1. What are the simplest whole-number coefficients that balance this equation?

. . . C4H10 + . . . O2 → . . . CO2 + . . . H2O

A. 1, 6, 4, 2
B. 2, 13, 8, 10
C. 1, 6, 1, 5
D. 3, 10, 16, 20
E. 4, 26, 16, 20
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The correct coefficients are 2, 13, 8, and 10.

2. How many atoms are present in the formula KAl(SO4)2?

A. 7
B. 9
C. 11
D. 12
E. 13
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) 1K + 1Al + 2S + 8O = 12 total

3. All of the following are compounds EXCEPT

A. copper sulfate
B. carbon dioxide
C. washing soda
D. air
E. lime
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Air is a mixture; all others are compounds. Washing soda (C) is sodium carbonate, and lime (E) is
calcium oxide.

4. What volume of gas, in liters, would 2 moles of hydrogen occupy at STP?

A. 11.2
B. 22.4
C. 33.6
D. 44.8
E. 67.2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) One mole of a gas at STP occupies 22.4 L. So two moles of a gas at STP occupy 2.0 mol × 22.4 L =
44.8 L.

5. What is the maximum number of electrons held in the d orbital?

A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
E. 14
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The maximum number of electrons in each kind of orbital is:
s = 2 in one orbital
p = 6 in three orbital
d = 10 in five orbital
f = 14 in seven orbital
6. If an element has an atomic number of 11, it will combine most readily with an element that has an
electron configuration of
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4
E. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
(E) The element with atomic number 11 is sodium with 1 electron in the 3s orbital. It would readily
combine with the element that has 3p5 as the outer orbital since it needs only 1 more electron to fill it.

7. An example of a physical property is

A. rusting
B. decay
C. souring
D. low melting point
E. high heat of formation
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The only physical property named in the list is low melting point.

8. A gas at STP that contains 6.02 × 1023 atoms and forms diatomic molecules will occupy
A. 11.2 L
B. 22.4 L
C. 33.6 L
D. 67.2 L
E. 1.06 qt
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) If the gas is diatomic, then 6.02 × 1023 atoms will form 6.02 × 1023/2 molecules. At STP, 6.02 ×
1023 molecules occupy 22.4 L, so half that number will occupy 11.2 L.

9. When excited electrons cascade to lower energy levels in an atom,

A. visible light is always emitted
B. the potential energy of the atom increases
C. the electrons always fall back to the first energy level
D. the electrons fall indiscriminately to all levels
E. the electrons fall back to a lower unfilled energy level
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
(E) Cascading excited electrons can fall only to lower energy levels that are unfilled.

10. Mass spectroscopy uses the concept that

A. charged particles are evenly deflected in a magnetic field
B. charged particles are deflected in a magnetic field inversely to the mass of the particles
C. particles of heavier mass are deflected in a magnetic field to a greater degree than lighter particles
D. particles are evenly deflected in a magnetic field
E. None of above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Mass spectroscopy uses a magnetic field to separate isotopes by bending their path. The lighter ones
are bent farther than the heavier ones

11. The bond that includes an upper and a lower sharing of electron orbital is called
A. a pi bond
B. a sigma bond
C. a hydrogen bond
D. a covalent bond
E. an ionic bond
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The pi bond is a bond between two p orbital, like this:

12. What is the boiling point of water at the top of Pikes Peak?
A. It is 100°C.
B. It is >100°C since the pressure is less than at ground level.
C. It is <100°C since the pressure is less than at ground level.
D. It is >100°C since the pressure is greater than at ground level.
E. It is <100°C since the pressure is greater than at ground level.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) At Pikes Peak (alt. approx. 14,000 ft) the pressure is lower than at ground level; therefore the vapor
pressure at a lower temperature will equal the outside pressure and boiling will occur.

13. The atomic structure of the alkane series contains the hybrid orbitals designated as
A. sp
B. sp2
C. sp3
D. sp3d2
E. sp4d3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The alkanes contain the sp3 hybrid orbitals.

14. Which of the following is (are) true for this reaction?

Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2H2O + 2NO2(g)
I. It is an oxidation-reduction reaction.
II. Copper is oxidized.
III. The oxidation number of nitrogen goes from +5 to +4.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
(E) I, II, and III are correct.
15. Which of the following properties can be attributed to water?
I. It has a permanent dipole moment attributed to its molecular structure.
II. It is a very good conductor of electricity.
III. It has its polar covalent bonds with hydrogen on opposite sides of the oxygen atom, so that the
molecule is linear.
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Only I is correct.

16. All of the following statements are true for this reaction EXCEPT
HCl(g) + H2O(l) → H3O+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
A. H3O+ is the conjugate acid of H2O.
B. Cl- is the conjugate base of HCl.
C. H2O is behaving as a Brønsted-Lowry base.
D. HCl is a weaker Brønsted-Lowry acid than H2O.
E. The reaction essentially goes to completion.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) HCl is actually a stronger Brønsted-Lowry acid than H2O, which is why the reaction occurs as shown.

17. A nuclear reactor must include which of the following parts?

I. Electric generator
II. Fissionable fuel elements
III. Moderator
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) I is not necessary for the reactor, but often nuclear energy is used to oper ate an electric generator.
The others, II and III, are necessary for fuel and neutron-speed control, respectively.

18. Which of the following salts will hydrolyze in water to form basic solutions?
I. NaCl
II. CuSO4
III. K3PO4
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) III is a salt from a strong base and a weak acid, which hydrolyzes to form a basic solution with water.

19. When 1 mole of NaCl is dissolved in 1,000 grams of water, the boiling point of the water is changed to
A. 100.51°C
B. 101.02°C
C. 101.53°C
D. 101.86°C
E. 103.62°C
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Since the boiling point is increased by 0.51°C for each mole of particles, 1 mol of NaCl → Na + +
Cl- gives 2 mol of particles. Therefore the boiling point will be 1.02° higher or 101.02°C.

20. What is the structure associated with the BF3 molecule?

A. Linear
B. Trigonal planar
C. Tetrahedron
D. Trigonal pyramidal
E. Bent or V-shaped
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The VSEPR model shows BF3 is trigonal planar and so is related to the triangle shape on one plane.

21.

What letter designates an error in this laboratory setup?

A. A (upper part of tube)
B. B (lower part of tube)
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The delivery tube is below the fluid level in the flask and will cause liquid to be forced up the thistle
tube when gas is evolved in the reaction.

22.
If the reaction in question 44 created a gas, where would the contents of the flask be expelled under
these conditions?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) At first the fluid will be expelled up the thistle tube by the gas generated and exerting pressure in the
reaction flask. When the level of the fluid falls below the end of the thistle tube, the gas will then be
released through the thistle tube.

23. The most active nonmetal has

A. a high electro-negativity
B. a low electro-negativity
C. a medium electro-negativity
D. large atomic radii
E. a deliquescent property
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The most active nonmetal has a high attraction for another electron- thus high electro-negativity.