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THE ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNER BOARD EXAMINATION (ENP)

PRE BOARD EXAMINATION 2018 (MOCK EXAM)


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ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING PROCESSES, TECHNIQUES AND STRATEGIES


Choose the best letter of the answer for each questions written below.
Use the answer sheet provided.
Encircle the letter of your answer.

1. The adjustment in natural or human systems in response to actual


or expected climatic stimuli or their effects, which moderates
harm or exploits beneficial opportunities. (RA 10121)
a. Reuse
b. Adaptation
c. Adoption
d. All of the above

2. Shows certain fundamental information such as rivers, roads and


political boundaries on which additional, specialized data can be
compiled. _______ provides the standard configuration of the
planning unit and thus serves as the working map for the
preparation of the thematic maps.
a. Map
b. Thematic map
c. Base map
d. Complex map

3. A combination of all strengths and resources available within a


community, society or organization that can reduce the level of
risk, or effects of a disaster. ___ may include infrastructure
and physical means, institutions, societal coping abilities, as
well as human knowledge, skills and collective attributes such as
social relationships, leadership and management. ___ may also be
described as capability. (RA 10121)
a. Capability
b. Capacity
c. Built environment
d. Natural resources

4. Change of climate which is attributed directly or indirectly to


human activity that alters the composition of the global
atmosphere and which is in addition to natural climate
variability observed over comparable time periods. (Climate
Change in the Philippines)
a. Disaster Risk
b. Climate
c. Climate Change
d. Gender Sensitivity

5. A process that aims to externalize or draw out the community’s


interpretation of the landscape, its elements, and the activities
within it; their socio-cultural relations with their environment;
and their perceptions on how best to implement forest resource
management.
a. Mapping
b. Community
c. Community Mapping
d. Data Gathering and Mapping

6. The determination of the boundaries where there is a depth of at


least seven (7) fathoms. (DA Administrative Order No. 1, Series
of 2004)
a. Boundary
b. Limits
c. Demarcation
d. None of the above
7. A serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a
society involving widespread human, material, economic or
environmental losses and impacts, which exceeds the ability of
the affected community or society to cope using its own
resources. (RA 10121)
a. Climate change
b. Disaster Risk
c. Disaster
d. Risk Management

8. The potential disaster losses in lives, health status,


livelihood, assets and services, which could occur to a
particular community or a society over some specified future time
period. (RA 10121)
a. Climate change
b. Disaster Risk
c. Disaster
d. Risk Management

9. Refers to any plan, policy or strategy aimed at ensuring adequate


supplies of appropriate food at affordable prices. Food security
mat be achieved through self-sufficiency (i.e. ensuring adequate
food supplies from domestic production), through self-reliance
(i.e. ensuring adequate food supplies through a combination of
domestic production and importation), or through pure importation
a. Security
b. Food security
c. Reservation
d. All of the above

10. A radio navigation system that allows users on land, sea,


and air to determine their exact location, velocity, and time 24
hours a day, in different weather conditions, and place in the
world.
a. GIS
b. GPS
c. SWS
d. EWD

11. A database which contains, among others, geo-hazard


assessments, information on climate change, and climate risk
reduction and management.
a. GIS
b. GPS
c. SWS
d. EWD

12. A dangerous phenomenon, substance human activity or


condition that may cause loss of life, injury or other health
impacts, property damage, loss of livelihood and services, social
and economic disruption, or environmental damage. (RA 10121)
a. Risk
b. Hazard
c. Disaster
d. All of the above

13. A land area drained by a stream or fixed body of water and


its tributaries having a common outlet for surface run-off. It is
synonymous with a catchment area or drainage basin. (PD 1559 & PD
705)
a. Dams
b. drain
c. Watersheds
d. Collector
14. A map representing a particular theme or subject, such as
vegetation, soils, slope or topography.
a. Map
b. Base map
c. Thematic map
d. All of the above

15. The combination of the probability of an event and its


negative consequences
a. Disaster
b. Risk
c. Disaster management
d. All of the above

