of coupling that allows slight c) Saddle keys
amount of torsional angular flexibility due to d) Roll Pin
introduction with some elastic material
cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in 7. A key that allows the hub to move along
the flange. the shaft but prevents the rotation of the
shaft.
a) Simple elastic bonded coupling
b) Elastic material bushed coupling a) Woodruff key
c) Elastic material bonded coupling b) Feather key
d) All of these c) Gibbs key
d) Square key
2. Which of the following keys that is square
or flat and tapered with head? 8. Which of the following type of fits used for
involute spline?
a) Pin key
b) Saddle key a) Close fit
c) Gib-head keys b) Press
d) None of these c) Sliding
d) All of these
3. What are considered as the most
common keys? 9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to
involute splines except that the pressure
a) Flat key angle is 14.5 deg.
b) Square key
c) Saddle key a) Separation load
d) A & B above b) Stub serrations
c) Spline shaft
4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is d) Involute serrations
usually a drive fit.
10. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is most
a) Pin key likely to fall in
b) Saddle key
c) Gib-head key a) compression
d) None of these b) shear
c) tension
5. A key with one of several patented d) double shear
methods of keying is driven or pressed into a
hole that is small enough to close the slit, 11. In case of sunk key,
assembled in radial direction.
a) the key is cut in both shaft and hub
a) Fit key b) the key way is cut in hub only
b) Saddle key c) the key way is cut in shaft only
c) Roll Pin d) the key way is helical along the shaft
d) Pin key
12. Splined shafts are generally for
6. Kennedy keys are also known as
a) air craft
a) Tangential keys b) automobiles
b) Normal keys c) bicycles
d) machine tools
13. Splines are used when 19. A machine member employed at the
interface of a pair of mating male and
a) the power to be transmitted is low female circular cross-sectioned members to
b) the power to be transmitted is high prevent relative angular motion between
c) the torque is high these mating.
d) axial relative motion between shaft
and hub is necessary a) Key way
b) Key
14. Which key normally used in c) Constant key
wristwatches? d) Variable key

a) Kennedy key 20. A feather key is one of the following

b) Sunk key types of
c) Tangent key
d) None of the above a) sunk
b) tapered
15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the c) parallel
same material and of equal strength the d) tangent
length of key would be equal to
21. Permanent keys made integral with the
a) d shaft and fitting into key ways broached
b) 0.75 d into the mating hub.
c) 1.2 d
d) 1.5 d a) Square keys
b) Splines
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning c) Woodruff keys
machine key made by a side milling cutter d) Kennedy keys
in the form of a segment of a disk.
22. A type of square key with bottom two
a) Kennedy key corners beveled is called
b) Saddle key
c) Tangent key a) Flat key
d) Woodruff key b) Feather key
c) Barth key
17. A female mating member that forms a d) Woodruff key
groove in the shaft to which the key fits.
23. The bearing load on feather keys should
a) Key path not exceed
b) Key way
c) Key holder a) 600 psi
d) Key hole b) 800 psi
c) 1000 psi
18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway d) 1200 psi
of square section and driven from opposite
ends of the hub is known as 24. The two keys are angularly spaced

a) Barth key a) 45 
b) Feather key b) 60 
c) Kennedy key c) 75 
d) Saddle key d) 90 
25. The three keys are angularly spaced 31. The key fits into mating grooves in the
shaft and mating member is called
a) 60 
b) 90  a) Key way
c) 1200 b) Key path
d) 1800 c) Key hole
d) None of these
26. The permissible crushing stress is about
_________ times the permissible shear stress. 32. Used as couplings, or in addition to
overload, where there is danger of injury to
a) 1.5 machines or to material in process.
b) 1.7
c) 1.9 a) Flange couplings
d) 1.10 b) Involute serrations
c) King pins
27. Practical considerations required that d) Shear pins
the hub length should be at least _________
to obtain a good grip. 33. A coupling that transmits power via the
frictional forces induced by pulling the
a) 1.2D flanges toward each other over slotted
b) 1.5D tapered sleeves is known as
c) 1.7D
d) 1.9D a) Flange coupling
b) Flange compression coupling
28. For three keys, a _________ percent c) Ribbed compression coupling
overload often is used. d) Rigid coupling

a) 10 34. What is used for absorbing some shock

b) 15 and vibration that may appear on one shaft
c) 20 and of preventing the occurrence of
d) 25 reversed stresses caused by the shaft
deflecting at the coupling?
29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a
head on one end and a radial through hole a) Flange coupling
in the other end. b) Flexible coupling
c) Rigid coupling
a) Clevis pins d) None of these
b) Taper pins
c) Dower pins 35. For a single Hooke’s coupling the shaft
d) Taper pins angle should not be greater than

30. Used for the attachment of levers, a) 10 

wheels and similar devices onto shafts for b) 12 
light-duty service. c) 15 
d) 30 
a) Clevis pins
b) Cotter pins 36. A universal coupling is
c) Dowel pins
d) Taper pins a) A rigid coupling
b) A type of flange coupling
c) Used for collinear coupling
d) Used for non-collinear shafts
37. A flange coupling is 43. A type of coupling used to connect
shafts that have lateral misalignment.
a) flexible
b) used for collinear shafts a) Compression coupling
c) used for non-collinear shafts b) Collar coupling
d) used only on small shafts rotating at c) Chain coupling
low speed d) Oldham coupling

38. In flange coupling the weakest element 44. A coupling that is composed of two
should be the slotted members, which are connected by
a continuous steel spring, and lies in the
a) bolts slots.
b) flange
c) key a) Ajax coupling
d) shaft b) Falk coupling
c) Lord coupling
39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are d) Slip coupling
designed for
45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery
a) fatigue for several purposes. The most common
b) shear forces purpose of shaft coupling is
c) compression
d) tensile forces a) to provide for the connection of
shafts of units that are manufactured
40. Which of the following mechanical separately
devices is used for uniting or connecting b) to provide for misalignment of the
parts of a mechanical system? shafts
c) to reduce the transmission of shock
a) Coupling loads from one shaft to another
b) Keys d) all of the above
c) Splines
d) Flexible coupling 46. Typical hub length falls between
_________ where D is the shaft diameter
41. A coupling that employs a fluid to
provide angular flexibility between the input a) 1.2D and 1.8D
and output shafts. b) 1.25D and 2.4D
c) 1.30 and 2.5D
a) Rigid coupling d) 1.35D and 3.0D
b) Flexible coupling
c) Hydraulic coupling 47. The diameter of the large end of the pin
d) Oldham coupling should be ________ the shaft diameter.

42. Which of the following type of coupling is a) ¼

used with collinear shafts? b) 1/3
c) ½
a) Collar coupling d) 3/2
b) Rigid coupling
c) Flexible coupling 48. The most common type of sliding action
d) Hydraulic coupling fastener and is widely used on doors is the

a) Pawl fastener
b) Magnetic fastener
 c) Sliding fastener
d) Screw fastener

49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides

experience has shown that, the permissible
crushing stress is about ____________ times
the permissible shear stress.

a) 1.3
b) 1.5
c) 1.7
d) 1.9

50. The mechanical fastening that connects

shafts together for power transmission.

a) Coupling
b) Key
c) Splines
d) None of the above
 TEST 7
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in
screw is known as 7. Some experiments made at Cornell
University showed that experience
a) Pitch mechanic could bread a ________ bolt due
b) Top flank to nut tightening.
c) Top land
d) Crest a) 3/8
b) 5/8 inch
2. Screw thread projecting from a c) ½ inch
cylindrical surface is a d) 7/16 inch

a) thread series 8. The angle included between the sides of

b) thread shear the thread measured in an axial plane in a
c) straight thread screw thread.
d) taper thread
a) Angle of thread
3. The conical surface at the starting end of b) Angle between thread or 40 deg
the thread is called c) Helix angle thread
d) Half angle thread
a) Pitch cone
b) Chamfer 9. Length of contact between two mating
c) Crest parts in screw and nut threads measured
d) Flute axially is called

4. The surface connecting the cast and a) Arc of contact

roots of the screw thread. b) Depth of engagement
c) Length of engagement
a) Lead angle d) Axis of contact
b) Length of engagement
c) Top land 10. Major and minor diameters are
d) Flank commonly used in

5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a a) screw thread

length of one pitch in the axial plane on b) bolt
which design forms of both the external c) gear
threads are based. d) all of these

a) Basic form of thread 11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the

b) Effective thread
c) Basic profile of thread a) major diameter
d) Design form of external thread b) minor diameter
c) stress area
6. The top and bottom-land for gears is d) mean diameter
similar formed as to crest and ________ for
screw thread. 12. A _________ is a kind of thread in which
the width of the thread and the space
a) flank between threads are approximately equal.
b) root
c) flank tooth a) square thread
d) top land b) acme thread
 c) buttress thread a) Groove
d) whit worth thread b) Lap
c) Tap
13. A kind of thread that is generally used. d) Flute

a) UNEC 19. A kind of bolt, which has no head but

b) UNC instead has threads on bolts ends.
c) UNF
d) UNEF a) Stud bolt
b) Acme threaded bolt
14. A type of bolt commonly used in the c) Square bolt
construction that is threaded in both ends. d) Hex bolt

a) Stud bolt 20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary

b) Acme threaded bolt cylinder that bounds the crest of an external
c) Square threaded bolt thread.
d) Hex bolt
a) Mean diameter
15. A hand tool used to measure tension in b) Stress diameter
bolts. c) Minor diameter
d) Major diameter
a) Shaver
b) Tachometer 21. The distance in inches a screw thread
c) Tensor advances axially in one turn.
d) Torque wrench
a) Lead
16. One of the following is not a tap used for b) Circular pitch
cutting threads in holes. c) Pitch
d) Mean pitch
a) Tapping tap
b) Plug tap 22. Which of the following type of threads
c) Taper tap recommended for general use?
d) Bottoming tap
a) UNC
17. Type of bolt intended for use in bolting b) UNEF
wooden parts together or wood to metal. It c) UNF
has a short portion of shank just underneath d) NC
a round head, which is designed to keep
the bolt from turning in the wood when the 23. It is frequently used in automobile and
nut is tightened. aircraft work.

a) U-bolt a) UNC
b) Carriage bolt b) UNEF
c) Eye bolt c) UNF
d) Stud bolt d) NC

18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads 24. Which of the following type of threads
formed around it and grooves or flutes are useful in aeronautical equipments?
running lengthwise in it, intersecting with the
threads to form cutting edges. It is used to a) UNC
cut internal threads. b) UNEF
 c) UNF 31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends
d) NC that can be used where a through bolt
is impossible.
25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe
flanges, cylinder head studs etc. a) Carriage bolt
b) Coupling bolt
a) UNC c) Machine bolt
b) UNEF d) Stud bolt
c) UNF
d) 8UN 32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in
small sizes.
26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on
it. a) Stud bolt
b) Carriage bolt
a) Bolt c) Stove bolt
b) Fastener d) Mini bolt
c) Rivet
d) None of these 33. A large wood screw is used to fasten
machinery and equipment to a wooden
27. Which one that has no nut and turns into base.
a threaded hole?
a) Lag screw
a) Rivet b) Log screw
b) Screw c) Wood screw
c) Stud bolt d) None of these
d) U-bolt
34. The length of contact in a tapped hole
28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished should be a minimum of about ___________
through bolt, comes with a square. for cast iron.

a) Coupling bolt a) D
b) Machine bolt b) 1.5D
c) Stud bolt c) 1.2D
d) Automobile bolt d) 2D

29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, 35. When the location of bolt is such that it
usually having coarse threads? would normally be shear, it is better
practice to use a
a) Coupling bolt
b) Machine bolt a) dummy bolts
c) Stud bolt b) mid-pins
d) Automobile bolt c) crank pins
d) dowel pins
30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short
portion of the shank underneath the head 36. A locking device used to maintain
being square or finned or ribbed. pressure between the threads of the bolt
and nut.
a) Carriage bolt
b) Coupling bolt a) Gasket
c) Machine bolt b) Lock nuts
d) Stud bolt c) Lock washer
d) Lock out
37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is 42. Foundation bolts of specified size should
the same as be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve
with an inside diameter of a least ________
a) major diameter times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
b) pitch diameter
c) minor diameter a) 1
d) none of the above b) 2
c) 3
38. Turn buckle has d) 4

a) left hand threads on both ends 43. Foundation bolts should be at least
b) left hand threads on one end and ____________ times the diameter of the
right hand threads on other end anchor bolt.
c) right hand threads on both ends
d) no threads a) 12
b) 14
39. The diameter of a washer is generally c) 16
d) 18
a) equal to the diameter of bolt
b) slightly more than the diameter of 44. No foundation bolts shall be less than
the bolt _________ mm diameter.
c) slightly less than the diameter of the
bolt a) 10
d) of any size that suits the application b) 12
c) 14
40. The stress concentration is maximum at - d) 16
_________ in a standard coarse thread.
45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in
a) all over the surface concrete at least ___________ times the bolt
b) flank diameter.
c) root
d) top surface a) 10
b) 20
41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has c) 30
d) 40
a) one small nut is tightened over main
nut and main nut tightened against 46. The screw thread commonly used for
smaller one loosening, creating transmission of motion is one of the
friction jamming. following types of ___________ threads.
b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut
partly in middle of tightening of a) acme
screw b) vee
c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed c) knuckle
in the nut and becomes threaded as d) British Association
the nut is screwed on the bolt
causing a tight grip.
d) Through slots are made at top and a 47. The spindle of bench vises are usually
cotter pin is passed through these provided with
and a hole in the bolt and cotter pin
splitted and bent in reverse direction a) buttress threads
at other end b) square threads
 c) acme threads
d) v-threads

48. Any device to connect or joint more

components.

a) Bolt
b) Screw
c) Fastener
d) None of the above

49. When the threads are of opposite hand,

the driven screw moves rapidly is known as

a) Bearing screw
b) Compound screw
c) Differential screw
d) Set screw

50. The threaded length is about _________

times the diameters.

a) 1.25
b) 1.5
c) 1.8
d) 2.0
 TEST 8
1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications is
a) Presstage
a) 6 x 27 b) Stress relieving
b) 6 x 37 c) Auto frettage
c) 6x9 d) Countersinking
d) 6 x 21
7. When two touching surface have a high
2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire contact pressure and when these surfaces
rope arrangement except this ________ have minute relative motion a phenomenon
which deals with rope materials strength . called

a) performed a) Carving
b) IWRC b) Friction
c) Mps c) Fretting
d) Lang lay d) Prestressing

3. One of the following materials is not 8. Pipes subject to high pressure are
mentioned for wire rope pulley / sheave generally made by
applications.
a) slush casting
a) Plastic b) pressure casting
b) Iron c) extrusion
c) Paper d) centrifugal casting
d) Copper alloy
9. Hoop stress refers to
4. The factor of safety generally applied in
wire rope design starts at 3-4 for standing a) circumferential tensile stress
rope application, 5-12 for operating rope b) compressive stress
and __________ for hazard to life and c) longitudinal stress
properly application like foundry operation. d) radial stress

a) higher value 10. Autfrettage is the method of

b) 7 – 10
c) 8 – 10 a) calculating stress in thick cylinders
d) 10 – 18 b) increasing life of thick cylinders
c) prestressing thick cylinders
5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay d) relieving thick cylinders
means wires and standards are arranged in
the following manner _________ 11. The radial pressure and hoop tension for
a thick cylinder is
a) twisted in same direction
b) twisted in any direction a) maximum at inner surface and
c) twisted in opposite direction decreases toward outer surface
d) twisted in along direction b) minimum at inner surface and
increases towards outer surface
6. A process of prestressing or over stressing c) minimum at inner and outer surfaces
a hollow cylindrical member beyond the and maximum in middle
elastic range by hydraulic pressure. d) maximum at inner and outer
surfaces and minimum in middle
12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be a) 5/8
constant at any point in the thickness of the b) 8/5
cylinder, the radial stress Sr and hoop stress c) 7/8
Sh are related as d) 8/7

a) Sr – Sh = constant 18. It is used in high-pressure cylinders.

b) Sr + Sh = constant
c) Sr/Sh = constant a) Thin-walled cylinders
d) Sr – Sh/Sr = constant b) Thick-walled cylinders
c) Solid-walled cylinders
13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and d) Hard-walled cylinders
thickness t when subjected to internal
pressure P, if Poisson’s ratio of material is  , 19. To obtain safe working pressure the
the circumferential or hoop strain is critical pressure, should be at least ______
times the working pressure.
a) Pd(1-2)/2tE
b) Pd(1-2)/ a) 3
c) Pd(1/2 - )/2tE b) 4
d) Pd(1/2-)/4tE c) 5
d) 6
14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall
thickness to the inside diameter is 20. The radial pressure between the
___________ may be called a thin cylinder cylinders at the surface of contact depends
on the ___________ of the materials.
a) less than 0.05
b) less than 0. a) strength
c) more than 0.05 b) hardness
d) more than 0.07 c) modulus of elasticity
d) modulus of rigidity
15. External pressure tubes in boilers are
designed with an apparent factor of safety 21. In cross or regular lay ropes the
of
a) direction of twist in strands is
a) 1 to 3 opposite to the direction of twist of
b) 4 to 6 strands
c) 5 to 7 b) direction of twist of wires and strands
d) 8 to 10 are the same
c) wires in two adjacent strands are
16. Refers to a hollow product of round or twisted in opposite direction
any other cross section having a continuous d) wires are not twisted
periphery.
22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible?
a) Gear
b) Flywheel a) 6 by 7
c) Sphere b) 6 by 19
d) Tube c) 6 by 37
d) 8 by 19
17. The thickness should be multiplied by
_________ to obtain the nominal wall 23. A wire rope that the wires and strands
thickness. are twisted in opposite direction.
 a) Long lay 30. The minimum suggested design factor of
b) Lang lay ________ for ropes miscellaneous hoisting
c) Regular lay equipment.
d) Performed
a) 2
24. A wire rope that the wires and strands b) 3
are twisted in the same direction. c) 4
d) 5
a) Long lay
b) Lang lay 31. To avoid excessive wear rate the
c) Performed recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19
d) Non-performed rope is ___________ for cast iron.

25. A type of rope used for haulages, a) 200 psi

rigging, and guardrails. b) 300 psi
c) 400 psi
a) 6 x 35 IWRC d) 500 psi
b) 6 x 25 IWRC
c) 7 x 7 IWRC 32. To avoid excessive wear rate the
d) 6 x 8 IWRC recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19
rope is ________ for cast steel.
26. A rope used for general-purpose.
a) 700 psi
a) 6 x 15 IWRC b) 900 psi
b) 6 x 21 IWRC c) 1000 psi
c) 6 x 19 IWRC d) 1200 psi
d) 7 x 26 IWRC
33. To avoid excessive wear rate the
27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers, recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19
overheated cranes, hoists. rope is ___________ for manganese steel.

a) 6 x 34 IWRC a) 2000 psi

b) 6 x 35 IWRC b) 2300 psi
c) 6 x 37 IWRC c) 2500 psi
d) 6 x 45 IWRC d) 3000 psi

28. The regular materials for wire rope are 34. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn
made of wires that are first wrapped into

a) cast steel a) layer

b) chromium b) segment
c) wrought iron c) strands
d) high-carbon steel d) none of these

29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow 35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the rope
Steel is in the range of is made of six strands each containing

a) 200 and 400 ksi a) 7 pieces

b) 240 and 280 ksi b) 7 diameters
c) 230 and 260 ksi c) 7 wires
d) 400 and 500 ksi d) 7 strands
36. Ropes are made of 42. What is the recommended sheave
diameter for standard hoisting rope?
a) aluminum alloys
b) copper a) 40d
c) bronze b) 45d
d) all of the above c) 50d
d) 55d
37. The ratio of the strength of all the inside
wires to the strength of all the wires in the
rope 43. What is the recommended sheave
diameter for extra-flexible hoisting rope?
a) excess strength
b) reserve strength a) 30d
c) factor of safety b) 31d
d) ratio of factor c) 32d
d) 33d
38. The chief usage of wire ropes at the
present time is 44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn
wires that are first wrapped into
a) elevators
b) cranes a) pulp
c) tramways b) strands
d) all of the above c) helices
d) hemp

39. Tests and theoretical investigations by 45. The Roebling Handbook suggests
J.F. Howe indicate that for steel ropes of the minimum design factor of guy’s is
ordinary constructions the value of modulus
of elasticity is a) 3.0
b) 3.5
a) 10,000,000 psi c) 4.0
b) 10,500,000 psi d) 5.0
c) 11,000,000 psi
d) 12,000,000 psi 46. The Roebling Handbook suggests
minimum design factor of miscellaneous
40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use hoisting equipment is
drums ______________ times the rope
diameter. a) 3.0
b) 5.0
a) 60 to 70 c) 7.0
b) 60 to 80 d) 9.0
c) 60 to 90
d) 60 to 100 47. An extra flexible rope is

41. What is the recommended sheave a) 6x7

diameter for haulage rope? b) 6 x 19
c) 6 x 37
a) 70d d) 7x7
b) 71d
c) 72d
d) 73d
48. The strength of the rope is always
____________ the sum of the strength of wires

a) less than
b) more than
c) equal
d) the same

49. One of the most popular rope style is

a) 6x7
b) 6 x 19
c) 6 x 37
d) 7x7

50. The minimum factor of safety of small

hoist is

a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
 TEST 9
1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the 6. A weld of approximately triangular
residual stress in the welding it is normally cross-section that join two surfaces at
stress relieved of approximately right angles as in lap joint,
tee joint, corner joint.
a) Quenching
b) Normalizing a) Single welded lap joint
c) Tempering b) Fillet weld
d) Drawing c) Tack weld
d) Butt weld
2. A of welding whereby a wire or
powder from the nozzle of a spray gun is 7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to
fused by a gas flame, arc or plasma jet the thickness of the inner joint member is
and then molten particles are projected called
in a form of a spray by means of
compressed air or gas is known a a) Butt joint
b) Butt weld
a) Elector-slug building c) Tack weld
b) Electro-beam welding d) Full-fillet weld
c) Plasma-arc welding
d) Metal spray welding 8. A weld made to hold the parts of a
weldment in proper alignment until the
3. Weld metal impact specimen shall final welds are made of
be taken across the weld with one face
substantially parallel to and within a) Butt weld
b) Tack weld
a) 3/4in c) Fillet weld
b) 1/32 in. d) Full fillet weld
c) ¼ in.
d) 1/16 in. 9. Test is designed primarily for
application to electric-welded tubing for
4. A joint between to overlapping detection of lack of penetration or
members in whom the overlapped edge overlaps resulting from flash removal in
of one member is welded with a fillet the weld
weld is called
a) Butt weld
a) A single welded lap joint b) Paste
b) Double welded lap joint c) Lap weld
c) A single welded lap joint with d) Double butt weld
backing
d) Track weld 10. The internal stresses existing in a
welded connection are
5. A weld place in groove between
two butting members is called a) Relieved by x-ray analysis
b) Maybe relieved when weld is
a) Full-fillet weld penned
b) Tack weld c) Not relieved when the weld is
c) Butt weld penned
d) fillet weld d) Not relieved by heat treatment
11. A welding operation in which a non- a) Efficiency
ferrous fillet metal at a temperature b) Joint efficiency
below that of the metal joined but is c) Performance factor
heated above 450C d) Relative strength

a) Spot welding 17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor

b) Gas welding of safety may be taken as
c) Brazing
d) Arc welding a) 2
b) 3
12. Uniting two pieces of metal by c) 5
means of a different metal which is d) 5
applied between the two in molten
state 18. Are resistance welds, usually round in
the same form as the electrodes that
a) Casting press the sheets together
b) Welding
c) Soldering a) Edge joint
d) Brazing b) MIG joint
c) Spot joint
13. Joining metal by means of high d) TIG joint
current at low voltage. During the
passage of current, pressure by the 19. Consists of short lengths (2 to 3
electrodes produces a forge weld: inches long) of welds with space
between as 6 inches on centers.
a) Spot welding
b) Resistance welding a) Intermittent weld
c) Steam welding b) MIG weld
d) Gas welding c) Spot welds
d) TIG welds
14. A fusion process in which the metal is
heated together into a solid joint. 20. An intermittent weld, lightly done to
hold the members in position for
a) Electric arc welding assembly purposes or for principal
b) Gas welding welding
c) Spot welding
d) Projection welding a) Edge weld
b) Tack weld
15. As one example, the ASME code for c) Back welds
riveted joints permits the design surface d) Half welds
compressive stress to be about ________
higher than the design tensile stress. 21. A welding operation that uses hot
flame and metal rod is known as
a) 40%
b) 50% a) Gas welding
c) 60% b) Arc welding
d) 70% c) Resistance welding
d) Automatic welding
16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of
minimum strength of joint to the strength
of solid joint is known as
22. The arc is covered with a welding 28. Wiping is the process of
composition and bare electrode wire is
fed automatically a) Applying flux during welding
process
a) Resistance welding b) Clearing the welded surface
b) Submerged arc welding after the welding operation is
c) Induction welding over
d) Spot welding c) Connecting load pipes by
soldering alloy
23. Treating the weld as a line, the d) Low temperature welding
amount or inertia about center of
gravity of a circular weld or diameter d 29. A collimated light beam is used for
would b producing heat in

a) 𝜋 d2/36 a) Laser welding

b) 𝜋d2/6 b) MIG welding
c) 𝜋 d3/36 c) Plasma welding
d) 𝜋d3/4 d) TIG welding

24. For butt welding of two plates each 30. During MIG welding the metal is
of which is 25 mm thick, the best process transferred in the form of
would be
a) A fine spray of metal
a) TIG welding b) Continuous flow of molten metal
b) MIG welding c) Electron beam
c) Gas welding d) Solution
d) Electro slag welding
31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be
25. What should be the maximum size of spot welded then electrode tip
the fillet weld? diameter is equal to

a) 2 mm a) √𝑡
b) 3 mm b) 1.5√𝑡
c) 5 mm c) 2.5√𝑡
d) 7 mm d) 2√𝑡

26. The maximum size of the fillet weld 32. Weld spatter refers to
that can be made in single pass is
a) Flux
a) 3 mm b) Filler material
b) 6 mm c) Welding defect
c) 8 mm d) Welding electrode
d) 12 mm
33. Which of the following metals can
be suitably welded by TIG welding?
27. Which diamond riveted joint can be
adopted? a) Aluminum
b) Magnesium
a) Butt joint c) A and B above
b) Lap joint d) Stainless steel
c) Double riveted lap joint
d) All types of joints 34. Arc blow takes place in

a) Arc welding when straight
polarity is used
b) Arc welding when reverse
polarity is used
c) Gas welding
d) Welding stainless steel
a) Just at the time of passing the
current
b) After completion of currents
c) After the weld cools
d) During heating
41. Half corner weld is used

35. Unlike materials or materials of a) Where severe loading is

different thickness can be butt welded
by
a) Adjusting initial gap
b) Adjusting time duration of
current
c) Control of pressure and current
d) All of the above
encountered and the upper
surfaces of both pieces must be
in the same plane
b) Where efficiency of joint should
be 50%
c) Where longitudinal shear is
present
d) None of the above

36. The phenomenon of weld decay 42. Projection welding is

takes place in
a) Continuous spot welding process
a) Brass b) Multi spot welding process
b) Bronze c) Used to form frameworks
c) Cast iron d) All of the above
d) Stainless steel
43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxy-
37. Laser welding is widely used in acetylene welding with

a) electronic industry a) Excess oxygen

b) Heavy industry b) Excess of acetylene
c) Process industry c) Equal parts of both gases
d) Structural work d) Reduced acetylene

38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger 44. Brasses and bronzes are welded
preparation for welding is not needed? using

a) 2 mm a) Carburizing flame
b) 4 mm b) Neutral flame
c) 8 mm c) Oxidizing flame
d) 12 mm d) Reducing flame

39. Grey cast iron is best welded by 45. One of the following function is not
performed by coating on the welding
a) Arc electrodes is to
b) MIG
c) Oxy- acetylene a) Increase the cooling rate
d) TIG b) Provide protective atmosphere
c) Refuse oxidation
d) Stabilize the arc
40. In rsistance welding, the pressure is
release 46. Welding defect called arc blow
occurs in
 a) Arc welding using ac current c) Steam welding
b) Arc welding using dc current d) Projection welding
c) Gas welding
d) MIG welding 49. The parts are brought together lightly
with current flowing and then separated
47. The purpose of using flux in soldering slightly
is to
a) Mash weld
a) Increase fluidity of solder b) Steam welding
material c) Flush welding
b) Full up gaps in bad joint d) Percussion welding
c) Prevent oxide formation
d) Lower the melting temperature 50. Which of the following produced a
of the solder series of spot welds made by circular or
wheel type electrodes?
48. The parts are lapped and held in
place under pressure a) Steam welding
b) Mash welding
a) Butt welding c) Spot welding
b) Spot welding d) Steam welding
 TEST 10
1. The soldering material commonly 7. Special solders used for aluminum
applied for automobile radiator cores usually require
and roofing seams.
a) less heat
a) 15/85 % tin and lead b) More heat
b) 50/50% tin and lead c) The same heat as copper wire
c) 45/55% tin and lead d) The same heat as sheet metal
d) 20/80% tin and lead
8. The flux usually used for hard solder is
2. The flux that should be provided in
soldering electrical connection or a) Alum
commutator wires as its tends to corrode b) Barium
the connectors called c) Borax
d) Rosin
a) Sal ammoniac
b) Zinc chloride 9. Soft solder melts at approximately
c) Stearin
d) Acid fluxes a) 250
b) 350
3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint.
c) 450
a) Stronger than d) 550
b) The same strength as
c) Three times as strong as 10. Soft solder is made of
d) Weaker than
a) Copper and zinc
4. Brazing requires b) Tin and copper
c) Tin and lead
a) Hard solder d) Tin and zinc
b) Soft solder
c) More heat 11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most
d) Choices A and C popular but if you did not have any, you
could use _____ as substitute

5. What is the reason why lead is used a) Hydrochloric acid

in solders? b) Nitric acid
c) Sulfuric acid
a) It has a high melting point. d) Any of the above
b) It has a low melting point.
c) It is cheap 12. Hard solder is made of
d) Choices B and C
a) Copper and zinc
6. The higher the melting pint of the b) Tin and copper
solder, the c) Tin and lead
d) Tin and zinc
a) Harder the solder joint
b) Softer the solder joint
c) Stronger the solder joint
d) Weaker the solder joint
13. Soldered will not unite with a metal 18. When soldering, flux is used for
surface that has
a) Keeping the metal from getting
a) Dirt on it too hot
b) Grease on it b) Keeping the solder from running
c) Oxidation on it off the metal
d) Any of the above c) Keeping the tip of the soldering
iron and clean
14. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the d) Remove and prevent oxidation
soldered area must be cleaned of the metals
thoroughly afterwards to prevent
19. Soldering is the process of
a) Anyone touching it from getting
burned a) Holding two metals together by
b) Remaining acid form eating the heating
metal b) Joining two metals by a third soft
c) The acid form evaporating and metal that is applied in a molten
the solder disintegrating state
d) None of the above c) Holding two different kinds of
metals together by heating
15. Sweating is the process of d) All of the above

a) Soldering two different kinds of 20. Brazing is used for joining

metal
b) Separating two pieces of metal a) Tow ferrous material
that have been soldered b) One ferrous and non-ferrous
together material
c) Tinning two surfaces, applying c) Two non-ferrous metal
flux them, holding the two d) Two non-metals
together and heating
d) None of the above 21. What is the most commonly used flux
for brazing?
16. A surface to be soldered should be
prepared by a) Zinc chloride
b) Zinc and tin
a) Acid cleaning the surfaces c) Zinc and copper
b) Filing the surfaces d) Zinc and lead
c) Scraping the surfaces
d) Any of the above 22. Multi spot welding process is also
referred as _____welding
17. One of the most important factors
that is often overlooked when soldering a) Tack
is the fact that b) Fillet
c) TIG
a) The surfaces to be soldered must d) Projection
be clean
b) The two metals to be soldered 23. The maximum temperature
must not be the same developed for oxy-hydrogen welding is
c) The two metals to be soldered
must be the same a) 1755 C
d) All surfaces should be dipped in b) 1965 C
acid first
 c) 2565 C
d) 3440 C a) Efficiency of the welded
b) Efficiency of the jont
24. The maximum temperature c) Performance factor
developed for oxy-acetylene welding is d) Load factor

a) 1965 C 30. Thicker plates usually require

b) 2565 C excessive rivet sizes and for practical
c) 3440 C reasons the rivet diameter is made
d) 4565 C approximately

