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SDAW37B1 [Phase-1]
Applicable for class-IX
IIT–JEE STAGE – I
B. Marking scheme:
6. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
7. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the
correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks other wise. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.
8. For each question in Section III, on carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be
awarded. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative marking.
9. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -3
PART - I: PHYSICS
PART A
SECTION – I (PART – A) (Total Marks : 24) (3, – 1)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The displacement-time graph for the four particles a, b, c and d are shown in the figure.
Displacement
Displacement
a time b time
Displacement
Displacement
c time d time
3. Two bodies A and B of mass 100 g and 200 g respectively are dropped near the earth‘s surface. Let the
accelerations of A and B be a1 and a2 respectively. Now these two bodies are tied together and the joint
body is dropped near the earth surface and falls with an acceleration, a3, then
(A) a1 = a2 = a3 (B) a1 < a2 > a3
(C) a1 > a2 > a3 (D) a1 a2 a3
4. A train moving at a constant speed of 54 km/h moves eastward for 30 minutes. Then moves towards
north for 40 minutes. The magnitude of average velocity of the train during the run is
(A) 38.6 km/hr (B) 45 km/hr
(C) 36 km/hr (D) 27 km/hr
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -4
5. A particle is moving in circular path of radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. Its angular speed is
(A) 1 rad/s (B) 1 m/s
(C) 10 m/s (D) 10 rad/s
V (m/s)
4
3
the body in 6 seconds are 2
(A) 8 m, 16 m (B) 16 m, 8 m 1 t (sec)
(C) 16 m, 16 m (D) 8 m, 8 m -1 1 2 3 4 5 6
-2
-3
-4
7. In the figure shows the displacement time graph of a particle moving on the x
X-axis
(A) the particle is continuously going in positive x direction
(B) the particle is at rest
(C) the velocity increase up to a time t0, and then becomes constant t0 t
(D) the particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0, and then stops.
8. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v 1 for some time and with uniform
velocity v2 for the next equal time. The average velocity v is given by
v v2
(A) v 1 (B) v v1v 2
2
2 1 1 1 1 1
(C) (D)
v v1 v 2 v v1 v2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -5
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
9. Consider the motion of the tip of the minute hand of a clock. In one hour
(A) the displacement is zero (B) the distance covered is zero
(C) the average speed is zero (D) the average velocity is zero
11. Mark the correct statements for a particle going on a straight line:
(A) If the velocity and acceleration have opposite sign, the object is slowing down.
(B) If the position and velocity have opposite sign, the particle is moving towards the origin.
(C) If the velocity is zero at an instant, the acceleration should also be zero at that instant
(D) If the velocity is zero for a time interval, the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time
interval.
12. The velocity-time plot for a particle moving on a straight line is v(m/s)
shown in the figure 10
(A) The particle has a constant acceleration
0
(B) The particle has never turned around 10 20 30 t(s)
(C) The particle has zero displacement 10
(D) The average speed in the interval 0 to 10 s is the same as the
average speed in the interval 10 s to 20 s. 20
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -6
SECTION –III (PART – B) (Total Marks : 16) (+2, 0 for each row)
Matrix – Match Type
Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A, B, C, D) in
column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column II.
1. For the motion of a particle along x-axis, match the column.
Column – I Column – II
v
(A) (p) Motion with non uniform acceleration
v
Motion of a body covering equal distances in
(B) (q)
equal intervals of time
v
(C) (r) Motion having a constant retardation
v
(D) (s) Uniformly accelerated motion
x C E
B D
A t
Column – I Column – II
(A) AB (p) The body is at rest
(B) BC (q) The body is not accelerating
(C) CD (r) The velocity is decreasing with time
(D) DE (s) The velocity is increasing with time
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -7
PART C
SECTION –IV (PART – C) (Total Marks : 24) (+4, 0)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
1. An athelete takes 2.0 s to reach his maximum speed of 18.0 km/h. The magnitude of his average
2
acceleration is N/2 m/s . Determine N.
2. The speed of a car as a function of time is shown in the figure. The distance
Speed in m/s
20
travelled by the car in 8 seconds is 10 N m. Determine N.
10
0
2 4 6 8 10
Time in second
2
3. A person travelling at 43.2 km/h applies the brake giving a deceleration of 6.0 m/s to his scooter. The
distance it will travel before stopping is 6 D m. Determine D.
4. A police jeep is chasing a culprit going on a motorbike. The motorbike crosses a turning at a speed of
72 km/h. The jeep follows it at a speed of 90 km/h, crossing the turning ten seconds later than the bike.
Assuming that they travel at constant speeds, how far (in km) from the turning will the jeep catch up
with the bike?
5. A car travelling at 60 km/h overtakes another car travelling at 42 km/h. Assuming each car to be 5.0 m
long. Find the time taken (in seconds) during the overtake and the total road distance used for the
overtake.
6. A ball is thrown at a sped of 40 m/s at an angle of 60 with the horizontal. The maximum height reached
2
is 10 H. Determine H. (Take g = 10 m/s ).
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -8
3. Normal boiling point of a liquid is that temperature at which vapour pressure of the liquid is equal to:
(A) Zero (B) 380mm of Hg
(C) 760 mm of Hg (D) 100 mm of Hg
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -9
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -10
SECTION –III (PART – B) (Total Marks : 16) (+2, 0 for each row)
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
four statements (p, q, r and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
one or more statement(s) in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -11
PART C
SECTION –IV (PART – C) (Total Marks : 24) (+4, 0)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
1. Calculate the amount of heat required to melt 50g of ice (0°C) in Kcal/kg. (Given the latent heat of
fusion of ice is 80 cal/g)
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -12
2. 7
If 2log3 2x 5 log3 2 log3 2x then x is equal to
2
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) p x k 3x2 19x 3
(B) p x k 3x2 19x 3
(C) p x k 3x 2
19x 3 (D) p x k x 2
16x 1
6. The side AB of parallelogram ABCD is produced to both ways to P and Q such that PA = AB = BQ.
Give that AD = 2AB, then value of angle between DQ and CP is
(A) 100º (B) 50º
(C) 60º (D) 90º
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -13
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1 1 1
11. The value of is:
1 logx yz 1 logy zx 1 logz xy
(A) 1 (B) 2loga2 a
(C) x = yz (D) 4loga3 a
x2 y2 1
12. If log
2 2
log x 2 log y 2 then
2 2
(A) x = y (B) 2x = y
(C) x = y (D) 2y = x
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -14
SECTION –III (PART – B) (Total Marks : 16) (+2, 0 for each row)
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
four statements (p, q, r and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
one or more statement(s) in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) (p) 4/3
81 81 81
..........to ..........
64 64 64
(B) n (q) 9
2 4
4
2 1024, then
n
3 = ……….
(C) 3 (r) 81
If 2log5 5log2 2log x then log5 x2 .........
64
(D) 36 (s) 6
3
The power of x in x
Column I Column II
(A) If 3x 1 is a factor of the polynomial 81x3 45x2 3a 6 then a is (p) 4
remainder when p x q x is
(D) The value of K, if HFC of x2 x 5K 1 and x2 6x 3K 11 is x 2 . (s) 8
3
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -15
PART C
SECTION –IV (PART – C) (Total Marks: 24) (+4, 0)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
1/3 1/3
1. If x 4 15 4 15 then the value of x3 3x is
2. If a
5 1
and b
5 1
then the value of
3 a2 ab b2
5 1 5 1 4 a 2
ab b2
3. The quadratic polynomials
p x x2 6x a
q x x2 cx 6
have one root in common. The other roots of p x and q x are integers in the ratio 4 : 3. Then the
common root is …….
4. If the roots of the quadratic polynomial p x x2 px q are 2 1 and 2 1 respectively, then the
value of 2 2 q p is …….
B D M C
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -16
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A
5. A 6. A 7. D 8. A
9. A, D 10. B, D 11. A, B, D 12. A, D
PART–B
PART–C
1. 5 2. 8 3. 2 4. 1
5. 2 6. 6
Chemistry [PART-II]
PART–A
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. A
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D
9. B, D 10. A, C, D 11. B, C 12. A, D
PART–B
PART–C
1. 4 2. 5 3. 5 4. 5
5. 6 6. 2
Mathematics [PART-III]
PART–A
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. B
5. B 6. D 7. D 8. A
9. A, C 10. C, D 11. A, B 12. A, C
PART–B
PART–C
1. 8 2. 1 3. 2 4. 1
5. 5 6. 5
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -17
Instructions
The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 14 questions of Physics.
Section – III contains 14 questions of Chemistry.
Section – IV contains 12 questions of Biology.
Section – V contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Each question carries +1 marks.
There is No negative marking.
Attempt All questions.
Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
Enrolment Number :
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -18
2. Which of the following refuted the doctrine of divine and absolute right?
(A) John Locke (B) Rousseau
(C) Montesquieu (D) Voltaire
5. The term old regime used to describe the society and institution of France
(A) Before 1879 (B) Before 1689
(C) Before 1789 (D) Before 1859
6. Which event did not take place during the summer of 1789?
(A) The Tennis Court Oath (B) The Great Fear
(C) The Reign of Terror (D) The August Decrees
7. What was the main reason that several thousand women marched on Versailles in October 1789?
(A) Bread shortages in Paris
(B) Universal suffrage for men and women
(C) An influenza outbreak
(D) An exhibition of Marie-Antoinette‘s fashions
8. The association of people who produced goods together and divided the profits according to the work
done by members is commonly termed as
(A) Capitalism (B) Co-operatives
(C) Collectivism (D) Socialism
12. The group of people who wanted a nation that tolerated all religions came to be known as
(A) religious-minded club (B) liberals
(C) socialists (D) radicals
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -19
17. Uttrakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with
(A) China (B) Bhutan
(C) Nepal (D) Myanmar
30. ―A direct vote in which an entire electorate is asked to either accept or reject a particular proposal‖ is
related to which of the following concepts?
(A) Veto (B) Coup
(C) Strike (D) Referendum
31. Who was the President of Chile, when the government was overthrown on 11 September, 1973?
(A) Salvador Allende (B) Michelle Bachelet
(C) General Augusto Pinochet (D) Lech Walesa
34. Which among the following states was among first to try out the modern farming methods in India?
(A) Haryana (B) Jharkhand
(C) Bihar (D) Odisha
35. Which of the following terms is used for measuring the crop produced on a given piece of land during a
single year?
(A) Yield (B) Productivity
(C) Cultivation (D) Output
37. Which of the following statements is not true about small-scale manufacturing in villages?
(A) Farmers engage in it to supplement their income
(B) Farmers takes help of their family members
(C) The production is done mostly at home
(D) Farmers produce articles for their own use
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -21
4. A body goes 10 km north and 20 km east. What will be the displacement from initial point ?
(A) 22.36 km (B) 2 km
(C) 5 km (D) 20 km
(A) 5 m (B) 16 m 2
t (sec.)
(C) 8 m (D) 6 m 0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
-2
6. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of radius R in 40sec. What will be his displacement
at the end of 2 min 40 sec?
(A) zero (B) 2R
(C) 2R (D) 7R
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -22
8. Which of the following represents the displacement-time graph of two objects A and B moving with
equal velocity ?
(A) (B)
Displacement
Displacement
A
A
B
Time Time
(C) (D)
Displacement
Displacement
A
B B
Time Time
9. Between the two stations a train accelerates uniformly at first, then moves with constant velocity and
finally retards uniformly. If the ratio of the time taken be 1 : 8 : 1 and the max. speed attained be 60
km/h then what is the average speed over the whole journey? (Given that initially and finally the train is
at rest)
(A) 48 km/h (B) 50 km/h
(C) 54 km/h (D) 56 km/h
10. A stone is thrown with an initial speed of 4.9 m/s from a bridge in vertically upward direction. It falls
down in water after 2 seconds. The height of the bridge is
(A) 4.9 m (B) 9.8 m
(C) 19.8 m (D) 24.7 m
11. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some time after which it decelerates at a constant
rate to come to rest. If the total time of journey is t, then the maximum velocity acquired by the car is
given by
(A) t (B) t
2
(C)
2
t (D) t
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -23
t
(A) (B)
U V
t t
(C) (D)
U V
t t
14. Which of the following is the velocity time graph for the motion of a ball thrown vertically upwards with
an initial velocity, until it returns to the point of throwing?
(A) v (B) v
O t O
t
v
(C) v (D)
O t O
t
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -24
4. The heat energy which has to be supplied to change the state of a substance is called
(A) Heat of vapourization (B) Latent heat
(C) Heat of sublimation (D) Heat of fusion
5. Movement of different particles among each other (or their own), so that they become mixed uniformly,
is called
(A) Diffusion (B) Brownian motion
(C) Osmosis (D) Reverse Osmosis
8. Rate of evaporation
(A) Increases with increase in temperature (B) Increases with increase in surface area
(C) Decrease with increase in humidity (D) All the above
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -25
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -26
2. Which of the following is / are true for both RNA and DNA?
(a) RNA is double-stranded, DNA single-stranded
(b) RNA has the base uracil in place of the thymine in DNA
(c) RNA contains the sugar ribose, while DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose
(d) DNA and RNA both are single stranded
(A) (a) and (b) (B) (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (d) (D) (a) and (d)
6. Which cell organelle has oxidative enzymes and helps in removal of toxic substances?
(A) Lysosomes (B) Peroxisomes
(C) Mitochondria (D) Ribosomes
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -27
8. Name the tissue where cells are living, their walled, isodiametric with intercellular spaces
(A) Collenchyma (B) Parenchyma
(C) Sclerenchyma (D) All of these
12. Which one of the following tissue is formed by bundles of fibrous tissue and is rich in collagen proteins
(A) Tendon (B) Ligament
(C) Adipose tissue (D) A and C both
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -28
SECTION V: MATHMETICS
(Part A)
B C A 1
1. log(A B C ) + log is equal to
ABC
B–1 C–1 A–1 B+1 C+1 A+1
(A) log(A B C ) (B) log(A B C )
1
(C) log ABBCCA (D) logA + logB + logC
ABC
x y y2
Simplify 625 1258x 3125 252
4x
2.
(B) 5
4x 3y
2
4x + 3y
(A) 5
(C) 5 5 (D) 5
3x 4y
2 2 2
4x 3y
1 1 1
3. If A = ,B and C = , which of the following is true?
74 3 2 19 5 3 52 6
(A) A < B < C (B) B > A > C
(C) A < C < B (D) C > B > A
4. 10 24 60 40
(A) 2 3 5 (B) 5 3 7
(C) 1 + 2 7 (D) 5 3 7
x2 y2 x2 y2 x8 y8
5. If 2 , then
x2 y2 x2 y2 x8 y8
2 2
(A) (B) 2 2
3
2 2 3
(C) (D)
5 2 2
6.
Find the value of log 1 log3 log2 227 .
3
(A) – 1 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0
Space for rough work
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -29
1
loga x3 .logb x 3
7. Simplify
loga x logb x
(A) logabx (B) logxa + logxb
(C) logxab (D) 1
1 1 1
9. If n = (2006)!, then ... is:
log2 n log3 n log2006 n
(A) 2006! (B) – 1
(C) 2006 (D) 1
1
10. If x = 3 + 2 2 , then the value of x is:
x
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 2 2 (D) 3 3
2 2 2
11. If (a – 1) + (b + 2) + (c + 1) = 0, then the value of 2a – 3b + 7c is:
(A) 12 (B) 3
(C) – 11 (D) 1
1 1 1
12.
2 2 2
If x = y + z, y = z + x, z = x + y, then the value of is
x 1 y 1 z 1
(A) – 1 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
4 1 3 1
13. If x + 4
= 119 and x > 1, then the value of x – 3 is:
x x
(A) 54 (B) 18
(C) 72 (D) 36
Space for rough work
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -30
–z 1 1 1
If 2 = 3 = 6 then is equal to
x y
14.
x y z
(A) 0 (B) 1
3 1
(C) (D)
2 2
1
3 is
2
15. Minimum value of x +
x 1
2
(A) 0 (B) – 1
(C) – 3 (D) – 2
1
x4
16.
2
If x + 1 = 2x, then the value of 2 x 2 is
x 3x 1
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) – 2
18. if in any triangle ABC, the base BC is produced in both ways, the sum of the exterior angles at B and C
is
(A) – A (B) + A
A
(C) A (B)
2 2
19. In the given figure, AB || CD. If EAB = 50° and ECD = D B
60°, then AEB = ?
(A) 50° (B) 60°
(C) 70° (D) 55° 60° E 50°
C A
20. In an obtuse-angled triangle ABC, A is the obtuse angle and O is the orthocentre. If BOC = 54°, then
BAC is
(A) 108° (B) 126°
(C) 136° (D) 116°
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -31
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -32
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Name :
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -33
Directions (Q. 6 to 10): Which set of letters when placed at the gaps sequentially shall complete the series?
6. a__bcab__cabc__aab__ab__c
(A) abccb (B) cacbc
(C) aabcb (D) aabac
7. c_baa_aca_cacab_acac_bca
(A) acbaa (B) bbcaa
(C) bccab (D) cbaac
8. b__ccacca__ba__bbc__bc__a
(A) acbca (B) bacab
(C) abaaa (D) baabc
9. __abcb__cac__aba__bcb__ca
(A) abbca (B) abcab
(C) bcaac (D) bbcaa
10. _bcc_ac_aabb_ab_cc
(A) aabca (B) abaca
(C) bacab (D) bcaca
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -34
Directions (Q. 15 to 19): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes—A, B and C. There are three
girls among them studying one each of these institutes. Two of them study mechanical engineering, two
studying medicine and one each study biotechnology, pharmacy and electrical engineering. R studies with only
her best friend P who studies pharmacy in college B. No girl studies either biotechnology or electrical
engineering. T studies mechanical engineering in college A and his brother W studies electrical engineering in
college C. None of the two studying medicine studies in college B. S studies biotechnology along with T and Z.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -35
Directions (Q. 20 to 22): Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
Seven letters are arranged in a line as follows:
(i) E and F have one letter between them.
(ii) G is to the right of A.
(iii) B is to the immediate left of F.
(iv) There is one letter between D and A.
(v) D is not G‘s neighbour.
(vi) G and F have two letters between them.
21. Which letter will be exactly in the middle of the letter series so obtained?
(A) D (B) A
(C) E (D) None of these
Directions (Q. 23 to 28): The second figure in the first part of the problem figure bears a certain relationship to
the first figure. Similarly, one of the figures in answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure in the
second part. You have to select the figure from the set of answer figures which would replace the sign of
question mark (?).
23.
24.
25.
26.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -36
27.
28.
29. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one of the following numbers
cannot represent the total number of children in the class?
(A) 48 (B) 44
(C) 42 (D) 40
30. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total
number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.
(A) 5 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 15
31. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half the number of men. In the city Y, 10
men left the bus and five women boarded in to it. Now, number of men and women becomes equal. In
the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?
(A) 15 (B) 30
(C) 36 (D) 45
32. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, ―If you give me 3 cards, you will have as many as I
have at this moment while if D takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as E has‖, A and C
together have twice as many cards as E has B and D together also have the same number of cards as
A and C have taken together. If all together they have 150 cards, how many cards has C got?
(A) 28 (B) 29
(C) 31 (D) 35
33. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but
not six, all pigeons but not six, and all ducks but not six. How many birds had he in all?
(A) 9 (B) 18
(C) 27 (D) 36
34. Thirty five sweets are distributed among Sita and Gita in the ratio 4 : 3. Find the number of sweets
received by Sita.
(A) 28 (B) 21
(C) 20 (D) 15
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -37
35. The number of marbles with A and B are in the ratio of 10 : 11. Which of the following cannot be a
possible number of marbles with A and B together?
