JIPMER MBBS 2003

a. Terminal bronchiole
b. Respiratory bronchiole
c. Tertiary bronchiole
1. In rupture of the bulbar urethra the urine is found to
extravasate into all of the following spaces except d. Proximal bronchiole
a. The scrotum 10. The AV node is situated in the
b. Penis a. The membranous portion of intraventricular
c. Anterior abdominal wall septum
d. Ischerectal fossa b. The muscular portion of intraventricular
2. The anti diabetic drug which also has anorectic effect is septum
a. Glipizide c. Interatrial septum
b. Chlorpropamide d. Crista terminalis
c. Gliclazide 11. The jugular foramen transmits all of the following
d. Metformin except
3. The intervertebral disc is related to all of the following a. Superior petrosal sinus
except b. Internal jugular vein
a. To the aorta anteriorly c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. To the 2nd lumbar nerve closely d. Vagus nerve
c. The cauda equina of spinal cord 12. The relationship between Inferior vena cava and
sympathetic trunk is
d. Is the site of origin of Psoas major a. It is anterior to it
4. The ant diabetic drug which is considered as post
b. Lateral to it
prandial hyperglycaemic regulator is
c. Posterior to it
a. Rosiglitazone
d. Medial to it
b. Piaglitazone
13. The maxillary sinus is best visualized in which of the
c. Ripaglinide
following views
d. Tolbutamide
a. Occipitobregmatic
5. The position of the hip in osteoarthritis is
b. Mentovertical
a. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
c. Fronto-occipital
b. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
c. Extension, abduction and internal rotation d. Lateral view
d. Flexion, abduction and external rotation 14. Which of the following are true about the causation of
6. All of the following structures arise from the embryonic tetralogy of fallot
ectoderm except a. It is due to defect in formation of membranous
a. The anterior hypophysis cerebri part of intraventricular septum
b. The epithelium of thyroid cartilage b. Failure of fusion of conus medularis and
c. Enamel of teeth septum secundum
d. Epithelium lining the nasolacrimal duct c. Failure of fusion of septum primum with
7. Stimulation of the region over the sartorius muscle over septum secundum
the lower part of hunters canal would cause stimulation 15. The maxillary sinus is best visualized in which of the
of which muscle following views
a. Cremastric a. Occipitobregmatic
b. Anal b. Mentovertical
c. Bulbocavernous c. Fronto-occipital
d. Iliopsoas d. Lateral view
8. All of the following statements are true about Treacher 16. The lymphatic drainage from the ovaries and rectum
Collins syndrome except drains into which of the following lymph nodes
a. It is inherited as autosomal dominant a. Aortic
b. The defect is due to neuronal migration b. Aortic and common iliac
disorder c. Aortic , common iliac and internal iliac
c. It is sue to 3rd arch defect d. Aortic, common iliac, internal iliac and
d. It occurs due to terratogenic effect of inguinal
isotretenoic acid
9. The bronchial artery supplies the respiratory tract till the 17. The position of the hip in osteoarthritis is
a. Flexion, abduction and internal rotation
b. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
c. Extension, abduction and internal rotation
d. Flexion, abduction and external rotation
18. The drug which causes ototoxity manifesting mainly as
vestibular component is
a. Gentamycin

 b. Kanamycin b. Normal platelet
c. Amikacin c. Decreased time on addition of ristocetin
d. Natilimicin d. Decreased coagulation to ADP
19. There are many complications of CSOM. The Tobey 29. The most pathognomonic feature of a malignant lesion
Ayer test is used to see for which of the following is
complication a. Vascular invasion
a. Cavernous sinus thrombosis b. Metastasis
b. Cerebral abcess c. Genetic mutation
c. Lateral sigmoid sinus thromosis d. Tissue markers
d. Petrositis 30. The nerve that supplies the pronator muscle of the distal
20. The extracellular fluid which contains increase radioulnar joint is
potassium and low sodium ions is a. Deep branch of radial nerve
a. CSF b. Posterior interossius nerve
b. Ectolymph c. Median nerve
c. Endolymph d. Ulnar nerve
d. Pleural fluid 31. Photostress test is done to test
