NKC Problem Solving Neet Exercise

NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
ELECTROSTATICS
ETOOSINDIA
INDIA’S NO. 1 ONLINE COACHING
Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar,
Kota, Rajasthan – 324005 Mob. : 9214233303
ETOOSINDIA N.K.C. SIR
EXERCISE-I
1. A solid metallic sphere has a charge + 3Q. Concentric charge 
with this sphere is a conducting spherical shell having
O a
density  is given as
charge –Q. The radius of the sphere is 'a' and that of
the spherical shell is 'b' (b > a). What is the electric field
2 
at a distance R (a < R < b) from the centre ? (1) (2)
0 a 0 a
4Q 3Q
(1) 2 (2)  
2 0 R 4 0 R 2 (3) (4)
2  0 a  0 a
3Q Q 5 . As shown in the fig. charges + q and

(3) 2 (4)
2 0 R 2 0 R – q are placed at the vertices B and
A
A
2 . Figure below show regular hexagon, C of an
I
the charges are placed at the vertices. isosceles triangle.
In which of the following cases the The potential at the B C
D
electric field at the centre is zero.
vertex A is +q –q
5q 4q q –q
1 2q
N
(1) . (2) zero
6q 3q –q q 4  0 a 2  b 2
q
2q
q
I
2q
2q
q q
q
2q
II
q
2q
S I
6 . An
with
1
( 3 ) 4  . 2
0
q
a  b2
electron
its
enters
velocity in
(4)
an
the
electric
1
direction
.
q
4  0 a 2  b 2
field
of
O
the electric lines of field then :–
2q 2q 2q q (1) the path of the electron will be
III IV a circle
O
(1) IV (2) III (2) the path of the electron will be
(3) I (4) II a parabola
T
3 . Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed (3) the velocity of the electron will
decrease just after enter
at the vertices of a right-angle
(4) the velocity of the electron will
E
Q increase just after enter
isoscelestriangle as
7 . Electric charge is uniformly
shown in figure. The
distributed along a long straight wire
net electrostatic
+q +q of radius 1 mm. The charge per cm.
energy of the a
length of the wire is Q coulomb.
configuration is zero.
Q is equal to
Another cylindrical
q 2q
(1) (2) surface of radius 50 1m
1 2 2 2
cm. and length 1 m.
(3) –2q (4) +q symmetrically
50cm
encloses the wire as
4 . Electric field at the centre 'O' of a shown in fig. The
semicircle of radius 'a' having linear total flux passing through the
cylindrical surface is :–
Plot No. 38, Near Union Bank of India, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Page # 2
axis with a velocity 10m/s. Its speed in m/s after 10s

Q 100 Q
(1) (2) is (Neglect gravitation)
0 0
(1) 10 (2) 5 2
10 Q 100 Q
(3) (4) (3) 10 2 (4) 20
 0  0
8. If in a region V = 4x2 volt then electric field at (1, 0, 2) 1 4 . 64 small drops of mercury, each of
m. is – radius 'r' and charge q are combined
(1) 8 V/m, towards (–x) axis to form a big drop. The ratio of the
surface density of the charge of each
(2) 8 V/m, towards (+x) axis
small drop to that of a big drop is
(3) 4 V/m, towards (–x) axis : –
(4) 4 V/m, towards (+x) axis
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
A
9. Two equal negative charges – q, are placed at points
I
(0,a) and (0,–a) on y axis, one positive charge q at rest (3) 1 : 64 (4) 64 : 1
is left to move from point (2a, 0). This charge will be
 
(1) execute S.H.M. about the origin. 1 5 . Consider E 1 = x î + y ĵ and E 2 = xy 2 î +
D
(2) oscillate but not execute S. H. M.
(3) move towards origin and will become stationary. x 2 y ĵ then :
(4) S. H. M. along x axis.
N
(1) only E1 is electrostatic
10. A charge q is placed in the middle of a line joining the
I
two equal and like point charges Q. This system will (2) only E2 is electrostatic
remain in equilibrium for which the value of q is –
(3) both are electrostatic
S
Q Q
(1)  (2)  (4) none
3 4
Q Q 1 6 . How many times, the potential of big
(3) (4) 
O
2 2 drop in comparison to small drops
–8
11. A ball of mass 1g and charge 10 C moves from a point A which is made of 8
(VA = 600 V) to the point B whose potential is zero. Velocity droplets will be, if all the droplets
of the ball at the point B is 20 cm s–1. The velocity of the
O
are identical and having equal charge ?
ball at the point A is :–
(1) 16.7 ms–1 (2) 16.7 cm s–1 (1) 2 times (2) 4 times
T
(3) 2.8 ms–1 (4) 2.8 cm s–1 (3) 3 times (4) 8 times
12. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has 1 7 . Identical charges (– q) are placed at
E
potential V at a point, distant 5 cm from its centre, each cornes of a cube of side 'b' then E.P.E. of charge (+
then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the q) which is placed at centre of cube will be :
centre will be :  4 2 q2  8 2 q2
(1) (2)
0 b 0 b
3
(1) 3V (2) V
2
 4 q2 8 2 q2
(3) (4)
3 0 b 4 0 b
2 1
(3) V (4) V
3 3 18. A proton is accelerated through
potential difference of 1 V then KE
1 3 . There is a uniform electric field of
of proton will be :–
strength 10 3 V/m along
(1) 1840 eV (2) 0.1 eV
y–axis. A body of mass 1 g and charge
10 –6 C is projected into the field 1
(3) 1 eV (4) eV
from origin along the positive x– 1840
19. An electric dipole is situated in an electric field of uniform (1) q. E and p. E (2) zero and minimum
intensity E whose dipole moment is p and moment of
(3) q. E and maximum (4) 2q. E and minimum
inertia is I. If the dipole is displaced then the angular
frequency of its oscillation is 24. The electric field due to a uniformly charged sphere
1 3 of radius R as a function of the distance from its centre
 pE 2  pE 2 is represented graphically by
(1)   (2)  
 I   I 
1 1
 I 2  p 2 E E
(3)   (4)   (1) (2)
 pE   IE 
O R r O R r
2 0 . If the electric flux entering and
leaving an closed surface respectively
is 1 and 2 the electric charge inside
E E
A
the surface will be (3) (4)
I
(1) ( 1 + 2 )  0 (2) ( 2 – 1 )  0
O R r O R r
1  2 2  1 25. In the basic CsCl crystal structure, Cs+ and Cl– ions are
(3) (4)
0 0 arranged in a bcc configuration as shown below.The
D
net electrostatic force exerted by the eight Cs+ ions
2 1 . A thin spherical conducting shell of on the Cl– ion is
radius R has a charge q. Another point
(1) zero
N
charge Q is placed at the centre of
I
16 e 2
+ +
the shell. The electrostatic potential 1 Cs Cs
(2) 4   2
0 3a + +
R Cs Cs
at a point p a distance from the a
S
2 1 32 e 2 Cl
–
(3) 4   2
centre of the shell is 0 3a Cs
+
Cs
+
q  Q  2 2Q 1 4e2
O
(1) (2) (4) Cs
+ a Cs+
4 0 R 4 0 R 4  0 3 a 2
2Q 2q 2Q q 26. Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and current (A) as
(3)  (4) 
O
4 0 R 4 0 R 4 0 R 4 0 R fundamental quantities, the dimension of permittivity
is
2 2 . Three charges –q 1 , +q 2 and –q 3 are
T
placed as shown in the figure. The x– (1) ML–2T2A (2) M–1 L–3 T4 A2 (3) MLT–
2
component of the force on –q1 is proportional to : A (4) ML2T–1A2
2 7 . Two charges q 1 and q 2 are placed 30cm
E
–q3 y
apart, as shown in the figure.
a  q3
b A third charge q 3 C
x
–q1 +q2 is moved along the
q2 q3 q2 q3 arc of a circle 40cm
(1) 2
 2
sin  (2) 2
 2
cos  of radius 40cm
b a b a q1 q2
from C to D. The change
q2 q3 q2 q3 A 30cm BD
(3)  sin  (4)  cos  in the potential energy of
b2 a2 b2 a2 the system is
2 3 . An electric dipole has the magnitude
q3
of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is
4 0 k, where k is :–
placed in a uniform electric field E. If its dipole moment
(1) 8q2 (2) 6q2
is along the direction of the field, the force on it and
(3) 8q1 (4) 6q1
its potential energy are respectively :–
28. As per this diagram a point charge +q is placed at the

origin O. Work done in taking another point charge –Q qQ qQ
(3) (4)
2  0 L 6  0 L
from the point
y 31. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If
 is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with
A [coordinates (0, a)] A
to another point B the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane
[coordinates(a,0)] surface A in units of voltmeter will be
along the straight x
O B
path AB is
B
qQ 1
(1) ( )
4  0 a 2 2 a (2) zero
C A
A
qQ 1 1 qQ 1
(3) ( 4   2
) (4) ( 4   2
)
2a
I
0 a 2 0 a
2 9 . Two cocentric conducting thin q 1q 

(1)  (2) 2   
spherical shells A, and B having radii 0  0 
D
r A and r B (r B > r A ) are c harged
q 
to Q A and –Q B ( | Q B | > | Q A | ). The (3) (4)
2 0 3
electrical field along a line,
N
(passing through the centre) is: 32. Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed at points
I
(x = 0, y = a, z = 0),(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a,
y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction
S
of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge
(1)
assembly are :–
(1) 2 qa along + x direction
(2)
O O (2)
(3)
2 qa along + y direction
2 qa along the line joining points
T
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(3)
(4) qa along the line joining points
E
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
33. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by:
(4) V = –x2y – xz3 + 4


The electric field E at that point is :-
3 0 . Charges +q and –q are placed at points
A and B respectvely which are a distance 2L apart, C 
R (1) E = î (2xy – z3) + ĵ xy2 + kˆ 3z2x
is the mid point between A and B.


A C B D (2) E = î (2xy + z3) + ĵ x2 + kˆ 3xz 2
The work done in moving a charge +Q along the 

(3) E = î 2xy + ĵ (x2 + y2) + kˆ (3xz – y2)
semicircle CRD is :–

qQ qQ (4) E = î z3 + ĵ xyz + kˆ z2
(1)  (2)
6  0 L 4  0 L
34. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated

by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between
the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion 1 2q
(1) (1  5 ) +q –q
will be (e being the charge on an electron) : 4  0 L
A
4  0 Fd 2 4  0 Fd 2
(1) (2) 1 2q  1 
q2 e2 (2) 1  
4  0 L  5 +q –q
4  0 Fe 2 4  0 Fd 2 1 2q  1 
(3) 2 (4) 2 (3) 1  
d e 4  0 L  5
(4) Zero
A
35. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper
3 8 . Three charges each +q are placed at
I
is placed in a uniform electric field
the corners of an isosceles triangle
E (volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle 
ABC of sides BC and AC, 2a. D and
with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure. E are the mid points of BC and CA.
D
The electric flux linked to the surface, in units of volt– The work done in taking a charge Q
m, is :- from D to E is :-
A
N
3qQ
E (1) 4   a
I
0

E
3qQ
(2)
S
8  0 a
B C
D
(1) Zero (2) EL2 qQ
(3) 4  0 a
O
(3) EL2cos (4) EL2sin
3R (4) Zero
36. The electric field at a distance from the centre of 3 9 . The electric potential V at any point
2
O
a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E. The (x, y, z), all in meters in space
is given by V = 4x 2 volt. The electric
R
electric field at a distance from the centre of the field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/
T
2
meter, is :-
sphere is :-
(1) 8 along negative X-axis
E (2) 8 along positive X-axis
E
(1) E (2)
2 (3) 16 along negative X-axis
(4) 16 along positive X-axis
E 4 0 . Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q
(3) (4) Zero
3 are placed, one at each corner of the
3 7 . Four electric charges + q, +q, – q square. The relation between Q and
and – q are placed at the corners q for which the potential at the centre
of a square of side 2L(see figure). The electric potential of the square is zero is :
at point A, midway between the two charges +q and
1
+q, is - (1) Q = q (2) Q =
q
1
(3) Q = –q (4) Q = 
q
41. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given

charges of – 1 × 10–2 C and 5 × 10–2 C, respectively.
If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final
charge on the bigger sphere is :-
(1) 4 × 10–2 C (2) 1 × 10–2 C
(3) 2 × 10–2 C (4) 3 × 10–2 C
I A
N D
S I
O O
E T
ANSWER KEY EXERCISE - I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 2 2 3 3 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41
Ans. 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 4 1 3 4
EXERCISE–II
1 . Charge Q distributed on two concentric 5 . Which one of the following pattern of
metallic shells of radii 'r' and 'R' electric line of force can't possible
in such a way that their surface charge : –
densities are the same. Electric
potential at their common centre would
(1) (2)
be :–
Q(r  R ) Q(r  R )
(1) 2 (2)
4  0 R 4(r  R 2 )  0
2
(3) (4)
Q Q(r  R )
(3) 2 2 (4) 4  0
4 (r  R ) 6 . A solid conducting sphere having a
A
charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged
I
2 . A charge q = 10 –6 C of mass 2 g (fig.) concentric conducting spherical
shell. Let the potential difference
is free to move then calculate its between the surface of the solid sphere
D
speed, when it is at a distance of b. and that of the outer surface of the
shell be V. If the shell is now given
Q a q a charge of -3Q the new potential
difference between the same two
N
fixed b
surfaces is
I
[Assume a = 1 m, (1) V (2) 2V
(3) 4V (4) -2V
b = 10 m, Q = 10 –3 C]
S
7 . Two balls carrying charges +7µC and –
(1) 90 m/s. (2) 9 m/s.
5µC attract each other with a force
(3) 900 m/s. (4) none of these F. If a charge –2µC is added to both,
the force between them will be :–
O
3 . Force between two identical spheres
F
charged with same charge is F. If 50% (1) F (2)
2
charge of one sphere is transferred
O
(3) 2F (4) zero
to second sphere then new force will
be :– 8 . Four charges 2C, – 3C, –4C and 5C
T
respectively are placed at all the
3 3 corners of a square. Which of the
(1) F (2) F
4 8 following statements is true for the
E
point of intersection of the diagonals
3 : –
(3) F (4) none of these
2 (1) E = 0, V = 0 (2) E  0, V = 0
(3) E = 0, V 0 (4) E  0, V  0
4 . Two charges are placed as shown in
9 . Three charges q, 2q and 8q are to be
fig. Where should be a third charge placed on a 9 cm long straight line.
be 9e 16e Where the charges should be placed so
70cm
that the potential energy of this
placed so that it system is minimum :–
remains in rest
(1) q charge between 2q and 8q charges
condition :– and 3 cm from charge 2q
(1) 30cm from 9e (2) 40cm from 16e (2) q charge between 2q and 8q charges
(3) 40cm from 9e (4) (1) or (2) and 5 cm from the charge 2q.
(3) 2q charge between q and 8q charges
and 7cm from the charge q. (1) 1500 volt (2) – 1500 volt
(4) 2q charge between q and 8q charges (3) 0.15 volt (4) none of these
and 9 cm from the charge q.
1 4 . In a region of space the electric
1 0 . In the electric field of

charge Q, another charge field is given by E= 8 i + 4 j +3 k .
is carried from A to B,
A to C, A to D and A to The electric flux through a surface
E, then work done will of area of 100 units in x–y plane is
be :– : –
B A (1) 800 units
(2) 300 units

Q 
(3) 400 units
A
C
E (4) 1500 units
D
(1) minimum along
(2) minimum along

(3) minimum
(4) zero along
along
all
path AB
path AD
path
the
AE
paths
1 5 . Fig. shows field lines of an electric
field, the line
D
spacing parallel
the page is same every where. If the
magnitude of the field at A is 40 N/
C, then the magnitude of the field
at B is approximately
to
I
1 1 . The
is
electric
given by
field
 K
in
E  ( 3 )iˆ . The
x
a certain region
dimensions
I N y B
(y 2x)
S
A
of K are–
(1) MLT –3 A –1 (2) ML –2 T –3 A –1
O
(3) ML 4 T –3 A –1 (4) dimensionless
(1) 40 N/C
1 2 . Two charges of equal magnitude q are
placed at a distance 2a. Another charge (2) 80 N/C
O
q of mass m, is placed midway between
(3) 20 N/C
the two charges on X–axis. If this
(4) can not be determined
T
charges is displaced from equilibrium
state to a distance x(x << a), then
1 6 . Semicircular ring of radius 0.5 m. is
the particle :–
uniformly charged with a total charge
E
(1) will execute simple harmonic of 1.4  10 –9 C. The electric field
motion about equilibrium position
intensity at centre of this ring is
(2) will be oscillating about : –
equilibrium position but will not
execute simple harmonic motion (1) zero (2) 320 V/m.
(3) will not return back to the
(3) 64 V/m. (4) 32 V/m.
equilibrium position
(4) will stop at equilibrium position 1 7 . A point charge q of mass m is located
at the centre of a ring having radius
1 3 . 15 joule of work has to be done
against an existing electric field R and charge Q. When it is displaced
to take a charge of 0.01 C from A to slightly, the point charge accelerates
B. Then the potential difference (V B along the x–axis to infinity, the
– V A ) is :– ultimate speed of the point charge :–
2 1 . A point particle of mass M is attached

2kQq kQq
(1) (2) to one end of a massless rigid non-
mR mR
conducting rod of length L. Another
point particle of same mass is attached
kQq to the other end of the rod. The two
(3) (4) zero
2 mR
particles carry charges +q and & q
1 8 . The electric field in a region of repectively. This arrangement is held
in a region of uniform electric field
space is given by E = (5 i + 2 j )N/C.
E such that the rod makes a small
The electric flux due to this field
angle  (< 5 0) with the field
through an area 2m 2 lying in the YZ
plane, in S.I. units is:– direction. The minimum time needed
for the rod to become parallel to the
A
(1) 10 (2) 20
field after it is set free. (rod
I
(3) 10 2 (4) 2 29 rotates about centre of mass)
1 9 . The total flux associated with given ML ML
D
(1) 2 (2) 
cube will be - 2qE 2qE
where 'a' is side of cube :–
N
1  ML ML
= 4   9  10 9 )
I
( (3) (4) 4
0 2 2qE 2qE
2 C a 1 C
S
2 2 . A particle of mass m and charge q is
4 C
released from rest in an electric
3 C
field E. Then the K. E. after time t
6 C
O
5 C will be:
a
8 C a
7 C 2E 2 t 2 E 2 q 2 t2
(1) (2)
mq 2m
O
(1) 162  × 10 –3 Nm 2/C
(2) 162  × 10 3 Nm 2/C Eq 2 m Eqm

(3) (4)
T
2t 2 2t
(3) 162  × 10 –6 Nm 2/C
(4) 162  × 10 6 Nm 2/C 2 3 . Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a
E
distance r. The distance of the point
2 0 . Two identical small spheres carry
where the electric field intensity
charge of Q 1 and Q 2 with Q 1 >>Q 2 . The
will be zero, is :–
charges are d distance apart. The
force they exert on one another is
r
F 1 . The spheres are made to touch one (1) from 9e charge
another and then separated to distance (1  3 )
d apart. The force they exert on one
another now is F 2 . Then F 1 /F 2 is :– r
4Q 1 Q1 (2) 1 from 9e charge
(1  )
(1) (2) 3
Q2 4Q 2
4Q 2 Q2 r
(3) (4) (3) from 3e charge
Q1 4Q 1 (1  3 )
2 8 . The force on a charge situated on the

r axis of a dipole is F, if the charge
(4) 1 from 3e charge is shifted to double the distance,
(1  )
3 the acting force will be –
F
2 4 . A charge Q is divided in two parts Q 1 (1) zero (2)
2
and Q 2 and these charges are placed
at a distance R. There will be maximum F F
repulsion between them when (3) (4)
4 8
Q Q Q 2 9 . For the given figure the direction of
(1) Q 1  , Q2 
R R electric field at A will be :
L X
2Q Q (1) towards AL
(2) Q1  ,Q2 
3 3 A
A
(2) towards AY Y
I
(3) towards AX Z
3Q Q
(3) Q 1  ,Q2  Q –Q
4 4 (4) towards AZ
B C
3 0 . The electric potential in some region
D
Q
(4) Q1  Q 2 
2 is expressed by V = 6x – 8xy 2 – 8y +
6yz – 4z 2 volt.
2 5 . Electric field at a distance x from
N
The magnitude of force acting on a
charge of 2 C situated at the origin
I
100
origin is given as E = , then will be :–
x2
(1) 2 N (2) 6 N
potential difference between points
S
(3) 8 N (4) 20 N
situated at x = 10 m and x = 20 m. 3 1 . A point charge is placed at a distance
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V
a
(3) 15 V (4) 4V perpendicular to the plane and
O
2
2 6 . As shown in figure, on bringing a above the centre of a square of side
charge Q from point A to B and from B a. The electric flux through the square
O
is :–
to C,
C
the work done are 2 q q
(1) (2)
T
joule and – 3 joule 0  0
respectively. The work A B
done in bringing the q q
(3) (4)
E
4 0 6 0
charge from C to A will
be
3 2 . A circle of radius R is drawn in a
(1) – 1 joule (2) 1 joule uniform electric field E as shown in
the fig. V A , V B , V C and V D are
(3) 2 joule (4) 5 joule
respectively the potential of point
2 7 . Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are A, B, C and D at the periphery of the
suspended using separate threads. circle then
Pairs (1,2); (2,4) and (4,1) show
electrostatic attraction, while pairs A
(2,3) and (4,5) show repulsion. The
ball 1 may be D B
(1) positively charged
(2) negatively charged
C
(3) either (+ve) or (–ve)
(4) neutral
(1) VA > VC, VB = VD 35. The electric potential V is given as a function of distance
(2) V A < V C , V B = V D x (metre) by V = (5x2–10x–9) volt. Value of eletric field
at x = 1 m is :–
(3) V A = V C , V B < V D
(1) 20 V/m (2) 6 V/m
(4) V A = V C , V B > V D
(3) 11V/m (4) zero
3 3 . A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm
3 6 . Two identical thin rings, each of
is charged with 10  C. another
radius R meters, are coaxially placed
uncharged sphere of radius
at a distance R meters apart. If Q 1
20 cm is allowed to touch it for some
coulomb and Q2 coulomb are
time after two spheres are separated,
respectively the charges uniformly
then surface density of the charge on
spread on the two rings, the work
the sphere will be in the ratio of :
done in moving a charge q from the
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
centre of one ring to that of other
A
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
is:–
I
3 4 . Two infinitely long parallel wires (1) zero
having linear charge densities  1 and
2 respectively are placed at a q(Q 1  Q 2 )( 2  1)
D
(2)
distance of R. The force per unit ( 2.4 0 R )
length of an either wire will be :–
N
k2 1 2 k2 1 2 q 2 (Q 1  Q 2 )
(1) (2) (3)
I
2 (4 0 R )
R R
k 1 2 1 2
(3) (4) q(Q 1  Q 2 )( 2  1)
R2
S
R (4)
( 2 .4 0 R )
O O
E T
ANSWER KEY EXERCISE - II
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
A ns. 2 1 1 4 3 1 1 2 1 4 3 1
Que. 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
A ns. 1 2 3 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 2 4
Que. 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
A ns. 1 2 4 4 2 4 4 3 1 2 4 2
EXERCISE-III
1. Two positive point charge of 12 C and 8 C are 10 7. The electric field, at a distance of 20 cm from the centre
cm apar t. T he work done in bringing them of a dielectric sphere of radius 10 cm is, 100 V/m.
4 cm closer is, Then E at 3 cm distance from the centre of sphere is :–
(1) 1.3 eV (2) 13 J (1) 100 V/m (2) 125 V/m
(3) 5.8 J (4) 5.8 eV (3) 120 V/m (4) zero
2 . In the fig. force on charge at A in 8 . An elementary particle of mass m and

the direction normal to BC will be :– charge +e is projected with velocity
qA v at a much more massive particle of
charge Ze, where Z > 0. What is the
a a
closest possible approach of the
A
q q incident particle.
I
B a C
Ze 2 Ze
kq kq 2 (1) (2)
(1)  2 (2)  2
2 0 mv 2
4 0 mv 2
a 2a
3 .
(3)
kq
2a 2
2
(4)
3kq
a2
A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm
2
(3)
8 0 mv
N D
Ze 2
2 (4)
Ze
8 0 m v 2
I
is charged such that the potential on
its surface is 10 volts. The electric 9 . Three point charges are placed at the
field at the centre of the sphere corners of an equilateral triangle.
S
will be Assuming only electrostatics forces
are acting–
(1) 50 volt / meter
O
(2) 10 volt / meter (1) if the charges have different
magnitudes and different signs, the
(3) 5 volt / meter
system will be in equilibrium.
(4) zero
O
4. A cube of metal is given a charge (+ Q), which of the (2) the system will be in equilibrium
following statements is true : if the charges have the same
T
(1) potential at the surface of cube is zero magnitudes but different signs.
(2) potential within the cube is zero
(3) the system can never be in
E
(3) electric field is normal to the surface of the cube
equillibrium.
(4) electric field varies within the cube
(4) the system will be in equillibrium
5. In Millikan's oil drop experiment, which of the following
if the charges rotate about the
charges can be present on the oil drops–
centre of the triangle.
(1) 0.1e, charge equal to that on  –particles
(2) 2e, 1.6 x 10–19 C 1 0 . Two copper balls, each having weight
(3) 2e, 1.6 x 10–19 C, 2.5e 10 g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If
(4) 1.5 e, e one electron from every 106 atoms is transfered from
6. If V = axy then electric field at a point proportional to one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them
:– is (atomic weight of copper is 63.5) :–
(1) r (2) r–1
(1) 2.0 × 108 N (2) 2.0 × 106 N
(3) r–2 (4) r2
(3) 2.0 × 1010 N (4) 2.0 × 104 N
11. (–10–6) C charge is on a drop of water having mass 10– 18. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed
6 at a distance of 16 cm. Net force on each charge is zero
kg. What amount of electric field is applied on the
drop so that it is in the balanced condition with its q
then value of is
weight :– (1) 10 V/m upward m
0
(1)  (2)
(2) 10 V/m downward G
(3) 0.1 V/m downward G

