Comm Case Study For Post Mids Day 1

150 Questions for Final Examination
Project Scope Management

Project Schedule Management
Project Quality Management
Project Risk Management
Project Procurement Management
Project Stakeholder Management
Project Integration Management
Project Scope Management

Correct Answer: # 1
Question: When you encounter constraints as a project manager, in which document will you record the
information about these constraints?
1. Project scope statement
2. Risk register
3. Issue log
4. Change management plan
Justification:
Information on constraints may be listed in the project scope statement or in a separate log.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In which document will you find the code of account identifier, description of work,
responsible organization, and list of schedule milestones?
1. WBS
2. WBS Dictionary
3. PERT/CPM Charts
4. Roles and Responsibilities Matrix
Justification: Information in the WBS dictionary may include, but is not limited to: code of account
identifier, description of work, assumptions and constraints, responsible organization, schedule milestones,
associated schedule activities, resources required, cost estimates, quality requirements, acceptance criteria,
technical references, and agreement information.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: You are a project manager in a large software development organization. It is a primary objective in your
company to deliver quality products, with a low rate of errors and a high product acceptance rate by your customers. The
company has made significant investments in a robust system to support these corporate objectives and goals. When
developing contracts for software development projects, it is standard that the customer is required to follow rigorously
defined processes for user acceptance testing which must be conducted each time a module is completed. The customer is
also required to notify the project manager, in writing, that the software module was tested and whether it was acceptable or
not. This user acceptance testing, and the resulting notification is part of which process?
1. Control Scope
2. Collect Requirements
3. Validate Scope
4. Perform Manage Quality
Justification: Validate Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project
deliverables. The key benefit of this process is that it brings objectivity to the acceptance process and increases the
chance of final product, service, or result acceptance by validating each deliverable. The verified deliverables
obtained from the Control Quality process are reviewed with the customer or sponsor to ensure that they are
completed satisfactorily and have received formal acceptance of the deliverables by the customer or sponsor.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 133 and 134
PMstudy.com comments: This question describes an inspection of the deliverable by the customer (i.e., testing).
The process of accepting deliverables (Validate Scope) should include written notification that the deliverable has
been either accepted or rejected.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: During the Validate Scope process, you formalize acceptance of the project deliverables and keep
the project focused on the business need for which it was undertaken. This should be done:
1. At the beginning of the project

2. At the end of the project
3. When required by the project sponsor
4. After getting verified deliverables from the Control Quality process
Justification: Verified deliverables are project deliverables that are completed and checked for
correctness through the Control Quality process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 135.
PMstudy.com comments: Validate Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project
deliverables. This should be done after getting individual deliverables from the Control Quality process.
Verified deliverables are an input to the Validate Scope process.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: As a project manager, you are aware that changes are bound to occur during projects. While
monitoring and controlling change on your projects, you use the term scope creep. What does the term refer to?
1. Uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources
2. Controlled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources
3. Manageable expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources
4. Unmanageable expansion to product or project scope with adjustments to time, cost, and resources
Justification: Uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and
resources is referred to as scope creep.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide 137
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: You are managing a project. Your company has set a pre-defined budget for you to work with. In
this context, a pre-defined budget is considered as a:
1. Risk
2. Assumption
3. Constraint
4. Stage point
Justification: Constraints: A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project or process. Constraints
identified with the project scope statement list and describe the specific internal or external restrictions or limitations
associated with the project scope that affects the execution of the project, for example, a predefined budget or any
imposed dates or schedule milestones that are issued by the customer or performing organization.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 124
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In your project, a team member suggested the addition of a functionality, which she thinks, will
improve customer satisfaction. Your approach would be to:
1. Allow for the functionality, because satisfying the customer is your objective.
2. Disallow the new requirement, because it changes the project scope, and the customer did not explicitly state this requirement.
3. Make changes to the project plan to accommodate the new requirement
4. Ask the customer for additional funding to implement the requirement
Justification: Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes
all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. Managing the project scope
is primarily concerned with defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
PMstudy.com comments: In case a stakeholder requests an additional feature, the recommended course of action
is to discuss within your group and with the customer before taking a final decision. Since these options are not
available, the next best option is to ensure that you prevent gold plating, i.e., providing a requirement that was not
explicitly stated in the project scope.
A project manager should ensure prevention of "gold plating", i.e., addition of any new requirement that has not
been originally requested for by the customer.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: The Scope Management Plan is an important component of the Project Management Plan
since it provides direction on how the project scope will be managed throughout the project life cycle. The
Scope Management Plan documents:
1. Which product requirements will be incorporated

2. How project scope will be defined, developed, controlled, and verified
3. Which stakeholders are most critical for defining the project scope
4. High-level project scope deliverables
Justification: The Scope Management Plan describes how the scope will be defined, developed,
monitored, controlled, and verified.
Reference:PMBOK® Guide - 109
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are the project manager in a company. You have finished preparing a detailed description of
the project and product. What will you do next?
2. Create WBS
3. Validate Scope
4. Control Scope
Justification: Define Scope is the process of developing a detailed description of the project and product.
This process should be followed by the Create WBS process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - s 105 and 106 (figure 5-1)
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: There has been a change in the scope of your project, which may adversely impact the
project schedules and cost. You have updated the technical and planning documents. All the requested
changes and recommended corrective actions will now be processed through:
1. Impact request statements

2. Change control system
3. Perform Integrated Change Control process
4. Changes to the scope management plan
Justification: Controlling the project scope ensures all requested changes and recommended
corrective or preventive actions are processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Planning the scope for a project occurs very early in the project life cycle. One of the first steps
is to document how the project scope will be defined, validated, and controlled. The output(s) of the Plan Scope
Management process are:
1. Scope management plan

2. Scope baseline and Requirements documentation
3. Scope management plan and Requirements documentation
4. Scope management plan and Requirements management plan
Justification: Both the Scope Management Plan and the Requirements Management Plan are outputs of the
Plan Scope Management process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 106 (figure 5-1)
PMstudy.com comments:
Option 2: The Scope baseline is an output of the Create WBS process.

Option 3: The Requirements documentation is an output of the Collect Requirements process.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: Which of the following statements related to Validate Scope and Control Quality processes is accurate?
1. Validate Scope is concerned with correctness of the work results, while Control Quality is primarily concerned with acceptance of the
work results.
2. Validate Scope is concerned with acceptance of the work results, while Control Quality is primarily concerned with correctness of the
work results.
3. Validate Scope is done only after changes are approved by the change control board.
4. Both Validate Scope and Control Quality processes are always done sequentially.
Justification: The Validate Scope process differs from the Control Quality process in that the former is
primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables, while Control Quality is primarily concerned with
correctness of the deliverables and meeting the quality requirements specified for the deliverables.

Correct Answer: # 4
Question: The scope baseline is a component of the project management plan and is critical for you to
verify scope and perform scope control. Which of the following is NOT a component of the scope baseline?
1. Project Scope Statement

2. WBS
3. WBS dictionary
4. Activity list
Justification: Components of the scope baseline include Project Scope Statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - s 131 and 132
PMstudy.com comments: Activity list is not a component of the scope baseline.

Correct Answer: # 4
Question: After collecting requirements, one of your tasks as a project manager is to prepare a scope
statement for your project. The scope statement provides:
1. Authorization to the project manager for using organizational resources for project activities.
2. Documentation of how the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project.
3. Definition for work breakdown structure.
4. Common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders.
Justification: The project scope statement is the description of the project scope, major deliverables,
assumptions, and constraints...project scope among project stakeholders.
PMstudy.com comments: Project scope statement provides a documented basis for making future project
decisions and for confirming or developing a common understanding of project scope among project stakeholders.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In your project, you need to verify whether deliverables meet requirements and product
acceptance criteria. For this purpose, which of the following would you rely on?
1. Inspection
2. Expert judgment
3. Observations
4. Focus groups
Justification: Inspection includes activities such as measuring, examining, and validating to determine
whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: The customer accepted your project`s product two weeks ago, but recently complained that some of
the product features are not as desired and that the product is not functioning properly. What should you do FIRST?
1. Ignore the customer, since he already accepted the product.

2. Review the customer`s test results.
3. Review the Validate Scope process.
4. Start working on rectifying the errors as reported by the customer.
Justification: The verified deliverables obtained from the Control Quality process are reviewed with the
customer or sponsor to ensure that they are completed satisfactorily and have received formal acceptance of the
deliverables by the customer or sponsor.
Option 3: The first step to be taken is to review the Validate Scope process to determine whether the
product conforms to the stipulated requirements.
Option 1: Ignoring the customer is never recommended since he is one of the most important stakeholders in your
project.
Option 2: You cannot review the customer`s test results, since the customer may not be ready to share it with
you and, therefore, you may not have access to it.
Option 4: Before rectifying the errors, you must understand clearly whether all the deliverables were
delivered satisfactorily.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: Your project involves manufacturing high-precision engine subassemblies for the shipping industry.
You have to perform several activities such as measuring, examining, and verifying to determine whether work and
deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria. You would have to do product reviews, audits, and
walkthroughs. These activities are carried out in which process?
1. Validate Scope
2. Quality Inspection
4. Control Scope
Justification: Validate Scope includes inspection as a technique. Inspection includes activities such as
measuring, examining, and validating to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product
acceptance criteria. Inspections are sometimes called reviews, product reviews, audits, and walkthroughs.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: Your company is constructing a dam, and your project (being performed under an agreement)
mandates that you pay compensation to persons displaced because of the project. What kind of constraint is this?
1. Social
2. Legal
3. Environmental
4. Humanitarian
Justification: When a project is performed under an agreement, contractual provisions will

generally be constraints.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: You are reaching project completion, and want to understand whether your project was
successful. In this context, for a project to be successful, what is the primary requirement?
1. Customer satisfaction
2. Exceeding customer expectations
3. Meeting the cost and schedule estimates
4. Satisfying the requirements of the project sponsor
Justification: Project: Success is measured by product and project quality, timeliness, budget
compliance, and degree of customer satisfaction.
PMstudy.com comments: Customer satisfaction is the primary criterion for measuring the project success. Although
meeting customer expectations is necessary, exceeding customer expectations, cost, and schedule estimates are
not primary requirements for a successful project - at times, this may even be gold plating. Please note that while in a
few cases the customer and sponsor may be the same person, they are by definition two different groups.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: When you encounter constraints as a project manager, in which document will you record
the information about these constraints?