25. A mixture of aluminum powder and a) 1.2t

a metal oxide powder is ignited by a b) 1.2
special powder in a crucible. c) 2t
d) 2
a) Thermit welding
b) Stud welding 31. The process of joining metals by
c) Resistance welding means by heating to a temperature
d) Gas welding above the recrystallization temperature
or to fusion with or without the
26. A welding where an arc is struck application or pressure
between two tungsten electrodes into
which a jet of hydrogen is directed a) Brazing
b) Soldering
a) Atomic hydrogen welding c) Welding
b) Electron beam welding d) Seaming
c) Electro slug welding
d) Flash welding 32. The process of bonding two or more
pieces of metal together by means of
27. A common rule is to make the rivet another metal whose melting point is
hole diameter from ________ for rivets in below 800⁰F
single or double shear.
a) Brazing
a) 1.2 t to 1.4 t b) Seaming
b) to c) Soldering
c) to d) Welding
d) to
33. The process of joining metal parts by
28. Fusion welding is the name means of a non ferrous fitter or alloy that
frequently given to processes not melts at a temperature above 800⁰F.
requiring pressure. It is sometimes called
a) Brazing
a) Flash welding b) Seaming
b) Seam welding c) Soldering
c) Spot welding d) Welding
d) Thermit welding
34. The process of joining metals in
29. The ratio of the load that will which the two parts are joined by
produce the allowable stress in any part heating them electrically to a
of the joint to the load that will produce temperature above the recrystallization
the allowable tension stress in the temperature.
unpunched plate.
 a) Flash welding 40. Minimum thickness for boiler plate
b) Projection welding shall be
c) Thermit welding
d) Resistance welding a) 3.56 mm
b) 5.36 mm
35. A fusion welding process in which c) 6. 36 mm
the welding heat is obtained from an d) 6. 56 mm
electric arc set up either between the
base metal and one electrode or 41. The strength of iron rivets in single
between to electrodes. shear

a) Arc welding a) 262 N/mm2

b) Gas welding b) 303 N/mm2
c) Fusion welding c) 524 N/mm2
d) Spot welding d) 607 N/mm2

36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to 42. The strength of steel rivets in single
be joined by welding in a satisfactory shear
manner.
a) 262 N/mm2
a) Flame plating b) 303 N/mm2
b) Metal spraying c) 524 N/mm2
c) Metalizing d) 607 N/mm2
d) Weldability
43. When the longitudinal seams are of
37. A surfacing method of blasting lap riveted construction the minimum
particles of tungsten carbide onto the factor of safety is
surface of a piece of metal.
a) 5
a) Flame plating b) 6
b) Metal spraying c) 7
c) Metalizing d) 8
d) Powder pouring
44. The maximum allowable working
38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be pressure of a non-code steel or wrought
taken as equal to iron heating boiler of welded
construction shall not exceed.
a) 80%
b) 60% a) 0.5 bar
c) 90% b) 1.0 bar
d) 95% c) 1.5 bar
d) 2.0 bar
39. When the tensile strength of steel
shell plates is not known it shall be taken 45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that
as the edge distance must be not less than

a) 379. 31 N/mm2 a) 1.5d

b) 565.71 N/mm2 b) 2.0d
c) 556.17 N/mm2 c) 2.5d
d) 671.55 N/mm2 d) 3.0d
46. A method of resistance welding in
which the heating and the pressure are
localized at specified points by
providing embossed or coined
projections on the pieces to be joined.

a) Projection welding
b) Flash welding
c) Seam welding
d) Resistance welding

47. An intermittent weld, lightly done to

hold the members in position for
assembly purposes or for the principal
welding.

a) Spot weld
b) Tack weld
c) Butt weld
d) Fillet weld

48. What type of welding that the hot

flame and a metal rod are used?

a) Seam welding
b) Gas welding
c) Spot welding
d) Resistance welding

49. It used for joining members of

approximately equal in cross-section

a) Mash welding
b) Butt welding
c) Upset welding
d) Choices B and C

50. The melting point of the filler material

in brazing is approximately or above.

a) 420⁰F
b) 600⁰F
c) 800⁰F
d) 1000⁰F
 TEST 11
1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing 7. Which of the following materials is
design, the clearance ratio/clearance unsuitable as a bearing?
should be
A. Teflon
A. 0.01001 B. Low carbon steel
B. 0.0101 C. Cast iron
C. 0.0110 D. Nylon
D. 0.0010
8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which
2. Also called eccentrically loaded
bearing A. The lube oil is supplied under
pressure
A. Full bearing B. Lube oil is not pressurized
B. Offset bearing C. There is no lube oil
C. Partial bearing D. Bearing is lightly loaded
D. Fitted bearing
9. At the same thermal and minimum
3. Wahta type of bearing which totally film, thickness limitation as sleeve
encloses the shaft?
A. Ball bearing
A. Offset bearing B. Roller bearing
B. Central bearing C. Thrust bearing
C. Babbitt bearing D. Full bearing
D. Full bearing
10. The desired between two surfaces
4. All are functions of lubricating oil having relatively sliding motion is known
except
A. Lube oil
A. Adhesion B. Graphite
B. Corrosion prevention C. Packing
C. Act as coolant D. Lubrication
D. To tighten the load
11. What bearing composed of two
5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant principal parts, namely the

A. Lube oil A. Bearing and journal

B. Graphite B. Clearance and fitted
C. Grease C. Bolt and Babbitt
D. All of these D. Bolt and cylinder

6. Metal that assists lubrication or 12. When the line of action of the load
lubricant in itself bisects the arc of partial bearing it is said
to be:
A. Zinc
B. Antimony A. Eccentrically loaded
C. Babbit B. Fit loaded
D. Lead C. Centrally loaded
D. Surface loaded
13. It is the difference in the radii of the 19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by
bearing and the journal experiments is _____ that the smoother
the surface.
A. Even clearance
B. Clearance ratio A. Constant
C. Fit clearance B. The greater the load capacity of the
D. Radial clearance bearing
C. None of these
14. It is one in which the radii of the D. Variable
journal and the bearing are the same
20. Which of the following is considered
A. Clearance bearing an advantage for bearing materials?
B. Fitted bearing
C. Full bearing A. Conformability
D. Partial bearing B. Embeddability
C. Compatibility
15. The line that passes through centers D. All of these
of the bearing and the journal is called
the 21. For thrust bearing the speed at
moderate operating conditions is
A. Line of action
B. Line of centers A. 50<Vm>200 fpm
C. Line of tangent B. 50<Vm>220 fpm
D. Under cut C. 50<Vm>250 fpm
D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm
16. Length-diameter ration was a good
compromise for the general case of 22. The 200 series bearing is called
hydrodynamic bearings. It is
approximately equal to A. Heavy
B. Light
A. 1 C. Medium
B. 2 D. None of these
C. 3
D. 4 23. The 300 series bearing is called

17. Operating temperature of oil film A. Heavy

ranges _____________ or less B. Light
C. Medium
A. 120 F to 190 F D. None of these
B. 130 F to 160 F
C. 140 F to 150 F 24. A type of roller bearing in which the
D. 140 F to 160 F balls are assembled by the eccentric
displacement of the inner ring.
18. At higher temperature, the oil
oxidizes more rapidly above A. Shallow-groove ball bearing
B. Self-aligning ball bearing
A. 120F C. Filling-slot ball bearing
B. 140F D. Deep-groove ball bearing
C. 160F
D. 200F 25. Which of the following is not a type
of ball bearing?
 A. Shallow-groove ball bearing
B. Self-aligning ball bearing 31. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise
C. Fillet-slot ball bearing direction at slow speed inside a bearing
D. Deep-groove ball bearing will be

26. Steel ball for ball bearing are A. At bottom most of bearing
manufactured by B. Towards left side of bearing and
making metal to metal contact
A. Casting C. Towards left side of bearing and
B. Cold headling making no metal to metal contact
C. Rolling D. Towards right side of bearing and
D. Turning making no metal to metal contact

27. In hydrodynamic bearings 32. A machine part that supports

another part, which rotates, slides or
A. The oil film pressure is generated oscillateds in or on it
only by the rotation of the journal
B. The oil film is maintained by A. Journal
supplying oil under pressure B. Bearing
C. Do not need external supply of C. Roller
lubricant D. Casing
D. Grease is used for lubrication
33. The part of a shaft or crank which is
28. If P = bearing pressure on projected supported by and turns in bearing.
bearing area, Z= absolute viscosity of
lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then A. Casing
the bearing characteristic number is B. Bushing
given by C. Roller
D. Journal
A. ZN/P
B. Z/ PN 34. It is also called anti-friction bearing.
C. ZP/ N
D. P/ZN A. Rolling bearing
B. Thrust bearing
29. The rated life of a bearing changes C. Tapered bearing
D. Single row bearing
A. Directly as load
B. Inversely as fourth power of 35. Which of the following is a bearing
load material?
C. Inversely as cube of load
D. Inversely as square of load A. Babbitt
B. Bronze
30. In oiless bearing C. Plastics
D. All of the above
A. The oil film pressure is produced only
by the rotation of the journal 36. It acts toward the center of the
B. The oil film I maintained by supplying bearing along a radius.
oil under pressure
C. Do not need external supply of A. Thrust load
lubricant B. Tangential load
D. Grease is needed to be applied C. Radial load
after some intervals D. Peripheral load
37. Conrad bearing is also known as 43. If the length over diameter of the
bearing is unity, it is also known as
A. Needle bearing
B. Ball bearing A. Long bearing
C. Roller bearing B. Short bearing
D. Tapered bearing C. Medium bearing
D. Square bearing
38. The combined effect of many of the
variables involved in the operation of a 44. A bearing in which the length ratio
bearing under hydrodynamic lubrication Length/diameter is greater than 1.
can be characterized by the
dimensionless number called: A. Short bearings
B. Long bearings
A. Reynolds Number C. Square bearings
B. Prandtl Number D. Medium bearings
C. Grashof Number
D. Sommerfeld Number 45. The product of absolute viscosity
and rotational speed divided by the unit
39. It exits primarily to guide the motion loading.
of a machine member without specific
regard to the direction of load A. Section modulus
application. B. Bearing modulus
C. Shear modulus
A. radial bearing D. All of the above
B. Journal bearing
C. Thrust bearing 46. From the line of radial loading on the
D. Guide bearing bearing to the position of the minimum
oil-film thickness.
40. It carries a load collinear to the axis
of possible rotation of the supported A. Attitude angle
member. B. Latitude angle
C. Longitude angle
A. Guide bearing D. Altitude angle
B. Journal bearing
C. Thrust bearing 47. The radial distance between the
D. Radial bearing center of the bearing and the displaced
center of the journal is called.
41. The 400 series bearing is
called: A. Concentricity
A. Light B. Eccentricity
B. Medium C. Embeddability
C. Heavy D. None of the above
D. Extra heavy
48. Which of the following is an example
42. The product of length and diameter of solid lubricant?
of the bearing is called:
A. Molybdenum disulfide
A. Shearing area B. Graphite
B. Compressive area
C. Projected area C. Tungsten disulfide
D. Cross-sectional area D. All of the above
49. The length ratio L/D typically varies
between

A. 0.1 to 0.5
B. 0.2 to 0.6
C. 0.2 to 0.8
D. 0.25 to 1.0

50. The operating temperature of the

Babbitt is limited to

A. 200°F
B. 300°F
C. 400°F
D. 500°F
 TEST 12
1. A heavy rotating body which serves
as a reservoir for absorbing and 7. When heat treated wire is coiled
redistributing kinetic energy. cold, it should be stress relieved for
bending stresses after cooling by being
A. Gear heated at some at what temperature?
B. Brakes
C. Flywheel A. 400F
D. Fan B. 500F
C. 600F
2. Which of the following is not a use of D. 700F
spring?
8. A low cost spring material, suitable
A. Absorbs energy where service is not severe and
B. Measure weight dimensional precision is not needed.
C. Source of energy in clocks
D. Measure the thickness A. Hard drawn wire spring
B. Helical spring
3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to C. Stainless steel
the coil diameter D. Helical tension spring wire

A. Wahl factor 9. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but

B. Diameter ratio it is made of high-grade steel
C. Spring index
D. Lead angle A. Music wire
B. Oil tempered wire
4. The overall length of the spring when C. Song wire
it is compressed until all adjacent coils D. Chromium- silicon
touched.
10. A spring wire with good quality for
A. Compressed length impact loads at moderately high
B. Free length temperature
C. Solid length
D. None of these A. Hard drawn wire spring
B. Helical spring wire
5. The length of coil sprig under no C. Chromium-silicon
load. D. Helical tension spring wire

A. Compressed length 11. A type of coil where the helical coil is

B. Free length wrapped into a circle forming an
C. Solid height annular ring
D. None of these
A. Volute spring
6. In general, steel spring are made of B. Motor spring
relatively high carbon steel usually C. Hair spring
D. Garter spring
A. More than 0.5%
B. 5% 12. A type of spring where thin flat strip
C. Less than 0.5% wound up on itself as a plane spiral,
D. 10% usually anchored at the inside
 A. Volute spring A. 0.30 to 0.40%
B. Motor spring B. 0.40 to 0.50%
C. Hair spring C. 0.50 to 0.60%
D. Garter spring D. 0.60 to 0.70%

13. A type of spring made in the form of 19. Experimental results indicate that the
dished washer actual frequency of the spring is from

A. Volute spring A. 5 to 10%

B. Motor spring B. 10 to 15%
C. Hair spring C. 15 to 20%
D. Beleville spring D. 20 to 25%

14. In laminated spring the strips are 20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the
provided in different lengths for critical frequency of the spring should
behold at least ________ times the
A. Economy frequency of application of a periodic
B. Reduction in weight load.
C. Improved appearance
D. Space consideration of the A. 5
utility stage B. 10
C. 15
15. An elastic stored energy machine D. 20
element that when released, will recover
its basic form 21. The actual number of coil is
_________ in a squared and ground ends.
A. Flywheel
B. Clutch A. n
C. Brakes B. n+2
D. Spring C. nd
D. ( n + 1) d
16. When a spring is made of ductile
material, the curvature factor would be 22. The solid length of squared ends is

A. Zero A. (n+3)d
B. Constant B. (n+1)d
C. Unity C. np
D. Positive D. n+2

17. The solid length plus the clearance 23. The free length of ground ends is
plus the maximum deflection.
A. np + 3d
A. Free length B. np + 2d
B. Height C. np + d
C. Distance D. np
D. Original length
24. the shortest length for the spring
18. The majority of coils springs are during normal operation
made of coil tempered carbon steel
wire containing ______________ carbon. A. compressed length
B. operating length
 C. solid length 31. The most practical spring designs
D. free length produce a pitch angle is less than

25. the relationship between the force A. 12°

exerted by a spring and its deflection is B. 15°
called C. 20°
D. 25°
A. spring index
B. spring rate 32. Engine valves get shut by means of
C. wahl’s factor
D. Spring angle A. Valve lock
B. Tappet
26. The ration of the mean diameter of C. Valve spring
the spring to the wire diameter is called D. Adjusting screw

A. Spring index 33. Which of the following materials is

B. Spring ratio used for leaf and coil spring?
C. Spring rate
D. Spring constant A. AISI 3140
B. AISI 3150
27. Refers to the axial distance from a C. AISI 3240
point on one coil to the corresponding D. AISI 4063
point on the next adjacent coil.
34. The circumference of a coil spring
A. Lead times the effective number of coils is
B. Spring distance called
C. Pitch
D. Spring deflection A. Active length
28. The spring index for general industrial B. Solid length
uses should be C. Compressed length
D. Operating length
A. 5 to 7
B. 6 to 8 35. For spring subjected to light service,
C. 7 to 9 the factor of safety __________ is
D. 8 to 10 suggested

29. What is the spring index of valve and A. 1.5

clutch? B. 2.0
C. 2.5
A. 3 D. 3.0
B. 5
C. 7 36. Refers to a flat or curved made of
D. 9 thin superimposed plates and formin a
cantilever or beam of uniform strength.
30. Refers to the space between
adjacent coils when the spring is A. Laminated spring
compressed to its operating length B. Graduated spring
C. Full spring
A. Coil allowance D. Conical spring
B. Coil tolerance
C. Coil clearance
D. None of these 37. Cross wire grooves are types which
 A. Decrease the danger of skidding A. Vibration damper
B. Absorb shocks because of road B. Flywheel
unevenness C. Drive pulley
C. Provide good faction D. Timing gear
D. Provide better load carrying
capacity 44. Flywheel is also known as

38. The _____ of parallel connection of A. Steering wheel

spring is always constant B. Front wheel
C. Balance wheel
A. Elongation D. Rear wheel
B. Load
C. Thermal conductivity 45. What energy is stored in flywheels?
D. Resistance
A. Kinetic energy
39. Speedometer drive is generally B. Internal energy
taken from C. Potential energy
D. Rest energy
A. Dynamo
B. Flywheel 46. What is the function of the flywheel?
C. Gear
D. Front wheel A. To keep the speed fluctuation within
the desired limits
40. The device for smoothing out the B. To limit the momentary rise or fall in
power impulses from the engine is speed during sudden changes of
known as load
C. To keep the angular advance or
A. Clutch retardation within prescribed limit as
B. Flywheel compared with a perfectly uniform
C. Gearbox angular speed
D. Differential D. All of the above

41. Typical hub length falls between 47. In many flywheel designs, about how
many percent of the weight is
A. 1.25D to 2.4D concentrated in the hub and arms
B. 1.25D to 5D
C. 1.3 D to 3.4D A. 20
D. D to 7D B. 30
C. 35
42. The recommended coefficient of D. 45
fluctuation of flywheels for punching,
shearing, and pressing machine is 48. A large rotary machine part whose
function is to store energy and to
A. 0.05 to 0.10 produce uniform angular velocity of the
B. 0.03 to 0.05 shaft or reciprocating engine.
C. 0.002 to 0.005
D. 0.01 to 0.02 A. Cam
B. Idler
43. Attached to the rear end of the C. Flywheel
crankshaft is the D. Chuck
49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia
assists in securing uniform motion of
machinery by resisting sudden changes
of speed.

A. Linkage
B. Crank
C. Planetary gears
D. Flywheel

50. The function of a flywheel is to

A. Complete the unusual stroke

B. Operated the engines
C. Keep the engines weight light
D. None of theses
 TEST 13
1. A shaft that is used to connect or 7. If the band warps partly around the
disconnect at will is called: brake wheel or drum and brake action is
obtained by pulling the band tight onto
A. Clutch the wheel. This type of brake is known as:
B. Bearing
C. Brake Shaft A. Block brake
D. Lock Shaft B. Band brake
C. Clutch
2. The frictional forces depend on D. Centrifugal brake
coefficient of friction and:
8. The brake lining operating at
A. Torque temperature _____, sintered mixtures
B. Weights of object containing ceramics are used:
C. Normal Force
D. Moment A. 750 F to 1000 F
B. 560 F to 900 F
3. Friction devices used to regulate the C. 800 F to 1200 F
motion of bodies and with clutches D. 400 F to 789 F

A. Rollers 9. Hydrodynamic brake is the major

B. Brakes type of:
C. Babbitt
D. Holders A. Air brake
B. Fluid brake
4. The part of the total frictional energy C. Electric brake
that is stored in the brake parts, D. Spot brake
principally in the drum or disk has been
estimated at __________. 10. Type of brakes that are capable of
stopping the motion of a machine
A. 56% up member as well as retarding its motion
B. 86% up
C. 90% up A. Electrical brake
D. 75% up B. Fluid brake
5. The part of an automobile disc C. Air brake
clutch that presses against the flywheel D. Mechanical brake
is referred to as: 11. It is considered as the simplest type
of mechanical brake.
A. Contact plate
B. Friction plate
C. Pressure plate A. Differential brake
D. Sliding plate B. Block brake
C. Band brake
6. The brake capacity to absorb D. Brake shoe
energy is known as:
A. Energy 12. The friction devices used to connect
B. Resistance brake shafts:
C.
D. Braking torque A. Brakes
 B. Clutches
C. Spring 19. A hydraulic clutch doesn’t
D. Holder incorporate a:

13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of A. Clutch plate

heavier rotary masses. B. Oil plate
C. Vacuum plate
A. Multiple disc clutch D. None of these
B. Disc cluth
C. Cone clutch 20. The lining of a brake shoe:
D. None of these A. Can be changed
B. Cannot be fitted
14. The overrunning clutch C. Can be fitted with spring
D. None of these
A. Should be oiled
B. Should be repacked with 21. Due to air effect, the hydraulic
grease brakes become:
C. Cannot be lubricated
D. Contains no lubricant A. More effective
B. Ineffective
15. The overrunning clutch: C. Possible
D. None of these
A. Transmits cranking force to the
engine flywheel 22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking
B. Is one way clutch system is:
C. Prevents the engine flywheel
from driving the starting motor A. About 90 percent
D. All of these B. 60-80 percent
C. 50-60 percent
16. Clutch gear box, differential etc. are D. 40-50 percent
the parts of:
23. The SAE recommends an angle of
A. Charging system ________ for cone clutches faced with
B. Transmission system leather or asbestos or having cork inserts:
C. Cooling system
D. None of these A. 7.5 o
B. 9.5 o
17. In motor vehicles, it is very common C. 12.5o
practice to use a: D. 14.5o

A. Multiple clutch 24. Why does a clutch create noise?

B. Hydraulic clutch
C. Cone clutch A. Clutch release bearings is either dry
D. Single plate clutch or defective
B. Clutch spring is broken
18. The clutch finger is pushed by C. Clutch is faulty
D. All of these
A. Clutch fork
B. Clutch 25. What faults develop in the brakes?
C. Clutch bearing
D. None of these
 A. Brakes do not work properly C. Mechanical brake
B. Brakes do not disengage D. Band brake
C. Brake make noise
D. All of these 32. Which of the following is also used in
the suspension system?
26. Which of the following types of
brakes are also changed while A. Shock absorbers
replacing brake lining? B. Brake shoes
C. Cams
A. Brake shoes D. Block brakes
B. Shoe rivets
C. Shoe spring 33. There are ______ plates in a multi-
D. Block brake plate clutch

27. Power brakes require ______ power: A. More than one

B. Less than four
A. Equal C. More than ten
B. Less D. Less than one
C. More
D. Pulsating 34. Hydraulic clutches are used in
_______ vehicles.
28. That type of oil is used in the
hydraulic brake system? A. Costly
B. Foreign made
A. Engine oil C. Cheap
B. Gear oil D. Affordable

C. Brake oil 35. Which of the following is mounted

D. Clutch oil inside the clutch?

29. The principal parts of a hydraulic A. An engine

brake system are the master cylinder B. Gear box propeller shaft
and the: C. Both the rear axle
A. Multi-cylinder D. All of these
B. Wheel cylinder
C. Brake wire 36. Which clutch is suitable for mine
D. Brake shoe hoists and other services where heavy
loads are accompanied by severe
30. In the mechanical brake system, the shock?
main function is of:
A. Band clutch
A. Spring B. Block clutch
B. Cam C. Centrifugal clutch
C. Shoe adjuster D. Expanding ring clutch
D. Shoe rivets
37. It is used to protect a machine in
31. In motor vehicles, there is a case of jamming and for overload
__________ in addition of foot brake. protection of motors and engine

A. Hand brake A. Dry fluid clutch

B. Hydraulic brake B. Magnetic clutch
 C. Eddy clutch
D. Slip clutch 44. Clutches which are designed to
transmit torque for one direction of
38. Refers to the simplest type of brakes. rotation of the driver and then free-
A. Differential brakes wheel or transmit essentially no torque
B. Block brakes when the direction of the driver rotation
C. Band brakes is reversed.
D. Brake shoe
A. Magnetic clutches
39. The practical length of shoe is limited B. Trip clutches
to about: C. Overrunning clutches
D. Slip clutches
A. 75 o 45. The reason for noise at the time of
B. 90 o engaging brake:
C. 120 o
D. 180 o A. Back plate being loose or
bent
40. If the angle of contact is ______, the B. Brake shoe being loose or
pressure between the brakes shoe and bent
the drum cannot be considered uniform: C. Brake drum could be
defective
A. Less than 45 deg D. All of these
B. Less than 60 deg
C. Greater than 60 deg 46. When the vehicle runs brake drum
D. Greater than 120 deg becomes hot because of friction of the
shoe. This fault is known as _______
41. It is used to stop the motion of a
moving object. A. Brake lining
B. Brake winding
A. Clutch C. Back plate
B. Brakes D. None of these
C. Band clutch
D. Band brake 47. The maintenance of mechanical
brake is:
42. The effectiveness of the brake may
greatly decrease shortly after it begins to A. Expensive
act continuously, a phenomenon B. Economical
called: C. Costly
D. None of these
A. Creep
B. Pressurized 48. What is the most common defect of
C. Fade clutch?
D. Worn-out
A. Slip of the clutch
43. Type of brake under the category of B. Clutch does not disengage
power brake is known as: properly
C. Clutch creates noise
A. Servo brake D. All of these
B. Band brake
C. Differential brake
D. Brake shoe
49. The act keeping some pressure on
the clutch pedal at the time of driving is
known as:

A. Hydraulic clutch
B. Slip of the clutch
C. Riding on clutch
D. Clutch adjustment

50. Which of the following shortcoming

in the cone clutch because of which the
clutch is not used?

A. Clutch slips quickly

B. It occupies more space
C. Adjustment has to be done
early
D. All of these
 TEST 14
1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in above 149 deg F and possible acid
sprocket drive operation to choose liquid coming in contact with the belt?
_____ or more teeth.
A. Mineral Tanned
A. 25 B. Combination of Oak
B. 26 C. Oak Tanned
C. 27 D. None of these
D. 28
7. It is recommended not to have a
2. It is recommended for high speed direct drive and drive sprockets if the
application that the minimum number of raio of their teeth exceeds _______ use
teeth in small sprocket should be: two or more combination

A. 12 to 20 A. 10 times
B. 18 to 24 B. 8 times
C. 16 to 32 C. 5 times
D. 14 to 28 D. 6 times

3. Consider a maximum safe center 8. Flat leather belting not

distance of should be _____ pitches. Very recommended for use in a speed in
long center distance caused catenaries excess of ________ fpm
tension in the chain
A. 3600
A. 70 B. 4800
B. 80 C. 6000
C. 90 D. All of these
D. 100
9. V-belts operate efficiently at speed
4. The recommended lubricant for the of about:
chain drive operation is:
A. 4500 fpm
A. SAE 4140 B. 4400 fpm
B. Petroleum Oil C. 4200 fpm
C. Moly slip D. 3600 fpm
D. Heavy grease
10. It is advised that in rubber belts
5. Type of leather belt being applied application mounting, it should have an
with waterproof cement is called: initial tesion of _______

A. Combination of Oak/Mineral A. 18 to 24
Tanned B. 15 to 20
B. Oak Tanned C. 12 to 15
C. Mineral Tanned D. 10
D. All of these
11. In shear pin or breaking pin design,
6. What type of leather belting should we may use the date experience by
be used at an ambient temperature Link-Belt for 1/8 inch pins and the
breaking stress is __________ ksi.
 B. 6 ksi
A. 40 C. 7 ksi
B. 55 D. 8 ksi
C. 50
D. 48 18. If the ends are joined by wire lacing
with machine, the usual efficiency of
12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving joint is:
pulley with a speed of 260 rpm and
transmitting 5 hp A. 75%
B. 85%
A. Type C belts C. 88%
B. Type B belts D. 100%
C. Type A belts
D. Type D belts 19. The tension in the belt due to
centrifugal force increases rapidly
13. Belt slip may take place because of: above

A. Loose load A. 2500 fpm

B. Heavy Belt B. 3000 fpm
C. Driving pulley too small C. 3500 fpm
D. All of these D. 4000 fpm

14. A single ply leather belt running at a 20. Experience suggests that the most
belt velocity of 300ft/min is likely to economical designs are obtained for a
transmit ____ per inch of width belt speed of:

A. 2.5 hp A. 2000 to 3000 fpm

B. 3.0 hp B. 3000 to 4000 fpm
C. 4.0 hp C. 4000 to 4500 fpm
D. 5.0 hp D. 4000 to 4000 fpm

15. What is the density of a leather belt? 21. For leather belts, recommended
speed is:
A. 0.035 lb/in3
B. 0.0253 lb/in3 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
C. 0.046 lb/in3 B. 4000 to 5000 fpm
D. 0.074 lb/in3 C. 6000 to 7500 fpm
D. 7000 to 8000 fpm
16. What is the density of flat belt rubber
material? 22. For fabric belts, recommended
speed is:
A. 0.055 lb/in3
B. 0.045 lb/in3 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
C. 0.0725 lb/in3 B. 2000 and more fpm
D. 0..0726 lb/in3 C. 3000 to 4000 fpm
D. 4000 to 4500 fpm
17. The breaking strength of oak tanned
belting varies from 3 to more than 23. In high speed, centrifugal blowers, it
has been observed that the arc of
A. 5 ksi contact reduced from 180 deg at rest to
_______ in motion
 A. 90 deg A. Rope
B. 95 deg B. Wires
C. 100 deg C. Belt
D. 110 deg D. Flat

24. The recommended initial tension of 30. A crossed belt wider than ______
belt is: inches should be avoided

A. 75 lb/in of width A. 7
B. 71 lb/in of width B. 8
C. 73 lb/in of width C. 9
D. 80 lb/in of width D. 10

25. The recommended net belt pill for 31. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the
rubber belt is: reduction should be:

A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width A. 25%

B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width B. 50%
C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width C. 75%
D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width D. 95%

26. If two intersecting shafts are to be 32. The advantage of flat belt is that:
belt connected, how many guide
pulley/s is used? A. It can be used with high-
speed drives
A. 1 B. It can be used in dusty and
B. 2 abrasive environments
C. 3 C. It allows long distances
D. 4 between shafts
D. All of these
27. Two shafts at right angles to each
other may be connected by the _____ 33. The best leather has an ultimate
arrangement strength of about

A. Half turn A. 3000 psi

B. Three-fourths turn B. 4000 psi
C. One turn C. 5000 psi
D. Quarter turn D. 6000 psi

28. It offers long life, high efficiency and 34. Initial tensions should range from ___
low cost and low maintenance for leather belts and 10 to 12 lb/ply per
inch of width for rubber belts
A. Flat belt
B. V-belt A. 200 to 240 psi
C. Tooth belt B. 220 to 260 psi
D. All of these C. 240 to 280 psi
D. 260 to 300 psi
29. It is used to connect pulleys to
convey materials by transmitting motion 35. The density of a balata belt is:
and power
A. 0.031 lb/in3
 B. 0.42 lb/in3 41. The minimum number of teeth on the
C. 0.51 lb/in3 smaller sprocket for high speeds is:
D. 0.61 lb/in3
A. 19
36. In the selection of the proper belt, it B. 21
is not considered good practice to use C. 23
single-ply leather belts more than ____ D. 25
wide
42. For maximum quietness, use
A. 6 in. sprockets with _____ or more teeth
B. 7 in.
C. 8 in.
D. 9 in. A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 27
37. According to the Goodrich
company, the permissible net belt pull is 43. For the average application a
____ that it gives a simple means for center distance equivalent to ____
quick estimation pitches of chain represents good
practice.
A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width A. 10 to 20
C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width B. 20 to 30
D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width C. 30 to 50
D. 40 to 60
38. Which type of chain is used in
motorcycle? 44. The tension ratio of flat belt is:

A. Bush roller A. 2
B. Pintle B. 3
C. Silent C. 4
D. None of these D. 5

39. The minimum number of teeth on the 45. The tension ratio of V-belt is:
smaller sprocket for low speeds is:
A. 2
A. 12 B. 3
B. 14 C. 4
C. 16 D. 5
D. 18
46. Balata belt is about _____ stronger
40. The minimum number of teeth on the than rubber
smaller sprocket for moderate speeds is:
A. 10%
A. 15 B. 15%
B. 17 C. 20%
C. 19 D. 25%
D. 21
47. The coefficient of friction between
the belt and the pulley for leather belt
running on steel pulley is:

A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.3
D. 0.5

48. The capacity of a crossed belt

should be reduced to _____ that of an
open belt

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 75%

49. What is the usual factor of safety

used with leather belts?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10

50. In practice, it is found that arcs less

than ______ required high belt tensions.

