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TEST – ITEM BANK

FOR DECK OFFICER


AT MANAGEMENT LEVEL
CONTENTS

II. DECK OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART II) ............................................................................ 1


1. Plan a voyage and conduct navigation ........................................................................ 1
2. Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by
any means ........................................................................................................................ 27
3. Determine and allow for compass errors ................................................................... 54
4. Coordinate search and rescue operations .................................................................. 77
5. Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures .......................................... 103
6. Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from
navigation equipment and systems to assist command decision
making ............................................................................................................................... 134
7. Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and
associated navigation systems to assist command decision making .................. 160
8. Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions ..................................................... 173
9. Respond to navigational emergencies......................................................................... 194
10. Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions ....................................................... 232
11. Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering
systems and services ...................................................................................................... 262
12. Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers
and ballast tanks and take appropriate action ......................................................... 299
13. Carriage of dangerous goods ........................................................................................ 414
14. Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch
covers and ballast tanks ................................................................................................ 453
15. Control trim, stability and stress ................................................................................. 461
16. Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and
measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the protection
of the marine environment .......................................................................................... 488
17. Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew and passengers and
the operational condition of lifesaving, firefighting and other safety
systems.............................................................................................................................. 568
18. Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle
emergency situations ..................................................................................................... 589
19. Use of leadership and managerial ............................................................................... 643
20. Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board ............................ 670

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ANT - II
FUNGSI I . NAVIGASI
KOMPETENSI 1.

1. Merencanakan pelayaran dan melaksanakan navigasi.


( Plan a voyage and conduct navigation )

1. When must a passage plan be prepared ?


A. At the start of the sea voyage.
B. Before the voyage commences.
C. When requested by a pilot.
D. After the pilot has disembarke

2. What should a passage plan include ?


A. The plan should include the first 72 hours of the sea voyage.
B. The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth.
C. The plan should cover the first half of the sea voyage.
D. The master decides what to include in the passage plan

3. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line


drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________.
A. DR plot
B. Track line
C. Heading
D. Estimated course

4. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of


outlying reefs and shoals?
A. Approach charts
B. General charts
C. Sailing charts
D. Coastal charts

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5. Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in
the North Atlantic Ocean?
A. Pilot chart
B. Coast Pilot
C. Current Table
D. Climatological Atlas

6. Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the


__________.
A. Latitude scale near the middle of the track line
B. Longitude scale near the middle of the track line
C. Latitude scale at the mid-latitude of the chart
D. Latitude or longitude scale at the middle of the scale

7. You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The charted
depth of an obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish
to have 3 feet of keel clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the
obstruction is 01h 05m. What is the latest time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May
1983 and meet these requirements?
A. 1610
B. 1728
C. 1821
D. 2350

8. In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance


NOT approximately the same as the great circle distance?
A. The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere
B. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
C. The two points are near the equator, but in different hemispheres
D. One point is near the equator, one point is in a high latitude, and both
are near the 180th meridian.

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9. You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides


information about channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and
marine facilities available in that port?
A. American Practical Navigator
B. Notice to Mariners
C. Coast Pilot
D. Sailing Directions

10. The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the __________.
A. Position and area of the current
B. Speed and direction toward which the current flows
C. Type and characteristic of the current's flow
D. None of the above

11. You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship
would require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the
following EXCEPT the __________.
A. Coast Pilot
B. Harbor and coastal charts for ports of refuge enroute
C. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
D. Light List

12. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13
knots to intercept vessel A?
A. 249°
B. 256°
C. 262°
D. 268°

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13. Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids
to navigation by means of __________.
A. Marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
B. Weekly Notices to Mariners
C. Corrected editions of charts
D. Light Lists

14. You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by __________.


A. Local Notice to Mariners
B. Weekly Notice to Mariner
C. Marine broadcasts
D. All of the above

15. You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in
__________.
A. The Philippines
B. Australia
C. Republic of Korea
D. Chile

16. Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?


A. The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS,
and NAVAREA warnings are the same.
B. NAVAREA warnings concern only coastal navigation and
inland navigation in large bays or sounds such as Puget Soun
C. The United States is responsible for NAVAREA warnings in the
North Atlantic north of 7°N, and west of 15°W.
D. Long range radio navigational warnings are usually broadcast by
radiotelephone, radiotelegraph, and radio-teletypewriter.

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17. In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-
B Buoyage System?
A. Poland
B. Morocco
C. Peru
D. Saudi Arabia

18. What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?


A. Supplements to new editions are issued monthly by the U.S. Coast Guar
B. New editions are published by the National Ocean Service.
C. New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.
D. None of the above

19. The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine
information. Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
A. XI
B. IV and XI
C. V and X
D. VI and VII

20. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?
A. Chart No. 1
B. Catalog of Charts
C. Guidance for Practical Navigator
D. Coast Guard Light List

21. What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry
to port ?
A. World Port Index
B. Coast Pilot
C. Nautical Index
D. Sailing Directions

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22. The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________.


A. Unpredictable
B. Generally too weak to be of concern
C. Predicted in Tidal Current Tables
D. Generally constant

23. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.


A. Well-charted inner dangers
B. Port facilities
C. Coastal anchorages
D. Offshore traffic separation schemes

24. On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing


white with a red sector. The red sector __________.
A. Indicates the limits of the navigable channel
B. Indicates a danger area
C. Is used to identify the characteristics of the light
D. Serves no significant purpose

25. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?


A. Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
B. Those set up by local authorities
C. Those defined on navigational charts
D. All of the above

26. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and 330
nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is 24 hours
long
A. 330 naut. Miles
B. 300 naut. Miles
C. 320 naut. Miles
D. 315 naut. Miles

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27. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if
the ship is in open waters ?
A. Just before the change of watch
B. Twice a watch
C. At least every 30 minutes
D. Only when the visibility drops

28. What chart should be used when navigating ?


A. The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
B. Any chart which shows the area which the vessel is passing through as long
as it is connected
C. The largest scale chart on board for the concerned area
D. The chart which covers the largest part of the passage

29. Define the required interval between position fixes.


A. Before the vessel is due to alter course
B. When the weather changes
C. Such as the vessel cannot be set into danger if the last two fixes
were incorrect
D. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger by
the effects of wind, tide or current

30. The latest edition of a chart can be found from _______.


A. The chart catalogue
B. The Annual Notice to Mariners
C. The latest cumulative notices to mariners
D. The Guide to Port Entry

31. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published _____ a year.


A. Three times
B. Once
C. Four times
D. Twice

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32. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out _______.


A. Every day at noon when at sea
B. On completion of maneuvering in port
C. One to two hours prior sailing
D. Whenever an item of navigation equipment is not functioning

33. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an
Indian Embassy. Which of these publications would you consult?
A. Port approach chart
B. Admiralty Sailing Directions
C. Admiralty list of Radio Signals
D. Guide to Port Entry

34. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when planning
a passage in coastal waters?
A. Under keel clearance
B. Clearing bearings and clearing ranges
C. No - Go areas
D. Choice of ocean route

35. A voyage passage plan is made from _____.


A. Pilot station to pilot station
B. Fairway buoy to fairway buoy
C. Berth to berth
D. Berth to drop of pilot of that particular port and from arrival pilot station to
the berth

36. Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using
vertical letters. This indicates the __________.
A. Rock is visible at low water springs only
B. Rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only
C. Rock is dry at high water
D. Exact position of the rock is doubtful

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37. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the
ships are on:
A. Parallel courses
B. Opposite courses
C. Diverging courses
D. Collision courses

38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress


in 1912, the ratio of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is
A. 5.5 and 6.0 to 1
B. 6.2 and 6.8 to 1
C. 7.4 and 7.8 to 1
D. 8.2 and 8.5 to 1

39. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted
on hydrographic maps ?
A. Light houses
B. Church spires
C. Shore line
D. All the above

40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:


A. An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage
of ships, is known as break water
B. The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest
vessel likely to be berthe
C. The break water whose inside is used as a plateform for loading
and unloading is called a mole
D. All the above

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41. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the
chart. By 2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is very goo What action
would you take?
A. Keep looking out.
B. Call Master.
C. Stop engines.
D. Alter course.

42. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
A. At a speed and heading that will cause the least encounters with
vessels within the lane
B. On a heading that will cause her to spend the LEAST TIME in the lane
C. On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of
traffic flow
D. On heading so that her TRACK will be as nearly as practicable at
right angles to the direction of traffic flow

43. A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International
Date Line on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at
Greenwich when the vessel crosses the line?
A. 0900, 24 January
B. 2100, 24 January
C. 2100, 25 January
D. 0900, 26 January

44. The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of
the water is called the __________.
A. Range of the tide
B. Plane of the tide
C. Stand of the tide
D. Reversing of the tide

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45. Spring tides are tides that __________.


A. Have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
B. Have lows higher than normal and highs lower than normal
C. Are unpredictable
D. Occur in the spring of the year

46. Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________.
A. All vertical measurements
B. Heights above water of land features such as lights
C. Soundings on the East and West Coasts
D. Water depths on the East Coast only

47. The range of tide is the __________.


A. Distance the tide moves out from the shore
B. Duration of time between high and low tide
C. Difference between the heights of high and low tide
D. Maximum depth of the water at high tide

48. The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most
charts is __________.
A. Mean sea level
B. Mean high water
C. Mean low water
D. Half-tide level

49. Charted depth is the __________.


A. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom, plus
the height of tide
B. Vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
C. Average height of water over a specified period of time
D. Average height of all low waters at a place

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50. The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide
tables is __________.
A. Mean low water
B. The same as that used for the charts of the locality
C. The highest possible level
D. Given in table three of the tide tables

51. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________.
A. A shallow depth reading
B. A zero depth reading
C. No depth reading
D. Two depth readings

52. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will
occur?
A. Apogean
B. Perigean
C. Neap
D. Spring

53. Priming of the tides occurs __________.


A. At times of new and full Moon
B. When the Earth, Moon, and Sun are lying approximately on the same line
C. When the Moon is between first quarter and full and between third
quarter and new
D. When the Moon is between new and first quarter and between full and third
quarter

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54. Region grooves traffic for ships does range TSS Traffic in shore's lines,
traffic corresponds to that region is :
A. Traffic Areas
B. Traffic lines
C. Range of Traffic
D. Leading Area

55. Lines which shall follow for the ships to entering or outer an area
A. Course lines
B. Trafiic lines
C. Leading lines
D. Heading lines

56. All bridge member shall attended if there is available changing to passage plan :
A. Bridge attention
B. Plan Changes
C. Passage changing
D. All the above

57. Route with prescribed bounds where ships shall get navigations with extra caution
is
A. Dangerous area
B. Area to be avoid
C. Precautionary area
D. No Go Area

58. Which stages following Apraisal stage of passage planning :


A. Checking, maintain and records
B. Planning, maintain and records
C. Excecution, maintain and monitoring
D. Planning, execution and monitoring

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59. Area which may not navigate to get bearing with depth and danger of navigation is
:
A. Coution Area
B. No Go Area
C. Danger area
D. Area to be avoid

60. Area which shall be avoided by all ships or for ship by clasification indeed is :
A. Coution Area
B. No Go Area
C. Danger area
D. Area to be avoid

61. A point given at navigational charts to revamp bow before ship arriving at way
point's is :
A. Way Point
B. Fix Position Cordinate
C. Wheel Over Point
D. Point to altering the course

62. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying
reefs and shoals?
A. Approach charts
B. General charts
C. Sailing charts
D. Coastal charts

63. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would
not show which light characteristic?
A. Isophase
B. Quick flashing
C. Long flashing
D. Group Flashing (2 + 1)

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64. When possible, a DR plot should always be started from where?


A. Any position
B. A known position
C. An assumed position
D. None of the above

65. The scale on a chart is given as 1:5,000,000. This means that __________.
A. 1 inch is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
B. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000 inches on the Earth's surface
C. 1 inch is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the Earth's surface
D. 1 nautical mile on the chart is equal to 5,000,000 inches on the
Earth's surface

66. A ship is in longitude 54°00'W on a true course of 270°. The ship's clocks are on
the proper time zone. At what longitude should the clocks be changed to maintain
the proper zone time?
A. 45°00'W
B. 52°30'W
C. 60°00'W
D. 67°30'W

67. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?


A. They occur only at quadrature.
B. They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth.
C. They cause diurnal tides to become mixe
D. They have a decreased range from normal.

68. Safe water buoys may show ONLY __________.


A. Flashing red lights
B. Flashing green lights
C. White lights
D. Yellow lights

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69. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would mean a


__________.
A. Radar conspicuous beacon
B. Circular radio beacon
C. Radar transponder beacon
D. Radar calibration beacon

70. The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean __________.


A. High water line
B. Low water line
C. Low water spring line
D. Tide level

71. On March 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward
to west longitude. What is your local time?
A. You are in -12 time zone.
B. It is 1700, March 18.
C. It is 0500, March 16.
D. It is 0500, March 18.

72. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet
available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe
the range lights as shown on your starboard beam. You should __________.
A. Drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of
obstructions
B. Drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights
will be an indication of dragging anchor
C. Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at
anchor
D. NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line

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73. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times


and advanced to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Running fix
B. Dead-reckoning position
C. Fix
D. Estimated position

74. A buoy marking a wreck will show a(n) __________.


A. White light FL (2) and a topmark of 2 black spheres
B. Occulting green light and may be lettered
C. Yellow light and will be numbered
D. Continuous quick white light and may be numbered

75. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of
determining positions and include which of the following?
A. All of these suggested answers
B. Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing
C. Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational marks
D. Positions determined by GPS and plotted on the ECDIS

76. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?


A. Yes
B. No
C. Only if approved by the Flag State
D. Only if approved by the owner

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77. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or
river, when under pilot?
A. A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage,
or if the ship is under pilot
B. A passage plan is required for all deep sea passages, but not for transiting a
canal under pilotage.
C. A passage plan is required only when there is no pilot on board
D. A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot
station at the destination.

78. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
A. An effective detailed passage plan fully understood
and followed by a competent bridge team.
B. All navigational equipment fully functional.
C. Bridge equipment effectively operating and being
used efficiently
D. The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and
effective operation

79. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in
discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local
knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?
A. A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when
under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when
deep sea
B. The passage is well established and known by
the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary
C. A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst
on board and will be very familiar with what is required, therefore
discussing the passage plan is not necessary
D. The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in
knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning
discussions with the Master.

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80. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers
would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding
the courses to steer?
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances
gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the
need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to
improved speeds
C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the
need to arrive within prescribed schedule
D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic
density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits

81. What should you apply to a fathometer reading to determine the depth of water?
A. Subtract the draft of the vessel.
B. Add the draft of the vessel.
C. Subtract the sea water correction .
D. Add the sea water correction.

82. The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line
drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________.
A. DR plot
B. Track line
C. Heading
D. Estimated course

83. A chart with a natural scale of 1:160,000 is classified as a __________.


A. Sailing chart
B. General chart
C. Coast chart
D. Harbor chart

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84. Tropic tides are caused by the __________.


A. Moon being at its maximum declination
B. Moon crossing the equator
C. Sun and Moon both being near 0° declination
D. Moon being at perigee

85. Which statement is TRUE concerning apogean tides?


A. They occur only at quadrature.
B. They occur when the Moon is nearest the Earth.
C. They cause diurnal tides to become mixe
D. They have a decreased range from normal.

86. An important lunar cycle affecting the tidal cycle is called the nodal perio
How long is this cycle?
A. 16 days
B. 18 days
C. 6 years
D. 19 years

87. The class of tide that prevails in the greatest number of important harbors on
the Atlantic Coast is __________.
A. Interval
B. Mixed
C. Diurnal
D. Semidiurnal

88. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should
reach an entrance or strait at what time in relation to the predicted time of the
favorable current?
A. One hour after the predicted time
B. At the predicted time
C. 30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb
D. 30 minutes before the predicted time
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89. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the
port side of a channel would be marked by a __________.
A. Red can buoy
B. Black can buoy
C. Red conical buoy
D. Black conical buoy
90. The depth of water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to
__________.
A. 11.5 fathoms
B. 12.6 fathoms
C. 69.0 feet
D. 78.6 feet

91. Which chart projection would be most suitable for marine surveying?
A. Gnomonic
B. Lambert conformal
C. Mercator
D. Polyconic

92. As your vessel is heading southward along the east coast of the United States, you
encounter a buoy showing a red flashing light. How should you pass this buoy?
A. Pass it about 50 yards off on either side.
B. Leave it to your starboar
C. Leave it to your port.
D. Pass it well clear on either side.

93. Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE?


A. It is an equal-area projection.
B. It is a conformal projection.
C. Meridians appear as curved lines.
D. The scale is correct along any meridian.

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94. Your dead reckoning position should be plotted __________.


A. Whenever an estimated position is plotted
B. When it agrees with your loran position
C. When coming on or going off soundings
D. At least every hour on the hour in the open waters of the sea

95. A pilot chart does NOT contain information about __________.


A. Average wind conditions
B. Tidal currents
C. Magnetic variation
D. Average limits of field ice

96. Where will you find information about the duration of slack water?
A. American Practical Navigator
B. Sailing Directions
C. Tide Tables
D. Tidal Current Tables

97. All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information
concerning the __________.
A. Percentage of frequency of wave heights
B. Percentage of poor visibility conditions
C. Sea surface temperatures
D. Amounts of precipitation

98. If you were sailing in the North Pacific and were interested in the ice and
iceberg limits, you could find this information in the __________.
A. Pilot Chart
B. Coast Pilot
C. Notice to Mariners
D. None of the above

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99. When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings
are measured in reference to __________.
A. The meridian through the object of the bearing
B. The meridian through the ship's position
C. The meridian midway between the ship and the object
D. Any meridian

100. The marking A is __________.


A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course

101. The marking B is ___________.


A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course

102. The marking C is ___________.


A. Way point
B. Whell Over Point
C. Paralell index
D. Altering course

103. The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.


A. Well-charted inner dangers
B. Port facilities
C. Coastal anchorages
D. Offshore traffic separation schemes

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104. Which statement is TRUE concerning the Inland Navigation Rules?


A. They list requirements for Traffic Separation Schemes.
B. They define moderate spee
C. They require communication by radiotelephone to reach a
passing agreement.
D. All of the above

105. During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment,
which document must be available to the surveyor to demonstrate compliance with
SOLAS?
A. A report giving the result of the
Conformance Test issued by an
Approved Service Provider on
behalf of the flag
B. A report giving the result of the
Performance Test, issued by the
manufacturer in compliance with the
Flag State Authority requirements.
C. The Certificate of Compliance with SOLAS V/19-1, bearing the serial
number of the equipment installation.
D. A Statement of Installation and and Testing by the Approved Service
Provider in compliance with SOLAS V/26-4.

106. How often is the performance check of a Voyage Data Recorder by a


competent person required under SOLAS?
A. Annually.
B. At the Intermediate Safety Equipment Survey.
C. When the battery is replace
D. When the data media is downloade

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107. What is the main purpose of VTS?


A. Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of
the environment in the vicinity.
B. Provide local information to all vessels navigating in
the area
C. Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the
are
D. Increase safety for ships participating in VTS

108. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers
would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding
the courses to steer?
A. The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances
gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits
B. The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the
need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to
improved speeds
C. The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the
need to arrive within prescribed schedule
D. The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic
density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits

109. A traffic separation zone is that part of a traffic separation scheme which
__________.
A. Is located between the scheme and the nearest land
B. Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the
opposite direction
C. Is designated as an anchorage area
D. Contains all the traffic moving in the same direction

25
DPKP

110. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________.


A. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
B. Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on as small
an angle as is practical
C. Only anchor in the separation zone
D. Use the separation zone for navigating through the scheme if she
is hindering other traffic due to her slower speed

111. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall NOT __________.


A. Cross a traffic lane
B. Engage in fishing the separation zone
C. Proceed in an inappropriate traffic lane
D. Enter the separation zone

112. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________.


A. Only anchor in the separation zone
B. Avoid crossing traffic lanes, but if obliged to do so, shall cross on a
heading at as small an angle as is practical
C. Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
D. Use the separation zone for navigation through the scheme if she
is hindering other traffic due to her slower speed

113. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & A traffic separation zone is that part of a


traffic separation scheme which __________.
A. Is between the scheme and the nearest land
B. Contains all the traffic moving in one direction
C. Is designated as an anchorage area
D. Separates traffic proceeding in one direction from traffic proceeding in the
opposite direction

26
DPKP

2. Penentuan posisi dan ketepatan atas hasil akhir penentuan


posisi menggunakan berbagai cara.
(Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any
means )

1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic
compass. How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass
bearings?
A. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
B. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
C. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore
it can be ignored
D. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is
require

2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other
means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be the
most accurate?
A. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the
radar.
B. Compass bearings of three shore objects
C. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
D. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three
radio beacons

3. What is important to check when transferring a position


from the GPS output to a paper chart?
A. Any necessary corrections are applied to
convert between the GPS datum and the chart
datum
B. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not 3
dimensional position fixes.
C. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart
D. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date.

27
DPKP

4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the
accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
A. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
B. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed
on the screen
C. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
D. The GPS display is always very accurate and does
not give any indication of lack of accuracy.

5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an
observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when observing
the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
A. Figure 4 is correct.
B. Figure 1 is correct.
C. Figure 2 is correct.
D. Figure 3 is correct.

6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude
of the observer when the sun is on the meridian?
A. Calculation 3 is correct.
B. Calculation 1 is correct.
C. Calculation 2 is correct.
D. Calculation 4 is correct.

7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the
following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT.
Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept
correction: 00°02' Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude).
A. Figure 2 is correct.
B. Figure 1 is correct.
C. Figure 3 is correct.
D. Figure 4 is correct.

28
DPKP

8. A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of __________.


A. Buoys close at hand
B. Fixed known objects on shore
C. Buoys at a distance
D. All of the above

9. If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because


__________.
A. Signals begin to blink
B. Signals begin to shift
C. Stations discontinue transmission
D. Stations transmit grass

10. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be
considered?
A. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
B. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the
charted location.
C. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
D. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has
been freshly painte

11. When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible
horizon when __________.
A. In high latitudes
B. The Sun is near or at a solstice
C. The declination is of a different name from the latitude
D. The Sun's declination is at or near 0°

29
DPKP

12. When navigating a vessel, you __________.


A. Can always rely on a buoy to be on station
B. Can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
C. Should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
D. Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position

13. Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that
time is LAT 22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which statement concerning the planets
available for evening sights is TRUE?
A. Venus will have a westerly meridian angle.
B. Mars will set about one hour after the Sun sets.
C. Mars, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will be above the horizon.
D. Sights of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus will yield a good three-line-of-position
fix.

14. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
A. During calm weather only
B. During daylight only
C. Only when inside a harbor
D. Only when fixed aids are not available

15. While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check.
What would the azimuth have to be?
A. 000°T
B. 090°T
C. 150°T
D. 240°T

16. For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of
__________.
A. 3,600 miles
B. 5,400 miles
C. 12,500 miles
D. 21,600 miles
30
DPKP

17. The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use
to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
A. 1842
B. 1652
C. 0728
D. 0652

18. A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times
and advancing them to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Dead-reckoning position
B. Estimated position
C. Fix
D. Running fix

19. The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for __________.
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Saturn
D. Polaris

20. The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you
use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
A. 065
B. 0652
C. 1859
D. 1852

21. A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)
__________.
A. Assumed position
B. Estimated position
C. Fix
D. Running fix

31
DPKP

22. The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for __________.
A. The Sun
B. The Moon
C. Mars
D. Mercury

23. All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards
which permit __________.
A. Every station in one chain to transmit at the same tim
B. Each station to transmit without reference to another station
C. On-line transmission of single-line transmitters at the same time
D. Each station to only depend on the master for synchronization and
signal ratio

24. Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day
of the month. Six minutes later your position is 179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and
date is now __________.
th
A. 00h 02m on the 4
th
B. 00h 02m on the 5
th
C. 23h 50m on the 5
th
D. 00h 02m on the 6

25. Which position includes the effects of wind and current?


A. Dead reckoning position
B. Leeway position
C. Estimated position
D. Set position

26. The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What
is the right ascension of the planet?
A. 7 hours
B. 11 hours
C. 19 hours
D. 23 hours
32
DPKP

27. The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C
stations is very closely controlled and operates with __________.
A. An atomic time standar
B. Daylight Savings Time
C. Eastern Standard Time
D. Greenwich Mean Time

28. The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is
__________.
A. 1.25 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 75 minutes

29. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's
course and speed is a(n) __________.
A. Dead reckoning position
B. Estimated position
C. Fix
D. None of the above

30. A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken
at nearly the same time, is a(n) __________.
A. Dead-reckoning position
B. Estimated position
C. Fix
D. Running fix

31. The date is the same all over the world at __________.
A. 0000 GM
B. 1200 GMT
C. 0000 LMT for an observer at 90°E longitude
D. No time

33
DPKP

32. What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
A. Dead-reckoning position
B. Estimated position
C. Fix
D. Running fix

33. If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum
skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal is receive This is called the
__________.
A. Skip zone
B. Blackout zone
C. Diffraction zone
D. Shadow zone

34. How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

35. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the
__________.
A. Index mirror
B. Horizon glass
C. Micrometer drum
D. Telescope

36. On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westwar
What is your local time?
A. It is 1000, 5 July
B. It is 1000, 6 July.
C. It is 2200, 7 July.
D. It is 1000, 7 July.

34
DPKP

37. The horizon glass of a sextant is __________.


A. Silvered on its half nearer the frame
B. Mounted on the index arm
C. Between the horizon and the shade glasses
D. All of the above

38. Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at
that time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which statement concerning the
planets available for morning sights is TRUE?
A. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation.
B. Venus, Jupiter, and Mars sights will yield a good three line fix
C. Saturn will be near the prime vertical.
D. Venus will be visible low in the western sky.

39. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites
that your receiver is locked onto?
A. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
B. Selective Availability
C. Doppler Shifting
D. Precision Coding

40. Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on
the limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is __________.
A. 20°
B. 30°
C. 40°
D. 60°

41. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is
indicated by the __________.
A. Equation of time
B. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time unit
C. Longitude in time units
D. Zone description
35
DPKP

42. Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?


A. Radar station
B. Radar transponder beacon
C. Radio beacon
D. Aero light

43. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-
dimensional fix?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

44. A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________.
A. Positive correction
B. Dip error
C. Negative correction
D. Semidiameter error

45. The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If
you are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the
apparent Sun cross the meridian?
A. 1148
B. 1200
C. 1212
D. It cannot be determined from the information given.

46. At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix
your position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The current is westerly at 0.5 knot.
B. You must increase speed to compensate for the current.
C. The current cannot be determine
D. The drift is 0.25 knot.

36
DPKP

47. A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.
A. Positive correction
B. Dip error
C. Negative correction
D. Semidiameter error

48. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you
are on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your
meridian at __________.
A. 11-51-20 ZT
B. 12-00-00 ZT
C. 12-04-20 ZT
D. 12-08-40 ZT

49. When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a three-
dimensional fix that takes into account altitude?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

50. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index
error?
A. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
B. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
C. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
D. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame

51. It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE?
A. It is afternoon at Greenwich.
B. It is midnight at 126°E longitude.
C. The observer is in time zone -4.
D. All of the above are true.

37
DPKP

52. Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
A. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
B. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
C. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
D. Elliptical centering error

53. The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may
be corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is
__________.
A. Index error
B. Prismatic error
C. Perpendicularity of the horizon glass
D. Perpendicularity of the index mirror

54. When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from
__________.
A. Center bearings
B. Tangent bearings
C. Ranges
D. Objects that are close aboard

55. A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and
advanced to a common time is a(n) __________.
A. Running fi
B. Dead-reckoning position
C. Fix
D. Estimated position

56. The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30
knots from 10° on your port bow. To what course and speed must you change?
A. Cn 240°, 28.0 knots
B. Cn 270°, 28.0 knots
C. Cn 180°, 30.0 knots
D. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots
38
DPKP

57. What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?


A. Prismatic error
B. Index error
C. Side error
D. Error of collimation

58. The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the
longitude of the observer is the __________.
A. Right ascension
B. Meridian angle
C. SHA of the observe
D. Zenith distance

59. In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __________.
A. Index mirror to make it parallel to the horizon glass with the index set
at zero
B. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set
at zero
C. Horizon glass to make it parallel to the sextant frame
D. Telescope to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame

60. Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to
indicate the __________.
A. Distance to the next port
B. Speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
C. Time of the next navigational satellite pass
D. None of the above

61. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the
transmitting stations as __________.
A. Gains are made over the signal path
B. A result of variation in propagation conditions
C. The frequency of the pulses increases
D. The stations shift pulses
39
DPKP

62. The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.


A. Sextant frame
B. Horizon glass
C. Index mirror
D. Micrometer drum

63. What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?


A. 127°33'E
B. 52°27'E
C. 61°52'W
D. 61°52'E

64. A polyconic projection is based on a __________.


A. Plane tangent at one point
B. Cylinder tangent at one parallel
C. Cone tangent at one parallel
D. Series of cones tangent at selected parallels

65. A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the
horizon forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated
about the line of sight the images separate. The sextant has __________.
A. Error of perpendicularity
B. Side error
C. Prismatic error
D. Centering error

66. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.


A. Should never use radar bearings
B. Should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the
horizon
C. Can use radar information from one object to fix the position
D. Must use information from targets forward of the beam

40
DPKP

67. During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.


A. North and increasing
B. North and decreasing
C. South and increasing
D. South and decreasing

68. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the other
during transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of the
induced ignition ?

A. A 3 cm radar.
B. A 10cm radar.
C. Neither a 10 cm or a 3 cm radar.
D. Both a 10 cm and 3 cm radar.

69. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.


A. The radar of the nearest land
B. The radio direction finder
C. Buoys close at hand
D. Fixed known objects on the shore

70. In Loran C ___________.


A. The master and secondary stations transmits 8 pulses each
B. The master station transmits one long pulse and the secondary stations
transmit 8 short pulses each
C. The master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit
8 pulses each
D. The master station transmits 8 pulses and the secondary stations transmit
9 pulses each

41
DPKP

71. In Mercator sailing ________---.


A. D'long / DMP = Tan course
B. Dep / d'long = Cos Course
C. DMP = d'long x Secant Course
D. DMP = d'lat x Secant Course

72. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______.
A. Three bearing position lines are available of different objects
B. Only one bearing line is available
C. Two bearing lines from two different objects are available
D. A bearing and distance off a navigational mark is available

73. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________.
A. 1863.07
B. 634.77
C. 1248.92
D. 614.15

74. The Decca green zone has ________.


A. 18 lanes
B. 24 lanes
C. 30 lanes
D. 72 lanes

75. A vertical sextant angle gives _________.


A. The height of a bridge above sea level
B. A position line
C. A position circle
D. The ullage of a tank

42
DPKP

76. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the
arc; Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is
the true altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
A. 38?30.8'
B. 38?17.6'
C. 37?45.8'
D. 38?23.6'

77. What will be the d?Long for departure of 66.5? When the ship is on m?Lat of 29
degrees N.
A. 137?
B. 76?
C. 36.8?
D. 77.0?

78. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______.


A. 137?18'
B. 96?37'
C. 80?47'
D. 90?52'

79. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____.


A. By port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
B. By the meteorological department of that country
C. By the mercantile marine department of that country
D. By national broadcasting corporations

80. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? Will be _____.


A. Westerly
B. Easterly
C. Northerly
D. Southerly

43
DPKP

81. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?S
position?
A. Doubling angle on the bow.
B. One bearing and distance of one object.
C. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
D. A three point bearing.

82. When calibrating a sextant for Index Error using the Sun the micrometer reading
'off the arc' was 32.8' and on the arc was 32.0'. What is the index error of the
sextant?
A. 0.8' off the arc
B. 0.4' off the arc
C. 0.8' on the arc
D. 0.4' on the arc

83. In latitude 42 36? N, a ship sails due east from Longitude 26 30? W to longitude 21
12? W . What departure has she made?
A. 234.08 miles
B. 234.00 miles
C. 235.00 miles
D. 235.08 miles

84. To fix the ship's position by horizontal sextant angle you need at least _____.
A. 1 object
B. 2 objects
C. 3 objects
D. 4 objects

85. The LHA of the body when on the observer's meridian is _______.
A. 360?
B. 090?
C. 180?
D. 270?

44
DPKP

86. Your DR latitude is 10?S. A body whose declination in 20?S when setting makes
an angle of 30? At the observer's zenith. What is its azimuth?
A. 150?
B. 330?
C. 030?
D. 270?

87. The chronometer which was losing 8 seconds every day was 4m 48s fast on GMT
on 20th March. What will be the error on 4th April?
A. 5m 48s
B. 6m 48s
C. 2m 48s
D. 3m 48s

88. The method used to plot ship?S position when only one navigational mark is
available and radar cannot be used to find the distance off is called ____________.
A. A running fix
B. Plotting by DR Latitude and bearing line
C. Plotting by DR longitude and bearing line
D. Course line intersection technique

89. A fixed quantity of Mercury will weigh more at ___________.


A. The Equator
B. 30?N Latitude
C. 30?S Latitude
D. 80?N Latitude

90. The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is
indicated by the __________.
A. Equation of time
B. Difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time units
C. Longitude in time units
D. Zone description

45
DPKP

91. When the equation of time is taken from the Nautical Almanac for use in celestial
navigation, it is used to determine __________.
A. Zone time
B. Sunrise
C. Time of local apparent noon
D. Local mean time

92. 90° - Ho = __________.


A. Sextant altitude
B. Co-latitude
C. LHA
D. Zenith distance

93. The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs,
are for the __________.
A. Upper limb of a celestial body
B. Lower limb of a celestial body
C. Centers of the various celestial bodies
D. Lower limb of the Sun and Moon; center of the stars and planets

94. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an
indeterminate position will result in which situation?
A. The objects lie in a straight line.
B. The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects.
C. The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects.
D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.

95. When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal
projection, __________.
A. A straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle
B. The chart should not be used outside of the standard parallels
C. The course angle is measured at the mid-longitude of the track line
D. Distance cannot be measured directly from the chart

46
DPKP

96. The height of eye correction is smaller than geometrical dip because of
__________.
A. The angle between the horizontal and the line of sight to the visible horizon
B. Index error
C. Parallax
D. Terrestrial refraction

97. When using horizontal sextant angles of three objects to fix your position, an
indeterminate position will result in which situation?
A. The objects lie in a straight line.
B. The vessel is inside of a triangle formed by the objects.
C. The vessel is outside of a triangle formed by the objects.
D. A circle will pass through your position and the three objects.

98. For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than
using a Mercator?
A. Plotting radio bearings over a long distance
B. Determining latitude and longitude of a fix
C. Measuring rhumb line distances
D. Measuring rhumb line directions

99. When applying a dip correction to the sighted sextant angle (hs), you always
subtract the dip because you are correcting __________.
A. Hs to the visible horizon
B. Hs to the sensible horizon
C. Hs to the celestial horizon
D. Ho to the celestial horizon

100. A correction for augmentation is included in the Nautical Almanac corrections for
__________.
A. The Sun
B. The Moon
C. Venus
D. None of the above
47
DPKP

101. A semidiameter correction is applied to observations of __________.


A. Mars
B. The Moon
C. Jupiter
D. All of the above

102. A gnomonic projection is based on a(n) __________.


A. Plane tangent at one point
B. Cylinder tangent at the equator
C. Cone tangent at one parallel
D. Infinite series of cones tangent at selected parallels

103. You are approaching a light fitted with a RACON. The light may be identified on
the radar by __________.
A. A dashed line running from the center of the scope to the light
B. An audible signal when the sweep crosses the light
C. A circle appearing on the scope surrounding the light
D. A coded signal appearing on the same bearing at a greater range than the
light

104. The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial body, caused by
refraction, increases as the __________.
A. Horizontal parallax decrease
B. Observer's height above sea level increases
C. Humidity of the atmosphere decreases
D. Altitude of the body decreases

105. A line of position derived by radar range from an identified point on a coast will
be a(n) __________.
A. Straight line
B. Arc
C. Parabola
D. Line parallel to the coast

48
DPKP

106. The small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator, and
transcribed by the daily motion of the body, is called the __________.
A. Hour circle of the body
B. Parallel of declination
C. Vertical circle of the body
D. Parallel of altitude

107. With regard to GPS, a civilian receiver may be capable of achieving the same
accuracy as a military receiver if __________.
A. Selective availability is set to zero
B. The satellites are all below 15° in elevation
C. Your vessel is equipped with a Doppler receiver
D. The horizontal dilution of precision is high

108. In the celestial equator system of coordinates, what is comparable to latitude on


the terrestrial sphere?
A. Altitude
B. Right ascension
C. Celestial meridians
D. Declination

109. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the
heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash,
what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
B. True
C. Compass
D. Magnetic

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DPKP

110. A line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line is called a(n)
__________.
A. Relative bearing
B. Range line
C. Track line
D. Estimated position

111. At about GMT 1436, on 3 December 1981, the lower limb of the Moon is
observed with a sextant having an index error of 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is
32 feet. The sextant altitude (hs) is 3°38.8'. What is the observed altitude?
A. Ho 4°18.6'
B. Ho 4°29.1'
C. Ho 4°36.3'
D. Ho 4°42.2'

112. On 21 January 1981, you observe a back sight of the Sun's lower lim The sextant
altitude (hs) is 121°31.5'. The index error is 2.5' on the ar The height of eye is 31
feet (9.3 meters). What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A. 31°06.2'
B. 58°53.1'
C. 58°12.2'
D. 58°03.2'

113. What great circle is always needed to form the astronomical triangle?
A. Celestial Equator
B. Prime Meridian
C. Celestial Meridian
D. Prime Vertical Circle

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DPKP

114. On 16 January 1981, you take a sight of a star. The sextant altitude (hs) is 4°33.0'.
The temperature is -10°C, and the barometer reads 992 millibars. The height of eye
is 42 feet. The index error is 1.9' off the ar What is the observed altitude (Ho)?
A. 4°10.2'
B. 4°14.3'
C. 4°17.0'
D. 4°24.1'

115. To measure distance on a Mercator chart between the parallels of LAT 34°30'N
and LAT 31°30'N, which 30 mile scale should be used?
A. 33°00'N to 33°30'N
B. 32°30'N to 33°00'N
C. 32°45'N to 33°15'N
D. 32°15'N to 32°45'N

116. Radar makes the most accurate determination of the __________.


A. Direction of a target
B. Distance to a target
C. Size of a target
D. Shape of a target

117. You plot a fix using three lines of position and find they intersect in a triangle.
The actual position of the vessel __________.
A. Is outside of the triangle
B. May be anywhere in the triangle
C. May be inside or outside of the triangle
D. Is the geometric center of the triangle

118. The magnitude of three stars is indicate Which star is the brightest?
A. Antares + 1.2
B. Altair + 0.9
C. Vega + 0.1
D. Cannot be determined; magnitude indicates size not brightness

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DPKP

119. Concerning a celestial observation, the azimuth angle is measured from the
principal vertical circle to the ____________ .
A. Greenwich celestial meridian
B. Hour circle of the body
C. Local celestial meridian
D. Vertical circle of the body

120. You are on course 238°T. To check the course of your vessel you should observe
a celestial body on which bearing?
A. 180°
B. 238°
C. 328°
D. 090°

121. A line connecting all possible positions of your vessel at any given time is a
__________.
A. Longitude line
B. Latitude line
C. Line of position
D. Fix

122. 122: When using GPS without Selective Availability, you may expect your
horizontal accuracy to be better than __________.
A. 3 meter
B. 20 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 200 meters

123. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?


A. Position
B. Electronic navigational chart source
C. Course made good history
D. All of the above

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DPKP

124. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should
provide, at a minimum, __________.
A. An indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded
B. A warning of loss of position
C. A differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals
D. All of the above

125. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy
equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
A. Transi
B. Selective Availability
C. Auto-correlation
D. Anti-spoofing

126. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by


__________.
A. DGPS, within a coverage area
B. SPS, without selective availability
C. PPS, without selective availability
D. NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift

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DPKP

3. Menghitung dan menggunakan kesalahan kompas.


(Determine and allow for compass errors )

1. Gyrocompass repeaters reproduce the indications of the master gyrocompass.


They are __________.
A. Accurate only in the Polar regions
B. Accurate electronic servomechanisms
C. Hand operated
D. Accurate only if the vessel is underway

2. Lines on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic variation are called
__________.
A. Magnetic latitudes
B. Magnetic declinations
C. Dip
D. Isogonic lines

3. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears


185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahea
This indicates that you(r) __________.
A. Must come right to get on the range
B. Course is in error
C. Compass has some easterly error
D. Are being affected by a southerly current

4. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass


__________.
A. Remains aligned with compass north
B. Also turns to starboard
C. First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
D. Turns counterclockwise to port

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DPKP

5. You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart __________.


A. On the compass rose
B. On the mileage scale
C. Written on the chart title
D. At each line of longitude

6. What is an advantage of the magnetic compass aboard


vessels?
A. Compass error is negligible at or near
the earth's magnetic poles.
B. It does not have to be checked as often.
C. It is reliable due to it's essential simplicity.
D. All points on the compass rose are readily
visible.

7. You are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at the center, and the
heading flash always points to 0°. If bearings are measured in relation to the flash,
what type of bearings are produced?
A. Relative
B. True
C. Compass
D. Magnetic

8. Magnetic compass deviation __________.


A. Varies depending upon the bearing used
B. Is the angular difference between
magnetic north and compass north
C. Is published on the compass rose on
most nautical charts
D. Is the angular difference between geographic and magnetic meridians

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DPKP

9. Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________.


A. Vessel's geographic position
B. Vessel's heading
C. Earth's magnetic field
D. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel

10. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________.


A. The vessel's heading
B. Sea conditions
C. Seasons
D. The vessel's position

11. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?


A. Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those
of opposite polarity attract.
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth.
C. Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic variation.
D. The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie parallel to the
isogonic lines of the Earth

12. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________.


A. Speed
B. Vessel heading
C. Geographical location
D. Cargo

13. Variation is the angular measurement between __________.


A. Compass north and magnetic north
B. Compass north and true north
C. Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
D. Your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian

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DPKP

14. A relative bearing is always measured from __________.


A. True north
B. Magnetic north
C. The vessel's beam
D. The vessel's head

15. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________.
A. Deviation
B. Annual rate of variation change
C. Precession
D. Compass error

16. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft
iron because __________.
A. The lines of force cross the equator on a 0°-180° alignment
B. The quadrantal error is 0°
C. There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
D. The intercardinal headings have less than 1° error

17. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the
__________.
A. Needles are nearly in line with the meridian
B. Vessel is near the magnetic poles
C. Variation is near zero
D. Vessel is near the magnetic equator

18. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of
the Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the
__________.
A. North magnetic pole
B. South magnetic pole
C. Magnetic prime vertical meridian
D. Magnetic equator

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DPKP

19. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by
__________.
A. Compass error
B. Latitude
C. Variation
D. Deviation

20. Compass error is equal to the __________.


A. Deviation minus variation
B. Variation plus compass course
C. Combined variation and deviation
D. Difference between true and magnetic heading

21. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply
__________.
A. Variation
B. Deviation
C. Variation and deviation
D. A correction for the direction of current set

22. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix?
A. Poor steering
B. Leeway
C. Known compass error
D. Ocean currents

23. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even keel,
heading north or south, and adjust the screws until __________.
A. The compass heading is in line with the lubber's line
B. There is no lost motion in the gimbal rings
C. No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower the
heeling magnet
D. The gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they are tilted

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DPKP

24. When crossing the magnetic equator the __________.


A. Flinders bar should be inverted
B. Heeling magnet should be inverted
C. The quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180°
D. Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the binnacle

25. The quadrantal spheres are used to __________.


A. Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
B. Remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings
C. Remove heeling error
D. Compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron

26. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is to
compensate for __________.
A. The vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel
B. The residual deviation
C. Magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity
D. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron

27. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?
A. Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
B. A single vertical magnet under the compass
C. The Flinders bar
D. Magnets in trays inside the binnacle
28. Deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings may be removed
by the __________.
A. Flinders bar
B. Transverse magnets
C. Fore-and-aft magnets
D. Soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass

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DPKP

29. You are about to go to sea and adjust the magnetic compass. To expedite the
adjustment at sea, in what order should the following dockside adjustments
be made?
A. Flinders bar first, then the heeling magnet and spheres
B. Heeling magnet first, then the Flinders bar and spheres
C. Flinders bar first, then the spheres and heeling magnet
D. Spheres first, then the Flinders bar and heeling magnet

30. When adjusting a magnetic compass using the fore-and-aft permanent magnets, you
should __________.
A. Use the magnets one at a time, putting one in one side and then one on
the opposite side, one step higher.
B. Use the magnets in pairs, starting at the top, with trays at the highest point
of travel
C. Use the magnets in pairs, from the bottom up, with the trays at the lowest
point of travel
D. Fill all the trays with magnets, then remove them one-by-one until the
deviation is removed

31. The Flinders bar on a magnetic compass compensates for the __________.
A. Induced magnetism in vertical soft iron
B. Induced magnetism in horizontal soft iron
C. Permanent magnetism in ship's steel
D. Vessel's inclination from the vertical

32. The vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism in
vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude. What corrects for this coefficient of
the deviation?
A. The Flinders bar
B. The heeling magnet
C. Quadrantal soft iron spheres
D. Bar magnets in the binnacle

60
DPKP

33. A single vertical magnet placed underneath the compass in the binnacle is used
to compensate for __________.
A. The horizontal component of the permanent magnetism
B. Deviation caused by the vessel's inclination from the vertical
C. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
D. Induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron

34. What are the only magnetic compass correctors that correct for both permanent
and induced effects of magnetism?
A. Quadrantal spheres
B. Heeling magnets
C. Athwartships magnets
D. Fore-and-aft magnets

35. Which compensates for errors introduced when the vessel heels over?
A. The soft iron spheres on the arms of the binnacle
B. Magnets placed in trays inside the binnacle
C. A single vertical magnet beneath the compass
D. The Flinders bar

36. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________.
A. 2°While the vessel is on an intercardinal heading
B. 1°While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000°
C. 2° and is constant on all headings
D. 1° while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180°

37. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be
broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________.
A. Divisional parts
B. Coefficients
C. Fractional parts
D. Equations

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DPKP

38. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made
__________.
A. Before correcting for any deviation
B. After correcting for variation
C. After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
D. Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass

39. The principal purpose of magnetic compass adjustment is to __________.


A. Reduce the variation as much as possible
B. Reduce the deviation as much as possible
C. Reduce the magnetic dip as much as possible
D. Allow the compass bowl to swing freely on its gimbals

40. If a ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, the uncorrected deviation
due to permanent magnetism __________.
A. Increases
B. Remains the same
C. Decrease
D. Is unimportant and may be neglected

41. If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same then __________.
A. The deviation has been offset by the variation
B. There is something wrong with the compass
C. The compass is being influenced by nearby metals
D. There is no deviation on that heading

42. How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart?
A. Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart
B. Red lines on the main body of the chart
C. In parenthesis on the lines of equal magnetic variation
D. Annual rate of change is not shown.

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DPKP

43. Deviation is the angle between the __________.


A. True meridian and the axis of the compass card
B. True meridian and the magnetic meridian
C. Magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card
D. Axis of the compass card and the degaussing meridian

44. Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical
chart provide?
A. Variation
B. True directions
C. Magnetic directions
D. Annual rate of variation change

45. The horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of the
magnetic compass is __________.
A. Deviation
B. Variation
C. Compass error
D. Dip

46. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________.
A. True directions
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Magnetic directions

47. How is variation indicated on a small-scale nautical chart?


A. Magnetic compass table
B. Magnetic meridians
C. Isogonic lines
D. Variation is not indicated on small-scale nautical charts.

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DPKP

48. Deviation changes with a change in __________.


A. Latitude
B. Heading
C. Longitude
D. Sea conditions

49. On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________.
A. True directions
B. Compass error
C. Deviation
D. Magnetic directions

50. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than the Earth's,
which statement is TRUE?
A. Compass error and variation are equal.
B. Compass north will be true north.
C. Variation will equal deviation.
D. There will be no compass error.

51. The annual change in variation for an area can be found in __________.
A. The handbook for Magnetic Compass Adjustment, Pub 226
B. The center of the compass rose on a chart of the area
C. The compass deviation table
D. Variation does not change.

52. Variation is a compass error that you __________.


A. Can correct by adjusting the compass card
B. Can correct by adjusting the compensating magnets
C. Can correct by changing the vessel's heading
D. Cannot correct

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DPKP

53. The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates __________.


A. Compass north
B. The direction of the vessel's head
C. Magnetic north
D. A relative bearing taken with an azimuth circle

54. The directive force of a gyrocompass __________.


A. Increases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic poles
B. Decreases with latitude, being maximum at the geographic equator
C. Is greatest when a vessel is near the Earth's magnetic equator
D. Remains the same at all latitudes

55. Which statement about the gyrocompass is FALSE?


A. Its accuracy remains the same at all latitudes.
B. It seeks the true meridian.
C. It can be used near the Earth's magnetic poles.
D. If an error exists, it is the same on all headings

56. The gyrocompass error resulting from your vessel's movement in OTHER than an
east-west direction is called __________.
A. Damping error
B. Ballistic deflection
C. Quadrantal error
D. Speed error

57. A system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass is called a


__________.
A. Spider element
B. Mercury ballistic
C. Gyrotron
D. Rotor

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DPKP

58. At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the __________.
A. Spider element
B. Sensitive element
C. Link arm
D. Pickup transformer

59. Indications of the master gyrocompass are sent to remote repeaters by the
__________.
A. Follow-up system
B. Transmitter
C. Phantom element
D. Azimuth motor

60. If the gyrocompass error is east, what describes the error and the correction to
be made to gyrocompass headings to obtain true headings?
A. The readings are too low (small numerically) and the amount of the error
must be added to the compass to obtain true
B. The readings are too low and the amount of the error must be
subtracted from the compass to obtain true
C. The readings are too high (large numerically) and the amount of the error
must be added to the compass to obtain true
D. The readings are too high and the amount of the error must be subtracted
from the compass to obtain true

61. Which statement about gyrocompass error is TRUE?


A. The amount of the error and the sign will generally be the same on all
headings.
B. The sign (E or W) of the error will change with different headings of the
ship.
C. Any error will remain constant unless the compass is stopped and restarte
D. Any error shown by a gyro repeater will be the same as the error of the
master compass.