16. The ability of a system, community or society exposed to


hazards to resist, absorb, accommodate and recover from the
effects of a hazard in a timely and efficient manner, including
through the preservation and restoration of its essential basic
structures and functions. (RA 10121)
a. Risk
b. Resilience
c. Adaptation
d. All of the above

17. Forestlands tended primarily for the production of timber


including areas within ancestral lands devoted to agriculture.
These are areas below 50% slope and less than 1,000 meters in
elevation.
a. Infrastructure area
b. Protection area
c. Production area
d. Settlement area

18. A bona fide association of citizens with demonstrated


capacity to promote the public interest and with identifiable
leadership, membership and structure. Its members belong to a
sector/s who voluntarily band themselves together to work for and
by themselves for their own upliftment, development and greater
good
a. IPs
b. POs
c. NGOs
d. NGAs

19. The classification and administration of all designated


protected areas to maintain essential ecological processes and
life support systems, to preserve genetic diversity, to ensure
sustainable use of resources found therein, and to maintain their
natural conditions to the greatest extent possible.
a. NON NIPAS
b. NIPAS
c. Protected Areas
d. Production Areas

20. Shall refer to a permanent institution that researches,


acquires, conserves, communicates and exhibits the material
evidence of humans and their environment for purposes of
education or leisure
a. Theme parks
b. Museum
c. Heritage parks
d. All of the above

21. Republic Act 7160 is also known as the


a. HLURB Law
b. Local Government Code
c. Administrative Code
d. Civil Code of the Philippines
22. The Civil Code of the Philippines is also known as
a. RA 7160
b. RA 7920
c. RA 386
d. RA 638

23. Climate Change Act of 2009 is also known as


a. RA 10121
b. RA 9729
c. RA 7160
d. RA 386

24. The Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act


of 2010 is also known as
a. RA 10121
b. RA 9729
c. RA 7160
d. RA 386

25. CLUP 2013 Volume 1 is


a. Sectoral Studies and Tools for Situational Analysis
b. The Planning Process
c. Model Zoning Ordinance
d. None of the Above

26. CLUP 2013 Volume 2 is


a. Sectoral Studies and Tools for Situational Analysis
b. The Planning Process
c. Model Zoning Ordinance
d. None of the Above

27. CLUP 2013 Volume 3 is


a. Sectoral Studies and Tools for Situational Analysis
b. The Planning Process
c. Model Zoning Ordinance
d. None of the Above

28. Which of the following Legal Entities Mandates and Enables


the Implementation of the Environmental Policies for the
Philippines
a. The 1987 Constitution
b. The Local Government Code of 1991
c. Executive Order No. 72
d. Republic Act 7279
e. All of the above

29. The ‘harmonious integration of a sound and viable economy,


responsible governance, social cohesion and ecological integrity,
to ensure that development is a life-sustaining process.’
a. Sustainable Development
b. Development
c. Sustainable
d. All of the above

30. The Goals of the Philippine Agenda 21 are the following:


i. Poverty reduction
ii. Social equity
iii. Empowerment and good governance
iv. Peace and solidarity
v. Ecological integrity

a. i, ii, iii
b. none of the above
c. all of the above
d. iii, iv, v
31. The primary planning area is defined by the
cities’/municipalities’ political boundaries. This includes all
component barangays and the city/municipal waters extending ___
kilometres from shoreline for coastal LGUs.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

32. The CLUP covers a planning period of ___ years at the


minimum. It may be reviewed every ___ years coinciding with the
term of the locally elected officials.
a. 3, 6
b. 6, 3
c. 9, 3
d. 3, 9

33. CLUP Process Step 12 is


a. Draft the zoning ordinance
b. Prepare the land use plan
c. Monitor and evaluate the CLUP and ZO
d. Implement the CLUP and ZO

34. CLUP Process Step 11 is


a. Draft the zoning ordinance
b. Prepare the land use plan
c. Monitor and evaluate the CLUP and ZO
d. Implement the CLUP and ZO

