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Marks:720
ASTHRA MEDICAL ACADEMY
VIJAYAWADA
NEET GRAND TEST-05 Max. Marks: 720
09. NADH2 is produced from EMP pathway of aerobic
BOTANY respiration when
01. Underground modification of stem occurs for which (1) Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate 3 PGAL
of the special functions? (2) 3PGAL 1, 3 diPGA
(1) Food synthesis and vegetative propagation (3) 1, 3 diPGA3 PGA
(2) Perennation and assimilatory function (4) 2 PGA PEP
(3) Food storage and vegetative propagation 10. How many types of gametes are formed from a parent
(4) Vegetative propagation and mechanical support having AaBbCcDd genotype?
02. Floral formula of gram family is (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32
+
(1) + K (5) C(5) A5 G(2) 11. Which of the following step is helpful to create the
proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane as
+
(2) + K pappus C(5) A5 G(2) well as a measurable decrease in pH of the lumen?
% + K (5) C1 + 2 + (2) A1 + (9) G 1 (1) H+ ions are transported from stroma to lumen by
(3) a H-carrier
% K C A G (2) PQ-pump from the lumen to stroma
(4) + 5 5 1 + (9) 1 (3) Photolysis of water in stroma of chloroplast
03. Which one of the following organelle is involved in (4) More than one option is correct
the formation of reducing power in the presence of 12. Read the following statements carefully
light? a. Flower : Bisexual, zygomorphic
(1) E.R. (2) Lysosome b. Androecium : Ten, anther dithecous
(3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast c. Gynoecium : Bicarpellary, unilocular
04. If meiocytes have 40 chromosome then the number of withmany ovules
bivalents in ________ stage would be ________ d. Source of fodder : Sesbania, Trifolium
(1) Pachytene; 40 (2) Zygotene; 40 Find out the correct statements concerned with
(3) Zygotene; 20 (4) Leptotene; 20 Fabaceae
05. Guttation is produced when the (1) a, b & d (2) a & c
(1) Soil is dry (3) c& d (4) a, b, c & d
(2) Soil is poorly aerated 13. Gymnosperms are those seed plants in which the
(3) Xylem shows a positive pressure sporophylls are aggregated to form cones. All plants
(4) Xylem shows a negative pressure of this group are similar in
06. Nitrification is the microbial conversion of (1) Absence of vessels
(1) NH3 NO3– (2) NO3–NH3 (2) Presence of tracheids
(3) Presence of archegonia
(3) NO3– N2 (4) N2 NH3
(4) Presence of non-motile male gametes
07. How many molecules of assimilatory power are 14. Zea mays plant shows resistance against stem borers
required for the reduction of one CO2 molecule in a due to presence of high
C3 plant? (1) Aspartic acid (2) Nitrogen
(1) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH2 (2) 6 ATP + 4 NADPH2 (3) Sugar
(3) 10 ATP + 4 NADPH2 (4) More than one option is correct
15. Find odd one w.r.t. tissues formed as a result of
(4) 30 ATP + 12 NADPH2
dedifferentiation
08. Select correct statement for light-dependent (1) Interfascicular cambium
respiration (2) Cork cambium
(1) It occurs in green cells of C4 plants (3) Intercalary meristem
(2) First oxidation step occurs in peroxisome (4) Dicot root cambium
(3) Glycolate is the first product of oxidation 16. How many phosphodiester bonds (x) and hydrogen
(4) CO2 is released during condensation of two bonds (y) are possible in a dsDNA, if it has 140 ‘A’
glycine molecules and 160 ‘C’ nucleotides?