A. 155o
B. 165o
C. 175o
D. 180o
 TEST 15
1. The minimum recommended worm C. Top land
pitch diameter is ¼ in and the maximum D. Flank of tooth
is:
7. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion
A. 1 ¾ in and lightly loaded are usually made of:
B. 2 ¾ in
C. 3 in A. Bronze
D. 2 in B. Brass
C. Duralumin
2. Vertex distance is a term used in ____ D. All of these
gearing
8. If a set of spur gears are made
A. Spiral installed and lubricated properly, they
B. Worm normally may be subjected to failures
C. Bevel like:
D. Zerol
A. Tooth spalling
3. The arc of action to circular pitch or B. Tooth penning
length of action to base pitch C. Pitting
D. Shearing
A. Approach
B. Contact ratio 9. Which of the following is an example
C. Arc of action of rectilinear translation?
D. Arc of approach
A. Locomotive wheels
4. Recommended hardness of pinion B. Rack gear
for helical/herringbone gear tooth C. Piston of an engine
should be _____ BHN point to sustain life: D. Jack

A. 50-58 10. For economical cost in the

B. 48-65 manufacturing large worm gears, the
C. 40-50 following materials are usually applied:
D. 30-60
A. Bronze rim with cast steel
5. In designing gears of power spider
transmission, consider and efficiency of B. Cast iron rim with bronze
_____ as recommended. spider

A. 96% or more C. Cast steel rim with brass

B. 89% or more spider
C. 85% or more D. Alloyed aluminum rim with
D. 98% or more cast iron spider

6. The surface of the gear between the 11. Intermediate gear is also called ____
fillets of adjacent teeth is called: gear in a gear train engagement.

A. Bottom land A. Idler

B. Flank B. Pinion
 C. Third gear the line of action and the line of tangent
D. Mounted gear to pitch circle. It is termed as:

12. The distance of a helical gear or A. Helix angle

worm would thread along its axis in one B. Angle of recess
revolution if it were to move axially is C. Angle of obliquity
called: D. Arc of action

A. Lead 18. The reciprocal of a diametrical pitch

B. Thread or the ratio of pitch diameter to number
C. Pitch of teeth is called:
D. Land
A. Lead
13. Range of helix angle on helical gear B. Module
is _________. C. Involute
D. Clearance
A. Less than 18
B. 15 - 25 19. For evenly distributed and uniform
C. 20 - 35 wear on each meshing gear tooth, the
D. 35 – 40 ideal design practice is to consider a:

14. What will be the effect in bushing A. Wear resistance alloy

gears without backlash? addition to tooth gear
B. Heat treatment of the gears
A. Jamming C. Hardening of each
B. Overheating D. Hunting tooth addition
C. Overload
D. All of these 20. It is used to transmit power at high
velocity ratios between non-intersecting
15. The amount by which the width of a shafts that are usually but not necessarily
tooth space exceeds the thickness of at right angle.
the engaging tooth on the pitch circles
A. Helical gear
A. Backlash B. Bevel gear
B. Clearance C. Worm gear
D. Spiral gear
C. Undercut
D. Chordal thickness 21. In gear design, the ratio of pitch
diameter, in inches to the number of
16. Height of tooth above pitch circle or teeth is called:
radial distance between pitch circles
and top land of the tooth is called: A. Module
B. Diametral Pitch
A. Top tooth C. English Module
B. Addendum D. Circular Pitch
C. Land
D. Hunting 22. The concave portion of tooth profile
where it joints the bottom of the tooth
17. In involutes teeth, the pressure angle filler curve is called:
is often defined as the angle between
 A. Fillet curve 28. The distance a helical gear or worm
B. Fillet radius would thread along its axis in one
C. Bottom depth revolution if it free to move axially is
D. Fillet called:

23. The distance of the tooth, which is A. Length of action

equal to the sum of the addendum and B. Length of contact
dedendum is known as: C. Land
D. Lead
A. Full depth
B. Whole depth 29. Hyphoid gear is a special type of
C. Working depth gear like:
D. Dedendum
A. Worm Gear
24. It is used to change rotary motion to B. Spur Gear
reciprocating motion. C. Herring Gear
D. Bevel Gear
A. Helical Gear
B. Rack Gear 30. What type of gear is used for high-
C. Worm Gear speed operation?
D. Spur Gear
A. Helical
25. Tooth width measure along the B. Spur
chord at the pitch circle is known as: C. Bevel
D. Worm
A. Flank 31. In a pair of gears, _____ is the plane
B. Face Width perpendicular to the axial plane and
tangent to the pitch surface.
C. Width of face
D. Chordal Thickness A. Pitch
B. Pitch Plane
26. _______ is the difference of C. Pitch Circle
addendum and dedendum, which is D. Pitch point
equivalent to the whole depth less
working depth. 32. What type of gear, which can
transmit power at a certain angle?
A. Fillet Space
B. Fillet Radius A. Helical Gear
C. Clearance B. Worm Gear
D. Backlash C. Bevel Gear
D. Herringbone Gear
27. For moderate speed of mating
gears, the ideal ratio contact is: 33. _______ commonly used in a parallel
shaft transmission especially when a
A. 1.25 – 4.00 smooth continuous action is essential as
B. 1.20 – 1.45 in high speed drives up to 12,000 fpm.
C. 1.00 – 1.30
D. 1.35 – 1.45 A. Bevel Gear
B. Herringbone Gear
C. Spur Gear
D. Helical Gear
34. The hardness of helical and 39. The length of arc between the two
herringbone gear teeth after heat sides of a gear tooth on the pitch circle.
treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell Hardness,
for gear and pinion is at: A. Circle Thickness
B. Axial Plane
A. 360 Brinell minimum C. Helix Angle
B. 400 Brinell maximum D. Chordal Curves
C. 340 – 350 normal
D. All of these 40. Which of the following materials to
be utilized to reduce cost in the
35. The path of contact involute gears manufacture of large worm gears?
where the force/power is actually
transmitted, it is a straight imaginary line A. Alloyed Aluminum
passing through the pitch point and B. Bronze Rim with Cast Iron
tangent to the base circle is known as Spider
_____. C. Cast Iron Rim with Bronze
Spider
A. Principal Reference Plane D. All of these
B. Pitch point
C. Front Angle 41. A circle bounding the bottom of the
D. Line of Action teeth

36. _______ is the angle at the base A. Addendum Circle

cylinder of an involute gear that the B. Addendum Cylinder
tooth maxes with the gear axis C. Pitch Circle
D. Dedendum Circle
A. Base Helix Angle
B. Pressure Angle 42. ______ is one in which angle is 90
C. Arc of Recess degrees that is the pitch cone has
D. Arc of Approach become a plane

37. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually A. Crown Gear

introduced to: B. Angular Gear
C. Miter Gear
A. Improve the look of the D. Spiral Gear
patch
B. Reduce concentration of stress 43. A ______ formed by elements, which
and extend life of the parts are perpendicular to the elements of the
C. Avoid obstruction pitch cone at the large end.
D. Necessary to lessen casting
weight A. Cone Distance
B. Back Cone
38. A type of gear tooth cut inside a C. Root Cone
cylinder or ring is termed as: D. Cone Center

A. Rack Gear 44. A bevel gear of the same size

B. Ring Gear mounted on a shaft at 90 degrees is
C. Miter Gear called:
D. Internal Gear
A. Crown Gear
B. Spur Gear
 C. Angular Gear C. Spherical Cones
D. Miter Gear D. Friction

45. Gearing in which motion or power

that is transmitted depends upon the
friction between the surfaces in contact
48. If gears cannot, parallel shafts, they
A. Bevel Gears are called:
B. Spur Friction wheels
A. Cycloidal Gears
C. Evans Friction Cones B. Helical Gears
D. Friction Gearing C. Spur Gears
D. Toothed Gears
46. Wheels are sometimes used for the
transmission of high power when an 49. ______ is used to transmit power
approximately constant velocity ratio is between shafts axis of which it intersect
desired is called:
A. Spur Gears
A. Bevel Cones B. Bevel Gears
B. Friction Gearing C. Helical Gears
C. Spur Friction Wheels D. Straight Bevel Gears
D. Evans Friction Wheels
50. The space between the adjacent
47. The frustums of two cones used in a teeth is called:
manner to permit a variation of velocity
ratio between two parallel shafts are
A. Tooth
called:
B. Flank
C. Backlash
A. Evans Friction Cones D. Width
B. Bevel Cones

TEST 16

1. Tooth width measurement along the D. Consists of two left handed

chord at the pitch circle helical gears

A. Chord Space
B. Chord Clearance 3. In usual spur gearing, the:
C. Chordal Thickness
D. Chordal Length A. Pitch circle and base circle are
the same
2. Herringbone gears are gears which: B. Working depth induces
clearance
A. Do not operate parallel shafts C. Tooth outline are always
B. Have a line contact between cycloidal curves
the teeth D. Tooth outlines are usually
C. Tend to produce and thrust on involute curves
the shafts
4. _____ is a kind of gear used to D. English Module
transmit motion from one shaft to
another shaft at angle to the first 10. The depth of tooth space below the
pitch circle
A. Worm Gear
B. Bevel Gear A. Dedendum
C. Helical Gear B. Working Depth
D. Spur Gear C. Full Depth
D. Tooth Depth
5. A circle coinciding with a tangent to
the bottom of the tooth spaces 11. The total depth of a tooth space,
A. Pitch Circle equal to addendum plus Dedendum
B. Root Circle
C. Base Circle A. Full Depth
D. Outside Circle B. Working Depth
C. Whole Depth
6. A circle the radius of which is equal D. Dedendum
to the distance from the gear axis to the
pitch point 12. A circle coinciding with a tangent to
the bottom of the tooth space
A. Pitch Circle
B. Root Circle A. Root circle
C. Base Circle B. Pitch circle
D. Outside Circle C. Addendum circle
D. Dedendum
7. Ratio of pitch diameter to the
number of teeth 13. The diameter of a circle coinciding
with the top of the teeth of an internal
A. Diametral Pitch gear
B. Module
C. Contact Ratio A. Pitch diameter
D. Helical Overlap B. Root diameter
C. Internal diameter
8. A kind of gear used for duty works D. Central diameter
where a large ratio of speed is required
and are extensively used in speed 14. A gear with teeth on the outer
reducer is known as: cylindrical surface.

A. Worm Gear A. Outer gear

B. Spiral Gear B. External gear
C. Helical Gear C. Spiral gear
D. Bevel Gear D. Helical gear

9. The ratio of the number of teeth to 15. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth
the number of mm of pitch diameter
equals number of gear teeth to each
A. Cycloid
mm pitch diameter
B. Epicycloid
C. Straight Rack
A. Diametral Pitch D. Involute
B. Module
C. Circular Pitch
16. When meshed with a gear, it is used
to change rotary motion to A. Pitch Circle
reciprocating motion is: B. Addendum Circle
C. Dedendum Circle
A. Gear Shaft D. Base Circle
B. Gear Tooth
C. Gear Rack 22. If the lead angle of a worm is 22.5
D. Gear Motor degrees then the helix angle will be
______

17. The portion of a gear tooth space A. 45 degrees

that is cut below the pitch circle and is B. 67.5 degrees
equal to the addendum plus the C. 22.5 degrees
clearance D. 90 degrees

A. Root 23. Refers to the smallest wheel of a

B. Dedendum gear train
C. Addendum
D. Tooth Space A. Pinion
B. Idler
18. The portion of a gear tooth that C. Spur
projects above or outside the pitch D. Driver
circle
24. Spiral Gears are suitable for
A. Top Relief transmitting:
B. Dedendum A. Small power
C. Addendum B. Any power
D. Tooth Space C. Huge power
D. Pulsating power
19. The distance from the center of one
tooth of a gear to the center next 25. Zero axial thrust is experienced in:
consecutive tooth measured on the
pitch. A. Helical gears
B. Herringbone gears
A. Circular Pitch C. Spiral gears
B. Module D. Bevel gears
C. Diametral Pitch
D. Circular Pitch 26. Bevel gears are used to transmit
rotary motion between two shafts whose
20. The number of teeth per inch of axes are:
pitch diameter and which gives some
indications of the size of the gear teeth A. Parallel
B. Non-coplanar
A. Module C. Non-intersecting
B. Pitch Circle D. None of these
C. Diametral Pitch
D. Circular Pitch 27. According to the law of gearing:
21. An imaginary circle passing through
the points at which the teeth of the A. Teeth should be involute type
meshing gears contact each other.
 B. Clearance between mating C. The first and last gear are
teeth should be provided essentially on separate but
C. Dedendum should be equal parallel shafts
to 1.57 M D. None of these
D. None of these
33. For best running conditions of a gear,
28. Gears for watches are generally the contact ratio should be about:
manufactured by:
A. 1.25 to 1.40
A. Die casting B. 1.20 to 1.45
B. Machining on hobber C. 1.34 to 1.56
D. 1.62 to 1.45
C. Machining on a gear shaper 34. The _____ full depth teeth have the
D. Stamping advantages of the greater capacity
and less interference trouble.
29. In case of gears, the addendum is
given by A. 14.5o
B. 24o
A. One module C. 20o
B. 2.157 x module D. 30o
C. 1.57 x module
D. 1.25 x module 35. _______ is the average tangential
force on the teeth is then obtained from
30. In case of cross helical worm, the the horsepower
axes of two shafts are:
A. Total load
A. Parallel B. Separation load
B. Intersecting C. Pressure load
C. Non-parallel D. Tangential load
D. Non-parallel/non-intersecting
36. The service factor of a gear may be
31. In case of spur gears, the flank of the taken as ____ _is an electric motor drives
tooth is: a centrifugal blower
A. 1
A. The part of the tooth surface lying B. 2
below the pitch surface C. 3
B. The curve forming face and flank D. 4

37. The kind of a wear occurs because

C. The width of the gear tooth of a fatigue failure of the surfaces
measured axially along the pitch material as a result of high contact
surface stresses is known as:
D. The surface of the top of the
tooth A. Slotting
B. Pitting
32. A reverted gear train is one in which: C. Involuting
D. Curving
A. The direction of rotation of first
and last gear is opposite 38. ______ is caused by foreign matter
B. The direction of rotation of first such as grit or metal particles or by a
and last gear is the same failure of the oil film at low speed
 C. Greater
A. Suction D. None of these
B. Scoring
C. Abrasion 44. _____ is a gear that has teeth cut on
D. Corrosion the inside of the rim instead of on the
outside
39. _______ occurs when the oil film fails
but in this case, the load and speed are A. External gear
so high that the surface metal is melted B. Involute gear
and the metal is melted and the metal is C. Stub gear
smeared down the profile. D. Annular gear

A. Abrasion 45. To estimate fouling, let the minimum

B. Corrosion differences in tooth numbers between
C. Spalling the internal gear and pinion be _____ for
D. Scoring 14.5 deg involute depth

40. _______ is a surface fatigue of A. 10 teeth

greater extent than pitting that is the B. 12 teeth
flakes are much larger. This type of C. 14 teeth
failure occurs in surface-hardened teeth. D. 16 teeth
46. The loss pair of spur, helical or bevel
A. Abrasion gears in an ordinary train should not
B. Corrosion exceed:
C. Spalling
D. Scoring A. 4%
B. 6%
41. Buckingham says that mating C. 2%
phenolic gears with steel of BHN less D. 5%
than ____ leads to excessive abrasive
wear 47. The typical helix angle ranges from
_____ to _____
A. 200
B. 300 A. 10 deg to 12 deg
C. 400 B. 12 deg to 15 deg
D. 500 C. 14 deg to 20 deg
D. 15 deg to 25 deg
42. ____ is the extra tooth in gear, which
is used to distribute the wear more 48. _____ is the advance of the tooth in
evenly. the face width divided by circular pitch.

A. Hunting tooth A. Face contact ratio

B. Tooth profile B. Speed ratio
C. Dummy tooth C. Profile ratio
D. Add tooth D. Advance ratio

43. The length of the hub should not be 49. The distance between the teeth
made ____ the face width of the gear. measured on the pitch surface along a
normal to the helix
A. Less than
B. Equal A. Lead
 B. Lead angle treatment will generally fall between the
C. Normal circular pitch limits of ______.
D. Pitch A. 210 and 300 Brinell
B. 147 and 300 Brinell
50. The hardness of a helical and C. 230 and 320 Brinell
herringbone teeth cut after heat D. 220 and 320 Brinell

TEST 17

1. Helical gears mounted on non- C. Dial face

parallel shafts are called _____ D. Pitch face

A. Open gear
B. Crossed helical gear 6. The cone formed by the elements of
C. Closed helical gear bottom lands
D. Herringbone gear A. Face cone
B. Root cone
2. _____ is used to connect intersecting
shafts, usually but not necessarily at 90 C. Back cone
degrees D. Rake cone

A. Bevel gear 7. An imaginary cone whose elements

B. Helical gear are perpendicular to the pitch cone
C. Spur gear elements at the large end of the tooth.
D. Worm gear
A. Front cone
3. Bevel gear teeth are built with B. Side cone
respect to a ____ rather than to a pitch C. Rear cone
cylinder as ion spur gears. D. Back cone

A. Pitch pedal 8. _____ is one whose tooth profiles

B. Pitch profile consists of straight elements that
C. Pitch cone converge to a point at the cone center.
D. Cylinder
A. Circular bevel gear
4. It refers to the length of pitch cone in B. Straight bevel gear
a bevel gear C. Path bevel gear
D. Herringbone gear
A. Cone center
B. Lead 9. The desired quality in gear is
C. Center distance A. Quietness
D. Pitch B. Durability
C. Strength
5. Refers to the cone that is performed D. All of these
by the elements of top lands 10. Straight and zerol bevel gears should
not be sued when the pitch line velocity
A. Face cone is greater than:
B. Root face
 A. 800 rpm
B. 850 rpm A. Gear leverage
C. 875 rpm B. More torque
D. 900 rpm C. More speed
D. None of these
11. The spiral bevel gears are 17. For equalizing the rotation of two
recommended when the pitch line gears, a gearbox employs”
speed exceeds:
A. Dog and clutch
B. Crown gear
A. 1000 fpm C. Star pinion
B. 1100 fpm D. None of these
C. 1500 fpm
D. 2000 fpm 18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the
speed gears remain:
12. When the pitch line speed is above
800 fpm the teeth should be: A. Separate
B. Joined to their couple
A. Ground after hardening C. Of the same measurements
B. Should be cooled in air D. None of these
C. Should be quenched after
D. None of these 19. If a big gear is moved by a small
gear then the big gear
13. ______ have curved teeth as in spiral
bevels, but with zero angle. A. Will not rotate
B. Will rotate reverse direction
A. Spiral gears C. Will not rotate fastly
B. Zerol bevel gears D. None of these
C. Zero bevel gears
D. Straight bevel gears 20. ______ are bevel gears mounted on
intersecting shafts at angle other than 90
14. ______ is a gear that has an degrees.
advantage of smoother tooth
engagement quietness of operation A. Right angle gears
greater and higher permissible speeds. B. Half gears
C. Inclined gears
A. Zerol bevel gear D. Angular gears
B. Straight bevel gear
C. Hypoid bevel gear 21. The pitch angle is 90 degrees that is,
D. Spiral bevel gear the pitch has become a plane

15. When the pair of bevel gears of the A. Atten gear

same size is on shafts intersecting at right B. Crown gear
angle, they are called _____ C. Cool gear
D. Hiphap gear
A. Mold gear
B. Helix angle 22. ____ is used to transmit power
C. Miter gear between non-intersecting shafts, nearly
D. Tangent gear always at right angle to each other

16. The use of gearbox provides:

 A. Spur gear A. A tensile fatigue
B. Ordinary gear B. A contact stress
C. Bevel gear C. A crack
D. Worm gear D. None of these

23. What are the two types of 29. AGMA means:

construction for the worm?
A. American German Manufacturer
A. Shell and cylindrical Association
B. Shell and zigzag B. Athletic Gear Main Association
C. Shell and integral C. American Gear Metal Association
D. Tube and integral D. American Gear Manufacturer
Association
24. The standard pressure angle for fine
pitch gears is ______ gears and is 30. Which of the following does not
recommended for most applications belong to the group?

A. 14.5 degrees A. Tooth scoring

B. 16 degrees B. Tooth breakage
C. 20 degrees C. Pitting
D. 21 degrees D. Toughing

25. The contact ratio of a pair of mating 31. Well proportion commercial gears
spur gears must be well over ____ to with a pitch line velocity of less than
insure a smooth transfer of load from _____ will normally not score if they have
one pair of teeth to the next pair. a reasonably good surface finish and
are properly lubricated.
A. 1.0
B. 2.0 A. 6000 fpm
C. 3.0 B. 6500 fpm
D. 4.0 C. 7000 fpm
D. 8000 fpm
26. As general rule contact ratio should
not be less than: 32. Experimental data from actual gear
unit measurements are seldom
A. 1:1 repeatable within a plus or minus ______
B. 1:2 band
C. 1:3
D. 1:4 A. 5%
B. 10%
27. Surface roughness on active profile
surfaces on gear is about ____ pitch C. 15%
D. 20%
A. 30
B. 32 33. Pitting is a function of the Hertzian
contact stresses between two cylinders
C. 34 and is proportioned to the square root of
D. 36 the ______.

28. Tooth breakage on gear is usually: A. Applied load

B. The contact stresses
 C. The stress A. Sprockets
D. Impact B. Gears
C. Tooth belt
34. When an excitation frequency D. Annular
coincides with a natural frequency, this
is known to be: 40. Arc of the pitch circle through which
a tooth travels from the first point and
A. Unity contact with the mating tooth to the
B. Resonance pitch point is called:
C. Obliquity
D. Sinusoidal A. Arc of contact
B. Arc of approach
35. The average tooth stiffness constant C. Arc of recess
of face is usually: D. Arc of action

A. 1.5 to 2 psi 41. Height of tooth above pitch circle or

B. 3 to 6 psi the distance between the pitch circle
C. 3 to 4 psi and the top of the tooth is called:
D. 7.5 to 10 psi
A. Dedendum
36. When the number of teeth in a pair B. Addendum
of meshing gears are such that they do C. Working depth
not have a common divisor. D. Total depth
42. The circle that bounds the outer
A. Dummy ends of the teeth.
B. LCD
C. Add it A. Addendum circle
D. Hunting B. Dedendum circle
C. Pitch circle
37. For internal gears having a 20 D. Root circle
degree pressure angle and full depth
teeth, the difference between the 43. The angle through which the gear
number of teeth in a gear and pinion turns from the time a given pair of teeth
should not be less than ______. are in contact at the pitch point until
A. 10 they pass out the mesh
B. 12
C. 14 A. Pressure angle
D. 16 B. Angle of action
C. Angle of approach
38. Zerol bevel gears angle should have D. Angle of recess
a pinion either not less than:
44. The angle through which the gear
A. 15 teeth turns from the time a particular pair of
B. 16 teeth teeth comes into in contact until they go
C. 17 teeth out the contact.
D. 18 teeth
A. Pressure angle
39. _______ are machine elements that B. Angle of action
transmit motion by means of C. Angle of approach
successively engaging teeth. D. Angle of recess
45. The angle through which the gear 50. A single ply leather belt running at a
tirns from the time a particular pair of belt velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to
teeth come into in contact until they are transmit _____ per inch of width
in contact at the pitch point
A. 2.5 hp
A. Pressure angle B. 3.0 hp
B. Angle of action C. 4.0 hp
C. Angle of approach D. 5.0 hp
D. Angle of recess

46. Arc of the circle through which a

tooth travels from the point of contact
with the mating tooth to the pitch point
is called:

A. Arc of contact
B. Arc of approach
C. Arc of recess
D. Arc of action

47. The ratio of the arc of approach to

the arc of action

A. Approach ratio
B. Action ratio

C. Recess ratio
D. Contact ratio

48. In a pair of gear, it is the plane that

contains two axes in a simple gear; it
may be any plane containing the axes
and the given point.

A. Axial plane
B. Central plane
C. Normal plane
D. Transverse plane

49. Arc of the pitch circle which a tooth

travels from its contact with the mating
tooth at the pitch point to the point
where the contact ceases is called:

A. Arc of contact
B. Arc of approach
C. Arc of recess
D. Arc of action
 TEST 18
7. The length of the chord subtended by the
1. The _____ from which an involute tooth is circular arc is called:
generated or developed.
a. Backlash
a. Root circle b. Face width
b. Base circle c. Chordal thickness
c. Pitch circle d. Curve thickness
d. Dedendum circle
8. The height from the top of the tooth to
2. The angle at the base cylinder if an the chord subtending the circular thickness
involute gear, that the tooth makes with the arc.
gear axis.
a. Curve thickness
a. Helix angle b. Chordal thickness
b. Pressure angle c. Chordal addendum
c. Lead angle d. Chordal dedendum
d. Base Helix angle
9. The length of the arc of the pitch circle
between the centers or other corresponding
3. In an involute gear, _____ is the pitch on points of the adjacent teeth.
the base circle or along the line of action.
a. Circular pitch
a. Base circle b. Diametral Pitch
b. Normal base pitch c. Base pitch
c. Base pitch d. Normal pitch
d. Pitch gear
10. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth
4. The base pitch in the normal plane. with which the mating gear makes contact.

a. Normal pitch a. Contact ratio

b. Normal base pitch b. Contact diameter
c. Axial plane c. Contact stress
d. Central plane d. None of these

5. The base pitch in the axial plane. 11. The maximum compressive stress within
the contact area between mating gear
a. Axial base pitch tooth profiles is called:
b. Axial pitch
c. Normal pitch a. Bearing stress
d. Base pitch b. Contact stress
c. Ultimate stress
6. In a worm gear, _____ is a plane d. Internal stress
perpendicular to the gear axis and contains
the common perpendicular of the gear and 12. The curve formed by the path of a point
the worm axis. on a circle as it rolls a straight line.

a. Central plane a. Trochoid

b. Normal plane b. Epicycloid
c. Axial plane c. Hypocycloid
d. Traverse plane d. Cycloid
13. The circular pitch in the normal plane. the pitch circle and the bottom of the tooth
space.
a. Circular plane
b. Normal circular pitch a. Addendum
c. Central plane b. Dedendum
d. Circular base pitch c. Working depth
d. Whole depth
14. The strength of the arc between the two
sides of a gear tooth on the pitch circles 20. The circle that bounds the bottom of the
unless otherwise specified. teeth.

a. Face of tooth a. Addendum circle

b. Circular thickness b. Pitch circle
c. Tooth profile c. Base circle
d. Face width d. Dedendum circle

15. The amount by which the dedendum 21. The ratio of the number of teeth to the
exceeds the addendum of the mating number of millimeters of pitch diameter.
tooth.
a. Diametral pitch
a. Tolerance b. Module
b. Allowance c. Circular pitch
c. Clearance d. Base pitch
d. Backlash
22. The diametral pitch circulated in the
16. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth normal plane and is equal to the pitch
with which the mating gear makes: dived by the cosine of the helix angle

a. Idler a. Normal diametral plane

b. Pinion b. Normal diametral pitch
c. Gear c. Normal plane
d. Central diameter d. Normal axial pitch

17. The ratio of the arc of action to the 23. That portion of the face width that
circular pitch is known as: actually comes into contact with mating
teeth, as occasionally one member of a pair
a. Contact ratio of gears may have a greater face width
b. Action ratio than the other is called:
c. Recess ratio
d. Approach ratio a. Effective face width
b. Effective tooth face
18. The curve that satisfy the law of gearing. c. Effective tooth thickness
d. Effective tooth flank
a. Tooth profile
b. Stub curve
24. The actual torque of a gear set divided
c. Conjugate curve by its gear ratio.
d. Involute curve
a. Coefficient of performance
19. The depth of tooth space below the b. Transmission ratio
pitch circle or the radial dimension between c. Ratio factor
d. Efficiency
 a. Gear stress
25. When it rolls along the outer side another b. Contact stress
circle, is called: c. Fillet stress
d. Fillet curve
a. Cycloid
b. Hypocycloid 32. That surface which is between the pitch
c. Epicycloid circle and the bottom land is called:
d. Trochoid
a. Flank of tooth
26. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical b. Face of tooth
surface. c. Face of width
d. Fillet of tooth
a. Annular gear
b. External gear 33. The surface of the tooth between the
c. Idler pitch and root cylinders.
d. Spur gear
a. Fillet
27. That surface of the tooth, which is b. Face
between the pitch circles to the top of the c. Flank
tooth is known as _____. d. Bottom land

a. Face width 34. The number of teeth in the gear divided

b. Tooth flank by the number of teeth in the opinion.
c. Face of tooth
d. Top land a. Ratio factor
b. Gear ratio
28. The length of the teeth in axial plane. c. Transmission ratio
d. None of these
a. Face of tooth
b. Face width 35. The helical angle that a helical gear
c. Circular pitch tooth makes the gear axis.
d. Chordal thickness
a. Helix angle
29. The surface of the tooth between the b. Lead angle
pitch cylinder and the addendum cylinder. c. Pressure angle
d. Tooth angle
a. Face
b. Flank 36. When it rolls along the inner side of
c. Top land another circle, it is called:
d. Bottom land
a. Cycloid
30. The concave portion of the tooth profile b. Epicycloid
where it joins the bottom of the toot space. c. Hypocycloid
a. Toot curve d. Trochoid
b. Involute
c. Fillet radius 37. The diameter of a circle coinciding with
d. Fillet curve the top of the teeth on an internal gear.

31. The maximum tensile stress in the gear a. Pitch diameter

tooth fillet. b. Internal diameter
c. Root diameter
d. Dedendum diameter
 44. The distance on involute line of action
38. A gear with teeth on the inner cylindrical through which the point of contact moves
surface. during the action of the tooth profile.

a. Pitch gear a. Length of action

b. Internal gear b. Line of action
c. Idler c. Line of contact
d. Spur gear d. None of these

39. The curve formed by the path of a point 45. The ratio of pitch diameter in millimeters
on a straight line called their generatrix, as it to the number of teeth.
rolls along a convex base curve.
a. Addendum
a. Involute b. Diametral pitch
b. Cycloidal c. Module
c. Cycloid d. None of these
d. Trochoid
46. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces
40. The top surface of the tooth. acts a point of contact and perpendicular
to the pitch plane.
a. Tooth face
b. Tooth surfaces a. Axial plane
c. Top land b. Central plane
d. Tooth flank c. Normal plane
d. Diametral
41. The surface of the gear between the
fillets of adjacent teeth. 47. The distance between similar equally
spaced tooth surfaces in a given direction
a. Space width and along a given curve or line.
b. Backlash
c. Bottom land a. Module
d. Tooth space b. Pitch
c. Addendum
42. The distance of a helical gear or worm d. Involute
would thread along its axis one revolution of
it was free to move axially. 48. The angle subtended by the arc on the
pitch equal in the length to the circular
a. Lead pitch.
b. Helix
a. Pitch angle
c. Length of action b. Pressure angle
d. Line of action c. Helix angle
d. Lead angle
43. The path of contact in involute gears, it is
straight line passing through the pitch point 49. Of meshing gears, _____ is the point of
and the tangent to the base circles. tangency to the pitch circle.

a. Length of action a. Pitch point

b. Line of action b. Pitch of contact
c. Line of contact c. Pitch
d. None of these d. Reference point
50. In a pair of gears, it is the plane
perpendicular to the axial plane and
tangent to the axial plane and tangent to
the pitch surfaces.

a. Normal plane
b. Central plane
c. Pitch plane
d. Tangent plane
 TEST 19
1. One of the causes of spur gear tooth 6. It is a condition in generated gear teeth
breakage is the unbalanced load on one when any part of the fillet curve lies inside of
end of breakage is the unbalanced load on a line drawn to the working profile as the
one end of the tooth that results in the lowest point.
higher stress than when the load is evenly
distributed. To minimize this problem, the a. Medium cut
face width “b” should not be greater that b. Under cut
the thickness of the tooth. In the absence of c. Over cut
test values, the following can be guide. d. Hidden cut

a. 2.5 Pc < b < 4 Pc 7. The curve formed by the path of a point

b. 2.0 < b < 4 Pd on the extension of the radius of a circle as it
c. 2.5 Pd < b < 4 Pd rolls along the curve or line.
d. 2.0 Pc < b < 4 Pc
a. Cycloids
2. Any perpendicular to a gear axis is called: b. Epicycloids
c. Hypocycloid
a. Plane of action d. Trochoid
b. Plane of rotation
c. Normal plane 8. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane
d. Transverse plane and to the pitch plane.