(3) 40 (4) 4 0 G
(4) 0.1 V/m upward 1 9 . A charge q is placed at the centre of
12. Two point charges + 9e and +e are kept 16 cm. apart a closed cub. The flux emitting from
to each other. Where should a third charge q be placed any one face of the cube will be
between them so that the system remains in the Q Q
equilibrium state :– (1) (2)
A
6 0 3 0
(1) 24 cm from + 9e
I
Q Q
(2) 12 cm from + 9e (3) (4)
0 4 0
(3) 24 cm from + e 2 0 . Conservation of charge is a consequence
D
(4) 12 cm from + e o f
 (1) Columb law
13. When an electric dipole p is kept in a uniform electric (2) Gauss law
N
  (3) continuity equation
field E then for what value of the angle between p (4) Hygen's wave equation
I

and E , torque will be maximum :– 2 1 . Equipotential surface associated with
(1) 90° (2) 0° an electric field which is increasing
S
in magnitude along the x–direction,
(3) 180° (4) 45°
are
14. Some positive charge is given to a conductor. Then its
potential :– (1) is maximum at surface (1) planes parallel to yz–plane
O
(2) planes parallel to xy–plane
(2) is maximum at centre
(3) planes parallel to xz–plane
(3) remain same throughout the conductor
O
(4) coaxial cylinders of increasing radii around the x–
(4) is maximum somewhere between surface and centre
axis
15. Potential inside a hollow charged sphere is :–
T
2 2 . An isolated conducting sphere of radius
(1) uniform r has given a charge q, then its P.E.
(2) proportional to a distance from centre will be :
E
(3) inversly proportional to the distance
q2 q2
(4) inversly proportional to square of distance (1) (2) 2 0 r
4 0 r
16. There is a neutral metallic sphere. Some one wants to
develop 1 Faraday charge on it. How much number of q q2
electron has to removed from the sphere ? (3) 8  0 r (4)
8 0 r
(1) 9 × 109 (2) 6.023 × 1023
2 3 . An electron travels a distance of 0.10
(3) 8.85 × 10–12 (4) 6 × 1018 m in an electric field of intensity
17. Four charges +Q, –Q, +Q and –Q are situated on the 3200 V/m, enters perpendicular to the
corners of a square then at the centre of square field with a velocity 4  10 7m/s, w hat
(1) E=0, V=0 (2) E=0, V  0 is its deviation in its path :
(1) 1.76 mm. (2) 17.6 mm.
(3) E  0, V=0 (4) E=0, V0 (3) 176 mm. (4) 0.176 mm.
24. A square surface of side L metre is in the plane of the 29. Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b and c(a

paper. A uniform electric field E (volt/m),also in thee < b < c) and have surface charge densities , –and 
plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower half of respectively. If VA, VB and VC denote the potentials of
the square surface, (see figure). The electric flux in SI the three shells, then, for c = a+b, we have :-
units associated with the surface is :– (1) V C = V B = V A
(2) V C = V A  V B
E (3) V C = V B  V A
(4) V C  V B  V A
2
(1) zero (2) EL 3 0 . A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian
spherical surface of radius R. If the
EL2 EL2
(3) (4) radius is doubled, then the outward
2 0 2 electric flux will :-
A
2 5 . An electric dipole of dipole moment (1) Increase four times
I

p is lying along a uniform electric (2) Be reduced to half

field E . The work done in rotating (3) Remain the same
the dipole by 90° is :– (4) Be doubled
D
(1) 2pE (2) pE 3 1 . What is the flux through a cube of
pE side 'a' if a point charge of q is
(3) (4)
N
2pE
2
at one of its corner :
I
2 6 . Two parallel large thin metal sheets
have equal surface charge densities(  q q
= 26·4 × 10 –12 C/m 2 ) of opposite (1) (2) 6a 2
S
0 2 0
signs. The electric field between
these sheets is
(1) 1·5 N/C 2q q
O
(2) 1·5 × 10 –10 N/C (3)  (4) 8 
0 0
(3) 3 N/C
(4) 3 × 10 –10 N/C 3 2 . An electrical dipole of moment 'p'
O
2 7 . Two charges are +2µC and –5µC. Find is placed in an electric field of
the ratio of forces acting on each,
intensity 'E'. The dipole acquires a
T
is :–
position such that the axis of the
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 2
dipole makes an angle  with the
E
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 25
direction of the field. Assuming that
2 8 . The electric potential at a point in the potential energy of the dipole
free space due to a charge Q coulomb
to be zero when  = 90°, the torque
is Q × 10 11 volts. The electric field
and the potential energy of the dipole
at that points is :-
(1) 4  0 Q × 10 20 volt/m will respectively be :-
(2) 12  0 Q × 10 22 volt/m (1) p E sin , 2p E cos 
(3) 4  0 Q × 10 22 volt/m (2) p E cos , –p E sin 

(4) 12  0 Q × 10 20 volt/m
(3) p E sin , –p E cos 
(4) p E sin , –2p E cos 
ANSWER KEY EXERCISE - III

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 3 4 4 3 2 1 3 1
Que. 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. 3 1 2 2 1 3 1 2
Que. 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Ans. 1 4 1 3 1 4 1 1
Que. 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
A
Ans. 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 3
D I
I N
O S
TO
E
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
CAPACITOR
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE–I
1. A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy (1) 22 F (2) 26.6 F
stored is U. After disconnecting battery another ca-
(3) 52.2 F (4) 13 F
pacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel
with it. Then energy stored in each 6. An automobile spring extends 0.2 m for 5000 N load.
capacitor is: The ratio of potential energy stored in this spring when
it has been compressed by 0.2 m to the potential energy
(1) U/2 (2) U/4
stored in a 10 F capacitor at a potential difference of
(3) 4 U (4) 2 U 10000 V will be :
2. Minimum number of 8 F and 250 V capacitors
used to make a combination of 16 F and 1000 V 1
(1) (2) 1
are : 4
A
(1) 32 (2) 16
I
1
(3) 8 (4) 4 (3) (4) 2
2
3. Three capacitors of capacitance 3 F, 10 F and
D
15F are connected in series to a voltage source of 7 . In the given figure the steady state
100V. The charge on 15  F is : current is
(1) 50  C (2) 160  C
N
2
I
(3) 200  C (4) 280  C (1) zero
4 . Two capacitors A and B are connected
(2) 0.6 A 3
in series with a battery as shown in
S
the figure when the switch S is closed C=0.2F
(3) 0.9 A
and the two capacitors get charged
I 4
fully, then (4) 1.5 A
O
2F 3F
2.8 
6V
A B
O
8. The charge on capacitors shown in fig. and the
potential difference across each will be respectively
10 V S
T
C2
(1) The p.d. across the plates of A C1
is 4 V and across the plates of B 2F
E
is 6V
3F C3
(2) The p.d. across the plates of A 4F
is 6 V and across the plates of B
is 4 V
120 V
(3) The ratio of electrical energies
stored in A and B is 2 : 3 (1) 240  C, 80  C, 160  C and 80 V, 40
(4) The ratio of charges on A and B V, 40 V
is 3 : 2 (2) 300  C, 75  C, 150  C and 40 V, 80
5. In a capacitor of capacitance 20 F the distance V, 60 V
between the plates is 2mm. If a dielectric slab of (3) 220  C, 70  C, 140  C and 60 V, 50
width 1 mm and dielectric constant 2
V, 40 V
is inserted between the plates, then
the new capacitance will be : (4) none of these
9. Two materials of dielectric constant k1 and k2 are filled 12. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 are charged
between two parallel plates of a capacitor as shown in with charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. On bringing them
figure. The capacity of the capacitor is : in contact there is :–
(1) No change in the energy of the
system
k1 k2 (2) An increase in the energy of the
system if Q 1 R 2  Q 2 R 1
(3) Always a decrease in energy of
A 0 (k 1  k 2 ) the system
(1)
2d
(4) A decrease in energy of the system
2A 0  k1 k 2  if Q1R2  Q2R 1
(2)  
d  k1  k 2 
A
1 3 . When the key is pressed at time t = 0
I
A 0  k1 k 2  then which of the following statement
(3)   about the current i in the resistor
d  k1  k 2 
AB of the given circuit is true:
D
A 0  k1  k 2  K A B
(4)  
2d  k1 k 2  1000
2V
N
1 0 . Two capacitors C 1 = 2  F and C 2 = 6  F i 1000
<
1F C
I
in series, are connected in parallel
to a third capacitor
C3 = 4 F. This arrangement is then connected to a
S
(1) at t = 0, i = 2mA and with time it
battery of e.m.f. = 2V, as shown in the fig. How goes to 1 mA
much energy is given by the battery in charging the (2) i oscillatets between 1 mA and 2
capacitors :– mA
O
(3) i = 2mA at all t
C1 C2
(4) i = 1 m A at all t
1 4 . The capacity of a parallel plate air
C3
O
capacitor is 10  F. As show n in the
figure this capacitor is divided into
2V
T
two equal parts, these parts are filled
by media of dielectric constants K 1=2 and K 2=4,
(1) 22  10 – 6 J (2) 11  10 – 6 J capacity of this arrangement will be:
11. A
(3)
EFG 32 IJ  
H3K
solid
10
conducting
–6
J
R 1 is surrounded by another concentric

hollow conducting
R2.
sphere of radius
The capacitance of
(4)
sphere
FG 16 IJ  
H3K
this
of
10 –6
radius
assembly
J
15.
(1) 20  F
(2) 30  F
(3) 10  F
(4) 40  F
d


A/2
K1
An air capacitor of capacity C = 10 F is connected to

a
b
A/2
K2
a constant voltage battery of 12 V. Now the space

is proportional to :–
between the plates is filled with a liquid of dielectric
R 2  R1 R 2  R1 constant 5. The additional charge that flows now from
(1) R 1R 2 (2) R 1R 2 battery to the capacitor is -
(1) 120 C (2) 600 C
R 1R 2 R 1R 2
(3) R  R (4) R  R (3) 480 C (4) 24 C
1 2 2 1
16. A parallel plate capacitor has the space between its ` have a capacitance 4F each. If the capacitor C2 has a
plates filled by two slabs of thickness d/2 each and capacitance 10F, then effective capacitance between
dielectric constant K1 and K2.6 d is the plate separation A and B will be :
of the capacitor. The capacitance of the capacitor is :-
(1) 2F (2) 4F
2 0 A  K 1  K 2  (3) 6F (4) 8F

(1)  
d  K 1K 2 
21. A capacitor of 0.2 F capacitance is charged to 600 V.
2 0 A After removing the battery, it is connected with a 1.0
(2) (K 1 +K 2 )
d F capacitor in the parallel then the potential of ca-
pacitor will become :–
2 0 A  K 1 K 2 
(3)  
d  K1  K2  (1) 300V (2) 600V
A
2 0 d  K 1  K 2  (3) 100V (4) 120V
I
(4)  
A  K 1K 2 
22. If potential difference across a capacitor is changed from
1 7 . Two charged spheres having radii a and 15 V to 30 V, work done is W. The work done when
D
b are joined with a wire then the potential difference is changed from 30 V to 60 V, will
ratio of electric field E a /E b on their be :
surface is :-
(1) W (2) 4W
N
(1) a/b (2) b/a
I
(3) 3 W (4) 2 W
(3) a 2/b 2 (4) b 2/a 2
23. The combination of capacitors with C1=3F, C2 = 4 F
1 8 . A capacitor of capacity C 1 charged upto
and C3 = 2 F is charged by connecting AB to a battery.
S
V and then connected to an uncharged
capacitor of capacity C 2. Then final Consider the following statements:
potential difference across each will (I) Energy stored in C 1 = Energ y stored
be in C2+ Energy stored in C3
O
(II) Charage on C 1 = Charge on C2 +
C2 V C1 V
(1) (2) Charge on C 3
C1  C 2 C1  C 2
(III) Potential drop across C1 =
O
Potential drop across C 2 = Potential
 C2   C2 
(3) 1   (4) 1   drop across C 3 Which of these is
C 1  .V
T
 C1  
are correct :
1 9 . A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm
C3
E
is charged with 10  C. Another
uncharged sphere of radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it
for some time. After that if the sphere are separated, A B
then surface density of charged on the spheres will be C1
in the ratio of : (1) 1 : 4
C2
(2) 1 : 3
(1) I and II
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
20. In the given figure, the capacitors C1, C3, C4, C5 (2) II only
(3) I and III
(4) III only
24. Three capacitors each of capacity 4 F are to be 28. The electric field between the plated of a parallel plate
connected in such a way that the effective capacitance capacitor when connected to a certain battery is E0. If
is 6 F. This can be done by :- the space between the plates of the capacitor is filled
by introducing a material of dielectric constant K without
(1) connecting all of them in series disturbing the battery conncetions, the field between
(2) connecting them in parallel the plates shall be :
(3) connecting two in series and one in parallel (1) KE0
(4) connecting two in parallel and one in series (2) E0
d E0
25. A slab of copper of thickness is introduced between (3)
2 K
(4) None of the above
the plates of a parallel plate capacitor where d is the
seperation between its two plates. If the capacitance 2 9 . A 40 µF capacitor in a defibrillator
of the capacitor without copper slab is C and with copper is charged to 3000 V. The energy stored
A
in the capacitor is sent through the
C'
I
slab is C' then is :- (1) 2 patient during a pulse of duration
C
2 ms. The power delivered to the
(2) 2 patient is
D
(1) 45 kW (2) 90 kW
1
(3) 1 (4) (3) 180 kW (4) 360 kW
2
30. Two capacitor with capacity C1 and C2, when connected
N
2 6 . Between the plates of parallel plate
in series, have a capacitance Cs and when connected in
I
capacitor of capacity C two parallel parallel have a capacitance Cp. Which of the following
plates of the same metal and area same is true:
as the plates of the original
S
C 1C 2
capacitor are placed. If the thickness of each plate is (1) Cs = C1+C2 (2) Cp =
C1  C 2
1
equal to th of the distance between the plates of thee
O
5 C s C1
(3) C  C (4) CsCp=C1C2
original capacitor then the capacity of the new capacitor p 2
5 31. A network of four capacitors
O
is :- (1) C
3
T
3 of capacity equal to
(2) C
5 C 1 =C, C 2 =2C, C 3 =3C and
C 4 =4C are connected to
E
3 10
(3) C (4) C a battery as shown in the
10 3
figure. The ratio of the
27. The charge on any one of the 2F capacitors and 1F charges on C2 and C4 is –
capacitor will be given respectively (in C) as :
7 22
(1) (2)
(1) 1,2 4 3
(2) 2,1 3 4
(3) (4)
22 7
(3) 1,1
(4) 2,2
32. A parallel plate capacitor C has a charge q and potential 37. Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown
V between the plates. Work required to double the voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance and
distance between the plates is : breakdown volatage of the combination will be :-
1 1 2
(1) CV2 (2) CV C V
2 4 (1) 3C, 3V (2) ,
3 3
2
1 V V C
(3) C  (4) CV2
2 2 (3) 3C, (4) , 3V
3 3
33. Two metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 are connected
38. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1,
by a thin wire. If + q1 and + q2 are the charges on the
two spheres then : is charged by a source of potential difference 4V. When
q 1 R 12 q1 R1 another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of
(1)  (2) 
q 2 R 22 q2 R 2 value C2, is charged by a source of potential difference
A
V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first
q 1 R 13 q1 
R 12  R 22 
I
(3)  (4) q  combination has. The value of C2, in terms of C1, is
q 2 R 32 2 
R 12  R 22  then :-
34. Five capacitors, each of capacitance value C are connected
D
as shown in the figure. The ratio of capacitance between 16C 1 2C 1
P and R, and the capacitance between P and Q is – (1) n n (2) n n
1 2 1 2
(1) 3 : 1
N
(2) 5 : 2
I
n2 n2
(3) 2 : 3 (3) 16 n C1 (4) 2 n C 1
1 1
(4) 1 : 1
S
39. Two parallel metal plates having charges + Q and – Q
35. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential face each other at a certain distance between them. If
difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the
O
battery the distance between the plates of the capacitor electric field between the plates will :-
is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the (1) Increase
potential difference between the plates :- (2) Decrease
(1) Decreases
O
(3) Remain same
(2) Does not change (4) Become zero
(3) Becomes zero 40. A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field
T
(4) Increases E(V/m) in the space between the plates. If the distance
36. Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other of between the plates is d(m) and area of each plate is A(m2)
C the energy (joules) stored in the condenser is :-
E
capacity , are connected to a V-volt battery, as
2
shown. 1
(1) E2Ad/0 (2) 0 E 2
2
1
(3) 0EAd (4) 0 E 2 Ad
2
The work done in charging fully both the condensers
is :-
1
(1) CV2 (2) 2 CV2
2
1 3
(3) CV2 (4) CV2
4 4

Qu e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
An s. 2 1 3 2 2 2 4 1 1 1
Qu e. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
An s. 4 4 1 2 3 2 2 2 3 2
Qu e. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
An s. 3 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 2 4
Qu e. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
An s. 3 1 2 3 4 4 4 1 2 4
I A
N D
S I
O O
E T
EXERCISE-II
1. A glass slab is put with in the plates of a charged 6. The energy density in a parallel plate capacitor is
parallel plate condenser. Which of the following given as 2.1 × 10–9 J/m3. The value of the electric
quantities does not change : field in the region between the plates is :
(1) energy of the condenser (1) 2.1 NC–1
(2) capacity (2) 21.6 NC–1
(3) intensity of electric field (3) 72 NC–1
(4) charge (4) 8.4 NC–1
2. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery 7. The two parallel plates of a condenser have been
and inserted a dielectric plate between the place connected to a battery of 300 V and the charge
A
of plates then which quantity increase : collected at each plate is 1  C. The energy sup-
I
(1) potential difference (2) electric field plied by battery is :
(3) stored energy (4) E.M.F. of battery (1) 6 × 10–4J
D
(2) 3 × 10–4J
3. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery af-
–4
ter charging the capacitor, battery is disconnected and (3) 1.5 × 10 J
if a dielectric plate is inserted between the place of (4) 4.5 × 10–4J
N
plates. Then which one of the following statements is
I
8. The equivalent capacitance between the points A
not correct :
and B in the given diagram is :
(1) increase in the stored energy
(1) 8 F
S
(2) decrease in the potential difference 2F
(2) 6 F A B
(3) decrease in the electric field
8
O
(4) increase in the capacitance (3) F 2F 2F
3
2F
4. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery
after charging the capacitor, battery is disconnected 3
O
(4) F
and decrease the distance between the plates then 8
which following statement is correct :
T
9. In an adjoining figure are shown three capacitors
(1) electric field is not constant
C1, C2 and C3 joined to battery. The correct condi-
(2) potential difference is increased tion will be :
E
(3) decrease the capacitance
V1C1Q1 V2C2Q2
(4) decrease the stored energy
5. A parallel plate capacitor has rectangular plates of

400 cm2 and are separated by a distance of 2 mm V3C3Q3
with air as medium. What charge will appear on V
+ –
the plates. If a 200 volt potential difference is ap-
plied across the condenser :
(1) 3.54 × 10–6C (1) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and V1 = V2 = V3 = V
(2) 3.54 × 10–8C (2) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1+ V2 + V3
(3) 3.54 × 10–10C (3) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2

(4) 1770.8 × 10–13C (4) Q2 = Q3 and V2 = V3
(Symbols have their usual meanings)
10. Seven capacitors each of capacitance 2 F are to 13. An air capacitor, a capacitor with a dielectric and a
capacitor with a conducting slab (thickness one half
10
be so connected to have total capacity F . the separation introducing between the plates of
11
parallel plate air capacitor in both case) has capac-
Which will be the necessary figure as shown : ity C1, C2 and C3 respectively then :
(1) C1 > C2 > C3
(2) C2 > C3 > C1
(1) (3) C3 > C2 > C1
(4) C3 > C1 > C2
14. Two spheres of radii R1 and R2 have equal charge
are joint together with a copper wire. If V is poten-
tial on each sphere after they are separated to each
A
other, then initial charge on any sphere was :
(2)
(3)
(1)
(2)
V
2k
V
k
R 1  R 2 
D
R 1  R 2  I
(4)
I
(3)
V
3k
N
R1  R 2 
S
11. An infinite number of identical capacitors each of V  R 1R 2 
(4) k R  R
capacitance 1 F are connected as in adjoining fig-  1 2
ure. Then the equivalent capacitance between A
O
and B is : 15. Two spheres of radii 1 cm and 2 cm have been
charged with 1.5 × 10–8 and 0.3 × 10–7 coulomb of
posiitve charge. When they are connected with a
O
wire, charge :
(1) will flow from the first to the second
T
8 capccitor (2) will flow from the second to the first
16 capccitor (3) will not flow at all
E
(4) may flow either from first to second, or from the
A  B
seoond to first, depending upon the length of
(1) 1 F (2) 2 F
the connecting wire
1 16. There are two metallic plates of a parallel plate
(3) F (4) 
2 capacitor. One plate is given a charge +q while the
12. A charged parallel plate capacitor of distance (d) other is earthed as shown. Points P, P1 and P2 are
has an energy (U0) in the system. A slab of dielec- taken as shown in adjoining figure. Then the elec-
tric constant (K) and thickness (d) is then introduced tric intensity is not zero at :
between the plates of the capacitor. The new en- (1) P only
ergy of the system is given by : (2) P1 only P2 P1
P
(3) P2 only
U0 U0
(1) KU 0 (2) K 2U 0 (3) (4) (4) P, P1 and P2
K K2
17. A number of capacitors, each of capacitance 1 F 21. Distance between plates of a parallel plate
and each one of which gets punctured if a potential capacitor is 'd' and area of each plate is A. When
difference just exceeding 500 volt is applied are a slab of dielectric constant K and thickness t is
placed between the plates, its capacity becomes:
provided. Then an arrangement suitable for giving
a capacitor of capacitance 3 F across which 0 A 0 A
(1) (2)
2000 volt may be applied requires at least :   1    1 
 d  t 1  K    d  t 1  K  
(1) 4 component capacitors      
(2) 12 component capacitors 0 A 0 A