e. Aryepiglottic folds a. Macula
21. In bilateral abductor paralysis of the vocal cords the b. Optic nerve
voice described is c. Refractive error
a. Mogiphonia d. Optic tract
b. Phoneasthenia 32. Laser iridotomy is done for
c. Good or normal a. Buphthalmos
d. Woody b. Primary angle closure glaucoma
22. The muscles supplied by the glossopharyngeal muscle c. Staphyloma
include all of the following except d. After cataract
a. Constrictors of pharynx 33. The markers which differentiates between a highly
b. Stylopharyngeus malignant cancer and a lymphoma is
c. Taste from circumvallate pappilae a. Neuron specific enolase
d. Sensation from 1/3rd tongue b. Cytokeratin
23. Most of the CNS tumors in children are present in c. Vimentin
a. Supratentorial region d. Desmin
b. Extradural 34. The enzyme which does not take part in DNA
c. Infratentorial region replication is
d. Cauda equina a. Restriction endonuclease
24. There is bulging of the endolymph sac in which of the b. Telomerases
following diseases c. Reverse transcriptase
a. Otospongiosis 35. The articular capsule is defective in which part of the IP
b. Otosclerosis joint
c. Meniers disease a. Dorsum(posterior)
d. Otitis media b. Ventral (anterior)
25. Tuberculosis most commonly involves which of the c. Lateral
following part of the larynx d. Medial
a. Vocal cords 36. In high myopia which of the following is seen
b. Subglottic region a. Retinal heamorhages
c. Posterior commissure b. Papillitis
d. Aryepiglottic folds c. Chorioretinal degeneration
26. The hypopharynx includes all of the following except d. Uvietis
a. Pyriformis fossa 37. Hyperkalemia is seen in which of the following types of
b. Epiglottis renal tubular acidosis
c. Post cricoid region a. Type I
d. Valecula b. Type II
27. All of the following are coccobacilli except c. Type III
a. Bordatella d. Type IV
b. Brucella 38. Normal anion gap acidosis is seen
c. Klebsiella a. Lactic acidosis
d. H.Infleunza b. Diarhrea
28. All of the following are true about von Willibrands c. Diabetic ketoacidosis
disease except d. Glycol poisoning
a. Abnormal platelet count 39. Face to pubis is seen in which type of pelvis

 a. Android 49. All of the following are indications of trail of labour
b. Anthropoid except
c. Gynecoid a. Young primi
d. Platepyloid b. Vertex anterior
40. Thiamine is used in which of the following reactions c. Breech presentation
a. Pyruvate to oxalate 50. For brow presentation the engaging diameter is
b. Pyruvate to acetyl coA a. Submentobregmatic
c. Succinate to Fumarate b. Mentovertical
d. Malonate to oxaloacetate c. Submento-occipital
41. Which of the following amino acid is both polar and d. Occipito-bregmatic
ionic 51. The drug which is added to pyramithamine in the
a. Aspartate treatment of toxoplasma gondi infections is
b. Leucine a. Clindamycin
c. Glutamate b. Clarithromycin
d. Arginine c. Amikacin
42. The HLA III codes for d. Vancomycin
a. Taq proteins 52. In a HIV seropositive case all of the following are
b. Complement gene protein causes of diarrhea except
c. Helper T cells a. Isospora
d. Diabetes Mellitus b. Acanthameoba
43. Zafirulukast is a drug which has found use in asthmatic c. Cryptospora
patients it acts by 53. Deceased activity of osteoblasts is caused by
a. LOX inhibitor a. Parathormone
b. Leukotrien receptor blocker b. Vitamin D 3
c. Newer phosphodiestrase inhibitor c. Corticosterone
d. Endothelin receptor blocker d. T3 and T4
44. Superior gluteal nerve supplies to all of the following 54. Perineal support is to be given during labour to prevent
muscles except lacerations in which of the following conditions
a. Gluteus medius a. Breech
b. Gluteus minimus b. Shoulder
c. Iliotibial tract c. Body
d. Gluteus maximus d. Leg
45. Decarboxylation of which amino acid releases a 55. Frontal EEG showing slowed delta waves is seen. The
compound which has potent vasodilator effects probable cause would be
a. Aspartate a. Metabolic encephalopathy
b. Arginine b. Hypoxic encephalopathy
c. Glutamate c. Raised intracranial pressure
d. Histidine d. Toxoplasma infection
46. Ross position (used in tonsillectomy ) is used for which 56. In the mass prophylaxis in filariasis in India the drug
of the following procedures and the dosage preffered is