3. The angle between the tooth profile and a. Norma plane

radial line at its pitch point. Involute teeth b. Pitch plane
the angle between the line of action and c. Tangent plane
line tangent to the pitch circle. d. Transverse plane

a. Roll angle 9. The total width dimensions of a gear blank

b. Pitch angle to the pitch plane.
c. Helix angle
d. Pressure angle a. Total face width
b. Effective face width
4. The radial distance from the addendum c. Addendum
circle to the working depth circle. d. Transverse plane

a. Total depth 10. The space between the teeth measured

b. Full depth along the pitch circle.
c. Whole depth
d. Working depth a. Tooth space
b. Tooth thickness
5. The total depth of a tooth space equal to c. Backlash
addendum plus dedendum also equal to d. Tooth face
working depth plus clearance.
11. The width of tooth measured along the
pitch circle.
a. Full depth a. Tooth space
b. Working b. Tooth thickness
c. Whole depth c. Backlash
d. None of these d. Tooth face
12. An arbitrary modification of a tooth
profile whereby a small amount of material 18. A device for engaging and disengaging
is removed near the tip of the gear tooth. gears.

a. Chamber a. Gear shift

b. Tip relief b. Gear train
c. Under cut c. Gear wheel
d. None of these d. Gear motor

13. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a 19. For spur gear, the speed ratio is
point or line of contact. customary to limit the reduction of:

a. Normal plane a. 3:1

b. Pitch plane b. 4:1
c. Tangent plane c. 5:1
d. Axial plane d. 6:1

14. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the 20. For helical and herringbone gears, the
bottoms of the tooth spaces. speed ratio is limited to:

a. Addendum circle a. 3:1

b. Pitch circle b. 5:1
c. Base circle c. 6:1
d. Root circle d. 10:1

15. The angle subtended at the center of 21. They are cylindrical in form operate on
the base circle from teeth origin of an parallel axes and have straight teeth
involute to the point of tangency of the parallel to the axis.
generation from any point of the same
involute. a. Helical gears
b. Bevel gears
a. Root angle c. Spur gears
b. Roll angle d. Worm gears
c. Pitch circle
d. Base circle 22. The design stress based upon the
ultimate strength of the material with a
16. _____ gear with teeth spaced along a factor of safety of about _____.
straight and suitable for straight line motion.
a. 2
a. Helical b. 3
b. Bevel c. 4
c. Rack d. 5
d. Worm
23. Safe working stresses for common gear
17. The pitch plane, axial plane and materials operating at very low velocities
transverse plane, all intersect at a point and are usually assumed to be _____ the ultimate
mutually perpendicular to the: strength.

a. Principal reference plane a. One-fourth

b. Principal reference axis b. One-third
c. Principal reference point c. One-half
d. Principal reference line d. Two-third
 30. It is standard practice to assume that the
24. To avoid charring by the heat of friction, thickness of the tooth measured around the
rawhide gears should not be operated of pitch circle is exactly _____ of a circular
pitch line velocities greater than _____ pitch.

a. 2500 fpm a. One-fourth

b. 3000 fpm b. One-half
c. 35000 fpm c. One-third
d. 4000 fpm d. Two-third

25. The outside diameter of the hubs of 31. It occurs under heavy loads and in
larger gears should be _____ the bore for adequate lubrication.
steel.
a. Pitting
a. 1.5 times b. Honing
b. 1.6 times c. Scoring
c. 1.7 times d. Tooth breakage
d.1.8 times
32. In order to get benefit helical-gear
26. The couple diameter of the hubs of action the face width should be at least
larger gears should be _____ the bore for _____ the axial pitch.
cast iron.
a. Once
a. 1.5 times b. Twice
b. 1.8 times c. Thrice
c. 2.0 times d. Minimum
d. 2.5 times
33. The outside diameter of the worm gear
27. Helix angles of _____ degrees are measured on the central plane.
preferred for single helical gears.
a. Addendum diameter
a. 10 and 18 b. Throat diameter
b. 12 and 20 c. Pitch diameter
c. 15 and 23 d. Root diameter
d. 18 and 28
34. For worms mating with gears having 24
28. Helix angles of _____ degrees are teeth or more the _____ pressure angle is
preferred for double helical gears. recommended.

a. 15 and 25 a. 14.5 degrees

b. 20 and 30 b. 20 degrees
c. 22.5 degrees
c. 25 and 40 d. 25 degrees
d. 30 and 45
35. The axes intersect and the teeth are
29. A _____ is a spur gear of infinite diameter. curved and oblique is called:

a. Hypoid a. Skew bevel gears

b. Herringbone b. Straight bevel gears
c. Annular c. Spiral bevel gears
d. Rack d. Zerol bevel gears
36. A type of gear of non-parallel and non- b. Top land
intersecting and the teeth are straight. c. Pitch surface
d. Space width
a. Hypoid gears
b. Skew bevel gears 43. The usual ratio of miter gear is:
c. Spiral bevel gears
d. Zerol bevel gears a. 1:1
b. 1:2
37. For worm gears, Buckingham c. 1:3
recommends face width. d. 1:4

a. 0.2 Dwo 44. The angle between the element of the

b. 0.3 Dwo face cone and its axis equals pitch angle
c. 0.4 Dwo plus addendum angle.
d. 0.5 Dwo
a. Cutting angle
38. For worm gears, circular pitch is equal to: b. Face angle
c. Pitch angle
a. Axial pitch d. Front angle
b. Diametral pitch
c. Normal pitch
d. Traverse pitch 45. The apex of the pitch cone

39. The service factor of heavy shock, rolling a. Cone center

mill and rock crushes. b. Vertex
c. Pitch point
a. 1.25 - 1.35 d. Apothem
b. 1.35 - 1.50
c. 1.50 - 1.80 46. The portion of the tooth surface
d. 1.75 -2.00 adjacent to the involute lying inside a radial
line passing through an imaginary
40. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis is intersection of an involute and the base
called: circle/

a. Transverse axis a. Excessive cut

b. Conjugate axis b. Over cut
c. Plane rotation c. Under cut
d. Axis of rotation d. None of these

41. The circle containing the bottoms of the 47. In spur gearing system, the preferred
tooth spaces is called: pressure angle is:

a. Addendum circle a. 14- ½ deg

b. Base circle b. 20 deg
c. Pitch circle c. 22- ½ deg
d. Root circle d. 25 deg

48. Hub length usually vary from:

42. The surface between the flanks of
adjacent teeth. a. 1.05 Ds to 1.7 Ds
b. 1.25 Ds to 2 Ds
a. Bottom land c. 1.35 Ds to 2.5 Ds
d. 1.35 Ds to 3.0 Ds

49 The service factor for heavy shock is:

a. 1 to 1.25
b. 1.25 to 1.50
c. 1.50 to 1.75
d. 1.75 to 2.0

50. A gear wheel with cured teeth that

mesh with a worm.

a. Worm wheel
b. Rack gear
c. Spiral gear
d. Herringbone gear
 TEST 20 c. Measure
d.
1. Which type of gear is a cylinder,
wheel or disk on the surface of which is 7. Refers to the portion of the tooth
cut parallel teeth? surface adjacent to the involute lying
inside a radial line passing through an
a. Bevel gear imaginary intersection of the involute
b. Helical gear and the base circle.
c. Spur gear
d. Worm gear a. Over cut
b. Under cut
2. Which type of gear has a ratio of c. Tip relief
1:1? d. None of these

a. Herringbone gears 8. In a pair of gears, spur or bevel, the

b. Miter gear smaller is often called:
c. Internal gear
d. Spur gear a. Rack
b. Pinion
3. The distance between similar sides of c. Worn
adjacent teeth measured on the pitch d. Idler
line is called:
9. Which of the following gears that are
a. Diametral pitch of the same and transmit motion at right
b. Linear pitch angles?
c. Circular pitch
d. Axial pitch a. Herringbone gears
b. Spur gears
4. In rack gear, circular pitch is called: c. Miter gears
d. Rack gears
a. Linear pitch
b. Base pitch 10. The cone, which represents in bevel
c. Diametral pitch gears the original friction surfaces are
d. Axial pitch called

5. __________ is equal to twice the a. Back cone

addendum. b. Length of cone
c. Pitch cones
a. Tooth flank d. Cone distance
b. Tooth thickness
c. Whole depth 11. Which of the following angles equal
d. Working depth the pitch angle?

6. The meaning of module in a gearing a. Back angle

system is: b. Front angle

a. Distance c. Face angle

b. Addendum d. Root angle
12. The surface between the flanks of 18. Gear pump used in hydraulic system
adjacent teeth. are used for:

a. Top land a. Low and medium pressure

b. Tooth flank b. Medium and high pressure
c. Tooth face c. Low and high pressure
d. Bottom land d. Medium and not high
pressure
13. The portion of the common tangent
to the base circles along which contact 19. In machine tool drive, the modulus
between mating involutes occurs. for gears is usually selected between:

a. Line of action a. 10 ≥ μ ≥ 1
b. Pitch line b. 2≥μ1
c. Arc of action c. 20 ≥ μ ≥ 1
d. Angle of action d. 5≥μ≥1

14. The intersection between the axes of 20. The shape of the curve on the side of
the line of centers and the common gear is termed as:
tangent to the base circles,
a. Stub
a. Pitch line b. Involute
b. Pitch circle c. Trochoid
c. Pitch point d. Cycloid
d. Pitch surface
21. The distance in a straight line from
15. The angle between the element of one side of a tooth to the side at points
the face cone and its axis. where the pitch circle passes through
the tooth.
a. Face angle
b. Back angle a. Circular pitch
c. Front angle b. Pitch
d. Increment angle c. Chordal thickness
d. Tooth length
16. Refers to a portion of the small end
of the tooth. 22. The _______ of a bevel gear is equal
to the altitude of the pitch cone.
a. Heel
b. Toe a. Length of cone
c. Sole b. Vertex distance
d. Corner c. Length of hub
17. The apex of the pitch cone. d. Thickness

a. Cone vertex 23. The _______ of a worm is the distance

b. Cone distance between the center of one tooth and
the center of an adjacent tooth,
c. Cone radius measured perpendicular to the teeth.
d. Cone center
 a. Diametral pitch 29. Which gears are used to connect
b. Circular pitch parallel shafts lying in the same plane?
c. Axial pitch
d. Normal pitch a. Worm gears
b. Bevel gears
24. The _______ of a worm gear is the c. Herringbone gears
concave surface of the gear tooth. d. Spiral gears

a. Radius 30. Which of the following is used to

b. Throat connect the shafts at an angle but lying
c. Pitch in the same plane?
d. Addendum
a. Helical gears
25. A type of gear, which is used for b. Worm and worm wheel
heavy duty work where a large ratio of c. Spur gears
speed is required. d. Herringbone gears

a. Worm gear 31. The product of circular pitch and

b. Bevel gear diametral pitch is:
c. Spur gear
d. Miter gear a. 2π
b. π
26. A _________ is a cylinder with teeth c. 3π
resembling those of acme thread. d. 4π

a. Pinion 32. A line drawn through all the points at

b. Spur which the teeth touch each other.
c. Worm
d. Bolt a. Angle of contact
b. Arc of contact
27. The _________ is the angle at which c. Path of contact
the teeth of a helical gear are slanted d. Arc of approach
across the face of the gear.
33. The length of the gear tooth
a. Lead angle measured along an element of the pitch
b. Helix angle surface is called:
c. Pressure angle
d. Pitch angle a. Acting flank
b. Face width
28. A __________ is one thicker in c. Flank of the tooth
proportion to its length than the involute d. Tooth space
tooth.
34. The ________ is equal to the tooth
thickness plus the space width.
a. Hypoid a. Normal pitch
b. Cycloidal tooth b. Axial pitch
c. Stub tooth c. Diametral pitch
d. Spiral d. Circular pitch
35. The _________ is the arc of the pitch 40. It is standard practice to assume that
circle where the tooth profile cuts the the thickness of the tooth measured
pitch circle when a pair of teeth first sound the pitch circle is exactly ________
comes in contact until they are in the circle path.
contact as the pitch point.
a. One half
a. Arc of recess b. One third
b. Arc of approach c. One fourth
c. Arc of contact d. One fifth
d. Arc of action

36. The _________ traced by the 41. The helix angles for the herringbone
outermost corner of one tooth on the gears are used from ______for industrial
plane of the other gear. gears.

a. Cycloid a. 10 to 15
b. Hypocycloid b. 15 to 20
c. Epitrochoid c. 20 to 30
d. Trochoid d. 25 to 45

37. An imaginary circle passing through 42. The distance parallel to the axis from
the points at which the tooth of the the pitch circle to the face of the
meshing gears contact each other. shoulder or hub.

a. Pitch circle a. Back one

b. Base circle b. Backing
c. Addendum circle c. Crown height
d. Dedendum circle d. Apex distance

38. A gear with teeth on the outer 43. A machine that makes gear teeth by
cylindrical surface. means of a reciprocating cutter that
rotates slowly with the work.
a. Rack gear
b. Zerol gear a. Gear forming
c. Miter gear b. Gear hobber
d. External gear c. Gear shaper
d. Gear cutter
39. The diameter of a circle coinciding
with the top of the teeth of an internal 44. A type of gear wheels connecting
gear. non-parallel, non-intersecting shafts
usually at right angles.
a. Dedendum diameter
b. Pitch diameter a. Helical gear
b. Herringbone gear
c. Base diameter
d. Internal diameter c. Hypoid gear
d. Bevel gear
45. The angle between the plane of the
pitch circle and a plane tangent to the
end of the tooth.

a. Foot angle
b. Back angle
c. Dedendum angle
d. Face angle

46. The circle containing the bottoms of

the tooth spaces.

a. Root circle
b. Working depth circle
c. Base circle
d. Pitch circle

47. The depth of the tooth inside of the

pitch line is called:

a. Working depth
b. Dedendum
c. Total depth
d. Whole depth

48. The amount by which the

dedendum in a given gear exceeds the
addendum of its mating gear.

a. Whole depth
b. Clearance
c. Backish
d. Working depth

49. The outside diameter of the worm

measured on the central plane.
a. Dedendum diameter
b. Addendum diameter
c. Throat diameter
d. Pitch diameter

50. The circle from which the involute is

generated.

a. Base circle
b. Pitch circle
c. Working depth circle
d. Addendum circle
 TEST 21
1. Fast process of analyzing all elements A. Planer
and a chemical components of steel B. Broaching
casting is: C. Boring
D. Lathe
A. Pyrometer
B. Carbon analyser 7. The blades for hacksaw have number of
C. Wet analyser teeth range of:
D. Spectrometer
A. 15 – 38 teeth
2. Which of the following is not a kind of B. 14 – 32 teeth
mandrel? C. 12 -30 teeth
D. 12 – 32 teeth
A. Expanded
B. Extended 8. __________ no part of the headstock.
C. Contraction
D. Taper A. Back gear
B. Spindle
3. A cutting tool angle between the side C. Anvil
cutting edge and the plane D. Motor
perpendicular to direction of feed travel
is _______ angel. 9. __________ is a lathe carriage part the
bridge across the bed to carry the cross
A. Side relief slide and tool rest.
B. Side cutting edge
C. Lead A. Automatic feed
D. Side rake B. Apron
C. Compound rest
4. A section in a machine shop operation is D. Saddle
called:
10. What is the recommended cutting
A. Core making speed range for bronze in fpm?
B. Machining
C. Fitting A. 60/70
D. Pattern B. 200/250
C. 80/60
D. 100/110
5. The tool bit made of tool blank consists
of face, nose, shank, and ________. 11. For ordinary turning drilling and milling on
low strength steel the cutting fluid
A. Cutting edge applied have soluble oil with consistency
B. None of these of part oil to _______ parts water.
C. Round nose
D. Nose A. 10 to 30
B. 10
6. The cutting tool used the shaper are C. 5 to 10
similar to turning tools _______ machine. D. 10 to 20
12. The five principal parts of the shaper are A. f
the table, tool slide, base, ram and B. 5
_______. C. 20
D. F.A.O
A. Column
B. Vise 18. Safety features that must be placed and
C. Drive motor maintained at machine, black welding
D. Apron and foundry shops called:

13. In drilling soft materials use cutting angle A. Walkway shops

as low as 40 degrees but for extremely B. Safety goggles
hard material up to _____________ C. Safety notices
degree is recommended. D. Safety notices in Markers /
Boards
A. 80
B. 65 19. It is axially located rectangular groove in
C. 75 a hub and shaft.
D. 70
A. Key Seat
14. An act of cutting out a piece of metal B. Cotter Pin Seat
at a desired shape and size. C. Flute
D. Set Screw Point
A. Broaching
B. Blanking 20. In a cutting tool, the cutting end can
C. Slitting also be generally called:
D. Dinking
A. End cutting edge
15. A research agency handling assistance B. Nose
to all foundry, machine shop and C. Back rake
metallurgical plant operation. D. Side rake

A. MIRDCC 21. What factors can modify the

B. NOI recommended cutting speed of known
C. DOST work piece?
D. All of these
A. Rough cutting of work piece
16. Web is a part of drill and is usually thicker B. Modify the shape of the cutting
__________. tools
C. Use correctly shape of the
A. Beside the land cutting tools
B. Nearing the shank D. Depth of cut
C. Close to the future
D. At the tip portion 22. Machine shop equipment that can
flatter horizontally, vertically or angular
17. It is a symbol ___________ that the work plane called:
surfaces should be machine-finished
and placed on the line that represents A. Shaper Machine
the surface to be machined. B. Welding Machine
 C. Drill Machine 28. In Machine Shop had forging operation
D. Power Saw of lengthening a piece of stock while
reducing the cross-sectional area of
23. It is a petroleum by-product used as work is called:
electrodes in an electric arc furnace
melting operation. A. Bloating
B. Upsetting
A. Anthracite coke C. Spreading
B. Foundry coke D. Draining
C. Graphite Electrode
D. Bituminous coke 29. Which of the following services is not
considered to be a work of a machinist?
24. Which of the following is an unsafe
condition in operating a lathe machine? A. Reboring
B. Grinding
A. Wearing denim pants/safety C. Over Hauling
shoes D. Honing
B. Wearing a canvass apron
C. Operating with safety gloves 30. Type of chuck wherein the work piece
D. Wearing safety goggles/hearing with standard diameter or size could be
aid attached fast and quick specially small
size work of mass production called:
25. Relief angle of a single-point cutting mild
steel cast iron and another average A. Lathe Drive Plate
work as recommended should be in the B. Clamp Toe Dog
range of _________ degrees for high C. Collet Attachment
speed tools. D. Steady Center Rest

A. 8 to 12 31. This particular cutting tool material could

B. 10 to 5 with stand cutting temperature of 1800 F
C. 5 to 7 and higher at cutting speed beyond
D. 12 to 16 possible with other cutting tool materials
called:
26. Tap not used for cutting thread
___________. A. Titanium carbide
B. Ceramic
A. Tapping tap C. Carbide grade
B. Bottoming tap D. Cubic boron nitride
C. Plugging tap
D. Taper tap 32. Common defects encountered in a
foundry shop steel casting operation
27. Which of the following tools does not and also in welding practices.
belong to the group?
A. Cracks
A. Hermaphrodite caliper B. Cold shot
B. Divider C. Parting line
C. Double VEE block D. Blow / pin holes
D. Trammel
33. Lathe operator to remove the taper 39. Which of the following is not used to
shank from the taper hole uses drift. It is resemble the shape of tool bit?
also called:
A. Round nose
A. Tong B. Center cut
B. Morse Taper C. Thread cutting
C. Chuck Taper D. Square nose
D. Tapered Key
40. A lathe with multiple cutting stations is
34. It is the best instrument for measuring a called:
thousand of an inch.
A. Turret lathe
A. Micrometer B. Engine lathe
B. Tachometer C. Manual lathe
C. Caliper D. None of theses
D. Pyrometer
41. Device used to measure accurately
35. What tool will be used in making wood speed called:
pattern in the foundry shop?
A. Speedometer
A. Band Saw B. Dial Indicator
B. Drill Machine C. Tachometer
C. Saw and Chisel D. Dial gage
D. Hammer
42. A mechanism, which usually do the
36. The usual ration of water to soluble oil indexing in a machine tool is called:
used as cutting fluid is _________.
A. Universal chuck
A. 50% water to 50% oil B. Slooter
B. 2 water to 1 oil C. Dividing head
C. 3 water to 1 oil D. Indexing
D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil
43. Recommended best cutting angle of
37. Machine tool used for laying straight drill for work on steel or cast iron is
lines on metal surfaces made of sharp ___________ degrees.
tool steel is called:
A. 48
A. Plain Scriber B. 63
B. A Trammel C. 59
C. Hermaphrodite caliper D. 50
D. Divider
38. A lathe machine threading mechanism 44. What is the common shop practice to
is called: prevent solder from running away from
surface to be joined?
A. Reverse Gear and lever
B. Spindle Gear A. All of these
C. Changed Stud Gear B. Surround the work with clay
D. All of these
 C. Introduce around the work rolled 48. Which do not belong to foundry or
wet cloth metal casting shop?
D. Put asbestos sheeting around the A. Shake – Out Machine
work B. Molding Machine
C. Core making
45. Name the type of chuck commonly D. Forging
used for holding work piece in a lathe
operation. Example 3-jaw universal 49. It is an arbitrary modification by moving
chuck, 4-jaw independent chuck. a small portion of a tooth material at the
tip of the gear tooth.
A. Magnetic jaw chuck
B. 2-jaw independent A. Tip removal
C. 8-jaw-universal B. Tip under cut
D. Combination C. Tip relief
D. Pressure angle cut
46. A machinery operation whereby done
with the work accurately fastened has a
reciprocating motion and the tool head
is stationary is called: 50. What is the difference between the
shaper and the planer?
A. Shaping
B. Planning A. The tool of the shaper moves
C. Turning while the plane is stationary
D. Reaming B. The shaper can perform slotting
operation while planer cannot
47. What happens to a drill if the operating C. The shaper handles large pieces
speed is too fast? while the planer handles only
small pieces
A. Drill will crack D. The tool of the shaper moves in
B. Drill will become overheated and reciprocating motion while the
will blend tool in the planer move in rotary
C. Drill will become overheated and motion.
will drawn from steel
D. Drill will become very dull and
wear dust
 TEST 22

1. Safety features that must be placed 7. An important accessory of milling

and maintained at machine, blacksmith, machine.
welding and foundry shop is called:
A. Milling Machine Vise
A. Safety Goggle B. Cutter
B. Walkway Guide C. Ram
C. Safety Notices in Markings D. Vertical Milling Attachment
D. All of these
8. A machine used in testing steel
2. Test sometimes referred to as generally strikes the specimen with an
upsetting test called: energy from 22- t0 265 ft-lb/

A. Bend A. Izod Test

B. Flaring B. Charpy Test
C. Flange C. Rockwell Test
D. Crush D. Test Blocks

3. The machine used for testing of very 9. The area of the machine shop whose
thin steel or surface layers metal is being melted to form a new
shape is the:
A. Charpy Test
B. Izod Test A. Foundry Area
C. Description Test B. Tool and Die Area
D. Rockwell Test C. Welding Area
D. Mass Production Area
4. _____ is a test for pipe used for coiling
in sizes 2 inches. 10. Which of the following is not the work
of a machinist?
A. Flaring
B. Crush A. Reboring
C. Flange B. Overhauling
D. Bend C. Grinding
D. Boring
5. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a
single point cutting tool called:
11. The machine, which can flatter
a. Dividing Head surface on horizontal, vertical or angular
b. Slotting Attachment plane.
c. Circular Pitch
d. Circular Milling Attachment A. Drilling Machine
B. Shaper Machine
6. Milling machine accessories are used C. Power Saw
to hold milling cutter in the milling D. Lathe Machine
machine called:
12. Which of the following is not part of a
a. Spindel – Nose Tooling lathe machine?
b. Milling Machine Size
c. Vertical Milling Attachment a. Fan
d. Milling Machine Arbors b. Carriage
 c. Headstock A. Dead Center
d. Tail Stock B. Live Center
C. Focal Center
13. One important skill that operates of D. Work Center
machine tools must have an
understanding of measurements, which 19. A machine used in shaping metal by
demands: means of abrasive wheel of the removal
of metals with an abrasive is called:
A. Speed
B. Precision A. Planer Machine
C. Sociability B. Power Saw
D. Neatness C. Shaper Machine
D. Grinding Machine
14. Which tool does not belong to the
group? 20. A machine tool in which an abrasive
wheel is used as cutting tool to obtain a
A. Vice Grip very smooth finish.
B. Feeler Gage
C. Torque Wrench A. Broaching Machine
D. Adjustable Wrench B. Planer
C. Tool Grinder
15. A machinery operation whereby the D. Milling Machine
tool rotates while the feed is stationary.
21. A machine tool used principally to
A. Shaping machine flat or plane surfaces with a
B. Milling single pointed tool.
C. Turning
D. Reaming A. Shaper
B. Planer
16. Which of the following is not part of C. Drill
the headstock? D. Power Saw

A. Anvil 22. A tool with hardened steel points

B. Spindel used for scribing or laying of distances.
C. Motor
D. Back Pressure A. Plain Scriber
B. Divider
17. A machining operation whereby the C. Trammel
tool reciprocates while the feed is D. Hermaphrodite
stationary.
23. _____ used to machine flat or curved
A. Planing surfaces with a tool, which moves in a
B. Shaping reciprocating motion.
C. Turning
D. Reaming A. Planer
B. Shaper
18. ____ is a kind of center, which is C. Grinder
being attached and meshed to the D. Lathe
tailstock spindle, which is also static
while the rack is rotating. 24. _____ used in the production of flat
surfaces on pieces too large or too
heavy to hold in a shaper.
 a. Planer A. Collet Chuck
b. Shaper B. Magnetic Chuck
c. Grinder C. Four Jaw Chuck
d. Shaver D. Universal Chuck

25. A machine tool used to produce a 31. A kind of chuck, which has reversible
variety of surfaces by using a circular jaws, which could be adjustable
type cutter with multiple teeth called: separately called:

A. Lathe Machine A. Collet Chuck

B. Milling Machine B. Independent Chuck
C. Broaching Machine C. Four Jaw Chuck
D. Grinding D. Magnetic Chuck

26. A cutting tool used to finish internal 32. A tool which when pressed into a
and external surfaces by the use of a finished hole in a piece of work, provides
cutter called broach, which has a series centers on which the piece may be
of cutting edges of teeth turned or otherwise machines called:

a. Lathe Machine A. Mash

b. Broaching Machine B. Butt
c. Planer C. Mandrel
d. Shaper D. Wobble

27. The method of cold working by 33. A machine tool, which is very similar
compression. to a shaper except that the ram
reciprocates vertically rather than
A. Broaching horizontally.
B. Lapping
C. Piercing A. Lathe
D. Reaming B. Grinder
C. Planer
28. A group of thin steel strips used for D. Slotter
measuring clearances.
34. A cylindrical bar of steel with threads
A. Feeler Gage formed around it and grooves or flutes
B. Tachometer running lengthwise in it, intersecting with
C. Micrometer the threads to form cutting edges. It is
D. Caliper used to cut internal threads.

29. The process of working metals by the A. Grooves

application of sudden blows or by a B. Lap
steady pressured called: C. Tap
D. Flute
A. Rolling
B. Forging 35. A mechanism, which usually do the
C. Casting indexing in a machine tool called:
D. Turning
A. Slotter
30. A kind of chuck, which should not be B. Chuck
used where accuracy is required called: C. Dividing Head
D. Indexer
36. The operation of machining the end heights or depths or many other
of a work piece to make the end square measurements.
with the axis.
A. Dial Gage
A. Squaring B. Dial Indicator
B. Buffing C. Tachometer
C. Lapping D. Speedometer
D. Honing
42. A toll used for measuring diameters.
37. The operation of enlarging a hole by
means of an adjustable cutting tool with A. Caliper
only one cutting edge. B. Manometer
C. Tachometer
A. Drilling D. Pyrometer
B. Broaching
C. Milling 43. The process of forming metals by the
D. Boring use of dies after the metal is heated to
its plastic range.
38. The operation of making a cone-
shaped enlargement of the end of a A. Rolling
hole, as for a recess for a flat head B. Forging
screw. C. Turning
D. Casting
A. Counter Sinking
B. Knurling 44. A machine tool used to out metal
C. Squaring parts a lift, medium and large section
D. Performing using a reciprocating hacksaw blade.

39. It is an operation of sizing and A. Tool Grinder

finishing a hole by means of cutting tool B. Shaper
having several cutting edges. C. Planer
D. Power Saw
A. Notching
B. Piercing 45. A cold chisel is made of:
C. Turning
D. Reaming A. Cast Iron
B. German Silver
40. The hop term used to include the C. High Carbon Steel
marking of inscribing of center points D. High Speed Steel
circles area of straight lines upon metal
surfaces, either curve or flat, for the 46. Trimming is a process associated
guidance of the worker called: with:

A. Shaping A. Electroplating
B. Hobbing B. Forging
C. Laying Out C. Machining of Metals
D. Shaping D. Press Work

41. It is used to true and align machine 47. Foundry crucible is made of:
tools fixtures and works to test and
inspect size trueness of finished work, A. Graphite
and to compare measurements either B. German Silver
 C. Lead
D. Mild Steel

48. Formed milling operation of cutting

gears can be used for cutting which
type of gears?

A. Spur
B. Worm
C. All of the above
D. Bevel

49. Select the one that is gear finishing

process.