(A) 189 (B) 210
(C) 231 (D) 153
36. Four pens and five erasers cost Rs. 32. Five pens and four erasers cost Rs. 31. Find the cost of each
pen (in Rs.)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -38
46. Starting from his house Nishant traveled 10 m towards West, then turns towards the right and travels 40
m. He then travels 25 m East followed by 50 m towards the South to reach his college. What is the
approximate distance between his house and the college?
(A) 18 m (B) 19 m
(C) 20 m (D) 21 m
47. Raj travels 6 m towards the East, he then turns right and travels 8 m. What is the distance between the
initial and final positions of Raj?
(A) 10 m (B) 11 m
(C) 12 m (D) 13 m
Directions (Q. 48 to 50): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it by
selecting the correct option from the given alternatives.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are playing cards sitting in a circle.
(i) F is second the right of G.
(ii) B is the neighbour of F but not of E.
(iii) E, the neighbour of C, is fourth to the right of G.
(iv) D is between E and A.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -39
ANSWERS
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D
49. A 50. D
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website: www.fiitjee.com
IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -40
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Name :
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -41
Directions (Q. 6 to 10): Which set of letters when placed at the gaps sequentially shall complete the series?
6. a__bcab__cabc__aab__ab__c
(A) abccb (B) cacbc
(C) aabcb (D) aabac
7. c_baa_aca_cacab_acac_bca
(A) acbaa (B) bbcaa
(C) bccab (D) cbaac
8. b__ccacca__ba__bbc__bc__a
(A) acbca (B) bacab
(C) abaaa (D) baabc
9. __abcb__cac__aba__bcb__ca
(A) abbca (B) abcab
(C) bcaac (D) bbcaa
10. _bcc_ac_aabb_ab_cc
(A) aabca (B) abaca
(C) bacab (D) bcaca
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -42
Directions (Q. 15 to 19): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes—A, B and C. There are three
girls among them studying one each of these institutes. Two of them study mechanical engineering, two
studying medicine and one each study biotechnology, pharmacy and electrical engineering. R studies with only
her best friend P who studies pharmacy in college B. No girl studies either biotechnology or electrical
engineering. T studies mechanical engineering in college A and his brother W studies electrical engineering in
college C. None of the two studying medicine studies in college B. S studies biotechnology along with T and Z.
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website: www.fiitjee.com
IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -43
Directions (Q. 20 to 22): Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
Seven letters are arranged in a line as follows:
(i) E and F have one letter between them.
(ii) G is to the right of A.
(iii) B is to the immediate left of F.
(iv) There is one letter between D and A.
(v) D is not G‘s neighbour.
(vi) G and F have two letters between them.
21. Which letter will be exactly in the middle of the letter series so obtained?
(A) D (B) A
(C) E (D) None of these
Directions (Q. 23 to 28): The second figure in the first part of the problem figure bears a certain relationship to
the first figure. Similarly, one of the figures in answer figures bears the same relationship to the first figure in the
second part. You have to select the figure from the set of answer figures which would replace the sign of
question mark (?).
23.
24.
25.
26.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -44
27.
28.
29. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one of the following numbers
cannot represent the total number of children in the class?
(A) 48 (B) 44
(C) 42 (D) 40
30. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the total
number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, find the number of keepers.
(A) 5 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 15
31. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half the number of men. In the city Y, 10
men left the bus and five women boarded in to it. Now, number of men and women becomes equal. In
the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?
(A) 15 (B) 30
(C) 36 (D) 45
32. A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, ―If you give me 3 cards, you will have as many as I
have at this moment while if D takes 5 cards from you, he will have as many as E has‖, A and C
together have twice as many cards as E has B and D together also have the same number of cards as
A and C have taken together. If all together they have 150 cards, how many cards has C got?
(A) 28 (B) 29
(C) 31 (D) 35
33. A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all sparrows but
not six, all pigeons but not six, and all ducks but not six. How many birds had he in all?
(A) 9 (B) 18
(C) 27 (D) 36
34. Thirty five sweets are distributed among Sita and Gita in the ratio 4 : 3. Find the number of sweets
received by Sita.
(A) 28 (B) 21
(C) 20 (D) 15
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -45
35. The number of marbles with A and B are in the ratio of 10 : 11. Which of the following cannot be a
possible number of marbles with A and B together?
(A) 189 (B) 210
(C) 231 (D) 153
36. Four pens and five erasers cost Rs. 32. Five pens and four erasers cost Rs. 31. Find the cost of each
pen (in Rs.)
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -46
46. Starting from his house Nishant traveled 10 m towards West, then turns towards the right and travels 40
m. He then travels 25 m East followed by 50 m towards the South to reach his college. What is the
approximate distance between his house and the college?
(A) 18 m (B) 19 m
(C) 20 m (D) 21 m
47. Raj travels 6 m towards the East, he then turns right and travels 8 m. What is the distance between the
initial and final positions of Raj?
(A) 10 m (B) 11 m
(C) 12 m (D) 13 m
Directions (Q. 48 to 50): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it by
selecting the correct option from the given alternatives.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are playing cards sitting in a circle.
(i) F is second the right of G.
(ii) B is the neighbour of F but not of E.
(iii) E, the neighbour of C, is fourth to the right of G.
(iv) D is between E and A.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -47
ANSWERS
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D
49. A 50. D
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website: www.fiitjee.com
IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -48
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 mark if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -49
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26515949, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -50
We are told not to lie from the moment we learn how to do it. According to psychologist Richard
Wiseman, this is at the age of about four when children realise they can deceive people. We are not
born liars.
In childhood, the line between imagination and lying is often not clear. Children are praised for creative
imagination but generally criticised for hiding the truth.
As adults we have definite ideas about which kind of lies are OK and which are not. Very often the
reason for the lie is the important thing in accepting or rejecting the lie.
Generally speaking there are three types of lies, and liars. The first sort of liar wants to please people,
the second wants to protect him or herself, the third sort doesn‘t care about other people and lies to get
what he or she wants.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow, choosing the best option :
1. Lying is :
(A) a way of making life run somhow (B) a way of making life run somoothly
(C) way of making life run anyhow (D) none of the above
2. Children
(A) are born liars (B) are quick to learn how to lie
(C) never tell lies (D) realise early they can lie to deceive people
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -51
II Passage - 2
Read the passage given and answer the questions, choosing the best option : [5]
‗What can we do to stop gorillas in zoos from getting bored ?‘ Not a question that is uppermost in most
people‘s minds but one that Ian Turner, keeper at Longleat Safari Park, had to think about with Samba
and Nico, two West African lowland gorillas in his care.
Fifteen years ago when the two gorillas arrived in the UK from a zoo in Switzerland, they had to spend
a period of six months in isolation, or quarantine as it is called. Ian and the other keepers at the safari
park realised that Samba and Nico were suffering from boredom.
Ian remembered a TV programme he had seen about a gorilla in Columbus Zoo, USA, whose stress
levels had been reduced by putting a TV in his enclosure. So Samba and Nico were given a TV for their
six-month isolaion period. When this period ended, the two gorillas proved to be very keen on their new
entertainment – so much so that they refused to eat and made noisy protests when their TV was
temporarily removed.
6. Gorillas in 2005
(A) don‘t know the meaning of boredom (B) are not often easily bored
(C) can suffer from boredom (D) people who come to watch them
II. Rearrange these jumbled words / phrases to make meaningful sentences : [8]
12. | what they intend to buy | but they know | the store | when they enter |
P Q R S
(A) RPQS (B) RQSP (C) SPRQ (D) QPSR
13. | to find it | also know | they | where |
P Q R S
(A) SQPQ (B) RQSP (C) SPQR (D) RSPQ
14. | wants them | the supermarket manager | they didn‘t know they needed | to buy things |
P Q R S
(A) PQRS (B) RSPQ (C) SQPR (D) QPSR
15. | from time to time | the positions of items | by changing | he achieves this successfully
P Q R S
(A) SRQP (B) QSPQ (C) PQRS (D) RSPQ
17. | the basic things | where shoppers expect to find | they want | these are places
P Q R S
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -52
18. | by moving | thus | the position of goods | supermarkets sell more items |
P Q R S
(A) RPSQ (B) SQPR (C) QSPR (D) RPQS
III. Fill in the blanks in the passage given below choosing from the given options : [10]
‗Walking to the Mountain‘ is 19 about walking to not just 20 mountain but Mount Kailash. It‘s a
21 place for pilgrims, of all religions and 22 so for thousands of 23 . Author Wendy Teasdill
took the 24 route, the ‗Southern 25 ‘. She hitch-hiked, rode trucks and finally, 26 the final 400
miles. She survived on biscuits and noodles, 27 flooded rivers and 28 to tell her story !
22. (A) has been (B) had been (C) is (D) was
III. Re arrange the paragraph in the right order to make it meaningful. The first sentence is in the
correct position :
29. The Sahara Desert itself is as large as the US without Alaska. [2]
(P) But the Tuaregs have learned to adapt.
(Q) They are mainly nomadic.
(R) To outsiders it looks like an impossible place to live.
(S) They move around with their animals between dry – and wet - reason camps
(A) SPQR (B) QRPS (C) SQPR (D) RPQS
30. The Tuarges, are descended from the original inhabitants of Northern Africa.
(P) They have a tradition of oral and written poetry
(Q) Rock inscriptions bear proof of this poetic tradition.
(R) These inscriptions are found throughout the Sahara
(S) They speak a ‗Berber‘ language which has its own alphabet
(A) SRQP (B) SPQR (C) PQRS (D) QRPS
IV. Match these definitions of people with the terms used to describe them : [1]
1. Lover of peace
2. Lover of his own country
3. Lover of mankind
4. Lover of material things
P. Materialist
Q. Pacifist
R. Philanthropist
S. Narcissist
T. Patriot
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -53
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -54
34. The trucks were sent to the ____ to load the lime stone slabs.
(A) well (B) hole (C) pit (D) quarry
36. Children really like ____ because animals speak in these stories.
(A) myths (B) legends (C) fables (D) tales
VI. Choose the correct meaning of the idioms /phrases from the given options : [4]
VII. Choose the word which has nearly the same meaning as the word in bold : [5]
41. IMPERTINENT
(A) kind (B) respectful (C) rude (D) cheerful
42. CAJOLE
(A) scorn (B) coax (C) scold (D) ridicule
43. DELUGE
(A) Pollute (B) Collision (C) Locate (D) Flood
44. MERCURIAL
(A) Quick-changing (B) Heavy (C) Mechanical (D) Clever
45. DOGMATIC
(A) Angry (B) Opinionated (C) Powerful (D) Vicious
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -55
VIII. Choose the word which is the opposite in meaning to the word in bold : [5]
46. DWINDLING
(A) availability (B) increasing (C) reducing (D) scarcity
47. VANITY
(A) pride (B) humility (C) dignity (D) selflessness
48. SUPERFICIAl
(A) deep (B) artificial (C) overt (D) fictitions
49. WARILY
(A) suspiciously (B) carelessly (C) carefully (D) cautiously
50. SPORADIC
(A) sharp (B) frequent (C) rare (D) coordinated
******
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -56
PHASE TEST
(ANSWER KEY ) ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (B)
FIITJEE SET - A
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
BATCHES – 1317(C LOT)
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -57
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2
columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column.
Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be
awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong
match in any question. There is no negative marking.
(iii) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,
ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -58
Section – I (PHYSICS)
PART – A
Single Correct Choice Type
Force (N)
t = 20 sec is (m/s) 9
(A) 135 (B) 140
(C) 130 (D) 120
Time(s)
5 15 20
Velocity
(A) Force increases with time
(B) Force decreases with time
(C) Force is constant
(D) Force first increases then decreases
Time
3. A body of 5 kg moving with velocity 3 m/s collide with another body of mass 10 kg at rest. After collision
both move with same velocity. The common velocity is ___ m/s
(A) 1 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 1.5 m/s (D) 3 m/s
4. A batsman hits a ball moving with speed 5 m/s such that the ball retraces its path with a speed of 10
m/s. The ball remains in contact with bat 0.01 sec. The force exerted on ball by the bat is ____N (mass
of ball is 1 kg)
(A) 500 (B) 1000 (C) 1500 (D) 2000
5. The weight of a body of mass 4 kg at height R from surface of earth is ___Newton (R is radius of earth)
(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 20 (D) 10
6. If the earth expands to double of It‘s radius keeping the density of earth constant. The weight of an
object on earth surface will change ____ times
1 1
(A) 2 (B) (C) 4 (D)
4 2
1
7. At what height above the surface of earth the value of g becomes times the value of (R is radius of
9
earth)
(A) R (B) 2R (C) 3R (D) 9R
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -59
8. A satellite of mass 1000 kg is moving around earth due to gravitation attraction at height 4 R from
surface of earth. The centripetal force acting on planet is ___Newton (R is radius of earth)
(A) 1000 N (B) 2000N (C) 400N (D) None
9. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on horizontal surface at rest. Which of the following statements are true?
2
(g = 10 m/s )
(A) Normal force on block is 20 N in vertical downward direction
(B) Normal force on block is 20 N in vertically upward direction
(C) Friction force acting on block is zero
(D) Contact force between block and ground is 20 N
11. A satellite (mass m) is moving around earth (mass me ) is circular path of radius ‗R‘. Which of the
following statements are correct?
Gme m
(A) Gravitational force acting on satellite is
R2
Gme
(B) Acceleration of satellite is
R2
Gme
(C) Speed of satellite is
R
(D) Velocity of satellite remains constant
12. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 are kept at distance R. Only gravitational force is acting between
them. Mark correct statement(s)
Gm1m2
(A) Gravitational force on mass m1 is
R2
(B) Magnitude of force acting on m1 = magnitude of force acting on m2
(C) Magnitude of acceleration of m1 = magnitude of acceleration of m2
(D) Magnitude of acceleration of m1 magnitude of acceleration of m2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -60
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
D 3 kg
B
6 kg
2 kg
1 kg
Column – I Column - II
(A) Tension at point A is (P) 60
(B) Tension at point B is (Q) 0
(C) Tension at point C is (R) 10
(D) Net force on 2 kg is block (S) 30
Column – I Column - II
(A) Weight of block at point A (P) zero
(B) Weight of block at point B (Q) 250 N
(C) Weight of block at point C (R) 750 N
(D) Weight of block at point D (S) 62.5 N
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -61
PART – C
Numerical Based
1. A block of mass 5 kg is falling down with constant velocity near earth surface. Net force acting on block
2
is 10n Newton. Find out value of n. (g = 10 m/s )
2. Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are shown in pulley block system. Net force acting on 4 kg block is n
Newton. Find out value of N.
3. Two Iron sphere of same density are placed touching each other. Radius of each sphere is R.
Gravitational force acting between these two sphere is proportional to R n . Find out magnitude of n.
4. A block of mass 10 kg is taken from surface of earth to moon. Find out value of
mass of block on earth
.
mass of block on moon
5. A block is thrown vertically upward with speed 40 m/s. Highest height reached by block is 10 N meter.
Find out value of N.
6. A particle is moving in circle of radius 7m with speed 11 m/s. Displacement of particle from t = 0 to t = 6
sec is 7N. Find out value of N.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -62
Section – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
Single Correct Choice Type
2. Sulphur is soluble in
(A) CO2 (B) Cs2 (C) CO (D) None of these
7. We pass a beam of light through a solution. If the path of beam of light becomes visible, then the
solution is a
(A) True solution (B) Colloidal solution (C) Suspension (D) None of these
8. The movement of colloidal particles towards one of the electrodes under the inflyence of an electric field
is called
(A) centrifugation (B) electrophoresis (C) metamorphes (D) fullerene
11. Which of the following solid (dispersed phase) in liquid (dispersion medium) sol?
(A) Starch sol (B) Muddy water (C) Fog (D) Jelly
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -63
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
Column – I Column - II
(A) Mother liquor (P) Filtrate left after crystallision
(B) Growth of plant (Q) Carbon disulphide
(C) Smoke and Fog (R) Aerosol
(D) Sulphur is soluble in (S) Chemical change
PART – C
Numerical Based
2. A solution contains 10 gram of common salt in 240 gram of water. Calculate the concentration in terms
of mass by mass percentage of the solution.
3. Calculate the mass of glucose required to make 50 gram of 16% solution of glucose solution
4. A solution contains 4 ml of alcohol in 46 ml of water. Calculate the volume by volume percentage of the
solution.
5. 2.5 gram of solute are dissolved in 50 gram of water to form a saturated solution at 298 K.
6. How many litres of a 2.0% (w/v) glucose solution would you take to obtain 20 gram glucose?
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -64
1. The sides of a are 11 cm, 15 cm and 16 cm. The altitude of the largest side is
7 15 7
(A) 30 7 cm (B) 15 cm (C) cm (D) 30 cm
2 4
2. A square and an equilateral have equal perimeters. If the diagonals of the square is 12 2 cm, then
area of is
(A) 24 2 cm2 (B) 24 3 cm2 (C) 48 3 cm2 (D) 64 3 cm2
3. If the sides of the triangle is reduced to half then the decreased in area of is
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 300%‘
4. If the bisectors of angle at B and C of ABC must at O and A x0 then BOC is equal to
x0 x0 x0 x0
(A) 900 (B) 90
0
(C) 180
0
(D) 180
0
2 2 2 2
6. In ABC, AC AB & D is a point of AC such that AB = AD then which of the following is true
(A) AB > BC (B) BD > BC (C) BC > BD (D) None of these
8. The line 3x y 9 0 divides the line segments joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7) then the ratio of the
segment is
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 3
9. For what value of K, A (2, 8), B(4, K) and C(1, b) is an isosceles with AB = AC
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 7 and 9 both (D) Neither of Nor 9
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -65
10. If the coordinate of two points A and B are (3, 4) and (5, -2) respectively. What will be coordinate of any
point P, if PA = PB and area of PAB 10
(A) (7, 2) (B) (7, 1) (C) (7, 2) or (1, 0) (D) (7,2) and (7, 1)
11. D, E and F are the mid points the sides of BC, CA and AB respectively of ABC , then DEF
congruent to
(A) AFE (B) AEF (C) BFD (D) CDE
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
PART – C
Numerical Based
x0
2 x 13
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -66
y0
O
940
S T
4. If the smaller diagonal of rhombus is 6 and length of side is 5 5 then area of rhombus is ___
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -67
PART – B
PART – C
1. 0 2. 8 3. 4 4. 1
5. 8 6. 2
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A
5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B
9. A, B, D 10. C, D 11. A, B 12. A, C
PART – B
PART – C
1. 4 2. 4 3. 8 4. 8
5. 5 6. 1
SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)
PART – A
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A
5. B 6. C 7. A 8. C
9. A, B, C 10. A, C 11. A 12. D
PART – B
1. 9 2. 8 3. 3 4. 6
5. 8 6. 4
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -68
2 kg N
N 2g
2 g
10. A, B, C
Sol. TC
TA
1
A 2 kg TA 30 N 3kg TC 40 N
30
40N
Tension at point B will greater than point A due to mass of AB rope.
11. A, B, C
Gme m
Sol. Fgravity
R2
mv 2 Gme m
R R2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -69
v 2 Gme
a 2
R R
Gme
v
R
Speed is constant but velocity changes.
12. A, B, D
Gm1m2 Gm1m2
Sol. FA 2
, FB
R R2
Gm Gm
a A 2 2 , aB 2 1
R R
PART – B
1. AR BS CP DQ
Sol.
At A TA
1 kg TA 10 N
10 N
At B TB
3 kg TB 30 N
30 N
At C TC
6 kg TC 60 N
60 N
At D Acceleration of 2 kg block = 0 so Net force on 2 kg block = 0
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -70
PART – C
1. 0
Sol. Velocity of block is constant. So acceleration will be zero.
