Practice Test 11

Document # 6973555
MCAT
Practice Test 11 - CBT
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Document # 6973555
Physical Sciences
Time: 70 minutes
Questions: 1-52
Most questions in the Physical Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
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(202-828-0690).
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1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
Fr Ra Ac† Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Uuq Uuh
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (266) (264) (277) (268) (281) (272) (285) (289) (289)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
e
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
t
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
u
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
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Passage I 1. The electrochemical cell can be operated at

atmospheric rather than high pressure because:
The Haber process of ammonia production is a
classic example of a reaction limited by A) Le Chatelier’s principle does not apply to
thermodynamic constraints. The overall conversion is reactions in electrochemical cells.
given in unbalanced form as Reaction 1. B) electrical work serves to drive the reaction.
N2(g) + H2(g) NH3(g) C) SCY catalyzes the reaction.
Reaction 1 D) oxidation–reduction processes are unaffected by
pressure.
Because the gas volume decreases in the reaction,
high pressure must be used to drive the reaction to the 2. In the overall electrochemical reaction:
right. Because it is exothermic, high temperature
favors the reverse reaction. However, high A) nitrogen is oxidized at the anode, and hydrogen is
temperatures are required to achieve a reaction rate reduced at the cathode.
fast enough for industrial use. Despite these B) nitrogen is reduced at the cathode, and hydrogen is
limitations, the Haber process remains the dominant oxidized at the anode.
route for the production of ammonia; however,
satisfactory commercial production requires a C) nitrogen is reduced at the anode, and hydrogen is
catalyst. oxidized at the cathode.
e
D) nitrogen is oxidized at the cathode, and hydrogen
t
Electrolytic cells also can be used to produce is reduced at the anode.
u
ammonia. In one such method, hydrogen is pumped
into one compartment of a reactor constructed of the
ceramic strontia-ceria-ytterbia (SCY); it is converted
to protons according to Half-Reaction 2.
is t ri b 3. In industrial use, ammonia is continuously

removed from the reaction mixture. This serves to
D
drive Reaction 1 because of:
t
H2(g) → 2H+ + 2e– A) Boyle’s law.
N
Half-Reaction 2
o B) Charles’s law.
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The electrolytically generated protons are then C) Heisenberg’s principle.
transported through the solid SCY electrolyte to react D) Le Chatelier’s principle.
with the nitrogen at the other electrode according to
Half-Reaction 3. SCY conductors are favored for this
use because their proton conductivities increase 4. The lone pair of electrons in ammonia allows the
molecule to:
substantially with temperature.
A) assume a planar structure.
N2(g) + 6H+ + 6e– → 2NH3(g)
B) act as an oxidizing agent.
Half-Reaction 3 C) act as a Lewis acid in water.
While the Haber process generally operates at D) act as a Lewis base in water.
about 450°C and 15–30 atm, an electrolytic cell
operates most efficiently at about 600°C and
atmospheric pressure. In both cases the upper
operating temperatures are limited by the reversible
decomposition of ammonia, which is insignificant
below 300°C, but increases dramatically thereafter.
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Document # 6973555
5. What is the role of the solid-state catalyst in the 6. It is possible to design a reactor where the SCY
Haber process? conductor and the nitrogen/ammonia electrode
operate at different temperatures. Which
A) It increases the amount of ammonia produced per
combination of temperatures is expected to give
unit time.
the best results?
B) It increases the total amount of ammonia
A) SCY temperature higher than electrode
produced.
temperature
C) It decreases the amount of ammonia that
B) SCY temperature lower than electrode temperature
decomposes per unit time.
C) SCY temperature the same as electrode
D) It decreases the total amount of ammonia
temperature
produced.
D) The temperature of the components does not make
a difference.
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Passage II 7. Which single bond present in nitroglycerin is most

likely the shortest?
Nitroglycerin (Figure 1) is a highly explosive,
oily, colorless-to-yellow liquid. A) C–H
B) C–O
C) C–C
D) O–N
8. At STP, the volume of N2(g) produced by the

Figure 1 Nitroglycerin complete decomposition of 1 mole of nitroglycerin
would be closest to which of the following?
It undergoes decomposition violently (Reaction 1)
when heated or shocked. A) 5 L
4C3H5N3O9(l) → 12CO2(g) + 10H2O(g) + 6N2(g) + B) 10 L

O2(g) C) 20 L
Reaction 1 D) 30 L
The standard enthalpies of formation at 25°C of

9. The reaction between glycerol (C3H8O3) and
e
the species in Reaction 1 are listed in Table 1.
t
HNO3 produces nitroglycerin and water. The
u
Table 1 Standard Enthalpies of Formation at 25°C amount of HNO3 required to convert 1 mole of
i b
glycerol completely into nitroglycerin is closest to
Species
C3H5N3O9(l)
CO2(g)
ΔH°f (kJ/mol)
–364.0
–393.5
D is t r which of the following?

A) 130 g
t
B) 150 g
H2O(g) –241.8
N
N2(g)
O2(g)
0.0
0.0
o C) 170 g
D) 190 g
Do
The average bond energies in kJ/mol of the C–H,
C–O, C–C, and O–N single bonds present in 10. Which of the following is a valid Lewis structure
nitroglycerin are 413, 358, 347, and 201, respectively. of nitric oxide?
A)
Nitroglycerin is prescribed as a vasodilator
(vasodilators help expand and relax blood vessels). It B)
is metabolized to nitric oxide (NO) which affects the C)
GMP cycle.
D)

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11. Based on the passage, Reaction 1 at 25°C most 12. The pressure inside a sealed 3-L tank containing
likely has: 25 g of which product of Reaction 1 would be the
highest at 300 K? (Assume no condensation.)
A) positive ΔG° and positive ΔS°.
A) CO2(g)
B) positive ΔG° and negative ΔS°.
B) H2O(g)
C) negative ΔG° and negative ΔS°.
C) N2(g)
D) negative ΔG° and positive ΔS°.
D) O2(g)
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These questions are not based on a descriptive 15. Which of the following energy conversions best
passage and are independent of each other. describes what takes place in a battery-powered
resistive circuit when the current is flowing?
13. The three ions in the following figure are initially A) Electric to thermal to chemical
held fixed as shown.
B) Chemical to thermal to electric
C) Electric to chemical to thermal
D) Chemical to electric to thermal
16. The following two-step method is used to
produce NaCl from sodium and chlorine.
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → HCl(g) ΔH1
Na(s) + HCl(g) → NaCl(s) + H2(g) ΔH2

If Ion C alone were released, in which of the
following directions would it begin to move? ΔH3
Net reaction: Na(s) + Cl2(g) → NaCl(s)
A) Toward the top Calorimetric measurements show that
ΔH3 = –23.48 kJ and ΔH2 = –18.21 kJ. What is
e
B) Toward the bottom
t
the value of ΔH1?
u
C) Toward the left
b
A) – 41.69 kJ
D) Toward the right
is t ri B) –5.27 kJ
C) +5.27 kJ
D
14. What is the angular momentum quantum number
t
(l) for the orbital from which a Mg atom loses D) +28.75 kJ
o
two electrons to form a Mg2+ ion?
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A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
17. The specific heats (in J/g•°C) of aluminum, brass,
mercury, and wood are 0.8, 0.4, 0.1, and 2.1,
respectively. If 1 g of each of the substances
absorbs 5 cal of heat, which will have the greatest
temperature increase?
A) Aluminum
B) Brass
C) Mercury
D) Wood

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Passage III The Pendulum

Consider the following experiments. To measure the dependence of the period of a
pendulum on a number of variables, an assortment of
Young’s Modulus initial conditions were proposed for the pendulum. In
Figure 2, the mass of the pendulum bob (represented
Thomas Young (1773–1829) studied the change
by one, two, or three lumps of identical mass), the
in length of objects when stretched by a force. He
length of the string, and the release point are shown
used two springs of different lengths L that were
for different initial conditions.
made of the same material with the same diameter.
Upon applying identical forces F, Young found the
longer of the two stretched farther. When the springs
were identical in length but had different diameters,
the elongation ΔL from identical forces was inversely
proportional to the cross-sectional area A. He also
found that different materials with identical
dimensions had different elongations. These results
are expressed by the equation
where E is known as the elastic modulus, or Young’s
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t r
modulus, which is constant for a given material and a
is
measure of its strength.
D
Figure 2 Initial release points for pendulum
Single-Slit Interference
t
experiment
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The interference fringes from light diffracted
through a tiny aperture or slit are a key demonstration
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of the wave nature of light. When projected onto an
opaque screen, the intensity of light as a function of
the position on the screen is as shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1 Single-slit diffraction pattern on a screen

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18. Based on the passage, which of the following 20. The compressive strength of human bone is about
best represents a graph of stress versus strain? 2.0 × 108 N/m2. What crushing mass, supported
by an upright forearm, would cause a 1% change
A)
in length of a 5-cm2 cross-sectional area of
forearm bone? (Note: Use 10 m/s2 for g.)
A) 102 kg
B) 103 kg
C) 104 kg
D) 105 kg
B)
21. Which one of the following properties of a wave
is independent of all the others?
A) Wavelength
B) Frequency
C) Velocity
C)
D) Amplitude
i b ut e 22. An appropriate unit for Young’s modulus would

be:
D is t r A) Pa.
B) W.
t
D) C) N.
N o D) J.
Do
23. The optical power P of a lens is expressed in
diopters: P = 1/f, where f is the focal length in
meters. Given that the lens-to-retina distance in
the human eye averages 2.0 cm, which of the
following is closest to the power of the lens of the
19. To most effectively study the dependence of the human eye?
period of a pendulum on its mass, an A) 0.05
experimenter would analyze the data from which
of the following initial conditions in Figure 2? B) 2
A) A1, B1, C2 C) 10
B) A2, A3, B2 D) 40
C) A3, B1, C3
D) B3, C1, C3

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24. To most effectively study the dependence of the

period of a pendulum on its initial angle, an
experimenter would analyze the data from which
of the following initial conditions in Figure 2?
A) A1, B1, C2
B) A2, A3, B2
C) A3, B1, C3
D) B3, C1, C3
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Passage IV 27. An object with mass m is dropped from a height h

and falls straight down, achieving terminal speed
Objects falling in air do not continue to accelerate
vT. Which of the following expressions represents
indefinitely as they fall. A falling object reaches a
the power exerted by the force of air resistance
maximum speed (terminal speed, vT) because as it
acting on the object after terminal speed is
falls the upward force of air resistance increases as
reached?
the object's speed relative to the air (air speed)
increases. When the upward force of air resistance A) - mgvT
balances the weight of the object, acceleration ceases. B) mgh
The upward force is proportional to the square of the
air speed of the object and the area presented by the C) -½mvT3/h
object perpendicular to the motion through the air. By D) mvT/g
changing from a minimum to a maximum surface
area presented perpendicular to the path of the 28. Which of the following graphs shows the
motion, a falling person can reduce his or her terminal relationship between the distance fallen from rest
speed by a factor of two. as a function of time for an object experiencing
air resistance?
An individual with a mass of 75 kg is released
A)
from rest from a height of 2 km during a parachute
jump. The person maintains a maximum surface area
position during the fall and reaches a terminal speed
of 40 m/s at a distance of 600 m below the release
point. (Note: g = 10 m/s2 and assume constant air
density below 2 km.)
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25. Which of the following statements best explains
why air resistance is ignored when a compact
D is t r B)
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object falls a very short distance?
A) The object's mechanical energy is constant.
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B) The speed of the object remains small.
C) The area presented to the air is negligible.
D) Gravity does negligible work in this situation.
C)
26. By what factor can a person reduce their kinetic
energy at terminal speed by presenting a
maximum surface area to the air rather than a
minimum surface?
A) 1
B) 2 D)
C) 3
D) 4