a. Tracheostomy a. DEC 6mg/Kg for 1 day
b. Bronchoscopy b. DEC 6 mg/Kg for 12 days
c. Flexible esophagoscopy c. Ivermectin 24 micro/Kg
d. Direct laryngoscopy d. Albendazole 400mg single dose
47. All of the following are used in monitoring use of 57. In AIDS defining illness, which of the following is not
magnesium sulphate in eclampsia except included in the criteria
a. Respiratory rate a. Candidiasis
b. Deep tendon reflexes b. Cryptosporidiasis
c. Serum calcium levels
d. Urine output
c. Multidermatomal herpes zoster
d. Recurrent salmonella septicaemia
48. The drug used to treat a pregnant women with 20 week
gestation with blood pressure of 150/90 is
a. Enalapril
58. The infection implicated in the causation of hydrops
b. Furesemide
feotalis is
c. Hydralizine
a. Infectious Mononucleosis
d. Atenolol
b. Parvo virus 19
c. Erythema infectiosum

 d. Measles c. Duplex ultrasonography
59. All of the following would be positive test for d. Contrast venography
carbohydrate except 69. Selinium is a cofactor in which of the following
a. Starch enzymes
b. Glucose a. Xanthine oxidase
c. Arabinose b. Cytochrome oxidase
d. Erythrose c. Cytochrome reductase
60. The melanocytes can be demonstrated best by d. Dehydrogenase
a. PAS stain 70. The region of the brain which is responsible for the
b. Perls stain emotional aspect of humans is
c. DOPA reaction a. Amygdala
d. Wrights stain b. Frontal lobe
61. Fanconi’s anaemia can be best classified as c. Hippocampus
a. Constitutional anaemia d. Occipital lobe
b. Immunologic anaemia 71. In lesion of ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus there
c. Allergic anaemia will be
d. Autoimmune a. Hypersomnia
62. In a patient with anaemia the MCV-115, MCH-30 and b. Hyperphagia
MCHC-43 which of the following would be seen in c. Anorexia
peripheral smear d. Decreased thirst
a. Dohle bodies 72. The complement which would stimulate the bone
b. Malignant cells marrow is
c. Hypersegmented neutrophils a. C3b
d. Pelger Heut anomaly b. C2
63. The infection implicated in the causation of hydrops c. C9
feotalis is d. C4
a. Infectious Mononucleosis 73. In a malignant lesion-tumor which of the following
b. Parvo virus 19 would be seen
c. Erythema infectiosum a. Normal vasculature
d. Measles b. No neovascularization
64. All of the following would be positive test for c. Contrast pooling
carbohydrate except d. Thickened capsule
a. Starch 74. In isometric muscle exercise the changes seen are
b. Glucose a. Increase in heart rate
c. Arabinose b. Increase in diastolic pressure
d. Erythrose c. Increase in systolic pressure
65. The melanocytes can be demonstrated best by d. Significant increase in cardiac output
a. PAS stain 75. All of the following are currently matched except
b. Perls stain a. Parietal lobe- Finger agnosia
c. DOPA reaction b. Fascial canal damage-LMN fascial palsy
d. Wrights stain c. Inferior colliculus- internuclear
66. Fanconi’s anaemia can be best classified as opthalmoplegia
a. Constitutional anaemia d. Temporal lobe –superior quadrantinopia
b. Immunologic anaemia 76. Blockade of the mainstem of the MCA of the dominant
c. Allergic anaemia side would lead to all of the following except
d. Autoimmune a. Contralateral hemiplegia
67. In a patient with anaemia the MCV-115, MCH-30 and b. Global aphasia
MCHC-43 which of the following would be seen in c. Homonymous hemianopia
peripheral smear d. Gaze palsy with eyes directed towards
a. Dohle bodies contralateral side
b. Malignant cells
c. Hypersegmented neutrophils
d. Pelger Heut anomaly 77. The central sulcus of the brain is classified as
68. The appropriate test used to asses the venous a. Axial sulcus
thrombosis is b. Operculated sulcus
a. I 131 fibrinogen study c. Limiting sulcus
b. Doppler ultrasound
d. Completed sulcus

78. The oxygen haemoglobin curve would shift to the right b. Hypokalemia
due to all of the following except c. Irritable bowel disease
a. Increased temperature d. Peutz Jeghers syndrome
b. Decreased pH 88. In a patient is brought unconscious in the casualty and is
c. Feotal haemoglobin found to have PaCo2-70, PaO2-50, and pH is 7.17. He
d. Increase in 2,3 DPG is most probably cause is
a. Hypoxic respiratory failure
79. Tc99 is derived from which of the following b. Central respiratory depression