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DPKP

62. The most accurate method of determining gyrocompass error while underway is by
__________.
A. Comparing the gyro azimuth of a celestial body with the computed azimuth
of the body
B. Comparing the gyro heading with the magnetic compass heading
C. Determining from the chart the course made good between celestial fixes
D. It cannot be determined accurately at sea due to drift of unknown currents.

63. To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply __________.
A. Magnetic anomalies (local disturbances)
B. Deviation
C. Variation
D. Deviation and variation

64. Magnetic information on a chart may be __________.


A. Found in the center(s) of the compass rose(s)
B. Indicated by isogonic lines
C. Found in a note on the chart
D. All of the above

65. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears
185°T. You steady up on a compass course of 180° with the range in line dead ahea
This indicates that you(r) ______.
A. Must come right to get on the range
B. Course is in error
C. Compass has some easterly error
D. Are being affected by a southerly current

66. Horizon earth rate causes a free spinning gyro to appear to __________ to
an observer on the earth
A. Change in azimuth
B. Tip or tilt
C. Slow down
D. Spin very rapidly
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DPKP

67. If your gyro compass reads 20 degrees lower than your magnetic compass
A. You should be concerned as they should match fairly closely
B. The gyro is experiencing a large amount of deviation
C. The gyroscopic variation has become irregular
D. The magnetic compass could be experiencing large amount of variation

68. Gyroscopic inertia is that force which causes a gyroscope to


A. Seek true north
B. Remain pointing at a fixed point in space
C. Precessindefinately around the poles
D. Spin very rapidly

69. Vertical earth rate is


A. Maximum at the poles
B. Minimum at the poles
C. Non an effect on the gyrocompass
D. Impossible to compensate for

70. A torque applied carefully to one of the rings housing a gyro will cause the gyro to
A. Swing wildly about
B. Precess in a direction 180 degrees opposite to the torque
C. Precess in a direction 90 degrees from the torque
D. Stop

71. The earth‘s magnetic field is


A. Constant over long periods of time
B. Decreasing overall and has lost 50% over the last 4000 years
C. Is increasing slowly due to magnetic sun storms
D. The only force effecting a magnetic compass

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DPKP

72. While your vessel is proceeding down a channel you notice a range of ligths in line
with your mast. If your vessel on a course of 001° per gyro compass and the charted
value of the range of lights is 359° T, what is the gyro error ?
A. 2° W
B. 2° E
C. 1° E
D. 1° W

73. Your vessel is proceeding up a channel, and you see a pair of range lights that are in
line ahea The chart indicates that the direction of this pair of lights is 311° T, and
the variation is 8° E. If the heading of your vessel at the time of sighting is 305°
PSC, what is the correct deviation ?
A. 2° E
B. 2° W
C. 6° E
D. 6° W

74. You are swinging ship to determine the residual deviation by comparing the
magnetic compass against the gyrocompass. The gyro error is 2° W. The variation
is 8° W. After completing the swinging you have the following readings :
HEADING HEADING HEADING

PSC - PGC PSC - PGC PSC - PGC

358.5° - 354° 122.5° -114° 239.5° -234°


030.5° - 024° 152.0° -144° 269.0° -264°

What is the deviation on a true heading of 157° ?


A. 2.0° W
B. 1.5° W
C. 1.0° E
D. 0°

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DPKP

75. You are heading 328° PGC to make good a course of 332° T, correcting for 3° of
leeway due to southwesterly winds and 1° E gyro error. If the variation is 17° E,
what should the heading be to make good 332°T. If you were steering by
magnetic compass ?
DEVIATION TABLE
A. 315° MAGNETIC HEADING DEVIATION
B. 318° 345 1° E
C. 343° 330 1° W
D. 345°

76. Your vessel is steering course 216°psc, variation for the area is 9° W, and the
deviation is 2° E. The wind is from the east, proceeding a 5° leeway. What
true course are you making good ?
A. 315°
B. 318°
C. 343°
D. 345°

77. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course
233°T, and bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13
knots to intercept vessel A?
A. 249°
B. 256°
C. 262°
D. 268°

78. Deviation in a compass is caused by the __________.


A. Vessel's geographic position
B. Vessel's heading
C. Earth's magnetic field
D. Influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel

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DPKP

79. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a magnetic compass
__________.
A. First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
B. Also turns to starboard
C. Remains aligned with compass north
D. Turns counterclockwise to port

80. Magnetic variation changes with a change in __________.


A. The vessel's heading
B. Sea conditions
C. Seasons
D. The vessel's position

81. What is the basic principle of the magnetic compass?


A. Magnetic materials of the same polarity repel each other and those
of opposite polarity attract.
B. The Earth's magnetic lines of force are parallel to the surface of the Earth.
C. Magnetic meridians connect points of equal magnetic variation.
D. The compass needle(s) will, when properly compensated, lie parallel to the
isogonic lines of the Earth.

82. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in __________.


A. Speed
B. Vessel heading
C. Geographical location
D. Cargo

83. Magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of
an external field is called __________.
A. Permanent magnetism
B. Induced magnetism
C. Residual magnetism
D. Terrestrial magnetism

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DPKP

84. Variation is the angular measurement between __________.


A. Compass north and magnetic north
B. Compass north and true north
C. Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
D. Your vessel's heading and the magnetic meridian

85. A relative bearing is always measured from __________.


A. True north
B. Magnetic north
C. The vessel's beam
D. The vessel's head

86. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and __________.
A. Deviation
B. Annual rate of variation change
C. Precession
D. Compass error

87. At the magnetic equator there is no induced magnetism in the vertical soft
iron because __________.
A. The lines of force cross the equator on a 0°-180° alignment
B. The quadrantal error is 0°
C. There is no vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field
D. The intercardinal headings have less than 1° error

88. The greatest directive force is exerted on the magnetic compass when the
__________.
A. Needles are nearly in line with the meridian
B. Vessel is near the magnetic poles
C. Variation is near zero
D. Vessel is near the magnetic equator

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DPKP

89. The magnetic compass magnets are acted on by the horizontal component of
the Earth's total magnetic force. This magnetic force is GREATEST at the
__________.
A. North magnetic pole
B. South magnetic pole
C. Magnetic prime vertical meridian
D. Magnetic equator

90. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading by
__________.
A. Compass error
B. Latitude
C. Variation
D. Deviation

91. Your ship is proceeding on course 320°T at a speed of 25 knots. The apparent wind
is from 30° off the starboard bow, speed 32 knots. What is the relative direction,
true direction and speed of the true wind?
A. Relative 80°true 040°T, 16.2 knots
B. Relative 40°true 080°T, 16.4 knots
C. Relative 80° true 060°T, 15.2 knots
D. Relative 60°true 040°T, 18.6 knots

92. The compass heading of a vessel differs from the true heading by __________.
A. Compass error
B. Variation
C. Magnetic dip
D. Deviation

93. Compass error is equal to the __________.


A. Deviation minus variation
B. Variation plus compass course
C. Combined variation and deviation
D. Difference between true and magnetic heading
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DPKP

94. When changing from a compass course to a true course you should apply
__________.
A. Variation
B. Deviation
C. Variation and deviation
D. A correction for the direction of current set

95. Which error is NOT included in the term "current" when used in relation to a fix?
A. Poor steering
B. Leeway
C. Known compass error
D. Ocean currents

96. How many degrees are there on a compass card?


A. 360°
B. 380°
C. 390°
D. 420°

97. To center a compass bowl in its binnacle, you should have the ship on an even keel,
heading north or south, and adjust the screws until __________.
A. The compass heading is in line with the lubber's line
B. There is no lost motion in the gimbal rings
C. No change of heading by compass is observed if you raise and lower
the heeling magnet
D. The gimbal rings do not strike the compass frame when they are tilted

98. When crossing the magnetic equator the __________.


A. Flinders bar should be inverted
B. Heeling magnet should be inverted
C. The quadrantal spheres should be rotated 180°
D. Flinders bar should be moved to the opposite side of the binnacle

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99. The quadrantal spheres are used to __________.


A. Remove deviation on the intercardinal headings
B. Remove deviation on the cardinal compass headings
C. Remove heeling error
D. Compensate for induced magnetism in vertical soft iron

100. The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on arms on the binnacle is
to compensate for __________.
A. The vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel
B. The residual deviation
C. Magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity
D. Induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron

101. Which compensates for induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?
A. Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
B. A single vertical magnet under the compass
C. The Flinders bar
D. Magnets in trays inside the binnacle

102. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, a deviation table should be made
__________.
A. Before correcting for any deviation
B. After correcting for variation
C. After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets
D. Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass

103. The total magnetic effects which cause deviation of a vessel's compass can be
broken down into a series of components which are referred to as __________.
A. Divisional parts
B. Coefficients
C. Fractional parts
D. Equations

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104. Heeling error is defined as the change of deviation for a heel of __________.
A. 2°While the vessel is on an intercardinal heading
B. 1°While the vessel is on a compass heading of 000°
C. 2° and is constant on all headings
D. 1° while the vessel is on a compass heading of 180°

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4. Koordinasi di dalam kegiatan pencarian dan pertolongan (Coordinate search and


rescue operations )
1. According to the IAMSAR Manual, what is the expected survival time for a person
in water of 4-10 degrees Celsius, without special protective clothing?
A. Less than 3 hours.
B. Less than 1 hour.
C. Less than 6 hours.
D. Less than 12 hours.

2. If a master initially responds to a distress but then, in special circumstances, decides


not to proceed, what must he then do?
A. Inform the appropriate search and
rescue authorities of his decision
and enter the reason in the ship's
logbook.
B. If possible, inform the casualty of
his decision and communicate his
reasons.
C. Inform his owners of his decision
and resume his passage at the earliest opportunity.
D. Contact the SAR Mission Co-ordinator and secure his written agreement to
the release of his vessel from the operation.

3. In what format will an On-Scene Co-ordinator report such information as on-scene


weather and operation progress to other parties?
A. SITREP.
B. POSREP.
C. SARREP.
D. OSCREP.

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4. It has been shown that the controlled release of oil is effective in reducing the
effects of the sea, making it possible for a rescue craft to approach survivors in the
water. How many square metres does the IAMSAR Manual suggest may be calmed
by releasing 200 litres of lubricating oil slowly through a rubber hose with the
outlet maintained just above the surface while the ship proceeds at slow speed?
A. Approx 5,000 square metres.
B. Approx 500 square metres.
C. Approx 50 square metres.
D. Approx 50,000 square metres.

5. The recommended distance between parallel tracks (track spacing) in a search for a
casualty by a surface vessel varies (amongst other factors) according to visibility
and the nature of the target in the IAMSAR Manual. These distances are then
normally adjusted for prevailing weather conditions. If visibility was 5 nautical
miles and you were looking for a six-person liferaft, what would the recommended
uncorrected track spacing be?
A. 3.6 nautical miles.
B. 2.5 nautical miles.
C. 5.0 nautical miles.
D. 0.7 nautical miles.

6. Under most circumstances, how will communication be carried out between a ship
and a SAR helicopter?
A. On VHF Ch 16.
B. On VHF Ch 70.
C. On 121.5 mhz.
D. On 410 khz.

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7. What are the three volumes of the IAMSAR Manual?


A. I Organization and Management II
Mission Co-ordination III Mobile
Facilities.
B. I Organization II Communications III
Rescue Procedures
C. A Command and Control B
Communications C Rescue
Procedures
D. I Planning and Preparation II Rescue Control III Reference

8. What is the name of the reference manual, jointly produced by the International
Maritime Organization and the International Civil Aviation Authority, which
currently outlines the organization and management of search and rescue activities
at sea?
A. The International Aeronautical and Maritime
Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual.
B. The Search and Rescue (IMOSAR) Manual.
C. The Merchant Ship Search and Rescue
(MERSAR) Manual.
D. The Internation Maritime Search and Rescue
(IMARSAR) Manual.

9. What is the world-wide system operated by the US Coast Guard exclusively in


support of search and rescue operations?
A. The Automated Mutual-Assistance Vessel
Rescue (AMVER) System.
B. The International Search and Rescue
Coordination System.
C. The Worldwide Maritime Mutual
Assistance Programme (WMMAP).
D. The U.S. Command and Control Rescue (USCOMR) Service.

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10. What type of search pattern is recommended in the IAMSAR Manual as most
effective when the location of the search object is known within relatively close
limits?
A. Expanding Square Search.
B. Sector Search.
C. Track Line Search.
D. Parallel Sweep Search.

11. Where several rescue units are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one of
will be designated as the On-Scene Commander (OSC). Which of the following
descibes how this appointment will be made?
A. The OSC will always be
designated by the nearest Rescue
Coordination Centre. No other
vessel may assume the role at any
time.
B. The first rescue unit to arrive at the
scene will normally assume the
role of OSC, until the unit
appointed as OSC by the SAR
Mission Co-ordinator at the applicable RCC is in a position to take control.
C. The OSC will initially be a controlling aircraft. Once a suitable vessel is on
scene, the responsibility will be passed to them.
D. The role of OSC can only be taken by a naval ship with suitable command
and control capability. In many regions, such vessels are permanently
assigned on stand-by to assume such a role.

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12. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?


A. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of
the ship.
B. The General of Sea Transportation is responsible for the ship being at all
times adequately manned in accordance with National acts and regulations.
C. The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number and
composition of the crew is posted in the ship and has the sole responsibility
for the ship being adequately manne
D. The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequately
qualified seafarers.

13. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be
in each zone?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four

14. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?


A. A ship which carries more than 12 passengers
B. A ship which is arranged and fitted for carriage of persons which are not
members of the ship's crew
C. A ship which carries passengers only
D. A purpose-built passenger ship carrying persons only on defined lines or
routes

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15. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts
threatening the safety of the ship and the
security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel
accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency
assistance to other ships
B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
D. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire

16. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger


cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency
instructions?
A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
B. Escape routes and alarm signals
C. Name of cabin attendant
D. Where to find thermal protective aids

17. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall
be kept on board __________.
A. For 1 year
B. For 2 years
C. Until the next Coast Guard inspection
D. Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires

18. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest
compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
B. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations

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19. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?


A. On their side if unconscious
B. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
C. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
D. Arms above their head

20. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You
should FIRST __________.
A. Boat the sea anchor
B. Paddle away from the fire
C. Splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D. Get out of the raft and swim to safety

21. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the
water, would indicate that a submarine __________.
A. Has fired a torpedo during a drill
B. Is about to rise to periscope depth
C. Is on the bottom in distress
D. Is disabled and unable to surface

22. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at
the rate of how many breaths per minute?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20

23. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried


voluntarily, must hold at least a __________.
A. Mate's license
B. Restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C. Second-class radio operator's license
D. Seaman's document

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24. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at
the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.
A. Minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
B. Fire on board
C. Rescuing an individual from the water
D. Emergency towing

25. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has
bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action
should you take?
A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open
the container.
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.

26. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill
the minimum requirements for fire protection?
A. One B-I extinguisher
B. One B-II extinguisher
C. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D. One B-V extinguisher

27. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
A. Cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B. Keeping the head elevated
C. Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D. Holding the jaw down firmly

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28. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
A. Shape
B. Shallow draft
C. Large sail area
D. All of the above

29. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the
Rules of the Road?
A. D
B. E
C. S
D. All of the above

30. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum
should be depressed about __________.
A. 1/2 inch or less
B. 1/2 to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1-1/2 inches
D. 1-1/2 to 2 inches

31. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.


A. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B. Releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. Pushing up from under one end
D. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside
of the raft

32. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being
launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions
of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.
A. 6°
B. 12°
C. 20°
D. 25°
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33. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done
__________.
A. Without losing the rhythm of respiration
B. Only with the help of two other people
C. By not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D. At ten-minute intervals

34. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing
apparatus be carried?
A. Emergency gear locker
B. Bridge or pilothouse area
C. Where they can be readily found
D. The same location as the equipment it reactivates

35. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You hear
a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of
this?
A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.
B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflate
C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.
D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.

36. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.


A. Having the proper equipment for the process
B. Starting the treatment quickly
C. Administering of oxygen
D. Treating for traumatic shock

37. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must
pull the safety pin and __________.
A. Pull the hook release handle
B. Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
C. Use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
D. Pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
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DPKP

38. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.


A. Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the
righting straps, and leaning backwards
B. Should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps,
and leaning backwards
C. Will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
D. Must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself

39. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when
should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
A. Immediately upon launching
B. One to three feet before first wave contact
C. Upon first wave contact
D. Only when waterborne

40. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.
A. Go in a different direction in search of land
B. Spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you
C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as
few rafts as possible
D. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group

41. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is
important that the crew members should __________.
A. Separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
B. Get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
C. Immediately head for the nearest land
D. Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the
vessel's last known position

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42. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If
possible, you should __________.
A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. Abandon ship to windward
C. Call for assistance
D. Keep going at half speed

43. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely
inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should
__________.
A. Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
B. Plug the safety valve
C. Unscrew the deflation plugs
D. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch

44. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should
__________.
A. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B. Check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough
C. Check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening
D. Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape

45. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
A. BR
B. BS
C. BT1
D. BZ

46. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?


A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a
life jacket.
C. They should be tight fitting.
D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
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47. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
A. Remain in the immediate vicinity
B. Head for the nearest land
C. Head for the closest sea-lanes
D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

48. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a


fishing vessel?
A. Recovering an individual from the water
B. Steering casualty
C. Emergency towing
D. Loss of propulsion power

49. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call
on channel __________.
A. 13
B. 16
C. 19
D. 23

50. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your


radiotelephone log must contain __________.
A. A record of all routine calls
B. A record of your transmissions only
C. The home address of the vessel's Master or owner
D. A summary of all distress calls and messages

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51. Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is


INCORRECT?
A. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 khz by two dashes of
10 to 15 seconds duration.
B. Channel 16 (156.8 mhz) may be used for distress messages.
C. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the
distress call on any frequency available.
D. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 khz.

52. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to
which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?
A. On the bridge or in the wheelhouse
B. In a separate radio compartment
C. Adjacent to the main power source
D. As high as possible on the vessel

53. Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from
the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 mhz EPIRB that
__________.
A. Is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger
B. Will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate
C. Is protected against all physical hazards
D. All of the above

54. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the
__________.
A. VHF-FM service
B. Coastal harbor service
C. High seas service
D. Emergency broadcast service

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55. The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"


is for the exclusive use of __________.
A. The Master or person in charge of the vessel
B. A person designated by the Master
C. A person on board to pilot the vessel
D. All of the above

56. Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel


Rescue) is TRUE?
A. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER
system.
B. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to
a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
C. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour
advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from
offshore.
D. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding
to calls for assistance.

57. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?


A. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to.
B. They can go forward and backward more easily.
C. They require less space for stowing aboard ship.
D. There is no particular reason for this.

58. An unconscious person should NOT be __________.


A. Placed in a position with the head lower than the body
B. Given an inhalation stimulant
C. Given something to drink
D. Treated for injuries until conscious

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59. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a
continuous listening watch on channel __________.
A. 6 (156.3 mhz)
B. 12 (156.6 mhz)
C. 14 (156.7 mhz)
D. 16 (156.8 mhz)

60. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This
indicates that __________.
A. A message about the safety of navigation will follow
B. Message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow
C. The sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance
D. You should secure your radiotelephone

61. The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.


A. 156.8 mhz (channel 16)
B. 156.7 mhz (channel 14)
C. 156.65 mhz (channel 13)
D. 156.6 mhz (channel 12)

62. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require
immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your
situation with __________.
A. Mayday-Mayday-Mayday
B. Pan-Pan (3 times)
C. Securite-Securite-Securite
D. SOS-SOS-SOS

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63. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that


__________.
A. A ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate
assistance
B. A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person
C. The message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation
D. The message following is a meteorological warning

64. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.


A. Shorter than the rowing oars
B. The same length as the rowing oars
C. Longer than the rowing oars
D. Unrelated to the length of the rowing oars

65. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a
liferaft?
A. Immediately use all the signals at once.
B. Use all the signals during the first night.
C. Employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they are gone.
D. Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the are

66. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of
__________.
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 36 hours

67. Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a
ship on the horizon?
A. A red parachute flare
B. A red hand-held flare
C. A flashlight
D. A lantern
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68. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?


A. Securite
B. Mayday
C. Breaker
D. Pan

69. On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________.


A. On or near the navigating bridge
B. On the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead
C. Above the freeboard deck away from heat
D. In an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat

70. A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.


A. Has no more than two compartments
B. Has two compartments in addition to the engine room
C. Will sink if any two compartments are flooded
D. Will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded

71. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoiste
What should you do?
A. Continue on your present course since the vessel is signaling for a pilot.
B. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disable
C. Stop your vessel instantly.
D. Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is maneuvering
with difficulty.

72. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?


A. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are require
B. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the
only distress signals require
C. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provide
D. A Very pistol with twelve flares is require

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73. An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.
A. So as to float free
B. With the vessel's emergency equipment
C. Near the wheelhouse
D. As far forward as possible

74. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that
has a doctor and hospital on boar You want to rendezvous in a certain position so
the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message
contain?
A. MAF
B. MAB
C. MAA
D. MAE

75. The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.


A. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
B. More than 6 short blasts
C. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
D. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds

76. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent
medical advice. Your message should contain which code?
A. MAB
B. MAD
C. MAA
D. MAF
77. On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline
powered machinery must be __________.
A. Explosion-proof
B. Intrinsically safe
C. Ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere
D. All of the above

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78. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds.
Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
A. Abandon ship
B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C. Fire and emergency
D. Man overboard

79. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.


A. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same
signal on the general alarm
B. Continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at
least 10 seconds
C. 1 short blast on the whistle
D. Alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle

80. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____."
A. Place patient in hot bath
B. The wound should be stitched
C. You should pass a stomach tube
D. The wound should not be stitched

81. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short
rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.
A. Abandon ship
B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C. Fire and emergency
D. Man overboard

82. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you
receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______".
A. Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours
B. Commence artificial respiration immediately
C. Give enema
D. Pass catheter into bladder
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83. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
A. MPO
B. MPR
C. MPK
D. MPJ

84. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.


A. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
B. Find some wood for a fire
C. Get the provisions out of the raft
D. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it

85. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by
applying the __________.
A. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's
sides and transom for each passenger
B. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of
deck space available for passenger use
C. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger
to rest his/her buttocks upon
D. Any or a combination of the above criteria

86. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
__________.
A. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
B. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
C. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
D. Starvation

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87. In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and
__________.
A. Application of CPR
B. Removal of any foreign objects
C. Administration of oxygen
D. For traumatic shock

88. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.


A. Relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication
B. Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
C. Preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain
D. Providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration

89. All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.
A. Boarding and operating procedures
B. Maintenance schedule
C. Navigational systems
D. Fuel consumption rates

90. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content
by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored
quantities of water?
A. Up to 3 days
B. 8 to 14 days
C. 15 to 20 days
D. 25 to 30 days

91. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival
craft, you should __________.
A. Go in one direction until the fuel runs out
B. Plot course for the nearest land
C. Take a vote on the direction in which to go
D. Shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor

98
DPKP

92. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should
be to __________.
A. Remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
B. Head for the closest land
C. Head for the closest sea-lanes
D. Get a majority opinion

93. When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should
__________.
A. Plot a course for the nearest land
B. Take a vote on the direction in which to go
C. Stay in the immediate area
D. Go in one direction until fuel runs out

94. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________.
A. Remain in the immediate vicinity
B. Head for the nearest land
C. Head for the closest sea-lanes
D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

95. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no
rescue craft is in sight, they should __________.
A. Be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in
the water
B. Float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the
air
C. Remove their life jackets and hold on to uninjured survivors
D. Sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes

99
DPKP

96. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no
rescue craft are in sight, they should __________.
A. Tie themselves to the unit to avoid drifting with the current
B. Group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water
in the center of the circle
C. Send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
D. From a raft by lashing their life jackets together

97. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established,
the drinking routine should include __________.
A. Small sips at regular intervals during the day
B. A complete daily ration at one time during the day
C. One-third the daily ration three times during the day
D. Small sips only after sunset

98. The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's
largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.
A. 1 knot
B. 2 knot
C. 5 knot
D. 10 knot

99. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to
look for __________.
A. Survivors in the water
B. Food and water
C. Land
D. Bad weather

100. What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
A. Open equipment pack.
B. Post a lookout.
C. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
D. Pick up other survivors.
100
DPKP

101. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from
your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.
A. Take measures to maintain morale
B. Prepare and use radio equipment
C. Identify the person in charge of liferaft
D. Search for survivors

102. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established?
A. Determine when the seaman was
last sighted and concentrate the
search round the course line
between the last sighting and
present position, taking into account
any prevailing current.
B. The focus of the search should be
from the present position as he
probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch.
C. Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from
track into account on the return course. The search should focus around this
return track back to the last sighted position
D. The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and
all ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the
present position.

101
DPKP

103. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been
in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would
you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
B. Leave the position as fast as possible
C. Do nothing and wait for assistance
D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders

104. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133°T,
and bears 042°T, 105 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10
knots?
A. 12h 30m
B. 12h 44m
C. 12h 58m
D. 13h 22m

105. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course 033°T,
and bears 284°T at 43 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 16 knots to
intercept vessel A?
A. 284°
B. 303°
C. 329°
D. 342°

102
DPKP

5. Menetapkan pengaturan dan prosedur tugas jaga


(Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures )

1. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water,
having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer
may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason?
A. The large volume of water dragged
behind the vessel continues to move
forward and cause a strong turning
moment on the stern of the vessel
B. The hydrodynamic interaction
effects from the banks of the
shallow water channel acts on the
stern causing the vessel to sheer
strongly
C. The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning
moment and results in the ship swinging towards the bank.
D. The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the
vessel stops any applied rudder will become suddenly more effective.

2. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little
wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the
tugs and at which position?
A. Pushing on the ship's side and made fast
in case the vessel's movement towards
the berth requires reducing by the tug
pulling off.
B. Made fast Forward and Aft using the
centre leads.
C. Pushing on ship's side, but not made
fast to allow the tug to move to another position if needed
D. One tug made fast forward for pulling and the other pushing aft.

103
DPKP

3. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship
in maintaining its course in the centre of the channel?
A. Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
B. Made fast on a line through the centre lead ahea
C. Standing-by - Ready for use anywhere, as require
D. Pushing alongside

4. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow


water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water.
If the speed through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of
"Squat"
A. The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter
of its original value
B. The squat effect will also be halve
C. There will be a significant change in the
reduction of underkeel clearance, but the
amount varies from ship to ship
D. There will be very little change to the effects of Squat.

5. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead
throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a
complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any
difference in the size (diameter) of the turning circle?
A. No, the diameter of the turning
circle would be almost the same.
B. Yes, it would be a much smaller
turning circle at half ahead
C. Yes, it will be much larger turning
circle at half ahea
D. Yes, there would be a change of
shape of the turning circle; it would
have an increase in the transfer, but not the advance.

104
DPKP

6. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by
the tug be the same at any speed?
A. No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5
knots it will be expected that there will be a
reduced pull exerted by the tug
B. No, when the speed of the ship is
increasing, the bollard pull exerted by the
tug will also be increasing
C. Yes, the bollard pull would normally be expected to be the same at any
speed of the ship
D. Yes for movement ahead, but when going astern the bollard pull would be
expected to be at its greatest.

7. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current.
At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at
the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current
exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the
approximate force exerted at the second if the draught is the same?
A. 150 tonnes
B. Unchanged, remains at 50 tonnes
C. 25 tonnes
D. 75 tonnes

8. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons
creating the effects of squat?
A. There is an increase in the water velocity and
a decrease of water pressure around the ship's
hull
B. There is a decrease in the water velocity and
an increased of water pressure around the
ship's hull
C. There is an increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea-bed
D. There are changes in the bow and stern pressure fields associated with the
ships motion.
105
DPKP

9. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and
approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely
round the bend and what other effects could be expected in this situation?
A. The heading should be carefully
monitored, some port rudder may be
required to start the swing, though
starboard rudder may be required to
balance any bank rejection.
B. The wheel should be put hard over to
port to keep the ship in the middle of the
channel and the heading carefully
monitore
C. A small amount of port helm would be required to get round the corner and
the engines should be slowed down to give more time to the manoeuvre.
The heading should be continually monitored
D. The ship will round the corner without any helm being required, due to
interaction and rejection by the river bank

10. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power
requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing
the heading? Both tugs have similar bollard pull and are of conventional
propulsion.
A. Much greater power on the forward
tug than on the after tug while
monitoring the gyro heading
B. Much greater power on the aft tug
than on the forward tug while
monitoring the gyro heading.
C. Equal power required by both tugs,
but monitor the gyro heading to
ensure sideward movement only
D. It would be very difficult to predict the power requirements in this
circumstance and it could only be found by observation.

106
DPKP

11. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to
maintain the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
A. Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while
monitoring the ship's gyro heading
B. Considerably more power on the forward tug than the after tug, while
monitoring the ship's gyro heading
C. Equal power on both tugs while monitoring the ship's gyro heading
D. Full power on the forward tug and the after tug ceases to push, but
continuously monitor the ship's gyro heading

12. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double
banking two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods.
Select which answer is considered the most successful metho
A. When both vessels are underway,
fig. 1
B. When the larger vessel is at anchor,
fig. 2
C. When the smaller vessel is at
anchor, fig. 3
D. When the larger vessel is stopped
and drifting in the water, fig. 4

13. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboar Which
of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still
close to the vessel?
A. Williamson Turn
B. Scharnow Turn
C. Direct Turn
D. Evinrude Turn

107
DPKP

14. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be
decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the
most dangerous position of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be
found?
A. The most dangerous position is where the tug
approaches the bow rounding the forward
shoulder of the larger vessel.
B. The most dangerous position is when the tug
is alongside the amidships section of the
larger vessel.
C. The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the stern of the
larger vessel and enters into its associated positive pressure fiel
D. The most dangerous position is where the tug has made fast the towing
spring and is then moving ahead of the larger vessel.

15. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If
the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the
engines are stopped, how much lift force remains?
A. About 20 %
B. About 50 %
C. About 80 %
D. About 5 %

16. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much
"lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
A. About 10 %
B. About 50 %
C. About 80 %
D. There will be lift force remaining

108
DPKP

17. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce
to about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately
summarizes the aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
A. All of the suggested answers
B. A further reduction of underkeel
clearance and possible changes of
the ship's trim
C. A reduced ability to stop the vessel
and maintain steerage
D. Touching the bottom if there is any
swell and causing damage due to the wake or wash of the vessel

18. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly
increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving
it off the jetty?
A. The force will be Quadrupled
B. The force will be Tripled
C. The force will be Doubled
D. The force will be Quintupled

19. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion
to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be
considered to be located?
A. At a position outside the hull of the
ship itself
B. At a position aft of amidships
C. At a position on the centreline,
about 1/6 of the ship's length aft of
the bow.
D. At a position in the vicinity of the
ship's centre of gravity

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DPKP

20. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?


A. A rudder with part of the rudder
area forward of the turning axis,
therefore reducing the load on the
steering motor.
B. A rudder with equal rudder area
forward and aft of the turning axis,
the turning axis being at the
geometrical centre of the rudder
area
C. A rudder which is operated by two steering motors providing equal amounts
of thrust to the rudder
D. A rudder with an additional flap attached the training edge to improve the
rudder efficiency

21. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in
the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
A. The position of the tug relative to the ship's
pivot point
B. The experience of the tug crew.
C. The use of the tug's wire instead of the ship's
towing spring
D. The length of the towing spring

22. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally
unstable"?
A. The ship requires continual application of the
rudder to maintain a steady course.
B. When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will
continue on a straight course
C. The ship will only require small amounts of helm to maintain its course
when steaming in a heavy seaway
D. The ship has negative transverse stability (-GM) when proceeding on some
specific courses
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DPKP

23. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force.
When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the
rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?
A. About 80 %
B. About 10 %.
C. About 30 %
D. About 50 %

24. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as
"Squat". Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of
squat on the vessel?
A. There will be a reduction of the vessel's
underkeel clearance and a possible change of
trim.
B. There will be an increase in the vessels
draught while moving through the water
C. There will be a change of draught and a
reduction in the spee
D. If the speed of the vessel through the water is kept to "Slow Ahead" there
will be no effect due to Squat.

25. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best
system of connecting the tow?
A. Wire from a deep sea tug
connected to the ship's anchor
chain.
B. Wire from a deep sea tug through
the forward centre lead of the ship
and made fast onto several
mooring bits on the forecastle
C. Wire from a deep sea tug made
fast through a shoulder lead on the vessel's leeward side
D. Towing Hawser from a deep sea tug through the centre lead forward and
made fast on the nearest mooring bits forwar
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DPKP

26. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to
maintain during this operation?
A. The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
B. It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting
C. A tug may be connected at any convenient speed
D. The speed should be more than 7 knots

27. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern?
A. Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the
stern and the rudder post
B. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow
C. Amidships
D. Between amidships and 1/4 of the
vessel's length from the bow

28. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
A. 1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
B. 1/4 of vessel's length from the stern
C. Amidships
D. Normally varies dependant on the speed ahead

29. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through
narrow waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing
steering power?
A. The tug made fast on a line through the
centre lead astern. (figure 4).
B. Tug running free alongside, ready to be
made fast (figure 2)
C. Tug made fast forward on either
shoulder, ready to push (figure 3)
D. The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead forward (figure 1)

112
DPKP

30. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
A. Because the pivot point is not at the centre
of the ship
B. Because the turning moment is created by
the rudder, which is positioned at the stern
of the vessel
C. The ship moves laterally because it always
tries to continue in a straight line.
D. The ship moves sidewards because of all the external forces on the vessels
hull.

31. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be
suitable for berthing the vessel?
A. The approach speed is too fast.
B. The approach speed is essential to
maintain steerage when coming alongside
C. The speed requirements are decided by
the pilot and should not be the concern of
the OOW.
D. The indicated speed would be a normal speed approaching a berth.

32. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller
and no thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it
comes alongside?
A. Let go starboard anchor to about 1
shackle on deck
B. Reduce speed by going astern on
the engines.
C. Let go port anchor to about 1
shackles on deck
D. Full starboard rudder and stop
engines

113
DPKP

7. As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved
is on fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel?
After checking the extent of the
damage and welfare of your crew, if
possible your vessel should standby
and offer assistance, until being
relieved of that obligation by the
other vessel.
There is no statutory requirement to
provide assistance as the actions of
that vessel were the primary cause of the collision
Your vessel should manoeuvre close to the other vessel and aid the fire
fighting operation.
You should inform the nearest Coast Radio Station of the incident and if
your damage is not serious, continue on your voyage.

8. Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is
in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is
the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
Put the ship aground on a soft
sandy bottom as soon as possible
Attempt to stop the ingress of water
by listing the ship over and
bringing the damaged area of the
hull out of the water.
Call for tug boat assistance as soon
as possible
Inform the local coast radio station of the situation and ask for advice

114
DPKP

9. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established?
Determine when the seaman was
last sighted and concentrate the
search round the course line
between the last sighting and
present position, taking into account
any prevailing current.
The focus of the search should be
from the present position as he
probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch.
Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from
track into account on the return course. The search should focus around this
return track back to the last sighted position
The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and
all ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the
present position.

10. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a
reliable means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal
are What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of the ship?
Display NUC lights and investigate
the tidal flow over the next 24 hours
and the probable drift of the vessel.
Display NUC lights and inform the
nearest Coast Guard of you
predicament.
Display NUC lights and determine
if anchoring is possible
Display NUC lights and send out a
navigational warning to all other vessels of your position and situation
115
DPKP

11. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars. Should
there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your vessel is
equipped with an operational ECDIS
Increase the officers on the
bridge to allow greater use of
visual navigation
Change the passage plan to
avoid areas of high density
shipping, if possible
Post extra lookouts
No changes are necessary

12. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a
collision. What will your actions be following the collision?
Make sure your vessel + crew
are safe and then offer your
assistance to the other vessel
Continue the voyage to your
destination
Call the Company Office
Start an argument with the other
vessel about fault

13. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been
in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would
you do?
Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
Leave the position as fast as possible
Do nothing and wait for assistance
Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders

116
DPKP

14. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What
immediate action should you take?
Nothing, just standby and wait to
see if any assistance is require
Contact one or both vessels
involved in the incident and offer
assistance.
Send out a distress message on
their behalf.
Inform the local coast radio
station of the incident and submit your name as a witness.

15. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the
required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on
board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what other
immediate steps should be taken?
Complete soundings of all compartments to
determine the number of compartments floode
Check the vessels stability limitations within its
statutory loadline requirements to determine if still
adequate.
Sound round the vessel and calculate the changes in
stability due to the lost buoyancy, to determine if
the final residual positive stability is sufficient to
remain afloat.
Monitor any gradual increase of draft, list and trim to determine the final of
equilibrium. Ensure this is sufficient to remain afloat
Prepare for abandoning ship and ensure that all ship's personnel are at their
lifeboat stations.

117
DPKP

16. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master
responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take?
Organise someone to assess the extent of
damage and the residual stability of the vessel.
Communicate with the other ship.
Determine is there is any evidence of pollution.
Determine any injuries or deaths of persons on
board

17. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as
Master tell the Master on the other vessel?
Name; Port of registry; Port of
destination of your vessel.
Explain your actions prior to the
collision and request details of
actions taken by the other vessel
which resulted in the collision.
Ask if there is any assistance
required by the other vessel.
There should be no communication with the other vessel.

18. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a
navigational warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way within the
scheme. What actions should be taken on the bridge, if any?
Use the Arpa for early identification of all other ship movements within the
traffic lane and give rogue vessel a wide berth
Take no actions but proceed with extra caution.
Move out of the traffic lane towards the coast.
Slow down your vessel and proceed with caution, posting extra lookouts

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DPKP

19. When you are steering on a pair of range lights and find the upper light is above the
lower light you should __________.
Come left
Come right
Continue on the present course
Wait until the lights are no longer in a vertical line

20. When displayed under a single-span fixed bridge, red lights indicate __________.
The channel boundaries
That vessels must stop
The bridge is about to open
That traffic is approaching from the other side

21. You have replaced the chart paper in the course recorder. What is NOT required to
ensure that a correct trace is recorded?
Test the electrical gain to the thermograph pens
Set the zone pen on the correct quadrant
Line the course pen up on the exact heading of the ship
Adjust the chart paper to indicate the correct time

22. You are approaching a swing bridge at night. You will know that the bridge is open
for river traffic when __________.
The fixed, green light starts to flash
The amber light changes to green
The red light is extinguished
The red light changes to green

119
DPKP

23. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye
of a hurricane bears 120°T, 110 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving
towards 285°T at 25 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane,
what could be the maximum CPA?
77 miles
82 miles
87 miles
93 miles

24. When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be
considered?
The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted
location.
The buoy may not be in the charted position.
The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been
freshly painte

25. You are approaching a multiple-span bridge at night. The main navigational
channel span will be indicated by __________.
A quick flashing red or green aid to navigation
A steady blue light in the center of the span
3 white lights in a vertical line in the center of the span
A flashing green light in the center of the span

26. When approaching a preferred-channel buoy, the best channel is NOT indicated by
the __________.
Light characteristic
Color of the uppermost band
Shape of an unlighted buoy
Color of the light

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DPKP

27. When navigating a vessel, you __________.


Can always rely on a buoy to be on station
Can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
Should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
Should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position

28. A buoy with a composite group-flashing light indicates a(n) __________.


Anchorage area
Fish net area
Bifurcation
Dredging area

29. When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
During calm weather only
During daylight only
Only when inside a harbor
Only when fixed aids are not available

30. When operated over a muddy bottom, a fathometer may indicate __________.
A shallow depth reading
A zero depth reading
No depth reading
Two depth readings

31. When using an echo sounder in deep water, it is NOT unusual to __________.
Receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day,
and one nearer the surface at night
Receive a first return near the surface during the day, and a strong return at
about 200 fathoms (366 meters) at night
Receive false echoes at a constant depth day and night
Have to recalibrate every couple of days due to inaccurate readings

121
DPKP

32. You are underway on course 050°T and your maximum speed is 12 knots. The eye
of a hurricane bears 080°T, 100 miles from your position. The hurricane is moving
towards 265°T at 22 knots. If you maneuver at 12 knots to avoid the hurricane,
what could be the maximum CPA?
76 miles
69 miles
63 miles
56 miles

33. Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying
reefs and shoals?
Approach charts
General charts
Sailing charts
Coastal charts

34. Under the IALA - A Buoyage System, a buoy used as a port hand mark would not
show which light characteristic?
Isophase
Quick flashing
Long flashing
Group Flashing (2 + 1)

35. Two navigational hazards are located near to each other, but each is marked by an
individual cardinal buoyage system. The buoys of one cardinal system may be
identified from the other system by __________.
The differing light colors
One system having odd numbers while the other system has even numbers
One system using horizontal bands while the other system uses vertical
stripes
The difference in the periods of the light

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DPKP

36. Buoys are marked with reflective material to assist in their detection by searchlight.
Which statement is TRUE?
A safe-water buoy will display red and white vertical stripes of reflective
material.
All reflective material is white because it is the most visible at night.
A special-purpose mark will display either red or green reflective material to
agree with its shape.
A preferred-channel buoy displays either red or green reflective material to
agree with the top band of color.

37. You are entering port and have been instructed to anchor, as your berth is not yet
available. You are on a SW'ly heading, preparing to drop anchor, when you observe
the range lights, as shown, on your starboard beam. You should __________.
Ensure your ship will NOT block the channel or obstruct the range while at
anchor
Drop the anchor immediately as the range lights mark an area free of
obstructions
Drop the anchor immediately as a change in the position of the range lights
will be an indication of dragging anchor
NOT drop the anchor until the lights are in line

38. To make sure of getting the full advantage of a favorable current, you should reach
an entrance or strait at which time in relation to the predicted time of the favorable
current?
One hour after
At the predicted time
30 minutes before
30 minutes before flood, one hour after an ebb

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DPKP

39. In a narrow channel, you are underway on vessel "A" and desire to overtake vessel
"B". After you sound two short blasts on your whistle, vessel "B" sounds five short
and rapid blasts on the whistle. You should __________.
Pass with caution on the port side of vessel "B"
Hold your relative position, and then sound another signal after the situation
has stabilized
Answer the five short blast signal then stop your vessel until the other vessel
initiates a signal
Slow or stop and expect radical maneuvers from "B"

40. A vessel proceeding downstream in a narrow channel on the Western Rivers sights
another vessel moving upstream. Which vessel has the right of way?
The vessel moving upstream against the current
The vessel moving downstream with a following current
The vessel located more towards the channel centerline
The vessel sounding the first whistle signal

41. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her
on your starboard side. You may __________.
Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage
Proceed to overtake her without sounding whistle signals
Sound five short blasts
All of the above

42. A vessel displaying a flashing blue light is __________.


Transferring dangerous cargo
A law enforcement vessel
A work boat
Engaged in a race

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DPKP

43. Which statement is TRUE concerning narrow channels?


You should keep to that side of the channel which is on your port side.
You should avoid anchoring in a narrow channel.
A vessel having a following current will propose the manner of passage in
any case where two vessels are meeting.
All of the above

44. Which term is NOT defined in the Inland Navigation Rules?


Seaplane
Restricted visibility
Underway
Vessel constrained by her draft

45. You have made your vessel up to a tow and are moving from a pier out into the
main channel. Your engines are turning ahea What whistle signal should you
sound?
One prolonged and two short blasts
Three long blasts
One prolonged blast
Five or more short rapid blasts

46. Under the Inland Navigation Rules, what is the meaning of the two short blasts
signal used when meeting another vessel?
"I am turning to starboar"
"I am turning to port."
"I intend to leave you on my starboard side."
"I intend to leave you on my port side."

47. A power-driven vessel crossing a river on the Western Rivers has the right of way
over __________.
Vessels ascending the river
Vessels descending the river
All vessels ascending and descending the river
None of the above
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DPKP

48. Which lights are required for a barge, not part of a composite unit, being pushed
ahead?
Sidelights and a stern light
Sidelights, a special flashing light, and a stern light
Sidelights and a special flashing light
Sidelights, a towing light, and a stern light

49. A power-driven vessel operating in a narrow channel with a following current on


the Great Lakes or Western Rivers is meeting an upbound vessel. Which statement
is TRUE?
The downbound vessel has the right-of-way.
The downbound vessel must initiate the required maneuvering signals.
The downbound vessel must propose the manner and place of passage.
All of the above

50. Your vessel is proceeding down a channel, and can safely navigate only within the
channel. Another vessel is crossing your bow from port to starboard, and you are in
doubt as to her intentions. Which statement is TRUE?
The sounding of the danger signal is optional.
The sounding of the danger signal is mandatory.
You should sound two short blasts.
You should sound one prolonged and two short blasts.

51. The stand-on vessel in a crossing situation sounds one short blast of the whistle.
This means that the vessel __________.
Intends to hold course and speed
Is changing course to starboard
Is changing course to port
Intends to leave the other on her port side

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DPKP

52. You are crossing the course of another vessel which is to your starboar You have
reached an agreement by radiotelephone to pass astern of the other vessel. You
MUST __________.
Sound one short blast
Sound two short blasts
Change course to starboard
None of the above

53. Passing signals shall be sounded on inland waters by __________.


All vessels upon sighting another vessel rounding a bend in the channel
Towing vessel when meeting another towing vessel on a clear day with a 0.6
mile CPA (Closest Point of Approach)
A power-driven vessel when crossing less than half a mile ahead of another
power-driven vessel
All of the above

54. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you
should exchange __________.
One short blast, alter course to port, and pass starboard to starboard
One short blast, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port
Two short blasts, alter course to port, and pass starboard to starboard
Two short blasts, alter course to starboard, and pass port to port

55. A fleet of moored barges extends into a navigable channel. What is the color of the
lights on the barges?
Red
Amber
White
Yellow

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DPKP

56. At night, a light signal consisting of two flashes by a vessel indicates __________.
An intention to communicate over radiotelephone
That the vessel is in distress
An intention to leave another vessel to port
An intention to leave another vessel to starboard

57. You are overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel and wish to leave her
on your starboard side. You may __________.
Proceed to overtake her without sounding whistle signals
Attempt to contact her on the radiotelephone to arrange for the passage
Sound four short blasts
Any of the above

58. A barge more than 50 meters long is required to show how many white anchor
lights when anchored in a Secretary approved "special anchorage area"?
2
1
3
None

59. You are on vessel "B" and vessel "A" desires to overtake you on your starboard
side as shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals, you should
__________.
Alter course to the left
Slow your vessel until vessel "A" has passed
Hold course and speed
Alter course to the left or right to give vessel "A" more sea room
60. Which type of vessel is NOT mentioned in the Inland Navigation Rules?
An inconspicuous, partly submerged vessel
A seaplane
An air-cushion vessel
A vessel constrained by her draft

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DPKP

61. You are operating a vessel through a narrow channel and your vessel must stay
within the channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course
from starboard to port, and you are in doubt as to her intentions. You __________.
Must sound the danger signal
Are required to back down
May sound the danger signal
Should sound one short blast to show that you are holding course and speed

62. Your vessel is meeting another vessel head-on. To comply with the rules, you
should exchange __________.
One short blast, alter course to the left, and pass starboard to starboard
Two short blasts, alter course to the left, and pass starboard to starboard
One short blast, alter course to the right, and pass port to port
Two short blasts, alter course to the right, and pass port to port

63. Which indicates the presence of a partly submerged object being towed?
A diamond shape on the towed object
An all-round light at each end of the towed object
A searchlight beamed from the towing vessel in the direction of the tow
All of the above

64. The light used to signal passing intentions is a(n) __________.


All-round white light ONLY
All-round yellow light ONLY
All-round white or yellow light
Light of any color

65. Two vessels in a crossing situation have reached agreement by radiotelephone as to


the intentions of the other. In this situation, whistle signals are __________.
Required
Not required, but may be sounded
Required if crossing within half a mile
Required when crossing within one mile

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DPKP

66. Which statement is TRUE concerning the fog signal of a vessel 15 meters in length,
anchored in a "special anchorage area" approved by the Secretary?
The vessel is not required to sound a fog signal.
The vessel shall ring a bell for 5 seconds every minute.
The vessel shall sound one blast of the foghorn every 2 minutes.
The vessel shall sound three blasts on the whistle every 2 minutes.

67. Power-driven vessel, when leaving a dock or berth, is required to sound


__________.
Four short blasts
One long blast
One prolonged blast
No signal is require

68. Vessels "A" and "B" are meeting on a river as shown and will pass about 1/4 mile
apart. Which statement is TRUE?
Both vessels should continue on course and pass without sounding any
whistle signals.
The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass port to port.
The vessels should exchange two blast whistle signals and pass starboard to
starboar
The vessels should pass port to port and must sound whistle signals only if
either vessel changes course.

69. Whistle signals shall be exchanged by vessels in sight of one another when
__________.
They are passing within half a mile of each other
Passing agreements have been made by radio
Course changes are necessary to pass
Doubt exists as to which side the vessels will pass on

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DPKP

70. You are on vessel "A" and vessel "B" desires to overtake you on the starboard side
as shown. After the vessels have exchanged one blast signals you should
__________.
Alter course to the left
Slow your vessel until vessel "B" has passed
Hold course and speed
Alter course to the left or right to give vessel "B" more sea room

71. Two vessels are meeting on a clear day and will pass less than half a mile apart. In
this situation whistle signals __________.
Must be exchanged
May be exchanged
Must be exchanged if passing agreements have not been made by radio
Must be exchanged only if course changes are necessary by either vessel

72. You are approaching a sharp bend in a river. You have sounded a prolonged blast
and it has been answered by a vessel on the other side of the ben Which statement
is TRUE?
Both vessels must exchange passing signals when in sight and passing
within one-half mile of each other.
No further whistle signals are necessary.
The vessel downriver must stop her engines and navigate with caution.
Both vessels must immediately sound passing signals whether or not they
are in sight of each other.