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29. How much gravitational potential energy is 31. If WG and WA are the work done on the person
transformed during the 2-km fall of the by gravity and air resistance, respectively, during
parachutist? the first 600 m of the fall, what is the relationship
A) 1.5 × 103 J between WG and WA?
B) 3.0 × 103 J A) WG < 0, WA > 0, and | WG | < | WA |
C) 6.0 × 105 J B) WG > 0, WA < 0, and | WG | > | WA |
D) 1.5 × 106 J C) WG < 0, WA > 0, and | WG | = | WA |

D) WG > 0, WA < 0, and | WG | = | WA |
30. What is the magnitude of the air resistance force
while the parachutist traveling at vT?
A) 40 N
B) 75 N
C) 750 N
D) 3000 N
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These questions are not based on a descriptive 35. A jar is half-filled with water, the temperature is
passage and are independent of each other. equilibrated to 25°C, and the jar is sealed. The
pressure inside the jar will decrease if which of
32. When equal volumes of solutions of MgSO4 and the following occurs?
NiF2 are mixed, a precipitate forms. Which of the A) The jar is cooled to 15°C.
following pieces of information will be LEAST
useful in determining the identity of the B) The jar is heated to 35°C.
precipitate? C) The water vaporizes inside the jar.
A) Molar solubility of MgF2 D) Air escapes from the water.
B) Molar solubility of MgSO4
C) Molar solubility of NiSO4 36. Most ionic compounds with strong ionic bonding
have which of the following characteristics?
D) Concentration of the NiF2 solution I. Higher melting points than covalently
bonded compounds of similar molecular
33. The maximum mass of H2(g) that would be weights
expected to form by the reaction of 6.54 g Zn(s) II. Solubility in nonpolar solvents
with 50.0 mL of 0.1 M HCl is equal to which of III. Electrical conductance when dissolved in
the following? water
A) 0.0025 g A) I only
B) 0.005 g
C) 0.1 g
i b ut e B) II only
C) I and III only
D) 0.2 g
D is t r D) II and III only
t
34. When SO2(g) and O2(g) are heated, the following
o
reaction occurs:
N
2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g) ΔH = –197.8 kJ
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Is it reasonable to conclude that this is an
endothermic reaction?
A) No, because the enthalpy change for the reaction is
negative
B) No, because the relative concentrations of the
reactants and the product depend on the pressure
C) Yes, because heat must be added for the reaction
to proceed
D) Yes, because the number of moles is higher on the
reactant side

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Passage V
A group of students investigated the reactions of
several metals with solutions containing metallic ions.
Experiment 1
The students placed strips of a metal, X(s), into
solutions containing different metallic ions, Ym+(aq),
as shown in Figure 1.
After several hours, they observed whether or not
Y(s) formed on the surface of the metal strip (see
Table 1).
Figure 1 Metal strip in solution
Table 1 Results of Metal Strip Experiment
Identity of
metal ions
i b ut e Composition of metal strip
r
Al(s) Cu(s) Zn(s) Ag(s) Au(s) Pb(s)
Al3+(aq)
D i
*
s t no
change
no
change
no
change
no
change
no
change
N
Cu2+(aq)
otnew
solid
* new
solid
no
change
no
change
new
solid
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Zn2+(aq) new no * no no no
solid change change change change
Ag+(aq) new new new * no new

solid solid solid change solid
Au3+(aq) * * * new * *
solid
Pb2+(aq) new no new no no *

solid change solid change change
* = not studied

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Experiment 2 37. A student can most effectively increase the

current passing through the circuit in Figure 2 by
The students placed a solid strip of each metal
doing which of the following?
into an aqueous solution containing ions of the same
metal. Complete circuits were established (Figure 2). A) Using electrical wire with a smaller diameter
B) Increasing the temperature of the electrical wire
C) Decreasing the concentrations of Xn+(aq) and
Ym+(aq)
D) Replacing the lightbulb with one that has a
resistance of 0.2 Ω
38. Assume that a circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is

set up in which X = Al, Xn+ = Al3+, Y = Cu, and
Ym+ = Cu2+. Which of the following reactions
will occur?
A) 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s) → 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq)
B) 3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s) → 3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq)
C) 2Al(s) + 3Cu2+(aq) → 2Al3+(aq) + 3Cu(s)
i b ut e D) 3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) → 3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s)
Figure 2 Complete circuit
D is t r 39. A circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in

which X = Pb, Xn+ = Pb2+, Y = Cu, and Ym+ =
Cu2+. Will an oxidation–reduction reaction occur
t
spontaneously?
o
Finally, the students checked a general chemistry
A) No; E°cell = –0.212.
N
text to determine the standard reduction potentials for
Do
the following reactions. B) No; E°cell = +0.212.
Pb2+(aq) + 2e– → Pb(s) E°red = –0.127 V C) Yes; E°cell = –0.466.

D) Yes; E°cell = +0.466.
Reaction 1
Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s) E°red = +0.339 V 40. A circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up. It
has a potential of 2.0 V. Assume that the
Reaction 2 resistance in the circuit is negligible compared to
that of the lightbulb. Approximately how much
current passes through the lightbulb?
A) 0.5 A
B) 1.0 A
C) 2.0 A
D) 4.0 A

Document # 6973555
Passage VI The principle of the human centrifuge is also the

basis for providing artificial gravity in future large
One way to test a person’s ability to withstand space stations. A prototypical space station is shaped
strong gravity is to produce an artificial gravitational like a torus (a doughnut) that rotates about its axis of
field using a ―human centrifuge.‖ As shown in Figure symmetry as in Figure 3. The floor of the space
1, a human centrifuge consists of a car, in which the station lies along its outer radius R. (Note: R = 90 m
person is seated, that hangs freely from a rotating arm in Figure 3.)
driven by a motor. The speed of rotation sets the
strength of the artificial field the person feels and the
suspension angle θ of the car. The car is 10 m from
the axis of rotation of the centrifuge in Figure 1.
i b ut e
D is t r Figure 3 Prototypical large space station
t
Figure 1 Human centrifuge
N o
Data for the speed of the car versus time in a sample
run is provided in Figure 2. 41. When the speed of the car is a constant 20 m/s,
Do
the period of its circular motion is:
A) 0.50 s.
B) 1.00 s.
C) 1.57 s.
D) 3.14 s.
42. At which point in Figure 2 does the human riding

in the centrifuge car experience the strongest
sense of gravity?
A) A
B) B
Figure 2 Speed of car vs time for an example run of C) C
the human centrifuge
D) D

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43. What causes an object to experience an artificial 45. If the centrifuge car in Figure 1 emitted a sound
gravitational acceleration in the rotating space as it moved, a stationary observer standing just
station? outside the radius of the centrifuge would hear:
A) The Earth’s gravitational field A) a frequency that oscillates about that emitted by
the car.
B) The object’s propensity to move in a straight line
while the space station forces it onto a curved path B) the same frequency as that emitted by the car.
C) The space station’s mass C) a higher frequency than that emitted by the car.
D) The object’s kinetic energy D) a lower frequency than that emitted by the car.
44. Which of the following constraints applies to the

suspension angle θ (in radians) of the car shown
in Figure 1?
A) 0 ≤ θ ≤ π/4
B) 0 ≤ θ < π/2
C) 0 ≤ θ ≤ 3π/4
D) –π/4 ≤ θ ≤ π/4
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage VII 46. Which of the following best explains what

happens at the molecular level to the supporting
Water enters a storage tank through an inlet valve
pillars as the water level in the storage tank rises?
near the top of the tank, as shown in Figure 1. The
tank may be drained via another valve at the bottom. A) The increasing mass of the tank causes a greater
The tank is covered, but a valve in the cover is kept gravitational pull between the tank and the
open so that the air inside is at atmospheric pressure. molecules in the pillars, making the pillars shorter.
To prevent a backflow into the water supply system, B) The increasing pressure force on the pillars causes
the water level in the tank must never be allowed to some of the kinetic energy of the molecules to be
reach the inlet valve. Water comes into the tank turned into potential energy, making the pillars
through a series of three pipes with different cross- colder.
sectional areas. Each section of pipe is completely
filled with water; that is, there is no air in the pipes. C) The increasing weight of the tank pushes the
The first section of pipe has a cross-sectional area molecules in the pillars closer together along the
twice that of the second section; in turn, the second vertical direction, making the pillars shorter.
section has a cross-sectional area twice that of the D) The increasing repulsion between the molecules in
third section (which empties directly into the tank). the pillars releases some of their electrons, making
The tank, when empty, weighs 9500 N; it is supported the surface of the pillars electrically charged.
evenly by six concrete pillars; each pillar has the
same cross-sectional area. (Note: The density of water
47. If the speed of the water in the first section of
is ρ = 1000 kg/m3, and the acceleration due to gravity
t e
pipe is 0.05 m/s, the water speed in the third
g is about 10 m/s2. Assume that water is
u
section will be:
incompressible.)
is t ri b A) 0.025 m/s.
B) 0.05 m/s.
D
C) 0.1 m/s.
N ot D) 0.2 m/s.
Do
48. The change in the gravitational potential energy
of 4 × 10–4 m3 of water that falls 0.2 m from the
inlet in the side of the storage tank to the water
surface would be:
A) 0.08 J.
B) 0.8 J.
C) 4 J.
D) 2000 J.
Figure 1 Storage tank

Document # 6973555
49. What is the total force on the pillars when the

tank contains 10 m3 of water?
A) 10,000 N
B) 19,500 N
C) 109,500 N
D) 195,000 N
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

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These questions are not based on a descriptive 51. Which of the following reactions shows the
passage and are independent of each other. energy change associated with the ionization of
an X2 molecule?
50. The graph below shows the relationship between A) X2 + energy → X+ + X–
the predominant form of iron as a function of
solution pH and applied potential. Based on the B) X2– + energy → X2 + electron
graph, which of the following statements is true? C) X2 + electron → X2 + energy
D) X2 + energy → X2+ + electron
52. The chemical similarity of radium and calcium

extends to their reactivity with oxygen. What is
the formula of the product formed when either of
these metals (M) reacts with oxygen?
M(s) + O2(g) → ?
A) MO
B) MO2
C) M2O3
i b ut e D) M3O2
D is t r
N ot
DoA) At a potential of –0.4 V, as pH increases, Fe2+ is
reduced and precipitates as Fe(OH)3.
B) At a potential of –0.44 V, the equilibrium between
Fe and Fe2+ is independent of solution pH below
pH 6.
C) At pH = 1, as the potential is changed from –0.2 to
+0.8, Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+.
D) At pH = 8 and V = –0.1 V, Fe(OH)2 is the
predominant form of iron.

Document # 6973555
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 60 minutes
Questions: 53-92
There are seven passages in the complete Verbal Reasoning test. Each passage is followed by
several questions. After reading a passage, select the one best answer to each question. If you
are not certain of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then
select an answer from the remaining alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the
corresponding answer on your answer sheet.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC
and its Section for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test.
Therefore, there can be no sharing or reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any
form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are any questions about the use of the
material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202-828-0690).

Document # 6973555
Passage I guessed, was a product of Randi’s imagination.