a. Str-99 c. COPD
b. Mo-99 d. Hypersensitive pneumonitis
c. Str-90 89. A 40 weeks child can do all of the following except
d. Mo-90 a. Play a simple ball game
80. The rays used for cold sterilization is b. Cruise
a. UV rays c. Pick up objects inadvertently
b. Gamma rays d. Wave bye bye
c. Alpha rays
d. Beta rays 90. ANCA positive diseases are all of the following except
81. All of the following are tributaries for the fascial vein a. Microscopic polyangitis
except b. Henoch scheonlien purpura
a. Transverse fascial vein c. Churgs Strauss syndrome
b. External branch of palatine vein d. Wegeners Granulomatosis
c. Tonsillar vein 91. A person stumbled but did not fall. He felt pain and
d. Pharyngeal vein noticed a swelling in the leg . The most propable cause
82. Teacher A’s class showed a standard deviation of 4.9 is
and teacher B’s class showed a standard deviation of a. Cruciate ligament injury
2.5. This shows that b. Meniscal injury
a. Mr. A’s class is more homogenous then B’s c. Lateral collateral ligament
b. Mr. B’s class is less heterogenous then A’s d. Patellar fracture
c. Mr. A’s class is showing better results then B’s 92. Which of the following internal hernias is associated
d. Mr B’s class is showing better results then A’s with a sac
83. The structure which plays a role in muscle tension is a. Epiploic foramen
a. Golgi tendon organ b. Transmesocolon
b. Muscle spindle c. Transmesentric
c. Annular spiral bundle d. Through the broad ligament
d. Fascicular bundle 93. In ARDS the pathology underlying the disease is
84. Which of the following is not used therapeutically in a. Diffuse infiltration of plasma cells in the intra-
radiotherapy alveolar regions
a. Neutrons b. Diffuse alveolar damage
b. Positrins c. Organizing bronchiolitis
c. Electrons d. Diffuse consolidation
d. Alpha rays 94. The Malampati scoring is done to asses the patients
85. The most common indication for surgery in chronic a. Consciousness
pancreatitis is b. Airways
a. Doudenal obstruction c. Cardiac status
b. Pain d. Renal functioning
c. Infection
d. Malignant transformation
95. In a individual with Indeterminate leprosy is found to
86. Hemihypertrophy of one side of the body is associated mitsuda test negative. This would most likely progress
with which of the following diseases of the kidney into which of the following leprosy
a. Alport’s a. Boderline tuberculoid
b. Medullary sponge kidney b. Boderline leprosy
c. Medullary cystic kidney c. Lepromatous leprosy
d. Adult polycystic kidney diseases d. Tuberculoid leprosy
87. An adult with a rectal polyp is likely to have which of 96. A flat polypoid, polygonal purplish lesion is classically
the following associated disorder seen in
a. Familial adenomatosis polyposis a. Psoriasis

 b. Lichen planus c. Type III
c. Pemphigus vulgaris d. Type IV
d. Pemphigoid 107. Suicidal attempts are more commonly seen all of the
97. In a patient with ectopic kidney the adrenals would following except
most likely be located a. Old age
a. In the pelvis b. Severe depression
b. In the opposite side
c. In normal position
c. Panic attacks
d. Behind the spleen d. Bipolar disorder
98. All of the following are about the luteal cyst of the 108. Single gene disorder causes all of the following diseases
ovary except except
a. Associated with pregnancy a. Familial hypercholesteroleamia
b. May rupture causing an acute abdomen b. HOCM
c. May attain a large size if left untreated c. Systemic hypertension
d. Treated by oral contraceptive pills d. Sickle cell disease
99. Diffussion hypoxia is known to occur when use of 109. Post ovulation there is a rise in all of the following
which of the following anaesthetic agents hormones except
a. Halothane a. Estradiol
b. Nitrous oxide b. Estriol
c. Ethylene oxide c. Progesterone
d. Sevoflourane d. Inhibin
100.Pediculosis papebraum is caused by 110. Which of the following is not a contraindication for trial
a. Body louse of labour
b. Pubic louse a. Breech
c. Head louse b. Central placenta previa
d. Pediculosis semian species c. Hysterotomy
101.Congenital atresia is seen most commonly in which d. Post myomectomy
location 111.Sodium retention is seen in use of
a. Ileal a. Triamcinolone