73. Which statement is TRUE concerning a passing agreement made by


radiotelephone?
Such an agreement is prohibited by the Rules.
A vessel which has made such an agreement must also sound whistle
signals.
Whistle signals must still be exchanged when passing within half a mile of
each other.
If agreement is reached by radiotelephone, whistle signals are optional.

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DPKP

74. INLAND ONLY You are aboard the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation. You
sound a one blast whistle signal. The give-way vessel answers with a two blast
whistle signal. You should sound the danger signal and __________.
Maintain course and speed as you are the stand-on vessel
Come around sharply to port
Take precautionary action until a safe passing agreement is made
Maneuver around the stern of the other vessel

75. IN REGION A of the IALA Buoyage System, when entering from seaward, the
starboard side of a channel would be marked by a __________.
Green conical buoy
Green can buoy
Red can buoy
Red conical buoy

76. What information is NOT found in the chart title?


Survey information
Scale
Date of first edition
Projection

77. When may the automatic identification system (AIS) be switched off?
At anytime as long as it is properly logge
At the Master's professional judgment.
Only when the vessel is at anchor or in port.
Under no circumstance.

78. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How
should this current be treated in determining the position?
The drift should be added to the ship's spee
The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance
the LOP.
The current should be ignore
The set should be applied to the second bearing.
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DPKP

79. The Light List shows that a navigational light has a nominal range of 6 miles and a
height above water of 18 feet (5.5 meters). Your height of eye is 47 feet (14.3
meters) and the visibility is 1.5 miles. At what approximate range will you first
sight the light?
1.5 miles
2.0 miles
6.0 miles
12.7 miles

80. If several navigational lights are visible at the same time, each one may be
positively identified by checking all of the following EXCEPT what against the
Light List?
Rhythm
Period
Intensity
Color

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DPKP

81. Memeliharakeselamatanbernavigasidenganmenggunakaninformasi
yang
diperolehdariperalatandansistemnavigasiuntukmembantumembuat
keputusanperintah.
(Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation
equipment and systems to assist command decision making)

82. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all voyages
The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size
It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in
International Voyages
Over 10 000 dwt

83. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and
followed by a competent bridge team.
All navigational equipment fully functional.
Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used
efficiently
The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and
effective operation

84. What is the main purpose of VTS?


Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of
the environment in the vicinity.
Provide local information to all vessels navigating in
the area
Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the
are
Increase safety for ships participating in VTS

134
DPKP

85. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over
many hours, what management issues should the Master consider?
All of these answers
Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers
Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit
Suitable crew available for lock transits

86. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in
discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local
knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot,
when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team
when deep sea
The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is
therefore not necessary
A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very
familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not
necessary
The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested
in knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning
discussions with the Master.

87. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both
identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen.
Risk is the term to identify a dangerous situation which will affect the ship
Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur
Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur

135
DPKP

88. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
The Panama Canal Authority
The ship's Master
The ship's company
The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be taken
to resolve the emergency situation.

89. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the
Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking
several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What
aspects would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles
visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of
vessel; effectiveness of navigational
equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and
currents and navigational hazards.
Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2
illustrated and reduce speed down to
half speed, approximately 8 knots
Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible
range
A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid
collision and be stopped within an appropriate distance

136
DPKP

90. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship
has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as
illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little
space as possible?
Rudder hard to port, full astern. After
gaining some sternway, rudder hard
to starboard and full ahead
Full ahead, rudder hard to port
Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard
Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea
Rudder hard to port, full astern.
Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made.

91. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which
could be sounded by a __________.
Fishing vessel
Vessel anchored
Mineclearing vessel
Vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel

92. In a crossing situation on international waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel
indicates that the vessel __________.
Is holding course and speed
Is turning to starboard
Intends to pass port to port
Will keep out of the way of the stand-on vessel

93. What day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?


A black cone, apex upward
A black cone, apex downward
Two vertical black balls
A cylinder

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DPKP

94. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________.
Engaged in towing
Constrained by her draft
Under sail
All of the above

95. Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning light signals?


The time between flashes shall be about five seconds.
The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals.
All of the above

96. Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged followed by one short blast?
When overtaking in restricted visibility
When overtaking in a narrow channel
When overtaking on open waters
When no other vessels are in the immediate area

97. In which case would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged
followed by one short blast?
When overtaking in restricted visibility
When overtaking in a narrow channel
When overtaking on open waters
When no other vessels are in the immediate area

98. When vessels are in sight of one another, two short blasts from one of the vessels
means __________.
"I am altering my course to starboard"
"I am altering my course to port"
"I intend to change course to starboard"
"I intend to change course to port"

138
DPKP

99. Which vessel may NOT exhibit two red lights in a vertical line?
A vessel constrained by her draft
A trawler fishing in close proximity to other trawlers
A vessel aground
A dredge

100. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing
course. Vessel "A" __________.
Should sound two short blasts
Should sound the danger signal
Should sound one long blast
Will not sound any whistle signals

101. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
A vessel constrained by her draft
A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
A vessel on pilotage duty
A vessel engaged in fishing

102. Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged and two short blasts?
A vessel not under command
A vessel constrained by her draft
A vessel being towed
A vessel sailing

103. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along
the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention?
No signal is necessary.
Two prolonged blasts
Two short blasts
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts

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DPKP

104. A vessel sounds two short blasts. This signal indicates the vessel __________.
Intends to alter course to port
Intends to pass starboard to starboard
Is altering course to port
Will alter course to port

105. A vessel sounds one short blast. This signal indicates the vessel __________.
Intends to alter course to starboard
Intends to pass starboard to starboard
Is altering course to starboard
Intends to pass port to port

106. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel
astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention
to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding
__________.
One short blast
Two prolonged blasts
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in that order

107. A sailing vessel is overtaking a power-driven vessel in a narrow channel, so as to


pass on the power-driven vessel's port side. The overtaken vessel will have to move
to facilitate passage. The sailing vessel is the __________.
Stand-on vessel and would sound two short blasts
Give-way vessel and would sound no whistle signal
Stand-on vessel and would sound no whistle signal
Give-way vessel and would sound two prolonged blasts followed by
two short blasts

140
DPKP

108. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.


Three all-round red lights
Two 225° red lights
Three all-round blue lights
Two 225° blue lights

109. Two power-driven vessels are meeting. A two blast whistle signal by either
vessel means __________.
"I intend to alter course to port"
"I desire to pass starboard to starboard"
"I desire to pass port to port"
"I am altering course to port"

110. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display
__________.
A single white light forward
Two masthead lights in a vertical line
Two towing lights in a vertical line
Two all-round red lights where they can best be seen

111. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?


She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of
her draft in relation to the available depth of water.
The term applies only to vessels in marked channels.
She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver".
The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.

112. A whistle signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short blast, is
sounded by a vessel __________.
At anchor
Towing a submerged object
Being overtaken in a narrow channel
In distress

141
DPKP

113. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels
are approaching. You should sound __________.
Three short blasts when leaving the slip
One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is
taken aboard
One prolonged blast only
The danger signal

114. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels
are approaching. You should sound __________.
Three short blasts when leaving the slip
One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is
taken aboard
One prolonged blast only
The danger signal

115. Which vessel is to keep out of the way of the others?


A vessel constrained by her draft
A vessel engaged in underwater operations
A vessel engaged in trawling
A vessel not under command

116. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that sounds two short blasts of the
whistle. This signal means that the vessel __________.
Is altering course to port
Is altering course to starboard
Intends to leave you on her port side
Intends to leave you on her starboard side

142
DPKP

117. You are operating a vessel in a narrow channel. Your vessel must stay within the
channel to be navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from starboard
to port, and you are in doubt as to his intentions. According to Rule 9, you
__________.
May sound the danger signal
Must sound one prolonged and two short blasts
Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and
speed
Are required to back down

118. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters as shown and will pass without
changing course. Vessel "A" __________. (DIAGRAM 17 )
Should sound two short blasts
Should sound the danger signal
Should sound one long blast
Need not sound any whistle signals

119. If you sighted three red lights in a vertical line on another vessel at night, it would
be a vessel __________.
Aground
Constrained by her draft
Dredging
Moored over a wreck

120. On open water two vessels are in an overtaking situation. The overtaking vessel has
just sounded one short blast on the whistle. What is the meaning of this whistle
signal?
"I request permission to pass you on my port side."
"I will maintain course and speed and pass you on your starboard side."
"On which side should I pass?"
"I am changing course to starboar"

143
DPKP

121. You are underway in fog and hear a fog signal consisting of one prolonged and two
short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel __________.
Engaged in mineclearance
Engaged in fishing
Constrained by her draft
Being towed

122. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her
draft?
A vessel not under command
A fishing vessel
A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
All of the above

123. A signal of one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast, in that
order is given by a vessel __________.
Engaged on pilotage duty
In distress
At anchor
Being overtaken in a narrow channel

124. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another and NOT in or
near an area of restricted visibility?
Four short blasts on the whistle
One prolonged blast on the whistle
One short blast on the whistle
One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle

125. In addition to her running lights, an underway vessel constrained by her draft may
carry in a vertical line __________.
A red light, a white light, and a red light
Two red lights
Two white lights
Three red lights
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DPKP

126. Which vessel is NOT regarded as being "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A vessel servicing an aid to navigation
A vessel engaged in dredging
A towing vessel with tow unable to deviate from its course
A vessel constrained by her draft

127. When two vessels are in sight of one another and NOT in or near an area of
restricted visibility, any of the following signals may be given EXCEPT
__________.
A light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short whistle blasts
Four short whistle blasts
Two short whistle blasts

128. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to PASS on the other
vessel's port side would sound __________.
One prolonged followed by two short blasts
One short blast
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
Two short blasts

129. Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast on the whistle is a signal which
would be sounded by a vessel __________.
Overtaking another in a narrow channel
Anchored
Engaged in mineclearance
Engaged in fishing

130. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along
the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention?
Two short blasts followed by two prolonged blasts
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
Two prolonged blasts only
Two short blasts only
145
DPKP

131. You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel, and you intend to pass along
the vessel's port side. How should you signal your intention?
Two short blasts followed by two prolonged blasts
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
Two prolonged blasts only
Two short blasts only

132. You are underway in a narrow channel, and you are being overtaken by a vessel
astern. After the overtaking vessel sounds the proper signal indicating his intention
to pass your vessel on your starboard side, you signal your agreement by sounding
__________.
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast
One short blast
Two prolonged blasts

133. Vessel "A" is overtaking vessel "B" on open waters and will pass without changing
course. Vessel "A" should __________.
Sound two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts
Sound the danger signal
Not sound any whistle signals
Sound one long blast

134. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another?


One short blast on the whistle
Four short blasts on the whistle
One prolonged blast on the whistle
One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle

135. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle must be __________.
Used when the whistle is broken
A white light
Used only at night
Used prior to sounding the whistle
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DPKP

136. Which statement is TRUE concerning light signals?


The time between flashes shall be about five seconds.
The light signals are to be used when not using sound signals.
The time between successive signals shall be not less than ten seconds.
All of the above

137. While underway and in sight of another vessel, you put your engines full speed
astern. Which statement concerning whistle signals is TRUE?
You must sound three short blasts on the whistle.
You must sound one blast if backing to starboar
You must sound whistle signals only if the vessels are meeting.
You need not sound any whistle signals.

138. While underway at night, a power-driven vessel of less than 7 meters in length,
whose maximum speed which does not exceed 7 knots, may show __________.
Sidelights combined in a single lantern, only
An all-round flashing yellow light, only
One all-round white light, only
A lantern showing a white light exhibited in sufficient time to
prevent collision, only

139. At night, a power-driven vessel less than 7 meters in length, with a maximum speed
which does not exceed 7 knots, MUST show when underway at least __________.
One white 360° light
A white light on the near approach of another vessel
Sidelights and a stern light
The lights required of a vessel less than 12 meters in length

140. Lighting requirements in inland waters are different from those for international
waters for __________.
Barges being pushed ahead
Vessels restricted in their ability to maneuver
Vessels towing astern
Barges being towed astern
147
DPKP

141. A 20-meter power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing alongside will display
__________.
Two towing lights in a vertical line
A towing light above the stern light
Two all-round red lights at the masthead
Two masthead lights in a vertical line

142. BOTH INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A towing light __________.


Flashes at regular intervals of 50-70 flashes per minute
Is yellow in color
Shows an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of not less than 180°
nor more than 225°
All of the above

143. A towing light is ____________ .


Shown below the stern light
White in color
Displayed at the masthead
A yellow light having the same characteristics as the stern light

144. A light used to signal passing intentions must be an __________.


Alternating red and yellow light
Alternating white and yellow light
All-round white or yellow light
All-round white light only

145. A vessel constrained by her draft may display __________.


Three all-round red lights instead of the lights required for a power-
driven vessel of her class
The same lights as a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
Three all-round red lights in addition to the lights required for a power-
driven vessel of her class
The lights for a power-driven vessel which is not under command

148
DPKP

146. Which day-shape is prescribed for a vessel constrained by her draft?


A black diamond
A cylinder
A black ball
A black cone, apex upward

147. If at night a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line, during the
day she may show __________.
Two cones, base to base
Three black balls in a vertical line
A cylinder
A cone, apex downward

148. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________.


Restricted in her ability to maneuver
Not under command
Engaged in mineclearing operations
Constrained by her draft

149. The International Rules of the Road apply __________.


To all waters
To any waters inside the territorial waters of the U.S.
Only to waters where foreign vessels travel
Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels

150. Which statement applies to a vessel "constrained by her draft"?


The term only applies to vessels in narrow channels.
She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course because of
her draft in relation to the available depth and width of navigable water.
She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver".
The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.

149
DPKP

151. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"?


She is hampered because of her work.
She is unable to maneuver due to some exceptional circumstance.
She may be a vessel being towe
She must be a power-driven vessel.

152. Which vessel is NOT "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?


A vessel servicing an aid to navigation
A vessel constrained by her draft
A towing vessel with tow, unable to deviate from its course
A vessel engaged in dredging

153. Your vessel is constrained by her draft and operating in a narrow channel. Another
vessel is crossing your course from starboard to port. You are in doubt as to her
intentions. According to Rule 9, you __________.
Should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding course and
speed
Must sound one prolonged blast
May sound the danger signal
Are required to back down

154. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and
crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. You should __________.
Hold your course and speed
Not impede the other vessel
Exchange passing signals
Sound the danger signal

150
DPKP

155. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor. Visibility is restricte You should
sound __________.
One prolonged blast only
One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is
taken aboard
One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when leaving the
slip the danger signal

156. You are approaching another vessel and will pass safely starboard to starboard
without changing course. You should __________.
Hold course and sound no whistle signal
Hold course and sound a two blast whistle signal
Change course to starboard and sound one blast
Hold course and sound one blast

157. Which statement is TRUE concerning a situation involving a fishing vessel and a
vessel not under command?
They are required to communicate by radiotelephone.
If the vessel not under command is a power-driven vessel, she must
keep clear of the fishing vessel.
The fishing vessel must keep out of the way of the vessel not under comman
Both vessels are required to take action to stay clear of each other.

158. Of the vessels listed, which must keep out of the way of all the others?
A vessel constrained by her draft
A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
A vessel pushing a barge
A vessel engaged in fishing

151
DPKP

159. Which vessel shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a vessel constrained by her
draft?
A vessel not under command
A sailing vessel
A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
All of the above

160. A signal of intent must be sounded in international waters by __________.


A vessel meeting another head-on
A vessel overtaking another in a narrow channel
A vessel crossing the course of another
The give-way vessel in a crossing situation

161. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the
whistle. You should __________.
Sound two blasts and change course to the left
Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted
Sound whistle signals only if you change course
Not sound any whistle signals until the other vessel is sighted

162. A towing vessel and her tow are severely restricted in their ability to change course.
When making way, the towing vessel will show ONLY __________.
The masthead lights for a towing vessel
The lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
Sidelights, stern light, and towing light
All of the above.

163. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST __________.
Take all way off, if necessary
Stop your engines
Begin a radar plot
All of the above

152
DPKP

164. A fog signal of one short, one prolonged, and one short blast may be sounded by a
__________.
Vessel not under command
Vessel at anchor
Vessel towing
All of the above

165. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST __________.
Stop your engines
Take all way off, if necessary
Begin a radar plot
All of the above

166. A vessel may enter a traffic separation zone __________.


In an emergency
To engage in fishing within the zone
To cross the traffic separation scheme
All of the above

167. In a traffic separation scheme, when joining a traffic lane from the side, a vessel
shall do so __________.
At as small an angle as possible
As nearly as practical at right angles to the general direction of traffic flow
Only in case of an emergency or to engage in fishing within the zone
never

168. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to __________.


Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
Engaged in fishing in the separation zone
Cross a traffic lane
Enter the separation zone, even in a emergency

153
DPKP

169. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme is forbidden to __________.


Proceed through an inappropriate traffic lane
Engaged in fishing in the separation zone
Cross a traffic lane
Enter the separation zone, even in a emergency

170. To indicate that a vessel is constrained by her draft, a vessel may display, in a
vertical line, __________.
Three 360° red lights
Two 225° red lights
Three 360° blue lights
Two 225° blue lights

171. In addition to other required lights, a power-driven vessel pushing ahead or towing
alongside displays __________.
Two all-round red lights in a vertical line
Two yellow towing lights in a vertical line
Two white masthead lights in a vertical line
Two lights on the stern, one yellow and one white

172. Which statement is true concerning a vessel "constrained by her draft"?


She must be a power-driven vessel.
She is not under comman
She may be a vessel being towe
She is hampered because of her work.

173. When moving from a berth alongside a quay (wharf), a vessel must sound
__________.
Three short blasts
A long blast
A prolonged blast
No signal is require

154
DPKP

174. You are in charge of a 250-meter freight vessel constrained by her draft proceeding
down a narrow channel. There is a vessel engaged in fishing on your starboard bow
half a mile away. According to Rule 9, which statement is TRUE?
You are not to impede the fishing vessel.
If you are in doubt as to the fishing vessel's intentions you may sound
at least five short and rapid blasts on the whistle.
You are to slow to bare steerageway until clear of the fishing vessel.
You must sound one prolonged blast to alert the fishing vessel.

175. The International Rules of the Road apply __________.


To all waters which are not inland waters
Only to waters outside the territorial waters of the United States
Only to waters where foreign vessels travel
Upon the high seas and connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels

176. A towing light is __________.


Shown at the bow
White in color
Shown in addition to the stern light
An all-round light

177. In a narrow channel, an overtaking vessel which intends to pass on the other
vessel's port side would sound __________.
One prolonged followed by two short blasts
One short blast
Two short blasts
Two prolonged followed by two short blasts

155
DPKP

178. You are underway on the high seas in restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal of
one prolonged and two short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a
vessel __________.
Minesweeping
Engaged in fishing
Constrained by her draft
Being towed

179. A vessel displaying three red lights in a vertical line is __________.


Not under command
Aground
Dredging
Constrained by her draft

180. At night, a power-driven vessel underway of less than 7 meters in length where its
maximum speed does not exceed 7 knots may show, as a minimum, __________.
Sidelights and a stern light
The lights required for a vessel more than 7 meters in length
Sidelights only
One all-round white light

181. In a narrow channel, a signal of intent which must be answered by the other vessel,
is sounded by a vessel __________.
Meeting another head-on
Crossing the course of another
Overtaking another
Any of the above

182. When two vessels are in sight of one another, all of the following signals may be
given EXCEPT __________.
A light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes
Four short whistle blasts
One prolonged, one short, one prolonged and one short whistle blasts
Two short whistle blasts
156
DPKP

183. A power-driven vessel leaving a quay or wharf must sound what signal?
Three short blasts
A long blast
A prolonged blast
No signal is require

184. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded when two vessels are meeting, but
will pass clear starboard to starboard?
One short blast
Two short blasts
Five or more short blasts
No signal is require

185. In a narrow channel, a vessel trying to overtake another on the other vessel's port
side, would sound a whistle signal of __________.
One short blast
Two short blasts
Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast
Two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts

186. On open water, a power-driven vessel coming up dead astern of another vessel and
altering her course to starboard so as to pass on the starboard side of the vessel
ahead would sound __________.
Two short blasts
One short blast
Two prolonged blasts followed by one short blast
One long and one short blast

187. If a vessel displays three all-round red lights in a vertical line at night, during the
day she may show __________.
Three balls in a vertical line
A cylinder
Two diamonds in a vertical line
Two cones, apexes together
157
DPKP

188. A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel __________.
Towing
Constrained by her draft
Under sail
All of the above

189. Your vessel is crossing a narrow channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and
crossing your course. She is showing a black cylinder. What is your responsibility?
Hold your course and spee
Sound the danger signal.
Begin an exchange of passing signals.
Do not cross the channel if you might impede the other vessel.

190. You are approaching another vessel and will pass starboard to starboard without
danger if no course changes are made. You should __________.
Hold course and sound a two blast whistle signal
Hold course and sound no whistle signal
Change course to the right and sound one blast
Hold course and sound two prolonged and two short blasts

191. A fishing vessel is approaching a vessel not under comman Which statement is
TRUE?
The fishing vessel must keep clear of the vessel not under comman
If the vessel not under command is a power-driven vessel, she must
keep clear of the fishing vessel.
They must exchange whistle signals.
Both vessels are required to take action to stay clear of each other.

192. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power-driven vessel ONLY?


A signal meaning, "I am altering my course to starboar"
A signal meaning, "I intend to overtake you on your starboard side."
A signal meaning that the vessel sounding it is in doubt as to the other
vessel's actions.
A signal sounded when approaching a ben
158
DPKP

112. The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle is to be __________.
A. Used when the whistle is broken
B. Used prior to sounding the whistle
C. Used only at night
D. A white light

159
DPKP

193. Memelihara keselamatan navigasi dengan menggunakan ECDIS


dan sistem navigasi yang terkait untuk mendukung pengambilan
keputusan perintah.
(Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and
associated navigation systems to assist command decision making)

194. A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of
determining positions and include which of the following?
All of these suggested answers
Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing
Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational
marks
Positions determined by GPS and plotted on
the ECDIS

195. Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?


Yes
No
Only if approved by the Flag State
Only if approved by the owner

196. Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or
river, when under pilot?
A passage plan is always required,
irrespective of the length of the
voyage, or if the ship is under pilot
A passage plan is required for all
deep sea passages, but not for
transiting a canal under pilotage.
A passage plan is required only
when there is no pilot on board
A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot
station at the destination.

160
DPKP

197. Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be


supervised by:
A responsible Officer
An experienced AB
The Bosun
The Sen.Off.Deck only

198. SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations,
Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?
All vessels and on all voyages
The Convention only applies to ships over a
certain size
It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged
in International Voyages
Over 10 000 dwt

199. What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?
An effective detailed passage plan
fully understood and followed by a
competent bridge team.
All navigational equipment fully
functional.
Bridge equipment effectively
operating and being used efficiently
The bridge equipment includes
ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in
full and effective operation

161
DPKP

200. What is the main purpose of VTS?


Increase the safety of all ships and
the protection of the environment
in the vicinity.
Provide local information to all
vessels navigating in the area
Improve the scheduling and traffic
movement in the are
Increase safety for ships
participating in VTS

201. When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over
many hours, what management issues should the Master consider?
All of these answers
Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers
Fully manned engine room throughout the
canal transit
Suitable crew available for lock transits

202. When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in
discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local
knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?
A passage plan should be discussed between
the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in
the same way as discussed with the bridge
team when deep sea
The passage is well established and known by
the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary
A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very
familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not
necessary
The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in
knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning
discussions with the Master.
162
DPKP

203. When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with a paper chart,
what Chart Datum should be selected?
Select WGS84 and when plotting
on the chart apply the stated
corrections.
Select the datum stated on the chart
in use
WGS78 and input the corrections
stated on the chart into the GPS
WGS84 and plot the readout
position directly on the chart

204. When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers
would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding
the courses to steer?
The anticipated weather and the
need for weather routing. The
distances gained by sailing by great
circle. The ship's draught and the
loadline limits
The anticipated weather with the
possibility of encountering ice and
the need for weather routing. The
prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds
The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the
need to arrive within prescribed schedule
The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic
density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits

163
DPKP

205. Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?
Risk is a situation involving
exposure to danger and includes
both identification of the occurrence
and the likelihood that it will
happen.
Risk is the term to identify a
dangerous situation which will
affect the ship
Risk is the possibility that a
dangerous situation is likely to
occur
Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur

206. While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships
position by four different methods and they all give slightly different positions.
Which of the following would be considered the most accurate.
Radar ranges from two radar destinctive
headlands
GPS set on WGS84 datum
Bearing and distance from a navigation
buoy close to the vessel
Gyro compass bearings from two
lighthouses

207. Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the
event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?
The Panama Canal Authority
The ship's Master
The ship's company
The Master and Pilot will agree the
best course of action to be taken to
resolve the emergency situation.

164
DPKP

208. You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the
Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking
several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects
would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel?
Deciding safe speed consider: 2
miles visibility; traffic density;
manoeuvrability of vessel;
effectiveness of navigational
equipment (ARPA etc); state of
sea and currents and navigational
hazards.
Adjust my track to follow Route
1 or 2 illustrated and reduce
speed down to half speed,
approximately 8 knots
Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible
range
A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid
collision and be stopped within an appropriate distance

209. Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship
has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as
illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little
space as possible?
Rudder hard to port, full astern. After
gaining some sternway, rudder hard to
starboard and full ahead
Full ahead, rudder hard to port
Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard
Rudder hard to starboard, full ahea Rudder hard to port, full astern.
Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made

165
DPKP

210. If the electronic chart is part of an ECDIS, it must display the minimum data
required by IMO/IHO, to include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Hydrography
Aids to navigation
Tidal currents
Regulatory boundaries

211. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required
by IMO/IHO?
Hydrography
Ferry routes
Regulatory boundaries
All of the above

212. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include __________.
Vector only
Raster only
Vector and raster
Imposed viewing

213. Raster-scan chart data is __________.


The only format recognized by IMO/IHO
Organized into many separate files
Composed of files that are smaller than vector files
A digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer

214. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?
ECDIS warnings and messages
Hydrographic Office data
Notice to Mariners information
All of the above

166
DPKP

215. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?
Notice to Mariners information
ECDIS warnings and messages
Ship hydrodynamic information
Hydrographic Office data

216. The database resulting from (1) the transformation of the electronic navigational
chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use, (2) the updates to the ENC by
appropriate means, and (3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the
__________.
Display base information
Standard display information
System electronic navigational chart
Chart display information

217. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on
ECDIS is the __________.
Display base information
Standard display information
System electronic nautical chart
Chart display information

218. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS
display and consists of information which is required at all times in all geographic
areas and under all circumstances is the __________.
Display base information
Standard display information
System electronic nautical chart
Chart display information

167
DPKP

219. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?
When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to
cross a safety contour
If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to
cross the boundary of a prohibited area
All of the above

220. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?
If the ship is going to reach a critical point on the planned route
When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit
If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit
All of the above

221. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?
When the speed of a dangerous target exceeds a set limit
When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
If the ship's ETA has changed beyond the set limit
None of the above

222. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of
information originated by a government-authorized hydrographic office and
conform to the standards of (the) __________.
International Maritime Organization
International Hydrographic Organization
NASA
US Coast Guard

223. An ECDIS is required to display which information?


Radar targets
ARPA vectors
Hydrographic data
All of the above

168
DPKP

224. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the
previous __________.
4 hours
6 hours
12 hours
24 hours

225. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?


Position
Electronic navigational chart source
Course made good history
All of the above

226. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should
provide, at a minimum, __________.
An indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded
A warning of loss of position
A differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals
All of the above

227. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy
equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver capability?
Transit
Selective Availability
Auto-correlation
Anti-spoofing

228. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________.


DGPS, within a coverage area
SPS, without selective availability
PPS, without selective availability
NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift

169
DPKP

229. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from
several satellites simultaneously?
Sequential
Continuous
Multiplex
None of the above

230. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS
receiver need in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position?
Five
Four
Three
Two

231. An ECDIS is required to display which information?


Soundings
Waypoints
Meteorological data
Radar targets

232. An ECDIS is required to display which information?


Water temperature
Climatology data
Speed of advance
Depth contours

233. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?


Course made good history
Estimated time of arrival
Speed through the water
Shaft RPM

170
DPKP

234. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should
provide, at a minimum, __________.
A warning of loss of position
A cross-track error alarm
An indication of a change in satellite configuration
An alarm if engine speed is suddenly reduced

235. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should
provide, at a minimum, __________.
An alarm if engine speed is suddenly increased
An alarm if a new position has not been calculated within the last two
seconds
An indication of a change in the number of satellites
None of the above.

236. As a licensed Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to __________.


Obtain a weather forecast before setting out from port
Listen to weather forecasts on the radio while enroute
Understand all broadcast weather warning information
All of the above

237. NOAA VHF weather reports are continuously broadcast on VHF channels WX-1,
WX-2 and WX-3 on a frequency of __________.
156.8, 157.1, 162.55 mhz
162.55, 162.00, 171.5 khz
162.55, 162.40, 162.475 mhz
2182, 2638, 2670 khz

238. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform?


Conversion of "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
Transformation of local datum to WGS-'84 datum
Calculation of true azimuth and distance between two geographical points
All of the above

171
DPKP

239. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT __________.
Determine true bearing and distance between two geographical points
Determine magnetic compass deviation
Transform a local datum to the WGS-'84 datum
Convert "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"

240. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous
__________.
4 hours
6 hours
12 hours
24 hours

172
DPKP

8. Ramalan cuaca dan kondisi laut.


(Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions)

241. Wind velocity varies __________.


Directly with the temperature of the air mass
Directly with the pressure gradient
Inversely with the barometric pressure
Inversely with the absolute humidity

242. What wind reverses directions seasonally?


Monsoon winds
Hooked trades
Jet stream
Secondary winds
243. What wind reverses directions seasonally?
Monsoon winds
Hooked trades
Jet stream
Secondary winds

244. A strong, often violent, northerly wind occurring on the Pacific coast of
Mexico, particularly during the colder months, is called __________.
Tehuantepecer
Papagayo
Norther
Pampero

173
DPKP

245. What will a veering wind do?


Change direction in a clockwise manner in the Northern Hemisphere
Circulate about a low pressure center in a counterclockwise manner in the
Northern Hemisphere
Vary in strength constantly and unpredictably
Circulate about a high pressure center in a clockwise manner in
the Southern Hemisphere

246. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing. In the
Northern Hemisphere, this would indicate that it will __________.
Shift in a clockwise manner
Shift in a counterclockwise manner
Continue blowing from the same direction
Decrease in velocity

247. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. In the
Northern Hemisphere this indicates that the wind will __________.
Shift in a clockwise manner
Shift in a counterclockwise manner
Continue blowing from the same direction
Increase in velocity

248. You are enroute to Jacksonville, FL, from San Juan, P.R. There is a fresh n'ly
wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to
encounter
__________.
Smoother seas and warmer water
Steeper waves, closer together
Long swells
Cirrus clouds
174
DPKP

249. A local wind which occurs during the daytime and is caused by the different
rates of warming of land and water is a __________.
Foehn
Chinook
Land breeze
Sea breeze

250. Which wind results from a land mass cooling more quickly at night
than an adjacent water area?
Coastal breeze
Sea breeze
Land breeze
Mistral

251. A katabatic wind blows __________.


Up an incline due to surface heating
In a circular pattern
Down an incline due to cooling of the air
Horizontally between a high and a low pressure area

252. The most common form of solid precipitation is


Snow
Sleet
Glaze Ice
Hail

253. A cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo- or the suffix –nimbus is
High
Layere
Precipitation-free
Rain-producing

175
DPKP

254. What air masses generally move eastward, toward Europe?


Maritime tropical Pacific
Maritime tropical Atlantic
Maritime polar Pacific
Maritime polar Atlantic

255. Which Beaufort force indicates a wind speed of 65 knots?


Beaufort force 0
Beaufort force 6.5
Beaufort force 12
Beaufort force 15

256. In reading a weather map, closely spaced pressure gradient lines would indicate
__________.
High winds
High overcast clouds
Calm or light winds
Fog or steady rain

257. On the pole side of the high pressure belt in each hemisphere, the pressure
diminishes. The winds along these gradients are diverted by the Earth's rotation
toward the east and are known as the __________.
Geostrophic winds
Doldrums
Horse latitudes
Prevailing westerlies

258. Storms along a cold front are usually short-lived and sometimes violent,
while storms along a warm front
are short-lived and weak.
produce precipitation over a large area, and are sometimes violent.
are narrow, producing little rain and are always violent.
are long-lived, but always weak.

176
DPKP

259. Which of the following statements describes what happens when the sun
heats water and land?
Land heats more slowly than water does.
Water heats more slowly than land does.
Water and land absorb heat from the sun at the same rate.
Both absorb heat at the same rate, but water releases it faster.

260. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal
weather systems over the North American continent?
Subpolar easterlies
Northeast trades
Prevailing westerlies
Dominant southwesterly flow

261. In the doldrums you will NOT have __________.


High relative humidity
Frequent showers and thunderstorms
Steep pressure gradients
Frequent calms

262. The dew point is the temperature at which the rate of condensation
equals the rate of evaporation.
exceeds the rate of evaporation.
lowers the rate of evaporation.
raises the rate of evaporation.

263. The area of strong westerly winds occurring between 40°S and 60°S
latitude is called the __________.
Polar easterlies
Prevailing westerlies
Roaring forties
Jet streams

177
DPKP

264. The winds you would expect to encounter in the North Atlantic between
latitudes 5° and 30° are known as the __________.
Doldrums
Westerlies
Trades
Easterlies

265. The West Wind Drift is located __________.


Near 60°S
On each side of the Equatorial Current
In the North Atlantic between Greenland and Europe
In the South Pacific near 5°S

266. The prevailing winds in the band of latitude from approximately 5°N to
30°N are the __________.
Prevailing westerlies
Northeast trade winds
Southeast trade winds
Doldrums

267. The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the
equatorial currents are the __________.
Doldrums
Horse latitudes
Trade winds
Prevailing westerlies

268. Continental polar, maritime polar, continental tropical, and maritime


tropical are types of
air fronts.
air masses.
air systems.
air flow.

178
DPKP

269. Weather map symbols H and L indicate


precipitation.
temperature range.
air pressure centers.
wind velocity.

270. The belt of light and variable winds between the westerly wind belt
and the northeast trade winds is called the __________.
Subtropical high pressure belt
Intertropical convergence zone
Doldrum belt
Polar frontal zone

271. Fog differs from clouds in that fog


forms closer to the groun
forms in saturated air.
requires no condensation nuclei.
contains many ice crystals.

272. Lightning causes a rapid expansion and collapse of the air that produces
thunder.
cyclones.
hail.
rain.

273. You are enroute to Savannah, GA, from Recife, Brazil. There is a strong n'ly
wind blowing. As you cross the axis of the Gulf Stream you would expect to
encounter
__________.
Cirrus clouds
Long swells
Smoother seas and warmer water
Steeper waves, closer together
179
DPKP

274. Which of the following is not one of the three properties used by
meteorologists to classify clouds.
Basic, Shape
Cloud, Composition
Height, Ground
Whether or not precipitation is generated

275. Fog and stratus clouds are most common during which of the following
times of day.
Late, evening
Late, afternoon
Early, morning
Early, afternoon

276. Large-scale circulation systems, fronts, and thunderstorms are the primary
source of which of the following cloud types.
Middle and high clouds
Low and middle clouds
Low and high clouds
High and middle clouds

277. High-cloud tops generally are limited by the height of the;


Mesopause
Stratopause
Mesosphere
Tropopause

278. The names of all three high-cloud genera contain which of the following
words in some form.
Alto
Cumulus
Cirrus
Stratus

180
DPKP

279. The least common of the 10 cloud genera is:


Cumulonimbus
Cirrocumulus
Altostratus
Nimbrostratus

280. Which of the following would not be true concerning temperature change
taking place in a parcel of air at the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
The temperature rises as the parcel
The parcel does not gain or receive heat from its surroundings
Condensation does not occur during the process
The temperarute falls as the parcel rises

281. Which of the following is true of a parcel of air but not true of theenvironment.
Temperature values differ erratically from one level to the next
Consists of different air molecules at each level
Humidity values differ erratically from one level to the next
Changes temperature with altitude at either the dry or moist adiabatic rates

282. Lenticular and stratiform clouds are caused in stable air by:
Entrainment
Surface heating
Orographic lifting
Buoyancy

283. Which of the following fog types is composed of unstable clouds.


Radiation fog
Evaporaton fog
Advenction fog
Orographic fog

181
DPKP

284. If your weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure area to be 100
miles due east of your position, what winds can you expect in the Northern
Hemisphere?
East to northeast
East to southeast
North to northwest
South to southeast

285. The direction of the southeast trade winds is a result of the __________.
Equatorial current
Humidity
Rotation of the earth
Change of seasons

286. When facing into the wind in the Northern Hemisphere the center of low
pressure lies __________.
Directly in front of you
Directly behind you
To your left and behind you
To your right and behind you

287. The steady current circling the globe at about 60°S is the __________.
Prevailing Westerly
Sub-Polar Flow
West Wind Drift
Humboldt Current

288. During the winter months, the southeast trade winds are __________.
Stronger than during the summer months
Weaker than during the summer months
Drier than during the summer months
Wetter than during the summer months
182
DPKP

289. If a weather bulletin shows the center of a low pressure system to be 100 miles
due east of you, what winds can you expect in the Southern Hemisphere?
South-southwesterly
North-northwesterly
South-southeasterly
North-northeasterly

290. The usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves


in the Southern Hemisphere is __________.
Northwest, west, and south
Southwest, south, and southeast
North, northwest, and east
West, northwest, and north

291. Severe tropical cyclones (hurricanes, typhoons) occur in all warm-water


oceans except the __________.
Indian Ocean
North Pacific Ocean
South Pacific Ocean
South Atlantic Ocean

292. When a hurricane passes over colder water or land and loses its
tropical characteristics, the storm becomes a(n) __________.
High pressure area
Extratropical low-pressure system
Tropical storm
Easterly wave

183
DPKP

293. You are attempting to locate your position relative to a hurricane in the
Northern Hemisphere. If the wind direction remains steady, but with
diminishing velocity, you are most likely __________.
In the right semicircle
In the left semicircle
On the storm track ahead of the center
On the storm track behind the center

294. The rise and fall of the ocean's surface due to a distant storm is known as
__________.
Sea
Waves
Fetch
Swell
295. What kind of weather would you expect to accompany the passage of a
tropical wave?
Heavy rain and cloudiness
Good weather
A tropical storm
Dense fog

296. Tropical cyclones are classified by form and intensity. Which system
does not have closed isobars?
Hurricane
Tropical disturbance
Tropical depression
Cyclone

184
DPKP

297. In the Northern Hemisphere, what type of cloud formations would you
expect to see to the west of an approaching tropical wave?
Cumulus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest
direction
High altostratus clouds in the morning hours
Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a northeast to southwest
direction
Cirrostratus clouds lined up in rows extending in a north to south direction

298. Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________.
North to south
West to east
East to west
None of the above

299. In the Northern Hemisphere you are caught in the dangerous semicircle with
plenty of sea room available. The best course of action is to bring the wind on the
__________.
Starboard bow and make as much headway as possible
Starboard quarter, and make as much headway as possible
Port quarter, and make as much headway as possible
Port bow, and make as much headway as possible

300. Current refers to the __________.


Vertical movement of the water
Horizontal movement of the water
Density changes in the water
None of the above

185
DPKP

301. Monsoons are characterized by __________.


Light, variable winds with little or no humidity
Strong, gusty winds that blow from the same general direction all year
Steady winds that reverse direction semiannually
Strong, cyclonic winds that change direction to conform to the passage of
an extreme low pressure system

302. In the Northern Hemisphere, your vessel is believed to be in the direct path of
a hurricane, and plenty of sea room is available. The best course of action is to
bring the wind on the __________.
Starboard bow, note the course, and head in that direction
Starboard quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
Port quarter, note the course, and head in that direction
Port bow, note the course, and head in that direction

303. What level of development of a tropical cyclone has a hundred mile


radius of circulation, gale force winds, less than 990 millibars of pressure and
vertically formed cumulonimbus clouds?
A tropical disturbance
A tropical depression
A tropical storm
A typhoon

304. The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a(n) __________.


Easterly direction
Westerly direction
Northerly direction
Southerly direction

305. A steep barometric gradient indicates __________.


Calms
Light winds
Strong winds
Precipitation
186
DPKP

306. A sea breeze is a wind __________.


That blows towards the sea at night
That blows towards an island during the day
Caused by cold air descending a coastal incline
Caused by the distant approach of a hurricane

307. What is the FIRST sign of the existence of a well developed tropical cyclone?
Gale force winds from the north
An unusually long ocean swell
Steep, short-period waves and light wind
Thunderstorms and higher than usual humidity

308. Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air
mass due to __________.
Pressure changes in the air mass
Movement of the air mass
The heterogeneous nature of the air mass
Upper level atmospheric changes

309. The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at


sea would be accompanied by which of the following conditions?
Rain and poor visibility
Dropping barometric pressure and backing wind in the Northern
Hemisphere
High winds and rising sea
Severe thunderstorms

310. Which condition exists at the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?
The north polar regions are in continual darkness.
The Northern Hemisphere is having short days and long nights.
The Southern Hemisphere is having winter.
The Sun shines equally on both hemispheres.

187
DPKP

311. The flow of air around an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere is __________.
Clockwise and outward
Counterclockwise and outward
Clockwise and inward
Counterclockwise and inward

312. Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky,
and are responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate
latitudes, are called __________.
Altostratus
Altocumulus
Cirrostratus
Cirrocumulus

313. Anticyclones are usually characterized by __________.


Dry, fair weather
High winds and cloudiness
Gustiness and continuous precipitation
Overcast skies

314. Altocumulus clouds are defined as __________.


High clouds
Middle clouds
Low clouds
Vertical development clouds

315. A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) __________.


Cyclone
Anticyclone
Cold front
Occluded front

188
DPKP

316. Cold water flowing southward through the western part of the Bering Strait
between Alaska and Siberia is joined by water circulating counterclockwise in the
Bering Sea to form the __________.
Alaska Current
Subarctic Current
Kuroshio Current
Oyashio Current

317. Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms?


Cirrus
Stratus
Cumulus
Cumulonimbus

318. The circulation around a low pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is
__________.
Counterclockwise
Variable
Clockwise
Anticyclonic

319. Recurvature of a hurricane's track usually results in the forward speed


__________.
Increasing
Decreasing
Remaining the same
Varying during the day

320. All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT
__________.
Steady rainfall
Hail storms
Thunderstorms
Tornadoes or waterspouts
189
DPKP

321. In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind


circulation surrounded by higher pressure is a __________.
Low
High
Warm front
Cold front

322. If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate
__________.
Rain
Hurricane weather
Fair weather
Fog setting in

323. Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________.


Low barometric pressure
High barometric pressure
Steady barometric pressure
Changing barometric pressure

324. The form of cloud often known as "mackerel sky" which is generally
associated with fair weather is __________.
Nimbostratus
Stratus
Cirrocumulus
Cumulonimbus

325. When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________.
Improves
Worsens
Remains the same
Is unpredictable

190
DPKP

326. Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering
either small or large portions of the sky are __________.
Cirrus
Cirrostratus
Altostratus
Cirrocumulus

327. A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n) __________.


Tornado
Anticyclone
Occluded cyclone or occluded front
Polar cyclone

328. That half of the hurricane to the right hand side of its track (as you face the
same direction that the storm is moving) in the Northern Hemisphere is called
the
__________.
Windward side
Leeward side
Safe semicircle
Dangerous semicircle

329. High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and
often banded together to form a "mackerel sky", would be classified as
__________.
Cirrus
Cirrocumulus
Altostratus
Cumulonimbus

330. The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is
__________.
Counterclockwise and moving towards the high
Counterclockwise and moving outward from the high
Clockwise and moving towards the high
Clockwise and moving outward from the high
191
DPKP

331. A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is __________.
Altostratus
Stratus
Cumulus
Cirrus

332. Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________.


Low barometric pressure
High barometric pressure
Falling barometric pressure
Pumping barometric pressure

333. The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semicircle of a tropical


cyclone because of the __________.
Recurvature effect
Extension of the low pressure ridge
Wind circulation and forward motion of the storm
Direction of circulation and pressure gradient

334. Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest in the sky?
Altostratus, cirrostratus, stratus
Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus
Stratus, cirrostratus, altostratus
Altostratus, stratus, cirrostratus

335. Warm air masses will generally have __________.


Turbulence within the mass
Stratiform clouds
Heavy precipitation
Good visibility

192
DPKP

336. A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the
ground, is called __________.
Cumulus
Nimbus
Stratus
Cirrus

193
DPKP

337. Merespon keadaan darurat navigasi


(Respond to navigational emergencies )

As a probable result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved
is on fire? What are your responsibilities to the other vessel?
After checking the extent of the damage and welfare of your crew, if
possible your vessel should
standby and offer assistance, until
being relieved of that obligation by
the other vessel.
There is no statutory requirement
to provide assistance as the actions
of that vessel were the primary
cause of the collision
Your vessel should manoeuvre close to the other vessel and aid the fire
fighting operation.
You should inform the nearest Coast Radio Station of the incident and if
your damage is not serious, continue on your voyage.

Ship A is fully loaded with iron ore and is navigating in a coastal region when it is
in collision with ship B, causing ship A to take in water in several holds. What is
the best course of action by ship A to save the vessel and the cargo?
Put the ship aground on a soft
sandy bottom as soon as possible
Attempt to stop the ingress of
water by listing the ship over and
bringing the damaged area of the
hull out of the water.
Call for tug boat assistance as
soon as possible
Inform the local coast radio station of the situation and ask for advice

194
DPKP

338. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established?
Determine when the seaman was
last sighted and concentrate the
search round the course line
between the last sighting and
present position, taking into account
any prevailing current.
The focus of the search should be
from the present position as he
probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch.
Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from
track into account on the return course. The search should focus around this
return track back to the last sighted position
The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and
all ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the
present position.

339. The engines have failed and will require at least 24 hours to be available as a
reliable means of propulsion. Your vessel is about 20 miles off the coast in a tidal
are What are the initial steps that should be taken to ensure the safety of the ship?
Display NUC lights and investigate
the tidal flow over the next 24 hours
and the probable drift of the vessel.
Display NUC lights and inform the
nearest Coast Guard of you
predicament.
Display NUC lights and determine if
anchoring is possible
Display NUC lights and send out a navigational warning to all other vessels
of your position and situation
195
DPKP

340. The vessel is passing through the English Channel when the ARPA radars fail
completely and navigation must continue without any operational radars. Should
there be any changes to your passage plan or bridge procedures. Your vessel is
equipped with an operational ECDIS
Increase the officers on the
bridge to allow greater use of
visual navigation
Change the passage plan to
avoid areas of high density
shipping, if possible
Post extra lookouts
No changes are necessary

341. You are Sen.Off.Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a
collision. What will your actions be following the collision?
Make sure your vessel + crew
are safe and then offer your
assistance to the other vessel
Continue the voyage to your
destination
Call the Company Office
Start an argument with the other
vessel about fault

196
DPKP

342. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been
in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would
you do?
Alarm the rescue centre and
commence searching for any
survivors
Leave the position as fast as
possible
Do nothing and wait for assistance
Call the company, explain the
situation and ask for orders

343. You are witness to a collision between two other ships close to your vessel. What
immediate action should you take?
Nothing, just standby and wait to
see if any assistance is require
Contact one or both vessels
involved in the incident and offer
assistance.
Send out a distress message on
their behalf.
Inform the local coast radio
station of the incident and submit your name as a witness.

197
DPKP

344. Your vessel has been in collision and it is uncertain whether the vessel has the
required residual stability to remain afloat. After sounding the general alarm on
board and informing the nearest Coast Radio Station of your situation, what other
immediate steps should be taken?
Complete soundings of all compartments to
determine the number of compartments floode
Check the vessels stability limitations within its
statutory loadline requirements to determine if still
adequate.
Sound round the vessel and calculate the changes in
stability due to the lost buoyancy, to determine if
the final residual positive stability is sufficient to
remain afloat.
Monitor any gradual increase of draft, list and trim to determine the final of
equilibrium. Ensure this is sufficient to remain afloat
Prepare for abandoning ship and ensure that all ship's personnel are at their
lifeboat stations.

345. Your vessel has been in involved in a collision with an other vessel. As Master
responsible for the ship and persons on board, what is the first step to take?
Organise someone to assess the extent of
damage and the residual stability of the vessel.
Communicate with the other ship.
Determine is there is any evidence of pollution.
Determine any injuries or deaths of persons on
board

198
DPKP

346. Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as
Master tell the Master on the other vessel?
Name; Port of registry; Port of
destination of your vessel.
Explain your actions prior to the
collision and request details of
actions taken by the other vessel
which resulted in the collision.
Ask if there is any assistance
required by the other vessel.
There should be no communication with the other vessel.

347. Your vessel is progressing within a Traffic Separation Scheme and receives a
navigational warning of another vessel progressing the wrong way within the
scheme. What actions should be taken on the bridge, if any?
Use the Arpa for early
identification of all other ship
movements within the traffic lane
and give rogue vessel a wide berth
Take no actions but proceed with
extra caution.
Move out of the traffic lane
towards the coast.
Slow down your vessel and proceed with caution, posting extra lookouts.

348. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver shall __________.


Turn off her sidelights when not making way
When operating in restricted visibility, sound a whistle signal of two
prolonged and one short blast
Show a day-shape of two diamonds in a vertical line
Keep out of the way of a vessel engaged in fishing

199
DPKP

349. A power-driven vessel at anchor, not fishing or otherwise restricted in its ability to
maneuver, sounds her fog signal at intervals of not __________.
More than one minute
More than two minutes
More than three minutes
Less than two minutes

350. You are underway in reduced visibility. You hear the fog signal of another vessel
about 20° on your starboard bow. Risk of collision may exist. You should
__________.
Alter course to starboard to pass around the other vessel
Reduce your speed to bare steerageway
Slow your engines and let the other vessel pass ahead of you
Alter course to port to pass the other vessel on its portside

351. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during daylight?


