CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS - 2019

CBT - 01 (Code-A)
Test Date : 09/05/2019

ANSWERS
1. (4) 41. (2) 81. (3) 121. (4) 161. (2)
2. (3) 42. (2) 82. (4) 122. (3) 162. (3)
3. (2) 43. (1) 83. (4) 123. (4) 163. (1)
4. (1) 44. (4) 84. (4) 124. (3) 164. (1)
5. (4) 45. (2) 85. (2) 125. (2) 165. (4)
6. (2) 46. (1) 86. (2) 126. (2) 166. (2)
7. (3) 47. (2) 87. (1) 127. (4) 167. (2)
8. (2) 48. (3) 88. (4) 128. (1) 168. (3)
9. (2) 49. (4) 89. (3) 129. (2) 169. (3)
10. (2) 50. (4) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (3)
11. (4) 51. (4) 91. (4) 131. (3) 171. (4)
12. (3) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (3) 172. (1)
13. (4) 53. (3) 93. (2) 133. (1) 173. (2)
14. (2) 54. (1) 94. (1) 134. (2) 174. (4)
15. (4) 55. (3) 95. (3) 135. (4) 175. (1)
16. (2) 56. (1) 96. (3) 136. (1) 176. (4)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (4) 137. (1) 177. (3)
18. (3) 58. (4) 98. (2) 138. (2) 178. (4)
19. (2) 59. (2) 99. (2) 139. (2) 179. (3)
20. (3) 60. (4) 100. (1) 140. (3) 180. (2)
21. (4) 61. (2) 101. (1) 141. (4) 181. (1)
22. (3) 62. (3) 102. (2) 142. (2) 182. (1)
23. (2) 63. (3) 103. (2) 143. (4) 183. (3)
24. (3) 64. (3) 104. (4) 144. (4) 184. (4)
25. (3) 65. (1) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (1)
26. (2) 66. (2) 106. (4) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (4) 67. (4) 107. (1) 147. (2) 187. (1)
28. (4) 68. (3) 108. (1) 148. (2) 188. (4)
29. (3) 69. (1) 109. (1) 149. (1) 189. (1)
30. (2) 70. (4) 110. (3) 150. (4) 190. (3)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (2) 191. (3)
32. (2) 72. (3) 112. (3) 152. (4) 192. (3)
33. (1) 73. (2) 113. (1) 153. (4) 193. (4)
34. (2) 74. (2) 114. (2) 154. (1) 194. (3)
35. (2) 75. (2) 115. (2) 155. (1) 195. (2)
36. (2) 76. (1) 116. (4) 156. (3) 196. (1)
37. (4) 77. (4) 117. (1) 157. (3) 197. (3)
38. (2) 78. (1) 118. (2) 158. (4) 198. (3)
39. (3) 79. (3) 119. (4) 159. (2) 199. (3)
40. (2) 80. (3) 120. (1) 160. (2) 200. (1)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019 CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

4. Answer (1)
PHYSICS
Hint : ΔP = ρgeffh
1. Answer (4)
Hint : Tangential acceleration = component of g
Sol. : a=
acceleration along the velocity. 3

Sol. : r = 3t 2 iˆ + t 3 jˆ

v = 6t iˆ + 3t 2 ˆj
a
t = 1, v = 6i + 3 ˆj
 M
a = 6iˆ + 6tjˆ 2 15 cm a
t = 1, a = 6iˆ + 6 jˆ M
ΔP = ρg eff h
2g
ΔP = ρ(g − a )h = 103 × × 15 × 10 −2 = 1kPa
3
5. Answer (4)
Hint : N = N0e −λt
N0
Sol. : After first half hour N =
at = a cosθ 2
ar = a sinθ 4
1 3 ⎛ N ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞ N
at t= h to t = h N ′ = ⎜ 0 ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ = 0
= cot θ = 3 2 2 ⎝ 2 2
⎠⎝ ⎠ 32
ar
3
2. Answer (3) For t = to t = 2 h
2
FL 1
Hint : ΔL = For both A and B t1/2 eff = h
AY 6
Sol. : A= A1A2 ⎛ N ⎞⎛ 1 ⎞
3
N
N ′′ = ⎜ 0 ⎟⎜ ⎟ = 0
FL ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ 256
A = π 2a 2 , ΔL = 6. Answer (2)
2πa 2Y
3. Answer (2) Hint : δ = A ( μ − 1) and
Hint : Using conservation of mechanical energy
1 1 1
− =
GMm 1 v u f
Sol. : ME = − + mv 2
r 2 Sol. :

1°

O′
h
O O

GMm GMm 1 u = 30 cm
− =− + mv 2
2a r 2 δ = A ( μ − 1)
GM ⎛ 1 − e ⎞ ⎛3 ⎞
r = a(1 + e ), v = ⎜ ⎟ δ = 2 ⎜ − 1⎟ = 1°
a ⎝ 1+ e ⎠ ⎝2 ⎠

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CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019

h For diode detector

tan1° =
10 1 1
<< RC <<
h = 10 (1°) fC fm
π π Value of time constant RC should be much less than
h = 10 = cm
180 18 time period of modulating signal and much greater
than time period of carrier signal
1 1 1
− = 11. Answer (4)
v u f
Hint and Sol. :
v = + 60 cm
hI v v 60 π π
m= = ⇒ hI = ho = × = − cm
hO u u −30 18 9
7. Answer (3) 12. Answer (3)
Hint : F = μMg Hint : In forward bias, RDiode = 0
Sol. : For 3 kg block f > μ3g In reverse bias, RDiode = ∞
Sol. : In case, when +ve terminal is connected to A
F>6N
and –ve terminal is connected to B
For 2 kg block f > 4 N 9Ω
3Ω
1 2
⇒ (F − 6)x = kx
2 4Ω
A B
kx 4
F −6 = =
2 2 6Ω 18 Ω
F=8N RAB = (3 + 9)//(6 + 18)
8. Answer (2) = 8 Ω
Hint and Sol. : e = tan2θ In case; when –ve terminal is connected to A and
+ve terminal is connected to B
9. Answer (2) 9Ω
Hint : R = R1 + R2
2R 3R
dx dy 4Ω
Sol.: ∫ k 4πx 2
+ ∫ 2 A B
R 2 R 2k 4 πy