(3)   1  (4)  1 
(3) 48 component capacitors 
 d  t 1  K    d  t 1  K  
     
(4) 16 component capacitors
22. A Parallel Plate capacitor is connected with a bat-
18. A circuit has a section AB as shown in the fig. With tery whose potential is constant . If the plates of
capacitor are shifted apart then the intensity of elec-
A
E = 10V. C1 = 1.0 F, C2 = 2.0 F and the potential tric field :
I
difference VA –VB = 5V. The voltage across C1 is : (1) Decrease and charge on plates also decreases.
(2) Remains constant but charge on plates de-
(1) zero
D
creases.
E
(2) 5V – + (3) Remains constant but charge on plates increases.
A B (4) Increase but charge on plates decreases.
N
C1 C2
(3) 10V 23. Half of the space between parallel plate capacitor
I
is filled with a medium of dielectric constant K par-
(4) 15V allel to the plates . if initially the capacity is C, then
S
19. The effective capacity of the network between terminals the new capacity will be :
A and B is :- (1) 2KC/(1+K) (2) C (K+1)/2
6µF 6µF (3) CK/(1+K) (4) KC
O
24. The distance between the plates of a circular par-
A 20µF B allel plate capacitor of diameter 40 mm, whose
capacity is equal to that of a metallic sphere of
O
radius 1m will be :
6µF 6µF
(1) 0.01 mm (2) 0.1 mm
T
(3) 1.0 mm (4) 10 mm
(1) 6 µF (2) 20 µF
25. When a slab of dielectric medium is placed between
plates of a parallel plate capacitor which is con-
E
(3) 3 µF (4) 10 µF
nected with a battery, then the charge on plates in
20. The energy and capacity of a charged parallel plate comparision with earlier charge :
capacitor are U and C respectively. Now a dielec- (1) Is less
tric slab of r = 6 is inserted in it then energy and
(2) Is same
capacity becomes (Assuming charge on plates
remains constant) (3) Is more
(4) Depends on the nature of the material inserted
(1) 6U, 6C
26. Two identical parallel plate capacitors are connected
(2) U, C in series and then joined with a battery of 100V. A
sheet of dielectric constant 4.0 is inserted between
U the plates of second capacitor. The potent ial
(3) , 6C difference across the capacitors will be respectively
6
(1) 50 V, 50V (2) 80 V, 20 V
(4) U, 6C
(3) 20V, 80V (4) 75 V, 25 V
27. A capacitor of value 4 F charged at 50V is con- 32. A parallel plate capacitor is charged with a battery
nected with another capacitor of value 2F charged and afterwards the battery is removed. if now with
at 100V, in such a way that plates of similar charges the help of insulating handles, the distance between
are connected together. Before joining and after plates is increased, then
joining the total energy in multiples 10–2 J will be : (1) charge on capacitor increases and capacity de-
(1) 1.5 and 1.33 creases.
(2) 1.33 and 1.5 (2) potential difference between plates increases.
(3) 3.0 and 2.67 (3) capacity of capacitor increases..
(4) 2.67 and 3.0
(4) value of energy stored in capacitor decreases.
28. N identical capacitor are joined in parallel and the
combination is charged to a potential V. Now if 33. A 3 F capacitor is charged to a potential of 300V
they are separated and then joined in series then and 2  F capacitor is charged to 200 V. T he
A
energy of combination will capacitor are then connected in parallel with plates
I
of opposite polarity joined together. What amount
(1) Remain same and potential difference will also
of charge will flow, when the plates are so
remain same.
connected?
D
(2) Remain same and potential difference will be-
(1) 1300 C (2) 800 C
come NV.
(3) 600 C (4) 300 C
N
(3) Increase N times and potential difference will
become NV.
I
34. The value of a capacitor formed by a thin metallic
(4) Increase N time and potential difference will foil is 2 F. The foil is attatched to both sides of
remains same. paper having a thickness of 0.015 mm. the dielec-
S
tric constant of the paper is 2.5 and its breadth is 40
29. When a capacitor of value 200 F charged to 200V
mm. The length of the foil used is :
is discharged separately through resistance of 2 ohm
and 8 ohm, then heat produced in joule will re- (1) 0.34 m (2) 1.33 m
O
spectively be: (3) 13.4 mm (4) 33.9 m.
(1) 4 and 16 (2) 16 and 4 35. The value of equivalent capacitance of the combi-
O
(3) 4 and 8 (4) 4 and 4 nation shown in fig., between the points P and Q is
(1) 3 C P
30. A series combination of two capacitors of value 0.1
2C
T
F and 1F is connected with a source of voltage (2) 2 C 2C
500 volt. The potential difference in volt across the 2C
(3) C C
capacitor of value 0.1 F will be :
E
(4) C/3 C C
(1) 50 (2) 500 Q
(3) 45.5 (4) 454.5 36. The equivalent capacitance of the circuit shown,
between points A and B will be
31. Two uncharged capacitors are charged with a bat-
tery of E volt. The ratio of charges produced on
these capacitors Q1 / Q2 will be : 1F 1F
A B
1F
2F
C1 4F 2F C2 2 5
E (1) F (2) F
3 3
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 8 7
(3) F (4) F
3 3
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
37. The effective capacitance between the points P and 40. Two condensers C1 and C2 in a circuit are joined as
Q of the arrangement shown in the fig. is shown in fig. The potential of point A is V1 and that
of B is V2. The potential of point D will be -
2F A D B
P 2F 1F Q V1 C1 C2 V2
2F 5F
1 C 2 V1  C 1 V2
(1) (V1 + V2) (2)
2 C1  C 2
2F 1F
C 1 V1  C 2 V2 C 2 V1  C 1 V2
(1) (1/2) F (2)1 F (3) (4)
C1  C 2 C1  C 2
(3) 2 F (4) 1.33 
41. Two parallel plate capacitors whose capacities are
38. In the given circuit if point C is connected to the
C and 2 C respectively, are joined in parallel. these
earth and a potential of + 2000 V is given to point
A
are charged by V potential difference. if the bat-
A, the potential at B is :-
I
tery is now removed and a dielectric of dielectric
(1) 1500 V
5F constant K is filled in between the plates of the
10F 10F C
(2) 1000 V capacitor C, then what will be the potential differ-
A B
D
(3) 500 V ence across each capacitor :-
(4) 400 V 10F
V 2V 3V 2 K
39. A capacitor of capacitance 5 F is connected as (1) (2) (3) (4)
N
K 2 K 2 K 2 3V
shown in the fig. The internal resistance of the cell
I
is 0.5  . The amount of charge on the capacitor 42. In the given circuit, the potential difference across
plate is :- 3 F capacitor will be :
S
1 1
(1) 0 C 20V
5F 2
(2) 5 C 3F 5F
4V
O
(3) 10 C 2.5V
+ –
(4) 25 C (1) 16 V (2) 10 V (3) 6 V (4) 4 V
TO
ANSWER KEY
E EXERCISE - II
Q ue . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
An s . 4 3 1 4 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 3 2 3
Q ue . 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
An s . 1 3 3 1 3 4 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 4 4
Q ue . 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
An s . 2 2 3 4 1 3 2 3 3 3 3 2
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE–I
1. If each resistance in the fig. is of 9  then reading of 3r r
(3) R  (4) R 
ammeter is :– 2 2
6 . In a network as shown in the figure
the potential difference across the
resistance 2R is (the cell has an emf
9V A of E and has no internal resistance)
:
(1) 2E
(1) 5 A (2) 8 A
(3) 2 A (4) 9 A 4R
4E
(2) R
2 . In fig. battery E is balanced on 55 7
2R
cm length of potentiometer wire but
A
E E
when a resistance of 10  is connected (3)
I
in parallel with the battery then it 7
balances on 50 cm length of the (4) E
potentiometer wire then internal 7 . There are 8.4 × 10 22 free electrons
D
resistance r of the battery is :– per cm 3 in copper. The current in the
wire is 0.21 A
(1) 1      (e = 1.6 × 10 –19 C). Then the drifts
N
2V
velocity of electrons in a copper
I
(2) 3  1m
A wire of 1 mm 2 cross section, will be
(3) 10  B
E r : –
S
(4) 5  (1) 2.12 × 10 –5 m/s
3 . If i = 0.25 amp. in fig then value of (2) 0.78 × 10 –5 m/s
R is :– (3) 1.56 × 10 –5 m/s
O
60 (4) none of these
(1) 48    
R 20 8 . In a typical Wheatstone network the
i 
(2) 12  resistance in cyclic order are A = 10
O
(3) 120  12V  , B = 5  , C = 4  and D = 4  for the
10
(4) 42  bridge to be balanced.
T
4 . Seven resistances are connected as A=10 B=5
shown in the figure.The equivalent
resistance between A and B is :–
E
(1) 3 
(3)
A
4.5
5
10
10

8
3
(2) 4 
(4) 5 
6
B
6
(a) 10
parallel
D=4
 should
with A
C=4
be
(b) 10  should be connected in series

with A
c onnected in
(c) 5  should be connected in series

5 . Two cells, each of e.m.f. E and with B
internal resistance r, are connected (d) 5  should be connec ted in parallel
in parallel across a resistor R. The
with B
power dissipated in the resistor is
maximum if : (1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) all
9. In the circuit shown here, what is the value of the
(1) R = r (2) R = 2r
unknown resistor R so that the total resistance of the 13. Two resistance wires on joining in parallel the resultant
circuit between points 'P' and 'Q' is also equal to R :– 6
resistance is ohm. One of the wire breaks, the effectivee
(1) 3  5
10
resistance is 2 ohm. The resistance of the broken wire
P 3 Q
(2) 39  was :–
3 R
3
(1) ohm (2) 2 ohm
(3) 69  5
6
(4) 10  (3) ohm (4) 3 ohm
5
10. A battery has e.m.f. 4V and internal resistance 'r'. When
14. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is
this battery is connected to an external resistance of 2 0.00125 per degree celcius. At 300 K its resistance is 1
ohms, a current of 1 amp. flows in the circuit. How ohm. The resistance of the wire will be 2 ohm at
much current will flow if the terminals of the battery following temperature :–
A
are connected directly :– (1) 1154 K (2) 1127 K
I
(3) 600 K (4) 1400 K
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A
(3) 4 A (4) infinite 1 5 . If specific resistance of a
D
1 1 . In the circuit shown here, E 1 = E 2 = –7
potentiometer wire is 10  m and
E 3 = 2V and R 1 = R 2 =4 ohms. The current flow through it is 0.1 amp.,
current flowing between points A and cross–sectional area of wire is 10 –6
N
B through battery E 2 is : m2 then potential gradient will be :–
I
E1 R1
(1) 10 –2 volt/m (2) 10 –4 volt/m
E2
(3) 10 –6 volt/m (4) 10 –8 volt/m
S
A B
E3 R2
1 6 . The resistance of each arm of the
wheat stone bridge is 10 . A
O
(1) zero resistance of 10  is connected in
(2) 2 amp from A to B series with galvanometer then the
equivalent resistance across the
(3) 2 amp from B to A
battery will be :–
O
(4) none of the above
(1) 10  (2) 15 
1 2 . AB is a potentiometer wire of length (3) 20  (4) 40 
T
100 cm and its resistance is 10 ohm.
1 7 . There is a current of 40 ampere in a
It is connected in series with a
wire of 10 –6 m 2 area of cross-section.
resistance R = 40 ohm and a battery
E
If the number of free electron per m3 is 1029, then the
of e.m.f. 2V and negligible internal
resistance. If a source of unknown drift velocity will be
e.m.f. E is balanced by 40 cm length (1) 1.25 × 103 m/s
of the potentiometer wire, the value (2) 2.50 × 10–3 m/s
of E is: (3) 25.0 × 10–3 m/s
(4) 250 × 10–3 m/s
R 2V
18. An ammeter and a voltmeter are joined in series to a
40cm cell. Their readings are A and V respectively. If a
A B
resistance is now joined in parallel with the voltmeter
E (1) voth A and V will decrease.
(2) both A and V will increase.
(1) 0.8 V (2) 1.6 V
(3) A will increase, V will decrease.
(3) 0.08 V (4) 0.16 V
(4) A will decrease, V will increase.
19. A cell supplies a current of 0.9 A through a 2 resistor 24. The potential difference between the points A and B in
and a current of 0.3 A through a 7 resistor. The internal the following circuit shown in the figure :–
resistance of the cell is :–
5 5
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.5 B
(3) 2.0 (4) 1.2 2V

5 5
20. The current voltage graph for a given metallic conductor
5 5
at two different temperatures T1 and T2 are as shown A
in the figure. Then :–
2 4
(1) volt (2) volt
(1) T1 > T2 I 3 5
T1
(2) T1 = T2 T2 8
(3) volt (4) 2 volt
9
(3) nothing can be said
A
V
I
about T1 and T2 25. Consider four circuits shown in the figure below. In which
(4) T1 < T2 circuit power dissipated is greater (Neglect the internal
resistance of the power supply) :–
D
21. A galvanometer of 100 resistance gives complete
deflection on flowing 10 mA current. What should be R
the value of shunt so that it can measure
N
R R E
100 mA :– (1) E (2) R
I
(1) 11.11  (2) 9.9 
(3) 1.1  (4) 4.4 
S
22. For changing the range of a galvanometer with G ohm R R R
resistance from V volt to nV, what will be the value of R
E E
resistance connected in series to it :– (3) (4)
O
R R
G
(1) (n–1)G (2) 2 6 . The equivalent resistance across AB
n
O
is :–
G
(3) nG (4)
T
n 1 A
2
2 3 . For a cell terminal potential 2
2
E
difference is 2.2 V when circuit is
open and reduces to 1.8 V when cell 2 2
is connected to a resistance of R = B
5  then determine internal resistance

(1) 1  (2) 2 
of cell is :–
(3) 3  (4) 4 
10 9 2 7 . When a voltmeter and an ammeter are
(1)  (2) 
9 10 connected respectively across the
terminals of a cell, measures 5 V and
11 5 10 A. Now only a resistance of 2  is connected across
(3)  (4) 
9 9 the terminal of the cell. The current flowing through
this resistance is :
(1) 7.5 A (2) 5.0 A
(3) 2.5 A (4) 2.0 A
28. Thirteen resistance each of resistance R ohm are 33. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by
connected in the circuit as shown in the figure. The 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in diameter the
effective resistance between A and B is :– change in the resistance of the wire will be :–
R R
4R (1) 300% (2) 200%
(1)  R
3 R R R (3) 100% (4) 50%
(2) 2R  R
3 4 . The length of a wire of a
A B
(3) R  potentiometer is 100 cm, and the emf
R R R R of its standard cell is E volt. It is
2R
(4)  employed to measure the e.m.f. of a
3 R R
battery whose internal resistance is
2 9 . A group of N cells whose emf varies 0.5 . If the balance point is
directly with the internal resistance obtained at  = 30 cm from the positive
as per the equation E N = 1.5 r N are end, the e.m.f. of the battery is :–
A
connected as shown in the figure. The
I
current I in the circuit is 30E 30E
(1) (2)
100 100.5
(1) 5.1 A 1
D
r2
30E 30(E  0.5)
(2) 0.51 A N r1 2 (3) (4)
rN (100  0.5) 100
r3
(3) 1.5 A 3
r4
N
3 5 . In the shown arrangement of the
(4) 0.15 A
I
experiment of the meter bridge if AC
4
30. A galvanometer has resistance 36  . corresponding to null deflection of
If a shunt of 4  is added with this, galvanometer is x, what would be its
S
then fraction of current that passes value if the radius of the wire AB is
through galvanometer is : doubled :–
1 1 (1) x
O
(1) (2) + –
4 9 R1 R2
x
(2)
1 1 4 G
O
(3) (4)
10 40 A B
(3) 4x C
x
E (4) 2x
T
3 1 . The terminal voltage
when a is
2 3 6 . The current in a conductor varies
current of 2A is flowing through 2  2
with time t as I = 2t + 3t amp. where
resistance, then the internal
E
I is ampere and t in second. Electric
resistance of cell is :–
charge flowing through a section of
(1) 1  (2) 2 
(3) 3  (4) 4  the conductor during t = 2 sec to t =
3 sec is :–
3 2 . A 1  voltmeter has range 1V. Find
(1) 10 C (2) 24 C
the additional resistance which has
to join in series in voltmeter to (3) 33 C (4) 44 C
increase the range of voltmeter to
37. Two wires of resistance R 1 and R 2 at 0° C have
100 V :–
temperature coefficient of resistance 1 and  2,
1 respectively. These are joined in series. The effective
(1) 10  (2) 
99 temperature coefficient of resistance is :–
(3) 99  (4) 100 
1  2
(1) (2) 1  2
2
(1) 80% (2) 90%

1 R 1  2 R 2 R 1 R 2 1 2 (3) 87.5% (4) 82.5%
(3) (4)
R1  R 2 R 12  R 22 4 2 . Five equal resistances each of
resistance R are connected as shown
3 8 . In the circuit shown below. The reading in the Figure. A battery of V volts
is connected between A and B. The
of the voltmeter V is :–
current flowing in AFCEB will be
4 16 V
(1)
Rh + R C
2A
V
– V
(2)
16 4
2R
R R R
2V
(1) 12 V (2) 8 V (3)
R R AB
F
A
(3) 20 V (4) 16 V
3 9 . The equilvalent resistance and 3V
I
(4) D R E
potential difference between A and B R
for the circuit is respectively :– 43. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance
D
6
has 25 divisions. A current of 4 ×
10 –4 ampere gives a deflection of one
2A 2.5
6 division. To convert this galvanometer
N
A 3 B
into a voltmeter having a range of 25
I
volts, it should be connected with a
(1) 4, 8V (2) 8  , 4V
resistance of :–
(3) 2  , 2 V (4) 16  , 8V
S
(1) 245  in parallel
4 0 . The electric resistance of a certain
wire of iron is R. If its length and (2) 2550  in s eries
radius both are doubled, (3) 2450  in s eries
O
then :– (4) 2500  in parallel
(1) the resistance will be halved and
4 4 . A 6 volt battery is connected to the
the specific resistance will remain
O
terminals of a three metre long wire
unchanged
of uniform thickness and resistance
(2) the resistance will be halved and
T
of 100 ohm. The difference of
the specific resistance will be
potential between two points on the
doubled
wire separated by a distance of 50 cm
E
(3) the resistance and the specific will be :–
resistance, will both remain
unchanged (1) 3 volt (2) 1 volt
(4) the resistance will be doubled (3) 1.5 volt (4) 2 volt
and the specific resistance will
4 5 . Find potential of J with :–
be halved
respect to G –
41. A battery is charged at a potential
of 15V for 8 hours when the current 60V
(1) 40 V
flowing is 10A. The battery on 64
discharge supplies a current of 5 A (2) 60 V
J
for 15 hours. The mean terminal (3) 20 V 32
voltage during discharge is 14 V. The G
(4) 30 V 0V
"Watt hour" efficiency of the battery is :
46. Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal resistance 50 . In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected
2 and the other of emf 12 volt and internal resistance between points A and B, the current in this wire will :–
1, are connected as shown. The voltmeter V will record
a reading of :– A
4 4
V
2 18V
1 3
1 12V
B
(1) 18 volt (2) 30 vol V
(1) flow from A to B
(3) 14 volt (4) 15 volt
4 7 . When a wire of uniform cross-section
(2) flow in the direction which will be decided by
a, length  and resistance R is bent
A
into a complete circle, resistance the value of V
I
between any two of diametrically
opposite points will be :– (3) be zero
D
R R (4) flow from B to A
(1) (2)
2 4 51. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and its scale is
graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After and
N
R
(3) (4) 4R additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it
8
I
becomes possible to measure currents upto 750
4 8 . For the network shown in the figure
amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is
the value of the current i is :–
S
:–
18 V
(1) (1) 2 k (2) 20 
5 2
(3) 2  (4) 0.2 
O
5V 4 4
(2) 3 52. In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 resistor
9 6
is 1 amp when the points P and M are connected to
O
9V i V
a d.c. voltage source. The potential difference between
(3)
35 the points M and N is :-
T
5V 4
(4)
18
E
4 9 . In potentiometer experiment when

terminals of the cell is at distance P M
of 52cm, then no current flows through
it. When 5  shunt resistance is
0.5 N 
connected in it then balance length
is at 40 cm. The internal resistance 0.5
of the cell is :–
200 (1) 0.5 volt (2) 3.2 volt
(1) 5 (2) (3) 1.5 volt (4)1.0 volt
52
52 53. A current of 3 ampere flows through
(3) (4) 1·5
8 the 2–  resistor shown in the circuit.
The power dissipated in the 5– 
resistor is :-
58. A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown. The potential

2
gradient, across the potentiometer wire, is k volt/cm

and the ammeter, present in the circuit, reads 1.0 A
  when two way key is switched off. The balance points,

when the key between the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1
and 3, is plugged in, are found to be at lengths 1 cm
(1) 1 watt (2) 5 watt and 2 cm respectively. The magnitudes, of the resistors
(3) 4 watt (4) 2 watt R and X, in ohms, are then, equal respectively, to :-
54. A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form + –
( •)
a complete circle of radius
10 cm. The resistance betweenA B
A
its two diametrically opposite A B
I
points, A and B as shown in the 1
G
figure, is :-
2 3
D
(1) 6 (2) 0.6
– R X
(3) 3 (4) 6 A
+
55. See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of
N
( •)
the following equations is a correct equation for it?
I
R (1) k1 and k2 (2) k(2 – 1) and k2
i1  1 r1
(3) k1 and k(2 – 1) (4) k(2 – 1) and k1
S
i2
59. A galvanometer has coil of resistance 100 ohm and
r2 2
gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to
O
(1) 1 – (i1 + i2)R + i1r1 = 0
work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance
(2) 1 – (i1 + i2)R – i1r1 = 0
required to be added will be :-
(3) 2 – i2r2 – 1 – i1r1 = 0
O
(1) 1000  (2) 900 
(4) – 2 – (i1 + i2)R + i2r2 = 0
(3) 1800  (4) 500 
56. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 shows
T
full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 amp passes 60. A current of 2 A flows through a 2 resistor when
through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read connected across a battery. The same battery supplies
E
currents upto 5.0 amp by :- a current of 0.5A when connected across a 9 resistor
(1) putting in parallel a resistance of 15  The internal resistance of the battery is:
(2) putting in parallel a resistance of 240 
(1) 0.5  (2)1/3
(3) putting in series a resistance of 15
(4) putting in series a resistance of 240  (3) 1/4  (4) 1
57. A student measures the terminal potential difference 61. If power dissipated in the 9- resistor in the circuit
(V) of a cell (of emf  and internal resistance r) as a shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across the
function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope,
2- resistor is :
and intercept, of the graph between V and I, then
9
respectively, equal :- (1) 4 Volt
(1) –and r (2)  and –r 6
(3) –r and  (4) r and – (2) 8 Volt
(3) 10 Volt
(4) 2 Volt V 2
62. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point

A is taken to be zero, the potential at point B is :- 1 5 1 1
(3)   8 (4)   3
2 2
R1 2V
D
B
1A
66. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt 100 Watt drops
R2 2 2A
by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated
A value by which the power would decrease is

C 2A
1V 1A
(1) 5% (2) 10%
(1) +1V (2) –1V (3) 20% (4) 2.5%
(3) +2V (4) –2V
6 7 . In the circuit shown the cells A and
63. A galvanometer of resistance, G, is shunted by a
resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit B have negligible resistances. For
A
unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the VA = 12V, R1 = 500  and
I
galvanometer is :- R = 100  the galvanometer (G) shows
G S2 no deflection.The value of VB is :
(1) (2)
D
(S  G) (S  G )
R1
SG G2
(3) (4) G
N
(S  G) (S  G )
VA R VB
I
64. A thermocouple of negligible resistance produces an
e.m.f. of 40 µV/°C in the linear range of temperature.
A galvanometer of resistance 10 ohm whose sensitivity
S
is 1 µA/div, is employed with the thermocouple. The
(1) 12V (2) 6V
smallest value of temperature difference that can be
detected by the system will be :- (3) 4V (4) 2V
O
(1) 0.25°C (2) 0.5°C 68. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt
(3) 1°C (4) 0.1°C range is to be converted into an
ammeter of 25 ampere range. The value
O
65. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12.
(in ohm) of necessary shunts will be :
Find the points A and B as shown in the figure at which
T
a current carrying conductor should be cannected so that
(1) 1 (2) 0.05
the resistance R of the sub circuit between these points (3) 0.001 (4) 0.01
E
6 9 . The power dissipated in the circuit
8 shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The
is equal to .
3 value of R is :
R
1
A B
5
10V
2 (1) 10  (2) 30 
(3) 20  (4) 15 
1 3 1 1
(1)   8 (2)   2
2 2
70. A cell having an emf  and internal resistance r is

connected across a variable external resistance R. As
the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential
difference V across R is given by :-
(1) V
0 R
A
V
I
(2)
D
R
N

(3)
I
V
0 R
(4) V

O
0 R
S
TO
ANSWER KEY
Que.
Ans.
E 1
1
2
1
3
4
4
2
5
4
6
2
7
3
8
3
9
3
10
2
EXERCISE - I
11
2
12
4
13
4
14
2
Que. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. 1 1 2 3 2 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 4
Que. 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. 3 3 2 3 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 3 2
Que. 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56
Ans. 3 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 3 2 2 2 2 1
Que. 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. 3 3 2 2 3 1 4 1 2 1 4 3 1 1
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
MAGNETIC EFFECT OF
CURRENT
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE–I
1. An  -par t icle experience s a force of 5. For the given current distribution the magnetic field at
3.84 × 10 –14 N when its moves point, 'P' is :-
perpendicular to magnetic field of
0.2 Wb/m 2 then s peed of the 5A P 2.5A
 - particle is :- 2.5m
(1) 6.0 × 10 5 m/sec 5m
(2) 5.0 × 10 5 m/sec 0 0

(1) (2) 
4 
(3) 1.2 × 10 6 m/sec
(4) 3.8 × 10 6 m/sec 0 0

(3)  (4)
A
2 2
2 . Mag netic field of earth is 0.3 gauss.
I
A magnet osc illating with rate of 6 . A charge having q/m equal to 10 8 C/kg
5 oscillation/min. How much the and with velocity 3 × 10 5 m/s enters
mag netic field of earth is inc reas ed,
D
into a uniform magnetic field B = 0.3
so the number of oscillations bec ome tesla at an angle 30 0
with direction
10 per min:-
of field. Then radius of curvature
N
(1) 0.3G (2) 0.6G will be :-
I
(3) 0.9G (4) 0.12G (1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.5 cm
3 . An elec tron is moving in a circle (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm
S
of radius 5.1 × 10 –11 m. at a 7 . A magnet makes 40 ascillations per
frequency of 6.8 × 10 15 revolution/
minute at a place having magnetic
sec . The equivalent current is
O
approximately :– field of 0.1 × 10 –5 T. At another
(1) 5.1 × 10 –3 A place, it takes 2.5 sec to complete
(2) 6.8 × 10 –3 A one vibration. The value of earth's
O
(3) 1.1 × 10 –3 A
horizontal field at that place is :-
(4) 2.2 × 10 –3 A
T
4 . A and B are two concentric circular (1) 0.25 × 10 –6 T
loop carrying current i 1 and i 2 as
(2) 0.36 × 10 –6 T
shown in fig ure. If ratio of their
E
radii is 1:2 and ratio of the flux (3) 0.66 × 10 –8 T
densities at the centre O due to A (4) 1.2 × 10 –6 T
i1 8 . The magnetic needle of a tangent
and B is 1:3 then the value of i 2 will
galvanometer is deflected at an angle
be :- 30°. The horizontal component of
earth's magnetic field
0.34 × 10 –4 T is along the plane of