One black ball
Two black balls
Three black balls
No signal

352. What day-shape would a vessel at anchor show during daylight?


One black ball
Two black balls
Three black balls
No signal

353. You are approaching a bend in a channel. You cannot see around the bend because
of the height of the bank. You should __________.
Stop engines and navigate with caution
Stay in the middle of the channel
Sound passing signals to any other vessel that may be on the other side
of the bend
Sound a whistle blast of 4 to 6 seconds duration
200
DPKP

354. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel of 150 meters in length, at anchor?
She may show an all-round white light where it can best be seen.
She must show all-round white lights forward and aft.
The showing of working lights is optional.
None of the above

355. Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a lantern exhibited in
sufficient time to prevent collision?
A 9-meter sailing vessel
A rowboat
A 6-meter motorboat
A small vessel fishing

356. Barges being towed at night __________.


Must be lighted at all times
Must be lighted only if manned
Must be lighted only if towed astern
Need not be lighted

357. You sight another power-driven vessel dead-ahead showing both the red and green
sidelights. The required action to take would be to __________.
Carefully watch his compass bearing
Start a radar plot in order to ascertain his course
Alter your course to port
Alter your course to starboard

358. You are underway in fog and hear one short, one prolonged, and one short blast in
succession. What is the meaning of this signal?
A vessel is in distress and needs assistance.
A vessel is fishing, hauling nets.
A vessel is at anchor, warning of her position.
A vessel is towing.

201
DPKP

359. An anchored vessel on pilotage duty must show which light(s) at night?
A stern light only
Anchor lights only
A white light over a red light only
A white light over a red light and anchor lights

360. A vessel which is fishing is required to show sidelights and a stern light only when
__________.
Anchored
Underway
Dead in the water
Underway and making way

361. What is a requirement for any action taken to avoid collision?


When in sight of another vessel, any action taken must be accompanied
by sound signals.
The action taken must include changing the speed of the vessel.
The action must be positive and made in ample time.
All of the above

362. In the daytime, you see a large sailing vessel on the beam. You know that she is
also propelled by machinery if she shows __________.
A basket
A black ball
A black cone
Two black cones

202
DPKP

363. Your power-driven vessel is stopped and making no way, but is not in any way
disable Another vessel is approaching you on your starboard beam. Which
statement is TRUE?
The other vessel must give way since your vessel is stoppe
Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation.
You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel not under comman
You should be showing the lights or shapes for a vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver.

364. For identification purposes at night, U.S. Navy submarines on the surface may
display an intermittent flashing light of which color?
Amber (yellow)
White
Blue
Red

365. Vessels engaged in fishing may show the additional signals described in Annex II
to the Rules when they are __________.
Trolling
Fishing in a traffic separation zone
In a narrow channel
In close proximity to other vessels engaged in fishing

366. Which vessel must show a masthead light abaft of and higher than her identifying
lights?
A 55-meter vessel fishing
A 55-meter vessel trawling
A 100-meter vessel not under command
A 20-meter vessel engaged on pilotage duty

203
DPKP

367. While underway in a narrow channel, a vessel should stay __________.


In the middle of the channel
To the starboard side of the channel
To the port side of the channel
To the side of the channel that has the widest bends

368. Vessels of less than what length may not impede the passage of other vessels which
can safely navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway?
10 meters
20 meters
30 meters
40 meters

369. A lantern combining the sidelights and stern light MAY be shown on a
__________.
Sailing vessel of 25 meters in length
20-meter vessel engaged in fishing and making way
25-meter power-driven vessel engaged in trolling
6-meter vessel under oars

370. The lights required by the Rules must be shown __________.


From sunrise to sunset in restricted visibility
At all times
ONLY from sunset to sunrise
Whenever a look-out is posted

371. Which vessel may carry her sidelights and stern light in a combined lantern on the
mast?
An 18-meter sailing vessel
A 10-meter sailing vessel also being propelled by machinery
A 25-meter sailing vessel
All of the above

204
DPKP

372. A vessel nearing a bend or an area of a channel or fairway where other vessels may
be hidden by an obstruction shall __________.
Sound the danger signal
Sound a prolonged blast
Take all way off
Post a look-out

373. You are approaching a vessel dredging during the day and see two balls in a
vertical line on the port side of the dredge. These shapes mean that __________.
You should pass on the port side of the dredge
There is an obstruction on the port side of the dredge
The dredge is not under command
The dredge is moored

374. Which statement is TRUE concerning the light used to accompany whistle signals?
It is mandatory to use such a light.
The light shall have the same characteristics as a masthead light.
It is used to supplement short blasts of the whistle.
All of the above

375. Which vessel must sound her fog signal at intervals not to exceed one minute?
A power-driven vessel underway, not making way
A vessel constrained by her draft
A vessel engaged in fishing, at anchor
A vessel aground

376. By day, you sight a vessel displaying three shapes in a vertical line. The top and
bottom shapes are balls, and the middle shape is a diamon It could be a
__________.
Vessel trolling
Mineclearing vessel
Trawler
Vessel engaged in replenishment at sea

205
DPKP

377. You are heading due east (090°) and observe a vessel's red sidelight on your port
beam. The vessel may be heading __________.
Northwest (315°)
North (000°)
Southeast (135°)
Southwest (225°)

378. Which vessel is, by definition, unable to keep out of the way of another vessel?
Vessel engaged in fishing
Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
Sailing vessel
Vessel towing

379. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after masthead lights when underway?
A 200-meter sailing vessel
A 50-meter power-driven vessel
A 100-meter vessel engaged in fishing
All of the above

380. As defined in the Rules, a towing light is a yellow light having the same
characteristics as a(n) __________.
Masthead light
All-round light
Sidelight
Stern light

381. A vessel underway and making way in fog shall sound every two minutes
__________.
One prolonged blast
Two prolonged blasts
One prolonged blast and three short blasts
Three distinct blasts

206
DPKP

382. When anchoring a 20-meter vessel at night, you must show __________.
One all-round white light
Two all-round white lights
One all-round white light and the stern ligh
One all-round white light and a flare up light

383. According to the Navigation Rules, all of the following are engaged in fishing
EXCEPT a vessel __________.
Setting nets
Trawling
Using a dredge net
Trolling

384. When a vessel sounds three short blasts on the whistle, this indicates that
__________.
Danger is ahead
Her engines are going astern
The vessel is not under command (broken down)
All other vessels should stand clear

385. A vessel is overtaking when she approaches another from more than how many
degrees abaft the beam?
0.0°
11.25°
22.5°
45.0°

386. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?
Whistle only
Bell only
Whistle and bell only
Whistle, bell, and gong

207
DPKP

387. What equipment for fog signals is required for a vessel 20 meters in length?
Whistle only
Bell only
Whistle and bell only
Whistle, bell, and gong

388. Sailing vessels are stand-on over power-driven vessels except __________.
In a crossing situation
In a meeting situation
When they are the overtaking vessel
On the inland waters of the U.S.

389. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision?


Risk of collision never exists if the compass bearing of the other vessel
is changing.
Proper use shall be made of radar equipment to determine risk of collision.
Risk of collision must be determined before any action can be taken by
a vessel.
Risk of collision exists if the vessels will pass within half a mile of each
other.

390. You are fishing at night, and you sight a vessel showing three lights in a vertical
line. The upper and lower lights are red and the middle light is white. Which
statement is TRUE?
You must keep out of the way of the other vessel.
The other vessel is responsible to keep out of your way.
The other vessel is at anchor.
The rule of special circumstances applies.

208
DPKP

391. Which vessel is to sound a fog signal of one prolonged followed by two short
blasts?
A vessel not under command
A sailing vessel, underway
A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver when carrying out her work
at anchor
All of the above

392. A vessel may exhibit lights other than those prescribed by the Rules as long as the
additional lights __________.
Do not interfere with the keeping of a proper look-out
Are not the color of either sidelight
Have a lesser range than the prescribed lights
All of the above

393. Which statement is TRUE concerning a partly submerged vessel being towed?
It must show a yellow light at each en
It will show red lights along its length.
A diamond shape will be carried at the aftermost extremity of the tow.
All of the above

394. Your vessel enters fog. You stop your engines, and the vessel is dead in the water.
Which fog signal should you sound?
One prolonged blast every two minutes
Two prolonged blasts every two minutes
Three short blasts every two minutes
One prolonged and two short blasts every two minutes

395. The term "power-driven vessel" refers to any vessel __________.


With propelling machinery onboard whether in use or not
Making way against the current
With propelling machinery in use
Traveling at a speed greater than that of the current

209
DPKP

396. In which situation do the Rules require both vessels to change course?
Two power-driven vessels meeting head-on
Two power-driven vessels crossing when it is apparent to the stand-o
Vessel that the give-way vessel is not taking appropriate action
Two sailing vessels crossing with the wind on the same side
All of the above

397. A vessel towing where the tow prevents her from changing course shall carry
__________.
Only the lights for a vessel towing
Only the lights for a vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
The lights for a towing vessel and the lights for a vessel restricted in her
ability to maneuver
The lights for a towing vessel and the lights for a vessel not under command

398. Which statement is TRUE concerning the danger signal?


May be sounded by the stand-on vessel only
Indicates that the vessel is in distress
Is used to indicate a course change
May be supplemented by an appropriate light signal

399. If a sailing vessel with the wind on the port side sees a sailing vessel to windward
and cannot tell whether the other vessel has the wind on the port or starboard side,
she shall __________.
Hold course and speed
Sound the danger signal
Keep out of the way of the other vessel
Turn to port and come into the wind

210
DPKP

400. Vessel "A" is on course 000°T. Vessel "B" is on a course such that she is involved
in a head-on situation and is bearing 355°T, 2 miles away from vessel "A". To
ensure a safe passing, vessel "A" should __________.
Maintain course
Alter course to port
Alter course to ensure a starboard to starboard passing
Maneuver to ensure a port to port passing

401. What is a vessel "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?


A vessel not under command
A vessel constrained by her draft
A vessel underway in fog
A vessel towing unable to deviate from her course

402. All of the following are distress signals under the Rules EXCEPT __________.
A green star signal
Orange-colored smoke
Red flares
The repeated raising and lowering of outstretched arms

403. The Rules state that vessels may depart from the Rules when __________.
There are no other vessels around
Operating in a narrow channel
The Master enters it in the ship's log
Necessary to avoid immediate danger

404. A vessel is towing and carrying the required lights on the masthea What is the
visibility arc of these lights?
112.5°
135.0°
225.0°
360.0°

211
DPKP

405. Which situation would be a "special circumstance" under the Rules?


Vessel at anchor
More than two vessels meeting
Speed in fog
Two vessels crossing

406. You are approaching another vessel on crossing courses. She is approximately half
a mile distant and is presently on your starboard bow. You believe she will cross
ahead of you. She then sounds a whistle signal of five short blasts. You should
__________.
Answer the signal and hold course and speed
Reduce speed slightly to make sure she will have room to pass
Make a large course change, accompanied by the appropriate whistle signal,
and slow down if necessary
Wait for another whistle signal from the other vessel

407. You are approaching another vessel and are not sure whether danger of collion
exists. You must assume __________.
There is risk of collision
You are the give way vessel
The other vessel is also in doubt
All of the above are correct.

408. Which vessel may use the danger signal?


The vessel to starboard when two power-driven vessels are crossing
A vessel engaged in fishing, crossing the course of a sailing vessel
Either of two power-driven vessels meeting head-on
All of the above

212
DPKP

409. What is the minimum sound signaling equipment required aboard a vessel 10
meters in length?
A bell only
A whistle only
A bell and a whistle
Any means of making an efficient sound signal

410. Which statement is TRUE regarding equipment for sound signals?


A vessel of less than 12 meters in length need not have any sound signaling
equipment.
Any vessel over 12 meters in length must be provided with a gong.
Manual sounding of the bell and gong must always be possible.
Automatic sounding of the signals is not permitte

411. Which statement concerning an overtaking situation is correct?


The overtaking vessel is the stand-on vessel.
Neither vessel is the stand-on vessel.
The overtaking vessel must maintain course and spee
The overtaking vessel must keep out of the way of the other.

412. The Rules state that a vessel overtaking another vessel is relieved of her duty to
keep clear when __________.
She is forward of the other vessel's beam
The overtaking situation becomes a crossing situation
She is past and clear of the other vessel
The other vessel is no longer in sight

413. Which statement is TRUE concerning fog signals?


All fog signals for sailing vessels are to be given at intervals of not more
than one minute.
A vessel not under command sounds the same fog signal as a vessel towe
A pilot vessel underway and making way sounds the pilot identity signal
and no other signal.
A vessel aground may sound a whistle signal.
213
DPKP

414. Which day-shape would a vessel aground show during daylight?


One black ball
Two black balls
Three black balls
Four black balls

415. Which vessel must have a gong, or other equipment which will make the sound of a
gong?
A sailing vessel
Any vessel over 50 meters
Any vessel over 100 meters
A power-driven vessel over 75 meters

416. A sailing vessel is proceeding along a narrow channel and can safely navigate
ONLY inside the channel. The sailing vessel approaches a vessel engaged in
fishing. Which statement is TRUE?
The fishing vessel is directed not to impede the passage of the sailing vessel.
The sailing vessel must keep out of the way of the fishing vessel.
Each vessel should move to the edge of the channel on her port side.
Each vessel should be displaying signals for a vessel constrained by
her draft.

417. Day-shapes MUST be shown __________.


During daylight hours
During daylight hours except in restricted visibility
ONLY between 8 AM and 4 PM daily
Between sunset and sunrise

214
DPKP

418. Rule 14 describes the action to be taken by vessels meeting head-on. Which of the
following conditions must exist in order for this rule to apply?
Both vessels must be power-driven.
They must be meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses.
The situation must involve risk of collision.
All of the above

419. The stern light shall be positioned such that it will show from dead astern to how
many degrees on each side of the stern of the vessel?
22.5°
67.5°
112.5°
135.0°

420. A vessel aground at night is required to show two red lights in a vertical line as well
as __________.
Not under command lights
Restricted in her ability to maneuver lights
Anchor lights
Sidelights and a stern light

421. When towing more than one barge astern at night __________.
Only the last barge on the tow must be lighted
Only the first and the last barges in the tow must be lighted
Each barge in the tow must be lighted
Only manned barges must be lighted

422. Your vessel is aground in fog. In addition to the regular anchor signals, you will be
sounding __________.
Three strokes of the gong before and after the rapid ringing of the gong
A blast on the whistle
Three strokes of the bell before and after the rapid ringing of the bell
No additional signals

215
DPKP

423. In a crossing situation, the vessel which has the other on her own starboard side
shall __________.
If the circumstances of the case admit, avoid crossing ahead of the other
Change course to port to keep out of the way
Reduce her speed
All of the above

424. You are on vessel "A" in DIAGRAM 32, and hear vessel "B" sound a signal
indicating her intention to overtake you. You feel it is not safe for vessel "B" to
overtake you at the present time. You should __________.
Sound five or more short rapid blasts
Sound two short blasts
Not answer the whistle signal from vessel "B"
Sound three blasts of the whistle

425. Which vessel sounds the same fog signal when underway or at anchor?
A sailing vessel
A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
A vessel constrained by her draft
A vessel not under command

426. You are approaching a bend in a river where, due to the bank, you cannot see
around the other side. A vessel on the other side of the bend sounds one prolonged
blast. You should __________.
Sound passing signals
Not sound any signal until you sight the other vessel
Sound a prolonged blast
Sound the danger signal

427. Which vessel is "underway" according to the Rules?


A vessel made fast to a single point mooring buoy
A purse seiner hauling her nets
A pilot vessel at anchor
A vessel which has run aground
216
DPKP

428. When two power-driven vessels are crossing, the vessel which has the other to
starboard must keep out of the way if __________.
She is the faster vessel
The situation involves risk of collision
The vessels will pass within half a mile of each other
Whistle signals have been sounded

429. Which signal may at some time be exhibited by a vessel trawling?


Two white lights in a vertical line
A white light over a red light in a vertical line
Two red lights in a vertical line
All of the above

430. Risk of collision is considered to exist if __________.


Four vessels are nearby
A vessel has a steady bearing at a constant range
There is any doubt that a risk of collision exists
A special circumstance situation is apparent

431. You are underway in low visibility and sounding fog signals. What changes would
you make in the fog signal immediately upon losing propulsion?
Begin sounding two prolonged blasts at two-minute intervals.
Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by three short blasts at two-
minute intervals.
Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at two-
minute intervals.
No change should be made in the fog signal.

432. A power-driven vessel shows the same lights as a __________.


Vessel engaged in towing, when not underway
Vessel towing astern
Sailing vessel
Pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed, when they are rigidly
connected in a composite unit
217
DPKP

98. Which vessel shall NOT show her sidelights?


A. A fishing vessel that is not making way
B. A sailing vessel which is becalmed
C. A vessel engaged in underwater operations
D. A vessel that is not under command making way

99. A vessel is overtaking when she can see which light(s) of a vessel ahead?
A. Only the stern light of the vessel
B. One sidelight and a masthead light of the vessel
C. Only a sidelight of the vessel
D. The masthead lights of the vessel

433. Which statement about the Navigation Rules is TRUE?


The rules require vessels to comply with Traffic Separation
Scheme regulations.
The rules use the term "safe spee"
The Rules permit a stand-on vessel to take action prior to being in extremis.
All of the above are correct.

434. A "short blast" on the whistle has a duration of __________.


1 second
4 to 6 seconds
8 to 12 seconds
12 to 15 seconds

435. As defined in the Rules, the term "vessel" includes __________.


Seaplanes
Nondisplacement craft
Barges
All of the above

218
DPKP

436. A vessel shall slacken her speed, stop, or reverse her engines, if necessary, to
__________.
Avoid collision
Allow more time to assess the situation
Be stopped in an appropriate distance
All of the above

437. An anchor ball need NOT be exhibited by an anchored vessel if she is __________.
Under 50 meters in length, and anchored in an anchorage
Over 150 meters in length
Rigged for sail
Less than 7 meters in length, and not in or near an area where other vessels
normally navigate

438. A vessel that is not equipped with towing lights should show that it has a vessel in
tow by_________________.
Continuously sounding its horn
Sounding one prolonged followed by two short blasts at intervals of
not more than two minutes
Shining a searchlight on the towline of the towed vessel
None of the above; a vessel shall not engage in towing at night without
proper navigation lights

439. While underway at night you are coming up on a vessel from astern. What lights
would you expect to see?
Red and green sidelights
Two white lights
One white light and red and green sidelights
One white light

219
DPKP

440. What describes a head-on situation?


Seeing one red light of a vessel directly ahead
Seeing two forward white towing lights in a vertical line on a towing vessel
directly ahead
Seeing both sidelights of a vessel directly off your starboard beam
Seeing both sidelights of a vessel directly ahead

441. A vessel anchored in fog may warn an approaching vessel by sounding


__________.
The whistle continuously
One short, one prolonged, and one short blast of the whistle
Five or more short and rapid blasts of the whistle
Three distinct strokes on the bell before and after sounding the anchor signal

442. While underway in fog, you hear a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the
whistle. You should __________.
Sound two blasts and change course to the left
Sound whistle signals only if you change course
Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted
Not sound any whistle signals until the other vessel is sighted

443. You are operating in restricted visibility and hear a signal of a rapidly ringing bell
followed by the rapid sounding of a gong. It could be a __________.
30-meter sail vessel at anchor
150-meter power-driven vessel aground
Vessel in distress
300-meter power-driven vessel at anchor

444. A vessel being towed, if manned, shall sound a fog signal of __________.
Two short blasts
Three short blasts
One prolonged and two short blasts
One prolonged and three short blasts

220
DPKP

445. A vessel using a traffic separation scheme shall __________.


Only anchor in the separation zone
Cross a traffic lane at as small an angle as possible
Avoid anchoring in areas near the termination of the scheme
Utilize the separation zone for navigating through the scheme if she
is impeding other traffic due to her slower speed

446. A proper look-out shall be maintained __________.


Only at night
Only during restricted visibility
At night and during restricted visibility
At all times

447. Risk of collision may be deemed to exist __________.


If the compass bearing of an approaching vessel does NOT appreciably
change
Even when an appreciable bearing change is evident, particularly when
approaching a vessel at close range
If you observe both sidelights of a vessel ahead for an extended period
of time
All of the above

448. The Rules state that certain factors are to be taken into account when determining
safe spee Those factors include __________.
State of wind, sea, and current, and the proximity of navigational hazards
Maximum attainable speed of your vessel
Temperature
Aids to navigation that are available

221
DPKP

449. Which vessel, when anchored at night, would NOT be required to show anchor
lights?
A power-driven vessel
A vessel on pilotage duty
A vessel dredging
A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver

450. A vessel not under command shall display __________.


Two red lights at night and two black balls during daylight
Two red lights at night and three black balls during daylight
Three red lights at night and two black balls during daylight
Three red lights at night and three black balls during daylight

451. A vessel engaged in fishing while at anchor shall sound a fog signal of
__________.
One prolonged and two short blasts at two-minute intervals
One prolonged and three short blasts at two-minute intervals
A rapid ringing of the bell for five seconds at one-minute intervals
A sounding of the bell and gong at one-minute intervals

452. Underway at night you see the red sidelight of a vessel well off your port bow.
Which statement is TRUE?
You are required to alter course to the right.
You must stop engines.
You are on a collision course with the other vessel.
You may maintain course and spee

453. Which vessel would sound a fog signal consisting of the ringing of a bell for 5
seconds?
A vessel engaged in fishing, at anchor
A vessel restricted in its ability to maneuver, at anchor
A sailing vessel, at anchor
A sailing vessel becalmed

222
DPKP

454. A vessel towing a barge astern would show, at the stern __________.
Only a stern light
A towing light above the stern light
Two towing lights in a vertical line
Two white lights in a vertical line

455. A fog signal consisting of one prolonged blast followed by four short blasts would
indicate the presence of a __________.
Vessel being towed
Fishing vessel engaged in trawling
Vessel at anchor warning of her location
Power-driven pilot vessel on station underway

456. In addition to sidelights what light should a vessel being towed astern show?
A stern light
A masthead light
Not under command lights
Range lights

457. A pilot vessel may continue to sound an identity signal if she is __________.
Aground
At anchor
Not under command
Being towed

458. When two power-driven vessels are meeting head-on and there is a risk of collision,
each shall __________.
Stop her engines
Alter course to starboard
Sound the danger signal
Back down

223
DPKP

459. A power driven vessel when towing and the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters
shall exhibit during daylight hours where they can best be seen which of the
following shapes?
A diamond shape
Two cones, apexes together
A black ball
One cone, apex upward

460. What is the minimum length of vessels required to show two anchor lights?
40 meters
50 meters
60 meters
70 meters

461. A vessel showing a rigid replica of the International Code flag "A" is engaged in
__________.
Diving operations
Dredging
Fishing
Mineclearance operations

462. In determining "safe speed", all of the following must be taken into account
EXCEPT the __________.
Maximum horsepower of your vessel
Presence of background lights at night
Draft of your vessel
Maneuverability of your vessel

463. You are aboard the give-way vessel in a crossing situation. What should you NOT
do in obeying the Rules?
Cross ahead of the stand-on vessel
Make a large course change to starboard
Slow your vessel
Back your vessel
224
DPKP

464. A vessel, which does not normally engage in towing operations, is towing a vessel
in distress. She __________.
Need not show the lights for a vessel engaged in towing, if it is
impractical to do so
May show the lights for a vessel not under command
Must show a yellow light above the stern light
Must show the lights for a vessel towing

465. An all-round flashing yellow light may be exhibited by a(n) __________.


Vessel laying cable
Vessel towing a submerged object
Vessel not under command
Air cushion vessel

466. Working lights shall be used to illuminate the decks of a vessel __________.
Over 100 meters at anchor
Not under command
Constrained by her draft
Any of the above

467. Which vessel may show identifying lights when not actually engaged in her
occupation?
A fishing vessel
A pilot vessel
A mineclearance vessel
None of the above

468. A pilot vessel may continue to sound an identity signal if she is __________.
Underway, but not making way
Aground
Being towed
Not engaged in pilotage duty

225
DPKP

469. If your vessel is the stand-on vessel in a crossing situation __________.


You must keep your course and speed
You may change course and speed as the other vessel must keep clear
The other vessel must keep her course and speed
Both vessels must keep their course and speed

470. A vessel proceeding along a narrow channel shall __________.


Avoid crossing the channel at right angles
Not overtake any vessels within the channel
Keep as near as safe and practicable to the limit of the channel on
her starboard side
When nearing a bend in the channel, sound a long blast of the whistle

471. Which vessel would exhibit sidelights when underway and not making way?
A vessel towing astern
A vessel trawling
A vessel not under command
A vessel engaged in dredging operations

472. Which vessel is NOT to impede the passage of a vessel which can only navigate
safely within a narrow channel?
Any vessel less than 20 meters in length
Any sailing vessel
A vessel engaged in fishing
All of the above

473. A tug is towing three manned barges in line in fog. The second vessel of the tow
should sound __________.
No fog signal
One short blast
One prolonged and three short blasts
One prolonged and two short blasts

226
DPKP

474. The steering and sailing rules for vessels in restricted visibility apply to vessels
__________.
In sight of one another in fog
Navigating in or near an area of restricted visibility
Only if they are showing special purpose lights
Only if they have operational radar

475. The Navigation Rules state that a vessel shall be operated at a safe speed at all
times so that she can be stopped within __________.
The distance of visibility
1/2 the distance of visibility
A distance appropriate to the existing circumstances and conditions
The distance that it would require for the propeller to go from full ahead
to full astern

476. A towing vessel 35 meters in length, with a tow 100 meters astern, must show a
minimum of how many masthead lights?
1
2
3
4

477. BOTH INTERNATIONAL & INLAND What must be TRUE in order for a stand-
on vessel to take action to avoid collision by her maneuver alone?
She must be in sight of the give-way vessel.
There must be risk of collision.
She must determine that the give-way vessel is not taking appropriate
action.
All of the above

227
DPKP

478. A vessel being towed astern, where the length of the tow exceeds 200 meters, will
exhibit __________.
Two balls in a vertical line
A diamond shape where it can best be seen
A ball on each end of the tow
No day-shape

479. For a stand-on vessel to take action to avoid collision she shall, if possible, NOT
__________.
Decrease speed
Increase speed
Turn to port for a vessel on her port side
Turn to starboard for a vessel on her port side

480. You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision
may exist. You MUST __________.
Reduce speed to bare steerageway
Stop your engines
Begin a radar plot
All of the above

481. Two barges are being pushed ahead by a tugboat. Which statement is TRUE
concerning lights on the barges?
Each vessel should show sidelights.
Each vessel should show at least one white light.
The barges should be lighted as separate units.
The barges should be lighted as one vessel.

482. Two barges are being pushed ahead by a tugboat. Which statement is TRUE
concerning lights on the barges?
Each vessel should show sidelights.
Each vessel should show at least one white light.
The barges should be lighted as separate units.
The barges should be lighted as one vessel.
228
DPKP

483. The Rules state that a seaplane shall __________.


Not be regarded as a vessel
In general, keep well clear of all vessels
Proceed at a slower speed than surrounding vessels
When making way, show the lights for a vessel not under command

484. If practical, when shall a manned vessel being towed sound her fog signal?
Immediately before the towing vessel sounds hers
Immediately after the towing vessel sounds hers
As close to the mid-cycle of the towing vessel's signals as possible
At any time as long as the interval is correct

485. Your tug is underway at night and NOT towing. What light(s) should your vessel
show aft to other vessels coming up from astern?
One white light
Two white lights
One white light and one yellow light
One white light and two yellow lights

486. A vessel conducting mineclearing operations will show __________.


Three balls in a vertical line
Two balls in a vertical line
One ball near the foremast and one ball at each fore yard
One diamond near the foremast head and one ball at each fore yard

487. A vessel sailing shall keep out of the way of all of the following vessels except a
vessel __________.
Not under command
Engaged on pilotage duty
Restricted in her ability to maneuver
Engaged in fishing

229
DPKP

488. Which statement is TRUE concerning a vessel under oars?


She must show a stern light.
She is allowed to show the same lights as a sailing vessel.
She must show a fixed all-round white light.
She must show a day-shape of a black cone.

489. A power-driven vessel is underway and fishing with trolling lines. This vessel
__________.
Must keep out of the way of sailing vessels
Must sound a one prolonged, two short blasts signal in restricted visibility
Is the stand-on vessel when overtaking power-driven vessels
All of the above

490. At night you sight a vessel displaying a single green light. This is a __________.
Vessel at anchor
Small motorboat underway
Vessel drifting
Sailing vessel

491. When two power-driven vessels are crossing, which vessel is the stand-on vessel?
The vessel which is to starboard of the other vessel
The vessel which is to port of the other vessel
The larger vessel
The vessel that sounds the first whistle signal

492. Which vessel must exhibit forward and after white masthead lights when making
way?
A 75-meter vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
A 100-meter sailing vessel
A 150-meter vessel engaged in fishing
A 45-meter vessel engaged in towing

230
DPKP

493. By radar alone, you detect a vessel ahead on a collision course, about 3 miles
distant. Your radar plot shows this to be a meeting situation. You should
__________.
Turn to port
Turn to starboard
Maintain course and speed and sound the danger signal
Maintain course and speed and sound no signal

494. A sailing vessel underway at night may show __________.


A red light over a green light at the masthead
A green light over a red light at the masthead
Two white lights in a vertical line at the stern
An all-round white light at the bow

495. A vessel engaged in trawling will show identification lights of __________.


A red light over a white light
A white light over a red light
A green light over a white light
Two red lights in a vertical line

496. What is required of a vessel navigating near an area of restricted visibility?


A power-driven vessel shall have her engines ready for
immediate maneuver.
She must sound appropriate sound signals.
If she detects another vessel by radar, she shall determine if risk of
collision exists.
All of the above

231
DPKP

10. Olah gerak dan penanganan kapal dalam segala kondisi.


(Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions)

497. A large vessel develops a sudden sheer when it stops moving through the water,
having been steaming through a shallow water channel for several miles. The sheer
may be strong and unexpected and is due to what reason?
The large volume of water dragged
behind the vessel continues to move
forward and cause a strong turning
moment on the stern of the vessel
The hydrodynamic interaction
effects from the banks of the
shallow water channel acts on the
stern causing the vessel to sheer
strongly
The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point forward and creates a turning
moment and results in the ship swinging towards the bank.
The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the
vessel stops any applied rudder will become suddenly more effective.

498. A large vessel is coming alongside a pier with two tugs assisting and there is little
wind or current affecting the vessel. What would be considered the best use of the
tugs and at which position?
Pushing on the ship's side and made fast
in case the vessel's movement towards
the berth requires reducing by the tug
pulling off.
Made fast Forward and Aft using the
centre leads.
Pushing on ship's side, but not made
fast to allow the tug to move to another position if needed
One tug made fast forward for pulling and the other pushing aft.

232
DPKP

499. A large vessel is proceeding slowly up a narrow channel, using its own engines and
assisted by the use of one tug. Where should the tug be connected to assist the ship
in maintaining its course in the centre of the channel?
Made fast on a line through the centre lead astern.
Made fast on a line through the centre lead ahea
Standing-by - Ready for use anywhere, as require
Pushing alongside

500. A ship experiences an interaction effect known as "Squat" when moving in shallow
water. The amount of Squat is affected by the speed of the vessel through the water.
If the speed through the water is HALVED what will be the change in the affect of
"Squat"
The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter
of its original value
The squat effect will also be halve
There will be a significant change in the
reduction of underkeel clearance, but the
amount varies from ship to ship
There will be very little change to the effects of Squat.

501. A ship has turned a complete circle (360 degrees) in deep water at full ahead
throughout the turn. The same ship, in the same conditions, is now to make a
complete turn (360 degrees) at half ahead throughout the turn. Would there be any
difference in the size (diameter) of the turning circle?
No, the diameter of the turning
circle would be almost the same.
Yes, it would be a much smaller
turning circle at half ahead
Yes, it will be much larger turning
circle at half ahea
Yes, there would be a change of
shape of the turning circle; it would
have an increase in the transfer, but not the advance.

233
DPKP

502. A tug is connected by a line to the bow of a ship. Will the bollard pull exerted by
the tug be the same at any speed?
No, when the ship's speed exceeds about 5
knots it will be expected that there will be a
reduced pull exerted by the tug
No, when the speed of the ship is
increasing, the bollard pull exerted by the
tug will also be increasing
Yes, the bollard pull would normally be expected to be the same at any
speed of the ship
Yes for movement ahead, but when going astern the bollard pull would be
expected to be at its greatest.

503. A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current.
At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at
the second the underkeel clearance is only 0.5 times the draught. If the current
exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the
approximate force exerted at the second if the draught is the same?
150 tonnes
Unchanged, remains at 50 tonnes
25 tonnes
75 tonnes

504. In shallow water a ship will experience "Squat". What are the principle reasons
creating the effects of squat?
There is an increase in the water velocity
and a decrease of water pressure around
the ship's hull
There is a decrease in the water velocity
and an increased of water pressure
around the ship's hull
There is an increased effect of gravity due to closeness of the sea-bed
There are changes in the bow and stern pressure fields associated with the
ships motion.
234
DPKP

505. In the situation illustrated, a ship is proceeding in the centre of the channel and
approaching a bend in a river. What helm would probably be required to safely
round the bend and what other effects could be expected in this situation?
The heading should be carefully
monitored, some port rudder may be
required to start the swing, though
starboard rudder may be required to
balance any bank rejection.
The wheel should be put hard over to
port to keep the ship in the middle of the
channel and the heading carefully
monitore
A small amount of port helm would be required to get round the corner and
the engines should be slowed down to give more time to the manoeuvre.
The heading should be continually monitored
The ship will round the corner without any helm being required, due to
interaction and rejection by the river bank

506. In the situation illustrated, what should be the distribution of the power
requirements from the tugs, if the ship is to be moved sideways without changing
the heading? Both tugs have similar bollard pull and are of conventional
propulsion.
Much greater power on the forward
tug than on the after tug while
monitoring the gyro heading
Much greater power on the aft tug
than on the forward tug while
monitoring the gyro heading.
Equal power required by both tugs,
but monitor the gyro heading to
ensure sideward movement only
It would be very difficult to predict the power requirements in this
circumstance and it could only be found by observation.

235
DPKP

507. In the situation illustrated, what should be the power distribution of the tugs to
maintain the ship sideways motion with only minor changes in the ship's heading?
Considerably more power on the aft tug than the forward tug, while
monitoring the ship's gyro heading
Considerably more power on the forward tug than the after tug, while
monitoring the ship's gyro heading
Equal power on both tugs while monitoring the ship's gyro heading
Full power on the forward tug and the after tug ceases to push, but
continuously monitor the ship's gyro heading

508. It has been established by experience that the most successful method of double
banking two vessels, when no tugs are available, is one of the following methods.
Select which answer is considered the most successful metho
When both vessels are underway,
fig. 1
When the larger vessel is at anchor,
fig. 2
When the smaller vessel is at
anchor, fig. 3
When the larger vessel is stopped
and drifting in the water, fig. 4

509. The bridge is informed by an eye-witness that a man has just fallen overboar Which
of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate action when the person is still
close to the vessel?
Williamson Turn
Scharnow Turn
Direct Turn
Evinrude Turn

236
DPKP

510. The effective stability of a tug, when assisting a vessel to manoeuvre, can be
decreased by hydrodynamic interaction with the ship it is assisting. Where is the
most dangerous position of the tug relative to the ship, for this adverse affect to be
found?
The most dangerous position is where the tug
approaches the bow rounding the forward
shoulder of the larger vessel.
The most dangerous position is when the tug
is alongside the amidships section of the
larger vessel.
The most dangerous position is where the tug approaches the stern of the
larger vessel and enters into its associated positive pressure fiel
The most dangerous position is where the tug has made fast the towing
spring and is then moving ahead of the larger vessel.

511. The effectiveness of a rudder is dependant on the flow of water past the rudder. If
the rudder is put hard over when the ship is at full ahead in deep water, and then the
engines are stopped, how much lift force remains?
About 20 %
About 50 %
About 80 %
About 5 %

512. The rudder is hard over when steaming at full ahead in shallow water. How much
"lift force" remains when the engine is stopped?
About 10 %
About 50 %
About 80 %
There will be lift force remaining

237
DPKP

513. The ship is approaching shallow water where the Under Keel Clearance will reduce
to about 0.25 of the ship's draught. Which of the following answers most accurately
summarizes the aspects to be considered when deciding a suitable speed?
All of the suggested answers
A further reduction of underkeel
clearance and possible changes of
the ship's trim
A reduced ability to stop the vessel
and maintain steerage
Touching the bottom if there is any
swell and causing damage due to the wake or wash of the vessel

514. The ship is berthed in a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots which suddenly
increases to 60 knots. What will be the change of force exerted on the ship driving
it off the jetty?
The force will be Quadrupled
The force will be Tripled
The force will be Doubled
The force will be Quintupled

515. The ship is in a sharp starboard turn and the Doppler log shows a sideways motion
to port at both forward and aft positions. Where would the "pivot point" be
considered to be located?
At a position outside the hull of the
ship itself
At a position aft of amidships
At a position on the centreline,
about 1/6 of the ship's length aft of
the bow.
At a position in the vicinity of the
ship's centre of gravity

238
DPKP

516. What is understood by the term "Balanced Rudder"?


A rudder with part of the rudder
area forward of the turning axis,
therefore reducing the load on the
steering motor.
A rudder with equal rudder area
forward and aft of the turning axis,
the turning axis being at the
geometrical centre of the rudder
area
A rudder which is operated by two steering motors providing equal amounts
of thrust to the rudder
A rudder with an additional flap attached the training edge to improve the
rudder efficiency

517. What will have a major effect on the performance of a tug when used to assist in
the manoeuvring of a large vessel?
The position of the tug relative to the ship's
pivot point
The experience of the tug crew.
The use of the tug's wire instead of the ship's
towing spring
The length of the towing spring

518. What would be the correct understanding of the term "a ship is directionally
unstable"?
The ship requires continual application of the
rudder to maintain a steady course.
When the rudder is kept amidships, the ship will
continue on a straight course
The ship will only require small amounts of helm
to maintain its course when steaming in a heavy seaway
The ship has negative transverse stability (-GM) when proceeding on some
specific courses
239
DPKP

519. When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force and a drag force.
When the ship has started to turn, how much lift force do you think remains if the
rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from hard over position (35 degrees)?
About 80 %
About 10 %.
About 30 %
About 50 %

520. When a vessel is moving in shallow water it will experience an effect known as
"Squat". Which of the following statements most accurately specify the results of
squat on the vessel?
There will be a reduction of the vessel's
underkeel clearance and a possible change of
trim.
There will be an increase in the vessels
draught while moving through the water
There will be a change of draught and a
reduction in the spee
If the speed of the vessel through the water is kept to "Slow Ahead" there
will be no effect due to Squat.

521. When a vessel is to experience a long tow across an ocean, what would be the best
system of connecting the tow?
Wire from a deep sea tug connected to
the ship's anchor chain.
Wire from a deep sea tug through the
forward centre lead of the ship and made
fast onto several mooring bits on the
forecastle
Wire from a deep sea tug made fast through a shoulder lead on the vessel's
leeward side
Towing Hawser from a deep sea tug through the centre lead forward and
made fast on the nearest mooring bits forwar

240
DPKP

522. When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is best for your vessel to
maintain during this operation?
The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots
It is best to stop the vessel completely before connecting
A tug may be connected at any convenient speed
The speed should be more than 7 knots

523. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of a vessel when going astern?
Between 1/4 of the ship's length from the
stern and the rudder post
1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow
Amidships
Between amidships and 1/4 of the vessel's
length from the bow

524. Where is the normal position of the "Pivot Point" of the vessel when going ahead?
1/3 of the vessel's length from the bow.
1/4 of vessel's length from the stern
Amidships
Normally varies dependant on the speed ahead

525. Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting a ship through
narrow waters would be considered the most effective in the event of loosing
steering power?
The tug made fast on a line through the
centre lead astern. (figure 4).
Tug running free alongside, ready to be
made fast (figure 2)
Tug made fast forward on either
shoulder, ready to push (figure 3)
The tug made fast on a line through the centre lead forward (figure 1)

241
DPKP

526. Why does a ship move laterally (sideward drift) when turning.
Because the pivot point is not at the centre
of the ship
Because the turning moment is created by
the rudder, which is positioned at the stern
of the vessel
The ship moves laterally because it always
tries to continue in a straight line.
The ship moves sidewards because of all the external forces on the vessels
hull.

527. Would the indicated speed, as shown on a Ground Tracking Doppler Log, be
suitable for berthing the vessel?
The approach speed is too fast.
The approach speed is essential to
maintain steerage when coming alongside
The speed requirements are decided by
the pilot and should not be the concern of
the OOW.
The indicated speed would be a normal speed approaching a berth.

528. Your ship is approaching the berth as illustrated and has a right handed propeller
and no thrusters. What could be a method to retain full control of the vessel as it
comes alongside?
Let go starboard anchor to about 1 shackle on
deck
Reduce speed by going astern on the engines.
Let go port anchor to about 1 shackles on
deck
Full starboard rudder and stop engines

242
DPKP

529. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy
weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve
the strain you could __________.
Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel
Reduce speed
Take a course which most eases the vessel
All of the above

530. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?
A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines.
A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further.
A light vessel will be more affected by the win
A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.

531. Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?
If you cannot get clear immediately, lighten the ship by pumping all ballast
overboar
Run the engine full astern to keep from being set further onto the bar.
Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerge
All of the above

532. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when
__________.
Backing
Going slow ahead
Going full ahead
Turning

243
DPKP

533. Most of your vessel's superstructure is forwar How will the vessel lie when drifting
with no way on?
With the wind from ahead
With the wind off the port beam
With the wind off the starboard beam
With the wind from abaft the beam

534. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________.


Use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course
Apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off
course
Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before
executing them
Keep the rudder amidships except when changing course

535. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360 degrees is the path
followed by the __________.
Bow
Bridge
Centerline
Center of gravity

536. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of
180° has been completed, is called the __________.
Advance
Pivoting point
Tactical diameter
Kick

244
DPKP

537. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern
sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?
Broaching
Fish tailing
Squatting
Parallel sinkage

538. You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard
side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which step is NOT a part of a
Williamson Turn?
Step 1: Come right full rudder until the vessel heads 150°T.
Step 2: Stop the engines until clear of the man.
Step 3: Shift the helm to left full rudder.
Step 4: Continue with left rudder until on course 270°T.

539. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance
__________.
Gained in the direction of the original course
Gained at right angles to the original course
The ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction
of the turn after the rudder is first put over
Around the circumference of the turning circle

540. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?
Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the
eye from the second line directly over the first.
It makes no difference how the lines are place
Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the
other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollar
Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to
the same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.

245
DPKP

541. The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the
rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the __________.
Advance
Drift angle
Pivoting point
Transfer

542. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
__________.
Go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a
twin-screw vessel
Back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel
Take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel
Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a
single-screw vessel

543. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled
parallel to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over
to any point on the turning circle is known as __________.
Advance
Head reach
Tactical diameter
Transfer

544. The distance gained in the direction of the original course when you are making a
turn is known as __________.
Advance
Drift
Tactical diameter
Transfer

246
DPKP

545. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the
radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are
as liste Based on this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? D035dg
40 yards
140 yards
190 yards
230 yards

546. The turning circle of a vessel is the path followed by the __________.
Tipping center
Bow
Outermost part of the ship while making the circle
Center of gravity
547. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________.
At the hawsepipe
About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow
Near the stern

548. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow channel?
It pulls the bow toward the bank.
It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
It pulls the stern toward the bank.
It heels the vessel toward the bank.

549. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?
Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it
is now.
Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering metho
Stop the swing of the ship.

247
DPKP

550. In stopping distances of vessels, "head reach" can best be described as the
__________.
Difference between the vessel's speed through the water at any instant
and the new speed ordered on the telegraph
Distance the vessel has actually run through the water since a change
of speed was ordered
Distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and
being stationary in the water
Speed at which a vessel should proceed to ensure that she will run a
predetermined distance, once her engines have been stopped

551. Your vessel is port side to a pier with a spring line led aft from the bow. In calm
weather, putting the engines ahead with the rudder hard left should bring
__________.
The bow in and the stern out
Both the bow and stern in
The bow out and the stern in
Both the bow and stern out

552. You are the Master of a single-screw vessel. You are docking at a port which has
no tugs available. You decide to drop the offshore anchor to help in docking. The
amount of chain you should pay out is __________.
5 to 7 times the depth of the water
1 1/2 to 2 times the depth of the water
Equal to the depth of the water
You should NEVER use the anchor to help in docking

553. The helm command "meet her" means __________.


Use rudder to check the swing
Decrease the rudder angle which is on
Steer more carefully
Note the course and steady on that heading

248
DPKP

554. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow channel?
It pulls the bow toward the bank.
It heels the vessel toward the bank.
It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
It pulls the stern toward the bank.

555. As a ship moves through the water, it drags with it a body of water called the wake.
The ratio of the wake speed to the ship's speed is called __________.
Propeller velocity
Speed of advance
Wake distribution
Wake fraction

556. The term "Shift the Rudder" means __________.


Put the rudder amidships
Use right or left rudder
Check, but do not stop the vessel from swinging
Change from right to left or left or right

557. Which statement is TRUE concerning the vessel's slipstream?


It has no effect on the steering of the vessel.
It has no effect on the rudder when the helm is amidships.
Its velocity is the same as that of the wake.
The propeller gives it a helical motion.

558. A vessel brought alongside should be fended off the towing vessel by __________.
Crew members using their arms
A boat hook
Fenders
No fending is necessary due to the rugged construction of most
towing vessels.

249
DPKP

559. The helm command "shift your rudder" means __________.


Double your rudder angle or go to full rudder
Bring your rudder amidships
Change from right rudder to left rudder, or vice versa, an equal number of
degrees
Check the swing of the vessel

560. As the propeller turns, voids are formed on the trailing and leading edges of the
propeller blades causing a loss of propulsive efficiency, pitting of the blades, and
vibration. These voids are known as __________.
Advance
Cavitation
Edging
Slip

561. "Hard right rudder" means __________.


Put the rudder over to the right all the way
Jam the rudder against the stops
Meet a swing to the right, then return to amidships
Put the rudder over quickly to 15° right rudder

562. "Ease the rudder" means to __________.


Move the rudder slowly in the direction of the most recent rudder command
Bring the rudder amidships
Decrease the rudder angle
Steer the course which is your present heading

563. The distance that a ship moves forward with each revolution of its propeller, if
there is no slip, is called __________.
Advance
Head reach
Pitch
Transfer

250
DPKP

564. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the right or left,
depending on rotation. This force is caused by __________.
Back current from the rudder
Greater pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending
on rotation
Lower pressure on the right or left side of the propeller, depending on
rotation
Torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges
upon the propeller blades

565. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?
Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it
is now.
Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering metho
Stop the swing of the ship.

566. A vessel is equipped with a single right-handed screw. With rudder amidships and
calm wind, the vessel will most likely back __________.
Straight astern
To port
To starboard
In no particular direction

567. Generally, you can best keep a vessel under steering control when the vessel has
__________.
Headway
Sternway
No way on, with engines stopped
No way on, with engines full ahead

251
DPKP

568. A towing vessel is tripped when __________.


It is overtaken by the tow
It is pulled sideways by the tow
The weight of the towing hawser causes loss of maneuverability
The propeller is fouled by the towing hawser

569. When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is __________.
At the bow
About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
About one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern
Aft of the propellers

570. You are aboard a right-handed single-screw vessel with headway on. The engine is
put full astern and the rudder hard left. What will the bow do?
It will swing to the left, and will swing left faster as the vessel loses way.
It will swing to the left, straighten out and then swing to the right as
the vessel loses way.
It will swing to the left without increasing or decreasing its swing.
The bow will swing to the right

571. You are maneuvering a vessel with a right-hand propeller. The rudder is amidships.
The vessel will generally back __________.
To port
To starboard
In a straight line directly astern
Downstream, the stern going in the direction of the current

572. The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force
of the sea is known as __________.
Surge
Sway
Heave
Pitch

252
DPKP

573. The direction a vessel is pointed at any given time is the __________.
Course
Track
Heading
Course over the ground

574. Fetch is the __________.


Distance a wave travels between formation and decay
Stretch of water over which a wave-forming wind blows
Time in seconds required for two crests to pass a given point
Measurement of a wave's steepness

575. On mid-ocean waters, the height of a wind-generated wave is not affected by the
__________.
Water depth exceeding 100 feet
Fetch
Wind's velocity
Duration of the wind

576. When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand bar, and staying on the
proper side of the buoys, an operator should be cautious of __________.
Eddies under the bar
Swift current under the bar causing loss of control
Cross-currents pushing the tow away from the bar
Cross-currents pushing the tow into the bar

577. Where is the pivot point of a towboat with a tow ahead?


One-third the length of the combined unit forward of the towboat
One-third the length of the combined unit back from the head
At the head of the towboat
One-half the length of the combined unit

253
DPKP

578. A towboat has the same draft as the barges it is pushing ahea If the distance from
the stern of the towboat to the head of the tow is 800 feet, where is the approximate
location of the pivot point of the unit?
At the head of the tow
250 feet from the head of the tow
400 feet from the head of the tow
600 feet from the head of the tow

579. You are pushing a tow ahead and passing close to another towboat which is pushing
ahead in the same direction (you are overtaking). After the towheads pass close
alongside __________.
You will gain speed
Both boats will gain speed
The tows will tend to drift apart
The tows will tend to drift together

580. The direction in which a vessel should be steered between two points is the
__________.
Course
Heading
Bearing
Course over the ground

581. The type of current which will have the greatest effect on the course made good for
your vessel is __________.
One flowing in the same direction as your course steered
One flowing in the opposite direction as your course steered
One that flows at nearly right angles to your course steered
A rotary current in which the direction of current flow constantly changes

254
DPKP

582. The speed of an ocean current is dependent on __________.


The density of the water
The air temperature
The presence of a high pressure area near it
Underwater soil conditions

583. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly
current. Without considering wind, how may you allow for the set?
Head your vessel slightly to the right
Head your vessel slightly to the left
Decrease your speed
Increase your speed

584. You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard
side". You should instinctively __________.
Give full left rudder
Give full right rudder
Put the rudder amidships
Throw a life ring to mark the spot

585. Which statement about a tunnel bow thruster is TRUE?


It provides lateral control without affecting headway.
It is fully effective at speeds up to about six knots.
It can be used to slow the ship in addition to backing down.
It will allow you to hold a position when the current is from astern.

586. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases, the pivot point tends
to __________.
Move aft
Move forward
Move lower
Remain stationary

255
DPKP

587. The turning circle of a vessel making a turn over 360 degrees is the path followed
by the __________.
Center of gravity
Bow
Bridge
Centerline

588. The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at
sea speed is __________.
Right at the bow
One-third the length of the vessel from the bow
One-half the length of the vessel from the bow
Two-thirds the length of the vessel from the bow

589. Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy
weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve
the strain you could __________.
Pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vessel
Reduce speed
Take a course which most eases the vessel
All of the above

590. The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engines full
astern until the vessel is dead in the water is known as __________.
Advance
Head reach
Surge
Transfer

256
DPKP

591. Which shallow water effect will increase dramatically if you increase your ship's
speed past its "critical speed"?
Squatting
Smelling the bottom
Sinkage
Bank cushion

592. Which statement concerning the handling characteristics of a fully loaded vessel as
compared with those of a light vessel is FALSE?
A fully loaded vessel will be slower to respond to the engines.
A fully loaded vessel will maintain her headway further.
A light vessel will be more affected by the win
A light vessel loses more rudder effect in shallow water.

593. A vessel is entering port and has a Pilot conning the vessel. The Master is unsure
that the Pilot is taking sufficient action to prevent a collision. What should the
Master do?
Nothing; the Pilot is required by law and is solely responsible for the safety
of the vessel.
State his concerns to the Pilot but do not interfere with the handling of
the vessel.
Recommend an alternative action and if not followed relieve the Pilot.
Direct the Pilot to stop the vessel and anchor if necessary until the situation
clears.

594. The effect of wind on exposed areas of the vessel is most noticeable when
__________.
Backing
Going slow ahead
Going full ahead
Turning

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DPKP

595. When steering a vessel, a good helmsman will __________.


Use as much rudder as possible to keep the vessel on course
Apply rudder to move the compass card towards the lubbers line when off
course
Repeat back to the watch officer any rudder commands before executing
them
Keep the rudder amidships except when changing course

596. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of
180° has been completed, is called the __________.
Advance
Pivoting point
Tactical diameter
Kick

597. Your ship is in shallow water and the bow rides up on its bow wave while the stern
sinks into a depression of its transverse wave system. What is this called?
Broaching
Fish tailing
Squatting
Parallel sinkage

598. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "kick" means the distance
__________.
Around the circumference of the turning circle
Gained at right angles to the original course
Gained in the direction of the original course
Or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the
helm hard over

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DPKP

599. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "transfer" means the distance
__________.
Gained in the direction of the original course
Gained at right angles to the original course
The ship moves sidewise from the original course away from the direction
of the turn after the rudder is first put over
Around the circumference of the turning circle

600. If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST?
Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye
from the second line directly over the first.
It makes no difference how the lines are place
Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the
other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollar
Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to
the same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.

601. When turning a ship in restricted space with a strong wind, it is normally best to
__________.
Go ahead on both engines with the rudder hard to one side, if on a twin-
screw vessel
Back down with the rudder hard to one side, if on a single-screw vessel
Take advantage of the tendency to back to port, if on a twin-screw vessel
Turn so that the tendency to back into the wind can be used, if on a single-
screw vessel

602. When heading on a course, you put your rudder hard over. The distance traveled
parallel to the direction of the original course from where you put your rudder over
to any point on the turning circle is known as __________.
Advance
Head reach
Tactical diameter
Transfer

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DPKP

603. You are on a large merchant vessel entering a port. There is a Pilot on board and he
has the conn. Which statement is TRUE?
The Pilot is solely responsible for the safe maneuvering of the ship only if
he is required to be on board by law.
The Master is responsible for the safe navigation of the ship and the Pilot is
employed for his local knowledge.
The Pilot is solely responsible for the internal working of the ship.
The Pilot becomes solely responsible for the safe navigation of the
vessel only if the Master relinquishes the conn.

604. You have determined the maneuvering characteristics of your vessel by taking the
radar ranges and bearings of an isolated light while making a turn. The results are
as liste Based on this data what is the transfer for a turn of 30°? D035dg
40 yards
140 yards
190 yards
230 yards

605. While the Pilot is maneuvering the vessel to a dock, what is the primary
responsibility of the watch officer?
Judge the appropriateness of the Pilot's orders and countermand them if
necessary
Insure that helm and throttle orders given by the Pilot are correctly
executed
Record the bells and their times in the bell book
Supervise the signaling and flag etiquette

606. The measurement of the amount of force a towing vessel is capable of applying to a
motionless tow is called __________.
Shaft horsepower
Delivered horsepower
Bollard pull
Towrope pull

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DPKP

607. Before a Master relieves a Pilot of the conn, the __________.


Master should foresee any danger to the vessel on the present course
Vessel must be in extremis
Master should agree to sign a release of liability form
Master must first request the Pilot to take corrective action

608. The pivoting point of a vessel going ahead is __________.


At the hawsepipe
About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow
Near the stern

609. You are standing the wheel watch on entering port and the Master gives you a
rudder command which conflicts with a rudder command from the Pilot. What
should you do?
Ask the Pilot if he relinquishes control.
Obey the Pilot.
Obey the Master.
Bring the rudder to a position midway between the two conflicting
positions.

610. How does the effect known as "bank suction" act on a single-screw vessel
proceeding along a narrow channel?
It pulls the bow toward the bank.
It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank.
It pulls the stern toward the bank.
It heels the vessel toward the bank.

611. What does the helm command "shift the rudder" mean?
Put the rudder over to the opposite side, the same number of degrees it
is now.
Put the rudder amidships and hold the heading steady as she goes.
Shift the rudder control to the alternate steering metho
Stop the swing of the ship.
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DPKP

11. Mengoperasikan alat kendali (remote control) penataan tenaga


pendorong serta sistem dan pelayanan permesinan.
(Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering systems
and services )

612. In a 4 cycle engine the in let value begins to open when the piston is on its....
Exhaust stroke.
Suction stroke.
Compression stroke.
Power stroke.

613. In a 4 cycle engine the exhaust value opens while the piston is on its...
Suction stroke
Exhaust stroke
Compression stroke
Power stroke

614. In a naturally aspirated 4 cycle diesel engine the exhaust valve is open for a
period of...
200 degrees.
190 degrees.
180 degrees.
250 degrees.

615. What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel
engine? I. Loss of power II. Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive
consumption of lube oil.
1.111 and IV
I, II and IV
I, II and III
11.111 and IV

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DPKP

616. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the four stroke of the piston required to
complete one cycle Which must take place in regular order. The second stroke...

Compresses the air.


Is the power stroke.
Draws off air in the
cylinder.
D. Expels the burned gases. For

617. If the output of this auxiliary diesel increases, say by 30 %, how will the
thermometer readings on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger change ?
They will remain the same
They will slightly increase (by `1 to 3 degrees C)
They will be a greatly increase (by 6 to 7 degrees C)
They will slightly decrease (by 1 to 3 degrees C)

618. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ?
In series with the cylinders
In tandem with the cylinders
In parallel with the cylinders
In line with the cylinders

619. How is pump 'V" driven ?


By gears attached to the crankshaft
By a hydraulic motor
By an electric motor
By gravity

620. What is the component marked 'V" ?


The piston cooling pump
The lub oil pump
The sea water pump
The fresh water pump
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DPKP

621. How is the set pressure (opening pressure) on the safety value of a diesel
engine adjusted ?
By adjusting the distance of the valve cone
By adjusting the lift height of the spindle
By adjusting the spring pressure
By fitting distance washers

622. What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

A two stroke crosshead type engine


A two stroke trunk type engine
A four stroke supercharged engine
A four stroke trunk type engine

623. What type of scavenge system is in use in this diesel engine ?

Combined scavenging
Loop scavenging
A uniflow scavenge system
Diverted scavenging

624. What type of turbocharger would be fitted to this engine ?

A radial inlet type


A constant pressure type
An impulse type
A dual entry type

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DPKP

625. What type of diesel engine is shown here ?

A four stroke trunk type engine


A four stroke flanged type engine
A two stroke trunk type engine
A two stroke suspended engine

626. How do the inlet and the exhaust value pushrods and rocker arms moue on this
type of engine ?

Pneumatically lifted via cam activated air booster


Indirectly lifted by cam via tumbler lever
Hydraulically lifted by cam activated servo unit
Directly lifted by the cams acting on pushrods

627. In this diagram if left is portside and right is starboard, during the taking of
crankshaft positions the rotation is counterclockwise, in what position is the
engine crankshaft now shown ?

Between P and S
Between TS and TP
Between TP and P
Between S and TS

628. Which grade of fuel oil can be used in this kind of engine (built after 1990) ?

Marine diesel or distillate diesel oil


Any of these
Blend or intermediate fuel oil
Heavy fuel oil

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DPKP

629.In a trunk type piston, the downward combustion pressure on the gudgeon pin
is composed of two forces. What are these forces ?
Combustion pressure and crankshaft torque
Side thrust force and linear force with the connecting rod
Side thrust and rotating motion
Exhaust pressure and rotational force

630. The fundamental difference between a 2-stroke and a 4-stroke engine is


in the number of:
Strokes in each combustion cycle.
Combustion events occurring in each stroke.
Piston strokes each one needs to complete a revolution.
Piston strokes each one needs to complete a combustion cycle.

631. Mat part shown in this diagram ?

A liner
A piston filter
A rod
A piston

632. The third stroke of four-stroke diesel engine is called the ...
Air stroke.
Power stroke.
Expansion stroke.
Compression stroke.

633. A diesel engine block is made of …... And does not permit welding.
Mild steel
Stainless steel
Cast iron
Tempered steel

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DPKP

634. The best way to ensure engine speed governor stability is to allow a given ratio of
............
Stability.
Compensation.
Speed droop.
Sensitivity.

635. Which part of the mechanical governor is manipulated by the servo-


motor to increase or decrease engine speed ?
The dashpot
The linkage to the fuel rack
The sensitivity band
He compensating spring

636. In a 4 cycle supercharged diesel engine the exhaust value is open in the cycle
for a period of........
280 degree.
200 degree.
230 degree.
220 degree.

637. What do you call the instrument that measures the concentric position
of the crankshaft or rotor Shaft in its bearing ?
A Shafting gauge
A Bridge gauge
A Spirit level gauge
A Dial gauge

638. The narrow band of speed variation through which the governor
makes no correction and refers to the sensitivity of the governor is known
as the
Dead band
Speed droop
Isochronous band
Sensitive band
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DPKP

639. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lubrication oil system to remove
metallic particles ?
A Fuller's earth strainer
A Simplex strainer
A Metal edge strainer
A Magnetic basket strainer

640. If this auxiliary diesel increases its output, say by 30 %, what will the
readings of all the Thermometers on the outlet side of engine and turbocharger
show ?
They will slightly increase (1 to 3 degrees C).
They will slightly decrease (1 to 3 degrees C).
They will remain the same.
There will greatly increase (6 to 7 degrees C).

641. A lubricating oil having a high viscosity index number would normally be
used in which of the following situations?
When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range.
When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range.
When the machinery operates at a very high temperature.
When the machinery operates at a high load.

642. The Base Number of a lubricating oil is an indication of which of the following?
The alkalinity of the oil.
The Flash Point of the oil.
Amount of contaminants in the lubricating oil.
The viscosity of the oil.

643. The diagram shows a the symbol for a component from a hydraulic circuit.
What component does it represent?
A directional control valve.
A throttle valve.
A pressure relief valve.
A check valve.
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DPKP

644. There are two basic types of turbocharging systems used for supplying
combustion air to marine diesel engines: constant pressure and pulse. What is the
main difference between these two types of system?
A constant pressure system has a larger volume exhaust gas receiver.
A constant pressure system has a smaller volume exhaust gas receiver.
A constant pressure system has the exhaust pipes from small groups of
cylinders brought together and led directly to a turbocharger.
A constant pressure system has a pressure controller fitted to the exhaust gas
receiver to maintain the exhaust pressure.

645. What is meant by the term "two stage air compressor" ?


A compressor in which the compressed air from the first stage is further
compressed in the second stage before being delivered to the air receiver.
A compressor in which the air is delivered to two separate air receivers
each at different pressures.
A two cylinder compressor in which half of the air is compressed in
one cylinder and half in the other.
A set of two compressors. The first compressor delivers low pressure air
to an air receiver. The second further compresses the air for delivery to the
working range.

646. What is the main effect on lubricating oil of operating for long
periods at excessively high temperature?
It will cause the oil to oxidise, increasing the viscosity.
It will cause the oil to oxidise, reducing the viscosity.
It will cause the oil to evaporate, increasing consumption.
It will change the flashpoint of the oil.

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DPKP

647. What is the main reson for keeping engine lubricating oil viscosity
within recommended limits?
To ensure the strength of the oil film is sufficient to keep lubricated surfaces
apart.
To reduce system pressure losses.
To neutralise any acids that may form.
It is not important

648. What would be the typical flash point of the lubricating oil in the main
lubricating system of a diesel engine?
200-240 deg C
140-180 deg C
Below 140 deg C
Above 240 deg C

649. When referring to onboard oil treatments using a centrifuge, what is meant
by the term purification?
Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and the removal
of solids in the same process.
Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid during the process.
Separation of one insoluble liquid from another.
It is a general term applied to a process for cleaning oil using a centrifuge.

650. Which factor influences the pumping capacity (flow) of a centrifugal


pump the most?
Total pressure head
Liquid temperature
Suction pressure
Liquid density

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DPKP

651. Which of the following changes would occur when the temperature of
lubricating oil is reduced?
Viscosity would increase.
Flash point would increase.
Concentration of contaminants would increase.
Pour point would reduce.

652. Which of the following fluids usually has the lowest density at normal
ambient temperatures?
Lubricating oil.
Heavy fuel oil.
Sea water.
Marine diesel oil.

653. Which of the following is not a principle of heat transfer utilised in an oil
fired steam boiler?
Forced convection.
Natural convection.
Conduction.
Radiation.

654. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?


A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.
A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers.
A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder cover.
The piston always has a short skirt.

655. Which term is used to refer to the quantity of heat required to raise the
temperature of one kilogram of any particular substance by one degree Celsius?
Specific heat or specific heat capacity.
Latent heat
Coefficient of thermal expansion.
Adiabatic heat

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DPKP

656. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater
cooling systems? Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in
seawater cooling systems?
To prevent corrosion of the metals used in the system.
To prevent scale formation in the system.
To prevent fouling of the system.
To prevent marine growth in the system

657. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to
be 50 ppm. What action should be taken if any?
No action is necessary.
Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals.
Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of treatment chemicals.
Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before filling with fresh feed
water.

658. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the
double shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return
valve. What is the main function of the non-return valve?
To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out through
the feed line if the feed line fractures or a joint in the line blows.
To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-return valve is shut
and the boiler is steaming.
To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump..
To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler.

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DPKP

659. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is
most accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube
boilers.
Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain less water
than fire tube boilers. They are prone to major damage when run dry
during operation.
A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam
pressure.
A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any
water when the burner is operating.
A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the feedwater line.

660. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
Every day.
Every week.
Every hour.
Every hour.

661. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500
ppm. What action should be taken?
Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage.
Increase dosage of treatment chemicals.
Increase feed water temperature.
Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.

662. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be
most beneficial?
When the boiler is firing on high rate.
When the boiler burner is off.
When the boiler is firing on low rate.
When the boiler is firing on medium rate.
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DPKP

663. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a ph value of less than 9?
Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the ph value
is back within normal range.
Blowdown the boiler and refill with good feedwater.
No action is required.
Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the ph is back
within normal range.

664. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the ph-value in
the boiler water is slightly over 11.5?
Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler water treatment
chemicals.
No action is required this is the normal level.
Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of boiler water
treatment chemicals.
Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute the contents.

665. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler water?
Conductivity test.
Alkalinity test.
Chloride test.
Ph test

666. What is the correct range for the ph-value for the water in an oil fired steam boiler?
9 - 11.
4.5 - 7.
Below 4.5
7–9

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DPKP

667. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the risk of
overheating.
It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler.
It increases scale deposits in the boiler.
It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the operator from
seeing the water level.

668. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed water.
To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment.
To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water.
To act as the primary feed heater.

669. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure
steam boiler?
To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam
pressure or when the boiler is not on-line.
To remove air from the superheater.
To remove water from the superheater.
To control the superheater pressure during operation.

670. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based
compounds present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried out?
It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the boiler.
It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in the boiler.
It will reduce the TDS in the boiler.
No negative effects are likely.

275
DPKP

671. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
To allow removal of any oil or impurities which collect on the surface of
the water in the boiler steam drum.
To allow removal impurities from the boiler feed-water
To allow removal of sludge and mud which may collect in the bottom of the
boiler water drum.
To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water tank.

672. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
To heat the feed-water
To desuperheat the steam
To heat the fuel oil
To heat the combustion air.

673. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace?
To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes and other fittings
from overheating.
To give added strength to the furnace.
To support the steam drum.
To ignite the burner during automatic operation.

674. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner
unit of oil or gas fired steam boilers?
To check that the flame is present during start up or normal operation of the
burner; if not then fuel is shut off automatically.
To check the colour of the flame.
To control the combustion air supply to the boiler.
To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.

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DPKP

675. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler
water tests?
At room temperature.
As hot as possible.
It makes no difference.
At less than room temperature.

676. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater
causing condensate to build up in the heat exchanger?
Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
An increase in fuel oil temperature.
Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger.
Low water level in the boiler.

677. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
From the boiler water space.
From the boiler steam space.
From the boiler feed system.
From the blowdown line.

678. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kw and kvar


loading are respectively transferred by the following controls:
Speed governor and voltage regulator
Current regulator and voltage regulator
Voltage regulator and synchroscope
Speed governor and load power factor

679. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator
operating in parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output:
Reactive load (kvar)
Active load (kw)
Frequency
None of the mentioned alternatives
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DPKP

680. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the


automatic voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor short
circuited or disconnected in order to:
Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high voltage tester
Protect insulation resistance tester and leads from being damaged
Prevent charging of capacitive components within the automatic
voltage regulator causing false regulation when generator restarts
Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator during insulation testing

681. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kw rated generator has not been in operation for
several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken. The
minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator winding to
allow you to proceed with running the generator is:
1 000 000 Ohms
10 Ohms
1000 Ohms
10 000 Ohms

682. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The internal


e.m.f. Generated in the phase windings of an a.c. Generator is controlled by:
A. The diesel speed and excitation current.
B. The internal volt drop and the load current.
C. The diesel speed, magnetising force and load current.
D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.

683. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be
performed to check:
A. Its readiness to perform as specified.
B. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-drills.
C. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics.
D. Its compliance with the shipbuilder's recommendations.

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DPKP

684. Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to the
same supply network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and
frequency are respectively adjusted by:
AVR and speed governor
Voltmeter and frequency meter
Speed governor and load power factor controller
Synchroscope and speed governor

685. The internal e.m.f. Generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded
a.c. Generator is controlled by:
The prime mover speed and excitation current.
The internal volt drop and the load current.
The prime mover and load current.
The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.

686. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:


Voltmeter and synchroscope
Kw meter and frequency meter
Amp-meter and volt-meter
Synchroscope and kvar-meter

687. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied


from an emergencygenerator?
Steering gear and engine room alarm system
Engine room lighting and bow thruster
Galley and air conditioning
Sound powered telephone system

688. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected. The
first step is to:
Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
Make sure the load is evenly shared
Trip the main circuit breaker
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DPKP

Increase the frequency on the switchboard


689. What is the meaning of ―H.S. PUMPS‖ ?

Hele-Shaw pumps
Higgins-Simpson pumps
Hydraulic solenoid pumps
Hydrostatic solenoid pumps

690. What is the function of the values ―PR‖ fitted between the two after and the
two forward cylinders ?

691. To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped
692. To be opened to allow emergency steering.
693. To act as safety valves to absorb shock and avoid damage
694. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump

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DPKP

80. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action ?

695. As soon as the electric motor is started


696. As soon as point ―Z‖ moves
697. As soon as the telemotor pump is started
698. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge

699. What is part No 3 ?

The rudder
The poop
The transom
The stern

700. What is the shaft called to which the propeller is fastened


?

701. The main engine shaft


702. The intermediate shaft
703. The tail shaft
704. The stern shaft

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DPKP

705. How is the propeller fitted on the drive shaft, so as to avoid it from slipping ?

It is locked into slots on the drive shaft


It is bolted on the flange of the drive shaft
A key is fitted between propeller and drive shaft
Wires are fitted through the securing holes
of shaft and propeller

706. What part is fitted under the propeller cone ? (Left triangular part of the
propeller in the drawing)

The propeller nut


The propeller seal
The propeller locking bar
The oil filling pipe

707. Of what kind commonly named metal is the stern tube lining composed of ?

Tin
Aluminium brass
Lead
White metal

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DPKP

86. How is the stern tube bearing lubricated ?

By the main stern supply pump


It turns in an oil bath
By grease
By graphite

708. What is the shape of stern tube seals (forward and aft) ?

They are square in form and diagonally cut


They are round in form and in one
piece (0-ring type)
They are lip seals and in one piece
They are flat gaskets between flanges

709. Which are the stern tube bearing parts on this type of stern tube?

The cylindrical steel tube aft


The forward and the aft
bearing bushes (liners)
The cylindrical steel tube with
white metal lining and oil bath
The forward and aft plummer
blocks

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DPKP

89. When a command is given to this steering gear, what happens ?

The spring "S" will be compressed or elongated


The ―HS‖ pumps will start pumping
Point "X" will turn around point "Y", moving "Z" and the control rod
The valves 'PR" will activate, building up hydraulic pressure

710. What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted between point "Y" and the Trunion
block of the steering gear ?

To avoid sudden movements and overload


To elongate and compress and keep
point "Y" in place
To absorb the clearance of the Trunion with
the rod "X-Y"
Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances

284
DPKP

711. What is to be checked during a drydocking period to ensure that any upward
movement of the rudder will be contained and damage to the steering gear will be
avoided ?

The pallister bearing clearance


The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances
The rudder plugs
The rudder stock carrier bearing clearance

712. Which action of the steering gear pumps is feasible ?

713. Pressure to cylinders A and D, return oil from B and C


714. Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D
715. Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D
716. Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D

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DPKP

717. During normal operations, the command rod ''C" pushes point ―Z‖ and the
control rod off centre so that the "HS" pumps start pumping and the settering
gear moves. When will it stop moving ?

When the command rod "C" stops moving


When the command rod ''C" moves in opposite direction
When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command
When the trunion point "Y" pushes point ―Z‖ back in the centre

718. This electric circuit is part of the Steering Gear Control System, in which the
output is either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or 2 is energized. It is an example of what
kind of circuit ?

719. Two (2) double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids


720. Two (2) Potentiometers with amplifier relays
721. A booster aggregate
722. A Wheatstone Bridge

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723. The first potentiometer of this electric command system is located on the
bridge. By what mode of steering will it be given a command ?

By automatic steering via the gyro


By hand steering
By any of these steering methods
By push button steering

724. What will the output be to the solenoids of the steering gear depending
potentiometers stands if : BRIDGE IIGHER THAN RUDDER = A stand, RUDDER
HIGHER THAN BRIDGE = B stand, RUDDER EQUAL TO BRIDGE
O stand ?

725. O-stand = output 0, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1


726. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1
727. O-stand = S1+S2, A stand = S1, B stand = S2
728. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 0, B-stand = S2 is 0

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729. This steering gear telemotor system is drawn in the neutral position,
rudder amidship. This means that ………….?

Neither solenoid ―S1" or "S2"is energised


The double check valves are blocked
The capacity control is at zero
Pump ―P‖ is not pumping

730. What is the purpose of the double check valves fitted in this telemotor system ?

To maintain the set pressure in the system


To keep the rudder locked in the desired position
To avoid pipe rupture due to sudden movements
To avoid oil blockage and stickiness

731. What is the purpose of the capacity control on the telemotor of a steering gear ?

732. To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant
733. To keep the electric capacity between parameters (absorption)
734. To keep the outlet pressure and capacity to react constant
735. To keep the oil delivery quantity of the pump constant

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736. Under what circumstances is this steering control system energised / operational?

By any of the above


By hand steering
By automatic gyro steering
By push-button steering

737. Mat is the purpose of the 3-way cock part No 7 in the stern tube oil circuit ?

To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample


To remove air from the system
To fill oil in the system
To change over from main to forward
stern tube sealing circuit

738. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level ?

739. To ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal


740. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
741. To ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal
742. To avoid oil being spilled overboard

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103. What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump?

Bilge empty
Discharge value closed.
Pump impeller choked.
Suction strainer blocked.

743. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump?

Bylining an orifice in the discharge line


By throttling the suction value
By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value
By throttling the discharge value

744. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented?

Special packing in the stuffing box.


An air seal line from the compressed airline.
The air pump fitted to the pump
A water seal line to the packing gland

745. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for
the domestic fresh water System?

20 m3/hour x 25 metres
0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres
40 m3/hour x 55 metres
5 m3/hour x 50 metres

746. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump?

Fuel oil transfer


Boiler feed pump
Hydraulic winch power pack
Bilge and ballast

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108. At would you rate the capacity of this type of pump?

10 to 15 m3/hour
50 to 250 m3/hour
5 to 7.5 m3/hour
15 to 25 m3/hour

747. For which service would a gear pump be most suitable?

Engine cooling water circulating.


Engine lub oil pressure supply.
Bilge pumping
Boiler feed water supply.

748. Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium?

Liquids mixed with solids.


Pumping liquids against a high head pressure.
Liquids having high air content.
Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.

749. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components?

The rounded and the bellow gear.


The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear.
The driving and driven shaft gears
The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.

750. What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for?

Where liquids are not excessively viscous.


Where the liquid has a high temperature.
Where liquids are extremely viscous.
Where there is a high air content.

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751. When assembling an 'Endless Screw"type pump what results from insufficient
axial or radial Clearance?

The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations.


The pump will not pump.
Wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress.
The pump will not deliver correct pressure.

752. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the
initial load?

Suction and discharge valves closed.


The discharge value closed.
The suction value closed.
The suction value throttled.

753. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance
deteriorating over time?

Cavitation of the impeller.


Wear of the pump housing.
Near of the gland neck bush.
Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.

754. Would you do on first starting a gear if pumping cold oil?

Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.


Throttle the suction value
Start/stop the pump frequently
Start the pump with values closed and gradually open.

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755. What is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump?

Malfunction of the electrical motor


Tank being transferred into is full.
Pump no longer pumping liquid.
Malfunction of the pump.

756. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands?

Mechanical shaft seal.


Preformed lip seals
Carbon sealing rings.
Soft gland packing.

757. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid?

The valve is easier to open.


There is less scouring of the value seat at partial openings.
There is less restriction to flow in this direction.
With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.

758. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines?

Solid copper joints.


Wire reinforced asbestos joints.
Preformed neoprene joints
General purpose asbestos joints.

759. How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts?

Sliding securing mounts.


Selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion.
Fitting of steel bellows pieces.
Sliding section of piping.

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122. Where would you find a duplex fitter unit?

In starting air piping


In fuel oil piping
In bilge piping
In sea water piping
760. Where would you find a thermostatic control valve?

Hydraulic ring main supply system.


Fuel oil system.
Engine jacket water cooling system.
Engine lub oil system.

761. How does a 'quick closing' value operate?

The value can only be opened and closed hydraulically.


An independent mechanism closes the value.
The value bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the value o close.
A retaining collar is released allowing the value to close.

762. Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted?

Bilge suction valves


Fuel tank valves
Ballast tank valves
Fire main isolating valves

763. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high
suction?

Check suction strainers and valves.


Open sea suction value to prime pump
Clean the oiliwater separator.
Inspect pump internals for wear

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764. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells?

They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells.


Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging
Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room.
Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded

765. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them?

By perforated plating
There is no covering
By steel grid plates bolted in place
By very fine mesh grids

766. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead?

Non-return screw down valves


Screw lift valves
Butterfly valves
Gate valves

767. What is the purpose of a cofferdam?

To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids.


As a watertight barrier.
As an emergency storage space for bilge water.
As a collection space for leaking pipe work

768. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be
not moving, what would you check first?

769. Whether the value is dirty.


770. If there is excess pressure on the value.
771. Check that the value is not broken.
772. Check to see if the value spindle is being turned.

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773. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessaryto have PUMP

REDUNDANCY. What does this mean?

A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately


All pumps in the engine room are duplicated
Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit.
All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility
774. What generator cooling is sometimes used in dry-docking?

Ship's sanitary system.


Ballast pumps.
Circulating fore or aft peak tanks.
Circulating fresh water tanks.

775. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections
separated?

Neoprene lip seals


Machineable sealing rings.
Labyrinth seals.
Mechanical garter spring seals.

776. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller
badly, the Shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why?

The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.


The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.
The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller.
The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence

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777. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room?

To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running
To isolate the pump for repairs.
In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room
To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply
the deck.

778. What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is
correct?

Insufficient liquid supply to the pump


Obstruction on the discharge side
The pump is not bled off properly
Misalignment of the shaft

779. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge?

600ppm
1000ppm
100ppm
50ppm

780. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'?

0ppm
25ppm
50ppm
L5ppm

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781. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard


in 'Special Areas'?

Only in a case of emergency.


If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.
When proceeding Full Ahead.
During the hours of darkness.

782. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level?

A visible alarm.
The discharge is dumped to the bilge
An audible alarm.
The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.

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783. Plan And Ensure Safe Loading, Stowage, Securing, Care During
Voyage And Unloading Of Cargoes.
784. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow has been left with an excessive peak
height; what could be the result of this situation?
Excessive stresses on tank top
Damage to hatch covers
Excessive stresses on transverse
bulkheads
Excessive cargo sweat

785. A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0 centimetres over her maximum loadline draft
after loading; what should be the actions of the master?
Order the pumping out of fresh water or ballast until the
maximum allowed loadline is achieved.
Record a lower draught and sail
Inform the port authorities and sail
There is not a problem as over loading is permitted

786. A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what regulations
must the vessel comply?
IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of
Timber Deck cargoes
International Code for the carriage of
Dangerous Goods
Grain Regulations
Marine Pollution Regulations

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787. During a pre-loading survey prior to loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very small
amount of the previous grain cargo is found in a cargo hold; what is the
significance of this situation?
The vessel may fail the pre-load survey and
be declared off-hire
The affected cargo hold should be left empty
The cargo hold can be cleaned while other
holds are loaded
The remaining cargo from the previous
voyage can be ignored

788. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier?


Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes athwartships
Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the
longitudinal axes athwartships
Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes fore and aft
Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the longitudinal axes fore and
aft

789. What are the advantages of ballasting double bottom ballast tanks by gravity filling
on a Bulk Carrier?
There is minimum pressure head
on the tank top and pumps are not
required
Ballasting is done more quickly
Free surface effect is eliminated
Ballasting can be done without
any supervision

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790. What could happen if a bulk vessel failed to display placards notifying the crew of
the disposal of garbage within and outside Special Areas?
The vessel could be detained by
port state control authorities
The vessel could be detained by
its flag Administration
The classification society
concerned could suspend the
vessel's International Oil
Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
Certificate
The ship owner could be penalized by the P. & I. Club concerned

791. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
MARPOL regulations
SOLAS 74/88 regulations
Convention on the Prevention of
Marine Pollution by Dumping of
Wastes and Other Matter
The Code of Safe Practice for
Solid Bulk Cargoes

792. What is essential to ensure that efficient stripping of ballast tanks on a Bulk Carrier
can be achieved?
A good stern trim is maintained
during de- ballasting operations
A trim by the bow is required
The vessel must be maintained at
an even keel
The trim of the vessel is not
important

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793. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks on a Bulk Carrier, which are close to
cargo spaces containing grain, are excessively heated?
The grain cargo may be heated and
damaged
The cargo may liquefy
The grain cargo may produce
methane gas
No damage should occur

794. What is the purpose of a draught survey before and after loading on a Bulk Carrier?
To ascertain the actual weight of cargo loaded
The calculate the stability of the vessel
To calculate the deadweight of the vessel
To calculate light displacement of the vessel

795. What measures should be taken in order to avoid flammable gases forming on top
of coal cargoes on a Bulk Carrier?
Ventilation to be carried out as indicated in the IMO solid Bulk Cargo Code
Ventilation to be continuous?
Cargo not to be ventilated?
Cargo to be ventilated by opening hatch covers at sea?

796. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a bulk cargo of iron ore on a Bulk
Carrier?
Cargo hold bilge suctions must be satisfactorily tested
Cargo hold paintwork must be intact
Cargo hold ventilation systems must be satisfactorily tested
Cargo hold tank tops must be pressure-tested

797. What publication must be carried on a vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes?
IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code or IMO Solid Bulk?
International Tankers and Terminal Code?
Classification Society Grain Rules?
Charters' Solid Bulk Cargoes Code?
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798. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a
Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration?
Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management System
(SMS) for guidance
There are no restrictions on discharge of cargo residues to sea
Follow actions of previous crews
Check procedures and Arrangements manual

799. Which of these covers the rules and regulations for General Average on a Bulk
Carrier?
The York Antwerp rules
The Hague rules
The Hague Visby rules
The Hamburg rules

800. Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?


IMO Grain Rules?
Classification Society Rules?
Statutory Regulations?
Port State Regulations?

801. Which special regulations cover transportation of solid Bulk cargoes?


IMO Bulk Cargoes Code (BC) and the IMO International Maritime Solid
Bulk Cargo Code( IMSBC)
The cargo securing manual
The timber deck cargo code published by IMO
Classification Society Rules

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802. Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's cargo
holds?
Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces
Because of inadequate dunnage placed over the tank top
Because of using inadequately sized lasing wires
Because of dunnage, provided at every tier of the cargo, not having been
aligned

803. Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes on Bulk
Carriers?
Because of movement of the bulk cargo loader or unloaders
Because of variations in under keel clearances whilst alongside the berth
Because of the vessel's movement whilst berthing or unberthing
Because the vessel may pass under a bridge(s) whilst approaching or
leaving the berth

804. A container vessel has lost several dangerous goods containers overboard. The
master must report this loss of container incident to:
The nearest Coastal state.
The Flag state.
The ship owner.
Vessels in the immediate vicinity.

805. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on deck of a container vessel, stowed across
several flat rack containers. The most appropriate method for lashing such cargo
would be by:
Taking all lashings to the flat-rack lashing points.
Taking all lashings to the hatch top.
Taking all lashings to the hatch coamings, pillars and lashing bridges.
Taking some of the lashings to flat-racks and rest to hatch tops.

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806. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard part of
the deck stow are additionally subjected to:
The effect of wind on the containers.
Transverse accelerating load condition,
leading to loss of GM.
The effect of green seas breaking over the
containers.
Lack of support from adjacent columns of containers.

807. Best location to stow containers loaded with Calcium Hypochlorite would be:
On deck, away from sources of heat.
Away from reefer units, below deck.
Under deck, away from sources of heat.
Abaft the accommodation.

808. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous:
When the associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s) listed
in the IMDG Code.
When declared as a non-hazardous chemical.
When declared as bulk liquid foodstuff.
When the shipper instructs that the container be carried on-deck only.

809. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container
vessel would be most concerned with:
The added weight of icing on container stacks,
leading to loss of GM.
The presence of icebergs leading to hazard of
navigation.
Temperature differential between air and
seawater, leading to shell plating damage.
High wind and waves leading to speed reduction and high fuel consumption.

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810. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container
vessel would be most concerned with:
Metacentric height of the vessel.
Current wave conditions.
Transverse distribution of container stack weights.
Hull form of the vessel.

811. For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the most
important document to refer is:
The Cargo Securing Manual.
The Code for the Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing.
The company's ISM handbook.
The Stability Manual.

812. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of containers
is:
Determined by the clauses of the charter-party.
Provided as per advice from the Supercargo.
Always upon the attending cargo surveyor.
Always upon the charterer of the vessel.

813. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to give
guidance for:
Preparation and content of the Cargo Securing Manual.
Securing of deck cargoes.
Securing of cargoes in hazardous ocean areas.
Port State Control Officers when carrying out ship inspections.

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814. The dangers associated with carriage of empty tank


containers is that:
They may contain flammable cargo residue.
They may not be declared as being empty.
They could explode if their vents are closed.
They are prone to collapse.

815. The direction of wave encounter that is most likely to cause a parametric roll
condition on large container ships is:
Head seas.
Beam seas.
Just forward of the beam seas.
Following or quartering seas.

816. The most appropriate measure to reduce the build-up of ice on containers during a
sea passage is to:
Reduce speed, whilst maintaining course.
Increase speed, whilst maintaining course.
Have the crew remove the ice.
Heave to and wait for ambient temperature to rise to safe levels.

817. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would be:
By internal shift of ballast.
By internal shift of cargo containers.
By internal shift of fuel oil.
By jettisoning of containers.

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818. What is the master's position if he is asked to load a container that is incorrectly
manifested, but which is believed to contain dangerous goods, about which
insufficient information is supplied?
He has the authority to refuse it.
He must load it, but immediately advise his
operations department and request full
information.
If it it approved by the operations department,
he can assume all safety checks have been
carried out and should load it.
He must load it, but ensure it is placed in a safe loaction, to which there is
immediate access in the event of an emergency.

819. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships,
reference must be made to:
The ems Guide.
The ISPS Code.
SOLAS Chapter V – Safety of navigtaion.
The ship's Contingency plan.

820. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG Code
it is not allowed to:
Pack and ship the cargo in bags.
Ship in open top half containers on deck.
Ship in Intermediate Bulk Containers (ibcs).
Carry the cargo transport units under deck.

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821. A chemical tanker may be granted, by the Government of the receiving Party, an
exemption from carrying out a mandatory prewash provided that the:
Unloaded tank is to be reloaded with the same
substance or another substance compatible with
the previous one and that the tank will not be
washed or ballasted prior to loading.
Unloaded tank will be washed outside a special area.
Vessel temporarily has defective tank cleaning equipment and the prewash
will be carried out at the first available opportunity after repairs have been
completed and the tank will not be loaded or ballasted before that time.
Vessel's stripping system can reduce the residues to less than 10 litres in the
relevant tank and its associated piping.

822. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before
leaving port in compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be
discharged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the
effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the authorized
surveyor has reached a level of:
0.1% by weight.
0.1% by volume.
0.2% by weight.
0.3% by volume.

823. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the
area(s) designated as ―Special Areas‖ are:
The Antarctic.
The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area, Gulf
of Aden, Oman Area of the Arabian Sea, Southern South African Waters,
Antarctic and North-West European Waters.
The Baltic Sea, the Black Sea and Antarctic.
The Wider Caribbean Region including the Gulf of Mexico and the
Caribbean Sea, Southern South African Waters and North-West European
Waters.

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824. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed to
such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance previously
carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge rate, ship's
speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions, which require:
That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in water
that is not less than 25 metres deep.
That the vessel is not less than 50 miles from the nearest land and is
proceeding on route.
That the discharge is passed through the Oil Discharge Monitoring
Equipment and a visual watch is maintained on the vessel's wake.
Provided the ship is underway and a sample of the ballast water has been
drawn from the tank and is stored on board, there are no additional
conditions to be imposed on such a discharge.

825. Cargo residues of certain chemical substances are permitted to be removed by


ventilation. This may be carried out provided that:
The cargo discharged has a vapour pressure greater than 5 kpa at 20 degrees
Celsius.
The cargo discharged has a vapour expansion coefficient of at least 1.025.
The vessel's ventilation system is capable of delivering a minimum of 20
changes of atmosphere per hour within the compartment.
The volume of the tank does not exceed 1750 cubic metres, the maximum
remaining residues are less than 75 litres and ventilation is additionally
possible directly down the pumpstack.

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826. Definitive information on whether a particular cargo is classified as a ―Noxious


Liquid Substance‖ (other than products provisionally assessed) can be obtained
from:
The pollution category column of chapters 17 or 18 of the International
Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code).
The pollution category of chapter 17 (only) of the International Bulk
Chemical Code (IBC Code).
The product groups within the list of cargoes contained in the Chemical
Data Guide for Bulk Shipment by Water.
The Procedures and Arrangements Manual.

827. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a low


flash or static accumulator product:
The tank must be inerted to less than 8% oxygen content.
The product must be allowed settling time within the tank before
recirculation is commenced.
All lids and other penetrations must be securely closed before recirculation
is commenced.
The tank must already have been cleaned to Water White Standard to ensure
no hazardous reaction with cargo residues.

828. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category ―X‖, ―Y‖ & ―Z‖ Noxious Liquid
Substances, the term ―Clean Ballast‖ as defined in the IBC Code means:
Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a cargo
containing a substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been thoroughly
cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been discharged and the
tank emptied in accordance with the appropriate requirements of Annex II.
Ballast water introduced into a tank permanently allocated to the carriage of
ballast or cargoes other than oil or Noxious Liquid Substances as variously
defined in the Annexes of the MARPOL Convention and which is
completely separate from the cargo and oil fuel systems.
Ballast water carried in a tank which has been previously washed in
accordance with the requirements of the Procedures and Arrangements
Manual.
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Ballast water that is free of all cargo residues and slops.

829. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a
Noxious Liquid Substance or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall be
made in the Cargo record Book, which shall include:
Time of occurrence
Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies)
Circumstances of discharge or escape and general remarks.
Date of occurrence
Position (latitude and longitude)
Estimated quantity and category(ies)
Extract from Master's Log Book detailing the incident.
Position at start and stop of accidental
discharge Time at start and stop of accidental
discharge Reason for accidental discharge
Name of Person in Charge of operation at time of accidental
discharge. Date and Time of occurrence
Name of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Statement of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Approximate quantity and category of product discharged
Identity of nearest sovereign State and Authority of that State contacted with
applicable report reference.

830. The ‗dew point‘ of a liquid chemical can be defined as:


The temperature at which a gas is saturated with respect to a condensable
component, as in operational terms is seen at the point when air is saturated
with moisture.
The temperature at which a condensable component is saturated with
respect to a gas, as in operational terms is seen at the point when moisture
no longer detectable in air.
The temperature at which dry-ice melts in Acetone.
The temperature at which a saturated gas exhibits condensation.

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831. The carriage of a new Noxious Liquid Substance not yet listed in the IBC Code
may be considered possible, provided it is achieved through a ‗tri-partite‖
agreement between:
The Port State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Carrier / the Port State
of the Receiver.
The Shipper / the Receiver / the Operator or Charterer.
The IMO / the Port State of the Shipper / the Port State of the Receiver.
The Flag State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Charterer / the Flag
State of the Receiver.

832. The chemical term for a substance used as an additive to start a chemical reaction
and speed up the cleaning of a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is:
Catalyst.
Reactant.
Accelerant.
Reagent.

833. The document which confirms whether a chemical tanker is authorised to carry a
particular Noxious Liquid Substance, is called:
The (International) Certificate of Fitness.
The IBC Code.
MARPOL.
The International Pollution Prevention Certificate for the Carriage of
Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk.

834. The tank cleaning requirements for a Category ―X‖ substance on a chemical tanker
constructed after 01 January 2007, require the vessel to carry out:
Prewash / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water /
minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
Prewash / strip to 100 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water /
minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
Prewash for solidifying or high viscosity substances / strip to 75 litres / 12
miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding en
route / discharge below waterline.
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Strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7


knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.

835. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:


Category "Y".
Category "Z".
Category "OS" - other substances.
Category "A".

836. What is the name given to the risk assessment programme developed by OCIMF,
under which tankers are inspected and the results made available to potential
charterers through a database of records?
The Ship Inspection Report Programme
(SIRE).
The Chemical Distribution Institute (CDI)
Inpsectionprogramme.
The Enhanced Survey Programme.
The Tanker Inspection and Reporting System (TIRS).

837. When cleaning a cargo tank after carriage and discharge of Sulphuric Acid, it is
important to ensure that:
Once cleaning commences, large quantities of washing water can be
delivered as quickly as possible, so that the acid is quickly diluted.
Once cleaning commences, washing water must be introduced in a
controlled manner, allowing time for the acid and water to mix slowly and
thoroughly before the rest of the tank surfaces are flushed.
A mixture of hot fresh water and Sodium Hydroxide solution (50/50) is
prepared beforehand and then circulated around the tank, rapidly
neutralising any remaining acid.
Any acid remaining in the sump should first be ejected and the tank
ventilated for a minimum of 30 minutes before the introduction of any
water, ensuring that there are insufficient acid residues to create any
dangerous reaction.

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838. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to water
in order to facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained liquid
chemicals, must be ensured that:
No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be used,
except those components that are readily biodegradable and present in a
total concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive. No restrictions
additional to those applicable to the tank due to the previous cargo shall
apply.
The discharge shall be governed by the provisions of Annex I or II, which
would apply to the additive had it been carried as cargo. Tank washing
procedures involving the use of such additives shall be set out in the
Procedures and Arrangements Manual and approved by the vessel's Flag
State Administration.
No conditions apply provided not more than 200 litres per 1000 cubic
metres of tank volume is used in any one washing operation.
If the additive contains Pollution category "X" products and more than 200
litres is used in the washing operation for a single cargo tank, then a
prewash to shore must be carried out

839. You are to load a number of chemical cargoes in Rotterdam in December, for
eventual discharge in Australia, after the ship has called at Singapore and Malaysia.
None of the cargoes on board at any stage of the voyage require heating. None of
the tanks to be discharged in Singapore and Malysia will require hot washing after
discharge. When determining the filling limits of the tanks containing the
Australian cargoes, you will need to consider that:
The maximum anticipated temperature that the cargoes will reach bearing in
mind ambient air and sea temperatures to be encountered on passage, so that
any expansion does not result in overflow.
The accuracy of the tank level monitoring systems in potentially sub-zero
conditions.
The anticipated cargo loss due to the projected evaporation rates as the
vessel passes through the tropics.
The potential damage to tank coating in the upper areas of any tanks which
are not fully loaded due to the duration of exposure to cargo vapour.
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840. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward on
deck compared with amidships under deck of a General Cargo Vessel, because:
The dynamic stresses on the lashing are much greater in the forward areas
of the vessel.
The forward of the vessel is subjected to more rolling conditions.
Heavier cargo is generally stowed forward.
The roll period is greater forward.

841. A loaded General Cargo ship is bound from Brazil to Rotterdam during winter time.
During the voyage, ventilation in cargo spaces should:
Be carried out during voyage, as the vessel is
moving from warm to colder areas.
Should not be carried out as the vessel is
moving from a cold area to a warmer area.
Should occasionally be carried out as the vessel is
moving from a cold area to a warmer area.
Would only be carried out once, just before discharging the cargo.

842. Additional lashings on general cargoes must be considered when:


Heavy weather is anticipated for the planned
voyage.
Passing through the Summer Zone in winter months.
Passing through the Tropical Zone in winter months.
After the vessel has started to encounter heavy
weather conditions.

843. For a General Cargo ship not specifically designed for carriage of containers, the
maximum stowage height for containers on deck is limited to:
One container high.
Two container high.
The height of the wheelhouse.
Three container high.

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844. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous Goods in packaged form, it must have
on board a:
Document of Compliance for carriage of dangerous goods.
SOLAS Safety Equipment Certificate.
Document of Authorization for the carriage of
bulk IMDG Cargoes.
Safety Construction Certificate for carriage of
IMDG cargoes in packaged form.

845. For special category spaces on board general cargo ship, the minimum required air
changes per hour should be:
6
10
15
20

846. Information on the forces that may cause cargo shifting on a general cargo vessel
may be available by referring to:
The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS)
Code.
The ship's stability manual.
The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk
Cargoes (BC Code).
The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).

847. On a voyage from cold to hot climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should:
Not be carried out at all.
Be carried out continuously during the voyage.
Be carried out during the day time only.
Be carried out during the night time only.

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848. On a voyage from hot to cold climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of a
General cargo ship should:
Be carried out continuously during the voyage.
Not be carried out at all.
Be carried out during the day time only.
Be carried out during the night time only.

849. The IMO Cargo Stowage and Securing Code (CSS) indicates in the 'Rule of
Thumb', the total strength of the lashings on each side of a heavy lift; what is the
stated value ?
The Maximum Securing load of the
lashings must equal the weight of
the cargo unit.
The Maximum Securing load of the
lashings must equal the 50%
weight of the cargo unit.
The Maximum Securing load of the
lashings must equal twice the
weight of the cargo unit.
The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal five times the
weight of the cargo unit.

850. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous goods
declaration on a General Cargo Vessel should be:
IMO Class, UN Number, Gross
weight, number of units of cargo,
Proper Shipping Name.
IMO Class, weight, cargo brand
name, stowage requirement.
Gross and net weight, volume of
cargo, proper shipping name.
UN Number, Volume of units,
stowage requirements, weight, centre of gravity.

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851. The most important consideration when planning the lashing system for a particular
sea route on a General Cargo Vessel is:
Transverse accelerations.
The breaking strength of lashing materials.
Encountering heavy weather.
The size and weight of general cargo items to
be loaded.

852. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General


Cargo ship may be obtained by referring to:
The IMO International Maritime
Dangerous Goods Code.
The IMO Bulk cargo Code.
The Cargo Securing manual.
IMO SOLAS Handbook.

853. The two main considerations when choosing an appropriate paint for a cargo space
of a General Cargo vessel would be:
Light reflective and compatible
with edible cargoes.
Corrosion resistant and heat
resistant.
Low odour and heat resistant.
Easy to clean and dark in colour.

854. Which of these can be loaded in the same hold of a General Cargo Vessel, as steel
coils?
Steel rebars
Hygroscopic cargoes
Chemicals
Fertilizers

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855. How can you best demonstrate in an audit that you follow company cargo handling
procedures?
By being able to provide comprehensive and
verifiable documentary records of cargo
operations.
By requesting that an audit takes place during
cargo operations.
By providing a summary of out-turn figures for the auditor.
By providing a summary of incident and lost time figures for the auditor
that reflects a successful and trouble-free system on board.

