Vous êtes sur la page 1sur 88

Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No.

:
P552 [Total No. of Pages : 3
[4717] - 6001
S.Y.B.Sc.
MATHEMATICS
MT-221 : Linear Algebra
(2013 Pattern) (Paper - I) (Semester - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Attempt any five of the following: [10]

a) Write all trivial subspaces of any vector space V.

b) Show that the set {(1,3), (2,5)} is a basis of vector space R2.
c) Is the set W = {(1,2,3), (2,4,6)} linearly dependent? Justify.

d) Find norm and distance between the vectors u =(1,1,-1) and v =(-1,1,0)
in R3 with Euclidean inner product.

e) Write down definition of orthogonal and orthonormal basis for inner


product space V.
f) State Rank-Nullity theorem (Dimension theorem) for matrices. Hence
find nullity of the matrix A, if A is 4 × 6 matrix and rank (A) = 3.

g) If T : V → W is a linear transformation, then write down T (0 ) , T (−u )


and T (u − v ).

Q2) Attempt any two of the following: [10]

a) State and prove necessary and sufficient condition for a non-empty subset
W of a vector space V to be a subspace of V.

P.T.O.
b) In a vector space V = M2×2 (R) with inner product

A,B = u1v1 + u2v2 + u3v3 + u 4 v4

⎡ u1 u2 ⎤ ⎡v v2 ⎤
where A = ⎢u u ⎥ , B=⎢ 1
⎣ 3 4⎦ ⎣v 3 v4 ⎥⎦ belongs to V = M2×2(R).

Show that the angle between the matrices

⎡1 1⎤ ⎡1 0 ⎤ π
A=⎢ ⎥ and B = ⎢ ⎥ is .
⎣0 1⎦ ⎣ 2 −1⎦ 2

c) For the linear transformation T:R2→R3 defined by

T(x,y) = (x, x + y, y).

Find range and kernel of T. Hence find rank (T).

Q3) Attempt any two of the following: [10]

a) If u and v are vectors in Rn and k is any scalar then prove that

i) u +v ≤ u + v

ii) If u , v are orthogonal to each other, then u + v .


2 2 2
= u + v

b) Let V = \ 2 be the set of all ordered pairs of real numbers. The operation
of addition and scalar multiplication on V = \ 2 is defined as
( x1 , x2 ) + ( y1, y2 ) = ( x1 + y2 ,
x2 + y1 ) and k ( x1 , x2 ) = (kx1 , kx2 ) , for all
real scalars k. Show that V is not a vector space.

c) Find the matrix of linear transformation T : R 3→ R 3 given by


T ( x , y , z ) = (− x − y + z , x − 4 y + z , 2 x − 5 y )

with respect to the standard basis B = {e1 , e2 , e3} where e1 = (1,0,0 ),


e2 = (0,1,0 ), e3 = (0,0,1).

[4717]-6001 2
Q4) Attempt any one of the following: [10]
a) i) Prove that any two bases in a finite dimensional vector space have
same number of vectors.

ii) Using Euclidean inner product on R3, show that u = (−3,1,0 ) and
v = (2, −1,3) satisfy Cauchy - Schwarz inequality.

b) i) If T1 : U → V and T2 :V → W be linear transformation then prove


that T2oT1: U → W is a linear transformation.

ii) Find a linear transformation T : R2 → R2 such that T(1,0) = (1,1)


and T(0,1) = (–1,2).

l l l l

[4717]-6001 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P553 [4717] - 6002
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
MATHEMATICS
MT-222 (A) : Multivariable Calculus - II
(2013 Pattern) (Paper - II(A)) (Semester - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Attempt any five of the following: [10]

sin −1 2t 3t − 1
a) If f (t ) = i+ j + cos t k , t ≠ 0 and if f (0) = ai + bj + ck
3t t
and f (t ) is continuous at t = 0 then find a,b,c.

b) Find unit tangent vector of the curve r (t ) = t 2 i + 2cos t j + 2sin tk .

c) Integrate f(x,y,z) = x–3y2+z over the line segment C joining the origin to
the point (1,1,1).

d) Show that the vector field

F = y sin zi + x sin zj + xy cos zk is conservative.

e) Show that ∫∫ r . nds


S
ˆ = 3V where V is the volume of the space enclosed

by surface S.

f) Find parametrization of the surface of paraboloid Z = g – x2 – y2, Z ≥ 0.

g) State Stoke’s theorem.

P.T.O.
Q2) Attempt any two of the following: [10]
a) Show that a differentiable vector function u of a scalar variable t to be
du
constant magnitude if and only if u . =0.
dt
b) Find the potential function f for the field

F = ( y + z ) i + ( x + z ) j + ( x + y)k .

c) Verify Stoke’s theorem for the vector field F = 4xzi − y 2 j + yzk over
the area in the plane z = 0 bounded by x = y =0 and x2 + y2 = 1.

Q3) Attempt any two of the following: [10]

a) Find T and N for the plane curve r (t ) = (2t + 3) i + (5 − t 2 ) j , t > 0 .

b) If f ( x, y, z ) is a differentiable real valued function and C is a path joining the

points A(x0,y0,z0) to B(x1,y1,z1) then show that ∫ ∇f ⋅ ds = f (B) − f (A) .

c) Find the surface area of the cone Z = x 2 + y 2 , 0 ≤ Z ≤ 1 by using


parametrization.

Q4) Attempt any one of the following: [10]

a) i) If f (t ) = f1 (t ) i + f 2 (t ) j + f3 (t )k is a differentiable vector function


of a scalor variable t. Then show that f1, f2 and f3 are differentiable
scalor functions of scalor variable t.

v∫ (e + y 2 ) dx + (e y + x 2 )dy
x
ii) Using Green’s theorem evaluate
C

where C is the boundary of the region between y = x2 and y = x.


b) Verify Gauss divergence theorem for

F = ( x 2 − yz ) i + ( y 2 − 2 x ) j + ( z 2 − xy )k taken over the rectangular


parallelopiped 0 ≤ x ≤ a, 0 ≤ y ≤ b, 0 ≤ z ≤ c .

l l l l
[4717]-6002 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P554 [4717] - 6003
[Total No. of Pages : 3

S.Y.B.Sc.
PHYSICS
PH-221: Oscillations, Waves and Sound
(Paper-I) (2013 Pattern) (New) (Semester-II)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Use of log table and calculator is allowed.

Q1) Attempt all of the following: [10]

a) State any two applications of Lissajous figures.

b) What are the types of seismic waves?

c) Define log decrement.

d) State various types of equilibria?

e) What is condition for amplitude resonance in forced oscillations?

f) The frequency of damped oscillator of mass 5gm is 5 Hz. If the coefficient


of damping is 0.314 dyne|cm-s-1, determine its Q value.

g) What is Doppler effect in light?


o o
h) A spectral line normally at 4000 A is shifted to 3999 A by relative motion
of source. What is the velocity of source along line of site?

i) What is Red shift?

j) Determine the reverberation time of a hall having volume 56,000 cubic


feet, if it contains sound absorbing material of area 7000 square feet
having absorption coefficient 0.2.

P.T.O.
Q2) Attempt any two of the following;

a) Derive the condition for velocity resonance and obtain amplitude of


velocity at resonance. [5]

b) Describe the stroboscopic method for determination of frequency of


tunning fork. [5]

c) Obtain an expression for energy density of a plane progressive wave


propagating through a medium. [5]

Q3) Attempt any two of the following:

a) A particle is subjected to the rectangular simple harmonic motions given


by x = a sin(ωt + φ ) and y = b sin ωt .

Obtain the equation for resultant oscillator path. Discuss the case for
φ = π 2 and a ≠ b. [5]

b) Show that the frequency of damped oscillations is expressed as

ϑd = ϑ 1 − 1 4 Q 2 Where Q is quality factor. [5]

c) An alternating e.m.f. of 230V is applied accross a circuit in which an


inductance of 10 mH, a capacitance of 1 μ f and a resistance of 23
ohms are connected in series. Determine resonant angular frequency of
resonance, quality factor and bandwidth. [5]

Q4) A) Attempt any one:

a) i) Show that the Doppler effect in sound is asymmetric. [4]

ii) A particle is moving simple harmonically along a straight line.


If it possess velocities V1 and V2 at positions X1 and X2 from
equilibrium position, prove that the periodic time is

X 22 − X12
T=2Π . [4]
V12 − V22

[4717]-6003 2
b) i) The amplitude of simple pendulum of the period 1 sec. falls to
half of its initial value in 200 seconds. Determine the quality
factor. [4]

ii) A longitudinal disturbance generated by an earthquake travels


960 km in 2 minutes. Find average density of the rock. Given
Bulk modulus of the rock = 2 × 1011 N / m 2 . [4]

B) Attempt any one of the following:

i) What are coupled oscillations? [2]

ii) Calculate the change in intensity level when intensity of sound


increases 106 times to original intensity. [2]

cccc

[4717]-6003 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P555 [4717] - 6004
[Total No. of Pages : 3

S.Y.B.Sc.
PHYSICS
PH - 222 : OPTICS
(2013 Pattern) (New) (Paper - II) (Semester - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Use of log tables and calculators is allowed.

Q1) Attempt all of the following (one mark each) [10]


a) Define linear magnification of thin lens.

b) Calculate the equivalent focal length of two lenses in contact. Focal length
of each lens is 20 cm.

c) State the cause of chromatic aberration.

d) Calculate the minimum MP of magnifying glass of focal length 6 cm.

e) What is an eyepiece?
f) Why Huygen eyepiece is called negative eyepiece?

g) Calculate the phase difference between the two rays differing by λ 3 path
difference.

h) What do you mean by R.P. of an optical instrument?

i) Define linearly polarized light.


j) State Brewster’s law.