b. Doudenal b. Hydrocortizone
c. Proximal colon c. Prednisolone
d. Distal colon d. Corticosterone
102. According to Samson’s theory endometriosis is caused 112. In benign prostatic hyperplasia all of the following are
by seen except
a. Lymphatic embolization a. Increased trabeculations in bladder
b. Hormonal imbalance b. Enlargement of lateral lobes of prostate
c. Endometrial metaplasia c. Detrusor instability
d. Transmembrane permeation d. Narrowing of urethra
103. The maturation of graafian follicles is best monitored by 113. All of the following are seen in bronchial cyst except
a. Endometrial biopsy a. Lined by sqaumous epithelium
b. Transvaginal ultrasound b. Arise from 1st bronchial cleft
c. Progesterone levels c. May be transilluminant
d. Temperature changes d. May contain cholesterol
114. All of the following cause increase in acid secretion
104. Primary ovarian failure is treated by except
a. GnRH levels a. Acetyl choline
b. FSH b. Histamine
c. Oestrogen and progesterone supplementation c. Gastrin
d. Bromocriptine d. Prostaglandins
105. In median episiotomy which of following is seen
a. Increased blood loss
115. All of the following are seen in COPD except
b. Increased dyspareunia later a. Descent of trachea during inspiration
c. Increased pain b. Decreased compliance
106. The type of uroporphyrinogens and c. Decreased FeV1/Vc ratio
coproporphyrinogens seen in congenital erythropoitic d. Increased residual volume
porphyreas is 116. Which of the following is not a stage of Pneumonia is
a. Type I a. Congestion
b. Type II

 b. Resolution c. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Organization 127. The A-V fistula made in dialysis is associated with all
d. Hepatization of the following complications except
117. Avascular necrosis is seen in all of the following except a. High output heart failure
a. Upper end of humerus b. Primary thrombus
b. Body of talus c. Deep vein thrombus
c. Head of femur d. Aneurysm formation
d. Scapula 128. A painter complains of pain in the shoulder joint during
118. In a patient with congenital pseudoarthosis of tibia work. The most likely cause is
treatment is by a. Rotator cuff injury
a. Excision b. Bicipital tendinitis
b. Fibular grafting c. Subacromial bursitis
c. Arthrodesis d. Acromioclavicular disruption
d. Open reduction, bone grafting and internal 129. All of the following are true about osteoporosis except
fixation a. Milkmans fracture
119. Unstable injury of the spine is seen in b. Bending of long bones
a. Flexion injury c. Hypercalcemia
b. Compression injury d. Vertebral compression fractures
c. Flexion-rotation injury 130.Cutaneous manifestations of AIDS commonly include
d. Extensor injuries a. Atopic dermatitis
120.Pottassium is absorbed in b. Discoid lupus
a. Thick ascending limb of henle c. Seborriec dermatitis
b. Proximal convoluted tubule d. Lichen planus
c. Distal convoluted tubule 131. Lupus pernio is skin lesion associated with
d. Collecting duct a. Tuberculosis
121. Egg on cup appearance in intravenous urography is seen b. Sarcoidosis
in c. Syphillis
a. Pappillary necrosis d. Histoplasmosis
b. Megacalyces 132.Septic ulcer has which type of edge
c. Medullary sponge kidney a. Undermined
d. Adult polycystic kidney disease b. Pearly
122. An elderly but healthy patient with a 4 part fracture of c. Everted
the proximal humerus is best treated by d. Sloping edge
a. Cuff and sling 133. The triangle between the three points in the elbow is not
b. K-wire fixation disrupted in which of the following
c. Open reduction and internal fixation a. Posterior dislocation of elbow
123.All of the following features are seen in an infant of b. Lateral condyle fracture
cerebral palsy except
c. Supracondylar fracture
a. Decreased physical activity
b. Unable to suck d. Medial condyle fracture
c. Fisting of hand is seen
d. Flexor hypertonia 134. Horizontal transfer of R factor occurs from one bacteria
124. Granular IgA deposition in histological examination is to another by
seen in which of the following skin disorders a. Transformation
a. Bullous pemphigoid b. Transversion
b. Pemphigus Vulgaris c. Conjugation
c. Dermatitis Herpetiformis d. Transduction
d. Herpes Gestationalis 135. A study revealed the following data-1,3,8,4,5 and 3.