(1) x = 598, y = 760 (2) x = 600, y = 560
(3) x = 598, y = 960 (4) x = 600, y = 300
17. Cocosnucifera has 29. Number of total microtubules that can be observed in
(1) Both nuclear and cellular endosperm a T.S. of a cilium/flagellum is
(2) Cellular endosperm only (1) 18 (2) 27
(3) Food stored in cotyledons (3) 20 (4) 2
(4) nonendospermic seeds 30. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic
18. Biologically most technical term and most defining material came from the studies on a
feature of all living organism is (1) Viroid (2) Bacterial virus
(1) Growth and movement (3) Bacterium (4) Fungus
(2) Reproduction 31. (i) Photosynthetic
(3) Interaction with environment (ii)Haploid (iii) Monoecious
(4) Conciousness (iv) Free living
19. Choose odd one out w.r.t– obligate categories ? (v) Independent of sporophytic plant body
(1) Genus and species (2) Tribe and variety (vi) Creeping on soil surface
(3) Division and phylum (4) Species and family All these characters are true for
20. Given organism belongs to how many kingdoms (1) Gametophytic plant body of
according to five kingdom system homosporouspteridophyte
(2) Gametophytic plant body of
heterosporouspteriodophyte
Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, Phytophthora, Amoeba
(3) Gametophytic plant body of homosporous
Paramoecium, Puccinia, Cladophora, Marchantia, Pinus heterothallic bryophyte
(4) Sporophytic plant body of homosporous bryophyte
(1) Three (2) Four 32.
(3) Five (4) Six
21. Nutritionally most diverse group of living organisms
is
(1) Monera (2) Protista
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae
22. Which one of the following is heterosporousgroup ?
(1) Equisetum, Dryopteris, Fucus . (A) (B) (C)
(2) Ficus, Ginkgo, Salvinia (1) A = Valvate (2) A = Twisted
(3) Eucalyptus, Adiantum, Marchantia B = Vexillary B = Valvate
(4) Azolla, Marsilea, Funaria (3) C = Valvate (4) A = Vexillary
23. Ovary is half inferior in flowers of B = Twisted B = Valvate
(1) Cucumber (2) Guava 33. Collenchymatous hypodermis is absent in
(3) Plum (4) Brinjal (1) Dicot stem (2)Monocot stem
24. Hairs present in inflorescence of maize are modified (3) Dicot root(4)More than one option is correct
(1) Style (2) Petals 34. Inhibition of calcium translocation is in shoot apex is
(3) Spathe (4) Filaments due to the
25. The given memebers are representative of how many (1) Deficiency of Mn (2) Deficiency of Mo
families (3) Toxicity of Mo (4)Toxicity of Mn
35. Biological oxygen scavanger is
Lupin, Tulip, Radish, Belladona, Aloe, Mustard
(1) Nitrogenase (2) Urea
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Leghaemoglobin (4) Heterocyst
(3) Two (4) One 36. In genetic engineering, plasmids serve as
26. Which of the following elements are required for (1) Restriction endonuclease (2) Tunnel protein
evolution of O2 in lumen of thylakoid ? (3) Mode of gene transfer
(1) Mn, Ca, Cl (2) N, P, K (4) Mode of gene inheritance
(3) Ca, Mg, K (4) Ca, B, S 37. Which region of root is associated with absorption of
27. Substrate level phosphorylation does not occur in water
which of the following reaction of aerobic respiration ? (1) Root cap (2)Region of elongation
(1) 1, 3 di PGA 3 PGA (3) Region of meristematic activity
(2) 3 PGA 2 PGA (4) Region of maturation
(3) PEP Pyrurate 38. Which of the following hybridization does not
(4) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid involve transfer of pollen grains from anther to
28. In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, stigma?
embryos develops directly from the (1) Raphanussativus× Brassica oleracea
(1) Nucellus or integument (2)Zygote (2) Triticumaestivum × Secalecereale
(3) Synergid or antipodals in an embryo sac (3)Abelmoschusesculentus×Abelmoschusmanihotland
(4) Accessory embryo sac in the ovule (4) Solanumtuberosum × Lycopersiconesculentum
39. Succession begins with invasion of a bare lifeless area ZOOLOGY
by pioneers (a) which later succeeded by bigger 46. Study the following figure
plants and ultimately a stable climax community (b)
is formed. Choose correct option for (a) and (b) in
hydrosere.
(1) Lichens, trees (2) Mosses, grasses
(3) Sedges, grasses (4) Phytoplanktons, trees
40. Identify the given molecule labelled as A and choose
the biomolecules in which it is a component.