7 6Ω
R=
48 π kR RAB = 6 + 4 + 9 = 19 Ω
10. Answer (2) 13. Answer (4)
Hint : Using concept of conservation of energy and
1 1 linear momentum.
Hint : f << RC << f
C m
1 2mgh
Sol. : fC = 1 MHz Sol. : Mv 2 < mgh ⇒ v <
2 M
1 14. Answer (2)
= 10 −6 = 1 μs
fC Hint : Moment of inertia is minimum about C.O.M
Sol. : rcm from 2M
B.W = 2fm = 2 × fm
∴ fm = 1000 Hz 2M × O + M × r r
rcm = =
3M 3
1 1 2 2
= = 10 −3 s = 1 ms ⎛r ⎞ ⎛ 2r ⎞
fm 1000 ∴ I = 2M ⎜ ⎟ + M ⎜ ⎟
⎝3⎠ ⎝ 3 ⎠

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All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019 CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

r2 4r 2 4
+M R ρ b a = − g ρL x ...(ii)
= 2M 3
9 9
From equation (i) and (ii)
6Mr 2 2 3g
= = MR 2 a=− x
9 3 2R
15. Answer (4) 3g
∴ ω=
 2R
Hint : tan θ = 2 E is ⊥ P
2R
2P cos θ T = 2π
Sol. : E at 0, E1 = k 3g
r3
18. Answer (3)
P sinθ
E2 = k qin
r3 Hint : ∫ EdA = ε0
2P cos θ p sin θ sin θ
Ex = k cos θ − k
r 3
r3 qin Q
Sol. : ∫ E.dA = φ = ε0
=−
ε0
P ⎡ P ⎡ 1 2⎤ 19. Answer (2)
Ex = k 3 ⎣
2cos2 θ − sin2 θ⎤⎦ = k 3 ⎢2 × 3 − 3 ⎥ = 0
r r ⎣ ⎦
Psinθ 2 u sinθ
P Hint : T =
a
θ
Pcosθ 2 u sinθ
Sol. : T =
a
θ
x qσ
E1 a=
E2 ε0 m

v sinθ

y Ey = E1sinθ + E2cosθ ≠ 0
16. Answer (2)
Hint : Balanced wheat stone bridge. θ
Sol. : Equivalent circuit is v cosθ

20. Answer (3)

Hint : ε = vBL
Sol. :

∴ RAB = 2 Ω
17. Answer (3)
Hint : a = – ω2x
Sol. : At equilibrium
V
V ρb g = ρL g
2
ρL = 2ρb ...(i)
Leff = R sin30° + R
When it is displaced by x
3R
V ρb a = −(dv ) g ρL =
2
4
πR 3 ρb a = −πR 2 x g ρL vR 3
3 e = 3B = vBR
2 2

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CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019

21. Answer (4) 2k1 = k

 
Hint : (P 1 + P2 )
COM
=0
∴ k1 =
k
2
 
Sol. : As P 1COM + P 2COM = 0 ∴ After each collission energy remain half
  ∴ After nth collision
P 1COM = P 2COM = P
n
⎛ 1⎞
1 ∴ kn = k ⎜ ⎟
As λ ∝ ⎝2⎠
P
∴ λ1 : λ2 = 1 : 1 n
⎛ 1⎞
4.88 keV = 5 MeV ⎜ ⎟ ⇒ n = 10
22. Answer (3) ⎝2⎠
Hint : Use conservation of momentum
23. Answer (2)
Sol.:
24. Answer (3)
k1
y 1
Hint : Energy density ⇒ u = ε0 E 2
m m 45° 2
h k p θ x 1
Sol. : Q= ε0 E 2C
2
k2
Conservation of linear momentum in y-direction
⎡⎣ML2 T -2 ⎤⎦
= ⎡LT -1 ⎤⎦
2mk1 sin 45° = 2mk2 sin θ ...(i) ⎡⎣L3 ⎤⎦ ⎣

In x-direction, = [MT–3]
2mk = 2mk1 cos 45° + 2m k2 cos θ ...(ii) = Intensity of wave

Square and add equation (i) and (ii) 25. Answer (3)

I0
Hint : I= cos2 θ
( ) +( ) 2
2 2
2mk1 sin 45° 2mk − 2mk1 cos 45° = 2mk2
I0
I0 I1 I2 I3
k k 1 2
∴ k2 = 1 + k + 1 − 2 kk1 × Sol.:
2 2 2

∴ k2 = k1 + k − 2kk1 ...(iii) I0 I
I1 = cos2 45° = 0
From conservation of energy 2 4

k = k1 + k2 I0 I
I2 = cos2 45° = 0
k2 = k – k1 ...(iv) 4 8
From equation (i) and (ii)
I0 I
I3 = cos2 45° = 0
k − k1 = k1 + k − 2kk1 4 16
26. Answer (2)
2k1 = 2kk1
λD
2k12 = k k1 Hint : β′ =
dμ

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All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019 CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

6000 × 10−10 8 dv y B0 x 2 ( qv 0 )
Sol.: β′ = × = 6000 × 10–7 = cos θ
4 −3 3 dt m
× 2 × 10
3
dv y dx B0 qx 2
= 6 × 10–4 m = 0.6 mm Also × = v0cosθ
dx dt m
Shift
dv y B0 qx 2 dx
D β′ ∴ = = v x = v 0 cos θ
y 0 = ( μ − 1) t = dx m
as
dt
d 2
v0 xmax
aμ g
9 B0 q
μ= =
aμw 8
∫ dv y =
0 m ∫
0
x 2 . dx