856. If all indications are that a cargo has been received without damages, irregularities
or short shipment and the phrase "apparent good order and condition" is entered on
the Bill of Lading, what type of Bill is this said to be?
A clean Bill of Lading.
An endorsed Bill of Lading.
A Bill of Lading completed for shipment.
A Due Title Bill of Lading.

857. What may be issued by the shipper to indicate that a vessel or her operators will not
be held responsible for any damage that may arise from the carrier issuing a clean
Bill of Lading, even though the Mate's receipt is marked as "unclean", such as may
apply to atmospheric corrosion on steel plates that have been waiting in a port
facility for some time awaiting shipment?
A Letter of Indemnity.
A Letter of Credit.
An absolution clause in the shipping documents.
An addendum to the Bill of Lading.

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858. What term is applied to the compensation payment by the charterer that is due when
a vessel is unable to load / discharge her cargo within the allowed and contracted
time?
Demurrage.
Deferment.
Discretion.
Contractual penalty discount.

859. What type of Bill of Lading covers "door to door" shipment?


A Through Bill of Lading.
An Ocean Bill of Lading.
A Destination Bill of Lading.
A Multi-Phase Bill of Lading.

860. When conducting a risk assessment for a shipboard work activity, what are the two
elements to be considered?
The potential severity of harm and the likelihood
that harm will occur.
The chance of an incident re-occuring and the
potential effects of an loss.
The time available to complete the task and the
resources to hand.
The available manpower and their experience in this type of work.

861. According to SIGTTO publications, what is a typical accuracy for LNG pressure
measurement equipment?
+/- 0,0015 bar (which will apply within the
MARVS of the tank)
+/- 1,00 bar (which will apply within the
MARVS of the tank)
+/- 0,50 bar (which will apply within the
MARVS of the tank)
+/- 0,0005 bar (which will apply within the MARVS of the tank)

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862. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the minimum number of "Firemen‘s
outfits" required to be carried on an LNG carrier with a cargo capacity above 5,000
m3?
5 sets
4 sets
2 sets
3 sets

863. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can solidify and form dry ice at low temperatures. What is
the solidifying temperature of CO2?
Approximately minus 78.5 C
Approximately minus 87.5 C
Approximately minus 30.5 C
Approximately minus 60.5 C

864. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?


Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
No, MARPOL only applies to oil tankers.
Yes, but only annex IV.
Yes, but only annex V.

865. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying
liquefied natural gas (LNG)?
Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
No, OPA90 applies only to oil tankers.
Only if the vessel is carrying HC-products.
OPA90 only applies to non-American flag vessels.

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866. Due to the very low carriage temperatures for LNG the thermal conductivity, k
value, is an important property of the insulation material used in cargo containment
systems. For a given rate of heat leakage across the insulation, which of the
following statements is true?
The higher the k value the thicker
the insulation needs to be.
The higher the k value the thinner
the insulation needs to be.
The rate of heat leakage is
unaffected by the thickness of the
insulation.
The k value depends on the
thickness of the insulation material.

867. During cargo tank gassing up and cooling down operations on an LNG carrier
which of the given options, regarding temperature, needs to be observed?
Never allow temperature of the insulation to fall
below the safe minimum temperature.
Always control the outlet temperature of methane
from the vaporiser.
Always control the vaporisers so that the
temperature of methane vapour is lower than existing tank atmosphere
temperature.
Always control the temperature in the shore supply line.

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868. Having water vapour in an LNG carriers cargo tanks prior to loading cargo is
unacceptable due to ice formation at low carriage temperatures. How can water
vapour in the tank atmosphere be removed prior to the cooling down and loading
operation?
By displacing the tank atmosphere with pre-dried inert gas.
By displacing the tank atmosphere with fresh air.
By displacing the tank atmosphere with warm
inert gas direct from a combustion type inert gas
generator.
By displacing the tank atmosphere with heated air.

869. What is the approximate normal daily cargo "boil off" rate for an LNG carrier of
125000 cubic metre cargo capacity?
From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per day of total cargo.
From 0,30 % to 0,35 % per day of total cargo.
From 0,01 % to 0,05 % per day of total cargo.
From 0,75 % to 0,80 % per day of total cargo.

870. What is the normal procedure for cooling down the a cargo tank prior to loading
LNG?
Introducing liquid LNG into the tank slowly through the spray lines.
Introducing liquid LNG into the bottom of the
tank.
Introducing liquid LNG into the tank quickly
through the liquid header.
Introducing liquid LNG into the tank through a
heater.

871. What is the typical accuracy for onboard LNG temperature measurement systems?
+/- 0.2 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
+/- 0.5 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
+/- 1.0 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
+/- 0.7 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C

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872. Which of the gas groups, identified by SIGTTO, in 'Liquid Gas Handling Principles
on Ships and in Terminals', does LNG belong to?
Saturated Hydrocarbons
Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
Chemical Gases
Mixed Saturated and Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
\
873. Which term is usually used to describe the compressor that collects the boil-off
from the header connected to each cargo tank of an LNG carrier?
The low-duty compressor.
The fuel-feed compressor.
The high-duty compressor.
The medium-duty compressor.

874. Why is nitrogen used for the inerting of hold spaces and interbarrier spaces on LNG
carriers?
Because the carbon dioxide in
combustion generated inert gas
would freeze when in close
proximity to the cargo.
Because of the high oxygen content of combustion generated inert gas.
Because of the high temperature of combustion generated inert gas.
Because of the high humidity in combustion generated inert gas.

875. With reference to preparations of LNG carrier cargo tanks for cargo loading
operations, how can it be determined that the cool down operation is complete?
When temperature monitor, or liquid level
gauge, shows that liquid is forming in the
bottom of the cargo tank.
When the outlet temperature from the spray
header reaches minus 10 C.
When the temperature at the compressor vapour manifold reaches minus 25
C.
When vapour temperature from the HD compressor reaches minus 40 C.
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876. Before loading a refrigerated cargo of LPG the cargo tanks must be cooled down
slowly in order to minimise thermal stresses for the vessel and the cargo
containment system. What is the generally accepted cooling down rate?
10 degrees C per hour.
5 degrees C per hour.
15 degrees C per hour.
20 degrees C per hour.

877. Cargo tanks on an LPG carrier can be inerted using either inert gas from a
combustion type inert gas generator or by using nitrogen. Is gassing up of an
inerted cargo tank with LPG allowed when the tank contains combustion generated
inert gas?
Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 5% by
volume and the charter allows it.
Yes, it is always allowed if the atmosphere of the inerted tank has an
oxygen content of less than 5% by volume.
Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 1% by
volume and the charter allows it.
No, it is never allowed; the inert gas must first be replaced by oxygen free
nitrogen.

878. During pre-entry checks of an enclosed space onboard a liquefied gas carrier it is
necessary to check the condition of the atmosphere. If the gas detection equipment
to be used for the checks included a catalytic type combustible gas indicator, an
absorption type toxic gas detector and a paramagnetic type oxygen analyser, which
would be the preferred order for the checks?
Oxygen content followed by
hydrocarbon gas content and then
toxic gas content.
Hydrocarbon gas content followed by oxygen content and then toxic gas
content.
Hydrocarbon gas content followed by toxic gas content and then oxygen
content.
Toxic gas content followed by hydrocarbon gas content and then oxygen content

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879. IMO publishes a number of Codes relating to the carriage of bulk cargoes including
the IGC Code for liquefied gas carriers. What is the main purpose of the IGC Code?
To provide an international standard for the
construction of, and equipment for, gas carriers
to ensure the safe carriage of liquefied gases in
bulk.
To provide national standards for the
construction of, and the equipment for, gas
carriers to ensure the safe carriage of liquefyed
gases in bulk
To provide international standards regarding the maximum vessel size and
the minimum manning levels for gas carriers to ensure safe carriage of
liquefied gases in bulk.
To provide guidance to the oil and gas companies as to which gases can be
carried in liquefied state.

880. Inhibitors are often added to liquefied gas cargoes prior to loading to prevent or
slow down polymerisation. An inhibitor information form or certificate must be
provided by the cargo shipper to the vessel. What sort of information must this
certificate contain about the inhibitor in addition to the technical name and quantity
added?
Expected lifetime of the inhibitor,
temperature limitations affecting
the lifetime of the inhibitor and the
date the inhibitor was added.
Expected lifetime of the inhibitor,
name of person who added the
inhibitor and the temperature
limitations affecting the lifetime of
the inhibitor
Date the inhibitor was added, the name of the person that added it and
expiry date of the inhibitor
Expected lifetime of the inhibitor and the date the cargo tanks were
inhibited
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881. Is it permitted to load fully refrigerated propane directly onto a fully pressurised
LPG carrier without additional conditioning of the cargo or cargo spaces?
Only if the cargo containment
system is designed for temperatures
of minus 48 degrees C or less.
Only if the vessel is equipped with
cargo cooling plant
Only if the loading rate is kept below 100m3/h.
Fully refrigerated propane can be loaded directly onto this type of vessel
under any circumstances

882. It is necessary for personnel to enter a liquefied gas carrier cargo tank to clean up
some dust and other loose debris. What are the permit requirements before entry
into the tank is allowed?
Both Enclosed Space Entry and
Cold Work Permits are required.
Both Enclosed Space Entry and Hot
Work Permits are required.
Both Enclosed Space Entry Permit
and a Gas Free Certificate are
required.
Only an Enclosed Space Entry
Permit is required.

883. Liquefied gas cargoes will expand as the temperature increases and therefore tanks
are not allowed to be filled to 100%. What is the maximum allowable filling limit
for the cargo tanks on liquefied gas carriers?
Maximum allowable filling limit on
cargo tanks is 98% on gas carriers.
Maximum allowable filling limit on
cargo tanks is 95% on gas carriers.
Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 92% on gas carriers.
Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 90% on gas carriers.

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884. What is the full title of the IMO code which applies to all gas carriers built after
1986?
The International Code for the Construction and
Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in
Bulk (the IGC Code)
The International Code for Ships Carrying
Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the IGC code)
The Code for Existing Ships Carrying Liquefied
Gases in Bulk (the Existing Ship Code)
The Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied
Gases in Bulk (the GC Code)

885. What is the main reason for adding inhibitors to some liquefied gas cargoes such as
ethylene oxide and vinyl chloride?
To prevent polymerisation of
the cargo.
To reduce the boil-off rate of
the cargo.
To reduce the toxicity of the cargo.
To control the temperature of the cargo.

886. What is the requirement for the atmosphere in the hold spaces surrounding cargo
tanks that require a secondary barrier when carrying LPG cargoes?
The hold spaces must be kept in an
inert condition whenever there is
cargo in the cargo tanks.
The hold spaces must be filled with
clean dry air at all times.
The hold spaces must be filled with
cargo vapour whenever there is
cargo in the cargo tanks.
The hold spaces must be kept in an inert condition at all times even when
the cargo tanks are empty.

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887. What method should be used to discharge a semi-pressurised gas carrier if there is a
break down on the cargo discharge pump?
By pressurising the vapour space of
the cargo tank using a vaporiser and
cargo compressor to force liquid
cargo ashore.
By using a portable submersible
pump to empty the affected tank
By using the cargo compressor to
pump the cargo vapour ashore as it
boils off.
By using the inert gas system to pressurise the cargo tank and force the
liquid cargo ashore.

888. When a ship is switching from ammonia to LPG virtually all traces of vapours must
be removed. What is the allowable concentration of ammonia vapour in the tank
prior to loading the next cargo?
Less than 20 parts per million.
Less than 50 parts per million.
Less than 100 parts per million.
Less than 5 parts per million.

889. Which certificate is issued to LPG and other liquefied gas carriers in accordance
with the IGC code?
The Certificate of Fitness is issued
in accordance with the IGC code
The Cargo Ship Safety Equipment
Certificate is issued in accordance
with the IGC code.
The Cargo Ship Safety
Construction Certificate is issued in
accordance with the IGC code
The International Load Line Certificate is issued in accordance with the
IGC code
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890. With some liquefied gas cargoes special conditions must be met before they can be
loaded into a cargo tank. Is it permitted load ammonia into an inerted cargo tank?
Only if the tank is inerted with
nitrogen.
Only if the tank is inerted with
combustion generated inert gas.
Ammonia cannot be loaded into any tank with an inert atmosphere.
Ammonia can be loaded into any inerted tank containing either inert gas or
nitrogen.

891. A VLCC is to anchor in a depth of 80 meters in open water with moderate swell
running. How many shackles of anchor chain should be used to aid a safe
anchorage?
11 shackles
6 shackles
8 shackles
3 shackles

892. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on board
must be:
Not less than 3 years after the date
of the last entry.
Not less than 5 years after the date
of the last entry.
Exactly 3 years from the date of the
first entry.
Until the next port where it may be
handed over to the Port State
Authority.

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893. Any person who can assume overall charge of the ships crude oil washing operation
must have:
At least 12 months appropriate
experience on oil tankers, have
participated in at least two COW
programmes and be fully
knowledgeable of the contents of
the Operations and Equipment
Manual.
At least three months experience on
tankers, have participated in at least
six washing operations and be aware of the procedures associated with the
completion of the Oil Record Book.
At least six months experience on tankers, be knowledgeable of the cleaning
procedures and equipment applicable on board the vessel and be able to
fully demonstrate understanding of the operation of the ODME equipment.
At least 12 months equivalent experience on a tanker of any type, provided
at least three washing operations have been witnessed in a supernumerary
capacity and be able to demonstrate full knowledge of Annex I of
MARPOL.

894. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be
carried and completed on oil tankers of:
150 gross tonnes and above.
400 gross tonnes and above.
Any size, as long as they are classified as tankers.
50 gross tonnes and above.

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895. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion of
discharge must be:
Drained and then pumped either
ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop
tank on board.
Cleared to shore by the use of
compressed air.
Drained directly (and only) to
shore.
Discharged ashore or retained on
board as per the pre-discharge agreement made between the ship and shore.

896. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and
Management of Ship's Ballast Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan
on board to achieve:
95% volumetric exchange of the
ballast taken on-board at the
previous port.
100% volumetric exchange of the
ballast taken on-board at the
previous port.
25% volumetric exchange of the
ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
80% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous port.

897. As per the OCIMF Ship to Ship Transfer Guide (Petroleum) guidelines, both
vessels engaged in the cargo transfer operation shall:
Have their main engines ready and available for immediate use
Have their duty engineers on stand-by so as to prepare the engines if
required for use at any time
Their officer of the watch manning the bridge at all times, with engines on
30-minutes notice of readiness.
Their main engines on 1 hour readiness of readiness

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898. As per the US Code of Federal Regulations, the current Oil Transfer Procedures for
a vessel carrying out discharge in US ports must be:
Available on board, legibly printed
in a language or languages easily
understood by personnel engaged in
the transfer operation and
permanently posted or available at a
place where crew members can see
and use them.
Available on board, legibly printed
in the English and Spanish languages and permanently posted in the
wheelhouse of the vessel.
Available on board, in hard-copy or electronic format, to the OOW in a
language with which he is familiar.
Available to the crew members, upon request from the terminal
representatives .

899. Crude Oils required by MARPOL to be specifically listed in a tanker's Crude Oil
Washing manual as unsuitable for COW are:
Those with high pour point or viscosity.
Those with high basic sediment and water content.
Those with highbenzene content.
Those on the IMO Oil Tanker Technical Committee COW banned list.

900. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in a


tank containing 50,000 cubic metres (314,491 barrels) of oil will result in which of
the following volumes?
25 cubic metres (157 barrels).
35 cubic metres (220 barrels).
7 cubic metres (44 barrels).
16.5 cubic metres (104 barrels).

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901. For a vessel proceeding enroute, located more than 50 nm from nearest land outside
a special area and having in operation its ODME, the maximum instantaneous rate
of oil discharge (from washings of cargo tanks) in to the sea is:
30 litres per nautical mile.
300 litres per nautical mile.
60 litres per nautical mile.
0.03 litres per nautical mile.

902. On board an oil tanker, slop tanks may be used for the carriage of oil:
When not being used for the carriage
of slops and are included in the total
cargo capacity of the vessel.
Only under exceptional
circumstances and are not included in
the total cargo capacity of the vessel.
Only on clean ballast tankers and are
only included in the total cargo
capacity of this type of vessel.
Only by agreement between the shipper, receiver and charterer. They are
not normally included in the total cargo capacity of the vessel.

903. Prior to discharging cargo from an oil tanker, ‗line displacement‘ or ‗line pressing‘
must be conducted to ensure:
The verification of the shore line for
calculation purposes.
The calibration of the ship's flow
meter.
Balancing of a rigid cargo arm.
Testing of the automatic shut-down
arrangements in the shore line system.

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904. The details of an internal transfer of oil must be entered in the Oil Record Book:
At all times whenever such an
operation is carried out
Only is more than 25% of the total
cargo volume is transferred
Only if required by the specific
instructions of the owners or Flag
State of the vessel
Only is such transfer has taken
place within a port

905. The ideal maximum viscosity at which aromatic crude oil cargoes are best
discharged at, is:
250 cst (250 mm2/s)
450 cst (450 mm2/s)
45 cst (45 mm2/s)
1,250 cst (1,250 mm2/s)

906. The maximum permitted oxygen content in the inert gas main when inerting a
cargo oil tank prior to gas freeing is:
5% by volume.
8% by volume.
12% by volume.
2% by volume.

907. The ODME printouts for tank cleaning operations must be retained on board for a
minimum period:
Of 3 years.
Of 5 years.
Till the end of the voyage in which the
ODME operation took place
Of 12 months.

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908. The recommended guideline for avoiding the risk of electrostatic potential in a mist
produced by using oil and water during Crude Oil Washing operations is that:
Before washing begins, any tank
that is to be used as a source of oil
for Crude Oil Washing should be
partly discharged to remove any
water that has settled out during the
voyage. The discharge of a layer of
at least 1 metreis necessary for this
purpose.
As washing begins, any water observed in the stream should be diverted to a
slop tank, before Crude Oil Washing af any cargo compartment is
commenced.
If a slop tank is to be used to supply oil to drive a Crude Oil Washing
operation in a cargo tank, then that slop tank must not have contained slops
with a water content of more than 2%.
Crude Oil Washing, where the oil source is stored in a slop tank or other
tank that has previously contained slops, should be avoided.

909. To correctly report an oil spill in US waters:


The person in charge must report the spill to the National Response Center
or, if not practicable, to the Environmental Protection Agency regional
office or local U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety Office. This must be done
immediately that person has knowledge of the spill.
The person responsible for the spill must report preliminary details to the
appropriate State Police within 30 minutes of the accidental discharge
taking place.
The person or persons in charge must submit a full report of the incident
through the vessel's agent to the appropriate authorities within 24 hours of
the incident.
The master of the vessel responsible for the spill must advise the
Environmental Protection Agency National Incident Reporting Center (or
the appropriate regional office) within 2 hours of the incident being reported
to that person.
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910. What do we mean with a IOPP certificate?


With IOPP certificate we mean
International Oil Pollution
Prevention certificate and the ship is
classed to prevent oil pollution
With IOPP certificate we mean
International Oil Pollution
Prevention certificate and the
certificate prevent oil pollution
from the ship
With IOPP certificate we mean International Oil Pollution Prevention
certificate and it is to prevent oil pollution
There isn‘t any IOPP certificate on gas carriers

911. When discharging dirty ballast from an oil tanker at a high flow rate with main
cargo pumps, the instantaneous rate of discharge of oil is calculated by formula:
Instantaneous rate of discharge
(l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x flow
rate (m3/h) / speed (knots) x 1,000
Instantaneous rate of discharge
(l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x 1,000 /
flow rate (l/h) x speed (knots)
Instantaneous rate of discharge (l/h)
= oil content (ppm) x flow rate (l/h)
/ speed (knots) x 10,000
912. Instantaneous rate of discharge (ml/nm) = oil content (ml/nm) x flow rate
(l/m) / speed (knots) x 100

338
DPKP

913. When internally transferring any oil cargo within the vessel, the correct procedure
would be to:
Obtain permission from the
charterers and document all
operations fully in the Oil Record
Book.
Obtain permission from the
receivers and retain all e-mail
correspondence for the attention of
the cargo surveyors.
Transfer no more than 5% of the total cargo volume at any one time.
Transfer the cargo, and then make an appropriate entry in the deck log book.

914. Within the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System, an ‗overboard discharge
control‘ is defined as:
A device which automatically
initiates the sequence to stop the
overboard discharge of the effluent
in alarm conditions and prevents the
discharge throughout the period the
alarm prevails.
A system which monitors the
discharge into the sea of oily ballast
or other oil-contaminated water from the cargo tank areas.
A facility which prevents the initiation of the opening of the discharge valve
or the operation of other equivalent arrangements before the monitoring
system is fully operational.
A system which receives automatic signals of oil content, flow rate, ship's
speed, ship's position, date and time.

339
DPKP

915. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for
harm or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements. Which
two elements?
The likelihood that a hazard may
occur and the consequences of the
hazardous event
The likelihood that a hazard may
occur and the financial
consequences for the Company
The likelihood that a hazard may occur
and the available personal protective
equipment we have onboard
The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal
protective equipment we have onboard

916. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?


Every week
Every day
Every year
Every second year

917. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place on board passenger ships?
Weekly
Bi-weekly
Monthly
At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every
month

340
DPKP

918. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in
passenger ships?
Weekly
Daily
Every two weeks
Every month

919. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?


In a separate locker. The locker shall be
clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
In a locker preferably on boat deck. The
locker shall be clearly marked.
N the central store or in the engine room
In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge

920. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they
can be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What is
minimum training requirement for all personnel?
Basic Safety Training Course and
Crowd & Crisis Management
Training Course
Basic Safety Training Course and
Company Specific Familiarisation
Course
Basic Safety Training Course
No Training Course is required as
long as the personnel have relevant experience

341
DPKP

921. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and at
certain intervals. Which of the following surveys apply to passenger ships only?
Periodical survey every 12 months
Periodical survey every 24 months
Periodical survey every 6 months
A survey before the commence of each voyage

922. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship
generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/ control
of pollution from:
Harmful Substances in Packaged
Form, Sewage, Air Pollution,
Garbage, Oil and Noxious Liquid
Substances in Bulk
Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances in
Bulk, Harmful Substances in
Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage
and Ballast Water
Proper Pollution Prevention Training
All Harmful Substances we have onboard

923. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?


All persons on board shall be
counted and details of persons who
have declared a need for special
care or assistance in emergency
situations shall be recorded and
communicated to the Master
Details and number of persons who
have declared a need for special
care or assistance in emergency
situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure
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DPKP

The safety officer shall count the number of passengers

924. What is important to prepare prior to a


helicopter operation?
Make sure all loose deck equipment
at helicopter deck is stowed away
and secured.
To light up the area for pick-up
To increase the speed of the vessel
To stop the vessel completely

925. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?


To provide all personnel including
emergency personnel with
procedures for handling or working
with that substance in a safe manner

To provide personnel in deck- and


engine department with procedures
for handling or working with that
substance in a safe manner
To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working with
that substance in a safe manner
To determine if the substance is flammable or not

926. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed
space?
Make sure that the tank/ enclosed space is gas free, ventilated and the
oxygen content is measured. O2 content shall be 21% before entering the
tank/ enclosed space
Use a breathing apparatus if the oxygen level is below 21%
Remember to have a colleague standing by to assist you if any problems
Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes

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DPKP

927. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment
onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
SOLAS
MARPOL
STCW
ISM

928. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable
Personal Protective Equipment where it is needed?
The Company/ employer
The Master
The safety officer
The Head Department

929. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from
the vessel's incinerator?
Discharge the ashes to a shore facility
Discharge the ashes at sea
providing you are more than 25
nautical miles offshore
Discharge at sea providing you are
not in any river or estuary
Nothing, ashes from any substance
which is incinerated can be
discharged over board

344
DPKP

930. A cellular container vessel is to load frozen ice cream in containers. Space is
available either in the hold or as a deck stow. Select, from the options given, the
most suitable stowage position, with the reason, for this cargo.
The deck stow as it is less sensitive
to temperature in the event of a
mechanical problem.
The deck stow as it is more
accessible for checking the status
lights on the reefer panel.
The hold as it is more sheltered
from the effects of bad weather.
The hold as it is more accessible for
maintenance and repair in the event
of a mechanical problem.

931. A conventional reefer vessel operating a Controlled Atmosphere (CA) is


approaching the port of discharge in Northern Europe. Which is the most suitable
action to take from the options given?
Turn off the CA plant and thoroughly ventilate the cargo spaces under CA
with fresh air just prior to arrival.
Continue to apply CA until the hatches are opened to maintain the condition
of the cargo.
Continue to apply CA throughout the discharge to maintain the condition of
the cargo.
Turn off the CA plant just prior to the start of discharge operations.

345
DPKP

932. A reefer vessel is loading a cargo of fruit alongside in a South African port. During
loading another vessel arrives at an adjacent berth to have its cargo discharged after
having been towed in following a fire onboard which had resulted in abandonment.
What should concern the Master of the reefer vessel most about the situation?
That the cargo may be contaminated by the smell of smoke and the products
of combustion from the damaged vessel.
The damaged vessel is unmanned and may not be cared for properly.
The cargo being discharged from the damaged vessel may be in poor
condition and may contaminate the loading vessel's cargo.
The speed of cargo operations may be hindered due to the discharge of
cargo from the damaged vessel.

933. A reefer vessel is to load a cargo of plantains and bananas. Due to space restrictions
both have to be loaded into a common space. The usual delivery temperature for
bananas is about 13 degrees Celsius and for plantains it is 7 degree Celsius. What
would be the best delivery temperature for the mixture of these two fruits?
13 C as plantains are less sensitive to the consequences of a higher delivery
temperature.
7 C as plantains are more sensitive to the higher delivery temperature of the
bananas.
10 C as this is the mean temperature of the two cargoes and they would both
carry satisfactorily at this temperature.
Adjust the set point of the delivery temperature to 7 C for 12 hour periods
and 13 C for the intervening 12 hour periods.

346
DPKP

934. A reefer vessel is to load a part cargo of frozen beef hocks (large joints of beef,
usually quarters, not packed in cartons). In deciding which would be the most
appropriate space on a conventional reefer vessel, which of the given options would
be the preferred choice?
1C deck as this is the narrowest space on the vessel and will best constrain
the cargo from any possible movement during the voyage.
4A deck as this is the largest square space on the vessel and will allow good
access and air flow for the cargo.
Any space will be acceptable as this is a hard frozen cargo and relatively
easy to handle and carry.
A cargo space low in the vessel as this cargo has a relatively high stowage
factor.

935. A reefer vessel, which is about to carry a palletised cargo, has to have available
sufficient cargo equipment including air bags (dunnage bags), air lines and valves,
cargo slings, wooden dunnage, nails, etc. These items are required to ensure a quick
loading operation and a successful passage. Complete the following statement from
the options given. "Air bags are particularly important in that ….
… they reduce the movement of the pallets and prevent short circuiting of
the air flow."
… they are quick and easy to deploy."
… they protect the pillars and the vent trunking against damage during
heavy weather."
… they secure the pallets against movement during the passage."

936. A situation arises where there is insufficient fruit cargo available to fill a cargo
space. There is a cooler arrangement (cooler/evaporator/brine nest/fans) positioned
at one end of the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the best method for
stowage of the fruit.
Start at the end with the cooler arrangement and work away from the cooler.
Start at the opposite end to the cooler arrangement and work towards the
cooler.
Start from one side of the space.
Start from the centre of the space and work towards both ends.
347
DPKP

937. A situation exists where a cargo of palletised fruit is being loaded to capacity on a
conventional reefer vessel. In order to load all of the available cargo it is proposed
to break down some of the pallets and place the loose cartons on top of the pallets;
there is just enough space to accommodate this below the deckhead. From the
options given which is the most suitable action to take?
Reject the plan as the reduced gap at the top of the stow will restrict the
return air flow.
Accept the plan in order to carry all of the cargo.
Reject the plan as the extra handling will incur greater stevedoring costs.
Reject the plan as the charter is to carry only palletised cargo.

938. A standard convention for a 4 deck reefer vessel is to designate the decks A to D
from upper to lower deck. Decks A and B common as are C and D with a gas tight
seal between B and C. Apples are to be carried in decks C and D with bananas in A
and B. Which of the options is the best to avoid the risk of crossover of temperature
and respiration between the two cargoes?
Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks C and D.
Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks A and B.
Run the cargo fans intermittently in one of the spaces.
Operate the two spaces at equal pressures as the cargoes are compatible.

939. After discharge of any refrigerated cargo a thorough inspection of the vessel should
be carried out before presenting the vessel for loading the next cargo. Amongst the
reasons for this is to ensure that any traces of or residues from the previous cargo
are removed. This is particularly so if a fruit or meat cargo is to be loaded after a
fish cargo has been carried. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this
requirement.
Fish is strong smelling and the odour may contaminate the next cargo.
Fish is usually carried frozen and there may be some damage to the
insulation.
Fish can be oily and may leave an oily residue in the cargo space.
Ventilating with fresh air may only remove the odour temporarily and it will
build up again if residues are present.

348
DPKP

940. Apart from temperature there are few differences between carrying cargoes of
chilled meat, minus 1 degree Celsius, and frozen meat, minus 18 degrees Celsius. A
key difference is that for frozen meat the cooling fans are operated at half speed or
some are switched off whereas for chilled meat the fans are run constantly at full
speed. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this difference in fan
operation.
The chilled meat is more sensitive to damage and therefore tighter
temperature control is necessary.
The fans may be damaged if they were run at full speed delivering very cold
air to the frozen cargo.
Running the fans at full speed would generate too much heat which may
affect the frozen meat.
It is an energy saving measure since chilled meat cargoes do not require as
much cold air.

941. In preparing a reefer vessel for loading the next cargo a careful inspection of the
cargo spaces should be carried out. All required maintenance and the repair of any
damage identified during the inspection should be completed prior to loading.
Select, from the options given, the most appropriate action to be taken when the
maintenance and any repairs are completed.
Make a detailed record of all maintenance and repairs carried out for
presentation to the supervisor at the loading port as proof that the vessel is
in an acceptable condition for loading the cargo.
Keep a record of all the repairs in the planned maintenance schedule.
Don't bother recording anything as this type of work is considered routine.
Keep a record of the hours worked as a basis for a claim against the
previous charterers.

349
DPKP

942. On some trades fruit cargoes may be subjected to 'in-transit cold treatment' also
known as cold treatment. From the options given which is the main purpose of this
cold treatment?
To maintain a specified minimum temperature for a prescribed time period
to kill off any fruit fly which may be present when loading the cargo.
To ensure that the fruit is carried as cold as possible without damaging the
fruit.
To achieve uniform quality of the fruit at discharge.
To maintain the temperature of the fruit within very tight tolerances.

943. Reefer vessels form part of the 'cold chain' in the transport of perishable goods from
the producer to the consumer. There are times when hatches have to remain open in
less than perfect conditions, for example strong winds. There are steps that can be
taken however to mitigate the effects of this on cargo that has already been loaded.
Which of the options given could be considered to be the most important measure
to counter the effect of such conditions?
Cover the stow with a Tenasco (heavy plastic) sheet where possible to
protect it from the wind.
Run the cargo fans continuously during cargo operations.
Reduce the air delivery temperature.
Refrain from ventilating the cargo with fresh air.

944. With the exception of some citrus fruits and bananas, fruit is usually pre-cooled to
the required carriage temperature prior to loading on a reefer vessel. In order to
protect the cold chain, and to maintain the temperature of the fruit, a minimum
exposure time to ambient conditions during loading is necessary. What action
should the deck officers take during loading to achieve this minimum exposure
time?
Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any
break in cargo operations that exceed 30 minutes.
Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during any
overnight break in cargo operations.
Close the hatches for any break in cargo operations that exceed 60 minutes.
Request that the stevedores work faster to minimise loading time.
350
DPKP

945. A Standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 18mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction
and lashed by belts of SWL 2mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts
should be used to secure the unit?
9 on each side
11 on each side
11 on each side
One fore every securing point on the unit

946. A standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded fore and aft and lashed by belts
of SWL 0.6mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be used to
secure the unit?
4 on each side
4 in total
4 in total
10 in total

947. On a roro vessel, a ro-ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft
direction and lashed by belts of SWL 0.6mt. How many lashing belts should be
used to secure the unit?
4 on each side
4 in total
4 in total
10 in total

948. On a roro vessel, a vehicle weighing 50mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft
direction and lashed by chains/turnbuckles of SWL 5mt. By the general Rule How
many sets of chains/turnbuckles should be used to secure the unit?
At least 10 per side
At least 10 in total
At least 10 in total
At least 15 per side

351
DPKP

949. On a roro vessel, how often should a dangerous goods stowage plan be produced
Every time you load a dangerous cargo
Every time you load any cargo
Every time you load any cargo
You only ever produce one

950. On a roro vessel, if the vessel is loaded by stevedores, who is responsible for the
lashing of the cargo
The vessel is responsible for cargo as soon as it
crosses the ramp including its securing
The Stevedores who loaded the ship
The Stevedores who loaded the ship
The cargo owners

951. On a roro vessel, what dangers are associated with using a steep loading ramp?
The ends of ro-ro units can be damaged
The ramp's hoisting wires can be damaged
It will not be possible to drive vehicles off the
ramp
The ramp may slide off the pier

952. On a roro vessel, what instruction should be given to the crew about unlashing of
cargo prior to arrival at the berth
This can only be done when the bridge gives
permission and no unit stowed on a ramp or
incline can be unlashed. Provided the company
allow it.
The crew can start unlashing without the
permission from the bridge
The crew can start unlashing without the
permission from the bridge
You can remove half the lashings on any unit when the bridge give
permission

352
DPKP

953. On a roro vessel, what must be considered when planning the loading of ro-ro
cargoes on ramps?
SWL and loading limit of the ramp and
Minimum clearances for the operation of ramp
doors
The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope
The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope
Cargo volumes

954. On a roro vessel, what must be ensured onboard the vessel prior to commencing
cargo?
Cargo hold ventilation systems are operational
That all cargo is ready for loading
That all cargo is ready for loading
That the vessel has been cleared by immigration

955. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to prevent a blackout on
board?
Check with the duty engineer before switching
on motors, fans or other machinery
Check with the duty engineer before correcting
the vessel's list
Switch off lights in idle cargo holds
Use the minimum number of deck lights at night

956. On a roro vessel, what standing instruction should be given to protect the Ramps
when loading ro-ro units?
Units whose weights exceed the ramp load
density/SWL must not be loaded
Damaged units should be rejected for loading
Damaged units should be rejected for loading
All ro-ro units must be thoroughly checked for
damage prior to the loading ramp

353
DPKP

957. On a roro vessel, what stowage factors should be taken into account when planning
the loading of cars?
The longitudinal and athwartship distances
between the cars
Cargo dimensions
Cargo volumes
Cargo characteristics

958. On a roro vessel, which of the following is not required in the pre-stowage plan?
Checking communications equipment
The operation of gas-tight and watertight doors
Assigning crew duties
Stowage and securing of specialised cargoes

959. On a roro vessel, which of the ships trading certificates details the type and location
that dangerous goods are allowed to be stowed onboard
Certificate of compliance for the carriage of Dangerous goods
Safety Equipment certificate
Safety Equipment certificate
The Cargo Ship Safety construction certificate

960. On a roro vessel, which of these situations will result in an emergency shutdown of
cargo operations?
Any of the listed situations
Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system
Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system
The vessel developing a sudden and unexpected
list

354
DPKP

961. On a roro vessel, which regulations require supervising the embarkation of persons
on board ship?
The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code
The Safety Of Life At Sea (SOLAS) Convention
Standards of Training Certification and Watch-keeping (STCW) Code
International Labour Organization (ILO) standards

962. Under SOLAS, what are the minimum required air changes per hour for 'Special
Category Spaces' on a roro vessel,?
10
20
15
8

963. What must not be obstructed when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes?
Access to fire-fighting equipment
Fixed cargo lashing points
Ships' bracket connections to the deck
In-built non-skid bars

964. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential for
harm or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements. Which
two elements?
The likelihood that a hazard may occur
and the consequences of the hazardous
event
The likelihood that a hazard may occur
and the financial consequences for the
Company
The likelihood that a hazard may occur
and the available personal protective equipment we have onboard
The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal
protective equipment we have onboard

355
DPKP

965. How can the Master ensure that all cargo loading doors, bow visors, weathertight
ramps etc. Are locked and secured before the ship proceeds on any voyage?
By having an effective system of
supervision and reporting of the
closing and opening of doors. Time
of closing and opening of doors
shall be entered in the log-book.
By having experinced officers and
crew to supervise the closing and
opening of doors. Time of closing
and opening of doors shall be entered in the log-book.
Automatic systems will alarm you if the doors are not properly secured.
The bosun is always responsible to check the watertight integrity before the
ship proceeds on any voyage.

966. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?


Every week
Every day
Every year
Every second year

967. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place onboard ro-ro passenger
vessels?
Weekly
Bi-weekly
Monthly
At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every
month

356
DPKP

968. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves and
closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in
passenger ships?
Weekly
Daily
Every two weeks
Every month

969. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?


In a separate locker. The locker
shall be clearly marked, locked and
ventilated.
In a locker preferably on boat deck.
The locker shall be clearly marked.
In the central store or in the engine
room
In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge

970. On most ro-ro passenger ships there is no requirement to carry out drills with the
passengers. What is the most effective ways of informing embarking passengers
about the emergency procedures?
Information on boarding cards,
public announcement on departure,
posters in public areas and cabins,
safety video running continuously
Posters in public areas and cabins,
safety video running continuously
Safety video and folders in tax free
shops
Information from the crew

357
DPKP

971. Personnel on board ro-ro passenger vessels must undergo training courses before
they can be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board.
What is minimum training requirement for all personnel?
Basic Safety Training Course and
Crowd & Crisis Management
Training Course
Basic Safety Training Course and
Company Specific Familiarisation
Course
Basic Safety Training Corse
No Training Course is required as
long as the personnel have relevant experience

972. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship generated
pollution. Annex I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/ control of
pollution from:
973. Harmful Substances in Packaged
Form, Sewage, Air Pollution,
Garbage, Oil and Noxious Liquid
Substances in Bulk
974. Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances in
Bulk, Harmful Substances in
Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage
and Ballast Water
975. Proper Pollution Prevention Training
976. All Harmful Substances we have onboard

358
DPKP

977. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?


All persons on board shall be
counted and details of persons who
have declared a need for special
care or assistance in emergency
situations shall be recorded and
communicated to the Master
Details and number of persons who
have declared a need for special
care or assistance in emergency
situations shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure
The safety officer shall count the number of passengers

978. What is important to prepare prior to a helicopter operation?


Make sure all loose deck equipment at
helicopter deck is stowed away and
secured.
To light up the area for pick-up
To increase the speed of the vessel
To stop the vessel completely

979. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?


To provide all personnel including
emergency personnel with
procedures for handling or working
with that substance in a safe manner
To provide personnel in deck- and
engine department with procedures
for handling or working with that
substance in a safe manner
To provide the safety officer with
procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner
To determine if the substance is flammable or not
359
DPKP

980. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an enclosed
space?
Make sure that the tank/ enclosed
space is gas free, ventilated and the
oxygen content is measured. O2
content shall be 21% before
entering the tank/ enclosed space
Use a breathing apparatus if the
oxygen level is below 21%
Remember to have a colleague
standing by to assist you if any
problems
Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes

981. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment
onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
SOLAS
MARPOL
STCW
ISM

982. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable
Personal Protective Equipment where it is needed?
The Company/ employer
The Master
The safety officer
The Head Department

360
DPKP

983. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes from
the vessel's incinerator?
Discharge the ashes to a shore
facility
Discharge the ashes at sea providing
you are more than 25 nautical miles
offshore
Discharge at sea providing you are
not in any river or estuary
Nothing, ashes from any substance which is incinerated can be discharged
over board

984. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such
as iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced?

The vessel will normally have a


large intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a fast roll period
The vessel will normally have a
small intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a slow roll period
The vessel will be tender and have
a poor curve of righting levers.
The vessel may have a list

985. A cargo hatch cover seal on a Bulk Carrier is known to be damaged and not
weather tight prior to sailing; what is the legal significance of this situation?
The vessel may well be judged to be un-seaworthy; this could invalidate
some certification and hull and machinery insurance
There are no legal concerns over this
The vessel is still seaworthy but repairs must be carried out at next port
The vessel may have its classification affected

361
DPKP

986. Before a solid bulk cargo is loaded, the Master and shore representative must agree
a loading plan which covers which of the following aspects?
All of the items specified in the possible answers
Maximum permissible forces and moments on the ship
Quantity and rate of loading the cargo
Sequence of loading

987. How are cargoes on self-unloading bulk carriers fed to the vessel's conveyor belts
during discharge?
Via hydraulically-operated hopper
gates at the bottom of each hold
Via mechanically-operated hopper
gates at the bottom of each hold
By gravity through mechanical
hopper gates at the bottom of each
hold
Via remote-controlled hopper gates
at the bottom of each hold

988. The high level water ingress alarm in number 1 hold of a Bulk Carrier activates in
bad weather at sea; what would be the actions of a prudent Master?
Sound general alarm, muster ships
crew and transmit a Mayday call
and message.
Investigate when the weather
improves
The alarms could be faulty and
should be ignored
Assess all spaces for signs of
damage if weather conditions permit

362
DPKP

989. Under international regulations for a Bulk Carrier, who needs to be trained in the
use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
The ship's crew
The master
The master and chief engineer
All cargo watch-keeping officers

990. What does the IMSBC Code emphasise with reference to the exposure of personal
to the dust created when carrying some bulk cargoes?
A high standard of personal hygiene
The restricted loading of certain cargoes which may be
excessively dusty
The code does not make any reference to this hazard
The responsibility of the Master to ensure that staff are wearing the correct
clothing

991. What extent of hatch cover spares should be available on board a Bulk Carrier at all
times?
Specimen fittings shown in the
hatch cover manufacturer's manual
Rubber packing and hatch cleat
washers for one panel section
Rubber packing and hatch cleat
washers for two panel sections
Rubber packing hatch cleat washers
and glue for two panel sections

992. What height of water above the inner bottom will activate the cargo hold high level
alarm on a Bulk Carrier
Any height above 2.0m
Any more than 2.2m
Any more than 2.5m
Any more than 2.8m

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993. What is the maximum period between the sampling/testing of the moisture content
of a solid bulk cargo and the loading of that cargo into a bulk carrier?
A maximum for seven (7) days,
when there has been no change in
the moisture content due to rain or
snow
It must always be conducted
immediately before loading
A test is not required each time of
loading
Testing must be carried out on a random sampling basis.

994. What must be specified when ordering gas detection equipment when used in
association with bulk carriers?
That the instrument is suited for its purpose of application
That the instrument complies with international regulations
That the instrument can measure flammable atmospheres
That the instrument can measure methane and hydrogen when used in low-
oxygen atmospheres

995. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk
carriers of 150m or more in length?
The shear forces exerted on the hull structure
associated with the entered loaded weight distribution
The segregation requirements of the cargoes carried.
The ultimate strength of main deck plating
The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo
holds

996. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
At the after end of each cargo hold
At the forward end of each cargo hold
In cargo hold bilges
At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold
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997. Which of the following is a warning sign of a faulty hydraulic hatch cover system
on a Bulk Carrier?
A fall in the hydraulic header
tank level
The presence of dust and cargo
particles around the piston gland
Noisy hatch cover operations
Dry greasing points

998. Who needs to be trained in the use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
The entire ship's crew
The Master
The Master and Chief Engineer
Cargo watch-keeping officers

999. Why do bulk cargo carriers need to carry oxygen analysis and gas detection
equipment?
Because of enclosed or confined space entry
requirements
Because it is good practice to have this equipment on
board
Because the equipment is required under the
International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC)
Code
Because the equipment is required under MARPOL

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1000. Why do the cargo holds of a self-unloading bulk carrier have a "W" shaped cross
section?
So that during discharge the cargo
will automatically fall onto the
underlying conveyor belts
So that cargoes are self-trimming
during loading
To make it easier for cargo to be
discharged by grabs
To reduce the extent of tank top
damages when discharging cargo

1001. A vessel has lost several containers overboard during a voyage. Upon arrival into
port, she is being inspected by the attending surveyors. The most important item to
be checked during this inspection would be:
Certificates of approval related to lashing equipment used to secure those
containers.
The vessel's Safety Construction certificate.
The vessel's Class certificate.
The on-board cargo lashing inventory.

1002. An inspection in the amidships area of the weather deck of a Panamax container
vessel has revealed cracks in the hatch coamings. It is extremely important to
urgently inspect the:
Longitudinals in the double bottom tanks in the amidships half length of the
vessel.
Stiffening in the forepeak tank at approximately water line level.
Transverse bulkhead beneath the bridge front.
Transverse bulkhead immediately aft of the engine room.

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1003. For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress
calculations, it must be approved by:
A Classification Society.
IT Department of Ship owner.
Hull and Machinery Insurers of the vessel.
The Port State where vessel is currently loading.

1004. On a container vessel, flexitanks are used for:


The carriage of non-hazardous liquids, in bulk.
The carriage of hazardous liquids, in bulk.
The carriage of liquid cargoes that do not have a Proper Shipping Name.
The carriage of liquid cargoes of a particular specific gravity.

1005. Racking forces imposed on a container would likely cause the greatest deflection
to:
The door end of the container.
The closed end of the container.
The base of the container.
The corner posts of the container.

1006. Shock loads in a container lashing system are generally caused by:
Loose cargo lashings.
Resonant rolling.
Ship vibrations.
Ship torsion.

1007. The correct weight of a wrongly declared container may be best indicated by:
Strain gauges fitted to the
shore gantry cranes.
The container CSC plate.
The tare weight stamped on the
container.
The ship's loading computer.

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1008. The most appropriate way of dealing with twist-locks suffering from excessive
wear and tear is to:
Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately.
Repair them in the ships workshop, and then re-use.
Land them ashore for repair.
Get them surveyed by Class prior re-use.

1009. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container
stools on weather deck/hatch tops of a container vessel would be:
Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack.
Uneven loading of the container on the deck.
Twist locks not being able to be fully closed.
Twist locks not being able to be removed after discharge.

1010. The most effective method of dealing with an under-deck cargo space fire on board
a container ship, is to:
Deploy the fixed firefighting system.
Tackle the fire locally with fire hoses.
Turn the vessel off the wind to reduce the relative wind strength.
Boundary cool the cargo hold from the deck.

1011. The most important function of a buttress fitting on a container vessel is:
To transfer forces from the container stow to the ships structure.
To maintain a uniform level stow across the tier of containers.
To avoid excess load placed on the tank top.
To ensure an even distribution of weight throughout the stack.

1012. What contributes to wear-down of twistlocks on a container vessel?


The continuous action of longitudinal forces.
Careless handling by stevedores.
Improper greasing procedures.
Continuous use with containers exceeding 40' in length.

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1013. What items of container securing equipment must be used in conjunction with
buttresses?
Double stacking cones or link plates.
Twistlocks.
Single stacking cones.
Single stacking cones and bridge fittings.

1014. When planning the loading of containers, the planning officer must refer to:
The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
The Safety of Life at Sea Convention (SOLAS).
The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code.
MARPOL 73/78 Annex IV.

1015. "Passivation" is a restorative process periodically applied to stainless steel tanks on


a chemical tanker. What effect does this process have on the steel surface?
It restores and reforms the passive
Chromium Hydroxide surface layer.
It restricts active corrosion on the
surface steel.
It restores the surface steel to an
even and smooth finish, thereby
encouraging drainage during
discharge.
It causes a chemical reaction, which produces a new inert Chromium Oxide
layer on the surface of the steel.

1016. A cargo pumproom or other enclosed space which contains cargo handling
equipment on a chemical tanker shall be fitted with a mechanical ventilation
system, capable of being controlled from outside the space. What is the minimum
number of atmosphere changes per hour, based on the total volume of the space,
that such a system must deliver?
Not less than 30 changes per hour.
Not less than 10 changes per hour.
If the ventilation is permanent, it shall deliver at least 20 changes per hour;
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if it involves part recirculation, then it shall deliver at least 30 changes per


hour.
There is no specified minimum number of changes, provided it is running
continuously throughout any cargo operation.

1017. Basic manual dew point measurement devices are commonly used by surveyors
when monitoring the dryness of a cargo tank prior to loading a liquid chemical
product. Which of the descriptions below is a summary of how the measurement is
carried out?
A small quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is
progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the
atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing
over the polished or mirrored surface of the container. When the first drop
of mositure (dew) is observed to form on the polished surface, the
temperature of the Acetone bath is noted. Reference may be required to
tables to correct the reading for desired parameters.
A quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is progressively
added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the atmosphere
in the tank is continuously pumped through the liquid. Bubbles will be seen
to reach the surface of the bath until the dew point is reached. When the
flow of bubbles ceases, the temperature of the Acetone is noted. Reference
may be required to tables to correct the reading for desired parameters.
A small quantity of dry-ice is placed into the device, submerged in
deionized water. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously
drawn through the device, passing across a reagent filter. When the dew
point is reached, this reagent filter will change colour from white to green,
indicating saturation. The temperature of the deionized water is noted at this
time and corresponds to the dew point. Reference to correction tables is
required to correct the reading for barometric pressure.
A small quantity of Methanol is placed into the device and dry-ice is
progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of the
atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device, passing
over the surface of the Methanol. When the first signs of evaporation are
observed (smoke rising from the surface), the temperature of the Methanol
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is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the reading for


calculation purposes.

1018. Chemical tankers of 20,000 tonnes DWT or above, with a keel laid on or after 1st
July 1986, when carrying flammable products with a flashpoint not exceeding 60
degrees Celsius, such as those listed in chapters 17 and 18 of the International Bulk
Chemical Code, are exempt from the requirement to be fitted with and use an inert
gas plant provided certain conditions are met. Which of the following is a summary
of those conditions?
The cargo tank does not exceed 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle does not exceed 17.5 cubic metres per hour
delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing
machines does not exceed 110 cubic metres per hour.
The cargo tank is greater than 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle is capable of delivering a minimum of 17.5 cubic
metres per hour / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank
washing machines must be at least 110 cubic metres per hour.
The cargo tank does not exceed 1250 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle does not exceed 12.5 cubic metres per hour
delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing
machines does not exceed 90 cubic metres per hour.
The cargo tank is greater than 1250 cubic metres capacity / the number of
tank washing machines in use at any one time must be such that no more
than 17.5 cubic metres per hour is delivered / the minimum quantity of wash
water delivered in the washing operation must be greater than 110 cubic
metres.