HOCH2 O OH
A
Identify the malady
OH OH 1) Malaria – caused by Plasmodium vivax, a
(1) DNA, RNA, ATP (2) RNA, ATP, NAD+ protozoan
(3) RNA, FAD, DNA (4) ATP, GTP, DNA 2) Ringworm – caused by Microsporum, a fungus
41. What is common to Hind II and Psu I? 3) Genital herpes – caused by Herpes simplex,
(1) Isolated from same source avirus
(2) Hydrolysephosphodiester bonds 4) Filariasis – caused by Wuchereriamalai, a
(3) Recognize the same restriction sequence nematode
(4) Cut plasmids only 47. Sabin’s oral polio vaccine, given in the pulse
42. Genetically engineered plants are generated in polio programme, is a kind of
laboratory by altering their genetic makeup. This is 1) Attenuated whole agent vaccine
done by adding one or more genes to a plant’s 2) Toxoid vaccine
genome by 3) Inactivated whole agent vaccine
(1) Biolistic method or Agrobacterium 4) DNA vaccine
tumefaciensmediated transformation 48. While skating the body is balanced by
(2) DNA injection or electroporation 1) Retina 2) Ear ossicles
(3) Fusing liposomes to intact plant cells 3) Vestibular apparatus 4) Cochlea
(4) Bacillus thuringiensismediated transformation 49. The most important key elements that lead to
43. If a long linear dsDNA having blunt ends having so much variation in the physical and chemical
5 GAATTC 3 sequences at four places is cleaved conditions of different habitats are
3 CTTAAG 5 1) Temperature, water, pathogens and parasites
by using EcoRI, how many DNA fragments are 2) Light, soil, predators and competitors
formed with cohesive ends on both sides 3) Temperature, water light and soil
1) 5 2) 4 4) Pathogens, parasites, predators and
3) 3 4) 2 competitors
44. Match the following and find the correct 50. When a primary oocyte completes meiosis-I
combination 1) One ootid and two polar bodies are formed
I. Flat bladed impellerA.Downstream processing 2) One ovum and three polar bodies are formed
II. Sterile airB. Agitator system 3) One polar body and one secondary oocyte are
III.AirbubblesC. Oxygen delivery system formed
IV. Clinical trialsD. Sparged stirred bioreactor 4) One polar body and one ovum are formed
51. In humans Turner’s syndrome is due to the
I II III IV fertilization of
1) A C D B 1) n + 1 ovum by n – 1 spermatozoan
2) B C D A 2) n – 1 ovum by normal spermatozoan
3) C D A B 3) n + 1 ovum by normal spermatozoan
4) D C B A 4) Normal ovum by n + 1 spermatozoan
45. Statement (A): Antibiotics like Amphicillin, 52. Black walnut secretes juglone, a substance
Tetracycline can be used as selectable markers that destroys many herbaceous plants within
Statement (B): Selectable markers are helpful in its root zone, without any apparent benefit or
identifying transformed cells from non-transformed loss to it. This is a kind of
cells 1) Competion 2) Amensalism
1) A and B are true 3) Comensalism 4) Prasitism
2) A and B are false 53. Milk aversion in certain people is because of
3) A is true, B is false. non-secretion of
4) A is false, B is true. 1) Renin enzyme 2) Pspsin enzyme
3) Lipase enzyme 4) Lactase enzyme
54. Alkaloid extracted from the leaves of 60. CBD COP13 (Conference of the Parties to the
Erythroxylum plant is a potent Convention on Biological Diversity) was held
1) Tranquilizer 2) Sedative from 2-17 December 2016 at
3) Pain killer (analgesic)4) Stimulant 1) Pyeonchang, Republic of Korea
55. If mean annual precipitation is 10 to 125cm and 2) Cuncun, Mexico
mean annual temperature is -120C to 20C the
3) Bonn, Germany 4) Kaulalumpur, Malaysia
biome is
61. This hormone increases erythropoiesis by
1) Arctic and Alpine tundra
2) Coniferous forest increasing the production of erythropoietin and
3) Desert 4) Grass land increasing the responsiveness of immature
56. After birth, blood cells are formed in bone marrow cells to the effects of
1) The spleen 2) The liver erythropoietin
3) The red bone marrow 4) All these 1) Testosterone 2) Estrogen
57. Oocyte completes its meiosis-I during this 3) Progesterone 4) Prolactin
phase of menstrual cycle 62. Marine divers, before diving into seas, breath