P.T.O.
Q2) Attempt any two of the following (Five marks each) [10]
a) Show that the distance of first principal plane from the first lens of an
xf
optical system is given by α = where f is equivalent focal length of
f2
two lenses kept apart by distance x.

b) What do you mean by spherical aberration? Derive the condition of


minimum spherical aberration where two planoconvex lenses are separated
by finite distance.

c) Explain phenomenon of interference in thin parallel sided film of constant


thickness. Obtain the path difference between two consecutive rays.
Hence derive conditions of minima and maxima in reflected system.

Q3) Attempt any two of the following: (Five marks each) [10]

a) An equivalent focal length of Ramsden eyepiece is 6cm. Calculate focal


lengths of field lens and eyelens. Locate the positions of principal points
using suitable diagram.

b) Focal length of biconvex glass lens having radii of curvatures 50 cm and


40 cm has focal length 44 cm when kept in air medium. Calculate the
focal length of same lens when air is replaced by water of RI 1.33.

c) How many orders will be visible if the wavelength incident on the plane
o
transmission grating is 5000 A and number of lines on the grating be
2620 per inch.

Q4) A) Attempt any one (Eight marks) [8]

a) i) Prove that the longitudinal chromatic aberration is equal to the


product of dispersive power and mean focal length.

ii) State and explain law of Malus.

b) i) Draw ray diagram to show image formation in compound


microscope. Obtain the expression for it’s magnifying power
Vo D
equal to u u .
o e

[4717]-6004 2
ii) Show that radii of the dark rings are directly proportional to the
square root of natural numbers.

B) Attempt any one (Two marks): [2]

a) Calculate maximum difference between the velocities of Eray and


Oray moving through calcite crystal.

(Given : μe = 1.4864, μo = 1.6584, C = 3 × 108 m/sec).

b) What do you mean by distorsion in image formation?

l l l l

[4717]-6004 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] SEAT No. :
P556 [4717] - 6005
[Total No. of Pages : 3

S.Y.B.Sc.
CHEMISTRY
CH-221 : Physical and Analytical Chemistry
(2013 Pattern) (Paper - III) (Semester - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
5) Answer to both sections should be written in separate answer books.

SECTION - I

(Physical Chemistry)

Q1) Answer the following: [5]

a) Define Helmholtz free energy.


b) What are KP and KC?

c) Define conjugate solutions.

d) State Henry’s law and give its equation.

e) What are Azeotropes?

Q2) a) Answer any two of the following : [6]

i) Derive Gibb’s - Helmholtz equation.

ii) Give properties and significance of free energy change.


iii) Explain the term Upper consulate and Lower consulate temperature.

P.T.O.
b) Attempt any two of the following: [4]
i) How will you calculate graphically the heat of vapourization of liquid
from Clausius-Clapeyron equation?

ii) Draw Labelled diagram of Fractionating Column.

iii) Define the term Normality and Molarity.

Q3) Solve any two of the following: [5]

a) Three moles of an ideal gas compressed isothermally and reversibly at


30oC from a pressure of 1 × 105 pascal to 3 × 105 pascal. Calculate
Gibb’s free energy change. (R = 8.314 JK–1mole–1)
b) The vapour pressure of certain organic liquid is 137.5 pascal at 47oC
and 227.5 pascal at 57oC. Calculate molar heat of vapourization of given
organic liquid.(R = 8.314 JK–1mole–1)
c) A mixture of ‘A’ and ‘B’ contains 60% by weight of ‘A’.Calculate mole
fraction of ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the above mixture. (Given : Mole.wt. of
‘A’ = 120 and ‘B’ = 90).

SECTION - II

(Analytical Chemistry)

Q4) Answer the following: [5]

a) Define the term standard solution.

b) Why should a primary standard substance have a high molecular weight?


c) What do you mean by the term polybasic acid?

d) Define the term oxidizing agent.

e) What is mean by precipitation titration?

[4717]-6005 2
Q5) a) Answer any two of the following: [6]
i) Explain the titration curve between strong acid-weak base.

ii) Describe the method of estimation of available chlorine in a bleaching


powder.

iii) What is universal indicator? Where it is used? Give preparation of


any one indicator.

b) Attempt any two of the following: [4]

i) What are the requirements of primary standard?


ii) Explain the difference between iodometry and iodimetry.

iii) How 0.1 N sodium thiosulphate solution is prepared? What


precaution to be taken for its preservation?

Q6) Solve any two of the following: [5]

a) Calculate normality and strength of H2SO4 solution when 20 ml of it reacts


with 25 ml of 0.1 N NaOH solution. (Given : Eq.wt.of H2SO4 = 49)
b) What is the pH of solution after adding 22 ml 0.1 N NaOH to 25 ml 0.1
N HCl.
c) In a redox titration, 40 ml 0.1 M Ce+4 solution is added to a solution of
80 ml of 0.1 M Fe2+ solution. Calculate Ecell. (Given: E oFe3+ /Fe2+ = 0.771 V)

l l l l

[4717]-6005 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] SEAT No. :
P557 [4717] - 6006
[Total No. of Pages : 3

S.Y.B.Sc.
CHEMISTRY
CH-222 : Organic and Inorganic Chemistry
(2013 Pattern) (Paper - IV) (Semester - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer of the two sections should be written on separate answer books.
2) All questions are compulsory.
3) Neat diagram must be drawn wherever necessary.

SECTION - I

(Organic Chemistry)

Q1) Attempt the following: [5]

a) What is Birch reduction? Give one example.

b) Give the importance of biochemistry in agriculture.

c) Define the heterocyclic compounds with example.


d) Draw the structure of sucrose.

e) Give the specific use of Sn|HCl.

Q2) a) Attempt any two of the following : [6]


i) Give the synthesis of thiophene. What is the action of following
reagent on thiophene? 1) conc.HNO3 2) 2H2/Raney Ni

ii) Give the objections to open chain structure of glucose.

iii) Distinguish between reduction by LiAlH4 and NaBH4.

P.T.O.
b) Assign (A) and (B) of the following reactions (Any Two): [4]

Q3) Attempt any two of the following [5]

a) What are α - amino acid? Why they are amphoteric? Explain the action
of α -amino acid with nitrous acid.
b) Define cis-hydroxylation reaction. Explain cis-hydroxylation reaction by
using KMnO4

c) What are proteins? Explain primary and secondary structure of proteins.

SECTION - II

(Inorganic Chemistry)

Q4) Answer in one sentence: [5]


a) Define EAN rule.

b) What is paramagnetism?

c) What is mean by chemical toxicity?

d) Give definitions of Lewis acid and base.


e) Define Lux-Flood concept.

[4717]-6006 2
Q5) a) Attempt any two of the following: [6]
i) What are transition elements? Explain following properties of these
elements?

1) Atomic size 2) Catalytic activity

ii) Explain Bronsted-Lowry theory of acids and bases with suitable


example. Give its merits.

iii) Define organometallic compounds. Count the number of electrons


in [CO2(CO)8] and state whether it follows 18 electron rule or not.

b) Attempt any two of the following: [4]

i) Explain biochemical effects of Arsenic.


ii) Give any four general characteristics of d-block elements.

iii) What is conjugate acid-base pair? Explain with suitable example.

Q6) Answer any two of the following: [5]


a) Explain impact of toxic chemicals on enzymes.

b) Write a note on charge transfer spectra.

c) Draw solid state structure of


i) W(CO)6 ii) Ir4(CO)12.

l l l l

[4717]-6006 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P558 [4717] - 6007
[Total No. of Pages : 1

S.Y.B.Sc.
BOTANY
BO - 221 : Plant Anatomy and Embryology
(2013 Pattern) (Paper - I) (Semester - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.
Q1) Answer the following: [10]
a) Give any two applications of anatomy in wood identification.
b) What is incompressibility?
c) Enlist the elements of phloem.
d) What is glandular hair?
e) What is tyloses?
f) Define plant embryology.
g) Give the function of endothecium.
h) What is helobial endosperm?
i) Give significance of double fertilization.
j) What is chalazogamy?

Q2) Answer any two of the following: [10]


a) Describe the distribution of mechanical tissue in dicot stem.
b) Give the structure and functions of cambium.
c) Describe the structure of dicot embryo.

Q3) Write notes on any two of the following: [10]


a) Tapetum
b) Germination of pollengrain.
c) Types and functions of non glandular hairs.

Q4) Describe the anamalous secondary growth in Rhaphanus root. [10]


OR
What is ovule? Describe its various types.

l l l l
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P559 [4717] - 6008
[Total No. of Pages : 1

S.Y.B.Sc.
BOTANY
BO.222 : Plant Biotechnology
(2013 Pattern) (Paper - II) (Semester - II)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

Q1) Answer the following [10]


a) Enlist phases of microbrial growth.
b) What is enzyme immobilization?
c) Define Biotechnology?
d) Enlist microorganisms used for production of SCP.
e) What is meant by environmental sustainability?
f) Define southern hybridization.
g) State any two applications of gene cloning.
h) What is transgenic plant?
i) What is nanofertilizer?
j) Enlist any two advantages of transgenic plants.

Q2) Answer any two of the following [10]


a) Describe phytoextraction.
b) Describe application of plant genetic engineering in improving storage
protein quality.
c) Describe electroporation method of gene transfer.

Q3) Write short notes on any two of the following [10]


a) Acceptability of SCP.
b) Structure of Ti plasmid.
c) Structure of eukaryotic gene.