2. 8
Sol. 64
a g 2m / s
2
64
Net force = m a
4 2 8N
4 kg
6 kg
3. 4
Gm m 4
Sol. F 2
, m R3
R 3
16
F G l 2 2 R 4 , is same for both sphere.
9
F R4
4. 1
Sol. Mass does not change
5. 8
v 2 40 40
Sol. H 80m
2g 2 10
6. 2
Sol. 2 R
Time taken to complete circle = 4sec
V
t=6 t=0
7 7
CHEMISTRY
PART – A
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. A, B, D
10. C, D
11. A, B
12. A, C
PART - B
1. AS BP CQ DR
2. AP BS CR DQ
PART – C
1. 4
Sol. Atomicity is the number of atoms present in a molecule
2. 4
Sol. Mass of common salt = 10
Mass of water = 240 g
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -71
Ar of a2 4
2 4
New Ar a
1 3
change = 1
4 4
3
% decrease = 100 75%
4
4. A
A
Sol. BOC 900
2
5. B
Sol. In right angled, if one acute angle is twice of other, then side opposite to smallest angle is half of
hypotenuse.
6. C
Sol. 1 C A
3 2
3 C
BC BD 1
2 3
B C
7. A
1
Sol. Use Ar. of x1 y2 y3 x2 y3 y1 x3 y1 y2
2
8. C
Sol. Let ratio = K : 1 find coordinate of the point is equation as and put that vale x and y so that equation get
satisfied.
9. A, B, C
Sol. Use distance formula and compare AB = AC
10. A, C
Sol. Use distance formula which give on equation, then use formula of ar which gives another equation.
Solve the equation and get the value of x and y as coordinate.
11. A
Sol. Concept based
12. D
PART - B
1. AR BP CS DQ
2. AS BP CQ DR
PART – C
1. 9
Sol. 1 50 v.o A 50 0
Use angle sum
properties of
2. 8
Sol. Concept based
3. 3
Diagonal
Sol. Side of square =
2
4. 6
1
Sol. Use Pythagoras theorem and find 2
nd
diagonal then use ar. of Rhombus = d1 d 2
2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -73
5. 8
Sol. Concept based (hypotenuse is twice of smallest side)
6. 4
1
Use the formula for area of x4 y2 y3 x2 y3 y1 x3 y1 y2
2
Sol.
Instructions
The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 14 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 14 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 12 questions of Biology.
Each question carries +1 marks.
There is No negative marking.
Attempt All questions.
Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -74
SECTION – A (SST)
1. What is the longitudinal valley called, lying between Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks?
(A) Duns (B) Ganges (C) Bughyals (D) Purvanchal
2. The area where the Himalayas lies today was occupied by an ancient sea called the
(A) Panthalasa sea (B) Red sea (C) Dead sea (D) Tethys
10. Which one of following forces responsible for the deflection of winds towards right?
(A) Gravitational force (B) Force by landform (C) Coriolis force (D) Buoyancy force
11. The Tropical area experiencing the monsoon lies between which one of the following latitudes?
0 0 0 0
(A) 20 S to 40 S latitudes (B) 20 N to 20 S latitudes
0 0 0 0
(C) 10 S to 10 N latitude (D) 20 N to 60 N latitudes
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -75
15. Which Nazi youth organization consisted of all German boys of 14 to 18 years of age
(A) Hitlar youth (B) Jungvolk (C) Labour Service (D) Youth league
17. Name the word used for denoting mass killings of Jews by Nazi‘s?
(A) Salvation (B) Final solution (C) Selection (D) Euthanasia
18. Which of the following car was the people‘s car of Germany produced under state – funded work
creation program?
(A) Renault (B) Bentley (C) Volkswagen (D) Mercedes Benz
20. Which of the following was not a feature of New Nazi Style of Politics?
(A) Massive Rallies (B) Ritualized applause
(C) Red banners with Swastika (D) Not so powerful speeches of Hitler
21. In Nazi‘s rule a bronze cross was given to women, who has produced
(A) 2 children (B) 4 children (C) 6 children (D) 8 children
24. Which of the following is not the category in which the 1878 Act divided the forest?
(A) Reserved (B) Restricted (C) Protected (D) Village forest
25. Which of the community was not lived in Baster during 1910?
(A) Muria Gonds (B) Dhurwas (C) Raikars (D) Halbas
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -76
26. Exemption of rent for villages for land cultivation in forest if they provide free labour and buffaloes for
cutting and transporting timber is knows as
(A) Blandongdiensten (B) Sarnas (C) Devsari (D) Nevad
28. When people from a village take some wood from forests of another village in Bastar district, they pay a
small fee called
(A) Blandongdiensten (B) Sarnas (C) Nevad (D) Devsari
Column – A Column - B
(a) Infant Mortality Rate (i) Number of live births in a year per 1000 of mid –
year population
(b) Birth Rate (ii) Number of deaths of Infants per 1000 of births in
a year
(c) Life Expectancy (iii) Average length of life that a new born baby is
expected to live
(d) Sex ratio (iv) Number of females per 1000 males
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iv iii ii i
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -77
38. The new National flag of the Republic of South Africa was unfurled on
th th th th
(A) 26 April, 1994 (B) 26 April, 1989 (C) 26 April, 1984 (D) 26 April, 1980
39. Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?
(A) Powers of the head of the state (B) Name of the head of state
(C) Powers of legislature (D) Name of the state/country
40. An extract from Nehru‘s speech ‗Tryst with Destiny‘ is that ―The ambition of the greatest man of our
generation has been to wipe out every tears from every eye‖. Who was he referring to?
(A) J. L. Nehru (B) Sardar Patel (C) M. C. Gandhi (D) B. R. Ambedkar
SECTION – B (MATHEMATICS)
1. If two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal, the bisectors of the two pairs of interior angles
enclose
(A) Rhombus (B) Parallelogram (C) Rectangle (D) Trapezium
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -78
0
6. An exterior angle of a triangle is 108 and its interior opposite angles are in the ratio 4 : 5 then the angle
of are
(A) 42, 76, 60 (B) 48, 60, 72 (C) 50, 60, 70 (D) 52, 56, 72
7. If the bisectors of acute angles of right meet at O, then the angle between the two bisectors at O is
equal to
0 0 0 0
(A) 45 (B) 115 (C) 135 (D) 90
0
0 1 0
(A) 85 (B) 72 (C) 145 (D) None of these
2
9. Coordinates of three points are A(2, 3), B (4, 5) and C(6, 7), then they are
(A) collinear (C) scalene triangle (C) isosceles (D) None of these
10. For what value of K, A(2, 5), B(2, K) and C(-2, -5) is an isosceles triangle.
2 13
(A) 13 (B) (C) (D) None of these
13 2
11. A 2,3 , B x1 , y1 , C x2 , y2 & D 4, 2 are four collinear points such that AB : AD = 1 : 3, then
the coordinates of B and C are
(A) (2, 0) and (0, 2) (B) (0, 2) and (2, 0)
1 5 5 1
(C) , & , (D) None of these
2 2 2 2
12. The vertices of ABC are A 0,0 , B a,0 & C 0, b then the coordinate of centroid is
a b a b ab ab
(A) , (B) , (C) ,0 (D) 0,
2 2 3 3 2 2
15. Which of the following points lies on the negative side of x –axis
(A) 3, 0 (B) 0, 3 (C) 3, 2 (D) 3, 2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -79
16. The distance between the points A(0, b) and B(a,0) is given by
(A) a 2 b2 (B) a 2 b2 (C) a 2 b2 (D) xy
20. A triangle and parallelogram have the same base 13 cm and the same area, if the other two sides of
are 20 cm and 11 cm the height of parallelogram is
64 64 66 66
(A) (B) (C) (D)
11 13 11 13
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -80
SECTION – C (PHYSICS)
1. Action and reaction
(A) does not exist in pair (B) may act on same body
(C) always act on different bodies (D) are not equal in magnitude
2. When a person move from poll to equator, the value of acceleration due o gravity (g):
(A) Increases (B) decreases (C) remains same (D) Increases the decreases
3. Two satellite A and B are orbiting around the earth in circular orbit of same radius. The mass of A is 8
times mass of B. The revolution time period of B to that of A is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) None
2
4. What is mass of an object whose weight is 49N? (g = 9.8 m/s )
(A) 49 kg (B) 4.9 kg (C) 5 kg (D) 9.8 kg
5. Two particle of mass 2 kg and 8 kg are kept a distance d apart. A third particle of mass 1 kg is put in
between these two particle such that net gravitational force acting on it is zero. The distance between 8
kg particle and
1 kg particle is
d 2d
(A) (B) (C) d (D) zero
3 3
6. On increasing the height of satellite the time period will
(A) decrease (B) increase (C) will remain same (D) none
7. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in a circular path of radius 2 m due to gravitational attraction force of
mass another particle a mass 1000 kg kept at centre of circle. What is K.E. of mass 1 kg particle?
11 8 8
(A) 6.6 10 J (B) 6.67 10 J (C) 1.67 10 J (D) None
8. 3 blocks of mass 1 kg, 2kg and 3kg are kept on smooth surface as 1 kg
shown in figure. Find out contact force 2 kg and 3 kg block.
(A) 30 N (B) 20 N 2 kg
(C) 10 N (D) None
3 kg
9. A 20 kg crate hangs at the end of long rope. Find out acceleration of block when tension in string is 300
N.
2 2
(A) 5 m/s upwards (B) 5 m/s downward (C) zero (D) None
10. A car of mass 100 kg is moving with speed 30 m/s. The driver wants to stop the car in 5 sec. The
retarding force acting car is
(A) 60 N (B) 600 N (C) 100 N (D) None
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -81
11. Two blocks if mass 2kg and 4 kg are suspended through a string and
pulley as shown in figure. Magnitude of acceleration of 2 kg block is
g g
(A) (B)
6 2
g 2 kg
(C) g (D)
3 4 kg
13. A particle is thrown vertically upward with speed 40 m/s. Highest height reached by particle is ___
(A) 1600 m (B) 80 m (C) 160 m (D) None
14. What is acceleration due to gravity at the surface of Mars If its diameter is 2 times of earth diameter and
mass is 4 times of earth mass,
g
(A) g (B) 16 g (C) (D) 4g
4
SECTION – D (CHEMISTRY)
1. The reason behind the high diffusibility of gases is due to
(A) high KE of molecules (B) high intermolecular forces of attraction
(C) high vibrator motion in upward direction (D) none of these
5. Let us take a thermometer and dip the bulb of it in petrol and take it out. What do you observe the level
of mercury in thermometer will ______
(A) Start rising (B) Start falling
(C) remain the same (D) initially falls then rises
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -82
6. Water kept in an earthen pot during summer days becomes cold due to ___
(A) evaporation (B) condensation (C) freezing (D) sublimation
7. The electric bulb on longer use form a black coating on its inner surface the process associate with it is
____
(A) reduction of tungsten (B) sublimation of tungsten
(C) oxidizing of tungsten (D) melting of tungsten
SECTION – E (BIOLOGY)
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -83
7. Which among the following in excess quantity indicates the contamination of Ganga water bodies?
(A) Dissolved phosphates (B) Dissolved minerals
(C) Coliform bacteria (D) Dissolved carbon
8. Denitrification is caused by
(A) Nitrosomonas (B) Pseudomonas (C) Nitrobacter (D) Azotobacter
11. Which of the following acids fall on land with rain during lightening?
(A) hydrochloric and nitrous acids (B) hydrochloric and sulphuric acids
(C) sulphuric and nitrous acids (D) nitric and nitrous acids
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -84
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A
5. B 6. B 7. C 8. D
9. D 10. C 11. B 12. A
13. D 14. C 15. A 16. A
17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B
25. C 26. A 27. C 28. D
29. B 30. D 31. B 32. B
33. A 34. B 35. C 36. A
37. D 38. A 39. B 40. C
SECTION-B MATHEMATICS
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B
5. D 6. B 7. C 8. B
9. C 10. D 11. B 12. B
13. B 14. A 15. C 16. B
17. B 18. D 19. C 20. D
SECTION-C PHYSICS
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C
5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A
9. A 10. B 11. D 12. C
13. B 14. A
SECTION-D CHEMISTRY
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B
5. A 6. A 7. B 8. D
9. B 10. C 11. A 12. A
13. D 14. B
SECTION-E BIOLOGY
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D
5. C 6. D 7. C 8. B
9. C 10. B 11. C 12. D
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -85
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Name :
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -86
Directions(1 – 5): Four man A, B, C and D and four women P, Q, R and S are sitting around a table. No two
male sit adjacent to each other. D is two places right to A and adjacent to S who is two places to the left
of P who is adjacent to B. Who in turn not possible to A.
2. If Q sits three places away from C and B then who sits three places to the left of D?
(A) P (B) R (C) B (D) Cannot be determined
3. If each person exchanges his/her seat with the person opposite to him/her then who sits to the
immediate right to of B?
(A) Q (B) S (C) R (D) Cannot be determined
4. If every man shifts by two places to him right and every woman shifts by two places to her left then who
sits adjacent to C?
(A) Q and R (B) P and S (C) P and Q or R (D) Cannot be determined
5. If D and Q exchanges their seats, then which of the following conditions is not violated?
(A) No two men can sit adjacent to each other (B) D is two places to the right of A
(C) B is not opposite to A (D) All the above are violated
Directions (6 – 10): Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F stand in a row. A is to the left of B. C is to the right of D. E
and F have two persons standing between them and neither of the two persons is C or A.
7. Who among the following stand at the extreme ends of the row?
(A) E and F (B) E and C (C) A and C (D) F and A
8. If A sits to the immediate left of E, then who sits to the immediate right of B?
(A) D (B) F (C) C (D) E
9. If A or C is permitted to sit between E and F, other conditions remaining same, what is the total number
of possible arrangements?
(A) 36 (B) 48 (C) 18 (D) 24
10. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of C, if B sits to the immediate right of B
(A) D (B) F (C) B (D) E
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -87
Directions(11 – 14): Six person A, B, C, D, E & F are sitting around a hexagonal table each at one corner. A is
second to the left of F. B is the neighbour of C and D. E is the second to the left of D.
15. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting fourteenth from the left and Q is seventh from the right. If
there are four boys between P and Q, how many boys in the row?
(A) 19 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 35
th
16. Raman is seventh rank a head of Satish in a class of 39. If Satish‘s rank is 17 from the last what is
Raman‘s rank from the start
th th th th
(A) 11 (B) 13 (C) 16 (D) 18
th
17. Mohan is 14 from the right end in a row of 40 boys. What is his position from the left end?
st th th th
(A) 21 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 27
th
18. Saurabh ranks sixteenth from the top and 49 from the bottom is a class. How many students are there
in the class?
(A) 54 (B) 64 (C) 65 (D) 66
th
19. In a class of 10 boys stand in a row. One boy is 19 in order from both ends. How many boys are there
in the class.
(A) 17 (B) 27 (C) 37 (D) 39
th th
20. In a row of students, Leela is 5 from the left and Mohini is 6 from the right, when they exchange their
th
positions, then Leela becomes 13 from the left, what will be the Mohini‘s position from the right.
th th th th
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 14
21. The positions of how many digits in the number 3 5 1 4 6 2 9 8 7 will remain unchanged after the digits
are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -88
22. How many five‘s are there in the following number sequence which are immediately preceded by 7 and
immediately followed by 6
755945764598756764325678
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
th
23. In a row of plants, one plant is 5 from either ends of the row. How many plants are there in the row?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
th th
24. Mohan ranks 17 from the top and 28 from the bottom in class. How many students are there in the
class.
(A) 37 (B) 36 (C) 35 (D) 34
th
25. Arun ranks 12 in a class of 48. What will be his rank from the last
(A) 3 (B) 34 (C) 35 (D) 37
26. In a class of 60, where boys are twice that of girls, Mohini ranked17th from the top. If there are 9 boys
ahead of Mohini, how many girls are after her in rank?
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 12 (C) 23
27. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and choose the one that comes first
(A) sport (B) spouse (C) squash (D) sprout
28. Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T, K is sitting next to R. Who is sitiing on
extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who is sitting adjacent to S?
(A) K and P (B) R and P (C) Only P (D) P and T
Directions (29 – 31): Read the series and answer the questions
LZRJKRSJLZTJZNZJSTLZRNS
29. Alphabet that comes the least no. of times in the series is
(A) L (B) T (C) N (D) K
32. The price of an article is increased by 10 % and then decreased by 10 %. What is the percentage
change in price
(A) 0 % (B) 1 % increase (C) 1 % decrease (D) None of these
33. The price of a radio is increased by 20 %. By what % must be decreased to back to the original price.
2
(A) 25% (B) 20% (C) 16 % (D) 15%
3
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -89
34. In an exam Raju got 20 % more marks than Ravi. By what percentage are the marks of Ravi less than
Raju?
2 1
(A) 20% (B) 16 % (C) 25 % (D) 33 %
3 3
35. What percentage of 80 is 200?
(A) 50% (B) 40% (C) 200% (D) 250%
37. By selling 40 apples a man gains the selling price of 10 apples. What is profit %?
(A) 13% (B) 33.33% (C) 30% (D) 40%
38. An article marked up by 35%. What should be the discount % so that the profit is 20%
1
(A) 11 % (B) 10 % (C) 15 % (D) 20%
9
39. The ratio 5:4 expressed as percent equals
(A) 12.5% (B) 40% (C) 800 (D) 125%
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -90
Directions (46 – 47): Select the correct alternative from the given choice.
46. What is the maximum number of cubes can be cut into by 3 cuts?
(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 6
47. What is the least number of cuts required to cut a cube into 24 identical pieces?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Directions (48 – 50): 125 small but identical cubes are put together to from a large cube. This larger cube is
now painted on all six faces.
49. How many smaller cubes have exactly two face painted?
(A) 25 (B) 16 (C) 36 (D) 64
50. How many of the smaller cubes have exactly 3 faces painted?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 27
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -91
ANSWERS
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A
5. C 6. B 7. C 8. D
9. A 10. B 11. B 12. C
13. B 14. A 15. D 16. C
17. D 18. B 19. C 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. D
25. D 26. C 27. A 28. A
29. D 30. A 31. C 32. C
33. C 34. B 35. D 36. B\
37. B 38. A 39. D 40. D
41. D 42. B 43. B 44. D
45. B 46. B 47. C 48. A
49. C 50. B
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -92
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Name :
I. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Her father, Edward Moulton Barret, was as Elizabeth later wrote, a very peculiar person. ―Heir to a
fortune, educated at Harrow and Cambridge, he was, nevertheless a complete domestic tyrant‖. After
bearing him twelve children, his gentle wife had little strength left for struggle against him, and the
children never dared oppose his wishes.
Yet Elizabeth‘s childhood was happy. She romped and studied with her eldest brother, learnt Greek and
French, read widely, and wrote poetic tragedies. Her own tragedy began at fifteen with a cough and an
injury to her back, which resulted in increasingly bad health. Then her mother died.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -93
Four years later, her father decided to sell the country home. The large family moved from house to
house until her father bought No. 50 Wimpole Street. There Elizabeth‘s health grew worse, and she
became a creature of the shadows and silence.
Her brothers and sisters were all at the mercy of Mr. Barrett‘s harsh rules. Chief among them was the
absolute refusal to let his daughters marry. He prevented the marriage of Elizabeth‘s dance-loving
sister, Henrietta, and the scenes that followed broke Elizabeth‘s heart. Yet she remained devoted to her
father. It was a devotion that served to strengthen the walls of her prison.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -94
Directions (8 – 12): Choose the correct sentence in each of the following groups of sentences:
8. (A) Our prices are considerably lesser than our nearest competitor.
(B) Our prices are considerably lesser than that of our nearest competitor.