3
8 B0 q xmax
v0 =
3 ⎛9 ⎞ 0.6 mm m 3
−3 ⎜
− 1⎟ t =
2 × 10 ⎝ 8 ⎠ 2
1
⎛ 3mv 0 ⎞ 3
4 ⎛ 1⎞ ∴ xmax =⎜ ⎟
× 103 ⎜ ⎟ t = 0.3 × 10−3
3 ⎝8⎠ ⎝ B0 q ⎠
29. Answer (3)
103
t = 3 × 10 − 4  1  
3×2 Hint : S=
μ0
E ×B ( )
−7
t = 18 × 10 m
t = 1800 mm i j k
27. Answer (4)  1
Sol.: S= 9 4 −7
Hint : Use Boolean algebra 4π × 10 −7
0.018 0.008 0.03
Sol. : A
(
= 0.14i − 0.315 j )
Y 30. Answer (2)

L
B Hint : τ=
Req

Y = A + B = AB Sol. : In case of growth

It is AND gate R
28. Answer (4)
  
( )
R L
Hint : F = q v × B τ1 =
R
y
v0
Fm
θ θ In case of decay

Sol.: Fm L
τ2 =
x 2R
z v0
L L
⎛F ⎞ ∴ τ1 : τ2 = ;
ay = ⎜ m ⎟ cos θ R 2R
⎝m⎠
∴ 2:1

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CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019
31. Answer (4) 36. Answer (2)
Hint : y = A sin (ωt – kx + φ)
R 1
Sol. : vp = – (slope) vwave Hint : = 2
PQ F t
(–10) = – tan45° vw
vw = 10 cm/s R 1
=
Sol. : PQ ⎡MLT −2 ⎤ 2 .T
ω 2π 2π ⎣ ⎦
= 10 : k = = =π
k λ 2
= [M–2L–2T3]
ω = 10π
37. Answer (4)
π
φ= , A = 10 cm vdv
6 Hint : a=
dx
32. Answer (2)
Sol. : a = −100 x + 50
Hint : f∝ T
dv
v = −100 x + 50
1 T dx
Sol. : f =
2L μ
∫ vdv = ∫ ( −100 x + 50 ) dx
∴ f ∝ T
v −1
As T1 : T2 : T3 = 1 : 4 : 9 ⎡v 2 ⎤ ⎡ 100 x 2 ⎤
⎢ ⎥ = ⎢− + 50 x ⎥
∴ f1 : f2 : f3 = 1 : 2 : 3 ⎣ 2 ⎦0 ⎣ 2 ⎦2
33. Answer (1)
v = zero
Hint : If VP > VN then FB and
38. Answer (2)
If VP < VN then RB
Hint : Concept of C.O.M and physical pendulum
Sol. : If Vi > VR, D act as short circuit
Sol. : The C.O.M of the rod
∴ V0 = VR
l
If Vi < VR, D act as open circuit
∴ V0 = Vin
∫ kx. x dx
rcm = 0
l
34. Answer (2)
Hint : Pressure remains constant for isobaric,
∫ kx. dx
0
volume remains constant for isochoric and l
temperature remain constant for isothermal ⎡ x3 ⎤ l3
k⎢ ⎥
Sol. : For AB → Isobaric ⎣ 3 ⎦0 2l
= = 32 =
2 l l 3
∴ T↑ , V↑ ⎡x ⎤
k⎢ ⎥ 2
For BC → Isothermal ⎣ 2 ⎦0
∴ P↓, V↑ Torque about A
For CD → Isochoric
P↓, T↓
For DA → Isothermal
P↑, V↓
35. Answer (2)
Hint : XL = R, tanθ = 1

⎛ π ⎞ 2l
I = I0 sin ⎜ ωt + − δ ⎟ mg × = T cos θxl
Sol. : 3
⎝ 4 ⎠
As θ is small ∴ cosθ  1
π
δ=
4 2mg
T =
I = I0 sin (ωt) 3

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All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019 CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

For time period I about PQ

I about A I = Idisc + Iparticle

l
I A = ∫ x 2 . dm mR 2 mR 2 16mR 2 9mR 2 + 4mR 2 + 64mR 2
I= + + =
0 4 9 9 36
77
l I= mR 2
∫x . λdx 36
2
=
0
10mgR 1 77
∴ = × mR 2 ω2
l 3 2 36
= k ∫ x . dx
3

240 9
0
ω= about PQ
77 R
kl 4 The particle rotates in a circle of radius
=
4
R 4R
R+ =
∴ Tsinθ × l = – Iα 3 3
For θ < 5° sinθ  θ 4R
∴ v= ω
3
2mg kl 3
θ=− .α
3 4 4R 240g
=
3 77R
8mg
∴ α=− .θ 240 × 16 gR 2 80 × 16g R
3kl 3 =
=
77 × 9 R 77 × 3
8mg
∴ ω=
3kl 3 5gR
= 16
39. Answer (3) 231
Hint : Use conservation of energy 40. Answer (2)
GM
Hint : v =−
r
P
2R
Sol. :

2R
2R 6R + 2R 8R 2R
R+R + = = and CC =
1

3 3 3 3
M × 2π rdr
8mgR Sol. : dm =
↓ ΔU of particle = π4R 2 − πR 2
3
2M rdr
2mgR =
↓ ΔU of disc = 3R 2
3 ∴ V at P
10mgR Gdm
∴ Total ↓ in ΔU = dV = −
3 r 2 + 4R 2
According to conservation of M.E 2R
2G M rdr
10mgR 1 2
= Iω
V =−
3 R2 ∫ r + 4R 2
2
3 2 ∴ R

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CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019

r2 + 4R2 = t2 Sol. : When the plane of two concentric loops are

2rdr = 2t dt perpendicular to each other then k = 0
2 Gm t dt 47. Answer (2)
∴ V = − 3 R2 ∫ 2
t T