2. Risk register
3. Issue log
4. Change management plan
Justification: Information on constraints may be listed in the project scope statement or in a separate log.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: As a project manager, you are responsible for managing changes to the project scope. If, at the
end of the project, a customer wants a major change in the scope of work, you should:
1. Reject the change

2. Make the required change
3. Escalate the matter to senior management
4. Let the customer know about the impact of the change
Justification: If there is a major change to the project, the project manager should try to influence the
change to minimize the impact on the project. Usually the project manager is advised to do the following:
1. Evaluate the impact of the change within the team.

2. Help the customer (or person requesting the change) understand the impact of the change.
3. If changes are in fact required, then open a change control and get the request approved. Obviously, you will
have to inform the management and the change control board about the impact of the changes.
4. If the change control board approves changes, then make appropriate changes in the project plan.
Reference: PMstudy.com study notes
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In your project, while doing scope verification of the product, the customer points out that a
particular work component performed by a team member is not as per specification. You review the project WBS
and confirm that the customer is correct. What would be your NEXT step?
1. Put the particular requirement through the change control process

2. Call a meeting of your project team to discuss this requirement
3. Escalate the issue to your project sponsor
4. Review the requirement and talk with the team member who implemented the requirement
Justification: The best option is to first review the requirement, contained in the project WBS, with the
particular team member who has implemented the requirement. Either the team member has not done the work
properly or there might have been lack of clarity in defining the requirement in the WBS.
Option 1: This should be done only after the requirement has been evaluated with the team member.
Option 2: There is no need to call a meeting of all team members. Discuss the matter with the team member who
has actually implemented the requirement.
Option 3: It is premature to escalate the issue to the project sponsor. First, you should evaluate why it went wrong.
Reference: PMstudy.com comments
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are the project manager of a software company. You need ideas for project and
product requirements. Which of the following techniques will you use?
1. Flowcharting
2. Idea/Mind Mapping
3. Nominal Group Technique
4. Brainstorming
Justification: Brainstorming: A general data gathering and creativity technique that can be used to identify
risks, ideas, or solutions to issues by using a group of team members or subject matter experts.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Project Scope Management includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all
the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. In this context, a detailed
project scope statement is prepared as part of:
2. Create WBS
3. Scope Elaboration
4. Define Scope
Justification: The project scope statement is prepared as part of the Define Scope process.
Project Schedule Management

Correct Answer: # 3
Question: The project manager has created the project schedule. In this context, which of the following
activities would the project manager NOT use schedule control for?
1. Influencing the factors that create schedule changes

2. Determining if the project schedule has changed
3. Determining planned start and finish dates for project activities
4. Managing actual schedule changes as they occur
Justification: Option 3 is an activity performed as part of the Develop Schedule process. The remaining
options are activities that are performed as part of the Control Schedule process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guides 173 (figure 6-16) and 185 (figure 6-22)
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are taking over a project that is currently in the planning stage. The previous project manager
worked with the team to finalize the process of defining activities, and you joined the team at the end of this
process. The next process requires the determination and documentation of the relationships among project
activities. Of the following, which is a tool and technique used in this process?
1. Schedule Baseline
2. Dependency Determination
3. Activity List
4. Schedule Compression
Justification: The process being described is Sequence Activities. Dependency Determination is a tool/technique
for the Sequence Activities process. None of the other options are tools or techniques for this process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guides 143 (figure 6-1) and 153
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: As a project manager, you have developed the Schedule Management Plan. You are now in the
process of identifying and documenting the relationships among the project activities. You want to ensure that
every activity and milestone except the first and last are connected to at least one predecessor and one successor.
Which of the following tools can you use for this purpose?
1. Published estimating data

2. Parametric estimating
3. Precedence diagramming method
4. Performance reviews
Justification: Sequence Activities is the process of identifying and documenting relationships among the
project activities. Precedence diagramming method (PDM) is one of the tools used in this process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide 153 (figure 6-7)

Option 1 (Published estimating data) is used for the Estimate Activity Resources process
Option 2 (Parametric estimating) is used for the Estimate Activity Durations process
Option 4 (Performance reviews) is used for the Control Schedule process
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: You are managing a project to develop an emergency brake to an upcoming new model of RV. In
your project, you have to complete building a prototype before testing can begin. This is an example of:
1. Mandatory dependency
2. Discretionary dependency
3. External dependency
4. Preferred logic
Justification: Mandatory dependencies are those that are legally or contractually required or inherent in the
nature of the work. Mandatory dependencies often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project
where it is impossible to erect the superstructure until after the foundation has been built, or on an electronics
project, where a prototype must be built before it can be tested.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: In the Develop Schedule process, you create a distribution of probable durations for each activity
and use it to calculate the distribution of probable results for the total project. The technique that you are using is:
1. Parametric estimating
2. Mathematical analysis
3. Simulation
4. Resource leveling
Justification: Simulation involves calculating multiple project durations with different sets of activity assumptions,
usually using probability distributions constructed from the three-point estimates to account for uncertainty.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: Which document provides high-level schedule information that is useful when planning for
project schedule management?
1. Schedule management plan

2. Activity list
3. Project charter
4. Schedule baseline
Justification: The project charter is an important input to the Plan Schedule Management process since it
provides the summary milestone schedule that will influence project schedule management.
Option 1: The Schedule Management Plan is an output of the Plan Schedule Management process.
Option 2: The Activity list is not created until the Define Activities process.
Option 4: The Schedule baseline is not created until later in the Develop Schedule process.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: As a project manager during the Develop Schedule process, you are now deliberating on the type
of schedule presentations you are going to use. The difference between a milestone chart and a bar chart is that
unlike bar charts, milestone charts:
1. Show activity start and end dates

2. Show dependencies among tasks
3. Identify the scheduled start or completion of major deliverables only and not all the tasks
4. Show supporting details
Justification: Milestone charts are similar to bar charts, but they only identify the scheduled start or
completion of major deliverables and key external interfaces.
PMstudy.com comments: Usually, milestone charts are used for presentations to senior management but bar
charts are used for presentations to middle and junior management.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are the project manager of a construction company. You know that the builders start painting
the walls 30 days after they start installing the drywall. This waiting time can also be referred to as:
1. Lead time
2. Project float
3. Constraint
4. Lag
Justification: A lag directs a delay in the successor activity.

PMstudy.com comments: Waiting time is also referred to as lag
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: The studio you are working for has assigned you as the project manager for a movie project where
the producer left midway due to health issues. As a project manager, you are responsible for meeting the project
schedule deadlines. If there is a delay in the project schedule, you should:
1. Increase the timeline for the project.

2. Fast track or crash the project, and let the management know the impact of this action.
3. Ask the resources to work overtime to meet the project deadlines.
4. Change the project scope.
Justification: Schedule compression shortens the project schedule without changing the project scope to
meet schedule constraints, imposed dates, or other schedule objectives. Schedule compression techniques
include Crashing and Fast tracking.
PMstudy.com comments: If a project is getting delayed, it is appropriate to find out whether the schedule can be
decreased by fast tracking or crashing. The implications of these techniques (e.g., increase in risk / costs) should
be conveyed to the management for approval.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In your project, you are in the process of creating an activity list. This should contain which of
the following:
A. Activities not to be performed as part of the project
B. Activities that are to be performed as part of the project
C. Activity identifier and scope of work description for each schedule activity in sufficient detail
D. Activities that are required for the project
1. B, C and D
2. C, D and A
3. D, A and B
4. A, B and C
Justification: The activity list is a comprehensive list that includes all schedule activities required on the
project. The activity list also includes the activity identifier and a scope of work description for each activity in
sufficient detail to ensure that project team members understand what work is required to be completed.

PMstudy.com comments: Activity list will not include activities that are not to be performed as part of the project.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: You are in the test phase of your software project, and the project sponsor has requested a
definitive estimate of when your project will be completed. The most likely estimated duration is 30 days. Which of
the following duration estimations will you give to your sponsor?
1. 29 - 31 days
2. 24 - 36 days
3. 20 - 40 days
4. 15 - 45 days
Justification: The different types of estimates are:

Definitive: - 5% to +10% accuracy
Budgetary: -10% to +25% accuracy
Order of magnitude: - 25% to +75% accuracy
So, if -5% to +10% variation is allowable, only 29 - 31 days fits that criterion.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In any project there are deliverables that need to be produced. These deliverables are produced
during the executing phase as the team carries out their assigned activities. During the planning phase, you wish to
identify and document the specific actions to be performed to produce the deliverables. This is done as part of:
1. Define Activities
2. Decomposition
3. Define Scope
4. Sequence Activities
Justification: Define Activities is the process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be
performed to produce the project deliverables.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: Critical path method is an important tool for Develop Schedule. In this context, which of the
following statements related to critical path method is NOT correct?
1. Total float can affect the calculated early start and finish dates
2. The flexibility of schedule is facilitated by activity total float
3. Networks can have only one critical path
4. Networks may have multiple near critical paths
Justification: Schedule networks may have multiple near-critical paths.

PMstudy.com comments: Networks can have multiple critical and near critical paths.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: Since you are in the preliminary stages of your project, you estimate that your project may be
completed in one year. However, the optimistic estimate is 6 months and pessimistic estimate is 18 months. This
type of estimate is also called:
1. Definitive
2. Capital cost
3. Order of magnitude
4. Feasibility
Justification: The different types of estimates are:

Order of Magnitude: -25% to +75%
Budget Estimates: -10% to +25%
Definitive Estimates: -5% to +10%
Please note that the estimate varies from 1 year - 6 months to 1 year + 6 months (i.e. -25% to +75% variation, we can
call this an Order of Magnitude Estimate)
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: While creating a project schedule, what duration should a milestone have?
1. Zero
2. Duration equal to the phase duration
3. Duration equal to the time required for a particular task to be completed
4. Duration of the complete project till the milestone date
Justification: Milestone is a significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio.