35. CLUP Process Step 10 is


a. Review, adopt and approve the CLUP and ZO
b. Draft the zoning ordinance
c. Prepare the land use plan
d. Monitor and evaluate the CLUP and ZO

36. CLUP Process Step 9 is


a. Draft the zoning ordinance
b. Prepare the land use plan
c. Monitor and evaluate the CLUP and ZO
d. Conduct public hearing

37. CLUP Process Step 8 is


a. Review, adopt and approve the CLUP and ZO
b. Draft the zoning ordinance
c. Prepare the land use plan
d. Monitor and evaluate the CLUP and ZO

38. CLUP Process Step 7 is


a. Draft the zoning ordinance
b. Prepare the land use plan
c. Monitor and evaluate the CLUP and ZO
d. Organize

39. CLUP Process Step 6 is


a. Set the vision
b. Analyse the situation
c. Establish development thrust and spatial strategies
d. Identity stakeholders

40. CLUP Process Step 5 is


a. Set the goals and objectives
b. Analyse the situation
c. Establish development thrust and spatial strategies
d. Identity stakeholders
41. CLUP Process Step 4 is
a. Set the goals and objectives
b. Analyse the situation
c. Establish development thrust and spatial strategies
d. Identity stakeholders

42. CLUP Process Step 3 is


a. Set the vision
b. Analyse the situation
c. Establish development thrust and spatial strategies
d. Identity stakeholders

43. CLUP Process Step 2 is


a. Set the vision
b. Analyse the situation
c. Establish development thrust and spatial strategies
d. Identity stakeholders

44. CLUP Process Step 1


a. Set the vision
b. Analyse the situation
c. Establish development thrust and spatial strategies
d. None of the above

45. What is the output of preparing and disseminating of IEC


materials?
a. Knowledge
b. Community awareness
c. Information
d. None of the above

46. The Planning Core Group is composed of the following;


a. Planning officer
b. C/M ENRO
c. DRRMO/CCA specialist
d. MPDC/CPDC
e. Architect / ENP
f. All of the above

47. ______________ are those who are indirectly affected by the


impacts of the CLUP but may have a particular knowledge and/or
significant roles related to its formulation, implementation,
and/or evaluation.
a. Secondary stakeholders
b. Key stakeholders
c. Primary stakeholders
d. All of the above

48. _______________ are those who are ultimately affected, i.e.


who expect to benefit from or be adversely affected by the
planned interventions
a. Secondary stakeholders
b. Key stakeholders
c. Primary stakeholders
d. All of the above

49. The Sector/s for the Comprehensive Development Plans are


the following;
i. Infrastructure
ii. Economic
iii. Social
iv. Institutional
v. Environmental
vi. Cultural
a. i, ii, iii
b. iv, v, vi
c. v, iv, iii, ii, i
d. i, ii, iii, iv, vi
50. The implementing tool of the CLUP is
a. LDIP
b. CDP
c. ZO
d. None of the above

51. In the abbreviation of the word ‘SMART’, T stands for


a. Trust
b. Technical
c. Time Bound
d. Technological

52. The following steps in setting the vision are;


i. Review the vision, goals, and objectives of the
existing CLUP.
ii. Formulate the vision statement.
iii. Present the refined vision statement to the Local
Development Council for endorsement to the Sangguniang
Panlungsod/ Bayan for subsequent adoption.
iv. Adopt the vision.
v. Disseminate the adopted vision to the general public.

a. i, ii, iii
b. iii, iv, v
c. i, ii, iii, iv, v
d. none of the above
53. Given:
Total Land Area =50,000 has.
Preservation and Conservation Areas (PCA) =25,000 has.
Urban Use Areas (UA) =10,000 has.
Special Land Uses (SLU) =5,000 has.