1 1
(1) (2) the coil. The mangeitc field of coil
2 3
: -
1 1
(3) (4) (1) 1.96 × 10 –4 T
4 6
(2) 1.96 × 10–5 T (1) 1.679 × 10 –5 T
(3) 1.96 × 104 T (2) 2.028 × 10 –4 T

(4) 1.96 × 105 T (3) 1.257 × 10 –3 T
9 . Two particles x and y have equal
(4) 1.512 × 10 –6 T
charges and posses sing equal kinetic
energy enter in a uniform magnetic 1 3 . An elec tron is moving around a proton
field and des cribe circular path of in an orbit of radius 1Å and produces
radius of curvature r1 and r2 16 W b/m 2 of magnetic field at the
res pectively. The ratio of their centre, then find the angular veloc ity
mas ses is :– of elec tron :-
FG r IJ FG r IJ 1/ 2 (1) 20   10 16 rad/sec
A
1
Hr K
1
(1) (2)
Hr K (2) 10  10 16 rad/s ec
I
2 2
5
FG r IJ 2
FG r IJ (3)
2
 10 16 rad/s ec
D
2
Hr K
1
(3)
Hr K
2
(4)
1
5
1 0 . An electron having mass 'm' and (4)  10 16 rad/s ec
N
4
kinetic energy E enter in uniform
I
magnetic field B perpendicularly, then 1 4 . In a mas s spectrograph an ion A of
its frequency of uniform circular mas s number 24 and charge +e and an
S
motion will be :– ion B of mas s number 22 and charge
+2e are entered in transverse magnetic
eE 2 m field with same velocity. T he ratio
(1) (2)
qVB
O
eB of radii of their paths respectively
: -
eB 2m
(3) (4) 11 12
2 m eBE
O
(1) (2)
24 11
 
1 1 . In Thomson mass spectrograph E  B
T
11 24
then the velocity of undeflected (3) (4)
22 11
electron beam will be :–
1 5 . Mag netic field at point O will be
E

E  
(1)  (2) E B
B I
: -
 O
B R
2
 E
(3) (4)
E B2
12. A closely wound flat circular coil

0 I 0 I
(1)  (2)
of 25 turns of wire has diameter of 2R 2R
10 cm and carries a current of 4
0 I FG1 IJ  0 I FG
1 IJ
ampere. Determine the magnetic flux
(3)
2R
1
H K (4)
2R
1
H
 K
density at the centre of the coil :-
16.  ampere current is flowing through a long straight 3/2

wire. Due to this a field of 5 × 10–5 T produced, then 1 1
(3)   (4)
 2 4
distance of the point from the axis of the wire is :–
(1) 104 0m (2) 104/0 m 23. At a certain place, the horizontal component B0 and
(3) 106 0 m (4) 108 0 m the vertical component V0 of the earth's magnetic field
17. An electron of kinetic energy of 7.2 × 10–18 J are equal in magnitude. The total field at that place
is revolving on circular path in magnetic field will be :-
9 × 10–5 wb/m2 then radius of its circular path is :– (1) B0 (2) B02
(1) 1.25 cm. (2) 2.5 m. (3) 2B0 (4) 2 B0
(3) 2.5 cm. (4) 25.0 cm.
18. Value of earth’s magnetic field at any point is 7 × 10– 24. A proton, deutron  –partic le and an
5
wb/m2. This field is neutralised by field which is are accelerated by same potential,
A
produced at the centre of a current carrying loop of enters in uniform magnetic field
I
radius 5 cm. The current in the loop (approx) :– perpendicularly. Ratio of radii of
(1) 0.56 A (2) 5.6 A circular path respectively :-
(3) 0.28 A (4) 28 A
D
(1) 1 : 2 : 2
19. A coil of one loop is made by a wire of length L and
there after a coil of two loops is made by same wire. (2) 2 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
N
The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of coils
I
respectively :- (4) 1 : 1 : 1
2 5 . An electron revolves w ith frequency
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1
15
6.6 × 10 r.p.s. around nucleus
S
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 4 : 1
in circ ular orbit of radius 0.53
20. Two bar magnets having same geometry with magnetic Å of hydrogen atom, then magnetic
moments M and 2M, are firstly placed in such a way that field produc ed at centre of orbit
O
their similer poles are same side then its time period of is :-
osccilation is T1. Now the polarity of one of the magnet is
(1) 0.125 T (2) 1.25 T
reversed then time period of osccilation is T2, then :-
O
(3) 12.5 T (4) 125 T
(1) T1 < T2 (2) T1 = T2
2 6 . Two small magnets each of magnetic
(3) T1 > T 2 (4) T2 =  moment 10 A-m 2 are placed in end on
T
21. In a mass spectrograph O++, C+, He++ and H+ are pos ition 0.1m apart from their
projected on a photographic plate with same velocity centres . The forc e ac ting between them
E
in uniform magnetic field then which will strike the is :–
plate farthest :- (1) 0.6 N
(1) O++ (2) C+ (2) 0.06N
++ +
(3) He (4) H (3) 0.06N × 107 N
2 2 . Radius of a current c arrying c oil
(4) 0.6 × 107 N
is ‘R’. The ratio of magnetic field
2 7 . Mag netic field intensity of a short
at a axial point w hich is R distance
away from the centre of the coil to mag net at a distance 1m. on axial
the magnetic field at the c entre of line is 1 oersted. At a distanc e 2
the coil :- m. on the same line the intens ity
in oersted is :-
1/2
 1 1 (1) 0.75 (2) 0.125
(1)  2  (2)
2
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.5
28. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic 32. A current carrying wire is arranged at any angle in
field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the an uniform magnetic field, then
number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of (1) only force acts on wire
the magnetic field is :-
(2) only torque acts on wire
(1) B/2 (2) B (3) both
(3) 2B (4) 4B (4) none
29. The earth’s magnetic field at a given point is 0.5 × 3 3 . For a magnetic needle plac ed in a
uniform magnetic field, w hich of
10–5 Wb m–2. This field is to be annulled by magnetic
following are correct :-
field at the center of a circular conducting loop of radius
(a) F  0,   0
5.0cm. The current required to be flown in the loop
A
(b) F  0,  = 0
is nearly :–
I
(c) F = 0,   0
(1) 0.2 A (2) 0.4 A
(d) F = 0,  = 0
(3) 4 A (4) 40 A
D
(1) a, b (2) a, c
3 0 . An electron is travelling along the (3) c, d (4) b, d
x–direction. It encounters a magnetic 3 4 . An ionised g as c ontains both positive
N
field in the y–direction. Its and neg ative ions. If it is subjec ted
I
subsequent motion will be :- simultaneously to an electric field
along the + x direction and a magnetic
(1) straight line along the x–
S
field along the + z direction then
direction.
(1) Positive ions deflect towards + y direction and
(2) a circle in the zx–plane. negative ions towards - y direction
31.
(3)
(4)
a
a
O O circle
circle
in
in
the
the
yz–plane.
xy–plane.
A rectangular loop carrying a current i1, is situated near
a long straight wire carrying a steady current i2. The
(2) All ions deflect towards + y direction
(3) All ions deflect towards - y direction
(4) Positive ions deflect towards - y direction and
T
wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and negative ions towards + y direction
is in the plane of the loop as shown in the figure. 35. A proton of mass 1.67 × 10–27 kg and charge 1.6 ×
10–19C is projected with a speed of 2 × 106 ms–1 at
E
Then the current loop will :–
an angle of 60° to the X-axis. If a uniform magnetic
field of 0.104 tesla is applied along Y-axis, the path
of proton is :-
(1) A circle of radius = 0.2 m and time period = 2
× 10–7 s
(2) A circle of radius = 0.1 m and time period = 2
× 10–7 s
(3) A helix of radius = 0.1 m and time period = 2
(1) move away from the wire × 10–7 s
(2) move towards the wire. (4) A helix of radius = 0.2 m and time period = 2
(3) remain stationary. × 10–7 s
(4) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire.
36. A circular coil of radius 20 cm and 20 turns of wire 40. The magnetic field due to a straight wire of uniform
is mounted vertically with its plane in magnetic cross section radius a and carrying a steady current
is represented by :-
meridian. A small magnetic needle is placed at the centre
of the coil and it is deflected through 45°, when a
current is passed through the coil. When horizontal B
(1) (2)
component of earth's field is 0.34 × 10–4 T, the current
a r
in coil is :-
(1) 0.6 A (2) 6A

B B
–3
(3) (4)
(3) 6 × 10 A (4) 0.06 A
a r a r
37. A bar magnet of length 3 cm has 41. The magnetic moment of a current (I) carrying circular
points A and B along its axis at coil of radius (r) and number of turns (n) varies as :-
A
dis tances of 24 cm and 48 cm from
I
centre on the opposite sides. Ratio of magnetic fields
(1) 1/r2 (2) 1/r
as these points will be :-
(3) r (4) r2
D
4 2 . The cyclotron frequency of an electron
gyrating in a magnetic field of 1T
is approximately :-
(1) 8 (2)
2 2
1
I
(1)
(3)
4 3 . Two
28
N
2.8
Hz
GHz
concentric circular
(2)
(4)
280
28
loops
MHz
GHz
of radii
S
(3) 3 (4) 4
0·08m and 0·1m carries current s uch
38. A proton and an  -particle moving that magnetic field at the centre
O
with the same velocity and enter into is zero. If the current in the outer
a uniform magnetic field which is acting normal to the loop is 8A clockwise, current in the inner loop is :-
plane of their motion. The ratio of the radii of the
O
circular paths described by the proton and -particle (1) 6·4 A anticlockwise
(2) 6·4 A clockwise
T
respectively :-
(3) 8A anticlockwise
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(4) 3·2 A clockwise
E
(3) 1 : 16 (4) 4 : 1
4 4 . Two conc entric coils each of radius
39. A circular coil of radius R carries
equal to 2 c m. are placed at rig ht
an electric current. The magnetic
ang les to each other. The currets
field due the coil at a point on the
3 A and 4 A are flowing in each c oil
axis of the coil located at a distance
res pectively. The magnetic induction
r from the center of the coil, such
in weber/m 2 at the centre of the coils
that r >> R varies as :-
will be :-
3/2
(1) 1/r (2) 1/r (1) 7 × 10 –5 (2) 5 × 10 –5
2 3
(3) 1/r (4) 1/r (3) 10 –5 (4) 12 × 10 –5
45. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field 49. The magnetic moment () of a revolving electron around
the nucleus varies with principal quantum number n
are acting along the same direction in a certain region.
as :-
If an electron is projected along the direction of the (1)   n (2)   1/n
fields with a certain velocity then :- (3)   n 2 (4)   1/n 2
50. In the shown figure magnetic field at point A will be
(1) it will turn towards left of direction of motion
(2) it will turn towards right of direction of motion :-
(3) its velocity will increase
(4) its velocity decrease 0 I 0 I
(1) (2)
4 4R
46. A current loop of area 0.01m2 and carrying a current
of 10A is held perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0 I
(3) (4) Zero
0.1T, the torque in N–m acting on the loop is :- 4 R
47. A
(1) 0
(3) 0.01
very long
(2) 0.001
(4) 1.1
straight wire carries a
5 1 . If
is
the
3 ×
mag netis ing
permeability
10 –3 W b/A-m
field of
of
and
I
iron
A iron
piece is
piece
intens ity of
D
120 A/m, then what is the magnetic
current I. At the instant when a charge induction of iron piec e:-

+Q at point P has velocity v, as (1) 0.36 Wb/m 2
N
shown, the magnetic force on the charge (2) 5 × 10–3 Wb/m2
I
is :- (3) 40 Wb/m2
(4) 2.5 × 10–4 Wb/m2
S
5 2 . In a mas s spectrograph mas s number
and charge of ion A are 24 and +2e
res pectively. Mass number and charge
O
of ion B are 22 and +e. If both ions
has same speed and the radius of path
traced by ion A is 24 c m then radius
O
(1) along ox of path trac ed by ion B will be :-
(2) opposite to oy (1) 55 cm (2) 11 cm
T
(3) 44 cm (4) 24 cm
(3) along oy
5 3 . A long solenoid having 200 turns/
(4) opposite to ox cm and carries cu rrent i. Ma gnetic
E
field at its axis is
4 8 . A loop in the shape of an equilateral
6·28 × 1 0 –2 w b / m 2. An another
triangle of side  is suspended solenoid having having 100 turns/
between the pole pieces of a permanent
 i
magnet such that B is in plane of cm and carri es curren t, then
3
the loop. If due to a current i in magnetic field at its axis will
the triangle a torque  acts on it, b e: -
the side  of the triangle is :- ( 1 ) 1 . 0 5 × 1 0 –4 w b / m 2
( 2 ) 1 . 0 5 × 1 0 –2 w b / m 2
2 FG  IJ 1  (3) 1.05 × 10 –5 wb/m 2
(1)
3 HB iK (2)
3 Bi (4) 1.05 × 10 –3 wb/m2
F I
1
FG  IJ
1
2 2
(3) 2 G J
 2
H 3 B iK
(4)
3 HB iK

54. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is of v , then :-

subjected to a magnetic field of induction B , the force      
(1) v  B  E / B 2 (2) v  E  B / E 2
on it is non-zero. This implies the
     
  (3) v  B  E / E 2 (4) v  E  B / B 2
(1) angle between v and B is necessary 90°
 5 9 . A charged particle moves through a

(2) angle between v and B can have at value other
er magnetic field perpendicular to its
than 90° direction, then
  (1) both momentum and kinetic energy
(3) angle between v and B can have at value other
er
of the particle are not constant
than zero and 180°
(2) both momentum and kinetic energy
 
(4) angle between v and B is either zero or 180° of the particle are constant
55. Two circular loop 1 and 2 are made by the same copper (3) kinetic energy changes but the
A
wire but the radius of the 1st loop is twice that of the momentum is constant
I
2nd loop, what is rario of potential difference applied (4) the momentum changes but the
across the loops. If the magnetic field produced at their kinetic energy is constant
centres is equal 6 0 . Two identical conducting wires AOB
D
(1) 3 (2) 4 and COD are placed at right angles
(3) 6 (4) 2 to each other. The wire AOB carries
an electric current I 1 and COD carries
N
5 6 . The magnetic moment has dimensions
a current I 2 . The magnetic field on
I
of :-
a point lying at a distance 'd' from
(1) [L A] (2) [L2 A]
O, in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the wires
(3) [LT–1 A] (4) [L2T–1 A] AOB and COD, will be given by :-
S
57. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry
currents IC and Ie, respectively as shown in figure. 0 2 2 1 / 2 0
(1) (I1  I2 ) (2) (I1  I2 )
Assuming that these are placed in the same plane.The 2 d 2 d
O
magnetic fields will be zero at the centre of the loop 1/2
0 2 2  0  I1  I 2 
when the separation H is :- (3) (I1  I2 ) (4)  
2 d 2  d 
O
61. A long straight wire of radius 'a'
carries a steady current i. The current
T
is uniformly distributed across its
cross section. The ratio of the
E
a
magnetic field at and 2a distances
2
IeR IC R
(1) IC  (2) Ie  is :-
(1) 4 (2) 1
I C IC 
(3) Ie R (4) IC R 1 1
(3) (4)
2 4
58. A charged particle with charge q
enters a region of constant, uniform 62. A current I flows along the length of

and mutually orthogonal fields E and an infinitely long, straight, thin
  walled pipe, then :-
B with a velocity v perpendicular
  (1) the magnetic field is different
to both E and B , and comes out without
at different points
any change in magnitude or direction inside the pipe
(2) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero is :-
Q
(3) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the
same, but not zero P
F3
(4) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the F1
pipe S R
6 3 . In a mass spectrometer used for F2
measuring the masses of ions, the
ions are initially accelerated by (1) (F3  F1 )2  F22 (2) F3 – F1 – F2
an electric potential V and then
made to describe semicircular paths
(3) F3 – F1 – F2 ( 4 ) (F3  F1 )2  F22
of radius R using a magnetic field
B. If V and B are kept constant, 67. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter
FG Ch arg e on the ion IJ
A
is placed in a uniform magnetic field
H mass of the ion K
I
the ratio will be 1
of wb/m 2 in such way that its axis

proportional to :-
D

makes an angle of 60° with B . The
1
(1) R (2) magnetic flux linked with the disc
R
N
is :-
I
1 2 (1) 0.08 wb (2) 0.01 wb
(3) 2 (4) R (3) 0.02 wb (4) 0.06 wb
R
6 8 . A bar magnet having a magnetic moment
S
64. A horizontal overhead powerline is
of 2 × 10 4 JT –1 is free to rotate in
at a height of 4m from the ground and
a horizontal plane. A horizontal
carries a current of 100 A from east
magnetic field B = 6 × 10 –4 T exists
O
to west. The magnetic field directly
in the space. The work done in taking
below it on the ground is :-
the magnet slowly from a direction
(1) 2.5 × 10 -7 T, southward parallel to the field to a direction
(2)
(3)
5
T
5
O ×
×10 -6
(4) 2.5 ×10 -7 T, northward

10 -6
T,
T, northward
southward
60° from the field is :-
(1)
(3) 12
2J
J
6 9 . The magnetic force acting on a charged
(2)
(4)
0.6
6 J
J
E
6 5 . A particle of mass m, charge Q and
particle of charge –2µC in a magnetic
kinetic energy T enters a transverse
field of 2T acting in y direction,

uniform magnetic field of induction B . when the particle velocity is
After 3 seconds the kinetic energy
(2iˆ 3ˆj) × 10 6 ms –1 is :-
of the particle will be:-
(1) T (2) 4 T (1) 8N in z-direction
(2) 8N in –z direction
(3) 3T (4) 2T
(3) 4N in z-direction
66. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a (4) 8N in y-direction
uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces on
segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3
respectively and are in the plane of the paper and along
the directions shown, the force on the segment QP
70. A thin ring of radius R meter has charge q coulomb  

the presence of electric field E and magnetic field B .
uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates about its axis
To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction,
with a constant frequency of f revolutions/s. The value
it is necessary that :-
of magnetic induction in Wb/m2 at the centre of the

ring is :- (a) B should be perpendicular to the direction of velocityy

µ 0 qf µ 0 qf µ0 q µ0 q and E should be along the direction of velocity
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2R 2 R 2 fR 2fR  
(b) Both B and E should be along the direction of
71. A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed.
velocity
Electric (E) and Magnetic fields (B). The fields are
 
adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The (c) Both B and E are mutually perpendicular and
specific charge of the cathode rays is given by :- perpendicular to the direction of velocity
 
A
E2 B2 (d) B should be along the direction of velocity and E
(1) (2)
I
2VB 2 2VE 2
should be perpendicular to the direction velocity
Which one of the following pairs of statements is
2VB 2 2VE 2
(3) (4) possible. ?
D
E2 B2
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)
(Where V is the potential difference between cathode
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (c)
and anode)
N
72. A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts
 
I
75. A magnetic dipole of dipole moment 10 î  ˆj  kˆ is
each of radius R, one lying in the x-y plane and the other
in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i. The resultant placed in a magnetic field 0.6iˆ  0.4ˆj  0.5kˆ , force
S
magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at their
acting on the dipole is:
common centre is :-
0 i 0 i (1) î  ˆj  2kˆ (2) î  ˆj  2kˆ
O
(1) (2)
2R 4R
(3) Zero (4) None of these
7 6 . Current I is flowing in infinitely
0 i 0 i
O
(3) (4) long wire. Which of the following
2R 2 2R graph represents the variation of B
73. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 w.r.t. axial distance ?
T
turns and area of cross-section
1.5 × 10 –4 m 2 carries a current of
E
2.0A. It is suspended through its
I
centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to
turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 ×
10–2 Tesla making an angle of 30° with the axis of
the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be:-
(1) 1.5 × 10–3 N.m B B
(2) 1.5 × 10–2 N.m
(3) 3 × 10 –2 N.m (1) (2)
(4) 3 × 10 –3 N.m
r r
7 4 . A particle having a mass of 10 –2 kg
carries a charge of 5 × 10 –8 °C . The B B
particle is given an initial
horizontal velocity of 10 5 ms –1 in (3) (4)
r r
77. A charged particle is projected from A in nonuniform 80. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4 J T –1 is
magnetic field as shown in figure. placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet
is in stable equilibrium when the potential energy is :-
(1) 0.064 J (2) –0.064 J
A B C (3) Zero (4) 0.082 J
81. A square loop, carrying a steady
current I, is placed in a horizontal
plane near a long straight conductor
The magnitude of velocities at point carrying a steady current I 1 at a
A, B and C respectively during the distance d from the conductor as shown
motion is : in figure. The loop will experience
(1) Maximum at A and C : -
(2) Maximum at B
A
(3) Minimum at A and C I1
I
(4) Equal at A, B and C d I
7 8 . A current carrying closed loop in the
form of a right angle isosceles
D
triangle ABC is placed in a uniform
magnetic field acting along AB. If I
the magnetic force on the arm BC is
(1) A net attractive force towards
N

F, the force on the arm AC the conductor
I
is :- (2) A net repulsive force away from
the conductor
A (3) A net torque acting upward
S
perpendicular to the horizontal plane
(4) A net torque acting downward
normal to the horizontal plane
O
8 2 . Two similar coils of radius R are lying
B C
concentrically with their planes at
    right angles to each other. The
O
(1)  2 F (2)  F (3) F (4) 2F
currents flowing in them are I and
79. There are four light-weight rod samples A,B,C D 2I respectively. The resultant
T
separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is slowly magnetic field induction at the centre
brought near each sample and the following
will be :
observations are noted :-
E
(i) A is feebly repelled
(ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
(iv) D remains unaffected
Which one of the following is true ?
(1) B is of a paramagnetic material
(1)
(3)
0 I
2R
5 0 I
2R
(2)
(4)
0 I
R
30 I
2R
(2) C is of a diamagnetic material

(3) D is of a ferromagnetic material
(4) A is of a non-magnetic material
83. An alternating electric field, of frequency , is applied 85. A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in
across the dees (redius = R) of a cyclotron that is being a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What
should be the energy of an -particle to describe a circle
used to accelerate protons (mass = m). The operating
of same radius in the same field?
magnetic field (B) used in the cyclotron and the kinetic
energy (K) of the proton beam, produced by it, are given (1) 0.5 MeV (2) 4 MeV
by : (3) 2 MeV (4) 1 MeV
2 m  86. A wire of mass 100 gm, length 1m and current 5A is