2 GM ⎡ 2
r + 4R 2 ⎤
2R ∫ I. dt
= − Hint : Iav = 0
3 R2 ⎣ ⎦R
T
2 GM ⎡
= − 2 ⎣
8R 2 − 5 R 2 ⎤ Sol. : For sinusodial signal if half cycle choosen
3 R ⎦
T T
2 GM ⎡ from t = 0 to the average value is +ve, for to
= − 2 2 − 5 ⎤⎦ 2 2
3 R ⎣
41. Answer (2) T 3T
T average value is negative and for to
4 4
dy average value is zero
Hint : v=
dt
48. Answer (3)
Sol. : v = Aω sinωt Hint and Sol. : Mirror formula
v2 = A2ω2 sin2ωt
1 1 1
+ =
⎡1 − cos 2ωt ⎤ v u f
v 2 = A2 ω2 ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 2 ⎦ 49. Answer (4)
Also v2 is always non-negative Hint. : a = –ω2x
42. Answer (2) Sol. : At x = A i.e extreme position a is max and
at mean position a is zero
Hint and Sol. : Reynold’s number is a pure number
50. Answer (4)
(dimensionless and unitless) used to characterise the
flow of liquid Hint and Sol. : Direction of motion of particle is
always along the direction of velocity
43. Answer (1)
51. Answer (4)

 dL Hint and Sol. : In non-uniform circular motion
Hint : τ =  
dt v. a ≠ 0
    52. Answer (4)
Sol. : If τ is zero, then dL = 0 i.e L = constant
Hint : Dimensions of two different physical
44. Answer (4)
quantities can be same
Hint : Translational degree of freedom three
Sol. : Torque and work has same dimension. Unit
Sol. : Total translational kinetic energy of all of angle is radian and it is dimensionless
3 3 53. Answer (3)
molecules of ideal gas μRT = PV
2 2 Hint : Conservation of mechanical energy
45. Answer (2) 1 2 1
Sol. : As mgh = I ω + mv 2 for A to B
     2 2
Hint : (
F = qE and F = q V × B ) For B to C
Sol. : If direction of velocity of charge particle and
1
acceleration is same then speed of particle ↑. Only mv 2 = mgh ′
2
Magnetic field changes the direction of velocity
46. Answer (1) 1
∴ mgh − I ω2 = mgh′
2
Hint : M = k L1L2
∴ h′ < h

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All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019 CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

54. Answer (1)

Hint : Use equation y = Asinωt + Bcosωt H CH3
Sol. : ⏐ ⏐+ OH
Sol. : CH — CH2 — N — CH 2CH2CH3
⎡ A B ⎤ ⏐ –H 2O
y=⎢ sin ωt + cos ωt ⎥ A2 + B 2
CH3
⎣ A +B A +B
2 2 2 2
⎦
y = Are sin ( ωt + φ )
CH3
B ⏐
where Are = A +B
2 2
and tan φ = +
CH — CH2 — N — CH 2CH2CH3
A
CH = CH2 ⏐
⎛B⎞
−1
CH3
∴ φ = tan ⎜ ⎟
⎝ A⎠
55. Answer (3) 62. Answer (3)
Hint : Inside the water transverse wave cannot be Hint : –OCH3 is +R causing group.
generated Sol. : BH3 is an electron deficient molecule and
56. Answer (1) acts as an electrophile. So any electron releasing
group by +I/+R will facilitate its attack.
2n 63. Answer (3)
Hint : Δφ = × Δx
λ
Hint : Reaction proceeds via benzyne mechanism.
Sol. : For central maxima Δx = 0
∴ Δφ = 0 CF3 CF 3 CF3
Cl
57. Answer (3) Sol. : NaNH 2 NH2 More stable
due to –I
effect of CF 3
NH2
1 ⎛1 1 ⎞
Hint : For Lyman = z 2R ⎜ − 2 ⎟ NH3
λ ⎝1 n ⎠
CF3
Sol. : As z = 1 for hydrogen and deuterium but
value of R will be different, more for deuterium as its
NH2
nucleus is heavey
58. Answer (4)
64. Answer (3)
Hint and Sol. : (K.E)max = hν – hν0
Hint : More polarisable bases are good nucleophile.
59. Answer (2)
Sol. : Relative rate (water = 1) of reaction of
Hint and Sol. : Electrostatic field cannot form nucleophiles with MeBr in EtOH
closed loop but d induced electric field can form nucleophile ; PhS– I– EtO– PhO–
closed loop
relative rate; 5 × 107 1.2 × 105 5 × 104 2 × 103
60. Answer (4)
65. Answer (1)
Hint and Sol. : Potential gradient

V Hint :
K= and V = IR
L
3-ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane.
CHEMISTRY 66. Answer (2)
61. Answer (2) Hint : In Gauche form intramolecular H-bond is
Hint : Due to phenyl group, anion formation is faster. present.

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CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019
Sol. : 71. Answer (2)

OH H-bond OH
⊕
Hint : NO2 being electrophile attacks preferably on
H OH H H electron rich ring.
O

H C–O–
H H H Sol. :
H OH
Gauche Anti
HO HO O
OH H ⏐⏐
⎯ C ⎯ O — group is ring deactivating while — O —
is ring activating.
H H OH ⊕
H H H H H So NO2 attacks on o/p- position with respect to
Fully eclipsed Partially eclipsed —O—
67. Answer (4) 72. Answer (3)
Hint : Aldo oxime can show syn-anti isomerism. Hint : (CH3)2CH – CHO
has α – H, but can give Cannizzaro’s reaction.
68. Answer (3)
73. Answer (2)
d−l
Hint : Observed specific rotation = × [α] Hint : Vicinal diiodides are thermally unstable.
d+l
CH2OH CH2I CH2
(75 − 25)
Sol. : Observed specific rotation = × 150° ⏐ ⏐ ⏐⏐
(75 + 25) CHOH ⎯⎯⎯→
3 HI −I2
CHI ⎯⎯ ⎯
→ CH ⎯⎯HI
→
−3H2O
Sol. :
50 ⏐ ⏐ ⏐
= × 150 CH2OH CH2I CH2I
100
= + 75° CH3 CH3 CH3
I −I2 I HI I
69. Answer (1) CHI ⎯⎯⎯ → CH ⎯⎯→ CH ⎯ I
I II I
Hint : Condensation polymers are formed by CH 2I CH2 CH
removal of small molecules like CO2, NH3, H2O etc.
74. Answer (2)
Sol. :
Hint : Primary amine can give carbylamine test.
CH2OH Sol. : C2H5NH2 + CHCl3 + 3 KOH ⎯→ C2H5NC +
n HOOC COOH + n 3 KCl + 3 H2O
CH2OH
Terephthalic Ethylene 75. Answer (2)
acid glycol Hint : Ortho effect increases acidic strength of
O O benzoic acid.
—C C – O – CH 2 – CH2 – O — COOH COOH COOH
n Cl
Br
70. Answer (4) Sol. :
pKa = 2.85 pKa = 2.94 pKa = 4.2
pK a1 + pK a2
Hint : pH = 76. Answer (1)
2
Hint : Larger is the Δ0, lesser is the λmax.
2.3 + 9.7 12 Sol. : NH3 > H2O > Cl
Sol. : pH = = = 6 (isoelectric point).
2 2 So, Δ0 increases, νmax increases, λmax decreases.