The mean and median of the above data is
125. All of the following are intrinsic causes of skin lesions a. 3.5 and 4
except b. 4 and 3.5
a. Atopic dermatitis c. 4 and 3
b. Pytiriasis alba d. 4 and 4
c. Photosenstive allergic contact dermatitis 136. To calculate the confidence limits the indices used are
d. Seborriec dermatitis a. Mean and range
126. In all of the following disorders virus has been b. Median and standard error
implicated as causative agent except c. Mean and standard error
a. Condyloma accuminata d. Mode and standard deviation
b. Condyloma lata 137. Subclinical cases are not seen in which of the following
a. Mumps

 b. Chicken pox 148. All of the following are true about diphtheria except
c. Typhoid a. One infection causes life long immunity
d. Diptheria b. Incubation period is 2-5 days
138. Free DNA is transferred across the cell membranes by c. Subclinical cases are more common
a. Transformation d. Nasal carriers are most dangerous
b. Transduction 149.Adrenaline is not used along with local anaesthesia in
c. Conjugation which of the following areas
d. Tranversion a. Epidural space
139. Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic drug b. Lower limb
a. Resperidone c. Penis
b. Clozapine d. Back
c. Pimozide 150. Most common site of breast carcinoma is in which of
d. Sertraline the following areas of the breast
140. In malaria the type of cells which are responsible for a. In the region of the nipple
recurrence is b. Inner lower quadrant
a. Shizonts c. Upper outer quadrant
b. Hypnozoites d. Upper inner quadrant
c. Merozoites 151. Worst prognosis in breast carcinoma is seen in
d. Sporozoites a. Colloid
141. Exchange transfusion is required when the heamatocrit b. Lobular
in the infant reaches c. Inflammatory
a. 60 d. Papillary
b. 65 152.Double duct sign is seen
c. 70 a. Benign biliary stricture
d. 75 b. Combined biliary and pancreatic duct
142. Carrier state is not seen in which of the following obstruction
a. Whooping cough c. Malignant biliary stricture
b. Diptheria d. Doudenal obstruction
c. Typhoid
d. Polio 153. Which of the following is not a coccobaccili
a. H.Infleunza
143. The Ty21a vaccine for typhoid can be given to children b. Bordetella
after what age c. Brucella
a. 2 yrs d. Pseudomaonas
b. 6 yrs 154. Blood broth contains blood and broth in what ratio
c. 8yrs a. 1:2
d. 10yrs b. 1:5
144. All of the following are normal physiologic changes c. 1:10
that can be seen in pregnancy except d. 1:20
a. 3rd heart sound 155. Growth rate of bacteria is constant in which of the
b. diastolic murmur following phases of bacterial growth curve
c. systolic apical murmur a. Log phase
d. Apical impulse in 4th space b. Lag phase
145. The string of beads appearance is seen in which of the c. Exponential phase
following d. Stationary phase
a. Small bowel obstruction 156. Intracellular bacteria have prolonged survival by
b. Intusseception inhibiting
c. Crohns disease a. Formation of phagolysosomes
d. Diverticulosis b. Hydrolase
146. Russel bodies are seen in which of the following c. Catalase
a. Transformed lymphocytes d. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Aging plasma cells 157. When the environmental temperature is more then the
c. Hypersegmented neutrophils body temperature the loss of heat occurs through which
d. Platelets of the following mechanisms
147. Which of the following is true about Aschoff bodies a. Radiation
a. Fibrinoid necrosis b. Evaporation
b. Perivascular location c. Conduction
c. Multinucleated histiocytes d. Convection
d. B lymphocytes infiltration


158. When a substance is added to prevent growth of one a. Rheumatoid arthritis
bacteria which at the same time makes it conducive for b. Sicca syndromes
the growth of another bacteria is referred to as c. Vitamin A deficiency
a. Enriched media d. Herpetic keratitis
b. Enrichment media 169. In a patient with diffuse macular retinopathy the
c. Selective media treatment would be
d. Differential media a. Pan retinal photocoagulation
159. A virulent strain refers to one which b. Grid pattern macular photocoagulation
a. Has ability to invade the body and multiply c. Macular ablation
b. Has a high percentage of bad cases as d. Pan macular photocoagulation
compared to all cases with clinical 170.Prostanoids are used in all of the following except