(C) Our prices are lower considerably than those of our nearest competitor.
(D) Our prices are considerably lower than those of our nearest competitor.
9. (A) I tried on both the dresses and finally decided to buy the most expensive one.
(B) I tried on both the dresses and finally decided to buy the expensive one.
(C) I tried on both the dresses and finally decided to buy the more expensive one.
(D) I tried on the both dresses and finally decided to buy the most expensive one.
11. (A) He is over ninety years of age, but is still active and strong.
(B) He is a man who is over ninety years of age, but who is still active and strong.
(C) He is a man over ninety years of age, but who is still active and strong.
(D) He is over ninety years of age, and is still active and strong.
12. (A) When thoroughly baked, we removed the pie from the oven and served it piping hot.
(B) As it was thoroughly baked, we removed the pie from the oven and served it piping hot.
(C) When the pie was thoroughly baked, we removed it from the oven and served it piping hot.
(D) Being thoroughly baked, the pie was removed from the oven by us and served piping hot.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -95
16. (P) The elderly and young are vulnerable to heat stress.
(Q) So are the folks who are overweight.
(R) Don‘t ever ignore the signs of heat stress.
(S) When the thermometer is rising you are on a risk.
(A) Q and R (B) P, Q and S (C) Q and S (D) P and S
Directions (18 – 22): Choose the correct synonyms from the alternatives given below, in each of the following:
18. Arrogant
(A) diffident (B) quarrelsome (C) haughty (D) selfish
19. Reprisal
(A) rebuke (B) attack (C) retaliation (D) Change
20. Infringe
(A) enclose (B) bar (C) irritate (D) encroach
21. Reproof
(A) rebuke (B) warning (C) ridicule (D) threat
22. Stringent
(A) dry (B) rigorous (C) strained (D) shrill
Directions (23 – 31): Choose the appropriate word from alternatives A, B, C and D and fill in the blanks in each
of the following:
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -96
Directions (32 – 36):Pick out the alternative from A, B, C and D which brings out the meaning of the idiom in
each of the following:
Directions (37 – 41): Part of each sentence is underlined: beneath each sentence are four ways of phrasing the
underlined material. Choice A repeats the original phrasing: the other three choices are different. If you
think the original phrasing is correct, select choice A; if not, select one of the other choices.
37. Economics is when you study the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services.
(A) when you study (B) what you study about
(C) your studying of (D) the study of
38. Whenever Rahul sang in the shower, his voice rings throughout the house
(A) rings (B) would ring (C) is ringing (D) has rung
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -97
39. To prepare for Deepawali celebration in India, families clean their homes, buy new clothing, and their
debts are paid.
(A) clean their homes, buy new clothing, and their debts are paid.
(B) clean their homes and buy new clothing, also their debts are paid
(C) clean their homes, buy new clothing, and pay their debts.
(D) clean their homes, buy new clothing, and they pay their debts.
40. Fermentation is caused by yeast, which turns sugar and starch into alcohol and carbon dioxide.
(A) which turns sugar and starch (B) it turns sugar and starch
(C) by it turning sugar and starch (D) as sugar and starch turns
41. Many of the ships used by oceanographic institutions are small vessels that have outlived the purpose
which they have been built for originally.
(A) vessels that have outlived the purpose which they have been built for originally
(B) vessels that have outlived their original purpose.
(C) vessels and these had outlived their original purpose in being built.
(D) vessels, having outlived their original purpose.
Directions (42 – 43): The following sentences are given below, which when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Statement 1 is in its correct place. Choose
the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent
paragraph.
42. (1) The classic power play of good and evil reaches a telling climax with light prevailing over darkness
on Diwali night.
(P) These sentiments prompted the ceremonial welcome extended to Lord Rama many aeons ago
when he returned from his 14 years exile to Ayodhya after defeating the demon King Ravana.
th
(Q) Coinciding with the 13 day of dark fortnight of Ashwin the festival draws its significance from the
word Deepawali, a string of lighted lamps.
(R) The celebrations have continued to this time and age with Diwali.
(S) The lamps, accompanied by the lighting of firecrackers, symbolize mankind‘s quest for
enlightenment by conquering all evil, vice temptation and ignorance.
(A) QSPR (B) QRSP (C) PQSR (D) RPQS
43. 1. For many years man has been fascinated by the yellow metal ‗gold‘.
(P) The name is self-explanatory.
(Q) But he has been fooled several times by a similar-looking mineral called fool‘s gold.
(R) So, all that glitters is not gold.
(S) Chemically, fool‘s gold is iron pyrite.
(A) SRQP (B) QPSR (C) PSRQ (D) QRPS
Directions (44 – 45): In each of the questions, there are four sentences P, Q, R and S that have to be arranged
in a logical order to make a paragraph between sentence 1 and 6.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -98
45. (1) As IT professional, the job entails long hours of sitting in front of the computer.
(P) This would lead to a lifetime of pain.
(Q) This is the worst thing for your back.
(R) Because you would remain tense and strained in position.
(S) To avoid this go to the Godrej showroom today.
(6) Godrej has designed ergonomic chairs to ease pressures.
(A) QRPS (B) PQRS (C) RPQS (D) PQSR
Directions (46 – 50) Fill in the blanks in the following sentences, by choosing the appropriate preposition from
the alternatives A, B, C and D. Option ‗blank‘ means no addition is necessary to the sentence.
47. The taxes that were being unjustly levied were abolished _____________the government
(A) with (B) by (C) from (D) blank
50. At the sight of the huge creature, they were petrified ____________fear.
(A) in (B) with (C) from (D) for
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -99
FIITJEE
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
17(C LOT)
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -100
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
C. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (09 – 12) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(ii) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2
columns. Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column.
Each question carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be
awarded. There may be one or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong
match in any question. There is no negative marking.
(iii) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer,
ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -101
Section – I (PHYSICS)
PART – A
Single Correct Choice Type
1. A 5 kg block is kept on a horizontal platform at rest, at time t = 0, the platform start moving with a
constant velocity 5 m/s the coefficient of friction between the block and the platform is 0.2, find the
work done by the friction on the block in 55.
(A) 20 J (B) - 25 J (C) 250 J (D) 0 J
2. A body of mass 2 kg thrown upward with a velocity of 10 m/s comes to rest (momentarily) after moving
2
up by 4m. The work done by as drag in this process is (take g = 10m/s )
(A) - 20 j (B) - 10 J (C) - 30 J (D) 6 J
3. A car accelerates from rest to a speed of 10 m/s. Let the energy spend be E, if we accelerate the car
from 10 m/s to 20 m/s, then the energy spend will be
(A) E (B) 2 E (C) 3 E (D) 4E
4. Two bodies of equal masses are in uniform circular motion with same period if r1 and r2 are radii of
then complete revolution for each is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) r2 : r1 (C) r1 : r2 (D) None of these
5. A motor boat is travelling with a speed of 3.0 m/s if the force on it due to water flow is 500 N, the power
of the boat is
(A) 150 KW (B) 15 KW (C) 1.5 KW (D) 150 W
6. Body of mass 2 kg is projected vertically upwards with a speed of 3 m/s. The maximum gravitational
potential energy of the body is
(A) 18 J (B) 4.5 J (C) 2.25 J (D) 9 J
7. A body of mass 10 kg moving with a momentum of 50 kg m/s. A force of 20 N acts on it in the direction
of the motion of the body for 10 s. The increase in its kinetic energy is
(A) 2 KJ (B) 1 KJ (C) 3 KJ (D) 4 KJ
8. A cube of wood supporting 0.2 kg mass just floats in water. When the mass is removed, the cube rises
by 2 cm. What is the length of the cube.
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 8 cm
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -102
10. One end of a light spring of spring constant K is fixed to a wall and the other end is tied to a block
1 2
placed on a smooth horizontal surface. In a displacement, the work done by the spring is Kx . The
2
possible cases are
(A) the spring was initially compressed by a distance x and was finally in its natural length
(B) It was initially in its natural length and finally in a compressed position
(C) it was initial stretched by a distance x and finally was in its natural length
(D) It was initially in its natural length and finally in a stretched position.
11. A piece of metal weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in liquid, then specific gravity of
1
(A) metal is 3 (B) metal is 7 (C) liquid is 3 (D) liquid is
3
12. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which as always perpendicular to the velocity
of the particle the motion of the particle take place in a plane. It follows that
(A) Its velocity is constant (B) Its acceleration is constant
(C) Its kinetic energy is constant (D) It moves in a circular path
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
t
O
Column – I Column – II
(A) For OA, the total work done by all forces (P) always positive
together is
(B) For OA, the work done by few of the of the (Q) can be positive
acting force is
(C) For AB, the work done by few of the acting (R) zero or can be zero
force is
(D) For BC the work done by all forces (S) can be negative
together is
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -103
Column – I Column – II
(A) Magnus energy (P) Pascal law
(B) Loss of energy (Q) Archemedes principle
(C) Pressure is same at the same level in a (R) Viscous force
liquid
(D) Hydraulic machines (S) Lifting off
PART – C
Numerical Based
1. A light inextensible sting that goes over a smooth fixed pulley as shown in the figure.
2
Connects two blocks of masses 0.36 kg and 0.72 kg. Taking g = 10m/s . Find the
work done (in joules) by the string on the 0.36 kg block 1 second after the system is
released from rest
0.36 kg
0.72 kg
2. A man slowly pulls a bucket from a well of depth h = 20 m the mass of uniform rope and bucket full of
water are m = 200 g and of bucket is M = 19.8 kg respectively. Find the power wasted by man in
100
min.
3
0
3. A block of mass 2.0 kg is pulled up on a smooth incline of angle 30 with the horizontal. If the block
2
moves with an acceleration of 1.0 m/s , the power delivered by the pulling force at a time 4.0 s after the
motion starts is 12 K. Find the value of K.
10 m
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -104
5
6. A cylinder of radius R = and height 1 m and mass 10 kg is suspended by a string in a liquid of
density = 2 where it stays in equilibrium with its upper surface touching the brim of the liquid. Find
the force at the bottom of the cylinder.
Section – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
Single Correct Choice Type
1. P4O10 molecule is __________
(A) triatomic (B) tetradecatomic (C) tetratomic (D) diatomic
4. How many electrons will be present in 18mL of water? (Given that density is 1g / mL )
(A) 6.023 1029 (B) 6.023 1024 (C) 6.023 1028 (D) 6.023 1023
5. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole triatomic gas will be (Avogadro No. 6.022 1023 )
(A) 6.023 1023 (B) 1.806 1023 (C) 4.5 1020 (D) 6 10
22
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -105
10. Which of the following statements are correct about Dalton‘s atomic theory?
(A) All matter, whether an element, a compound or a mixture is made up extremely small particles
called atoms.
(B) Atoms of the same elements are not identical in size, shape, mass and properties.
(C) When atoms of different elements combine together to form compounds, they do so in a simple
whole number ratio.
(D) Atoms of two different elements may combine in different ratios to form more than one compound.
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
1. Match the following.
Column – I Column – II
Physical Quantity Unit
(A) Molarity (P) g mL-1
(B) Mole (Q) mol kg-1
(C) Molality (R) mol L-1
(D) Density (S) mol
Column – I Column – II
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -106
PART – C
Numerical Based
1. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 2.41 g of sodium chloride to produced 5.91 g of silver chloride
and 3.5 g of sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass is true?
2. What will be the molarity of a solution which contains 5.85 g of NaCl per 0.05 litre?
3. If 300 mL of a 5 M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, what will be the molarity the solution obtained.
4. How many moles of phosphine gas will be produced when one mole of calcium phosphide reacts with
excess of water?
5. The volume in litres of CO2 liberated at NTP when 10 gram of 90% pure lime stone is heated
completely.
6. Find the number of moles in 128 g of SO2 is (At. mass : S = 32, O = 16)
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -107
2. The graph of the equation of the form y mx is a line which always passes through
(A) 0, m (B) x, 0 (C) 0, y (D) 0, 0
3. In a quadrilateral ABCD, diagonals bisect each other at right angles. Also AB = BC = AD = 6 cm, then
length of CD is
(A) 3 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 6 2 cm (D) 12 cm
4. ABCD is a rhombus such that one of its diagonal is equal to its side. Then the angles of rhombus ABCD
are
(A) 450 ,1350 , 450 ,1350 (B) 1000 ,800 ,1000 ,800
(C) 1200 ,600 ,1200 ,600 (D) 600 ,600 ,600 ,600
7. In ABC, D, E, F are respectively the mid points of the sides AB, BC and AC . Ratio of Area of
DEF : Area of ABC = ____________.
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 4
8. The range of the data 25.7,16.3, 2.8, 21.7, 24.3, 22.7, 24.9 is
(A) 22 (B) 22.9 (C) 21.7 (D) 20.5
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -108
11. In a triangle ABC, AD is median to side BC of ABC and CE is median to side AD of ACD , then
area of ACE is equal to
1 1
(A) ar BCA (B) ar ABD (C) arACD (D) arCBE
2 4
12. Average of first 50 natural numbers cannot be
(A) Less than 1 (B) More than 50 (C) Between 10 and 50 (D) None
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
1. ABCD is a parallelogram, G is the point on AB such that AG = GB, E is a point on DC such that CE =2
DE and F is a point on BC such that BF = 2 FC, then
Column – I Column – II
(A) area ADEG (P) area EFC
(B) area EGB (Q) 1
area EBF
2
(C) area EFC (R) 1
area ABCD
6
(D) area EBG (S) area GBCE
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -109
PART – C
Numerical Based
2. In a trapezium ABCD with AB = 20 cm, CD = 10 cm, AB CD, P and Q are mid points of AC and BD
then length of PQ is
3. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class is 6. The lower class
– limit of the class is
4. In a group of goats and hence the number of legs is 12 more than twice the number of heads. The
number of goats is
5. In a parallelogram ABCD, the bisector of A also bisect BC at P if AD 8cm, what is the length of
AB.
2
6. The altitude of parallelogram one of whose side is 6.5 cm, the area being 26 cm is?
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -110
PART - B
1. AP B Q, S C Q, R, S DR
2. AS BR CP DP
PART – C
1. 8 2. 2 3. 4 4. 2
5. 5 6. 0
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B
5. B 6. D 7. D 8. A
9. C, D 10. A, C, D 11. A, D 12. B, D
PART - B
1. AR BS CQ DP
2. AS BR CP DQ
PART – C
1. 7 2. 2 3. 1 4. 2
5. 2 6. 2
PART – B
PART – C
1. 1 2. 5 3. 7 4. 6
5. 4 6. 4
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -111
m v 2f v 2j mgh wD
1
2
3. C
m v 2f vi2 E E m 100
1 1
Sol.
2 2
E ' m v 2f vi2 m 400 100 m 300
1 1 1
2 2 2
E ' 3E
4. D
2 r
Sol. T
V
r
T
V
5. C
Sol. P F V
6. D
1 2
Sol. mgh K .E mv 9 J
2
7. C
50 20 N
Sol. vi 5m / s J 2m / s 2
10 10kg
v f vi at
v f 5 20 25m / s
1 2 1
K .E f mv f 10 625 3125 J
2 2
1 1
K .Ei mv12 10 25 125J
2 2
K.E. 3000 J 3 KJ
8. A
9. B, C
1 2
mv
Sol. 2 F .V FV cos 0
t
cos 0
00 900
K .E P 2
0
t 2mt
P2 0
10. A, C
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -112
Sol. -x +x
x=0
11. B, C
Sol. W 120 g
W in water = 180 g displaced water = 210 – 180 = 30 g
210 g
So, S .GM 7
30 g
W in liquid = 120 g
Wm Ww 30 g
Wm Wl 90 g
90
S .Gl 3
30
12. C, D
Sol. Speed is constant and changing its direction
1 2
K .E mv v is constant
2
PART - B
1. AP B Q, S C Q, R, S DR
S
Sol. (A) S increasing with t v
t
(B) May be condition
S
(C) During AB it a point constant, +ve and – ve
t
S
(D) 0 so negative
t
2. AS BR CP DP
Sol. Fact Based
PART – C
1. 8
Sol. 0.72 g T 0.72a
T 0.36 g 0.36a
0.36 g 10.8a
0.36 g g
a 0.36 kg
1.08 3 0.72 kg
2 0.72 g
T
3
1 2 1g
t = 1s Sat
2 23
2 0.72 g g
So, W 8J
2 3 3
2. 2
Sol. W mgh
= 0.2 19.8 10 20
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -113
20 10 20 4000J
W 4000 3
P 2J / s
t 100 60
3. 4
Sol. F mg sin ma a 1m / s 2 F
F 12 N
V at V 4m / s
P 12 4
So, K = 4
300
mg sin
4. 2
1 2 1 2
Sol. kx mv
2 2
2
20 1
100 2 v v 50 2 v 2
2 2
100 25
1 1
h gt 2 10 10t 2 t 2
2 2
So, x vt 2m
5. 5
1 2
Sol. mgh mv mgs
2
6. 0
Sol. Mg Fth Wimmersed
Mg Fth eg R 2 h1
Fth Mg g R 2 h1
5
10 g 2 2 1 0
2
hi
F
mg
CHEMISTRY
PART – A
1. B
Sol. Atomicity is the number of atoms present in a molecule.
2. C
Sol. At. mass = 27 and At. mass of F = 19
In AlF3 27 : 57 = 9 : 19
3. D
Sol. 1m3 1000L
1000
Number of moles = 44.6
22.4
4. B
Sol. mass of H2O = 18 g
No. of molecules in H2O = 6.023 10
23
= 6.023 10
24
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -114
5. B
No. of atoms = 0.1 3 6.022 10
23
Sol.
1.806 1023
6. D
Sol. Average atomic masses are determined by multiplying the atomic mass of each isotope by its fractional
abundance and adding the value thus obtained.
7. D
Sol. A chemical formula indicates (a) The elements in the make up of the compound and (b) the combining
ratio of these elements in a particular compound.
8. A
Sol. Atomic mass can be defined as the number which indicates how many times the mass of one atom of
1
the element is heavier in comparison to th part of the mass of one atom of C-12.
12
9. C, D
Sol. 1 mole = gram molecular mass
= 22.4 L at STP.
So, N2 = 14 2 28g
given mass 1
Moles = mole=11.2L
Molecular mass 2
Like that in CO = 12 + 16 = 28 g
28 g = 1 mole
1
14 g = mole = 11.2 L
2
10. A, C, D
Sol. Concept Based.
11. A, D
1 mole = gram atomic or gram molecular mass or 6.022 10 particles
23
Sol.
12. C, D
1 mole = gram atomic or gram molecular mass or 6.022 10 molecules
23
Sol.
1 1
14 g N2 = mole, 1.0 g of H2 mole
2 2
1
Thus mole of N2 and H2 will contain same.
2
PART - B
1. AR BS CQ DP
2. AS BR CP DQ
PART – C
1. 7
x
Sol. Moles of AgNO3 be
170
Moles of NaCl 0.041
Moles of AgCl 0.041
Moles of NaNO3 0.041
x
Therefore 0.041 0.082
170
x
0.041 x 0.041170
170
7.00 gm
2. 2
5.85
moles of solute 58.5
Sol. Molarity =
volume in litre 0.05
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -115
-1
= 2 mol L
3. 1
Sol. M1V1 M 2V2
5 300 M 2 1500
1500
M2 1M
1500
4. 2
Sol. 3Ca OH 2 2PH 3
Ca3 P2 6H 2O
1 mol 2 mol
5. 2
Sol. CaCO3
CaO CO2
100 g of CaCO3 evolve CO2 at NTP = 22.4 L
22.4
So, 9 g of CaCO3 = 9
100
=2L
6. 2
128
Sol. No. of moles in 128 g of SO2 = 2
64
MATHEMATICS
PART – A
1. C
Sol. To cut y axis, x – coordinate most up zero
Putting x = 0 in equation 2 x 3 y 9 , we get y = 3
coordinate (0, 3)
2. D
Sol. y intercept is zero therefore line passes through the origin.