Solve for the future expansion area needed (Land Supply for
Development)
a. 5,000 has
b. 10,000 has
c. 15,000 has
d. 20,000 has

54. Slope Maps can be obtained from which of the following


Bureau / Department?
a. PAGASA
b. BSWM
c. NAMRIA
d. DILG

55. _______ are private lands, public lands and waters that are
set aside for conservation, preservation, and rehabilitation
because of their long-term strategic benefit and because of the
observed and projected impact of climate related events and
disasters to these areas.
a. Production areas
b. Protection areas
c. Settlement areas
d. Infrastructure areas

56. _______ are where all types of activities and uses can be
conducted subject to restrictions imposed by LGU zoning
ordinances. The basic land uses zones and activities inside
production and multiple land use areas would be those areas
identified for settlements, commercial, industrial,
institutional, infrastructure, agriculture/fisheries and
production forestry.
a. Production areas
b. Protection areas
c. Settlement areas
d. Infrastructure areas
57. Social Sectors have the following sub-sectors composed of;
a. Education
b. Health, Nutrition and Family Planning
c. Housing and Community Development
d. Social Services and Welfare Services
e. Peace and Order / Protective Services
f. All of the above

58. Given:
No. of Males in a Community = 45,000
No. of Females in a Community = 15,000

Compute for the Sex Ratio.

a. 1 : 1
b. 2 : 1
c. 3 : 1
d. 4 : 1

59. ____ refers to the live births that occur within a


population. The production of live birth is connected with many
factors like the start of cohabitation, use of contraception,
infant and child mortality and cessation of pregnancy.
a. Death
b. Fertility
c. Migration
d. Birth

60. ___________________ refers to the number of births divided


by the midyear population, usually expressed in terms of
thousands.
a. Crude Death Rate
b. Crude Birth Rate
c. Mortality
d. Fertility

61. ___________ refers to the occurrence of deaths in a


population.
a. Crude Death Rate
b. Crude Birth Rate
c. Mortality
d. Fertility

62. Gross Population Density equals


a. Gross area / population
b. Population / gross area
c. Population / density
d. Density / population

63. The number of live births per 1,000 population during a


given period.
a. CBR
b. CDR
c. Fertility
d. Mortality

64. The number of deaths per 1,000 population during a given


period.
a. CBR
b. CDR
c. Fertility
d. Mortality
65. The average number of children that would be born alive to
a woman during her lifetime if she were to pass through her
childbearing years conforming to the age- specific fertility
rates of a given year.
a. CBR
b. CDR
c. Total Fertility Rate
d. Maternal Mortality Rate

66. The number of deaths among women 15-49 years old from
pregnancy related causes per 100,000 live births in a given
period.
a. CBR
b. CDR
c. Total Fertility Rate
d. Maternal Mortality Rate

67. The pace at which the population is increasing (or


decreasing) during a given period on a yearly basis expressed as
a percentage of the basic population.
a. Growth Rate
b. Population Growth Rate
c. Annual Population Growth Rate
d. Annual Population Increase/decrease Rate

68. Given:
CBR for the Philippines in year xxxx = 25.6 per 1,000 pop
CDR for the Philippines in year xxxx = 5.7 per 1,000 pop
Required:
Solve for the Rate of Natural Increase (RNI)

a. 15
b. 17
c. 20
d. 25

69. The Types of Population Distribution are the following;


a. Expansive
b. Constrictive
c. Stationary
d. A and b only
e. A, b and c

70. The DepEd target of ____ student-teacher and student-


classroom ratio by 2010 in the elementary level and ____ for the
high school level, is recommended.
a. 1:20 , 1:30
b. 1:25 , 1:40
c. 1:35 , 1:40
d. None of the above

71. Student – Teacher ratio is equal to


a. Total no. of teachers / total enrolment
b. No. of classroom / no. of enrolment
c. Total enrolment / total no. of teachers
d. None of the above

72. Student – classroom ratio is equal to


a. Total no. of teachers / total enrolment
b. Total enrolment / no. of classrooms
c. Total enrolment / total no. of teachers
d. None of the above
73. The following must be considered in preparing for the
Community Profile;
i. Stakeholders
ii. Local views, preferences and aspirations
iii. Organizational structures
iv. Census and other statistical data
v. Cultural characteristics
vi. Safety and security

a. i, ii, iii, iv
b. i, ii, iii
c, i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi
d. none of the above