1019. High level and high-high level alarms must be tested at the tank for proper
operation within 24 hours of the start of cargo transfer on a chemical tanker. What
acceptable alternative is there to this requirement?
That a function test is carried out by means of an automatic self-test and
circuit monitoring facility within the alarm system.
There is no alternative to this requirement. The test must be conducted at the
tank location and the audible and visual alrams sighted. The results must
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be logged accordingly.
That a function test is carried out on completion of cleaning operations
following discharge.
That a programme of maintenance, including selective function tests, exists
within the vessel's Planned maintenance System, provided all such level
alarms are tested at least once within a period of three months.

1020. How would you determine whether a particular cargo transfer hose was compatible
with the chemical product to be transferred?
Refer to the product entry in the hose manufacturer's chemical resistance
chart.
Check the product classification mark stamped on the flange collar of the
hose.
Check the colour of the hose against the general classification code in the
IBC Code.
There will be no need to check. If the hose has been supplied to a chemical
tanker, it will have been certified for the transfer of all chemical products.

1021. 118. If your chemical tanker is equipped with high velocity venting valves, at what
minimum height above the weather deck or catwalk should they be installed?
3 metres
2.5 metres
4.5 metres
6 metres

1022. In a typical shipboard de-humidifier plant as may be found on a modern chemical


tanker, operating on a "rotating bed" principle, what names are given to the two
parts of the rotating bed?
The "process sector" and the "reactivation sector".
The "inbound sector" and "outbound sector".
The "active sector" and the "dormant sector".
The "live sector" and the "reserve sector".

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1023. The IBC Code prescribes certain design conditions for a cargo heating or cooling
system fitted to a chemical tanker. What does it require in respect of pressure
within such a system, for any condition other than when it is empty?
That a higher pressure can be maintained within the system than the
maximum pressure head that could be exerted by the contents of the cargo
tank on that system.
That a lower pressure will be maintained within the system than the actual
pressure head that is being exerted by the contents of the cargo tank on that
system.
That the system must be fitted with automatic control valves that will
maintain the inlet pressure at not less than 0.2 bar above the return pressure.
That an automatic alarm is fitted to alert the operator when the pressure
within the system drops to within 0.2 bar of the pressure measured at the
lowest located cargo pressure sensor within the tank.

1024. The specified maximum working pressure of a cargo hose in service on a chemical
tanker should be at least which of the following?
10 bar gauge.
12 bar gauge.
5 bar gauge.
1/3 design burst pressure.

1025. To what pressure will a new length of cargo hose be tested by a manufacturer prior
to its supply to a vessel for service onboard a chemical tanker?
Not less than one and a half times its specified maximum working pressure,
but not more than two-fifths of its bursting pressure.
Not more than one and a half times its specified maximum working
pressure, but not less than two-fifths of its bursting pressure.
C. Not less than one and a half times its nominal bursting pressure, but not
more than four-fifths of its specified maximum working pressure.
1026. 2 times its designed working pressure, but not more than three-
fifths of its nominal bursting pressure.

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1027. What temperature defines "hot" water in the context of tank washing on a chemical
tanker?
At least 60 degrees Celsius.
At least 70 degrees Celsius.
At least 40 degrees Celsius.
A minimum of 10 degrees Celsius above the discharge temperature of the
cargo.

1028. When a submerged centrifugal cargo pump is being run at too high a speed during
discharge of a viscous chemical cargo, the pump may start racing, causing a heat
build-up around the suction, possible localised solidification of the cargo and
consequent damage to the pump. What term is applied to this problem?
Cavitation.
Gravitation.
Aggregation.
Synthesis.

1029. Which of the following is a summary of the features of a "controlled tank venting
system" as may be found on a chemical tanker?
PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum in the tank; no shut-off
valves may be fitted either above or below the PV valves; provision may be
made to by-pass the PV valves under certain operating conditions; such a
system shall consist of a primary and secondary means of allowing full flow
of vapour, except that the secondary system may be replaced by pressure
sensors fitted within the tank.
PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum within the tank; the PV
valves shall be capable of being isolated or by-passed; the system shall be
supplemented by pressure sensors within the cargo tank.
The system permits vapour recovery via a collection manifold which may
be connected to a shore reception facility.
The system is fitted to a tank used for cargoes having a flash point not
exceeding 60 degrees Celsius and is fitted with a device to prevent the
passage of flame into the cargo tank.

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1030. You are carrying a bulk cargo of Phosphoric Acid. Which components of the cargo
pumps may be damaged as a result of discharging this particular cargo and why?
The cargo seals may be damaged from the abbrasive effect of any sediment.
The outer casing may be corroded by the unstable impurities within the
acid.
The impeller veins may be damaged as a result of the relatively high density
of the cargo if the pumps are run at too high a speed.
The valves in the associated piping may be distorted by pressure surges
created by cavitation as the acid is discharged

1031. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be
carried out by:
A classification society surveyor.
The master.
A deck officer designated by the master.
A marine surveyor appointed by the company.

1032. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48
tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes.
In this case, it would be correct to state that:
The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the
lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes.
The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the
derrick.
The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded by
small amounts in cargo operations, since the Breaking Load of the slings is
much higher.
The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the
lifting gear must be at least 10% less than the SWL of the derrick.

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1033. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient
method of testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be:
Ultra sonic test.
Chalk test.
Visual inspection.
Hose test.

1034. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the
condition of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the
stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should:
Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
Continue discharge as planned and inform Designated Person
Ashore(DPA).
Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents.
Provide ships equipment to discharge.

1035. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a
General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from:
Ships Capacity plan.
General Arrangement plan.
Docking plan.
Planned maintenance schedules.

1036. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in:
Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation.
Sudden loss of stability of the vessel.
Damage to the cargo by ship structures.

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1037. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to
deteriorate would be:
Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
Due to repeated hatch cover operations.
Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures.
Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.

1038. On a General Cargo vessel, a 16T derrick should be tested to a proof load of:
20T
18T
22T
24T

1039. Prior to loading cotton on a General Cargo vessel, it is important to ensure that:
The cargo hold fire-fighting system is thoroughly examined.
The holds are inspected for signs of previous cargo residues.
Tank tops should be sheathed.
The cargo hold ventilation system is thoroughly examined.

1040. Prior to loading general cargo on a General Cargo vessel, with regard to lashing
wires, terminations, shackles, turnbuckles, pad eyes and D rings etc., you must
make sure that:
They must all be certified and be visually inspected for any apparent
damage.
They must all be visually inspected.
They must all be certified.
Lashing wires must be new whereas other accessories may be certified.

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1041. Proper guidance on the stowage and securing of general cargo may be obtained by
referring to:
IMO Code of practice for stowage and securing of cargoes.
IMO Code of Practice for Bulk and General
Cargoes.
International Load Line Regulations.
IMO Code of Practice for maintaining
stowage safety on cargo ships.

1042. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel be proof load tested:
When equipment is new, every five years and after repairs or major
modifications.
Only after initial installation of equipment.
Only when major repairs have been carried out to the equipment.
Every four years and after major repairs and modifications.

1043. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
To prevent the ventilator fans from damage.
To prevent moisture from entering the hold.
To act as a strength member inside the ventilation shaft.

1044. The ship‘s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined
at intervals not exceeding:
5 years
3 years
1 year
6 months

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1045. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it
must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the:
Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
Class surveyor.
Surveyor representing the vessel's hull &
machinery underwriters.
Surveyor representing the consignee.

1046. According to "Summary of minimum requirements" in the IGC Code, what is the
requirement for vapour detection for methane (LNG) cargoes?
Flammable vapour detection.
Toxic vapour detection.
Flammable and toxic detection.
Oxygen analyser.

1047. According to the IMO Gas Code, what is the requirement for the number of sets of
portable gas detection equipment that must be carried onboard an LNG carrier?
There must be at least two sets.
There must be at least one set.
Sets of portable gas detection equipment are only
required to be carried when there is no fixed
installation.
It is only necessary to carry a portable oxygen analyser.

1048. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what are the maximum time intervals for
sampling and analysing samples from the permanent installed gas detection system
on a LNG carrier?
30 minutes.
20 minutes.
45 minutes.
10 minutes.

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1049. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the required number of temperature
indicating devices in the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier?
At least two devices in each tank.
At least three devices in each tank. One placed at the
bottom of the tank, one in the middle of the tank and one
near the top of the tank.
One device in each tank.
There is no requirement for the number of devices.

1050. Gas carrier type A and B cargo tanks have a MARVS of less than 0.7 barg? What is
the liquid and vapour connection shut off valve requirement for this type of tank
according to the IMO gas codes?
Single shut-off valves with manual closing
facility.
Double remote operated shut off valves.
One manually operated globe valve and
one remotely operated valve.
Double butterfly valves fitted in series.

1051. LNG tankers are often fitted with fixed water spray system for fire protection
purposes for deck areas, deck tanks, deck manifolds and pipelines. What is the
minimum required flow rate of water per minute for horizontal and vertical surfaces
to ensure adequate, uniform coverage of these areas?
10 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces
and 4 litre/m2 per minute for vertical
surfaces.
20 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces
and 10 litre/m2 per minute for vertical
surfaces.
100 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 50 litre/m2 per minute
for vertical surfaces.
50 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 25 litre/m2 per minute for
vertical surfaces.

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1052. Select, from the options given, the one that best describes a requirement of the
remotely controlled valves fitted in the ESD (Emergency Shut-Down) systems on
an LNG carrier?
They must be fail-safe.
They must be pneumatically operated.
They must be hydraulically operated.
They must be electrically operated.

1053. Some LNG carriers are fitted with a water glycol system for heating the cofferdam
spaces next to cargo tanks when the vessel is loaded. What is the purpose of this
heating system?
To maintain the temperature inside the space above 5
degrees C to protect the steel.
To maintain the temperature inside the space at
approximately 25 degrees C to prevent the fuel tanks
from cooling down too much.
To maintain the temperature inside the space at approximately 15 degrees C
to protect the insulation.
To maintain the temperature inside the space at below minus 5 degrees C to
reduce cargo vaporisation.

1054. What is the minimum requirement with respect to pressure relief valves on the
cargo tanks of an LNG carrier where the individual tanks are over 20 cubic metres
capacity?
Two valves.
One valve.
Three valves.
There is no such requirement.

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1055. What is the preferred method of accommodating expansion in cargo pipeline


systems on LNG carriers?
Use expansion loops.
Use sliding couplings.
Use expansion bellows.
Use Viking Johnson expansion couplings.

1056. What is the purpose of the "forcing vaporizer" found in some LNG carrier cargo
plants?
To provide gas for burning in the boiler.
To displace inert gas from cargo tanks.
For initial heating in the insulating spaces.
To discharge cargo without a vapour return from shore.

1057. When LNG is used as fuel a double wall piping system must be used in the engine
room. What condition should the annular space between the concentric pipes be
maintained in when the fuel system is in service?
Filled with nitrogen at a pressure greater than the LNG fuel
pressure.
Filled with nitrogen at a pressure less than the LNG fuel
pressure.
Filled with nitrogen at a partial vacuum.
Maintained at a full vacuum.

1058. Which kind of cargo pumps are the most commonly used in cargo systems for LNG
carriers?
Submerged electric motor pumps.
Hydraulic driven submerged pumps.
Electric driven screw pumps.
Hydraulic driven screw pumps.

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1059. Which line can be utilized to prevent line surge when starting the main pumps of a
LNG carrier's cargo system?
The condensate spray line.
The inert gas line.
The vent line.
The aeration pipes.

1060. Which of the following insulation materials that are used in the cargo containment
systems for LNG carriers has the highest diffusion resistance?
Polyurethane foam.
Balsa wood.
Perlite.
Mineral wool.

1061. A chlorine carrier must be equipped with a chlorine absorption plant connected to
the cargo tanks and cargo lines. This requirement includes the provision of gas
detectors for the spaces and areas around the cargo containment system and the
absorption plant outlet. What is the recommended setting for the visual and audible
alarms of the gas detectors?
5 ppm.
10 ppm.
15 ppm.
20 ppm.

1062. Cargo heaters are frequently used when discharging refrigerated LPG cargoes into
pressurised shore tanks. What would be a typical "heating range" required from a
heater for discharge of fully refrigerated propane?
From - 45 C to - 5 C.
From - 55 C to - 15 C.
From - 35 C to + 5 C.
From -25 C to +15 C.

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1063. Cargo hoses intended for liquefied gas carriers have to be prototyped tested before
being approved. When new hoses of an already approved type are received onboard
they also need to be pressure tested before being put into service. What are the IMO
Gas Code requirements for such hoses before they are put into service?
Not less than 1.5 times the specified
maximum working pressure or
more than two fifths of bursting
pressure at ambient temperature.
Not less than 1.5 times the specified maximum working pressure or more
than two fifths of bursting pressure at the expected cargo carriage
temperature.
5 times the specified maximum working pressure at ambient temperature.
5 times the specified maximum working pressure at expected cargo carriage
temperature.

1064. LPG carriers rely heavily on the compressors fitted as part of the reliquefaction
plant. Screw and reciprocating types are widely used. Which type of reciprocating
compressor is most common as a cargo compressor?
Double acting, single stage, oil free
compressor.
Double acting, single stage, oil
lubricated piston compressor.
Single acting, single stage, oil free
piston compressor.
Double acting, two stage, oil free compressor.

1065. Most reliquefaction plants on LPG carriers use a direct cooling system. Which of
the statements given in the options best describes a direct cooling cycle?
Cargo vapours are drawn off by a compressor, compressed, condensed than
passed through an expansion valve back to the tank.
Cargo liquid is pumped to a condenser where it is cooled by seawater and
then passed through an expansion valve back to the cargo tank.
Refrigerant gas is passed through a cooling coil in the cargo tank vapour
space which cools the cargo vapour below the dew point turning it back into
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liquid cargo.
All direct cooling systems require a refrigerant gas cooled vapour condenser
so that the lowest possible temperature is achieved to change the vapour
back to the liquid state.

1066. Some liquefied gas carriers are fitted with nitrogen generating equipment, often of
the membrane module design. What would be the expected purity of the nitrogen
produced by such equipment?
95 to 97% pure nitrogen.
100% pure nitrogen.
90 to 92% pure nitrogen.
87 to 89% pure nitrogen.

1067. The IMO Gas Codes require that all liquefied gas carrier cargo tanks are fitted with
pressure relief valves. Pilot operated relief valves are frequently used, particularly
with refrigerated cargoes. What is the main advantage of using pilot operated relief
valves rather than simple spring loaded types for refrigerated liquefied gas cargoes
tanks?
They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage pressures.
They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage temperatures.
The set pressure can be adjusted to above MARVS if problems occur with
the reliquefaction plant.
When pilot operated valves are used only one valve per cargo tank is
required irrespective of tank size.

1068. The reliquefaction plant for cargo cooling of liquefied gas cargoes can operate on
either a direct or indirect cycle. On which liquefied gas cargoes must indirect cycle
cargo cooling plant be used according to the IMO Gas Codes?
Cargoes such as chlorine, ethylene oxide and propylene oxide for which the
vapours cannot be compressed due to temperature restrictions.
LPG cargoes being carried in north European waters during winter time
All liquefied cargoes in north European waters during winter time
Cargoes such as butadiene and vinyl chloride which need two stage cycle
with intercooling.
385
DPKP

1069. There are a number of standard reliquefaction plants commonly fitted onboard LPG
and other liquefied gas carriers. What type of reliquefaction plant is required for a
cargo of Ethylene Oxide?
Indirect cycle.
Cascade direct cycle.
Two-stage direct cycle.
Single-stage direct cycle.

1070. There are strict rules governing the placement and category of electrical equipment
allowed in certain areas of liquefied gas carriers. One such category is that of
flameproof enclosures. What is a flameproof enclosure?
One which can withstand the pressure build-up during an internal ignition of
a flammable mixture and is designed to cool any flames occurring within
the enclosure to below the ignition temperature.
One which is maintained under positive pressure so preventing the
formation of a flammable mixture.
One in which the equipment has such low electrical power that there is
insufficient energy to ignite a flammable mixture and cause a flame.
One which is filled with inert gas to prevent formation and possible ignition
of a flammable mixture.

1071. What is the main disadvantage of using oil free, screw type compressors for the
reliquefaction plant of an LPG carrier?
The compressor has to run at very high speeds to compensate for internal
leakage.
The compressor rotor elements wear quickly as they have no lubrication.
The compressors quickly overheat.
The compressor bearings wear out very quickly.

386
DPKP

1072. What is the purpose of an automatic shut-down system fitted onboard most
liquefied gas carriers and how is it initiated?
To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a high level
sensor in the cargo tank.
To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a back-pressure
switch in the cargo loading line.
To prevent cargo tanks from being overcooled. It is initiated by a
temperature switch on the cargo cooling plant.
To prevent overpressure of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a pressure
switch in the cargo tank.

1073. What is the purpose of the purge gas condenser fitted to some liquefied gas carrier
reliquefaction plants?
It is used to condense out any cargo vapours which have passed through the
main condenser with incondensable gases.
It is used to condense out any nitrogen or inert gas that has collected in the
main condenser.
It is used to condense all of the cargo vapours that have been used in
purging a cargo tank.
It is used to generate the cargo vapours required for purging the cargo tanks.

1074. When measuring the liquid level in the cargo tank of a liquefied gas carrier a
number of different corrections may be necessary to get a true reading. Why do
readings obtained from a float type ullage tape sometimes require a 'tape
correction'?
The length of tape in contact with very cold cargo vapours may contract.
The float may become heavier and partly sink due to liquid cargo
absorption.
The vessel may not be on an even keel when the readings are taken.
The vessel may have a list when the readings are taken.

387
DPKP

1075. Which type of reliquefaction plant can have the cooling coil placed directly in the
vapour space of the cargo tank?
One type of the indirect cycle reliquefaction plants.
The cascade direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
The single-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
The two-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant.

1076. A ―Pellistor‖ is:


It is an electrical sensor unit fitted
in a flammable gas detector for
measuring hydrocarbon vapours and
air mixtures to determine whether
the mixture is within the flammable
range
It is the common term applied to the
metal, ceramic or other heat-
resisting material which can cool even an intense flame below the
temperature required for ignition, as utilised in a flame arrester
It is the electrical sensor which detects low pressure in an Inert Gas
generating control system
It is the reactive element in an oil / water interface detector

1077. According to 33 CFR 156, for oil tankers trading in US waters, the minimum
requirement for testing of cargo transfer hoses and associated piping system are:
That no leakage occurs under static
liquid pressure of at least 1.5 times the
maximum allowable working pressure.
That no leakage occurs under static
liquid pressure of at least 1.25 times the
maximum allowable working pressure.
That no leakage occurs under dynamic fluid pressure of less than 1.5 times
the maximum allowable working pressure.
That no leakage occurs at the nominal anticipated working pressure.

388
DPKP

1078. After passing through the scrubbing tower of an inert gas system, the approximate
level of carbon dioxide in the inert flue gas should be:
13%
1%
3%
21%

1079. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be
allowed by a Port State Authority to trade for:
One ballast voyage before
proceeding to a repair port.
One ballast and one loaded voyage,
provided no cleaning operations are
carried out.
An indefinite period as long as the
owners can demonstrate they have
ordered the spare parts for repairs.
One year, provided that the vessel is scheduled for a dry-dock during the
next 12 months.

1080. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a
selected pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a vertical
angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the throughput of
the machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the washing time and
quantity of crude oil required?
40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
30 minutes and 45 cubic metres of oil.
48 minutes and 70 cubic metres of oil.
36 minutes and 48 cubic metres of oil.

389
DPKP

1081. As per IMO requirements, the mechanical ventilation system of the cargo pump
room shall be capable of making:
At least 20 air changes per hour
At least 30 air changes per hour
At least 40 air changes per hour
At least 50 air changes per hour

1082. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length must
carry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of:
12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres).
5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).

1083. Fluid driven eductors operate on Bernoulli‘s principle, which states that:
The speed of a moving fluid increases
as the pressure in the fluid decreases.
The volume of a fluid increases as the
pressure in it decreases.The increase in
pressure at the eductor inlet is inversely
proportional to the decrease in pressure
as measured at the discharge orifice.
The discharge rate is inversely proportional to the pressure applied in the
drive inlet.

1084. Ship‘s cargo pump room alarm must be automatically activated when levels of
hydrocarbon gas concentration are:
No higher than 10% of LEL.
No higher than 15% of LEL.
No higher than 20% of LEL.
No higher than 5% of LEL.

390
DPKP

1085. The automatic stripping systems fitted on some of the centrifugal cargo pumps
operate on the principle that:
If cargo vapour can be stopped from
entering the cargo pump suction
inlet, the flow will continue without
cavitation.
If the suction is fitted low enough in
the cargo oil tank and a specified
minimum trim is maintained,
suction will be available until the tank is completely discharged.
By automatically reducing the rate at which oil cargo enters the cargo pump,
such that no vapour is lifted along with the liquid, there will be no loss of
suction.
By the optimum size and positioning of the suction inlet that feeds the
automatic stripping system, the cargo oil tank is discharged to the maximum
possible extent.

1086. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
Fresh water.
The product being carried on that voyage.
Approved bio-degradable light oil
Sea water.

1087. The difference between the absolute pressure of a liquid at the inlet to a cargo pump
and the vapour pressure of the liquid is called the:
Net Positive Suction Head Available.
Net Positive Suction Head Requirement.
Residual Suction Head Pressure.
Effective Suction Head Pressure.

391
DPKP

1088. The inert gas system shall be capable of delivering inert gas to the cargo tanks at
the rate of:
At least 125% of the maximum discharge capacity.
At least 150% of the maximum discharge capacity.
At least 200% of the maximum discharge capacity.
Equal to the cargo discharge capacity.

1089. The typical amounts of sulphur dioxide gas in flue gas produced when burning high
sulphur content fuels would be:
2,000 ppm
200 ppm
4,000 ppm
850 ppm

1090. The usual pressure and vacuum levels at which the P/V valves on board an oil
tanker are required to activate are:
Pressure: 1 psi (0.069 bar) Vacuum: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar)
Pressure: 3.2 psi (0.22 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
Pressure 7 psi (0.048 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
Pressure: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar) Vacuum: 0.2 psi (0.014 bar)

1091. When in-service testing a hose used for cargo transfer on an oil tanker (and for
which the elongation of the hose assembly when new was greater than 2.5%), the
maximum permitted elongation before the hose must be withdrawn from service
should be:
Not more than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation measured
when the hose assembly was new,
as documented in the
manufacturer's certificate.
Not less than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation measured
when the hose assembly was new,
as documented in the manufacturer's certificate.
392
DPKP

Not more than 1.5 times the temporary elongation measured at the previous
in-service test, as documented in the ship's annual test record.
Not more than 1.25 times the temporary elongation measured when the hose
assembly was last tested, as documented in the appropriate certificate.

1092. When tank cleaning hoses are tested for electrical continuity, they must display a
reading of:
Not greater than 6 ohms per metre length.
Not more than 10 ohms per metre length.
At least 8 ohms per metre length.
It depends on the manufacturer's recommendations.

1093. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution,
Unlawful acts threatening the safety
of the ship and the security of its
passenger and crew, Pesonnel
accidents, Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency assistance to other ships
Fire, Evacuation, Pollution,
Personnel accidents and Ship
Security
Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire

393
DPKP

1094. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger


cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency
instructions?
The method of donning life-jackets, escape
routes and alarm signals
Escape routes and alarm signals
Name of cabin attendant
Where to find thermal protective aids

1095. Here do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for life-
saving appliances?
Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
SOLAS
ISM Code
Safety Management System

1096. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?


Same number as beds in the cabin
At least 2
Twice the number of beds in the cabin
Non, they will be handed out at the muster station

1097. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons
and above?
Two, one on each side of the ship
Two, and at least one of the rescue
boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat
One Fast Rescue Boat
None

394
DPKP

1098. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board a
passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and upwards?
3
2
One for each survival craft
It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF fitted in
a survival craft

1099. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up power
sypply?
Yes, the public address system shall
be connected to the emergency
source of power
Yes, only if the voyage is more than
12 hours
No, the crew will inform the
passengers in case of any black out
or power failure
No

1100. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board passenger ships?


Yes, all passenger public spaces and
alleyways shall be provided with
supplementary electric lighting
No, portable battery operated lamps
shall be provided in alleyways and
public spaces
No, passengers should bring their
own flashlights
No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes

395
DPKP

1101. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on board
which type of ship?
Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
Chemical tankers
Tankers
Passenger ships fitted with car decks

1102. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for
children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous
places on deck or at the muster stations?
5% extra
10% extra
25% extra
50% extra

1103. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied
reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-righting?
The liferaft will automatically turn
back into an upright position when
it is empty of people
The liferaft will automatically turn
back into an upright position when it is fully loaded with people
One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position
It means the same as self-righting lifeboats

1104. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be
provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross tonnage and upwards?
3
2
4
5

396
DPKP

1105. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting
lights an self-activating smoke signals?
2
4
50% of the total number of lifebuoys
At least 1

1106. What is the name of this unit?


A hydrostatic release unit
A liferaft release unit
An antistatic release unit
A slip hook

1107. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis?


To identify and eliminate, as far as
practicable, congestion which may
develop during an abandonment
To ensure the ship can be evacuated
in less than 30 minutes
To provide port state control
inspectors with reports
To provide the passengers with
written results of the analysis

1108. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships?


30 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
15 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
2 hours from the time the abandon
ship signal is given
There is no time limit

397
DPKP

1109. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire
safety systems?
Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
SOLAS
ISM Code
Safety Management System

1110. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board
passenger ships?
From the navigation bridge and in at least one
other location
Navigation bridge
Captain's- and Chief Officer's office
Captain's office

1111. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal life-
saving appliances do not correspond to present regulations?
All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle, a light
and a smoke signal
Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at least 2 lifebuoys
provided with self-igniting lights an self-activating
smoke signals
All lifejackets shall be fitted with reflex, a whistle
and a light
The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in conspicuous
places on deck or at the muster stations?

398
DPKP

1112. As part of the decommissioning process for old reefer vessels they are sent to a
recycling yard where any refrigerant remaining in the refrigeration system is dealt
with. Which one of the actions given in the options needs to be carried out in
preparation for delivery of a vessel to a recycling yard?
Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard and note
this in the Ozone depletionrecord
Book prior to discharging the gas
into recovery bottles.
Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard prior to
arrival at the yard and note this in
the Ozone Depleting Record Book.
Make a careful note of the quantities of gas onboard and note this in the
Ozone Depleting Record Book before discharging the gas to atmosphere.
Discharge the gas to atmosphere prior to arrival to minimise handling costs
at the recycling yard.

1113. As well as having temperature sensors located in the cargo holds some reefer
vessels are also fitted with ethylene sensors. Why is it useful to have information
regarding the ethylene content in a reefer vessel cargo hold when carrying fruit
cargoes?
Some fruit cargoes are sensitive to ethylene and the quality of the cargo can
deteriorate as they may over-ripen.
The ethylene content can be used as a guide as to when air change fans need
to run.
The ethylene content is beneficial to perishable cargoes in transit so the
content needs to be monitored in case the level falls.
The ethylene content must be maintained to help ripen the fruit during the
sea voyage.

399
DPKP

1114. Data loggers are a vital part of the temperature control and monitoring system on a
reefer vessel. In a situation where the data logger fails several days before the end
of the voyage it is still necessary to maintain control of and monitor cargo
temperatures. How could an accurate, portable thermometer be used to the best
effect, to achieve this, in such a situation?
Use the thermometer to check and control the delivery air temperature by
inserting it in the delivery air ducting close to the evaporators.
Use the thermometer to check and control the return air temperature by
holding it in the return air space on top of the cargo.
Use the thermometer to check the pulp temperature by entering the cargo
space and placing it in the centre of the stow.
Use the thermometer to maintain the delivery air settings as they were prior
to the data logger breaking down.

1115. Despite setting what appears to be the correct delivery air temperatures in
accordance with shipper's instructions, large cargo loss claims can still occur when
operating reefer vessels. Which of the options given is likely to help avoid the
majority of these large claims?
By confirming the temperature scale that the shipper is using in his carriage
instructions, Fahrenheit or Celsius.
By confirming that the shipper is supplying to a market that works in
Fahrenheit or Celsius.
By confirming that the vessel plant is calibrated in the same temperature
scale that the shipper is quoting.
By confirming the whether the shipper is referring to the delivery air or pulp
temperature of the cargo.

400
DPKP

1116. Many fruit cargoes are carried refrigerated and also under controlled atmosphere
(CA) conditions. A situation develops where there is a problem with the main reefer
plant that will take several hours to repair but the CA system is still operation.
Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in these
circumstances?
The CA plant is only an adjunct for the refrigeration plant and therefore
there should be concern about the condition of the cargo.
The CA plant will take care of the cargo without the refrigeration plant and
therefore there is no further action required and no need for concern.
The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of carbon dioxide in the
cargo space which will be sufficient to preserve the fruit.
The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of nitrogen in the cargo
spaces which will be sufficient to preserve the fruit.

1117. Many reefer vessels are fitted with controlled atmosphere systems (CA). There are
a number of different systems available but generally they all work by introducing
nitrogen into the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the main reason why
nitrogen is generally the gas chosen for controlling the atmosphere in the cargo
spaces of a reefer vessel.
Nitrogen displaces the oxygen in the cargo space and allows the respiration
of the fruit to be controlled.
Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas available.
Nitrogen remains as a gas at all temperatures used in refrigerated transport.
Nitrogen is inert and there is no risk of creating a flammable mixture in the
cargo space.

401
DPKP

1118. Most fruit cargoes carried under refrigeration require introduction of fresh air into
the cargo space to remove any excess carbon dioxide and ethylene produced by
respiration of the cargo and sensors are fitted to detect these gases. Shipper's
instructions will often indicate 'constant air change' as a requirement for a cargo.
Why, even though this is a crude method for controlling the cargo space
atmosphere, is this type of instruction given?
Some cargoes are very sensitive to ethylene levels and it may be difficult to
accurately measure the low levels that would affect a cargo.
It is the standard method and it is always done that way for simplicity.
As much fresh air as possible should always be introduced into the cargo
space throughout the voyage to maintain cargo quality.
Fresh air helps to acclimatise the cargo to the prevailing ambient conditions.

1119. On a conventional reefer vessel is possible to ventilate the cargo spaces with fresh
air using fans and trunkings. One of the reasons for using fresh air ventilation is to
control the relative humidity within the cargo space. Select the option which best
completes the following statement. "It is beneficial to be able to control the relative
humidity within the cargo space because fruit cargoes should be kept…
…relatively moist to avoid the cargo dehydrating during the passage."
… relatively dry to avoid the formation of fungus in the vent trunkings
during the passage."
…relatively dry to avoid deterioration of the packaging during the passage."
... As dry as possible to avoid build up of mould during the passage."

1120. On a reefer vessel air is passed over the cooling coils before entering the cargo
hatch via trunking to cool the cargo. It is important to ensure that the cooling coils
are clear of any material such as plastic sheeting or bags. Why is this so important?
The plastic may interfere with the air flow over the cooling coils and
subsequently the cooling of the cargo.
The plastic sheeting may be picked up by and foul the cooling fans.
The plastic material may block scuppers and bilges.
The plastic material may affect condensation forming on the cooling coils.

402
DPKP

1121. Prior to loading a reefer cargo it is good practise to carry out an 'ice test' of the
temperature sensors within the cargo space. Part of the test is to immerse the
sensors in a test bucket of known temperature, usually zero degrees Celsius as this
is the melting point of ice. Which of the options is correct in relation to preparing
the test bucket?
Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2
centimetres square and a small quantity of distilled water to produce an ice-
water mixture. The ice cubes should be produced from clean distilled water.
Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2
centimetres square which have been made from clean distilled water.
Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice produced in the vessel's low
temperature chamber. A hole the exact size of the sensor should be drilled
into the ice and the sensor inserted into the hole to give a rapid test process.
Insulated ice buckets should be filled with crushed ice purchased in bulk
from a shore supplier.

1122. Refrigerated cargo spaces are fitted with temperature sensors and in some cases
carbon dioxide sensors. From the options given select the one which best completes
the following statement. "Monitoring the carbon dioxide content in a cargo space
loaded with fruit can be useful because…
… increasing levels indicate that the fruit may be starting to ripen."
… its presence indicates that the fruit is ripe."
… low levels indicate that there are insufficient numbers of air changes."
… its presence indicates that the fruit is still not ripe."

1123. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. "A
conventional reefer vessel operating with a controlled atmosphere plant must have
cargo spaces which…
… have a gas tight seal."
… have a minimum number of deckhead and bulkhead penetrations."
… have the normal bulkhead and deckhead penetrations required for a
reefer compartment."
… are fitted with variable speed fans."

403
DPKP

1124. The data logger on a reefer vessel normally records temperatures for air delivery,
air return and cargo pulp. How would the air delivery and return temperatures be
expected to vary during the first few days of carrying a cargo of citrus fruit which
had not been pre-cooled before loading?
The difference between the two temperatures would steadily reduce.
The difference between the two temperatures would steadily increase.
The difference between the two temperatures would remain constant.
The two temperatures would remain constant

1125. To correctly interpret the readings on the printout from a reefer vessel‘s cargo data
logger it is essential to have some knowledge of the location of the temperature
sensors. Where would the temperature sensor for the delivery air to a cargo hold be
expected to be located?
In the air flow path from the cooling coils, about 3 metres from the coils.
In the air flow path from the cooling coils, but at the opposite end of the
cargo space to the coils.
Just above the cooling coils where the air returns from the cargo space.
Near the centre of the cargo space.

1126. What should be done with the data logger printouts after completing the discharge
of a refrigerated cargo?
They should be retained onboard for a minimum of 2 years.
They should be retained onboard indefinitely.
They can be discarded once the discharge is completed.
They should be handed over to the cargo receiver.

1127. During sea passage on a roro vessel, how would you know if gasoline vapours were
escaping from vehicles?
By using flammable gas detectors in the vehicle decks
By sense of smell
By using oxygen meters in the vehicle decks
By using carbon monoxide meters in the vehicle decks

404
DPKP

1128. On a roro vessel, to what should you pay very close attention, when inspecting the
structure and condition of movable car decks?
Cracks in way of deck supports
General condition of the portable deck
Safety markings on the portable deck
Abrasions over the deck surface

1129. On a roro vessel, what additional securing arrangements should be used when
loading a vehicle on an incline or fixed Ramp
The Vehicle should also be chocked under its wheels
Double the normal lashings should be used
Lashings should be checked to make sure they are really tight
None

1130. On a roro vessel, what is Maximum Securing Load?


The load capacity of a device used to secure cargo on board
The combined capacity of several devices used to secure an item of cargo
on board
The safe working load of a device used to secure cargo on board
The combined safe working loads of various devices used to secure an items
of cargo on board

1131. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of 'D' rings?
50% of the breaking strength
25% of the breaking strength
35% of the breaking strength
40% of the breaking strength

1132. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of fibre ropes?
33% of the breaking strength
25% of the breaking strength
30% of the breaking strength
40% of the breaking strength

405
DPKP

1133. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of mild steel shackles?
50% of the breaking strength
40% of the breaking strength
35% of the breaking strength
25% of the breaking strength

1134. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of reusable use wire ropes?
30% of the breaking strength
25% of the breaking strength
35% of the breaking strength
40% of the breaking strength

1135. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of single use wire ropes?
80% of the breaking strength
65% of the breaking strength
70% of the breaking strength
75% of the breaking strength

1136. On a roro vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of web lashings?
50% of the breaking strength
60% of the breaking strength
55% of the breaking strength
65% of the breaking strength

1137. On a roro vessel, when should a trailer horse be taken out of service
If there is any damage to the wheel or spring, the frame is rusted or distorted
or the pads are worn out
Every 6 months for routine maintenance
Once per year
Never you use them until they collapse

406
DPKP

1138. On a roro vessel, where can you find the validity of web lashings
On the certificate supplied with the equipment
On the bridge
In the cargo office
It does not have one they last forever

1139. On a roro vessel, where will escaping gasoline vapourssettle in a cargo hold? If the
forced ventilation system is shut down
At the lowest levels
At deckhead level
In ventilator shafts
At all levels

1140. What must you ensure when using portable slopes to discharge ro-ro units?
They must be exactly aligned with the units' tyres
They must be new
They must be free of dirt
The surfaces must be of the fish-bone type

1141. When lowering a roro Cargo Side or Stern Ramp what must be ensured ?
The vessel is securely moored and
there is nothing beneath the ramp
The ramp must be lowered by the
duty officer only
The ramp must be lowered at the
minimum speed
The ramp surface must be clean

407
DPKP

1142. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution,
Unlawful acts threatening the safety
of the ship and the security of its
passenger and crew, Pesonnel
accidents, Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency assistance to other ships
Fire, Evacuation, Pollution,
Personnel accidents and Ship
Security
Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire

1143. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger


cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency
instructions?
The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
Escape routes and alarm signals
Name of cabin attendant
Where to find thermal protective aids

1144. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?


Same number as beds in the cabin
At least 2
Twice the number of beds in the cabin
None, they will be handed out at the muster station

408
DPKP

1145. How many rescue boats should be provided on ro-ro passenger ships of 500 gross
tons and above?
Two, and at least one of the rescue
boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat
Two Fast Rescue Boats, one on
each side of the ship
One Fast Rescue Boat
None providing the ship has lifeboats

1146. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board a
ro-ro passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and
upwards?
3
2
One for each survival craft
It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF
fitted in a survival craft

1147. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up power
sypply?
Yes, the public address system shall
be connected to the emergency
source of power
Yes, only if the voyage is more than
12 hours
No, the crew will inform the
passengers in case of any black out
or power failure
No

409
DPKP

1148. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board ro-ro ships?


Yes, all passenger public spaces and
alleyways shall be provided with
supplementary electric lighting
No, portable battery operated lamps
shall be provided in alleyways and
public spaces
No, passengers should bring their
own flashlights
No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes

1149. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for
children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous
places on deck or at the muster stations?
5% extra
10% extra
25% extra
50% extra

1150. Ro-ro passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or
canopied reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-
righting?
The liferaft will automatically turn
back into an upright position when
it is empty of people
The liferaft will automatically turn
back into an upright position when
it is fully loaded with people
One person can manage to turn the
liferaft back into an upright position
It means the same as self-righting lifeboats

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1151. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be
provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross tonnage and upwards?
3
2
4
5

1152. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-igniting
lights an self-activating smoke signals?
2
4
50% of the total number of lifebuoys
At least 1

1153. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis?


To identify and eliminate, as far as practicable,
congestion which may develop during an
abandonment
To ensure the ship can be evacuated in less than
30 minutes
Provide port state control inspectors with
reports
To provide the passengers with written results of the analysis

1154. What is the time limit for abandonment of ro-ro passenger ships?
30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
15 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
2 hours from the time the abandon ship signal is given
There is no time limit

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1155. What is this?


A hydrostatic release unit
A liferaft release unit
An antistatic release unit
A slip hook

1156. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire
safety systems?
Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
SOLAS
ISM Code
Safety Management System

1157. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for life-
saving appliances?
Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
SOLAS
ISM Code
Safety Management System

1158. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board ro-ro
passenger ships?
From the navigation bridge and in at least one
other location
Navigation bridge
Captain's- and Chief Officer's office
Captain's office

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1159. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal life-
saving appliances do not correspond to present regulations?
All lifejackets shall be fitted with a
whistle, a light and a smoke signal
Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at
least 2 lifebuoys provided with self-
igniting lights an self-activating
smoke signals
All lifejackets shall be fitted with
reflex, a whistle and a light
The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in conspicuous
places on deck or at the muster stations?

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1160. Memeriksa dan melaporkan kecacatan dan kerusakan ruang


muat, tutup palka dan tangki tolak bara (Inspect and report defects
and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks )

1161. A bulk cargo declaration shows that the iron ore to be loaded has an angle of
repose of 45 degrees; what does this indicate?
The cargo pile is stable and unlikely to shift
The cargo pile will be very unstable
The cargo should not be accepted to load
The cargo may self-heat

1162. A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (S.F) of 1.50 cubic metres per metric tonne
(m3/mt). If 1000 tonnes are to be loaded what volume will this cargo occupy?
1500 cubic metres ( m3)
15000 cubic metres (m3)
1000 cubic metres
3000 tonnes

1163. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief
officer calculates 9 500 tonnes have been loaded; what should the Master do?
Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P& I Club
representative
No action to be taken
Bills of Lading to be signed "Clean" by Master.
Inform Designated Person Ashore( DPA)

1164. A bulk cargo of Coal is to be loaded in Australia for Europe; the coal is declared
as having a high moisture content (but less than the transportable moisture Limit
(TML)); what must the Master ensure?
All cargo hold bilges are sounded daily and the amount
of water logged; the bilges can then be pumped out.
The bilges must not be pumped out
The bilges must be pumped out regularly
The bilges should have been sealed prior to loading

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1165. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the
Chief Officer to be rusted; what must the Master ensure?
Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference
numbers of the rusty coils and so make the
Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill.
No action needs to be taken.
Steel coils to be discharged
Cargo temperatures measured on voyage

1166. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the
transportable moisture limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master
do?
Refuse to load the cargo unless the
vessel is specially designed for the
carriage of cargo which may liquefy
Load the cargo as the moisture
limits are within acceptable limits
Load cargo and ventilate on passage
to remove water
Load part cargo only

1167. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and a
transportable moisture limit of 18, what should the Master do?
Load the cargo as the moisture
content is within acceptable limits
Refuse to load the cargo as the
moisture content is outside
acceptable limits
Seek advice from charterers and
owners
Request additional moisture tests to
be done

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8. What hazards are associated with the carriage of wood pellets in bulk?
A. Oxygen depletion and generation of carbon
monoxide in cargo and communicating
spaces
B. Possible dust explosion due to excessive
ventilation
C. Spontaneous combustion and self-heating
D. Possible liquefaction of cargo, en route

9. What is mean by bulk Grain cargoes have a low angle of repose?


Liable to shift
Unlikely to shift
Always stable
Likely to produce toxic gas

1168. What is the primary hazard associated with the carriage of a bulk cargo of salt on
a Bulk Carrier?
The only possible hazard is
associated with ingress of water
into the hold and a loss of stability
There are no special hazards
associated with this cargo
This cargo maybe liable to
spontaneous combustion
The cargo may be liable to self
heat.

1169. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow characteristics
are dependant on what criteria?
The volume of air in the cargo
The volume of water in the cargo
They are fixed and the cargo has a stowage
factor of 0.5 cubic metres/tone
The bulk density is standard at 900 kg/cubic meter
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1170. When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with appropriate
instruments to measure the concentration of what gases within the cargo space?
The gases specified in all of these
answers
The concentration of Methane only
The concentration of Oxygen only
The concentration of Carbon
Monoxide only

1171. When should a master agree to accept a bulk cargo of concentrates?


When he is fully satisfied that the
actual moisture content of the cargo
is less than the Transportable
Moisture Limit (TML)
Once the actual moisture content of
the cargo has been declared by the
shipper
As soon as the cargo holds have been passed for loading
After a laboratory analysis of the cargo has been carried out

1172. A container full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping from
it. You should:
Reject the container.
Ensure that the container is
stowed below deck.
Ensure that the container is
stowed on deck.
Load the container and note
protest.

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1173. A typical hazard associated with the carriage of ammonium nitrate is:
Explosion.
Environmental pollution.
Loss of ship stability.
Spontaneous combustion.

1174. Although not required by the IMDG Code, on a container vessel, carrying
Calcium Hypochlorite under refrigeration is beneficial so as to:
Prevent the cargo temperature increasing into the danger
zone.
Maintain a continuous air flow through the cargo.
Maintain a record of the temperature of the cargo.
Ensure the cargo is shipped in a clean container.

1175. Carriage of wet scrap steel borings, turnings and swarf in containers is generally
considered dangerous, because:
It can spontaneously ignite.
This type of cargo will corrode the container.
The moisture will cause a huge increase in the
weight of the cargo.
The cargo will not dry out en route enroute.

1176. Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished by:


Smothering.
Dousing with seawater.
Allowing cargo to smoulder.
Cooling with freshwater.

1177. Exposure to moderate concentrations of ammonia may cause:


Choking and possible loss of eyesight.
Loss of memory.
Instant death.
Instant unconsciousness.

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1178. Fire in a container carrying chemicals is difficult to extinguish, because:


Heat is often produced due to
chemical reactions within the cargo.
Water, if used, will always cause a
chemical fire to flare up.
Such containers containing
chemicals are always inaccessible.
Chemical fires always spread
instantaneously to other containers.

1179. If a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire, it is recommended:


To allow ventilation.
To restrict ventilation.
Not to use water to cool the container.
Not to use dry chemical to extinguish the fire.

1180. Stack allowable weights on a container vessel should not be exceeded because
this can cause:
Failure of the corner posts of the
containers stowed at the bottom of
the stack.
The lashings to be overloaded.
The GM tov become excessive
leading to high roll accelerations.
Torsional effects on the hull.

1181. The most important consideration, in terms of stress, when planning stowage of
containers on a container vessel would be:
Distribution and weight of the containers.
Distribution of the containers only.
Weight of the containers only.
The vessel's draft and trim.

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1182. "Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning
or deballasting operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine
resources or human health or cause harm to amenities or other legitimate uses of the
sea and therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity of the discharge
into the marine environment". Such substances are:
A category "Y" substance as
identified in MARPOL Annex II.
A category "X" substance as
identified in MARPOL Annex II.
An NLS as defined in ISGOTT,
revision V.
A liquid cargo that is prohibited for carriage
in vessels other than type 1 chemical tanker,
as defined in the IBC Code.

1183. After the discharge of Lube Oils, Lube Oil Additives, Phthalates and Olefins and
before the loading of "high-spec" cargoes on a chemical tanker, the test that might
be expected to produce unsatisfactory results during initial wall-wash analysis
would be:
Hydrocarbons.
Non-volatile matter.
Odor.
Color.

1184. As per MARPOL 73/78, coal slurry, clay slurry, dextrose solution and molasses
are classified as:
"OS" (Other substances)"
Category Y
Category Z
Category X

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1185. In discussing the properties of Noxious Liquid Substances, the criteria for
defining Threshold Limit Value (TLV) is:
The time-weighted concentration of a substance to which a worker may be
repeatedly exposed for a normal 8 hour working day and 40 hour week
without adverse health effects.
The maximum concentration of a vapour to which a worker may be
repeatedly exposed for a maximum of 12 hours per day, 5 days per week
without serious health effects.
The maximum concentration of harmful vapour to which a worker may be
exposed for a period of 15 minutes up to 4 times within any 24 hour period
without adverse respiratory effects.
The concentration of a vapour expressed as a percentage of the oxygen
content of an environment in which a fit human-being can work
continuously for a period of 8 hours.

1186. It is considered especially necessary to continue to ventilate the tank and to


continuously monitor the atmosphere when working inside a cargo compartment
which still contains vegetable oil residues, because:
The decomposing residues continue to release hazardous gases, reducing the
levels of oxygen in the tank and making the atmosphere potentially
dangerous.
Forced ventilation will create a hard "skin" on the residues, making them
safer to stand on. Testing the atmosphere will indicate when this skin has
formed, as no further vapours will be released.
Vegetable oils are commonly washed using very hot water. Forced
ventilation will make the temperature inside the compartment better to work
in. Monitoring the atmosphere will indicate if the humidity is increasing.
For a tank which has contained vegetable oils, if it is continuously
ventilated an Enclosed Space Entry Permit is not required. However, for
anyone entering the compartment without a permit in place, they must carry
an oxygen meter which continuously monitors the atmosphere.

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1187. MARPOL 73/78 defines ‗solidifying substances‘ as:


A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting
point of less than 15°C which is at a temperature of less than 5°C above its
melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a
melting point equal to or greater than 15°C which is at a temperature of less
than 10°C above its melting point at the time of unloading.
A noxious liquid substance which, in the case of a substance with a melting
point of less than 20°C which is at a temperature of less than 10°C above its
melting point at the time of unloading, or in the case of a substance with a
melting point equal to or greater than 20°C, is at a temperature of less than
15°C above its melting point at the time of unloading.
A noxious liquid which will crystallise and eventually bond into solid form
at ambient, or less than ambient temperatures unless an external heat source
is applied.
A noxious liquid substance which will crystallise and eventually bond into
solid form if exposed to an external heat source.

1188. MARPOL 73/78 defines a ‗high viscosity substance‘ as:


A noxious liquid substance in category "X" or "Y" with a viscosity equal to
or greater than 50 mpa.s at the unloading temperature.
A noxious liquid substance in category "Y" with a viscosity equal to or
greater than 100 mpa.s at 37.8 degrees Celsius.
A noxious liquid substance of any category with a pour point of greater than
37.8 degrees Celsius.
Any noxious liquid substance, the residues of which cannot be stripped from
a cargo compartment and its associated piping and pumping system to equal
to or less than 75 litres.

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1189. The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous
products (ethyl ether, antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by
prescribing that:
They shall be carried in cargo tanks
independent of the ships hull
structure?
They shall be carried in tanks
surrounded by water ballast?
They shall be carried only in centre
tanks having double bottoms?
The cargo shall not have a height in
any tank above that of the vessel's
waterline?

1190. Which of the following groups of chemical cargoes is particularly susceptible to


polymerisation, especially through exposure to heat?
Monomers.
Aliphatic Amines.
Paraffins.
Aldehydes.

1191. You are to carry a cargo of Phenol across the North Atlantic in winter time. What
precaution will you take with the double bottom tank located under the cargo tank
containing the Phenol?
It should be empty, to avoid cold water contacted the structure around the
product because Phenol has a relatively high melting point.
It should be inerted, because Phenol has a very low Flash Point.
It should be continuously vented to avoid the build up of condensation on
the structure around the product.
It is not necessary to take any additional precautions with the double bottom
tank because it is part of an entirely separate pumping system.