Callers provided many details that Randi had
James Randi is a magician and jack-of-all-trades ―omitted,‖ including the fact that there had been more
who, for several years, has tried to teach the public than one pass of the ―saucers.‖
some basic skills of critical thinking. The Amazing
Randi (his stage name) has done this by exposing the On a radio show, Randi demonstrated the basis for
fraud and charlatanism surrounding claims of the popularity of another pseudoscience: biorhythms.
―psychic‖ abilities. Although he has uncovered many One listener agreed to keep a day-by-day diary and
magicians and conjurers masquerading as psychics, compare it with a two-month biorhythm chart that
he is best known for exposing the trickery of Uri was prepared especially for her. Two months later,
Geller, the psychic superstar of the 1970s. Bursting the woman called back to inform the audience that
on the scene with his grand claims of psychic powers, biorhythms should be taken very seriously because
Geller captivated the media to an extraordinary her chart was more than 90 percent accurate.
degree. He was featured in newspapers, on television Unfortunately, Randi had to inform her of the silly
shows, and in major news magazines on several mistake made by his secretary, who had sent his chart
different continents. to her, rather than her own. However, the woman did
agree to evaluate the correct chart, which would be
Geller gained credibility from several physicists mailed to her right away, and to call back. A couple
who testified to the authenticity of his powers. These of days later, the woman called back, relieved. Her
physicists were confident in their powers of own chart was just as accurate, in fact, even more
observation, yet they lacked knowledge of the proper accurate. On the next show, however, it was
experimental controls necessary in behavioral
research. They were unaware of their ignorance and
thus did not realize that they needed the expertise of
i b ut e discovered that whoops, another error had been made.

The woman had been sent Randi’s secretary’s chart,
r
rather than her own! With a snort, the woman hung
t
experimental psychologists, who are trained in just up.
such controls, and magicians, who of course are
experts in detecting conjuring. Randi detected and
exposed the common and sometimes embarrassingly
t D is Adapted from K. Stanovich, How to Think Straight About Psychology. ©1989 by
o
Scott Foresman and Company.
simple magic tricks that Geller used to perform his
N
psychic ―feats,‖ which included bending keys and
53. According to the passage, Randi has provided a
Do
spoons, starting watches, and similar mundane fare
compelling demonstration that:
for a good magician.
A) eyewitness reports of unidentified flying objects
One of Randi’s major diversions consists of are not reliable.
demonstrating how easy it is to garner testimonial
evidence for any preposterous event or vacuous B) human beings will make testimonial claims on talk
claim. His technique is to let people be swallowed up shows that they would not make in person.
in a trap set by their own testimonials. Randi makes C) spacecraft piloted by extraterrestrial beings have
much use of that fascinating American cultural not visited the earth’s skies.
institution, the talk show, often appearing as a guest
D) unidentified flying objects may exist but are not
in the guise of someone other than himself. On a New
piloted by extraterrestrial beings.
York show a few years ago, he informed the audience
that while driving through New Jersey earlier in the
day, he had seen a formation of V-shaped triangular
orange objects flying overhead in a northerly
direction. Within seconds, as Randi put it, ―the station
switchboard lit up like an electronic Christmas tree.‖
Witness after witness called in to confirm this
remarkable sighting, which, as you may have

Document # 6973555
54. The author probably would warn consumers that 56. Which of the following hypothetical findings
testimonials in advertisements: would present the strongest challenge to the
author’s views about biorhythms?
I. do not constitute scientific evidence of a A) Most people think that biorhythms strongly affect
product’s effectiveness. others’ behavior but not their own behavior.
II. are useful only as indicators of individual
consumers’ satisfaction with a product. B) Biorhythm charts are becoming more widely
III. are probably used more by advertisers published in popular newspapers, magazines, and
who seek to deceive the public than by books.
honest advertisers. C) Most people can discriminate correctly between
their own biorhythm chart and someone else’s.
A) I only D) People exhibit an increasing reliance on
B) II only biorhythms for scheduling important events in
their lives.
C) I and II only
D) II and III only 57. The passage argues that in evaluating the
assertions of a self-professed psychic, one should
55. The author implies that Uri Geller is: consider which of the following warnings?
A) Skill in sleight of hand can masquerade as psychic
e
A) untalented.
t
powers.
u
B) unintelligent.
b
B) Individuals cannot control their own psychic
C) unethical.
D) unpretentious.
is t ri powers.
C) Psychic powers have rarely been proved by
D
scientific analysis.
N ot D) Psychic powers are not amenable to scientific

analysis.
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage II his epic treatment of the Napoleonic war, The

Dynasts.
In 1936, twenty years after the Battle of the Georgian poetry, which appeared just before the
Somme, The Oxford Book of Modern Verse 1892– Great War, also found inspiration in the exotic,
1935 was published. It purported to be a collection of counterbalanced by romantic rhapsodizing about the
the finest poetry in our language produced in modern English countryside. On the face of it, the generation
times. The editor was W. B. Yeats. He decided that that faced the catastrophe of 1914 was ill-equipped
the book should contain no poetry of the Great War. poetically to express itself, having neither tradition to
In his introduction, Yeats was quite candid about his draw upon nor worthwhile models to imitate. At first,
decision to proscribe war poets. He had a distaste for poets aped anthology pieces or relied on well-
certain poems written during the war: ―In poems that established forms, but gradually the really original
had for a time considerable fame, written in the first poets found their own voices.
person, they made suffering their own. I have rejected In the version of literary history academically
these poems for the . . . reason that . . . passive accepted until very recently, there was a long lull
suffering is not a theme for poetry. . . . If war is during which little of value was created in English
necessary, or necessary in our time and place, it is poetry. We can now see this for the pernicious
best to forget its suffering as we do the discomforts of nonsense that it is, in the just recognition of Graves,
fever, remembering our comfort at midnight when our Sassoon, and Owen, and the numerous—possibly
temperature fell.‖ lesser—poets who tried to portray the indescribable
With a superior wave of his hand, Yeats dismisses and express the unthinkable during the years 1914–
such giants of twentieth-century literature as Wilfred
e
1918. Yeats could not have been more mistaken. War
t
Owen, Robert Graves, Siegfried Sassoon, and a host is not necessary, but if it comes, then it is the poets’
of others who attempted to render the experience of
1914–1918 in poetry. Yet, in all charity, we may
make some effort to understand the reason Yeats
s t ri b u duty to make sure we never ―forget its suffering as we

do the discomforts of fever, remembering our comfort
at midnight when our temperature fell.‖
found war poetry so difficult to accommodate. He
ot D
was a victim of his own period and the limitations of
his reading. There had been nothing like the poetry of
the Great War before; there had been no war like the i Adapted from R. Giddings, The War Poets. ©1988 by R. Giddings.
Do N
Great War. In the present day, the poets he so
peevishly and grandly dismissed from his collection
are considered to be among the greatest of modern
poets, and his theory of poetry, of the appropriateness
of particular subjects to poetic treatment and the
avoidance of others, now seems affected. Yeats,
58. The main point of the passage is that:
A) poetry dealing with war should not be considered
in the same class as other poetry.
B) English poetry prior to 1914 depicted war as
exotic.
however, simply could not accept what the poets of
the Great War had to offer; his generation was quite C) Yeats was wrong to dismiss the works of the Great
unprepared. War had been a subject for poetry, but War poets.
never like this. D) it is the duty of all poets to portray the sufferings
Before 1914, when poets dealt with war it was to of war.
render it exotically or historically removed from
immediate experience. War had all the conviction of
modern television costume drama. There were two
outstanding exceptions—Rudyard Kipling and
Thomas Hardy. Kipling made a serious attempt to
reproduce the voice of the ordinary soldier and to get
away from the bardic commentaries on the glories of
the nation’s victories. Hardy wrote honestly and
movingly about the Boer war, but most impressive is

Document # 6973555
59. The passage implies that Yeats would have been 62. It is reasonable to conclude from the information
most likely to agree with which of the following presented that poets were handicapped in writing
statements about English poetry? about their experiences in the Great War because:
A) Much outstanding poetry was produced between A) few had been able to complete their education due
1892 and 1935. to their military obligations.
B) Little valuable poetry was written prior to 1914. B) the poets who might have served as their models
wrote in a style inappropriate to wartime subjects.
C) The war poetry of 1914 through 1918 is among the
finest England has produced. C) they knew very little about the poetic traditions
that had preceded them.
D) Kipling and Hardy were the premier English poets
of their generation. D) they were intimidated by the style of the previous
generation of poets.
60. The author of the passage suggests that if a
contemporary literary critic were to agree with 63. The passage suggests that the poetry of Kipling
Yeats about war poetry, that critic’s view would and Hardy was unusual at the time they wrote
probably be: because it:
A) welcomed by most readers of poetry as a voice of A) recounted individual acts of heroism.
reason. B) contained moving elegies to the dead.
e
B) influential in directing attention to the poetry of
t
C) celebrated the glories of contemporary battles.
u
later wars.
b
D) depicted the squalor and futility of war.
i
C) taken into account in the compilation of poems for
the next edition of the Oxford anthology.
D) dismissed by most devotees of contemporary
D is t r 64. The passage suggests that literary historians

changed their assumption that there was a ―long
t
poetry. lull‖ in English poetry (final paragraph) because
o
of:
N
61. The author of the passage quotes Yeats’s A) a reevaluation of the poets of the Great War.
Do
introduction a second time (final paragraph) in
order to: B) the advent of modernism in literature.
A) illustrate Yeats’s evocative use of imagery. C) the publication of Yeats’s Oxford anthology.
B) show that they are in agreement on some minor D) a new emphasis on the contributions of Kipling
points. and Hardy.
C) acknowledge that Yeats’s attitude was
understandable in the context of the period.
D) contradict Yeats’s characterization of the
relationship between poetry and war.

Document # 6973555
Passage III prevailing ideology of a society. In the U.S., social

change is expressed in a change in images. The
Photography is a medium with endless freedom to consume a variety of images and goods is
possibilities: Anything can be said and any purpose equated with freedom itself. This narrowing of free
served by it. Objects are discrete, but photographic political choice to free economic consumption
images join them. By means of a photograph, an requires the constant production and consumption of
exploding bomb becomes an advertisement for a safe. images.
Two premises underlie the presumption in the United
States that everything is material for the camera: The logic of consumption provides the ultimate
There is nothing that should not be seen; there is reason for photographing everything in modern,
nothing that should not be recorded. capitalist society. To consume means to burn, to use
up—and, therefore, to require replacement. As
Seen through the acute eye of the camera, any images are made and consumed, the consumers need
object acquires beauty or appears interesting—the more and more of them. Images are manufactured at
most mundane subject constitutes art. The camera an ever-faster rate. Cameras are both the antidote and
empowers everyone to make artistic judgments about the disease. Photographic images add to the natural
importance, interest, or beauty, to assert ―that would world the manufactured images that help to bolster a
make a good picture.‖ Photographs can also be useful, depleted sense of reality. But by so doing, these
facilitating estimates, decisions, and predictions. images further deplete the real world, making it
Cameras implement the instrumental view of reality appear drab and obsolete by comparison.
by condensing information that enables quick,
informed responses for a variety of purposes: Video
equipment can be used to identify criminal offenders;
X-rays can help to save lives.
i b ut e The increasing supply of photographic images,

never exhausted by consumerist waste, can
overwhelm and threaten to obliterate reality. Because
The aesthetic approach and the instrumental
approach evoke incompatible feelings about human
D is t r photographic images have come to resemble real

things to a greater degree than anyone could have
predicted, a distinction between images and real
t
beings and situations—a contradiction inevitable in objects, between copies and originals, is less and less
o
any society that divorces the sphere of individual plausible. The remedy lies in a new form of
N
contemplation and expression from the sphere of conservation—a conservation of manufactured
Do
surveillance and social utility. Picture-taking lends images, as well as natural resources, that would
itself brilliantly to both realms. Cameras capture and provide ecological balance between the real world
―fix‖ impressions from that mythical space known as and the re-created one.
private perception. Cameras also arm vision in the
service of power—of the state, of industry, of science.
Adapted from S. Sontag, A Susan Sontag Reader. ©1983 by Susan Sontag
A capitalist society requires a culture that is based
on images. It needs to generate images of new
commodities and forms of entertainment in order to
stimulate buying. It also needs to gather unlimited
information, the better to utilize natural resources,
increase productivity, keep order, and produce jobs.
Serving these needs, ideally, are the camera’s twin
capacities: to ―subjectivize‖ reality and to objectify it.
Cameras define reality in the two ways essential to
the workings of a capitalist society: as a spectacle to
absorb the attention of the citizenry; and as an object
of scrutiny to assist officials responsible for
governing. The production of images reflects the