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All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019 CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

77. Answer (4) Sol. :

Hint : EAN of Mo in [Mo(CO)x] is 54.
Sol. : Z of Mo = 42 l=0 l=0 l=1 l=0 l=1 l=0
So, 42 + (x) × 2 = 54 m= 0m= 0 m = –1 m=0 m = –1 m=0
2e – 2e– 2e – 2e – 2e – 1e –
x=6 Total e– = 11.
78. Answer (1) 84. Answer (4)
Hint : Due to resonance bond lengths become Hint : In one electronic system, energy depends on
identical. principal quantum number only.
Sol. : All have same values of ‘n’, so all have same
O + +
O energy.
Sol. : N—O—N 85. Answer (2)
O O
IE + EA X
So, x = y = w = z Hint : Xm = , Xp = m
2 2.8
79. Answer (3) 4.0 + 13.0
Sol. : Xm = = 8.5
Hint : Gases with very small molecular size can 2
diffuse. 8.5
Xp = = 3.04
Sol. : Helium gas has extremely small size 2.8
therefore it can diffuse easily. 86. Answer (2)
80. Answer (3) Hint : H– has largest size among H–,Cl–, Br– due to
greater decrease in Zeff from H to H–.
Hint : Thermodynamically most stable allotrope of
carbon is graphite. 87. Answer (1)
Hint : 10 ‘Vol’ H2O2, means that one volume of
81. Answer (3)
H2O2 on decomposition gives 10 volume O2 at STP.
Hint : meq of Cr2O72– = meq of C2O42– Sol. :
Strength (in g/l)
Cr2 O72 − + C2 O24− ⎯⎯→ Cr 3 + + CO2
Sol. : nf = 6 nf = 2
17 17
= × V × 10 = × 10 × 10 = 30.35
N1V1 = N2V2 56 56
n1M1V1 = n2M2V2 ⇒ 6 × 0.2 × V1 = 2 × 0.3 × 50 88. Answer (4)
V1 = 25 ml Vreal
Hint : Z = V
82. Answer (4) ideal

Sol. : Vreal = ZVideal

n2 = 2 × 22.4
Hint : x 2 =
n2 + n1 = 44.8 L
89. Answer (3)
Sol. : x1 = 0.85, x2 = 0.15,
Hint : The graph beween P vs T is for isochoric
Let number of moles of H2SO4 = nH2SO4 process.
nH2SO4 Sol. :
xH2SO4 =
nH2O + nH2SO4
P
nH2SO4 R
0.15 = e = V –b
2 × 103 Slo p
+ nH2SO4
18 T

x = 19.6 P(V – b) = RT
83. Answer (4) R
P= ×T
Hint : K(19) = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 V −b

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CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019
90. Answer (4) 96. Answer (3)
Hint : Hybrid state = No. of σ bonds + Number of l.p
+ − a
Hint : r + r = Sol. : Hybridization = 4 + 1 = 5 = sp3d
2
O F
+ –a
Sol. : r + r = = m Xe
2
∴ a=2m O F
3a = 2 3 m 97. Answer (4)
Body diagonal =
Hint : C2 contains no σ bond.
91. Answer (4)
Hint : VO, VO 2 and TiO 3 show conducting or N2− , B.O = 2.5
insulating properties depending on temperature. O2+ B.O = 2.5
92. Answer (4)
98. Answer (2)
∞
Hint : Λm = Λm –b c Hint : A2B3  2A3+ + 3B2–
Sol. : A2B3  2A3+ + 3B2–
∞
Sol. : Λm = Λm –b c 2s 3s
∞ ∞ Ksp = [A+3]2 [B–2]3
500 = Λm –b 4 100 = Λm – b 16
= (2s)2 (3s)3 = 108 s5
500 = Λ∞m – 2b ... (i) 100 = Λ∞m – 4b ... (ii) 99. Answer (2)
From eqn (i) – eqn (ii), we get Hint : HCOOK is a salt of weak acid and strong
400 = 2b ⇒ b = 200 base.
∞
Λm = Λm + b c = 500 + 2 × 200 = 900 cm2 Ω–1 mol–1 Kw
Sol. : h = K × c
93. Answer (2) a
Hint : For an elementary reaction, stoichiometric 100. Answer (1)
coefficients are taken as order with respect to Hint : ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT
reactants.
Sol. :
Sol. : 15
C6H5COOH(s) + O2 (g) ⎯⎯→ 7CO2 (g) + 3H2O( )
2

⎛ 15 ⎞ 1
So, after 20 min pz = 2p = 40 Δng = (7 + 0) – ⎜ 0 + ⎟ = –
⎝ 2 ⎠ 2
p = 20 mm Hg
Rate = k[X] [Y]2 RT
ΔH = ΔE –
Initial rate = k[60] [80]2 = r1 .....(i) 2
After 20 min, rate = k [40] [40]2 = r2...(ii)
2 ×10 –3 × 300
= ΔE – = ΔE – 0.3
r2 k(40)(40)2 40 × 40 × 40 1 2
= = =
r1 k(60)(80)2 60 × 80 × 80 6 101. Answer (1)
Hint : Kjeldahl method cannot be used when N is
94. Answer (1) bonded to N.
Hint : Unit of k = (mol/lit)1–n s–1 Sol. : They gives N2 gas, rather than NH3 on heating.
Sol. : For zero order reaction, unit of k = mol L–1 s–1 102. Answer (2)
Unit of rate = mol L–1 s–1 Hint : Cyclooctatetraene is non-planar tub shaped
95. Answer (3) compounds
α2
Hint : i = 1– α + n1α1 + n
2 Sol. :
0.6
Sol. : i = (1– 1) + 3 × 0.4 + = 1.5
2 It has 8π electrons