1) Menstruation phase 2) Proliferative phase rapidly for a while, this allows them to hold
3) Ovulatory phase 4) Secretory phase breath for few minutes at the sea bottom. This
58. Which of the following represents the correct
is because of
combination without any exception
1) Decreased metabolism in the cells
2) Decreased O2 content in the blood
Animal Class Characteristics
01. Hippotamus Osteichthyes Body 3) Decreased CO2 content in the blood
+
without 4) Increased H in the blood
scale, air 63. Identify the wrong statement
bladder is 1) Duodenum is the ‘C’ shaped part of alimentary
present canal
02. Shark Chondrichthyes Placoid scales, 2) Brunner’s glands are submucosal intestinal
Oviparaous glands
03. Frog Amphibia Three 3) The columnar epithelial cells of villi produce
chambered minute projections called sterocilia
heart, 2 pairs of 4) pancreaticacini secrete an alkaline pancreatic
limbs
juice
04. Duck Mammalia Mammary
64. Neurohormones produced by the
glands,4
chambered hypothalamus are
heart 1) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
2) Gastrin and entrogastrone
59. In the following graph A shows changes in the 3) Somatotropin and thyrotropin
population size of species 1 and species 2 4) Vasopressin and oxytocin
when grown in separate habitats and graph B 65. Identify the wrong one
shows changes in the population size of 1) Clot = Mesh of fibrin fibres + Formed elements
species 1 and species 2, when species 2 is 2) Serum = Blood – (Formed elemnets +
introduced into the habitat of species 1 coagulants)
3) Serum = Plasma – coagulants
4) Lymph = Plasma – RBC
66. In which of the following both pairs have
correct combination
1) Habitat loss: Amazon Rain Forest, Over –
exploitation: Nile perch
2) Over – exploitation: Quagga, Invasion of alien
species; Parthenium
3) Invasion of alien species: Cichlid fish, Co-
A possible conclusion for these changes is extinctions: Dodo
that
4) Co-extinctions: Siberian tiger, Habitat loss:
1) Species 2 is inferiorly competetive
Western Ghats
2) Species 1 is a predator
3) Species 1 is a parasite 67. Identify the wrong set with respect to red
4) It is a biological control method of species 1 muscle fibre and white muscle fibre
79. A man heterozygous for A blood group married
Red muscle fibre White muscle fibre a women homozygous for B blood group.
01. More mitochondria Few mitochondria What is the chance of their first child being A
02. More myoglobin Few myoglobin blood group?
molecules molecules 1) 50% 2) 25%
03. More sarcoplasmic Less sarcoplasmic 3) 100% 4) 0%
reticulum reticulum 80. Grain color in wheat is controlled by three
04. Aerobic respiration Anaerobic genes. So this is an example for
respiration 1) Pleiotropy 2) Multiple alleles
68. Oviparous mammal among the following 3) Gene polymorphism 4) Polygenic traits
1) Whale 2) Platypus 81. In HIV infection, the immune response of the
3) Bat 4) Kangaroo patient collapses because of destruction of
69. Blood is supplied to the lungs due to the 1) Helper T-lymphocytes
systole of 2) B- lymphocytes
1) Right atrium 2) Right ventricle 3) Primary lymphoid organs
3) Left atrium 4) Left ventricle 4) Secondary lymphoid organs
70. In male sterilisation a small part of this is 82. The energy consumed by a primary carnivore
removed or tied on either side is
1) Testes 2) Urethra 1) NPP 2) GPP
3) Vasa efferentia 4) Vas deferens 3) GSP 4) NSP
71. Relaxin hormone, which easies partirution, is 83. One of the following is not a sexually
secreted in the later phase of pregnancy by transmitted disease
1) The hypothalamus 2) The neurohypophysis 1) Pneumonia 2) Chlamydiasis
3) The adenohypophysis 4) The ovary 3) Trichomoniasis 4) Gonorrhoea
72. If gene frequencies change by chance it is 84. Most successful Phylum in all habitats, among
called the following
1) Gene migration 2) Genetic drift 1) Echinodermata 2) Mollusca
3) Genetic load 4) Genetic recombination 3) Arthropoda 4) Annelida
73. Femur articulates with 85. When a person takes more NaCl, this hormone
1) Tibia 2) Radius is secreted to reduce the blood pressure.