(1) B = and K = 2m22R2
e balanced in mid air by a magnetic field B, then find the
value of 'B' :-
m (1) 0.2T (2) 0.1 T
(2) B = and K = m 2  R 2
e
(3) 0.5 T (4) 0.6 T
A
m 8 7 . The minimum magnetic dipole moment
I
(3) B = and K = 2m  2  2 R 2 of electron in hydrogen atom is :-
e
eh eh
D
2 m  (1) (2)
(4) B = and K = m 2  R 2 2m 4m
e
84. A magnetic needle suspended parallel eh
N
(3) (4) 0
m
I
to a magnetic field requires 3J of
work to turn it through 60°. The torque
needed to maintain the needle in this position will be:
(1)
(3)
3J
O
2 3 J
(2)
(4)
3
2
J
3J S
ANSWER KEY
TO EXERCISE - I
E
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 2 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 2 1 1 2 3 4 1 3 1 2 2 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 4 1 3 4 1 2 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 3 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 2 1 4 4 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 2 3 3 1 4 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 2 3
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87
Ans. 1 4 2 1 2 1 3 1 4 4 1 2
EXERCISE–II
1 . Following is square shape loop, whose 5 . At very clos e point on the axis of
one arm BC produces magnetic field a c urrent carrying c ircular c oil
B at the centre of coil. The resultant (x<<<R) of radius 'R', the value of
magnetic field due to all the arms mag netic field decres es by a fraction
will be :- of 5% with respect to centre value.
C The position of the point from the
centre of the coil is :-
i i
O
R R
– + B (1) (2)
10 30
(1) 4B (2) B/2 (3) B (4) 2B
2 . A wire is parallel to one arm of a
A
square current carrying loop, which R R
(3) (4)
I
also carries current. Now at any 50 150
point A within the coil the mag-
netic field will be :- 6 . A circular conducting loop is
D
connected by a battery according to
A i figure. The length of ABC and ADC
i
is  1 and  2 respectively then which
N
is correct :-
B
I
(1) less than the magnetic field
produced due to loop only. i1
(2) more than the magnetic field O
produced due to loop only.
S
(3) equal to the earlier. A
C
(4) zero i
i2 D
3 . Magnetic field at point 'P' due to 
O
given current distribution :- (1) i 1 / 1 = i 2 / 2
12 22
(2) =
i 22
O
i12
(3) i 1 1 = i 2 2
T
(4) i 1i 2 =  1 2
7 . A current of 1/4  ampere is flowing
E
0 I 0 I through a toroid. It has 1000 number
(1) (2) of turn per meter then value of
4a 2 a
magnetic field (in wb/m 2) along its
0 I axis is :-
(3) (4) Zero
a 
(1) 10 –2 (2) 10 –3
4 . A current of 10 A is established in
(3) 10 –4 (4) 10 –7
a long wire along positive z -
8 . Mean radius of a toroid is 10 cm
direction. The magnetic field B at
and number of turns are 500. If
the point (1m, 0, 0) is :-
current flowing through it is 0.1
(1) 1  T along the –y direction
ampere then value of magnetic field
(2) 2 T along the +y direction
(in tesla) for toroid :-
(3) 1 T along the –x direc tion
(1) 10 –2 (2) 10 –5
(4) 2 T along the +x direction
(3) 10 –3 (4) 10 –4
9 . A proton and an alpha particle are (c) path must be circular

separately projected in a region where (d) momemtum is constant
a uniform magnetic field exists. The (1) a, b (2) All
initial velocities are perpendicular (3) a, b, c (4) none
to the direction of magnetic field. 1 3 . A particle of charge q and mass m
If both the particles move along is moving along the x-axis with a
circles of equal radii, the ratio of velocity v and enters a region of
momentum of proton to alpha particle electric field E and magnetic field
B as shown in figure beolw. For which
 P  figure the net force on the charge
 P  is :-
 may be zero :-
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 2 (4) 1/4 y y
A
B E
1 0 . The charges 1, 2, 3 are moves in
I
V x V x
uniform transverse magnetic field then (1) q (2) q
: - E B
z z
×
×
×1
×
×
×
×2 ×
×
×
×
×
× ×
3
×
×
×
N D V
E
y
B
x V
y
I
× × × × q x
(3) q (4) B
( 1 ) particle '1' positive and z z
S
particle 3 negative 1 4 . A particle of mass 0.5 gm and charge
(2) particle 1 negative and particle 2.5 x 10 - 8 C is moving with velocity
3 positive 6 x 10 4 m/s. What should be the mini-
O
(3) particle 1 negative and particle mum value of magnetic field acting
2 neutral on it, so that the particle is able
( 4 ) particle 1 and 3 are positive and to move in a straight line? (g = 9.8
O
particle 2 neutral m/ s e c 2)
1 1 . When  and  rays are s ubjected to (1) 0.327 Weber/m 2
T
a magnetic field which is
(2) 3.27 Weber/m 2
perpendicular to the direction of
(3) 32.7 Weber/m 2
E
their motion, with their same speed.
The curvature of path of both the (4) none of these
particles are :- 1 5 . A wire PQ carries a current 'i' is
(1) equal placed perpendicular to a long wire
(2) more for  particles XY carrying a current I. The direction
of force on PQ will be :-
(3) more for  particles
(4) none Y
P i Q
1 2 . If an electron of velocity (2 i + 3 ĵ ) I 
is subjected to magnetic field of
X
4 k , then its :– (1) towards right(2) towards left
(a) path will change (3) upwards (4) downwards
(b) speed does not change
16. A current carrying wire AC is placed 20. A coil in the shape of equilateral
in uniform transverse magnetic field triangle of side 0.02 m is suspended
then the force on wire AC :- from the vertex such that it is
A hanging in a vertical plane between
I =3A
the pole-pieces of a permanent magnet
6cm B=10T producing a horizontal magnetic field
C of 5x10 —2 T. When a current of 0.1
8cm
(1) 3N A passed through it and the magnetic
(2) 4.2N field is parallel to its plane then
(3) 6N couple acting on the coil is :-
—7
(4) 4N (1) 8.65 x 10 N-m
1 7 . A wire PQRST carrying current I = 5A (2) 6.65 x 10 —7 N-m
A
(3) 3.35 x 10 —7 N-m
is placed in uniform magnetic field
I
(4) 3.91 x 10 —7 N-m
B = 2T as shown in figure If the
2 1 . A solenoid of length 0.4 m, having
length of part QR = 4 cm and SR =
500 turns and 3A current flows through
D
6 cm then the magnetic force on SR
it. A coil of radius 0.01 m and have
edge of the wire is:- 10 turns and carries current of 0.4 A
N
R B=2T has to placed such that its axis is
I
perpendicular to the axis of solenoid,
P
T then torque on coil will be :-
S Q I =5A
(1) 5.92 x 10 - 6 N.m
S
(1) 0.4 N (2) 0.6 N
(2) 5.92 x 10 - 5 N.m
(3) zero (4) 6 N (3) 5.92 x 10 -4 N.m
1 8 . P, Q and R long parallel straight (4) 0.592 x 10 - 3 N.m
O
wires in air, carrying currents as 2 2 . The work done in rotating a magnet
shown. The direction of resultant of magnetic moment M by an angle of
O
force on R is :- 90° from the external magnetic field
P Q R
2A 4A 6A direction is 'n' times the
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) E T the
towards
towards
same
perpendicular
r
as
left
right
r
that
to
of
plane
current
of
in
paper
Q
corresponding
through
gives
(1)
2 3 . Two
1/2
an
by
parallel
(2)
angle
:-
work
2
wires
of
done
(3)
in
60°.
free
1/4
to turn
Where
spece
(4)
it
'n'
1
are
10 cm apart and each carries a current
1 9 . Due to the flow of current in a
of 10 A in the same direction. The
circular loop of radius R, the
magnetic force per unit length of each
magnetic field produced at the centre
wire is :-
of the loop is B. The manetic moment
(1) 2 × 10 –4 N, attractive
of the loop is :- –4
(2) 2 × 10 N, repulsive
(1) BR 3 /2  0 (2) 2  BR 3 /  0
(3) 2 × 10 –7 N, attractive
(3) BR 2 /2  0 (4) 2  BR 2 /  0 –7
(4) 2 × 10 N, repulsive
2 4 . Two identically charged particles A 2 7 . Wire in the form of a right angle

and B initially at rest, are ABC, with AB=3cm and BC = 4cm, carries
accelerated by a common potential a c urrent of 10A. There is a uniform
differene V. They enters into a uniform mag netic field of 5T perpendicular
transverse magnetic field B and to the plane of the wire. T he force
describe a circular path of radii r 1 on the w ire will be :-
and r 2 respectively then their mass (1) 1.5N (2) 2.0N
ratio is :- (3) 2.5N (4) 3.5N
2 2
 r1   r2   r1   r2 
(1)  r  (2)  r  (3)  r  (4)  r 
2 1 2 1
2 5 . Force between two identical bar

magnets
apart is
in same line.
whose centres are
4.8 N when their
If separation
r meter
axes are
is
I A
D
increased to 2r, the force between
them is reduced to :-
(1) 2.4 N (2) 1.2 N
N
(3) 0.6 N (4) 0.3 N
2 6 . If the angle of dip at two places
are 30° and 45° respec tively, then
the ratio of horizontal component of
earth's magnetic field at tw o places
will be :-
S I
(1)
(3) 1
O O3: 2
: 3
(2)
(4) 1
1:
:
2
ANSWER KEY E T EXERCISE - II

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 4 2
Que. 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. 1 3 3 2 2 4 1 1 1
Que. 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 2 1 1 2 1 1 4 1 3
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
RAY OPTICS
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE–I
1. A point object is placed at a distance of 10 cm and its 8. A bubble in glass slab ( = 1.5) when viewed from one
real image is formed at a distance of 20 cm from a side appears at 5 cm and 2cm from other side, then
concave mirror. If the object is moved by 0.1 cm towards thickness of slab is:-
the mirror, the image will shift by about. (1) 3.75 cm (2) 3 cm
(1) 0.4 cm away from the mirror (3) 10.5 cm. (4) 2.5 cm
(2) 0.4 cm towards the mirror
(3) 0.8 cm away from the mirror 9. A film projector magnifies a film of area 100 square
(4) 0.8 cm towards the mirror centimeter on screen. If linear magnification is 4 then
area of magnified image on screen will be –
2. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism (1) 1600 sq.cm (2) 800 sq.cm
in such a manner that the angle of incidence is equal to (3) 400 sq.cm (4) 200 sq.cm
the angle of emergence and each of these angles is
A
equal to 3/4 of the angle of the prism. The angle of 10. A man is 180 cm tall and his eyes are 10 cm below the
I
deviation is top of his head. In order to see his entire height right
(1) 45° (2) 39° (3) 20° (4) 30° from toe to head, he uses a plane mirror kept at a
distance of 1 m from him.The minimum length of the
D
3. The focal length of a convex lens is 10 cm and its plane mirror required is
refractive index is 1.5. If the radius of curvature of one (1) 180 cm (2) 90 cm
surface is 7.5 cm, the radius of curvature of the second (3) 85 cm (4) 170 cm
N
surface will be
(1) 7.5 cm (2) 15.0 cm 11. The focal length of a convex mirror is 20 cm its radius
I
(3) 75 cm (4) 5.0 cm of curvature will be
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
4. The focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece of a (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
S
telescope are respectively 100 cm and 2 cm. The moon
subtends an angle of 0.5° at the eye. If it is looked 12. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and
through the telescope, the angle subtended by the having refractive index n. If c is the velocity of light in
O
moon's image will be vacuum. the time taken by the light to travel this
(1) 100° (2) 50° thickness of glass is
(3) 25° (4) 10°
t
O
(1) (2) tnc
nc
5. A man cannot see clearly the objects beyond a distance
of 20 cm from his eyes. To see distant objects clearly nt tc
T
he must use which kind of lenses and of what focal (3) (4)
c n
length (1) 10 cm convex
E
13. A ray of light propagates from glass (refractive index =
(2) 100 cm concave
3/2) to water ( refractive index = 4/3). The value of the
(3) 20 cm convex
critical angle
(4) 20 cm concave
 8
6. For a plano convex lenx ( = 1.5) has radius of curvature (1) sin–1 (1/2) (2) sin–1  9 
10 cm. It is silvered on its plane surface. Find focal  
length after silvering:- (3) sin–1 (8/9) (4) sin–1 (5/7)
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 15 cm (4) 25 cm 14. Three prisms 1,2 and 3 have the prism angle A = 60°,
but their refractive indices are respectively 1.4, 1.5 and
7. A tall man of height 6 feet, want to see his full image. 1.6.If 1, 2,3, be their respective angles of deviation
Then required minimum length of the mirror will be:- then (1) 3 > 2 > 1
(1) 12 feet (2) 3 feet (2) 1 > 2 > 3
(3) 6 feet (4) Any length (3) 1 = 2 = 3 (4) 2 > 1 > 3
15. In a laboratory four convex lenses L1 ,L2 ,L3 ,and L4 of 22. If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave
focal lengths 2,4,6 and 8 cm respectively are available. lens of focal length 50 cm are combined together, what
Two of these lenses form a telescope of length 10 cm will be their resulting power
and magnifying power 4. The objective and eye lenses (1) + 6.5 D (2) – 6.5 D
are (3) + 7.5 D (4) – 0.75 D
(1) L2 , L3 (2) L1 , L4
(3) L3 ,L2 (4) L4 , L1 23. For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the
condition of total internal refraction of this ray the
16. To remove myopia (short sightedness) a lens of power minimum refractive index of prism will be :–
0.66D is required. The distant point of the eye is
approximately
(1) 100 cm (2) 151.5 cm 45° Incident
ray
(3) 50 cm (4) 25 cm
A
17. The magnifying power of a simple microscope is 6.
The focal length of its lens in metres will be, if least
I
distance of distinct vision is 25 cm
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.06
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.12
D
3 1 2 1
(1) (2)
18. A plano convex lens is made of 2 2
refractive index 1.6. The radius of
N
curvature of the curved surface is 60 3 7
(3) (4)
I
cm. The focal length of the lens is 2 6
(1) 50 cm (2) 100 cm
(3) 200 cm (4) 400 cm 24. Two plane mirrors are at 45° to each other. If an object
S
is placed between them then the number of images
19. A disc is placed on a surface of pond which has refractive will be
5 (1) 5 (2) 9
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index . A source of light is placed 4 m below the (3) 7 (4) 8
3
surface of liquid. The minimum radius of disc will be so
25. An astronomical telescope has a magnifying power 10.
light is not coming out
The focal length of eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length
O
(1)  (2) 3m.
of objective is
(3) 6m. (4) 4m.
(1) 2 cm (2) 200cm
T
20. If in a plano-convex lens. the radius of curvature of the 1 1
(3) cm (4) cm
convex surface is 10 cm and the focal length of the lens 2 200
E
is 30 cm, then the refractive index of the material of
lens will be 26. A person can not see the objects clearly placed at a
(1) 1.5 (2) 1.66 distance more than 40 cm. He is advised to use a lense
(3) 1.33 (4) 3 of power
(1) – 2.5 D (2) + 2.5 D
21. A point source of light is place 4 m below the surface of (3) – 6.25 D (4) + 1.5 D
water of refractive index 5/3. The minimum diameter
of a disc which should be placed over the source on the 27. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i)
surface of water to cut-off all light coming out of water XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let f, f',
is (= 5/3) f" be the focal lengths of the complete lens, of each
(1) 2 m (2) 6 m half in case (i), and of each half in case (ii), respectively
(3) 4 m (4) 3 m Choose the correct statement from the following :–
LMtan –1 n2 OP
(3)
N n1 Q
LMtan –1 n1 OP
(4)
N n2 Q
32. A lens is made of flint glass (refractive index = 1·5). When
the lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1·25,
the focal length
(1) f' = f, f" = 2f (1) Increases to a factor of 1·25
(2) f' = 2f, f" = f (2) Increases to a factor of 2·5
(3) f' = f, f" = f (3) Increases to a factor of 1·2
(4) f' = 2f, f" = 2f (4) Decreases to a factor of 1·2
28. The refractive index of the material of a prism is

and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the refracting
2
33.
I A
A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper
and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive
index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the
D
surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards. A beam microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again:-
of monochromatic light entering the prism from the (1) 1 cm upward (2) 4.5 cm downward
other face will retrace its path after reflection from the (3) 1 cm downward (4) 2 cm upward
mirrored surface if its angle of incidence on the prism
N
is :–
I
34. A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same
(1) 60° (2) 0° focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a
(3) 30° (4) 45° combination of lenses. The power in diopters of the
S
combination is :-
29. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm. diameter (1) 25 (2) 50
and is situated at a distance of one kilometer from two (3) Infinite (4) Zero
objects. The minimum distance between these two
O
objects, which can be resolved by the telescope, when 35. The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 1014
the mean wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is of the order Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of
of :– (1) 5 m. material will be :
O
(2) 5 mm. (1) 1.33 (2) 1.40
(3) 5 cm. (4) 0.5 m. (3) 1.50 (4) 3.00
T
30. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 200 36. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled
cm and an eye piece with focal length 2cm. If this with a liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto
telescope is used to see a 50 meter tall building at the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface (see
E
a distance of 2km, what is the height of the image figure).
of the building formed by the objective lens
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm
3 1 . What should be the maximum acceptance

angle at the air–core interface of
an optical fibre if n 1 and n 2 are
the refractive indices of the core
and the cladding, respectively How fast is the light travelling in the liquid ?
(1) sin–1(n2/n1) (1) 1.2 × 108 m/s
n 12 – n 22 (2) 1.8 × 108 m/s
(2) sin–1
(3) 2.4 × 108 m/s
(4) 3.0 × 108 m/s
37. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact 41. A ray of light is incident on a 60° prism at the minimum
and coaxial.The power of the combination is:- deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first
face (i.e., incident face) of the prism is:-
f f
(1) 1 2 (1) 30° (2) 45°
2 (3) 60° (4) Zero
f1  f2
(2) 42. The near point is 100 cm for a man. To see the distant
f1 f2
object clearly, what is the power of required lens ?
(1) –1D (2) +1D
f1 (3) –3D (4) +3D
(3)
f2
43. Achromatic combination of lenses comprises of the two
lenses of same material placed 4cm apart. If focal length
f2
(4) of one lens is 5cm, the focal length of other lens is :
f1
A
(1) 2cm (2) 4cm
I
(3) 6cm (4) 3cm
38. A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter
d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of diameter
44. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude
D
d 20 cm. Which one of the following options describe best
in central region of lens is covered by a black paper..
2 the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed
Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will be 30 cm from the lens ?
N
(1) Virtual, upright, height = 1cm
I
f I
respectively :- (1) and (2) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5cm
2 2
(3) Real, inverted, height = 4cm
I (4) Real, inverted, height = 1cm
S
(2) f and
4
45. A thin prism of angle 15° made of glass of refractive
3f I 3I index µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass
(3) and (4) f and
O
4 2 4 of refractive index µ2 = 1.75. The combination of the
prisms produces dispersion without deviation. The angle
39. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of of the second prism should be :-
(1) 5° (2) 7°
O
refractive index µ, falls on a surface separating the
medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45°. For (3) 10° (4) 12°
which of the following value of µ the ray can undergo 46. A converging beam of rays is incident on a diverging
T
total internal reflection ? (1) µ = 1.25(2) µ = 1.33 lens. Having passed through the lens the rays intersect
(3) µ = 1.40 (4) µ = 1.50 at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side.
If the lens is removed the point where the rays meet
E
40. The speed of light in media M1 and M2 is 1.5 × 108 m/ will move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of
s and 2.0 × 108 m/s respectively. A ray of light enters the lens is :- (1) 5 cm
from medium M1 to M2 at an incidence angle i. If the (2) –10 cm
ray suffers total internal reflection, the value of i is :- (3) 20 cm
(4) –30 cm
 3
(1) Equal to or less than sin–1  
5 47. Two lens of focal length –20cm and +10cm are put in
combination, find the power of the combination:
 3 (1) –1D (2) –2D
(2) Equal to or greater than sin–1  
 4 (3) +5D (4) +2D
2
(3) Less than sin–1   48. A far sighted person has his near point 50cm, find the
 3 power of lens he should use to see at 25cm, clearly:
(1) +1 (2) +2
 2 (3) –2 (4) –1D
(4) Equal to sin–1  
 3
49. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is 52. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of
adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way
objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the
lenses are : mirror. The length of the image is :-
(1) 18 cm, 2 cm (1) 2.5 cm (2) 5 cm
(2) 11 cm, 9 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 15 cm
(3) 10 cm, 10 cm
(4) 15 cm, 5 cm 53. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be
equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made
50. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence, i, on of a material whose refractive index :-
one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small) (1) is less than 1 (2) is greater than 2
and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the (3) lies between 2 and 1
refractive index of the prism is , the angle of incidence
A
i, is nearly equal to : (4) lies between 2 and 2
(1) A/ (2) A/2
I
A 54. In a convex lens of focal length F, the minimum distance
(3) A (4) between an object and its real image must be :-
2
(1) 3F (2) 4F
51. A concave mirror of focal length 'f1' is placed at a distance

of 'd' from a convex lens of focal length 'f2'. A beam of
light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens-
(3)
3
2
N D
F (4) 2F
I
concave mirror combination returns to infinity. The
distance 'd' must equal :
(1) 2f1 + f2 (2) –2f1 + f2
S
(3) f1 + f2 (4) –f1 + f2
O O
ANSWER KEY
Que.
Ans.
Que. E T
1
1
16
2
4
17
3
2
18
4
3
19
5
4
20
6
1
21
7
2
22
8
3
23
9
1
24
10
2
25
11
4
26
EXERCISE - I
12
2
27
13
3
28
14
1
29
15
4
30
Ans. 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 4 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 1 3 4 2 2 4 4 2 1 4 4 3 3
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Ans. 4 3 2 1 3 2 2 4 2
EXERCISE-II
1 . The focal length of a concave mirror (1) 60° (2) 45°
is 50 cm. where an object be placed (3) 30° (4) 15°
so that its image is two times
magnified, real and inverted - 8 . A microscope is focused on a mark,
(1) 75 cm (2) 72 cm then a glass slab of refractive index
(3) 63 cm (4) 50 cm 1.5 and thickness of 6 cm is placed
on the mark to get the mark again in
2 . An object of height 7.5 cm is placed focus, the microscope should be moved
in front of a convex mirror of radius (1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm
of curvature 25 cm at a distance of (3) 6 cm (4) 8 cm
40 cm. The height of the image should
be - 9 . A person can see clearly only upto a
A
(1) 2.3 cm (2) 1.78 cm distance of 25 cm. He wants to read a
I
(3) 1 cm (4) 0.8 cm book placed at a distance of 50 cm.
What kind of lens does he require for
3 . A square of side 3 cm is placed at a his spectacles and what must be its
D
distance of 25 cm from a concave mirror power ?
of focal length 10 cm. The centre of (1) Concave, – 1.0 D
N
the square is at the axis of the (2) Convex, + 1.5 D
mirror and the plane is normal to the (3) Concave, – 2.0 D
I
axis. The area enclosed by the image (4) Convex, + 2.0 D
of the wire is -
S
(1) 4 cm 2 (2) 6 cm 2 1 0 . Two convex lens of focal length 20 cm
2
(3) 16 cm (4) 36 cm 2 and 25 cm are placed in contact with
each other, then power of this
O
4 . The focal length of a concave mirror combination is –
is 12 cm. Where should an object of (1) + 1 D (2) + 9 D
length 4 cm be placed, so that a real (3) – 1 D (4) – 9 D
image of 1 cm length is formed ?
O
(1) 48 cm (2) 3 cm 1 1 . A person can not see the objects be-
(3) 60 cm (4) 15 cm yond 50 cm. The power of a lens to
T
correct this vision will be-
5 . Minimum and maximum distance should (1) +2D (2) –2D
be for clear vision of healthy eye (3) +5D (4) 0.5 D
E
(1) 100cm & 500 cm
(2) Infinite & 25 cm 1 2 . The focal length of convex lens is
(3) 25cm & 100 cm 2.5 cm. Its magnifying power for mini-
(4) 25 cm & infinite mum distance of distinct
vision will be -
6 . The angle of a glass prism is 4.5 0 (1) 25 (2) 52
and its refractive index is 1.52. The (3) 11 (4) 1.1
angle of minimum deviation will be –
(1) 1.5° (2) 2.3° 1 3 . Two lenses of power +2.50 D and –3.75
(3) 4.5° (4) 2° D are combined to form a compound
lens. Its focal length in cm will be
7 . The wavelength of light in two liquids -
'x' and 'y' is 3500 Å and 7000Å , (1) 40 (2) –40
then the critical angle will be (3) –80 (4) 160
1 4 . An object is lying at a distance of 2 0 . An object is situated at a distance

90 cm from a concave mirror of focal of 15 cm from a convex mirror of
length 30 cm. The position and nature focal length 30 cm. The position of
of image formed by it will be the image formed by it will be-
(1) 45 cm, of the size of object (1) – 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(2) 90 cm, smaller than object (3) – 10 cm (4) + 5 cm
(3) 30 cm, bigger than object
(4) – 45 cm of the smaller the object 2 1 . Lenses of powers 3D and -5D are
combined to from a compound lens. An
1 5 . An object of height 1.5 cm is situ- object is placed at a distance of 50
ated at a distance of 15 cm from a cm from this lens. Calculate the
concave mirror. The concave mirror position of its image.
forms its real image of height 3.0 (1) -10cm (2) +10cm
A
cm. The focal length of concave mir- (3) -25cm (4)+ 25cm.
I
ror will be
(1) – 10 cm (2) – 20 cm 2 2 . An object placed at a distance of a
(3) 20 cm (4) 30 cm 9cm. from the first principal focus
D
of a convex lens produces a real image
1 6 . A myopic person can not see objects at a distance of 25cm. from its second
lying beyond 2 m. The focal length principal focus. then the focal length
N
and power of the lens required to of the lens is :
I
remove this defect will be - (1) 9cm (2) 25cm
(1) 1 m & 0.5 D (3) 15cm (4) 17cm
(2) – 2m & – 0.5 D
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(3) 0.5 m & 0.5 D 2 3 . A convex lens of Focal length of 40cm
(4) – 0.5 m & 0.5 D is in contact with a concave lens of
focal length 25cm. The power of the
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1 7 . An astronomical telescope of magni- combination is.
fying power 8 is made using two lenses (1) -1.5 dioptress
spaced 45 cm apart. The focal length (2) -6.5 dioptress
O
of the lenses used are (3) +6.5 dioptress
(1) F = 40 cm, f = 5 cm (4) +6.67 dioptress
(2) F = 8 cm, f = 5 cm
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(3) F = 5 cm, f = 47 cm 2 4 . An object is put at a distance of 5
(4) F = 20 cm, f = 5 cm cm from the first focus of a convex
E
lens of focal length 10cm.If a real
1 8 . The magnifying power of the objec- image is formed.Its distance from
tive of a compound microscope is 7 if the lens will be:
the magnifying power of the micro- (1) 15cm (2) 20cm
scope is 35, then the magnifying power (3) 25cm (4) 30cm
of eyepiece will be -
(1) 245 (2) 5 2 5 . Lenses applied in achromatic
(3) 28 (4) 42 combination having dispersive power
in ratio of 5:3 if focal length of
1 9 . When a ray of light is incident nor- concave lens is 15cm Then focal length
mally on a plane mirror then the angle of other lens will be :
of reflection will be (1) -9cm (2) +9cm
(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) -12cm (4) +12 cm
(3) 180° (4) – 90°
26. A telescope consisting of objective 32 A ray of light passes through

of focal length 60cm and a single equilateral Prism (   =1.5 ) such that
lens eye piece of focal length 5cm is angle of incidence is equal to angle
focussed at a distant object in such of emergence and the later is equal
a way that parallel rays emerge from to 3/4th of Prism angle. The angle of
the eye piece. If the object subtends deviation is
an angle of 2° at the objective, then (1) 60° (2) 30°
angular width of image will be. (3) 45° (4) 120°
(1) 10° (2) 24°
(3) 50° (4) 1/6 0 3 3 . Prism angle of glass prism is 10°.
It's refractive index of red and violet
2 7 . Focal length of convex lens is f. If colour is 1.51 and 1.52 respectively.
this lens is cut along parallel to Then its dispersive power will be .
A
its length in two equal parts then (1) 0.015 (2) 0.020
focal length of its half part will
I
(3) 0.011 (4) 0.019
be:
(1) f/2 (2) f 3 4 . Refractive index of violet,yellow and
D
Red colour of light for a material
3f
(3) (4)2f of lens are 1.66, 1.64 & 1.62
2
respectively. If mean focal length
N
of lens is 10cm Then chromatic
2 8 . An equiconvex lens has a power of 5
I
abberation between the colour of violet
dioptre. If it is made of glass of and red will be
refractive index 1.5. then radius of (1) 0.625cm (2) 0.125
S
curvature of its each surface will be (3) .02cm (4) 0cm
?
(1) 20cm (2) 10cm 3 5 . An astronomical telescope has focal
(3) 40cm (4) 
O
lengths 100 & 10cm of objective and
eyepiece lens respectively when final
2 9 . A ray is incident at 30° angle on image is formed at least distance of
plane mirror. What will be deviation
O
distinct vision, magnification power
after reflection from mirror. of telescope will be –
(1) 120° (2) 60° (1) 10 (2) -11
T
(3) 30° (4) 45° (3) 14 (4) 15
3 0 . Two plane mirrors are lying
E
3 6 . If the magnitude of dispersive powers
perpendicular to each other, there of two lenses are 0.024 and 0.036.
is lamp in between mirrors. Then No. Then their focal lengths will be for
of images of lamp will be abberation free combination.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 30 cm, -40 cm
(3) 5 (4) 6 (2) 30 cm, -45 cm
(3) 10 cm, 30 cm
3 1 . An object placed at a distance of 9cm (4) 20 cm, -35 cm
from first principal focus of convex
lens, produces a real image at a 3 7 . Velocity of light in glass, whose
distance of 25cm from its second refractive index w.r.t. air is 1.5,
principal focus. Then focal length is 2x10 8 m/Sec. In a c ertain liquid
of lens is the velocity of light is found to be
(1) 9cm (2) 25cm 2.5x10 8 m/Sec. The refractive index
(3) 15cm (4) 17cm of liquid w.r.t. air is
(1) 0.64 (2) 0.80 index of water is 4/3)