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 All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019 CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
103. Answer (2) 112. Answer (3)
OCOCH3 Hint : Emulsifier stabilizes the emulsion.
Hint : aspirin Sol. : They form an interfacial film between oil and
COOH water and keep them together.
104. Answer (4) 113. Answer (1)
Hint : Basic medium is preferred. Hint : C2Cl4 pollutes the water.
Sol. : In basic medium phenol exist as phenoxide Sol. : It is avoided as it contaminates the water
ion and it gives electrophilic substitution reaction. and is also a suspected carcinogen.
105. Answer (3) 114. Answer (2)
Hint : pKa1 pKa2 Hint : BF3 → sp2, BF4– → sp3
Oxalic acid 1.271 4.266 Sol. : In BF 3 resonance occur and due to 6
electrons can act as Lewis acid.
Malonic acid 2.86 5.7
–
Sol. : Due to +I effect of COO– group acidic nature BF 4 has complete octet
decreases. F
F F
+
COOH – I effect, COO – + I effect B F B=F , B
F F F F F
COOH COOH
106. Answer (4) 115. Answer (2)
Hint : Ni, Pd, Ce, Ac form interstitial hydrides.
Hint : Only 6 Cr – O bonds are identical in Cr2O72–
ion. Sol. : Other metal hydrides have different lattice
structure from parent metal. Pt and Pd adsorb H2.
Sol. : MnO4– is coloured due to charge transfer.
116. Answer (4)
107. Answer (1)
Hint : Due to over voltage O2 is not obtained.
Hint : NO2 is an odd e– molecule so dimerises. Sol. : O2 is paramagnetic and Cl2 is diamagnetic.
2 NO 2 ⎯⎯
→ N2O4 117. Answer (1)
(less stable) (more stable)
Hint : Due to small size and high charge Be2+ has
108. Answer (1) very high polarising power.
–
Hint : They can show multiple oxidation states. Be
+2
O O
Sol. : They can combine with one of the reactant to Sol. : C BeO + CO 2
form intermediate, using its ability to show different –
O
multiple states.
118. Answer (2)
109. Answer (1)
Hint : C3O2 ⇒ O = C = C = C = O
Hint : F can form HOF.
−2 +2 0 +2 −2
110. Answer (3) Sol. : O = C = C = C = O
119. Answer (4)
OH
Hint : Equilibrium constant depends on temperature.
B Sol. : For a reversible reaction, if Q < K eq then
O O reaction moves in forward direction.
O
Hint : 2Na
+
HO –– B B –– OH . 8H2 O 120. Answer (1)
Hint : HF + NaOH → NaF + H2O
O O Sol. : Due to high charge density of F– ion it is
B
extensively hydrated.
OH
BIOLOGY
Sol. : Number of B – O – B bonds = 5, it is 121. Answer (4)
alkaline in nature. Hint: Dark reaction fixes CO2 into carbohydrates
111. Answer (3) during photosynthesis.
Hint : Zone refining is used for Ge, Si, Ga etc. Sol. : Dark reaction of photosynthesis takes place
Sol. : Mond’s process is used for Ni. in stroma of the chloroplasts.