Q4) What are enzymes? Describe production of amylase and add a note on its
applications. [10]
OR
What is bioreactor? Describe in detail digestive tank bioreactor.

l l l l
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P560 [4717] - 6009
[Total No. of Pages : 1

S.Y.B.Sc.
ZOOLOGY
ZY-221 : Animal Systematics and Diversity - IV
(Revised 2013 Pattern) (Paper - I) (Semster - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Neat labelled diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Attempt the following: [10]


a) Give two examples of subclass diapsida.
b) Write the names of any two cranial nerves in Scoliodon.
c) Write the function of Ampullae of Lorenzini.
d) Mention the names of any two chambers of heart in Scoliodon.
e) What is a clasper?
f) Write any two examples of tearing and piercing beak.
g) Write any two desert adaptations in reptiles.
h) Write any two examples of aquatic mammals.
i) Give any two examples of poisonous snakes.
j) What is portal system?

Q2) Write short notes on (Any Two): [10]


a) Aerial adaptations in birds.
b) Egg laying mammals.
c) Mechanism of respiration in scoliodon.

Q3) Attempt the following:(Any Two): [10]


a) Explain cursorial and perching feet.
b) Write distinguishing characters of subclass theria.
c) Sketch and label-dorral view of brain of scoliodon.

Q4) Describe in detail the digestive system of Scoliodon. [10]


OR
Give general characters of class Aves and distinguishing characters of subclass
Neornithes.
l l l l
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P561 [4717] - 6010
[Total No. of Pages : 1

S.Y.B.Sc.
ZOOLOGY - II
ZY-222 : Applied Zoology - II
(Apiculture and Sericulture)
(51522) (Revised 2013 Pattern) (Paper - II) (Semester - II)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Neat labelled diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Attempt the following [10]


a) What is ‘nuptial flight’?
b) Give biological name of ‘Eri silkworm’.
c) Give uses of bee veil.
d) Mention two post harvest processing of cocoon.
e) Give biological name of ‘Rock bee’.
f) Mention uses of mountages.
g) Give two uses of propolis.
h) Name any two enemies of bees.
i) What is flacherie?
j) Define ‘hibernating egg’.

Q2) Write short notes on (Any Two): [10]


a) Properties and uses of bee wax.
b) Comb foundation sheet.
c) Leaf plucking method of mulberry harvesting.

Q3) Attempt the following: (Any Two): [10]


a) Describe round dance in bees.
b) Sketch and label : Mature larva of Bombyx mori.
c) Describe any two methods of bed cleaning in silkworm rearing technique.

Q4) Describe colony organization and division of labour in honey bee. [10]
OR
Describe external morphology and life cycle of mulberry silkworm.
l l l l
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P562 [4717]-6011
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.Sc.
GEOLOGY
Gl-221 : Petrology
(2013 Pattern) (Semester-II) (Paper-I)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.

Q1) Answer the following: [10]


a) Magma and lava.
b) Soil.
c) Idioblastic textore.
d) Devitrification.
e) Stratification.
f) Matrix and cement.
g) Cataclasite.
h) Graphic texture.
i) Source of sediments.
j) Pneumatolytic metamorphism.

Q2) Write notes on (Any Two): [10]


a) Regional metamorphism.
b) Modes of transportation of sediments.
c) Crush breccia and mylonite.

[4717]-6011 1 P.T.O.
Q3) Answer the following (Any Two): [10]
a) Crystallization of unicomponent magma.
b) Intrastratal solution.
c) Thermal metamorphism.

Q4) Define texture. Explain the factors controlling the textures of igneous rocks.
[10]
OR
Name some primary sedimentary structures. Explain lamination and cross
bedding giving their significance.

•••••

[4717]-6011 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P563 [4717]-6012
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.Sc.
GEOLOGY
GL-222 : Stratigraphy & Palaeontology
(2013 Pattern) (Semester-II) (Paper-II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Answer the following questions: [10]


a) Define evolution.
b) Define micropalaeontology.
c) What is palynology?
d) What are coccoliths?
e) What are ostracods?
f) Define stratigraphy.
g) What is the principle of uniformitarianism?
h) Define Lithostratigraphy.
i) Define ‘a group’ in lithostratigraphy.
j) What is a stratum.

Q2) Write notes on (Any Two): [10]


a) Chronostratigraphy.
b) Use of Guide fossil & Index fossil.
c) Chemical factors controlling stratification.

[4717]-6012 1 P.T.O.
Q3) Explain the following (Any Two): [10]
a) Types of microfossils.
b) Varves.
c) Alternations as a patterned succession.

Q4) Give the classification of foraminifers and describe the coiling exhibited by
multi-occular test. [10]
OR
Define correlation and describe lateral continuity and lithological similarity for
correlation.

•••••

[4717]-6012 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P564 [4717]-6013
[Total No. of Pages : 3

S.Y. B.Sc.
STATISTICS
ST-221 : Statistical Methods and use of R-Software
(2013 Pattern) (Semester-II) (Paper-I)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of scientific calculator and statistical tables is allowed.
4) Symbols and abbreviations have their usual meaning.

Q1) Attempt each of the following:


a) Choose the correct alternative for each of the following: [1 each]
i) In a trivariate study, the correlation coefficient between any two
variables when the third variable is held constant, is called as
1) Simple correlation
2) Partial correlation
3) Multiple correlation
4) Curvilinear correlation
ii) Type II error is
1) rejecting H0 when it is false.
2) rejecting H0 when it is true.
3) accepting H0 when it is true.
4) accepting H0 when it is false.
iii) The following death rate is used for comparison of mortality of two
populations A and B.
1) CDR
2) infant death rate
3) male death rate
4) standardized death rate
[4717]-6013 1 P.T.O.
b) State whether each of the following statements is true or false: [1 each]
i) Critical region is the region of acceptance of null hypothesis H0.

ii) Larger is the value of R 2Y⋅X X (ie R1.23


1
2
2
) then better is the linear relation
between the three variables.
iii) NRR is greater than GRR.
c) Define a statistic. [1]
d) Define: probability of type I error. [1]

e) If rYX = rYX = rX X = ρ , ρ ≠ ±1 ,
1 2 1 2

(ie rij = ρ ∀ i, j , i ≠ j ) then obtain rYX1 ⋅X 2 (ie r12.3 ) . [1]

f) Write a command in R-software to draw a random sample of size 5 out


of 50 units by SRSWOR and store it in a vector. [1]

Q2) Attempt Any Two of the following: [5 each]


a) Derive the equation of regression plane of Y on X1 and X2 using the
method of least squares.
b) Explain the Indirect method of standardization to compute standardized
death rate (STDR) for a population A.
c) A machine is designed to fill plastic bags with one litre of milk, with a
standard deviation of 0.10 litre. A random sample of 100 filled up bags
was examined and the average volume was found to be 0.95 litre. Carry
out a test of hypothesis to test whether the population mean is one litre
or not, for the machine. State your conclusion. (Use 5% l.o.s.)

Q3) Attempt Any Two of the following: [5 each]

a) Define multiple correlation coefficient R Y⋅X X (ie R1.23 ) . Prove that


1 2

R
R Y ⋅X
1 X2
= 1−
R YY

{Where R is the matrix of total correlation coefficients}.

[4717]-6013 2
b) Explain the test for testing H0: P1 = P2 against H1: P1 ≠ P2 where P1 and
P2 are population proportions of two populations. The sizes n1 and n2 of
the random samples taken from these two populations are large.
c) Softskill tests were taken for 5 persons before and after they were given
a training. The scores before and scores after the training are as follows:
Scores (before): 42 58 38 61 72
Scores (after): 50 62 51 74 80
Write commands in R-software to carryout a paired t-test to check
whether there is any effect on the scores after training or not.

Q4) Attempt Any One of the following:

a) i) Derive the expression for partial correlation coefficient rYX ⋅X (ie r12.3 )
1 2

in terms of total correlation coefficients. [5]


ii) Explain how to construct a 100 (1 – α)% confidence interval for
population mean (μ) of Normal distribution when the standard
deviation σ is known, while testing H0: μ=μ0 against H1: μ≠μ0. [5]
b) i) Explain M/M/1: FIFO model. Derive the expression for the average
number of customers in queue under this model. [5]
ii) Describe a large sample test for testing H0: μ1 = μ2 against H1: μ1 >
μ2 where μ1 and μ2 are the population means of two populations.
Two independent random samples of large sizes n1 and n2 are chosen
from these populations. The population variances are known. [5]

•••••

[4717]-6013 3
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P565 [4717]-6014
[Total No. of Pages : 4

S.Y. B.Sc.
STATISTICS
ST-222 : Sampling Distributions and Inference
(2013 Pattern) (Semester-II) (Paper-II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of scientific calculator and statistical tables is allowed.
4) Symbols and abbreviations have their usual meaning.

Q1) Attempt each of the following:


a) Choose the correct alternative in each of the following: [1 each]

If a r.v. X follows χ distribution with 16 d.f. then the coefficient of


2
i)
skewness is
1 3
A) B)
4 4

1
C) 1 D)
2

⎛ ⎞ 1
ii) If X1, X2, ----, X16 is a random sample from G ⎜ 2 , 1⎟ distribution
⎝ ⎠
then the standard error of sample mean X is
A) 2 B) 4
1 1
C) D)
2 4
iii) Let X1, X2, ---, X15 be a random sample from normal population
15

with mean 20 and variance σ2. The value of ∑ (X


i=1
i − 20)2 is 150. To

test H0: σ = 25, the value of the appropriate test statistic is


2

A) 10 B) 15
C) 6 D) 30
[4717]-6014 1 P.T.O.
b) State whether each of the following statements is true or false: [1 each]
i) A statistic is a function of sample values involving unknown
population parameters.

ii) In paired t-test the observations in the two samples are independent
of each other.

iii) If a r.v. T follows t-distribution with n d.f., then T2 follows F


distribution with 1 and n d.f.

c) State the test statistic of McNemar’s test to test the null hypothesis of
equality of marginal distributions.