74. This concerns inefficiently performing or outdated existing


areas which are candidates for redevelopment. Old developments
are normally found in the inner city.
a. Areas for new development
b. Areas for redevelopment
c. Areas for improvement
d. None of the above

75. This concerns still undeveloped or under-developed areas.


This concerns city raw land and lightly inhabited areas. These
areas are usually located in city hinterlands.
a. Areas for new development
b. Areas for redevelopment
c. Areas for improvement
d. None of the above

76. ____________ was enacted specifically “to protect,


preserve, conserve and promote the nation’s cultural heritage,
its property and histories, and the ethnicity of local
communities”.
a. IPRA
b. LGC of 1991
c. NCHA of 2009
d. NIPAS Act

77. In this regard, the _______________ issued the Guidelines,


Policies and Standards for the Conservation and Development of
Historic Centres/Heritage Zones.
a. National Museum
b. DENR
c. National Historical Commission of the Philippines
d. DepEd

78. ________________ is an internationally accepted term in


conservation circles as an indicator of tangible cum intangible
quality that defines a certain heritage resource, if not any
locus of habitation. It conveys the cultural essence of a site
encompassing the meanings of a place accrued through time and
through its past and present uses.
a. Significance of the Land
b. Importance of the Land
c. Genius Loci
d. Essence of the Place

79. ‘Spirit of the Place’ is also known as


a. Buhay ng Lugar
b. Diwa ng Lunan
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
80. Utilization of buildings, other built-structures, and sites
of value for purposes other than that for which they were
originally intended. In order to conserve the site, its
engineering integrity and authenticity of design.
a. Beautification
b. Buffer zone
c. Adaptive reuse
d. Conservation

81. The process of making the appearance of an object or group


of objects simple, neat, orderly, coordinated (interrelated as in
a group of buildings), attractive, enhanced and good looking.
a. Beautification
b. Buffer zone
c. Adaptive reuse
d. Conservation

82. Special protective zone (area, strip, belt) around an


historic district, center, town or property. It must be part of
the local land use and zoning regulations, such as, for example,
road right of way.
a. Zone
b. Zone location
c. Buffer zone
d. Zone clearance

83. A collection of rules and regulations adopted by


authorities with jurisdiction over the design and construction of
buildings, alteration, repair, quality of materials, use and
occupancy, and related factors; contains minimum architectural,
structural, and mechanical standards for sanitation, public
health, welfare, safety, and provision of light and air.
a. Structural Code
b. Building Code
c. Sanitary Code
d. Architectural Code

84. All the processes and measures of maintaining the cultural


significance of a cultural property, including but not limited
to, preservation, restoration, reconstruction, protection,
adaptation or any combination thereof.
a. Preservation
b. Adaptive reuse
c. Conservation
d. All of the above

85. Uninterrupted connection; succession; maintaining


existence. In the restoration of monuments and sites, the
continuity of culture and history is satisfied through their
preservation.
a. Finite
b. Continuity
c. Futuristic
d. Development

86. The assignment of function/s to a land area; classification


of particular areas or plots according to the manner in which
they are utilized, and their relationships with adjacent uses and
integral components.
a. Land Program
b. Land Planning
c. Land Use
d. All of the above
87. The regeneration, modernization, revitalization of an old,
deteriorated or blighted portion of a town or city, with the
objective of preparing the town or city for present and future
demands of urban living.
a. Urban Sprawl
b. Urban Reborn
c. Urban Renewal
d. All of the above

88. The legal instrument that implements the town or city plan.
a. Local Development Investment Program
b. Executive – Legislative Agreement
c. Internal Revenue Allotment
d. Zoning Ordinance

89. Selected viewing station where beautiful townscape and


striking panorama can be appreciated.
a. Tourist View
b. View
c. Vista Point
d. None of the above

90. Absolute Majority Vote means that the “in favor” votes
represent more than _______ of the valid votes.
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. None of the Above