Document # 6973555
65. The author’s main purpose in exploring the 68. Which of the following passage assertions
aesthetic and the instrumental approaches to suggests most strongly that the author is critical
photography is to suggest that a new form of of capitalist society?
conservation must: A) Freedom to consume is equated with freedom
A) allow ordinary people to make judgments about itself.
beauty. B) Photographic images make reality problematic.
B) increase constantly the production of entertaining C) Social change is expressed by a change in images.
images.
D) Individual perception is a mythical realm.
C) solve the problem of the continual proliferation of
images.
69. Based on passage information, one can infer that
D) develop a coherent ideology to facilitate the task implementing the author’s program for
of governing. conservation (lines 67-71) [From ―The remedy
lies in‖ to ―the recreated one.‖] would most likely
66. The author’s analysis of image-making rests on include suggestions for:
the assumption that a capitalist society separates: A) limiting the use of computer images in
A) advertising from entertainment. architectural models.
B) private perception from social order. B) discouraging the use of photography in magazine
e
advertisements.
t
C) diseases that afflict society from their cures.
u
C) increasing police use of cameras to monitor
b
D) free political choice from free economic
i
suspected criminals.
r
consumption.
67. Which of the following best exemplifies the
D is t D) decreasing government support of art that might

offend the public.
t
author’s assertion that, according to the
o
instrumental approach, cameras can be used to 70. Recent technological developments like high-
N
present information that facilitates timely, resolution satellite imagery and diagnostic
Do
accurate responses? positron emission tomography (PET scans) have
refined and extended the camera’s capacity to
A) Photographs taken to record family history in an
provide information. Which passage assertion
album
does this information support most strongly?
B) Photojournalism that produces pictures that tell an
A) Cameras can illuminate the private, personal lives
amusing story
of individuals.
C) Photographs used in advertising campaigns to
B) Capitalist consumption requires the unlimited
discourage teen-age smoking
production of images.
D) Photographs taken by cameras at stop lights to
C) Cameras are a means of appropriating reality and
catch traffic offenders
making it obsolete.
D) Photography can be used to both control and
benefit society.

Document # 6973555
71. It can be inferred from the passage that the

camera’s capacity to ―subjectivize‖ reality would
include:
I. pictures of scenes likely to evoke

emotion.
II. capturing on film the motions of
customers in a store.
III. special lenses to magnify minute detail.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage IV Second, professors should include local content in

their courses. Not abstract theories about distant
As citizens of the cosmo polis, the mythical peoples, but concrete realizations about observable
―world city,‖ professors are expected to owe no communities; not airy generalizations that transcend
allegiance to geographical territory; they’re supposed student experience and lie beyond their powers of
to belong to the boundless world of books, ideas, and criticism, but specific conclusions whose skeptical
eternal truths, not the infinitely particular world of testing they can perform themselves; not social-
watersheds, growing seasons, and ecological niches. science hearsay taken on faith, but evidence weighed
Most professors get their jobs through national critically, firsthand: these form the substance of a
searches, and although they may have geographical rooted education. Transforming the world
preferences, most are living wherever they can find immediately outside the classroom into a laboratory
work. will tend to erase the artificial boundary between the
roles of student and citizen, thereby encouraging the
Though the majority of U.S. college students
latter in the habits of the former.
attend institutions in their home states, they are taught
by this cosmopolitan class of transient exotics. It Finally, academics ought to work to acquire a
would be surprising if the rootlessness of the kind of dual citizenship—in the world of ideals and
professorial class did not affect their students who go scholarship, yes, but also in the very real world of
on to become the best-informed, most-educated watersheds, growing seasons, migratory pathways,
portion of the U.S. public. Education certainly ought food chains, and dependency webs. What is needed is
to broaden horizons, but it can and ought to do more. a class of cosmopolitan educators willing to live
However we define that more, one thing seems clear:
rootless professors are systematically ignorant of a
i
key aspect of integrated life, the life that is, after all, a
b ut e where they work and to work where they live, a class

of educators willing to take root and cultivate a sense
r
of place. These educators could then exemplify in
t
primary goal of a good liberal arts education. They their teaching and in their lives their own manner of
are ignorant of the values of connectedness to place.
t
This ignorance gives preference to the voice of
D is accommodation to the fruitful tension between local

and universal, particular and general, concrete and
abstract. In an age when humanity’s relationship to
o
the abstract at the expense of the voice of the
nature is so in need of careful, farsighted attention,
N
particular. This can only be done by dismissing out of
academics do a disservice to their students, and to the
Do
hand the possibility that because moral questions
future of human culture on the planet, if they do
come to us not in the abstract but as concrete,
anything less.
particular problems, solutions to moral questions will
necessarily be particular and specific. If we cannot get
rid of the causes of this problem, we can alleviate the Adapted from E. Zencey, The rootless professors. ©1996 by Yale University.
symptoms. This may be the better course, for it
presents the opportunity to keep what is good in both 72. Which of the following underlying assumptions
cosmopolitanism and provincialism. about professors is implied by the passage
argument?
First, academia has to overcome its prejudice
against the local and the provincial, so that its hiring A) Most of them are generalists, not specialists.
committees do not include non-native status as an B) Most of them lack a preference for particular
implicit qualification for employment. Such prejudice geographic areas.
is dramatized in the case of one individual who,
having received his degrees from the university in his C) Most of them care more about ideas than they do
home state and having worked at that institution as a about actual places.
lecturer on temporary contract, was told by the D) Most of them in the U.S. attended college or
department chair that he was ―too much a native‖ ever graduate school outside their home states.
to become a permanent faculty member.

Document # 6973555
73. The author’s apparent attitude toward professors 75. Suppose that a university instituted a policy of
is: hiring 25 percent of its own graduate students as
permanent faculty. What would most likely be
A) objectively analytical.
the author’s reaction to such a policy?
B) critical.
A) Support, because the author would believe that
C) condescending. those students hired could include a ―sense of
D) sympathetic. place‖ in their courses
B) Support, because the author would believe that
74. To fulfill the author’s view of an exemplary universities should help their own graduates find
professor, which of the following subject areas jobs
would be most useful for economics professors to C) Opposition, because the author would consider 25
know outside of their discipline? percent to be too low
A) Mathematics D) Opposition, because the author would believe that
B) Sociology such a policy should not be based on a quota
system
C) Political science
D) Ecology 76. Based on information in the passage, which of
the following would be the most likely reason
e
behind the author’s suggested academic reforms?
ri b ut A) To pay more careful attention to the relationship

between humans and the world outside the
D is t classroom
B) To encourage students to attend colleges and
t
universities in their home states
N o C) To replace a cosmopolitan university education

with one that emphasizes the local
Do
D) To give a voice to the particular at the expense of
the voice of the abstract

Document # 6973555
Passage V land, but initially the shell probably served for

support.
The oldest fossil turtles appear abruptly in
Triassic rocks, fully developed and without any Many other distinctive anatomical traits of turtles
obvious precursors. Details of their skull suggested appear to be adaptations for life in the shell. A
that they evolved from reptiles, but none could be straightforward deduction might be that these traits
readily identified as turtle ancestors. Recently, a evolved at the same time as the shell, or immediately
reappraisal of the pareiasaur group suggests that they afterward, and served their function from the very
may bridge the huge morphological gap separating beginning. Surprisingly, this is not the case. Consider
the oldest turtles from primitive, lizardlike reptiles. the turtle’s stout body, for example. It appears to be
adapted to fit into the shell. The wide, short shell of
Pareiasaurs have been known to science since the turtles is difficult for predators to overturn or to get
mid-1800s, but their true significance went largely their jaws around. Furthermore, a shell of this shape is
unappreciated. Imagine a fat hippopotamus with a easier to maneuver than a long, skinny one. But this
thick tail. Cover its back with little armor plates. Now body shape actually arose in the pareiasaur ancestors
stick some grotesque knobs all over its skull. Finally, of turtles long before the shell appeared. The earliest-
make it drag its belly along the ground, with its legs known pareiasaurs lived in southern Africa, which at
sprawled out sideways. These ponderous herbivores the time had only just drifted northward out of the
have long been neglected by paleontologists, Antarctic Circle. The climate then was cool. Because
dismissed as an inconsequential evolutionary dead short, fat animals lose heat less rapidly than long, thin
end. ones, the stout bodies of pareiasaurs probably helped
A pareiasaurian ancestry helps explain how and
why the bizarre turtle body plan evolved. The turtle
i b ut e them conserve precious body heat. Thus the body

dictated the shape of the evolving shell, not the
r
reverse.
t
shell forms an organic strongbox, into which the
s
extremities can be retracted out of harm’s way. It also
i
Another example concerns a bony process on the
D
supports the turtle, whose backbone is fused to the turtle shoulder blade, the acromion process, which
t
rigid shell and whose shoulder girdle is anchored to helps connect the shoulder to the shell. This structure
o
the shell by ligaments (other animals need muscles to first arose in early pareiasaurs as a mobile articulation
N
keep these elements in place). Finally, the shell forms between the shoulder bones that improved the
Do
a thick, insulating layer, which confers flexibility of the shoulder region. Not surprisingly, in
thermoregulatory advantages. the most primitive turtle, Proganochelys, the
acromion process retains the old function and meets
But which of these demands favored the evolution
the collarbone, not the shell.
of the shell? Pareiasaurs supply the answer. Early
pareiasaurs possessed a row of bony plates above
their backbone. Recent work suggests that these Adapted from M. Lee, The turtle’s long-lost relatives. ©1994 by Natural History.
plates helped the pareiasaur stop its backbone from
sagging. Only in later pareiasaurs and turtles did these
plates spread out over the body and provide
protection and insulation. All the earliest turtles were
found in terrestrial deposits alongside dinosaurs and
possessed stout legs adapted for walking, not
swimming. So it seems safe to say that they, like
pareiasaurs, were land animals. For a long time
people had assumed that turtles must have evolved in
the water because of support problems created by the
heavy shell. Yet not only did turtles evolve on dry

Document # 6973555
77. Why does the author make the point that the 80. Which of the following statements about the
earliest pareiasaurs inhabited southern Africa? paleontological record, if true, would most
weaken the hypothesis discussed?
A) To question the assumption that they coexisted
with dinosaurs A) Some dinosaurs also had armor plates along their
backs.
B) To indicate that they evolved after the African
landmass was in place B) The earliest turtle fossils found constituted four
subspecies.
C) To argue that the need for insulation was critical in
the evolution of turtles C) Bony back plates occurred only in the most
primitive pareiasaurs.
D) To explain the terrestrial distribution of fossil
turtles D) The most recent pareiasaurs found lived a million
years before the first turtles.
78. Suppose that in one group of pareiasaurs, the
acromion process was connected to the bony 81. Zoologists sometimes describe the species they
plate above the shoulder blade. This information study in terms that are not entirely objective.
favors the author’s thesis by indicating that: Which of the following phrases is the author most
likely to have written about pareiasaurs?
A) a further structural link exists between pareiasaurs
and turtles. A) An appearance that alone was enough to terrorize
its prey
e
B) the acromion process served a shell-anchoring
function in these pareiasaurs.
C) the function of the collarbone varied within the
ri b ut B) For so small a creature, well equipped to protect

itself in a hostile world
t
pareiasaur species. C) Admirably adapted to a life in, on, and near the
D) the form of the acromion process is unrelated to
the evolution of a shell.
t D is water
D) Not notably handsome, to say the least
N o
79. Information in the passage does NOT suggest an
Do
answer to which of the following questions?
A) Does any modern species but turtles have an
acromion process?
B) Why are there no lizardlike animals that have
shells?
C) Do turtles resemble any species besides
pareiasaurs?
D) Why do many animals curl into a ball at night?