(3) 1.20 (4) 1.44
4
(1) 1 cm (2) cm
3
3 8 . A virtual image three times the size
of the object is obtained with a (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm
concave mirror of radius of curvature
36 cm. The distance of the object 4 3 . If tube length of astronomical
from the mirror is - telescope is 105 cm and magnifying
(1) 5 cm (2) 12 cm power is 20 for normal setting.
(3) 10 cm (4) 20 cm Calculate the focal length of
objective.
3 9 . If the refractive indices of crown (1) 100 cm (2) 10 cm
glass for red, yellow and violet (3) 20 cm (4) 25 cm
A
colours are 1.5140, 1.5170 and 1.5318
4 4 . A point source of light is place 4 m
I
respectively and for flint glass these
are 1.6434, 1.6499 and 1.6852 below the surface of water of
respectively, then the dispersive refractive index 5/3. The minimum
diameter of a disc which should be
D
powers for crown and flint glass are
respectively. placed over the source on the surface
(1) 0.034 and 0.064 of water to cut-off all light coming
out of water is (  = 5/3)
N
(2) 0.064 and 0.034
(1) 2 m (2) 6 m (3) 4 m (4) 3 m
I
(3) 1.00 and 0.064
(4) 0.034 and 1.0
4 5 . Least distance of distinct vision is
S
4 0 . A thin Prism P 1 with ang le 4° and 25 cm, What will be Magnifying power
made from glass of refractive index of simple microscope of focal length
1.54 is combined with another thin 5 cm, if final image is formed at
O
Prism P 2 made from glass of refractive minimum distance of distinct vision
index 1.72 to produce dispersion –
without deviation. The angle of Prism 1 1
(1) (2) 5 (3) (4) 6
O
P2 is 5 6
(1) 5.33° (2) 4°
(3) 3° (4) 2.6°
T
4 6 . Angle of prism is A and its one surface
is silvered. Light rays falling at an
4 1 . The angle of minimum deviation
angle of incidence 2A on first surface
E
measured with a prism is 30° and the
return back through the same path
angle of prism is 60°. The refractive
after suffering reflection at second
index of prism material is –
silvered surface. Refractive index
(1) 2 (2) 2 of the material of prism is
(1) 2 sin A (2) 2 cos A
3 4
(3) (4)
2 3 1
(3) cosA (4) tanA
2
4 2 . A microscope is focussed on a coin
lying at the bottom of a beaker. The 47. A point object is moving on the
microscope is now raised up by 1 cm. principal axis of a concave mirror of
To what depth should the water be focal length 24 cm towards the mirror.
poured into the beaker so that coin When it is at a distance of 60 cm
is again in the focus (Refractive from the mirror, its velocity is 9
cm/sec. What is the velocity of the
image at that instant - 5 0 . The minimum distance between the

(1) 5 cm/sec. object and its real image for concave
(2) 12 cm/sec mirror is
(3) 4 cm/sec (1)  (2) 2
(4) 9 cm/sec (3) 4  (4) Zero
4 8 . A glass prism (  = 1.5) is dipped in 5 1 . A ray of light is incident at an

water (  = 4/3) as show n in figure. A angle i from denser to rare medium.
light ray is incident normally on the The reflected and the refracted rays
surface AB. It reaches the surface BC are mutually perpendicular. The angle
after totally reflected, if of reflection and the angle of
refraction are respectively r and r'.
then the critical angle will be
I A
(1) sin  > 8/9
(2) 2/3 < sin  < 8/9
(3) sin  < 2/3
N D
I
(4) It is not possible (1) sin –1 (sin r)
(2) sin –1 (tan r')
4 9 . A concave mirror gives an image three (3) sin –1 (tan i)
S
times as large as the object placed (4) tan –1 (sin i)
at a distance of 20 cm from it. For
the image to be real, the focal length
O
should be -
(1) –10 cm (2) –15 cm
(3) –20 cm (4) –30 cm
TO
ANSWER KEY
Que.
Ans.
Que.
E 1
1
14
2
2
15
3
1
16
4
3
17
5
4
18
6
2
19
7
3
20
8
2
21
9
3
22
EXERCISE - II
10
2
23
11
2
24
12
3
25
13
3
26
Ans. 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 4 2 2
Que. 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Ans. 4 1 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 1
Que. 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51
Ans. 3 1 4 1 2 4 2 3 1 2 4 3
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
INTERFERENCE
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE–I
1 . Two coherent light beams of intensity (1) a (2) 2 a
I and 4I are superposed. The maximum
and minimum possible intensities in (3) 2a (4) 3 a
the resulting beam are :
(1) 5I and 3I (2) 5I and I 6 . Two coherent sources of different
(3) 9I and 3I (4) 9I and I intensities send waves which
interfere. If the ratio of maximum
and minimum intensity in the
2 . Young's double slit experiment is interference pattern is 25 then find
performed with light of wavelength ratio of intensity of source :
A
550 nm. The separation between the (1) 25 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
I
slits is 1.10 mm and screen is placed
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 25 : 16
at distance of 1m. What is the distance
between the consecutive bright or dark
D
7 . In a Young's double slit experiment
fringes.
with sodium light, slits are 0.589 m
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 1.0 mm apart. The angular separation of the
N
(3) 0.5 mm (4) None of these third maximum from the central maximum
I
will be (given  = 589 nm) :
3 . Two coherent sources of intensities (1) sin –1 (0.33 × 10 8 )

I1 and I2 produce an interference (2) sin –1 (0.33 × 10 –6 )
S
pattern. The maximum intensity in the (3) sin –1 (3 × 10 –8 )
intrference pattern will be : (4) sin –1 (3 × 10 –6 )
O
(1) I1 + I2 (2) I12  I 22
8 . If an interference pattern have
2
(3) (I 1 + I 2) 2 (4)  I1  I2  maximum and minimum intensities in
O
36 :1 ratio then what will be the
ratio of amplitudes :
T
4 . Two wave are represented by the
(1) 5 : 7 (2) 7 : 4
equations y 1 = a sin t and y 2 = a cos
t.The first wave : (3) 4 : 7 (4) 7 : 5
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
E Leads
Lags
Leads
Lags
the
the
the
the
second
seconds
second
seconds
by
by
by
by


2

2

9 . When a thin transparent

thickness t and refractive index  is
placed in the path of one of the two
interfering waves of light,
path difference changes by
plate
then
:
of
the
5 . The resultant amplitude of a vibrating (1) ( + 1)t (2) ( – 1)t

particle by the superposition of the
  1    1 
  (3) (4)
two waves y 1 = asin  t   and y 2 = a t t
 3 
sin t is :-
1 0 . If intensity ratio of two interfering 1 4 . If in a Young's double slit experiment,

waves is 9 : 1 then ratio of maximum width between the slits is 3 cm, the
to minimum amplitude of resultant wave separation between slits and screen
is : is 7 cm and wavelength of light is
1000 Å, then fringe width will be
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(1) 2 × 10 –5 m. (2) 2 × 10 –9 m
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 5 : 2
(3) 0.2 × 10 –6 m (4) 2.3 × 10 –7 m
1 1 . A double slit experiment is performed 1 5 . In an interference experiment, third

with light of wavelength 500 nm. A bright fringe is obtained at a point
thin film of thickness 2 m and on the screen with a light of 700 nm.
refractive index 1.5 is introduced What should be the wavelength of the
A
in the path of the upper beam. The light in order to obtain 5 th bright
I
fringe at the same point ?
location of the central maximum will
: (1) 500 nm (2) 630 nm
(3) 750 nm (4) 420 nm
D
(1) Remain unshifted
(2) Shift downward by nearly two

16 In the young's double slit experiment
fringes
N
the central maxima is observed to be
I 0. If one of the s lits is covered,
I
(3) Shift upward by nearly two fringes
then intensity at the central maxima
will become :
(4) Shift downward by 10 fringes
S
(1) I 0/ 2 (2) I0 / 2
(3) I 0/ 4 (4) I0
1 2 . In YDSE experiment, when two light
O
rays make third minima, then they
have:- 17 In young experiment ratio of maximum
and minimum intensity is 9 : 1 in
(1) Phase difference of 3
O
fringe system then the ratio of
amplitude of coherent source is :
5
(2) Phase difference of (1) 9 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
T
2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
(3) Path difference of 3
E
5 1 8 . In a double slit experiment if light
(4) Path difference of
2 of wavelength 5000 Å is used then
fringe width of 1 mm is obtained. If
now light of wavelength 6000 Å is used
1 3 . Two waves Y1 = asin t and Y2 without altering the system then new
=asin( t+  ) are producing fringe width will be :
interference, then resultent (1) 1 mm (2) 0·5 mm
intensity is – (3) 1·2 mm (4) 1·5 mm
2 2
(1) a cos /2
(2) 2
2a cos 2
/2 I1 9 I m ax
1 9 . If = then = ?
l2 1 I m in
(3) 3a 2 cos 2 /2
(4) 4a 2 cos 2 /2 (1) 100 : 64 (2) 64 : 100
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
2 0 . Monochromatic green light has 2 3 . Two waves are represented by the

wavelength 5 × 10 –7 m. The s eparation equations y 1 = asin ( t + kx + 0.57)
between slits is 1 mm. The fringe m and y 2 = a cos ( t + kx) m where
width of interferance patern obtained x is in meter and t in sec. The phase
on screen at a distance of 2 meter difference between them is :-
is : (1) 1.0 radian (2) 1.25 radian
(1) 1 mm (2) 0.5 mm (3) 1.57 radian (4) 0.57 radian
(3) 2 mm (4) 0.1 mm
2 4 . In interference, the intensity of two

2 1 . In Young's double slit experiment w hen interfering waves are I and 4I
wavelength of 700 nm is us ed then respectively. They produce intensity
fringe w idth of 0.7 mm is obtained. at two point A and B with phase angle
If wavelength of 500nm is used then
of  /2 and  respectively. Then
A
what is the fring e width?
difference in between them :
I
(1) 0.35 mm (2) 0.5 mm (1) I (2) 2I
(3) 3.5 mm (4) 5 mm (3) 4I (4) 5I
2 2 . What will be the effect on

width, w hen distance between
double slits bec ome doubled-
fringe
Young
2 5 . In
fringe
Young's
N D
width
double
is :-
slit experiment,
fringe order is represented by m, then
I
(1) Independent of m
(2) Directly proportional to m
(1) 1/2 times (2) 2 times
(3) Directly proportional to (2m + 1)
S
(3) 1/4 times (4) Unc hang ed (4) Inversely proportional to (2m + 1)
O O
E T
ANSWER KEY EXERCISE-I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 4 3 4 4 4 3 4 4 2 1 3 4 4
Que. 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 4 4 3 3 3 3 1 2 1 1 3 1
EXERCISE-II
1. For distinct interference pattern to be observed, necessary 7. If ratio of amplitude of two interferring source is 3 : 5.
condition is that ratio of intensity of light emission by Then ratio of intensity of maxima and minima in
both the sources should be : interference pattern will be :
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (1) 25 : 16 (2) 5 : 3
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 (3) 16 : 1 (4) 25 : 9
2. The phase difference corresponding to path difference of 8. In an interference pattern the (n+4)th blue bright fringe
x is : and nth red bright fringe are formed at the same spot. If
red and blue light have the wavelength of 7800 Å and
2 x 2 
(1) (2) 5200 Å then value of n should be :
 x
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
x 
A
(3) (4) 9. In Young's double slit experiment, wavelength of light is
 x
I
6000Å. Then the phase difference between the light
3. The coherent source of light produces constructive
waves reaching the third bright fringe from the central
interference when phase difference betwen them is :
fringe will be :
D
1 (1) zero (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
(1)  (2) 
2
10. If intensity of each wave in the observed interference
3
N
(3)  (4) 2 pattern in Young's double slit experiment is I0. then for
2 some point P where the phase difference is , intensity
I
I will be :
4. In an interference of light derived from two slit apertures, (1) I = I0 cos (2) I = I0 cos2 
if at some point on the screen, yellow light has a path
S
(3) I = I0 (1+cos ) (4) I = 2I0(1+cos )
3
difference of , then the fringe at that point will be :
2 11. Amplitude of waves observed by two light sources of
same wave length are a and 2a and have a phase
O
(1) yellow in colour (2) white in colour
(3) dark (4) bright difference of between them. Then minimum intensity
of light will be :
5. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I interfer to (1) 0 (2) 5a2 (3) a2 (4) 9a2
O
produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase difference
 12. If the intensity of the waves observed by two coherent
between the beam is at point A and 2 at point B.
T
2 sources is I. Then the intensity of resultant wave in
Then find out the difference between the resultant constructive interference will be :
intensities at A and B. (1) 2I
E
(1) 2I (2) 5I (2) 4I
(3) I (4) 4I (3) I
6 . In an interference pattern of two waves
fringe width is  . If the frequency 13. If intensity of each of the two waves is I and they are
of source is doubled then fringe width having phase difference of 1200, when the waves are
will become : superposed, then the resultant intensity will be :
(1) I (2) 2I (3) I/2 (4) 4I
1
(1)  (2) 
2 14. Ratio of intensity of two waves is 25 : 1. If interference
3 occurs, then ratio of maximum and minimum intensity
(3) 2 (4)  should be :
2
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 4 : 9
15. The intensity of two waves is 2 and 3 unit, then average 21. In Young's double slit experiment, the two slits act as
intensity of light in the overlapping region will have the coherent sources of equal amplitude A and wavelength
value :  In another experiment with the same set up the two
(1) 2.5 (2) 6 slits are sources of equal amplitude A and wavelength 
(3) 5 (4) 13 but are incoherent. The ratio of the intensity of light at
the mid-point of the screen in the first case to that in the
16 The light waves from two independent monochromatic second case is :
light sources are given by – (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
y 1  2 sin t and y 2  3 cos t, (3) 1 : 1 (4) None of the above
then the following statement is correct
22. In Young's double slit experiment, if the width of the
(1) Both the waves are coherent
slits are in the ratio 4 : 9 the ratio of the intensity of
(2) Both the waves are incoherent
maxima to the intensity at minima will be :
(3) Both the waves have different time periods
(1) 169 : 25 (2) 81 : 16
A
(3) 25 : 1 (4) 9 : 4
I
17. Four independent waves are represented by the
23. In an interference experiment, the spacing between
equations:
successive maxima or minima is :
y 1  a 1 sin t,
D
d D
y 2  a 2 sin t, (1) (2)
D d
y 3  a 3 cos t,
dD d
N
(3) (4)
y 4  a 4 sin ( t   / 3)  4D
I
Then the waves for which phenomenon
of interference will be observed are – 2 4 . InYoung's double slit experiment, a
S
(1) 1 and 3 (2) 1 and 4 mica sheet of thickness t and
(3) all 1, 2, 3 and 4 (4) None refractive index  is introduced in
the path of ray from the first source
18. In Young's experiment, monochromatic light through a S 1. By how much dis tance the fringe
O
single slit S is used to illuminate the two slits S1 and S2. pattern will be displaced :
Interference fringes are obtained on a screen. The fringe
d D
width is found to be w. Now a thin sheet of mica (thickness (1)   1 t (2)   1  t
D d
O
t and refractive index ) is placed near and in front of
one of the two slits. Now the fringe width is found to be
d D
w, then : (3) (4)   1 
T
(1) w = w/ (2) w = w
  1  D d
(3) w =( – 1) tw (4) w = w
2 5 . In Young's experiment, light of
E
19. The intensity of the central fringe obtained in the wavelength 6000Å is used to produce
interference pattern due to two indentical slit sources is fringes of width 0.8 mm at a distance
I. When one of the slits is closed then the intensity at of 2.5 m. If the whole experiment is
the same point is I0. Then the correct relation between I deep in a liquid of refractive index
and I0 is : 1.6, then fringe width will be :
(1) I = I0 (2) I = 2I0 (1) 0.5 mm (2) 0.6 mm
(3) I = 4I0 (4) I = I0/4 (2) 0.4 mm (4) 0.2 mm
20. Two coherent sources of equal intensities produce a 26. In double slit experiment, the angular width of the fringes
maximum of 100 units. If the amplitude of one of the is 0.20° for the sodium light (= 5890Å). In rder to increase
sources is reduced by 20%, then the maximum intensity the angular width of the fringes by 10%, the necessary
produced will be : change in the wavelength is :
(1) 100 (2) 81 (1) Increase of 589Å (2) Decrease of 589Å
(3) 89 (4) 60 (3) Increase of 6479Å (4) Zero
27. If a transparent medium of refractive index = 1.5 and

thickness t = 2.5 × 10–5 m is inserted in front of the slits
of Young's Double slit experiment, how much will be
the shift in the interference pattern? The distance
between the slits is 0.5 mm and that between slits and
screen is 100 cm :
(1) 5 cm (2) 2.5 cm
(3) 0.25 cm (4) 0.1 cm
I A
N D
S I
O O
ANSWER KEY
Que.
E T 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
EXERCISE-II
12 13 14
Ans. 3 1 4 3 4 1 3 4 4 4 3 2 1 3
Que. 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 3 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 2
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
PHOTO ELECTRIC
EFFECT
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE - I
1. By photo electric effect, Einstein proved :- 8. The value of planck's constant is :–
1 (1) 6.63 × 10–34 J/s (2) 6.63 × 10–34 kg–m2/s

(1) E = h (2) KE = mv2
2
(3) 6.63 × 10–34 kg–m2 (4) 6.63 × 10–34 J–s–1
Rhc 2 9. When ultraviolet rays incident on metal plate then

(3) E = mc2 (4) E =
n2 photoelectric effect does not occur, it occurs by
2. Which one among shows particle nature of light incidence of :–
(1) P.E.E. (2) Interference (1) Infrared rays (2) X–rays
(3) Refraction (4) Polirazation
(3) Radio wave (4) Light wave
3. A photo-cell is illuminated by a source of light, which is
10. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source
A
placed at a distance d from the cell, If the distance
of light 1 m away. When the source is shifted to
I
become d/2, then number of electrons emitted per
second will be :- 2m then
(1) Remain same (2) Four times (1) each emitted electron carries one quarter of the
D
(3) Two times (4) One-fourth initial energy
4. Graph is plotted between maximum kinetic energy of
(2) number of electrons emitted is half the initial
electron with frequency of incident photon in Photo
N
number
electric effect. The slope of curve will be :
I
(3) each emitted electron carries half the initial
energy
S
(4) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the
Ek
initial number
11. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the
O

graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons
(1) Charge of electron
ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is
(2) Work function of metal
O
(3) Planck’s constant
(4) Ratio of Planck constant and charge of electron
T
(1) (2)
5. Photon of energy 6 eV is incident on a metal surface of
work function 4 eV. Maximum KE of emitted photo
E
electrons will be :-
(1) 0 eV (2) 1 eV (3) (4)
(3) 2 eV (4) 10 eV
6. Light of frequency v is incident on a metal of threshold 12. Two separate monochromatic light beams A and B of
frequency v0. Then work function of metal will be :- the same intensity are falling normally on a unit area
(1) hv (2) hv0 of a metallic surface. Their wavelength are A and B
(3) h(v – v0) (4) h (v + v0) respectively. Assuming that all the incident light is used
in ejecting the photoelectrons, the ratio of the number
7. The work function of a photo electric material is 3.3
of photoelectrons from the beam A to that from B is
eV. Its threshold frequency will be :
(1) (A/B)2 (2) A/B
23 12
(1) 4 × 10 Hz (2) 8 × 10 Hz
(3) B/A (4) 1
(3) 4 × 1011 Hz (4) 8 × 1014 Hz
13. Threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from 18. When photons of energy h fall on an aluminium plate
a metal surface is 5200 Å. Photoelectrons will be emitted (of work function E 0), photoelectrons on maximum
when this surface is illuminated with monochromatic kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the
radiation from. radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the
ejected photoelectrons will be:-
(1) 1 W IR lamp (2) 50 W UV lamp
(3) 50 W IR lamp (4) 10 W IR lampe (1) K + E0 (2) 2K
14. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the (3) K (4) K + h

plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted 19. The momentum of a photon of energy 1MeV in kg m/
photoelectrons from a metal v/s the frequency of s, will be :-
the incident radiation gives a straight line whose
(1) 0.33 × 106 (2) 7 × 10–24
slope :
(1) depends on the intensity of the radiation (3) 10–22 (4) 5 × 10–22
A
(2) depends of the nature of the metal used 20. A photon of energy 4 eV is incident on a metal surface
I
(3) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and whose work function is 2eV. The minimum reverse
potential to be applied for stopping the emission of
the metal used.
electrons is
D
(4) is the same for all metals and independent of the
intensity of the radiation. (1) 2V (2) 4V (3) 6V (4) 8V
21. In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from
N
15. The work functions for metals A, B and C are
respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5eV. According metals if the incident light has a certain minimum–
to Einstein's equation, the metals which will emit
photo electrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100Å
is/are :-
(1) None
(3) A and B only
(2) A only
(4) All the three metals
S I
22.
(1) wavelength
(3) amplitude
(2) frequency
(4) angle of incidence
A 5 wat t source emits monochromatic light of

wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it
O
liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive
16. A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, h metallic surface. When the source is moved to a
0. If photons of energy 2h 0 fall on this surface, the distance of 1.0 m, the number of photo electrons
O
electrons come out with a maximum velocity of 4 × 106 liberated will :
m/s. When the photon energy is increased to 5h0, then
(1) be reduced by a factor of 2
maximum velocity of photo electrons will be :-
T
(1) 2 × 107 m/s
E
(2) 2 × 106 m/s
(3) 8 × 105 m/s
23. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is
(4) 8 × 106 m/s
produced by a laser. T he power emit ted is
17. A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to convert 2 × 10–3 W. The number of photons emitted, on the
(1) Change in the frequency of light into a change in average, by the source per second is :
electric voltage (1) 5 × 1014 (2) 5 × 1015
(2) Change in the intensity of illumination into a change (3) 5 × 10 16 (4) 5 × 1017
in photoelectric current 24. The work function of a surface of a photosensitive
(3) Change in the intensity of illumination into a change material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the incident
in the work function of the radiation for which the stopping potential is 5V lies in
photocathode the :-
(4) Change in the frequency of light into a change in (1) Infrarted region (2) X-ray region
the electric current (3) Ultraviolet region (4) Visible region
25. The number of photo electrons emitted for light of a 1