91. The Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization Act of 1997 is


also known as
a. RA 8455
b. RA 8435
c. RA 8855
d. RA 8833

92. As per the Indigenous Peoples Rights Act of 1997 (RA 8371),
these refer to all areas generally belonging to Indigenous
Cultural Communities/Indigenous Peoples (ICCs/IPs) comprising
lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and natural resources
therein, held under a claim of ownership, occupied or possessed
by ICCs/IPs.
a. Ancestral Lands
b. Ancestral Domains
c. Ancestral People
d. None of the Above

93. ______________ refer to land occupied, possessed and


utilized by individuals, families and clans who are members of
the ICCs/IPs…”(IPRA).
a. Ancestral Lands
b. Ancestral Domains
c. Ancestral People
d. None of the Above

94. The elevation to which floodwater is expected to reach


during flood events as calculated by the regional office of the
DPWH.
a. Elevation
b. Base Flood Elevation
c. Flood Margin
d. Flood Thrust

95. Shall refer to areas designated principally for trade,


services and business purposes.
a. ICCs
b. IPs
c. CBD
d. Rural Areas
96. Uses or land activities with contrasting characteristics
and adjacent to each other e.g. residential units adjacent to
industrial plants.
a. Conflicting Uses
b. Conforming Uses
c. All of the above
d. None of the Above

97. A use that is in accordance with the zone regulations as


provided for in the Ordinance.
a. Conflicting Uses
b. Conforming Uses
c. All of the above
d. None of the Above

98. Different uses capable of existing harmoniously within a


zone, e.g. residential and parks and playground uses subject to
the conditions stipulated in the Zoning Ordinance.
a. Conflicting Uses
b. Compatible Uses
c. All of the above
d. None of the Above

99. A local special body created by virtue of this Ordinance


mandated to, among others, handle appeals for Variances and
Exceptions.
a. LC
b. LZBA
c. LC-E
d. LC-V

100. A clearance issued by the Zoning Administrator/Zoning


Officer to a project that is allowed under the provisions of this
Ordinance.
a. LC
b. LZBA
c. LC-E
d. LC-V

101. Shall mean “the process of extracting, removing and


disposing quarry resources found on or near the surface of
private or public land” (Mining Act).
a. Mining
b. Gold Mining
c. Quarrying
d. None of the Above

102. A process of introducing amendments to or change in the


existing zoning of a particular area and reflected in the text
and maps of the Ordinance.
a. Zoning
b. Land Use
c. Re-Zoning
d. All of the Above

103. An area within a city/municipality for specific land use as


defined by manmade or natural boundaries.
a. Land Use
b. Zone / Subzone
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

104. A city/municipal government employee responsible for the


implementation/enforcement of the Zoning Ordinance.
a. Mayor
b. Vice Mayor
c. Zoning Administrator / Zoning Officer
d. Planning and Development Officer
105. A document issued by the Zoning Administrator citing the
zoning classification of the land based on this Ordinance.
a. Zoning Plan
b. Zoning Document
c. Zoning Papers
d. Zoning Certificate

106. As defined in the National Building Code, this is “the


required open space left between the outermost face of the
building/ structure and the property lines, e.g. front, rear,
right and left side yards.
a. Space
b. Free space
c. Yard
d. Setback

107. The Tourism Act of 2009 is also known as


a. RA 7160
b. RA 8371
c. RA 386
d. RA 9593

108. Refers to housing [programs and] projects covering houses


and lots or home lots only undertaken by the Government or the
private sector for the underprivileged and homeless citizens
(UDHA)
a. Housing
b. National Housing Authority
c. Socialized Housing
d. Socialized

109. In CLUP Process Step 12, MRE stands for


a. Man, Revenue and Energy
b. Monitoring, Review and Evaluation
c. Monitoring, Revenue and Evaluation
d. Monitoring, Review and Energy

110. PLUC stands for


a. Public Land Use Committee
b. Private Land Use Committee
c. Provincial Land Use Committee
d. Political Land Use Committee