A. Gear Shaving
B. Gear Shaping
C. Gear Hobbing
D. Gear Milling

50. Broaching operation is generally

used in automobile industry as:

A. It is a mass production machine

B. It is an automatic machine
C. Operation is completed in one
stroke
D. Semi-skilled operators can be
employed
 TEST 23
1. Point angle of 135° on drills is used for: C. Uniform symmetrical shape
D. None of the above
A. Bakelite hard rubbers and fibrous
plastics 7. Which of the following processes that
B. Hard steels and nickel alloys hydraulic fluid acts as transfer media.
C. Thin sheets metal
D. B and C A. Electron Beam Machining
B. Electro – discharge Machining
2. A twist drill is specified by: C. Iron Beam Machining
D. Water Jet Machining
A. Its diameter and lip angle
B. Its shank and diameter 8. Wiping is the process of
C. Shank, material and diameter
D. Shank, material and flute size A. Applying flux during welding
process
3. The usual value of helix angle of a drill B. Cleaning the welded surface
is: after the welding operation is
over
A. 30° C. Connecting load pipes by
B. 60° soldering alloy
C. 110° D. Low temperature welding
D. 120°
9. Ornaments are cast by:
4. The helix angle on a high speed steel
twist drill for drilling cast iron is the order A. Continuous Casting
of: B. Die Casting
C. Gravity Casting
A. 12-22° D. Presses Casting
B. 24-32°
C. 35-40° 10. In such casting process:
D. 40-45°
A. Molten metal is fed into the
5. Dressing is cavity in metallic mould by
gravity
A. An inspection method for B. Metal is poured into die cavity
castings and after a predetermined time
B. A method of cleaning the the mould is inverted to permit a
castings part of metal still in the molten
C. A method of deoxidizing of state to flow out of cavity
molten metal C. Cavity is filled with a pre-
D. The formation of oxides on them calculated quantity of metal
molten metal surface and core or plunger inserted to
force the metal into cavity
6. Sweep pattern is used for molding D. Metal is forced into mould under
parts having: high pressure

A. Complicated shape having 11. In Carthias process

intricate details
B. Rectangular shape
 A. Molten metal is fed into the
cavity in metallic mould by
gravity
B. Metal is poured into die cavity
and after a predetermined time
the mould is inverted to permit a
part of metal still in the molten
state to flow out of cavity
C. Cavity is filled with a pre-
calculated quantity of metal and
core or plunger inserted to force
the metal into cavity
D. Metal is forced into mould under
high pressure
12. What is the purpose of riser?
A. Feed the casting at a rate
consistent with the rate of
solidification
B. Act as a reservoir for molten
metal
C. Help feed the casting until all
solidification takes place
D. Feed molten metal from pouring
basin to gas.
16. The darft allowance on metallic
pattern as compared to wooden ones
is:
A. More
B. Same
C. less
D. More/less depending on size
17. The pressure of inoculation is used:
A. To clean the casting
B. To decrease the melting
temperature of a cast metal
C. To change the chemical
composition of a cast metal
D. To modify the structure and
properties of a cast metal
18. Tumbling is done so as to:
A. Clean the surface of small parts
B. Get surface finish
C. Stress relieve the components
D. Plate the surface

13. The mould for casting ferrous 19. What is referred to as gate?
materials
A. A passage through which metal
A. Copper is poured into mould
B. High carbon steel B. A passage through which metal
C. Low carbon steel rises the mould is filled
D. Medium carbon steel C. A passage that finally leads
molten metal from the runner
14. Dilatometer is use to find out which into the mould cavity
property of molding sand? D. A vent hole to allow for the hot
gases to escape
A. Fineness
B. Hot Strength 20. A sprue is:
C. Moisture Content
D. Permeability a. A tool used in mould repairing
b. A process of cleaning casting
15. Select the one that is not an angle c. A chemical that is added to
measuring device molten materials for sound
castings
A. Angle Iron d. A vertical passage through the
B. Bevel protector cope and joining the pouring
C. Combination basin to the runner
D. Sine bar
21. Hacksaw blade that has the same 27. Quick return mechanism is used in a
number of teeth as given below are
available. Which one would you chose A. Drilling machine
for cutting brass? B. Grinder
C. Lathe
A. 18 teeth D. Shaper
B. 24 teeth
C. 28 teeth 28. Draft on a pattern is provided for.
D. 31 teeth
A. Facilitating pattern making
22. A plug gauge is used to measure B. Easy lifting of the casting
C. Facilitating withdrawal of the
A. Cylindrical bores pattern from the mould
B. Screw thread D. Providing for shrinkage of the
C. Spherical holes coating
D. Taper bores
29. Mandrel are used to hold
23. When large number of components
are turned and parted off a bar the A. Cutting tools
chuck generally used is the _____. B. Drill bits
C. Face plate
A. Collet chuck D. Hollow work pieces
B. Four Jaw chuck
C. Magnetic chuck 30. The operation of enlarging a hole is
D. Two jaw chuck called:

24. Which of the following is the cutting A. Boring

speed of brass? B. Counter Sinking
C. Drilling
A. 30 m/min D. Reaming
B. 40 m/min
C. 50 m/min 31. In up cut milling the work piece is fed
D. 60 m/min
A. Against the rotating cutter
25. Under cutting is: B. At an angle 60° to the center
C. At right angle to the cutter
A. An operating of cutting extra D. In the direction of the cutter
deep groove
B. An operation of cutting a groove 32. Sprue is the passage provided for the
next to a shoulder on a piece of
work A. Out flow
C. Cutting from the of work piece B. In flow
D. An operation of cutting extra C. Smooth flow
wide threads D. Solidification of the molten
material
26. Permeability of foundry sand is:
33. Feed in a lathe is expressed in
A. The capacity to hold moisture
B. Distortion of binder in sand A. mm
C. Fineness of sand B. mm per degree
D. Porosity to allow the escape of C. mm per revolution
gases D. rpm
 C. Middle portion of the molding
34. Raping allowance is provided on a box
pattern to take care of D. Top half of molding

A. Shrinkage 41. A vent wire is used in

B. Machining
C. Distortion A. Foundry
D. Easy withdrawal B. Hot forging
C. Cold forging
35. Upsetting is the term used in one of D. Fitting
the following operations
42. The purpose of chaplets is to:
A. Casting
B. Drilling A. Ensure directional solidification
C. Forging B. Function a lower and upper parts
D. Turning of the molding box
C. Provide efficient venting
D. Support the cores
36. One of the material used for making
surface plate is: 43. Angle plate is used for

A. Brass A. Cutting tapers in a lathe

B. Granite B. Cutting gears in a shaper
C. Stainless steel C. Cutting gears in a milling
D. Wood D. Fixing job outs angle in a grinder

37. Feeler gages are used for measuring 44. Cores are used in mould to make it
the:
A. Hollow
A. Clearance between mating parts B. Smooth
B. Pitch of screw threads C. Strong
C. Radius of curvature D. Symmetrical
D. Thickness of plates
45. Pipes subjected to high pressures are
38. Chuck used on turret lathe is generally made by

A. Collet chuck A. Centrifugal casting

B. Four jaw self-centering chuck B. Extrusion
C. Magnetic chuck C. Pressure casting
D. Three jaws independent chuck D. Slush casting

39. Routing prescribes 46. In a typical lathe machining,

discontinuous chips of _____ are formed
A. Inspection of final product when machining
B. Proper utilization of machine
C. Proper utilization of man power A. Carbon steel
D. The flow of materials in the joint B. Copper steel
C. Copper
40. Cope foundry practice refers to D. Steel at high speeds

A. Bottom half of molding box 47. Permeability, in relation to molding

B. Coating on the mold face sands, is high for
 B. Catch plate
A. Coarse grains C. Face plate
B. Fine grains D. lathe plate
C. Medium grains
D. Round grains 50. Which of the following is not part of
combination set?
48. The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe
is to: A. Bevel protractor
B. Dial gage
A. Cut gears C. Scale
B. Cut threads D. Try square
C. Give desired direction of
movement to the lathe carriage
D. Reduce spindle speeds

49. For machining the flange elbow on a

lathe which of the following holding
devices is used?

A. Angle plate
 TEST 24

1. A sine bar cannot be used without D. None of the above

a/an
6. Removing the sharp edges from a
A. Angle gage piece of stock is referred to as
B. Micrometer
C. Slip gage A. Polish material
D. Vernier Caliper B. Roughen Material
C. Sharpen Material
2. The tooth life is affected to the D. Smooth Material
maximum extent by
7. Knurling is done to __________.
A. Gear grinding A. Boring
B. Gear Shaping B. Chamfering
C. Gear shaving C. Planning
D. Milling D. Turning

3. The operation of finishing a drilled 8. When cutting material in a lathe, the

hole to the correct size is known as harder the material being cut, the
tool bit should have
A. Counter boring
B. Counter sinking A. Less side rake
C. Reaming B. More side rake
D. Spot facing C. More top rake
D. No side rake
4. When the extreme outer corners of 9. When turning a piece of round metal
the cutting edges of a drill wear in a lathe, the front clearance should
away too rapidly, it is an indication be smaller for
of
A. Cutting angles
A. Not enough speed B. Large-diameter cutting
B. Too much rake angle C. Small-diameter cutting
C. Too high a speed D. None of these
D. B or C
10. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting
5. Carbon steel drill should be edge should be
operated at
A. Case hardened
A. Speed greater than that when B. Rubbed with emery cloth
using a high speed drill C. Rubbed with crocus cloth
B. Speeds less than that when using D. Stoned with an oilstone
a high speed drill 11. When cutting material in a lathe, the
C. The same speed as that using a softer the material being cut, the
high speed drill tool bit should have
 17. Copper is annealed by hunting to a
A. Any of these cherry red color and
B. Double top rake
C. Less top rake A. Cooling slowly in air
D. More top rake B. Dousing in cold water
C. Dousing in hot water
12. A piece of cast iron hold against an D. Dousing in oil
emery wheel will give of
18. When drilling a hole in a piece of
A. Bright shiny sparks work held in a lathe chuck one
B. Dull yellow sparks would use the
C. Red sparks
D. No sparks A. Head stock
B. Compound rest
13. The alignment of coupling faces can C. Cross-feed
be checked by D. Tailstock and drill chuck

A. Inserting a feeler gage between 19. When using a drill press, the work
the coupling faces at various should be held with
points around the circumference A. A pair of pliers
B. Inserting a thermometer B. A vise clamp
C. Rotating and measuring to C. Gloves on
nearest permanent fitting D. The hand
D. Using an inside micrometer
20. When a lathe is put into back gear, it
14. A drill bit has will go

A. No flutes A. At a slower speed backwards

B. 2 flutes B. At the same speed backward
C. 3 flutes C. Faster
D. 4 flutes D. Slower

15. Before applying layout for blue on a 21. On a lathe, the dead center is used
piece of metal, it must be after

A. Cleaned A. Boring
B. Cold B. Center-drilling
C. Heated C. Drilling
D. Roughened D. Reaming

16. A scriber is made from 22. To remove metal stock rapidly the
A. Carbon steel file to use is a
B. Cold-rolled steel
C. Hot-rolled steel A. Double-cut bastard
D. Top steel B. Double - cut coarse
C. Rasp
 D. A and C A. The end opposite the handle
B. The one with a handle
23. The best file to use when finishing C. The edge with the handle
sharp corners or slots and grooves is D. None of these
the

A. Jeweler’s file 29. Small pieces of metal clogged

B. Knife file between the teeth on a file are
C. Mill file called
D. Square file
A. Bumps
24. Never use a file B. Clogs
A. That is dirty C. Flats
B. With a tang D. Pins
C. Without a handle
D. Without oiling
30. Finishing off a piece of metal with a
25. Which of the following information is real smooth finish can be done by
necessary when ordering a file
A. Draw – filing
A. Size B. Fat – filing
B. Shape C. Milling – filing
C. Type of teeth D. Side – filing
D. All of the above
31. For finishing a piece of work to size
26. When filling a piece of metal in a the file to use is the
lathe if short quick strokes are used
the finished piece will probably A. Crossing file
B. Double – cut fine – tooth file
A. Be out of round C. Mill file
B. Be perfect D. Single – cut fine – tooth file
C. Have small flat areas on the
surfaces 32. For filing lead or babbit, use a
D. A and C
A. Lead float life
27. the best procedure when filling a B. Mile file
piece of metal in a lathe is to take C. Vixen file
_________ D. A or C

A. A long fast stroke 33. A hacksaw blade with 32 TPI is best

B. Long slow stroke suited for cutting
C. Short even stroke
D. Short fast stroke
A. Small tubing
28. The safe edge of a file is B. Conduit
C. Sheet metal under 18 gage
 D. Any of these D. Thin wall tubing

34. A coolant is usually used when 39. The best instrument for measuring
cutting material in a power hacksaw thousandths of an inch is the:
to
A. Caliper
A. Absorb heat of friction B. Micrometer
B. Prevent the blade from C. Pyrometer
overheating D. Tachometer
C. Prevent the blade from losing
D. All of the above 40. All hard hacksaw blade is best suited
for work on
35. A hacksaw blades with 18 teeth per
inch is best suited for cutting A. Brass
A. Aluminum B. Cast iron
B. Cast iron C. Tool steel
C. Solid iron D. Any of these
D. Any of these 41. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best
suited for cutting
36. When cutting a long thing piece of
metal A. Cold rolled steel
B. Hot rolled steel
A. Set the blade in the frame with C. Structural steel
the teeth facing toward you D. Any of these
B. Turn the blade at right angles to
the frame 42. Files are divided into two general
C. Turn the blade upside down in classes, namely
the frame
D. Use a blade with fewer teeth per A. Flat shapes and round shapes
inch B. Large and small
C. Rough and smooth
37. The hacksaw blade should be D. Single – cut and double - cut
placed in the frame with
43. A hacksaw blade can be placed in
A. One end looser than the other a frame in
end
B. The teeth facing in any direction A. One position
C. The teeth pointing backward B. Two positions
D. The teeth pointing forward C. Three positions
D. Four positions
38. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per
inch should be used for cutting

A. Brass 44. All hard hacksaw blade is one that

B. Cast iron A. Has a hard back and flexible
C. Heavy teeth
 B. Has a flexible back and hard 50. The lathe compound is used for
teeth A. Angle cutting
C. Has the entire blade hardened B. Grooving
D. Will only fit a solid frame hacksaw C. Facing
D. Any of these
45. Hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best
suited for cutting
A. Brass and copper
B. Sheet metal over 18 gages
C. Tubing
D. Any of these

46. Hacksaw blades are made of

A. High speed
B. Tool steel
C. Tungsten alloy steel
D. Any of these

47. A flexible back hacksaw blade is

one that has

A. A movable back
B. Flexible ends
C. Only the back hardened
D. Only the teeth hardened

48. The flexible type hacksaw blade is

best suited to work on

A. Aluminum
B. Channel
C. Tubing
D. Any of these
49. When lathe tool bit burns, it means
that the

A. Speed is too low

B. Speed is too fast
C. Material is too hard
D. Material cannot be cut

TEST 25
1. A universal chuck cannot be used to C. Light straw – colored sparks
cut D. No sparks
7. Another name for hydrochloric acid
A. An eccentric is
B. A round stock A. Acetic acid
C. A cam B. Muriatic acid
D. A and C C. Nitric acid
D. Sulfuric acid
2. The jaw of a standard vise is
8. A flexible hacksaw blade has a
A. Hard tendency to
B. Semi – hard A. Snap easy
C. Semi-soft B. Buckle or run out of line when too
D. Soft much pressure is supplied
3. When facing off a piece of material C. Cut too fast
in the lathe chuck the bit must be set D. Cut on a slant

A. Above center 9. A pillar file is used for

B. At the center A. Filing against a shoulder
C. Below the center B. Filing keyways
D. Off center C. Filing slots
D. Any of thes
4. Before applying layout blue on a
piece of metal, it must be 10. The length of a file is measured from

A. Cleaned A. End to end

B. Cold B. Heel to end
C. Hot C. Point to end
D. Roughened D. Point to heel
11. In general, files are divided into two
5. Tool steel can be hardened by classes, namely:

A. Heating red hot and plunging A. Fine and coarse

into a water B. Rough and smooth
B. Heating red hot and cooling in a C. Single – cut and double – cut
blast of dry air D. Shapes and sizes
C. Heating red hot and plunging
into line seed or cotton seed oil 12. A pillar file has
D. Any of the above, depending on
the type and use A. One safe edge
6. A piece of mild steel held against an B. Three safe edges
emery wheel give off C. Two safe edges
D. A and C
A. Bright shiny sparks
B. Green sparks 13. The tang of a file is the part that
 C. Hardening of the tip
A. Does the cutting D. The tip from crystallizing
B. Fits into the handle
C. Has no teeth 18. The tool used to check internal pipe
D. Is opposite the handle threads is called

14. One of the factors involved in the A. Gear center

choice of a grinding wheel is B. Gear cutter
C. Gear hob
A. The kind of material to be ground D. Gear threader
B. The amount of stock to be
removed 19. The tool used to check internal pipe
C. The kind of finish required threads is called
D. All of these
A. Pitch gage
15. The main difference between a B. Plug gage
planer and a shaper C. Ring gage
D. Thread gage
A. The planer has offset table and
the shaper has a horizontal table 20. The tool used to check external pipe
B. The shaper has a rotating table threads is called a
and the planer has a horizontal
table A. Pitch gage
C. The table of a planer has a B. Plug gage
reciprocating motion past the C. Ring gage
total head while the table of the D. Thread gage
shaper is stationary and the tool
head has a reciprocating motion 21. The operation of truing a grinding
D. One is larger than the other wheel is known as

16. A piece of tool steel held against an A. Centering

emery wheel will give off B. Dressing
C. Rounding
A. White sparks with stars on the D. Sizing
end
B. Yellow sparks 22. The cutting angle on a drill for mild
C. No sparks steel should be
D. Green sparks
A. 39°
17. If you use a dry grinding wheel for B. 49°
sharpening tool bits, dip the end of C. 59°
the bit in water frequently to prevent D. 69°

A. Annealing the cutting edge of 23. Which of the following is not a

the bit common drill shank
B. Burning your fingers
 A. Bit A. Drill being ground improperly
B. Fluted B. Drill being too hot
C. Straight C. Insufficient lubrication
D. Taper D. Any of these

24. Tapered shanks are used on a large 29. The correct cutting angle on a drill
drill presses so that for ordinary work is

A. The drill can be centered more A. 45°

easily B. 50°
B. The drill can be easily forced out C. 59°
of the sleeve with a drift D. 65°
C. The shank can be reground
when worn 30. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut
D. The shank will not turn when at different angles
cutting
A. The drill will not cut
25. When using a drill press the work B. The hole will be larger than the
should be held with drill
C. The hole will be smaller than the
A. The hand drill
B. A gloved hand D. None of these
C. A vise or clamp
D. Pliers 31. If a drill speed is too great, it will

26. A tool bit for cutting an American A. Cut faster

National Thread should be ground B. Close its temper
with a C. Out slower
A. 30° angle D. Not cut
B. 45° angle
C. 60° angle 32. Soda added to water is used for
D. 90° angle cooling instead of plain water
because
27. Center drilling is the operation of
A. It reduces the amount of heat
A. Drilling a center in an odd- generated
shaped of metal B. It improves the finish
B. Drilling and countersinking with a C. It overcomes rusting
tool D. All of these
C. Centering with one tool and
drilling with another
D. Drilling a center in a piece of 33. If the angle on a drill is less than 59°
stock in a drill press
28. When cutting a drill , it will squeal A. The drill will make a larger hole
due to B. The drill will make a smaller hole
 C. The hole will take longer to drill
and more power is required to 39. When measuring a drill for size,
drive the drill measure across the
D. The drill will not center properly
A. Flutes
34. The name of a taper shank used to B. Margins
drill is C. Points
D. Shanks
A. Miller
B. Morse 40. The tool used in precision work to
C. Starrett smooth on enlarge holes is called a
D. Stanley
A. Drift pin
35. The tool used to cut threads on pipe B. Reamer
is called a C. Round out
D. Protractor
A. Pipe tool
B. Pipe stock 41. The size of a drill is stamped on the
C. Pipe vise
D. Pipe cutter A. Flute
B. Margin
36. The instrument used for reshaping a C. Point
grinding wheel that is grounded or D. Shank
cut of round is called
42. The tool used for cleaning files is
A. Wheel aligner called
B. Wheel dresser
C. Wheel emery A. File cleaner
D. Wheel cutter B. File card
C. File oilstone
37. The instrument used to remove old D. Scraper
packing from packing glands and
stuffing boxes are called 43. The metal cutting wedge is
fundamental to the geometry of
A. Packing tools
B. Packing bits A. Head of tools only
C. Gland box clearance B. Power driven tools only
D. Packing screw C. Sheet metal cutting tools only
D. All cutting tools
38. Before drilling a hole in a pipe of
metal it should be 44. Continuous chips are formed when
cutting
A. Center punched A. Brittle materials
B. Marked with chalk B. Ductile materials
C. Protracted C. Amorphous plastic materials
D. Scribed
 D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys 50. A reamer is used to correct the
only
A. Size and roundness of a drilled
45. What is the function of rake angle of hole
a cutting tool? B. Size and position of a drilled hole
C. Finish and position of a drilled
A. To control the chip formation hole
B. To prevent rubbing D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole
C. To determine the profile of too
D. To determine whether the
cutting action is oblique or
orthogonal

46. Back rake angle for a high speed

steel point cutting tool to machine
free cutting brass is

A. 0°
B. 5°
C. 10°
D. 15°

47. The chip removal process is called

A. Extruding
B. Forging
C. Rolling
D. Broaching

48. The non chip removal process is

called

A. Grinding
B. Spinning on lathe
C. Thread cutting
D. Drilling

49. A twist drill has its point thinned in

order to

A. Reduce the hole diameter

B. Increase the rake angle
C. Locate in the center punch mark
D. Reduce the axial feed pressure
 TEST 26

1. _____________ to prevent leakage in D. Packing

dynamic seal.
6. Flexible material used to seal
A. Gaskets pressurized fluids, normally under
B. Seals dynamic condition.
C. Packing
D. Felts A. Nylon
B. Seal
2. Plus or minus of the tolerance is also C. Teflon
called: D. Packing

A. Total Tolerance 7. Which of the following is not a

B. Unilateral Tolerance common term relating to the
C. Bilateral Tolerance classification of fits?
D. None of these
A. Tunking
3. Is the permissible variation of the size B. Snug
of a dimension. C. Medium Force Fit
D. Bound

A. Tolerance 8. The total permissible variation in the

B. Allowance size of a dimension the difference
C. Clearance between the limits of the size.
D. Interference
A. Tolerance
4. When the hole is smaller than the B. Fits
shaft, it will take pressure to put the C. Allowance
parts together. The allowance is said D. Clearance
to be negative and is termed
A. Negative tolerance 9. A device used to prevent leakage of
B. Negative allowance media.
C. Negative fits
D. Interference of metal A. Seal
B. Packing
5. It is used in conjunction with circular C. Teflon
cross sectional members to retain oil D. Graphite
and prevent dirt, foreign particles
and moisture and to permit pressure 10. An oversize hole is produced by a
differential between exterior and drill if
interior of the applied part.
A. Lips of drill are of unequal length
A. Seal B. Fed is too high
B. Gasket
C. Insufficient coolant is used
C. Safety shield D. Cutting speed is too high

11. Cemented carbide tipped tools can
machine metal even when their
cutting elements get healed up to
the temperature of ___________.
A. 1650 C
B. 1400 C
C. 1000 C
D. 1800 C
12. Cemented carbide tools are usually
provided with
A. Positive back rake angle
B. Neutral back rake angle
C. Negative back rake angle
D. Depth of cutter
13. Friction between chip and tool may
be reduced by
A. Increased sliding viscosity
B. Increased shear angle
C. Use of low tool finish
D. None of these
14. The studs used as a coolant in
general machine stop consist of
A. A solution of detergent and
water
B. A straight mineral oil
C. An emulsion of oil and water
D. A chemical solution
15. Milling cutter is sharpened on
A. Tool and cutter grinder
B. Center less grinder
C. Cylindrical grinder
D. Surface grinder
16. Two major factors, which determine
the rpm of milling cutter, are the
material being cut and _________.
A. Number of teeth in cutter
B. Diameter less grinder
C. Time allowed to complete the
job
D. Depth of cutter
17. Gear pumps used in hydraulic
system are used for _________.
A. Low and medium pressure
B. Medium and high pressure
C. Low and high pressure
D. None of the above
18. Electron beam machining process is
quite suitable for a material having
A. High melting point and high
thermal conductivity
B. High melting point and low
thermal conductivity
C. Low melting point and low
thermal conductivity
D. Low melting point and high
thermal conductivity
19. Energy is a/an
A. Artificial abrasive
B. Natural abrasive
C. Type of cloth
D. None of these
20. Grinding is what type of operation?
A. Metal fusing operation
B. Metal powdering operation
C. None of these
D. Metal finish operation
21. Grinding is done wherever
A. Other machining operations
cannot be carried out
B. A large amount of materials is to
be removed
C. High accuracy is required
D. None of these
22. Laser beam machining process is
used to machine __________.
 28. In quick return mechanism of
A. Thicker materials shaping machine the ram stroke
B. Thinner materials length is proportional to
C. Heavier materials
D. None of these A. Slotter arm length
B. Crank length
23. The size of abrasive grains in an C. Ram length
abrasive jet machining varies from D. None of these

A. 60 to 100 microns 29. The usual ratio of forward and return

B. 10 to 50 microns stroke in quick return mechanism of
C. 1 to 5 microns shaping machine is
D. 110 to 150 microns
A. 3:2
24. The Young’s modulus of carbide B. 6:8
tools is about ________. C. 3:1
D. 5:2
A. Three times than for steel
B. Six times than for steel 30. The amount of metal removed by
C. Nine times than for steel honing process is less than
D. None of these __________.

25. Twist drills are usually considered A. 0.125 mm

suitable for machining holes having B. 0.255 mm
a length less than C. 0.015 mm
D. 0.315 mm
A. Two times their diameter
B. Five times their diameter 31. The type and number of bearing to
C. Ten times their diameter be used for spindles of machine tool
D. Fifteen times their diameter depend on

26. A hard grade grinding wheel is A. Type of spindle

suitable for grinding B. Type of machine tool
C. Load on the bearing
A. Hard materials D. None of these
B. Soft materials
C. Both hard and soft materials 32. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of
D. None of these the order _______ in machining work
could be permitted.
27. The relative motion of work piece in
planning is A. -+0.020
B. -+0.010
A. Rotary C. -+0.09
B. Translator D. -+0.05
C. Rotary and translator
D. None of these 33. A tolerance where the size of a part
is permitted to be either large or
smaller than the given dimension.
 A. Bilateral 39. It is the irregularities or departures
B. Unilateral from the nominal surface of greater
C. Lateral spacing than roughness
D. None of these
A. Roughness
34. A tolerance where the size of a part B. Lay
may be larger only or smaller only, C. Smoothness
than the given dimension D. Waviness

A. Bilateral 40. It is the direction of the predominant

B. Unilateral surface pattern
C. Lateral
D. None of these A. Lay
B. Roughness
35. _________ are generally used on C. Smoothness
those dimensions involved in a fit D. Waviness

A. Bilateral 41. The surface finish of micrometer

B. Unilateral anvils in ______ rms.
C. Lateral
D. None of these A. 1
B. 8
36. The ASA fits are based on the C. 16
D. 32
A. Basic Number System
B. Basic Hole System 42. The surface finish of heavy cuts and
C. Basic Size System coarse feed
D. Unit System
A. 80 rms
37. When the hole is smaller than the B. 200 rms
shaft, it will take a force or pressure C. 400 rms
to put the cold part together. The D. 500 or greater rms
allowance is said to be negative
and is termed as: 43. The outbreak of fire can be avoided
by preventing
A. Negative fits of metal
B. Positive fits A. Fuel
C. Interchangeable B. Heat
D. Interference of metal C. Oxygen
D. Any of these
38. Is the relatively finely spaced
44. The square head of a combination
irregularities on the surface
set is used for marking or checking
the engine.
A. Smoothness
B. Lay
A. 90° only
C. Waviness
D. Roughness
B. 90° and 45°
 C. 45° only 48. For general work the cutting angle of
D. Any angle between 0-180° a cold fist chisel is ground at an
angle of
45. Angle plate is made of
A. 35°
A. Cast steel B. 60°
B. Closed grain cast iron C. 70°
C. High speed steel D. 80°
D. Tool steel
49. A new hacksaw blade should not be
46. The eye hole of a hammer head is used to old cut because
made in an oval shape and taper
towards center because A. The blade is very costly
B. The blade has very sharp teeth
A. It is easy for production C. The space is not sufficient to play
B. It is specifically design by experts the new blade in the old cut
C. It accommodates the handle D. None of these
and a wedge for preventing it
D. None of the above

47. The jaws of a long vice are opened

50. Which part of the file is not hardened
A. Parallel to each other A. Body
B. In V form B. Heel
C. In both “A” and “B” C. Point
D. Neither “A” nor “B” D. Ta
 TEST 27

1. In case of a flat scraper, the depth B. Cast iron

of cut s verified C. G. I. sheet
D. Lead
A. Changing its inclination
B. Changing the convexity of the 7. Hardened steel parts have
cutting edge
C. Changing its weight A. Coarse grain
D. None of these B. Fine grains
C. Medium grains
2. Generally spiral fluted reamer has D. None of these
spirals of
8. Concentricity of an outside diameter
A. Left hand can be checked by
B. Right hand
C. Straight A. Dial test indicator
D. None of these B. Outside micrometer
C. Vernier caliper
3. In which screw thread the side = D. Tube micrometer
width of flat = width of space = 0.5p
is termed as 9. Which micrometer has no anvil

A. Acme A. Depth micrometer

B. Buttress B. Outside micrometer
C. Knuckle C. Screw thread micrometer
D. Square D. Digit micrometer
4. A stud is one which:
10. Which micrometer is available with
A. Has threads on one end extension rods
B. Inserted in a plane hole
C. Requires a nut A. Outside micrometer
D. None of these B. Inside micrometer
C. Screw thread micrometer
5. 18-8” stainless steel means: D. Combi micrometer
11. Which gauge is used to check the
A. 18% Tungsten and 8% Chromium internal threads
B. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel
C. 18% Nickel and 8% Chromium A. Plug gauge
D. 18% Chromium and 8% Cobalt B. Ring gauge
C. Thread plug gauge
6. Which is the lightest metal D. Thread ring gauge

12. Limit gauge is made to the _________

A. Aluminum sizes of the work to be measured
 A. Actual and nominal 18. When an external gear is meshed
B. Minimum and maximum with an internal gear the gears will
C. Nominal and lower limit rotate in
D. Nominal and upper limit
A. Opposite direction
13. Lapping is done B. Same direction
C. Will not rotate
A. To finish the job to a fine degree D. None of these
of accuracy
B. To get high quality of surface 19. While soldering the flux is used
finish because
C. To control the size
D. All of these A. It assists for quick melting and
increasing the fluidity of solder
14. In which method a bore is finished to B. It saves the part from oxidation
a very close tolerance C. It takes the molten metal on all
surfaces
A. Lapping D. All of these
B. Honing
C. Grinding 20. A usual ration of soluble oil and
D. Turning water used in coolant is

15. Jig bushing are generally made of A. 1:10

B. 1:20
A. Mild steel C. 10:1
B. Cast iron D. 20:1
C. Brass
D. Tool steel 21. For a given rpm, if the diameter of a
twist drill increases, then cutting
16. Fixture clamps are generally made speed will
of
A. Decrease
A. High carbon steel B. Increase
B. Case hardened mild steel C. Same
C. High speed steel D. None of these
D. Alloy steel
22. An advance motion along the
17. Successfully designing of jigs and longitudinal axis of a twist drill is
fixtures depend upon called

A. Clamping arrangement A. Speed

B. Tool guiding elements B. Feed

C. Manufacturing conditions C. Cutting speed

D. All of these D. None of these
 28. The included angle of a dead center
23. In internal cylindrical grinding, the is
grinding wheel and the work rotate
in A. 30°
B. 45°
A. Sam direction C. 60°
B. Opposite direction D. 90°
C. Neither A or B
D. Both A and B 29. Main alloying element to H.S.S is

24. For grinding materials having low A. Chromium

tensile strength which abrasive is B. Tungsten
used C. Vanadium
D. Nickel
A. Corrundum
B. Aluminum oxide 30. The value of one micron is
C. Emery
D. Silicon carbide A. 1.00 mm
B. 0.10 mm
25. The size of a grinding wheel is taken C. 0.001 mm
from D. 0.001 mm

A. Diameter of wheel 31. For the accurate measurement of

B. Bore size bores , the best instrument is
C. Width of face
D. All of these A. Vernier caliper
B. Inside micrometer
26. Which center is used for supporting C. Plug gauge
open end of pipes, shells etc. while D. Dial test indicator
turning or thread cutting in a lathe
32. Under sine principle the length of
A. Ball center sine bar takes the place of
B. Half center
C. Female center A. Opposite side
D. Pipe center B. Adjacent side
C. Hypotenuse
27. When outside diameter of a job is D. Height
turned in relation to the internal hole,
the job should be held 33. In a hydraulic driven shaper the
metals is removed at
A. In three jaw chuck
B. Between center A. Lower speed
C. On face plate B. Higher speed
D. On lathe mandrel C. Average speed
D. None of these
34. In a shaper the cutting speed C. 2:3
(metric) is expressed in D. 3:2