30. An alpha nucleus of energy mv 2 bombards a
frequency  (higher than the threshold frequency 0) is 2
heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance
proportional to :-
of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be
(1) Frequency of ligh ()
proportional to :-
(2)  – 0
1 1
(3) Threshold frequency (0) (1) (2)
v4 Ze
(4) Intensity of light
26. Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is 1
(3) v2 (4)
produced by a helium neon laser. T he power m
emitted is 9 mW. The number of photons arriving 31. The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from
per sec. on the average at a target irradiated by excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and
this beam is :- the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive
(1) 3 × 1019 (2) 9 × 1017
A
material. If the work function of the material is 5.1
16 15
(3) 3 × 10 (4) 9 × 10
I
eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be (the
27. The figure shows a plot of phot current versus anode
13.6
potential for a photo sensitive surface for three energy of the electron in nth state E n   eV ):-
n2
D
different radiations. Which one of the following is a
correct statement ?
(1) 12.1 V (2) 17.2 V
photo current
N
(3) 7 V (4) 5.1 V
I
b 32. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident
c a
light has more than a certain minimum :-
Retarding Anode
S
potential potential (1) Power (2) Wavelength
(1) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations (3) Intensity (4) Frequency
of same frequency having same intensity
33. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have
O
(2) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate a
of different frequencies and different intensities metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV
O
(3) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations successively. Ratio of maximum speed of emitted
of same frequency but of different intensities electrons will be :
(4) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 2
28.
E T
of different frequencies and different intensities
A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per second
of wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S 2 is
producing 1.02 × 10 15 photons per second of
wavelength 5100 Å.
Then, (power of S2)/(power of S1) is equal to :-
(1) 0.98 (2) 1.00
34.
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 5
In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work
function 1.8eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic
electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping
potential is :
(1) 1.8 V (2) 1.3V
(3) 1.02 (4) 1.04 (3) 0.5V (4) 2.3V
29. The potential difference that must be applied to stop 35. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is
the fastest photo electrons emitted by a nickel 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident
sur face, having work funct ion 5.01 eV, when on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric
ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be - emission is nearly :-
(1) 1.2 V (2) 2.4 V (1) 1 V (2) 2 V
(3) –1.2 V (4) –2.4V (3) 3 V (4) 5 V
36. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited 43. Surface of sodium is illuminated by a light of 6000 Å
state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted wavelength. Work function of sodium is 2.6 eV. Then
illuminates a photosensitive material having work minimum K.E. of emitted electrons is :
function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the (1) 0 eV (2) 1.53 eV
photoelectron is 10 V, then the value of n is :-
(3) 2.46 eV (4) 4.14 eV
(1) 2 (2) 3
44. The energy of photon of visible light with maximum
(3) 4 (4) 5
wavelength in eV is :
37. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on
(1) 1 (2) 1.6
hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the grounds
(3) 3.2 (4) 7
state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping
potential is measured to be 3.57V. The threshold 45. The threshold wavelength of tungsten is 2300 Å. If
frequency of the material is : ultra violet light of wavelength 1800 Å is incident on it,
A
(1) 1.6 × 1015 Hz (2) 2.5 × 1015 Hz then the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
I
would be.
(3) 4 × 1015 Hz (4) 5 × 1015 Hz
38. A 200W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of (1) 1.5 eV (2) 2.2 eV
wavelength 0.6 m. Assuming it to be 25% efficient (3) 3.0 eV (4) 5.0 eV
D
converting electrical energy to light, the number of 46. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emit-
photons of yellow light it emits per second is :- ted from a surface when photons of energy 6 e V fall
N
20 19
(1) 62 × 10 (2) 3 × 10 on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in volt is :
I
20
(3) 1.5 × 10 (4) 6 × 1018 (1) 4 (2) 6
39. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and (3) 8 (4) 10
2.5 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic
S
47. The strength of photoelectric current is directly propor-
surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the
tional to :
maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is:-
(1) Frequency of incident radiation
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 5
O
(2) Intensity of incident radiation
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2
40. A photon is incident having frequnecy (3) Angle of incidence of radiation
1 × 10 14 sec –1. T hreshold frequency of metal is
O
(4) Distance between anode and cathode
5 × 1013 sec–1. Find the kinetic energy of the ejected
electron :- 48. When light falls on a photosensitive surface, electrons
T
(1) 3.3 × 10–21 J (2) 6.6 × 10–21 J are emitted from the surface. The kinetic energy of these
(3) 3.3 × 10–20 J (4) 6.6 × 10–20 J electrons does not depend on the :
41. A laser beam (  = 633 nm) has an power of (1) Wavelength of light
E
3 mW. What will be the pressure exerted on a surface (2) Frequency of light
by this beam if the cross sectional area is 3 mm2. (As-
(3) Type of material used for the surface
sume perfect reflection and normal incidence)
(1) 6.6x10–3 N/m2 (2) 6.6x10–6 N/m2 (4) Intensity of light
(3) 6.6x10–9 N/m2 (4) 6.6 N/m2 49. The frequency of the incident light falling on a photo-
42. Photoelectric effect takes place in element A. Its work sensitive metal plate is doubled, the kinetic energy of
function is 2.5 eV and threshold wavelength is . An the emitted photoelectrons is
other element B is having work function of 5 eV. Then (1) Double of the earlier value
find out the maximum wavelength that can produce
(2) Unchanged
photoelectric effect in B :
(3) More than double
(1) /2 (2) 2
(3)  (4) 3 (4) Less than double
50. When light of wavelength lesser than 6000 Å is inci- 56. The maximum wavelength of light for photoelectric
dent on a metal, electrons are emitted. The approxi- effect from a metal is 200 nm. The maximum kinetic
mate work-function of the metal is : energy of electron which is emitted by the radiation of
wave length 100 nm will be :
(1) 1 eV (2) 2 eV
(1) 12.4 eV (2) 6.2 eV
(3) 4 eV (4) 6 eV
(3) 100 eV (4) 200 eV
51. The work- function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The long-
57. The stopping potential as a function of frequency of
est wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron incident radiation is plotted for two different surfaces A
emission from this substance is approximately : and B. The graphs show that the work function of A is
(1) 540 nm (2) 400 nm
A B
(3) 310 nm (4) 220 nm
A
52. The kinetic energy of most energetic electrons emitted Vs
I
from a metallic surface is doubled when the wavelength
of the incident radiation is changed from 400 nm to
310 nm the work-function of the metal is : 
D
(1) 0.9 eV (2) 1.7 eV
(1) Greater than that of B
(3) 2.2 eV (4) 3.1 eV
(2) Smaller than that of B
N
53. If the light of wavelength  is incident on metal surface,
I
(3) Same as that of B
the ejected fastest electron has speed 6 v. If the
(4) No comparison can be done from given graphs
3
S
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the fastestt 58. The slope of graph drawn between stopping potential
4
and frequency of incident light for a given surface will
emitted electron will be be :-
O
4 4 (1) h (2) h/e
(1) Smaller than v (2) Greater than v
3 3 (3) eh (4) e
59. When a point source of monochromatic light is at a
O
(3) 2 v (4) Zero
distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut - off
54. When light is incident on surface, photo electrons are voltage and the saturation current are 0.6 volt and 18
T
emitted. For photoelectrons : mA respectively. If the same source is placed 0.6 m
(1) The value of kinetic energy is same for all away from the photoelectric cell, then :-
(2) Maximum kinetic energy do not depend on the wave (1) The stopping potential will be 0.2 V
E
length of incident light
(2) The stopping potential will be 0.6 V
(3) The value of kinetic energy is equal to or less than
(3) The saturation current will be 6 mA
a maximum kinetic energy
(4) The saturation current will be 18 mA
(4) None of the above.
55. When a certain metallic surface is illuminated with mono- 60. What is the momentum of a photon having frequency
chromatic light of wave length , the stopping poten- 1.5 × 1013 Hz :
tial for photo electric current is 6 V0. When the same (1) 3.3 × 10–29 kg m/s
surface is illuminated with light of wave length 2, the
(2) 3.3 × 10–34 kg m/s
stopping potential is 2V0. The threshold wavelength
of this surface for photoelectric effect is : (3) 6.6 × 10–34 kg m/s
(1) 6  (2) 4/3 (4) 6.6 × 10–30 kg m/s
(3) 4 (4) 8
ANSWER KEY
Qu e. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 3 2 2 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 4 4 1 2 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 1 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 2 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 2 2 2 1
I A
N D
S I
O O
E T
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
X-ray
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE–I
1. On increasing the filament current in X-ray tube :– 8. If V be the accelerating voltage, then the maximum
(1) wavelength of X-rays increases frequency of continuous X-rays is given by :–
(2) penetration power of X-ray increases eh hV eV h
(3) intensity of X-rays decreases (1) (2) (3) (4)
V e h eV
(4) intensity of X-rays increases
9. In an X-ray tube, electrons accelerated through a
2. Characteristic X-rays are not obtained in the spectrum potential difference of 15000 V strike a copper
of H-atom because :– target. The speed of the emitted X-rays from the
(1) hydrogen is a gas tube is :–
(2) hydrogen is very light [e=charge on electron, m=mass of electron, Z=atomic
(3) energy difference in energy levels of hydrogen is number of target]
A
much less
2  2e  1500 2  e  1500
(1) (2)
I
(4) energy difference in energy levels of hydrogen is m m
much high
2Ze  1500
3. In X-ray spectrum wave length  of line K depends on (3) (4) 3 × 108 m/s
m
D

atomic number Z as :–
(1)  Z2 (2)  (Z–1)2 10. The momentum of a photon in an X-ray beam of 10–10
metre wavelength is :–
1
N
1
(3)  (4)  (1) 1.5 × 10–23 kg–m/sec (2) 6.6 × 10–24 kg–m/sec
(Z  1) (Z  1)2
I
(3) 6.6 × 10–44 kg–m/sec (4) 2.2 × 10–52 kg–m/sec
4. If potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is V
volt, then minimum wavelength of X-rays produced is 11. The energy of a photon of light with wavelength 5000Å
S
about (in Å) :– is approximately x eV. This way the energy of an X-
ray photon with wavelength 1Å would be:–
(1) 1240/V (2) 12400/V
x x
eV eV
O
(3) 24000/V (4) 12.27/ V (1) (2)
5000 (5000)2
5. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by (3) x × 5000 eV (4) x × (5000)2eV
electrons accelerated by a potential difference of
O
V volts is equal to :– 12. The kinetic energy of an electron which is accelerated
through a potential of 100 volts is :–
eV eh hc h (1) 1.602 × 10–17 joules (2) 418.6 calories
T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
hc cV eV V (3) 1.16 × 104 K
(4) 6.626 × 10–34 watt-second
6. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is
E
increased. As a result, in the emitted radiation :– 13. The wavelength of K X-rays produced by an X-ray tube

(a) the intensity increases is 0.76 Å. The atomic number of the anode material of
the tube is :–
(b) the minimum wavelength increases
(1) 20 (2) 60 (3) 41 (4) 80
(c) the intensity remains unchanged
(d) the minimum wavelength decreases 14. The wavelength of the most energetic X-ray emitted
when a metal target is bombarded by electrons
(1) a, b (2) c, d (3) a, d (4) b, c
having kinetic energy 100 keV is approximately :
7. In producing X-rays a beam of electrons accelerated by (1) 12 Å (2) 4 Å
a potential difference V is made to strike a metal target. (3) 0.31 Å (4) 0.124 Å
For what value of V of the following X-rays have the
lowest wavelength :– 15. K characteristic X-ray refers to the transition :–
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 3 to n = 2
(1) 10 kV (2) 20 kV (3) 30 kV (4) 40 kV
(3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 4 to n = 2
16. X-rays are produced in X-ray tube operating at a given 23. What is the approximate ratio of wavelength of radiation
accelerating voltage. The wavelength of the continuous K 1 and K  2 when atomic number of first target is Z1
X-rays has values from :–
= 64 and atomic number of second target is Z2 = 80 :–
(1) 0 to
(2) min to , where min > 0 1 1 2 25
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) 0 to max. ,where max. <  4 16 5 16
(4) min to max., where 0 < min < max.< 
24. Lattice constant of a crystal is 3 × 10–8 cm and glance
17. The ratio of the energy of an X-ray photon of angle of X-ray is 30° for first order diffraction, then the
wavelength 1 Å to that of visible light of wavelength value of  will be :–
5000 Å is :–
(1) 6 × 10–8 cm (2) 3 × 10–8 cm
(1) 1 : 5000 (2) 5000 : 1
(3) 1.5 × 10–8 cm (4) 10–8 cm
A
6
(3) 1 : 25 × 10 (4) 25 × 106
25. Hard X–rays for the study of fractures in bones should
I
18. If the operating voltage of X–ray tube is 50 kV then
have a minimum wavelength of 10–11 m. The accelerating
velocity of X–ray :–
voltage for electrons in X–rays machine should be :–
D
(1) 4 × 104 m/sec (2) 3 × 108 m/sec
(1) < 124·2 kV (2) > 124·2 kV
8
(3) 10 m/sec (4) 3 m/sec
(3) between 60 kV and 70 kV
19. If minimum wavelength obtained in a X–ray tube is 2.5
N
(4) = 100 kV
× 10–10 m. For this minimum wavelength the minimum
I
26. When electron is incident on molyblednum then by
operating voltage of the tube should be –
changing energy of electron :-
(1) 2 kV (2) 3 kV
S
(1) min changes
(3) 4 kV (4) 5 kV
(2) min remains constant
20. 5000V is applied on an electronic X-ray tube. Then
(3)  K  ,  K  changess
O
minimum wavelength of X-ray will be :–
(4) min,  K  and6  K  all changess
–11 –10
(1) 1.24 × 10 m (2) 2.48 × 10 m 27. In an X–ray tube accelerating potential is 60 kV. What
(3) 3.72 × 10–11 m (4) 4.96 × 10–11 m is the maximum frequency of emitted X-ray ?
O
–18 –15
(1) 1.45 × 10 Hz (2) 1.45 × 10 Hz
21. 20 kV potential is applied across X-ray tube, the –15 –13
(3) 1.25 × 10 Hz (4) 1.25 × 10 Hz
minimum wavelength of X-ray emitted will be :–
T
28. The energy of a K- electron in tungsten is –20 keV and
(1) 0.62 Å (2) 0.37
of an L– electrons is –2 keV. The wave length of X-rays
(3) 1.62 Å (4) 1.31 Å emitted when there is electron jump from L to K shell:–
E
22. Energy levels A,B and C of a certain atom correspond (1) 0.3443 Å (2) 0.6887 Å
to increasing value s of energy i.e. (3) 1.3982 Å (4) 2.78 Å
EA < EB < EC . If  , and  are wave lengths of
2 9. If the K  radiation of Mo has a wavelength of 0.71
radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, B to
Å. The wavelength of the corresponding radiation of
A and C to A respetively, which of the following relations
Cu :– [ZMo = 42, ZCu = 29]
is correct :–
(1) 0.52 Å (2) 1.52 Å
1 2 (3) 2.52 Å (4) 3.52 Å
(1) 3= 1+2 (2) =
1   2
30. In coolidge tube the potential difference between
cathode and anticathode is 120 kV. The maximum
(3) + += 0 (4) 23  21  22 energy of emitted X-rays will be :–
(1) 1.2 × 105 eV (2) 1010 eV
(3) 1015 eV (4) 1020 eV
31. An X-ray tube when operated at 60 kV, then reading of 37. The ionisation energies of K–shell for cobalt, copper,
tube current is 50 mA. Assuming that the total energy and molebdenum are 7.8, 9.0 and 20.1 keV respectively.
of electron is converted into heat, the rate of heat If any metal out of these is used as target in an X–ray
produced at the anode in tube operated at 15KV, then :–
calories/sec is about :–
(1) 100 (2) 300 (1) the K–series of characteristic X-ray will be emitted
(3) 500 (4) 714 by Co only
32. If the X–ray tube is working at 25 kV then the minimum (2) the K–series of characteristic X–rays will be emitted
wavelength of X–rays will be :– by Cu and Co only
(1) 0.49 Å (2) 0.29 Å
(3) the K–series of characteristic X–rays will be emitted
(3) 0.19 Å (4) 0.39 Å
33. The distance between interatomic lattice planes is 10Å. by Cu, Co and Mo
The maximum wavelength of X–rays which are diffracted (4) the minimum wavelength of continuous X–rays
A
by this crystal will be :– emitted by the three metals will not be same
(1) 10Å (2) 20Å
I
(3) 30Å (4) 40Å 38. The intensity of X–rays of wavelength 0.5Å reduces to
34. The wavelength of K–line characteristic X–rays emitted one fourth on passing through 3.5 mm thickness of a
metal foil. The coefficient of absorption of metal will
D
by an element is 0.32Å. The wavelength of K–line
emitted by the same element will be :– be:–
(1) 0.27Å (2) 0.32Å (1) 0.2 mm–1 (2) 0.4 mm–1
N
(3) 0.39Å (4) 0.2Å
(3) 0.6 mm–1 (4) 0.8 mm–1
I
35. The structure of solids is studied by :–
(1) X–rays (2) –rays 39. When 50 keV electrons are made incident on a target
(3) Cosmic rays (4) Infrared rays material, the wavelength of KX–ray line was found to
S
36. 50% of X–rays obtained from a Coolidge tube pass be 0.5Å. When the accelerating potential is increased
through 0.3 mm. thick aluminium foil. If the potential to 100 kV, then the wavelength of K–line from the
difference between the target and the cathode is same target will be
O
increased, then the fraction of X–rays passing through (1) 0.25 Å (2) 0.5 Å
the same foil will be :–
(3) 0.75 Å (4) 1.0 Å
O
(1) 50% (2) > 50%
(3) < 50% (4) 0%
ANSWER KEY
Que. E T
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
EXERCISE - I
12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 4 2 3 1 3 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 4 2 1 1 1 2 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Ans. 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 2
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
MATTER WAVES
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE–I
1. The De Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first 7. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of
bohr orbit is : frequency  and the nucleus recoils. The recoil
energy will be :-
(1) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit
(1) Mc2 – h (2) h22 / 2Mc2
(2) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit
(3) Zero (4) h
(3) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit
8. Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated
(4) Equal to one fourth the circumference of first orbit
by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100
2. If given particles are moving with same velocity, then kV then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the
maximum de-Broglie wavelength for : electrons would :
(1) Proton
(1) increase by 2 times
A
(2) - particle
(2) decrease by 2 times
I
(3) Neutron
(4) - particle (3) decrease by 4 times
3. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an elec-
D
(4) increase by 4 times
tron. When it is accelerated by a potential differ-
9. An  -particle moves in a circular path of radius
ence of 1 kV, its kinetic energy will be :–
0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of
N
(1) 1840 keV. 0.25 Wb/m2. The de Broglie wavelength associated
I
(2) 1/1840 keV. with the particle will be :
(1) 10Å (2) 0.1Å
(3) 1 keV. (3) 1Å (4) 0.01Å
S
(4) 920 keV. 10. An electron of stationary hydrogen atom passes from
the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity
4. If an electron and a photon propagate with same
that the atom acquired a result of photon emission will
wavelength, it implies that can they have the
be :
O
same :–
25m
(1) Energy (1)
24hR
(2) Momentum
O
24m
(3) Velocity (2)
25hR
T
(4) Angular momentum
24hR
5. According to De Broglie, wavelength of electron in (3)
25m
second orbit is 10–9 metre. Then the circumfrance
E
of orbit is :– 25hR
(4)
24m
(1) 10–9 m (2) 2 × 10–9 m
(m is the mass of the atom, R, Rydberg constant and
(3) 3 × 10–9 m (4) 4 × 10–9m h Planck's constant)
6. An electron and proton are accelerated through same 11. If the momentum of an electron is changed by P, then
potential, then e/p will be the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes
by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be :-
(1) 1
P
(2) me/mp (1) (2) 100 P
200
(3) mp/me
(3) 200 P (4) 400 P
(4) mp me
12. The De Broglie wavelength of an atom at absolute 18. The De-Broglie wavelength associated with electrons
temperature T0 K will be - revolving round the nucleus in a hydrogen atom in
ground state, will be-
h h
(1) (2) (1) 0.3 Å (2) 3.3 Å
mKT 3mKT
(3) 6.62 Å (4) 10 Å
3mKT 19. An electron is accelerated from rest, between two points
(3) (4) 3mKT
h A and B at which the potentials are 20V and 40 V
respectively. The De Broglie wavelength associated with
13. Electron has energy of 100 eV what will be its wave-
the electron at B will be -
length &
(1) 0.75 Å (2) 7.5 Å
(1) 1.2 Å (2) 10 Å
(3) 2.75 Å (4) 2.75 m
(3) 100 Å (4) 1 Å
A
20. The wavelength of very fast moving electron (v c) is :
14. The ratio of wavelength of deutron and proton acceler-
I
ated through the same potential difference will be - h h
(1)   m v (2)  
1 0 2mE
2
D
(1) (2)
2 1
2
2 h h
(3)   (4)  
1 2 2mE m0v
N
(3) (4)
2 1 v2
1
I
c2
15. The velocity at which the mass of a particle becomes
twice of its rest mass, will be -
21. If the mass of neutron = 1.7 × 10—27 kg. then the De
S
2c c broglie wavelength of neutron of energy 3eV is :
(1) (2)
3 2 (1) 1.6 × 10—10 m
O
(2) 1.6 × 10—11 m
c 3 3c (3) 1.4 × 10—10 m
(3) (4)
2 4
(4) 1.4 × 10—11 m
O
c 22. An electron and proton are moving with the same
16. The speed of a proton is . The wavelength associ- speed. Mass of proton = 1836 times mass of
20
T
electron. The ratio of their De broglie wavelength
ated with it will be - will be :
(1) 2.64 × 10–24 mm (1) 1 (2) 1836
E
–24
(2) 2.64 × 10 nm
1
(3) 2.64 × 10–24 Å (3) (4) 918
1836
(4) 2.64 × 10–14 m
23. The magnitude of De broglie wavelength () of electron
17. If E and P are the energy and the momentum of a (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and - particle () all having
photon respectively then on reducing the wave- the same kinetic energy of 1MeV, in the increasing order
length of photon - will follow the sequence :
(1) P and E both will decrease (1) e, p, n, 
(2) P and E both will increase (2) e, n, p, 
(3) P will increase and E will decrease
(3) , n, p, e
(4) P will decrease and E will increase
(4) p, e, , n
24. The correct curve between intensity of scattering (I) 29. An electron is moving with velocity 6.6 x 103 m/s. The
and the angle of diffraction  in Davison - Germer De-Broglie wavelength associated with electron is (mass
experiment is : of electron = 9 x 10-31 Kg,
I I Plank Constant = 6.62 x 10–34 J-S)
(1) 1 x 10-19 m (2) 1 x 10-5 m
(3) 1 x 10-7 m (4) 1 x 10-10 m
(1) (2)
  30. The accelerating voltage of an electron gun is 50,000
50° 50° volt. De-Broglie wavelength of the electron will be :
I I (1) 0.55 Å (2) 0.055 Å
(3) 0.077Å (4) 0.095 Å
(3) (4) 31. A proton and an - particle accelerated through same
  voltage. The ratio of their De-broglie wavelength will
50° 50°
A
be :
I
25. A proton move s on a circular path of radius
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 2 : 1
6.6 × 10—3 m in a perpendicular magnetic field of
0.625 tesla. The De broglie wavlength associated (3) 2 :1 (4) 2 : 1
D
with the proton will be : 32. What will be the ratio of the De broglie wavelengths of
proton and  - par t icle of same kinet ic
(1) 1Å (2) 0.1Å
energy :
N
(3) 0.01Å (4) 0.001Å (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
I
26. An electron with (rest mass m0) moves with a speed of (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
0.8C. Its mass when it moves with this speed is : 33. If the kinetic energy of a moving particle is E, then the
(1) m0 De Broglie wavelength is :
S
m0
(2) 2mE
6
(1) h 2mE (2)
5m 0 h
(3)
O
3
3m 0 h hE
(4) (3) (4)
5 2mE 2mE
O
27. In davisson-Germer experiment, the filament emits :-
34. The energy that should be added to an electron to
(1) Photons (2) Protons
reduce its De broglie wavelength from 10 –10m to
(3) X - rays (4) Electrons
T
0.5 × 10–10 m will be :
28. If h is the planck's constant, the momentum of a photon
of wavelength 0.01Å is : (1) Four times the initial energy
E
(1) h × 10—2 (2) h (2) Equal to initial energy
2
(3) h × 10 (4) h × 1012 (3) Twice the initial energy
(4) Thrice the initial energy