Also state its distribution under H0. [1]

d) State the 100(1 – α)% confidence interval for the difference of population
means when population variances are unknown. [1]

e) Define standard error of a test statistic. [1]

f) Let a r.v. T follows t distribution with 10 d.f. Find c such that

P[–c ≤ T ≤ c] = 0.6. [1]

Q2) Attempt Any Two of the following: [5 each]


a) Let a r.v. X follows χ2 distribution with n d.f. Derive the expression of
mode of the distribution.
b) A standardised test in mathematics was given to 25 boys and 13 girls.
The boys made an average score of 82 with standard deviation 8 while
girls made an average score of 78 with standard deviation 7. Test the
hypothesis H 0 : σ 12 = σ 22 against H1 : σ 12 > σ 22 at 1% level of significance.

c) Let a r.v.X follows F distribution with n1, n2 d.f. Write the p.d.f. of X and
derive the expression of its mean.

Q3) Attempt Any Two of the following: [5 each]

a) A r.v. X follows t distribution with n d.f. Obtain the (2r)th ordered central
moment of X and hence find the variance.

[4717]-6014 2
b) Explain the procedure for carrying out the test for testing H0: μ1 = μ2
against
i) H1: μ1 ≠ μ2

ii) H1: μ1 > μ2

iii) H1: μ1 < μ2

When the population variances are unknown and equal.


c) Daily sale of televisions of a shop was recorded for a few months to get
the following information:
Day Mon Tue Wed Thurs Fri Sat Sun

No. of televisions sold 25 30 38 32 35 45 40

Can it be concluded that the sale of televisions of that shop is uniformly


distributed over the week? Use 5% level of significance.

Q4) Attempt Any One of the following:


a) i) If X and Y are independent χ2 random variables with m and n d.f.
X
respectively. Let U = X + Y and V= .
X+Y

Prove that U and V are independently distributed.


Identify the distribution of U. [6]
ii) Let X and S2 denote the mean and variance of a random sample of
size 10 from N(μ =4, σ2 = 160) distribution.
Evaluate
P[0 < X < 4, 86.08 < S2 < 170.496] [4]
b) i) Explain the procedure for carrying out the test for testing H0: σ2 = σ 02
against
i) H1 : σ 2 ≠ σ 02

ii) H1 : σ 2 > σ 02

iii) H1 : σ 2 < σ 02

When the population mean μ is unknown. [5]


[4717]-6014 3
 

ii) Let X  Fm, n distribution


and Y  Fn, m distribution

⎡ 1⎤
Show that P[X ≥ a ]+P ⎢ Y ≥ ⎥ = 1 if a > 0. [2]
⎣ a⎦

iii) Let X1  N (5.5, 1) distribution


and X2  N (5.5, 1) distribution
and X1 and X2 are independent then find
P[2.148 < (X1 – X2)2 < 5.412] [3]

•••••

[4717]-6014 4
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P566 [4717]-6015
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.Sc.
GEOGRAPHY
Gg-211 : Geography of Resources-II
(2013 Pattern) (Semester-II) (Paper-I)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams and sketches wherever necessary.
4) Use of map stencils is allowed.

Q1) Answer the following questions in two to three sentences each (Any Ten):
[10]
a) Name any two iron ore producing states in India.
b) Name any two bauxite producing countries in the World.
c) Name two coal producing states in India.
d) Name two natural gas producing countries in the World.
e) Write any two advantages of wind energy.
f) Write the names of two nuclear power plants in India.
g) How population as a resource?
h) Name any two sparsely populated countries in the world.
i) Name any two densely populated states in India.
j) Define over population.
k) What is optimum population?
l) Name two uses of land resources.
m) Name two problems associated with mining.

[4717]-6015 1 P.T.O.
Q2) Write short notes on the following (Any Two): [10]
a) Underpopulation.
b) Iron ore production in the World.
c) Concept of resource planning.
d) Role of energy resources in economic development.

Q3) Answer the following questions in 100 words each (Any Two): [10]
a) Describe bauxite production in India.
b) Explain the significance of nuclear energy.
c) Discuss the causes of overpopulation.
d) Explain the need of resource planning.

Q4) Answer the following question in 200 words (Any One): [10]
a) Describe the world distribution and production of coal.
b) Explain the role of water resources in economic development.

•••••

[4717]-6015 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P567 [4717]-6016
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.Sc.
GEOGRAPHY
Gg-212 : Watershed Management-II
(2013 Pattern) (Semester-II) (Paper-II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams and sketches wherever necessary.
4) Use of map stencils is allowed.

Q1) Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each (Any Ten):
[10]
a) What is resource appraisal?
b) What are the uses of resource mapping?
c) What is a drainage map?
d) What is a cadastral map?
e) What is watershed?
f) What is meant by watershed planning?
g) Write any two benefits of watershed planning.
h) Write any two processes of watershed planning.
i) What is water conservation?
j) What is soil conservation?
k) What is watershed development programme?
l) Write any two purposes of watershed development programme.
m) What is the aim of integrated watershed management plan?

[4717]-6016 1 P.T.O.
Q2) Write short notes on the following (Any Two): [10]
a) Database generation.
b) Importance of watershed planning.
c) Controlling measures for water conservation.
d) Dry land farming.

Q3) Answer the following questions in 100 words each (Any Two): [10]
a) Explain the survey methods of resource appraisal.
b) Discuss the need of planning for small rainfed catchment.
c) Explain the plan of watershed planning.
d) Describe the components of watershed development.

Q4) Answer the following question in 200 words (Any One): [10]
a) Describe the production oriented sustainability in watershed planning.
b) Explain the different components of soil conservation.

•••••

[4717]-6016 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P568 [4717]-6017
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.Sc.
MICROBIOLOGY
MB-221 : Bacterial Genetics
(2013 Pattern) (Semester-II) (Theory) (Paper-I)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

Q1) Attempt the following questions: [10]


a) Gene is a functional unit of DNA. (T/F).

b) What is the function of DNA-topoisomerase.

c) What are Transposomes.

d) What is meant by plasmid curing?

e) The enzyme involved in Amino-acid activation during protein synthesis


is _________.

f) Frame shift mutation may lead to premature termination. T/F.

g) X-rays cause ________ type of mutation.

i) Addition ii) Deletion

iii) Base pair substitution iv) None of the above

h) Give any two phenotypic characters of pneumococcus used in


transformation study.

i) Define codon.

j) In plasmid amplication, number of copies of plasmids are increased.


(T/F).

[4717]-6017 1 P.T.O.
Q2) Attempt Any Two of the following: [10]
a) Diagramatic representation of termination mechanism in translation.
b) Describe; Hershay & chase experiment.
c) Describe; Replica plate technique used in Isolation of mutants.

Q3) Answer Any Two of the following: [10]


a) Describe Avery, MacLeod experiment to prove DNA as a genetic material.
b) What are different types of plasmids. Describe the role of ‘F’ & ‘R’
plasmids.
c) What is base pair substitution. Describe action of 2 amino purine as a
mutagenic agent.

Q4) Describe Meselson and Stahl’s experiment to prove semiconservative model


of DNA replication. [10]
OR
Enlist various types of mutations. Describe following mutations in detail.
i) Nonsense mutation.
ii) Missense mutation.
iii) Amber mutation.

•••••

[4717]-6017 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P569 [4717]-6018
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
MICROBIOLOGY
MB-222: Air and Water Microbiology
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - II) (Theory)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagram wherever necessary.

Q1) Answer the following: [10]


a) Define droplet nuclei.
b) Define mineral water.
c) Interference in the determination of total solids in waste water is due to
i) Oil and grease.
ii) Large water sample.
iii) Dissolved salts.
iv) Suspended salts.
d) Enlist any two agencies which governs bacteriological standards of potable
water.
e) Presumptive test for water potability gives exact count of coliforms in
test water sample - state true or false.
f) Name any two viral air borne infections.
g) Give any two effects of carbon monoxide on human health.
h) Tuber culosis disease is a water borne bacterial infection - state true or
false.
i) Define Eutrophication.
j) Enlist any two aerobic methods of secondary effluent treatment.

P.T.O.
Q2) Attempt any two of the following: [10]
a) Describe the impaction on solids as a method of air sampling.

b) Define COD. Describe its significance in analysis of waste water.

c) Write a note on ‘Biomagnification’.

Q3) Solve any two of the following: [10]

a) Describe the use of filtration & U.V. rays as physical methods of air
sanitation.

b) Which organisms are involved in biomethenation process? Describe


various applications of biogas as a alternative source of energy.

c) Describe the completed test to check potability of water.

Q4) What is sewage? Describe different physical parameters for analysis of waste
water. [10]

OR

What are the characteristics of an ideal indicators of water pollution? Describe


the significance of E. coli and Campylobacter spp. as indicators of water
pollution.

EEE

[4717]-6018 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P570 [4717]-6019
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
PSYCHOLOGY
Health Psychology
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - I)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt all questions.
2) Draw diagrams and figures wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Answer in two or four sentences: [16]

a) Define frustration.

b) What is problem focused constructive coping.

c) Define health psychology.

d) Define illness.

e) What is mind - body connection?

f) State any two effects of habits on health.

g) Define burnout.

h) What is AIDS?

Q2) Answer any two of the following in eight or ten sentences: [8]

a) Describe the effect of lifestyle on health.

b) Describe stress as an everyday event.

c) Explain the concept of coping.

P.T.O.
Q3) Write short notes on any two of the following: [8]

a) Impaired tash performance.

b) Behaviour & AIDS.

c) Appraisal focused constructive coping.