3) Ulna 4) Fibula 1) Angiotensin 2) Vasopressin
74. a) : In women cervical cancer is not caused 3) Thyroxine
unless and until they have sexual contact 4) Atrial natriuretic peptide
b) Cervial cancer is caused by Human 86. Major cause of destruction of Stratosphre is
Papilloma virus, which is sexually transmitted. the release of
1) Both (a) and (b) are true 1) Particulate matter from thermal power plants
2) Both (a) and (b) are false 2) CO2 from motor vehicles
3) (a) is true, (b) is false 3) Methane from paddy fields
4) (a) is false but (b) is true 4) CFCs from air conditioners, refrigerators etc.
75. The source of new alleles in a population 87. Identify the wrong match
1) Gene mutations 2) Geneticrecombinations 1) Macula lutea – Cornea
3) Chromosomal mutations 2) Macula densa – DCT
4) All these 3) Macula – Vestibule
76. Important component of exoskeleton in 4) Crista – Semicircular canals
cockroach 88. When PCT is removed from the nephron
1) Chondroitin sulphate 2) Calcium carbonate 1) Selective reabsorption cannot occur in nephron
3) Chitin 4) Cellulose 2) Nutrients are not realasorbed from the filtrate
77. This man is know for his cave paintings 3) Tubular secretion cannot occur in nephron
1) Neanderthal man 2) Java man 4) Counter current mechanism cannot occur
3) Peking man 4) Cro-Magnon man 89. BOD is a measure of
78. One of the following is not in-situ conservation 1) Water pollution by organic matter
1) Protecting tigers in Jim Corbett National Park 2) Ozone density in atmosphere
2) Protecting migratory birds in Pulicat lake Wild 3) Sound pollution
life Sanctuary 4) SO2 concentration in atmosphere
3) Protecting amphibian species in Western Ghats 90. Paper in the garbage is a
-SriLanka Biodiversity hot spot 1) Secondary pollutant
4) Preserving the eggs and semen of Ongole 2) Biodegradable pollutant
breed cattle in liquid nitrogen 3) Non-biodegradabel pollutant
4) Non-recyclable pollutant
2
2a 2a
3) x 4) 5 mH 4
50 F
2 1 2 1 A
92. Eight point charges assumed as small spheres
uniformly charged each having charge q are placed at 6
ac
the vertices of cube the electric flux through each V = 20 cos(2000 t)
square face of cube The reading of voltmeter and Ammeter
q q q q 1) 0 V 0.47 A 2) 1.68 V 0.47 A
1) 2) 3) 4) 3) 0 V 1.4 A 4) 5.6 A 1.4 A
24 0 12 0 8 0 6 0 100. Initially identical samples of A and B of pure
93. In a region uniform electric field E Exiˆ exists. If a Germanium are doped with donors to concentrations
small circle is drawn with origin as centre cutting the 1 1020/ m3 and 3 1020/ m3 respectively if hole
axis at A(a 0), B(0, a) C(a, 0) D(0, a). The concentration in A is 9 1012 / m3 then the hole
potentials at the points A B C D are VA, VB, VC, VD concentration in B at same temperature
then 1) 3 1012 / m3 2) 7 1012 / m3
12 3
1) VA> VB = VD> VC 2) VA = VB = VC> VD 3) 11 10 / m 4) 27 1012 / m3
3) VC> VB = VD> VA 4)VA> VB> VC> VD 101. As a treatment of Cataracts the natural lens is
94. It is found that electromagnetic signals sent from A removed and plastic lens is implanted. After this is