presentations a. To maintain PDA before surgery
c. The number of clinical cases being high b. Gastric ulcer to protect from adverse effects of
160.Inherent virulence of an organism is due to all of the NSAIDS
following except c. Glaucoma
a. Capsule d. In platelet coagulation disorders
b. Lipid A 171. The temperature ideally preferred to preserve the body
c. Adhesin for post-mortem examination is
d. Lysozyme a. -10 degrees
161. Superior quadrantinopia in children is due to b. 0 degrees
a. Migraine c. 4 degrees
b. Optic neuritis d. 10 degrees
c. Temporal lobe tumor
d. Pituitary lesion

162. Photostress testing is used to test for functioning of 172. Grievious injury comes under which of the following
a. Occipital lobe IPC acts
b. Macula a. 420
c. Optic nerve b. 320
d. Optic tract c. 302
163. Exudative retinal detachment is seen in which of the d. 300
following 173. The drug which is used along with interferons in the
a. Penetrating injuries treatment of hepatitis C is
b. High myopia a. Lamuvudine
c. Pre-eclampsia b. Ribavirin
d. Chorioretinal degeneration c. Flucytosine
164.Photopsia is seen in d. Amantidine
a. Optic neuritis 174. The human development index score is
b. Retinal detachment a. 32
c. Open angle Glaucoma b. 44
d. Myopia c. 49
165. Which part of the lens undergoes changes in shape d. 58
during accommodation 175. Which of the following is a non parametric test
a. Posterior peripheral part a. Wilcoxin F test
b. Posterior central b. Chi square test
c. Anterior peripheral part c. T test
d. Anterior central d. Mann Whitney U test
166. For chemical analysis the best transport media is 176. The saturation curve of haemoglobin shifts to right in
a. Spirit a. Increase PaCo2
b. Formalin b. Decreased pH
c. Saturated salt solution c. Increased 2,3 DPG
d. Chloroform d. Foetal haemoglobin
167. Macular sparing is seen in lesions occurring in 177. Increased salivation is seen in death due to which of the
a. Optic nerve following
b. Optic tract a. Strangulation
c. Occipital lobe b. Hanging
d. Lateral geniculate body c. Drowning
168.Scleromalacia perforans is seen in d. Cyanide poisoning


178. For fixation of slide to visualize in electron microscopy 189. Which of the following extracellular fluids would have
the substance used is high K and low Na
a. Gluteraldehyde a. CSF
b. Formalin b. Endolymph
c. Nitric oxide vapour c. Ectolymph
179. In extrinsic clotting mechanism the activation of the d. Synovial fluid
pathway occurs by 190. The Glasgow coma scale utilizes all of the following
a. Factor II indicies except
b. Factor XII a. Eye
c. Tissue thromboplastin b. Bladder control
d. Factor VIII c. Motor
180.Intraneuronal second messenger is d. Verbal
a. Calmodulin 191. Weight divided by height raised to 2 is used as an index
b. Neuropeptide Y is known as
c. Fragmin a. Boca’s index
181. Which of the following is having quaternary structure b. Quetlet’s index
a. Haemoglobin c. Ponders index
b. Myoglobin
c. Alpha 1 antytripsin
d. Potassium 192. The drug which is used in the prophylaxis of pre-
eclampsia is
182. Intracranial lesion where macular sparing occurs is in a. Valproate
a. Frontal lobe b. Aspirin
b. Optic tract c. Heparin
c. Lateral geniculate body d. Prochlorperazine
d. Occipital lobe 193. The test which is not done to test for pasteurisation is
183. The most common site of involvement of tuberculosis a. Methylene blue test
in larynx is b. Coliform count
a. Posterior commissure c. Plate test
b. Subglottic region d. Phosphatase test
c. Vocal cords 194.Conversion disorder is
d. Epiglottis a. Hysteria
184. When there is disparity between colposcopic findings b. Fugue
and Pap smear the next step would be to do c. Malingering
a. Hysterectomy 195. In use of doxorubicin the toxicity to the heart can be
b. Cone biopsy prevented by use of which of the following
c. Punch biopsy a. Amifostine
d. Repeat pap smear b. Desrezoxazone
185. Which of the following diseases is not notifiable by c. Flucytosine
WHO d. Carboplatin
a. Cholera 196. The slope in the partogram is in the shape of
b. Yellow fever a. Hyperbola
c. Plague b. Parabola
d. Polio c. Sigmoid
186. Bacteroids cause which of the following d. Linear
a. Carbuncle 197.Schatzki’s rings are
b. Furuncle a. Convolutions in the upper esophagus due to
c. Necrotizing fascilculitis tumor