3. B
Sol. Given quadrilateral is a rhombus.
4. C
Sol.
600
600
600
600
600
600
5. C
6. C
Sol. In ABC A
AB is median
Ar ABD Ar ADC
ArABD
Ar ABE Ar BED
E
1
Ar BED Ar ABC B C
4 D
7. D
8. B
Sol. Range = [ Highest observation – Lowest observation
= 25.7 – 2.8
= 22.9
9. A, C
Sol. Linear equation is an equation with degree 1
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -116
10. A, C
11. A, C, D
12. A, D
PART – B
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Instructions
The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 14 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 14 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 12 questions of Biology.
Each question carries +1 marks.
There is No negative marking.
Attempt All questions.
Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
SECTION – A (SST)
1. Gujjar Bakarwals are found in
(A) Jammu and Kashmir (B) Himanchal Pradesh (C) Rajasthan (D) Uttarakhand
3. After Partition, which of the new areas Raikas shifted their migration in India?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Haryana (C) Punjab (D) Himanchal
9. Which of the statement is false in reference to how pastoralist coped with changes occurred during
colonial rule?
(A) Some pastoralists discovered new grounds for grazing.
(B) Some settled as peasants cultivating land.
(C) They started working with colonial officials.
(D) Some became labourers, working on fields or in small towns
10. How many acts were passed by British Parliament legalizing field enclosures?
(A) 1000 (B) 2000 (C) 3000 (D) 4000
13. Which of these is not a proper reason for coming of ‗Black Blizzards‘?
(A) Entire landscape had been ploughed over, stripping off al grass
(B) Recless uproot of all vegetation.
(C) Blocked the flow of rivers
(D) Tractors had turned the soil over, broken sod into dust
19. Which of the following herbs or medicinal plants used to cure asthma and ulcers?
(A) Arjun (B) Kachnar (C) Jamun (D) Tulsi
20. India has ____________ percentage of world‘s total number of flowing plants
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -119
21. India stands at the __________place in the world and __________place in Asia in plant diversity.
th nd th th th th nd th
(A) 4 and 2 (B) 10 and 4 (C) 4 and 10 (D) 2 and 4
23. The total number of bio reserves in India, which have been included in world‘s network of Biosphere
reserves, are
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 14
25. In which of the following state is the ‗Dachigam‘ National Park located?
(A) Punjab (B) Orissa (C) Jammu & Kashmir (D) Assam
28. Forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar are found at a height of
(A) Less than 1000 mts (B) Between 1000 to 2000 mts
(C) Between 1500 to 3000 mts (D) More than 3600 mts
29. Which of the following states has lowest Lok Sabha constituencies in India?
(A) Tripura (B) Manipur (C) Meghalaya (D) Mizoram
30. In total 543 Lok Sabha Constituencies in India how many seats are reserved for scheduled castes?
(A) 100 (B) 79 (C) 41 (D) 30
31. Which of the following conditions not comes under minimum conditions of democratic election?
(A) Every one has one vote and every vote has equal values.
(B) The candidate preferred by people should get elected.
(C) The candidate must be financially very good.
(D) The elections must be held regularly after every few years.
32. The second backward classes commission appointed by the government of India in 1979 is also known
as
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (B) Kaka Kalekar Committee
(C) Mandal Commission (D) Mukherjee Committee
33. Executives, who are appointed on a long term basis by the government are known as
(A) Ministers of cabinet (B) Ministers of state (C) Civil services (D) Lok Sabha
34. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?
(A) The Supreme Court (B) The President (C) The Prime Minister (D) The Parliament
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -120
35. According to world development Report, 2001, the percentage of population below $1 a day in India
was
(A) 8.2 (B) 17.0 (C) 35.3 (D) 36.0
36. Which state of India has lowest poverty ratio in 1999 – 2000?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir (B) Gujarat (C) Delhi (D) Punjab
37. Which of the scheme assured 100 days employment every year to every rural household, in India?
(A) NFWP (B) NREGA (C) PMRY (D) REGP
38. Which of the scheme promotes poor families to organize into self help groups?
(A) SGSY (B) PMGY (C) PMRY (D) REGP
39. In India the accepted average calorie requirement per person per day in Urban areas is
(A) 2800 calories (B) 2400 calories (C) 2100 calories (D) 1800 calories
SECTION – B (MATHEMATICS)
1. The measures of the angles of a quadrilateral taken in order are proportional to 1: 2 : 3: 4, then the
quadrilateral is:
(A) parallelogram (B) trapezium (C) rectangle (D) rhombus
2. ABCD is a parallelogram, P and Q are the points on the diagonal AC such that AP = QC, then
quadrilateral BPDQ is a:
(A) trapezium (B) parallelogram (C) square (D) None of these
3. In a parallelogram ABCD, bisectors of consecutive angles A and B intersect at P. Find the measure of
APB :
0 0 0
(A) 90 (B) 60 (C) 120 (D) data insufficient
6. ABCD is a parallelogram. M DAB 300 , BC 20cm and AB 20cm . Find the area of parallelogram:
2 2 2 2
(A) 150 cm (B) 200 cm (C) 400 cm (D) 260 cm
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -121
7. The length of a side of rhombus is 10m and one of its diagonal is 12m. The length of the other diagonal
is:
(A) 15 m (B) 18m (C) 16m (D) can‘t be determined
8. In a rectangle ABCD, P, Q are the mid-points of BC and AD respectively and R is any point on PQ, then
ar ARB equals:
1 1
(A) ar ( ABCD (B) ar ( ABCD
2 3
1
(C) ar ( ABCD (D) None of these
4
9. Diagonals of a parallelogram are 8 m and 6 m respectively. If one of side is 5m, then the area of
parallelogram is:
2 2 2 2
(A) 18 m (B) 30 m (C) 24 m (D) 48 m
D C E
11. PQST and QRST are parallelogram. What is the area of PRST?
3 1 P Q R
(A) ab (B)
2 2
(C) ab (D) 3ab b
T a S
12. A and B are two cities 100 km apart. From this two cities two cars start moving in the same direction
and they meet after 5 hours. If they moved towards each other then they would meet after 1 hours.
What were the velocities of the cars A & B.
(A) 40 km/hr, 60 km/hr (B) 60 km/hr, 40 km/hr
(C) 50 km/hr, 50 km/hr (D) None of these
3
13. A person has to cover a distance of 80 km in 10 hours. If he covers half of the journey in time, what
5
should be his speed to cover the remaining distance in the time left .
(A) 10 km/hr (B) 20 km/hr (C) 30 km/hr (D) 40 km/hr.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -123
17. The mean of n observations is x . If the first item is increased by 1, second by 2 and so on, then the
new mean is
n n 1
(A) x n (B) x (C) x (D) none of these
2 2
18. The mean of set of observations x1 , x2 ........, x10 is 20 then mean of x1 4, x2 8, x3 12,.......x10 40
is
(A) 34 (B) 42 (C) 28 (D) 40
19. Aman has a certain average for 9 innings. In the tenth inning, he scores 100 runs, thereby increasing
his average by 8 runs. His new average is-
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 32
20. Mean of n observations x1 , x2 ,......., xn is x . If an observation xP is replaced by xP' then new mean is
(A) x xP xP
'
(B)
n 1 x xP' (C)
nx xP xP'
(D) x
n n
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -124
SECTION – C (PHYSICS)
1. A block of wood floats in a liquid with four-fifths of its volume submerged. If the relative density of wood
-3
is 0.8, what is the density of the liquid in units of kg m ?
(A) 750 (B) 1000 (C) 1250 (D) 1500
2. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then the new momentum will be
(A) three times its initial value (B) four times its initial value
(C) twice its initial value (D) unchanged
3. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of
their mass is:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
4. A cube of ice is floating in water contained in a vessel. When the ice melts, find the change in the level
of water in the vessel if density of ice and water is same.
(A) rises
(B) falls
(C) remains unchanged
(D) falls at first and then rises to the same height as before
5. A body is dropped from a certain height. When it lost an amount of potential energy. ‗U‘, it subsequently
acquires a velocity ‗v‘. The mass of the body is
2U U 2U 2U 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
v2 2v 2 v v2
3 2
6. Density of ice is 900 kg/m . A piece of ice is floating in water of density 1000kg/m . Find the fraction of
volume of the piece of ice outside the water.
(A) 0.9 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.4
7. A body starts from rest and acquires a velocity V in time T. The work done on the body in time t will be
proportional to:
V V 2t 2 V2 V2 2
(A) t (B) (C) t (D) t
t T T2 T2
8. A ball is released from a certain height which loses 50% of its K.E. on striking the ground. It will attain a
height again
(A) one fourth the initial height (B) half the initial height
(C) three fourth initial height (D) none of the above
9. It is easier to draw up a wooden block along an inclined plane then to haul it up vertically, principally
because:
(A) the friction is reduced
(B) the mass becomes smaller
(C) only a part of the weight has to be overcome
(D) g becomes smaller.
10. A bucket tied to a string is lowered at a constant acceleration of g/4. If the mass of the bucket is m and
is lowered by a distance d, the work done by the string will be (assume the string to be massless):
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -125
1 1 3 3
(A) mgd (B) mgd (C) mgd (D) mgd
4 3 4 4
11. The figure shows the vertical section of a friction less surface. A block of mass A
2.0 kg is released from position A. Its kinetic energies (in J) as it reaches
positions B, C and D (Given gravitational field 9.8 J/m/kg) are C
12. A boy whose mass is 51 kg climbs, with constant speed, a vertical rope 6 m long in 10 seconds. How
much work does the boy perform? (Take g 10m / s 2 )
(A) 30 J (B) 306 J (C) 3060 J (D) 36000 J
0
13. A cricket ball is hit at 30 to the horizontal with a kinetic energy K. The kinetic energy at the highest
point is:
K 3 K 3K
(A) K (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4
14. Force –displacement curve for a body is shown in the figure. +20
Displacement is one dimensional. Work done by the force in
displacing the body from displacement zero to 6 m is given +10
Force (Newton)
by:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(A) zero (B) 10 J 0
(C) 20 J (D) 60 J
-10
Displacement (meter)
-20
SECTION – D (CHEMISTRY)
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -126
6. An organic compound made of C, H & N contains 20% nitrogen. Its empirical formula weight is
(A) 70 (B) 140 (C) 100 (D) 65
8. Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same No. of molecules?
(A) 16 gm O2 & 14 gm of N2 (B) 8 gm O2 and 22 gm of CO2
(C) 28 gm of N2 and 22 gm of CO2 (D) 32 gm O2 & 32 gm of N2.
SECTION – E (BIOLOGY)
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -127
5. An antibody is
(A) Phagocyte (B) Molecule that inactivates antigen
(C) Component of RBC (D) Component of blood
6. Cancer is
(A) Nonmalignant tumour (B) Controlled division of cells
(C) Uncontrolled division of cells (D) Viral infection
8. Jaundice is due to
(A) Excessive intake of Curcuma (B) Excessive intake of sugar
(C) Pork (D) Contaminated water
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -128
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D
5. C 6. A 7. C 8. A
9. C 10. D 11. A 12. B
13. C 14. A 15. C 16. C
17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A
21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D
25. C 26. B 27. C 28. C
29. D 30. B 31. C 32. C
33. C 34. D 35. C 36. A
37. B 38. A 39. C 40. A
SECTION-B MATHEMATICS
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B
5. C 6. B 7. C 8. C
9. C 10. A 11. A 12. B
13. A 14. D 15. D 16. A
17. C 18. B 19. C 20. C
SECTION-C PHYSICS
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C
5. A 6. B 7. D 8. B
9. C 10. C 11. C 12. C
13. D 14. A
SECTION-D CHEMISTRY
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A
5. A 6. A 7. B 8. A
9. B 10. D 11. A 12. C
13. D 14. D
SECTION-E BIOLOGY
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C
5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D
9. C 10. B 11. D 12. C
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -129
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Name :
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -130
1. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 440 kms in 4 hours, then the
speed of the first train is:
(A) 47.4 km/hr (B) 57.19 km/hr (C) 68.13 km/hr (D) None of these
2. A worker reaches his work place 15 minutes late by walking at 4 kmph from his house. The next day he
increases his speed by 2 kmph and reaches in time. Find the distance from his house to his work place
(A) 2 km (B) 6 km (C) 8 km (D) 3 km
3. I had to catch a bus which was 225 m ahead of me. The bus also started at the same time. If the speed
of the bus was 2.5 m/sec and my speed was 36 kmph, in how much time can I catch the bus?
(A) 20 sec (B) 25 sec (C) 30 sec (D) 40 sec
4. Two trains are moving in the same direction at 65 kmph and 45 kmph. The faster train crosses a man in
slower train in 18 seconds. The length of the faster train is
(A) 120 m (B) 180 m (C) 100 m (D) 145 m
5. A train of length 150 m takes 40.5 seconds to cross a tunnel of length 300 m. The speed of the train (in
km/hr) is
(A) 13.33 (B) 26.67 (C) 40 (D) 400
6. A train 280 m long, running with a speed of 63 km/hr will pass an electric pole in
(A) 20 sec (B) 16 sec (C) 15 sec (D) 18 sec
7. Alok maintained his average speed for a journey at 25% more than his usual average speed. The time
he must have taken to cover it must be
5 4
(A) th of the usual time (B) of the usual time
4 5
4 3
(C) rd of the usual time (D) th of the usual time
3 4
8. 6 6 6 ... is equal to
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
9. The sum of the squares of two natural consecutive odd numbers is 394. The sum of the numbers is
(A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 40 (D) 28
10. Given that 4096 64, the value of 4096 40.96 0.004096 is
(A) 70.4 (B) 70.464 (C) 71.104 (D) 71.4
11. The average of 3 numbers is 154. The first number is twice the second and the second number is twice
the third. The first number is
(A) 264 (B) 132 (C) 88 (D) 66
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -131
12. Walking at 3km per hour, Pintu reaches his school 5 minutes late. If he walks at 4 km per hour he will
be 5 minutes early. The distance of Pintu‘s school from his house is
1 1
(A) 1 km (B) 2km km (C) 2 (D) 5km
2 2
1 1
13. If x and y are positive with x – y = 2 and xy = 24, then is equal to
x y
5 1 1 25
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 12 6 6
1 2
14. If 391 is divided into three parts proportional to : : 3 , then the first part is
2 3
(A) 150 (B) 160 (C) 180 (D) None
1 1
15. A car covers of the distance from A to B at the speed of 8km/hr, of the distance at 25 km per
5 10
hour and the remaining at the speed of 20 km per hour. Find the average speed of the whole journey.
(A) 12.625 km/hr (B) 13.625 km/hr (C) 14.625 km/hr (D) 15.625 km/hr
16. Pointing to a man a boy said he is my father‘s only brother how is the man related to that boy
(A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father in law (D) None of these
3
17. A man driving at th of his original speed reaches his destination 20 minutes later than the usual time.
4
Then the usual time is
(A) 45 minutes (B) 60 minutes (C) 75 minutes (D) 120 minutes
18. A motor-boat can travel at 10 km/hour in still water. It travelled 91 km downstream in a river and then
returned to the same place, talking altogether 20 hours. Find the rate of flow of river
(A) 3 km/hour (B) 4 km/hour (C) 2 km/hour (D) 5 km/hour
19. A motor-boat, travelling at the same speed, can cover 25 km upstream and 39 km downstream in 8
hours. At the same speed, it can travel 35 km upstream and 52 km downstream in 11 hours. The speed
of the stream is
(A) 2 km/hr (B) 3 km/hr (C) 4 km/hr (D) 5 km/hr
20. If a = 4b + 26, and b is a positive integer, then a could be divisible by all of the following EXCEPT
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -132
21. Ray and Janelive 150 miles apart. They each drive toward the other‘s house along a straight road
connecting the two, Ray at a constant rate of 30 miles per hour and Jane at a constant rate of 50 miles
per hour. If Ray and Jane leave their houses at the same time, how many miles are they from Ray‘s
house when they meet?
1 1
(A) 40 (B) 51 (C) 56 (D) 75
2 4
2 2
22. If a b = 12 and b is an odd integer then a could be divisible by all of the following except
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 9
23. Vineet started walking towards west. Then he turned to the right. Once again he turned to the right
and last of all, he turned to the left. Towards which direction is he going now?
(A) north (B) south (C) east (D) west
25. Starting from a point A, Prasad walked 60 m towards east, and turning to his right walked 40 metres.
Turning again to his right he walked 45 metres. He turned again to his right and walked 40 m and
reached a point B. How far is point A from point B and in which direction?
(A) 20 m west (B) 75 m east (C) 15 m west (D) 15 m east
26. A dog is taken out every evening by the owner whose house faces East. They walk 200 m West, then
500 m. in South direction. Which direction should they take to reach home?
(A) North-East (B) North (C) North-West (D) South-East
27. A young man turned towards north from point A and walked 30 mtrs. Then he turned to his left and
walked another 40 mtrs. Then he reached the point B. Locate the direction of point B.
(A) east – west (B) north – west (C) east – south (D) south – west
28. A rat runs 20 m towards east and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 m and again turns
to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now which
direction is the rat facing?
(A) East (B) North (C) West (D) South
29. A travelled 5 km westward, turned left and travelled 3 km turned right and travelled 9 km. He then
travelled 3 km north. How far was A from the starting point?
(A) 3 km (B) 5 km (C) 10 km (D) 14 km
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -133
30. A chameleon climbs 50 cm in half an hour and immediately slides down 10 cm. How much time does it
take to reach the top of a wall 200 cm high?
(A) 3 hrs (B) 2 hrs 30 min (C) 2 hrs 24 min (D) it will never reach the top
31. Ramesh stands with his face pointing to the South-East direction. He walked 15 metre and then
turned Northwards and walked another 12 metre. How far was he then from the starting point
(A) 12 metre (B) 10 metre (C) 9 metre (D) 5 metre
32. At my house I am facing west, Then I turn left and go 10 m, then I turn 90° anti-clockwise and go 5 m,
and then I go 5 m to south and from there 5 m to the west. In which direction am I from my house?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South
33. Four friends A, B, C and D live in a same locality. The house of B is in the east of A‘s house but in the
north of C‘s house. The house of C is in the west of D‘s house. D‘s house is in which direction of A‘s
house?
(A) South-East (B) South (C) North (D) South – West
34. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 p.m. hour –hand points to North. In which
direction the minute-hand will point at 9:15 p.m.?
(A) South – East (B) South (C) North (D) West
Directions (Questions 35 to 37): A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight persons of a family. G is E‘s father-in-law
and has two grandchildren. A is the only brother of B. C is the wife of A and has one daughter. H is D‘s
grandmother. H has two children.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -134
43. Pointing to a woman, a girl said, ‗She is the only daughter-in-law of the grandmother of my father‘s son‘.
How is the woman related to the girl?
(A) Sister-in-law (B) Cousin (C) Mother (D) Aunt
44. Pointing to a lady, a man said, ‗She is the only daughter of my mother‘s husband‘s only son‘. How is the
lady related to the man?
(A) Sister (B) Aunt (C) Daughter (D) Niece
45. Introducing a girl, Vinay said, ―The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife‘. How is the girl
related to Vinay?
(A) Grandmother (B) Mother-in-law (C) Maternal aunt (D) Sister of father-in-law
46. Pointing to a photograph a man tells his friend, ‗She is the daughter of the only son of my father‘s wife‘.
How is the girl in the photograph related to the man?