Q4) Explain in detail models of illness. [8]

OR

Explain major types of stress in detail.

EEE

[4717]-6019 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P571 [4717]-6020
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
PSYCHOLOGY
Psychological Testing and Assessment
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - II)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt all questions.
2) Draw figures and diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Answer in two or four sentences [16]

a) State any two types of achievement tests.

b) What is a psychological test battery?

c) What is DSM?

d) What is clinical interview?

e) Define personality.

f) Define neuropsychological test.

g) Write the full forms of MCT & OCG.

h) Define interest.

Q2) Answer any two of the following in eight or ten sentences: [8]

a) Explain general aptitude test battery.

b) Describe interview method for preschool assessment.

c) Discuss in brief case history data.

P.T.O.
Q3) Write short notes on any two of the following: [8]

a) Types of clinical interview.

b) Controlled word association test.

c) Assessment centre.

Q4) Define aptitude. Explain any two types of aptitude tests used in educational
assessment. [8]

OR

Explain any two types of general intellectual ability tests.

EEE

[4717]-6020 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P572 [4717]-6023
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
Electronic Instrumentation
(New Course) (2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - I) (82212)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams whenever necessary.
4) Use of non- programmable calculator is allowed.

Q1) Attempt all the following:


a) Define the term accuracy of instrument. [1]
b) What is signal generator. [1]
c) What is application of Lux - meter. [1]
d) List two types of power supply. [1]
e) ‘Digital thermometer is precise than glass mercury thermometer’.
Comment. [2]
f) ‘Battery is the key factor in UPS’. Comment. [2]
g) Determine static error if a digital thermometer reads 5.02 volts and the
true value of the voltage is 5.25 volts. [2]
h) Observed sinwave on CRO having peak to peak voltage 80 mV. Calculate
Vpand Vrms. [2]

Q2) Attempt any two of the following:

a) Draw schematic and explain working of PMMC DC ammeter. [4]

b) Draw block diagram of single trace CRO and explain it in brief. [4]

c) Explain digital thermometer with the help of block diagram. [4]

P.T.O.
Q3) Attempt any two of the following:

a) Draw block diagram of dual beam CRO. Explain difference between


dual trace and dual beam. [4]

b) Explain decibal meter with block diagram. [4]

c) Draw and explain block diagram of variable power supply. [4]

Q4) Attempt all of the following:

a) List any two test and measuring instrument. Draw block diagram of
function generator and explain it. [6]

b) Explain working, advantages and disadvantages of s.m.p.s. and draw


block diagram of it. [6]

OR

Attempt all of the following:

a) Design multirange voltmeter for 0 to 50V and 0 to 100V. If D’ Arsonval


moment has interval resistance of 100Ω and full scale deflection current
1mA. [4]

b) Calculate percentage load regulation for power supply when O/P volt
with no load is 15 V and full load is 14.2V given. What is ideal value of
load and line regulation. [4]

c) Calculate speed in RPS and RPM if number of pulses per second is


1000 and number of teeth on rotor is 60. [4]

EEE

[4717]-6023 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P573 [4717]-6024
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
EL - 222: Communication Electronics
(New Course 2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - II) (82222)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Neat and labelled diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Attempt all of the following:


a) Define the term signal to noise ratio. [1]
b) What is meant by modulation? [1]
c) State the role of pre-emphasis in FM. [1]
d) What is baud rate? [1]
e) “In FM, bandwidth is relatively larger than in AM”. Comment. [2]
f) “PAM is digital system of communication”. Comment. [2]
g) Calculate number of links required to connect 75 parties for fully
connecting network. [2]
h) Draw the waveform of ASK for data 11001010. [2]

Q2) Attempt any two:


a) What is meant by external noise? Describe its different types. [4]
b) Define terms in FM [4]
i) Centre frequency
ii) Frequency deviation
iii) Carrier swing
iv) Draw FM waveform
c) Draw the block diagram of superheterodyne receiver and explain function
of each block in brief. [4]

P.T.O.
Q3) Attempt any two:

a) Differentiate between pulsed and DTMF dialing. [4]

b) Write a short note on set top box. [4]

c) Explain the working of slope detector circuit. State its limitations. [4]

Q4) Attempt all of the following:

a) Show that in AM [6]

i) two side bands are generated and draw frequency spectrum of AM


signal.

2
ii) PC = PT
3

b) Draw and explain block diagram of digital communication system. [6]

OR

Attempt all of the following:

a) An audio signal of 1KHz is used to amplitude modulate carrier frequency


500 KHz. Determine [4]

i) Side band frequencies

ii) Bandwidth

b) An amplifier operating over the frequency range from 15 to 20 MHz has


12kΩ input resistance. Calculate the r.m.s. noise voltage at ambient
temperature 27oC (K = 1.38 x 10–23 J/K) [4]

c) A 101 MHz carrier is modulated by a 500 Hz audio signal. If carrier


voltage is 10V and maximum deviation is 75KHz. Write equation of FM
wave. [4]

EEE
[4717]-6024 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P574 [4717]-6025
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
DEFENCE AND STRATEGIC STUDIES
DS - 201: Conflict Management and Resolution
(New 2013 Pattern) (Paper - I) (Semester - II)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Answer in 2 or 4 sentences each: [16]

a) Define conflict management.

b) State the meaning of human rights.

c) Define international relations.

d) Define peace research.

e) Define Arms control.

f) Define International law.

g) What are the methods of pacific settlement?

h) What are the sources of international law?

Q2) Answer in 8 to 10 sentences each (any two): [8]

a) Write a note on peace research.

b) Explain subjects of international law.

c) Discuss role of U.N in arms control.

d) Write a note on conflict management.

P.T.O.
Q3) Write short notes on (any two): [8]

a) Scope of peace research.

b) Conflict transformation.

c) Role of communication in conflict resolution.

d) Scope of conflict analysis.

Q4) Answer in 18 to 20 sentences (Any one): [8]

a) Describe structure and functions of United Nations Organizations (U.N.O).

b) Write a note on the role of U.N. in international conflict.

EEE

[4717]-6025 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P575 [4717]-6026
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
DEFENCE AND STRATEGIC STUDIES
DS. No. - 202: Geopolitics
(New Course) (2013 Pattern) (Paper - II) (Semester - II)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Answer in 2 or 4 sentences each: [16]

a) Define “Border”.

b) What do you mean by strategic minerals?

c) Define “State”.

d) State any two problems of land locked state.

e) Write long form of L.A.C.

f) Where the Diego Garcia Islands is located?

g) What do you mean by Geopolitics?

h) State the limits of E.E.Z. for sovereign state.

Q2) Answer in 8 to 10 sentences (any two): [8]

a) Explain the concept of “Frontiers”.

b) Write in brief the nature of strategic minerals.

c) Explain in short geostrategic importance of Jammu and Kashmir.

P.T.O.
Q3) Write short notes on (any two): [8]

a) Geostrategic importance of Lakshdeep Islands.

b) Concept of “Border”.

c) Nature of Maritime Boundaries.

Q4) Answer in 16 to 20 sentences (Any one): [8]

a) Explain the geostrategic position & importance of Indias Andaman &


Nicobar Islands with special reference to “strategic environment in Indian
Ocean”

b) Highlight on “Territory & population” as a fiers of geopolitics.

EEE

[4717]-6026 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P576 [Total No. of Pages : 2
[4717]-6027
S.Y.B.Sc.
DEFENCE AND STRATEGIC STUDIES
DS - 203: Contemporary World and Security
(New 2013 Pattern) (Paper - III) (Semester - II)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Answer in 2 to 4 sentences each: [16]

a) Define Nation.

b) What is meant by State?

c) Define WAR.

d) Introduce Religious Terrorism.

e) What is meant by Civil War?

f) What is meant by National Defence and Security?

g) What is meant by Defence in Depth?

h) Differentiate between Military and Comprehensive Security.

Q2) Answer in 8 to 10 sentences each (any two): [8]

a) Explain the relevance of Energy Security?

b) Explain why Human Rights are essential?

c) Explain the Objectives of National Security.

P.T.O.
Q3) Write short notes on (any two): [8]

a) India and South East Asia.

b) China’s Emerging Presence in Indian Ocean.

c) India and Russia.

Q4) Answer in 16 to 20 sentences (Any one): [8]

a) Discuss the concept of Comprehensive Security.

b) Why India and USA coming close and making strategic ties?

EEE

[4717]-6027 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P577 [4717]-6028
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
ENV - 201: Biological Diversity & Its Conservation
(New Course 2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper -I)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) neat and labeled diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Attempt the following in 1-2 lines each: [10]

a) What is meant by ‘Invasion’?


b) Write fullform ‘IUCN’.

c) Define “Genetic Diversity”

d) Mention any two objectives of ‘Convention on Biodiversity’.

e) What are Mayer’s hot spots?


f) Write any two benefits of agrobiodiversity.

g) What is meant by fragmentation?

h) What are genetically modified organisms?

i) Write any two benefits of molecular marker technique.


j) What are feral plants.

Q2) Write short notes on the following (Any two): [10]

a) Endemism in India.

b) Classification of Ecosystem.

c) Transgenic organisms.

P.T.O.
Q3) Answer any two from the following: [10]

a) What is meant by species inventory? Discuss various ways of


measurement of species diversity.

b) What are the factors affecting genetic diversity?

c) Discuss major ecosystem types of India.

Q4) Attempt any one of the following: [10]

a) What are the centers of biodiversity? Also discuss the threats associated
with biodiversity.

b) Discuss in detail on In-situ and Ex-situ methods of biodiversity


conservation. Also add a note on international efforts in conservation of
it.