Document # 6973555
Passage VI the Bastille; copies of the Revolutionary Constitution

of 1791 were sold by French booksellers in Portugal.
News of the French Revolution came to a
Portugal that was struggling to return to the quiet But when Louis XVI was deposed by a Paris
order of the Middle Ages after the violent and uprising (1792), Queen Maria felt her throne tremble
scandalous attempt of the Marquis de Pombal to bring and surrendered the government to her son. The
it abreast, in culture and law, with the France of Louis future John VI turned with fury on the liberals of
XV and the Spain of Charles III. The Pyrenees Portugal and encouraged his intendant of police to
obstructed the flow of ideas between France and the arrest, or expel, or keep under unremitting
Peninsula; the movement of ideas from Spain was surveillance, every Freemason, every important alien,
hindered by Spain’s recurrent eagerness to swallow every writer who advocated political reform.
her sister state; and in both countries the agents of the Francisco da Silva, leader of the liberals, was
Inquisition loomed like lions at a palace gate to repel imprisoned; liberal nobles were banished from the
any word or thought that might question the ancient court; Manuel du Bocage, leading Portuguese poet of
creed. the age, who had written a powerful sonnet against
despotism, was jailed in 1797 and supported himself
At the bottom of the social scale stood other in prison by translating Ovid and Virgil. In 1793,
guardians of the past: the simple, mostly unlettered infuriated by the execution of Louis XVI, the
commoners—peasants, craftspeople, tradespeople, Portuguese government followed Spain in a holy war
soldiers—who were fondly habituated to their against France and sent a squadron to join the British
transmitted faith, comforted by its legends, awed by fleet in the Mediterranean. Soon Spain negotiated a
its miracles, thrilled by its ritual. At the top were the
feudal barons, models of manners and owners of the
soil; a timid, feeble-minded Queen Maria Francisca
i b ut e separate peace (1795); Portugal asked for a like

accommodation, but France refused, alleging that
r
Portugal was in effect a colony and ally of England.
t
and her son John, regent (1799) and then (1816–1826) The quarrel simmered till Napoleon, after conquering
king—all dependably protective of the Church as the
and absolute, divine-right monarchy.
t D
indispensable support of private morals, social order,
is half of Europe, reached out for the little state that was
refusing to join in his Continental blockade of Britain.
N
Amid these diverse sentinels lurked a small
o
Do
minority—students, Freemasons, scientists, poets, Adapted from W. Durant and A. Durant, The Age of Napoleon. ©1975 by Simon
and Schuster.
businesspeople, a few officials, even a noble or two—
who were irked by the despotism of the past, furtively
82. Which of the following groups played a role in
flirted with philosophy, and dreamed of representative
conserving the older social, religious, and
government, free trade, free assembly, free press, free
political order in Portugal?
thought, and a stimulating participation in the
International of the Mind.
I. Peasants
Upon that timid minority, those shocked II. Freemasons
commoners, those startled dignitaries and Inquisitors, III. The royal family
the news of the French Revolution, however dulled by
delay, came as an exhilarating or terrifying revelation.
A) II only
Some reckless spirits openly rejoiced; Masonic lodges
in Portugal celebrated the event; the Portuguese B) III only
ambassador in Paris, who may have read Rousseau or C) I and III only
heard Mirabeau, applauded the French National
Assembly; the Portuguese Minister for Foreign D) II and III only
Affairs allowed the official gazette to salute the fall of

Document # 6973555
83. It may be inferred from the passage that Portugal 86. Which of the following facts most strongly
might have avoided the unfavorable attention of supports the authors’ image of John VI as
Napoleon if it had: resistant to social change in his realm?
A) refused to have commerce with Britain. A) When Napoleon invaded Portugal, he fled to exile
in Brazil.
B) supported the French Revolution more
enthusiastically. B) On returning from exile, he agreed to reforms but
quickly revoked them.
C) not expelled French aliens.
C) As soon as he returned to power, Brazil declared
D) not followed Spain into war in the Mediterranean.
its independence from Portugal.
84. Which of the following consequences would have D) After his return, he reigned as monarch of Portugal
been most likely had the Church ceased to for only five years.
support divine-right monarchy?
A) The common people would have fallen away from 87. The authors imply that the Portuguese
ambassador applauded the French National
the Church.
Assembly because of genuine sympathy for their
B) Freemasonry would have picked up the former ideals. Alternatively, the ambassador’s action
political role of the Church. could be explained as indicating that:
C) Revolution could have been prevented without A) living in France, he was in fear of the new
John’s stringent measures.
D) John would have included priests in his list of
i b ut e revolutionary French government.

B) his life outside of Portugal had broadened his
r
political suspects.
t
political sympathies.
D
85. Which of the following facts cited in the passage
gives the strongest support for the claim that
t is C) he was at odds with the medieval policies of

Queen Maria.
o
Portuguese liberals were in the minority D) he had no strong political commitments one way
N
politically? or the other.
Do
A) The queen and her son were opposed to them.
B) Several important liberals were jailed by John.
C) The Inquisition was still active in Portugal.
D) The commoners were politically conservative.

Document # 6973555
Passage VII Although paleontologists cannot exclude the

possibility that the Repenoma family was a clan of
Until recently, scientists thought that Mesozoic scavengers, R. robustus had large, pointy incisors,
mammals (280–65 million years ago) were rat- or canines, and premolars useful for catching, holding,
shrew-size creatures that spent their lives trying to and rending other animals—abilities more indicative
avoid being devoured by dinosaurs. The mammals of a predator than a scavenger. Some of the
supposedly remained small because dinosaurs were dinosaur’s long bones were still articulated, indicating
already entrenched enough as large carnivores and they were swallowed in large chunks. In addition, the
herbivores to monopolize these niches. A recent dinosaur’s skull was roughly a third the length of the
discovery, however, indicates that the hunted mammal’s—not just a snack, but a meal challenging
sometimes became the hunter. enough to discourage a casual diner. Strengthening
the conclusions of the paleontologists is the fact that
A team of paleontologists discovered the fossil of
scavengers are relatively rare among present-day
a member of a species called Repenomamus robustus,
mammals: only two hyena species are habitual
a mammal about as big as an opossum, that lived
scavengers.
during the Mesozoic. Within the rib cage of R.
robustus was the skeleton of a young dinosaur whose The initial name Repenomamus was a
serrated teeth, limbs, and toes mark it as a combination of the words reptile and mammal to refer
Psittacosaurus, a hornless relative of Triceratops that to the curious morphology of these ―reptile
reached cow proportions in adulthood. Whereas the mammals.‖ The resemblance to reptiles can be seen in
mammal’s bones are preserved in their anatomical their large, sharp, pointy teeth and short limbs that
position, the dinosaur’s are mostly fragmented and
packed together where the stomach lies in living
mammals, indicating that the dinosaur had been eaten
i b ut e stick out from their bodies at an angle. But their limb

joints allowed more freedom of movement than is
r
typical in reptiles. In fact, their limbs were more
t
by the mammal. Although fossils with stomach mobile than those of mammals such as the waddling
contents are rare, dinosaur fossils with mammals in
their guts had been discovered before. This was the
first discovery of the reverse case.
t D is platypus. This additional freedom of movement, such

as is found among marsupials and other more
advanced mammals, helps carnivores compete for
N
Other subspecies of Repenomamus also seemed
o prey and elude predators. Although Repenomamus

probably could not run fast, it could stand on its hind
Do
capable of dining on dinosaurs. R. giganticus, about
limbs and walk effectively enough to stalk small
as big as a Tasmanian devil, was the biggest of its
prey—as the fossil of R. robustus indicates.
genus, reaching twelve to fourteen kilograms in
weight and growing to more than a meter in length.
Its skull was 16 centimeters long, 50 percent larger
Adapted from C. Q. Choi, Hungry for dino meat: A pointy-toothed mammal that
than that of R. robustus, the next largest species. Such preyed on dinosaurs, ©2005 by Scientific American, Inc.; Juvenile Psittacosaur
size implies that these mammals needed more food, a found in belly of primitive mammal fossil shows early mammals fed on young
dinosaurs, ©2005 by American Museum of Natural History.
larger home range, and the ability to resist predation
by dinosaurs. They also probably had a longer life
span and the ability to move faster.
The new fossils were found buried in sandstone
flecked with volcanic ash, which indicates that the
Repenomamus mammals had died quickly en masse
in a volcanic explosion. This preserved the fossils in
the fully three-dimensional articulated position in
which they were found, facilitating the interpretation
of the find by paleontologists.

Document # 6973555
88. Based on the passage, the fact that the remains of 90. Paleontologists have discovered the skeleton of a
the prey discovered with the R. robustus were large extinct reptile. If the paleontologists want to
still partially articulated helped determine the: speculate on the parenting behavior of these
reptiles, the passage suggests that one reasonable
A) way in which R. robustus acquired its food.
way of acquiring this understanding would be to:
B) manner in which R. robustus had consumed its
A) compare the size of these reptiles with other
prey.
related reptiles who lived during the same era.
C) size to which Psittacosaurus typically grew when
B) examine the teeth of the reptiles to determine the
fully mature.
nature of their diet.
D) compressive force the R. robustus jaw was capable
C) determine whether these reptiles lived or fed near
of producing.
rivers prone to frequent flooding.
89. The passage implies that fossils of a specific D) examine the parental behavior of similar reptiles
mammal in the necessary condition for valuable that are living today.
scientific study would be more likely to be ones
that were found in an area where: 91. Based on the passage, which of the following
pieces of background knowledge would most
A) there had been active volcanoes during the time
help readers understand what Psittacosaurus was
the mammal had lived.
like?
e
B) the mammals had not been bothered by larger
t
A) A familiarity with the predator-scavenger debate
u
predators.
b
B) A familiarity with the eating habits of Mesozoic
i
C) dinosaurs and mammals had both thrived.
t r
mammals
s
D) most of the dinosaurs had been herbivores.
i
C) A familiarity with R. robustus
N ot D D) A familiarity with Triceratops
92. The passage suggests that not only was R.
Do
giganticus at least as well suited to being a
predator as R. robustus but that it also:
A) had greater nutritional needs.
B) lived in larger groups.
C) consumed its prey more quickly.
D) typically preyed on larger animals.

Document # 6973555
Writing Sample
Time: 60 minutes
2 Prompts, separately timed:
30 minutes each
This is a test of your writing skills. The test consists of two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete each
part. Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing each of your responses, read the assignment carefully
to understand exactly what you are being asked to do. Because this is a test of your writing skills, your
response to each part should be an essay of complete sentences and paragraphs, as well organized and clearly
written as you can make it in the time allotted.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
This document has been encoded to link this download to your member account. The AAMC
and its Section for the MCAT hold the copyrights to the content of this Practice Test.
Therefore, there can be no sharing or reproduction of materials from the Practice Test in any
form (electronic, voice, or other means). If there are any questions about the use of the
material in the Practice Test, please contact the MCAT Information Line (202-828-0690).
Sharing or reproducing this material in any form is a violation of the AAMC copyright Page 41 of 63

Document # 6973555
93. Consider this statement:
Successful politicians are motivated more by practical considerations than by moral values.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which successful politicians might be motivated more by
moral values than by practical considerations. Discuss what you think determines whether successful
politicians are motivated more by practical concerns or by moral values.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
94. Consider this statement:
A person’s first priority in life should be financial security.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which a person’s first priority in life might not be
financial security. Discuss what you think determines whether or not a person’s first priority in life should
be financial security.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
Biological Sciences
Time: 70 minutes
Questions: 95 – 146
Most questions in the Biological Sciences test are organized into groups, each containing a descriptive passage.
After studying the passage, select the one best answer to each question in the group. Some questions are not
based on a descriptive passage and are also independent of each other. If you are not certain of an answer,
eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selected answer by marking the corresponding answer on your answer sheet. A
periodic table is provided for your use. You may consult it whenever you wish.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do
(202-828-0690).