A. Meter per minute 40. A tipped tool is more useful than

B. Meter per second H.S.S. tool because
C. Meter per hour
D. None of these A. It can resist more heat
B. It can keep the cutting point
35. Amount of automatic feed in shaper sharp
is increased by taking the crank pin C. Cutting speed can be increased
D. All of these
A. At the center of crack disc
B. Towards the center of crack disc 41. The feed in shaper takes place at
C. Away from the center of crack
disc A. At the beginning of return stroke
D. none of these B. The beginning of cutting stroke
C. The middle of return stroke
36. In a shaper the feed (metric) is D. The end of return stroke
usually expressed in
42. Which of the following quick return
A. mm/ stroke mechanisms is most widely used in
B. mm/revolution most of the slotters
C. meter/minute
D. none of these A. Slotter linl and gear mechanism
B. Slotter disc mechanism
37. for cutting gear teeth in a shaper, C. Hydraulic mechanism
the _________ tool is use D. Whitworth mechanism

A. form 43. In a slotter the cutting speed

B. “V” shape depends upon
C. Round nose
D. Gooseneck A. Material to be cut
B. Material of the slotter tool
38. Shaper tool bit should not exceed in C. Finish required
tool holder beyond D. All of these

A. 5mm 44. Convex shaped slotter tools are used

B. 15mm for machining
C. 25mm
D. 50mm A. Concave surface
B. Conical surface
39. The standard ratio of cutting in return C. Flat surface
stroke in shaper is D. Convex surface

A. 3:1
B. 1:3
45. The clamping block to be used in a
slotter to support the end of the strap
is made of

A. H. S. S.
B. High carbon steel
C. Lead
D. Wood
46. The table of the slotter has feeding
movements

A. Longitudinal
B. Cross
C. Rotary
D. All of these

47. Divided table planer has

A. One table
B. One housing
C. Two tables
D. Two housing

48. In a planer the feed is provided

A. At forward stroke
B. At return stroke
C. In between forward stroke
D. In between return stroke

49. In a planer the cutting speed

depends upon

A. Material of job, material of tool

and feed rate
B. RPM of ball gear
C. Depth of cut
D. None of these

50. The planer tool differs from lathe tool

because it has

A. Less front and side clearance

B. More front and side clearance
C. Less rake angle
D. More rake angle
 TEST 28
1. A planer which has a cutting action 6. In a vertical milling machine the
in both strokes in spindle is attached ________ to the
work table
A. Open side planer A. Horizontal
B. Double housing planer B. Angular
C. Pit planer C. Vertical
D. universal planer D. None of the above

2. the straddle milling is done by means 7. Planer type milling machine is built
of two: up for __________ work of:

A. side milling cutters A. Heavy duty

B. plain milling cutters B. Light duty
C. face milling cutters C. Medium duty
D. form cutters D. None of these

3. in a standard dividing head the 8. In a straddle milling operation how

ration between the worm wheel and many cutters are used to mill the
the worm is work

A. 10:1 A. One
B. 20:1 B. Two
C. 30:1 C. Three or more
D. 40:1 D. Any one of these

4. In a standard dividing head 3 inches 9. For gear cutting which cutter is used
in 27 holes circle will index:
A. End mill cutter
A. 1° B. Form relief cutter
B. 4° C. Plain milling cutter
C. 2° D. All of these
D. 6°
10. In a slotter, the table gets ______
5. There are two different movements different feeds
of the crank in:
A. One
A. Simple indexing B. Two
B. Compound indexing C. Three
C. Differential indexing D. None of these
D. Angular indexing
11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is
5°, the lip (wedge) angle in 75°, the
rake angle will be
 A. 10° A. During down cut milling with a
B. 70° straight tooth cutter
C. 80° B. During face milling with a straight
D. None of these tooth cutter
C. During up cut milling with a
12. The approximate hardness of HSS straight tooth cutter
end mill cutter is: D. When using spiral tooth cutter

A. 45 HRC 17. Taps are re-sharpened by grinding

B. 52 HRC
C. 62 HRC A. Threads
D. 72 HRC B. Flutes
C. Diameter
13. The over arm of a milling machine is D. Relief
used to support
18. Grinding fluids are used to
A. Arbor
B. Spindle A. Reduce the friction between the
C. Column wheel face and the job
D. Table B. Lubricate
C. Prevent loading of wheel
14. Where does the feed motion takes D. All of these
place in a slotting machine
19. Balancing of grinding wheel is done
A. During the cutting motion to:
B. After each forward stroke
C. At the end of the return motion A. Make the outside diameter
D. After each double stroke concentric with the bore
B. Make the sides of the wheel
15. Which of the following conditions parallel
may cause error during knurling C. Equalize the weight in very
portion of the wheel
A. Surface speed too low D. None of these
B. Clamped length and toll too
short 20. A grinding wheel which has got the
C. Too much longitudinal feed marking °C, is made with the
D. Unnecessary support with tool abrasive
stock center A. Aluminum oxide
B. Silicon carbide
16. Mark the milling method during C. Combination of A and B
which the formation of chatter marks D. Corrundum
is very likely:
21. Which bond is suitable for wet
grinding
 A. Rubber 27. Mark the cutter which works
B. Shellac simultaneously with the up cut and
C. Silicate down cut process
D. None of these
A. Side milling cutter
22. Which kind of bond is commonly B. Shell and milling cutter
used C. Semi – circular milling cutter
D. Plain milling cutter
A. Vitrified
B. Rubber 28. What happens if the job is loosely
C. Shellac fitted between centers in cylindrical
D. Silicon grindings?

23. The grade is of grinding wheel A. The job will be out of round
depends upon: B. The job will be oversize
C. The job will be thrown out
A. Grain size D. The job will not rotate
B. Hardness of bond
C. Kind of abrasive 29. Where does the relieved cutters are
D. Structure reground
A. On the circumstances
24. One of the causes of grinding wheel B. Relieved cutters are not
glazing is reground
C. On the flank
A. Grain size is too fine D. On the side faces
B. Wheel is hard
C. Wheel speed is too fast 30. Used for scribing large radius of
D. “A” and “B” both circles and arcs
A. Compass
25. Which of the following is used in B. Protractor
cleaning the gage blocks before C. Ruler
and after use D. Trammel
A. Brush
B. Chamois leather or linen cloth 31. Which of the following has its angle
C. Cotton waste 30° and is used for giving impression
D. None of these on soft metals?

26. Internal and external taper on A. Center punch

cylindrical jobs are ground in B. Dot punch
A. Plain cylindrical grinding C. Prick punch
machine D. Hollow punch
B. Universal cylindrical grinding
machine 32. Which of the following has its angle
C. Internal grinding machine 60° and is used for dotting after
D. Centerless grinding machine marking the lines on general works?
 A. Center punch
B. Dot punch A. Should be easy to handle
C. Hollow punch B. Should be easy to read
D. Prick punch C. Should be wear resistance
D. All of these
33. Which of the following has its angle
90° and is used to give deep marks 39. The flatness of surface can be
to the location of drill checked

A. Center punch A. By using a straight edge

B. Dot punch B. By using a surface plate
C. Hollow punch C. By using a dial test indicator
D. Prick punch D. All of these

34. It is used on soft metals and non- 40. It is an operation in which round rod
metals for making holes is placed between the top and
A. Center punch bottom swages and hammered to
B. Dot punch remove the bends and marks
C. Hollow punch
D. Prick punch A. Bending
B. Peening
35. Reasons why cast iron is selected for C. Swaging
the manufacture of surface plate D. Upsetting

A. It is easy for machinery 41. A notching/ holding device which is

B. It is cheaper used to hold, or grip work place
C. It has less wear and tear while filing, chipping or any other
D. All of these bench work or when machining or
drilling them
36. The common measuring tools are
A. Vise
A. Steel rule B. Clamp
B. Vernier caliper C. Grip
C. Micrometer D. Pressed
D. All of these
42. A multi pointed hand anything tool
37. It is an operation of stretching or used to remove material from
spreading over the metal by means metallic non- metallic work places to
of the plane of the hammer match withdrawing shape and size

A. Peening A. Cold chisel

B. Swaging B. File
C. Bending C. Hacksaw
D. Upsetting D. none of these

38. The good quality of a measuring tool

43. a side cutting tool used for A. Wrought iron
accurately finishing the straight or B. Cast iron
tapered holes already drilled or C. Pig iron
bored D. Gray iron

A. Reamer 49. A type of iron, which contains 3 to

B. Swaging 3.5 % carbon either in combined
C. Peening form or in free state
D. Tapping
A. Wrought iron
44. A device used to fix two or more B. Cast iron
parts C. Pig iron
D. Gray iron
A. Jigs
B. Fixtures 50. Which of the following furnace is
C. Fastener used for manufacture of cast iron
D. Clamp
A. Cupola furnace
45. A machine element inserted parallel B. Crucible furnace
to the axis of a shaft C. Electric furnace
D. all of these
A. Fastener
B. Cotter
C. Key
D. None of these

46. A machine element inserted at right

angle to the axis shaft is known as

A. Fastener
B. Cotter
C. Key
D. Clamp

47. The process of extracting iron in a

blast is called

A. Sintering
B. Smelting
C. Casting
D. Manufacturing

48. Which of the following is a product

of blast furnace
 TEST 29
1.) A product of padding furnace, 6.) ___________ gives greater hardness
which contains less than 0.10% and resistance to forging and
carbon, is called drawing

A. Wrought Iron A. Molybdenum

B. Cast Iron B. Vanadium
C. Pig Iron C. Tungsten
D. Gray cast Iron D. Cobalt

2.) Which of the following is a property 7.) __________ improves the cutting
of wrought iron? quality and gives excellent magnetic
property in the steel
A. Ductile
B. Brittle A. Cobalt
C. Cannot be forged B. Molybdenum
D. Can be easily cast into different C. Nickel
shapes D. Chromium
3.) Which of the following gives greater
hardness, cutting toughness and fine 8.) It is an operation involving heating
grain structure? and cooling of metals to change
the properties
A. Chromium
B. Nickel A. Annealing
C. Tungsten B. Nitriding
D. Vanadium C. Tempering
D. Heat Treatment
4.) Which of the following gives greater
hardness, cutting toughness and 9.) It is a process to impact maximum
resistance to wear and tear? hardness to the steel part.

A. Chromium A. Hardening
B. Tungsten B. Tempering
C. Nickel C. Annealing
D. Vanadium D. Normalizing
5.) Which of the following raises the
tensile strength, protects from 10.) It is a process to reduce some
corrosion and improves wearing brittleness and to induce some
property? toughness in the steel part

A. Cobalt A. Case Hardening

B. Nickel B. Normalizing
C. Molybdenum C. Annealing
D. Tungsten D. Tempering
11.) It is a process to soft the steel part by A. Basic size
removing the internal stress B. Actual size
C. Nominal size
A. Normalizing D. Effective size
B. Annealing
C. Tempering 17.) The size in relation to which all limits
D. Hardening of variation is made.

12.) It is process to make the steel part to A. Actual size

its normal range B. Basic size
C. Effective size
A. Annealing D. Nominal size
B. Normalizing
C. Case Hardening 18.) The relation between two mating
D. Tempering parts with reference to ease the
assembly is called
13.) It is the process for making the outer
surface harder of the steel part A. Allowance
B. Clearance
A. Flame Hardening C. Tolerance
B. Hardening D. Fits
C. Case Hardening
D. Carburizing 19.) Two extreme permissible sizes of a
dimension
14.) It is a case hardening process by
which the carbon content of the A. Boundary
steel near the surface of a part is B. Limits
increased C. Tolerance
D. Allowance
A. Nitriding
B. Tempering 20.) __________ is the difference between
C. Carburizing the high and low limit of size
D. Flame Hardening
A. Clearance
15.) It is a case hardening process in B. Allowance
which work piece is heated in a C. Tolerance
stream of ammonia at 500 to 550°C D. Fits

A. Carburizing 21.) It is the intentional difference in the

B. Nitriding sizes of mating parts
C. Tempering
D. Normalizing A. Allowance
B. Clearance
16.) The size by which it is referred to as a C. Limits
matter of convenience called D. Tolerance
22.) It is an operation of finishing the flat 27.) If the belt is loosely fitted on pulleys,
and cylindrical surfaces to a fine _________ slips down.
degree of accuracy
A. Creep
A. Lapping B. Crowning
B. Shaping C. Dressing
C. Planing D. Slip
D. Honing
28.) It is the outer surface of face or rim
23.) It is an operation of finishing the flat of the pulley and made in convex
and cylindrical surfaces to a fine form to keep the belt in center when
degree of accuracy by means of it is in motion
abrasive sticks
A. Crowning
A. Lapping B. Dressing
B. Planing C. Creep
C. Shaping D. Slip
D. Honing
29.) To avoid slip or creep, the resin
24.) It is a device, which hold the job in powder or paste is poured in
position and guide the cutting tool. between the outer surface of pulley
and belt for increasing at tension.
A. Clamp This process is known as
B. Jig
C. Vise A. Crowning
D. Grip B. Dressing
C. Creep
25.) It is a device, which hold the job D. Slip
firmly
30.) It is used to transmit motion at high
A. Clamp speed without producing noise
B. Grip
C. Fixture A. Bevel gears
D. Jig B. Hypoid Gears
C. Helical Gears
26.) The movement of belt upon the face D. Worm Gears
of rim or outer of the driver and
driven pulleys within the area of arc 31.) It is used to transmit motion at high
of contact is called speed with heavy load without
producing noise
A. Slip
B. Creep A. Worm gear
C. Crowning B. Herring bone gear
D. Dressing C. Bevel gear
D. Spur gear
32.) It is used to connect and disconnect 37.) It is a process by which the length of
the driving and driven units a work place is increased by
reducing its cross section area.
A. Brake
B. Spring A. Drawing out
C. Clutch B. Drifting
D. Coupling C. Jumping
D. Upsetting
33.) It connects the shafts with soft
materials such as rubber, leather 38.) It is a process by which the length of
and canvas a work piece is reduced

A. Universal coupling A. Upsetting

B. Flexible coupling B. Drawing out
C. Rigid coupling C. Drifting
D. Oldham coupling D. Jumping

34.) What is used to connect the shafts 39.) Refers to the process of bulging on
whose axes are intersecting one end of a work piece to bring a
required shape
A. Rigid coupling
B. Oldham coupling A. Bending
C. Flexible coupling B. Upsetting
D. Universal coupling C. Drifting
D. Jumping

35.) It is generally used on high speed 40.) It is a process of enlarging and

with light load because it has point smoothening the punched hole by
contact means of tapered drifts of various
sizes and shapes
A. Ball bearing
B. Roller bearing A. Drifting
C. Metal bearing B. Jumping
D. Wood bearing C. Drawing out
D. Upsetting
36.) It is generally used on high speed
with heavy load because it has line 41.) It is a machine tool used to remove
contact metal from a work piece to give it
the required shape and size
A. Plastic bearing
B. Metal bearing A. Drill press
C. Roller bearing B. Lathe
D. Ball bearing C. Shaper
D. Planer
42.) It is a set of gears fitted in different
positions on a plate, which are 47.) The center that is fitted in headstock
controlled by a lever spindle called

A. Gear train A. Dead Center

B. Stud Gear B. Live Center
C. Tumbler Gear C. Above Center
D. Differential Gear D. Below Center
43.) It moves on the lathe bed with
cutting tool according to the 48.) A center, which is fitted in tailstock
rotation of lead screw or by hand spindle called
traversing wheel
A. Dead Center
A. Apron B. Live Center
B. Compound rest C. Above Center
C. Saddle D. Below Center
D. Mandrel 49.) It is a machine tool used to produce
flat surfaces, which may be
44.) It acts the carriage or compound horizontal, vertical or inclined
rest through the mechanism lifted
inside the __________ A. Planer
B. Slotter
A. Saddle C. Shaper
B. Apron D. Milling
C. Compound
D. Mandrel 50.) Which of the following gives shearing
action
45.) It gives the cutting tool longitudinal
feed, cross feed or angular feed A. Slide rake
B. Top rake
A. Compound rest C. Side clearance
B. Apron D. Front clearance
C. Saddle
D. Carriers
46.) A holding device used to hold the
job properly when turning the outer
surface truly with the finished hole
called

A. Clamp
B. Fixture
C. Jig
D. Mandrel
 TEST 30 A. Planer
B. Shaper
1.) What supports the top rake? C. Slotter
D. Lathe
A. Front Clearance
B. Side Clearance 7.) It is a machine tool used to machine
C. Slide Rake plane curved surfaced, slots,
D. None of these grooves, teeth, with fast rotating
multipoint cutter
2.) What supports for free feeding
A. Milling
A. Side rake B. Planer
B. Side clearance C. Shaper
C. Front clearance D. Grinder
D. Top rake
8.) It is also known as conventional
3.) Which of the following reduces the milling in which the rotation of the
rubbing action? cutter is in the direction opposite to
the direction of the table movement
A. Front clearance
B. Side clearance A. Down-milling
C. Slide rake B. Up-milling
D. Top rake C. Standard milling
D. Gang milling
4.) It is a type of reciprocating type
machine tool used for machining 9.) It is also known as climb milling in
flat, cylindrical, and irregular which the rotation of the cutter and
surfaces. the movement to the table is in the
same direction
A. Planer
B. Shaper A. Gang milling
C. Slotter B. Down milling
D. Lathe C. Up milling
D. Straddle milling
5.) Which of the following is used for all
general purposes? 10.) It is an operation of milling the
complex surfaces with the help of a
A. Production process group of cutters mounted on the
B. Puncher slotter same arbor
C. Tool room slotter
D. None of these A. Gang milling
B. Straddle milling
6.) A machine tool used for large C. Climb milling
construction D. Down milling
11.) It is an operation of milling two 16.) The angle formed between the face
opposite sides of work piece at a of a tool and the work surface or
time by using two side milling cutters tangent to the work at a point of
on the same arbor contact with the tool called

A. Gang milling A. Clearance angle

B. Straddle milling B. Cutting angle
C. Side milling C. Rake angle
D. Face milling D. Wedge angle

12.) It is an attachment to the milling 17.) It is a device, which is used to

machine, which helps to divide the change the shape of a piece by
job periphery into a number of equal removing material in the form of
divisions chips

A. Index A. Cutting tool

B. Dividing head B. Machine tool
C. Slotting C. Chisel
D. Universal spiral D. Hacksaw

13.) It is an operation to produce narrow 18.) The angle formed the face and the
slots or grooves using a slitting saw normal to the work piece at the
milling cutter point of contact with the tool

A. Saw milling A. Clearance angle

B. Form milling B. Cutting angle
C. End milling C. Wedge angle
D. Side milling D. Rake angle

14.) It is an operation to produce 19.) The angle formed between the face
irregular contours using a form cutter and the clearance surface

A. Face milling A. Wedge angle

B. Form milling B. Rake angle
C. Side milling C. Clearance angle
D. End milling D. Cutting angle

15.) It is an operation to divide the 20.) The angle formed between the
periphery of the job into number of clearance surface and the work
equal parts accurately surface or the tangent to the work
piece at the point of contact with
A. Dividing head the tool
B. Indexing
C. Slotting A. Clearance angle
D. None of these B. Wedge angle
 C. Rake angle A. Full round nose
D. Cutting angle B. Half round nose
C. Square nose
21.) The best method of avoiding D. Rectangular
accident is by observing __________
related to job, machine and work 27.) Staggering of hacksaw blade teeth
piece. on both sides alternatively is called

A. Emery A. Positioning to teeth

B. Opponent B. Arrangement of teeth
C. Safety precautions C. Setting of teeth
D. Cleanliness D. None of these

22.) The size of try square is measured 28.) The size of a flat file is measured from
from the inner edge of stock to the ________ to heel of the file
end of its _______.
A. Edge
A. Base B. Base
B. Blade C. Tip
C. Edge D. Body
D. Body
29.) The triangular scraper has _______
23.) Angle of center punch is sharp cutting edges

A. 30° A. One
B. 45° B. Two
C. 60° C. Three
D. 90° D. Four

24.) Mallets are made of ________. 30.) Reamer should also be turned in
_________ direction when taking it
A. Hardwood out
B. Soft wood
C. Steel A. Same direction
D. Cast iron B. Opposite direction
C. Clockwise direction
25.) The size of the bench vise is D. Counterclockwise
measured from the ______ of its jaws
31.) It is the distance measured to the
A. Width axis from a point on a screw thread
B. Length to the corresponding point on the
C. Thickness next thread
D. Curvature
A. Lead
26.) For cutting oil grooves in bearing B. Pitch
_____ chisel is used
 C. Linear
D. Chord 37.) A ___________ gage is used to check
the clearance between the mating
32.) Cupola furnace is used to produce parts
_______.
A. Feeler
A. Cast iron B. Plug
B. Cast steel C. Tap
C. Aluminum D. Dial
D. Stainless steel
38.) A __________ gage is used to check
33.) Percentage of carbon in high the size of hole/bore
carbon steel is
A. Feeler
A. 0.10% to 0.50% B. Plug
B. 0.70% to 1.5% C. Tap
C. 3% to 7% D. Dial
D. 5% to 10%
39.) The difference between the high
34.) It is done to decrease the brittleness limit and the low limit of a size is
and to increase the toughness called

A. Annealing A. Allowance
B. Normalizing B. Clearance
C. Tempering C. Boundary
D. Nitriding D. Tolerance

35.) Ratchet stop is attached with

micrometer to measure the 40.) An intentional difference between
accurate reading by applying the hole and the shaft dimension for
_______ pressure irrespective of users any type of fit is called
skill and strength
A. Allowance
A. Atmospheric B. Clearance
B. Gage C. Tolerance
C. Uniform D. Range
D. Variable
41.) The material for taps should always
36.) A hole, which is drilled for a be _________ than the material of
particular size of a tap, is called part to be tapped

A. Drilling hole A. Harder

B. Reaming hole B. Shorter
C. Tapping hole C. Softer
D. Plugging hole D. Longer
42.) Jigs are generally used for holding A. Gage temperature
the job and __________ the tool B. Lower temperature
C. Higher temperature
A. Support D. Absolute Temperature
B. Guide
C. Control 48.) When hard material is to be drilled,
D. Regulate the cutting angle of the drill should
be _____ 118°
43.) Measuring and other selling methods
can be eliminated by using A. Less than
_________ and fixtures B. Equal to
C. More than
A. Guide D. Either more than or less than
B. Support
C. Jigs 49.) If the taper shank of the drill is too
D. Structure large as compared to the spindle
hole, the __________ is used.
44.) When two or more tools are to be
used through the same hole then A. Drill socket
__________ bushes are used in jigs B. Planer
C. Electric drill
A. Positive slip D. Copping saw
B. Negative slip
C. Friction 50.) What is the lip clearance angle of
D. Slip twist drill for generated work?

45.) The __________ gears are used for A. 3 – 6°

changing the plane direction B. 8 – 10°
C. 12 – 15°
A. Spur D. 18 – 22°
B. Helical
C. Worm
D. Bevel

46.) Solder is an alloy of _________

A. Lead and zinc

B. Lead and tin
C. Lead and tungsten
D. Lead and antimony

47.) Flash point is the __________ at which

the sufficient vapor is given off from
the oil without actual setting fire to
the oil
TEST 31
1. A machine for shaping a work piece
by gripping it in a holding device and A. Planning
rotating it under power against a B. Shaping
suitable tool for turning, boring facing or C. Broaching
threading. D. Milling

A. Shaper 6. It is a device, usually motor-driven,

B. Lathe fitted with an end cutting tool that is
C. Planer rotated with sufficient power either to
D. Engine Lathe create a hole to enlarge an existing hole
in a solid material.
2. A machine for the removal of metal
by feeding a work piece through the A. Drill jigs
periphery of a rotating circular cutter. B. Drill press
C. Drill chuck
A. Milling Machine D. Drilling machine
B. Milling Planer
C. Milling Cutter 7. It is a machine tool designed to
D. Milling Shaper machine internal work such as cylinders,
holes in castings, and dies, types are
3. It is a machine tool used for cutting horizontal, vertical jig, and single.
flat-on-flat an-toured surfaces by
reciprocating a single-point tool across A. Boring machine
the work piece. B. Broaching machine
C. Drilling machine
A. Planer D. Boring mill
B. Shearing machine
C. Shaper 8. It is a milling method in which parts
D. Slab cutter placed in a row parallel to the axis of
the cutting tool end are milled
4. It is the machine used for shaping of simultaneously.
long, flat or flat contoured surfaces by
reciprocating the work piece under a A. Abreast milling
stationary single-point tool or tools. B. Angular milling
C. Helical milling
A. Planer D. None of these
B. Shaper
C. Lathe
D. Turret Lathe 9. A core drill with hardened steel shot
pellets that revolve under the rim of the
rotating tube, employed in rotary drilling
in every hard ground.
5. It is the machine used for shaping of A. Automatic drill
metal or plastic by pushing or pulling a B. Double core barrel drill
broaching across a surface or through C. Flat drill
an existing hole in a work piece. D. Adamantine Drill
10. The part of a machine for wood 15. A machine used for forcing an arbor
planning that carries the cutters. or a mandrel into drilled or bored parts
preparatory to turning or grinding
A. Adz stock
B. Adz block A. Automatic press
C. Head stock B. Bladder press
D. Heel block C. Arc press
D. Arbor press
11. A grinding mill of large diameter with
either lumps of ore, pebbles, or steel 16. A solids grinder and the product is a
balls as crushing bodies the dry lead is fine powder
swept to remove mesh material.
A. Atomizer mill
A. Aero fall mill B. Autogenous mill
B. Aero motor C. Attrition mill
C. Aerial speed D. Ball mill
D. Ball mill
17. A machine in which material are
12. A tool-steel cutter used for finishing pulverized between two toothed metal
surfaces of angles greater or less than disks rotating in opposite directions.
90° with its axis of rotation is called
________. A. Attrition mill
B. Tumbling mill
A. Circular cutter C. Ball mill
B. Helical cutter D. Beater mill
C. Angle cutter
D. Asphalt cutter 18. A straight brace for bits whose shank
comprises a coarse-pitch screws sliding
13. Milling surfaces that are flat and at in a threaded tube with a handle at the
an angle to the axis of the spindle of the end of the device is operated by
milling machine called pushing the handle called

A. Hammer milling A. Automatic capacity

B. Helical milling B. Automatic drill
C. Angular milling C. Automatic regulator
D. Circular milling D. Automatic stocker
19. A press in which mechanical feeding
14. It is a hole in revolving cutter or of the work is synchronized with the press
grinder wheel for mounting it on an action.
arbor.
A. Dial press
A. Hole saw B. Punch press
B. Arbor hole C. Automatic press
C. Star drill D. Manual press
D. Peep hole
20. A supporting member that carries a 25. Slightly rounding a cutting edge to
wheel and either rotates with the wheel reduce the probability of edge chipping
to transmit mechanical power to or from is referred to as
it, or blows the wheel to rotate freely on
it is called A. Broaching
B. Butting
A. Shaft C. Blunting
B. Axle D. Bleaching
C. Bushing
D. Coupling 26. A rigid tool holder to machine
internal surfaces is called:
21. A portable sanding tool having a
power-driven abrasive coated A. Boring bar
continuous belt is called B. Boring mill
C. Broaching machine
A. Bench sander D. Corrugated bar
B. Belt heightener
C. Gear sander 27. Which of the following is a boring
D. Belt sander machine tool used particularly for large
work piece, types are horizontal and
22. A machine for bending a metal or vertical?
wood part by pressure is known as
A. Boring mill
A. Pressing machine B. Burrstone mill
B. Bending machine C. Cage mill
C. Forming machine D. Chile mill
D. Shaping machine
28. A flat-ended twist drill designed to
23. A machine, which simultaneously convert a cone at the bottom of a
molds and cures a pneumatic tire is drilled hole into a cylinder is called
called
A. Churn drill
A. Bladder press B. Core drill
B. Crank press C. Bottoming drill
C. Automatic press D. Spiral drill
D. Manual press
29. A tap with a chamfer 1-1½ threads in
24. A file whose edges are parallel is length
known as
A. Center tap
B. Bottom tap
A. Crochet file C. Taper tap
B. Cross cut file D. Plug tap
C. Equaling file
D. Blunt file
30. A small portable hand drill A. Displacement
customarily used by hand setters to drill B. Tolerance
holes in breast called C. Allowance
D. Clearance
A. Diamond drill
B. Spiral drill 36. Rocker arm is a _______ part of
C. Churn drill shaper
D. Breast drill
A. Oscillating
31. In _________ type shaper, the B. Reciprocating
reciprocating movement of the arm is C. Moving
affected by means of a rack and pinion. D. Running

A. Gear 37. In a shaper, the _______ strokes takes

B. Thread place.
C. Screw
D. Bolt A. Backward
B. Forward
32. In hydraulic shaper the reciprocating C. Return
movement of the arm is obtained D. Cutting
through ______ pressure.
38. In shaper, the tool is fed at the end of
A. Mercury _______ stroke.
B. Oil
C. Water A. Cutting
D. Alcohol B. Return
C. Backward
33. A job, which is fixed away from the D. Forward
table, can be machined by
39. Generally, shaper tool cuts metal on
A. Running head the ______ stroke.
B. Moving head
C. Traveling head A. Backward
D. Static head B. Cutting
C. Forward
34. The stroke positioning lever is located D. Return
on the _________ of shaper.
40. Generally, shaper is used for
A. Lever machining ________ surfaces.
B. Table
C. Ram A. Curve
D. Chunk B. Flat
C. Rough
35. The length of a shaper stroke is the D. Smooth
length of the job plus _________.
41. Shaper tools are made of
 D. Large
A. Mild steel
B. Cast iron 47. Snagging is the form of ________
C. High speed steel grinding.
D. Wrought iron
A. Hard
42. For machining cast iron in shaper, the B. Rough
tool ground with ______ rake angle. C. Soft
D. Smooth
A. Negative
B. Positive 48. Carbide and ceramic tools are
C. 30° ground on ______ grinding wheel.
D. 45°
A. Fine grain
43. Which of the following best describe B. Hard
a milling machine? C. Soft
D. Diamond
A. It is a machine equipment
B. It is a machine tool 49. The term ________ means that
C. It is a machine device particle of metal are adhering to the
D. It is a machine apparatus cutting faces of the grinding wheel.

44. The quick return mechanism is slotter A. Loading

is provided in order to save the time in B. Feeding
________ stroke. C. Rating
D. Grinding
A. Backward
B. Forward 50. In ________ jaw chuck each jaw can
C. Cutting be adjusted independently.
D. Return
A. Five
45. An arbor is used to _______ an drive B. Two
the milling cutter. C. Three
D. Four
A. Guide
B. Hold

C. Control
D. Support

46. A puncher slotter is used for ______

stock removal.

A. Light
B. Heavy
C. Small
 TEST 32
6. A device for holding grinding wheels
1. Refers to the unit that can be moved of special shape or the working piece
longitudinally along the swivel table and being grounded.
is clamped in position by two bolts one
on either side of the base. A. Head stock
B. Fixtures
A. Foot stock C. Jigs
B. Head stock D. Chuck
C. Tail stock
D. Cross stock 7. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or
tap.
2. An instrument used for determining
the relative hardness of materials by a A. Fluting
drop and rebound method. B. Flaring
C. Lapping
A. Scleroscope D. Honing
B. Rockwell Hardness Tester
C. Universal Testing Machine 8. The dulling of the cutting particles of a
D. Brinell Hardness Tester grinding wheel resulting in a decreased
rate of cutting is called.
3. An instrument used for measuring the
degree of surface roughness in micro A. Grinding
inches. B. Glazing
C. Fluting
A. Caliper D. Lapping
B. Micrometer
C. Profilometer 9. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues
D. Scleroscope from casting is termed as

4. Refers to the portion of the A. Honing

circumference of a grinding wheel B. Tumbling
touching the work being ground. C. Snagging
D. Truing
A. Area of contact
B. Arc of contact 10. The process of increasing the cross-
C. Angle of contact sectional area of a given portion or
D. Contact ratio possibly of the whole piece.