EEE

[4717]-6028 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P578 [4717]-6029
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
ENV - 202: Pollution Control & Environmental Technology
(New Course 2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper -II)
Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks :40
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Neat and labeled diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Attempt the following in 1-2 lines each: [10]

a) Write the principle of filtration in controlling air pollution.


b) What is activated sludge?

c) Name any two advanced water treatment processes.

d) Define: Biological Pest Management.

e) State the difference between Gray and Black water.


f) What is meant by composting of waste?

g) Define: Thermal pollution.

h) Name the organisms used for anaerobic treatment of waste water.

i) Write the difference between Crop rotation and mixed cropping.


j) What are noise barriers?

Q2) Write short note on (Any two): [10]

a) Electrostatic precipitation with diagram.

b) Soil vapour extraction.

c) Web scrubbing with diagram.

P.T.O.
Q3) Answer any two from the following: [10]

a) Explain any two noise control techniques.

b) Discuss any two disposal options for solid waste pollution.

c) Describe control of air pollution at source.

Q4) Attempt any one of the following: [10]

a) Explain control of water pollution by using Bio remediation technique.

b) Describe control of nuclear pollution with respect to control, disposal &


protection to workers.

EEE

[4717]-6029 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P593 [4717] - 6030
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
ENGLISH (Optional)
(Semester - II) (2013 Pattern)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) a) Attempt any one of the following in about 100 words: [5]
i) How does the poem ‘Purdah’ bring out the loss of self and
‘objectification’ of girls?
ii) The poem ‘A Psalm of Life’ talks of death and of the brevity of life.
Comment on the tone of the poem.
b) Attempt any one of the following in about 100 words: [5]
i) ‘Purdah’ is literally and figuratively oppressive. How does the poem
argue this point?
ii) Throughout the poem ‘A Psalm of Life’, Longfellow compares life
to a number of things. Identify these comparisons and point out the
implications of each.

Q2) a) Attempt any one of the following in about 100 words: [5]
i) Describe the emotions that still remain on the face of the sculpture
in the poem ‘Ozymandias’.
ii) Explain the central theme of the poem ‘If’.
b) Attempt any one of the following in about 100 words: [5]
i) Describe the everlasting impact of the sight of the daffodils on the
speaker.
ii) What are the challenges that a person will have to face in life according
to Kipling?

P.T.O.
Q3) Attempt any two of the following: [10]
a) You have applied for a bank loan to study abroad and have been asked
to attend an interview. Think of five questions that you could be asked
and write them down along with your possible responses.
b) Rajesh, Reshma, Rupa and Rakesh are given the topic ‘Global Warming’
for a group discussion. Write the transcript of the discussion in a dialogue
form.
c) Think of a product you want to promote in the market. It could be a
detergent/an electronic item/ health drink. Prepare five slides for the Power
Point Presentation.

d) Give any five guidelines for making a Presentation.

Q4) Attempt any two of the following: [10]

a) Write a paragraph on “A Meaningful Education”.


b) Write an Essay on “The Impact of Mobile Phones on the lives of
Youngsters”.
c) Write a review of a book which you have read recently.

d) Write a brief newspaper report on “Students and Politics”.

E E E

[4717]-6030 2
Total No. of Questions : 3] SEAT No. :

P594 [4717]-6031 [Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y. B.Sc. (Semester-II)


‘amR>r (Marathi) (Theory)
ì¶mdhm[aH$ ‘amR>r (Vyavharik Marathi)
(Zdm Aä¶mgH«$‘)
(2013 Pattern)

doi : 2 Vmg] [EHy$U JwU : 40


gyMZm :– 1) gd© àíZ gmoS>{dUo Amdí¶H$ AmhoV.
2) COdrH$S>rb A§H$ àíZm§Mo JwU Xe©{dVmV.

àíZ 1) A) nwT>rb CVmè¶mMo ‘amR>rV ^mfm§Va H$am. [10]


A great part of Arabia is desert. Here there is nothing but sand and
rock. The sand is so hot that you cannot walk over it with your bare
feet in the daytime. Here and there in the desert are springs of water
that come from deep down under the ground. So deep that the sun
cannot dry them up. These springs are few and far apart, but
wherever there is one, green grass very soon covers the ground all
around it. Soon Fig trees and palm trees grow tall and graceful
making a cool, green, shady place around the spring. Such a place
is called oasis.
The Arabs who are not in the cities live in the desert all the year
round. They live in tents that can be put up and taken down easily
and quickly. So that they can move from one oasis to another,
seeking grass and water for their sheep, goats. Camels and horses.
~) nwT>rb CVmè¶mMm EH$ V¥Vr¶m§e gmam§e {bhÿZ g‘n©H$ erf©H$ X¶m. [10]
T>e
o rnUm åhUOo ‘mVrV ‘wi§ AgU§, g‘mOmÀ¶m gJù¶m JaOm Vw‘À¶m {dMmam§VZy
^mJV ZmhrV, nU Oo Vwåhr ~mhoê$Z ܶmb Vo ¶m ‘mVrer OwidyZ ܶmd§ bmJob.
bmoH$emhrM§M ܶm; nydu Amnë¶mH$S>o bmoH$amÁ¶, n§Mm¶Vr hmo˶m. bmoH$emhrZo
¶m H$ënZm§er OwidyZ KoVb§ Zmhr Va H$m¶ hmoV,§ ho gܶm {XgZ Amho. Am§VaamîQ´>r¶
àdmhmVyZ Amboë¶m JmoîQ>r OmV-O‘mVrÀ¶m Amnë¶m ~¡R>H$sda, ¶oWrb {ddmh,
ImU§-{nU§, nmoemI ¶m§À¶m nÜXVrda OwH$dyZ ܶmì¶m bmJVrb e¡brM§ ‘yi

[4717]-6031 1 P.T.O.
doJi AgV§. ñdV…À¶m e¡brer OwidyZ ܶmd§ bmJV§. EH$ Am§Va amîQ´>r¶VoMm Y«d w
Am{U Xþgam AmˑH|$Ðr Y«d w XmoÝhr gm§^miVm Ambo ZmhrV, Va {Xem {‘iV Zmhr.
XoerdmXmMr AmO A{Ve¶ JaO Amho. Jm§YtZmo ^³Vr, gyVH$VmB©er ZdrZ {dMma
Owidbm, Va, Am§~So >H$am§Zr Jm¡V‘ ~wÜXmer ZmV§ OmoCb§. H$mhr {dMmad§Vm§Zm ho
O‘b§ Zmhr; åhUyZ Vo dm¶mda am{hbo. gmZo Jwê$OtÀ¶m gm{h˶mV Am§VaamîQ´>r¶
‘yë¶ AmUr Xoer ‘yë¶ ¶mM§ Mm§Jb§ H$b‘ Amho. ‘T>H¡ $am§À¶m H$mì¶mVhr ¶mo½¶
H$b‘ Amho. A^§J, AmodrMm ˶m§Zr dmna Ho$bm. nU ˶m§À¶m H$mX§~è¶m§Vrb
ñQ´>r‘ Am°’$ H$m°ÝegZog‘wi§ ˶m ê$Oë¶m ZmhrV. å‘rb, ñnoÝgaMo, AmJaH$amZr
gm§{JVbobo {dMmahr dada em{hbo.

àíZ 2) nT>>rbn¡H$s H$moU˶mhr XmoZ àíZm§Mr CÎmao {bhm. [15]


A) ‘‘hm{dÚmb¶rZ {ZdS>UHw $m’ ¶m {df¶mda d¥ÎmÌmgmR>r 200 eãXm§V boI V¶ma
H$am.
~) ‘ì¶gZ‘w³Vr’ ¶m {df¶mda AmH$medmUrgmR>r 200 eãXm§V ^mfU g§{hVm V¶ma
H$am.
H$) ‘ñdmB©Z âë¶yMm dmT>Vm àgma AmUr ˶mMo {Z¶§ÌU’ ¶m {df¶mda {Oëhm Amamo½¶
A{YH$mar ¶m§Mr ‘hm{dÚmb¶rZ {dÚmܶm©Zo XÿaXe©ZgmR>r KoVbobr ‘wbmIV V¶ma
H$am (doi nmM {‘{ZQ>)o

àíZ 3) Imbrbn¡H$s H$moU˶mhr nmM B§JO


« r g§km§Zm ‘amR>r nm[a^m{fH$ n¶m©¶ {bhm. [5]
1) Calender
2) Employee
3) Power-House
4) Environment
5) Veterinary Science
6) Cardiology
7) Vice principal
8) Weather
9) Wireless
10) Fund

•••••
[4717]-6031 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P889 [Total No. of Pages : 2


[4717] - 6036
S.Y.B.Sc. (Semester - II)
INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY (Vocational)
221 : Unit Processes in Organic Chemical Industries
(2013 Pattern) (Paper - I)

Time : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.

Q1) Write balanced chemical equations with necessary conditions for the following
synthesis. [16]
a) Chlorobenzene → Aniline
b) Cellulose → Cellulose Acetate
c) Acetanilide → P - Nitroacetanilide
d) Benzene → Ethyl benzene
e) Toluene → Benzoic acid
f) Acetic acid → Monochloroacetic acid
g) Benzene → Nitrobenzene
h) Aniline → 2, 4, 6 Tribromo aniline

Q2) Attempt any two of the following [8]


a) Write a note on friedal - craft acylation.
b) What is oxidation? Describe the role of K2Cr2O7 in oxidation of toluene.
c) What is the role of Hydrogenation in oil industry?

Q3) Answer any two of the following [8]


a) What do you understand by electrophilic substitution reactions? Explain
with suitable example.
b) Write a note on different sulphonating agents.
c) Describe the manufacture of chloral with help of chemical reactions only.