(A) Sister (B) Daughter (C) Wife (D) Cousin
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -135
49. A person travels a distance of 5 m towards the East from his house, he then travels a distance of 8 m
towards the North and then travels a distance of 4 m towards the East and finally 12 m towards North.
What is his approximate distance from his house?
(A) 20 m (B) 22m (C) 23 m (D) 24 m
50. A person starts from his house and travels 6 m towards the West, he then traveled 4 m towards his left
and then travels 8 m towards West and 3 m towards South. Finally he turns right and travels 5m. What
is the horizontal distance he has traveled from his house?
(A) 19 m (B) 20 m (C) 21 m (D) 22m
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -136
ANSWERS
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C
5. C 6. B 7. B 8. D
9. D 10. B 11. A 12. B
13. A 14. D 15. D 16. B
17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B
21. C 22. D 23. A 24. A
25. C 26. A 27. B 28. B
29. D 30. C 31. C 32. D
33. A 34. D 35. C 36. C
37. D 38. D 39. B 40. C
41. C 42. A 43. C 44. C
45. D 46. B 47. A 48. C
49. B 50. A
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -137
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Name :
Directions (1 – 5): Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.
Stories of dolphins saving human lives have been told throughout history. The latest incident happened
recently when dolphins save the life of an Australian surfer from shark which tore a chunk out of his
surfboard. As the shark moved in for the kill it was chased away by a group of dolphins.
Some scientists argue that such behavior is an instinctive response to distress signals. Others insist
that incidents like these are deliberate acts of compassion adding support to the widespread belief that
dolphins are highly intelligent.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -138
Two factors were initially responsible for sparking off the popular idea that dolphins might possess high
intelligence. The first was the size of the dolphin brains. In some species it is about the same weight as
out own. The second factor was the work of Dr. John Lilly who convinced that dolphins must possess a
language, set about trying to prove this theory by teaching captive dolphins to speak English. But Lilly‘s
work, though appealing, proved nothing except that dolphins are talented vocal mimics.
But in seeking to establish whether dolphins share human characteristics, we may be barking up the
wrong tree. As dolphins have evolved in an environment completely like out own, it is reasonable to
expect that their intelligence will be a different kind too.
2. What sort of environment are dolphins believed to have evolved for themselves?
(A) completely like our own. (B) altogether different from ours.
(C) like that of any other species. (D) like that of other marine creatures.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -139
Directions (6 – 9): Complete the paragraph by property re-arranging the given sentences, without disturbing
the first and the last sentences:
6. S1 With the declaration of independences, some mad people caused Hindu – Muslim riots at so many
places in the country.
S2
S3
S4
S5 But this godly man, who had always preached non –violence, fell victim to violence.
Re – arrange the sentences (PQR) property between S1 and S5.
P - He observed fasts to end the mutual hostility and establish peace between the Hindus and
Muslisms
Q – He impressed upon both the communities to live like brothers
R - Gandhiji felt deeply hurt at this madness.
Choose from the options given below:
(A) RPQ (B) PQR (C) PRQ (D) RQP
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -140
9. S1 The growing industrialization and multiplying means of transport are most hazardous to air
pollution.
S2
S3
S4
S5 Besides, air pollution is responsible for respiratory ailments, T.B., eye ailments, even cancer and
mental retardation of children.
Re – arrange the sentences (PQR) property between S1 and S5.
P - The exhaust of carbon monoxide and nitrogen etc. from our automobiles is further worsening the
state of air pollution.
Q – The emission of smoke, coal dust, toxic chemicals radioactive wastes etc. from the chimneys of
factories is causing a lot of air pollution.
R - The excessive presence of dangerous chemicals in the atmosphere sometimes causes acid rains
which are injurious to soil, vegetation and water species.
Choose from the options given below:
(A) PQR (B) RQP (C) QPR (D) RPQ
Directions (10 – 14): Choose the appropriate sentence from the given options to complete the short para of
three sentences. The second sentence is missing from each para.
10. A. There is a lot of vulgarity, obscenity and immorality shown on the T.V.
B. _________________________________________
C. Most of the films, serials, advertisements and other programmes have a negative impact on the
viewers.
Options
(A) T.V. serials and films contain vulgar pictures and dialogues.
(B) Our long cherished morals and values are disrespected.
(C) There is hardly any moral preaching done in the T.V. programmes.
(D) Actions, behaviour, dresses etc. of the actors and actresses in the T.V. programmes are mostly
objectionable.
12. A. Games and sports play a very important part in out life.
B. _________________________________________
C. Also, they provide a pleasant diversion.
Options
(A) Playing games makes us refreshed and recharged.
(B) Games and sports provide a good training for the game of life.
(C) They make us healthy, both physically and mentally.
(D) A person who does not take part in games and sports is a greater loser.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -141
15. Leave a two – inch _____________on each page for the teacher‘s remarks.
(A) border (B) margin (C) blank (D) gap
16. Physically we are now all neighbours, but psychologically we are ____________ to each other.
(A) primitives (B) complimentary (C) strangers (D) cowards
17. It is not what you say that ___________ but what you do.
(A) matches (B) implies (C) matters (D) moves
18. The ___________ job made him obese and led to diabetes.
(A) detestable (B) hard (C) irregular (D) sedentary
20. Though they are paid high wages, bonus and other amenities, the workers appear to be ___________.
(A) lazy (B) untruthful (C) hardworking (D) sluggish
21. In his testimonial the witness gave a ____________ distortion of the truth.
(A) grotesque (B) unbelievable (C) exact (D) countless
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -142
29. Put by
(A) Keep by (B) Spare something for future
(C) Have something for present (D) Push back
Directions (31 – 38): Fill in the blanks (of the passage) by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank
from the given options.
Very soon Galileo found (31) _____ in trouble at the university. He was (32)______ strong young man
with red hair (33)_______ a cheerful face but a very short temper. He often disagreed (34)_______ his
teachers. The professors at Pisa disliked him (35)________ he was determined to think for himself and
test (36)________ practical experiments (37)______ the theories they taught him. But (38)________ a
true scientist, Galileo refused to accept any idea without questions.
Options:
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -143
Directions (39 – 48): Choose the correct phrase from the given options to complete the sentence.
Directions (49 – 50): Which of the following option correctly defines the antonym of the highlighted word.
50. The injection was given to the patient to alleviate the pain
(A) Elevate (B) sharpen (C) aggravate (D) promote
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -144
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D
5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B
9. C 10. A 11. A 12. C
49. A 50. C
SET-A
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Date : Maximum Marks: 240
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -145
INSTRUCTIONS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
E. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three parts : PART-A, PART-B & PART-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices,
in any form, are not allowed.
(i) Part-A contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Part -A contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(ii) Part-B contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns. Statements in
the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question carries +8
marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one or more
than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no negative
marking.
(iii) Part-C contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and
each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -146
SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
PART – A
Single Correct Choice Type
1. For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be
(Given velocity of sound = 344 m/s):
(A) 17.2 m (B) 34.4 m (C) 172 m (D) 344 m
2. When light waves and sound waves travel from air to water then choose the most appropriate option:
(A) Light bend towards normal while sound bend away from normal
(B) Sound bend towards normal while light bend away from normal
(C) Both light and sound bends towards normal
(D) Both light and sound bends away from normal
–1
3. On a rainy wet day, a thunder is heard 6 second after lightening. If speed of sound is 350ms the
altitude of the clouds is:
(A) 1.8 km (B) 1.9 km (C) 2.5 km (D) 2.1 km
4. On a hot, dry summer day a boy is standing between plane parallel vertical cliffs separated by 75m. He
is 30 m away from one of the cliffs. Consider speed of sound in air on that hot day to be 360 m/s. The
boy claps loudly and hears its successive echoes. The time in seconds at which he hears the first four
echoes are respectively:
1 1 5 5 1 1 7 2 1 1 5 7 1 1 1 5
(A) , , , (B) , , , (C) , , , (D) , , ,
6 4 12 12 6 4 12 3 4 3 12 12 6 4 3 12
6. If at a given place speed of infrasonic sound, audible sound and ultra-sonic sound be Vi, Va and
Vurespectively. Then which of the following relation is correct:
(A) Vi=Va =Vu (B) Vi>Va>Vu (C) Vi<Va<Vu (D) Vu>Vi=Va
7. A Boy‘s audible range is 30-16500 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s, then the longest
wavelength of sound in air, which the boy can hear is:
(A) 0.02 m (B) 2m (C) 7m (D) 11m
8. An observer standing in front of a vertical wall claps 10 times in 1 seconds. He adjusts his distance from
the wall in such a way that the sound of his clapping coincides with the echo. This happens when his
distance from the wall is 17.5 m, then the speed of the sound is:
(A) 300 m/s (B) 330 m/s (C) 340 m/s (D) 350 m/s
10. A mechanical wave propagates in a medium along x-axis, then the particles of the medium:
(A) May move along the x- axis (B) May move along the y- axis.
(C) May move along the z- axis (D) Must move along the x- axis.
(C) Quality or timbre depends upon the shape of the wave form of a sound wave.
(D) Frequency of sound heard by a stationary listener is more than actual frequency of sound if a
source of sound moves towards it.
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
13. Match the following
Column – I Column - II
(A) The phenomenon of persistence or (p) SONAR
prolongation of sound in auditorium
(B) The branch of physics that deals with (q) Acoustics
generation , propagation and reception
of sound
(C) The phenomenon of change in frequency (r) Reverberation
of a wave due to relative motion between
source and observer
(D) Technique that uses sound propagation (s) Doppler‘s effect
to navigate or communicate or detect a
object
PART – C
Numerical Based
15. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in a string is 2.5 cm. If 10
complete waves pass through any point per 5 second then calculate velocity of the wave in cm/sec.
16. A source of frequency 500 Hertz emits waves of wavelength 0.2 meter, then calculate the time in
second taken by the wave in travelling 300 meters distance.
17. Sound is emitted from a source on the one end of a metallic tube of length 664 m. Two sounds are
heard at an interval of 1.5 sec on the other end of the tube. The velocity of sound in metal is given as k
× 332 m/s, then calculate value of k.
(Velocity of sound in air is 332 m/sec.)
18. If the frequency of a sound wave is 100 Hz then number of times the particles of the medium cross their
mean position in one second is given as k × 100, then calculate value of k.
19. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100m apart and whose velocity is 25 m/s. These
waves strike the boat once every k seconds, then calculate the value of k.
20. A sound wave produces 60 compressions and 60 rarefactions in 0.6 second; such that the frequency of
the sound wave is k × 100 hz, then calculate value of k.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -148
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
Single Correct Choice Type
23. Which electron transition in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of energy ?
(A) From n = 1 to n = 2 (B) From n = 2 to n =3 (C) From n = to n = 1 (D) From n = 3 to n = 5
th
24. The energy of an electron in n orbit of hydrogen atom is :
13.6 13.6 13.6 13.6
(A) 4 eV (B) 3 eV (C) 2 eV (D) eV
n n n n
27. In the decay series, A B C D
(A) A and B are isobars (B) A and C are isobars
(C) A and D are isotopes (D) B and C are isotopes
29. The angular momentum of any electron can have the value(s) :
h h h h
(A) 3 (B) 2.5 (C) 0.5 (D)
31. Which of the following electron configuration(s) follow the Pauli‘s exclusion principle ?
2 2 7 2 2 6 2 2 2 2 2 4 3
(A) 1s 2s 2p (B) 1s 2s 2p 3s (C) 1s 2s (D) 1s 2s 2p 3s
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -149
PART – C
Numerical Based
35. An atom has 2K, 8L and 5M electrons. The number of occupied subshells in ground state is:
36. An atom has 35 nucleons and has atomic number equal to to 17. The number of electrons with n = 2,
m = 0 in it is:
313.6
38. En = Kcals/mol. If the value of En = –34.84 Kcals/mol, to which value of ‗n‘ corresponds :
n2
39. Maximum number of electrons with clockwise spin that can be accommodated in a f-subshell is :
2 2 4
40. The number of unpaired electrons in the electronic configuration 1s 2s 2p is :
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -150
41. Diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral are the diameters of that circle, then quadrilateral is a :
(A) parallelogram (B) square (C) rectangle (D) trapezium
42. In the adjoining figure, O is the centre of a circle. AB and CD are its two
chords. If OM AB, ON CD and OM = ON, then
(A) AB CD (B) AB < CD
(C) AB > CD (D) AB = CD
43. A 10 cm deep well with diameter 6 cm is dug and the earth spread even to form a platform
22 cm × 10 cm × x cm. The value of x is
(A) 2.2 (B) 1.12 (C) 1.28 (D) 1.3
44. A hemispherical bowl has outer diameter 16 cm and thickness 1 cm. Find the volume of milk it can hold.
(A) 718.66 cm3 (B) 719.66 cm3 (C) 717.33 cm3 (D) 718.33 cm3
45. If the perimeter of one face of a cube is 20 cm, then its surface area is :
2 2 2 2
(A)120 cm (B) 150 cm (C) 125 cm (D) 400 cm
47. A coin is tossed 40 times and it showed tail 24 times. The probability of getting a head was :
2 3 1 17
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 2 40
48. A bag contains 10 balls, out of which 4 balls are white and the others are non-white. The probability of
getting a non white ball is :
2 3 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 2 3
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -151
(C) PSQ and PSR are supplementary angles (D) Points Q, S, R are collinear points
50. The base radii of two right circular cones of the same height are in the ratio 3 : 5 respectively r1 and r2.
The ratio of their volumes is :
(A) r22 : r12 (B) r12 : r22 (C) 25 : 9 (D) 9 : 25
52. Which of the following is not the sample space when two coins are tossed ?
(A) {H, T, H, T} (B) {H, T} (C) {HH, HT, TH, TT} (D) {HH, TT}
PART - B
MATRIX TYPE
53. Match the column:
Column – I Column – II
(A) In the given figure, ADC = (p) 120°
PART – C
Numerical Based
56. Maximum no. of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles is:
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -152
3
57. The Volume of a metallic cylindrical pipe is 748 cm . Its length is 14 cm and its external radius is 9 cm.
then its thickness is ________
58. In the given figure, A and B are the centres of the circles shown. The circles intersects at C and D. Find
1
(CED + CFD)
40
59. A dice is rolled. Find the number of outcomes for getting a composite number.
60. A coin is tossed 20 times and head occurred 12 times. How many times did tail occur ?
******
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -153
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -154
2. (A)
Sol. For Sound we have,
Air – denser medium
Water – rarer medium
So, when sound moves from air to water it moves away from Normal.
3. (D)
Sol. Since, speed of light is much greater than speed of sound; we can assume lightening will be seen
instantaneously without any time lag.
Let altitude of clouds is x.
x
350 =
6
x = 2100 m = 2.1 km
4. (A)
Sol. Let time to hear successive echoes to be t1, t2, t3 & t4
then, 30 m 45 m
2 30 1 2 45 1
t1 = ; t2
360 6 360 4 75 m
150 5
t3 = t4 =
360 12
5. (A)
Sol. Electromagnetic Waves can travel through vacuum but mechanical waves cannot travel through
vacuum.
6. (A)
Sol. Speed of sound wave depends on medium not on its frequency.
7. (D)
Sol. For Boy we have,
fmin = 30 Hz
And, fmax = 16,500 Hz
For longest wavelength frequency should be minimum so,
v = fmin max
330 = 30 × max
max = 11 m
8. (D)
Sol. As per question we have,
No. of claps in 1 second = 10
1
Time interval between two claps = = 0.1 s
10
Distance travelled by sound,
d = 2 × 17.5 m = 35 m
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -155
9. (A, B)
Sol. A wave transports Energy and Momentum.
10. (A, B, C)
Sol. Medium particles may oscillate to and fro in the direction of propagation of wave (in case of longitudinal
waves) or in the direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave (in case of transverse
waves).
11. (B, C, D)
Sol. The velocity of sound is affected by change in medium or change in temperature and density of medium
but it is independent of change in pressure at constant temperature.
12. (A, B, C, D)
Sol. Loudness of a sound wave is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibrating object.
Pitch of a sound wave depends on its frequency.
Quality or timbre depends upon the shape of the sound wave.
As per Doppler‘s effect in sound frequency of sound heard by a stationary listener is more than actual
frequency of sound if a source of sound moves towards it.
15. (5)
Sol. As we know distance between two consecutive crests is so,
= 2.5 cm
1
T= sec or f = 2 Hz
2
v = f
v = 2 × 2.5 = 5 cm/s
16. (3)
Sol. As we know,
v = f
= 500 × 0.2
= 100 m/s
So, time taken by wave to travel 300 m distance is,
300
t= 3s
100
17. (4)
Sol. As per question we have,
664
time taken by sound to reach other end of the tube in air is t1
332
664
time taken by sound to reach other end of the tube in metal is t 2
k (332)
So we have,
664 664
1.5
332 k 332
k=4
18. (2)
Sol. As we know in one oscillation medium particle crosses its mean position two time, so as per question
we have,
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -156
f = 100 Hz
100 oscillation in one second, so particle will cross its mean position 200 times in one second
19. (4)
Sol. As we know distance between two consecutive crest is so,
= 100 m
v = 25 m/s
v 25 1
Then, f = Hz
100 4
so, waves strike the boat every 4 second.
20. (1)
Sol. As we know a sound wave produces 1 compressions and 1 rarefaction in one oscillation so as per
question 60 oscillation are performed in 0.6 second so,
.6 1
T= sec ond
60 100
Or f = 100 Hz
21. (C)
–
Sol. CO and CN , both have 14 electrons each.
22. (A)
2 2 6 2 6 1
Sol. Orbital are filled in the order 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
23. (A)
Sol. Energy difference between first and second energy levels is very large.
24. (C)
13.6
Sol. En = eV
n2
25. (C)
–31
Sol. Mass of electrons is 9.1 × 10 kg.
26. (A)
h h 6.6 1034 kg m2 s1 –23 –1
Sol. or mc = 3 × 10 kg ms .
mc 2.2 1011m
27. (C)
Sol. Emission of one followed by two -particles produces isotopes.
28. (A)
Sol. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression 2(2 + 1) i.e. (4 + 2).
29. (B,C,D)
h
Sol. Angular momentum of an electron = n
2
30. (A,B)
Sol. Lower (n + ) value lower will be the energy of orbital. If (n + ) values same then lower value of ‗n‘ will
have lower energy.
31. (B,C)
Sol. An orbital can have maximum two electrons with opposite spins.
32. (A,B)
Sol. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom = 2(2 + 1).
Total number of subshells () in a shell (n) will be equal to ‗n‘ value.
36. (4)
2 2 6 2 5
Sol. E.C. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
For n = 2, l = 0, 1,
m = 0, 0 ± 1
So each m = 0 has two electrons and it total these will be four.
37. (8)
2
Sol. 2n rule.
40. (2)
2 2 2 1 1
Sol. 1s 2s 2p x 2p y 2p z
41. (C)
Sol. Knowledge base
42. (D)
Sol. Chords of a circle which are equidistant from the centre of the circle are equal.
43. (C)
Sol. Volume of earth taken out = volume of plateform
r H = lbh
2
22
3 3 10 22 10 x
7
x = 1.28
44. (A)
16
Sol. inner radius = 1 7cm
2
2
volume of milk that bowl can hold = r 3
3
2 22
= 7 7 7 = 718.66 cm
3
3 7
45. (B)
20
Sol. Edge of cube = cm = 5 cm,
4
2 2 2
Surface area = 6 × 5 cm = 150 cm
46. (D)
Sol. Probability of an event always lies between 0 and 1.
47. (A)
40 – 24 16 2
Sol. P(getting a head) =
40 40 5
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -158
48. (B)
Sol. Total no. of balls = 10
No. of white balls = 4
No. of non-white balls = 10 – 4 = 6
6 3
So, required probability =
10 5
49. (A, C, D)
Sol.