towards B reaches point C. The speed of done a person can see distance objects clearly but the
electromagnetic signals in the glass can not be can notaccomidate to focus on nearby objects. If for
1) 1 108 m/s C example such person wanted to read a book at a
2) 2.4 108 m/s distance of 25 cm he would have wear eye glasses
3) 2 107 m/s B whose diaptor power is
4) 4 107 m/s 1) 3.33 2) 2 3) 4 4) 4
102. The displacement of particle in SHM is given by
A
95. A vehicle with a horn of frequency n moving with y 5sin 4t mass of particle is 2 g the KE of
velocity 30 m/s in a direction perpendicular to the 3
straight line joining the observer and vehicle. The T
observer perceives the sound to have a frequency n + particle when t is (T = time period)
4
n1 then n1 is (VS = 330 m/s) 1) 0.4 J 2) 0.5 J 3) 0.3 J 4) 0.2 J
1) n1 = 10 n 2) n1 = n 103. A new unit of system proposed in which unit of mass
1
3)n = 0.1 n 4) n1 = 0 kg. Unit of length m and unit of time rs. How
96. a) Stream line flow is more likely for liquid with high much will 9J measure in this new system
viscosity and low density
b) For ideal liquid bulk modulus infinity and shear 9 92 9 2 9 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
modulus zero. 2 2 2 2 2
c) Young's Modulus of perfect rigid body unity. 104. The rms speed of oxygen molecule at certain
Choose correct one temperature T is v. If the temperature is doubled and
1) a, c 2) b, c 3) a, b 4) all oxygen molecule dissociates into atomic oxygen the
97. In one dimensional motion of particle with total rms speed become
energy E, Potential energy V, Kinetic energy K
which of the following regions. The particle canot 1) v 2) 2v 3) 2 v 4) 3 v
found 105. A body cools from 62°C to 50°C in 10 min and to
1) V > E 2) V < E 42°C in next 10 min. The temperature of
surroundings is
3) K < E 4) V > K
1) 16°C 2) 26°C 3) 36°C 4) 21°C
98. Match the following
106. A particle of mass M placed at centre of spherical
Current RMS value
shell of same mass and Radius R. The gravitational
a) i0 sint p) i0
R
b) i0 sint cost q) i0 / 2 potential at a point situated at from the centre will
2
be
48
The PD across 24 is
1) 6 V 2) 10 V 3) 2 V 4) 4 V 10 V
3 F
123. A = 1000110, B = 1100100 2 F
are given as inputs of a logic gate the output is
y = 0011001 the gate is
1) NAND2) NOR 3) AND4) OR 1) 18 C, 12 C 2) 15 C, 15 C
124. An electron of stationary hydrogen atom passed 3) 10 C, 30 C 4) 5 C, 25 C
from fifth energy level to ground level. The 130. In moving coil galvanometer. The number of turns
velocity of atom acquired as a result of photon in coil are doubled. The current sensitivity and
emission will be voltage sensitivity becomes respectively
1) doubled in each case
24 m 24 hR
1) 2) 2) current sensitivity doubled only
25 hR 25 m 3) both are unaltered
25 hR 25 m 4) voltage sensitivity doubled only
3) 4) 131. Two coherent sources with intensity ratio produce
24 m 24 hR
interference. The fringe visibility is
125. The outer shell carries a charge +Q and inner shell
is neutral. Then 2
1) 2) 2
1
2 B
R 3) 4)
1 1
2R
132. The electric current 'I' created by electron in the