P.T.O.
Q4) Describe the manufacture of xylidine with the help of flow sheet diagram. [8]

OR

Describe the manufacture of methanol with the help of flow sheet diagram.



[4717] - 6036 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P597 [4717] - 6037
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc. (Vocational)
PHOTOGRAPHY AND AUDIO - VISUAL PRODUCTION
VOC-PAVP-221: Colour Photography
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper -III)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Answer in short. [16]

a) What are the differences between the CCD and the CMOS sensors?
b) Explain the difference between vector graphics and raster graphics.

c) Define ‘colour temperature’ of a light source.

d) The colour temperature of day light is 5500 kelvin that of tungsten light is
3200 kelvin. Calculate the mired shift.

e) Adjusting the ‘white balance’ is the first task you have to perform while
shooting. Comment.

f) Explain the difference between the brightness and the saturation of a


colour.

g) Explain the ‘bit depth’ of a colour.

h) What is the importance of the ‘grey scale’ in colour photography?

Q2) Attempt ANY TWO of the following. [8]

a) Draw the spectral response of a digital sensor. Compare it with that of a


normal human eye.

P.T.O.
b) Draw the black body radiation curve at three different temperatures and
discuss how it can be related to the colour temperature of a light
source.Give suitable examples.

c) Explain the significance of RGB and the CMYK colour models in


photography.

Q3) Write short notes on ANY TWO of the following. [8]


a) Cultural significance of colours.
b) ‘Ethical norms in digital photography.
c) Use of different light sources in photography.

Q4) Attempt ANY ONE of the following: [8]


a) Draw a suitable ‘lighing plan’ for a product shoot of a cosmetic for
young girls. Also justify use of every light used an the property used in
the shoot.
b) Draw a suitable diagram and explain the construction of a typical sensor
used in a digital camera. Explain the purpose of each ‘layer’ of the sensor.
Discuss the sequence of events taking place when the sensor is exposed
to a ‘scene’.

R R R

[4717]-6037 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P580 [4717] - 6038
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc. (Vocational)
ELECTRONIC EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE
VOC-EEM-221: Troubleshooting Electronic Equipment - B
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - I)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.

Q1) Answer the following:


a) State the type of packages used in digital ICs. [1]
b) State the precautions for handling ICs. [1]

c) What is tri-state logic? [1]

d) Give name of any two surface mount semiconductor packages. [1]

e) State the features of surface mount technology. [2]


f) State the types of regulators. [2]

g) State the advantages of fixed three pin regulator. [2]

h) State the procedure for testing counter ICs. [2]

Q2) Answer any two of the following.

a) Discuss the steps of repairing SMPs. [4]

b) Explain the procedure of troubleshooting high voltage DC power supply.


[4]

c) Write a short note on ‘Fault Diagnosis chart’ of oscilloscope. [4]

P.T.O.
Q3) Answer any two of the following.
a) Explain with functional block diagram the operation of cordless telephone.
[4]
b) Discuss the troubleshooting procedure of cordless telephone. [4]
c) Write a short note on ‘Mobile Phone’. [4]

Q4) Answer the following.


a) Explain the faults and their remedies in Mobile Phone. [6]
b) Discuss the typical faults and their troubleshooting in Digital still camera.
[6]
OR
Answer the following.
a) Explain with diagram the operation of logic probe & logic pulser. [4]
b) Explain with neat diagram the working of Logic comparator. [4]
c) Discuss the procedure of testing multiplexers and de-multiplexers. [4]

R R R

[4717]-6038 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P3387 [Total No. of Pages : 2


[4717] - 6039
S.Y. B.Sc. (Semester - II)
COMPUTER HARDWARE & NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
Microprocessor & Interfacing Techniques
(Vocational) (Paper - I) (2013 Pattern)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) a) Attempt the following: [4 x 1 = 4]


i) What is BIOS?
ii) List various Display adaptors.
iii) What is Android?
iv) What is PAN?
b) Attempt the following: [4 x 2 = 8]
i) What are advantages of laser printer?
ii) State various output devices.
iii) What is card reader?
iv) What is scanner?

Q2) Attempt any two of the following: [2 x 4 = 8]

a) What is Multimedia PC? State minimum requirement for Multimedia PC.

b) What is LAN? Explain features of LAN.

c) Differentiate between asynchronous and synchronous communication.

P.T.O.
Q3) Attempt any two of the following: [2 x 4 = 8]
a) Write a short note on embedded IO systems.
b) List various ADD ON Cards. Explain any one in brief.
c) Write a note on Green PC.

Q4) Attempt any two of the following: [2 x 6 = 12]


a) List various wireless communication protocols. Explain features and
applications of any one.
b) State different types of device controllers used in PC. Explain any one in
brief.
c) Explain in brief various types of storage devices available with their
capacity.

===

[4717]-6039 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P581 [4717] - 6040
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc. (Vocational)
SEED TECHNOLOGY
Vegetable Seed Production
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - I)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

Q1) Attempt the following: [10]


a) Define CGMS.
b) What is seed storage?
c) Give any two objectives of vegetable seed production.
d) Which type of nursery bed is required for growing Brinjal seedlings.
e) Define hybridization.
f) What is pollen viability?
g) Write the isolation distance for foundation seed production in Tomato.
h) Define asexual reproduction.
i) Draw the outline for classifying the vegetable crops based on plant parts
used for consumption.
j) Give any two objectives of population improvement.

Q2) Attempt any two of the following. [10]


a) Describe in detail mass selection.
b) Give an account of classification of vegetable crops based on growing
season.
c) Explain in brief pureline selection.
P.T.O.
Q3) Write notes on (Any Two). [10]
a) Modes of pollination.
b) Microsporogenesis.
c) Hybridization types in vegetable crops.

Q4) Describe in detail seed production in Onion. [10]


OR
Explain seed production in Brinjal with reference to land requirement, isolation,
nursery management, cultural practices, roughing, plant protection, harvesting
seed extraction, drying and storage.

R R R

[4717]-6040 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P598 [4717] - 6041
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc. (Vocational)
INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY
VOC-IND-MIC-221: Fermentation Processes and Downstream
Processing
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper -I) (Theory)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) All questions carry equal marks.
4) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
5) Use of scientific calculators is allowed.

Q1) Answer each sub-question in one or two lines; Fill in the blanks; State whether
the statement is true or false. [10]
a) Define: Bioinoculant.

b) Gel permeation chromatography is used for the separation and purification


of the product on the basis of ––––––.

c) ––––– enzyme can be used to lyse bacterial cells.

d) Lysine is secondary metabolite. (T/F)

e) Write the action of alkali in the recovery of intracellular products.


f) Define: Salting out.

g) Enlist any two methods which are used for batch filtration of harvested
fermentation broth in industrial downstream process.

h) Enlist any names of organisms used for production of Vit B12.

i) Ammonium sulphate precipitation method is used for purification of


–––––.

j) What is rennet and state it’s use in cheese production.

P.T.O.
Q2) Answer any two of the following. [10]

a) Explain chemical methods used for cell disruption for extraction of


intracellular product.

b) Explain the process of manufacturing of vinegar.

c) With the help of flow chart explain steps involved in cheese production.

Q3) Answer any two of the following. [10]


a) Explain the principle of affinity chromatography.
b) With help of flow sheet describe recovery of citric acid from fermented
broth.
c) Explain biosynthesis of L-glutamic acid in Corynebacterium glutamicum.

Q4) Answer any one of the following: [10]


a) With the help of flow sheet describe the production of recovery of
streptomycin by fermentation.
b) Describe liquid liquid extraction process used in downstream processing
with respect to
i) Principle
ii) Types of liquid liquid extraction process.

R R R

[4717]-6041 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P890 [Total No. of Pages : 2


[4717] - 6042
S.Y.B.Sc. (Semester - II)
INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY (Vocational)
222 : Industrial Pollution
(2013 Pattern) (Paper - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.

Q1) Answer the following : [16]

a) Define and explain COD.

b) Write the major constituents of air.

c) What is the importance of O3 in atmosphere?

d) Define acid rain.

e) What is meant by photo chemical smog?

f) Write any two hazards of pesticide pollution.

g) Define soil profile.

h) Name two Green house gases.

Q2) Attempt any two of the following [8]

a) Explain the ill effects of NOx on human beings.

b) Write a note on nitrogen cycle.

c) What is reverse osmosis? How can it be used for desalination of sea


water?
P.T.O.
Q3) Write short note on any two of the following : [8]

a) Ion - exchange method for industrial waste water treatment.

b) Cyclone separator.

c) Important properties of sludge.

Q4) Explain various methods involved in sewage treatment. [8]

OR

Explain the various processes used to disinfect water.



[4717] - 6042 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P599 [4717] - 6044
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc. (Vocational)
PHOTOGRAPHY AND AUDIO-VISUAL PRODUCTION
Principles and Applications of Analog and Digital Communications
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper -IV)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw neat and labeled diagrams , wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) Attempt ALL of the following. [10]


a) What are types of modulation systems? Explain in short any one.
b) What are types of multiplexing systems? Explain in short any one.
c) What are high-speed communication technologies? Explain in short any
one. (DSL, cable modem & SONET).
d) Compare Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum and Frequency hopping
spread spectrum.
e) A system sends a signal that can assume 8 different voltage levels. It
sends 400 of these signals per second. What are the baud rate and bit
rate?