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1192. You have just loaded a cargo of Toluene on a chemical tanker and are about to
clear the lines into the ship. The one particular hazard that must be noted about this
product would be that:
It is a static accumulator and settling time must be allowed before gauging.
It has a relatively low density. Tanks which are close to maximum filling
are especially liable to overflow during the line clearing operation unless the
flow of blowing medium is strictly controlled.
It has a relatively high freezing point and additional line blowing will be
required to ensure the vessel's lines are completely clear.
It is a carcinogen but has a relatively high odor threshold value. Personnel
may not readily detect any vapour that is ejected through the vent risers and
should therefore use filter masks while this operation is in progress.

1193. A P - H type Mollier diagram or chart is often used when dealing with LNG
cargoes. What is the main information that can be obtained from a Mollier
diagram?
Information about the exact values
of the pressure, density, specific
volume and dryness fraction of the
vapour when both the enthalpy and
temperature are known.
Information about the exact values
of pressure, enthalpy, specific
volume and dryness fraction of the
vapour when only the temperature is known.
Information about the exact values of enthalpy, specific volume and dryness
fraction of the vapour when the pressure and temperature are known.
Information about the variation in vapour temperature for a known pressure.

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1194. An important physical property of LNG is the saturation vapour pressure. What is
the IMO definition of the term "saturated vapour pressure"?
The pressure at which a vapour is in
equilibrium with its liquid at a
specified temperature.
The pressure at which all of the
liquid becomes vapour.
The pressure at which all of the
vapour returns to the liquid state.
A vapour mixture which has an
equal mass of each of the different vapours in the mixture.

1195. During a normal voyage heat is transferred to the LNG cargo through the cargo
tank insulation which causes some boil off of the cargo. This boil off changes the
composition of the LNG as more of the lighter components will vaporise. Which
component of the LNG cargo is likely to have a lower than original percentage on
arrival at the discharge port?
Methane.
Ethane.
Butane.
Pentane.

1196. LNG is often considered as an ideal gas when looking at the physical properties
and characteristics. With reference to the physical properties of gas mixtures which
of the given options is the SIGTTO definition of the term 'mole'?
The mass that is numerically equal to the molecular
mass.
The volume occupied by one molecular mass in
grams.
A graphic method of representing the heat quantities
contained in air.
A substance capable of causing cancer.

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1197. LNG is one of the liquefied gases transported by sea. What is the IMO's
definition of liquefied gases?
Liquids with a vapour pressure
exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +37.8
C and certain other chemicals listed
in the Gas Codes.
Liquids with a vapour pressure
exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +100
C and certain other chemicals listed
in the Gas Codes.
Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 2.8 bar absolute at +73.8 C and
certain other chemicals listed in the Gas Codes.
Liquids with a vapour pressure exceeding 8.2 bar absolute at +37.8 C and
certain other chemicals listed in the Gas Codes.

1198. What is a typical composition of LNG (Arabian Gulf LNG)?


Methane 91% - Ethane 6% - Propane 3%
Methane 100%
Methane 80% - Ethane 15% - Propane 5%
Methane 75% - Ethane 12% - Propane 13%

1199. What is the relative liquid density of Methane?


0.427
0.583
0.554
0.624

1200. A number of substances are carried as cargoes on liquefied gas carriers. Of those
given in the options, which is the most reactive, and therefore least compatible,
with other liquefied gas cargoes?
Chlorine
Methane
Ethylene
Propane
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1201. Ethylene is normally carried on fully refrigerated liquefied gas carriers at its
atmospheric boiling point. What is the approximate atmospheric boiling point of
ethylene?
Minus 104 degrees C
Minus 162 degrees C
Minus 48 degrees C
Minus 10 degrees C

1202. Hydrate formation may be a problem with some LPG cargoes. The hydrates may
enter cargo pumps, block lubricating passages, unbalance impellers and seize
bearings. What is the most common practice to prevent such problems?
Inject a small quantity of freezing-point
depressant into the pump.
Increase the cargo temperature.
Slow down the pumping rate.
Hydrates can be avoided by using
cargo filters

1203. Polymerisation may be a problem with some liquefied gas cargoes such as vinyl
chloride and ethylene oxide. What is the definition of polymerisation?
Polymerisation is when single
molecules of the same
compound join together to form
a new compound usually with a
higher viscosity.
Polymerisation is when molecules of two or more different compounds join
together to form a new compound.
Polymerisation is when the molecules of a compound split and form a new
compound.
Polymerisation is when liquids cool down and become more viscous.

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1204. The 'Critical Temperature' is important when dealing with liquefied gas cargoes.
What is the IMO Gas Codes' definition of the term 'Critical Temperature'?
It is the temperature above
which a gas cannot be liquefied
by pressure alone.
It is the temperature at which a
cargo of liquefied gas must be carried.
It is the temperature at which liquefied gas cargoes give off flammable
vapours.
It is the temperature at which vapours from a liquefied gas cargo will self-
ignite.

1205. The densities of most hydrocarbon gas mixtures which evolve from normal
petroleum products are greater than the density of air. What would be the
approximate relative density of a mixture of 50% by volume of air and propane
relative to 100% air?
1.25
2.0
1.55
1.8

1206. What is the main reason that LPG boil-off gas is unsuitable for use in the vessel's
fuel supply?
LPG vapour is heavier than air at
atmospheric conditions and
represent a risk as they may
accumulate in machinery spaces.
LPG is too expensive to use as fuel.
LPG vapour is too difficult to
ignite.
Reliquefaction of LPG vapour is a
simple process and is a cheaper option than burning the boil-off gas in the
boiler.

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1207. When butadiene is carried as a liquid gas cargo it usually has inhibitors added.
One reason for this is to minimise the formation of polymers. What is the other
reason for adding inhibitors to this particular cargo?
To scavenge any oxygen that may
be present to prevent peroxide
formation.
To prevent an exothermic reaction
of the cargo
To minimise pressure build up in
the cargo tank.
To maintain the solubility of water
in the cargo at low temperatures.

1208. Which publication contains detailed information, in the form of material safety
data sheets, relating to the chemical and physical properties and associated hazards
of the most commonly transported liquefied gases, including LPG?
The ICS Tanker Safety Guide (Liquefied Gases)
The IGC code
The International Certificate of Fitness
The IBC Code

1209. Why must inert gas from a combustion-type generator never be used when
preparing the cargo tanks of a liquefied gas carrier for a cargo of ammonia?
Because inert gas from this type of
generator contains carbon dioxide
which reacts with ammonia to form
carbamates.
Because inert gas from this type of generator has a high water content which
can react with ammonia to produce high pressure conditions.
Because the high oxygen content in inert gas from this type of generator
will form a flammable mixture with ammonia.
Because the high temperature of the inert gas from this type of generator
may ignite the ammonia.

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1210. When preparing the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier for loading it is important to
consider the dew point of the vapour mixtures present in the tank. What is the
definition of the "dew point" of a vapour mixture containing water vapour?
The dew point is the temperature
at which the water vapour begins
to condense as the temperature
decreases.
The dew point is the pressure at
which the water vapour begins to
condense as the temperature
decreases.
The dew point is the temperature at which the water vapour begins to
evaporate as the temperature decreases.
The dew point is the temperature at which all of the water vapour has
completely condensed.

1211. Which of the given options is the approximate value of the flammable range for
Methane measured as a percentage volume in air?
5.3 - 14.0% by volume.
2.6 - 12.4% by volume.
3.5 - 13.0% by volume
1.4 - 10.8% by volume

1212. A petroleum product is considered ―Non-Volatile‖ when:


With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C
or above (closed cup method), these
liquids produce, when at any
normal ambient temperature,
equilibrium gas concentrations
below the Lower Flammable Limit.
With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C
or below (closed cup method), these
liquids produce, when equal to or below any ambient temperature, gas

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concentrations of less than 5% by volume.


With a Flashpoint of 37.8 degrees C or above (open cup method), these
liquids produce, when at any normal ambient pressure, equilibrium gas
concentrations below the Lower Flammable Limit.
With a Flashpoint of 60 degrees C or above (open cup method), these
liquids produce, when at any normal ambient temperature, equilibrium gas
concentrations above the Upper Flammable Limit.

1213. Anti-static additives are used to treat fuel oil cargoes so as to:
Ensure they become non-accumulator of static charge.
Ensure they become an accumulator of static charge.
Ensure their relaxation time after loading is extended.
Ensure they become mildly magnetic during the voyage.

1214. At which of the following concentrations of Hydrogen Sulphide would dizziness,


headache, nausea, etc. Occur within 15 minutes of exposure, followed by loss of
consciousness and possibly death, after 30-60 minutes of exposure?
500-700 ppm.
50-70 ppm.
1,000 - 2,000 ppm.
200-300 ppm.

1215. Besides danger of vapour inhalation by crewmembers, if Hydrogen Sulphide is


present in high concentrations in crude oil, it can also cause:
Corrosion.
Polymerisation.
Acid build-up.
Settling and layering.

1216. The approximate API gravity of Arabian Light Crude is:


33 degrees.
27 degrees.
30 degrees.
40 degrees.
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1217. The approximate density ratio of undiluted gas, in relation to air, from a typical
crude oil is:
1.5 times that of the air.
Twice that of the air.
0.8 times that of the air (assuming atmospheric
pressure above 1000 mb).
1.8 times that of the air.

1218. The name given to compounds consisting solely of carbon and hydrogen atoms
joined together by single bonds is:
Saturated hydrocarbons.
Sour crude.
Unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Alkadienes.

1219. The Vapour Pressure of crude oils is determined by the:


The Reid Closed Test method.
The Crude Open Test Method.
The API Open Cup Laboratory Method.
The ASTM Elementary Assessment Method.

1220. When an inhibitor is added to an oil cargo, the items mentioned on the
accompanying certificate include:
Inhibitor name; amount added; date
added; period of efficiency;
precautions if voyage length
exceeds that period; eventual
temperature limitation.
Inhibitor class; amount added; date
of expiry; minimum period of
optimum efficiency; precautions to
be taken when added; minimum temperature requirement.
Inhibitor name; percentage applied; date of expiry; precautions to be taken
on voyage and interval of application; maximum temperature at which
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continuously effective.
Inhibitor class; percentage blended; date added; maximum period of
efficiency and applicable temperature limits; maximum storage period on
board; contact number of manufacturer.

1221. When carrying certain cargoes (e.g. Aviation Turbine Oils) it is important to
carefully monitor ship‘s tanks during passage, because these cargoes can:
Release oxygen, which they may have
absorbed during the refining process,
into the ullage spaces of ship‘s cargo
tanks
Release acidic effluents which may
make the entire cargo go off-spec
resulting in financial claims
Release acids during tropical sea area transit, which may result in increased
corrosion of the ships tanks and internals
Release vapours which may cause vapour contamination of the entire cargo

1222. When carrying out oil cargo calculations, the relationship between absolute and
gauge pressure is:
Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + barometric pressure.
Gauge pressure = absolute pressure + barometric pressure.
Absolute pressure = gauge pressure x 0.947 barometric pressure.
Gauge pressure = barometric pressure / atmospheric pressure

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1223. When describing the characteristics of oil cargoes or oil/water slops, a


‗mercaptan‖ is:
A colourless, odorous gas, with a smell
similar to rotting cabbage and which is
generated naturally by the degredation of
natural organisms, as may be found where
water has remained under oil for a long
time.
A chemical additive blended with crude
oil to inhibit the natural "rotton egg" smell associated with certain grades.
The component of hydrocarbon-based cargoes which is formed from
Merolion Carbonized Tannin.
A device fitted to a cargo pump which automatically alerts the operator once
traces of water start to be detected during discharge.

1224. When referring to crude oil petroleum products, ―volatility‖ means:


Their tendency to produce gas.
Their tendency to ignite.
Their ability to resist ignition.
A measure their vapour pressure.

1225. Which of the following type of crude oil requires special consideration in terms
of carriage and cleaning?
Paraffinic Crude.
Sweet Crude.
Medium Crude.
Reconstituted Crude.

1226. With reference to chemistry of petroleum cargoes, if 'Alkanes' are saturated


hydrocarbons, then unsaturated hydrocarbons are:
Alkenes.
Alkanes.
Pentenes.
Octanes.
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1227. With reference to oil cargo characteristics, ‗cloud point‘ is:


The temperature at which a liquid
hydrocarbon begins to congeal and take on
a cloudy appearance, due to the bonding of
constituent paraffin compounds.
The temperature at which an oil product
begins to emit vapours which can be
observed in a spectroscope due to the
volume of solid particles extracted during evaporation.
The surface pressure at which vapours from an oil cargo overcome gravity
and friction and are expelled from the containing compartment.
The depth within a cargo above which no waxy solids are entrained.

1228. With reference to oil cargoes, their wax content is generally referred to as:
The percentage of paraffinic wax by volume, based on a representative
sample of the crude oil.
The observed volume percentage of waxy deposits found in a cargo tank
after discharge in relation to the total volume of cargo previously carried.
The percentage of wax remaining in an oil product after distillation.
The amount of additive in an oil product, expressed in ppm, designed to
inhibit solidification at lower temperatures.

1229. At what latest time shall doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo- and coaling
ports and other openings which are to be kept closed watertight at sea be closed at
the start of the voyage?
Before leaving the port
Before entering open waters
Before leaving the pilot station
Before leaving the berth

435
DPKP

72. Cross-flooding fittings shall be operable from:

Above the bulkhead deck


The bridge
The engine room
The section where the unsymmetrical flooding occurs

1230. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it
be in each zone?
Two
One
Three
Four

1231. How often shall watertight doors in main transverse bulkheads which is in use at
sea be operated (tested)?
Daily
Weekly
Every two weeks
Every month

1232. In which cases shall side scuttles in passenger ships be so constructed that they
cannot be opened without the consent of the master of the ship?
Where the sills of the side scuttles are below the margin line
Where the sills are mounted below the bulkhead deck
Where the sills of the side scuttles are less than 500 mm above the deepest
load line

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Where the height of the side scuttles go through more than two decks

1233. Is there any requirements regarding double bottom for large passenger ships?
Yes, in ship of 76 m in length and
upwards, a double bottom shall be
fitted amidships, and shall extend to
the fore and after peak bulkheads,
or as near thereto as practicable.
Yes, in ships of 76 m in length and
longer, a double bottom shall be
fitted amidships, and extend to the
fore and aft not less that ¼ of the ship length.
Yes, a double bottom shall be fitted amidship
No, a double bottom is not required

1234. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?


A ship which carries more than 12
passengers
A ship which is arranged and fitted
for carriage of persons which are
not members of the ship's crew
A ship which carries passengers
only
A purpose-built passenger ship
carrying persons only on defined lines or routes

1235. When are power-operated watertight sliding doors (class 3 doors) compulsory for
all watertight doors aboard passenger ships?
Where the ship has passenger spaces below the bulkhead deck
Where one or more doors are situated below deepest load line
When the ship is certified for more than 150 passengers
Where the ship is fitted with through-going car decks

437
DPKP

1236. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in enclosed or
confined spaces, what action should be taken?
Arrangements should be made for
testing of the atmosphere to ensure
maintenance of 21% oxygen and a
carbon monoxide content below 50
ppm in the atmosphere of the space
Open both bow- and stern doors
Supply filter masks to all crew
working on ro-ro deck
Ro-ro decks are always ventilated in
advance of an operation

1237. Cargoes of frozen beef and chilled beef have approximate carriage temperatures
of minus 18 and minus 1 degree Celsius respectively. Greater care is required when
carrying chilled beef as it is more sensitive to deviations from, and requires finer
control of, its recommended carriage temperature. Which option best completes the
following statement? "This additional care is worthwhile because…
…chilled beef commands a much
higher price in the market."
B. ...carrying chilled beef is a modern
innovation."
…chilled beef is healthier for
consumers."
…chilled beef can be kept longer
than frozen beef."

1238. Certain live refrigerated cargoes such as fruit, salad, vegetable and plant cargoes
are sensitive to ethylene during shipment. Select the option which best completes
the following statement. "Ethylene is described as a gas which …
...is a natural fruit ripening hormone."
…can cause any type of refrigerated cargo to ripen."
…can cause a fruit cargo to ripen if it is present in a large concentration."
…is beneficial for the carriage of certain types of fruit."
438
DPKP

1239. During loading of bananas the fruit should be visually inspected frequently to
check the quality and for any indications as to its physiological development.
Which one of the options given would indicate that the fruit is in suitable condition
for shipment?
The bananas have a uniform green colour with
relatively sharp ridges along the length. They
can be snapped or broken with sap clinging
between the broken parts.
The bananas are green with a yellow hue. They
are not really hard and do not break cleanly.
The bananas are yellow with small black spots on the skin. They cannot be
snapped but the skin can be peeled off.
The bananas are green in colour with patches on the shoulder from the
effects of sunshine and have relatively sharp ridges along the length. They
can be snapped with sap clinging to the broken parts.

1240. It is possible to successfully mix certain types of refrigerated cargo in the same
space if they are compatible. Sometimes apparently dissimilar cargoes can be
successfully mixed. Which one of the combinations given in the options could be
successfully carried as a mixed cargo in the same cargo space?
Oranges and apples.
Oranges and bacon.
Oranges and butter.
Oranges and rock lobster.

1241. Most perishable cargoes are presented for shipment pre-cooled to the correct
carriage temperature. If the cargo is not pre-cooled or has warmed up due to the
cold chain being broken it can result in increased metabolic rates. Which of the
given options would be the most difficult to deal with if such a situation occurred
during a sea passage?
The heat produced by the cargo.
The carbon dioxide produced by the cargo.
The trace gases produced by the cargo.
The water produced by the cargo.
439
DPKP

1242. Refrigerated cargoes are generally easy to secure for a sea passage when
compared to some bulk, timber and project type cargoes. The cargo must be stowed
so that it will not shift during the voyage and so that a good air flow can be
maintained through the cargo. Which one of the given options is most likely to
result in this required outcome and a successful carriage?
A tight uniform stow which forces
air through the cargo.
A tight uniform stow but with
vertical gaps in the cargo for air
flow.
A loose uniform stow.
The stow is unimportant as it is only
the temperature in the hold which
determines whether or not the cargo is carried successfully.

1243. Some perishable cargoes which are normally carried refrigerated can also be
carried non-refrigerated even on a long sea passage. This requires that the
commodity is suitably packed and correctly ventilated during transport. Select the
option which correctly completes the following statement. "The type of cargo most
suited for a sea passage under ventilation only would be…
…onions."
…pineapples."
…grapes."
…strawberries."

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DPKP

1244. Strawberries are a sensitive cargo with a relatively short carriage life and can
only be carried on short sea passages. They are often irradiated for transport. Select
the true statement from the options given relating to the effect of irradiation.
The main effect of irradiating
strawberries prior to transport is that
it kills off any bacteria on the fruit.
The main effect of irradiating
strawberries prior to transport is that
it improves the colour of the fruit.
The main effect of irradiating
strawberries prior to transport is that
it kills any flies on the fruit.
A cargo of irradiated strawberries must be stowed well away from the crew
accommodation to reduce the possible effects of cobalt 60 radiation.

1245. When considering how non-containerised perishable cargoes such as bananas and
grapes are presented for loading the temperature of the cargo is important. Which
one of the statements included in the options is correct?
Bananas are loaded at field
temperature while grapes are pre-
cooled.
Grapes are loaded at field
temperature while bananas are pre-
cooled.
Bananas and grapes are both loaded
at field temperature.
Bananas and grapes are both loaded pre-cooled.

441
DPKP

1246. In roro Cargo Planning What should be considered for the location of stowage of
a heavy loads such as transformer, locomotive or work boats?
The stability of the vessel, access to the
location and the SWL of the stowage
location
The discharge port rotation
Day of the week
Requests from the stevedore

1247. In roro Cargo planning where should you look to find information on securing
cargos
In the vessels approved Cargo Securing Manual
On the bulkhead in the ships office
On the internet
In the maintenance guide for the cargo securing equipment onboard

1248. In roro cargo securing which of the following can be used as a general rule for
deciding lashing requirements of a cargo unit
The total of the MSL values of the securing devices on each side of a unit of
cargo (port as well as starboard) should equal the weight of the unit.
Total MSL for all securing devices should equal the weight of the cargo
Total MSL for all securing devices should be at least half the weight of the
cargo
Put one lashing on each corner

1249. On a roro vessel in a wet climate what can happen to wheeled cargoes?
Lashings can become slack over time and the cargo is more likely to shift
due to the wet weather
The lashings will become clean because of the water
Sticking of wheels to deck plating
The ship's paintwork flaking and falling onto the cargo

442
DPKP

1250. On a roro vessel, how should caterpillar crawlers stowed on hatch covers be
secured?
By means of wire ropes or chains secured to the hatch covers and to the
main deck from all four sides of the unit
By means of wire ropes secured to the hatch covers from all four sides of
the unit
By means of wire ropes secured to the main deck from all four sides of the
unit
By means of wire ropes secured to the hatch coamings

1251. On a roro vessel, what should be done first when cargo has shifted at sea on a
roro vessel and re-lashing is not possible?
Alter course and/or speed to reduce the accelerations and prevent further
damage
Go Faster to outrun the problem
Nothing can be done carry on the same
Take action to improve stability

1252. On a roro vessel, what should be done when cargoes that transmit stack loads are
to be loaded onto the vessel's decks or hatch covers?
Stow the cargo on timbers of sufficient thickness so as to distribute the stack
load
Weld additional steel plates to the deck and/or hatch covers where stack
loads are transmitted
Stow the full length of cargo on any timbers reguardless of their
Load the cargo under-deck instead

1253. On a roro vessel, what should one consider prior to loading machinery with
caterpillar crawlers on the hatch covers?
Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers and the horizontal
restraint of hatch covers and coamings
Maximum permissible loading of the hatch covers
The horizontal restraint of hatch covers
The horizontal restraint of hatch coamings
443
DPKP

1254. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with
fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ?
Tyre and bodywork damages
Tyre damage
Meltdown of internal plastic areas
Damage to vehicles' engines

1255. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large
temperature variations be stowed?
Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated
machinery
On deck away from the accommodation
Anywhere under-deck
Anywhere along the side of the main deck

1256. At what time should lashings be released?


Lashings should not be released
for unloading before the ship is
secured at the berth, without the
Master's express permission.
Lashings should be released when
the ship enters enclosed waters.
The crew can release lashings prior
to arrival to avoid any delays.
As soon as the weather conditions
are favourable, lashings can be released.

444
DPKP

1257. How can you arrange for safe movement of passengers on ro-ro decks?
Passengers should be warned of
vehicle movements when entering
or crossing car or vehicle decks.
They should preferably keep to
walkways while moving about the
ship.
Passengers should stay in their cars
until loading is completed. They
should keep to walkways when leaving the car.
Passengers are responsible for their own safety while moving about ro-ro
decks.
It is easy, only drivers are allowed to stay in the car during loading and
unloading.

1258. Normally ventilation fans in enclosed ro-ro spaces must be run continuously
whenever vehicles are on board, why?
An increased number of air
changes may be required when
vehicles are being loaded or
unloaded, or where flammable
gases or liquids are stowed in
closed ro-ro spaces
It is better to run the fans
continuously instead of testing the
atmosphere
It is easier for the crew, they don't have to think about starting and stopping
of fans
The manufacturer of the fans recommends continuous operation to reduce
maintenance cost

445
DPKP

1259. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing dangerous goods is not clearly
marked?
Refuse to load the vehicle
Ask the driver to write a declaration
of contents and load the vehicle
As long as the driver looks ok, load
the cargo
Load it, usually tank lorries are not
clearly marked

1260. What type of cargo shall always be secured?


Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent vehicles should
always be secured.
Tank lorries should always be
secured.
No cargo or vehicles have to be
secured if the weather conditions
are favourable.
The driver must ask the crew to
secure the vehicle and its cargo

1261. When there is doubt about the freshness of the atmosphere in ro-ro cargo spaces,
what action should be taken?
Arrangements should be made for
testing of the atmosphere to ensure
maintenance of 21% oxygen and a
carbon monoxide content below 50
ppm in the atmosphere of the space
Open both bow- and stern doors
Supply filter masks to all crew
working on ro-ro deck
Ro-ro decks are always ventilated
in advance of an operation

446
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1262. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling
dangerous goods?
IMDG code
SOLAS code
HB code
KLMNG code

1263. Who should operate ships' ramps, car platforms, retractable car decks and similar
equipment?
Only competent persons
authorised by a responsible ships'
officer, in accordance with the
company's work instructions.
Only the ships' officers.
Bosun and the loading officer
All crew working on ro-ro deck

1264. How often shall a survey for renewal of cargo ship safety construction certificate be
carried out?
Every fifth year with a periodical survey every 12. Month.
Every year
Every fourth year provided the lifesaving appliances are inspected annually.
Every second year

1265. If extensive repair to the superstructure has been carried out, it will affect the:
Load line certificate
Ship's safety certificate
Safety construction certificate
Ship's trading certificate

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1266. What kind of permanent documentation is required for personnel assigned specific
dutys and responsibilities related to cargo or cargo equipment on , for example, a
liquefied tanker?
A tankerman certificate
A tankerman certificate or sea service for at least 6 months
Documentation of the prescribed courses
Documentation of sea service on tankers for at least 6 months

1267. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of
cotton commonly tend to cause:
Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
Large instantaneous fires.
Heavy amounts of ship's sweat.
Spontaneous combustion.

1268. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to:
Crushing and distortion.
Bending.
Tearing.
Chemical reactions between the steel banding and outer envelope.

1269. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo
vessel is associated with:
Risk of explosion
Spontaneous combustion
Corrosion of steelwork
Build up of carbon dioxide gas

1270. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause:


Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
Increased levels of oxygen in the cargo holds.
Moisture absorption in the cargo holds.
Spontaneous combustion.

448
DPKP

1271. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to
state that:
They must not be exposed to salt water
contamination.
They can be loaded in heavy rain.
They must always be shipped in stainless steel
envelopes.
They must always be loaded wrapped in water-proof plastic sheet.

1272. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should be
carried out by:
A classification society surveyor.
The master.
A deck officer designated by the master.
A marine surveyor appointed by the company.

1273. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient
method of testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be:
Ultra sonic test.
Chalk test.
Visual inspection.
Hose test.

1274. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48
tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4 tonnes.
In this case, it would be correct to state that:
The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the
lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes.
The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the
derrick.
The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded by
small amounts in cargo operations, since the Breaking Load of the slings is
much higher.
The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and the
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DPKP

lifting gear must be at least 10% less than the SWL of the derrick.

1275. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the
condition of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by the
stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should:
Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
Continue discharge as planned and inform Designated Person
Ashore(DPA).
Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents.
Provide ships equipment to discharge.

1276. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a
General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from:
Ships Capacity plan.
General Arrangement plan.
Docking plan.
Planned maintenance schedules.

1277. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in:
Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation.
Sudden loss of stability of the vessel.
Damage to the cargo by ship structures.

1278. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system to
deteriorate would be:
Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
Due to repeated hatch cover operations.
Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures.
Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.

450
DPKP

1279. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
To prevent sparks entering the cargo hold.
To prevent the ventilator fans from damage.
To prevent moisture from entering the hold.
To act as a strength member inside the ventilation shaft.

1280. The ship‘s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly examined
at intervals not exceeding:
5 years
3 years
1 year
6 months

1281. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo vessel, it
must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the:
Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I. Club.
Class surveyor.
Surveyor representing the vessel's hull &
machinery underwriters.
Surveyor representing the consignee.

1282. What kind of damage is most likely when Ro-Ro cargoes come into contact with
fuel oil spilt/left on roro decks ?
Tyre and bodywork damages
Tyre damage
Meltdown of internal plastic areas
Damage to vehicles' engines

451
DPKP

1283. Where should a Ro-Ro unit that requires protection from heat and large temperature
variations be stowed?
Under-deck away from bulkheads, fuel tanks, heating coils and uninsulated
machinery
On deck away from the accommodation
Anywhere under-deck
Anywhere along the side of the main deck

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13. Pengangkutan muatan berbahaya (Carriage of dangerous goods)

1284. A Cargo Ship Construction Certificate has a validity of:


5 years
4 years
3 years
2 years

1285. IMO recommendations on allowance for water absorption in timber deck cargoes
on a General Cargo Vessel state that:
15% additional weight should be
used in stability calculation for the
arrival condition.
25% additional weight should be
used in stability calculation for the
arrival condition.
5% additional weight should be
used in stability calculation for the
arrival condition.
10% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival
condition.

1286. On a General Cargo ship which of the following statements is correct?


Cold rolled steel coils must never be loaded in
rain
Cold rolled steel coils may be loaded in rain
Cold rolled steel coils are always shipped in
stainless steel envelopes
Cold rolled steel coils may be loaded in rusty
condition

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1287. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales
of cotton commonly tend to cause:
Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
Large instantaneous fires.
Heavy amounts of ship's sweat.
Spontaneous combustion.

1288. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to:
Crushing and distortion.
Bending.
Tearing.
Chemical reactions between the steel banding and outer envelope.

1289. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo
vessel is associated with:
Risk of explosion
Spontaneous combustion
Corrosion of steelwork
Build up of carbon dioxide gas

1290. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause:


Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
Increased levels of oxygen in the cargo holds.
Moisture absorption in the cargo holds.
Spontaneous combustion.

1291. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct
to state that:
They must not be exposed to salt water
contamination.
They can be loaded in heavy rain.
They must always be shipped in stainless
steel envelopes.

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They must always be loaded wrapped in water-proof plastic sheet.

1292. Which of the following cargoes can normally be loaded next to each other in the
same space of a General Cargo vessel?
Drums of cement and steel pipes
Drums of cement and bagged milk powder
Pallets of pesticides and bagged grain
Rolls new carpets and drums lubricating oils

1293. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to IMDG Class 4
(flammable solids) cargoes loaded on a General Cargo vessel?
The goods require protection
against movement and can only be
loaded if a cargo declaration is
supplied by the shipper
The cargo can be stowed anywhere
on the vessel
The cargo is not covered by the
requirements of the IMDG Code
The goods can only be carried in the
forward part of the vessel

1294. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to IMDG cargo, loaded
on a General cargo vessel, that is also classed as a Marine Pollutant
Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and preferably under deck if
IMDG Code allows
Cargo of this type can be loaded anywhere on board the vessel
This cargo can only be loaded on deck
This cargo can only be loaded under deck

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1295. As understood within the IMDG Code, what is an "article"?


A device that contains a dangerous
substance or mixture of substances.
A form that contains important
information about a hazardous
substance.
A device that is responsible for
initiating a dangerous reaction.
Something that is packed within a
freight container.

1296. In conjunction with which two sets of international regulations should the IMDG
Code be read for security purposes?
Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the ISPS Code.
Part B of the ISPS Code and Chapter II of the Maritime Transport and
Offshore Facilties Act.
Chapter V of SOLAS and Annex II of MARPOL.
IMO NVIC 24 and 46 CFR 2.05

1297. In discussing segregation, the IMDG Code defines what it means by the term
"separated from". Which of the following is that definition?
In different compartments or holds
when stowed "under deck".
Provided an intervening deck is
resistent to fire and liquid, a vertical
separation may be accepted as
equivalent. For "on deck" stowage,
this segregation means a distance of
at least 6 metres.
Effectively segregated so that the incompatible goods cannot interact
dangerously in the event of an accident, but may be transported in the same
compartment or hold or on deck, provided a horizontal separation, projected
vertically, of 3 metres is obtained. Either in a vertical or horizontal
separation: if the intervening decks are not resistant to fire and liquid, then
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DPKP

only in a longitudinal separation is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this


means a distance of at least 12 metres. This distance also applies to one
package stowed "on deck" and another in an upper compartment.
Either in a vertical or horizontal separation: if the intervening decks are not
resistant to fire and liquid, then only in a longitudinal separation is
acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this means a distance of at least 12
metres. This distance also applies to one package stowed "on deck" and
another in an upper compartment.
With an intervening compartment, being both a vertical and horizontal
separation. Provided an intervening deck is resistant to liquid and fire, a
vertical separation of 6 metres is acceptable. For "on deck" stowage, this
segregation means a distance of at least 12 metres irrespective of
compartment divisions.

1298. One particular group of hazardous goods is highlighted by the IMDG Code as
potentially being the most dangerous for carriage. Which of the following is it?
Organic peroxides.
Liquefied gases.
Infectious substances.
Toxic substances.

1299. Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed as indicated in the Dangerous
Goods List of the IMDG Code, in accordance with a series of stowage categories.
How are those categories designated?
5 categories, labelled A-E.
10 categories, numbered 1-10.
10 categories, lattered A-K
(excluding I).
Three categories, numbered I, ii
and iii.

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1300. The Classes drawn up by the UN Committee of Experts for the safe handling of
hazardous substances, as listed in the IMDG Code, are drawn up on the basis of
which of the following criteria?
The type of hazard they present.
Selective laboratory tests commissioned by the Committee.
Alphabetical order.
Chronological order in which they have been assessed.

1301. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine


pollutants is regulated under which international guidelines?
Protocol I of MARPOL.
Annex II to SOLAS 1974.
Appendix B of the Supplement to the IMDG
Code.
The UN Convention on the Reporting of
Accidents and Incidents which Present a
Hazard to the Marine Environment 2004.

1302. Where should placards be located on a freight container?


One on each end and one on each side.
One on each end (only).
One on each side (only).
One of the back end and one on one of the
sides (only).

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1303. Which of the following is a definition of the "Proper Shipping Name", as found
in the IMDG Code?
The name to be used in any
documentation relating to the
transportation of the dangerous
substance, material or article, such as
on forms, labels and placards.
The name assigned by the
manufacturer to a material, substance
or article for the purposes of
shipment.
The correct chemical name of a potentially hazardous material, as identified
from the Chemical Cargo List.
The name under which a dangerous material, substance or article is
described for export purposes in the country of loading.

1304. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code?
A substance which is subject to the
provisions of Annex III of
MARPOL.
A substance which is subject to the
provisions of Chapter V of SOLAS
1974, as amended.
Any substance which is deemed
hazardous to the marine
environment
A substance which, because of its tendency to degrade in seafood, or
because of its hazard potential to the aquatic environment is subject to the
provisions of Annex I of MARPOL, as amended, and carried by sea
accordingly.

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1305. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling
dangerous goods?
IMDG code
SOLAS code
HB code
KLMNG code

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1306. Pengendalian trim, stabilitas dan tegangan (Control trim, stability


and stress )

1307. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of a
ship, what will quarter the acceleration forces acting on it?
Doubling the roll period
Doubling the pitch period
Halving the roll period
Halving the pitch period

1308. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling?


By the constant change of underwater hull geometry as waves travel past the
ship
By the virtual loss of GM
By the development of a negative GM
By an increase in the angle of pitch

1309. What does heaving result in?


Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
Shearing of container twistlocks
Longitudinal accelerations acting on hatch pontoons
Tipping of containers

1310. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
Enhanced vibration in HTS areas
Failure without warning
Low elasticity
Diminished cargo carrying capacity

1311. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder?
The number of repeated stress cycles
Repeated plastic deformation of the hull
Panting stresses
Resonant rolling

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1312. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculating


rolling forces?
24 - 30 degrees
37 - 42 degrees
30 - 36 degrees
18 - 24 degrees

1313. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?


When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the
ship
When twice the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of
the ship
When wave heights experienced from either quarter exceed 6 meters
When wave heights experienced from the bows exceed 6 meters

1314. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values?
When a ship changes direction at its extreme angle of pitch
When a ship is at its extreme angle of pitch and roll simultaneously
When a ship surges
During resonant rolling

1315. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship?
When the on-deck containers present a certain profile to the wind direction
Whenever wind speeds exceed 60 knots
Whenever wind speeds exceed 70 knots
When on-deck containers are block-stowed

1316. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel?
Because pitching varies with ship‘s length
Because very large container vessels are more exposed to open sea
conditions
Because vessel pitching varies with propeller pitch
Because container stacks on large container vessels are more exposed to
wind forces
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1317. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMO
stability criteria cannot be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following?
The grain surfaces in some or all of
the cargo spaces must be secured
The cargo can still be loaded
An exemption certificate must be
applied for
An exemption certificate must be
applied for

1318. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what are
the major concerns of the changes in stability?
Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and
loss of freeboard forward
Excessive trim by the stern
Increase in metacentric height (GM)
Reduction of speed and additional fuel
consumption

1319. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper ballast
tank amidships of a Bulk Carrier; what must the Master do?
Inform Designated Person Ashore
(DPA) and call in Classification
Society
Note the dimensions of the crack
and measure regularly
Proceed on ballast voyage without
ballast in this tank
Repair with cement box or temporary
welded patch until next drydock

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1320. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 and
carrying cargo of density 1010 kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to
withstand flooding?
Any cargo hold
The foremost cargo hold
The aftermost cargo hold
The midships cargo hold

1321. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 and
carrying cargo of density 1,780 kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is strengthened
to withstand flooding?
The foremost cargo hold
The aftermost cargo hold
The midships cargo hold
The ballast hold

1322. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of
the following parts of the vessel?
Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks
amidships
In number 1 and number 2 holds
In after peak area
On bottom plating in the after part of the vessel

1323. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverse


frame beam knees are slightly distorted; what is the significance of this?
This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and is
potentially serious
There are no concerns with this observation
This is an indication of excessive bending moment stress
The distorted areas should be painted

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1324. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a high
density cargo. What reasons could be given by the master to refuse to do this?
IMO do not recommend alternate loading of
cargo holds with high density cargoes.
The trim of the vessel will not be satisfactory.
Cargo space cleaning after discharge will be
excessive.
The summer deadweight will not be achieve

1325. What are the effects of a bulk vessel loading a high density cargo resulting in a
large metacentric height (GM)?
Have a fast roll period and possibly
suffer racking stresses
Have a slow roll and large righting
levers
Have a slow roll and very small
righting levers
Suffer torsional stresses and have small
righting levers

1326. What differences in design are there between a standard cargo hold and a cargo
hold which can also be used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier?
The ballast hold hatch cover must be fitted
with additional securing devices
There is no differences in design
This hold does not have ventilators
The coamings are much lower on the
ballast hold

1327. What must by carefully checked when loading a bulk carrier to maximum draft
The minimum bow height must be maintained
The vessel is trimmed by the stern on completion,
The vessel is trimmed by the head on completion
The vessel should have a stern trim of 2.0 metres by stern.
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1328. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on a
bulk carrier indicate?
That shear forces have been exceeded
That the vessel is due for survey
That failure of the shell plating is
imminent
That bulkhead failure is imminent

1329. Which of the below structures of bulk carriers are considered critical?
Upper and lower connection of main side
frames
Longitudinal deck plating outside hatches
The girders
Forecastle deck

1330. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity
for each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
Vessel stability book
Line drawing
Capacity Plan
Shell expansion

1331. Which plan shows the position of the vertical and longitudinal centres of gravity
for each cargo compartment of a Bulk Carrier?
Vessel stability book
Line drawing
Capacity Plan
Shell expansion

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1332. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe


environmental and safety hazards which require significant preventative measures
to preclude escape of such cargo, usually of double-hull construction, with a variety
of tank sizes / capacities is rated as:
A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC Code.
A type I chemical tanker as per the IBC Code.
A parcel chemical tanker as per the IACS Construction Regulations.
A chemical tanker for the purposes of the 1996 IMO directive MEPC/2.12
cir On Mandatory Reporting Requirements for Ships Carrying Dangerous or
Polluting Goods.

1333. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tanks


containing cargoes or cargo residues which might react with each other in a
hazardous manner, are all acceptable methods of segregation in chemical tanker
stowage according to the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be acceptable to
have:
An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargo or cargo
residues.
A common bulkhead, provided it is at least 10 mm thick.
A common bulkhead, provided it overlaps for less than 15% of the length of
the bulkhead on the larger tank.
A cruciform joint, separating two tanks diagonally.

1334. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and stability
information booklet, which must be supplied to the master of a chemical tanker,
shall include:
Details of typical service and ballast conditions, provisions for evaluating
other conditions of loading and a summary of the ship's survival
capabilities, together with sufficient information to enable the master to load
and operate the ship in a safe and seaworthy manner.
Summary details of light ship and fully loaded conditions and of a
representative part-loaded condition, with examples of calculations of
typical pre-departure stability conditions and an example of a damage
stability calculation to enable the master to determine survival capability in
the event of an emergency involving a breach of the hull.
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Certificates confirming the testing and calibration of tank gauging


equipment, the ship's stability computer program and the accuracy of draft
and loadline marks.
Details of service and ballast conditions for loading based on the range of
products which a vessel is certified to carry, incorporating the maximum
permissible DWT, the maximum permissible SG of any product, the
maximum permissible trim and any structural constraints that will impact a
loading condition.

1335. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is defined as:
One which is not contiguous with, or part of the hull structure.
One which forms part of the ship's hull and structure and which is normally
essential to the structural completeness of the ship's hull.
One which is not subject to the requirements of the IBC Code in respect of
the loading and carriage of hazardous liquid cargoes.
One which can be loaded with hazardous liquid chemicals that can not be
carried in integral cargo tanks.

1336. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations, the IBC
Code states that for a single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker:
There is no applicable filling restriction.
A restriction of 1250 cubic metres shall apply.
A restriction of 3000 cubic metres shall apply.
A restriction of 1750 cubic metres shall apply.

1337. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL
and IBC Code, it has become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in:
Double hull tankers.
Integral cargo tanks only.
Tanks fitted with heating coils or in-line heat exchangers only.
IMO type II chemical tankers only.

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1338. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the
definition and requirements of a ―pressure tank‖ must be:
Greater than 0.7 bar gauge.
Less than 0.7 bar gauge.
At least 1.0 bar gauge.
At least 2.1 bar gauge.

1339. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type
1 chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is:
1250 cubic metres.
3000 cubic metres.
750 cubic metres.
2400 cubic metres.

1340. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type
2 chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is:
The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2
chemical tanker as per the IBC Code is:
3000 cubic metres
2400 cubic metres
3400 cubic metres
2750 cubic metres

1341. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's
shell plating and the outer side bulkhead of the first cargo compartment on a type II
chemical tanker is:
Not less than 760 mm.
Not less than moulded breadth / 15.
Not less than moulded breadth / 5.
Not less than 1250 mm.

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1342. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of
deck cargo alongside the jetty. You should immediately:
Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small
ballast tank on low side of vessel.
Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights
within vessel and fill small ballast tank on high
side of vessel.
Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower
weights within vessel and fill small ballast tank
on high side of vessel.
Stop cargo, increase FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and empty
small ballast tank on low side of vessel.

1343. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when:


The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are weather tight.
All her certificates are in order.
The vessel's Safety Construction Certificate is vali
The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are watertight.

1344. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Upon completion of
loading, the final level of the water would be at:
The top of the summer load line mark.
The bottom of the summer load line mark.
The top of the winter mark.
The mid point between the summer and the tropical mark.

1345. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have:
A fast roll period and large righting levers (GZ
Levers).
A fast roll period and small righting levers (GZ
Levers).
A long roll period and large righting levers.
A long roll period and small righting levers (GZ Levers).

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1346. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensured
that:
There are minimum free surface moments in
tanks.
All double-bottom tanks are empty.
The vessel has a small metacentric height( GM).
The vessel is listed to the side to which the load is
to be lifte

1347. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when it is
carrying timber deck cargoes is:
The International Tonnage Convention.
SOLAS 74/78.
The International Convention on Load lines.
MARPOL 73/78.

1348. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heel
formula at?
Larger angles of heel.
5 degrees angle of Heel.
Small angles of heel.
Ess than 5 degrees angle of heel to the side of
the heavy loa

1349. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel can
be denoted by the formula:
KM - KG x Sin angle of heel.
KN - Corrected KG x Sin angle of heel.
KN - KG x Sin angle of list.
KM - Corrected KG x Sin angle of list.

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1350. When loading heavy lift cargoes on a general cargo vessel, positive stability can
be maintained by:
Completely filling the ship's double
bottom tanks and continuously
monitoring the loading operation.
Completely filling those double
bottom tanks below the cargo hold
where heavy cargo is being loade
Monitoring the vessel's stability
during the loading operation and not allowing the vessel to list on the side of
the loa
Listing the vessel to the opposite side to which the load is being lifte

1351. Which type of material is normally used in the construction of a cargo tank
designed for transporting LPG at atmospheric pressure?
Carbon-Manganese steel.
9% Nickel steel.
Stainless steel.
Aluminium.

1352. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck
scantlings must be maintained within "x" length amidships, where "x" is:
0.4 Length
Half Length
0.6 of the Length
Quarter of the Length

1353. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draft amidships for
crude tankers in ballast condition is:
2.0 + 0.02L
2.0 + 0.002L
2.0 + 0.15.l
2.0 + 0.0015L

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1354. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1
February 2002 shall comply with intact stability whereby it must have a minimum
GM (metacentric height) in port of:
Not less than 0.15 m
Not less than 0.015 m
Not less than 0.25 m
Not less than 0.10 m

1355. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker are:
Increased free surface effect and
reduced transverse metacentric
height.
1356. Increased longitudinal bending
moments and transverse metacentric
height.
1357. Increased likelihood of the vessel
suddenly developing severe trim
and list.
Potential hazards relating to damage to internal structure and pipelines.

1358. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is:
The draught for which the structural
strength of the ship has been designed
The maximum draught determined by the
Loadline Rules
The minimum draught amidships when in
ballast condition
The draught on which the fundamental
design parameters are based

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DPKP

1359. What is the purpose of girders in the tank?


They support the stiffeners and also
take up some of the sea forces
They transfer all the sea forces
acting on the plating
They transfer all the cargo forces
acting on the plating
They support the stiffeners

1360. What are the main elements in a damage control plan?


Boundaries of the watertight
compartments for decks and holds.
Position of controls for opening and
closing of watertight compartments.
Arrangement for correction of list
due to flooding.
Arrangements for correction of list
due to flooding within 15 minutes
Instructions and procedures for reporting damage to the Company
A damage control plan is the same as an emergency plan

1361. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical


flooding in damaged condition?
Cross flooding arrangement
Ballast trimming system
Separate trim tanks
Self acting ballast trimming arrangement

1362. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of
passenger ships?
The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
SOLAS
International Safety Management code
ISPS
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1363. What is the result of a large metacentric height?


The ship will roll violently.
The ship will have a long roll perio
Bending moment will increase.
The center of gravity will move upwards.

1364. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make
passenger ships able to withstand critical damage?
Maintain sufficient intact stability
Damaged stability to be increased by use of water ballast
Avoid overloading the ship
Damaged stability to be increased by weight redistribution.

1365. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and


excessive heel angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is
the maximum angle of heel after flooding but before equalization?
15 degrees
10 degrees
20 degrees
30 degrees

1366. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strenght?


The Master
The Shipping Company and the Classification Society
The Flag State Administration
The Shipyard

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1367. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer
vessel is a principal design aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options given
represents the optimum cargo space shape?
A square space as would be found
in a midships lower deck.
A narrow tapered space as would be
found in a forward lower deck.
A flared space that would be found
in a forward upper deck.

1368. A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck. Conventional
reefer vessels are usually designed with fine lines and large flared bows.
Consequently, in adverse weather conditions, especially from forward of the beam,
the navigating officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given options?
This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may result in
structural damage.
That the main engine governor may not be effective when the vessel pitches
heavily.
That the bow is ideal for keeping the forward decks dry and clear of water.
That the vessel design means that high speeds can be maintained and the
perishable cargo can be delivered in good condition.

1369. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for
supplying refrigerated air via ducting to containers. Modern vessels are designed to
supply only electrical power to integral containers. Select the main reason for this
change in design to the vessels and containers
from the options given.
The 'porthole' system design was
extremely complex and construction costs
were high.
Ducted containers had to be transhipped to their final destination after
discharge and still required refrigeration for that part of the supply chain
A large amount of refrigerant gas was required to operate the 'porthole'
system.
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The introduction of more powerful diesel engines onto these vessels meant
they had sufficient electrical capacity to supply the integral type containers.

1370. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three
tween decks approximately 2 to 2.5 metres in height and deep lower holds
approximately 4 to 5 metres deep. Modern designs usually incorporate more decks
each approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is the main reason for this
fundamental design change?
There is an almost universal use of standard
height pallets.
The increased proportion of chilled as
opposed to frozen cargoes that are carrie
The increased number of container vessels has reduced the tendency to
carry general cargo outbound from Europe or North America to Australia
and New Zealand on reefer vessels.
It is easier to construct vessels with shallow decks.

1371. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced?


By the cubic foot capacity.
By the pallet capacity.
By the grain capacity.
By the Suez Canal tonnage.

1372. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging
from deckhead rails in refrigerated locker spaces. What position should the centre
of gravity be assumed to be at when carrying out the stability calculations for a
vessel with such a stow?
At the deckhead of the lockers.
At the mid-height of the hanging carcasses.
At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook.
At the point indicated for the lockers in the approved stability handbook
with an arbitrary adjustment to take account of the centre of mass of the
hanging carcasses.

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1373. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following
statement. "Reefer vessels, loaded with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a
small GM due to the fact that…
…they are designed with fine lines and
the biggest cargo spaces are at the top of
the holds."
…they are designed with small fuel
tanks."
…they are designed that way to produce
a gentle rolling motion."
…they usually have large deck cranes."

1374. Two conventional reefer vessels are being considered for a charter that involves
the transhipment at sea, or at anchor, of a cargo of frozen squid, as weather permits.
Both vessels have 4 holds, vessel A has high speed, 10 tonne deck cranes and
vessel B has 5 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of the vessels, if any, would
be best suited to this type of operation?
Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks will give more control of
the operation at sea or at anchor.
Vessel A would be more suitable as the high speed cranes would allow the
operation to be completed more quickly.
Neither vessel would be suitable as none of the cargo handling equipment
fitted could be used at sea or at anchor.
Vessel A would be more suitable as the greater lift capacity of the cranes
would allow bigger pallets to be transhippe

1375. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other ship
types regarding seaworthiness?
They can roll to very large angles without
taking in water
They are not easily damaged in heavy
weather
Their large reserve buoyancy prevents

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capsizing
They can pitch to very large angles without taking in water viathe ramp
doors

1376. On a roro vessel, in addition to longitudinal, tran