Document # 6973555
1
Periodic Table of the Elements 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La* Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116
Fr Ra Ac† Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Uuu Uub Uuq Uuh
(223) (226) (227) (261) (262) (266) (264) (277) (268) (281) (272) (285) (289) (289)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
t e
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
u
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
i b
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage I
Endothelial cells (ECs) define the lumen of
capillaries and are often associated with elongated,
contractile cells called pericytes (Figure 1).
Figure 1
The following experiments were performed to test the
effect of pericytes on the growth rate of ECs. In both
experiments, ECs were cocultured with either
pericytes, smooth-muscle cells, or fibroblasts. All
cells were obtained from mammalian cell cultures.
Experiment 1: Coculture with Contact
Equal numbers of endothelial cells were placed in
three separate containers (labeled A–C). Pericytes,
i b ut e
r
smooth-muscle cells, and fibroblasts were growth- Figure 2
arrested—that is, treated so that they would not
divide but other metabolic processes would function
normally. The growth-arrested cells were mixed
D is t Experiment 2: Coculture without Contact
t
Equal numbers of ECs were added to two
o
directly with the ECs in Containers A–C. Three
containers (D and E). Growth-arrested pericytes and
N
matched control containers received only ECs. The
smooth-muscle cells were then placed in Containers
number of cells in each container was counted
Do
D and E, respectively; however, these cells were
electronically over 14 days; results are shown in
separated from the ECs by a semipermeable
Figure 2.
membrane. Matched control containers received only
ECs. The number of cells was again counted for 14
days; results are shown in Figure 3.

Document # 6973555
96. In certain diseases, new blood-vessel growth is

sometimes preceded by the disappearance of
pericytes. Based on the passage, the best
explanation for this phenomenon is the
observation that pericytes:
A) grew less vigorously than ECs did.
B) grew more vigorously than ECs did.
C) enhanced EC growth.
D) inhibited EC growth.
97. Pericytes were growth-arrested in Experiment 1

so that the:
A) pericyte growth would not interfere with the
measurement of EC growth.
B) pericytes would not inhibit EC growth.
C) metabolic wastes of the pericytes would not
interfere with the measurement of EC growth.
Figure 3
i b ut e D) ECs would not cause the pericytes to grow.
D is t r 98. A student hypothesized that EC growth might be

affected by the DNA from circulating
erythrocytes. Is this student’s hypothesis
t
Figures 2 and 3 adapted from Alicia Orlidge and Patricia A. D'Amore, reasonable?
o
"Inhibition of Capillary Endothelial Cell Growth by Pericytes and Smooth
A) No; the DNA in circulating erythrocytes is needed
N
Muscle Cells." ©1987 by The Rockefeller University Press.
to help transport O2 through the capillaries.
Do
95. The pericytes used in these experiments were B) No; circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA.
probably in which phase of the cell cycle?
C) Yes; DNA is responsible for cell division in most
A) Telophase cells.
B) Metaphase D) Yes; circulating erythrocytes carry DNA nutrients
C) Anaphase through the capillaries.
D) Interphase
99. Based on Figure 1 and the passage, which of the
following cells are most important in the
exchange of O2 between the blood and the
surrounding tissues?
A) Pericytes
B) Endothelial cells
C) Smooth-muscle cells
D) Fibroblasts

Document # 6973555
Passage II 100. The purpose of the study described in the

passage was:
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland produces
hormones that regulate the activity of other glands. A) to determine whether LH can modulate GnRH or
For example, the anterior pituitary gland (APG) NPY secretion.
produces luteinizing hormone (LH), which stimulates B) to determine whether GnRH can modulate NPY
sex hormone production by the gonads in both sexes secretion.
and triggers ovulation in females.
C) to determine whether NPY can modulate LH
Hormone secretion from the APG is regulated by secretion.
specialized neurosecretory neurons located in the
D) to determine whether NPY can modulate GnRH
hypothalamus. These neurons have terminals that
secretion.
secrete stimulatory or inhibitory factors into a
capillary bed. These capillaries empty into venules,
which carry the factors to sinusoids in the anterior 101. NPY is not classified as a releasing factor
pituitary. Here the hypothalamic factors act on the because it has:
hormone-secreting cells. One of these factors, A) no effect on LH secretion.
gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), is a potent
stimulator of pituitary LH production and release. B) no effect on LH secretion without GnRH.
C) no effect on LH secretion in combination with
In addition to GnRH, there may be other GnRH.
e
hypothalamic factors that regulate LH secretion.
These factors are known as neuromodulators, in
contrast to releasing factors, because they do not
ri b ut D) the same effect on LH secretion as GnRH.
t
stimulate LH release on their own, but modulate
is
(enhance or inhibit) the responses of the secretory
D
cells of the anterior pituitary to GnRH.
N
Shown in Table 1 are results from a study in
ot
which the pituitary effects of the hypothalamic factor
neuropeptide Y (NPY) were examined. In the study,
Do
LH levels were measured in female rats treated with
saline (control), NPY alone, GnRH alone, or GnRH in
combination with NPY.
Table 1 Levels of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) in
Blood for Four Different Treatments
Treatment Blood LH levels

Saline 0.31 ng/mL
NPY alone 0.28 ng/mL
GnRH alone 4.74 ng/mL*
GnRH + NPY 7.03 ng/mL**
* significantly greater than LH levels in rats treated

with saline
**significantly greater than LH levels in rats treated
with GnRH alone

Document # 6973555
102. Which of the following graphs likely illustrates 104. Given that NPY and GnRH are large
the changes in blood estrogen levels that occur hydrophilic molecules, their receptors are
in female rats after treatment with NPY alone? probably in the:
A) A) cytosol.
B) nucleus.
C) mitochondria.
D) cell membrane.
105. NPY amplified pituitary responses to GnRH by:

B)
A) 27%.
B) 48%.
C) 67%.
D) 83%.
C) 106. Based on the information presented in the

passage, what conclusion can be drawn
t e
regarding hypothalamic regulation of LH
u
secretion in females?
is t ri b A) The actions of NPY on pituitary LH secretion are

necessary for maintaining fertility in females.
B) NPY stimulates GnRH secretion from
D
D)
t
hypothalamic neurons.
N o C) The hypothalamus produces factors that enhance

the ability of the pituitary gland to respond to
Do
GnRH stimulation.
D) The male pituitary gland does not respond to NPY
stimulation.
103. Scientists have hypothesized that NPY is

necessary for the generation of the preovulatory
LH surge, a hormonal event that triggers
ovulation. Which of the following findings best
supports this hypothesis?
A) When the actions of NPY are blocked in female
rats, the LH surge and ovulation do not occur.
B) NPY release from the hypothalamus increases just
prior to the preovulatory LH surge.
C) NPY can enhance GnRH-stimulated LH secretion
in female rats during the preovulatory period.
D) NPY has no effect on GnRH-stimulated LH
secretion in male rats.

Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 110. Which of the following best describes the bond
passage and are independent of each other. that would form between the following two
nucleotides if they were located adjacent to each
107. Assume that a certain species with sex other as shown in a single strand of DNA?
chromosomes R and S exists such that RR
individuals develop as males and RS individuals
develop as females. Which of the following
mechanisms would most likely compensate for
the potential imbalance of sex-chromosome
gene products between males and females of
this species?
A) Inactivation of one R chromosome in males
B) Doubling transcription from the S chromosome in
females
C) Inactivation of the R chromosome in females
D) Doubling transcription from the R chromosomes
in males
t e
108. The high acidity in the stomach lumen serves all
u
of the following major functions EXCEPT:
i b
A) A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and
r
A) inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.
t
the phosphate of the adenine
is
B) providing the optimal pH for trypsin.
B) A bond between an oxygen in the thymine base
D
C) denaturing proteins to make peptide bonds more and a nitrogen in the adenine base
t
accessible for digestion.
o
C) A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and
N
D) converting a peptidase precursor into an active the sugar of the adenine
enzyme.
Do
D) A bond between the phosphate of the adenine and
the sugar of the thymine
109. The disaccharides (+)–maltose and (+)–
cellobiose are composed of two D-glucose
subunits. The structural differences are a result 111. Mitochondrial myopathies, diseases often
of: characterized by muscle weakness, result from
mutations in mitochondrial proteins. One
A) α- versus β-glucoside linkages. myopathy, MDS, exhibits Mendelian
B) chair versus boat conformations in the glucose inheritance. Another myopathy, MERRF,
subunits. exhibits maternal inheritance (males and
females inherit the disease from the mother
C) constitutional isomerism. only). The genes that cause MDS and MERRF
D) 5- versus 6-membered rings in the glucose are most likely located in the:
subunits. A) nucleus and the mitochondria, respectively.
B) mitochondria and the nucleus, respectively.
C) nucleus in both cases.
D) mitochondria in both cases.

Document # 6973555
Passage III 112. Given that secretory lysosomes form normally

in the melanocytes and CTLs of ashen and
Certain cell types, including cytotoxic T
dilute mice, the data in Table 1 best support the
lymphocytes (CTLs) and skin melanocytes, use
conclusion that melanosome secretion and lytic
modified lysosomes called secretory lysosomes to
granule secretion differ in that the secretion of
secrete cell-specific products in response to
lytic granules does NOT require:
appropriate stimuli. Consequently, in mice and
humans, mutations that disrupt cellular machinery A) Rab27a.
specific to this secretory pathway can cause B) myosin Va.
immunodeficiency and partial albinism.
C) microtubules.
CTLs use secretory lysosomes called lytic
D) fusion of these secretory lysosomes with the
granules to secrete cytolytic proteins. Melanocytes
plasma membrane.
use secretory lysosomes called melanosomes to
transport melanin pigments. Melanosomes are
transported along microtubules to the cell periphery 113. Based on the passage, myosin Va most likely
where the melanosomes transfer to microfilaments directly binds:
prior to the release of melanin from the cell. Rab27a A) tubulin.
protein on the melanosome membrane facilitates this
transfer by interacting with melanophilin protein, B) actin.
which in turn binds myosin Va, a motor protein on C) melanin.
microfilaments.
People with Griscelli syndrome have
i b ut e D) Rab27a.
t r
hypopigmented skin and silver-gray hair. These 114. Secretory lysosomes are classified as lysosomes
is
pigmentation phenotypes are sometimes but not because secretory lysosomes have some
D
always associated with an immunodeficiency functional components in common with
t
resulting from a defect in the killing function of conventional lysosomes. Given this, secretory
o
CTLs. Characteristics of two mutant mouse lines that lysosomes most likely contain:
N
are used as models for Griscelli syndrome are shown
A) ribosomes.
Do
in Table 1.
B) Krebs cycle enzymes.
Table 1 Mouse Models for Griscelli Syndrome
C) RNA and DNA polymerases.
Protein D) degradative enzymes that function at low pH.
Mouse Killing Partial
inactivated by
mutation by CTLs albinism
mutation
ashen Rab27a – +
dilute myosin Va + +
Adapted from J. Stinchcombe et al., ―Linking Albinism and Immunity: The
Secrets of Secretory Lysosomes.‖ ©2004 by American Association for the
Advancement of Science.