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 1 2 2 4 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 3 3 4 4 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34
Ans. 2 1 3 4
NEET
PHYSICS
BY
NEERAJ KUMAR
CHAUDHARY
GRAVITATION
ETOOSINDIA
EXERCISE–1
1. Escape velocity from earth is 11.2 km/sec. Another planet of same mass has radius 1/4
times that of earth. What is the escape velocity from this planet?
(A) 11.2 km/sec (B) 44.8 km/sec (C) 22.4 km/sec (D) 5.6 km/sec
2. A body attains a height equal to the radius of the earth when projected from earth' surface.
The velocity of the body with which it was projected is :
GM 2GM 5 GM 3GM
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R R 4 R R
A
3. An earth's satellite is moving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed .If the gravitational
I
force of the earth suddenly disappears, the satellite will
(A) vanish into outer space
(B) continue to move with velocity  in original orbit
D
(C) fall down with increasing velocity
(D) fly off tangentially from the orbit with velocity 
4.
I N
The maximum and minimum distances of a comet from the sun are 8 × 1012 m and 1.6 ×
1012 m respecting. If its velocity when it is nearest to the sun is 60 m/sec then what will be
its velocity in m/s when it is farthest ?
5.
(A) 12
O
(B) 60
S
(C) 112 (D) 6
The gravitational potential energy of a body at a distance r from the center of the earth is U.
The force at that point is :
(A) U/r2 (B) U/r (C) Ur (D) Ur2
6.
O
If the spinning speed of the earth is increased, then the weight of the body at the equator
T
(A) does not change
(C) decreases
(B) doubles
(D) increases
7.
8.
E
When the radius of earth is reduced by 1% without changing the mass, then the accelera-
tion due to gravity will
(A) increase by 2%
(C) increase by 1%
(B) decrease by 1.5%
(D) decrease by 1%
A particle falls from infinity to the earth. Its velocity on reaching the earth surface is :
(A) 2Rg (B) Rg (C) Rg (D) 2Rg
9. Weight of a body of mass m decreases by 1% when it is raised to height h above the

earth's surface. If the body is taken to a depth h in a mine, then in its weight will
(A) decrease by 0.5% (B) decrease by 2%
(C) increase by 0.5% (D) increase by 1%
10. The escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/sec. The mass of another planet is 100
times of mass of earth and its radius is 4 times the radius of earth. The escape velocity for
the planet is :
(A) 56.0 km/sec. (B) 280 km/sec.
(C) 112 km/sec. (D) 11.2 km/sec.
11. Acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface is 'g' ms–2. Find the effective value of
acceleration due to gravity at a height of 32 km from sea level : (Re = 6400 Km)
(A) 0.5 g ms–2 (B) 0.99 g ms–2
(C) 1.01 g ms–2 (D) 0.90 g ms–2
12. Near the earth's surface time period of a satellite is 1.4 hrs. Find its time period if it is at the
distance '4R' from the centre of earth.
(A) 32 hrs.
 1 
(B)   hrs. (C) 8 2 hrs. (D) 16 hrs.
I A
D
8 2
13. The mass of the moon is 1% of mass of the earth. The ratio of gravitational pull of earth on
moon to that of moon on earth will be :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 10 (C) 1 : 100
I N
(D) 2 : 1
S
14. A planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. If p and a are the velocities of the
planet at the perigee and apogee respectively, then the eccentricity of the elliptical orbit is
given by :
(A)
O Op
a
a   p
(B)   
a p
p  a
(C)   
p a
 p  a
(D)   
p a
T
15. A communication satellite of earth which takes 24 hrs. to complete one circular orbit even-
tually has to be replaced by another satellite of double mass. If the new satellites also has
an orbital time period of 24 hrs, then what is the ratio of the radius of the new orbit to the
E
original orbit ?
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 1
16. When you move from equator to pole, the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) :
(A) increases
(C) remains the same
(B) decreases
(D) first increases then decreases
(D) 1 : 2
17. Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than
the earth in size. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and that on the
surface of the new planet is g', then :
(A) g' = 3g (B) g' = g/9 (C) g' = 9g (D) g'=27 g
18. Escape velocity for a projectile at earth's surface is Ve. A body is projected form earth's
surface with velocity 2 Ve. The velocity of the body when it is at infinite distance from the
centre of the earth is
(A) Ve (B) 2Ve (C) 2 Ve (D) 3 Ve
19. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential
energy is
1
(A) 2 (B) 1/2 (C) (D) 2
2
A
20. If earth revolves around the sun in an orbit of double radius of its present radius, then the
I
year on earth will be of –
(A) 365/4 days (B) 365  2 2 days
D
(C) 365/2 days (D) 365 × 4 days
21. Mars has a diameter of approximately 0.5 of that of earth, and mass of 0.1 of that of earth.
N
The surface gravitational field strength on mars as compared to that on earth is greater by
I
a factor of –
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 2.0 (D) 0.4
22.
following is correct ?
(A) d = h (B) d = 2h
S
The change in the value of 'g' at a height 'h' above the surface of the earth is same as at a
depth 'd'. If 'd' and 'h' are much smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of the
O (C) d = 3h/2 (D) d = h/2
23.
O
Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four
times the mass of S2. Which one of the following statements is true ?
T
(A) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal
(B) The time period of S1 is four times that of S2
E
(C) The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal
(D) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
24. The angular speed of earth in rad/s, so that bodies on equator may appear weightless is :
[Use g = 10 m/s2 and the radius of earth R = 6.4 × 103 km]
(A) 1.25 × 10–3 (B) 1.56 × 10–3
(C) 1.25 × 10–1 (D) 1.56
25. A body weighs W newton at the surface of the earth. Its weight at a height equal to half the
radius of the earth will be :
(A) W/2 (B) 2W/3 (C) 4W/9 (D) W/4
26. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is
twice the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the
time to move from A to B then :-
(A) t1 = t2 m v
(B) t1 > t2 B C
(C) t1 = 4t2 S
(D) t1 = 2t2 A D
27. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively.
If the speed of satellite A is 3V, then the speed of satellite B will be :-
(A) 3V/2 (B) 3V/4 (C) 6V (D) 12V
28. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius
a. The gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be :-
(A) –4GM/a (B) –3GM/a (C) –2GM/a (D) –GM/a
I A
29.
D
The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a
planet of mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2(R2
> R1) is :-
N
1
 1
 1
 1
1 
(A) GmM  R  R 
2
1 
S I  1
 1
 1
1 
(B) 2GmM  R  R 
2
1 
O
(C) 2 GmM  R  R  (D) GmM  R 2  R 2 
 1 2  1 2
30. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest
O
away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively,
then the ratio V1/V2 is :-
T
(A) (r1/r2)2 (B) r2/r1 (C) (r2/r1)2 (D) r1/r2
E
31. A spherical planet has a mass Mp and diameter Dp. A particle of mass m falling freely near
the surface of this planet will experience an aceleration due to gravity, equal to :-
(A) GMp/DP2 (B) 4GMpm/Dp2 (C) 4GMp/Dp2 (D) GMpm/ Dp2
32. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above that surface of the
earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a
height of 2R from the surface of the earth is :-
(A) 6 2 (B) 6/ 2 (C) 5 (D) 10
33. The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of earth
(radius R), is :-
(A) 3R (B) 4R (C) 5R (D) 15R
34. A particle is thrown with escape velocity ve from the surface of earth. Calculate its velocity
at height 3 R :-
(A) 
9.25 km/s (B)  5.6 km/s (C)  11.2 km/s (D)  4.3 km/s
I A
N D
S I
O O
E T
EXERCISE - I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C A D A B C A D A A B C A D A
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A D B B D B D A C D C B C B
Que. 31 32 33 34
Ans. C A A B
EXERCISE–2
1. Newton's law of gravitation :
(A) is not applicable out side the solar system
(B) is used to govern the motion of satellites only
(C) control the rotational motion of satellites and planets
(D) control the rotational motion of electrons in atoms
2. Acceleration due to gravity at the centre of the earth is :

(A) g (B) g/2 (C) zero (D) infinite
3. If the distance between the centres of earth and moon is D and mass of earth is 81 times
A
that of moon. At what distance from the centre of earth gravitational field will be zero :
I
(A) D/2 (B) 2D/3 (C) 4D/5 (D) 9D/10
4. A particle falls on earth :
gained on reaching at the earth's surface is :

(A) 11 : 10 (B) 10 : 11 (C) 10 : 11
N D
(i) from infinity, (ii) from a height 10 times the radius of earth. The ratio of the velocities
(D) 11 : 10
5. Binding energy of moon and earth is :
(A)
GM e M m
rem (B)
GM e M m
2rem
S I (C) 
GM e M m
rem (D) 
GM e M m
2rem
6.
O
Two artificial satellites A and B are at a distance rA and rB above the earth's surface. If the
radius of earth is R, then the ratio of their speed will be :
O
 rB  R 
1
2
 rB  R 
2
 rB 
2
 rB 
1
2
T
(A)  (B)  (C)   (D)  
 rA  R   rA  R   rA   rA 
7.
8.
E
The average radii of orbits of mercury and earth around the sun are 6 × 107 km and 1.5
× 108 km respectively. The ratio of their orbital speeds will be :
(A) 5: 2 (B) 2: 5
A body is dropped by a satellite in its geo-stationary orbit :

(A) it will burn on entering in to the atmosphere
(C) 2.5 : 1 (D) 1 : 25
(B) it will remain in the same place with respect to the earth
(C) it will reach the earth is 24 hours
(D) it will perform uncertain motion
9. A body of mass m is situated at distance 4Re above the earth's surface, where Re is the
radius of earth how much minimum energy should be given to the body so that it may
escape :
(A) mgRe (B) 2mgRe (C) mgRe/5 (D) mgRe/16
10. Two different masses are droped from same heights, when just these strike the ground,
the following is same :
(A) kinetic energy (B) potential energy
(C) linear momentum (D) acceleration
11. The atmospheric pressure and height of barometer column is 105 P and 760mm
respectively on the earth surface. If the barometer is taken to moon then column height
will be :
(A) zero (B) 76 mm (C) 126.6 mm (D) 760 mm
I A
D
12. The value of 'g' on earth surface depends :
(A) only an earth's structure (B) only an earth's rotational motion
(C) on above both (D) on none these and is same
I N
13. The value of 'g' reduces to half of its value at surface of earth at a height 'h', then :
(A) h = R (B) h = 2R
(C) h 
O
 2 1 R
S (D) h   
2 1 R
14. At some planet 'g' is 1.96 m sec–2. If it is safe to jump from a height of 2m on earth, then
what should be corresponding safe height for jumping on that planet :
O
(A) 5m (B) 2m (C) 10m (D) 20m
T
15. If the earth stops rotating suddenly,the value of g at a place other than poles would :
(A) Decrease (B) Remain constant
(C) Increase
E
(D) Increase or decrease depending on the position of earth in the orbit round the sun
16. Two ordinary satellites are revolving round the earth in same elliptical orbit, then which
of the following quantities is conserved :
(A) Velocity
(C) Angular momentum
(B) Angular velocity
(D) None of above
17. Kepler's second law is a consequence of :

(A) conservation of kinetic energy (B) conservation of linear momentum
(C) conservation of angular momentum (D) conservation of speed
18. The maximum and minimum distance of earth from sun are r1 and r2 respectively. What will
be the distance of earth from sun when it is perpendicular to the principal axis passing
through sun in its orbit
r1  r2  r1  r2  2r1r2 r1  r2
(A) (B)  r  r  (C) r  r (D)
4  1 2 1 2 3
19. One projectile after deviating from its path starts moving round the earth in a cirular
path of radius equal to nine times the radius of earth R. Its time period will be :
R R R R
A
(A) 2 (B) 27  2 (C)  (D) 0.8  3
g g g g
20. In adjoining figure earth goes around the sun in elliptical orbit on which point the orbital
speed is maximum :
(A) On A
B
D I
N
(B) On B
A C
I
(C) On C
(D) On D
S
D
21. Potential energy and kinetic energy of a two particle system are shown by waves KE
O
and PE. respectively in figure. This system is bound at :
(A) only point A
(B) only point D
O
KE
Energy
(C) only point

A, B, and C
A B C D
T
(D) All points A,
B, C and D PE
E
22. Mass particles of 1 kg each are placed along x-axis at x = 1, 2, 4, 8,.....then gravitational
field intensity at origin is (G = universal gravitational constant) :
(A) 4G/3 (B) 3G/4 (C) 26 (D) 
23. Diameter and mass of a planet is double that earth. Then time period of a pendulum at
surface of planet is how much times of time period at earth surface :
(A) 1/ 2 times (B) 2 times (C) Equal (D) None of these
24. A stone drop from height 'h' reaches at earth surface in1 sec. If the same stone taken to
moon and drop freely from height h then it will reaches at the surface of moon in the time :
(A) 6 sec (B) 9 sec (C) 3 sec (D) 6 sec
25. A satellite of earth of mass 'm' taken from orbital radius 2R to 3R, then minimum work done
is:
(A) GMm/6R (B) GMm/12R (C) GMm/24R (D) GMm/3R
26. The intensity of gravitational field at a point situated at a distance 8000 km from the
centre of earth is 6.0 newton / kg. The gravitational potential at that point in newton -
meter/kg will be:
(A) 6 (B) 4.8 × 107 (C) 8 × 105 (D) 4.8 × 102
27. Gravitational potential difference between surface of a planet and a point situated at a
height of 20m above its surface is 2 joule/kg. If gravitational field is uniform, then the work
done in taking a 5kg body upto height 4 meter above surface will be :
(A) 2J (B) 20J (C) 40J (D) 10J
28. Potential energy of a 3kg body at the surface of a planet is – 54J, then escape velocity
I A
D
will be:
(A) 18 m/s (B) 162 m/s (C) 36 m/s (D) 6 m/s
planet is:
(A) – 5000J (B) –1000J (C) –2400J
I (D) –10000J
N
29. Escape velocity of a 1kg body on a planet is 100 m/s. Potential energy of body at that
30. A bomb blasts on moon. Its sound reaches earth :

(A) After 10 minutes
O
(C) After 3.7 minutes S
(B) After 24 hr. 10 minutes
(D) Can not reach
O
31. Two spheres of same material of radius 'R' placed in such a way that they are touching
to each other if the gravitation force between them is F than :
T
1 1
(A) F R2 (B) F R4 (C) F  (D) F 
R2 R4
E
32. Gravitational force between two masses at a distance 'd' apart is 6N. If these masses
are taken to moon and kept at same separation, then the force between them will
become :
(A) 1 N (A) 1/6 N (C) 36 N (D) 6 N
33. If the earth is treated as a sphere of radius R and mass M, its angular momentum about the
axis of its rotation with period T is :
4MR 2 2MR 2 MR 2T MR 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
5T T 2 T
34. The value of universal gravitational constant G depends upon :

(A) nature of material of two bodies (B) heat constant of two bodies
(C) acceleration of two bodies (D) none of these
35. If a graph is plotted between T2 and r3 for a planet then its slope will be :
(A) 42/GM (B) GM/42 (C) 4GM (D) Zero
36. A satellite launching station should be :

(A) near the equatorial region (B) near the polar region
(C) on the polar axis (D) all locations are eqaully good
37. A space shuttle is launched in a circular orbit near the earth's surface. The additional
velocity be given to the space - shuttle to get free from the influence of gravitational force,
will be :
(A) 1.52 km/s (B) 2.75 km/s (C) 3.28 km/s (D) 5.18 km/s
I A
its total energy will be :
(A) 3/4 mv2 (B) mv2 (C) 1/2 mv2
N D
38. A satellite is moving in a circular orbit around earth with a speed V, If its mass is m, then
(D) –1/2 mv2
S I
39. Three indentical bodies (each mass M) are placed at verties of an equilateral triangle of
arm L, keeping the triangle as such by which speed the bodies should be rotated in their
gravitation fields so that the triangle moves along circumferenes of circular orbit :
O
3GM GM GM GM
(A) (B) (C) (D) 3
L L 3L L
h
O
40. If the length of the day is T, the height of that TV satellite above the earth's surface
T
which always appears stationary from earth, will be :

 4 2GM 
1
3
h 
 4 2 GM 
 T2   R
1
2
E
(A)  T2  (B)
   
1 1
 GMT 2   GMT 2 
3 3
(C) h   4 2   R (D) h   4 2   R
   
41. If two bodies of mass M and m are revolving around the centre of mass of the system in
circular orbit of radii R and r respectively due to mutual interaction. Which of the following
formula is applicable :
GMm 2 GMm GMm GMm
(A) R  r 2  m r (B)  m 2 r (C)  m 2 R (D)  m 2 r
  R 2
r 2 2
R r 2
42. Two satellites of same mass m are revolving round of earth (mass M) in the same orbit of
radius r. Rotational directions of the two are opposite therefore, they can collide. Total
mechanical energy of the system (both satallites and earths) is (m << M):
(A) –GMm/r (B) – 2GMm/r (C) –GMm/2r (D) Zero
43. A planet of mass m is moving in an elliptical orbit about the sun (mass of sun = M). The
maxium and minimum distances of the planet from the sun are r1 and r2 respectively.
The period of revolution of the planet will be proportional to :
3 3 3 3
(A) r1 2 (B) r2 2 (C)  r1  r2  2
(D)  r1  r2  2
44. Four particles of masses m, 2m, 3m and 4m are kept in sequence at the corners of a
A
square of side a. The magnitude of gravitational force acting on a particle of mass m placed
at the centre of the square will be :
(A)
24m 2G
a2
(B)
6m 2G
a2
(C)
4 2Gm 2
a2
D
(D) Zero
I
N
45. F1 and F2 are two pins fixed an a board. A thread of length PF1 + PF2 > F1F2 is tied at F1
I
and F2 the path traced by the point P is :
(A) a circle (B) a parabola (C) an ellipse (D) none of these
46. The tidal waves in the seas are primary due to :

(A) The gravitational effect of the sun on the earth
O
(B) The gravitational effect of the moon on the earth
(C) The rotation of the earth
(D) The atmospheric effect of the earth it self
S
TO
47. The relay satellite transmits the television programme continuously from one part of
the world to another because its :
(A) Period is greater than the period of rotation of the earth about its axis
E
(B) Period is less than the period of rotation of the earth about its axis
(C) Period is equal to the period of rotation of the earth about its axis
(D) Mass is less than the mass of earth
48. The change in the value of acceleration of earth towards sun, when the moon comes from
the position of solar eclipse to the position on the other side of earth in line with sun is :
(mass of moon = 7.36 × 1022 kg, orbital radius of moon = 3.8 × 108 m.)
(A) 6.73 × 10–2 m/s2 (B) 6.73 × 10–3 m/s2
(C) 6.73 × 10–4 m/s2 (D) 6.73 × 10–5 m/s2
49. If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit which is at a distance radius of earth from
earth's surface and allowed to fall freely into the earth. The speed with which it hits the
surface of earth will be :
(A) 7.919 m/s (B) 7.919 km/s (C) 11.2 m/s (D) 11.2 km/s
50. Suppose the acceleration due to gravity at the earth's surface is 10m/s2 and at the
surface of mars it is 4.0 m/s2. A 60kg passenger goes from the earth to the mars in a
spaceship moving with a constant velocity. Neglect all other objects in the sky. Which
part of figure best represent the weight (Net gravitational force) of the passenger as a
function of time :
I A
N D
S I
O
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
51. During the journey of space ship from earth to moon and back, the maximum fuel is consumed
O
(A) Against the gravitation of earth in return journey
(B) Against the gravitation of earth in onward journey
T
(C) Against the gravitation of moon while reaching the moon
(D) None of the above
E
52. If the gravitational acceleration at surface of earth is g, then increase in potential energy in
lifting an object of mass m to a height equal to the radius R of earth will be :-
(A) mgR/2 (B) 2mgR (C) mgR
53. The gravitational potential energy is maximum at :

(A) infinity (B) the earth's surface
(D) mgR/4
(C) The centre of the earth (D) Twice the radius of the earth
54. Escape velocity of a body from earth is 11.2 km/s. Escape velocity, when thrown at an
angle of 45° from horizontal will be :-
(A) 11.2 km/s (B) 22.4 km/s (C) 11.2/ 2 km/s (D) 11.2 2 km/s
55. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius R applies gravitational force of attraction
euqal to F1 on a particle placed at A, distant 2R from the centre of the sphere. A
spherical cavity of radius R/2 is now made in the sphere as shown in the figure. The
sphere with cavity now applies a gravtitational force F 2 on the same particle placed
at A. The ratio F2/F1 wil be :
I A
D
(A) 1/2 (B) 3/4 (C) 7/8 (D) 7/9
56. The earth (Me = 6 × 1024 kg) is revolving round the sun in an orbit of radius (1.5 × 108)
N
km with angular velocity of (2 × 10–7) rad/s. The force (in newton) exerted on the earth
I
by the sun will be :-
(A) 36 × 1021 (B) 16 × 1024 (C) 25 × 1016 (D) Zero
(A) v1 = v2
(C) v1 < v2
S
57. Two artificial satellites of masses m1 and m2 are moving with speeds v1 and v2 in orbits
of radii r1 and r2 respectively. If r1 > r2 then which of the following statements in true :-
O
(B) v1 > v2
(D) v1/r1 = v2/r2
58
O
Orbital radius of a satellite S of earth is four times that of a communication satellite C.
Period of revolution of S is :-
T
(A) 4 days (B) 8 days (C) 16 days (D) 32 days
59. A missile is lauched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. Sum of its kinetic energy
E
and potential energy is :-
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) May be negative or positive depending upon its initial velocity
(D) Zero
60. More amount of sugar is obtained in 1kg weight :

(A) At North pole (B) At equator
(C) Between pole and equator (D) At South pole
61. If a satellite is revolving very close to the surface of earth, then its orbital velocity does not
depend upon
(A) Mass of satellite (B) Mass of earth
(C) Radius of earth (D) Orbital radius
62. Two identical satellites are at the heights R and 7R from the earth's surface. Then
which of the following statement is incorrect :– (R = Radius of the earth)
(A) Ratio of total energy of both is 5 (B) Ratio of kinetic energy of both is 4
(C) Ratio of potential energy of both 4 (D) Ratio of total energy of both is 4
63. Imagine a body revolving around a big star in a circular orbit of radius R with time period T.
If the force of attraction between star and the body is proportional to R–5/2, then T2 will be
proportional to :-
(A) R3 (B) R7/2 (C) R3/2 (D) R3.75
64. The minimum projection velocity of a body from the earth's surface so that it becomes
I A
the satellite of the earth (Re = 6.4 × 106 m).
(A) 11 × 103 ms–1 (B) 8 × 103 ms–1
65. Geostationary satellite :-
D
(C) 6.4 × 103 ms–1 (D) 4 × 103 ms–1
N
I
(A) is situated at a great height above the surface of earth
(B) moves in equatorial plane
S
(C) have time period of 24 hours
(D) have time period of 24 hours and moves in equatorial plane
O O
E T
EXERCISE - II
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans . C C D A B A A B C D A C D C C
Que . 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans . C C C B A C A B A B B A D A D
Que . 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans . B D A D A A C D B C A A D C C
Que . 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans . B C D B C B A A A D A C B B B
Que . 61 62 63 64 65
Ans . A A B B D

NKC Problem Solving Neet Exercise

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NKC Problem Solving Neet Exercise

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NEET

3Q Q 5 . As shown in the fig. charges + q and

axis with a velocity 10m/s. Its speed in m/s after 10s

28. As per this diagram a point charge +q is placed at the

2 9 . Two cocentric conducting thin q 1q 

(1) 2 qa along + x direction

2 qa along the line joining points

33. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by:

(4) V = –x2y – xz3 + 4

is the mid point between A and B.

The work done in moving a charge +Q along the 

34. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated

41. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given

(2) 300 units

(1) minimum along

(2) minimum along

2 1 . A point particle of mass M is attached

1 9 . The total flux associated with given ML ML

(2) 162  × 10 3 Nm 2/C Eq 2 m Eqm

2 8 . The force on a charge situated on the

2 . In the fig. force on charge at A in 8 . An elementary particle of mass m and

(3) 0.1 V/m downward G

(2) 12  0 Q × 10 22 volt/m (1) p E sin , 2p E cos 

(3) 4  0 Q × 10 22 volt/m (2) p E cos , –p E sin 

(4) p E sin , –2p E cos 

ANSWER KEY EXERCISE - III

R 1 is surrounded by another concentric

An air capacitor of capacity C = 10 F is connected to

a constant voltage battery of 12 V. Now the space

2 0 A  K 1  K 2  (3) 6F (4) 8F

(3) I and III

(4) III only

5 31. A network of four capacitors

ANSWER KEY EXERCISE - I

5. A parallel plate capacitor has rectangular plates of

(2) 3.54 × 10–8C (2) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1+ V2 + V3

(3) 3.54 × 10–10C (3) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2

(2) 12 component capacitors 0 A 0 A

(b) 10  should be connected in series

(c) 5  should be connected in series

(3) 2.0 (4) 1.2 2V

5  then determine internal resistance

(1) 80% (2) 90%

58. A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown. The potential

  when two way key is switched off. The balance points,

62. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential at point

A value by which the power would decrease is

70. A cell having an emf  and internal resistance r is

(1) 6.0 × 10 5 m/sec 5m

(2) 5.0 × 10 5 m/sec 0 0

(4) 3.8 × 10 6 m/sec 0 0

3 . An elec tron is moving in a circle (3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm

0.34 × 10 –4 T is along the plane of

(2) 1.96 × 10–5 T (1) 1.679 × 10 –5 T

(3) 1.96 × 104 T (2) 2.028 × 10 –4 T

12. A closely wound flat circular coil

16.  ampere current is flowing through a long straight 3/2

(3) All ions deflect towards - y direction

(4) Positive ions deflect towards - y direction and

(4) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire.

(1) 0.6 A (2) 6A

plane of their motion. The ratio of the radii of the

FG Ch arg e on the ion IJ