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CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
122. Answer (3)
Hint: Given stage is anaphase I of meiosis I.
Sol. : In anaphase I, chromatids of a chromosome
do not move towards the opposite poles rather the
homologous chromosomes do.
123. Answer (4)
Hint: Morels and truffles are not mushrooms.
Sol. : Morels and truffles produce edible ascocarps.
Hence they are not poisonous. They are sac fungi. 131.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: Viruses lack nucleus but have nucleic acid.
Sol. : All viruses have genetic material. Viruses can
have either DNA or RNA as genetic material. Some
viruses have envelope such as HIV.
132.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: In Opuntia, stem is photosynthetic and leaves
are modified.
Sol. : Opuntia has modified leaves called spines,
they help to reduce transpiration. Bougainvillea has
thorns which are modified axillary buds.
126. Answer (2)
Hint: Given floral formula belongs to the family 133.
Solanaceae.
Sol. : Petunia is a member of family Solanaceae.
Muliathi – Fabaceae
Aloe – Liliaceae
Jowar – Poaceae
127. Answer (4)
Hint: Mucor belongs to the class Zygomycetes of
134.
fungi. It produces non motile asexual spores.
Sol. : Mucor produces sporangiospores, which are
non motile.
Algin is obtained from brown algae and carrageen
from red algae.
Funaria is a moss in which sporophyte is partially
dependent on gametophyte.
128. Answer (1)
Sol. : Marchantia bears sex organs on separate
plant bodies. 135.
Hence, antheridiophore and archegoniophore are
present on separate thalli.
129. Answer (2)
Hint: Facilitated diffusion involves movement of
molecules along the concentration gradient.
Sol. : Facilitated diffusion does not require ATP.
130. Answer (3)
136. Answer (1)
Hint: Tomato is a C3 plant whereas maize is a C4
plant.
Sol. : In C3 plants for every CO2 fixation, 3ATP are
required.
All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019
Hence to fix 6CO2 (to produce a molecule of hexose
sugar), it requires 6 × 3 = 18 ATP.
In C 4 plants for every CO 2 fixation, 5 ATP are
required
Hence to fix 6CO 2 or to produce a molecule of
hexose sugar, it requires 5 × 6 = 30 ATP.
Additional ATP required by C4 plant = 30 – 18
= 12 ATP
Answer (3)
Hint: During this conversion, 5 carbon molecule
converts into 4 carbon molecule.
Sol. : During conversion of α-ketoglutaric acid (5C)
into succinyl CoA (4C), one CO2 is released and
there is formation of NADH2 also.
Answer (3)
Hint: For geitonogamy plant should be monoecious
with unisexual flowers.
Sol. : Vallisneria, Papaya and Date plam all are
dioecious in which autogamy as well as
geitonogamy are not possible. Castor is a
monoecious plant with unisexual flower in which
autogamy is prevented but not geitonogamy.
Answer (1)
Hint: Embryos of apomictic seeds can develop
directly from cells of nucellus or integuments.
Sol. : Segregation of characters takes place during
meiosis but in apomixis there is no gamete
formation hence no meiosis, no segregation of
characters.
Apomixis is genetically controlled.
Answer (2)
Hint: Myotonic dystrophy is a dominant autosomal
disorder and it expresses in every generation if
parents are affected.
Sol. : The given pedigree shows autosomal
recessive inheritance. It cannot be Y linked as
female is also affected in II generation. This pedigree
also does not show sex linked inheritance because
both parents are normal and female is affected in II
generation.
Answer (4)
Hint: Colourblindness is a sex linked recessive
disorder.
Sol. : XY ×
C
X X
Gametes : X Y X
C
X
C C
Offsprings : X X XX X Y XY
Carrier Normal Colourblind Normal
Hint: Prokaryotes do not have nucleus and
transcription is coupled with translation.
Sol. : Prokaryotes have only one type of RNA
polymerase which synthesizes all types of RNAs.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019
137. Answer (1)
Sol. : Cairns proved semi-conservative mode of
replication in E.coli.
138. Answer (2)
Hint: This population interaction is amensalism.
Sol. : Roots of black walnut secretes a chemical
called juglone which is toxic to alfalfa, apple etc.
Epiphytes on other plants – Commensalism
Sparrow and seeds – Predation
Fig and fig wasp – Mutualism
139. Answer (2)
Sol. : After nitrogen, phosphorus is the most critical
element.
140. Answer (3)
Hint: ‘ex situ’ conservation is ‘off site’ conservation,
outside their natural habitats.
Sol. : Botanical gardens are ex situ conservation
strategies.
National parks
Biosphere reserves ‘ in situ’ conservation strategies
Sacred groves
141. Answer (4)
Hint : Podocytes form one of the layer of filtration
membrane.
Sol. : Podocytes are modified epithelial cells present
in visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule and form
filtration slits/slit pores.
142. Answer (2)
Hint : Recombination of genes occurs during
gametogenesis.
Sol. : Recombination of genes during gametogenesis
introduces and increases variations in a population.
Sexual reproduction is a slow process. It is mostly
biparental.
143. Answer (4)
Hint : Translation is a process of formation of
protein from specific mRNA sequence.
Sol. : In RNAi, mRNA is silenced by the formation
of dsRNA. Translation of mRNA does not take place.
It is a post transcriptional gene silencing method.
144. Answer (4)
Hint : Surgical method is the permanent method of
family planning.
Sol. : Oral contraceptive pills alter the quality of
cervical mucus and retard the motility of sperms in
uterus. They also inhibit ovulation and implantation.
Surgical methods affect gamete transport.
145. Answer (2)
Hint: Aromatic amino acids have benzene ring in
their side chain.
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CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. : Tyrosine (Y) acts as precursor of melanin and
is an aromatic amino acid. Glutamic acid.
phenylalanine, tryptophan are represented by E, F
and W respectively.
146. Answer (3)
Hint: Second heart sound (dub) is produced by
closure of semilunar valves.
Sol. : ‘Dub’ sound is produced during ventricular
diastole. Damage to chordae tendinae of mitral/
bicuspid valves causes opening of AV valves causing
backflow of blood during ventricular systole, thus
decreasing the blood flow to aorta. With increase in
heart rate, there is a decline in filling time leading to
decrease in duration of cardiac cycle.
147. Answer (2)
Hint: Shift of oxygen dissociation curve is observed
with change in affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
Sol. : At alveolar level where there is high pO2, low
pCO2, low [H+] there is an increase is affinity of
hemoglobin for oxygen and the graph shifts towards
left. However at tissue level low pO2, high pCO2 and
high [H+] decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for
oxygen and the graph shifts to right.
148. Answer (2)
Hint: Chondrocytes are present in fluid filled lacunae.
Sol. : Cartilage lacks concentric arrangement of
matrix i.e. lamellae, but lacunae are present. More
than half of the volume of nervous tissue is made up
of neuroglial cells which are electrically unexcitable
cells.
149. Answer (1)
Hint: Pure lines comprise homozygous individuals.
Sol. : Pure lines are developed by mating between
closely related, individuals of the same breed for
(4-6) generations.
150. Answer (4)
Hint: Lamarck’s theory of evolution was based on
use and disuse of organs.
Sol. : According to Darwin, giraffe with long necks
are better adapted in a given environment and are
selected by nature. Agriculture came around 10,000
years back and human settlements started.
151. Answer (2)