187. Adenosine is used in treatment of all of the following b. Lower esophageal sphincter spasms
arrhythmias except c. Constriction ring in the lower esophagus
a. SVT d. Diverticula in the mid esophagus causing
b. Atrial flutter esophageal spasm
c. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia 198. The half life of iridium used in brachytherapy is
d. Arrhythmia with aberrant tracts a. 6 days
188.The wear and tear pigment in the body refers to b. 6 months
a. Methemoglobin c. 6 years
b. Rhodopsin 199.Manchuesen by proxy is
c. Lipofuscin a. Factitious disorder
d. Bilirubin b. Malingering


 c. Hysteria a. Falciform ligament
d. Conversion disorder b. Caudate lobe
200. Epiphyseal dysgenesis is seen in which of the following c. Hepatic portal vein
a. Rickets d. Hepatic artery
b. Scurvy
c. Hypothyroidism 211. The fertility rate is maximum restored if tubectomy has
d. Osteoporosis been realigned at what region
201. Intracerebral calcification is seen most commonly in a. Isthmo-isthmic
a. Cytomegalovirus b. Fimbrial end
b. Herpes c. Ampullary segment
c. Cryptococcosis d. Interstial segment
d. Histoplasmosis 212.Pethidine differs from morphine in
a. Constipation
202. Inversion of uterus is associated with shock due which b. Having cough suppressant properties
of the following reasons c. More sedation
a. Blood loss d. Spasm of sphincter of oddi
b. Peritoneal stretching 213.A beta 1 blocker with beta 2 agonistic activity is
c. Vagus hyperstimulation a. Esmolol
d. Infection b. Carvedilol
203. The areas draining to the inguinal nodes include all of c. Celiprolol
the following except d. Sotalol
a. Anal canal 214. All of the following are type II hypersensitivity
b. Ischiorectal fossa reactions except
c. Vagina a. Hemolytic anemia
d. Popliteal region b. Myasthenia Gravis
204. Shaving of the part to undergo surgery is ideally to be c. Arthus reaction
done d. Good Pastures syndrome
a. The previous day 215. The most common cause of stricture in the bile duct is
b. Can be done 6 hours before surgery sue to
c. Just before surgery a. Ascending cholangitis
d. 48 hours before surgery b. Post surgery-Cholecystectomy
205.The most specific marker in DIC is c. Malignancy
a. Fibrinogen assay d. Sclerosing cholangitis
b. D dimer assay 216. The best procedure done for ectopic pregnancy which
c. APTT has least recurrence rate is
d. Bleeding time a. Salpingotomy
206. The bias in a study can be prevented by using which of b. Salpingolysis
the following studies c. Resection and end to end anastomosis
a. Case control study d. Salpingo-ophorodesis
b. Cohort study 217. The worst prognosis in carcinoma endometrium is seen
c. Cross sectional study in which of the following types
d. Randomized control trials a. Pappilary type
207. The characteristic feature of trachoma is presence of b. Adenocarcinoma
a. Follicles in bulbar conjunctiva c. Squamous type
b. Follicles in Palpebral conjuntiva d. Clear cell type
c. Papillae in bulbar conjunctiva 218. The number of ATP’s hydrolysed in the synthesis of
d. Follicles over the cornea proteins for formation of 1 peptide bond is
208. The gene known as the guardian gene or the policeman a. 1
gene is b. 2
a. Abl gene c. 3
b. P53 d. 4
c. Myc 219.Pharmacogenetics refers to
d. Neu a. The variation in the metabolism of the drugs.
209. The antibiotic prophylaxis in surgery is given b. The variation in the response of the drug due to
a. 3 days prior to surgery genetic differences
b. 48 hours before c. The genetic mutation induced by the drug
c. Just before surgery 220.The precursor amino acid in formation of urea is
d. One week before surgery a. Aspartic acid
210. The surgical division of the lobes of the liver is by b. Arginine


 c. Glutamate
d. Ornithine
221. Septic ulcer has which type of edge
a. Pearly
b. Everted
c. Sloping edge
d. Undermined
222. All of the following hormones increase following
ovulation except
a. Estradiol
b. Estriol
c. Progesterone
d. Inhibin
223. Inferior rib notching is seen in all of the following
except
a. Marfans syndrome
b. Neurofibromatosis
c. Blaulok Tausig shunt
d. Coarctation of aorta
224. All of the following cause increase in acid secretion
except
a. Prostaglandins
b. Acetyl choline
c. Histamine
d. Gastrin
225. In lesion of ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus there
will be
a. Decreased thirst
b. Hypersomnia
c. Hyperphagia
d. Anorexia