Q2) Attempt ANY TWO of the following. [10]

a) Compare frequency modulation & amplitude modulation techniques in


communication system. Explain generation of SSB signal.

b) Write the basic principle of superhetrodyne radio receiver. Draw the


block diagram and mention the frequency range of signal after each block.

c) A carrier is frequency modulated with a sinusoidal signal of 2KHz resulting


in a maximum frequency deviation of 5KHz. Find the modulation index
and bandwidth of the modulated signal.
P.T.O.
Q3) Attempt ANY TWO of the following. [10]
a) On Friday 20th March 2015, a total solar eclipse will occur across the
far Northern regions of Europe and the Artic. Many photographers along
with your team (news channel) arrived at the location. You have taken
beautiful photograph of this solar eclipse. The photograph size is 4.8
MB. You are only having a 4KHz telephone line nearby village. The nearest
location having 3G capacity is 200Km away and journey time will require
24 hours. Suggest the method so that you transfer data quickly and
displayed on your television channel. If communication overhead is, 10%
find the time required to transmit data.
b) Compare ideal, natural & flat top sampling in pulse amplitude modulation.
Give merits and demerits of flat top sampling.
c) Compare PCM, DM and ADM. Explain in brief delta modulation.
Comment on slope overload error and granular error.

Q4) Attempt ANY TWO of the following: [10]


a) Why scrambler and unscrambler is used in communication? Write
comment on need of companding. Write short note on CODEC.
b) The T1 carrier system used in digital telephony multiplexer 24 voice
channels based on 8 bit PCM. Each voice signal is band limited with
higher cut-off frequency 3.4 KHz. This filtered signal is sampled at 8KHz.
In addition, a single bit is added at the end of frame for the purpose of
synchronization. The duration of one frame is 125 μ s . Find the resultant
transmission rate and minimum required transmission bandwidth.
c) Classify transmission media. What is the difference between guided and
unguided transmission media?

R R R

[4717]-6044 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P582 [4717] - 6045
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc. (Vocational)
ELECTRONIC EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE
Audio, Video & Office Equipment -B
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.

Q1) Answer the following:


a) What is barcode? [1]

b) What is motherboard? [1]

c) State various input devices. [1]

d) What type of lamp is used in OHP? [1]


e) Give important technical specifications of PC. [2]

f) What is the difference between ROM and RAM? [2]

g) What are the advantages of EPABX? [2]

h) State the common faults in PC. [2]

Q2) Answer any two of the following:

a) List various types of scanners. State its working principle. [4]

b) Explain the printer head of the dot matrix printer. [4]


c) Discuss the construction of PC keyboard in brief. [4]

Q3) Answer any Two of the following:


a) Explain the use of LCD TV as a PC. [4]
P.T.O.
b) Write a short note on rolling display. [4]
c) Compare flat screen display with CRT display. [4]

Q4) a) List different types of projectors. Explain the setting up procedure for
any one of them. [6]
b) Explain the concept of multimedia. Discuss the role of software in
development of multimedia. [6]
OR
a) Explain the working of photo copier machine with the help of neat diagram.
[6]
b) Describe the architectural features of latest processors used in PC. [6]

R R R

[4717]-6045 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :

P3388 [Total No. of Pages : 2


[4717] - 6046
S.Y. B.Sc. (Semester - II)
COMPUTER HARDWARE & NETWORK ADMINISTRATION
Computer System Management - II
(Vocational) (Paper - II) (2013 Pattern)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q1) a) Attempt the following: [4 x 1 = 4]


i) What is function of HUB?
ii) What is PDA?
iii) List various Bluetooth devices that can be interfaced to a computer
system.
iv) What is application software?
b) Attempt the following: [4 x 2 = 8]
i) What is Modem?
ii) List various applications of android.
iii) State advantages of flash memories.
iv) List various resources that can be shared in a network.

Q2) Attempt any two of the following: [2 x 4 = 8]


a) Write features available in a Blackberry and iphone devices.
b) Write a short note on network devices.
c) Write a note on LAN.

P.T.O.
Q3) Attempt any two of the following: [2 x 4 = 8]
a) What is segregation of duties?
b) Comment on the need of up grading a PC.
c) Write a note on operation management.

Q4) Attempt any two of the following: [2 x 6 = 12]


a) List various components of Desktop PC. Explain various steps involved
in assembling a desktop PC.
b) What do you mean by portable devices? Explain features of any two
portable devices.
c) What is client-server? List various operating systems that can be used as
client-server. Explain in brief installation of any one.

===

[4717]-6046 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P583 [4717] - 6047
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc. (Vocational)
SEED TECHNOLOGY
VOC-SETE-222: Seed Quality Control
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - II)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat and labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

Q1) Attempt the following: [10]


a) Write any one concept of seed quality.
b) Define foundation seed.

c) Name any one seed certification agencies.

d) Write any two objectives of field inspection.


e) What is green manuring?

f) Define control legislation.

g) Write any two duties of seed inspector.

h) What is Isolation distance?


i) What is the maximum period of a member on central seed committee?

j) Draw any two walking patterns in field Inspection.

Q2) Attempt any two of the following. [10]


a) Describe standards for seed certification.

b) Comment on seed certification agencies and its organization.

c) Explain the powers of seed inspectors.


P.T.O.
Q3) Write notes on (Any two). [10]
a) Seed legislation in India.
b) Central seed testing laboratory.
c) Specific crop standards.

Q4) What is organic farming? Write a note on Trap crops and bird perches. [10]
OR
Explain in detail the method of field inspection with suitable example.

R R R

[4717]-6047 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P600 [4717] - 6048
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc. (Vocational)
INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY
VOC.IND.MIC-222: Quality Assurance of Industrial
Fermentation Products
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper -II) (Theory)

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.
3) Draw neat - labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of log tables, calculator is allowed.

Q1) Answer each sub-question in one or two lines; Fill in the blanks; State whether
the statement is true or false. [10]
a) Indian Pharmacopeia 2010 was published by –––––––.
b) Absorption maxima of Cyanocobalamin solution exhibits 3 maximum
absorbance at –––––– nm, –––– nm and –––––– nm.
c) Name the test organism used for microbiological assay of Glutamic acid.
d) ‘‘LAL’’ test is also referred to as –––––.
e) In Yeast viability staining, live cells contain reducing compound like
––––––– that metabolize the stain.
f) A biofertilizer should contain a minimum CFU or colony forming units
of ––––––– in granular form and in liquid form.
g) Name any two carriers used in solid type of microbial biofertilizers.
h) Large scale Alpha amylase production can be carried by fungi like ––––.
i) Vinegar contains –––––– % of Acetic acid.
j) What should be the particle/sieve size of powdered and granular form of
biofertilizer?

P.T.O.
Q2) Answer any TWO of the following. [10]

a) Write the principle and describe the protocol of LAL test in Pyrogen
testing of fermentation products.

b) Describe the parameters tested for quality assurance of Baker’s Yeast.

c) Give a protocol for sterility testing of a penicillin solution vial.

Q3) Answer any TWO of the following. [10]


a) Write in brief procedures for quality control of Rhizobium biofertilizer.
b) Describe the microbiological assay for amino acid Lysine using a
protozoan.
c) What are the tests carried out for quality assurance of Cheese?

Q4) Answer any ONE of the following: [10]


a) What are the different tests carried out for Quality Assurance of
Pharmaceutical substance with respect to antibiotic Streptomycin?
Describe the types of Microbiological assays performed to determine
the quantity of active compound in preparation.
b) Describe the microbiological assay for Vitamin B 12.

R R R

[4717]-6048 2
Total No. of Questions : 4] SEAT No. :
P584 [4717] - 6049
[Total No. of Pages : 2

S.Y.B.Sc.
MATHEMATICS - II
MT-222(B): Numerical Methods and It’s Applications
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Paper - II(B))

Time : 2 Hours] [Max. Marks : 40


Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.

Q1) Attempt any five of the following: [10]

5
a) Find the relative error of the number whose approximate value is
7
0.714.
b) Round-off the following numbers to four significant figures.
47.57105, 0.50019, 0.0004261, 61.255.

c) Prove that (1 + Δ )(1 − ∇ ) = 1; where Δ is forward difference operator


and ∇ is backward difference operator.
d) State Newton’s formula for backward interpolation.

e) Evaluate Δ10 (1 − x 2 )(1 − 2 x 3 )(1 − 3 x 4 ) (1 − 4 x ) .

rd
1
f) State Simpson’s rule for numerical integration.
3

dy
g) Given that = − 2 y with y(0) = 1. Find y(0.1) by Euler’s method.
dx
(Perform one iteration and take h = 0.1).

Q2) Attempt any two of the following: [10]


a) Obtain Newton-Raphson formula to find rth root of a given number c
and hence find 3 19 .
P.T.O.
b) Find the root of the equation x 3 − x − 1 = 0 between x = 1 and x = 2
using bisection method. (perform two iterations).
c) Find the cubic polynomial which takes the following values
x 0 1 2 3
f(x) 1 0 1 10

Q3) Attempt any two of the following: [10]


a) Derive Lagrange’s interpolation formula.
b) Find f(3), using Newton’s divided difference formula from the following
data.
x 0 1 2 4 5 6
f(x) 1 14 15 5 6 19

c) Determine the constants a, b and c so that y = a + bx + cx 2 is the best fit


to the data.
x 0 1 2 3 4
y 1 0 3 10 21

Q4) Attempt any one of the following: [10]


a) i) State general Quadrature formula and hence derive trapezoidal rule
for numerical integration.
1 th
dx 3
ii) Evaluate ∫ using Simpson’s rule. (Take h = 0.2).
0
x +1 8

dy
b) i) Find y(0.2) using Euler’s modified method. Given that =1− y
dx
with y(0) = 0 (take h = 0.1).

dy
ii) Given that = x + y, y (0) = 1 . Find y(0.1) using Runge-Kutta
dx
fourth order formula.
R R R
[4717]-6049 2

Vous aimerez peut-être aussi