PMstudy.com comments: Since milestones only indicate when a particular task is going to be started or
completed, they will not have any duration, i.e., the duration for milestone is zero.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In your project, you wish to estimate the type and quantity of resources required for each activity.
Which of the following techniques will you use for this purpose?
1. Reserve analysis
2. Variance analysis
3. Assumptions analysis
4. Alternatives analysis
Justification: Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material,
people, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity. Alternatives analysis is one of the techniques used
in the process.
The techniques specified in the other three options are not used in Estimate Activity Resources process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guides 160 and 161 (figure 6-12)
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In Estimate Activity Duration process, which of the following is not an assumption?
1. Existing conditions
2. Availability of information
3. Length of the reporting periods
4. Project scope
Justification: Examples of assumptions include, but are not limited to, existing conditions,
availability of information, and length of the reporting periods.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In your project, you wish to calculate early start and finish dates for each task. For this purpose,
which of the following will you use?
1. ADM
2. CPM
3. GERT
4. CERT
Justification: The critical path method (CPM) calculates the theoretical early start and finish dates, and late
start and finish dates, for all activities without regard for any resource limitations, by performing a forward and
backward pass analysis through the schedule network.
PMstudy.com comments: Critical path method (CPM) calculates a single, deterministic early and late start and
finish dates for each activity based on specified sequential network logic and a single duration estimate.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In your project, you prefer bar charts over project network diagrams for the purpose of:
1. Making presentations to the middle management
2. Determining the critical path of the project
3. Determining the start and finish dates for each activity

4. Determining the critical path of the project and start and finish dates for each activity
Justification: Bar charts are relatively easy to read and are frequently used in management presentations.
PMstudy.com comments: Milestone charts are used to make presentations to senior management, but bar charts
are usually used to make presentations to middle or junior management.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: An activity has an optimistic estimate of 10 days, pessimistic estimate of 16 days, and most
likely estimate of 13 days. What is the PERT estimate for the task?
1. 13 days
2. 10 days
3. 16 days
4. Cannot be determined with available information
Justification: In a normal distribution, the PERT duration (also called mean)

= {Pessimistic + (4 x Most Likely) + Optimistic}/6
= {16 + (4 x 13) + 10}/6
= 13
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Which of the following statements about the creation of duration estimates is incorrect?
1. Mathematical analyses like CPM, GERT, and PERT indicate the dates on which the activity can be scheduled, given resource limits
and other constraints.
2. Duration compression techniques, including fast tracking and crashing can help in decreasing the project schedule.
3. WBS classification allows for useful activity ordering and sorting.
4. The duration of the project is the sum of the duration of all the tasks in the project.
Justification: The duration of the project should be calculated after drawing a network diagram and
determining the critical path. The duration of the project is the length of the critical path and not the sum of the
duration of all the tasks in the project.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are in the process of developing the project schedule to determine start and finish dates for
project activities. Which of the following tools would NOT be used for this purpose?
1. Critical path method

2. Schedule compression
3. Scheduling tool
4. Schedule baseline
Justification:
Develop Schedule is the process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements and
schedule constrains to create the project schedule.
Schedule baseline is an output for this process. The tools and techniques specified in the other options are used in
the Develop Schedule process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide 173, figure 6-16
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are the project manager in the public works department, which awards contracts for
constructing roads. Before selecting the sellers, you must advertise in local newspapers. This is an example of:
1. Best practices in the industry

2. External dependency
3. Discretionary dependencies
4. Mandatory dependencies
Justification: Mandatory dependencies are those that are contractually required or inherent in the nature of the
work. Mandatory dependencies often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project where it is
impossible to erect the superstructure until after the foundation has been built, or on an electronics project, where
a prototype must be built before it can be tested.

PMstudy.com comments: The use of "must" in the sentence suggests that this is a mandatory dependency.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: The Trustees of a Race Track have appointed you as the Project Manager for a $400 million
redevelopment project. They expect the project to be completed before the Race Date exactly 3 Years from
Project Start Date. Which of the following parameters will help in determining the probability of finishing on time?
1. PERT value
2. CPM
3. Standard deviation
4. Variance
Justification: Standard deviation is a measure that determines the probability of getting a result.
Hence, it is a good indicator of the probability of completing the task on time.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In which of the following processes is decomposition used as a tool?

1. Define Activities
2. Sequence Activities
3. Estimate Activity Resources
4. Estimate Activity Durations
Justification: Decomposition is a tool used in the Define Activities process.

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 143, figure 6-1
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: You are the project manager on a Software Creation Project. If the number of critical paths in the
project increases, but the duration of the project remains the same, what should the project manager do?
1. Perform crashing to complete project on time

2. Fast track the project
3. Perform additional risk planning
4. Decrease the scope of the project
Justification: If the number of critical paths increases in the project, delay in any one of the critical paths has
the potential to delay the project. The risk of the project (in meeting the project schedule) increases; hence additional
risk planning has to be performed.

Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Based on the following, construct a project schedule network diagram and determine the duration of
the critical path.
Your project has a total of five tasks. At the beginning of the project you can simultaneously begin tasks A and C.
Task A has a duration of 3 days, and task C has a duration of 4 days. When task A completes, task B can begin.
Task B has a duration of 5 days. Task C is followed by task D, which is estimated at 6 days. Once task B is done,
you can start task E. The duration of task E is 4 days. Task D is a predecessor to Task E. What is the duration of the
critical path?
1. 12 days
2. 15 days
3. 18 days
4. 14 days
Justification: The project schedule network diagram can be represented as shown below.
Project Quality Management

Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are working for a semi-conductor company. There have been several instances in the past
week when a few circuits have not been giving accurate results. You have been assigned the task of determining
the probable cause for the variations. Which tool would you use?
1. Control Chart
2. Ishikawa Diagrams
3. Pareto Diagrams
4. Inspection
Justification: Ishikawa diagrams is also known as Cause-and-effect diagrams or fishbone diagrams. The
problem statement placed at the head of the fishbone is used as a starting point to trace the problem`s source back
to its actionable root cause. The problem statement typically describes the problem as a gap to be closed or as an
objective to be achieved.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are managing the tools/spare parts section for an aircraft manufacturing company. Your team
members have discovered some defective tools/spare parts. The probable cause for these could be materials used,
defective measurement systems, inaccurate tolerances in the machines, or other factors. To determine what caused
the defect, you will:
1. Use a control chart

2. Draw an Ishikawa diagram
3. Create a flowchart
4. Draw a Pareto chart
Justification: Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams (also called cause and effect diagrams) illustrate how various
factors might be linked to potential problems or effects (please refer to figure 8-7 on PMBOK® Guide - 239).
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: Quality management complements project management, as both recognize the importance of:
1. Exceeding customer expectations using additional features
2. Providing customer satisfaction
3. Decreasing total scope of ownership of the project
4. Decreasing risks associated with outsourcing
Justification: Modern quality management complements project management, as both disciplines

recognize the importance of customer satisfaction, prevention over inspection, continuous improvement,
management responsibility, and cost of quality (COQ).
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - , s 229
PMstudy.com comments: Option 1 refers to "exceeding customer expectations by providing additional features" - this
constitutes gold plating and is not recommended by PMI.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: The project team has added some functionalities to the product that are not required as part of the
project. However, the customer is satisfied with the product. From a quality perspective, the action of the team is:
1. Justified because customer expectations are exceeded.

2. Not acceptable, because it constitutes gold plating, which is not a good practice.
3. Desirable as this means repeat business from the customer.
4. Not ethical as the customer indicated project deliverable is not produced.
Justification: Customer satisfaction requires a combination of conformance to requirements (to ensure the
project produces what it was created to produce) and fitness for use (the product or service must satisfy real needs).
PMstudy.com comments: PMI believes that gold plating (providing additional functionalities) is not a good
practice, even if it satisfies the customer
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Which of the following types of costs is not incurred toward ensuring compliance to requirements?
1. Prevention costs
2. Appraisal costs
3. Quality planning costs
4. Warranty costs
Justification: Prevention and appraisal costs (cost of conformance) include costs for quality planning, quality
control (QC), and Manage Quality to ensure compliance to requirements (i.e., training, QC systems, etc.). Failure
costs (cost of nonconformance) include costs to rework products, components, or processes that are non-compliant,
costs of warranty work and waste, and loss of reputation.
Reference:PMBOK® Guide - 535
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: Your quality process did not meet the four sigma requirements desired by your customer. So, some
of your products were rejected and there is a possibility that you would not receive repeat business from the customer.
From a quality perspective, the costs associated with the rejected products can also be categorized as:
1. Cost of conformance
2. Customer retention costs
3. Failure costs
4. Performance costs
Justification: Failure costs (cost of nonconformance) include costs to rework products, components, or
processes that are non-compliant, costs of warranty work and waste, and loss of reputation.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Which of the following statements on quality planning is inaccurate?

1. Quality planning is performed in parallel with the other project planning processes.
2. During quality planning, you should be aware of governmental regulations, rules, standards, and guidelines specific to the
application area.
3. You can use DOE to help identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development.
4. During quality planning, you can use change requests to take corrective or preventive action or to perform defect repair.
Justification:
Plan Quality Management is the process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and
product, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance. Quality planning should be performed in
parallel with the other project planning processes.
Option 1: Quality planning should be performed in parallel with other project planning processes.
Option 2: These refer to enterprise environmental factors, which are inputs to the Plan Quality process.
Option 3: Design of Experiments is a tool and technique used for Plan Quality process.
Option 4: This refers to change requests, which is an output from the Perform Manage Quality Process and not
Plan Quality Management process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - , s 231, 234, 239, 240 and 243 (figure 8-8)
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are a project manager tasked with developing a new machine that will be used for producing
a unique style of reusable pop-off bottle cap. You are working with the Quality team to identify potential quality
issues with the machine during testing. When you collected the requirement from stakeholders, the manager of
manufacturing explicitly stated that it was important for the number of defects to be kept to 2% or less. The sponsor
asked for consistency and reliability in order to avoid machine and employee downtime. The CFO said that the
machine needed to last a minimum of seven years without replacement. The customer
1. A Histogram as it shows the number of defects

2. A Run chart; if the chart indicates a run, then you can use this to predict a trend in the data
3. A Pareto chart as it will show which defects are the ones to focus on fixing
4. A Control chart as it will show whether the machine performance is stable and predictable
Justification: Option 1: This is a correct statement and although a histogram will help by showing the
frequency of each defect, it is not the most appropriate tool for assessing the performance stability of the machine.
Option 2: The team is not currently interested in data trends and the run chart will not provide the required
information for the team.
Option 3: The Pareto chart will show which defects to focus on but currently the team is concerned with the
machine performance and stability.
Option 4: A control chart is the most correct answer as it will provide information on whether the bottle caps are within
the set control limits and whether the process is stable and has predictable performance.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - , s 238 and 239 (figure 8-7)
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: During Plan Quality process, you are going to use Design of Experiments (DOE) to determine
which factors might influence specific variables. Which variable can be used in your analysis?
1. Dollars
2. Pounds
3. Weight
4. Meters
Justification: Weight is the only variable here. All the other options refer to units of currency and measurement.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: You are the project manager responsible for developing a new type of soap. You decide to do a
statistical sampling for this project. Statistical sampling surveys only a portion of the population of interest. If you
had chosen to survey the entire population, which of the following is NOT a problem you would encounter?
1. Inaccurate data
2. High cost
3. Extended timeline
4. Inadequate resources
Justification: Survey of the entire population yields accurate data.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: Statistical sampling involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. In this
context, which of the following statements on attribute sampling and variables sampling are accurate?
A. Attribute sampling shows degree of conformity.