Hint: Hind III is not located in any of the selectable
marker sites of pBR322.
Sol. : When gene of interest is inserted at Hind III
restriction site, then selectable markers i.e. ampR
and tetR genes do not get activated. As a result,
recombinant plasmid will exhibit resistance to both
ampicillin and tetracycline.
152. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the common characteristic between
chordate and arthropods.
CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. : Both Frog and cockroach exhibit bilateral
symmetry. Cockroach has open circulatory system
and dorsal heart, while frog has closed circulatory
system and ventral heart. Fusion of gametes of frog
occurs in water i.e external fertilisation while internal
fertilisation occurs in cockroach.
153. Answer (4)
Hint: : Autoimmune disorder.
Sol. : Inflammation in elephantiasis occurs due to
accumulation of lymph. Cancer is a non-infectious
disease. lgG reach foetus across placenta and offer
passive immunity.
154. Answer (1)
Hint: Ciliated comb plates are used for locomotion
by members of phylum Ctenophora.
Sol. : Collar cells/ Choanocytes are present in
Euspongia. Macropus (Kangaroo) has marsupial
pouch to keep their young ones. Hippocampus (Sea
horse) has a prehensile tail.
155. Answer (1)
Hint: Maximum visual acuity is present at fovea.
Sol. : At fovea, cones are densely packed and rods
are absent. Rest of the cells like bipolar cells and
ganglion cells are present in retina are found at fovea.
156. Answer (3)
Hint: Placenta functions as an endocrine structure
during pregnancy.
Sol. : Hormones produced by placenta like
progesterone, will maintain the pregnancy and
prevent miscarriage. Other hormones like estrogen
and hCG are synthesized by placenta.
157. Answer (3)
Hint: Monophyodont teeth appear only once in
lifetime of an individual.
Sol. : Premolars and last molars are monophyodont
teeth of a human, that’s why its dental formula is
0021
. normal bases. They cause mispairing and eventually
0021
158. Answer (4)
Hint: Schwann cells is present around both
myelinated and non-myelinated nerve fibres.
Sol. : Plasma membrane of Schwann cells is known
as neurilemma. Schwann cells and neurilemma are
present in both myelinated and un-myelinated
neurons but nodes of Ranvier are absent in non-
myelinated neurons.
159. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify the example of ball and socket joint.
Sol. : Ball and socket joint is present between
acetabulum and femur and between humerus and
pectoral girdle. Saddle joint is present between carpal
and metacarpal of thumb. Pivot joint is present
between atlas and axis. Gliding joint is present
between carpals.
All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019
160. Answer (2)
Hint : Bulging of eyes is a characteristic of these
patients.
Sol. : Symptoms of cretinism are given in the
question. Hypersecretion of thyroxine causes
exopthalmic goitre. Simple goitre and myxedema are
also caused by deficiency of thyroxine.
161. Answer (2)
Hint: The outermost layer of stele is pericycle and
innermost layer of cortex is endodermis.
Sol. : Cortex lies between epidermis and stele.
162. Answer (3)
Hint: Manganese is a part of oxygen evolving
complex.
Sol. : It helps in photolysis of water. O2 evolution
takes place only in oxygenic photosynthesis.
163. Answer (1)
Sol. : Seasonal breeders breed only in specific
season.
164. Answer (1)
Sol. : ABA is a stress hormone because it helps in
overcoming stress conditions and is stimulated by
stress.
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Every sexually reproducing organism can
produce gametes, be it haploid or diploid.
Sol. : Both haploid and diploid plant bodies can
possess sex organs. For example in bryophytes,
haploid body has sex organs whereas in
gymnosperm and angiosperm, diploid bodies have
sex organs.
166. Answer (2)
Sol. : Base analogues have structure similar to the
give rise to mutations.
167. Answer (2)
Hint: Statins are produced by a fungus called yeast
(Monascus purpureus).
Sol. : Statins have been used as blood cholesterol
lowering agents.
168. Answer (3)
Sol. : In cotton, jassids do not feed on hairy leaves.
Hence hairy leaves provide resistance against jassids
to the cotton.
169. Answer (3)
Hint: Coral reefs have high productivity.
Sol. : They have high primary productivity hence
they are the most productive ecosystems.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for AIIMS-2019 CBT - 01 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
170. Answer (3) 178. Answer (4)
Hint: DDT cannot be metabolised, hence it gets Hint: Koala and Bandicoot have common ancestor.
accumulated in organisms of higher trophic levels. Sol. : Koala and Bandicoot evolved as a result of
Sol. : DDT disturbs calcium metabolism in birds adaptive radiation. They have evolved from a common
which causes thinning of egg shells that leads to ancestor which moved to different habitats and got
premature breaking of egg shells. adapted to new habitat and ultimately evolved into
171. Answer (4) new species.
Hint: AIDS develops due to destruction of T H 179. Answer (3)
lymphocytes. Hint: Maximum filling of ventricles occurs during joint
Sol. : HIV can be transmitted from mother to foetus. diastole.
HIV attacks and destroys TH cells making a person Sol. : About 2/3rd filling of ventricles occurs during
immunocompromised. joint diastole passively. 1/3rd filling occurs during
172. Answer (1) atrial systole.
Hint: Reabsorption of water in collecting duct and 180. Answer (2)
DCT occurs under influence of ADH. Hint: Amount of hormone present in our plasma
Sol. : Action of ADH increases the expression of regulates its secretion from source gland.
water channels in DCT and collecting duct, thus, Sol. : As the level of hormone increases in the
increasing the permeability in these regions.
plasma, it sends signals to source gland to stop its
173. Answer (2) secretion . However, during parturition, uterine
Hint: Hysterectomy means surgical removal of muscles undergoing contraction send signals to
uterus. posterior pituitary to release more oxytocin.
Sol. : With removal of uterus no changes will occur
in ovarian cycle. Follicular growth and maturation will
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
occur in ovaries under the influence of hormones from 181. Answer (1)
pituitary gland. 182. Answer (1)
174. Answer (4) 183. Answer (3)
Hint: Competitive inhibitors compete with substrate 184. Answer (4)
to bind to active site of enzyme.
185. Answer (1)
Sol. : Competitive inhibitors bear close resemblance
186. Answer (2)
with substrate and bind with free enzyme only.
187. Answer (1)
175. Answer (1)
188. Answer (4)
Hint: Wells for loading of DNA are located near
cathode. 189. Answer (1)
Sol. : Larger fragments face more resistance while 190. Answer (3)
moving in gel and travel smaller distance as
compared to shorter fragments.Hence, larger APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING
fragments are closer to cathode. 191. Answer (3)
176. Answer (4) 192. Answer (3)
Hint : Bt cotton plants are resistant to insects. 193. Answer (4)
Sol. : Gene encoding toxin was isolated from 194. Answer (3)
Bacillus thuringiensis and was introduced into cotton 195. Answer (2)
plants to make them resistance to insects.
196. Answer (1)
177. Answer (3)
197. Answer (3)
Hint: Sphincter of Boyden helps in filling up of gall
bladder and is present around ductus choledochus. 198. Answer (3)
Sol. : Opening of hepatopancreatic duct is guarded 199. Answer (3)
by sphincter of Oddi. 200. Answer (1)

  

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