50. (B, D)
Sol. Let r1 and r2 be the radii of two cones and V1 and V2 be their volumes.
Let h be the height of the two cones, then
1 1
V1 = r12h and V2 = r12h
3 3
1 2
r h
V1 3 1 r2 9
12 ( r1 : r2 = 3 : 5)
v2 1 25
r22h r2
3
51. (A, C, D)
Sol. Knowledge base
52. (A, B, D)
Sol. Knowledge base
53. A –r; B – s; C – q; D – p
1 1
Sol. (A) ADC = AOC = × 90° = 45°
2 2
(Angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle formed by it on the remaining part of
the circle)
(B) BOC = 70° ( equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre).
OBC + OCB = 180° – 70° = 110°
OBC = 55° ( OB = OC OBC = OCB)
(C) Since angles in the same segment of a circle are equal
ADB = ACB = 75°
(D) Since PQR is an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle,
QPR = 60°
QOR = 2 × QPR = 120°
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -159
54. A –s; B – r; C – q; D – p
Sol. Knowledge base
55. (1)
Sol. Knowledge base
56. (4)
Sol. Knowledge base
57. (1)
(R – r )h = 748
2 2
Sol.
22 2 2
(9 r ) 14 = 748
7
r = 8 cm
thickness of pipe = 9 – 8 = 1 cm
58. (3)
Sol. (i) Join AB, which is the radius of both the circles.
(ii) AC = AD = BC = BD = radius
(iii) ABC and ABD are equilateral triangles, CAD = CBD = 120°
1 1
(iv) CED =CFD = CAD = CBD = 60°
2 2
(Angle at the centre is equal to half the angle at the circumference. )
1
(CED + CFD)
40
1
= (60° + 60°) =3
40
59. (2)
Sol. E = {4, 6}
n (E) = 2
60. (8)
Sol. Tail occurs = 20 – 12 = 8
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -160
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -161
Directions: In each of the following questions, there are six figures, the first and last of which are
unnumbered and the remaining are numbered as (A), (B), (C), and (D). These six figures form a
series. However, one of the four numbered figures does not fit into the series. The number of
that figure is the answer.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -162
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -163
12.
Direction: In each of the following questions, Select a figure form amongst the four alternatives,
which when placed in the blank space of fig. (X) would complete the pattern.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -164
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
Directions: In each of the following questions, form amongst the figures marked (A), (B), (C) and
(D), select the one which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dot as in fig. (X).
25.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -165
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -166
33.
34.
35.
36. A does half as much work as B in three-fourth of the time. If together they take 18 days to complete the
work, how much time shall B take to do it?
(A) 30 days (B) 35 days (C) 40 days (D) none of these
37. A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. The number of days, it takes B to do
the same piece of work, is:
1 1
(A) 6 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
4 2
38. A is thrice as good a workman as B and takes 10 days less to do a piece of work than B takes. B alone
can do the whole work in:
(A) 12 days (B) 15 days (C) 20 days (D) 30 days
39. A can do a piece of work in 14 days which B can do in 21 days. They begin together but 3 days before
the completion of the work, A leaves off. The total number of days to complete the work is:
3 1 1 1
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 13
5 2 5 2
40. A and B can do a piece of work in 72 days; B and C can do it in 120 days; A and C can do it in 90 days.
In what time can A alone do it?
(A) 150 days (B) 120 days (C) 100 days (D) 80 days
41. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, which B and C together can do in 16 days. After A
has been working at it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes in 13 days. In how many days C alone will
do the work?
(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 48
42. 45 men can complete a work in 16 days. Six days after they started working, 30 more men joined them.
How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -167
43. 12 men can complete a work in 18 days. Six days after they started working, 4 men joined them. How
many days will all of them take to finish the remaining work?
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 15
44. A job is completed by 10 men in 20 days and by 20 women in 15 days. How many days will it take for 5
men and 10 women to finish that work?
1 1 1
(A) 17 (B) 17 (C) 17 (D) 17
2 7 120
45. A piece of work can be done by 6 men and 5 women in 6 days or 3 men and 4 women in 10 days. It
can be done by 9 men and 15 women in:
(a) 1 day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 4 days
46. 4 men and 6 women finish a job in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women finish it in 10 days. In how many
days will 10 women working together finish it
(A) 24 (B) 32 (C) 36 (D) 40
47. 12 children take 16 days to complete a work which can be completed by 8 adults in 12 days. 16 adults
started working and after 3 days 10 adults left and 4 children joined them. How many days will it take
them to complete the remaining work?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 3
48. A and B working separately can do a piece of work in 9 and 12 days respectively, if they work for a day
alternately, A beginning, in how many days the work will be completed?
1 1 1 2
(A) 10 (B) 10 (C) 10 (D) 10
2 3 4 3
49. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 11 days, 20 days and 55 days respectively, working alone. How
soon can the work be done If A is assisted by B and C on alternate days?
(A) 7 days (B) 8 days (C) 9 days (D) 10 days
50. A father can do a job as fast as his two sons working together. If one son does the job in 3 hours and
the other in 6 hours, how many hours does it take the father to do the job?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -168
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -169
Solutions
1. (D)
Sol. Four and three half-leaves are lost from the figure alternately.
2. (D)
Sol. The number of line segments increases by two in one step and decreases by one in the next step. Also,
the line segments rotate through 90° in each step. There should be three vertical line segments in fig.
(D).
3. (D)
Sol. One line segment is added to the figure in each step (leading to the formation of complete squares in
three steps). These lines are added in the order left, upper, right, lower, left,
4. (A)
Sol. In one step, the arrow rotates 90°CW. In the next step, the arrow rotates through 180º and moves to the
adjacent corner of the square boundary in an ACW direction In fig. (A), the arrow must point in an
opposite direction.
5. (D)
Sol. In each step, the figure gets vertically inverted and a line segment gets added to it.
6. (A)
Sol. In one step, the arrow rotates 90°CW and moves two spaces (each space is equal to half-a-side of the
square boundary) in an ACW direction. In the next step, the arrow gets rotated through 180°. In fig. (A)
the arrow should point in the opposite direction.
7. (A)
Sol. In each step, each element gets laterally inverted; the RHS element moves to the LHS position and the
other two elements move one space to the right. In fig. (A), the element ‗S‘ must be laterally inverted.
8. (D)
Sol. Three and two line segments are added alternately in a set pattern. Figure (D) should have two 1es
number of line segments.
9. (B)
Sol. In each step, one side of the lower-right square disappears. These sides disappear in the sequence —
lower, upper, right, left. Once the lower-right square has disappeared completely, the same procedure
is repeated with the lower-left square and so on. In fig. (B), the upper side of the lower-right square
must have disappeared instead of the right side.
10. (C)
Sol. In one step, one element remains static while the other moves to the opposite corner (of the square
boundary) and gets replaced by a new element. In the next step, the second element remains static
while the first one moves to the opposite corner and gets replaced by a new element.
11. (A)
Sol. The figure rotates 90°ACW in each step.
12. (B)
Sol. The arrow reverses its direction in one step and moves to the other side of the central line in the next
step. The arrow should be in the opposite direction in figure (B)
13. (B)
Sol.
14. (D)
Sol.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -170
15. (B)
Sol.
16. (B)
Sol.
17. (A)
Sol.
18. (C)
Sol.
19. (D)
Sol.
20. (D)
Sol.
21. (C)
Sol.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -171
22. (D)
Sol.
23. (B)
Sol.
24. (C)
Sol.
25. (D)
Sol. In fig. (X), the dot is contained in the region common to the square and the circle only. Out of the four
alternatives, only fig. (D) contains a region common to the square and the circle only.
26. (C)
Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the square and the triangle and another dot lies
in the region common to the circle and the triangle. In each of the alternatives (A), (B) and (D), the
region common to the square and the triangle lies within the circle. Therefore, in each of these figures,
there is no region common to the square and the triangle only. Only the alternative (C) consists of a
region common to the square and the triangle only and another region common to the circle and the
triangle only. Hence, fig. (C) is the answer.
27. (C)
Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the triangle only and the other dot
lies in the circle alone. In each of the two figures (A) and (B), there is no region common to the circle
and the triangle only. In fig. (D) there is no region which lies in the circle alone. Only fig. (C) consists of
both the types of regions.
28. (D)
Sol. In fig. (X),.one of the dots lies in-the region common to the square and the triangle only and the other
dot lies in the region common to all the three figures — the circle, the square and the triangle. In each
of the alternatives (A) and (B), there is no region common to the square and the triangle only. In
alternative (C), there is no region common to all the three figures. Only, alternative (D) consists of both
the types of regions.
29. (D)
Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the rectangle only and the other
dot lies in the region common to the circle, the square and the triangle only. In each of the figures (A)
and (B), there is no region common to the circle and the rectangle only. In fig. (C), there is no region
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -172
common to the circle, the square and the triangle only. Only fig. (D) consists of both the types of
regions.
30. (A)
Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the square and the triangle only, another dot lies
in the region common to the circle and the triangle only and the third dot lies in the region common to
the triangle and the rectangle only. In fig. (B), there is no region common to the square and the triangle
only. In fig. (C), there is no region common to the circle and the triangle only. In fig. (D) there is no
region common to the triangle and the rectangle only. Only fig. (A) consists of all the three types of
regions.
31. (A)
Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the square alone, another dot lies in the triangle alone and the third dot
lies in the region common to the circle and the square. In fig. (B) there is no region that lies in the
square alone, in fig. (C) there is no region that lies in the triangle alone and in fig. (D) there is no region
that lies in the region common to the circle and the square only. Only fig. (A) Consists of all the three
types of regions.
32. (A)
Sol. In fig. (X‘, one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the square only. another dot lies in
the region common to all the three figures — the circle, the square and the triangle and the third dot lies
in the circle alone. In fig. (2) there is no region common to the circle and the square only and in each of
the figures (3) and (4) there are regions which lie in the circle alone. Only fig. (1) consists of all the three
types of regions.
33. (D)
Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the triangle only, another dot lies
in the region common to all the three figures—the circle, the square and the triangle and the third dot
lies in the region common to the circle and the square only. In each of the figures (A) and (C), there is
no region common to the circle and the square only and in fig. (B), there is no region common to the
circle and the triangle only. Only fig. (D) consists of all the three types of regions.
34. (D)
Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the rectangle only, another dot lies
in the region common to the circle, the square and the rectangle only and the third dot lies in the region
common to the circle, the square and the triangle only. In each of the figures (A) and (C) there is no
region common to the circle, the square and the rectangle only and in fig. (B), there is no region
common to the circle, the square and the triangle only. Only, fig, (D) consists of all the three types of
regions.
35. (B)
Sol. In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the triangle only, another dot lies
in the region common to the circle, the square and the triangle only and the third dot lies in the region
common to the circle, the square and the rectangle only. In each of the figures (A) and (C) there is no
region common to the circle and the triangle only. In fig. (D) there is no region common to the circle, the
square and the rectangle only. Only fig. (B) consists of all the three types of regions.
36. (A)
Sol. Suppose B takes x days to do the work.
3 3x
A takes 2 x
4 2
days to do it.
1
(A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work .
18
1 2 1
or x = 30.
x 3x 18
37. (C)
Sol. Ratio of times taken by A and B = 160 : 100 = 8 : 5
1
8 : 5 : : 12 : x or 8x = 5 × 12 or x = 7 days.
2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -173
38. (B)
Sol. Ratio of times taken by A & B = 1 : 3.
If difference of time is 2 days, B takes 3 days.
3
If difference of time is 10 days, B takes 10 15 days.
2
39. (C)
1 1
Sol. B‘s 3 day‘s work 3 .
21 7
1 6
Remaining work 1
7 7
1 1 5
(A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work .
14 21 42
5
Now, work is done by A and B in 1 day.
42
6 42 6 36
work is done by A and B in
5
Therefore days.
7 5 7
36 1
Total time taken 3 days = 10 days.
5 5
40. (B)
1 1
Sol. (A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work ,(B C) ‘s 1 day‘s work ,
72 120
1
(A + C)‘s 1 day‘s work .
90
1 1 1 12 1
Adding 2 (A + B + C)‘s 1 day‘s work 360 30 .
72 120 90
1
(A + B + C)‘s 1 day‘s work .
60
1 1 1
A‘s 1 day work 120 .
60 120
A alone can finish the work in 120 days.
41. (B)
Sol. (A + B)‘s 5 day‘s work + (B + C)‘s 2 day‘s work + C‘s 11 day‘s work = 1.
5 2
C's 11 day‘s work = 1
12 16
11
C‘s 11 day‘s work
24
11 1 1
C‘s 1 day‘s work .
24 11 24
C alone can finish it in 24 days.
42. (C)
Sol. (45 × 16) men can complete the work in 1 day.
1
1 man‘s 1 day‘s work .
720
1 3
45 men‘s 6 day‘s work 6 .
16 8
3 5
Remaining work 1 .
8 8
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -174
75 5
75 men‘s 1 day‘s work .
720 48
5
Now work is done by them in 1 day.
48
5 48 5
work is done by them in 6 days.
8 5 8
43. (A)
Sol. (12 × 18) men can complete the work in 1 day.
1
1 man‘s 1 day‘s work .
216
1 1
12 men‘s 6 day‘s work 6 .
18 3
1 2
Remaining work 1 .
3 3
16 2
16 men‘s 1 day‘s work .
216 27
2
work is done by them in 1 day.
27
2 27 2
work is done by them in 9 days.
3 2 3
44. (B)
Sol. Let 1 man‘s 1 day‘s work = x & 1 woman‘s 1 day‘s work = y.
1 1 1 1
Then, 10x = and 20y . So, x and y .
20 15 200 300
5 10 7
(5 men + 10 women)‘s 1 day‘s work .
200 300 120
120 1
So, they will finish the work in 17 days.
7 7
45. (C)
Ans. Let 1 man‘s 1 day‘s work = x & 1 woman‘s 1 day‘s work = y.
1 1
Then, 6x + 5y , 3x + 4y .
6 10
1 1
On solving, we get x and y .
54 90
9 15 1
(9 men + 15 woman)‘s 1 day‘s work .
54 90 3
They will finish the work in 3 days.
46. (D)
Sol. Let 1 man‘s 1 day‘s work = x & 1 woman‘s 1 day‘s work = y.
1 1
Then, 4x + 6y and 3x + 7y .
8 10
1
Solving, we get : y .
400
10 1
10 women‘s 1 day‘ work .
400 40
10 woman will finish the work in 40 days.
47. (A)
Sol. Let 1 child‘s 1 day‘s work = x & 1 adult‘s 1 day‘s work = y.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -175
1 1 1 1
Then, 12x or x and 8y or y .
16 192 12 96
1 1
Work done in 3 days 16 3 .
96 2
1 1
Work left 1 .
2 2
6 4 1
(6 adults + 4 children)‘s 1 day‘s work 12 .
96 192
1
work is done by them in 1 day.
12
1 1
work is done by them in 12 6 days.
2 2
48. (C)
1 1 7
Sol. (A + B)‘s 2 day‘s work .
9 12 36
7 35
Work done in 5 pairs of days 5 .
36 36
35 1
Remaining work 1 36 .
36
th
On 11 day, it is A‘s turn.
1
work is done by him in 1 day.
9
1 1 1
work is done by him in 9 day.
36 36 4
1
Total time taken 10 days.
4
49. (B)
1 1 31
Sol. (A + B)‘s 1 day‘s work 220 .
11 20
1 1 6
(A + C)‘s 1 day‘s wrok .
11 55 55
31 6 55 1
Work done in 2 days .
220 55 220 4
1
Now, work is done in 2 days.
4
Whole work will be done in (4 × 2) = 8 days.
50. (B)
1 1 1
Sol. Father‘s 1 hour‘s work .
3 6 2
Time taken by father to complete the work = 2 hours.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -176
The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – A contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – B contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – C contains 14 questions of Physics.
Section – D contains 14 questions of Chemistry.
Section – E contains 12 questions of Biology.
Each question carries +1 marks.
There is No negative marking.
Attempt All questions.
Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -177
SECTION – A (SST)
1. According to the Census 2011, the total population of India is:
(A) 1210 million (B) 1017 million (C) 928 million (D) 1128 million
5. An official enumeration of population along with certain economic and social statistics in a given area is
called the :
(A) Report (B) Population Density (C) Periodic survey (D) Census
8. According to National Health and Family Survey 1998-99, how much women and children were food
insecure ?
(A) 15 crore (B) 16 crore (C) 11 crore (D) 10 crore
10. Maximum impact of Green Revolution was observed in which of following state ?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Haryana (D) Orissa
12. At which price Government purchases food grains from farmers for buffer stock ?
(A) MSP (B) Issue Price (C) Controlled Price (D) None of these
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -178
19. The first Indian club, the Calcutta cricket club was established in :
(A) 1700 (B) 1791 (C) 1721 (D) 1792
23. Which of the following events was introduced by Mr. Kerry Packer ?
(A) Ranji Trophy Matches (B) Quadrangular tournament
(C) World Series Cricket (D) 5 day Test Match
27. The colours of France that became popular as sign of patriotic citizens were :
(A) Blue, Green, Yellow (B) Blue, Green, White (C) Blue, Red, Green (D) Blue, White, Red
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40. ‗Right to Constitutional Remedies‘ is the heart and soul of our Constitution. This was said by :
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Mahatma Gandhi
SECTION–B (MATHEMATICS)
41. If a month is selected at random in a year, then find the probability that the month is either March or
September.
1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
12 6 4
42. A dice is rolled 600 times and the occurrence of the outcomes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are given below in the
table.
Outcome 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency 200 30 120 100 50 100
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -180
44. The percentage of attendance of different classes in a year, in a school is given below.
Class X IX VIII VII VI V
Attendance 30 62 85 92 76 55
What is the probability that the class attendance is more than 75% ?
1 1 5 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 6 2
45. The runs scored by Sachin Tendulkar in different years is given below :
Year 1996-97 1997-98 1999- 2000-01 2001-02 2002-03 2003-04
2
0
0
0
Score 1000 3000 1000 5000 3000 8000 4000
What is the probability that in a year Sachin scores more than 3000 runs ?
3 1 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 4 4 8
46. To know the opinion of people about the political leaders, a survey on 1000 members was conducted.
The data recorded is shown in the following table.
Option Number of people
Like 200
Dislike 500
No opinion 300
Find the probability that a person chosen at random is with no opinion on political leaders.
1 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2 10 5
47. In the given figure, CDEF is a cyclic quadrilateral. CG and DH are the angle
bisectors of C and D respectively. If E = 100° and F = 110°, then find CPD.
(A) 105° (B) 80°
(C) 150° (D) 90°
48. In the figure shown (not to scale) the chords AC and BD intersect at E and
BAE = ECD + 20°. If CDE = 60°, find ABE
(A) 40° (B) 60°
(C) 80° (D) None of these
49. In the figure given along side, DE and FG are equal chords of the
circle subtending DHE and FHG at the point H on the circle. If
1
DHE = 23 , then find FHG.
2
1
(A) 27 (B) 30°
2
1
(C) 23 (D) 60°
2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -181
50. In the figure given below, O is the centre of the circle. If MPN = 55°, then find
1
the value of MON + OMN + MNO.
2
1
(A) 145° (B) 162
2
1
(C) 158 (D) 180°
2
51. In the shown figure, AC is the diameter. AB and AD are equal chords. If AED =
110°, then find BAD.
(A) 40° (B) 55°
(C) 110° (D) 120°
52. In the figure given below, O is the centre of the circle and CD = DE = EF = GF. If
COD = 40°, then find reflex COG.
(A) 200° (B) 90°
(C) 80° (D) 160°
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -182
53. In the figure given below(not to scale), D is point on the circle with
centre A and C is a point on the circle with centre B. AD BD and
BC CA . Then which of the following is true ?