B. Attribute sampling indicates that the result either conforms or does not conform.
C. Variables sampling indicates the result rated on a continuous scale.
D. Attribute sampling and variables sampling are done during Control Quality.
1. B, C and D
2. A, C and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, B and C
Justification: Attribute sampling: the result either conforms or does not conform. Variables sampling: the
result is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformity.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: You are working as a project manager in an automobile company. Recently the government has
amended the regulations to enforce stricter emission requirements for automobiles. As a project manager, you are
concerned that your project quality norms may not satisfy the revised quality standards. So, you do an audit and try
to remedy this problem through:
1. Manage Quality
2. Quality planning
3. Quality control
4. Modifications to quality management plan
Justification: Perform Manage Quality is the process of auditing the quality requirements and the results from
quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are a project manager at a large software development organization. A primary objective of
your company is to deliver high-quality products to your customers, with a low rate of errors and post-delivery fixes.
The company has made significant investments in a robust quality management system, including very detailed and
thorough procedures and processes, designed to support the quality objectives of the company. In software
development projects, prior to submitting software modules to the customer for user acceptance testing, your team
uses a set of rigorous scripts to test the code and functionality. In which process would the team use these scripts to
test the modules and in what process would the test scripts be audited to ensure they are valid and produce the
desired results?
1. Manage Quality , Validate Scope

2. Validate Scope, Control Quality
3. Control Quality, Validate Scope
4. Control Quality, Manage Quality
Justification: Control Quality is the process of monitoring and recording results from the project to
assess performance and recommend any changes. Deliverables are also inspected and checked to ensure
there are no defects. Auditing is a key tool of Manage Quality .
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - , s 247 to 250
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Which of the following statements about Control Quality is accurate?

A. Prevention refers to keeping errors out of the process, whereas inspection refers to keeping errors out of
the hands of the customer.
B. Attribute sampling determines whether the result conforms or not, and variables sampling determines the
degree of conformity.
C. Tolerances refer to a specified range of accepted results and control limits refer to thresholds, which can
indicate whether the process is out of control.
D. Control Quality is only performed during the Monitoring and Controlling phase of a project.
1. B, C and D
2. A, C and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, B and C
Justification: Quality control should be used during the project executing and closing phases to formally
demonstrate, with reliable data, that the sponsor and/or customer`s acceptance criteria have been met.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You want to identify quality requirements and standards relevant to your project and product. For
this, you will:
1. Perform Manage Quality

2. Plan Quality
3. Perform Quality Control
4. Plan Quality Management
Justification: Plan Quality Management is the process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the
project and its deliverables and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In your project, you have used valuable inputs to produce project activity metrics to evaluate
actual progress as compared to planned progress. The inputs used during the Control Quality process are:
A. Risk register
B. Organizational process assets
C. Quality management plan
D. Work performance data
1. B, C and D
2. A, C and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, B and C
Justification: The risk register is not an input to the Control Quality process.
PMstudy.com comments: Please note that the Project Management Plan (which is an input to this process)
includes the Quality management plan.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are preparing a quality management plan for your project. Which of the following will you use in
this process?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Quality checklists
C. Cost of quality
D. Benchmarking
1. B, C and D
2. A, C and D
3. A, B and D
4. A, B and C
Justification: Quality management plan and quality checklists are outputs of Plan Quality Management
process. Quality checklists are used in the Control Quality process, and the remaining three are used as tools and
techniques for Plan Quality Management process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide - , s 230 (figure 8-1) and 242
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: As a project manager, you are aware that quality has costs associated with it. Which of the
following statements is NOT related to cost of quality?
1. Cost of appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements

2. Cost of rework
3. Cost incurred by investment in preventing non-conformance to requirements
4. Cost of evaluating alternative projects
Justification: Cost of quality includes all costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in
preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements,
and failing to meet requirements (rework).

PMstudy.com comments: Cost of evaluating alternative projects is not included as part of cost of quality.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: The customer was not satisfied with the finished product`s quality. The cost of poor quality can
also be referred to as:
1. Cost of conformance
2. Failure cost
3. Rework cost
4. Opportunity cost
Justification: Failure costs are often categorized into internal (found by the project) and external (found
by the customer). Failure costs are also called cost of poor quality.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: You are monitoring and recording results of assessing performance and recommending
necessary changes. What do you get from this exercise?
1. Quality control measurements

2. Quality management plan
3. Quality metrics
4. Quality checklists
Justification: You are in the Control Quality process. Quality management plan, Quality metrics and Quality
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: As a project manager, you want to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational
definitions are used for your products. In this context, which of the following tools or techniques would you use to
achieve this objective?
A. Quality audit
B. Process analysis
C. Quality control measurements
D. All quality planning tools and techniques
1. Only A
2. A and B
3. A, B and D
4. All of the above
Justification: Quality control measurements are an input (not tool and technique) for Perform Manage Quality . All
the remaining are valid tools for the Perform Manage Quality process. The Perform Manage Quality process uses the tools
and techniques of the Plan Quality Management and the Control Quality processes.
Reference: PMBOK® Guides 243 (figure 8-8) and 245
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Your company manufactures bearings for the automobile industry. You have historical
information on the identified errors and defects, and you would like to use this information to determine future
performance. An appropriate tool which you can use is:
1. Scatter diagram
2. Statistical sampling
3. Control chart
4. Trend analysis
Justification: Trend Analysis. An analytical technique that uses mathematical models to forecast future
outcomes based on historical results.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In your project, you would like to generate ideas that can be linked to form organized patterns of
thought about a problem. Which one of the following techniques would you use?
1. Force field analysis

2. Affinity diagrams
3. Nominal group techniques
4. Brainstorming
Justification: Affinity diagrams are used to generate ideas that can be linked to form organized patterns of
thought about a problem.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are managing a project to design and implement a process to manufacture components for
internal combustion engines used in the automobile industry. You notice that in the past couple of days too many
defects have been observed. You would like to find out whether the process is stable or unusual events are
occurring in your manufacturing process. For this purpose, you should use:
1. Inspection
2. Pareto charts
3. Statistical sampling
4. Control charts
Justification: Control charts are used to determine whether or not a process is stable or has predictable
performance. Control charts can be used to monitor various types of output variables. Although used most
frequently to track repetitive activities required for producing manufactured lots.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: You are working as a research assistant studying the growth of bacteria under different
environmental conditions. Based on your experiments, you conclude that the longevity of bacteria increases as the
temperature increases. What type of diagram can you use to illustrate your observation?
1. Control chart
2. Run chart
3. Scatter diagram
4. Histogram
Justification: A scatter diagram shows the relationship between two variables.

PMstudy.com comments: We are talking about two variables in the question, i.e., (a) temperature - the independent
variable and b) longevity of bacteria - the dependent variable. The relationship between these two variables can be
illustrated using a scatter diagram. This tool allows the quality team to study and identify the possible relationship
between changes observed in two variables. Dependent variables versus independent variables are plotted. The
closer the points are to a diagonal line, the more closely they are related.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: After joining as a stand-in project manager for an ongoing project, you are informed by the team
that certain features are being added to the deliverable which was not asked for by the customer, to earn
customer appreciation. In this situation:
1. You are concerned, because the project team is gold-plating

2. You are happy, because the project will `exceed customer expectations`
3. You are worried that this is going to increase the project size
4. You are undecided about the increase in the quality metrics of the project
Justification: You should be concerned because the project team is gold-plating, which is not a
recommended project management practice.
Please note that `adding extra functionality beyond project scope` is not recommended by PMI, since a project is
supposed to deliver what is defined in its scope. Similarly, one cannot request for additional sizing for the project
because the customer had never asked for the additional requirements.
Project Risk Management

Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In your project, you are creating a diagram that describes the decision under consideration
and implications of choosing one or another of the available alternatives. This will help to:
1. Get a qualitative analysis of the risk

2. Determine which risks may have the most impact on the project
3. Translate the uncertainties at a detailed level into potential impact on objectives expressed at the level of the total project
4. Determine which decision yields the greatest expected value
Justification: Decision Tree Analysis is a diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the
implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.
PMstudy.com comments: Solving the decision tree indicates which decision yields the greatest expected value to
the decision-maker when all the uncertain implications, costs, rewards, and subsequent decisions are quantified.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: As a project manager, you are concerned with determining which risks may affect the project.
What is the process by which such risks are determined?
1. Plan Risk Management

2. Identify Risks
3. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
4. Plan Risk Responses
Justification: Identify Risks is the process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting
their characteristics.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In your project, you have identified important risks and planned appropriate responses to the risks.
Some risks, such as the possibility of natural disasters impacting the project, have been documented and accepted
in the risk register. What are the remaining risks called?
1. Unidentifiable Risks
2. Residual Risks
3. Secondary Risks
4. Accepted Risks
Justification: Residual risks are those risks that remain after risk responses have been implemented.
Residual risks are expected to remain after planned responses have been taken, as well as those that have been
deliberately accepted.
Reference: PMBOK® Guides 305 and 558
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: Workarounds differ from contingency plans in that:

1. Contingency plans are planned in advance and workarounds are not planned in advance.
2. Workarounds are planned in advance and contingency plans are not planned in advance.
3. Contingency plans include plans for force majeure events, e.g. natural calamities, but workarounds are the residual risks in the
project.
4. Workarounds only include plans for force majeure events, e.g. natural calamities
Justification: Workaround: A response to a threat that has occurred, for which a prior response had not been
planned or was not effective. Contingency plan or Fallback plan includes an alternate set of actions and tasks
available in the event that the primary plan needs to be abandoned because of issues, risks, or other causes.
PMstudy.com comments: Workaround is distinguished from contingency plan in that a workaround is not planned
in advance of the occurrence of the risk event.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: You are the project manager of a project which involves off-shore oil exploration. Since you cannot
plan for all eventualities, you establish a contingency reserve, including amounts of time, money, or resources to
handle the risks. This is an example of:
1. Risk avoidance
2. Risk transfer
3. Active risk acceptance
4. Improper risk planning since all risks should be identified and accounted
Justification: The most common active acceptance strategy is to establish a contingency reserve,
including amounts of time, money, or resources to handle the risks.