5. The spindle of the grinding machine A. Forging

on which the wheel is mounted B. Upsetting
C. Spreading
A. Bushing D. Drawing
B. Arbor
C. Bearing
D. Fluting
11. The process of lengthening a piece A. Heel
of stock while the cross-sectional area is B. Land
being reduced. C. Flute
D. Thread relief
A. Tapping
B. Honing 17. The process of cutting internal
C. Drawing threads by means of a cutting tool.
D. Upsetting
A. Tapping
12. An alloy of copper, tin and antimony. B. Reaming
C. Chamfering
A. Bearing D. Honing
B. Babbit
C. Iconel 18. The operation of producing a
D. Tantanium circular hole by removing solid metal.

13. Sometimes used for soldering bright A. Knurling

tin. B. Reaming
C. Boring
A. Tallow D. Drilling
B. Sal ammonia
C. Tinning 19. The surface below the cutting edge
D. Rosin
A. Face
14. A very effective flux for soldering B. Flank
galvanized iron and zinc. C. Nose
D. Side relief
A. Soldering pastes
B. Muriatic acid 20. The surface below over which the
C. Zinc chloride chip flows.
D. Cut acid
A. Face
15. The process of checking the surface B. Flank
of a piece by rolling depressions into the C. Nose
surface. D. None of these

A. Honing 21. It measures the downward slope of

B. Knurling the top surface of the tool from the nose
C. Snagging to the rear along the longitudinal.
D. Reaming
A. Side cutting edge angle
16. The groove providing for the cutting B. End relief angle
faces of the threads or teeth, chip C. Side rake angle
passage and lubrication. D. Back rake angle
22. Which one is the hardness material? A. Drill chuck
B. Chuck key
A. Steel C. Floating holder
B. Diamond D. Magic chuck
C. Bronze
D. Brass 28. Continuous chips are formed when
cutting
23. It measures the slope of top surface
of the tool to the side in a direction A. Brittle materials
perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. B. Ductile materials
C. Amorphous plastic materials
A. Side rake angle D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
B. Side cutting edge angle
C. Side relief edge angle 29. The rake angle of a cutting tool.
D. End relief angle
A. Controls the chip formation
24. A type of bonding material, which is B. Prevents rubbing
made of clay and water. C. Determine the profile of load
D. Determine the whether the
A. Resinoid bond cutting action is oblique or
B. Vitrified bond orthogonal
C. Shellac bond
D. Rubber bond 30. Back rake angle for HSS single point
cutting tool to machine free cutting
25. The process of producing an brass is
extremely accurate highly finished
surface. A. 0°
B. 5°
A. Lapping C. 10°
B. Buffing D. 15°
C. Polishing
D. Honing 31. In the list of process given below, the
chip removal process is the
26. It is surface finishing process by which
scratches and toll marks are removed A. Die casting
with a polishing wheel. B. Extruding
C. Forging
A. Honing D. Broaching
B. Lapping
C. Polishing 32. The twist drill has its point thinned in
D. Buffing order to
A. Reduce the hole diameter
27. It is used for holding straight shank B. Increase the rake angle
drills in the spindle of the machine when C. Locate in the center punch mark
drilling. D. Reduce the axial pressure
33. In the list of process given below, the A. 112°
non-chip removal process is B. 116°
C. 118°
A. Grinding D. 120°
B. Spinning on lathe
C. Thread cutting 39. The cutting speed of HSS twist drill to
D. Milling machine gray cast iron is

34. A reamer is used to correct the A. 10-20 m/min

B. 15-25 m/min
A. Size and roundness of a drilled C. 20-30 m/min
hole D. 25-40 m/min
B. Size and position of a drilled hole
C. Finish and position of a drilled hole 40. The recommended value of rake
D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole angle for machining aluminum with
cutting tools made up of diamond tool.
35. An oversize hole is produced by a
drill if A. 0°
B. 15°
A. Lips of drill are of unequal length C. 35°
B. Feed is too high D. 45°
C. Insufficient coolant is used
D. Cutting speed is too high 41. The cutting speeds of HSS milling
cutter to machine aluminum is
36. Cemented carbide tipped tools can
machine metal even when their cutting A. 140-200 m/min
elements get heated up to a B. 160-220 m/min
temperature of C. 180-240 m/min
D. 200-260 m/min
A. 1650°C
B. 1000°C 42. The major factors, which determine
C. 1400°C the rpm of milling cutter, are the
D. 1800°C material being cut and the ________.

37. Cemented carbide tools are usually A. Number of teeth in cutter

provided with: B. Diameter of cutter
C. Time allowed to complete the job
A. Positive back rake angle D. Depth of cutter
B. Neutral back rake angle
C. Negative back rake angle 43. Friction between chip and tool may
D. None of these be reduced by

38. The point angle of twist drill to A. Increasing sliding

machine is B. Increased shear angle
C. Use of low tool finish
D. None of these

44. The studs used as a coolant machine
shop consists of
A. Solution of detergent and water
B. A straight mineral oil
C. An emulsion of oil and water
D. A chemical solution
A. Below recrystallization
temperature
B. Above recrystallization
temperature
C. Below normal temperature
D. Above normal temperature
49. Grinding is

A. Metal fusion operation

45. The recommended value of rake B. Metal powdering operation
angle for machine aluminum with C. Metal finishing operation
cutting tools made up of high speed D. None of these
steel tool.

A. 5° 50. Grinding is done wherever

B. 10°
C. 15° A. Other machining operation
D. 35° cannot be carried out
B. A large amount of material is to
46. Milling cutter is sharpened on be removed
C. High accuracy is required
A. Tool and cutter grinder D. None of these
B. Cylindrical grinder
C. Centerless grinder
D. Surface grinder

47. Electron beam machining process is

quite suitable for a material having

A. High melting point and high

thermal conductivity
B. High melting point and low
thermal conductivity
C. Low melting point and low
thermal conductivity
D. Low melting point and high
thermal conductivity

48. A process can be considered as a

hot working process if the material is
heated.
 TEST 33 6. Twist drills are made usually
considered suitable machining holes
having a length less than
1. The recommended value of the rake
A. Two times their diameter
angle for machining aluminum with
B. Five times their diameter
cutting tools made up of cemented
C. Ten times their diameter
carbide tool
D. Twenty times their diameter
A. 5°
7. A hard grade grinding wheel is
B. 10°
suitable for grinding
C. 15°
D. 25°
A. Hard materials
B. Soft materials
2. Laser beam machining process is used
C. Both materials
to machine
D. None of these
A. Thicker materials
8. The relative motion of work piece in
B. Thinner materials
planning is
C. Heavier materials
D. Stronger materials
A. Rotary
B. Translatory
3. The size of abrasive grains in abrasive
C. Rotary and translator
a jet machining varies from
D. None of these
A. 60 to 100 microns
9. The accuracy obtained by the
B. 10 to 50 microns
grinding process can be of the order of
C. 1 to 5 microns
D. 20 to 40 microns
A. 0.25 mm
B. 0.025 mm
4. In collet, the included angle of taper is
C. 0.0025 mm
usually
D. 0.00025 mm
A. 10°
10. In quick return mechanism of
B. 20°
shaping machine, the ram stroke length
C. 30°
is proportional to
D. 40°

A. Slotter arm length

5. Straight fluted drill are used to drill
B. Crank length
_________ materials
C. Ram length
D. None of these
A. Soft
B. Hard
11. The usual ratio of forward and return
C. Thin
stroke in quick return mechanism of
D. Thick
shaping machine is
 A. 3:2 A. Type of spindle
B. 3:1 B. Type of machine tool
C. 3:4 C. Load on the bearing
D. 3:5 D. None of these

12. The amount of metal removed by 17. HSS cutting tools are generally
honing process is less than provided with

A. 0.125 mm A. Positive rake angle

B. 0.225 mm B. Negative rake angle
C. 0.325 mm C. Positive cutting edge angle
D. 0.425 mm D. Negative cutting edge angle

13. In ECM process thermal current 18. Cemented carbide and ceramic
requirement is cutting tools are usually provided with

A. 100 amps/cycle of work piece A. Positive rake angle

area B. Negative rake angle
B. 200 amps/cycle of work piece C. Positive cutting edge angle
area D. Negative cutting edge angle
C. 500 amps/cycle of work piece
area 19. Coefficient of friction in anti-friction
D. 800 amps/cycle of work piece guide ways is:
area
A. High
14. The voltage applied between tool B. Low
(cathode) and work piece (anode) in C. Medium
ECM process is D. None of these

A. 30-50 V 20. Nitriding process of surface

B. 60-90 V treatment for steel tools is used for taking
C. 3-20 V
D. None of these A. Light cuts
B. Heavy cuts
15. The diameter (D) of a plain milling C. Medium cuts
cutter is approximately related to arbor D. None of these
diameter (d) as
21. At very low cutting speeds the tool
A. D=1.5d to 2d wear is due to
B. D=2.5d to 3d
C. D=4.5d to 6d A. Plowing action
D. D=5.5d to 8d B. Transfer
C. Material
16. The type and number of bearings to D. Temperature
be used for spindles of machine tool
depend on the
22. Are mixture of lard, cotton seed or C. Grade and cut
rape-seed oils and mineral oils. D. All of these

A. Cutting oils 28. How are rivets made?

B. Cooling oils
C. Heating oils A. Cold pressing
D. Emulsion B. Rolling
C. Drawing
23. How is aluminum work piece D. None of these
marked?
29. It is a case hardening process in
A. Ball pen which work piece is heated in a stream
B. Lead pencil of ammonia at 500 to 550°C.
C. Crayon
D. Chalk A. Quenching
B. Annealing
24. How is the height of a bench vice C. Tempering
adjusted? D. Nitriding

A. By using a wooden plate form 30. It is used to measure gap between

B. By using a wooden packing piece two mating parts to set the job and
under the vice base machine in alignment and to measure
C. By using a vice adjusting fixture clearance of piston and cylinder in
D. All of these automobiles.

25. What is the material of hacksaw A. Compound gauge

blade? B. Feeler gauge
C. Inspection gauge
A. High carbon steel D. Workshop gauge
B. High speed steel
C. Low tungsten steel 31. The movement of belt upon the face
D. Any of these of rim or outer surface of the driver and
driven pulleys within the area of arc of
26. Why hacksaw blade teeth get dull? contact.

A. Coarse pitched blade is used on A. Slip

hard metal B. Creep
B. Too much speed and pressure C. Interference
C. Pressure is not released in return D. Crowning
stroke
D. Any of these 32. The temperature at which an oil
gives off sufficient vapor without actually
27. Files are classified according to setting fire to the oil.

A. Size or length A. Flash point

B. Shape B. Fire point
 C. Pour point 38. A _________ is reciprocating type tool
D. Cloud point used for machining flat, cylindrical and
irregular surfaces.
33. It is the process by which the length
of a work piece is reduced. A. Shaper
B. Planer
A. Drawing C. Puncher
B. Drifting D. Slotter
C. Jumping
D. Upsetting 39. An operation to enlarge the previous
drilled hole
34. It cannot be forged because it will
break if heated and beaten by hammer A. Drilling
B. Boring
A. High speed steel C. Reaming
B. Tool steel D. Broaching
C. Carbon steel
D. Cast iron 40. An operation to make smaller hole in
exact center for lathe center.
35. It is a process of enlarging and
smoothing the punched hole by means A. Broaching
of tapered drifts of various sizes and B. Reaming
shapes. C. Counter boring
D. Center drilling
A. Drifting
B. Drawing 41. It is the operation of beveling the
C. Upsetting mouth of a hole
D. Jumping
A. Counter sinking
36. It is the process by which the length B. Counter boring
of a work piece is increased by reducing C. Spot facing
its cross-sectional area. D. Counter boring

A. Flattening 42. It is the operation of smoothing and

B. Drawing out squaring the surface around the hole
C. Swaging
D. Jumping A. Reaming
B. Counter sinking
37. Shaper tools are made up of what C. Spot facing
type of material? D. Counter boring

A. Brass 43. The size of abrasive grains produced

B. Bronze by crushing process is called
C. High speed steel
D. Babbit A. Grade
B. Grit
 C. Peebles 49. It is the process of driving the
D. None of these periphery of the job in degrees.

44. It is the combination of iron, carbon A. Direct indexing

and other alloying elements. B. Plain indexing
C. Differential indexing
A. Cast iron D. Angular indexing
B. Brass
C. Carbon steel 50. It is also known as conventional
D. Alloy steel milling in which the rotation of the cutter
is in a direction opposite to the direction
45. The main purpose of ________ is to of the table movement.
resist wear and unable it to cut the other
metal. A. Down milling
B. Up milling
A. Tempering C. Straddle milling
B. Hardening D. Gang milling
C. Quenching
D. Normalizing

46. Lip clearance angle for drilling soft

materials should be ________ that for
drilling hard materials.

A. Less than
B. Equal to
C. More than
D. Zero

47. It is also known as slab peripheral

milling

A. Form milling
B. Climb milling
C. Convex milling
D. Plain milling

48. In _______ the tool is released in return

stroke.

A. Shaper
B. Planer

C. Slotter
D. Reamer
 TEST 34

1. It is also known as climb milling in A. Polishing

which the rotation of the cutter and the B. Buffing
movement of the table is the same
direction. C. Lapping
D. Glazing
A. Down milling
B. Up milling 6. It consists of surface irregularities,
C. Straddle milling which result from the various
D. Gang milling manufacturing process.

2. The _______ is a machine tool used to A. Lay

remove metal from a work piece to give B. Waiveness
it the required shape and size. C. Flaws
D. Roughness
A. Shaper
B. Planer 7. A _________ is formed when a shaft
C. Lathe rotates in a bush, lines of the bore of a
D. Grinder housing.

3. It is the method of grinding cylindrical A. Ball bearing

surfaces. B. Roller bearing
C. Plain bearing
A. Centerless grinding D. Needle Bearing
B. Plunge-cut grinding
C. Through feed grinding 8. CNC in machine shop means
D. None of these
A. Computer Number Control
4. It is the angle between the side B. Computer Numerical Control
cutting edge and the longitudinal axis of C. Communication Network Control
the tool. D. Computer Network Center

A. Side cutting edge angle 9. It is the time lost due to break downs,
B. End cutting edge angle waiting for tools, minor accident etc.
C. Side relief angle
D. End relief angle A. Set up time
B. Handling time
5. It is a surface finishing process and is C. Machining time
used to produce a lustrous surface of D. Down time
attractive appearance.
10. Refers to the process of separating or
removing the burning of combustible
material from the neighborhood of the
fire.
A. Starvation
B. Blanketing
C. Cooling
D. None of these
11. When does a chisel get blunt
A. When it is properly heat treated
B. When it is not properly heat
treated
C. When it is properly tempered
D. When it is not properly tempered
A. To support the shaft
B. To guide the shaft
C. To give free rotation to the shaft
D. To transmit power
16. It is a process of cleaning the face of
grinding wheel by means of a dresser for
removing the glazing and loading of
wheel and to improve the cutting action
of a wheel.
A. Dressing
B. Polishing
C. Truing
D. Lapping

12. What is it necessary to provide 17. What should be the top rake angle
tolerance? to cut brass?

A. It saves the labor charges A. 0°

B. It saves the material from wastage B. 15°
C. It saves the time C. 30°
D. All of these D. 45°

13. It is done then and there by adjusting 18. It is a long, tapered punch used for
or repairing the faults come in notice loosening straight pins, rivets and other
during the work. small parts being disassembled.

A. Preventive maintenance A. Drive-pin punch

B. Predictive maintenance B. Hand punch
C. Routine maintenance C. Drift punch
D. Corrective maintenance D. Center punch

14. A __________ is used between the 19. A tool used for turning nuts or bolts.
cutting tool and work piece to minimize
the friction heat. A. Plier
B. Wrench
A. Lubricant C. Long nose
B. Coolant D. C-Clamp
C. Water
D. Alcohol 20. A sharp pointed steel tool used to
scribe lines on metal being laid out.
15. Which of the following is NOT a
function of bearings A. Divider
 B. Scriber
C. Trammel 26. The cutting of groove nest to a
D. Hermaphrodite caliper shoulder on a piece of work

21. A ______ is used to be test the A. Undercutting

accuracy of holes B. Necking

A. Snap gage C. Grooving

B. Ring gage D. Any of these
C. Plug gage
D. Depth gage 27. The operation of producing a
beveled edge at a specified angle of
22. A _________ consists of hardened and the end of a turned diameter.
ground steel bar in which two hardened
and ground of the same diameter are A. Chamfering
set. B. Knurling
C. Honing
A. Caliper D. Undercutting
B. Gage block
C. Sine bar 28. It is a large casting located on the
D. Micrometer left end of the bed.

23. A _________ consists of a slide and A. Tailstock

swivel vise mounted on the compound B. Headstock
rest in place of the tool post. C. Carriage
D. Chuck
A. Milling attachment
B. Relieving attachment 29. A ___________ is a thread that has a
C. Grinding attachment lead equal to the pitch.
D. Reaming attachment
A. Right hand thread
24. ________ are hardened steel devices B. Left hand thread
with a taper shank on one end and a 60 C. Single thread
degree point at the other end. D. Multiple head

A. Tailstock centers 30. The distance between the crest and

B. Lathe centers the brace of the thread, measured
C. Live centers perpendicular to the axis.
D. Dead centers
A. Depth of thread
25. It is a work holding device B. Length of engagement
C. Depth of engagement
A. Arbor D. Axis of thread
B. Mandrel
C. Jigs 31. Used to permit lever shift for vertical
D. Fixtures travel of rail
 welding and at the end of which the
A. Ball crank gages are burred to perform the various
B. Clamp plates gas welding operation.
C. Plunger knob
D. None of these A. Hose
B. Torch
32. It is mounted on the top of the C. Gage
column and is guided in perfect D. Switch
alignment by the machine dovetailed
surfaces. 37. A tool used for measuring diameters.

A. Over arm A. Protractor

B. Spindle B. Scriber
C. Arbor C. Caliper
D. Saddle D. Compass

33. Refers to circular milling attachment 38. A fine grained, salty silica rock used
that is bolted to the top of the table of a for sharpening edged tools.
plain or universal milling machine.
A. Oilstone
A. Slotting attachment B. Surface grinder
B. Rotary attachment C. Rocky oil
C. Milling attachment D. None of these
D. Spiral attachment
39. Device used to prevent leakage of
34. The process of removing burrs and media.
the gates and risers left on casting after
the molding process. A. Gasket
B. Seal
A. Reaming C. Shield
B. Snagging D. Stopper
C. Honing
D. Knurling 40. Flexible material used to seal
pressurized fluids normally under
35. The __________ supports the table dynamic conditions.
on the cross rail and moves across it
from left to right. A. Packing
B. Gasket
A. Apron C. Shield
B. Bearing D. Seal
C. Spindle
D. Handle 41. A hand tool used to measure tension
in bolts

36. Name of mechanism, which a A. Tensile range

welding operator holds during gas B. Torque wrench
 C. Hooke’s gauge 47. It is used for cutting long pieces of
D. Spring balance metals.

42. A hand tool used to measure engine A. Planer

crank web deflection. B. Shaper

A. Feeler gage C. Power saw

B. Compound gage D. Broaching machine
C. Distortion gage
D. Dial gage 48. It is used for external, internal and
relieving of mill cutters and taps
43. A device used for accurately
measuring diameters. A. Milling attachment
B. Thread attachment
A. Dial gage C. Taper attachment
B. Feeler gage D. Relieving attachment
C. Caliper
D. Micrometer 49. It is the stretching or spreading of
metal by hammering
44. It is used to true and align machine
tools, fixtures and works. A. Peening
B. Flaring
A. Dial indicator C. Upsetting
B. Radial indicator D. Bending
C. Dial gage
D. Feeler gage 50. The _______ is the most common of
the standard tapers.
45. The operation of making a cone-
shaped enlargement of the end of a A. Brown
hole, as for a recess for a flattened B. Jarno
screw. C. Sharpe
D. Morse
A. Counter boring
B. Counter sinking
C. Reaming
D. Drilling

46. A kind of chuck, which has reversible

jaws, which could be adjusted
separately.

A. Independent chuck
B. Combination chuck
C. Magnetic chuck
D. Universal chuck
 TEST 35

1. What is the lightest known metal? 6. It indicates how many times a volume
of material is heavier than an equal
A. Mercury volume of water.
B. Steel
C. Chromium A. Specific gravity
D. Aluminum B. Specific volume
C. Specific weight
2. Material having a high electrical D. Specific density
resistance and should not be used as
conductor of electrical current. 7. Nickel – Chromium – Molybdenum
steel designation SAE ______
A. Magnesium
B. Copper A. 81xx
C. Nickel B. 74xx
D. Iron C. 94xx
D. 64xx
3. The property that characterizes a
material ability to be drawn into a wire is 8. Moment of inertia is also called
known as: _______

A. Plasticity A. Modulus of elasticity

B. Elasticity B. Weep strength
C. Ductility C. Radius of gyration
D. Utility D. None of these

4. Stress relieving is also _________ for the 9. It is hardening treatment whereby

purpose of reducing the internal stress of a cast metal is being heated to a
steel material / metal. very high temperature then suddenly
subjected to rapid cooling to
A. Quenching improve hardenability of wear
B. Normalizing resistance is called:
C. Tempering
D. Drawing A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
5. A carbon content in the range of C. Tempering
______ in steel readily responds to heat D. Quenching
treatment.
10. A good general purpose deoxidizer
A. 0.35 to 0.40% C which promotes fine grain in steel
B. 0.28 to 0.30% C
C. 0.18 to 0.25% C A. Copper
D. 0.12 to 0.15% C B. Magnesium
 C. Molybdenum A. Silicon
D. Silicon B. Iron
C. Manganese
11. Treatment process that produces a D. Chromium
residual compressive stress at the
surface and residual tension on the 16. Normally, cast iron contains 2%
inside that results in considerable carbon or more and silicon in the range
increase in fatigue strength for members of ______%.
on torsion / bending is known as:
A. 1 to 3
A. Partial quenching B. 1 to 4
B. Heavy oil quenching C. 2 to 3
C. Quenching D. 1 to 6
D. Shallow quenching
17. The material for engine radiation is
12. The flux that should be provided in usually made of _________.
soldering electrical connection or
commutator wires as it tends to corrode A. Yellow brass
the connections. B. Silicon brass
C. Admirally brass
A. Sal ammoniac D. Navy brass
B. Zinc chloride
C. Stearing 18. A problem-by product used as an
D. Acid fluxes electrode in an electric arc furnace
melting operations is called:
13. The characteristics of tool steel
sustain shocks and major impacts is due A. Anthracite coke
to its: B. Foundry coke
C. Graphite electrodes
A. Toughness D. Bituminous coke
B. Stiffness
C. Ductility 19. Which of the following does not
D. Machinability affect the tensile strength of steel?

14. The application of electrical current A. Sulfur

to the corrosion circuit to counter the
corrosion reaction is called:
A. Cathodic protection
B. Sacrificial anodes method
C. Chemical corrosion process
D. Galvanic action
15. A major component of cast steel is:
B. Cobalt
C. Phosphorus
D. Boron
20. Alloy steel axle under repeated load
/ stress will eventually fail if the load /
stress is above the endurance for the
steel under consideration. The
endurance limit of the steel is:
 A. Equal to the allowable stress of the 26. Cold drawing is also called:
module of elasticity
B. Equal to half of the ultimate strength A. Hard drawn
C. Equal to module of elasticity B. Oxidized steel
D. Equal to 80% of the elastic limit C. Cold lap steel
D. Strain hardening
21. Mirror finish has surfaces fitness of
_______ rms. 27. The brittleness in steel elevated
temperature is known as:
A. 1
B. 2 to 8 A. Hard drawn
C. 1 to 3 B. Cold lap
D. 2 to 5 C. Red shortness
D. Residual stresses
22. Chromium steel to include heat and
corrosion resistant designation. 28. Material may be stretched and still
returns to its former form / condition
A. SAE 56xx upon release of force is called:
B. SAE 514xx
C. SAE 61xx A. Plasticity
D. SAE 9xx B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Ductility
23. Non-metallic material of high melting D. Elastic limit
temperature being used as furnace
lining. 29. What is the SAE specification number
of molybdenum – chromium – nickel?
A. Quartz bricks
B. Refractories A. 48xx
C. Silica sand B. 47xx
D. Dolomite clay bricks C. 46xx
D. 45xx
24. In greater quantity, this element is
harmful to the molten ferrous metal. 30. Galvanized iron is a term referring to
iron coated with:
A. Silicon
B. Aluminum A. Aluminum
C. Oxides B. Tin
D. Sulfur C. Zinc
D. Manganese
25. Silicon – manganese steel
designation, SAE ________. 31. A metal which has a high electrical
conductivity but should not be used for
A. 72xx high temperature.
B. 40xx
C. 92xx A. Silicon
D. 9xx B. Zinc
 C. Chrome Alloy A. Plasticity
D. Carbide B. Elasticity
C. Creep
32. It improves red hardness of steel. D. Ductility

A. Chromium 38. Killed steel is always associated with:

B. Cobalt
C. Boron A. Silicon
D. Lead B. Manganese
C. Phosphorous
33. What is the SAE specification number D. Sulfur
of molybdenum?
39. The good deoxidizer in steel melting.
A. SAE 2xxx
B. SAE 3xxx A. Manganese
C. SAE 4xxx B. Silicon
D. SAE 5xxx C. Aluminum
D. All of these
34. Which does not belong to the
group? 40. Good stabilizer in stainless steel is:

A. SAE A. Columbium
B. AISI B. Titanium
C. SEA C. Tantalum
D. ASTM D. All of these

35. It is the ability of the material of resist 41. Metals are conductive because:
deformation under stress.
A. The electrons are loosely bound to
A. Plasticity the nuclei and therefore mobile
B. Stiffness B. Having characteristics luster
C. Toughness C. They are on the left side of the
D. All of these periodic table
D. They are on the left side of the
36. Which of the following is not a periodic table
structural class of steel? D. They have extra electrons as
exhibited by normally possible
A. High speed steel balance state
B. Tool and die
C. Low carbon 42. The yield strength of the rectangular
D. High carbon yellow brass 65 tp 70% Cu, 30 to 35% Zn
can be increased / improved by _____.
37. Continuous stretching under load
even if the stress is less than the yield A. Cold working
point is B. Tempering
known as:
 C. Shill casting 48. The ability of metal to be deformed
D. Heat treatment considerable without rupture is called:

43. Used as cast condition steel casting A. Malleability

with carbon content less that __________ B. Elasticity
% C. C. Ductility
D. Plasticity
A. 0.26
B. 0.15 to 0.18 49. Permanent deformation or strain
C. 0.20 may occur without fracture is called:
D. 0.25
44. Liners are normally made of: A. Malleability
B. Elasticity
A. Cast iron C. Ductility
B. Alloyed bronze D. Plasticity
C. Alloyed steel
D. Alloyed aluminum 50. An alloy that improves strength of
steel at high temperature application.
45. A furnace used in melting non-ferrous
metals is called: A. Tungsten
B. Molybdenum
A. Cupola furnace C. Chromium
B. Crucible furnace D. All of these
C. Induction furnace
D. Tempering furnace

46. A furnace used in melting ferrous

metals.

A. Annealing furnace
B. Tempering furnace
C. Induction furnace
D. Normalizing furnace

47. All are associated with standard

material specified except ________.