111. Mineral distribution map of gold and copper in the


Philippines is officially distributed by which Philippine agency?
a. Bureau of Mines
b. Bureau of Soils and Water Management
c. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
d. Mines and Geosciences Bureau
e. National Mapping and Resource Information Authority

112. This Philippine agency is the official author of Tsunami and


Liquefaction susceptibility maps
a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
b. Mines and Geosciences Bureau
c. National Mapping and Resource Information Authority
d. PAGASA
e. PHIVOLCS

113. Maps showing only one dominant information are called


a. Geologic maps
b. Land Capability Maps
c. Thematic maps
d. Topographic Maps
e. Soil Maps
114. Voluntary transfer or conveyance of private property by a private
owner, such as sale or donation.
a. Inheritance
b. .Public Grant
c. Private Grant
d. Involuntary Grant

115. Acquisition of alienable lands of the public domain by homestead


patent, free patent, sales patent, or other government awards.
a. Inheritance
b. .Public Grant
c. Private Grant
d. Involuntary Grant

116. Acquisition of private party against the consent of the former


owners, such as foreclosure sale, execution sale, or tax sale.
a. Inheritance
b. .Public Grant
c. Private Grant
d. Involuntary Grant

117. Acquisition of private property through hereditary succession.


a. Inheritance
b. .Public Grant
c. Private Grant
d. Involuntary Grant

118. Filling of submerged land, subject to existing laws and


government regulations.
a. Accretion
b. Reclamation
c. Prescription
d. None of the Above

119. Acquisition of more lands adjoining the banks of rivers due to


the gradual deposit of soil as a result of the river current.
a. Accretion
b. Reclamation
c. Prescription
d. None of the Above

120. Acquisition of title by actual, open, continuous, and


uninterrupted possession in the concept of owner for the period
required by law.
a. Accretion
b. Reclamation
c. Prescription
d. None of the Above

121. If the LQ is greater than 1.0, the town is _______ specialized


than the province as a whole in that type of
economic activity.
a. Equally
b. b. less
c. c. more
d. d. None of the Above

122. If the LQ is less than 1.0, the town is ______ specialized in


that activity or sector than the province as a
whole.
a. Equally
b. less
c. more
d. None of the Above
123. If the LQ is equal to 1.0, the activity is ________ important in
both the town and the province
a. Equally
b. less
c. more
d. None of the Above

124. A Physical Framework Plans that broadly describes characteristics


of diff. areas of the PHL (e.g, Tourism areas, economic zones,
hazardous areas, etc.). Sets general guidelines based on sustainable
developments.
a. PFPP
b. RFPP
c. NFPP
d. Municipal Land Use Plan & Zoning

125. A Physical Framework Plans that describes characteristics,


comparative advantage of every region,
Describes production and growth. It sets overall strategies and
linkages; key driving infrastructure.
a. PFPP
b. RFPP
c. NFPP
d. Municipal Land Use Plan & Zoning

126. A Physical Framework Plans that describes/ designates general


land uses of province
It makes statements on province’s overall thrust based on inherent
characteristics, advantages
a. PFPP
b. RFPP
c. NFPP
d. Municipal Land Use Plan & Zoning

127. A Physical Framework Plans that is more responsive to NPFD. It


seeks to raise land productivity, protect and ensure resource
sustainability, facilitate dev’t of housing, and build an
infrastructure that promotes or assists in development.
a. PFPP
b. RFPP
c. NFPP
d. Municipal Land Use Plan & Zoning

128. Aims to ensure that funding requirements for the development


needs of municipalities and cities are included in agency budget
proposals. It promotes inclusive participation in community
development by empowering civil society organizations (CSOs) to be
engaged in the budgeting process
a. Top to Bottom Budgeting
b. Bottom Up Budgeting
c. Internal Budgeting
d. None of the Above

129. It is a planning and budgeting document that is mutually


developed and agreed upon by both the executive and legislative
departments of an LGU. It is an integrated plan that contains the
major development thrusts and priorities of both executive and
legislative branches towards a common vision for the LGU
a. CLUP
b. AIP
c. ELA
d. None of the Above
130. Division of city/municipality into zones or districts to present
and potential uses of land, to
Maximize, regulate and direct their use and dev’t in accordance with
comprehensive land use plan
of city/municipality
a. Zoning Ordinance
b. Zoning
c. City Ordinance
d. Municipal Ordinance