Correct Answer: # 1
Question: As part of the risk management process, you have just created an overall risk ranking of the project
and a list of prioritized identified risks which need additional analysis and determined trends in risk analysis results.
What should you do next?
1. Analyze the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives
2. Create a list of identified risks
3. Maintain a risk register
4. Make a list of potential responses to the risks
Justification: Tasks like creating an overall risk ranking of the project, which includes a list of prioritized
risks, identifying which risks need additional analysis and determining trends in risk analysis results are all outputs
of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis (PMBOK® Guide 333). So, the next step is Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
(i.e. analyze the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives) - PMBOK® Guide 333. Please note that
options 2, 3, and 4 refer to outputs from Identify Risks process which has already been completed - PMBOK®
Guide 327.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: In your project, probabilities are estimated and the alternatives are expected to be as follows:
25% probability for $ 25,000 profit
What is the expected profit in your project?
1. $ 40,000
2. $ 50,000
3. $ 51,250
4. $ 53,750
Justification: Expected Profit = Sum of the products of Probability and Profit for all alternatives i.e.
[Sum of (Probability X Profit)] for all the three alternatives
=(0.25 x $ 25,000) + (0.50 x $ 40,000) + (0.25 x $ 100,000)
5. $ 6250 + $ 20,000 + $ 25,000
6. $ 51,250
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Project Risk Management includes all the processes concerned with conducting risk
management planning, identification, analysis, response planning, and controlling risk on a project. In this
context, which of the following statements about risk is not accurate?
1. Risk is an uncertain event or condition.
2. Risks have to be identified and properly managed.
3. Risk management should be done throughout the project.
4. Risk have a negative impact on the project objective.
Justification: The objectives of Project Risk Management are to increase the likelihood and impact of
positive events, and decrease the likelihood and impact of negative events in the project.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You have completed the process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities
and to reduce threats to project objectives. What is your NEXT step?
1. Determine which risks may affect the project and document their characteristics.
2. Implement risk response plans, track identified risks, monitor residual risks, identify new risks, and evaluate risk process effectiveness
throughout the project.

3. Define how to conduct risk management activities for a project.
4. Assess the priority of identified risks using their probability of occurrence.
Justification: Plan Risk Responses is the process of developing options and actions to enhance
opportunities and to reduce threats to project objectives.
Control Risks is the process of implementing. risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual
risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.
The other options take place prior to the Plan Risk Responses process:
Option 1: This refers to the Identify Risks process.

Option 3: This refers to the Plan Risk Management process.
Option 4: This refers to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process.

PMstudy.com comments: Please note that the Control Risks process should follow the Plan Risk Responses process.
So, option 2 is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In your project, the project architect met with an accident and will not be available for the next 3
months. You had not planned for this in risk planning - what should you do NEXT?
1. Create a Workaround
2. Create a Fallback Plan
3. Do additional risk response planning
4. Create a new risk register for this risk
Justification: Workaround. A response to a threat that has occurred, for which a prior response has not
been planned or was not effective.

Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are in the process of creating a risk management plan for your project. This plan will describe
how risk management will be structured and performed on the project. Your risk management plan may include:
1. Avoid, transfer, mitigate, and accept risks

2. Risk audits, reserve analysis, and technical performance measurement
3. Risk audits, triggers, and inputs to other processes
4. Budgeting, timing, and risk categories
Justification: The risk management plan includes the following: methodology, roles and
responsibilities, budgeting, timing, and risk categories.

Option 1: This is done during the Plan Risk Responses process

Option 2: This is done during the Control Risks process
Option 3: This is done during the Identify Risks process
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Which of the following tools and techniques would you NOT use in your project during the Plan
Risk Responses process?
1. Strategies for negative risks or threats

2. Contingent response strategies
3. Expert judgment
4. Simulation
Justification: Simulation is not a tool or technique for the Plan Risk Responses process.
PMstudy.com comments: Modeling and Simulation is used during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You have geographically dispersed team members, from whom you would like to anonymously
obtain expert opinion on the project you are managing. Which information gathering technique should you use?
1. Brainstorming
2. Delphi technique
3. SWOT analysis
4. Checklists
Justification: The Delphi technique is a way to reach a consensus of experts. Project risk experts
participate in this technique anonymously.
PMstudy.com comments: Brainstorming and SWOT analysis are not done anonymously. Checklists are an output
of the Plan Quality process.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are in the build phase of a Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) project, which has run into several
unanticipated problems. Several risks have surfaced which you had not anticipated earlier. The project is over-budget
and significantly behind schedule. What should you do?
1. Create updates to risk response plan

2. Create a revised project plan
3. Perform risk audits
4. Perform updated risk identification and analysis
Justification: Results from earned value analysis may indicate potential deviation of the project at completion
from cost and schedule targets. When a project deviates significantly from the baseline, updated risk identification
and analysis should be performed.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: While managing a project, you decide to create a prototype of your product first to ensure that
it is acceptable to stakeholders before creating your product. This is an example of:
1. Risk mitigation
2. Risk avoidance
3. Simulation
4. Project assumptions testing
Justification: Mitigation may require prototype development to reduce the risk of scaling up from a bench-
scale model of a process or product.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: You are the project manager in an automobile manufacturing company. Machine parts required in
your manufacturing process supplied by a vendor did not reach in time because of heavy rains. You had anticipated
this risk and planned for it in your risk response plan. So, as per your risk response plan, you started using
unutilized machine parts supplied one year ago. However, this has subjected your project to a new risk - the
machine parts which were not used for one year suffer from higher level of defects.
This new risk can also be called:

1. Unidentifiable risks
2. Unmanageable risks
3. Secondary risks
4. Residual risks
Justification: Secondary risk. A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: Based on past estimates, there is a 25% probability for a particular event to occur every year. If a
project lasts for three years, what is the probability of the event happening in the third year?
1. 15.625 %
2. 6.25 %
3. 25%
4. 75%
Justification: The probability of the event happening every year is 25%. So, the probability of the event
happening in the third year is also 25%.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: As a project manager, you estimate that, in your project, there is:
50% probability of earning $40,000 profit
50% probability of incurring $25,000 loss
What is the expected value for the project considering profit and loss possibilities?
1. $32,500
2. $25,000
3. $7,500
4. $7,500
Justification: Expected Profit = Sum of (Probability X Profit) (for each alternative)

5. (0.50 x $40,000) + (0.50 x - $25,000)
6. $20,000 - $12,500
7. $7,500

Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In your project, you have been sub-contracting your IT development work to four consultancy
firms. Which of the following statements about transferring risk to a contractor is not true?
1. Risk transference nearly always involves payment of a risk premium.

2. Fixed price contract always transfers the risk to the seller.
3. Cost-plus contracts may transfer the cost risks to the buyer.
4. Contracts may be used for the transference of liability for specified risks to another party.
Justification: A fixed-price contract may transfer risk to the seller.

PMstudy.com comments: A fixed-price contract transfers risk to the seller if requirements are well defined and
seller has the capacity to handle the risk.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: Your project is now in the executing stage. You are continuously monitoring and controlling
risks to minimize negative risks and to take timely action. Risk audits are helpful in this context because they:
1. Examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses.

2. Help in reassessment of risks.
3. Provide trends in the execution of the project, which can be reviewed using performance data.
4. Provide inputs required for the project planning stage.
Justification: Risk audits examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified
risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You had budgeted $200,000 in your project as contingency reserve. Now, when you are 75% through in
project execution, you notice that the funds in your contingency reserves are down to $20,000. To compare the amount of
contingency reserves remaining in your project to the amount of risk remaining, you should conduct a:
1. Variance analysis
2. Trend analysis
3. Risk assessment
4. Reserve analysis
Justification: Reserve analysis compares the amount of the contingency reserves remaining to the amount
of risk remaining at any time in the project in order to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: You are in the Identify Risks process of your project where you determine which risks may affect
the project and document their characteristics. Who would you want to be a part of the Identify Risks process?
1. The project manager, project team members, subject matter experts, and customers
2. The risk management team, end users, and risk management experts
3. All relevant stakeholders
4. Positively impacted stakeholders
Justification: Participants in risk identification activities may include the following: project manager, project
team members, risk management team (if assigned), customers, subject matter experts from outside the project
team, end users, other project managers, stakeholders, and risk management experts. While these personnel are
often key participants for risk identification, all project personnel should be encouraged to identify potential risks.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In your project, which of the following facilitates the Control Risks process?
1. Reserve analysis
2. Analytical techniques
3. SWOT analysis
4. Assumptions analysis
Justification: Reserve analysis is a tool used during the Control Risks process.
Option 2: Analytical techniques is used in the Plan Risk Management process

Option 3: SWOT analysis is used in the Identify Risks process
Option 4: Assumptions analysis is also used in the Identify Risks process.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are the project manager of a software company developing a new banking software product.
You would like to obtain information from various experts about the risks associated with your project. You decide to
use the Delphi technique because this keeps any one person from having undue influence on the outcome of the
Identify Risks process. The Delphi technique also has the added advantage that it:
1. Finds out a problem, discovers the reasons that led to it, and develops preventive actions.
2. Helps reduce bias in the data.
3. Examines the project from each of the SWOT perspectives to increase the breadth of the identified risks.
4. Provides a qualitative assessment of risk.
Justification: The Delphi technique helps reduce bias in the data and keeps any one person from having
undue influence on the outcome.