Document # 6973555
115. Melanophilin is unnecessary for lytic granule 117. Lytic granules generally are released from CTLs
exocytosis. Given this, are leaden mutant mice, when the T-cell receptors on these cells bind
which lack functional melanophilin, more likely specifically to:
to have the pigmentation and immune system A) viral antigens presented on the surface of virus-
phenotypes of ashen mice or of dilute mice? infected cells.
A) Of ashen mice, because leaden mice would most B) growth factors secreted by helper T lymphocytes.
likely be hypopigmented but not immunodeficient
C) B-cell receptors on activated B lymphocytes.
B) Of ashen mice, because leaden mice would most
likely be hypopigmented and immunodeficient D) constant regions of secreted antibodies.
C) Of dilute mice, because leaden mice would most
likely be hypopigmented but not immunodeficient 118. Melanin is synthesized in melanocytes and then
transferred to surrounding keratinocytes where
D) Of dilute mice, because leaden mice would most it fulfills its function. Given this, the secretion
likely be hypopigmented and immunodeficient of melanin by melanocytes most likely increases
in response to which of the following stimuli to
116. Melanosomes most likely move along the skin?
microtubules that originate in and radiate from A) Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
the:
B) Increased blood flow
A) centrosome.
B) kinetochores.
C) Golgi apparatus.
i b ut e C) Tactile pressure
D) UV irradiation
D) microfilaments under the plasma membrane.
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 122. Given that A, B, C, D, and E represent five
passage and are independent of each other. different unlinked genes, what fraction of the
offspring of parents with the genotypes
119. Which of the following types of synovial joints AaBBCCddEE and AaBBccDdEE will have the
allow freedom of movement in the greatest genotype aaBBCcddEE?
number of dimensions? A) 1/32
A) Pivot joints B) 1/16
B) Plane joints C) 1/8
C) Hinge joints D) 1/4
D) Ball-and-socket joints
123. In thin-layer chromatography using silica gel
120. Where in the human male reproductive system plates, the analytes can interact with the silica
do the gametes become motile and capable of gel through hydrogen bonding. Which of the
fertilization? following classes of compounds would most
likely have the strongest interactions with silica
A) Testis
gel?
B) Urethra
A) Alcohols
C) Epididymis
e
B) Carboxylic acids
D) Prostate gland
ri b ut C) Esters
D) Ketones
t
121. Which of the following physiological conditions
is
would be LEAST likely to induce thirst?
D
A) Dry pharynx
B) Decreased blood volume
N
C) Decreased blood pressure
ot
Do
D) Decreased blood osmolality

Document # 6973555
Passage IV 124. If a person has two isoenzymes of cP-450, then

the cells of that person must contain two
Many lipid-soluble toxins must be metabolized
different sequences of:
before they can be excreted from an organism. In
mammalian systems, this metabolic process is often A) rRNA that translate the mRNA.
catalyzed by a type of membrane-bound heme protein B) amino acids that translate the DNA.
known as cytochrome P-450 (cP-450). Many forms
(isoenzymes) of cP-450 have been isolated, all of C) DNA that code for cP-450.
which contain iron with 4 coordinate bonds to D) tRNA that code for amino acids.
nitrogen atoms in the heme group and 1 coordinate
bond to a cysteine residue in the protein portion of the
125. In the example of the alcoholic in the passage,
enzyme.
the presence of alcohol caused death because
The general reaction by which cP-450 detoxifies the alcohol:
many compounds is shown in Reaction 1 where RH is A) denatured the cP-450.
a lipid-soluble toxin.
B) inhibited the cP-450.
+ +
NADPH + H + O2 + RH NADP + H2O + C) decreased the concentration of cP-450.
ROH
D) increased the concentration of cP-450.
Reaction I
t e
126. Ethanol may be metabolized to acetic acid, then
cP-450 is inducible. That is, when an organism is
u
condensed with a coenzyme to form acetyl
b
challenged by a new toxin or by increased
i
coenzyme A. Acetyl coenzyme A may then
r
concentrations of a toxin, the organism can increase
t
participate in:
s
its concentration of cP-450 and thus metabolize and
excrete the toxin more effectively.
t D
However, cP-450 does not metabolize all toxins at
o
the same rate. For example, although cP-450 usually i A) the Krebs (citric acid) cycle.
B) glycolysis.
C) electron transport.
Do N
metabolizes barbiturates, alcohol acts as a competitive
inhibitor of barbiturate metabolism.
The role of cP-450 in the metabolism of toxins
may be exemplified by the following case in which a
chronic alcoholic died of a barbiturate overdose.
D) oxidative phosphorylation.
127. Lipid-soluble toxins must be oxidized before

they are excreted. Otherwise, the toxins could
NOT pass through the:
While sober, the alcoholic was having trouble A) Bowman’s capsule.

falling asleep and, therefore, took the recommended B) red blood cells.
dosage of sleeping pills (barbiturates). When no
C) cell membranes.
drowsiness was felt, the alcoholic consumed more
sleeping pills, then drank an alcoholic beverage. D) cytoskeleton.
Severe respiratory depression and death soon
followed caused by an overdose of barbiturates. An
autopsy revealed that if alcohol had not been present,
the barbiturates would have been metabolized rapidly
enough to be eliminated by the body, and death would
not have occurred.

Document # 6973555
128. The lung cells of heavy smokers would be

expected to have greatly increased
concentrations of cP-450 and:
A) DNA sequences that code for cP-450.
B) mRNA sequences that code for cP-450.
C) rRNA that process cP-450.
D) tRNA that are specific for cysteine.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
Passage V
The nucleophilic alkyl substitution reactions are
among the most thoroughly studied transformations in
organic chemistry. A substitution by an SN2 reaction
mechanism is shown in Figure 1 and a substitution by
an SN1 mechanism is shown in Figure 2.
Figure 3 SN2 Reaction of 1-pentanol

Figure 1 SN2 Reaction mechanism
i b ut e
Figure 2 SN1 Reaction mechanism
D is t r
t
The SN2 mechanism involves a direct
o
Figure 4 Reaction of 2-methyl-2-butanol
displacement of a leaving group (L) by a nucleophile
N
(N). The reaction results in an inversion of The rate of the reaction shown in Figure 3 increases
Do
configuration at the carbon bearing the leaving group, as the concentration of alcohol, halide, or H+
because the incoming nucleophile attacks it from the increases. The rate of the reaction shown in Figure 4
side opposite the leaving group. The SN1 reaction increases as the concentration of alcohol or H+
mechanism involves an intermediate carbocation that increases. This reaction is independent of the halide
is formed by loss of the leaving group. A nucleophile concentration.
can react with the planar carbocation from either side,
leading to the inversion or retention of the
configuration at the site of the substitution.
The product distribution of two reactions is shown
in figures 3 and 4.

Document # 6973555
129. What is the product of the reaction of 132. If Experiment 2 is repeated with HCl and the
Compound 1 (shown below) with HBr by the compound shown below, which of the following
pathway shown in Figure 3? compounds is NOT a direct product (without
rearrangement)?
Compound 1
A) (R)-1-bromo-1-deuteriohexane
B) (S)-1-bromo-1-deuteriohexane
A)
C) (S)-1-bromo-1-deuteriopentane
D) (R)-1-bromo-1-deuteriopentane
130. If 2-pentanol replaces 1-pentanol in the reaction

shown in Figure 3, the rate of substitution is less
e
because:
A) the C–O bond in 2-pentanol is stronger than the
C–O bond in 1-pentanol.
ri b ut B)
B) there is a competing elimination reaction that
slows the rate of substitution.
D is t
t
C) there is more steric hindrance at the oxygen atom
o
in 2-pentanol than in 1-pentanol, making
N
protonation less likely.
Do
D) there is more steric hindrance at the 2-position of
2-pentanol than at the 1-position of 1-pentanol.
C)
131. The reaction profile of an SN2 reaction consists
of a single energy:
A) maximum representing a reaction intermediate.
B) maximum representing a transition state.
C) minimum representing a reaction intermediate.
D) minimum representing a transition state. D)

Document # 6973555
Passage VI
Ebola virus (EboV) causes a rapidly progressing
and often fatal hemorrhagic disease that currently has
no effective treatment. EboV particles consist of a
nucleocapsid encased in a membrane that contains
transmembrane viral glycoprotein (EGP). The virus
has a single-stranded, negative-sense RNA genome
that is used as a template for the mRNAs produced by
a virally encoded RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
The entry of an EboV nucleocapsid into the host
cell cytoplasm starts with the fusion of the viral
membrane with a host cell membrane, a process
facilitated by EGP. Recognizing the similarities
between how EGP and the glycoproteins of related
viruses are processed during viral infection, as well as
how inhibitors of endosomal acidification block
EboV infection, researchers hypothesized that acid-
dependent proteases trigger the conformational
Figure 1 Effect of CatB or CatL or both on VSV-
changes in EGP that are necessary for fusion.
e
EGP infectivity
The infectivity of VSV-EGP, vesicular stomatitis
virus (VSV) particles engineered to contain EGP
ri b ut Adapted from K. Chandran et al., Science. ©2005 by American Association for

the Advancement of Science.
t
instead of VSV glycoprotein in the viral envelope,
is
was reduced more than 99-fold by inhibitors of the
133. Which of the following experimental results
D
mammalian proteases CatB and CatL. In a separate
together with the results presented in the
t
experiment using a strain of EboV, CatB inhibitors
o
reduced the number of EboV particles produced in passage would best support the conclusion that
N
cell culture 10-fold. Figure 1 shows how the the protease inhibitors discussed in the passage
interfered with a step in VSV-EGP infection
Do
introduction of certain genes into two mutant mouse
cell lines affected the subsequent infection of these that is specifically dependent on EGP?
cells by VSV-EGP. A) VSV with VSV glycoprotein, not EGP, in the
envelope has reduced infectivity in the presence of
protease inhibitors relative to infectivity when
protease inhibitors are absent.
B) VSV with VSV glycoprotein, not EGP, in the
envelope has the same infectivity in the presence
and absence of the protease inhibitors.
C) VSV with EGP, not VSV glycoprotein, in the
envelope has the same infectivity in the presence
and absence of the protease inhibitors.
D) EboV with VSV glycoprotein, not EGP, in the
envelope has reduced infectivity in the presence of
protease inhibitors relative to infectivity when
protease inhibitors are absent.

Document # 6973555
134. In contrast to transcription of the EboV genome, 137. Based on the passage, CatB or CatL or both
transcription of the human genome involves a would be expected to have which of the
DNA template that is transcribed into: following effects, if any, on EGP?
A) DNA using DNA-dependent DNA polymerase. A) No effect
B) RNA using DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. B) Reduction of enzyme activity
C) RNA using RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. C) Formation of protein dimers
D) RNA using reverse transcriptase. D) Digestion into smaller protein fragments
135. Based on the passage, is CatL expression 138. The precursor of EGP is translated from a
sufficient for VSV-EGP infection of the mouse transcript that has had one nontemplated
cell lines presented in Figure 1? (Note: In these nucleotide added to the open reading frame.
experiments, assume that values of <3% of total This change does not create or eliminate a stop
cells infected are too low to be measured codon. Compared with the protein sGP, which is
accurately.) produced from the unedited transcript, EGP
most likely has the same primary:
A) Yes, because VSV-EGP infects cells expressing
CatL better than it infects cells not expressing A) amino-terminal sequence as sGP, but a different
CatL primary carboxy-terminal sequence.
e
B) Yes, because VSV-EGP infects cells expressing B) carboxy-terminal sequence as sGP, but a different
CatB better than it infects cells not expressing
CatB
ri b ut primary amino-terminal sequence.