A. American Iron and Steel Institute

B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel
Institute
D. American Society for Testing
Materials
 TEST 36 6. Normal stress relieving temperature
for cast steel is:
1. Metal that assists lubrication or
A. 200 to 300°F
lubricant in itself
B. 400 to 500°F
C. 300 to 400°F
A. Zinc
D. 450 to 550°F
B. Antimony
C. Babbit
7. Most effective alloying element for
D. Lead
reducing brittleness of steel at very
low temperature
2. The smallest area at a point of
rupture of a tensile specimen divided
A. Manganese
by the original area is called:
B. Molybdenum
C. Silicon
A. Percentage elongation
D. Nickel
B. Izod test
C. Charpy test
8. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength
D. Percentage reduction of the area
and elasticity significantly of about
what temperature?
3. All are associated with the grade of
steel except:
A. 900-1000°F
B. 800-900°F
A. SAE 43xx
C. 700-850°F
B. SAE 13xx
D. 600-700°F
C. SAE 10xx
D. SAE 74xx
9. For a high corrosion resistant stainless
steel, what minimum chromium
4. Cold working of steel plates make
content is required?
the metal

A. 8%
A. Tougher
B. 4.3%
B. More ductile
C. 1.1%
C. Harder
D. 5.8%
D. More malleable

10. A material that should be avoided in

5. The property that characterizes the
constructing wood pattern is:
material’s ability to be drawn into a
wire is called:
A. Sap wood
B. Kin dried wood
A. Ductility
C. Heart wood
B. Thermal conductivity
D. Core portion of wood
C. Tensile strength
D. Endurance limit
11. The gradual chemical reaction by 15. Which of the following elements
other substance such that the metal when large quantity is harmful to the
is converted to an oxide or other ferrous metal?
compounds
A. Sulfur
A. Corrosion B. Silicon
B. Cheeping C. Zinc
C. Rusting D. Aluminum
D. Weathering
16. It has molybdenum alloy except:
12. What is the property of a material
which resists forces acting to pull the A. SAE 43xx
material apart? B. SAE 41xx
C. SAE 6xxx
A. Shear strength D. SAE 5xxx
B. Tensile strength
17. Cast alloy steel for very high
C. Torsional strength temperature application
D. Compressive strength
A. Manganese-nickel steel casting
13. What is the difference between B. High chrome steel casting
brass and bronze? C. Chrome-nickel steel casting
D. High manganese casting
A. Brass is composed of copper and
zinc while bronze is composed of 18. What heat treatment process can
copper and tin cast steel materials of high chrome
B. Brass is composed of copper and high manganese etc. be subjected
zinc while bronze is basically for the purpose machining process?
copper and tin plus non-ferrous
alloy such as manganese, A. Annealing
aluminum and chromium B. Tempering
C. Bronze is reddish in color while C. Normalizing
brass is a mixture of copper and D. Quenching
antimony
D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of 19. Galvanized steel plate is:
copper and tin while brass is a
mixture of copper and antimony A. Aluminum
B. Tin
14. A liquid metal is called _________ C. Zinc
D. Manganese
A. Mercury
B. Lead 20. Major component of bronze casting
C. Zinc is:
D. Aluminum
A. Copper
B. Manganese
 C. Zinc C. Annealing
D. Lead D. Quenching

21. Alloy steel known for its resistance to 25. SAE steel that responds to heat
corrosion, abrasion and wear that is treatment
usually ideal for mill grinding of ore or
cement and concentrator A. SAE 1060
application. It is usually combined B. SAE 1117
with molybdenum to increase the C. SAE 1030
depth hardening. D. SAE 1020

A. Manganese chromium steel 26. A form of correction that develop on

B. Chromium-moly steel a highly localized area on a metal
C. Chromium-nicke-moly steel surface
D. Manganese-moly steel
A. Crevice
22. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft B. Erosion
material available in the market with C. Galvanic
carbon content of 0.28 to 0.4? D. Apitting

A. SAE 4132 27. The deterioration of organic coating

B. SAE 4320 characterized as completely
C. SAE 1030 _________
D. SAE 4130
A. Chalking
23. Heating of metal above the critical B. Rusting
temperature and then cooling slowly C. Checking
usually in the furnace to reduce the D. Fritting
hardness and improve the
machinability is called: 28. The temperature above which the
alloy is liquid and will run is known as
A. Normalizing ______
B. Annealing
C. Tempering A. Melting point
D. Quenching B. Flow point
C. Pour point
24. It is hardening treatment whereby a D. Dew point
cast metal is being heated to a very
high temperature then suddenly 29. It refers to any layer or deposit of
subjected to rapid cooling to extraneous material on the heat-
improve hardenability or wear transfer surface
resistance is called:
A. Low line
A. Normalizing B. Pressure drop
B. Tempering C. Fouling
D. Scaling
30. Steel containing large amounts of C. Fire box steel
mild nickel and chromium D. Drop-forge-dies

A. Carbon steel 36. An iron has physical properties

B. Stainless steel closely resembling those of mild steel
C. Alloy steel called
D. Cast steel
A. Malleable cast iron
31. The corrosion of iron or iron-base B. Malleable iron
alloy C. White iron
D. Gray iron
A. Rusting
B. Crazing 37. An iron in which most of the carbon
C. Chalking is chemically combined with the iron
D. Fritting is called

32. A corrosion occurs within or A. Cast iron

adjacent to a crevice formed by B. Gray iron
contact with another piece of the C. White iron
same or another metal is called: D. Malleable iron

A. Galvanic 38. Which of the following metal is non-

B. Pitting magnetic?
C. Erosion
D. Crevice A. Manganese steel
B. Cast steel
33. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony or C. Alloy steel
sometimes lead D. Cast iron

A. Gold 39. Which of the following is not a kind of

B. Babbit cast iron?
C. Aluminum A. Gray iron
D. Cast iron B. White iron
C. Malleable iron
34. The cheapest and most abundant D. Lead iron
engineering material is ________
40. Which of the following is not used to
A. Aluminum temper steel?
B. Steel
C. Cast iron A. Oil bath
D. Babbit B. Brine/salt bath
C. Steam bath
35. They are usually steel or steel casting D. Water bath

A. Mild steel 41. Which of the following metals is easy

B. Carbon steel to chisel?
 A. Alloy steel 47. The ability of metal to stretch bend
B. Manganese steel or twist without breaking or cracking
C. Stainless steel is called
D. Cast iron
A. Elasticity
42. Ferrous metals contain a relatively B. Ductility
large amount of C. Brittleness
D. Plasticity
A. Manganese
B. Carbon 48. The ability of material to return to its
C. Sulfur original shape after being elongated
D. Phosphorus or distorted when the forces are
released is called
43. Which of the following is not a
classification of iron core? A. Elasticity
B. Brittleness
A. Siderite C. Plasticity
B. Hematite D. Creep
C. Sulfurite
D. Magnetite 49. Material usually ceramics employed
where resistance to very high
44. Stainless steel is obtaining principally temperature is required as for
by the use of which of the alloying furnace linings and metal melting
element? pots is called

A. Chromium A. Bricks
B. Nickel B. Insulator
C. Carbon C. Refractories
D. Tungsten D. Clay

45. Which of the following metals will 50. Any material that retard the flow of
respond to heat treatment? electricity used to prevent or escape
of electric current from conductors
A. Cast iron
B. Wrought iron A. Bricks
C. Medium carbon steel B. Insulators
D. Low carbon steel C. Refractories
46. The property of steel which resist D. composite
indention of penetration is called

A. Hardness
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. None of these
 TEST 37
A. Annealing
1. Hardening the surface of the iron- B. Indexing
based alloys by heating them below C. Knurling
the melting point in contact with a D. Soldering
carbonaceous substance.
7. The operation of cooling a heated
A. Carburizing piece of work rapidly by dipping it in
B. Normalizing water, brine or oil.
C. Mar tempering
D. Hardening A. Quenching
B. Annealing
2. A special metal formed when two or C. Tempering
more metals are melted together. D. Normalizing

A. Monel 8. A metallic element and only metal

B. Alloy that is liquid at ordinary temperature.
C. Solder
D. Hastalloy A. Aluminum
B. Mercury
3. Subjecting a substance to a high C. Zirconium
temperature below the fusion point D. Zinc
usually to make it friable. 9. A metallic element of copper-tin
alloy
A. Calcinations
B. Fusion A. Aluminum
C. Boiling B. Brass
D. Super heating C. Bronze
D. Chromium
4. Substances having sufficient carbon
and/or hydrogen for chemical 10. An alloy of copper and zinc
oxidation to produce exothermally,
worthwhile quantities of heat. A. Aluminum
B. Brass
A. Lubrication C. Bronze
B. Graphite D. Chromium
C. Grease
D. Fuels 11. Which of the following is not a
classification of an iron ore?
5. The principal materials used in high
production metal working tools A. Hematite
B. Magnetite
A. Hyper-eutectoid C. Sulfurite
B. High speed steel D. Siderite
C. Lead
D. High speed carbon 12. A soft yellow metal, know since
ancient times as a precious metal
6. The softening of metal by heat which all materials values
treatment and most commonly
consist of heating the metal up to A. Solid’s
near motion state and then cooling B. Bronze
it very slowly
 C. Gold 19. A material that can wear away a
D. Austenite substance softer than itself is called
A. Abrasive
13. An amorphous solid may be fusing B. Corrosive
silica with a basic oxide C. Tungsten
D. Alloy
A. Pearlite
B. Rock 20. The process of heating a piece of
C. Silicon steel to a temperature within or
D. Glass above critical range and cooling
rapidly.
14. A fine grained salty silica rock used
for sharpening edge tools. A. Normalizing
B. Hardening
A. Eutectoid C. Annealing
B. Austenite D. Tempering
C. Oilstone
D. Pearlite 21. The process of checking or
producing checkers on the surface
15. A highly transparent and of a piece by rolling checkered
exceedingly hard crystalline stone of depression into the surface called
almost pure carbon is called
A. Knurling
A. Gold B. Hemming
B. Diamond C. Breading
C. Bronze D. Embossing
D. Crystalline
22. A material used in softening a piece
16. A common deoxidizer and cleanser of metal that is too hard to machine
of steel forming oxides and sulfates and is done by heating steel slowly
that are carried off in the slag above the usual hardening
temperature keeping it at the heat
A. Manganese for ½ to 2 hours then cooling slowly,
B. Carbon preferably in a furnace
C. Tungsten
D. Sulfur A. Broaching
B. Quenching
17. An alloy of copper, tin and small C. Normalizing
amount of phosphorous D. Annealing

A. Chromium 23. A manganese steel containing

B. Bronze approximately 0.20% carbon
C. Brass
D. Aluminum A. SAE 1320
B. SAE 1230
18. The material used in high speed C. SAE 2340
processes. D. SAE 4230

A. High speed 24. Heating to some 100F above the

B. Chromium transformation range with
C. Cast iron subsequent cooling to below that
D. Carbon steel range in still air at room temperature
 to produce uniform structure of A. Dislocation
metal is termed as B. Fracture
C. Impurity
A. Annealing D. Slip
B. Hardening
C. Normalizing 30. The most important element that
D. Tempering controls the physical properties of
steel is:
25. Heating to a sub-critical temperature
about 1,100F to 1300F and holding A. Carbon
at that temperature for a suitable B. Chromium
time for the purpose of reducing C. Silicon
internal residual stresses is called D. Tungsten

A. Annealing 31. The process commonly used over

B. Hardening thermo-plastic materials is:
C. Tempering
D. Stress relieving A. Cold forming
B. Die casting
26. Reheating to a temperature below C. Injection molding
the transformation range, followed D. Shell molding
by any desired rate of cooling to
attain the desired properties of the 32. A space lattice found in alpha-iron is
metal called the

A. Annealing A. Body centered cubic space

B. Hardening lattice
C. Tempering B. Close packed hexagonal space
D. Stress relieving lattice
C. Face centered cubic space
27. The effect of alloying zinc to copper lattice
is D. None of these

A. To increase hardness 33. A unit cell contains nine atoms is

B. To increase strength and ductility known as the
if added up to 10-30 %
C. To impact free machining A. Body centered cubic space
properties lattice
D. To improve hardness and B. Close packed hexagonal space
strength lattice
C. Face centered cubic space
28. Polyesters belong to the group of: lattice
D. None of these
A. Phenolics
B. Thermoplastic plastics 34. A knoop intender is a diamond
C. Thermo setting plastics ground to a __________.
D. All of these
A. Cylindrical form
29. The imperfection in the crystal B. Needle form
structure is metal is known as: C. Prismoidal form
D. Pyramidal form
35. Which of the following timber is used A. An improvement of casting
for sports goods? characteristics
B. An improvement of corrosion
A. Deodar resistance
B. Mahogany C. One of the best known age and
C. Mulberry precipitation hardening system
D. Sal D. An improvement in machinability

36. Super conductors 42. Hastalloy contains:

A. Are non-crystalline A. Aluminum and nickel

B. Are the purest forms of metal B. Copper and aluminum
C. Are the densest of materials is C. Nickel and copper
D. Exist at the temperature below D. Nickel and molybdenum
10K
43. In compression, a prism of brittle
37. Select the one that has the highest material will break
specific gravity
A. By forming a bulge
A. Aluminum B. By shearing along oblique plane
B. Brass C. In a direction along the direction
C. High carbon steel of load
D. Lead D. Into large number of piece

38. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings 44. The maximum hardenability of any
the material used with lead to steel depends on __________
reduce the risk of seizure is
A. The alloying elements present
A. Iron B. The carbon content
B. Silver C. The chemical composition
C. Tin D. The grain size
D. Zinc
45. Steel with 0.80% carbon and 100%
39. Age-hardening is related with: pearlite is known as:

A. Cast iron A. Austenite

B. Duralumin B. Eutectoid
C. German silver C. Hyper-eutectoid
D. Stainless steel D. Solidous

40. Which of the following has the 46. Substance that can increase the
highest specific strength of oil machinability of steel
structure materials?
A. Phosphorous
A. Chromium alloys B. Phosphorous and aluminum
B. Magnesium alloys C. Silicon and sulfur
C. Titanium alloys D. Sulfur graphite and aluminum
D. None of these
47. Compressive strength of a gray cast
41. Addition to lead and bismuth to iron in tone per cm2 is of the order
aluminum will produce: of:
 A. 3-5
B. 5-7
C. 7-10
D. 15-22

48. The presence of sulfur in pig iron

makes ____

A. It brittle
B. It easily machinable
C. It hard
D. The casting unsound

49. The hardness of steel increase if it

contains ___________

A. Austenite
B. Pearlite
C. Stalactite
D. Martensite

50. Which onwe is different from the

group?

A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Electroplating
 TEST 38
7. In powder metallurgy, the process of
1. The process of increasing the carbon heating the cold pressed metal
content to surface of steel by powder is called:
exposing it to hot carbonaceous
material above the transformation of A. Deposition
1650 to 1750 F B. Granulation
C. Precipitation
A. Carbonitriding D. Sintering
B. Case hardening
C. Carburizing 8. Electro-forming is especially valuable
D. Induction hardening for

2. In the SAE identification code of A. Decorative items

steel shafting, the 3rd and 4th digits B. Good conductors of electricity
represents the content of: C. Non-ferrous components
D. Thin walled parts requiring a high
A. % of manganese in the steel order of accuracy and internal
B. % of alloy surface finish
C. % of carbon content
D. % of chromium in the steel 9. Aluminum alloys for pressure die
casting
3. It is associated with nickel steel
A. Must possess considerable
A. Magnesium fluidity
B. Lead B. Must not be free from hot
C. Columbium shortness
D. Tin C. Must have iron as one of the
constituents
4. A non-magnetic steel is: a. Must be light

A. Nodular iron 10. In carbon steel castings

B. Manganese steel
C. Tungsten-molydenum steel A. The percentage for alloying
D. All of these elements is controlled
B. The percentage of carbon is
5. At small quantity, this alloy is between 1.7% to 2%
effective for improvement strength C. The percentage of carbon is less
at high temperature than 1.7%
D. None of the above
A. Chromium
B. Manganese 11. It has a powerful softening effect on
C. Selenium cast iron and its pressure in cast iron
D. Molybdenum reduces the ability of the iron to
retain carbon in chemical
6. Consist of carbon and alloy used in combination
production of precision work tools
A. Aluminum
A. Chrome-manganese B. Carbon
B. Titanium C. Silicon
C. High speed steel D. Sulfur
D. Chrome-molybdenum
12. Cyaniding is the process of
A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by
heat treatment of steel to
increase its surface hardness
B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath
C. Obtaining cyanide salts
D. Reacting steel surface with
cyanide salts
13. An engineer’s hammer is made of
A. Appreciable plastic deformation
prior to propagation of crack
B. Fragmentation into more than
two pieces
C. Negligible deformation
D. Rapid rate for crack propagation
19. ____ of metals wherein strength of
metal is increased and the ductility
increases the heating at a relatively
low temperature after cold working

A. Cast iron A. Cluster

B. High speed steel B. Screw dislocation
C. Forged steel C. Solid solution hardening
D. Mild steel D. Strain aging

14. A cold chisel is made of 20. The material recovers its original
dimensions when the load is
A. Cast iron removed, it is called:
B. High carbon steel
C. High speed steel A. Annealed
D. Mild steel B. Brittle
C. Elastic
15. Eutectoid steel the percentage of D. Plastic
carbon is
21. A body having identical properties
A. 0.02% all over is called:
B. 0.30%
C. 0.63% A. Ductile
D. 0.80% B. Elastic
C. Homogenous
16. Machining properties of steel can be D. Isentropic
improved by adding:
22. Points of arrest of iron correspond to:
A. Chromium, nickel
B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium A. Stages at which allotropic forms
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus change
D. Vanadium,aluminum B. Stages at which further heating
does not increase temperature
17. The ability of a material to absorb for sometime
energy when deformed elastically C. Stages at which properties do
and to return to it when unloaded is not change with increase in
known as temperature
D. There is nothing like points of
A. Creep arrest
B. Fatigue strength
C. Hardness 23. Delta iron occurs at:
D. Resilience
A. Temperature above melting
18. A ductile fracture is characterized by point
 B. Temperature between 1400°C
and 1539°C A. Aluminum
C. Temperature between 1000°C B. Bronze
and 1400°C
C. Cast iron
D. Room temperature
D. White metal
24. Gamma iron exists at the
temperature range 29. One of the materials used for making
surface plate is
A. Between 910°C and 1400°C
B. Between 1400°C and 1539°C A. Brass
C. Near melting point
B. Granite
D. Room temperature
C. Stainless steel
D. Wood
25. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in
temperature range of: 30. Cast iron contains _____ % carbon.

A. Below 723 oC A. 0.05 to 0.30

B. 700 – 910 oC B. 0.30 to 0.80
C. 1000-1440 oC C. 0.80 to 1.30
D. 1400-1539 oC D. 2 to 4

26. The mould for casting ferrous 31. Tungsten in high speed imparts
materials in continuous melting which of the following
process is made of: characteristics?

A. Low carbon steel A. Corrosion resistance

B. Medium carbon steel B. Ductility
C. High carbon steel C. Red hardness
D. Copper D. Shock resistance

27. A silver refers to 32. High carbon steel has a carbon

content of:
A. The pointed location spot silver
plated. A. 0.05 to 1 %
B. The point on an instrument dial a B. 0.8 to 2 %
reading beyond which may be C. 1 to 3 %
dangerous for the system. D. 2%
C. The temperature at which silver
melts. 33. During tensile testing on a specimen
D. The temperature of equilibrium cup and cone formation is observed
between solid silver and liquid with _______.
silver at normal atmospheric
pressure. A. Cast iron
B. Cast steel
28. Piston compression rings are made C. Glass
of: D. Mild steel
34. Kerosine is used as coolant, while D. Increase wear resistance
machining which material?
40. During cold working metals are
A. Aluminum worked
B. Cast iron
C. Mild steel A. Below room temperature
D. Stainless B. Below the melting point
C. Below their recrystallization
35. One of the following materials is temperature
commonly used for bearings. D. Below 200 oC

41. Copper is annealed by heating to a

A. Aluminum cherry red color and
B. Gun metal
C. Steel A. Dousing in cold water
D. Zinc B. Cooling slowly in water
C. Dousing in oil
36. Babbit metal is an alloy of D. Dousing hot water

A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead 42. Tool steel can be hardened by
B. Copper, zinc and tin
C. Iron and tungsten A. Heating red hot and plunging
D. Tin, copper, lead and into water
phosphorous B. Heating red hot and cooling in a
blast of dry
37. The bed of machine tool is normally C. Heating red hot and plunging
made of into linseed or cotton seed oil
D. Any of the above, depending on
A. Alloy steel type and use
B. Cast iron
C. Medium carbon steel 43. The purpose of annealing is to make
D. Mild steel a metal

38. The main constituent molding sand is A. Harder

B. Medium hard
A. Carbon C. Softer
B. Clay D. Shiny
C. Graphite
D. Silicon 44. The purpose of tempering is to make
the metal
39. Cobalt is added to high speed steel
to A. Harder
B. Softer
A. Increase ductility C. Less brittle
B. Increase fatigue strength D. More brittle
C. Increase hot hardness
45. A scriber is made of

A. Carbon steel
B. Cold-rolled steel
C. Hot-rolled steel
D. Tool steel

46. Knurling is done to

A. Polish material
B. Roughen material
C. Sharpen the material
D. Smoothen the material

47. Muntz metal contains which of the

following alloys?

A. Copper – nickel
B. Copper – zinc
C. Copper – tin
D. Copper – aluminum

48. A reinforced concrete beam is

considered to be made up of:

A. Clad material
B. Composite material
C. Homogenous material
D. Heterogenous

49. In testing the material for endurance

strength, it is subjected to

A. Static load
B. Impact load
C. Dynamic load
D. Completely reversed load

50. Which of the following is not a sound

absorptive material?

A. Rug
B. Mirror
C. Carpet
D. Heavy drape
 TEST 39
1. The ability of a substance to exist in
more than one lattice form is known C. Nitriding
as D. Stiffness

A. Allotropy 6. The plastic deformation at

B. Grain temperatures above the
C. Crystallization recrystallization temperature.
D. Diamagnetic
A. Hot Working
2. Properties which describe the B. Cold Working
behavior of the materials under the C. Normalizing
association of force are called as: D. Annealing

A. Physical properties 7. The plastic deformation at

B. Chemical properties temperatures below the
C. Mechanical properties recrystallization temperature.
D. Electrical properties
A. Hot Working
3. The amount of energy per unit B. Normalizing
volume which the material will C. Annealing
possess when subjected to the D. Cold Working
elastic limit stress is called:
8. A preliminary evaluation of the
A. Bulk modulus elevated temperature properties of
B. Modulus of Resilience materials may be secured by means
C. Modulus of Elasticity of a
D. Modulus of Rigidity
A. Stress rupture test
4. ______________ means the resistance B. Creep
to penetration C. Impact test
D. Modulus of rupture
A. Hardness
B. Strength 9. The temperature at which this
C. Toughness decrease of impact energy occurs is
D. Stiffness called:

5. _____________ means the increasing A. Recrystallization temperature

hardness and strength by plastic B. Transition temperature
deformation at temperatures lower C. Rupture temperature
than crystallization range. D. Ultimate temperature

A. Case Hardening 10. An intimate mechanical mixture of

B. Strain Hardening two or more phases having a define
 composition and a definite freezing construction of furnaces, crucible
melting point. and so forth are called:
A. Allotropy
B. Pentectic A. Refractories
C. Eutectic B. Ceramics
D. Protactic C. Insulators
D. Grable
11. The science which deals with the
preparation and application of 16. The flux and gauge when in proper
metals and alloys. proportions will have a melting
temperatures considerably lower
A. Manufacturing than that of ethane and the resulting
B. Metalloids combination is called:
C. Metallurgy
D. Refractories A. Lime
B. Residue
12. A combination of minerals which C. Stag
can be profitably mined D. Refractories

A. Gangue 17. An iron-bearing slate or chert in the

B. Metal form of compact siliceous rock.
C. Alloy
D. Ore A. Tacomite
B. Hermatite
13. The mechanical treatment by which C. Magnetite
the concentration of ores is D. Limenite
increased are called:
18. A mechanical mixture of very pure
A. Gravity Separation iron and a silicate slag
B. One dressing
C. Distillation A. Bronze
D. Sintering B. Brass
C. Cat Iron
14. Process which involve the reduction D. Wrought Iron
of the metal from aqueous solution
by replacement or by electrolysis are 19. An alloy of iron and carbon in which
called: the carbon content does not
exceed 1.7%.
A. Pyrometallurgical Processes
B. Electrometallurgical A. Brass
Processes B. Steel
C. Hydrometallurgical Processes C. Babbit
D. Amalgamation Process D. Bronze

15. Non-metallic materials of high

melting temperature used in the
20. The structure formed when 25. AISI C1095 designates that it is a
transformation occurs at temperaute basic open hearth carbon steel
down to the knee of the curve having ________percent carbon

A. Pearlite A. 5%
B. Bainite B. 9%
C. Martinsite C. 95%
D. Limonite D. 0.95%

21. The process producing a hard 26. Molybdenum steels are painted
surface in a steel having a sufficiently ________.
high carbon content to respond in
hardening by cooling of the surface. A. Green
B. Blue
A. Flame Hardening C. Red
B. Induction Hardening D. Orange
C. Cyaniding
D. Carburizing 27. Used for members of intricate shape
that would be difficult to
22. It is one in which some elements manufacture by other methods
other than carbon has been added
to improve change the physical A. Forging
properties. B. Casting
C. Extruding
A. Low Carbon Steel D. Hot Working
B. Alloy Steel
C. Medium Carbon Steel 28. AISI means
D. High Carbon Steel
A. Association Iron and Steel
23. SAE 1020 steel is a carbon steel Institute
containing ____ percent carbon B. African Iron and Steel
Institute
A. 20% C. Aluminum Iron and Steel
B. 0.20% Institute
C. 10% D. American Investment for
D. 0.10% Steel Industry

24. SAE 2317 steel is a nickel steel alloy 29. SAE means
containing _____percent nickel
A. Society of American
A. 2% Engineers
B. 3% B. Society of Automotive
C. 1% Engineers
D. 7% C. Society of Australian
Engineers
D. Society of African Engineers
 B. Cyaniding
30. Which of the following metals A. Nitriding
increases the strength without B. Aging
sacrificing the ductility of the carbon
steels? 35. The degree to which a material will
deform before ultimate fracture
A. Brass A. Brittleness
B. Nickel B. Ductility
C. Bronze C. Malleability
D. Copper D. Plasticity

31. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing 36. The property of a material that

agent and promotes the nitriding of indicates its ability to transfer heat
steels
A. Thermal conductivity
A. Aluminum B. Electrical resistivity
B. Boron C. Thermal expansion
C. Copper D. Electrical conductivity
D. Brass
37. A group of heat treatable cast iron
32. It is used to toughen and strengthen moderate to high strength, high
the steel, to reduce the grain size modulus of elasticity, goal
and to act as a cleanser and machinery, and good resistance
degasifier. carbon.

A. Nickel A. Gray iron

B. Boron B. Malleable iron
C. Vanadium C. Ductile
D. Molybdenum D. White iron

33. Materials having a high percentage 38. Steels may be carburized and nitride
of alumina or steatite are known as simultaneously by the process known
as
A. Titanium
B. Vanadium A. Nitriding
C. Refractories B. Carburizing
D. Ceramics C. Carbonitriding
D. Cryaning
34. It is a process of hardening the outer
portion of the metal by prolonged A. It is used in steels as an alloying
heating free from contact with air element to combing hardness
while the metal packed in carbon in obtained.
the form of bone char, leather
scraps, or charcoal. B. Vanadium
C. Chromium
A. Carburizing
 A. Titanium A. Glazing
B. Molybdenum B. Stamping
A. Coning
B. Swaging

39. The art of making definite 44. It is a process of shearing in which

impressions in sand by means of a sheet or plate is cut out to a definite
pattern for a purpose of producing a outline in a press
casting
A. Blanking
A. Molding B. Stamping
B. Pattern C. Spinning
C. Extrusion D. Trimming
D. Die casting
45. It is a special case of drawing in
40. Products that have cross sections of which the work is rotated and
less than 6 inches and that are not in formed by means of a tool
the finished forms
A. Spinning
A. Slabs B. Embossing
B. Gangue C. Bulging
C. Blooms D. Stretching forming
D. Billets
46. It is a squeezing operation used for
41. It is the process of forging by which flattening or surfacing various parts
the metal in the plastic state is made where small amount of flow of
to flow within a die by the material is involved
application of plunger pressure
A. Hobbing
A. Extrusion forging B. Stamping
B. Smith forging C. Coining
C. Drop forging D. Sizing
D. Press forging
47. It is a process by which a hot plastic
42. It is a squeezing process used to metal is made to flow into dies by
finish sheet or bar stock for special the application of sudden blows to
purpose the material

A. Cold forging A. Drop forging

B. Sizing B. Press forging
C. Cold rolling C. Extrusion
D. Coining D. Machine forging

43. The term used for most press 48. It is the measure of stiffness
operations
A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of toughness

49. It is the measure of the total energy-

absorbed capacity of the material
and includes the energy of both
elastic and plastic deformation.

A. Modulus of toughness
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of rigidity
TEST 40
1. The maximum stress to which a beam is broken by the impact
standardized test specimen may be strength of the metal
subjected without permanent
deformation. A. Charpy test
B. Izod test
A. Endurance limit C. Rockwell test
B. Proportional limit D. Universal test
C. Elastic limit
D. Plastic limit 7. Steel that has been deoxidized with
strong deoxidizing agent such as
2. The modulus of elasticity is a silicon or aluminum, in order to
measure of eliminate the reaction between the
carbon and oxygen during
E. Stiffness solidification
F. Toughness
G. Resilience A. Carbon steel
H. Hardness B. Tool steel
C. Killed steel
3. Aging at moderately elevated D. Structural steel
temperature expedites the process
and 8. Involves the loss of ductility because
of a physical or chemical change of
A. Natural aging the material is known as
B. Artificial aging
C. Normal aging A. Embrittlement
D. Supernatural aging B. Pitting
C. Cold shortness
4. It is the tendency to fracture without D. Decarburization
appreciable deformation
9. A material commonly used for
A. Ductility shielding or screening magnetism
B. Brittleness
C. Malleability A. Brass
D. Plasticity B. Copper
C. Aluminum
5. It is the characteristic of exhibiting D. Soft iron
different properties when tested in
different directions 10. A magnet is able to attract

A. Allotropy A. Iron, aluminum and brass

B. Anisotropy B. Iron, cobalt and zinc
C. Isentropic
D. Isotropic C. Iron, copper and nickel
6. It is one in which specimen, D. Nickel, cabalt and steel
supported at both ends as a simple
11. Which of the following materials is A. Silver
used for making permanent B. Tungsten
magnets? C. Gold
D. Copper
A. Carbon steel
B. Platinum cobalt 17. A material best suited for
C. Alnico manufacturing of fuse wire
D. All three mentioned
A. Aluminum
12. Which of the following is the best B. Silver
conductor of electricity? C. Lead
D. Copper

A. Graphite 18. The laminations are made from

B. China clay
C. Porcelain A. Low carbon steel
D. Ceramics B. Silicon sheet steel
C. Nickel alloy steel stays
D. Chrome steel sheets
13. Dielectric strength of a material
depends on the material’s
19. Which of the following metals gets
deposited to provide an undercut
A. Moisture content
for chromium?
B. Thickness
C. Temperature
A. Copper
D. All of these
B. Silver
C. Bronze
14. Which medium has highest value of
D. Lead
dielectric strength?

20. In nickel – iron cell, the electrolyte is:

A. Glass
B. Mica
A. Dilute sulphuric acid
C. Porcelain
B. Dilute potassium hydroxide
D. Quartz
C. Dilute sodium ammonium
hydroxide
15. Which of the following is a primary
D. Dilute sodium chloride
cell?
solution

A. Mercury – oxide
21. Which of the following is not a
B. Lead – acid
primary cess?
C. Nickel – iron – alkaline
D. Nickel – cadmium – alkaline
A. Carbon zinc
B. Silver oxide
16. Which of the following contact point
C. Silver zinc
metals has highest melting point?
D. Nickel – cadmium
22. Select from the conductors below 27. Steel that has been hammered
that has the least electrical rolled or drawn in the process of
conductivity electricity

A. Lead A. Wrought steel

B. Tin B. Rimmed Steel
C. Zinc C. Killed steel
D. Aluminum D. Stainless steel

23. The material used for commutator 28. Which of the following improves red
brushes is mostly hardness?

A. Copper A. Boron
B. Mica B. Cobalt
C. Carbon C. Copper
D. Cast iron D. Columbium

24. Generally, the material for 29. An alloy of nickel and copper
thermocouple is
A. Monel
A. Chrome copel B. Iconel
B. Chrome alumei C. Titanium
C. Platinum rhodum D. Vanadium
D. Any of these
30. Commutator segments are made of
25. Select the best conductor of
electricity A. Zinc
B. Brass
C. Copper
A. Carbon D. Nickel
B. Silver
C. Copper 31. What are the most commonly used
D. Iron materials as photo cathode for the
photoelectric emission?

26. Any heating and cooling of steel

A. Barium and calcium
that produces a rounded or glocular
B. Cesium and rubidium
form of carbide.
C. Arsenic and boron
D. Thorium and tungsten
A. Spheroidizing
B. Malleability
32. Manganese is an alloy of
C. Graphizing
D. Normalizing

A. Copper, manganese and

nickel
 B. Copper, aluminum and
chromium
C. Copper, zinc and lead
D. Copper, chromium and
cadmium
C. Cementite
D. Pearlite
37. Steel can be strengthened by all of
the following practices, EXCEPT:

33. The one that is an acceptor impurity A. Annealing

element B. Quenching and tempering
C. Work hardening
A. Antimony D. Grain refinement
B. Gallium
C. Arsenic 38. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically
D. Phosphorus conductive, with electrons as
majority carriers when adopted with
34. Which of the following is not a which of the following?
method of non-destructive testing of
steel castings and forging? A. Antimony
B. Boron
A. Radiography C. Germanium
B. Magnetic particle D. Aluminum
C. Ultrasonic
D. Chemical analysis 39. The linear portion of the stress-strain
diagram of steel is known as the :
35. All of the following statements about
rusting of iron are correct, except: A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Plasticity
A. Contact with water and C. Irreversible range
oxygen are necessary for D. Elastic range
rusting to occur
B. Contact with a more 40. Imperfections within metallic crystal
electropositive metal structures may be all of the following.
reduces rusting EXCEPT:
C. Halides aggravate rusting
process which involves A. Lattice vacancies or extra
electrochemical oxidation interstitial atom
reduction reaction B. Ion pairs missing in ionic
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich crystals
anodic areas and the rust is C. Displacement of atoms of
deposited nearby interstitial sites
D. Linear defects or slippage
36. If 1080 steel is annealed by very slow dislocations caused by shear
cooling from 1000 C to ambient
temperature, its microstructure will 41. When a metal is cold worked, all of
consist almost solely of: the following generally occur,
A. Austenite EXCEPT:
B. Bainite
 A. Ductility decreases
B. Grains become equal-axed 47. The non ferrous alloy corrodes in
C. Tensile strength increases ammonia is
D. Slip or twinning occurs
A. Copper
42. Hard water is water, which contains B. Bronze
soluble salts of which of the following C. Brass
elements? D. All of these

A. Sodium 48. What is used in main condenser to

B. Sulfur control electrolysis?
C. Calcium
D. Chlorine A. Brass plate
B. Aluminum plates
43. Which of the following metals has C. Zinc plates
the highest specific heat capacity at D. Bronze plate
100 C?
49. Which of the following types of
A. Aluminum packing would be used on steam
B. Bismuth points?
C. Copper
D. Iron A. Asbestos
B. Neoprene
44. Aluminum pistons are either cast or C. Metallic
D. A or C
A. Ground
B. Forged 50. The process applied to iron pipe,
C. Pressed which retards corrosion
D. Welded
A. Galvanizing
45. Valves and piping in an ammonia B. Annealing
system are made of C. Soldering
D. Tinning
A. Iron
B. Bras 51. A scriber is made from what steel?
C. Copper
D. Bronze A. Carbon steel
B. Cold rolled steel
46. Which of the following gasket C. Tool steel
materials should be used on a Freon D. Hot-rolled steel
system?

A. Metallic
B. Asbestos
C. Rubber
D. A and B