Option 1: This is an advantage of "Root cause analysis" technique.

Option 3: This is an advantage of "SWOT analysis".
Option 4: This is not valid in the Identify Risks process (where the Delphi technique is used). It happens in
the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: As part of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process, you, as a project manager, have already
done a sensitivity analysis, created decision trees and done a project simulation using Monte Carlo technique.
However, when you show your results to your manager, she is not happy. She thinks that your analysis is not
acceptable because:
1. Monte Carlo simulations are not a standard methodology used in the company for risk quantification.
2. The quantitative value of identified risks is too high.
3. You have not performed risk audits as part of your project.
4. You have not conducted an interview with the project stakeholders and subject matter experts.
Justification: Interviewing techniques draw on experience and historical data to quantify the probability and
impact of risks on project objectives. The information needed depends upon the type of probability distributions that
will be used... Documenting the rationale of the risk ranges and the assumptions behind them are important
components of the risk interview because they can provide insight on the reliability and credibility of the analysis.
Option 1: This may or may not be true. There is nothing in the question which suggests that Monte Carlo Analysis
should not be used and this is a standard tool for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
Option 2: A high quantitative value of risks does not render the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process
unacceptable.
Option 3: This refers to a tool and technique in the Control Risks (not the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis)
process.
Option 4: This is the correct answer. Since a risk interview was not conducted, the results of the Perform
Quantitative Risk Analysis process will not be dependable.
Project Procurement Management

Correct Answer: # 1
Question: A contract obligates the seller to provide the specified product and obligates the buyer to pay for
it. In this context, which of the following is a mandatory feature of a contract?
1. Mutually binding
2. Complicated
3. Very detailed statement of work
4. Signatures of senior leadership of the buyer
Justification: A contract is a mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified
product, or service or product and obligates the buyer to pay for it.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In your project, you are entering into a fixed-price contract in the form of a purchase order. The
contract is for a specified item to be delivered by a specific date for a specified price. In the contract, the profit is:
1. Determined by the buyer during contract sign-off

2. Determined by the seller during contract sign-off
3. Provided by the buyer to the seller at the end of the project if defined performance criteria are met
4. Not known at the time of the contract sign-off
Justification: Fixed-price contracts involve setting a fixed total price for a defined product or service or result
to be provided.
PMstudy.com comments: The profit is not known at the time of contract sign-off; only the fixed price of the contract is
determined at that time.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: Which of the following is a hybrid type of contractual arrangement?

1. Time and material contracts
2. Fixed-price contracts
3. Cost-reimbursable contracts
4. Fixed price with redetermination
Justification: The time and material contracts are a hybrid type of contractual management that contain
aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In your project, your subcontracting requirements of the machining of high-value equipment are
very demanding. Hence, you have determined the technical criteria to evaluate the sellers. This is an example of:
1. Objective evaluation criteria
2. Source selection criteria
3. Statement of work
4. Work breakdown structure
Justification: Selection criteria are developed and used to rate or score seller proposals, and can be
objective or subjective.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In your project, you are preparing procurement documents to seek proposals from prospective sellers.
Which of the following statements about procurement documents are accurate :
A. The buyer structures the procurement documents to facilitate an accurate and complete response
from prospective sellers.
B. Requests to potential sellers to submit a proposal or bid is formally issued in accordance with the policies of
the buyer`s organization.
C. With government contracting, some or all of the content and structure of procurement documents can be
defined by regulation.
D. The term `proposal` is usually used when the seller selection decision will be based on price.
1. B, C and D
2. Only B and C
3. All of the Above
4. A, B and C
Justification: Terms such as bid, tender, or quotation are generally used when the seller selection decision
will be based on price (as when buying commercial or standard items), while a term such as proposal is generally
used when other considerations such as technical capability or technical approach are paramount.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are performing a make-or-buy analysis. In which of the following cases would you not prefer
making the product/service in-house?
1. The item under consideration is a capital item which can be used for other projects in the same organization (in other words, there
is an ongoing need for the item).
2. Your organization is going through a slack period, and some resources, who can produce the product in-house, are underutilized.
3. The item under consideration is a proprietary or business critical product which is a part of the core business for the company.
4. The item under consideration is not part of your core business, but your company has the skills for developing the product in-
house, if required.
Justification: If it is a non core item, it may make sense to consider outsourcing as an option, as it may be
cheaper than making the item in-house.

Correct Answer: # 1
Question: You are considering whether to buy or make a software product. If you want to buy, the cost is $80,000,
and the cost of procuring and integrating the product in your company is $1,000. If you want to build it yourself, the product
will require seven engineers working for three months. The salary of each software engineer is $4,000 per month. The
other related miscellaneous costs allocated to the project are $2,000. Which option will you choose?
1. Buy
2. Build
3. Neither build nor buy
4. Need more information on suppliers to make a decision
Justification: If you buy, the cost is: $80,000 + $1,000 = $81,000. If you build, the cost is: $4,000 x 7 x 3 +
$2,000 = $86,000. So, it is preferable to buy.
Reference: PMstudy.com Study Notes
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: As a buyer, during Control Procurements, you have recently conducted an audit of your seller to
determine weaknesses in the seller`s processes that need to be corrected. You want to document the results of
the audit and the communications with the seller. This should be done using:
1. Performance reports
2. Correspondence
3. Change requests
4. Procurement audits
Justification: Correspondence: Contract terms and conditions often require written documentation of certain
aspects of buyer/seller communications, such as the need for warnings of unsatisfactory performance and requests
for contract changes or clarification. This can include the reported results of buyer audits and inspections that
indicate weaknesses the seller needs to correct.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You would like to obtain information, quotations, bids, offers, or proposals from sellers as part of
the Conduct Procurements process. In this process, which of the following is the most critical?
1. Determine whether a product should be purchased or manufactured in-house.

2. Ensure that prospective sellers clearly understand the technical and contract requirements.
3. Clarify the structure and requirements of the contract.
4. Prepare an independent estimate to verify the proposed price structures of the sellers.
Justification: Bidder conferences (sometimes called contractor conferences, vendor conferences, and pre-
bid conferences) are meetings between the buyer and all prospective sellers prior to submittal of a bid or proposal.
They are used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement
(both technical and contractual requirements), and that no bidders receive preferential treatment.

Option 2: This is the correct answer.

Option 1: This refers to a make-or-buy analysis, which is performed during the Plan Procurement management
process
Option 3: This refers to procurement negotiations, which are performed during the Conduct Procurements process.
This succeeds the activity specified in option 2.
Option 4: This refers to independent estimates, a technique used in the Conduct Procurements process.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Which of the following is the most widely used contract type?
1. Cost plus incentive fee contracts
2. Fixed price incentive fee contracts
3. Cost plus award fee contracts
4. Firm fixed price contracts
Justification: The most commonly used contract type is the Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP).
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: If you would like to compare different suppliers and rate their proposals for the purpose of
procurements, you should use:
1. Bidder conferences
2. Selected sellers
3. Procurement documents
4. Source selection criteria
Justification: Source selection criteria are developed and used to rate or score seller proposals, and
can be objective or subjective.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: A contract where the buyer reimburses the seller the costs incurred by her and also provides a
fixed amount of profit is called a:
1. Cost plus incentive fee contract

2. Cost plus fixed fee contract
3. Time and material contract
4. Cost plus award fee contract
Justification: In Cost plus fixed fee contracts (CPFF), the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for
performing the contract work, and receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated
project costs. Fee amounts do not change unless the project scope changes.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In which of the following cases is a contract NOT legally binding?

1. The seller is not able to produce goods as part of the contract.
2. The signatory to the contract leaves the company.
3. The buyer is not able to satisfy financial obligations.
4. The contract violates the law of the land.
Justification: A contract is a legal relationship subject to remedy in the courts. A contract containing
provisions that violate the law of the land is not enforceable in the courts of law.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: You have contracted some work to a vendor, and would like to identify successes and failures
that warrant recognition in the preparation or administration of other procurement contracts within the
performing organization. This can be performed through:
1. Procurement audit
2. Contract file
3. Contract performance reporting
4. Lessons learned documentation
Justification: A procurement audit is a structured review of the procurement process originating from the Plan
Procurement Management process through Control Procurements. The objective of a procurement audit is to identify
successes and failures that warrant recognition in the preparation or administration of other procurement contracts on
the project, or on other projects within the performing organization.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In your project, you wish to manage procurement relationships, monitor contract performance, and
make changes and corrections as needed. Which of the following would you not use?
1. Agreements
2. Work performance data
3. Approved change requests
4. Project schedule
Justification: Project schedule is an input to the Plan Procurement Management process; all the other
options are inputs to Control Procurements process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guides 358 and 379 (figures 12-2 and 12-6, respectively)
Project Stakeholder Management
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: The responsibility of stakeholder expectations management usually lies with the:
1. Project management team
2. Project manager
3. Project team
4. Project manager, project sponsor, and project management team
Justification: The project manager is responsible for engaging and managing the various
stakeholders in a project.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide , 405-406
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You, as the project manager, are planning to document relevant information on interests,
involvement, influence, and impact of project stakeholders. Which of the following processes should you follow?
1. Stakeholder Analysis
2. Plan Communications Management
3. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
4. Identify Stakeholders
Justification: Option 1: Stakeholder Analysis is a technique used to identify and classify stakeholders and
their interests. It is used when identifying stakeholders; however, it is not the name of the process itself.
Option 2: Plan Communications Management is the process of determining the information needs of the project
stakeholders and defining a communication approach to satisfy those needs.
Option 3: Manage Stakeholder Engagement is an executing process which involves working with stakeholders to
meet their expectations. The current project is in the initiating phase as stakeholder-related details are just being
gathered.
Option 4: Identify Stakeholders is the process used to identify all those people or organizations impacted by the project
and document relevant information on their interests, involvement, and impact on the success of the project.