Q ground state of H atom using Bohr model interms of
1) charge attained by inner sphere =
2 Bohr radius a0 ad velocity of electron in first orbit v0
Q is
2) charge attained by inner sphere = eV0 2 a 0 2 a 0 V0
3 1) 2) 3) 4)
Q 2 a 0 eV0 V0 2 a 0
3) charge attained by inner sphere =
2 133. A radioactive element X disintegrate in to stable
Q element y with half life 2 year. A presh sample of X
4) charge attained by inner sphere = is available at t = 0. At which instant ratio of nuclei
3 of X to Nuclei y become 1 : 7 in given sample
126. A body of mass m situated in a potential field u(x) = 1) t = 8 yr 2) t = 6 yr
u0 (1 cosx) where u0 is constant. The time period 3) t = 14 yr 4) t = 2 yr
for small oscillations is 134. Two concentric coils each of radius 2 cm is placed
m m at right angles to each other. 3A, 4A currents
1) 2 2) 2 flowing in each coil respectively. The Magnetic
u0 u 02
Induction in Tesla at the centre of coils
m 2m 1) 5 105 2) 7 105
3) 2 4) 2 3) 12 10 5
4) 105
2u 0 u 02
31 3
127. Resistances P, Q, S, R are arranged in cyclic order to 135. fraction of sample disintegrate in time 't'
form balanced wheatstone bridge. The ratio of 32 4
power consumed in the branches P + Q and R + S is fraction will disintegrate in time of
1) 1 : 12) R : P3) P2 : Q2 4) P2 : R2 t t 2t
1) 2) 3) 4) 3t
128. When a metal surface is illuminated with 4 5 5
monochromatic light of wavelength . The stopping
potential is 5 V0. When the same metal surface is
illuminated with light of wave length 4 the stopping
4) Deficiency of Vitamin D leads to rickets IV :Cation or anion or both ions having more
175. Electrolyte HCl, NaOAc, KNO3, KCl, NaCl charges favour the formation of ionic bonds.
Correct statements of the above are
0 scm2mol 1 , 426.2, 91, 145, 149.9, 126.5.
1) I & III 2) II & IV
Then the molar conductivity of HOAc by using 3) III & IV 4) I & II
appropriate values of electrolytes listed above at
zero concentration in water at 250 C is
1) 517.2 2) 552.7
3) 390.7 4) 217.5
1) A 2) B
BOTANY
1) 3 2) 3 3) 4 4) 3 5) 3 6) 1 7) 1 8) 4 9) 2 10) 3
11) 1 12) 1 13) 2 14) 1 15) 3 16) 1 17) 1 18) 4 19) 2 20) 1
21) 1 22) 2 23) 3 24) 1 25) 2 26) 1 27) 2 28) 1 29) 3 30) 2
31) 1 32) 3 33) 4 34) 4 35) 3 36) 3 37) 4 38) 4 39) 4 40) 2
51) 2 52) 2 53) 4 54) 4 55) 1 56) 3 57) 2 58) 3 59) 4 60) 2
61) 1 62) 3 63) 3 64) 4 65) 4 66) 2 67) 3 68) 2 69) 2 70) 4
71) 4 72) 2 73) 1 74) 1 75) 1 76) 3 77) 4 78) 4 79) 4 80) 4
81) 1 82) 4 83) 1 84) 3 85) 4 86) 4 87) 1 88) 2 89) 1 90) 2
PHYSICS
91) 3 92) 4 93) 3 94) 2 95) 4 96) 3 97) 1 98) 1 99) 4 100) 1
101) 4 102) 3 103) 4 104) 2 105) 2 106) 1 107) 1 108) 1 109) 3 110) 3
111) 2 112) 2 113) 2 114) 1 115) 3 116) 2 117) 2 118) 2 119) 3 120) 3
121) 3 122) 3 123) 2 124) 2 125) 1 126) 2 127) 2 128) 2 129) 1 130) 2
141) 4 142) 3 143) 3 144) 1 145) 1 146) 4 147) 1 148) 3 149) 1 150) 3
151) 4 152) 3 153) 2 154) 2 155) 4 156) 1 157) 3 158) 4 159) 4 160) 4
161) 4 162) 4 163) 4 164) 1 165) 1 166) 3 167) 4 168) 1 169) 2 170) 4
171) 4 172) 2 173) 2 174) 2 175) 3 176) 1 177) 3 178) 3 179) 2 180) 4