C) sequence as sGP except that EGP has one
t
–/–
C) No, because VSV-EGP does not infect CatB additional amino acid.
cells not expressing CatL
t D i
cells expressing CatL better than it infects CatB–/–
s D) sequence as sGP except that EGP has one less

amino acid.
o
D) No, because VSV-EGP infects cells expressing
N
both CatB and CatL better than it infects cells
expressing CatB but not CatL
Do136. Based on the passage, does optimal VSV-EGP

infection in vitro require CatB, CatL, or both?
Optimal infection:
A) requires CatB only.
B) requires CatL only.
C) requires both CatB and CatL.
D) does not require CatB or CatL.

Document # 6973555
Passage VII 139. When a bacterial population that lacks

protective external capsules is transformed into
Despite being constantly refilled with outside air,
a population containing bacteria that possess
the lung remains aseptic. Various mechanisms protect
external capsules, as described in the passage,
the lung from contamination. The hairs of the nose
which of the following cellular components
typically filter out particles larger than 15 μm in
must these transformed bacteria have acquired
diameter. Particles larger than 5 μm that reach the air
from the heat-killed encapsulated bacteria?
passages of the lungs are typically trapped in the
sticky mucus that lines the respiratory tract. Cilia A) Capsule proteins
move the mucus and trapped particles upward toward B) Nucleic acids
the pharynx at a rate of about 1 cm/min. Particles
smaller than 1 μm are so small that, once trapped, C) Ribosomes
they diffuse through the membranes of cells of the D) Cytoplasmic enzymes
respiratory passages.
Bacteria gain access to the body most easily 140. The walls of the alveoli are most likely
through the thin walls of the alveoli at the end of the composed of which of the following tissues?
respiratory passages. Most bacteria that reach the A) A single layer of epithelial cells
alveoli are ingested and killed by macrophages.
However, bacteria with protective external capsules B) Several layers of epithelial cells
usually survive ingestion by macrophages and can C) Several layers of epithelial cells with an
cause diseases such as pneumonia, anthrax, and
tuberculosis.
i b ut e underlying layer of connective tissue

D) A single layer of epithelial cells with an
r
underlying layer of dense connective tissue
t
When heat-killed bacteria containing protective
is
external capsules are combined with living bacteria
D
that lack such protection, the living bacteria can be 141. All of the following effects can result from
t
transformed into bacteria possessing protective cigarette smoking. Which one would LEAST
o
external capsules. As a result, formerly nonresistant likely influence the risk of developing lung
N
bacteria can become resistant to macrophage attack. infections in a person who smokes?
Do
Macrophages transport foreign debris and A) Reduced numbers of hairs in the nasal passages
organisms through the lymphatic vessels to the lymph B) Decreased life span of sensory cells in the nasal
nodes. The lymph vessels of the lungs follow the air passages
passages to lymph nodes located in the region where
the trachea splits to form the left and right bronchi. C) Decreased rate of cilia movement on cells in the
upper respiratory tract
D) Decreased function of macrophages in alveoli
142. After bacteria enter the blood from the alveolar

sacs, which chamber of the heart would they
enter first?
A) Left atrium
B) Left ventricle
C) Right atrium
D) Right ventricle

Document # 6973555
143. In individuals suffering from pulmonary

anthrax, the region of the thorax between the
lungs is enlarged. Based on the passage, which
of the following is the most likely reason for
this enlargement?
A) Expansion of the heart due to increased resistance
of blood flow through the lungs
B) Swelling of the lymph nodes that receive lymph
from the lungs
C) Accumulation of blood plasma that escapes
capillaries of the thoracic cavity
D) Enlargement of alveolar sacs due to increased
activity of macrophages
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
Do

Document # 6973555
These questions are not based on a descriptive 146. The amino acids lysine and aspartic acid differ
passage and are independent of each other. in the functional groups of the side chains.
144. Of the descriptions primary amine and

heterocyclic amine, which, if either, would
apply to benzylamine (C6H5CH2NH2)?
A) Primary amine only
B) Heterocyclic amine only
C) Both primary amine and heterocyclic amine
D) Neither primary amine nor heterocyclic amine
At pH 1, the charge on aspartic acid is:
145. A compound shown in which of the following
A) two units greater than the charge on lysine.
structures contains a methyl group with an axial
orientation in its predominant conformation? B) one unit greater than the charge on lysine.
C) equal to the charge on lysine.
D) one unit less than the charge on lysine.
i b ut e
D is t r
N ot
DoA) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only

Document # 6973555
Physical Sciences 51 (A) (B) (C) (D) 96 (A) (B) (C) (D)
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 52 (A) (B) (C) (D) 97 (A) (B) (C) (D)
2 (A) (B) (C) (D) 98 (A) (B) (C) (D)
3 (A) (B) (C) (D) Verbal Reasoning 99 (A) (B) (C) (D)
4 (A) (B) (C) (D) 53 (A) (B) (C) (D) 100 (A) (B) (C) (D)
5 (A) (B) (C) (D) 54 (A) (B) (C) (D) 101 (A) (B) (C) (D)
6 (A) (B) (C) (D) 55 (A) (B) (C) (D) 102 (A) (B) (C) (D)
7 (A) (B) (C) (D) 56 (A) (B) (C) (D) 103 (A) (B) (C) (D)
8 (A) (B) (C) (D) 57 (A) (B) (C) (D) 104 (A) (B) (C) (D)
9 (A) (B) (C) (D) 58 (A) (B) (C) (D) 105 (A) (B) (C) (D)
10 (A) (B) (C) (D) 59 (A) (B) (C) (D) 106 (A) (B) (C) (D)
11 (A) (B) (C) (D) 60 (A) (B) (C) (D) 107 (A) (B) (C) (D)
12 (A) (B) (C) (D) 61 (A) (B) (C) (D) 108 (A) (B) (C) (D)
13 (A) (B) (C) (D) 62 (A) (B) (C) (D) 109 (A) (B) (C) (D)
14 (A) (B) (C) (D) 63 (A) (B) (C) (D) 110 (A) (B) (C) (D)
15 (A) (B) (C) (D) 64 (A) (B) (C) (D) 111 (A) (B) (C) (D)
16 (A) (B) (C) (D) 65 (A) (B) (C) (D) 112 (A) (B) (C) (D)
17 (A) (B) (C) (D) 66 (A) (B) (C) (D) 113 (A) (B) (C) (D)
18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 67 (A) (B) (C) (D) 114 (A) (B) (C) (D)
19 (A) (B) (C) (D) 68 (A) (B) (C) (D) 115 (A) (B) (C) (D)
20 (A) (B) (C) (D) 69 (A) (B) (C) (D) 116 (A) (B) (C) (D)
e
21 (A) (B) (C) (D) 70 (A) (B) (C) (D) 117 (A) (B) (C) (D)
t
22 (A) (B) (C) (D) 71 (A) (B) (C) (D) 118 (A) (B) (C) (D)
u
23 (A) (B) (C) (D) 72 (A) (B) (C) (D) 119 (A) (B) (C) (D)
i b
24 (A) (B) (C) (D) 73 (A) (B) (C) (D) 120 (A) (B) (C) (D)
t r
25 (A) (B) (C) (D) 74 (A) (B) (C) (D) 121 (A) (B) (C) (D)
s
26 (A) (B) (C) (D) 75 (A) (B) (C) (D) 122 (A) (B) (C) (D)
27 (A) (B) (C) (D)
28 (A) (B) (C) (D)
29 (A) (B) (C) (D)
30 (A) (B) (C) (D)
ot D i 76 (A) (B) (C) (D)

77 (A) (B) (C) (D)
78 (A) (B) (C) (D)
79 (A) (B) (C) (D)
123
124
125
126
(A)
(A)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(D)
(D)
N
31 (A) (B) (C) (D) 80 (A) (B) (C) (D) 127 (A) (B) (C) (D)
Do
32 (A) (B) (C) (D) 81 (A) (B) (C) (D) 128 (A) (B) (C) (D)
33 (A) (B) (C) (D) 82 (A) (B) (C) (D) 129 (A) (B) (C) (D)
34 (A) (B) (C) (D) 83 (A) (B) (C) (D) 130 (A) (B) (C) (D)
35 (A) (B) (C) (D) 84 (A) (B) (C) (D) 131 (A) (B) (C) (D)
36 (A) (B) (C) (D) 85 (A) (B) (C) (D) 132 (A) (B) (C) (D)
37 (A) (B) (C) (D) 86 (A) (B) (C) (D) 133 (A) (B) (C) (D)
38 (A) (B) (C) (D) 87 (A) (B) (C) (D) 134 (A) (B) (C) (D)
39 (A) (B) (C) (D) 88 (A) (B) (C) (D) 135 (A) (B) (C) (D)
40 (A) (B) (C) (D) 89 (A) (B) (C) (D) 136 (A) (B) (C) (D)
41 (A) (B) (C) (D) 90 (A) (B) (C) (D) 137 (A) (B) (C) (D)
42 (A) (B) (C) (D) 91 (A) (B) (C) (D) 138 (A) (B) (C) (D)
43 (A) (B) (C) (D) 92 (A) (B) (C) (D) 139 (A) (B) (C) (D)
44 (A) (B) (C) (D) 140 (A) (B) (C) (D)
45 (A) (B) (C) (D) Writing Sample 141 (A) (B) (C) (D)
46 (A) (B) (C) (D) 93 142 (A) (B) (C) (D)
47 (A) (B) (C) (D) 94 143 (A) (B) (C) (D)
48 (A) (B) (C) (D) 144 (A) (B) (C) (D)
49 (A) (B) (C) (D) Biological Sciences 145 (A) (B) (C) (D)
50 (A) (B) (C) (D) 95 (A) (B) (C) (D) 146 (A) (B) (C) (D)

Practice Test 11

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Document # 6973555

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Association of American Medical Colleges

MCAT Practice Test

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Passage I 1. The electrochemical cell can be operated at

is t ri b 3. In industrial use, ammonia is continuously

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Passage II 7. Which single bond present in nitroglycerin is most

8. At STP, the volume of N2(g) produced by the

4C3H5N3O9(l) → 12CO2(g) + 10H2O(g) + 6N2(g) + B) 10 L

The standard enthalpies of formation at 25°C of

D is t r which of the following?

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H2(g) + Cl2(g) → HCl(g) ΔH1

Na(s) + HCl(g) → NaCl(s) + H2(g) ΔH2

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Passage III The Pendulum

where E is known as the elastic modulus, or Young’s

Figure 1 Single-slit diffraction pattern on a screen

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i b ut e 22. An appropriate unit for Young’s modulus would

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24. To most effectively study the dependence of the

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Passage IV 27. An object with mass m is dropped from a height h

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B) 3.0 × 103 J A) WG < 0, WA > 0, and | WG | < | WA |

C) 6.0 × 105 J B) WG > 0, WA < 0, and | WG | > | WA |

D) 1.5 × 106 J C) WG < 0, WA > 0, and | WG | = | WA |

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D is t r D) II and III only

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Figure 1 Metal strip in solution

Table 1 Results of Metal Strip Experiment

i b ut e Composition of metal strip

Ag+(aq) new new new * no new

Pb2+(aq) new no new no no *

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Experiment 2 37. A student can most effectively increase the

38. Assume that a circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is

i b ut e D) 3Al(s) + 2Cu2+(aq) → 3Al3+(aq) + 2Cu(s)

Figure 2 Complete circuit

D is t r 39. A circuit similar to that in Figure 2 is set up in

Pb2+(aq) + 2e– → Pb(s) E°red = –0.127 V C) Yes; E°cell = –0.466.

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Passage VI The principle of the human centrifuge is also the

42. At which point in Figure 2 does the human riding

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