(A) BD = AC, when AD = BC.
(B) BD = AC, when AD || BC
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) BD = AC is always true
54. Three cubes of sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively are melted and formed into a larger cube. What
is the side of the cube formed ?
(A) 7cm (B) 6 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 4 cm
55. If the ratio of the volumes of the spheres is 8 : 27, then the ratio of their surface areas is ___ .
(A) 4 : 9 (B) 9 : 4 (C) 4 : 3 (D) 2 : 9
3
56. The volume of a hemisphere is 18cm . What is the total surface area of the hemi-sphere ?
2 2 2 2
(A) 18 cm (B) 27 cm (C) 21 cm (D) 24 cm
2
57. A classroom is 5m long, 2.5 m broad and 3.6 m high. If each student is given 0.5 m of the floor area,
then how many cubic metres of air would each student get?
(A) 1.4 (B) 1.8 (C) 1.2 (D) 1.6
58. How many cubes each of total surface area 54 sq. dm can be made from a cube of edge of 1.2 metre.
(A) 64 (B) 81 (C) 125 (D) 25
59. A tank is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a cone of an equal radius. The height of the cone is
6 m and the total height of the tank is 18 m. Find the volume of the tank if the base radius of the
cylinder is 5 m.
3 3 3 3
(A) 1650 m (B) 1244 m (C) 1100 m (D) 2200 m
60. A water tank of dimensions 11 m × 6 m × 5 m is full of water. The tank is emptied through a pipe of
2
cross section 33 cm in 20 hours. Find the rate of flow of water (in kmph).
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 10
SECTION – C (PHYSICS)
61. What is the wavelength of radio waves received at 100 MHz on your radio
(A) 3m (B) 1m (C) 0.3 m (D) 10 m
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -183
67. A child hears the echo of a sound 4s after its reflection from a cliff. How far is the cliff from the child?
–1
[Take velocity of sound in air = 344 ms ]
(A) 1376 m (B) 688 m (C) 344 m (D) 172 m
68. The wavelength and frequency of a sound wave in a certain medium are 40 cm and 825 Hz,
respectively. In the same medium, if another sound wave has the wavelength equal to 33 cm, calculate
its frequency:
4
(A) 10 Hz (B) 0.1 Hz (C) 100 Hz (D) 1000 Hz
69. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower.
–2 –1
When is the splash heard at the top ? Given, g = 10 ms and speed of sound = 340 ms .
(A) 10 s (B) 10.5 s (C) 11 s (D) 11.5 s
71. Choose the wrong statement regarding waves among the following options :
(A) All non-mechanical waves are transverse in nature
(B) Mechanical waves can be either longitudinal or transverse
(C) For the propagation of mechanical waves it is essential that the medium must possess elasticity
and inertia
(D) If a wave is mechanical it must be longitudinal
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SECTION – D (CHEMISTRY)
75. Which of the following atoms has same number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus?
(A) Hydrogen (B) Deuterium (C) Tritium (D) None of these
80. The total number of orbitals possible for principal quantum number (n) is :
2 2
(A) n (B) n (C) 2n (D) 2n
83. In a given atom, no two electrons in an atom can have the same values of all the quantum numbers.
This is called :
(A) Hund‘s rule (B) Aufbau‘s principle
(C) Uncertainity principle (D) Pauli‘s exclusion principle
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -185
23 24
87. 11 Na and 12 Mg are :
(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars (C) Isodiaphers (D) Isotones
16 18
88. The ratio of nucleons in O and O is :
8 4 9
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
9 5 8
SECTION – E (BIOLOGY)
89. Gymnosperms differ from pteridophytes (gymnosperms are characterised by) :
(A) Naked ovule (B) Circinate ptyxis
(C) Leaf arrangement (D) abscence of vascular tissue
94. What is common among Silver fish, Scorpion, Crab and Honey Bee:
(A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Apical meristem (D) None of the above
99. Whittaker, in his system of classification included single celled, non-nucleated organisms in:
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Eukarya (D) Protozoa
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -188
1. (A)
Sol. India‘s population as on March, 2011 stood at 1210 million, which accounts for 17.5% of the world
population.
2. (C)
Sol. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq./km.
3. (C)
Sol. According to the Census of 2001, a person aged 7 years, and above who can read and write with
understanding in any language, is treated as literate.
4. (D)
Sol. Life expectancy at birth has increased from 36.7 years in 1951 to 64.7 years in 2011.
5. (D)
Sol. A Census is an official enumeration of population done periodically.
6. (D)
Sol. Availability, accessibility and affordability of food is called food security.
7. (C)
Sol. The most devastating famine that occurred in India was the Famine of Bengal in 1943.
8. (C)
Sol. According to the National Health and Family Survey 1998-99, the number of such women and children
is approximately 11 crore.
9. (B)
Sol. In 1968, wheat revolution was observed in India.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -189
10. (C)
Sol. The highest rate of growth was achieved in Punjab and Haryana.
11. (C)
Sol. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through
F.C.I.
12. (A)
Sol. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops. This price is called minimum support price.
13. (B)
Sol. Presently there are 5.5 Lakh ration shops in India.
14. (B)
Sol. The world‘s first cricket club was formed in Hambledon in the 1760s.
15. (D)
Sol. The first written ‗Laws of Cricket‘ were drawn up in 1744.
16. (D)
Sol. Australian Cricketer Dennis Lillee tried to play an innings with an aluminium bat.
17. (A)
Sol. Pads were first introduced in 1848.
18. (C)
Sol. Amateurs were called Gentlemen while Professionals had to be content with being described as
players.
19. (D)
Sol. The first Indian club, the Calcutta Cricket Club was established in 1972.
20. (D)
Sol. The Parsis founded the first Indian Cricket Club, the Oriental Cricket Club in bombay in 1848.
21. (A)
Sol. C.K. Nayudu was the first India‘s Captain.
22. (B)
Sol. Imperial Cricket Conference was renamed International Cricket Conference in 1965.
23. (C)
Sol. Kerry Packer an Australian was introduced World Series Cricket.
24. (C)
Sol. Sumptuary laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors, preventing them from
wearing certain clothes.
25. (A)
Sol. Ermine, fur, silk, velvet or brocade could be worn in France only by Royalty.
26. (C)
Sol. Jacobin clubs even called themselves the ―Sans Culottes to distinguish themselves from the aristocracy
who wore the fashionable ―Knee breeches‖.
27. (D)
Sol. Blue, white, red are the colours of France that became popular sign of patriotic citizens.
28. (C)
Sol. Suffrage movement means movement for Right to vote.
29. (C)
Sol. Slavery was abolished in Travancore in 1855.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -190
30. (A)
Sol. Shoe-respect was made stricter by Lord Dalhousie.
31. (D)
Sol. The movement launched against partition of Bengal in 1905 was Swadeshi movement.
32. (C)
Sol. Khadi became symbol of national movement.
33. (C)
Sol. Gandhiji first appeared in Lungi and Kurta in 1913 in Durban.
34. (A)
Sol. New York was attacked on 11 September 2001.
35. (B)
Sol. In Saudi Arabia the king is Hereditary.
36. (D)
Sol. According to Right to equality all citizens of India are equal before the law.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -191
37. (B)
Sol. Begar is a practice of forced labour.
38. (C)
Sol. A secular state is a state which doesn‘t support one religion.
39. (C)
Sol. According to cultural and educational Right, citizens have right to promote their language.
40. (B)
Sol. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said that ‗Right to Constitutional Remedies‘ is the heart and soul of our Constitution.
41. (B)
Sol. P(March or September) =
2
Total Number of Months in a year
2 1
= =
12 6
42. (A)
Sol. P(getting a prime number) =
Sum of frequences of getting prime numbers
total number of times dice rolled
30 120 50 200 1
=
600 600 3
43. (D)
Sol. (i) Probability of selecting a vowel
Number of vowel
=
Total number of letters
(ii) The word contains 3 vowels viz., O, I, E.
(iii) The total number of letters in the word are 6.
3 1
P(E) = =
6 2
44. (D)
Sol. P(the attendance of the class more than 75%)
number of classes with more than 75% atte ndance 3 1
= =
total number of classes 6 2
45. (A)
Sol. (i) Total years = 7
(ii) In the years 2000 – 01, 2002-03 and 2003–04, he scored more than 3000 runs.
(iii) Favorable years = 3
3
P(E) =
7
46. (B)
Sol. P (a person chosen with no opinion on political leaders)
number of persons with no opinion 300 3
= =
total number of persons surveyed 1000 10
47. (A)
Sol. C + D = 360° – (E + F)
1 1
(C + D) = 180° – (E + F)
2 2
1
= 180° – (100° + 110°)
2
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -192
1
(C + D) = 75°
2
1
(C + D) + CPD = 180°
2
CPD = 180° – 75°
= 105°
48. (A)
Sol. CDE = BAE ( angles in the same segment)
CDE = ECD + 20°
60° = ECD + 20°
ECD = 40°
ABE = 40° (angles in the same segment)
49. (C)
Sol. Equal chords subtend equal angles on the circumference of the circle.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -193
50. (B)
Sol. Angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it on the remaining part of
the circle.
MON = 110°
1
OMN = OMN = (180° – 110°) = 35°
2
1 35°
MON + OMN + MNO = 110° + 35° +
2 2
1
= 162
2
51. (A)
Sol. Join BD, ABDE is a cyclic quadrilateral.
ABD = 180° – 110° = 70°
ADB = 70° AB = AD)
BAD = 180° – 140°
40°
52. (A)
Sol. Join OD, OE and OF.
Equal chords subtend equal angles at the centre.
Reflex COG = 360° – 4 × 40° = 200°
53. (C)
2 2 2 2 2 2
Sol. (i) Join AB. Now using Pythagoras theorem AB = AD + DB and AB = AC + CB .
(ii) If BD = AC, then AD = BC.
(iii) If AD || BD , then AC || BD, so ABCD is a rectangle.
54. (B)
Sol. Volume of the larger cube = sum of the volumes of smaller cubes.
a = 27 + 64 + 125 = 216
3
a = 6 cm.
55. (A)
V1 r13 8
Sol.
V2 r23 27
r1 2
r2 3
r12 4
r22 9
S1 : S2 = 4 : 9
56. (B)
2 3
Sol. r 18
3
r = 3
T.S.A. = 3r
2
= 2
27 cm
57. (B)
Area of floor 12.5
Sol. No. of students = = 25
0.5 .5
Volume of the room
The amount of air, each student would get =
No. of students
5 2.5 3.6
= 1.8
25
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -194
58. (A)
2
Sol. (i) Edge (a) of small cube is to be found by using 6a = 54.
a = 3 dm. = 0.3 m.
(ii) Number of small cubes =
Volume of big cube 1.2 12 12
= 64
Volume of each small cube .3 .3 .3
59. (C)
Sol. Required volume is the sum of the volumes of conical part and cylindrical part.
1 1
V = r 2H r 2h
3 2
H
= r 2 h
3
22 6
= 5 5 12 [h = 18 – H = 18 – 6 = 12 m.]
7 3
22
= 5 5 14
7
3
V = 1100 m
60. (B)
Sol. 1100 × 600 × 500 = 33 × h
h = 10000000 cm.
h = 100000 m.
h = 100 km.
in 20 hrs., flow of water = 100 km.
in 1 hr., flow of water = 5 km.
rate of flow of water = 5 km/hr.
61. (A)
Sol. As we know speed of radio waves in air is,
8
v = 3 × 10 m/s
v 3 108
So, = 3m
f 100 106
62. (D)
Sol. Knowledge base
63. (D)
Sol. The speed of the sound wave in a given medium is independent of its frequency.
64. (A)
Sol. In slinky (long spring) both longitudinal waves and transverse waves can be produced.
65. (D)
Sol. Mechanical waves can‘t travel through vacuum.
66. (A)
Sol. Knowledge Base
67. (B)
Sol. Let the distance of the cliff from the child = d
Total distance traveled by the sound, S = 2d
Time take, t = 4s
Distance of the cliff, d = ?
Distance
Velocity
Time
2d
v=
t
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -195
v t 344 4
d = d 688 m
2 2
Distance of the cliff = 688 m
68. (D)
Sol. Given = 40 cm = 0.4 m, f = 825 Hz
–1
v = f × = 825 × 0.40 = 330 ms
In the second case, since medium is the same, the velocity of sound will remain the same.
–1
Now, v = 330 ms , = 33 cm = 0.33 m
From v = f
v 330
f 1000 Hz
0.33
69. (D)
–1 –2
Sol. Here, s = 500 m, u = 0 ms , g = 10 ms
1
Using s = ut gt 2
2
1
Or 500 = 0 10t 2
2
2
Or t = 100
Or t = 10s
So, the stone reaches the pond is 10 s.
–1
Now, given that, speed of sound = 340 ms
500
Time taken sound to cover 500 m = 1.5 sec.
340
Total time taken = (10 + 1.5)s = 11.5 s
The splash will be heard at the top after 11.5 s
70. (A)
Sol. Knowledge base
71. (D)
Sol. Knowledge base
72. (B)
Sol. Knowledge base
73. (A)
Sol. Knowledge base
74. (B)
Sol. Hertz is unit of frequency and it is inverse of second.
75. (B)
Sol. Deuterium has one proton and one neutron in its nucleus.
76. (D)
–
Sol. H and He, both have 2-electrons.
77. (A)
Sol. Rutherford‘s experiment could explain scattering of -particles by thin metal foils.
78. (D)
h 5h h
Sol. Angular momentum = n 2.5
2 2 2
79. (B)
Sol. E/m has maximum value for electron as its value of ‗m‘ is least.
80. (B)
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -196
2
Sol. The number of orbitals in an energy level = n
81. (D)
Sol. Protons and neutrons together are known as nucleons.
82. (C)
2+
Sol. He has no electrons.
83. (D)
Sol. Pauli‘s exclusion principle states that no two electrons can have same values of quantum numbers.
84. (B)
Sol. For n = 2, ‗‘ can not be 2 so 2d is not permitted.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -197
85. (C)
th
Sol. When = 2, it means d-subshell, n = 5 means 5 energy level. So it is 5d subshell.
86. (C)
Sol. The element with atomic number = 15 is phosphorus.
87. (D)
23 24
Sol. 11 Na and 12 Mg contain same number of neutrons, therefore these are isotones.
88. (A)
16 18
Sol. The no. of nucleons in O and O are 16 and 18 respectively.
89. (A)
Sol. Ovule is absent in pteridophytes whereas it is present in Gymnosperms but is naked.
90. (B)
Sol. Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom. Although they are land plants they require
water for their sperms to swim towards eggs.
91. (B)
Sol. Pteridophytes are the first land plants with vascular tissue present in them.
92. (B)
Sol. Xylem vessels are absent in all other plant groups except Angiosperms
93. (C)
Sol. In monocots floral parts are in multiple of three.
94. (C)
Sol. Silver fish, Scorpion, Crab and Honey Bee are arthropods because they have jointed legs.
95. (B)
Sol. Plant and animals are eukaryotic.
96. (B)
Sol. Coelenterates have tissue level of organization.
97. (C)
Sol. Porifera has a porous body with water canal system.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -198
98. (A)
Sol. Arthropoda is the largest phylum with maximum number of organisms present in it.
99. (A)
Sol. Whittaker included unicellular non-nucleated or prokaryotic organisms in the group Monera.
100. (B)
Sol. Roundworms are pseudocoelmate whereas flatworms are Acoelomate.
******
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with HB Pencil only.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work
8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :
1. The question paper consists of 50 questions.
2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -199
Enrolment No. :
Name : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
CENTRE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
1. (A) Would you help my brother I shall get you a decent job.
(B) Had you helped my brother I shall get you a decent job.
(C) Did you help my brother I shall get you a decent job.
(D) Should you help my brother I‘ll get you a decent job.
2. (A) She is more intelligent than any other boy in the class.
(B) She is more intelligent than any girl in the class.
(C) She is more intelligent than any other girl in the class.
(D) She is the most intelligent than any other girl in the class.
3. (A) Anita was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple, with her lap full of newspapers, when
Bunty and Bitto came up.
(B) Anita with her lap full of newspapers was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when
Bunty and Bitto came up.
(C) With her lap full of newspapers Anita was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when
Bunty and Bitto came up.
(D) Anita was sitting with her husband on the steps of the temple when Bunty and Bittu came up with
her lap full of newspapers.
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -200
II. Correct the errors in the following sentences. Some of them may not have errors:
8. All that I wish to tell you is that you better revise this essay.
(A) should better (B) could better (C) had better (D) no improvement
9. Whenever Suresh gets into trouble he makes a story to get out of it.
(A) makes for (B) makes out (C) makes up (D) no improvement
10. I had given him a lot of money, but he ran up it in a couple of weeks.
(A) ran into (B) ran down (C) ran through (D) no improvement
13. The members swore on the constitution to uphold the integrity of the country.
(A) by (B) at (C) upon (D) no improvement
III. Select the option that best explains the following idioms/phrases:
18. To browbeat
(A) to bully (B) to chase (C) to give a hint (D) to revive old
friendship
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -201
19. In tatters
(A) in prison (B) under mortgage (C) ruined (D) under confusion
IV. Select the correct meaning of the keyword from the option given:
24. The man lives long through his good deeds after he had died.
(A) beneficial (B) benevolent (C) beneficent (D) benediction
25. The field was even enough for the joggers to have their practice.
(A) plane (B) plain (C) plan (D) plaine
V. Select the word that means the opposite of the keyword from the options given:
26. SCANTY
(A) arrogant (B) plentiful (C) painful (D) handsome
27. INQUISITIVE
(A) insincere (B) indifferent (C) insensitive (D) insulting
28. PANICKY
(A) confident (B) sober (C) quiet (D) calm
29. MOURNFUL
(A) playful (B) joyous (C) laughable (D) humorous
30. SURVIVAL
(A) evolution (B) development (C) creation (D) extinction
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -202
VI Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentences :
31. Shalini was not …. by the criticism and paid no.... even when her best friend talked against her.
(A) bothered; attention (B) troubled; mind (C) threatened; warning (D) deterred; head
32. He preaches liberal views but in practice, he is not … and is … narrow-minded than almost any other
person.
(A) hard; openly (B) tolerant; more (C) ambitious; hardly (D) acceptable;
genuinely
33. The police was at last able to … the … of her disappearance from her husband‘s home
(A) reveal; secret (B) expose; mystery (C) confirm; doubt (D) solve; mystery
35 The police … any attempt of arson by … at the trouble spot quite in time.
(A) squashed; surrounding (B) made; encircling (C) pre-empted; arriving (D) thwarted;
presenting
VII. Read the paragraph below that has gaps. Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks :
We are citizens of no mean country and we are … 36. …. of the land of our birth, of our people, our
culture and our … 37 … That pride should not be for a romanticized past to which we have to …38…
nor should it encourage exclusiveness or a want of …. 39… of other ways than our own. It must never
allow us to … 40…. our many weaknesses and failings or …. 41…. our longing to be rid of them. We
have a long way to go and much leeway to make … 42 …. before we take our proper … 43 .... with
others in the van of human civilization and progress. And we have to … 44 … for the time at our
disposal is … 45… .
46. He as well as you is tired of this long and troublesome affair. No error
a b c d e
47. Along the northern frontier of India is seen the Himalayas mighty in their splendour. No error
a b c d e
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -203
49. Our country need a number of self sacrificing and devoted political leaders.
a b c d
50. The alarmed report of an earthquake frightened everyone in that disaster prone village.
a b c d
******
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IIT-JEE_SDAW37B1-P1-(SET-A)-PCM -204
LANGUAGE (ENGLISH)
SET (A)
ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (A)
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