Correct Answer: # 3
Question: In your project, you actively manage stakeholders engagement in order to meet their needs
and expectations. Doing this is very beneficial, however, it may not help to:
1. Increase the likelihood of stakeholders` acceptance of the project goals

2. Influence and negotiate expectations of stakeholders to achieve project goals
3. Ensure stakeholders` awareness of all project details
4. Uncover and discuss stakeholder issues and concerns
Justification: Manage Stakeholder Engagement involves communicating and working with project
stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations. Actively managing the expectations and engagement of
stakeholders should increase the likelihood of project acceptance and support, and should also minimize
stakeholder resistance. This process also involves negotiating and influencing stakeholders in favor of achieving the
project goals. Addressing concerns that have not yet become issues and anticipating future problems is useful for
managing project risks. Doing all this however, does not ensure that stakeholders are fully aware when they should
be, and in fact, it is not always desirable for stakeholders to be aware of ALL project details.
Option 3 (i.e., Ensure stakeholders` awareness of all project details) is not recommended. The project
manager should try to manage information, so that only appropriate and relevant information reaches the
appropriate stakeholders.
Reference:PMstudy.com comments
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are the project manager in a pharmaceutical company and you are involved in
managing stakeholders
1. Organizational process assets updates

2. Change requests
3. Project management plan updates
4. Stakeholder Management Plan
Justification: The Stakeholder Management Plan is created as part of the Plan Stakeholder Management
process. The other options are all outputs of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process, which is the process
being described.

Correct Answer: # 4
Question: You are in the process of identifying the relevant stakeholders in the project. In this context, which of
the following is/are relevant output(s) of this process?
1. Stakeholder register and Stakeholder Management Plan

2. Stakeholder Management Strategy
3. Organizational process assets updates
4. Stakeholder register
Justification: The output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the Stakeholder register.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide , 392, figure 13-1
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all people or organizations impacted by the
project and to document:
1. Stakeholder interests, involvement, and impact on project success

2. Stakeholder needs and address issues as they occur
3. Project requirements from stakeholders
4. Stakeholder needs and define a communication approach
Justification: Option 1: This is the correct answer. Project stakeholders are persons or organizations such as
customers, sponsors, the performing organization, and the public who are actively involved in the project, or
impacted by it.
Option 2: Manage Stakeholder Engagement is the process to communicate and work with stakeholders to meet
their needs and address issues as they occur.
Option 3: Collect Requirements is the process where project requirements are gathered and documented.
Option 4: Plan Communications Management is the process which is used to determine the project
stakeholder information needs and to define a communication approach.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: Stakeholder analysis is used to systematically gather and analyze quantitative and
qualitative information on stakeholders
1. Stakeholders are identified based on degree of interest

2. Stakeholder register templates are created
3. Stakeholders are influenced to gain support and reduce negative impact
4. Stakeholder registers from previous projects are used
Justification: Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and
qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project. It identifies the
interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them to the purpose of the project.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide , s 395 and 396
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: During the Identify Stakeholders process, the project manager identifies all people or organizations
impacted by the project, and documents relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, and impact on
project success. Once identified, a plan needs to be created to keep stakeholders engaged throughout the project.
In this context, which of the following statements is incorrect about stakeholder management?
1. Stakeholders exert influence over the project and its deliverables

2. It is critical for project success to identify stakeholders early in the project
3. All critical stakeholders should be engaged at the same time
4. A strategy or approach may be developed for engaging each stakeholder
Justification: It is critical for project success to identify the stakeholders early in the project, and to analyze
their levels of interest, expectations, importance and influence. A management strategy can then be developed for
engaging stakeholders and determining appropriate levels and timing of involvement to maximize positive
influences and mitigate potential negative impacts. Stakeholders should therefore be engaged at the appropriate
time, not necessarily at the same time.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: While identifying stakeholders, you plan to group project stakeholders based on their level of
authority and their active involvement in the project. You can do this by using:
1. Power/Interest grid
2. Power/Influence grid
3. Influence/Impact grid
4. Salience model
Justification: There are multiple classification models used for stakeholders analysis, such as:
1. Power/interest grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (power) and their level of
concern(interest) regarding the project outcomes;
2. Power/influence grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority (power) and
their active involvement (influence) in the project;
3. Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement (influence) in the
project and their ability to effect changes to the project’s planning or execution (impact); and
4. Salience model, describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will),
urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
Reference: PMBOK® Guide , 396
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: As the project manager, you are currently involved in monitoring stakeholder relationships and
adjusting plans for their engagement. Which process are you currently working in?
2. Control Stakeholder Engagement
3. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
4. Plan Stakeholder Management
Justification: Control Stakeholder Engagement is the process of monitoring overall project

stakeholder relationships and adjusting strategies and plans for engaging stakeholders.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: If you are describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will),
urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate), this can be referred to as:
1. Group decision technique

2. Salience model
3. Power/Influence grid
4. Influence/Impact grid
Justification: Salience model describes classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their
will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In your project, while identifying stakeholders, you want to create a Stakeholder Register. In this
context, this document should NOT contain which of the following?
1. Identification information
2. Assessment information
3. Stakeholder classification
4. Stakeholder management strategy
Justification: Stakeholder register is the main output of the Identify Stakeholders process. This contains all
details related to the identified stakeholders including, but not limited to:
Identification information: Name, organizational position, location, role in the project, contact information;
Assessment information: Major requirements, main expectations, potential influence in the project, phase in the life
cycle with the most interest; and
Stakeholder classification: Internal/external, supporter/neutral/resistor, etc.

PMstudy.com comments: The stakeholder management strategy would be incorporated into the stakeholder
management plan.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: Which of the following is NOT a valid input for the Identify Stakeholders process?
1. Enterprise environmental factors
2. Procurement documents
4. Project charter
Justification: The project scope statement is not created until the scope has been defined (Define Scope
process). Stakeholders must be identified first and requirements collected before the project scope statement is
created. The other options are all potential inputs to the Identify Stakeholders process.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are the project manager of a $20 million project, and you are struggling to manage the needs
of all the stakeholders. You decide to classify the stakeholders, which you hope will enable you to focus on the
relationships necessary to ensure the success of the project. In this context, which of the following is NOT a factor
that you should consider while classifying stakeholders?
1. Stakeholders’ interest in the project

2. Hierarchy of the organization
3. Stakeholders’ involvement in the project
4. Stakeholders’ influence on the project
Justification: Most projects will have a diverse number of stakeholders depending on their size, type and
complexity. While the project manager`s time is limited and should be used as efficiently as possible, these
stakeholders should be classified according to their interest, influence, and involvement in the project.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In your project, you use an issue log or action item log to document and monitor the resolution of issues.
You focus on documentation and timely resolution of issues because unresolved issues can:
1. Be escalated to the project sponsor

2. Be a major source of conflict
3. Become undetermined risks in the project
4. Have adverse effect on all project parameters
Justification: Issues are clearly stated and categorized based on urgency and their potential to impact the
project. An owner is assigned an action for resolution, and a target date is usually established for closure. Unresolved
issues can be a major source of conflict and project delays.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Two project team members have resigned from your company. However, you are able to negotiate
with functional managers in your organization to quickly acquire two more resources as substitutes. From a
stakeholder management point of view, this can be referred to as:
1. Pre-assignment
2. Corrective action
3. Approved change request
4. Resolved issue
Justification: Unavailability of resources is an issue, and by getting two appropriate resources quickly, you
were able to resolve the issue quickly.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: During the Identify Stakeholders process, which document may provide some initial idea of who
the stakeholders are for a project?
1. Communications management plan

2. Project charter
3. Human resource contracts
4. Responsibility assignment matrix
Justification: The project charter is an input to the Identify Stakeholder process which provides some
initial information about the project’s stakeholders, such as the sponsor, customer(s), team members, and
groups/organizations involved in, or affected by the project.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: Which of the following would NOT be considered a useful Organizational Process Asset
when identifying stakeholders?
1. Lessons learned from previous phases

2. Stakeholder register templates
3. Stakeholder registers from previous projects
4. Organizational culture for identifying stakeholders
Justification: Stakeholder register templates, lessons learned from previous projects or phases, and
stakeholder registers from previous projects are all examples of Organizational Process Assets useful during the
Identify Stakeholders process. Organizational culture is an Enterprise Environmental Factor to be considered, not
an Organizational Process Asset.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: Which of the following is used to classify critical stakeholders on a project as a "manage
closely" approach?
2. Plan Stakeholder Management
3. Stakeholder Analysis
4. Plan Communications Management
Justification: During the Identify Stakeholders process, stakeholder analysis is a technique used to gather
and analyze information to determine the project stakeholders. This technique includes the classification of
stakeholders. The Power/Interest Grid is one model which can be used for this purpose.
Stakeholders who have a high level of authority (power) and high level of concern (interest) regarding the project
outcomes, fall into the "Manage Closely" quadrant of the Power/Interest Grid (please refer PMBOK® Guide , 397,
figure 13-4).
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: It is important for the project manager to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project life
cycle in order to ensure support of the project
1. Compare current to planned stakeholder engagement levels

2. Keep stakeholders satisfied
3. Engage stakeholders
4. Analyze the effectiveness of the Stakeholder Management Plan
Justification: The current engagement levels of all stakeholders needs to be compared to the planned
engagement levels required for successful project completion.The project team needs to identify the desired
engagement level for the current phase of the project, based on available information.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: It is important to gather and analyze all relevant information to determine all project stakeholders
and what their respective interests, expectations, and influences are. It is also useful to identify stakeholder
relationships that might enhance the project
1. Stakeholder Directory
2. Stakeholder Analysis Matrix
3. Stakeholder Register
4. Stakeholder Management Plan
Justification: The Stakeholder Register is a project document which includes all the details related to the
identified project stakeholders, such as identification, assessment, and classification information.
Option 1: The Stakeholder Directory may be used as another name for the Stakeholder Register, but the
PMBOK® Guide does refer to this document as the Stakeholder Register.
Option 2: Stakeholder Analysis is used to gather and analyze information to determine the project’s stakeholders
and then classify them in order to identify an approach strategy. A variety of models can be used to analyze and
classify stakeholders, including the Power/Interest Grid, Power/Influence Grid, Influence/Impact Grid, and Salience
Model. Results from the analysis are documented in the Stakeholder Register, not the Stakeholder Analysis Matrix.
Option 4: The Stakeholder Management Plan is a subsidiary plan that defines the processes, procedures, tools,
and techniques to effectively engage stakeholders throughout the project.
Project Integration Management