131. An ordinance or local legal measure which embodies regulations


affecting land use
a. Zoning Ordinance
b. Zoning
c. City Ordinance
d. Municipal Ordinance

132. It is a systematic approach to estimating the strengths and


weaknesses of alternatives that satisfy transactions, activities or
functional requirements for a business.
a. SMART
b. GAM
c. SWOT Analysis
d. Cost Benefit Analysis

133. It is a best practice framework for setting goals. Often used for
performance reviews, the acronym is intended to help a manager or
other employee who is tasked with setting goals to clarify exactly
what will be required for achieving success and to be able to share
that clarification with others.
a. SMART
b. GAM
c. SWOT Analysis
d. Cost Benefit Analysis

134. Clearly sets out planned goals and marks them against objectives
and the necessary steps / measures to achieve the goals
a. SMART
b. GAM
c. SWOT analysis
d. Cost Benefit Analysis

135. It is a framework for identifying and analysing the internal and


external factors that can have an impact on the viability of a
project, product, place or person.
a. SMART
b. GAM
c. SWOT analysis
d. Cost Benefit Analysis

136. Process in which a society consistently increases the standard of


living of the majority of its population. It is both quantitative and
qualitative. It is both a physical reality and a state of mind for
attaining a better life.
a. Economic Growth
b. Economic Development
c. Development
d. None of the Above

137. An increase in the amount of goods and services produced per head
of the population over a period of time.
a. Economic Growth
b. Economic Development
c. Development
d. None of the Above
138. It is a legal technique for the resolution of disputes outside
the courts, wherein the parties to a dispute refer it to one or more
persons, by whose decision (the "award") they agree to be bound.
a.Mediation
b. Arbitration
c. Ligitation
d. None of the Above

139. Boundary conflict between municipalities must be resolved first


thru.
a. Court of Appeal
b. Supreme Court
c. Sangunian Panglalawigan
d. Sanggunian Panglunsod on both LGU

140. A neutral zone or area between two potentially hostile nations,


designed to prevent any overt acts of aggression
a. Setback
b. Separation
c. Buffer Zone
d. None of the Above.

141. Usually a numerical measure of quality of life in a country.


Indicators are used to illustrate progress of a country in meeting a
range of economic, social, and environmental goals.
a. Progress Indicators
b. Development Indicators
c. GDP
d. NDP

142. Represents the monetary value of all goods and services produced
within a nation's geographic borders over a specified period of time.
a. Progress Indicators
b. Development Indicators
c. GDP
d. NDP

143. It is a summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions


of human development: a long and healthy life, being knowledgeable and
have a decent standard of living.
a. Gross National Product
b. Gross Domestic Product
c. Human Development Index
d. Human Poverty Index

144. Was an indication of the standard of living in a country,


developed by the United Nations (UN) to complement the Human
Development Index (HDI) and was first reported as part of the Human
Development Report in 1997.
a. Gross National Product
b. Gross Domestic Product
c. Human Development Index
d. Human Poverty Index

145. Short Term Planning in government.


a.1-3 years
b. 5-7 years
c. 10 years
d. 30-50 years

146. Long Term Planning in government.


a.1-3 years
b. 5-7 years
c. 10 years
d. 30-50 years
147. Time frame for CLUP.
a.1-3 years
b. 5-7 years
c. 10 years
d. 30-50 years

148. Time frame for Development Plan in LGU.


a.1-3 years
b. 5-7 years
c. 10 years
d. 30-50 years

149. RA 10587 is also known as ______.


a. Civil Engineering Law
b. Sanitary Engineering Law
c. Environmental Engineering Law
d. Environmental Planning Law

150. RA 9003 is also known as


a. Clean Water Act
b. Clean Air Act
c. Ecological Solid Wast Management Act
d. None of the above

END.