Correct Answer: # 2
Question: In your project, you create a document to record the code of account identifier, description of
work, responsible organization, and schedule milestones. This document can be referred to as:
1. WBS
2. WBS dictionary
3. PERT/CPM charts
4. Roles and responsibilities matrix
Justification: Information in the WBS dictionary may include, but is not limited to, code of account
identifier, description of work, assumptions and constraints, responsible organization, schedule milestones,
associated schedule activities, resources required, cost estimates, quality requirements, acceptance criteria,
technical references, and agreement information.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide132
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: In your project, you are in the process of leading and performing the work defined in the project
management plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project`s objectives. This is done during:
1. Direct and Manage Project Work

2. Develop Project Management Plan
3. Monitor and Control Project Work
4. Create Deliverables
Justification: Direct and Manage Project Work is the process of leading and performing the work defined
in the project management plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project`s objectives.
PMstudy.com comments: Please note that option 4 (Create Deliverables) is not a process.
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: You are preparing a document using project statement of work, business case, agreements,
enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. These are valid inputs for:

2. Direct and Manage Project Work
3. Develop Project Charter
4. Perform Integrated Change Control
Justification: Project statement of work, business case, agreements, enterprise environmental

factors, and organizational process assets are inputs for the Develop Project Charter process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide66, figure 4-2
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: In your project, you are performing several actions to execute the project management plan
and to complete the work defined in the project scope statement. You will be involved in:
1. Identifying corrective or preventive action to control the project performance

2. Settling or closing any contract agreement established for the project
3. Creating a document that will formally authorize the project
4. Collecting information about the completion status of the deliverables and other relevant details about project performance.
Justification:
Option 4: During project execution, the work performance data is collected and appropriately actioned and
communicated. Work performance data includes information about the completion status of deliverables and other
relevant details about project performance.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide Fifth Edition, page 81
Option 1: This is done as part of the Monitor and Control Project Work process, and not during the project
execution phase.
Option 2: This is done as part of Close Procurements process, which is part of the project closure activities.
Option 3: The project charter formally authorizes the project. This document is created in the initiating stage
before project execution.
Correct Answer: # 4
Question: A project manager wants to update a project management plan. You suggest that the updated
project management plan should include:
1. Work performance information and enterprise environmental factors

2. Expert judgment and change control tools
3. Final product, service, or result transition and organizational process assets updates
4. Quality management plan, cost, and schedule baselines
Justification: Option 4: Project management plan elements that may be updated include, but are not
limited to: scope management plan, requirements management plan, schedule management plan, cost
management plan, quality management plan, scope baseline, schedule baseline, and cost baseline.
Option 1: Work performance information and enterprise environmental factors are some of the inputs used in
Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Option 2: Expert judgment and change control tools are some of the tools and techniques used in Perform
Integrated Change Control process.
Option 3: Final product, service, or result transition and organizational process assets updates are the outputs
from the Close Project or Phase process.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide Fifth Edition, page 93 (for option 4) and page 65, figure 4-1 (for options 1, 2, and 3).
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are the project manager of a pharmaceutical company responsible for releasing a new drug in
the market. While managing the project, you have created several documents (e.g., project management plan; risk
registers and other registers; project calendars; change management documentation; etc.). All these documents
should be stored in:
1. Historical information
2. Project files
3. Project or phase closure documents
4. Configuration management system
Justification: Option 2: Project files - Documentation resulting from the project`s activities, for example,
project management plan; scope, cost, schedule, and project calendars; risk registers and other registers;
change management documentation; planned risk response actions; and risk impact.
Option 1: Historical information and lessons learned information are transferred to the lessons learned
knowledge base for use by future projects or phases.
Option 3: Project or phase closure documents, consisting of formal documentation that indicates completion of the
project or phase and the transfer of the completed project or phase deliverables to others, such as operations
group or to the next phase.
Option 4: The configuration management system is a collection of formal documented procedures, which are used
to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to: identify and document the functional and physical
characteristics of a product,result, service, or component; control any changes to such characteristics; record and
report each change and its implementation status; and support the audit of products, results, or components to
verify conformance to requirements.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide Fifth Edition, page 104 (for options 1, 2 and 3) and page 532 (for option 4).
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: When does the project manager review prior phase documentation and customer
acceptance documentation from the Validate Scope process?
1. Close Project or Phase

2. Control Scope
3. Control Quality
4. Perform Quality Assurance
Justification: Option 1 is the correct answer.

Option 1: During project closure, the project manager reviews prior phase documentation, customer
acceptance documentation from the Validate Scope process and the contract (if applicable), to ensure that all
project requirements are completed prior to finalizing the closure of the project.
Option 2: Control Scope is the process of monitoring the status of the project and project scope and
managing changes to the scope baseline.
Option 3: Control Quality is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities
to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
Option 4: Perform Quality Assurance is the process of auditing the quality requirements and the results from
quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.
Reference: PMBOK® Guide Fifth Edition, page 104 (for option 1), page 136 (for option 2), page 248 (for option
3), and page 242 (for option 4).
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: As a project manager, you are using the configuration management system to centrally manage
approved changes and baselines within the project. What are the configuration management activities that you
will include in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
1. Configuration accounting and verification and audit

2. Configuration identification, status accounting, and configuration accounting
3. Configuration identification, status accounting, and verification and audit
4. Configuration verification, configuration identification, and risk forecast
Justification: Some of the configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change Control
process are... This ensures the functional requirements defined in the configuration documentation have been met.
Reference: PMBOK® Guidepages 96 and 97
Correct Answer: # 3
Question: Stakeholders, including consultants, customers, sponsors, and professional and technical
associations, are some of the sources of:
1. Enterprise environmental factors

2. Organizational process assets
3. Expert judgment
4. Risk monitoring and control
Justification: Expert judgment: Additional expertise is available from many sources, including: other units
within the organization; consultants and other subject matter experts (internal and external); stakeholders,
including customers, suppliers, or sponsors; and professional and technical associations.
Correct Answer: # 2
Question: You are the project manager for a construction project, and 121 people report to you. Your job
requires that you allocate work to others and ensure that the work is done on time. The tool you use is:
1. Work Breakdown Structure

2. Work Authorization System
3. PERT / CPM / Network diagrams
4. WBS dictionary
Justification: Work Authorization System: It is a collection of formal documented procedures that defines
how project work will be authorized (committed) to ensure that the work is done by the identified organization, at the
right time, and in the proper sequence. It includes the steps, documents, tracking system, and defined approval
levels needed to issue work authorizations.
orrect Answer: # 2
Question: The director (information systems) in your company is in the process of creating a project
charter to formally authorize a new project in your company. In this context, what should be done FIRST?

2. Identify a project manager for the project
3. Acquire Project Team
4. Integrate the work of the project with the ongoing operations of the performing organization
Justification: A project manager is identified and assigned as early in the project as is feasible...
This understanding will better allow for efficient resources allocation to project activities.
Option 1: Develop Project Management Plan is done only after the project charter is ready.
Option 3: Acquire Project Team is done after preparing the project charter and after preparing human
resource management plan.
Option 4: This is required in the closing stages of the project and is not relevant for creation of the project charter.
Correct Answer: # 1
Question: The project team has successfully delivered the final component of a year long project on-budget
and ahead of schedule. You, as the project manager, have been offered a promotion due to this great success. The
final product has been transitioned into production and post-implementation support requirements have been
completed. As part of project closure, what would be done NEXT?
1. Create project closure documents

2. Release project team
3. Update Organizational Process Assets
4. Validate Scope
Justification: Project closure documents would be completed next, before the project team is released, and
before other Organizational Process Assets are updated.
Option 2: Releasing project team members should be one of the last activities in the Close Project or Phase process.
You may need them to help with the closure activities.
Option 3: Project closure documents are part of Organizational Process Assets updates. However, in the given
scenario, the most appropriate answer is to create the closure documents first and then update Organizational
Process Assets.
Option 4: Validate Scope is conducted prior to Close Project or Phase process.

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150 Questions for Final Examination

Project Scope Management

Project Scope Management

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 133 and 134

1. At the beginning of the project

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 135.

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 137

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 124

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 105

1. Which product requirements will be incorporated

Reference:PMBOK® Guide - 109

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - s 105 and 106 (figure 5-1)

1. Impact request statements

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 137

1. Scope management plan

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 106 (figure 5-1)

Option 2: The Scope baseline is an output of the Create WBS process.

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 134

1. Project Scope Statement

PMstudy.com comments: Activity list is not a component of the scope baseline.

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 123

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 135

1. Ignore the customer, since he already accepted the product.

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 135

Justification: When a project is performed under an agreement, contractual provisions will

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 124

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 8

1. Project scope statement

1. Reject the change

1. Evaluate the impact of the change within the team.

1. Put the particular requirement through the change control process

Reference: PMstudy.com comments

Reference: PMBOK® Guide - 530

Project Schedule Management

1. Influencing the factors that create schedule changes

1. Published estimating data

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 153 (figure 6-7)

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 157

1. Schedule management plan

Reference: PMstudy.com comments

1. Show activity start and end dates

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 182

Justification: A lag directs a delay in the successor activity.

1. Increase the timeline for the project.

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 181

A. Activities not to be performed as part of the project

B. Activities that are to be performed as part of the project

D. Activities that are required for the project

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 152

Justification: The different types of estimates are:

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 149

Justification: Schedule networks may have multiple near-critical paths.

Justification: The different types of estimates are:

Reference: PMstudy.com study notes

Justification: Milestone is a significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio.

Reference: PMBOK® Guides 160 and 161 (figure 6-12)

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 176

3. Determining the start and finish dates for each activity

Justification: In a normal distribution, the PERT duration (also called mean)

Reference: PMstudy.com study notes

Reference: PMstudy.com study notes

1. Critical path method

Reference: PMBOK® Guide 173, figure 6-16